<<

Booklet Test Registration No. ______code

A

The Maharaja Sayajirao University of Baroda Faculty of Science ADMISSION ENTRANCE EXAMINATION SUBJECT: Five Year Integrated M.Sc. in Cell & Molecular th DAY: Thursday DATE: 13 June 2019 TIME: 02:00 Pm to 04:00 pm

Important Instructions:

1. This test booklet is to be opened only when instructed by the invigilators to do so. 2. This booklet carries 100 questions on 14 printed pages. All questions carry equal marks. 3. For every correct answer, candidate will earn 1 mark. 0.25 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. 4. Test Registration Number must be entered correctly in the OMR sheet, as advised by the invigilators. The Question Booklet code (A, B, C, or D) must also be mentioned on the OMR sheet (if not printed already) as instructed. 5. Answers must be marked in the OMR sheet using a black or dark blue ball point pen only. The circle should be filled in completely, leaving no gaps. Incorrect ways of marking answer:

Correct way of marking answer: A B C D A B C D A B C D

A B C D

6. Gadgets (mobile phone, smart watch, ear phone, music players, etc.)

are strictly prohibited in the exam hall. If any candidate is found in possession of any of these at his/her exam seat, he/she is liable to be disqualified.

CMB Entrance Exam Page 1

Invigilator’s signature______

Five Year Integrated M.Sc. in Cell & Faculty of Science The M. S. University of Baroda Vadodara Entrance Test - 2019 Part-A

GENERAL APTITUDE &GENERAL KNOWLEDGE QUESTIONS

No. Questions Ans wer 1 What is the color of the Golden Gate Bridge located in San Francisco? A. Red B. International Orange C. Dark Byzantium D. Earth Yellow 2 Who is the current captain of the Indian football team? A. Sunil Chhetri B. Pronay Halder C. Subrata Pal D. Anirudh Thapa 3 How long does a train, 75 m long, moving at 60 km/hr take to pass a certain telegraph post? A. 3.5 seconds B. 4 seconds C. 4.5 seconds D. 6 seconds

4 How many words with or without meaning, can be formed by using all the letters of the word, ‘ORANGE’, using each letter exactly once? A. 700 B. 720 C. 750 D. 800

5 On an election day Santhosh walked from a place, 10 km towards South to reach the polling station, then turned left up to 2 km, then took a right turn, and took another 4 kms walk. Again he turned right and walked for 12 kms and took a 14 km walk by turning to North, and there he could see the polling station at a 12 km distance after taking a right turn. In which direction is the polling station situated, with respect to the starting point?

A. North B. East C. South D. West

6 Fill the blank in the series deb ijg nol ___ xyv. a. rsp b. stp c. rsq d. stq

7 The current ICC cricket world cup in 2019 is being hosted by A. England B. England and Wales C. England and Scotland D. England and Ireland 8 Eating 12 grapes at midnight on New Year's Eve is both a tradition and a superstition in which country

CMB Entrance Exam Page 2

A. Norway B. Spain C. Russia D.Bulgaria

9 The GST council has fitted over 1300 goods and 500 services under how many GST tax slabs in India A. 2 B. 3 C. 5 D. 4 10 Tom’s age after 15 years will be 5 times his age 5 years back. What is the present age of Tom? A. 2.5 years B. 10 years C. 9 years D. 5 years 11 The length of a rectangular plot is 5 1/3, times that of its breadth. If the area of the plot is 270 square metres, then what is its perimeter? A. 101 m B. 90 m C. 120 m D. 125 m 12. Rigveda Samhita is divided into ten books. What are the books called? A. Shreni B. Mandalas C. Upanishads D. Puranas

13 Which was the first remote sensing mission undertaken by ISRO? A. IMS1 B. IRS-1A C. SARAL D. Aryabhatt

14 If South-East becomes North, North-East becomes West and so on. What will West become? A. North-East B. North-West C. South-East D. South-West

15. Which of the following nobel laureate also won Bharat Ratna award? A. Rabindra nath tagore B. Amartya Sen C. Kailash Satyarthi D. Venkatraman Ramakrishnan

Part B- and PHYSICS

16 What is the correct IUPAC name of the following compound?

A. (E)-Oct-5-en-3-yne B. (E)-Oct-3-en-5-yne C. (Z)-Oct-5-en-3-yne D. (Z)-Oct-3-en-5-yne 17 Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of reactivity, when treated with a base.

CMB Entrance Exam Page 3

A. I > II > III B. II > III > I C. I > III > II D. III > I > II 18 Which of the following compounds will react with Grignard reagent to give 3o alcohol?

A. I, II and III B. Only II C. I and II D. II and IV 19 What is the major product in the following reaction?

A. PhCH2OCH2Ph

B. PhCH2NHNO

C. PhCH2OH

D. PhCH3

20 On electrolysis which of the following does not give oxygen? A. Acidic water, using Pt electrodes B. Fused NaOH using Pt electrodes C. Dilute H2SO4 using Pt electrodes D. Dilute H2SO4 using Cu electrodes

21 Bakelite is made from phenol and formaldehyde. The initial reaction between the two compounds is an example of: A. Aromatic electrophilic substitution B. Aromatic nucleophilic substitution C. Free radical reaction D. Aldol condensation 22 Complete hydrolysis of cellulose gives: A. D-Ribose B. D-Fructose C. L-Glucose D. D-Glucose 23 If the salt bridge is removed suddenly from a working cell, the voltage: A. Increases B. Decreases C. Drops to zero D. May increase or decrease depending on cell reaction 24 A liquid is in equilibrium with its vapours at its boiling point. On average the molecules in the two phases have equal:

CMB Entrance Exam Page 4

A. Intermolecular forces B. Potential energy C. Kinetic energy D. Total energy 25 99 % of a first order reaction completes in 32 minutes, therefore, 99.9 % reaction will complete in. A. 51 minutes B. 64 minutes C. 60 minutes D. 48 minutes 26 Among LiCl, NaCl, KCl and MgCl, the salt _____ has covalent character. A. LiCl B. NaCl C. KCl D. MgCl

27 Choose the correct properties of Ψ A. Finite and imaginary B. Infinite and multiple value C. Finite and single value D. Real and multiple 28 Iodine can exist in the oxidation states: A. +1, +3, +5 B. -1, +1, +3 C. +3, +5. +7 D. -1, +1, +3, +5, +7 29 Which of the following will form chelate: A. Ethylenediamine B. Ammonia C. Aniline D. Cyanide 30 In nature, Mg2+ is present in which of the following Complex/compound? A. Chlorophyll B. Carotene C. Haemoglobin D. Vitamin-C

31 Octahedral geometry in a complex will be produced by ______hybridization A. sp3 B. d2sp3 C. sp2 D. d2sp2 32 Two isotonic solutions will have same: A. Vapour pressure B. Boiling point C. Freezing point D. Osmotic pressure 33 Identify the correct statement regarding enzymes: A. Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that can normally function at very high temperatures (T ~1000 K). B. Enzymes are normally heterogeneous catalysts that are very specific in their action. C. Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that cannot be poisoned D. Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that possess well defined active sites. 34 Dissolving 120 g of urea (mol wt 60) in 1000g of water gave a solution of density 1.15 g/mL. The molarity of the solution is CMB Entrance Exam Page 5

A. 1.78 M B. 2.00 M C. 2.1 M D. 2.22 M

35 Marsh gas is a mixture of A. H2, O2 and CO2 B. H2O, CH4, CO2 C. CH4, H2S, CO2 D. C2H4, H2S, CO 36 For a radioactive material, half-life is 10 minutes. If initially there are 600 number of nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the disintegration of 450 nuclei is :- A. 20 B. 10 C. 30 D. 15

37 A pendulum is hung from the roof of a sufficiently high building and is moving freely to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum is 20 m/s2 at a distance of 5 m from the mean position. The time period of oscillation is:- A. 2π s B. π s C. 2 s D. 1S 38 The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working between the freezing point and boiling point of water, is A. 26.8% B. 20% C. 6.25% D. 12.5% 39 The electrostatic force between the metal plates of an isolated parallel plate capacitor C having a charge Q and area A, is :- A. independent of the distance between the plates. B. linearly proportional to the distance between the plates C. proportional to the square root of the distance between the plates. D. inversely proportional to the distance between the plates.

40 A geosynchronous satellite is one which A. Revolves around the earth in the same speed as that of the earth’s revolution around the sun B. Revolves around the earth in the same speed as that of the earth’s rotation around its axis C. Its period of revolution matches the period of revolution of the moon D. None of the above 41 When light waves travel from a denser to a rarer medium, what happens? A. There is refraction of light irrespective of the angle of incidence B. There is total internal reflection when the angle of incidence is smaller than the critical angle C. There is total internal reflection when the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle D. Both (a) and (b)

CMB Entrance Exam Page 6

42 The ear of some animals can distinguish ultrasonic sound waves, but not human ear. What is the frequency of ultrasonic sound waves? A. They have frequency lower than 10 milli Hz B. They have frequency lower than 10 kilo Hz C. They have frequency higher than 20 kilo Hz D. They have frequency higher than 20 milli Hz 43 Two balls of masses 2 kg and 3 kg slide along a frictionless horizontal surface with speeds of 4 m/s and 2 m/s, respectively. After an inelastic collision, the balls stick together and move at a speed of 2 m/s. What direction did the two balls move before the collision? A. In the same direction B. In opposite directions C. At an angle not equal to 0° or 180° D. Not enough information given to select an answer

44 A loop of current creates a magnetic field. How can you increase the strength of this magnetic field? A. By increasing the number of loops B. By increasing the current flowing through the loop C. By increasing the diameter of the loop D. Both (a) and (b) 45 Which of the following two paths need more work to push a unit charge in a uniform electric field in between two fixed points A and B? (i) (ii) (iii)

A. Path (i) B. Path (ii) C. Path (iii) D. Work done is same for all the three paths 46 Two resistors, R1 and R2 are connected to a battery producing a voltage V. Then which of the following is true?

A. unequal current flows through R1 and R2 if connected in series B. There is equal voltage across R1 and R2 if connected in series C. There is equal voltage across R1 and R2 if connected in parallel D. There is equal current flowing through R1 and R2 if connected in parallel 47 Which of the following statements is the zeroeth law of thermodynamics? A. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed

CMB Entrance Exam Page 7

B. The entropy of the universe is increasing C. If two systems A and B are in thermal contact, then they are at the same temperature with a third body in thermal contact with A and /or B D. The entropy of the universe is zero at 0 K.

48 What is the viscous drag experienced by a small particle of size 20 Å moving through a fluid of viscosity 20 Pascal-sec at a constant speed of 20 m/s ? A. 0.8 X 10-12 kg-m-s-2 B. 1.5 X 10-11 kg-m-s-2 C. 1.5 X 10-11 m-s-2 D. None of the above 49 Which experiment can prove that light consists of particles called photons? A. Bragg diffraction B. Interference of light C. Photoelectric effect D. Photovoltaic effect 50 If the refractive index of a plano-convex lens is 1.6 and the radius of curvature is 60 cm then the focal length of the lens is

A. 50 B. 100 C. -50 D. -100 51 Which of the following phenomena is used in optical fibre? A. reflection B. total internal reflection C. interference D. scattering 52 Twelve wires of equal resistance r are joined to form a cube. The effective resistance between two diagonal ends will be____

A. 3r B. 5r/6 C. 6r/5 (D. 12r

53 A bar magnet is released from rest along the axis of a very long, vertical copper tube. After some time the magnet A. Will stop in the tube B. will move with constant speed C.Will move with an acceleration g D. will oscillate 54 Let Cv and Cp are the molar heat capacities of an ideal gas at constant volume and constant pressure respectively. Which of the following is a universal constant? A. Cp/Cv B. Cp Cv C. Cp - Cv D. Cp + Cv

55 An AND gate can be prepared by repetitive use of A. NOT gate B. OR gate C. NAND gate D. XOR gate Part C (for Biology subject) 56 NADPH is generated in which of the following pathway? A. Kreb’s cycle B. Pentose Phosphate pathway CMB Entrance Exam Page 8

C. Glycolysis D. Urea cycle 57 Reptiles and birds are mainly A. Ureotelic B. Ammonotelic C. Uricotelic D. None 58 Diabetes insipidus condition A. occurs due to hyposecretion of insulin by pancreas. B. urine contains excessive sugar (glucose). C. occurs due to over-secretion of vasopressin. D. occurs due to under-secretion of vasopression leading to very dilute urine and hence constantly feels thirsty. 59 A linear peptide is made up of 6 residues of an amino acid of molecular weight 118Da. The molecular weight of the peptide will be A. 618 B. 690 C. 600 D. 708

60 The causative agent of scalded skin syndrome is A. Salmonella typhi B. Shigella sonnie C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Mycobacterium fortuitum 61 Which of the following is an imino acid: A. Proline B. Histidine C. Cysteine D. Glycine 62 In SDS-PAGE, the SDS imparts A. Uniform negative charge per unit length of protein B. Uniform negative charge irrespective of protein length C. Uniform positive charge per unit length of protein D. Uniform positive charge irrespective of protein length 63 BCG vaccine is derived by attenuating A. Mycobacterium avium B. Mycobacterium bovis C. Mycobacterium vaccae D. Mycobacterium fortuitum 64 Average molecular weight of an amino acid is A. 11 dalton B. 110 dalton C. 1100 dalton D. 110 kilodalton 65 Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) was invented by A. Fredrick Sanger B. Kary Mullis C. David Baltimore D. Arthur Kornberg 66 Antibody present in colostrum (milk secreted by mother during initial days of lactation) is.

A. IgA B. IgG C. IgD D. IgM

CMB Entrance Exam Page 9

67 Syphilis is caused by

A.Neisseria gonorrhoeae B. Treponema pallidum

C.Trichomonas vaginalis D. Candida albicans

68 In the Stanley Miller’s experiment, the formation of ….. was observed. A.Nucleotides B. Polypeptides C.Amino acids D. Nucleic acids 69 Which of the following techniques will be useful for tracing the origin of particular tribe? A. blood grouping. B. mitochondrial DNA analysis. C. DNA fingerprinting. D. karyotyping. 70 Bacterial infection can be treated by an antibiotic that blocks protein synthesis. why it does not affect human cell? A. Human and bacterial ribosomes are different B. Antibiotic molecules can’t enter human cells. C. Antibiotic gets degraded by human cell. D. different genetic code of human and bacteria. 71 In phloem and xylem the transport is A. Unidirectional ,bidirectional respectively B. Bidirectional and active transoport respectively C. Active transport and unidirectional respectively D. Bidirectional and unidirectional respectively 72 In an animal cell after removal of nuclei DNA is still present. The source is A. Peroxisome B. Lysosome C. Chloroplast D. Mitochondria 73 A heterozygous colorblind woman marries a color blind man. What is the ratio of carrier daughters, color blind daughters, normal sons and color blind sons in F1 generation? A. 1:2:2:1 B. 1:1:1:1 C. 2:1:1:2 D. 1:1:2:2 74 Full form of RNAi is

A. Ribonucleic acid interference B. Ribonucleic acetate inhibition C. Ribonucleic aspartate integration D. Ribosome nucleic acid inhibition 75 Polysome is involved with

A. Transcription B. Replication C. Translation D. Post transcription 76 The glucose homeostasis is maintained in the body by

A. Insulin B. Glucagon

CMB Entrance Exam Page 10

C. Insulin & Glucagon D. Somatostatin 77 Respiratory pathways are more appropriately called

A. amphibolic pathway B. catabolic pathway

C. anabolic pathway D. none of the above

78 Erythroblastosis foetalis, mismatch of the blood grouping can happen with

A. Rh negative mother with Rh positive first child B. Rh positive mother with Rh positive first child C. Rh negative mother with Rh positive second child D. Rh positive mother with Rh negative second child 79 HIV is a retrovirus, and it incorporate

A. Its DNA into the host genome B. Its RNA into the host genome C. Its protein into the host genome D. none of the above 80 MRSA refers to A. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus B. Methicillin-responsive Staphylococcus aureus C. Most resistant Staphylococcus aureus D. Minimal responsive Staphylococcus aureus 81 Which of the following is a polysaccharide of animal origin A. Pectin B. Cellulose C. Chitin D. Arabinoxylans 82 At meta phase, chromosomes are attached to the spindle fibres by

A. Satellites B. Centromere C. Kinetochore D. None of the above 83 An organic substance bound to an enzyme and required for its activity is A. Apoenyzme B. Holoenzyme C. Co enzyme D. Iso enzyme 84 Phylogenetic system of classification is based on A. Morphological features B. Chemical Constitutes CMB Entrance Exam Page 11

C. Evolutionary relation ships D. All of the above 85 Which of the following hormone is released by posterior lobe of pituitary? A. FSH B. ADH C. ACTH D. MSH

86 Humoral immunity is mediated by A. T cells B. B cells C. Plasma Cells D. NK cells 87 Oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin is A. Sigmoid B. Hyperbola C. Bell shaped D. Linear 88 A connecting link between plant and animal is A. Euglena B. Plasmodium C. Chlorella D. None of the above 89 Gonads are derived from A. Ectoderm B. Endoderm C. Mesoderm D. None of the above 90 In Arabidopsis thaliana, the haploid chromosome number is 05. How many chromosomes would you expect to find in the endosperm? A. 05 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20 91 Cell wall of cyanobacteria is mainly composed of A. Chitin B. Cellulose C. Chitosan D. Peptidoglycan

CMB Entrance Exam Page 12

92 Rust disease is caused by A. Mucor B. Phytophthora C. Puccinia D. Ustilago

93 Chlorophyll b is found in A. land plants B. green algae C. cyanobacteria D. All of these 94 Which of the following cell organelle is partially autonomous, encoding and synthesizing some of their own proteins A. Chloroplast B. Nucleolus C. nucleus D. Plasmid

95 Which of the following is not the advantage of vegetative propagation A. Production of large and complete plants B. Plants produced are genetically same as the mother plant C. Avoid transmission of pathogens D. Bypasses juvenile characteristics 96 Nitrogen fixing microorganism associated with water fern Azolla is A. Anaebena B. Rhizobium C. Nostoc D. Azotobactor 97 The ultimate source of genetic variation in a population is A. Gene flow B. Mutation C. Selection D. Genetic drift 98 How many pairs of characters/traits Gregor John Mendel studied in Pea? A. 5 traits B. 9 traits C. 7 traits D. 3 traits 99 Energy is brought into ecosystems by which of the following? A. Fungi and other decomposers B. Animals that graze on grass C. Carnivores animals D. Plants that photosynthesize

100 How many Barr bodies would you see in the nuclei of a person with XXY chromosomes? A. One

CMB Entrance Exam Page 13

B. Two C. Three D. None

CMB Entrance Exam Page 14

Booklet Test Registration No. ______code

B

The Maharaja Sayajirao University of Baroda Faculty of Science ADMISSION ENTRANCE EXAMINATION SUBJECT: Five Year Integrated M.Sc. in Cell & Molecular Biology th DAY: Thursday DATE: 13 June 2019 TIME: 02:00 Pm to 04:00 pm

Important Instructions:

1. This test booklet is to be opened only when instructed by the invigilators to do so. 2. This booklet carries 100 questions on 14 printed pages. All questions carry equal marks. 3. For every correct answer, candidate will earn 1 mark. 0.25 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. 4. Test Registration Number must be entered correctly in the OMR sheet, as advised by the invigilators. The Question Booklet code (A, B, C, or D) must also be mentioned on the OMR sheet (if not printed already) as instructed. 5. Answers must be marked in the OMR sheet using a black or dark blue ball point pen only. The circle should be filled in completely, leaving no gaps. Incorrect ways of marking answer:

Correct way of marking answer: A B C D A B C D A B C D

A B C D

6. Gadgets (mobile phone, smart watch, ear phone, music players, etc.)

are strictly prohibited in the exam hall. If any candidate is found in possession of any of these at his/her exam seat, he/she is liable to be disqualified.

CMB Entrance Exam Page 1

Invigilator’s signature______

Five Year Integrated M.Sc. in Cell & Molecular Biology Faculty of Science The M. S. University of Baroda Vadodara Entrance Test - 2019 Part-A

GENERAL APTITUDE &GENERAL KNOWLEDGE QUESTIONS

No. Questions Ans wer 1 Fill the blank in the series deb ijg nol ___ xyv. a. rsp b. stp c. rsq d. stq

2 The current ICC cricket world cup in 2019 is being hosted by A. England B. England and Wales C. England and Scotland D. England and Ireland 3 Eating 12 grapes at midnight on New Year's Eve is both a tradition and a superstition in which country A. Norway B. Spain C. Russia D.Bulgaria

4 The GST council has fitted over 1300 goods and 500 services under how many GST tax slabs in India A. 2 B. 3 C. 5 D. 4 5 What is the color of the Golden Gate Bridge located in San Francisco? A. Red B. International Orange C. Dark Byzantium D. Earth Yellow 6 Who is the current captain of the Indian football team? A. Sunil Chhetri B. Pronay Halder C. Subrata Pal D. Anirudh Thapa 7 Rigveda Samhita is divided into ten books. What are the books called? A. Shreni B. Mandalas C. Upanishads D. Puranas

8 Which was the first remote sensing mission undertaken by ISRO? A. IMS1 B. IRS-1A C. SARAL D. Aryabhatt

9 If South-East becomes North, North-East becomes West and so on. What will West become?

CMB Entrance Exam Page 2

A. North-East B. North-West C. South-East D. South-West

10 Which of the following nobel laureate also won Bharat Ratna award? A. Rabindra nath tagore B. Amartya Sen C. Kailash Satyarthi D. Venkatraman Ramakrishnan

11 Tom’s age after 15 years will be 5 times his age 5 years back. What is the present age of Tom? A. 2.5 years B. 10 years C. 9 years D. 5 years 12. The length of a rectangular plot is 5 1/3, times that of its breadth. If the area of the plot is 270 square metres, then what is its perimeter? A. 101 m B. 90 m C. 120 m D. 125 m 13 How long does a train, 75 m long, moving at 60 km/hr take to pass a certain telegraph post? A. 3.5 seconds B. 4 seconds C. 4.5 seconds D. 6 seconds

14 How many words with or without meaning, can be formed by using all the letters of the word, ‘ORANGE’, using each letter exactly once? A. 700 B. 720 C. 750 D. 800

15. On an election day Santhosh walked from a place, 10 km towards South to reach the polling station, then turned left up to 2 km, then took a right turn, and took another 4 kms walk. Again he turned right and walked for 12 kms and took a 14 km walk by turning to North, and there he could see the polling station at a 12 km distance after taking a right turn. In which direction is the polling station situated, with respect to the starting point?

A. North B. East C. South D. West

Part B- CHEMISTRY and PHYSICS

16 Bakelite is made from phenol and formaldehyde. The initial reaction between the two compounds is an example of: A. Aromatic electrophilic substitution B. Aromatic nucleophilic substitution C. Free radical reaction D. Aldol condensation 17 Complete hydrolysis of cellulose gives: A. D-Ribose B. D-Fructose C. L-Glucose D. D-Glucose 18 If the salt bridge is removed suddenly from a working cell, the voltage: A. Increases B. Decreases C. Drops to zero D. May increase or decrease depending on cell reaction

CMB Entrance Exam Page 3

19 A liquid is in equilibrium with its vapours at its boiling point. On average the molecules in the two phases have equal: A. Intermolecular forces B. Potential energy C. Kinetic energy D. Total energy 20 On electrolysis which of the following does not give oxygen? A. Acidic water, using Pt electrodes B. Fused NaOH using Pt electrodes C. Dilute H2SO4 using Pt electrodes D. Dilute H2SO4 using Cu electrodes

21 What is the correct IUPAC name of the following compound?

A. (E)-Oct-5-en-3-yne B. (E)-Oct-3-en-5-yne C. (Z)-Oct-5-en-3-yne D. (Z)-Oct-3-en-5-yne 22 Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of reactivity, when treated with a base.

A. I > II > III B. II > III > I C. I > III > II D. III > I > II 23 Which of the following compounds will react with Grignard reagent to give 3o alcohol?

A. I, II and III B. Only II C. I and II D. II and IV 24 What is the major product in the following reaction?

CMB Entrance Exam Page 4

A. PhCH2OCH2Ph

B. PhCH2NHNO

C. PhCH2OH

D. PhCH3

25 99 % of a first order reaction completes in 32 minutes, therefore, 99.9 % reaction will complete in. A. 51 minutes B. 64 minutes C. 60 minutes D. 48 minutes 26 Among LiCl, NaCl, KCl and MgCl, the salt _____ has covalent character. A. LiCl B. NaCl C. KCl D. MgCl

27 Choose the correct properties of Ψ A. Finite and imaginary B. Infinite and multiple value C. Finite and single value D. Real and multiple 28 Two isotonic solutions will have same: A. Vapour pressure B. Boiling point C. Freezing point D. Osmotic pressure 29 Identify the correct statement regarding enzymes: A. Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that can normally function at very high temperatures (T ~1000 K). B. Enzymes are normally heterogeneous catalysts that are very specific in their action. C. Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that cannot be poisoned D. Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that possess well defined active sites. 30 Dissolving 120 g of urea (mol wt 60) in 1000g of water gave a solution of density 1.15 g/mL. The molarity of the solution is A. 1.78 M B. 2.00 M C. 2.1 M D. 2.22 M

31 Marsh gas is a mixture of A. H2, O2 and CO2 B. H2O, CH4, CO2 C. CH4, H2S, CO2 D. C2H4, H2S, CO 32 Iodine can exist in the oxidation states: A. +1, +3, +5 B. -1, +1, +3 C. +3, +5. +7 D. -1, +1, +3, +5, +7

CMB Entrance Exam Page 5

33 Which of the following will form chelate: A. Ethylenediamine B. Ammonia C. Aniline D. Cyanide 34 In nature, Mg2+ is present in which of the following Complex/compound? A. Chlorophyll B. Carotene C. Haemoglobin D. Vitamin-C 35 Octahedral geometry in a complex will be produced by ______hybridization A. sp3 B. d2sp3 C. sp2 D. d2sp2 36 For a radioactive material, half-life is 10 minutes. If initially there are 600 number of nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the disintegration of 450 nuclei is :- A. 20 B. 10 C. 30 D. 15

37 A pendulum is hung from the roof of a sufficiently high building and is moving freely to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum is 20 m/s2 at a distance of 5 m from the mean position. The time period of oscillation is:- A. 2π s B. π s C. 2 s D. 1S 38 The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working between the freezing point and boiling point of water, is A. 26.8% B. 20% C. 6.25% D. 12.5% 39 The electrostatic force between the metal plates of an isolated parallel plate capacitor C having a charge Q and area A, is :- A. independent of the distance between the plates. B. linearly proportional to the distance between the plates C. proportional to the square root of the distance between the plates. D. inversely proportional to the distance between the plates.

40 A geosynchronous satellite is one which A. Revolves around the earth in the same speed as that of the earth’s revolution around the sun B. Revolves around the earth in the same speed as that of the earth’s rotation around its axis C. Its period of revolution matches the period of revolution of the moon D. None of the above 41 When light waves travel from a denser to a rarer medium, what happens? A. There is refraction of light irrespective of the angle of incidence B. There is total internal reflection when the angle of incidence is smaller than the critical angle

CMB Entrance Exam Page 6

C. There is total internal reflection when the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle D. Both (a) and (b) 42 The ear of some animals can distinguish ultrasonic sound waves, but not human ear. What is the frequency of ultrasonic sound waves? A. They have frequency lower than 10 milli Hz B. They have frequency lower than 10 kilo Hz C. They have frequency higher than 20 kilo Hz D. They have frequency higher than 20 milli Hz 43 Two balls of masses 2 kg and 3 kg slide along a frictionless horizontal surface with speeds of 4 m/s and 2 m/s, respectively. After an inelastic collision, the balls stick together and move at a speed of 2 m/s. What direction did the two balls move before the collision? A. In the same direction B. In opposite directions C. At an angle not equal to 0° or 180° D. Not enough information given to select an answer

44 A loop of current creates a magnetic field. How can you increase the strength of this magnetic field? A. By increasing the number of loops B. By increasing the current flowing through the loop C. By increasing the diameter of the loop D. Both (a) and (b) 45 Which of the following two paths need more work to push a unit charge in a uniform electric field in between two fixed points A and B? (i) (ii) (iii)

A. Path (i) B. Path (ii) C. Path (iii) D. Work done is same for all the three paths 46 Two resistors, R1 and R2 are connected to a battery producing a voltage V. Then which of the following is true?

A. unequal current flows through R1 and R2 if connected in series B. There is equal voltage across R1 and R2 if connected in series C. There is equal voltage across R1 and R2 if connected in parallel

CMB Entrance Exam Page 7

D. There is equal current flowing through R1 and R2 if connected in parallel 47 Which of the following phenomena is used in optical fibre? A. reflection B. total internal reflection C. interference D. scattering 48 Twelve wires of equal resistance r are joined to form a cube. The effective resistance between two diagonal ends will be____

A. 3r B. 5r/6 C. 6r/5 (D. 12r

49 A bar magnet is released from rest along the axis of a very long, vertical copper tube. After some time the magnet A. Will stop in the tube B. will move with constant speed C.Will move with an acceleration g D. will oscillate

50 Let Cv and Cp are the molar heat capacities of an ideal gas at constant volume and constant pressure respectively. Which of the following is a universal constant? A. Cp/Cv B. Cp Cv C. Cp - Cv D. Cp + Cv

51 Which of the following statements is the zeroeth law of thermodynamics? A. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed B. The entropy of the universe is increasing C. If two systems A and B are in thermal contact, then they are at the same temperature with a third body in thermal contact with A and /or B D. The entropy of the universe is zero at 0 K.

52 What is the viscous drag experienced by a small particle of size 20 Å moving through a fluid of viscosity 20 Pascal-sec at a constant speed of 20 m/s ? A. 0.8 X 10-12 kg-m-s-2 B. 1.5 X 10-11 kg-m-s-2 C. 1.5 X 10-11 m-s-2 D. None of the above 53 Which experiment can prove that light consists of particles called photons? A. Bragg diffraction B. Interference of light C. Photoelectric effect D. Photovoltaic effect 54 If the refractive index of a plano-convex lens is 1.6 and the radius of curvature is 60 cm then the focal length of the lens is

A. 50 B. 100 C. -50 D. -100 55 An AND gate can be prepared by repetitive use of

CMB Entrance Exam Page 8

A. NOT gate B. OR gate C. NAND gate D. XOR gate Part C (for Biology subject) 56 Syphilis is caused by

A.Neisseria gonorrhoeae B. Treponema pallidum

C.Trichomonas vaginalis D. Candida albicans

57 In the Stanley Miller’s experiment, the formation of ….. was observed. A.Nucleotides B. Polypeptides C.Amino acids D. Nucleic acids 58 Which of the following techniques will be useful for tracing the origin of particular tribe? A. blood grouping. B. mitochondrial DNA analysis. C. DNA fingerprinting. D. karyotyping. 59 Bacterial infection can be treated by an antibiotic that blocks protein synthesis. why it does not affect human cell? A. Human and bacterial ribosomes are different B. Antibiotic molecules can’t enter human cells. C. Antibiotic gets degraded by human cell. D. different genetic code of human and bacteria. 60 In phloem and xylem the transport is A. Unidirectional ,bidirectional respectively B. Bidirectional and active transoport respectively C. Active transport and unidirectional respectively D. Bidirectional and unidirectional respectively 61 In an animal cell after removal of nuclei DNA is still present. The source is A. Peroxisome B. Lysosome C. Chloroplast D. Mitochondria 62 A heterozygous colorblind woman marries a color blind man. What is the ratio of carrier daughters, color blind daughters, normal sons and color blind sons in F1 generation? A. 1:2:2:1 B. 1:1:1:1 C. 2:1:1:2 D. 1:1:2:2 63 Full form of RNAi is

A. Ribonucleic acid interference B. Ribonucleic acetate inhibition C. Ribonucleic aspartate integration D. Ribosome nucleic acid inhibition 64 Polysome is involved with

A. Transcription B. Replication C. Translation D. Post transcription

CMB Entrance Exam Page 9

65 The glucose homeostasis is maintained in the body by

A. Insulin B. Glucagon C. Insulin & Glucagon D. Somatostatin 66 NADPH is generated in which of the following pathway? A. Kreb’s cycle B. Pentose Phosphate pathway C. Glycolysis D. Urea cycle 67 Reptiles and birds are mainly A. Ureotelic B. Ammonotelic C. Uricotelic D. None 68 Diabetes insipidus condition A. occurs due to hyposecretion of insulin by pancreas. B. urine contains excessive sugar (glucose). C. occurs due to over-secretion of vasopressin. D. occurs due to under-secretion of vasopression leading to very dilute urine and hence constantly feels thirsty. 69 A linear peptide is made up of 6 residues of an amino acid of molecular weight 118Da. The molecular weight of the peptide will be A. 618 B. 690 C. 600 D. 708

70 The causative agent of scalded skin syndrome is A. Salmonella typhi B. Shigella sonnie C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Mycobacterium fortuitum 71 Which of the following is an imino acid: A. Proline B. Histidine C. Cysteine D. Glycine 72 In SDS-PAGE, the SDS imparts A. Uniform negative charge per unit length of protein B. Uniform negative charge irrespective of protein length C. Uniform positive charge per unit length of protein D. Uniform positive charge irrespective of protein length 73 BCG vaccine is derived by attenuating A. Mycobacterium avium B. Mycobacterium bovis C. Mycobacterium vaccae D. Mycobacterium fortuitum 74 Average molecular weight of an amino acid is A. 11 dalton B. 110 dalton C. 1100 dalton D. 110 kilodalton 75 Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) was invented by

CMB Entrance Exam Page 10

A. Fredrick Sanger B. Kary Mullis C. David Baltimore D. Arthur Kornberg 76 Antibody present in colostrum (milk secreted by mother during initial days of lactation) is.

A. IgA B. IgG C. IgD D. IgM

77 Respiratory pathways are more appropriately called

A. amphibolic pathway B. catabolic pathway

C. anabolic pathway D. none of the above

78 Erythroblastosis foetalis, mismatch of the blood grouping can happen with

A. Rh negative mother with Rh positive first child B. Rh positive mother with Rh positive first child C. Rh negative mother with Rh positive second child D. Rh positive mother with Rh negative second child 79 HIV is a retrovirus, and it incorporate

A. Its DNA into the host genome B. Its RNA into the host genome C. Its protein into the host genome D. none of the above 80 MRSA refers to A. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus B. Methicillin-responsive Staphylococcus aureus C. Most resistant Staphylococcus aureus D. Minimal responsive Staphylococcus aureus 81 Humoral immunity is mediated by A. T cells B. B cells C. Plasma Cells D. NK cells 82 Oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin is A. Sigmoid B. Hyperbola C. Bell shaped D. Linear 83 A connecting link between plant and animal is

CMB Entrance Exam Page 11

A. Euglena B. Plasmodium C. Chlorella D. None of the above 84 Gonads are derived from A. Ectoderm B. Endoderm C. Mesoderm D. None of the above 85 In Arabidopsis thaliana, the haploid chromosome number is 05. How many chromosomes would you expect to find in the endosperm? A. 05 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20 86 Which of the following is a polysaccharide of animal origin A. Pectin B. Cellulose C. Chitin D. Arabinoxylans 87 At meta phase, chromosomes are attached to the spindle fibres by

A. Satellites B. Centromere C. Kinetochore D. None of the above

88 An organic substance bound to an enzyme and required for its activity is A. Apoenyzme B. Holoenzyme C. Co enzyme D. Iso enzyme 89 Phylogenetic system of classification is based on A. Morphological features B. Chemical Constitutes C. Evolutionary relation ships D. All of the above 90 Which of the following hormone is released by posterior lobe of pituitary? A. FSH B. ADH C. ACTH D. MSH

CMB Entrance Exam Page 12

91 Cell wall of cyanobacteria is mainly composed of A. Chitin B. Cellulose C. Chitosan D. Peptidoglycan

92 Rust disease is caused by A. Mucor B. Phytophthora C. Puccinia D. Ustilago

93 Chlorophyll b is found in A. land plants B. green algae C. cyanobacteria D. All of these 94 Which of the following cell organelle is partially autonomous, encoding and synthesizing some of their own proteins A. Chloroplast B. Nucleolus C. nucleus D. Plasmid

95 Which of the following is not the advantage of vegetative propagation A. Production of large and complete plants B. Plants produced are genetically same as the mother plant C. Avoid transmission of pathogens D. Bypasses juvenile characteristics 96 Nitrogen fixing microorganism associated with water fern Azolla is A. Anaebena B. Rhizobium C. Nostoc D. Azotobactor 97 The ultimate source of genetic variation in a population is A. Gene flow B. Mutation C. Selection D. Genetic drift 98 How many pairs of characters/traits Gregor John Mendel studied in Pea? A. 5 traits B. 9 traits C. 7 traits D. 3 traits 99 Energy is brought into ecosystems by which of the following? A. Fungi and other decomposers

CMB Entrance Exam Page 13

B. Animals that graze on grass C. Carnivores animals D. Plants that photosynthesize

100 How many Barr bodies would you see in the nuclei of a person with XXY chromosomes? A. One B. Two C. Three D. None

CMB Entrance Exam Page 14

Booklet Test Registration No. ______code

C

The Maharaja Sayajirao University of Baroda Faculty of Science ADMISSION ENTRANCE EXAMINATION SUBJECT: Five Year Integrated M.Sc. in Cell & Molecular Biology th DAY: Thursday DATE: 13 June 2019 TIME: 02:00 Pm to 04:00 pm

Important Instructions:

1. This test booklet is to be opened only when instructed by the invigilators to do so. 2. This booklet carries 100 questions on 14 printed pages. All questions carry equal marks. 3. For every correct answer, candidate will earn 1 mark. 0.25 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. 4. Test Registration Number must be entered correctly in the OMR sheet, as advised by the invigilators. The Question Booklet code (A, B, C, or D) must also be mentioned on the OMR sheet (if not printed already) as instructed. 5. Answers must be marked in the OMR sheet using a black or dark blue ball point pen only. The circle should be filled in completely, leaving no gaps. Incorrect ways of marking answer:

Correct way of marking answer: A B C D A B C D A B C D

A B C D

6. Gadgets (mobile phone, smart watch, ear phone, music players, etc.)

are strictly prohibited in the exam hall. If any candidate is found in possession of any of these at his/her exam seat, he/she is liable to be disqualified.

CMB Entrance Exam Page 1

Invigilator’s signature______

Five Year Integrated M.Sc. in Cell & Molecular Biology Faculty of Science The M. S. University of Baroda Vadodara Entrance Test - 2019 Part-A

GENERAL APTITUDE &GENERAL KNOWLEDGE QUESTIONS

No. Questions Ans wer 1 Which was the first remote sensing mission undertaken by ISRO? A. IMS1 B. IRS-1A C. SARAL D. Aryabhatt

2 If South-East becomes North, North-East becomes West and so on. What will West become? A. North-East B. North-West C. South-East D. South-West

3 Which of the following nobel laureate also won Bharat Ratna award? A. Rabindra nath tagore B. Amartya Sen C. Kailash Satyarthi D. Venkatraman Ramakrishnan

4 Tom’s age after 15 years will be 5 times his age 5 years back. What is the present age of Tom? A. 2.5 years B. 10 years C. 9 years D. 5 years 5 The length of a rectangular plot is 5 1/3, times that of its breadth. If the area of the plot is 270 square metres, then what is its perimeter? A. 101 m B. 90 m C. 120 m D. 125 m 6 How long does a train, 75 m long, moving at 60 km/hr take to pass a certain telegraph post? A. 3.5 seconds B. 4 seconds C. 4.5 seconds D. 6 seconds

7 How many words with or without meaning, can be formed by using all the letters of the word, ‘ORANGE’, using each letter exactly once? A. 700 B. 720 C. 750 D. 800

8 Fill the blank in the series deb ijg nol ___ xyv. a. rsp b. stp c. rsq d. stq

9 The current ICC cricket world cup in 2019 is being hosted by A. England B. England and Wales C. England and Scotland D. England and Ireland

CMB Entrance Exam Page 2

10 Eating 12 grapes at midnight on New Year's Eve is both a tradition and a superstition in which country A. Norway B. Spain C. Russia D.Bulgaria

11 The GST council has fitted over 1300 goods and 500 services under how many GST tax slabs in India A. 2 B. 3 C. 5 D. 4 12. What is the color of the Golden Gate Bridge located in San Francisco? A. Red B. International Orange C. Dark Byzantium D. Earth Yellow 13 Who is the current captain of the Indian football team? A. Sunil Chhetri B. Pronay Halder C. Subrata Pal D. Anirudh Thapa 14 Rigveda Samhita is divided into ten books. What are the books called? A. Shreni B. Mandalas C. Upanishads D. Puranas

15. On an election day Santhosh walked from a place, 10 km towards South to reach the polling station, then turned left up to 2 km, then took a right turn, and took another 4 kms walk. Again he turned right and walked for 12 kms and took a 14 km walk by turning to North, and there he could see the polling station at a 12 km distance after taking a right turn. In which direction is the polling station situated, with respect to the starting point?

A. North B. East C. South D. West

Part B- CHEMISTRY and PHYSICS

16 A pendulum is hung from the roof of a sufficiently high building and is moving freely to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum is 20 m/s2 at a distance of 5 m from the mean position. The time period of oscillation is:- A. 2π s B. π s C. 2 s D. 1S 17 The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working between the freezing point and boiling point of water, is A. 26.8% B. 20% C. 6.25% D. 12.5% 18 The electrostatic force between the metal plates of an isolated parallel plate capacitor C having a charge Q and area A, is :- A. independent of the distance between the plates.

CMB Entrance Exam Page 3

B. linearly proportional to the distance between the plates C. proportional to the square root of the distance between the plates. D. inversely proportional to the distance between the plates.

19 A geosynchronous satellite is one which A. Revolves around the earth in the same speed as that of the earth’s revolution around the sun B. Revolves around the earth in the same speed as that of the earth’s rotation around its axis C. Its period of revolution matches the period of revolution of the moon D. None of the above 20 When light waves travel from a denser to a rarer medium, what happens? A. There is refraction of light irrespective of the angle of incidence B. There is total internal reflection when the angle of incidence is smaller than the critical angle C. There is total internal reflection when the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle D. Both (a) and (b) 21 The ear of some animals can distinguish ultrasonic sound waves, but not human ear. What is the frequency of ultrasonic sound waves? A. They have frequency lower than 10 milli Hz B. They have frequency lower than 10 kilo Hz C. They have frequency higher than 20 kilo Hz D. They have frequency higher than 20 milli Hz 22 Two balls of masses 2 kg and 3 kg slide along a frictionless horizontal surface with speeds of 4 m/s and 2 m/s, respectively. After an inelastic collision, the balls stick together and move at a speed of 2 m/s. What direction did the two balls move before the collision? A. In the same direction B. In opposite directions C. At an angle not equal to 0° or 180° D. Not enough information given to select an answer

23 A loop of current creates a magnetic field. How can you increase the strength of this magnetic field? A. By increasing the number of loops B. By increasing the current flowing through the loop C. By increasing the diameter of the loop D. Both (a) and (b)

CMB Entrance Exam Page 4

24 Which of the following two paths need more work to push a unit charge in a uniform electric field in between two fixed points A and B? (i) (ii) (iii)

A. Path (i) B. Path (ii) C. Path (iii) D. Work done is same for all the three paths 25 Two resistors, R1 and R2 are connected to a battery producing a voltage V. Then which of the following is true?

A. unequal current flows through R1 and R2 if connected in series B. There is equal voltage across R1 and R2 if connected in series C. There is equal voltage across R1 and R2 if connected in parallel D. There is equal current flowing through R1 and R2 if connected in parallel 26 Which of the following phenomena is used in optical fibre? A. reflection B. total internal reflection C. interference D. scattering

27 Twelve wires of equal resistance r are joined to form a cube. The effective resistance between two diagonal ends will be____

A. 3r B. 5r/6 C. 6r/5 D. 12r

28 A bar magnet is released from rest along the axis of a very long, vertical copper tube. After some time the magnet A. Will stop in the tube B. will move with constant speed C.Will move with an acceleration g D. will oscillate 29 Let Cv and Cp are the molar heat capacities of an ideal gas at constant volume and constant pressure respectively. Which of the following is a universal constant? A. Cp/Cv B. Cp Cv C. Cp - Cv D. Cp + Cv

30 Which of the following statements is the zeroeth law of thermodynamics? A. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed B. The entropy of the universe is increasing C. If two systems A and B are in thermal contact, then they are at the same temperature with a third body in thermal contact with A and /or B D. The entropy of the universe is zero at 0 K.

31 What is the viscous drag experienced by a small particle of size 20 Å moving through a fluid of viscosity 20 Pascal-sec at a constant speed of 20 m/s ?

CMB Entrance Exam Page 5

A. 0.8 X 10-12 kg-m-s-2 B. 1.5 X 10-11 kg-m-s-2 C. 1.5 X 10-11 m-s-2 D. None of the above 32 Which experiment can prove that light consists of particles called photons? A. Bragg diffraction B. Interference of light C. Photoelectric effect D. Photovoltaic effect 33 If the refractive index of a plano-convex lens is 1.6 and the radius of curvature is 60 cm then the focal length of the lens is

A. 50 B. 100 C. -50 D. -100 34 An AND gate can be prepared by repetitive use of A. NOT gate B. OR gate C. NAND gate D. XOR gate 35 Bakelite is made from phenol and formaldehyde. The initial reaction between the two compounds is an example of: A. Aromatic electrophilic substitution B. Aromatic nucleophilic substitution C. Free radical reaction D. Aldol condensation 36 Complete hydrolysis of cellulose gives: A. D-Ribose B. D-Fructose C. L-Glucose D. D-Glucose 37 If the salt bridge is removed suddenly from a working cell, the voltage: A. Increases B. Decreases C. Drops to zero D. May increase or decrease depending on cell reaction 38 A liquid is in equilibrium with its vapours at its boiling point. On average the molecules in the two phases have equal: A. Intermolecular forces B. Potential energy C. Kinetic energy D. Total energy 39 On electrolysis which of the following does not give oxygen? A. Acidic water, using Pt electrodes B. Fused NaOH using Pt electrodes C. Dilute H2SO4 using Pt electrodes D. Dilute H2SO4 using Cu electrodes

40 What is the correct IUPAC name of the following compound?

CMB Entrance Exam Page 6

A. (E)-Oct-5-en-3-yne B. (E)-Oct-3-en-5-yne C. (Z)-Oct-5-en-3-yne D. (Z)-Oct-3-en-5-yne 41 Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of reactivity, when treated with a base.

A. I > II > III B. II > III > I C. I > III > II D. III > I > II 42 Which of the following compounds will react with Grignard reagent to give 3o alcohol?

A. I, II and III B. Only II C. I and II D. II and IV 43 What is the major product in the following reaction?

A. PhCH2OCH2Ph

B. PhCH2NHNO

C. PhCH2OH

D. PhCH3

44 99 % of a first order reaction completes in 32 minutes, therefore, 99.9 % reaction will complete in. A. 51 minutes B. 64 minutes C. 60 minutes D. 48 minutes 45 Among LiCl, NaCl, KCl and MgCl, the salt _____ has covalent character. A. LiCl B. NaCl C. KCl D. MgCl

46 Choose the correct properties of Ψ A. Finite and imaginary CMB Entrance Exam Page 7

B. Infinite and multiple value C. Finite and single value D. Real and multiple 47 Two isotonic solutions will have same: A. Vapour pressure B. Boiling point C. Freezing point D. Osmotic pressure 48 Identify the correct statement regarding enzymes: A. Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that can normally function at very high temperatures (T ~1000 K). B. Enzymes are normally heterogeneous catalysts that are very specific in their action. C. Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that cannot be poisoned D. Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that possess well defined active sites. 49 Dissolving 120 g of urea (mol wt 60) in 1000g of water gave a solution of density 1.15 g/mL. The molarity of the solution is A. 1.78 M B. 2.00 M C. 2.1 M D. 2.22 M

50 Marsh gas is a mixture of A. H2, O2 and CO2 B. H2O, CH4, CO2 C. CH4, H2S, CO2 D. C2H4, H2S, CO 51 Iodine can exist in the oxidation states: A. +1, +3, +5 B. -1, +1, +3 C. +3, +5. +7 D. -1, +1, +3, +5, +7 52 Which of the following will form chelate: A. Ethylenediamine B. Ammonia C. Aniline D. Cyanide 53 In nature, Mg2+ is present in which of the following Complex/compound? A. Chlorophyll B. Carotene C. Haemoglobin D. Vitamin-C 54 Octahedral geometry in a complex will be produced by ______hybridization A. sp3 B. d2sp3 C. sp2 D. d2sp2 55 For a radioactive material, half-life is 10 minutes. If initially there are 600 number of nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the disintegration of 450 nuclei is :- A. 20 B. 10

CMB Entrance Exam Page 8

C. 30 D. 15

Part C (for Biology subject) 56 Antibody present in colostrum (milk secreted by mother during initial days of lactation) is.

A. IgA B. IgG C. IgD D. IgM

57 Respiratory pathways are more appropriately called

A. amphibolic pathway B. catabolic pathway

C. anabolic pathway D. none of the above

58 Erythroblastosis foetalis, mismatch of the blood grouping can happen with

A. Rh negative mother with Rh positive first child B. Rh positive mother with Rh positive first child C. Rh negative mother with Rh positive second child D. Rh positive mother with Rh negative second child 59 HIV is a retrovirus, and it incorporate

A. Its DNA into the host genome B. Its RNA into the host genome C. Its protein into the host genome D. none of the above 60 MRSA refers to A. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus B. Methicillin-responsive Staphylococcus aureus C. Most resistant Staphylococcus aureus D. Minimal responsive Staphylococcus aureus 61 Humoral immunity is mediated by A. T cells B. B cells C. Plasma Cells D. NK cells 62 Oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin is A. Sigmoid B. Hyperbola C. Bell shaped D. Linear

CMB Entrance Exam Page 9

63 A connecting link between plant and animal is A. Euglena B. Plasmodium C. Chlorella D. None of the above 64 Gonads are derived from A. Ectoderm B. Endoderm C. Mesoderm D. None of the above 65 In Arabidopsis thaliana, the haploid chromosome number is 05. How many chromosomes would you expect to find in the endosperm? A. 05 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20 66 Which of the following is a polysaccharide of animal origin A. Pectin B. Cellulose C. Chitin D. Arabinoxylans 67 At meta phase, chromosomes are attached to the spindle fibres by

A. Satellites B. Centromere C. Kinetochore D. None of the above 68 An organic substance bound to an enzyme and required for its activity is A. Apoenyzme B. Holoenzyme C. Co enzyme D. Iso enzyme 69 Phylogenetic system of classification is based on A. Morphological features B. Chemical Constitutes C. Evolutionary relation ships D. All of the above 70 Which of the following hormone is released by posterior lobe of pituitary? A. FSH B. ADH C. ACTH

CMB Entrance Exam Page 10

D. MSH

71 Cell wall of cyanobacteria is mainly composed of A. Chitin B. Cellulose C. Chitosan D. Peptidoglycan

72 Rust disease is caused by A. Mucor B. Phytophthora C. Puccinia D. Ustilago

73 Chlorophyll b is found in A. land plants B. green algae C. cyanobacteria D. All of these 74 Which of the following cell organelle is partially autonomous, encoding and synthesizing some of their own proteins A. Chloroplast B. Nucleolus C. nucleus D. Plasmid

75 Which of the following is not the advantage of vegetative propagation A. Production of large and complete plants B. Plants produced are genetically same as the mother plant C. Avoid transmission of pathogens D. Bypasses juvenile characteristics 76 Nitrogen fixing microorganism associated with water fern Azolla is A. Anaebena B. Rhizobium C. Nostoc D. Azotobactor 77 The ultimate source of genetic variation in a population is A. Gene flow B. Mutation C. Selection D. Genetic drift 78 How many pairs of characters/traits Gregor John Mendel studied in Pea? A. 5 traits B. 9 traits C. 7 traits D. 3 traits 79 Energy is brought into ecosystems by which of the following?

CMB Entrance Exam Page 11

A. Fungi and other decomposers B. Animals that graze on grass C. Carnivores animals D. Plants that photosynthesize

80 How many Barr bodies would you see in the nuclei of a person with XXY chromosomes? A. One B. Two C. Three D. None

81 Syphilis is caused by

A.Neisseria gonorrhoeae B. Treponema pallidum

C.Trichomonas vaginalis D. Candida albicans

82 In the Stanley Miller’s experiment, the formation of ….. was observed. A.Nucleotides B. Polypeptides C.Amino acids D. Nucleic acids 83 Which of the following techniques will be useful for tracing the origin of particular tribe? A. blood grouping. B. mitochondrial DNA analysis. C. DNA fingerprinting. D. karyotyping. 84 Bacterial infection can be treated by an antibiotic that blocks protein synthesis. why it does not affect human cell? A. Human and bacterial ribosomes are different B. Antibiotic molecules can’t enter human cells. C. Antibiotic gets degraded by human cell. D. different genetic code of human and bacteria. 85 In phloem and xylem the transport is A. Unidirectional ,bidirectional respectively B. Bidirectional and active transoport respectively C. Active transport and unidirectional respectively D. Bidirectional and unidirectional respectively 86 In an animal cell after removal of nuclei DNA is still present. The source is A. Peroxisome B. Lysosome C. Chloroplast D. Mitochondria 87 A heterozygous colorblind woman marries a color blind man. What is the ratio of carrier daughters, color blind daughters, normal sons and color blind sons in F1 generation? A. 1:2:2:1 B. 1:1:1:1 C. 2:1:1:2 D. 1:1:2:2

CMB Entrance Exam Page 12

88 Full form of RNAi is

A. Ribonucleic acid interference B. Ribonucleic acetate inhibition C. Ribonucleic aspartate integration D. Ribosome nucleic acid inhibition 89 Polysome is involved with

A. Transcription B. Replication C. Translation D. Post transcription 90 The glucose homeostasis is maintained in the body by

A. Insulin B. Glucagon C. Insulin & Glucagon D. Somatostatin 91 NADPH is generated in which of the following pathway? A. Kreb’s cycle B. Pentose Phosphate pathway C. Glycolysis D. Urea cycle 92 Reptiles and birds are mainly A. Ureotelic B. Ammonotelic C. Uricotelic D. None 93 Diabetes insipidus condition A. occurs due to hyposecretion of insulin by pancreas. B. urine contains excessive sugar (glucose). C. occurs due to over-secretion of vasopressin. D. occurs due to under-secretion of vasopression leading to very dilute urine and hence constantly feels thirsty. 94 A linear peptide is made up of 6 residues of an amino acid of molecular weight 118Da. The molecular weight of the peptide will be A. 618 B. 690 C. 600 D. 708

95 The causative agent of scalded skin syndrome is A. Salmonella typhi B. Shigella sonnie C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Mycobacterium fortuitum 96 Which of the following is an imino acid: A. Proline B. Histidine C. Cysteine D. Glycine 97 In SDS-PAGE, the SDS imparts A. Uniform negative charge per unit length of protein B. Uniform negative charge irrespective of protein length C. Uniform positive charge per unit length of protein

CMB Entrance Exam Page 13

D. Uniform positive charge irrespective of protein length 98 BCG vaccine is derived by attenuating A. Mycobacterium avium B. Mycobacterium bovis C. Mycobacterium vaccae D. Mycobacterium fortuitum 99 Average molecular weight of an amino acid is A. 11 dalton B. 110 dalton C. 1100 dalton D. 110 kilodalton 100 Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) was invented by A. Fredrick Sanger B. Kary Mullis C. David Baltimore D. Arthur Kornberg

CMB Entrance Exam Page 14

Booklet Test Registration No. ______code

D

The Maharaja Sayajirao University of Baroda Faculty of Science ADMISSION ENTRANCE EXAMINATION SUBJECT: Five Year Integrated M.Sc. in Cell & Molecular Biology th DAY: Thursday DATE: 13 June 2019 TIME: 02:00 Pm to 04:00 pm

Important Instructions:

1. This test booklet is to be opened only when instructed by the invigilators to do so. 2. This booklet carries 100 questions on 14 printed pages. All questions carry equal marks. 3. For every correct answer, candidate will earn 1 mark. 0.25 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. 4. Test Registration Number must be entered correctly in the OMR sheet, as advised by the invigilators. The Question Booklet code (A, B, C, or D) must also be mentioned on the OMR sheet (if not printed already) as instructed. 5. Answers must be marked in the OMR sheet using a black or dark blue ball point pen only. The circle should be filled in completely, leaving no gaps. Incorrect ways of marking answer:

Correct way of marking answer: A B C D A B C D A B C D

A B C D

6. Gadgets (mobile phone, smart watch, ear phone, music players, etc.)

are strictly prohibited in the exam hall. If any candidate is found in possession of any of these at his/her exam seat, he/she is liable to be disqualified.

CMB Entrance Exam Page 1

Invigilator’s signature______

Five Year Integrated M.Sc. in Cell & Molecular Biology Faculty of Science The M. S. University of Baroda Vadodara Entrance Test - 2019 Part-A

GENERAL APTITUDE &GENERAL KNOWLEDGE QUESTIONS

No. Questions Ans wer 1 The GST council has fitted over 1300 goods and 500 services under how many GST tax slabs in India A. 2 B. 3 C. 5 D. 4 2 What is the color of the Golden Gate Bridge located in San Francisco? A. Red B. International Orange C. Dark Byzantium D. Earth Yellow 3 Who is the current captain of the Indian football team? A. Sunil Chhetri B. Pronay Halder C. Subrata Pal D. Anirudh Thapa 4 Rigveda Samhita is divided into ten books. What are the books called? A. Shreni B. Mandalas C. Upanishads D. Puranas

5 On an election day Santhosh walked from a place, 10 km towards South to reach the polling station, then turned left up to 2 km, then took a right turn, and took another 4 kms walk. Again he turned right and walked for 12 kms and took a 14 km walk by turning to North, and there he could see the polling station at a 12 km distance after taking a right turn. In which direction is the polling station situated, with respect to the starting point?

A. North B. East C. South D. West

6 How long does a train, 75 m long, moving at 60 km/hr take to pass a certain telegraph post? A. 3.5 seconds B. 4 seconds C. 4.5 seconds D. 6 seconds

7 How many words with or without meaning, can be formed by using all the letters of the word, ‘ORANGE’, using each letter exactly once? A. 700 B. 720 C. 750 D. 800

CMB Entrance Exam Page 2

8 Fill the blank in the series deb ijg nol ___ xyv. a. rsp b. stp c. rsq d. stq

9 The current ICC cricket world cup in 2019 is being hosted by A. England B. England and Wales C. England and Scotland D. England and Ireland 10 Eating 12 grapes at midnight on New Year's Eve is both a tradition and a superstition in which country A. Norway B. Spain C. Russia D.Bulgaria

11 Which was the first remote sensing mission undertaken by ISRO? A. IMS1 B. IRS-1A C. SARAL D. Aryabhatt

12. If South-East becomes North, North-East becomes West and so on. What will West become? A. North-East B. North-West C. South-East D. South-West

13 Which of the following nobel laureate also won Bharat Ratna award? A. Rabindra nath tagore B. Amartya Sen C. Kailash Satyarthi D. Venkatraman Ramakrishnan

14 Tom’s age after 15 years will be 5 times his age 5 years back. What is the present age of Tom? A. 2.5 years B. 10 years C. 9 years D. 5 years 15. The length of a rectangular plot is 5 1/3, times that of its breadth. If the area of the plot is 270 square metres, then what is its perimeter? A. 101 m B. 90 m C. 120 m D. 125 m Part B- CHEMISTRY and PHYSICS

16 The ear of some animals can distinguish ultrasonic sound waves, but not human ear. What is the frequency of ultrasonic sound waves? A. They have frequency lower than 10 milli Hz B. They have frequency lower than 10 kilo Hz C. They have frequency higher than 20 kilo Hz D. They have frequency higher than 20 milli Hz 17 Two balls of masses 2 kg and 3 kg slide along a frictionless horizontal surface with speeds of 4 m/s and 2 m/s, respectively. After an inelastic collision, the balls stick together and move at a speed of 2 m/s. What direction did the two balls move before the collision?

CMB Entrance Exam Page 3

A. In the same direction B. In opposite directions C. At an angle not equal to 0° or 180° D. Not enough information given to select an answer

18 A loop of current creates a magnetic field. How can you increase the strength of this magnetic field? A. By increasing the number of loops B. By increasing the current flowing through the loop C. By increasing the diameter of the loop D. Both (a) and (b) 19 Which of the following two paths need more work to push a unit charge in a uniform electric field in between two fixed points A and B? (i) (ii) (iii)

A. Path (i) B. Path (ii) C. Path (iii) D. Work done is same for all the three paths 20 Two resistors, R1 and R2 are connected to a battery producing a voltage V. Then which of the following is true?

A. unequal current flows through R1 and R2 if connected in series B. There is equal voltage across R1 and R2 if connected in series C. There is equal voltage across R1 and R2 if connected in parallel D. There is equal current flowing through R1 and R2 if connected in parallel 21 A pendulum is hung from the roof of a sufficiently high building and is moving freely to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum is 20 m/s2 at a distance of 5 m from the mean position. The time period of oscillation is:- A. 2π s B. π s C. 2 s D. 1S 22 The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working between the freezing point and boiling point of water, is A. 26.8% B. 20% C. 6.25% D. 12.5% 23 The electrostatic force between the metal plates of an isolated parallel plate capacitor C having a charge Q and area A, is :- A. independent of the distance between the plates. B. linearly proportional to the distance between the plates C. proportional to the square root of the distance between the plates. CMB Entrance Exam Page 4

D. inversely proportional to the distance between the plates.

24 A geosynchronous satellite is one which A. Revolves around the earth in the same speed as that of the earth’s revolution around the sun B. Revolves around the earth in the same speed as that of the earth’s rotation around its axis C. Its period of revolution matches the period of revolution of the moon D. None of the above 25 When light waves travel from a denser to a rarer medium, what happens? A. There is refraction of light irrespective of the angle of incidence B. There is total internal reflection when the angle of incidence is smaller than the critical angle C. There is total internal reflection when the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle D. Both (a) and (b) 26 Which of the following phenomena is used in optical fibre? A. reflection B. total internal reflection C. interference D. scattering

27 Twelve wires of equal resistance r are joined to form a cube. The effective resistance between two diagonal ends will be____

A. 3r B. 5r/6 C. 6r/5 (D. 12r

28 A bar magnet is released from rest along the axis of a very long, vertical copper tube. After some time the magnet A. Will stop in the tube B. will move with constant speed C.Will move with an acceleration g D. will oscillate 29 Let Cv and Cp are the molar heat capacities of an ideal gas at constant volume and constant pressure respectively. Which of the following is a universal constant? A. Cp/Cv B. Cp Cv C. Cp - Cv D. Cp + Cv

30 Which of the following statements is the zeroeth law of thermodynamics? A. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed B. The entropy of the universe is increasing C. If two systems A and B are in thermal contact, then they are at the same temperature with a third body in thermal contact with A and /or B D. The entropy of the universe is zero at 0 K.

CMB Entrance Exam Page 5

31 What is the viscous drag experienced by a small particle of size 20 Å moving through a fluid of viscosity 20 Pascal-sec at a constant speed of 20 m/s ? A. 0.8 X 10-12 kg-m-s-2 B. 1.5 X 10-11 kg-m-s-2 C. 1.5 X 10-11 m-s-2 D. None of the above 32 Which experiment can prove that light consists of particles called photons? A. Bragg diffraction B. Interference of light C. Photoelectric effect D. Photovoltaic effect 33 If the refractive index of a plano-convex lens is 1.6 and the radius of curvature is 60 cm then the focal length of the lens is

A. 50 B. 100 C. -50 D. -100 34 An AND gate can be prepared by repetitive use of A. NOT gate B. OR gate C. NAND gate D. XOR gate 35 Bakelite is made from phenol and formaldehyde. The initial reaction between the two compounds is an example of: A. Aromatic electrophilic substitution B. Aromatic nucleophilic substitution C. Free radical reaction D. Aldol condensation 36 Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of reactivity, when treated with a base.

A. I > II > III B. II > III > I C. I > III > II D. III > I > II 37 Which of the following compounds will react with Grignard reagent to give 3o alcohol?

A. I, II and III B. Only II C. I and II D. II and IV 38 What is the major product in the following reaction?

CMB Entrance Exam Page 6

A. PhCH2OCH2Ph

B. PhCH2NHNO

C. PhCH2OH

D. PhCH3

39 99 % of a first order reaction completes in 32 minutes, therefore, 99.9 % reaction will complete in. A. 51 minutes B. 64 minutes C. 60 minutes D. 48 minutes 40 Among LiCl, NaCl, KCl and MgCl, the salt _____ has covalent character. A. LiCl B. NaCl C. KCl D. MgCl 41 Complete hydrolysis of cellulose gives: A. D-Ribose B. D-Fructose C. L-Glucose D. D-Glucose 42 If the salt bridge is removed suddenly from a working cell, the voltage: A. Increases B. Decreases C. Drops to zero D. May increase or decrease depending on cell reaction 43 A liquid is in equilibrium with its vapours at its boiling point. On average the molecules in the two phases have equal: A. Intermolecular forces B. Potential energy C. Kinetic energy D. Total energy 44 On electrolysis which of the following does not give oxygen? A. Acidic water, using Pt electrodes B. Fused NaOH using Pt electrodes C. Dilute H2SO4 using Pt electrodes D. Dilute H2SO4 using Cu electrodes

45 What is the correct IUPAC name of the following compound?

A. (E)-Oct-5-en-3-yne B. (E)-Oct-3-en-5-yne C. (Z)-Oct-5-en-3-yne D. (Z)-Oct-3-en-5-yne 46 Choose the correct properties of Ψ A. Finite and imaginary B. Infinite and multiple value

CMB Entrance Exam Page 7

C. Finite and single value D. Real and multiple 47 Two isotonic solutions will have same: A. Vapour pressure B. Boiling point C. Freezing point D. Osmotic pressure 48 Identify the correct statement regarding enzymes: A. Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that can normally function at very high temperatures (T ~1000 K). B. Enzymes are normally heterogeneous catalysts that are very specific in their action. C. Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that cannot be poisoned D. Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that possess well defined active sites. 49 Dissolving 120 g of urea (mol wt 60) in 1000g of water gave a solution of density 1.15 g/mL. The molarity of the solution is A. 1.78 M B. 2.00 M C. 2.1 M D. 2.22 M

50 Marsh gas is a mixture of A. H2, O2 and CO2 B. H2O, CH4, CO2 C. CH4, H2S, CO2 D. C2H4, H2S, CO 51 Iodine can exist in the oxidation states: A. +1, +3, +5 B. -1, +1, +3 C. +3, +5. +7 D. -1, +1, +3, +5, +7 52 Which of the following will form chelate: A. Ethylenediamine B. Ammonia C. Aniline D. Cyanide 53 In nature, Mg2+ is present in which of the following Complex/compound? A. Chlorophyll B. Carotene C. Haemoglobin D. Vitamin-C 54 Octahedral geometry in a complex will be produced by ______hybridization A. sp3 B. d2sp3 C. sp2 D. d2sp2 55 For a radioactive material, half-life is 10 minutes. If initially there are 600 number of nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the disintegration of 450 nuclei is :- A. 20 B. 10 C. 30 D. 15

CMB Entrance Exam Page 8

Part C (for Biology subject) 56 Antibody present in colostrum (milk secreted by mother during initial days of lactation) is.

A. IgA B. IgG C. IgD D. IgM

57 Respiratory pathways are more appropriately called

A. amphibolic pathway B. catabolic pathway

C. anabolic pathway D. none of the above

58 Erythroblastosis foetalis, mismatch of the blood grouping can happen with

A. Rh negative mother with Rh positive first child B. Rh positive mother with Rh positive first child C. Rh negative mother with Rh positive second child D. Rh positive mother with Rh negative second child 59 HIV is a retrovirus, and it incorporate

A. Its DNA into the host genome B. Its RNA into the host genome C. Its protein into the host genome D. none of the above 60 MRSA refers to A. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus B. Methicillin-responsive Staphylococcus aureus C. Most resistant Staphylococcus aureus D. Minimal responsive Staphylococcus aureus 61 Humoral immunity is mediated by A. T cells B. B cells C. Plasma Cells D. NK cells 62 Oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin is A. Sigmoid B. Hyperbola C. Bell shaped D. Linear 63 A connecting link between plant and animal is A. Euglena

CMB Entrance Exam Page 9

B. Plasmodium C. Chlorella D. None of the above 64 Gonads are derived from A. Ectoderm B. Endoderm C. Mesoderm D. None of the above 65 In Arabidopsis thaliana, the haploid chromosome number is 05. How many chromosomes would you expect to find in the endosperm? A. 05 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20 66 Which of the following is a polysaccharide of animal origin A. Pectin B. Cellulose C. Chitin D. Arabinoxylans 67 At meta phase, chromosomes are attached to the spindle fibres by

A. Satellites B. Centromere C. Kinetochore D. None of the above 68 An organic substance bound to an enzyme and required for its activity is A. Apoenyzme B. Holoenzyme C. Co enzyme D. Iso enzyme 69 Phylogenetic system of classification is based on A. Morphological features B. Chemical Constitutes C. Evolutionary relation ships D. All of the above 70 Which of the following hormone is released by posterior lobe of pituitary? A. FSH B. ADH C. ACTH D. MSH

71 Cell wall of cyanobacteria is mainly composed of

CMB Entrance Exam Page 10

A. Chitin B. Cellulose C. Chitosan D. Peptidoglycan

72 Rust disease is caused by A. Mucor B. Phytophthora C. Puccinia D. Ustilago

73 Chlorophyll b is found in A. land plants B. green algae C. cyanobacteria D. All of these 74 Which of the following cell organelle is partially autonomous, encoding and synthesizing some of their own proteins A. Chloroplast B. Nucleolus C. nucleus D. Plasmid

75 Which of the following is not the advantage of vegetative propagation A. Production of large and complete plants B. Plants produced are genetically same as the mother plant C. Avoid transmission of pathogens D. Bypasses juvenile characteristics 76 Nitrogen fixing microorganism associated with water fern Azolla is A. Anaebena B. Rhizobium C. Nostoc D. Azotobactor 77 The ultimate source of genetic variation in a population is A. Gene flow B. Mutation C. Selection D. Genetic drift 78 How many pairs of characters/traits Gregor John Mendel studied in Pea? A. 5 traits B. 9 traits C. 7 traits D. 3 traits 79 Energy is brought into ecosystems by which of the following? A. Fungi and other decomposers B. Animals that graze on grass C. Carnivores animals

CMB Entrance Exam Page 11

D. Plants that photosynthesize

80 How many Barr bodies would you see in the nuclei of a person with XXY chromosomes? A. One B. Two C. Three D. None

81 NADPH is generated in which of the following pathway? A. Kreb’s cycle B. Pentose Phosphate pathway C. Glycolysis D. Urea cycle 82 Reptiles and birds are mainly A. Ureotelic B. Ammonotelic C. Uricotelic D. None 83 Diabetes insipidus condition A. occurs due to hyposecretion of insulin by pancreas. B. urine contains excessive sugar (glucose). C. occurs due to over-secretion of vasopressin. D. occurs due to under-secretion of vasopression leading to very dilute urine and hence constantly feels thirsty. 84 A linear peptide is made up of 6 residues of an amino acid of molecular weight 118Da. The molecular weight of the peptide will be A. 618 B. 690 C. 600 D. 708

85 The causative agent of scalded skin syndrome is A. Salmonella typhi B. Shigella sonnie C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Mycobacterium fortuitum 86 Which of the following is an imino acid: A. Proline B. Histidine C. Cysteine D. Glycine 87 In SDS-PAGE, the SDS imparts A. Uniform negative charge per unit length of protein B. Uniform negative charge irrespective of protein length C. Uniform positive charge per unit length of protein D. Uniform positive charge irrespective of protein length 88 BCG vaccine is derived by attenuating A. Mycobacterium avium B. Mycobacterium bovis

CMB Entrance Exam Page 12

C. Mycobacterium vaccae D. Mycobacterium fortuitum 89 Average molecular weight of an amino acid is A. 11 dalton B. 110 dalton C. 1100 dalton D. 110 kilodalton 90 Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) was invented by A. Fredrick Sanger B. Kary Mullis C. David Baltimore D. Arthur Kornberg 91 Syphilis is caused by

A.Neisseria gonorrhoeae B. Treponema pallidum

C.Trichomonas vaginalis D. Candida albicans

92 In the Stanley Miller’s experiment, the formation of ….. was observed. A.Nucleotides B. Polypeptides C.Amino acids D. Nucleic acids 93 Which of the following techniques will be useful for tracing the origin of particular tribe? A. blood grouping. B. mitochondrial DNA analysis. C. DNA fingerprinting. D. karyotyping. 94 Bacterial infection can be treated by an antibiotic that blocks protein synthesis. why it does not affect human cell? A. Human and bacterial ribosomes are different B. Antibiotic molecules can’t enter human cells. C. Antibiotic gets degraded by human cell. D. different genetic code of human and bacteria. 95 In phloem and xylem the transport is A. Unidirectional ,bidirectional respectively B. Bidirectional and active transoport respectively C. Active transport and unidirectional respectively D. Bidirectional and unidirectional respectively 96 In an animal cell after removal of nuclei DNA is still present. The source is A. Peroxisome B. Lysosome C. Chloroplast D. Mitochondria 97 A heterozygous colorblind woman marries a color blind man. What is the ratio of carrier daughters, color blind daughters, normal sons and color blind sons in F1 generation? A. 1:2:2:1 B. 1:1:1:1 C. 2:1:1:2 D. 1:1:2:2 98 Full form of RNAi is

A. Ribonucleic acid interference B. Ribonucleic acetate inhibition C. Ribonucleic aspartate integration D. Ribosome nucleic acid inhibition CMB Entrance Exam Page 13

99 Polysome is involved with

A. Transcription B. Replication C. Translation D. Post transcription 100 The glucose homeostasis is maintained in the body by

A. Insulin B. Glucagon C. Insulin & Glucagon D. Somatostatin

CMB Entrance Exam Page 14

Booklet Test Registration No. ______code A Mathematics

The Maharaja Sayajirao University of Baroda Faculty of Science ADMISSION ENTRANCE EXAMINATION SUBJECT: Five Year Integrated M.Sc. in Cell & Molecular Biology DAY: Thursday DATE: 13th June 2019 TIME: 02:00 Pm to 04:00 pm Important Instructions:

1. This test booklet is to be opened only when instructed by the invigilators to do so. 2. This booklet carries 100 questions on 13 printed pages. All questions carry equal marks. 3. For every correct answer, candidate will earn 1 mark. 0.25 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. 4. Test Registration Number must be entered correctly in the OMR sheet, as advised by the invigilators. The Question Booklet code (A, B, C, or D) must also be mentioned on the OMR sheet (if not printed already) as instructed. 5. Answers must be marked in the OMR sheet using a black or dark blue ball point pen only. The circle should be filled in completely, leaving no gaps. Incorrect ways of marking answer: Correct way of marking answer: A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D

6. Gadgets (mobile phone, smart watch, ear phone, music players, etc.) are strictly prohibited in the exam hall. If any candidate is found in possession of any of these at his/her exam seat, he/she is liable to be disqualified.

CMB Entrance Exam Page 1 Invigilator’s signature______

Five Year Integrated M.Sc. in Cell & Molecular Biology Faculty of Science The M. S. University of Baroda Vadodara Entrance Test - 2019 Part-A

GENERAL APTITUDE &GENERAL KNOWLEDGE QUESTIONS

No. Questions Ans wer 1 What is the color of the Golden Gate Bridge located in San Francisco? A. Red B. International Orange C. Dark Byzantium D. Earth Yellow 2 Who is the current captain of the Indian football team? A. Sunil Chhetri B. Pronay Halder C. Subrata Pal D. Anirudh Thapa 3 How long does a train, 75 m long, moving at 60 km/hr take to pass a certain telegraph post? A. 3.5 seconds B. 4 seconds C. 4.5 seconds D. 6 seconds

4 How many words with or without meaning, can be formed by using all the letters of the word, ‘ORANGE’, using each letter exactly once? A. 700 B. 720 C. 750 D. 800

5 On an election day Santhosh walked from a place, 10 km towards South to reach the polling station, then turned left up to 2 km, then took a right turn, and took another 4 kms walk. Again he turned right and walked for 12 kms and took a 14 km walk by turning to North, and there he could see the polling station at a 12 km distance after taking a right turn. In which direction is the polling station situated, with respect to the starting point?

A. North B. East C. South D. West

6 Fill the blank in the series deb ijg nol ___ xyv. a. rsp b. stp c. rsq d. stq

7 The current ICC cricket world cup in 2019 is being hosted by A. England B. England and Wales C. England and Scotland D. England and Ireland 8 Eating 12 grapes at midnight on New Year's Eve is both a tradition and a superstition in which country

CMB Entrance Exam Page 2

A. Norway B. Spain C. Russia D.Bulgaria

9 The GST council has fitted over 1300 goods and 500 services under how many GST tax slabs in India A. 2 B. 3 C. 5 D. 4 10 Tom’s age after 15 years will be 5 times his age 5 years back. What is the present age of Tom? A. 2.5 years B. 10 years C. 9 years D. 5 years 11 The length of a rectangular plot is 5 1/3, times that of its breadth. If the area of the plot is 270 square metres, then what is its perimeter? A. 101 m B. 90 m C. 120 m D. 125 m 12. Rigveda Samhita is divided into ten books. What are the books called? A. Shreni B. Mandalas C. Upanishads D. Puranas

13 Which was the first remote sensing mission undertaken by ISRO? A. IMS1 B. IRS-1A C. SARAL D. Aryabhatt

14 If South-East becomes North, North-East becomes West and so on. What will West become? A. North-East B. North-West C. South-East D. South-West

15. Which of the following nobel laureate also won Bharat Ratna award? A. Rabindra nath tagore B. Amartya Sen C. Kailash Satyarthi D. Venkatraman Ramakrishnan

Part B- CHEMISTRY and PHYSICS

16 What is the correct IUPAC name of the following compound?

A. (E)-Oct-5-en-3-yne B. (E)-Oct-3-en-5-yne C. (Z)-Oct-5-en-3-yne D. (Z)-Oct-3-en-5-yne 17 Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of reactivity, when treated with a base.

CMB Entrance Exam Page 3

A. I > II > III B. II > III > I C. I > III > II D. III > I > II 18 Which of the following compounds will react with Grignard reagent to give 3o alcohol?

A. I, II and III B. Only II C. I and II D. II and IV 19 What is the major product in the following reaction?

A. PhCH2OCH2Ph

B. PhCH2NHNO

C. PhCH2OH

D. PhCH3

20 On electrolysis which of the following does not give oxygen? A. Acidic water, using Pt electrodes B. Fused NaOH using Pt electrodes C. Dilute H2SO4 using Pt electrodes D. Dilute H2SO4 using Cu electrodes

21 Bakelite is made from phenol and formaldehyde. The initial reaction between the two compounds is an example of: A. Aromatic electrophilic substitution B. Aromatic nucleophilic substitution C. Free radical reaction D. Aldol condensation 22 Complete hydrolysis of cellulose gives: A. D-Ribose B. D-Fructose C. L-Glucose D. D-Glucose 23 If the salt bridge is removed suddenly from a working cell, the voltage: A. Increases B. Decreases C. Drops to zero D. May increase or decrease depending on cell reaction

CMB Entrance Exam Page 4

24 A liquid is in equilibrium with its vapours at its boiling point. On average the molecules in the two phases have equal: A. Intermolecular forces B. Potential energy C. Kinetic energy D. Total energy 25 99 % of a first order reaction completes in 32 minutes, therefore, 99.9 % reaction will complete in. A. 51 minutes B. 64 minutes C. 60 minutes D. 48 minutes 26 Among LiCl, NaCl, KCl and MgCl, the salt _____ has covalent character. A. LiCl B. NaCl C. KCl D. MgCl

27 Choose the correct properties of Ψ A. Finite and imaginary B. Infinite and multiple value C. Finite and single value D. Real and multiple 28 Iodine can exist in the oxidation states: A. +1, +3, +5 B. -1, +1, +3 C. +3, +5. +7 D. -1, +1, +3, +5, +7 29 Which of the following will form chelate: A. Ethylenediamine B. Ammonia C. Aniline D. Cyanide 30 In nature, Mg2+ is present in which of the following Complex/compound? A. Chlorophyll B. Carotene C. Haemoglobin D. Vitamin-C

31 Octahedral geometry in a complex will be produced by ______hybridization A. sp3 B. d2sp3 C. sp2 D. d2sp2 32 Two isotonic solutions will have same: A. Vapour pressure B. Boiling point C. Freezing point D. Osmotic pressure 33 Identify the correct statement regarding enzymes: A. Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that can normally function at very high temperatures (T ~1000 K). B. Enzymes are normally heterogeneous catalysts that are very specific in their action. C. Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that cannot be poisoned D. Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that possess well defined active sites.

CMB Entrance Exam Page 5

34 Dissolving 120 g of urea (mol wt 60) in 1000g of water gave a solution of density 1.15 g/mL. The molarity of the solution is A. 1.78 M B. 2.00 M C. 2.1 M D. 2.22 M

35 Marsh gas is a mixture of A. H2, O2 and CO2 B. H2O, CH4, CO2 C. CH4, H2S, CO2 D. C2H4, H2S, CO 36 For a radioactive material, half-life is 10 minutes. If initially there are 600 number of nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the disintegration of 450 nuclei is :- A. 20 B. 10 C. 30 D. 15

37 A pendulum is hung from the roof of a sufficiently high building and is moving freely to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum is 20 m/s2 at a distance of 5 m from the mean position. The time period of oscillation is:- A. 2π s B. π s C. 2 s D. 1S 38 The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working between the freezing point and boiling point of water, is A. 26.8% B. 20% C. 6.25% D. 12.5% 39 The electrostatic force between the metal plates of an isolated parallel plate capacitor C having a charge Q and area A, is :- A. independent of the distance between the plates. B. linearly proportional to the distance between the plates C. proportional to the square root of the distance between the plates. D. inversely proportional to the distance between the plates.

40 A geosynchronous satellite is one which A. Revolves around the earth in the same speed as that of the earth’s revolution around the sun B. Revolves around the earth in the same speed as that of the earth’s rotation around its axis C. Its period of revolution matches the period of revolution of the moon D. None of the above 41 When light waves travel from a denser to a rarer medium, what happens? A. There is refraction of light irrespective of the angle of incidence B. There is total internal reflection when the angle of incidence is smaller than the critical angle

CMB Entrance Exam Page 6

C. There is total internal reflection when the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle D. Both (a) and (b) 42 The ear of some animals can distinguish ultrasonic sound waves, but not human ear. What is the frequency of ultrasonic sound waves? A. They have frequency lower than 10 milli Hz B. They have frequency lower than 10 kilo Hz C. They have frequency higher than 20 kilo Hz D. They have frequency higher than 20 milli Hz 43 Two balls of masses 2 kg and 3 kg slide along a frictionless horizontal surface with speeds of 4 m/s and 2 m/s, respectively. After an inelastic collision, the balls stick together and move at a speed of 2 m/s. What direction did the two balls move before the collision? A. In the same direction B. In opposite directions C. At an angle not equal to 0° or 180° D. Not enough information given to select an answer

44 A loop of current creates a magnetic field. How can you increase the strength of this magnetic field? A. By increasing the number of loops B. By increasing the current flowing through the loop C. By increasing the diameter of the loop D. Both (a) and (b) 45 Which of the following two paths need more work to push a unit charge in a uniform electric field in between two fixed points A and B? (i) (ii) (iii)

A. Path (i) B. Path (ii) C. Path (iii) D. Work done is same for all the three paths 46 Two resistors, R1 and R2 are connected to a battery producing a voltage V. Then which of the following is true?

A. unequal current flows through R1 and R2 if connected in series B. There is equal voltage across R1 and R2 if connected in series C. There is equal voltage across R1 and R2 if connected in parallel

CMB Entrance Exam Page 7

D. There is equal current flowing through R1 and R2 if connected in parallel 47 Which of the following statements is the zeroeth law of thermodynamics? A. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed B. The entropy of the universe is increasing C. If two systems A and B are in thermal contact, then they are at the same temperature with a third body in thermal contact with A and /or B D. The entropy of the universe is zero at 0 K.

48 What is the viscous drag experienced by a small particle of size 20 Å moving through a fluid of viscosity 20 Pascal-sec at a constant speed of 20 m/s ? A. 0.8 X 10-12 kg-m-s-2 B. 1.5 X 10-11 kg-m-s-2 C. 1.5 X 10-11 m-s-2 D. None of the above 49 Which experiment can prove that light consists of particles called photons? A. Bragg diffraction B. Interference of light C. Photoelectric effect D. Photovoltaic effect 50 If the refractive index of a plano-convex lens is 1.6 and the radius of curvature is 60 cm then the focal length of the lens is

A. 50 B. 100 C. -50 D. -100 51 Which of the following phenomena is used in optical fibre? A. reflection B. total internal reflection C. interference D. scattering 52 Twelve wires of equal resistance r are joined to form a cube. The effective resistance between two diagonal ends will be____

A. 3r B. 5r/6 C. 6r/5 (D. 12r

53 A bar magnet is released from rest along the axis of a very long, vertical copper tube. After some time the magnet A. Will stop in the tube B. will move with constant speed C.Will move with an acceleration g D. will oscillate 54 Let Cv and Cp are the molar heat capacities of an ideal gas at constant volume and constant pressure respectively. Which of the following is a universal constant? A. Cp/Cv B. Cp Cv C. Cp - Cv D. Cp + Cv

55 An AND gate can be prepared by repetitive use of

CMB Entrance Exam Page 8

A. NOT gate B. OR gate C. NAND gate D. XOR gate Part C (for Mathematics subject) 56 If 퐴 is a finite set containing 100 – elements, then the number of elements in the power set of 퐴 × 퐴 is (A) 210000 (B) 2200 (C) 1002 (D) 200

57 A batch of 60 students is numbered as 1 to 60. All even numbered students opted for mathematics, those students whose numbers are divisible by 7 opted for Physics and those students whose numbers are divisible by 9 opted for chemistry. How many opted for none of the three subjects? (A) 0 (B) 23 (C) 37 (D) 44

푥2 58 Suppose line 퐿 with the slope 푚 is a tangent to the ellipse + 푦2 = 1. Then line L 16 will be tangent to the circle 푥2 + 푦2 = 16 for the value of 푚 =______. 1 1 1 (A) ± (B) ± (C) ± (D) ±1 4 16 2

59 How many 4 – digits numbers can be formed using the digits 1 to 9 without repetition such that numbers either have all digits less than 6 or all digits greater than or equal to 5? (A) 40 (B) 120 (C) 144 (D) 240

60 The equation of the locus of points in a plane such that the sum of the squares of its distance from the axes is equal to 9 is (A) 푥2 + 푦2 = 9 (B) 푥2 − 푦2 = 9 (C) 푦2 − 푥2 = 9 (D) 푥 + 푦 = 9

61 For the natural numbers 푥 and 푦 consider equation 5푥 + 4푦 = 4534. Then (A) 푥 is always an odd integer. (B) 푥 is always an even integer. (C) 푥 is an odd integer only if 푦 is an even integer. (D) 푥 is an even integer only if 푦 is an odd integer. 62 A pair of consecutive even positive integers both of which are larger than 7 and their sum is less than 25 is (A) (2, 4) (B) (4,6) (C) (10, 12) (D) (12,14) 63 In a collection of 20 cricket players only 7 can bowl. In how many ways one can select a cricket team of eleven players which must include exactly 4 bowlers? (A) 143 (B) 8580 (C) 1100 (D) 60060 64 Consider the circle (푥 − 2)2 + (푦 − 1)2 = 9. If the line 푥 + 푘푦 + 2 = 0 is a diameter of this circle, then 푘 =______. (A) – 4 (B) – 2 (C) 4 (D) 2

CMB Entrance Exam Page 9

65 The positive value of 푚 for which coefficient of 푥2 in the expansion of (1 + 푥)푚 is 6 is equal to (A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 3

66 Suppose sin 푥 − sin 푦 = 0 and cos 푥 − cos 푦 = 0. Then cos 2푥 + cos 2푦 =______. (A) −2 sin (푥 + 푦) (B) 2 sin (푥 + 푦) (C) 2 cos (푥 + 푦) (D) −2 cos (푥 + 푦) 67 Let A, B be two subsets of set of real numbers and 푓 ∶ 퐴 → 퐵 be a strictly increasing function. Then the inverse map 푓−1 ∶ 퐵 → 퐴 is (A) neither one – one nor an not map (B) a one – one but not an onto map. (C) an onto but not a one – one map. (D) a one – one and an onto map. 1 68 푥3 sin( ) − 2푥2 The value of the limit, lim 푥 = 푥→∞ 1+푥2 (A) −1 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) 3

69 Range of the function 푓(푥) = −2|푥| + 1 is (A) (−∞, 0] (B) (−∞, 1] (C) (−∞, −1] (D) (−∞, 2]

70 The point on the 푌 −axis whose distance from the line 3푥 + 4푦 = 6 is 2 units is (A) ( −1, 0) (B) ( 0, −4) (C) ( 0,−1) (D) (0, 2) 2 71 If log10(2푥 + 4푥) − log10(푥 + 2) = 1, then 푥 =______. (A) 10 (B) 1 (C) 20 (D) 5

72 If the least positive integer 푛 when divided by 12, 15, 21, 24 gives remainder 5, then the value of 푛 is (A) 845 (B) 840 (C) 1690 (D) 1695 73 The sum of the three integers in arithmetic progression is 36 and the product of first and third number is 23. The numbers are (A) 0,12, 23 (B) 1, 12, 23 (C) 11, 12, 23 (D) 12, 23, 35 1 74 If cos2 휃 , sin 휃 , 푐표푠푒푐 휃 are in geometric progression then the value of 휃 such that 6 0 ≤ 휃 ≤ 휋 is 휋 휋 휋 (A) (B) (C) (D) 0 3 2 6 5 75 1 28 Complex number (푖18 + ( ) ) = 푖 (A) 1 (B) −푖 (C) 푖 (D) 0 푑푦 76 If 푦푥 = 푥푦 , then is equal to 푑푥

CMB Entrance Exam Page 10

푦(푦−푥 푙표푔푦) 푥(푦−푥 푙표푔푦) (A) (B) 푥(푥−푦 푙표푔푥) 푦(푥−푦 푙표푔푥) 푦(푥−푦 푙표푔푥) (C) (D) none of these. 푥(푦−푥 푙표푔푦) 77 The distance of the plane 2푥 − 3푦 + 4푧 − 6 = 0 from origin is

6 √29 (A) 6 units (B) units (C) 6√29 units (D) units. √29 6

78 The value of 푐 for which the vectors 푎⃗ = 푖⃗ + 2푗⃗ + 푘⃗⃗ and 푏⃗⃗ = 푖⃗ + 푐푘⃗⃗ are orthogonal is

(A) 1 (B) −1 (C) 2 (D) −2 .

푑푦 79 The general solution of the differential equation 푥2 + 푥푦 = 1 , 푥 > 0 is 푑푥

(A) 푦 = 푥 + 푙표푔푥 + 푐 (B) 푥푦 = 푙표푔푥 + 푐 (C) 푦 = 푐 푙표푔푥 (D) none of these .

80 The area of the region enclosed by the parabolas 푦 = 푥2 and 푦 = 2푥 − 푥2 is

1 1 (A) 2 (B) (C) 3 (D) . 2 3

81 The value of the integral ∫ 푒푥푠푒푐푥(1 + 푡푎푛푥)푑푥 is

(A) 푒푥푐표푠푥 + 푐 (B) 푒푥푠푒푐푥 + 푐

(C) 푒푥푠푖푛푥 + 푐 (D) 푒푥푡푎푛푥 + 푐 .

82 The interval in which 푦 = 푥2푒−푥 is increasing is

(A) (−∞, ∞) (B) (−2, 0) (C) (2, ∞) (D) (0,2) .

83 If 푓: ℝ → ℝ be given by 푓(푥) = (3 − 푥3)1⁄3, then 푓 ∘ 푓 is given by

(A) 푥1⁄3 (B) 푥3 (C) 푥 (D) 3 − 푥2.

84 In a class of 60 students, 30 opted for physics, 32 opted for statistics and 24 opted for both physics and statistics. If one of the students is selected at random, the probability that the student has offered neither physics nor statistics is

11 19 2 (A) (B) (C) (D) none of these. 30 30 30

85 The mean and standard deviation of six observations are 8 and 4, respectively. If each observation is multiplied by 3, then the new mean and standard deviation of the resulting observations are

CMB Entrance Exam Page 11

4 8 4 (A) 8 and 12 (B) 24 and (C) and (D) 24 and 12. 3 3 3

86 1 훼 0 The value of 훼 for which the determinant of the matrix (4 5 3) , is zero, is 1 0 2 (A) 2 (B) 0 (C) 3 (D) 4 .

87 The ratio of two numbers is 13:15 and their LCM 39780, then the numbers are

(A) 2652 , 3060 (B) 884, 1020 (C) 884, 1040 (D) 670, 1340.

88 A batsman has a certain average runs for 11 innings. In the 12th inninghe made a score of 90 runs and thereby decreases his average by 5 . His average after 12th inning is

(A) 127 (B) 150 (C) 145 (D) 217 .

(3.537−0.948)2+(3.537+0.948)2 89 The value of is (3.537)2+(0.948)2

(A) 4.485 (B) 2.589 (C) 4 (D) 2 .

90 A and B can do a piece of work in 12 days; B and C in 15 days; C and A in 20 days; then A alone can do the work in

2 (A) 15 days (B) 30 days (C) 24 days (D) 40 days . 3

91 A man sells an article at a gain of 10% . If he had bought it at 10% less and sold it for Rs. 132 less, he would have gained 10%.The cost price of the article is

(A) Rs. 1200 (B) Rs.1320 (C) Rs. 1188 (D) Rs. 1801.

92 The area of an equilateral triangle is 4√3 푐푚2, then the length of each side of the triangle is

3 4 (A) 4 cm (B) 3 cm (C) √ cm (D) cm . 4 √3

93 A train covers a distance in 50 minutes if it runs at a speed of 48km/hr on an average. The speed at which the train must run to reduce the time of journey to 40 minutes will be

(A) 50 km/hr (B) 55 km/hr (C) 60 km/hr (D) 70 km/hr .

94 Find the missing number in the sequence 2 , 9 , 28 , 65 , 126 , − , 344 .

CMB Entrance Exam Page 12

(A) 225 (B) 216 (C) 217 (D) 250

95 If the volumes of two cones are in the ratio 1:4 and their diameters are in the ratio 4:5, then the ratio of their heights is

(A) 1:5 (B) 5:4 (C) 5:16 (D) 25:64.

96 The probability of drawing any two queen cards from a pack of cards is (A) 6/1326 (B) 1/26 (C) 4/1326 (D) none of these

97 The probability that a leap year selected at random will have 53 Sundays is equal to (A) 1/7 (B) 2/7 (C) 2/53 (D) 52/53

98 The mean and variance of binomial distribution are 4 and 4/3 respectively. Then n= (A) 6 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 4

99 If a random variable X has the following probability distribution:

X -1 -2 1 2 P(X=x) 1/3 1/6 1/6 1/3 Then the expected value of X is (A) 3/2 (B) 1/6 (C) 1/2 (D) 1

100 For Bernoulli distribution with probability p of a success and q of a failure, the relation between mean and variance that holds is: (A) mean > variance (B) mean < variance (C) mean = variance (D) mean < variance

CMB Entrance Exam Page 13