DGPD 711 Highlighted items denote final questions. Treatment Procedures for Children Year II- Semester 2 Instructor of Record: Dr. Norman Martinez

Directions: Choose the one best answer for each of the following questions and blacken A for True and B for False on the answer sheet provided.

1. The primary dentition starts at 14 months. False True

2. The first maxillary primary molar starts calcification at False True 4 month in utero.

3. The mandibular primary lateral incisor exfoliates at False True 6-7 years of age.

4. The 2nd primary molars start calcification at 6 months False True in utero.

5. Primary cuspids complete enamel formation at 9 months False True in utero.

6. Shedding of mandibular first primary molars occurs at False True 10-12 years of age.

7. Mandibular permanent central incisor’s eruption occurs False True at 6-7 years of age.

8. Eruption of first permanent molars occur at 6-7 years of False True age.

9. Calcification of mandibular permanent incisors starts at False True birth.

10. Calcification of first permanent mandibular molars starts False True at birth.

11. The crown of all primary teeth tend to be flattened at the False True cervix.

12. Primary incisors show less prominent mamelons on the False True incisal than permanent teeth.

13. Mandibular primary molars have their greatest crown False True dimension bucco-lingually.

1 14. Maxillary primary molars have their greatest crown False True dimension mesio-destally.

15. All primary molars have two roots. False True

16. In primary teeth, enamel rods at the cervix run occlusally False True instead of being towards the gingiva as in permanent teeth.

17. Eruption cyst or eruption hematoma is most frequently False True seen in the primary cuspid area.

18. According to researchers, teething does not cause any False True rise in temperature, white blood count or diarrhea.

19. Streptococcus mutans is not present in the oral cavity of False True of infants at birth.

20. The acids that initially decalcify the enamel have a pH of False True 5.5 to 5.2 or less and are formed in the plaque material.

21. In the initial process of dental caries, the acid diffuses False True on the dentin and produces a subsurface lesion.

22. A caries lesion is not usually detected radiographically False True until it spreads at least 20 microns into dentin.

23. Demineralization is a means to reverse the carious False True process.

24. The surface and dark zones are formed as a result of False True remineralization.

25. The dark and translucent zones can be histologically False True observed in quinoline medium.

26. The dark zone in the carious lesion has the highest rate False True of remineralization.

27. A slight increase in salivary urea concentration might False True

2 tend to reduce the development of caries.

28. Inorganic phosphate compounds added to food may exert False True cariostatic effect to a diet.

29. When fats are mixed with carbohydrates in food prepar- False True ation, they tend to increase cariogenecity.

30. The physical nature of sweets is important in caries False True development.

31. Detersive foods have anticarious effect. False True

32. When a dental preventative diet is prescribed, it should False True vary as little as possible from the regular diet.

33. The Bass brushing technique is recommended only for False True adults.

34. Severe dental fluorosis produces hypoplasia of enamel. False True

35. Fluoride does not exert any direct influence upon False True odontoblast.

36. White flecking or spotting on the enamel is observed when False True the drinking water has concentrations approaching 1.5 ppm of fluoride.

37. Mottled enamel is usually found on the labial surfaces False True of permanent and primary teeth.

38. Fluorides produces large crystals on the enamel. These False True crystals are less resistant to decay.

39. Low concentrations of fluoride in a frequent routine False True assist in remineralization.

40. In high concentrations, fluoride is bacteriostatic. False True

41. When fluoride is ingested during tooth development, a False True slightly smaller tooth with shallow fissures is formed.

3 42. Fluoride homeostasis is probably controlled by intestinal False True absorption, liver excretion and gastric reabsorption.

43. Fluoride dentifrices reduces dental caries on a 30-40%. False True

44. The fluoride concentration of APF office foam is False True 12300 ppm.

45. Ten milliliters of a 0.2% NaF mouth rinse has False True approximately 10 mg of fluoride.

46. A 0.22% of NaF toothpaste has 0.10% fluoride False True concentration.

47. For a 4 year old child living in an area with a 0.3-0.6% False True ppm in the water, the supplemental fluoride dosage is 0.25 mg of fluoride daily.

48. The most frequent adverse effect of a topical fluoride False True application in a child is abdominal pain.

49. The CLD of fluoride for an adult is: 32-64 mg F/Kg. False True

50. The STD of fluoride for an adult is: 16-32 mg F/Kg. False True

51. Gingivitis is the most common periodontal disturbance False True in children.

52. The gingiva in children is more stippled and less rounded False True at the margins than in adults.

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53. The alveolor bone in children shows a thinner lamina False True dura.

54. The attached gingiva is narrower than in adults. False True

55. The cement is thicker and more dense in children. False True

56. Eruption gingivitis is treated with light debriment and False True good oral hygiene.

57. Gingivitis in children is localized in the papillae-marginal False True tissue and is reversible after good oral hygiene is established.

58. Patients with puberty gingivitis present gingival enlarge- False True ment of the buccal aspect of the posterior segment.

59. The T-lymphocite-dominated lesion is characteristic False True in children with chronic gingivitis.

60. Periodontal destruction in adolescents bacteriologically is False True partially due to defects in chemotaxes of polymorphonuclear cells.

61. Increased subgingival levels of actinomyces or black False True pigmented anaerobies rods have been related with the etiology of chronic gingivitis in children.

62. Early-onset periodontitis affects teenagers and senior False True citizens.

63. Localized juvenile periodontitis affects mainly the first False True molars and incisors.

64. Higher amount of P. gingivalis are formed in generalized False True juvenile periodontitis (GJP) than in localized juvenile periodontitis.

65. Patients with localized juvenile periodontitis (LJP) generally False True form a great amount of supragingival dental plaque or calculus.

66. When LJP is early diagnosed may respond well to local False True treatment and systemic tetracycline.

67. GJP respond well to the same type of therapy given to False True patients with LJP.

5 68. ANUG’s etiology is related with Spirochetes and Prevotella False True intermedia.

69. In diabetic children affected subgingival sites harbor Aa, False True Capnocytophaga and anaerobic vibrios.

70. Herpetic gingivostomatitis is caused by herpes simplex False True virus type III.

71. The etiology of recurrent apthous ulcer (RAU) is unknown. False True

72. Moniliasis is caused by candida albicans. False True

73. Phenytion induces gingival overgrowth. False True

74. Prepubertal gingivitis is associated with leukocyte False True adherence deficiency.

75. The etiology of prepubertal periodontitis has been False True associated with Aa, P. gingivalis, bacteriods melaningeniucus and Fusobacterium milleatum.

76. Papillon-Lefevre syndrome affects only primary dentition. False. True

77. Oral manifestations occur with more frequency in lymphatic False True leukemia.

78. Monocytic leukemia is more common in children. False True

79. Hypophosphatasia is an autosomal recessive skeletal False True

6 disorder that affects only primary dentition.

80. A frenotomy involves complete excision of the frenum and False True its periodontal attachment.

81. Fused teeth have separate pulp chamber and pulp canals. False True

82. Fusion and gemination is a condition almost always False True limited to anterior primary teeth.

83. Dens in dente is a condition that can occur only in primary False True dentition.

84. In enamel hypoplasia the quantity of matrix is affected. False True

85. In mild neonatal hypoplasia enamel formation is sometimes False True arrested at birth.

86. Deficiencies in vitamins A, C, D, Ca, P can often be related False True to enamel hypoplasia.

87. Enamel hypoplasia resulting from local infection is called False True Turner’s tooth.

88. Dentinogenesis imperfecta occurs in conjunction with osteo- False True genesis imperfecta.

89. Dentinogenesis imperfecta occurs only in primary dentition. False True

90. In children with dentinogenesis imperfecta radiographs False True show slender roots, bulbous crowns and small pulp chambers.

91. Ectopic eruption of first maxillary permanent molars has False True the highest incidence.

92. Oligodontia is the complete absence of teeth. False True

93. Neonatal teeth erupt within 30 days after birth. False True

94. Transposition is the lingual position of a tooth. False True

95. Failure of the total or partial formation of enamel matrix False True of one or more teeth produces amelogenesis imperfecta.

7 96. Enamel hypocalcification is a defect of apposition. False True

97. Children with ectodermal displasia suffer also False True dentinogenesis imperfecta.

98. Hutchinson incisors are characteristic of diabetes type I. False True

99. Erythoblaslosis fetalis produces intrisic staining of primary False True teeth.

100. Concrescence is the union of two teeth by dentin. False True

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