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BPSCNotes Mock Test-3

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1. In case of a proclamation imposing President’s Rule has been 0 / 1 approved by both the Houses of Parliament then the President’s Rule continues for how long?

A) 2 months

B) 6 months

C) 12 months

D) depend on the will of the Parliament

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Correct answer

B) 6 months

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Ans- (B) Explanation: If approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the President’s Rule continues for six months. It can be extended for a maximum period of three years with the approval of the Parliament, every six months. However, if the dissolution of the Lok Sabha takes place during the period of six months without approving the further continuation of the President’s Rule, then the proclamation survives until 30 days from the Krst sitting of the Lok Sabha after its reconstitution, provided the Rajya Sabha has in the meantime approved its continuance.

Add individual feedback 2. In which of the following amendment of Indian Constitution 1 / 1 introduced a new provision to put restraint on the power of Parliament to extend a proclamation of President’s Rule beyond one year?

A) 41st

B) 42nd

C) 44th

D) 45th

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(c) Exp: The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 introduced a new provision to put restraint on the power of Parliament to extend a proclamation of President’s Rule beyond one year. Thus, it provided that, beyond one year, the President’s Rule can be extended by six months at a time only when the following two conditions are fulKlled:

• A proclamation of National Emergency should be in operation in the whole of , or in the whole or any part of the state; and

• The Election Commission must certify that the general elections to the legislative assembly of the concerned state cannot be held on account of diWculties

Add individual feedback 3. Which of the following commissions was constituted by 1 / 1 Government of India to examine the Centre and State relations:

A) Sarkaria Commission

B) Usha Mehra Commission

C) Shah Commission

D) Kothari Commission

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(A) Exp: Sarkaria Commission: It was set up in June 1983 by the central government of India to examine the relationship and balance of power between state and central governments in the country and suggest changes within the framework of .

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4. How soon imposition of National Emergency should be 1 / 1 approved by the Parliament?

A) 1 month

B) 2 months

C) 6 months

D) 3 months

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(A) Exp: Initially, the approval of Parliament should have been done in 2 months but it was reduced to 1 month by 44th Constitution Amendment Act.

Add individual feedback 5. Which kind of emergency will be imposed in the case of war, 1 / 1 external aggression and armed rebellion?

A) 356

B) 352

C) 360

D) 354

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(B) Exp: National Emergency (under Article 352) is imposed in the situation of war, external attacks and armed uprising

Add individual feedback 6. Which of the following statements is wrong? 0 / 1

A) Elected and nominated members of the State Legislative Assembly participate in the presidential election.

B) The Union Executive includes the President, Vice President, Prime Minister, Attorney General of India

C) Impeachment may be initiated against the President for 'breach of constitution'

D) Article 56 envisages the tenure of the President

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Correct answer

A) Elected and nominated members of the State Legislative Assembly participate in the presidential election.

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Ans:(A) Exp: Only elected members of the State Legislative Assembly participate in the presidential election, nominated members do not participate.

Add individual feedback 7. Who participates in the Presidential election? 0 / 1

A) Elected members of both Houses of Parliament

B) Elected and nominated members of the State Legislative Assembly

C) Members of all Union Territories

D) Nominated members of both the Houses of Parliament

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Correct answer

A) Elected members of both Houses of Parliament

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Ans:(A) Exp: In the Presidential election, elected members of both houses of parliament, elected members of the state legislature and only elected members of and Puducherry Legislatures participate.

Add individual feedback 8. Which of the following statements is not correct? 0 / 1

A) President is the head of military forces of India

B)President can appoint a commission to investigate into the conditions of SCs and STs.

C) Parliament can declare any area as scheduled area

D) President of India chooses the chairman of the Finance Commission

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Correct answer

C) Parliament can declare any area as scheduled area

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Ans:(C) Exp: President of India can declare any area as schedule area

Add individual feedback 9. Impeachment of the President can be initiated in ______1 / 1 .

A) Only in Lok Sabha

B) Only in Rajya Sabha

C) In either house of Parliament

D) Supreme Court

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(C) Exp: The impeachment charges against President can be initiated in either house of Parliament.

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10. The salary and allowances of the Ministers of the 1 / 1 Government of India are determined by whom?

A) Prime Minister

B) President

C) Council of Ministers

D) Parliament

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(D) Exp: The salaries and allowances of the Ministers of the Government of India are determined by the Parliament.

Add individual feedback 11. It is necessary to be a member of a house after 6 months of 1 / 1 becoming a minister, but in what way should a member of the house be elected?

A) by election only

B) by nomination only

C) either by election or nomination.

D) by the resoluton passed by the Parliament with special majority

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(C) Exp: Membership can be obtained either by election or nomination within 6 months.

Add individual feedback 12. What does it mean that the Council of Ministers is 0 / 1 collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha?

A) All Ministers are liable to the Lok Sabha for their work

B) All Ministers are responsible for the Rajya Sabha for their work

C) All ministers will act as a team

D) Only Lok Sabha members can become the member of Council of Ministers

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Correct answer

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(E) More than one Exp: The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha,it means that all the ministers will be responsible to the Lok Sabha for their work and act as a party. So, both option (A)& (C) are correct.

When the Lok Sabha Minister passes a no conKdence motion against the Council of ministers, then all the ministers (either elected from the Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha) have to give resignation.

Add individual feedback 13. The Parliamentary System of government in India is taken 0 / 1 from ______.

A) Canada

B) UK

C) America

D) Australia

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Correct answer

B) UK

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Ans:(B) Exp: The parliamentary system of government in the constitution of India is based on the British model. Provisions of Indian Constitution which have been borrowed from British Constitution: Federal Scheme Emergency Provisions Public Service Commissions OWce of Governor Judiciary Administrative Details

Add individual feedback 14. Consider the following statements. Which among them are 1 / 1 NOT true?

A) Article 75 provides information on the appointment and selection of Prime Minister

B) A person must always prove his majority in Lok Sabha before his appointment as Prime Minister by the President

C) A person may be appointed as Prime Minister by the President who must prove his majority later

D) A person who is not a member of Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha can be appointed as Prime Minister

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(B) Exp: Article 75 of the Constitution speciKes that the appointment of the Prime Minister will always be done by the President. And according to Delhi High Court's decision in 1980, a person may be appointed as Prime Minister by the President who must prove his majority later within a reasonable period. Also, in 1997 the Supreme Court declared that A person who is not a member of Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha can be appointed as Prime Minister who must get appointed (either elected or nominated) to either of the Houses within 6 months.

Add individual feedback 15. What is term of the oice of Prime Minister? 0 / 1

a) 5 years

b) 4 years

c) Not hxed

d) 6 years

e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Correct answer

c) Not hxed

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Ans:(C) Exp: Prime Minister's term is not Kxed in the Constitution, unlike that of the President which is 5 years. The Prime Minister remains in oWce as long as he has the majority in Lok Sabha, and until he enjoys this majority he cannot be removed by the President either. The Prime Minister's term ends when he loses the conKdence of the Lok Sabha.

Add individual feedback 16. Which among the following is NOT within the power of the 1 / 1 Prime Minister?

a) The Prime Minister presides over the meeting of Council of Ministers

b) Resignation of the Prime Minister means resignation of the entire Council of Ministers

c) The Prime Minister directly appoints everyone in the Council of Ministers

d) The Prime Minister allocates portfolios to the Ministers

e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(C) Exp: The Prime Minister does not “directly” appoint the Council of Ministers, but he advices the President on who should be appointed and it is the President who does the task of direct appointing.

Add individual feedback 17. From which source India got concept of Single order of 1 / 1 court?

A) Government of India Act, 1935

B) Government of India Act, 1919

C) Pitts India Act, 1773

D) Indian Independence Act of 1947

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(A) Government of India Act, 1935 Exp: The Constitution of India provides for a single integrated judiciary with the Supreme Court at the apex of judicial system. The single system of courts, adopted from the Government of India Act 1935, enforces both central laws as well as state laws In USA, on the other hand, the federal laws are enforced by federal judiciary and the state laws are enforced by state judiciary.[Our constitutional makers have adopted concepts of Fundamental Rights, independence of judiciary, judicial review, removal of Supreme Court and high court judges from USA]

Add individual feedback 18. Which qualihcation is NOT correct for being a judge in the 1 / 1 Supreme Court?

A) It is compulsory to be a citizen of India.

B) He should be a respected jurist in the eyes of Parliament

C) Must be a judge in the High Court for at least 5 years

D) He should be a lawyer in the High Court for at least 10 years

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(B) Exp: In the eyes of the PRESIDENT, he should be a respected jurist.

Add individual feedback 19. Which statement regarding the tenure of judges of Supreme 0 / 1 Court is not correct?

A) Judge of the Supreme Court can remain in oice till the age of 65 years.

B) Judge of the Supreme Court, gives his resignation letter to the Chief Justice

C) On the recommendation of Parliament he can be removed by the President.

D) Supreme Court judge can be removed only in the condition of misconduct.

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Correct answer

B) Judge of the Supreme Court, gives his resignation letter to the Chief Justice

Feedback

Ans:(B) Exp: A judge of the Supreme Court gives his resignation letter to the President.

Add individual feedback 20. Who among the following has the right to establish the 0 / 1 bench of Supreme Court elsewhere in the country?

A) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court

B) The President of India

C) The Parliament

D) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court has the right to allow to establish the bench of the Supreme Court elsewhere in the country with prior approval of the President.

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Correct answer

D) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court has the right to allow to establish the bench of the Supreme Court elsewhere in the country with prior approval of the President.

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Ans:(D) Exp: The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court has the right to seek the permission of the President before setting up the Supreme Court bench elsewhere in the country.

Add individual feedback 21. Mahalanobis Model has been associated with which hve 0 / 1 year plan?

A) 1st

B) 2nd

C) 3rd

D) 4th

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Correct answer

B) 2nd

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Ans:(B) Exp: Mahalanobis strategy of development emphasising basic heavy industries which was adopted Krst of all in the Second Plan also continued to hold the stage in Indian planning right up to the Fifth Plan which was terminated by the Janata Government in March 1978, a year before its full term of Kve years.

Add individual feedback 22. Which plan gave emphasis on removal of poverty for the 1 / 1 hrst time?

A) Fourth

B) Fifth

C) Sixth

D) Third

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(B) Exp: I. Its duration was from 1969 to 1974. II. There were two main objective of this plan i.e. growth with stability and progressive achievement of self reliance. III. During this plan the slogan of “Garibi Hatao” is given during the 1971 elections by Indira Gandhi. IV. This plan failed and could achieve growth rate of 3.3% only against the target of 5.7%

Add individual feedback 23. When was plan holiday declared? 1 / 1

a) After the third plan

b) After the fourth plan

c) After the hfth plan

d) After the sixth plan

e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(a) Exp: Plan Holiday: I. The duration of plan holiday was from 1966 to 1969. II. The main reason behind the plan holiday was the Indo-Pakistan war & failure of third plan. III. During this plan annual plans were made and equal priority was given to agriculture its allied sectors and the industry sector.

Add individual feedback 24. The very hrst hve year plan of India was based on the model 0 / 1 of:

(a) Mahalanobis model

(b) Harrod Domar Model

(c) Bombay Plan

(d) Nehru Model

(e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Correct answer

(b) Harrod Domar Model

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Ans:(b) Exp: First Five Year Plan: I. It was made for the duration of 1951 to 1956. II. It was based on the Harrod-Domar model. III. Its main focus was on the agricultural development of the country. IV. This plan was successful and achieved growth rate of 3.6% (more than its target)

Add individual feedback 25. In which hve year plan India opted for mixed economy? 1 / 1

(a) First

(b) Second

(c) Third

(d) Fourth

(e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(b) Exp: Mixed economy in India was adopted according to the second Kve year plan. Before Independence, India had a 'laissez faire' economy but with the introduction of this plan, it became mixed. This makes sure that the public and private sectors work side-by-side. The major aim of this plan was to optimize the country's economic growth in the long run.

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26. Who heads the Niti aayog as its chairperson? / 1

a) President of India

b) Prime minister

c) Finance minister

d) Minister of planning

e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

No correct answers

Add individual feedback 27. NITI Aayog came into effect from? 1 / 1

a) 1st march 2015

b) 1st April 2015

c) 1st January 2015

d) 25th dec 2014

e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Feedback

Ans:(C) Exp: Formed 1 January 2015; 3 years ago The NITI Aayog (Hindi for Policy Commission), also National Institution for Transforming India, is a policy think tank of the Government of India, established with the aim to achieve Sustainable Development Goals and to enhance cooperative federalism by fostering the involvement of State Governments of India in the economic policy-making process using a bottom-up approach.

Add individual feedback 28. Three annual plan were launched between: 1 / 1

a) 1969 to 1972

b) 1966 to 1969

c) 1986 to 1989

d) 1988 to 1991

e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(b) Exp: Plan Holiday: I. The duration of plan holiday was from 1966 to 1969. II. The main reason behind the plan holiday was the Indo-Pakistan war & failure of third plan. III. During this plan annual plans were made and equal priority was given to agriculture its allied sectors and the industry sector.

Add individual feedback 29. In which Five-Year Plans, For the hrst time the private sector 0 / 1 got the priority over public sector?

A) 5th

B) 6th

C) 7th

D) 8th

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Correct answer

C) 7th

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Ans:(C) Exp: Seventh Five Year Plan: I. Its duration was from 1985 to 1990. II. Objectives of this plan include the establishment of the self suWcient economy, opportunities for productive employment. III. For the Krst time the private sector got the priority over public sector. IV. Its growth target was 5.0% but it achieved 6.0%

Add individual feedback 30. Who was the author of the Book 'Planned Economy of India? 1 / 1

a) M. Visvesvaraya

b) Dada Bhai Nairobi

c) Bhim Rao Ambedkar

d)

e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(a) Exp: Mokshagundam Visvesvaraya, was Diwan of Mysore from 1912 to 1918. He received India's highest honour, the Bharat Ratna, in 1955.He wrote a book "Planned Economy for India" in 1934.

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31. Which of the following minerals are the main constituents of 1 / 1 the continental mass?

A) Silica & Ferrous

B) Ferrous & Magnesium

C) Silica & Alumina

D) Silica & Magnesium

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(C) Exp: Continental plates are lighter in density and composed mostly of granite rock material rich in silica and alumina. The oceanic plates are made of dense,basaltic rock composed predominately of silica and magnesium.

Add individual feedback 32. Core of the earth is mainly made up of ______& ______0 / 1

A) Silica, alumina

B) ferrous, silica

C) ferrous, alumina

D) nickel, ferrous

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Correct answer

D) nickel, ferrous

Feedback

Ans:(D) Exp: Core It is the innermost layer surrounding the earth’s centre. The core is separated from the mantle by Guttenberg’s Discontinuity. It is composed mainly of iron (Fe) and nickel (Ni) and hence it is also called as NIFE. The core is the densest layer of the earth with its density ranges between 9.5-14.5g/cm3. The Core consists of two sub-layers: the inner core and the outer core. The inner core is in solid state and the outer core is in the liquid state (or semi-liquid). The discontinuity between the upper core and the lower core is called as Lehmann Discontinuity. Barysphere is sometimes used to refer the core of the earth or sometimes the whole interior.

Add individual feedback 33. Which one of the following is NOT an 'destructive force'? 0 / 1

A) Glaciers

B) Landslides

C) Sea waves

D) Wind

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Correct answer

B) Landslides

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Ans:(B) Exp: Endogenic Forces: * These are internal forces that exist deep inside the Earth. * These forces are also known as ‘constructive forces’ as they create relief features on the surface of the Earth * Examples: Earthquakes, Landslides and volcanic eruptions.

Exogenic Forces * These are external forces that operate and act on the surface of the Earth. * These forces are also known as ‘destructive forces’ as they at times result in destruction of the existing landforms through weathering and erosional activities. * Examples: Winds, rivers, glaciers, sea-waves etc.

Add individual feedback 34. Which one is the correct match? 0 / 1

A) P waves : Transverse waves

B) S waves : Longitudinal waves

C) L waves : Surface waves

D) Rayleigh wave : Perpendicular waves

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(C) Exp: Primary waves or P waves (longitudinal)(fastest) Secondary waves or S waves (transverse)(least destructive) Surface waves or L waves (transverse)(slowest)(most destructive) Rayleigh waves are a type of surface acoustic wave that travel along the surface of solids.

Add individual feedback 35. Which country has the world's highest uninterrupted 1 / 1 waterfall?

A) Canada

B) USA

C) Zambia

D) Venezuela

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(D) Exp: Angel Falls is a waterfall in Venezuela. It is the world's highest uninterrupted waterfall, with a height of 979 metres and a plunge of 807 metres. The waterfall drops over the edge of the Auyán-tepui mountain in the Canaima National Park, a UNESCO World Heritage site in the Gran Sabana region of Bolívar State.

Add individual feedback 36. Mushroom rocks are found in ______. 0 / 1

A) Deserts

B) River Valleys

C) Glaciers

D) Young Mountains

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(A) Exp: An active agent of erosion and deposition in the deserts is wind. In deserts you can see rocks in the shape of a mushroom, commonly called Mushroom rocks. winds erode the lower section of the rock more than the upper part. Therefore, such rocks have narrower base and wider top.

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37. Which is not an erosional feature of sea waves? 0 / 1

A) Moraines

B) Cliff

C) Stacks

D) Sea caves

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(A) Exp: A lateral moraine forms along the sides of a glacier. As the glacier scrapes along, it tears off rock and soil from both sides of its path. This material is deposited as lateral moraine at the top of the glacier's edges. Lateral moraines are usually found in matching ridges on either side of the glacier

Add individual feedback 38. Which of the following is not a primary greenhouse gas 0 / 1 found in earth’s atmosphere?

A) Carbon dioxide

B) Methane

C) Water vapour

D) Nitrogen oxides (NOx)

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Correct answer

D) Nitrogen oxides (NOx)

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Ans:(D) Exp: A greenhouse gas is a gas in an atmosphere that absorbs and emits radiation within the thermal infrared range. The primary greenhouse gases in Earth’s atmosphere are water vapour, carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, and ozone. Nitrogen oxides (NOx) act as indirect greenhouse gases by producing the tropospheric greenhouse gas ‘ozone’ via photochemical reactions in the atmosphere.

Add individual feedback 39. Natural source of pollution is ______. 0 / 1

A) rain forest

B) mining for minerals

C) forest hre

D) falling of meteoroids

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Correct answer

C) forest hre

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Ans:(C) forest Kre

Add individual feedback 40. Which gas is second maximum by volume in the earth 1 / 1 atmosphere?

A) Nitrogen

B) Oxygen

C) Carbon Dioxide

D) Argon

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(B) Exp: By volume, dry air contains 78.09% nitrogen, 20.95% oxygen, 0.93% argon, 0.04% carbon dioxide, and small amounts of other gases.

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41. Why temperature decreases towards to pole? 1 / 1

A) Air moves towards the equator.

B) Cold heavy air prevent to reach sun’s heat to ground.

C) Cold surface do not absorb solar energy.

D) Progressively lesser solar energy per unit area falls on the earth’s surface as we move to polar regions.

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(D) Exp: Temperature decreases progressively from equator towards the poles because the sun is less far from the equator and it receives more and direct sunlight and as we go towards poles it decreases and in poles it becomes very little or none.

Add individual feedback 42. Thermosphere consists of ______. 0 / 1

A) troposphere

B) ionosphere

C) lithosphere

D) exosphere

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(B) Exp: There are Kve layers in the structure of atmosphere depending upon temperature. These layers are:

Troposphere Stratosphere Mesosphere Thermosphere: The lower Thermosphere is called the Ionosphere. Exosphere

Add individual feedback 43. In which layer of the atmosphere meteorites burn up on 0 / 1 entering from the space?

A) Ionosphere

B) Thermosphere

C) Stratosphere

D) Mesosphere

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Correct answer

D) Mesosphere

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Ans:(D) Exp: The mesosphere lies between the thermosphere and the stratosphere. “Meso” means middle, and this is the highest layer of the atmosphere in which the gases are all mixed up rather than being layered by their mass.

Meteors burn up in the mesosphere. The meteors make it through the exosphere and thermosphere without much trouble because those layers don’t have much air. But when they hit the mesosphere, there are enough gases to cause friction and create heat.

Add individual feedback 44. The air pressure is highest ______. 0 / 1

A) in mesoshphere

B) at high mountains

C) in plain areas

D) at sea level

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Correct answer

D) at sea level

Feedback

Ans:(D) Exp: Pressure decreases with increasing altitude. At higher elevations, there are fewer air molecules above a given surface than a similar surface at lower levels. Since most of the atmosphere's molecules are held close to the earth's surface by the force of gravity, air pressure decreases rapidly at Krst, then more slowly at higher levels.

Add individual feedback 45. Which one of the following is NOT permanent wind? 1 / 1

A) Trade winds

B) Monsoons

C) easterlies

D) Westerlies

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(B) Exp: ClassiKcation of Winds * Permanent winds or Primary winds or Prevailing winds or Planetary Winds The trade winds, westerlies and easterlies. * Secondary or Periodic Winds Seasonal winds: These winds change their direction in different seasons. For example monsoons in India. Periodic winds: Land and sea breeze, mountain and valley breeze. * Local winds These blow only during a particular period of the day or year in a small area. Winds like Loo, Mistral, Foehn, Bora.

Primary Winds or Prevailing Winds or Permanent Winds or Planetary Winds: These are the planetary winds which blow extensively over continents and oceans. The trade winds, westerlies and easterlies are the permanent winds. They blow constantly throughout the year in a particular direction.

* Monsoons are Secondary Winds or Periodic Winds. These winds change their direction with change in season.

Add individual feedback 46. Which one of the following is not of warm current? 0 / 1

A) Brazil current

B) Kuro Shio current

C) Canneries current

D) Labrador current

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Correct answer

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Feedback

Ans:(E) More than one; Labrador and Canneries currents are cold current Exp: Warm ocean currents originate near the equator and move towards the poles or higher latitudes while cold currents originate near the poles or higher latitudes and move towards the tropics or lower latitude.

The Ocean Currents in the northern hemisphere detects towards their right and in the southern hemisphere detect towards their left due to the Coriolis force. The only exception to this rule of the tow of ocean water is found in the Indian Ocean, where the direction of current tow changes with the change in the direction of monsoon wind tow. It is noteworthy that the cold currents are lesser in number as compared to the warm or hot current.

Add individual feedback 47. Which region of the world is known as "Orchards of the 0 / 1 world".

A) Alaska region

B) Indian ocean region

C) Central Asia regions

D) Mediterranean regions

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Correct answer

D) Mediterranean regions

Feedback

Ans:(D) Exp: Mediterranean regions are known as 'Orchards of the world' for their fruit cultivation. Citrus fruits such as oranges, Kgs, olives and grapes are commonly cultivated here because people have removed the natural vegetation in order to cultivate what they want to.

Add individual feedback 48. Which one is NOT correctly matched? 1 / 1

A) Steppe : Central Asia

B) Llanos : Vanezuela

C) Campos : Brazil

D) Down : Australia

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Feedback

Ans:(E) None Exp: *All are correctly matched. Major grasslands of the world: Australia : Dawns South America (Argentina & Uruguay) : Pampas North America : Prairies Africa and Australia : Savannah South America : Selvas Europe and Northern Asia : Steppes Europe and Asia : Taiga South Africa : Velds Venezuela (South America) : Llanos Hungary : Pustaz New Zealand : Cantebury

Add individual feedback 49. 'Manioc' is the staple food of ______. 0 / 1

A) Ganga basin

B) Africa

C) Amazon

D) China

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(C) Exp: Manioc or Cassava is the staple food while queen ants and egg sacs are the other savories of people near the Amazon river.

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50. Which of the following is known as the 'Gold Capital of the 1 / 1 world'?

A) Johannesburg

B) Kimberley

C) Canberra

D) Guinea

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Feedback

Ans:(A) Exp: Johannesburg is regarded as the Gold Capital of the world due to the gold mines.When gold mining began in this South African city in 1886 since then it has been regarded as Gold capital.

Add individual feedback 51. Govt launched eAksharayan Software in how many 1 / 1 languages?

A) 7

B) 15

C) 5

D) 10

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Feedback

Answer: A

Explanation:

E-Aksharayan is free, desktop software for converting scanned printed Indian Language documents into a fully editable text format in Unicode encoding. The software supports editing in seven Indian languages - Hindi, Bangla, Malayalam, Gurmukhi, Tamil, Kannada & Assamese.

Add individual feedback 52. Which of the following is the only state in India that has an 1 / 1 NRC (National Register of Citizens)?

A)

B) Assam

C) West Bengal

D) J & K

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Answer: B

Explanation:

Assam is the only state in India that has an NRC. In a bid to identify the illegal Bangladeshi migrants, the government released the Knal draft of National Register of Citizens (NRC) list with names of 28,983,677 citizens in Assam.

Add individual feedback 53. RBI increased the policy repo rate by 25 basis points to 1 / 1 ______

A) 6.0%

B) 6.5%

C) 6.6%

D) 5.5%

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Answer: B

Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) increased the repo rate by 25 basis points to 6.5% and the reverse repo rate to 6.25%. The marginal standing facility rate and the bank rate have been adjusted to 6.75%. This decision was made by the Monetary Policy Committee headed by RBI Governor Urjit Patel. Repo rate is the rate at which the RBI lends money to commercial banks in the event of a shortfall of funds.

Add individual feedback 54. Which rank did India obtain at UN E-Government Index 1 / 1 recently?

A) 108

B) 100

C) 96

D) 78

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Feedback

Answer: C

Explanation:

India jumped 22 places to 96th rank in the top 100 of the United Nations E-Government Development Index (EGDI) 2018. Denmark, with an index value of 0.9150, topped the 2018 E-Government Development Survey. The E-Government survey is released by the United Nations in every two years. The 2018 edition was titled as 'Gearing E-Government to Support Transformation towards sustainable and resilient societies'. India, which was ranked 118 in 2014, jumped 11 places to be ranked 96 in 2018.

Add individual feedback 55. Which city hosted the 2018 Unihed Commanders' 0 / 1 Conference (UCC)?

A) Ahmedabad

B) Mumbai

C) New Delhi

D) Bengalore

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Answer: C

Explanation:

The UniKed Commanders' Conference (UCC) for the year 2018 has started at New Delhi on July 30 to review external security challenges as well as the country's preparedness.

Add individual feedback 56. Which of the following countries is NOT hosting the 2018 0 / 1 International Army Games (IAG)?

A) Russia

B) Armenia

C) India

D) Iran

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Answer: C

Explanation:

The International Army Games 2018 are being held at 24 training grounds in seven countries namely Azerbaijan, Armenia, Belarus, Iran, Kazakhstan, China and Russia from July 28 to August 11. It is for the Krst time that Armenia and Iran are co-hosting events of the Army Games. Indian teams are taking part in two major competitions– Tank Biathlon event at Alabino ranges, Moscow region and Elbrus Ring competition in Caucasus mountains. The opening ceremony was attended by Indian Ambassador to Russia, Pankaj Saran along with Indian attaches attended the ceremony.

Add individual feedback 57. What was the theme of the 2018 World Day against 0 / 1 Traicking in Persons?

A) Unite to eradicate human traicking

B) Act to protect and assist traicked persons

C) Protect rights of human traicking victims

D) Responding to the traicking of children and young people

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Answer: D

Explanation:

The World Day against TraWcking in Persons is observed every year on July 30 to raise awareness of the situation of victims of human traWcking and for the promotion and protection of their rights. The 2018 theme “Responding to the traWcking of children and young people” highlights the fact that almost a 3rd of traWcking victims are children. The theme draws attention to the issues faced by traWcked children and to possible action initiatives linked to safeguarding and ensuring justice for child victims.

Add individual feedback 58. India’s hrst in-phone tourism guide and mobile application 0 / 1 “Go whats That” has launched in which city?

A) Chandigarh

B) New Delhi

C) Pune

D)

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Answer: A

Explanation:

India’s Krst in-phone tourism guide and mobile application “Go whats That” has launched by Dharmendra Pradhan, the Union Minister for Petroleum & Natural Gas and Skill Development & Entrepreneurship, at Rock Garden in Chandigarh on July 28, 2018. This is Krst of its kind app where tourist can scan QR code at a heritage site to download the history & details of that place in multiple languages.

Add individual feedback 59. Which state government will set up ‘iHub’ (the intelligent 0 / 1 hub) for research and scientihc learning?

A) Andhra Pradesh

B) Bihar

C) Telangana

D) Tamil Nadu

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Answer: A

Explanation:

The Andhra Pradesh government will set up ‘iHub’ (the intelligent hub), a Krst-of-its kind global research centre for scientiKc learning. The initial staff will be about 40 International researchers in disciplines such as neuro-science, education, psychology, digital instructional design, educational technology, ArtiKcial Intelligence, data sciences, and gamingamong others. The centre will also issue “Global CertiKcation” for digital educational content.

Add individual feedback 60. China launched which satellite as part of its high-resolution 0 / 1 Earth observation project which will also provide data for the Belt and Road Initiative?

A) Falcon-04

B) Falcon-08

C) Gaofen-11

D) Gaofen-09

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Answer: C

Explanation:

China has successfully launched an optical remote sensing satellite-Gaofen-11, as part of its high- resolution Earth observation project which will also provide data for the Belt and Road Initiative.

Add individual feedback 61. What was India’s rank in Nations E-Government 1 / 1 Development Index 2018?

A) 86th

B) 69th

C) 96th

D) 118th

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(C) Exp: India has jumped 22 places to 96th rank to break into the top 100 of the United Nations E- Government Development Index 2018.Denmark topped the list.

Add individual feedback 62. Which become the hrst State in the country to implement 1 / 1 the national policy on biofuels?

A) Bihar

B) Rajasthan

C) Assam

D) Maharashtra

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(B) Exp: Rajasthan has become the Krst State in the country to implement the national policy on biofuels unveiled by the Centre this year. The desert State will lay emphasis on increasing production of oilseeds and establish a Centre for Excellence in Udaipur to promote research in the Kelds of alternative fuels and energy resources

Add individual feedback 63. Which city hosted the hrst ‘Nepal-India Think Tank’ Summit? 0 / 1

A) Udaipur

B) Kathmandu

C) New Delhi

D)

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Feedback

Ans:(B) Exp: The Krst ‘Nepal-India Think Tank’ Summit was held in Kathmandu on July 31 to foster greater collaboration and knowledge-sharing among the think tanks of the two countries. It was inaugurated by Pushpa Kamal Dahal ‘Prachanda’, the former Prime Minister of Nepal and Co-Chairman of ruling Nepal Communist Party. The summit was jointly organized by the Asian Institute of Diplomacy and International Affairs (AIDA) and Nehru Memorial Museum Library (NMML). The purpose of the summit was to support the networks and promote mutual understanding through institutional collaboration on resource sharing for joint events / publications among think tanks of the two countries.

Add individual feedback 64. Which Indian hlm bagged the best hlm award at the 3rd 0 / 1 edition of the BRICS Film Festival 2018?

A) Sinjar

B) Bhanayakam

C) Newton

D) Pink

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(C) Exp: The 2018 BRICS Film Festival took place in Durban, South Africa, along with the International Durban Film Festival (DIFF) from 22-27th July. The last day of the festival was celebrated as India Country Day, followed by Awards and Closing Ceremony. The festival screened four Indian Films, ‘Newton’ and ‘Village Rockstars’ in the competition section, and Sandeep Pampally’s ‘Sinjar’ and Jayara’s ‘Bhanayakam’ in the non-competition section. “Newton”, directed by Amit Masurkar, bagged the best Klm award, while “Village Rockstars” (directed by Rima Das) won the Best Actress (Bhanita Das) and Special Jury Award in the BRICS Film Festival 2018.

Add individual feedback 65. On which date, the Earth Overshoot Day 2018 was 0 / 1 observed?

A) July 30

B) July 31

C) August 1

D) August 2

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Correct answer

C) August 1

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Ans:(C) Exp: Earth Overshoot Day 2018 was observed on Aug 1st. Earth Overshoot Day is an initiative of Global Footprint Network. Global Footprint Network is an international research organization that is changing how the world measures and manages its natural resources. The date of Earth Overshoot Day is calculated from data of Global Footprint Network. Earth Overshoot Day marks the date when we all have consumed more from nature than our planet can renew in the entire year.

Add individual feedback 66. India & ______to cooperate in bamboo sector in Tripura. 0 / 1

A) Russia

B) Germany

C) Japan

D) France

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(C) Exp: A team from the Japanese Embassy in New Delhi and stakeholders in the Bamboo handicraft sector of Tripura took part in a workshop called 'Bridging Japan and India by Bamboo'. The Japanese team, led by Kenko Sone, Minister, Economic and Development, Embassy of Japan, India.

Add individual feedback

67. Which of the following is the hrst foreign lender to get RBI 0 / 1 approval for subsidiary?

A) AD Bank

B) EAD Bank

C) SBM Group

D) DBS Bank

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Feedback

Ans:(C) Exp: Mauritius-based SBM Group has received Reserve Bank of India's approval to operate in the country through a wholly-owned subsidiary route. It is the Krst foreign lender to receive such a licence after local incorporation was introduced in 2013

Add individual feedback 68. The name of World's 1st Hindi-Speaking Robot is ______. 0 / 1

A) Shakshi

B) Rashmi

C) Jayanti

D) Khatoon

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Feedback

Ans:(B) Exp: Ranchi-based software developer Ranjit Srivastava is developing the world's Krst Hindi-speaking humanoid robot, claimed to cost just Rs50,000 so far. Named Rashmi, the AI-powered robot can also speak Bhojpuri, Marathi, and English, and is equipped with facial expressions and recognition systems. He was inspired to create Rashmi after seeing Hong Kong-made humanoid 'Sophia' in 2016

Add individual feedback 69. Which payment bank has been bared by the RBI from 0 / 1 enroling new customers?

A) Airtel Payment Bank

B) Aditya Birla Payments Bank

C) Fino Payments Bank

D) Geetha Bank Loan Service

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Correct answer

C) Fino Payments Bank

Feedback

Ans:(C) Exp: Reserve Bank of India observed that a few Fino Payments Bank accounts had deposits in excess of the stipulated amount of ₹1 lakh. According to RBI's operating guidelines for payments banks, a customer can make deposits of up to ₹1 lakh per account in a year. Such banks cannot accept deposits beyond this limit. RBI has imposed similar restrictions on Paytm Payments Bank (on June 20) and Airtel Payments Bank (in January) which are also not able to on-bard new customers.

Add individual feedback 70. Commerce and Industry Minister Suresh Prabhu launched a 0 / 1 logo and tagline for Geographical Indications (GI) to increase awareness about intellectual property rights (IPRs) in the country. The slogan for GI tag is ______

A) Invaluable Treasures of Incredible India

B) Open the door for a New Strategy

C) The New logistic revolutions

D) An iconic Logistic Experience

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(A) Exp: Commerce and Industry Minister Suresh Prabhu launched a logo and tagline for Geographical Indications (GI) to increase awareness about intellectual property rights (IPRs) in the country. The slogan for the GI tag is- 'Invaluable Treasures of Incredible India'. A GI product is primarily an agricultural, natural or a manufactured product (handicraft and industrial goods) originating from a deKnite geographical territory.

Add individual feedback 71. A scheme for the girl child 'Mukhyamantri Kanya Utthan 1 / 1 Yojana' was launched in ______

A) Assam

B) UP

C) Bihar

D) Jharkhand

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(C) Exp: Bihar Chief Minister Nitish Kumar launched 'Mukhyamantri Kanya Utthan Yojana', a scheme for the girl child. The scheme will provide Rs.54,100 for a girl child from her birth until she graduates. This is to express the State government's resolve for the empowerment of women. The 'scheme will be run by three departments namely education, health and social welfare. The Chief Minister also said that the amount under the 'Bicycle Yojna' will be increased from Rs.2500 to Rs.3000.

Add individual feedback 72. With which country the Indian army begins the military 0 / 1 exercise "Maitree 2018" recently?

A) Indonesia

B) Turkey

C) North Korea

D) Thailand

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Correct answer

D) Thailand

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Ans:(D) Exp: 'Maitree' is a joint military exercise between Indian Army and Royal Thai Army which is running on in Thailand.

Add individual feedback 73. NITI Aayog will host Investors Conference for the Holistic 0 / 1 Development of Islands in which city?

A) Pune

B) New Delhi

C) Ahmedabad

D) Mumbai

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(B) Exp: It is expected to gain investment for the sustainable development of eco-tourism projects in Andaman & Nicobar and Lakshadweep islands

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74. World's largest bird sculpture Jatayu sculpture will be 0 / 1 inaugurated in ______.

A) Kerala

B) Rajasthan

C) Andra Pradesh

D) Tamilnadu

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Feedback

Ans:(B) Exp: The Jatayu sculpture at the Jatayu Earth Center (JEC) at Chadayamangalam in Kollam district, Kerala, said to be world's largest bird sculpture, will be inaugurated on August 17 by Chief Minister Pinarayi Vijayan. This Rs 100 crore-project is a creation by Klm director and sculptor Rajiv Anchal.

Add individual feedback 75. How many districts are identihed by the NITI Aayog as 0 / 1 Aspirational Districts for RUSA Scheme?

A) 117

B) 125

C) 150

D) 185

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Feedback

Ans:(A) Exp: During the second phase of the Centrally Sponsored Scheme of Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA), central assistance is provided for opening of new Model Degree Colleges (MDCs) in 'Aspirational Districts' identiKed by NITI Aayog and in unserved & underserved districts in North Eastern and Himalayan States. These districts have been selected on the basis of the composite index which includes published data of deprivation enumerated under Socio-Economic Caste Census, Health & Nutrition, Education and Basic Infrastructure.

Add individual feedback 76. Which state govt. has tagged off the 'Krishi Mahabhiyan- 1 / 1 cum-Beej Vikas Vahan Rath' to create awareness among farmers about government schemes?

A) Uttar Pradesh

B) Bihar

C) MP

D) Chattisgarh

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(B) Exp: On May 19, 2018, Bihar Chief Minister Nitish Kumar tagged off the 'Krishi Mahabhiyan-cum-Beej Vikas Vahan Rath' to create awareness among farmers about government schemes for them during Kharif season. i. Mr. Nitish Kumar tagged off two Raths for each district at a function in Patna on the occasion of 'Kharif Mahabhiyan-cum-Mahotsav 2018'. ii. Of the two raths, one is 'Kharif Mahabhiyan-cum-Mahotsav Rath' that would travel to blocks, gram panchayats and villages to tell the farmers about the schemes being run during kharif season. iii. The other Rath is 'Beej (Seed)Vahan Vikas Rath' which would have Kharif seeds and pesticides for the treatment of kharif crop.

Add individual feedback 77. Bihar Cabinet approved the setting up of a Fisheries College 0 / 1 at ______.

A) Kishanganj

B) Purnea

C) Katihar

D) Munger

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(A) Exp: On 29th May 2018, Bihar Cabinet approved the setting up of a Fisheries College at Kishanganj at a cost of Rs 40.31 crore. i. The cabinet meeting was chaired by Bihar Chief Minister Nitish Kumar. It approved the creation of academic and administrative posts other than development of infrastructure of the College at a cost of Rs 40.31 crore in 2018-19 Knancial year. ii. It also approved creation of 88 new posts in Transplant and Nephrology departments of Patna Medical College and Hospital (PMCH) for starting the kidney transplant facility there.

Add individual feedback 78. World’s hrst and cheapest clean drinking water project 1 / 1 launched in ______

A) Gaya

B) Chhapra

C) Darbhanga

D) Bhagalpur

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(C) Exp: On July 15, 2018, The Krst of world’s cheapest drinking water project was launched in Darbhanga district, Bihar. i. This was launched by Sulabh International, an organisation that introduced the concept of ‘Sulabh Sauchalya’ in the country. ii. The foundation of the project at Haribol pond in Darbhanga Nagar Nigam premises was laid by Sulabh International’s founder Dr.Bindeshwar Pathak. iii. It would be managed by Self Help group of Darbhanga Nagar Nigam. iv. The ‘Sulabh Jal’ project converts contaminated pond and river water into safe drinking water. v. The water puriKcation process has a capacity to purify 8,000 litres of water per day at nominal cost.

Add individual feedback 79. Who invaded the Gupta Empire during the reign of 0 / 1 Kumaragupta?

A) Eastern Hunas

B) Black Huns

C) White Hunas

D) Red Huna

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Correct answer

C) White Hunas

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Ans: C

Explanation: The White Hunas invaded the Gupta Empire during the reign of Kumaragupta, were also known as the Hephthalites, and caused great damage to the failing Gupta Empire. Hence, C is the correct option.

Add individual feedback 80. The Chinese traveller Hiuen Tsang visited India during the 1 / 1 period of which Indian emperor?

A) Harsha

B) Pulakesin II

C) Narasimhavarman

D) Sarvavarman

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans: A

Explanation: The Chinese traveller Hiuen Tsang visited India during the period of emperor Harsha. Hence, A is the correct option.

Add individual feedback 81. Which of the following dynasty of post Gupta era was 0 / 1 Iranian origin?

A) Maukharis

B) Maitrakas

C) Pushyabhutis

D) Gaudas

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Correct answer

B) Maitrakas

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Ans: B

Explanation: Maitrakas was Iranian in origin and ruled in Saurashtra region of Gujarat with Valabhi as capital. Valabhi became centre of learning, culture and trade and commerce under the guidance of Bhatarka. It survived the longest Arab attacks.Hence, B is the correct option.

Add individual feedback 82. Which one of the following is not a correct match? 0 / 1

a) Mahasandhi Vigzahak : Oicer to decide about war and peace

b) Ayuktak : superintendent of police

c) Vrihadeshwawar : Head of Cavalry

d) Katuk : Head of elaphant brigade

e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans: B Exp: The correct match is given below:

Mahasandhi Vigzahak-OWcer to decide about war and peace

Ayuktak- Ordinary oWcer

Vrihadeshwawar-Head of Cavalry

Katuk-Head of elephant brigade

Add individual feedback 83. Who among the following Pushyabhutis ruler assumed the 0 / 1 title of Parambhattaraka Maharajadhiraja?

A) Harshavardhana

B) Bhatarka

C) Sasanka

D) Prabhakarvardhan

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Correct answer

D) Prabhakarvardhan

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Ans: D

Explanation: Prabhakarvardhan was the most important ruler of the dynasty who assumed the title of Parambhattaraka Maharajadhiraja.

Add individual feedback 84. Which among the following drama tells the story of 1 / 1 ceremonial description of Chandragupta Maurya’s crowning?

A) Malvikagnamitram

B) Vikramorshiyam

C) Abhigyanshakuntalam

D) Mudraraksha

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans: D Exp: The Mudrarakshasa is a Sanskrit-language play by Vishakhadatta that narrates the ascent of the king Chandragupta Maurya to power in India. The play is an example of creative writing, but not entirely Kctional. It is dated variously from the late 4th century to the 8th century.

Add individual feedback 85. Which one of the following is NOT a correct match? 0 / 1

A) Abhigyanshakuntalam : Kalidas

B) Vikramorvasiyam : Vedic love story of king Pururavas and an Apsara

C) Pratiyogyogandharyankam : Bhas

D) Charudattam : Charudatta was an imaginary character of Bhasa

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Correct answer

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Feedback

Ans:(E) None Exp: List of Drama written during Gupta Period and their Writers * Malvikagnamitram => Kalidas => Based on the love story of Agnimitra and Malvika. * Vikramorshiyam => Kalidas => Based on the fable of Emperor Pururwa and Urvashi Apsara. * Abhigyanshakuntalam => Kalidas => Based on the story of Dushyant and Shakuntala. * Mudraraksha => Visakhadatta => Ceremonial description of Chandragupta Maurya’s crowning * Devichandragupt => Visakhadatta => Based on the Chandragupta Chandragupta’s marriage of Dharm-Swaminar and the execution of Shakaraj. * Mrikshamkatikam => Shudrak => Description of hero Charudatta, heroine Vasant Sena, Raja, Brahmin, gambler, businessman, prostitute, thief, Dhurtdas. * Swapanwasvadattam => Bhas => Based on the love story of Maharaj Udyan and Vasavadatta * Pratiyogyogandharyankam => Bhas => Description of how Maharaj Udyan teeing Vasavadatta from Ujjayini with the help of Yogandharayan * Charudattam => Bhas => The hero Charudatta of this drama is basically the imagination of Bhasa.

Add individual feedback 86. Who was the hrst Gupta ruler to issue silver coins? 0 / 1

A) Ramgupta

B) Chandragupta II

C) Kumargupta I

D) Samudragupta

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Correct answer

B) Chandragupta II

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Ans:(B) Exp: Chandra Gupta II (380-412 AD): • He is credited with the maintaining in his court nine gems (Navrantnas) - Kalidas, Amarsinh, Dhanvantiri, Varahminhira, Vararuchi, Ghatakarna, Kshapranak, Velabhatt and Shanku. • Fa-hein visit India during his reign. • Adopted the title of “Vikramaditya”. • He was the Krst Gupta ruler who had started silver coin. • The exploits of a king called Chandra are gloriKed in an iron pillar inscription Kxed near Qutub Minar in Delhi. • Some historians put Ramagupta between Samundra Gupta and Chandra Gupta II. In the play Devichandraguptam of Visakhdatta, Rama Gupta was the elder brother of Chandra Gupta II. • He rescued Druvadevi from the saka king and later marries her.

Add individual feedback 87. ______founded Nalanda University. 1 / 1

A) Skanda Gupta

B) Chandra Gupta II

C) Samundra Gupta

D) Chandra Gupta I

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(E) None Exp: Kumara Gupta I (413-467 AD) • He was the son of Dhruvadevi who extended the Gupta Empire from North Bengal to Kathiawar and from the Himalayas to the Narmada. • During his reign, Hunas invaded India. • He founded Nalanda University.

Add individual feedback 88. Which Gupta king was good player of Musical instrument 1 / 1 Veena?

A) Chandragupta

B) Samudragupta

C) Ramagupta

D) Chandragupta II

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(B) Exp: Samudragupta was an expert ' Veena' player and adopted the title of Kaviraj (King of poets). He was not only a great warrior but also a great patron of art and literature.

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89. Which of the following statement is NOT correct about 1 / 1 Gupta Empire?

A) The Gupta rulers has organised a huge army.

B) Forced labour or Vishti was also practised in royal Army

C) The royal seal bore the imprint of Garuda.

D) Kalidasa was a great poet and play writer during Chandragupta I.

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(D) Exp: Kalidasa was a great poet and play writer during Chandragupta II. His master-piece was the Shakuntala. His other plays are Malavikagnimitra ,Vikramorvasiya and Kumarasambhava. His two lyrics are Ritusamhara and Meghaduta.

Add individual feedback 90. Which of the following is not correctly matched? 1 / 1

A) Kshetra Bhoomi : Cultivable Land

B) Charagah Bhoomi : Pasture Land

C) Aprahata Bhoomi : Forest Land

D) Khila : Habitable Land

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(D) Exp: ClassiKcation of land under the Gupta period: A) Kshetra Bhoomi : Cultivable Land B) Charagah Bhoomi : Pasture Land C) Aprahata Bhoomi : Forest Land D) Khila : Waste Land E) Vastu Bhoomi : Habitable Land

Add individual feedback 91. Which Sanskrit play was not written by Harshavardhana? 1 / 1

A) Nagananda

B) Harshacharita

C) Ratnavali

D) Priyadarsika

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(B) Exp: The Harshacharita, is the biography of Indian emperor Harsha by Banabhatta, also known as Bana, who was a Sanskrit writer of seventh-century CE India. He was the Asthana Kavi, meaning Court Poet, of Harsha

Add individual feedback 92. Who was the founder of Vakataka Dynasty? 1 / 1

A) Bhattarka

B) Vindhyashakti

C) Kodungon

D) Pushyabhuti

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Feedback

Ans:(B) Exp: S.No.

Name of Dynasty => Founder

1 The Chalukyas of Vatapi= Jayasimha 2 The Cangas of Talakad= Konakanivarma 3 The Guptas of Magadha = ShriGupta 4 Kadambas of Vanavasi = Mayurasharman 5 The Kingdom of Gaud = Shashanka 6 The Kingdom of Theneswar = Pushyabhuti 7 The Later-Guptas of Magadha-Malwa = Krishnagupta 8 The Maitrakas of Vallabhi = Bhattarka 9 The Maukharis of Kannauj = Yajnavarman 10 The Pallavas of Kanchi = Simhavarman 11 The Pandyas of Madurai = Kodungon 12 The Vakatakas = Vindhyashakti

Add individual feedback 93. Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched? 1 / 1

A) Panchatantra : Vishnu sharma

B) Kiratarjuniya : Vatsyayan

C) Vishudhimagga : Buddhghosa

D) Surya Sidhant : Aryabhatta

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(B) Exp: A) Panchatantra : Vishnu sharma B) Kiratarjuniya : Bharavi C) Vishudhimagga : Buddhghosa D) Surya Sidhant : Aryabhatta E) Kamasutra : Vatsyayan

Add individual feedback 94. Where is the Dashavatara temple situated? 1 / 1

A) Dhar, MP

B) Bhittargaon, UP

C) Panna, MP

D) Deogarh, UP

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(D) Exp: Dashavatara Temple is an early 6th century Vishnu Hindu temple located at Deogarh, Uttar Pradesh in the Betwa River valley in north-central India. Built in the late Gupta Period, Vishnu Temple shows the ornate and beauty seen in Gupta style architecture.

Add individual feedback 95. Who was also known as Siladitya? 1 / 1

A) Chandragupta II

B) Harshavardhana

C) Rajyavardhana

D) Samudragupta

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(B) Exp: Harshavardhana ascenued the throne of Thaneshwar around 606 A.D. and immediately sent a great army against Sasanka of Gauda to avenge his elder brother’s death and to rescue his sister Rajyashri who had been taken prisoner by the Malwa king. He succeeded in both. Now the two important kingdoms Kannauj and Thaneshwar were united with Harsha now ruling from Kannauj. Between 606 and 612 A.D. he brought most of northern India (Punjab, Kannauj, parts of Gauda, Orissa and Mithila) under his control, and assumed the title of Siladitya.

Add individual feedback 96. The average of four consecutive odd numbers is 24. Find 0 / 1 the largest number?

A) 25

B) 27

C) 29

D) 31

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(B) 27

Explanation:

Let the numbers are x, x+2, x+4, x+6, then =>{x+(x+2)+(x+4)+(x+6)}/4=24

=>{4x+12)}/4=24 =>x+3=24=>x=21

So largest number is 21 + 6 = 27

Add individual feedback 97. A library has an average of 510 visitors on Sundays and 240 0 / 1 on other day. The average number of visitors in a month of 30 days starting with sunday is ____

A) 280

B) 285

C) 290

D) 295

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(B) Explanation:

As the month begin with sunday, so there will be Kve sundays in the month. So result will be: =(510×5+240×25)/30 =(8550/30) =285

Add individual feedback 98. A batsman makes a score of 87 runs in the 17th match and 0 / 1 thus increases his average by 3. Find his average after 17th match?

A) 36

B) 37

C) 38

D) 39

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(D) Explanation:

Let the average after 17th match is x then the average before 17th match is x-3

so. 16(x-3) + 87 = 17x => x = 87 - 48 = 39

Add individual feedback 99. Average of all prime numbers between 30 to 50? 0 / 1

A) 37

B) 37.8

C) 39

D) 39.8

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans: D Explanation:

Prime numbers between 30 and 50 are: 31, 37, 41, 43, 47

Average of prime numbers between 30 to 50 will be (31+37+41+43+47)/5 =199/5 =39.8

Add individual feedback 100. Average weight of 10 people increased by 1.5 kg when one 0 / 1 person of 45 kg is replaced by a new man. Then weight of the new man is _____

A) 50

B) 55

C) 60

D) 65

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans: (C) Explanation:

Total weight increased is 1.5 * 10 = 15. So weight of new person is 45+15 = 60

Add individual feedback 101. Ten years ago A was half of B in age. If the ratio of their 0 / 1 present ages is 3 : 4, what will be the total of their present ages ?

A) 30

B) 35

C) 37

D) 41

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(B) Explanation:

Let A's age 10 years ago = x years. Then, B's age 10 years ago = 2x years. (x + 10) / (2x+ lO) = 3/4 => x = 5. So, the total of their present ages =(x + 10 + 2x + 10) = (3x + 20) = 35 years

Add individual feedback 102. The sum of the ages of a father and son is 45 years. Five 0 / 1 years ago, the product of their ages was four times the fathers age at that time. The present age of father and son ?

A) 34,11

B) 35,10

C) 36,9

D) 40,5

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(C) Explanation:

Let sons age = x years. Then fathers age = (45 - x)years. (x—5)(45—x—5) = 4(45- x - 5) hence (x—5) = 4 so x = 9 Their ages are 36 years and 9 years.

Add individual feedback 103. A man is 24 years older than his son. In two years, his age 0 / 1 will be twice the age of his son. The present age of his son is ____

A) 20 years

B) 21 years

C) 22 years

D) 24 years

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(C) Explanation:

Let the son's present age be x years. Then, man's present age = (x + 24) years => (x + 24) + 2 = 2(x + 2) => x + 26 = 2x + 4 So, x = 22

Add individual feedback 104. The sum of the present ages of a father and his son is 60 0 / 1 years. Six years ago, father's age was hve times the age of the son. After 6 years, son's age will be ____ .

A) 15 years

B) 18 years

C) 20 years

D) 22 years

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(C) Explanation:

Clue : (60 - x) - 6 = 5(x - 6)

Add individual feedback 105. The total age of A and B is 12 years more than the total 0 / 1 age of B and C. C is how many year younger than A?

A) 11

B) 12

C) 13

D) 14

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(B) Explanation:

Given that A+B = 12 + B + C => A – C = 12 + B – B = 12 => C is younger than A by 12 years

Add individual feedback 106. Which one is not a Kharif crops? 1 / 1

A) Mustard

B) Soyabean

C) Paddy

D) Maize

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(A) Exp:

Kharif crops : The Kharif crop is the summer crop or monsoon crop in India. Kharif crops are usually sown with the beginning of the Krst rains in July, during the south-west monsoon season. Major Kharif crops of India include Millets (Bajra & Jowar), Cotton, Soyabean, Sugarcane, Turmeric, Paddy (Rice), Maize, Moong (Pulses), Groundnut, Red Chillies, etc.

Rabi Crops: The Rabi crop is the spring harvest or winter crop in India . It is sown in October last and harvested in March April every year. Major Rabi crops in India include Wheat, Barley, Mustard, Sesame, Peas etc.

Zaid Crop: This crop is grown in some parts of country during March to June. Prominent examples are Muskmelon, Watermelon, Vegetables of cucurbitacae family such as bitter gourd, pumpkin, ridged gourd etc.

Add individual feedback 107. Which of the following statements is not correct about 0 / 1 Manures?

A) manure is an organic substance

B) It improves the texture of the soil

C) provides humus to the soil

D) it rnhances the water holding capacity of the soil

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(E) None Exp: self explanatory

Add individual feedback

108. Which one of the following is not correctly matched? 1 / 1

A) Pongal : Orissa

B) Nabanna : Bengal

C) Baisakhi : Punjab

D) Bihu : Assam

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(A) Exp: These are special festivals associated with the harvest season. Pongal- Tamil Nadu

Add individual feedback 109. Cold, intuenza (tu) and most coughs are caused by _____ . 0 / 1

A) Bacteria

B) Fungi

C) Protozoa

D) Virus

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Correct answer

D) Virus

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Ans:(D) Exp: Cold, intuenza (tu) and most coughs are caused by viruses. Polio and chicken pox are also caused by viruses.

Diseases caused by Virus: AIDS-Human ImmunodeKciency Virus (HIV) Intuenza - Intuenza virus Mumps- Mumps Virus Polio -Polio Virus Chicken Pox -Varicella zoster virus Measles-Measles Virus Dengue fever -Dengue Virus Chikungunya -Chikungunya virus. Rabies -Rabies virus

Add individual feedback 110. Which one of the following is not caused by bacteria? 0 / 1

A) Filariasis

B) Tuberculosis

C) Typhoid

D) Tetanus

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Correct answer

A) Filariasis

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Ans:(A) Exp: Filariasis - parasitic disease infection with roundworms of the Filarioidea type .

Diseases caused by Bacteria: Cholera- Vibrio cholera Anthrax- Bacillus Anthraces Diphtheria - Corynebacterium diphtheria Leprosy - Mycobacterium leprae Botulism - Clostridium botulinum

Syphilis - Treponema pallidum Tetanus - Clostridium tetani Trachoma - Chlamydia trachomatis Tuberculosis - Mycobacterium tuberculosis Typhoid fever - Salmonella typhi. Whooping cough-Bordetella pertussis

Add individual feedback 111. ______is used in the baking industry for making breads. 1 / 1

A) Algae

B) Yeast

C) Lactobacillus

D) Spirogyra

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(B) Exp: The most common use of yeast has been in the making of bread. Alcoholic Drinks. Brewing wine and beer has also used yeast for centuries to ferment the mixture to make it alcoholic.

Add individual feedback

112. Who discovered Penicillin ? 1 / 1

A) Edward Jenner

B) William Harvey

C) Alexander Fleming,

D) H. Davy

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(C) Exp: Penicillin was Krst discovered by the Scottish scientist, Alexander Fleming, in 1928.

Add individual feedback 113. Who discovered the vaccine for smallpox? 1 / 1

A) Robert Koch

B) Edward Jenner

C) Banting

D) Alexander Fleming

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(B) Exp: The smallpox vaccine, introduced by Edward Jenner in 1796, was the Krst successful vaccine to be developed.

Inventions/Discoveries => Inventor/Discoveries Vitamin => F.G.Hopkins, Cosimir Funk Heart Transplantation => Christian Bernard Antigen => Karl Landsteiner RNA => James Watson and ArtherArg DNA => James Watson and Crick Penicillin => Alexander Flemming Polio vaccine => Johan E.Salk BCG => Guerin Calmatte

Add individual feedback 114. Which one of the following is not a communicable 0 / 1 disease?

A) Cholera

B) Asthma

C) Diabetes

D) Chicken pox

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Correct answer

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(E)More than one Exp: Examples of NCDs include: Alzheimer's. Asthma. Cataracts. Chronic Kidney Disease. Chronic Lung Disease. Diabetes. Fibromyalgia. Heart Disease

Add individual feedback 115. Which one of the following carries the parasite of malaria? 1 / 1

A) Female Aedes mosquito

B) Tse Tse Flies

C) Female Anopheles mosquito

D) Sand ties

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(C) Exp: A) Female Aedes mosquito : Dengue fever B) Tse Tse Flies : Sleeping sickness C) Female Anopheles mosquito : Malaria D) Sand ties : Kala-ajar

Add individual feedback

116. Which of the following is not a fossil fuel? 1 / 1

A) Coal

B) Petroleum

C) Natural Gas

D) Kerosene

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(D) Exp: Fossil fuels are hydrocarbons, primarily coal, fuel oil or natural gas, formed from the remains of dead plants and animals.

Add individual feedback 117. Which human cells are affected in HIV? 1 / 1

A) Red blood

B) Platalets

C) White blood

D) Stem

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(C) Exp: The HIV virus infects a type of white blood cell in the body's immune system called a T-helper cell (also called a CD4 cell)

Add individual feedback

118. What was the name given to the sheep that was the hrst 1 / 1 mammal cloned from an adult cell?

A) Mahi

B) Dolly

C) Libra

D) Willy

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(B) Exp: In 1996, Dolly the sheep–the Krst mammal to have been successfully cloned from an adult cell–is born at the Roslin Institute in Scotland. Originally code-named “6LL3,” the cloned lamb was named after the buxom singer and actress Dolly Parton

Add individual feedback 119. A normal human ear can hear a sound only if its frequency 1 / 1 lies between ____

A) 30 Hz to 30,000 Hz

B) 50 Hz to 50,000 Hz

C) 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz

D) 10 Hz to 10,000 Hz

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(C) Exp: The human ear can respond to minute pressure variations in the air if they are in the audible frequency range, roughly 20 Hz - 20 kHz

Add individual feedback 120. Bihar is in which seismic zone? 0 / 1

A) Zone - II: least active

B) Zone - III: moderate

C) Zone - IV: high

D) Zone - V: highest

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Correct answer

C) Zone - IV: high

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Ans:(C) Exp: Bihar is located in the high seismic zone that falls on the boundary of the tectonic plate joining the Himalayan tectonic plate near the Bihar-Nepal Border and has six sub-surface fault lines moving towards the Gangetic planes in four directions. Major parts of the state are classiKed under in seismic zone IV and V by the Vulnerability Atlas of India, i.e. as having high earthquake vulnerability with the potential to cause very high degree of devastation. In all, 15.2% of the total area of Bihar is classiKed under Zone V and 63.7% of the total area of Bihar falls in Zone IV. Of the 38 districts, 8 districts fall in seismic zone V while 24 districts fall in seismic zone IV and 6 districts in seismic zone III with most districts falling under multiple seismic zones (i.e. either seismic zone V & IV or seismic zone IV & III). The state has in the past experienced major earthquakes; the worst was the 1934 earthquake in which more than 10,000 people lost their lives, followed by 1988 earthquake.

http://bsdma.org/Welcome_note.aspx

Add individual feedback 121. The most comfortable distance at which one can read with 1 / 1 a normal eye is about ____ .

A) 16 cm

B) 20 cm

C) 23 cm

D) 25 cm

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(D) Exp: The most comfortable distance of a normal eye for reading Is about 25 CM. If the object Is brought closer than 25 CM, the image formed on the Retina will be not sharp and the object appears blurred

Add individual feedback 122. Which of the following are not called "terrestrial planets"? 0 / 1

a) Mercury

b) Venus

c) Mars

d) Jupiter

e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(D) Exp: In our solar system, there are four terrestrial planets, which also happen to be the four closest to the sun: Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars. Terrestrial planets are Earth-like planets (in Latin, terra means Earth) made up of rocks or metals with a hard surface — making them different from other planets that lack a solid surface. During the creation of the solar system, there were likely more terrestrial planetoids, but they likely merged or were destroyed.

Add individual feedback 123. Which of the following part of the Sun is visible by human? 1 / 1

A) Photosphere

B) Corona

C) Chromospheres

D) Core

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(A) Exp: The solar interior includes the core, radiative zone and convective zone. The photosphere is the visible surface of the Sun. The solar atmosphere includes the chromosphere and corona. The boundary between the Sun's interior and the solar atmosphere is called the photosphere. It is what we see as the visible "surface" of the Sun. The core is at the center. It the hottest region, where the nuclear fusion reactions that power the Sun occur. Moving outward, next comes the radiative (or radiation) zone. Its name is derived from the way energy is carried outward through this layer, carried by photons as thermal radiation. The third and Knal region of the solar interior is named the convective (or convection) zone. It is also named after the dominant mode of energy tow in this layer; heat moves upward via roiling convection, much like the bubbling motion in a pot of boiling oatmeal.

Add individual feedback 124. What is the time taken by the light of the Sun to reach on 1 / 1 the Earth?

A) 8 Minute

B) 9 Minute

C) 7 minute 20 Second

D) 8 Minute 20 Second

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(D) 8 minutes and 20 seconds

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125. Which planet in the Solar System has highest density? 1 / 1

A) Earth

B) Uranus

C) Neptune

D) Jupiter

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(A) Exp: Earth has the highest density of any planet in the Solar System, at 5.514 g/cm3.

Add individual feedback 126. Valmiki National Park is in which district of Bihar? 1 / 1

A) East Champaran

B) West Champaran

C) Jamui

D) Samastipur

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(B) Exp: Valmiki National Park, Tiger Reserve and Wildlife Sanctuary is located at the India-Nepal border in the West Champaran district of Bihar, India on the bank of river Gandak. It is the only National park in Bihar.

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127. The largest wildlife sanctuay in Bihar is _____ . 1 / 1

A) Valmiki

B) Kaimur

C) Bhimbandh

D) Gautam Buddha

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(B) Exp: Kaimur Sanctuary in Rohtas district is the largest in Bihar (1342 sq. km).

Add individual feedback 128. The recorded forest area of Bihar is what percentage of the 0 / 1 total geographical area of the state?

A) 6.87%

B) 8.68%

C) 10.49%

D) 11%

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(A) Exp: The total recorded forest area of Bihar is 6.87% of the total geographical area of the state.

http://forest.bih.nic.in/B-forest.aspx

Add individual feedback 129. Which of the following districts have the highest forest 1 / 1 cover?

A) Kaimur

B) Jamui

C) Nawada

D) Gopalganj

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(A) Exp: Top three districts in term of forest cover: 1. Kaimur 2. Jamui 3. Nawada

Least forest cover: Sheikhpura

Add individual feedback

130. The main vegetation of Bihar is ____ 1 / 1

A) deciduous

B) Tropical evergreen

C) Mixed

D) Alpine

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(A)

Add individual feedback 131. The Kanwar Taal or Kabar Taal Lake located in which 1 / 1 district of Bihar?

A) Munger

B) Rohtas

C) Begusarai

D) Nalanda

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(C) Exp: The Kabar Lake is positioned in the Begusarai, Bihar. It is the biggest Fresh Water Oxbow lake in Asia.

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132. Who was the political guru of ? 1 / 1

A) R.N Tagore

B) Vivekananda

C) G.K Gokhale

D) AO Hume

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(C) Exp: (9 May 1866 – 19 February 1915) was one of the founding social and political leaders during the Indian Independence Movement against the British Empire in India. Gokhale was famously a mentor to Mahatma Gandhi in his formative years. In 1912, Gokhale visited South Africa at Gandhi's invitation.

Add individual feedback 133. was associated with which of the event during 1 / 1 Indian Freedom Struggle?

A)

B) Conspiracy

C) Civil Disobedience Movement

D) Home Rule Movement

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(A) Exp: The Chittagong armoury raid, also known as the Chittagong uprising, was an attempt on 18 April 1930 to raid the armoury of police and auxiliary forces from the Chittagong armoury in the Bengal Presidency of British India by armed Indian independence Kghters led by Surya Sen.

Add individual feedback 134. Which of the following British Act introduced provincial 1 / 1 autonomy?

A) Government of India Act, 1858

B) Indian Council Act, 1861

C) Indian Council Act of 1892

D) Government of India Act 1935

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(D) Exp: Explanation: On August 1935, the Government of India passed longest act i.e. Government of India Act 1935 under the British Act of Parliament. It served some useful purposes by the experiment of provincial autonomy, thus we can say that the Government of India Act 1935 marks a point of no return in the history of constitutional development in India. D is the correct option.

Add individual feedback

135. The "tinkathiya" system refers to as______. / 1

A) Champaran tenant was bound by law to plant three out of every twenty parts of their land.

B) Champaran tenant was bound by law to plant three out of every parts of their land.

C) Champaran tenant was bound by law to plant three out of every Kattha of their land.

D) Champaran tenant was bound by law to plants three crops on the every parts of their land.

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

No correct answers

Add individual feedback 136. Who among the following told Rajkumar Shukla about 0 / 1 Gandhi's work in Africa?

A) Ganesh Vidyarthi

B) Brajkishore Prasad

C)

D) Satich Chandra Mishra

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(A) Explanation: It was Ganesh Vidyarthi who had mentioned about Gandhi's work in Africa to Shukla. Brajkishore Prasad and Rajendra Prasad who were the sympathetic lawyers of Patna suggested him to meet Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi, who was attending the 31st Session of the Congress in Lucknow (held between December 26 and 30, 1916). Hence, A is the correct option.

Add individual feedback 137. Who among the following was the Governor General and 1 / 1 Viceroy of India during Champaran ?

A) Lord Hardinge

B) Lord Chelmsford

C) Lord Reading

D) Lord Irwin

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(B) Exp: Lord Chelmsford served as Governor General and Viceroy of India from 1916 to 1921. Important events during his tenure included foundation of Sabarmati Ashram after Gandhiji’s return; Launch of , Kheda Satyagraha and Satyagraha at Ahmedabad. Hence, B is the correct option.

Add individual feedback 138. Which of the following is the correct chronology of the 0 / 1 movement?(a) Champaran Satyagrah(b) Kheda Satygraha(c) Rowlatt Satyagrah(d) Bardoli Satyagrah

A) (a) (b) (d) (c)

B) (a) (d) (b) (c)

C) (a) (c) (d) (b)

D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Correct answer

D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

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Ans:(D) Explanation: Champaran Satyagraha (April, 1917); Kheda Satygraha (1918); Rowlatt Satyagrah (March 1919); Bardoli Satyagrah (1928). Hence, D is the correct option.

Add individual feedback 139. In which place in Bihar, Gandhiji established the hrst basic 0 / 1 school?

A) Barharwa Lakhansen village

B) Bhitiharwa

C) Madhuban

D) Ghorghat village

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(A) Explanation: MK Gandhi established the Krst-ever basic school at Barharwa Lakhansen village, 30 km east from the district headquarters at Dhaka, East Champaran, on November 13, 1917 to improve the economic and educational conditions of the people. Hence, A is the correct option

Add individual feedback 140. Which of the following incident was the driver of 1 / 1 subsequent withdrawal of Non-Cooperation Movement?

A) Creation of Bengal Presidency

B) Partition of Bengal

C) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre

D) Chauri-Chaura incident

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(D) Causes of withdrawal of the Non-cooperation Movement:

(i) Due to the where 22 policemen were burnt alive, Mahatma Gandhi decided to withdraw the movement.

(ii) He felt the movement was turning violent in many places and satyagrahis needed to be trained properly for mass movement.

(iii) Within the congress some leaders were tired of mass struggles and they now wanted to participate in elections.

Add individual feedback 141. Which of the following British Prime Minister headed the 1 / 1 First Round Table Conference in London?

A) Churchill

B) Ramsay McDonald

C) Chamberlain

D) Disraeli

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(B) Exp: In response to the inadequacy of the Simon Report, the Labour Government, which had come to power under Ramsay MacDonald in 1929, decided to hold a series of Round Table Conferences in London. The Krst Round Table Conference convened from 12 November 1930 to 19 January 1931. In November 1930, the British government convened the Krst round table conference in London to consider the reforms proposed by the . The congress, which was Kghting for the independence of the country, boycotted it. But it was attended by the representatives of Indian princes, Muslim league, Hindu Mahasabha and some others. But nothing came out of it. The British government knew that without the participation of the congress, no decision on constitutional changes In India would be acceptable to the Indian people.

Add individual feedback 142. Who among the following killed Curzon Wyllie in London? 1 / 1

A) Madanlal Dhingra

B) Prasad Bismil

C) P. Mitra

D)

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(A) Explanation: In London, Madanlal Dhingra killed Curzon Wyllie, the political aide at the Indian oWce on 1st July 1909, as a mark of protest against the inhuman punishments inticted on Indian revolutionaries and created a stir in England. Hence, A is the correct option.

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143. Who among the following was not associated with Kakori 1 / 1 Conspiracy Case?

A)

B) Ashfaqullah

C)

D) Muzaffar Ahmed

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(D) Explanation: The Case, 1924 was organised under the leadership of Ram Prasad Bismil and supported by Ashfaqulla Khan, Rajendra Lahiri, Chandrashekhar Azad, Sachindra Bakshi, Keshab Chakravarty, Manmathnath Gupta, Murari Lal Gupta (Murari Lal Khanna), Mukundi Lal (Mukundi Lal Gupta) and Banwari Lal. Hence, D is the correct option.

Add individual feedback 144. Which of the following act of British led to the mass 1 / 1 protest in every part of India at all level?

A. Indian Criminal Law Amendment Act (1908 AD)

B) Multi-fanged Defence of Indian Rules (1915 AD)

C) (1919 AD)

D) The Press Act of 1910 AD

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(C) Exp: Rowlatt Act was injected in British Indian polity to overcome on the ongoing political activities and popular liberties. Hence, MK Gandhi organized a mass protest in every part of India at all level. Hence, C is the correct option.

Add individual feedback 145. Who among the following was the founder of Khudai 1 / 1 Khidmatgars?

A) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan

B) P Krishna Pillai

C) K Kelappan

D) C Rajagopalachari

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(A) Exp: Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan was known as Badshah Khan and “Sarhadi Gandhi” and Frontier Gandh He was a Pashtun leader and ardent follower of Mahtma Gandhi and was known for his non-violent opposition to British Rule. He started the movement (Servants of God). Khudai Khidmatgar movement was a non-violent freedom struggle against the British Empire by the or Pathans of the North- West Frontier Province led by Khan . The volunteers of Khudai Khidmatgar movement were also known as “Surkho Posh” or “Red shirts” and it was initially a social reform organization focusing on education and the elimination of blood feuds from Afghan society but turned more political

Add individual feedback 146. Bhagat Singh and B.K. Dutt threw a bomb in the Central 1 / 1 Legislative Assembly on 8th April 1929 as a protest to which of the following Bill/Act?

A) Rowlatt Act

B) Public Safety Bill

C) Wood's Bill

D) Vernacular Act

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(B) Exp: 1929, April Bhagat Singh and threw bomb in the Central assembly, Delhi to protest against the passing of two repressive bills, the Public Safety Bill and the Trade Dispute Bill. In accordance to the plan, Singh and Dutt were successful and stopping the Assembly meet and they also surrendered themselves to police. Singh later got death penalty while Dutt got life imprisonment.

Timeline: Bhagat Singh 1907, Sept Born. Studied in Dayanand Anglo Vedic High School of . 1919 Visited the Jaliawalla massacre site 1923 Joined National college, Lahore 1924 Runs away from home to avoid marriage 1924, Oct HRA founded. Later renamed to HSRA Hindustan republican association. Founding members: Bismil, Jogesh Chandra and Sachin Sanyal. 1925 HRA/HSRA members loot cash of British Railways in Kakori, UP. Bismil, Ashfaqullah, Rajendra Lahiri and were hanged for this. 1928, Sept HSRA recruits new members, including Bhagat Singh. 1928, Oct-Nov Lahore SP Scott orders brutal lathicharge on during protests against Simon commission. HSRA decides to avenge his death. 1928, Dec - Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev, Azad and Rajguru plan to kill SP Scott - But they kill DSP J.P. Saunders, because Jai Gopal identiKed wrong oWcial - FIR registered in the Anarkali Police station of Lahore. 1929, April : Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutt threw bomb in the Central assembly, Delhi 1931: - Bhagat Singh wrote a pamphel “Why am I an Atheist” while in jail. - From Bhagat singh’s letters and writings, we can see he was intuenced by Karl Marx, Mazzini, Garibaldi, Tolstoy, Rousseau, Voltaire and Gorky. 1931, February: Gandhi-Irwin Pact (Delhi Pact). Lord Irwin rejected Gandhi’s demand of commuting Bhagat Singh’s death penalty to life sentence. Chandrasekhar Azad killed in a police encounter in Allahabad, Alfred park. 1931, March 23: Hanged along with Rajguru & Sukhdev, at Shadman Chawk, Lahore. for the Lahore Conspiracy case i.e. Murder of Saunders.

Add individual feedback 147. Simon Commission was sent to India in 1928, at that time 0 / 1 who was the Prime Minister of Britain?

A) Stanley Baldwin

B) John Allsebrook Simon

C) Clement Richard Attlee

D) Winston Churchill

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(A) Exp: The British government appointed a commission to enquire into the working of the government of India act of 1919 and to suggest further reforms in the system of administration. This commission is known as the Simon commission, after Sir John Simon who headed it. Its appointment came as a rude shock to the Indian people. The members of the commission were all Englishmen and not a single Indian was included in it. The government showed no inclination of accepting the demand for . The composition of the commission conKrmed the fears of the Indian people. The appointment of the commission sparked off a wave of protest all over the country. In 1927, the annual session of the congress was held at Madras. It decided to Boycott the commission. The Muslim league also decided to boycott the commission. The commission arrived in India on 3 February 1928. On that day, the entire country observed a hartal. In the afternoon on that day, meeting were held all over the country to condemn the appointment of the commission and to declare that the people of India would have nothing to do with it. It was during these demonstrations that the great leader Lala Lajpat Rai, who was popularly known as Sher-i-Punjab, was severely assaulted by the police. He died of the injuries inticted on him by the police. In Lucknow, Nehru and were those who suffered blows of police lathis. The lathis blows crippled Govind Ballabh Pant for life.

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148. Which of the following is not the features of 0 / 1 ?

A) It contained a Bill of Rights.

B) There shall be no state religion; men and women shall have equal rights as citizens.

C) There should be federal form of government with residuary powers vested in the center

D) Linguistic provinces E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

Correct answer

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(E) None Exp: On February 12, 1928, All Parties Conference called at Delhi attended by the representatives of 29 organizations in response to the appointment of Simon Commission and challenge given by Lord Birkenhead secretary of state for India. It was presided over by M.A Ansari. On May 19, 1928 at its meeting at Bombay, the All Parties Conference appointed a committee with Motilal Nehru as its chairman. The purpose was to consider and determine the principles of the Constitution for India.

Other Recommendations of Nehru Report:

• India should be given Dominion Status with the Parliamentary form of Government with bi-cameral legislature that consists of senate and House of Representatives.

• The senate will comprise of two hundred members elected for seven years, while the House of Representatives should consist of Kve hundred members elected for Kve years. Governor-General will act on the advice of executive council. It was to be collectively responsible to the parliament.

• There should be Federal form of Government in India with Residuary powers to be vested in Centre. There will be no separate electorate for minorities because it awakens communal sentiments therefore it should be scrapped and joint electorate should be introduced”.

• There will be no reserved seats for communities in Punjab and Bengal. However, reservation of Muslim seats could be possible in the provinces where Muslim population should be at least ten percent.

• Judiciary should be independent from the Executive

• There should be 1/4th Muslim Representation at Centre

• Sind should be separated from Bombay provided it proves to be Knancially self suWcient.

Add individual feedback 149. Who had formed Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha? 1 / 1

A) Shahjanand Saraswati

B) Mohammad Zubair

C) Sri Krishna Singh

D) Rajendra Prasad

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(A) Exp: formed the Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha (BPKS)in 1929 in order to mobilise peasant grievances against the zamindari attacks on their occupancy rights, and thus sparking the Farmers’ movement in India.

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150. When was Bihar Socialist Party established? 1 / 1

A) 1934

B) 1932

C)1931

D) 1933

E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.

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Ans:(A) Exp: After his release in 1934, JP Narayan convened a meeting in Patna which founded the Bihar Congress Socialist Party with Narayan as general secretary and Acharya Narendra Deva as president.

Add individual feedback Submitted 04/10/2018, 08:58