Civilz Byte Ebook

CIVILZ BYTE N. Ramalinga Reddy Hon’ble Dean

A. Manoj Kumar Associate Dean

D.V. Ramana Reddy Additional General Manager

C. Giridhar Reddy Principal, Kuntloor Campus (Civilz Byte Project Coordinator)

N. Manjula Reddy Principal, Koheda Campus

N. Mahendar Reddy Principal, Pasumamula Campus

M. Avinash Principal, Kalanagar Campus Dr. M.V. Rama Rao John Michael And Team CIVILZ BYTE

Published by Narayana IAS Academy (India) 2018 5-67, Hayathnagar, Ranga Reddy Hyderabad 501505

For Copies: Kuntloor Koheda Kalanagar Pasumamula

e book: civilzbyte.wordpress.com feedback: [email protected]

INTERNAL / NON-COMMERCIAL PUBLICATION

Non-Fiction / Self Help

With the exception to select sections, the author lays no claim to having created anything basically new in this book. What he has done, however, has been to organize old strategies, known mantras and available resources into a practical and usable form, where they may be properly interpreted and applied by the young aspirants at Narayana IAS Academy whose needs call for a body of simple philosophy for the Civil Services Exam.

Cover Design: Malvika Rao Typeset in 10/14 Trebuchet MS By D.V.S Pavan Kumar, Dilsukhnagar, Hyderabad.

The author was so desperate for perfection that he took two years to finish the Book. But you cannot sue the publishers for anything inaccurate.

iv Dedicated

To All our Teachers at the Academy and elsewhere

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A B B R E V I A T I O N S

AIR - All India Radio News / All India IPS - Indian Police Service Rank LBSNAA - Lal Bahadur Shastri National ARC - Administrative Reforms Academy of Administration Commission (Mussoorie) CCRT - Centre for Cultural Resources and MCQ - Multiple Choice Question Training MEA - Ministry of External Affairs CCS - Central Civil Services MHA - Ministry of Home Affairs CPR - Center for Policy Research MTI - Mother Tongue Influence CS (M) - Civil Services (Main exam) NCERT - National Council of Educational CS (P) - Civil Services (Preliminary exam) Research and Training CSAT - Civil Services Aptitude Test NDMA - National Disaster Management Authority CSE - Civil Services Exam NIOS - National Institute of Open DAF - Detailed Application Form Schooling DM - Disaster Management / District OBC - Other Backward Classes Magistrate PDF - Portable Document Format EPW - Economic and Political Weekly PIB - Press Information Bureau GK - General Knowledge PSU - Public Sector Undertaking GMA - General Mental Ability RS TV - Rajya Sabha TV GOI - Government of India S&T - Science and Technology GS - General Studies SC - Scheduled Caste HPG - History Public Administration Geography SDM - Sub-Divisional Magistrate IAS - Indian Administrative Service ST - Scheduled Tribe IFoS - Indian Forest Service SVPNPA - Sardar Vallabhai Patel National Police Academy (Hyderabad) IGNOU - Indira Gandhi National Open University UPSC - Union Public Service Commission IMDb - Internet Movie Database

vii

CONTENTS

Abbreviations vii Contributors xvii Foreword xxi Greetings xxv Editor’s Note xxvii Before you Begin: The Preface xxix Acknowledgements xxxiii

SECTION - I 1 - 38 CIVIL SERVICES: THE INTRODUCTION

1. Civil Services 3-9 Central or Allied Services 3 Foreign Service 4 All India Services 6 Indian Police Service 6 Indian Administrative Service 8 2. Union Public Service Commission 10 3. Scheme of the Examination 11 Educational Qualifications 11 Age Limits 11 Number of Attempts 11 4. Civil Services Exam 12-16 The Preliminary Exam 12 The Main Exam 13 The Personality Test 16 5. ABCDs = NCERTs 17-18 CIVILZ BYTE 6. Science of Reading The Hindu 19-23 What not to Read 20 Reading it the Right Way 20 Eenadu 23 ix 7. Magazine Mantra 24-26 8. Yojana Aur Kurukshetra 27 9. e Preparation - Websites 28-30 10. Apps - Tapping the Internet Resources 31-32 11. India Year Book: A confused Territory 33-35 12. A recipe for Success 36 13. Television, Radio & YouTube (TRY) 37-38 Television 37 Radio 38 YouTube 38

SECTION - II 39 -276 PRELIMINARY EXAM: THE FIRST HURDLE

14. Structure of the Preliminary Exam 41-42 The Cut-off 41 Negative Marking 42 15. General Studies - 1 43-46 Subjects in GS 1 44 Quick Tips 45 16. Current Affairs 47-48 Syllabus - Topic wise 48 General Knowledge 48 17. Indian History 49-54 Strategy 49 Syllabus - Topic Wise 50 Sources of Study 54 18. Geography of India and World 55-59 Strategy 55 Syllabus - Topic Wise 56 Sources of Study 59 CIVILZ BYTE 19. Indian Polity and Governance 60-63 Strategy 60 Syllabus - Topic Wise 61 Sources of Study 63 x 20. Indian Economy 64-67 Strategy 64 Syllabus - Topic Wise 65 Sources of Study 67 21. Environment and Ecology 68-71 Strategy 68 Syllabus - Topic Wise 70 Sources of Study 71 22. General Science (and Technology) 72-79 Strategy 72 Syllabus - Topic Wise 74 Biology 74 Physics 76 Chemistry 77 Sources of Study 79 23. Prelims Instructions 80-81 24. Treasure Trove: General Studies 82-164 GS Prelims 2013 Question Paper 82 GS Prelims 2014 Question Paper 98 GS Prelims 2015 Question Paper 114 GS Prelims 2016 Question Paper 130 GS Prelims 2017 Question Paper 147 25. Civil Services Aptitude Test 165-170 Detailed Overview of the Syllabus 166 Section Wise Analysis 168 26. Understanding & Preparing for CSAT 171-182 Comprehension 171 Interpersonal Skills including Communication Skills 177 Test of Logical Reasoning 180 Decision Making and Problem Solving 180 Test of Basic Numeracy and Interpretation 181 27. Treasure Trove: Civil Services Aptitude Test 183-275 CSAT Prelims 2013 Question Paper 183 CIVILZ BYTE CSAT Prelims 2014 Question Paper 202 CSAT Prelims 2015 Question Paper 220 CSAT Prelims 2016 Question Paper 240 CSAT Prelims 2017 Question Paper 257

xi SECTION - III 277-620 MAIN EXAMINATION: THE BIG BATTLE

28. Main Examination: The Big Battle 279-284 Understanding the Pattern and Structure of the Exam 279 Change in the Scheme of Exam in 2013 280 The Syllabus 281 Keywords 282 Checklist 283 29. Compulsory Language Papers: Qualifying Natured 285 Paper - A 285 Paper - B 285 30. Paper - A: Indian Language 286-292 Strategy 286 Sources of Study & Quick Tips 287 ÉèÏëê~å^èŒ#O – ÉèÏ"å=QÍÇ¨Ï#O (In Telugu) 288 31. Treasure Trove: Compulsory Telugu 293-319 Compulsory Telugu 2013 Question Paper 293 Compulsory Telugu 2014 Question Paper 298 Compulsory Telugu 2015 Question Paper 304 Compulsory Telugu 2016 Question Paper 309 Compulsory Telugu 2017 Question Paper 315 32. Treasure Trove: Compulsory Hindi 320-337 Compulsory Hindi 2015 Question Paper 320 Compulsory Hindi 2016 Question Paper 326 Compulsory Hindi 2017 Question Paper 332 33. Paper - B: English 338-340 Strategy 338 Overview of the Paper & Syllabus 339 Sources of Study & Quick Tips 339 34. Treasure Trove: Compulsory English 341-370 Compulsory English 2013 Question Paper 341

CIVILZ BYTE Compulsory English 2014 Question Paper 348 Compulsory English 2015 Question Paper 353 Compulsory English 2016 Question Paper 359 Compulsory English 2017 Question Paper 365

xii 35. General Essay 371-382 Structure of the Paper 371 Significance of the Essay Paper 372 Basic Structure of an Essay 372 The Introduction 373 Body of the Essay 373 The Conclusion 376 Types of Essays & their Salient Features 376 Preparation for the Essay 378 Presentation of the Essay 380 Sources of Study 381 36. Treasure Trove: General Essay 383-387 General Essay 2013 Question Paper 383 General Essay 2014 Question Paper 384 General Essay 2015 Question Paper 385 General Essay 2016 Question Paper 386 General Essay 2017 Question Paper 387 37. General Studies - 1 388-389 38. Indian Heritage and Culture 390-391 39. Modern Indian History 392-393 40. Modern World History 394 41. Indian Society 395-397 42. World and Physical Geography (With Spl Reference to India) 398-399 43. Treasure Trove: General Studies-1 Mains 400-410 G S -1 Mains 2013 Question Paper 400 G S -1 Mains 2014 Question Paper 403 G S -1 Mains 2015 Question Paper 405 G S -1 Mains 2016 Question Paper 407 G S -1 Mains 2017 Question Paper 409 44. General Studies - 2 411-414 Syllabus 411

CIVILZ BYTE Nature of General Studies - II 412 Quick Tips 413 45. Indian Constitution & Comparative Study 415-417 46. Indian Polity & Governance 418-419 47. Social Justice & Development 420-422 xiii 48. International Relations 423-425 49. Treasure Trove: General Studies-2 Mains 426-439 G S -2 Mains 2013 Question Paper 426 G S -2 Mains 2014 Question Paper 429 G S -2 Mains 2015 Question Paper 432 G S -2 Mains 2016 Question Paper 435 G S -2 Mains 2017 Question Paper 437 50. General Studies - 3 440-441 Syllabus 440 51. Indian Economy & Economic Development 442-445 52. Indian Agriculture & Food 446-448 53. Science and Technology 449-451 54. Bio Diversity & Environment 452-454 55. Disaster Management 455-457 56. Internal Security 458-461 57. Treasure Trove: General Studies-3 Mains 462-476 G S -3 Mains 2013 Question Paper 462 G S -3 Mains 2014 Question Paper 465 G S -3 Mains 2015 Question Paper 468 G S -3 Mains 2016 Question Paper 471 G S -3 Mains 2017 Question Paper 474 58. General Studies - 4 477-482 Significance of GS - IV 477 Overview of the Syllabus 478 Nature of the Paper and Approach required 480 Few Quick Tips & A Short Plan of Action 482 Sources of Study 482 59. Treasure Trove: General Studies - 4 Mains 483-503 G S -4 Mains 2013 Question Paper 483 G S -4 Mains 2014 Question Paper 488 G S -4 Mains 2015 Question Paper 492 G S -4 Mains 2016 Question Paper 497 G S -4 Mains 2017 Question Paper 501 CIVILZ BYTE 60. Optional - Key to Success in CSE 504-508 Subjects permitted as Optional 505 How to choose an Optional Subject 505 Quick Tips & Short Recommendations 508

xiv 61. Public Administration as Optional 509-514 Why Public Ad? Syllabus 510 Structure & Strategy 513 Sources of Study 513 62. Treasure Trove: Public Admin Question Papers 515-545 Public Ad Optional Paper 1 2013 515 Public Ad Optional Paper 1 2014 519 Public Ad Optional Paper 1 2015 522 Public Ad Optional Paper 1 2016 525 Public Ad Optional Paper 1 2017 528 Public Ad Optional Paper 2 2013 531 Public Ad Optional Paper 2 2014 534 Public Ad Optional Paper 2 2015 537 Public Ad Optional Paper 2 2016 540 Public Ad Optional Paper 2 2017 543 63. History as Optional 546-555 Why History? 546 Syllabus 547 Quick Tips & Sources of Study 553 64. Treasure Trove: History Question Papers 556-586 History Optional Paper 1 2013 556 History Optional Paper 1 2014 560 History Optional Paper 1 2015 563 History Optional Paper 1 2016 566 History Optional Paper 1 2017 569 History Optional Paper 2 2013 572 History Optional Paper 2 2014 575 History Optional Paper 2 2015 578 History Optional Paper 2 2016 581 History Optional Paper 2 2017 584 65. Geography as Optional 587-593 CIVILZ BYTE Why Geog? 587 Few Quick Tips - Simple Strategy 588 Syllabus 588 Sources of Study 593

xv 66. Treasure Trove: Geography Question Papers 594-619 Geography Optional Paper 1 2013 594 Geography Optional Paper 1 2014 597 Geography Optional Paper 1 2015 599 Geography Optional Paper 1 2016 601 Geography Optional Paper 1 2017 603 Geography Optional Paper 2 2013 605 Geography Optional Paper 2 2014 608 Geography Optional Paper 2 2015 611 Geography Optional Paper 2 2016 614 Geography Optional Paper 2 2017 617

SECTION - IV PERSONALITY TEST: THE FINAL FRONTIER 621-650

67. Significance of the Personality Test 623 68. Process of the Personality Test 624 69. Attributes desirable in Aspirants 625 70. Taking Mock Interviews 626 71. How to Answer 627-633 72. Personal Profile 634-637 73. Non-verbal Communication and Body Language 638-640 74. Verbal Communication 641-645 75. Filling the DAF 646-648 76. Belief, Sincerity and Conviction 649

SECTION - V 651-662 EPILOGUE: THE FINAL WORD

77. Seniors Speak 653-654 78. Messing up Life with UPSC CSE? 655-657

CIVILZ BYTE 79. Policy of the Commission as we understand it 658-659 80. Hard or Smart: Only effort pays off 660-662 General Bibliography 663 Tearaways 665 xvi C O N T R I B U T O R S

The following Officers, teachers, students and other great people have directly or indirectly, knowingly or unknowingly contributed in the making of this book. The Author is grateful and owes credit to all of them.

Dr. Madhukar Bhagat Mrs. Garima Bhagat Mr. Vijay Kumar Indian Revenue Service Indian Revenue Service Indian Revenue Service

Dr. Nageshwar Dr Roman Saini, Ex IAS Dr V Former Editor, The Hans India Co Founder, Uncademy Civils Daily

Dr Artika Shukla Dr. Vijay Agarwal Mrs. Tina Dabi Indian Administrative Service Former Secretary to Indian Administrative Service President of India

Mr. B.N. Ramesh Mrs Bala Latha M Dr. C. Vijaya Raghavacharyulu Indian Police Service Deputy Director Director Emeritus Ministry of Finance Narayana IAS Academy

Mr. V. Gopala Krishna Dr. Revuri Ananta Padmanabha Rao Dr. M. Harinath Reddy Director Founder Principal Director Brain Tree India Narayana IAS Academy Sankaran IAS Study Circle

Mr. Jayaraj Mr. P. Venkateswara Rao Mr. G. Ravi School of History School of Economics Lecturer Emeritus Narayana IAS Academy Narayana IAS Academy Narayana IAS Academy

Mr. Anil Kumar Bolugadde Mr. Jaya Krishna Mr. K. Amer School of Telugu School of Geography School of History Narayana IAS Academy Narayana IAS Academy Narayana IAS Academy

Dr Nijashri Mr. Nagamalleshwara Rao Mr. Kishore Babu Vice Principal School of History School of Public Administration Narayana IAS Academy Narayana IAS Academy Narayana IAS Academy xvii Mr. A. B. Rajaa Mr. Pothaiah Sharma Mr. K. Lakshmiah School of History School of Current Affairs School of Science & Tech Narayana IAS Academy Narayana IAS Academy Narayana IAS Academy

Mr. Venkatesh Emani Mr. Raju Chennoju Mr. M. Narayana Rao School of Geography School of English School of English Narayana IAS Academy Narayana IAS Academy Narayana IAS Academy

Mr. N. Prabakar Reddy Mr. S. Jaya Rao Mr. Uday Kiran Reddy School of Aptitude School of Science & Tech School of Aptitude Narayana IAS Academy Narayana IAS Academy Narayana IAS Academy

Mr. Srikanth Reddy Mr. Vijay Kumar Mr. Srikanth School of International Relations School of Geography Librarian Narayana IAS Academy Narayana IAS Academy Narayana IAS Academy

Mr. Chanakya Mr. Hussain Mr. Babu Jani Miya School of Aptitude School of History School of English Narayana IAS Academy Narayana IAS Academy Narayana IAS Academy

Mr. M.Santosh Mr. Babu Reddy Mr. Venkatesh Gaddam Admin. Officer Lecturer Emeritus Desktop Publishing Narayana IAS Academy Narayana IAS Academy Narayana IAS Academy

Mr. P. Janardhan Reddy Mr. B. Ravinder Reddy Mr. Srinivas Desktop Publishing Associate Lecturer Desktop Publishing Narayana IAS Academy Narayana IAS Academy Narayana IAS Academy

Mrs. Naseemunnisa Begum Mr. Willie Jolley Mr. K. Yesudasu Dept. of Hindi Author Principal T.S. Minority Residential School ‘Setback is a Setup T.S. Minority Residential School Hayathnagar for a Comeback’ Hayathnagar

And so many more...

xviii S T U D E N T C O N T R I B U T O R S

Chandra Shekar Reddy G Naga Jyothi N, B.A Yashwanth Kumar N Bachelor of Arts - III Alumna Bachelor of Arts - II Narayana IAS Academy Narayana IAS Academy Narayana IAS Academy

Jahnavika Gaythri K, B.A Vaibhav CV Nikitha Renu B, B.A Alumna Alumnus Alumna Narayana IAS Academy Narayana IAS Academy Narayana IAS Academy

Krish Na Y Vaibhav N Janardhan Chowdary KVL Alumnus Alumnus Bachelor of Arts - III Narayana IAS Academy Narayana IAS Academy Narayana IAS Academy

Mahesh B Nikhil Karanam Sateesh Kumar G Bachelor of Arts - III Bachelor of Arts - III Bachelor of Arts - III Narayana IAS Academy Narayana IAS Academy Narayana IAS Academy

Satya Kumar BHM Vamsi P Ranganath B Bachelor of Arts - III Bachelor of Arts - III Bachelor of Arts - III Narayana IAS Academy Narayana IAS Academy Narayana IAS Academy

Aakash Ambati Swaraj Mishra Vijay Kumar Reddy Bachelor of Arts - III Bachelor of Arts - III Bachelor of Arts - III Narayana IAS Academy Narayana IAS Academy Narayana IAS Academy

Imran Pasha Kranthi Kumar A Prithvi Raj Bachelor of Arts - I Bachelor of Arts - II Bachelor of Arts - II Narayana IAS Academy Narayana IAS Academy Narayana IAS Academy

Shareeq SMD Irfan Qadiri Sai Sanjit B Bachelor of Arts - II Bachelor of Arts - II Bachelor of Arts - II Narayana IAS Academy Narayana IAS Academy Narayana IAS Academy

Shiva Shankar A Sunethra B Vignesh K Bachelor of Arts - II Bachelor of Arts - II Bachelor of Arts - II Narayana IAS Academy Narayana IAS Academy Narayana IAS Academy

Akhil G Vikram Sai P Madhu Charan N Bachelor of Arts - II Bachelor of Arts - II Bachelor of Arts - II Narayana IAS Academy Narayana IAS Academy Narayana IAS Academy

xix

Dr. P. NARAYANA Narayana Group Founder Chairman of Educational Institutions

TravaIl TrIumphs Foreword

'Sramyeva Jayathe'

'Travail Triumphs' - The mantra I resolutely believed since nonage and it evolved as the guiding spirit behind the Narayana Group of Educational Institutions. Hailing from an underprivileged family and nonchalant by nature, I am a typical pupil inclined more towards sports than education. My father being a city bus conductor and mother being perfectly uneducated, my prospects within the realm of possibility were mediocre.

Credit goes to my mother who inculcated competitive spirit in me by her persistent attempts insisting me to learn from my fellow students concerning studies. Her endeavor ignited the zeal for excellence in education in me. Resultantly, I graduated as a gold medalist in both degree and M.Sc from Sri Venkateswara University. After completing education, I joined as a part-time lecturer in a college in my hometown Nellore. Believe me, my first salary for three months was `120.

Concurrently, I began tuitions for Mathematics in my home. In the first year itself, around two thousand pupils attended from different districts of Andhra Pradesh. Besides Maths, I also taught Economics, Statistics and Physics. I became confident enough that I could establish my own institution. In 1985, I started a small-scale institution named 'Narayana Coaching Centre' in Nellore by hiring a physics teacher and chemistry teacher. After 1997, the institutions were expanded to Hyderabad, Visakhapatnam, Vijayawada and various districts focusing exclusively on EAMCET.

In 1997, we inaugurated IIT coaching in Nellore by taking seven students. The outcome was tremendous. Five out of the seven bagged ranks in IITs. That is the inspiration for the Narayana Group. In course of time, the rooted myth of South Indians' incompetency in IIT exam was debunked by the Narayana group by securing top ranks. There was no looking back from then on. xxi Presently, Narayana Group of Educational Institutions span across 14 states, employing 50,000 people and educating 4,00,000+ students. This wasn't an overnight stroke of luck but a step-by-step progress. Moreover, these attainments were not because of me. These are purely due to the efforts exerted by the teachers and students. Principally, Narayana institutions run on two things. One is teachers, who are the pillars of any educational institution and second is, the students who are the best judges. Strictly speaking, I was only confined to the design of programme. Effective implementation of programme by principals, A1 tutelage by teachers, diligent students and unparalleled parents' faith alone have shaped the Narayana Group of Educational Institutions, today, into the largest educational conglomerate in Asia.

My intention behind this narrative was to affirm that when you embark upon a mission, failure should never be a choice.

Incidentally, during several of our IIT seminars in Northern states, particularly Bihar, we are astonished to notice the craving of the parents to foresee their children as civil servants. Hence, their beforehand ambitions coupled with accessible infrastructure and contiguous instructors substantially eventualized their immense success in UPSC and obtaining other government jobs. Far cry from North India, South Indians are relatively belated in securing UPSC ranks. Here, people are on UPSC track after completing higher studies, leaving lucrative jobs and are often indifferent or motivated at a late age.

In the year 2009, in a bid to discern the ambitions of students, a questionnaire was formulated on the lines of OMR consisting of variegated professions like Engineers, Doctors, Chartered Accountants and Civil Servants. Fifty thousand students of varied colleges under the ambit of Narayana Group engaged in this poll on an average basis. Queerly, 45% of students opted Civil Services as their prospective career.

These ideas triggered me to establish a Civil Services institute. Besides, the monumental success in the orbit of IIT (JEE), AIEEE, BITS Pilani, Medical Exams and so forth also prompted me to contemplate Civil Service coaching.

My vision is to witness 25% of civil servants from South India particularly, Telugu states who can contribute to the nation-building process. In fact, I myself aspired for civil services once. Without gaining in-depth knowledge and insights, I never venture into a neoteric domain. Setting up an institution is no easy task. My team and I undertook an intensive mammoth research and a meticulous ground-analysis for over a year. We interacted with a zillion of seasoned mentors, professors, scholars from Delhi and sophisticated civil servants. We particularly interviewed around 150 unsuccessful UPSC aspirants to comprehend the whys and wherefores of their failure, the number of attempts tried out, reasons for their inconsistencies amidst preparation. xxii History - Public Administration - Geography (HPG) were the subjects finalized in this process. Out of much deliberation, the majority of failed candidates highly recommended Humanities, precisely HPG. But the question is no such group was ever existent before. Without question, we approached the Board of Intermediate Education (BIE) and Osmania University (OU) and explained the necessity for such group. Accordingly, special permission was granted for the genesis of an unparagoned group HPG.

Ensuingly, the strategy and framework to be deployed were also concluded. Only after acquiring a fair knowledge and confirming the facts on the ground, Narayana Institute for Civil Services (NICS) was launched in 2011.

With pride, I assert that the 'Classroom to Mussoorie' was one-of-a-kind programme pioneered by NICS. Successful concepts like 'Micro Schedule' and 'Integrated Coaching' which proved their mettle have been incorporated in the procedure of Narayana IAS Academy. Moreover, the plan was masterfully designed as a long-term program. Chiefly, the five years integrated coaching consolidates the fundamental principles of the student right from his Intermediate level.

Largely, people after graduation spend a protracted period of 3-4 years preparing for civil services. To avoid such prolonged tedious exercise, grooming from Intermediate and Degree propels students to achieve the prestigious services at a very young age. Challenging the conventions, I strive to prove that every student from rural, middle class, sub-urban backgrounds can also indisputably succeed in becoming a civil servant.

Specifically, the campuses of Narayana IAS Academy were located on the outskirts far away from pollution and cacophonous environment. Instilling skills of leadership, social responsibilities, critical thinking, analytical perspective, constructive criticism, administrative traits, knowledge regarding concerned subjects along with honing their inherent virtues constitutes the NICS course of action. Exposure to current issues and global affairs through newspaper analysis, interfaces with pre-eminent personalities and application of modern technology are not to be missed in this pattern. Furthermore, the ambience of NICS was primarily designed to offer immense scope to shoulder a responsibility in the task of nation-building. Nonetheless the remarkably tough exam, NICS coaching at par excellence standards unequivocally alleviate the combat the student battles.

The unvarnished truth is, I envision Narayana IAS Academy as one of the crowning achievements in the annals of Narayana Group of Educational Institutions rather than in pecuniary sense. Therefore, NICS started with a single campus and 50 pupils in 2011, today burgeoned to five campuses accompanied with manifold experienced educators, competent administrators and 2,500 students.

Today, I was pleased when I received a request from one of those 2,500 students to write a brief foreword to this book. He happened to be the author of this work. Albeit writing forewords is xxiii not my cup of tea, I coveted for a long time to convey my word to students in writing pertaining to my vision and journey of NICS.

Having looked though his wondrous works like 200% INDIAN and Kitab-e-Sansad, no wonder John Michael has come forth now with his chef-d'oeuvre. Aside from preparing for UPSC, authoring a book on Civil Services Exam preparation is a herculean task. Nevertheless, Michael has elegantly pulled off and accomplished his objective. I am surprised; a very perusal of this book offered me immense insights on a silver platter. Thusly, an imagination alone of how this book ameliorates students enchants me. I found the contents of Civilz Byte to be informative, interesting and educational. Especially, chapters like 'Science of Reading The Hindu' and 'Television, Radio & YouTube (TRY)' are thought-provoking. Michael truly stood to his words cited on the blurb about writing this book from an aspirant's perspective. This book honestly facilitates a novice to unravel the UPSC quintessence. Dr. M. V. Rama Rao along with Michael has conscientiously explored the unexplored dimensions and challenges of UPSC preparation a typical amateur aspirant encounters. The Guru and Shishya concertedly embraced every possible facet of UPSC territory in this seminal book. Above all, the book embellished with previous papers makes it a must-read.

In a nutshell, Civilz Byte is a work to be treasured by every aspirant aiming for Civil Services. I earnestly extend my gratitude and appreciation to Dr. M. V. Rama Rao and John Michael and team for contributing a magnum opus which can succor the students throughout the odyssey to Mussoorie.

It's a delight to see my students progressing and pursuing their interests in my institutions. As a Founder Chairman, I took all necessary steps to provide the state-of-the-art resources in terms of faculty, infrastructure facilities and management. The rest counts on your individualistic endeavor. Only planning yields out nowhere near success. Planning coupled with hard work drives us to achieve anything desired. Hard work can be substituted by none other. The mantra quoted earlier is solely responsible for where you and I stand today. I might be the first person to be over the moon to view my students evince my vision and partake in shaping the future of our nation. Making the Telugu states synonymous with Civil Services is not distant if you start working now.

- Dr. Ponguru Narayana Founder Chairman, The Narayana Group

xxiv PUNEET KOTHAPA Narayana Group Executive Director of Educational Institutions

Greetings

Hyderabad, 18th April 2018

Dear aspirants,

When you begin Civils' preparation, you are generally confused and unsure about how to start, and what to study. You have numerous queries in your mind regarding the preparation, subject expertise and materials.

Whether you are a beginner in the arena of Civil Services Exam preparation or an experienced candidate, knowledge about the requirements of the UPSC is essential for success. To crack the country's toughest examination you need not be intelligent or carry an exceptional memory. All you need to be is studious coupled with a burning desire to reach the target. In fact, in this exam, hard work always outshines intelligence and talent. Throughout the examination process, the UPSC examines if a candidate has the general knowledge, common sense, aptitude, ethics and communication skill. If you are ready to mould yourself with a proper guidance, you can crack the exam easily.

This book is a right pick for those aspirants to know where to start, what all is to be prepared and then accordingly decide what the game plan should be like.This book covers the necessary things that you should note in civils preparation and coaching.

Our founding Chairman Shri P Narayana garu has always envisaged a vision for Narayana IAS Academy that one fourth of the civil servants selected every year should be from the Telugu States. If you rightly optimize the resources available to you, this is not a distant dream.

John Michael has narrated with a vision to bridge the gap between facilities and guidance. It is evident that an exceptional work went into the making of this document. The support of the Editor Dr. M.V. Rama Rao, all the Contributors and the team will be appreciated and cherished for a long time. I truly wish this book could be the door to the dream of IAS/IPS or any Civil Services to the students at the Academy.

Wishing you all the Success,

Best Wishes & Regards, Puneet Kothapa xxv

Editor's Note

Civil Services plays a decisive role universally, and its role is exceptionally larger in the developing countries like India. Policy formulation; policy implementation; protection of life, liberty and property of the people; delivery of services etc. hinge on the Civil Services. When Shri Jawaharlal Nehru raised apprehensions that the unreasonable powers to All India Services (AIS) might lead to authoritarianism (as it did once during the British rule), the then Home Minister Shri Sardar Vallabhai Patel dispelled Nehru's fears and asserted that minus All India Services, India would be torn into pieces.

In course of time, wisdom of Patel proved right and apprehensions of Nehru proved wrong. Politically neutral Civil Services, independent judiciary and Indian family system kept our society intact.

Distinguished civil servant Shri P.C. Alexander stated that the benefits and facilities enjoyed by the ministers and civil servants in India can be enjoyed only by a multi-millionaire in the United Kingdom. Hence, some bright, hard working and determined students choosing Civil Services as a career option is quite rational.

The present book Civilz Byte will be handy and serve as a ready reckoner. I wish the readers will make maximum use of this book. Perfection is a relative one, and scope for improvement on all fronts will prevail. Hence the suggestions from our readers are always welcome.

I would like to thank Shri P. Narayana, Founder Chairman of the Narayana Group and Minister for Municipal Administration & Urban Development, Govt of Andhra Pradesh, Shri K. Puneet, Execu- tive Director, Shri N. Rama Linga Reddy, Dean, Shri A. Manoj Kumar, Associate Dean and the Princi- pals for their unwavering guidance and encouragement. I appreciate the untiring efforts of the author and my co-editor Mr. John Michael and also his team.

Right decision at right time with right effort is Luck. Good Luck.

Dr. M. V. Rama Rao Editor, Civilz Byte

xxvii

Before You Begin THE PREFACE

“"A life without dreams is not worth living. If few of those dreams come true, they give you the greatest high you can ever experience...And every drop of sweat and blood shed in that process is worth its weight in gold..." “

- Sania Mirza, Ace Against Odds

had the dream to write this book five years ago on the first day I entered Narayana IAS Academy. It was a long journey from then. Not without hardships and moments of despair. But finally it Ihappened. Now the book is in your hands. I always believed in one thing and I relearnt it once again through this project of Civilz Byte.

"If you do not give up, you cannot fail."

Having said that, welcome aboard to Civilz Byte. First, please accept our appreciation for having chosen to be a Civil Servant as your ambition. We believe this profession is so noble and gives a lot of satisfaction and honour. You might be a student of first year or final year; starting off your preparation or struggling in the middle; this book can still be helpful to you.

The Civil Services exam with three different levels with its own intricacies at each level is not an easy race to win. But a proper, guided, consistent and smart preparation can make the journey easy. In that direction, we thought and made this very comprehensive book covering every possible thing about CSE from soup to nuts. The book can be understood as an elaborate answer to the question that's asked over and over - "How to prepare for Civil Services?" xxix The good thing about books is they speak to you. The conversation with them is mostly one- sided but again it is not a limitation in itself. In a very integrated course like this, the student should learn to spend more time in self study. Towards such a pursuit, to have a guide in a book apart from the teachers can be so supportive.

Students at our Academy are always in a mad quest to know "How to Prepare" that they end up wasting time on it rather than actually prepare and study the syllabus. We did the research for you. So, stop trying to know how to prepare and start actually preparing.

As a student of Public Administration and a person who wants to take up Public Administration as a profession, let me reiterate what one of our administrative thinkers Herbert A. Simon, also a Noble laureate, says about decision making.

"A wealth of information creates a poverty of attention." He argues that in an information-rich world, the wealth of information means a dearth of something else: a scarcity of whatever it is that information consumes. What information consumes is rather obvious: it consumes the attention of its recipients.

Hence a wealth of information creates a poverty of attention and a need to allocate that attention efficiently among the overabundance of information sources that might consume it. The same pretty much applies for the Civil Services preparation. There are hundreds of books and websites, tens of Apps and countless advices in the market for the aspirants. Now because of this abundance of resources, there is a poverty of attention. Getting to be choosy in picking the right books is a must. Reading one book ten times is better here than reading one topic from ten books. This was our very motive throughout while making the book and we tried minimizing the source list without compromising on quality of recommendations.

Though I did not write Civil Services Exam at least once myself, I acquired enough expertise regarding the theory of the methodology of study for UPSC comprehensively. 5 years is a big time to understand it. Moreover, after countless interactions with aspirants who succeeded and failed in civil services exam, after listening to classes at a premier institute of Hyderabad like RC Reddy, talking to faculty of Vajiram and its students, staying three months each at the hubs of civils preparation - Ashoknagar in Hyderabad and Rajendernagar of Delhi and finally working for Unacademy in the content team of Dr. Roman Saini for about 250 working days along with great educators like Deepanshu Singh, I think I stand eligible to write this book. And because of the highly qualified Editor and a considerable research team involved, many alternatives of recommendations have been explored instead of few. xxx As mentioned on the blurb of the back cover, at one point, the book becomes a customized compilation to suit the needs of aspirants between the ages 15 and 21 at the Academy though a large part of the book was our own creation. Every book used in the research was duly cited in the Bibliography and proper credit given to its authors.

With the experience of making the College Magazine 'Civilscope' in two months back in my inter second year, I thought I could finish this book too in two months. I started the project in February 2016. Not two months, it took more than two years to finish it. But the standards too got superior because of the time, energy, sweat and blood that went into this endeavour.

This book is divided into 5 sections. Section-I is the Starter and Section-V the Dessert. Section - II, III & IV, right in the middle, form the Main Course. That is to say I, II, III, IV & V are Introduction, Prelims, Mains, Interview & Conclusion respectively. These five sections make eighty chapters in toto. Most of the chapters in Prelims (Sec-II) and Mains (Sec-III) have the common structure of 'Syllabus-Strategy-Sources of Study.' With the PDF version of the book, one can quickly search for questions from specific topics in the previous years' papers.

Since I cannot insist in every chapter, let me tell you this clearly here. Writing notes is often neglected but it actually is a prerequisite for revision prior to the exam. Be it Newspaper, NCERTs, Standard books or anything you are studying, preparing notes from them is mandatory. You are not Chitti, the Robot to scan & instantly memorize things forever for life. If you don't write and revise, whatever you studied goes into the scrap bin. Remember the Mantra 'Read-Write-Revise.' Without notes, Lose Hopes.

Civilz Byte deserves to be preserved and carried by you throughout your Civils journey every day. Like a dictionary is carried. It has the potential to remain relevant for the Civil Services Exam for a long time, considering the contents, even if the syllabus or pattern is changed. So, don't just read the book. Interact with it. Underline it. Write your new learnings & thoughts in the margin. Make it your book. Personalize it. You need not accept with everything that's been told in the book. You should make changes in the strategy to suit your needs. But if the book helps you start or move a little forward, we deem this project a success.

Make your entire preparation for the Civil Services Exam a healthy, happy, creative, enlighten- ing, exciting and an enjoyable one. As you use this book, let your aim be to work hard and change your blue ink to green ink. Let your dream be to contribute to the nation building and bringing a positive change in the life of a common man. Work with that spirit and you can surely do it. xxxi Every time I cross LB Nagar and come towards Hayathnagar, I observe a Woodland hoarding from my seat in the RTC Bus. It reads 'Adventure only takes a strong will.' That's right. Will is the fuel. Civil Services too is a tough journey. But if you are willing to make the adventure, it only is a risk worth taking that can transform you into a warrior for life.

I do not know if it suits the need or not but I desperately want to end this Preface with what Shah Rukh Khan said in 'Om Shanti Om' and Paulo Coelho wrote in 'The Alchemist.'

"And, when you want something, all the universe conspires in helping you to achieve it."

You get a problem cos you can solve it.

Never give up.

- John Michael

Author, Civilz Byte.

xxxii ACKNOWLEDGEMENTS

This book is a result of my long passion to become a writer. In a sense, everyone at Narayana IAS Academy has contributed to my learning and the evolution of my ideas. That includes the teachers right from my Intermediate first year to this day, to whom this book is dedicated, staff, who supported me in my different endeavours and student colleagues who I share a special bond with for whom this book is written.

My gratitude goes first to the God Almighty for this life, love and purpose. My father Prakash Paradesi Bob has taught me to be helpful and grateful. My mother Usha Isaiah has taught me to question the injustice and explore things. Without their relentless support, this book could have never been a possibility. Thank you for the choices you have given me.

I sincerely thank Dr. P. Narayana for establishing Narayana IAS Academy and penning an inspiring Foreword for this book. A.K. Mohanty sir for the Dream Team and all the three hour sessions on every Friday of my first year Intermediate. He has been my favourite officer and a tremendous source of inspiration. Dr. Mrudula Lakkaraju for helping me understand the problem with stereo- types. Dr. Vijaya Raghavacharyulu for teaching me leadership and writing the Foreword for my first book.

I learned the ABCDs of Civils from Kishore Sir, Jayaraj sir, Venkatesh Sir, Rasool sir, Maheshwara Reddy sir, Raja Shekar Reddy sir & SV Narayana sir. Nanek Singh sir has been an encouraging force in the first year.

I have no words to thank the Dean Mr. Rama Linga Reddy for helping me give shape to my ideas. I will always remember the Public Administration classes of Associate Dean Mr. Manoj Kumar in my first year. Giridhar Sir for coordinating the Project and working beyond the call of the duty for his students as the Principal of Kuntloor campus. My other Principals Kalyan Chakravarthy, Murali Mohan, Adinarayana & Avinash have shaped me into what I am today. Manjula ma'm was thoroughly helpful. The Vice Principals in these five years have helped me develop in several different ways.

xxxiii Dr. M.V. Rama Rao is a teacher that I will always remember for my life. He has done an exceptional work in my life and for the books. Without him being the Editor, the book could have been very different. I am thankful to Mrs. Satya Hyma Rao for her affection.

My humble gratitude to my teachers at Saint Mary's High School, Bhimavaram and Sasi Resi- dential School, Velivennu. These Almae Matres have got me ready for what Hyderabad was to offer later. The half mark Shanoor sir added to pass me in Hindi in the 9th standard has been a turning point of my life. Raghavendra sir taught me English and attitude. Brahmanandam sir taught me Telugu and values.

There are so many people I am grateful to. But specially…

Apoorva for being a great companion. Jenny for being a support system. Funakka, Tinkanna & Smily, Usha Aunty & family, Rajanna & Jyothsnakka, Babai & Pinni from Mehedipatnam, grandchil- dren & members of Jehovah Jireh and Sundari Isaiah Family. My sisters Anjali, Rupa and Mounica who will always have a special place. This City of Biryani for accepting me as a Hyderabadi and getting me ready for Delhi and other cities.

The Hindu Group for the Lit For Life, Theatre Fest, the newspaper, accepting me as a liveblogger and finally showing me a taste of art and literature. My church at Bethany and all its members, Sunday School and Vespers Service. Hope UC for being my church in Hyd.

The entire team that worked for Civilscope Journal in my Intermediate second year. My friends Prasoon, Satya Kumar, Vivek Tyagi, Vaibhav CV & Hafeez Abdullah have done a commendable job. Satish, Satyanarayana and Sai Krishna from Bhimavaram. Kalyan Sundar Harsha and Satya Kumar for continuing to be my friends. Raju sir and Narayana Rao sir for being the English board for a large part of this book and helping out rectify the errors. All the English teachers in my life. Executives of different call centers who I used to call to learn English.

The poetry of Bhartruhari I learnt in Telugu as a school kid in the lesson Subhashithalu, "Arambhimparu Neecha Manavulu...." for teaching me that the timid don't start, the mediocre give up in the middle for the fear of obstacles and that the noble, brave & strong alone finish something they started in spite of hurdles. Dr. B. V. Pattabhiram whose books have motivated me to learn many things as a child. Chetan Bhagat for his several fiction books that helped me realize my interest in literature.

Mother Theresa, Swamy Vivekananda, Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, Mahatma Gandhi, Henry David Thoreau, Kautilya, Abraham Lincoln, Rousseau, Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, Malala Yousafzai & Ramgopal Varma for the inspiration.

xxxiv Prithvi Raj has helped me untangle & understand many subtle philosophies life offered me. Sai Sanjit has done a lot of commendable work with an aim to enhance the usefulness of the book to the student community. I know not how to thank both these co-writers of mine.

All my Co-Admins & Co-Editors of the different Facebook Pages I worked for. Specially the Founder Admins of NICS Social Media Wing - Imran Glizz of 'NICS Students' (fb.com/1nics) and Jahnavika Gayathri of 'Narayana IAS Academy Students' (fb.com/civilservantz). All the participants of NICS Youth Pariament and my members of Greivance Redressal Committee.

Dr. Roman Saini for asking me to work for Unacademy. I learned to work in a corporate work culture. Ranadeep, Risheek and other friends in Delhi and Satish & Mahesh from Ashok Nagar. Pavan Kumar for designing the final Draft of the book. Patrick Jedidiah for designing beautiful covers for my first two books.

V.S. Sampath, former Chief Election Commissioner, Election Commission of India, for launching my 2nd book Kitab-e-Sansad. Puneet Kothapa, Executive Director of the Narayana Group for the Greetings in my first book 200% Indian and good wishes that followed.

Malvika Rao & Rahul Korapati for bringing out such a beautiful front & back covers for this book. Venkatesh Gaddam for designing the first draft of this book. Vamsi, Satyanarayana & Sanjay for being my Roommates. PET Satish for selecting me to say the Pledge in the Assembly every day.

The Hans India for publishing my articles unaltered. All the writers of the books I read, Directors of the films & Speakers of the TED talks I watched. All the 18 States I visited & tens of Churches I attended. Brownie for being my Pet Dog and Isabella for being my Plant friend.

And most importantly Narayana IAS Academy for being the greatest Platform for me to learn, grow and develop.

I would like to add that I am solely responsible for any mistakes and errors.

xxxv

Civil Services : The Introduction SECTION - I Civil Services : The Introduction

☯ Civil Services ☯ Union Public Service Commission ☯ Scheme of the Examination ☯ Civil Services Exam ☯ ABCDs = NCERTs ☯ Science of Reading The Hindu ☯ Magazine Mantra ☯ Yojana Aur Kurukshetra ☯ e Preparation - Websites ☯ Apps - Tapping the Internet Resources ☯ India Year Book: A confused Territory ☯ A recipe for Success ☯ Television, Radio & YouTube (TRY)

CHAPTER Civil Services : The Introduction 1 Civil Services

ivil Services is a bunch of services under CENTRAL OR the Government of India which includes ALLIED SERVICES CIndian Administrative Service, Indian Po- lice Service..etc. Besides the 3 Group ‘A’ All The candidates with the highest ranks in India Services – the IAS, IPS & IFoS (Forest) that the Civil Services Exam go to IAS, IPS etc. and are common to the Centre & States, there are those with successively lower ranks are allotted to the Central Services. 58 other technical & specialized Central Civil Services (CCS – Group A, B, C &D). With the enactment of the Government of India Act, 1919, The ‘Imperial Services’ were For the recruitment to posts of 24 such split into two – All India Services and Central services, Civil Services Exam (CSE) is conducted. Services. The Central Services was headed by Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) con- the Viceroy and Governor General of India. ducts the CSE every year to select candidates Anyway, the present day, Central Services for these prestigious & challenging services com- enjoy a crucial place in the Indian Administra- ing under different Ministries. tive System. The personnel of these services occupy important specialized technical and For a better understanding & quick remem- functional positions in various Central Govern- brance, let us divide these 24 Civil Services into ment organizations. 3 parts. Another contribution of the Central Ser- 1. All India Services vices Officers is in the area of bringing a na- a. Indian Administrative Service tional perspective to their job. Though governed b. Indian Police Service by their respective cadre-managing Ministries c. Indian Forest Service (Separate Exam) and departments of the Government of India, the personnel belonging to these services serve 2. Foreign Service in the Central Government, Union Territories a. Indian Foreign Service and in the states. Unlike the Officers of the All India Services, the Central Services officials do 3. Central or Allied Services not work under the state governments while a. Group – A (16 Services ) working in the states. They might, however work b. Group – B (5 Services) with the state Governments. 3 civilz byte All Central Services Officers work on a ten- Group – B (5 Services) ure system i.e., they are placed in a position/ Armed Forces Headquarters Civil Service City/State for three years or so and then moved (Section Officer’s Grade) to the centre or to the other states. In fact, by Delhi, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, the time, a central Civil Services Officer retires; Lakshadweep, Daman & Diu and Dadra & he/she should have served in eight to ten or Nagar Haveli Civil Service even more states. Delhi, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Thus, in contrast to an IAS or IPS Officer, Lakshadweep, Daman & Diu and Dadra who is encadered in a particular state, and who, & Nagar Haveli Police Service at the most, works in the Centre for a few years, Puducherry Civil Service a Central service Officer has served in a much Puducherry Police Service larger area of the Indian Territory. Though the Central Service Officers are not “All-India” Ser- vice Officers, the nature of their task and post- FOREIGN SERVICE ing makes them truly “All-India” in character. The origin of the Indian Foreign Service can be traced back to the British rule. In some of the Group – A (16 Services) initial stages, it used to be known as the “Indian Indian Post & Telecommunication Accounts Foreign Department.” On the eve of India’s & Finance Service independence, the Government of India decided Indian Audit and Accounts Service to create a service called the Indian Foreign Indian Revenue Service (Customs and Cen- Service for India’s diplomatic, consular and tral Excise) commercial representation overseas. The candidates for this Service are recruited under Indian Defence Accounts Service the combined Civil Service Examination system Indian Revenue Service (Income Tax) of the Union Public Service Commission. Indian Ordnance Factories Service (Assis- tant Works Manager, Administration). Training Indian Postal Service On selection to the Indian Foreign Service Indian Civil Accounts Service through the combined Civil Services examina- Indian Railway Traffic Service tion, the new entrants undergo a multi-faceted and comprehensive training programme in- Indian Railway Accounts Service tended to give them a thorough grounding in Indian Railway Personnel Service diplomatic knowledge, diplomatic qualities and Post of Assistant Security Commissioner in diplomatic skills. Railway Protection Force The probationers commence their train- Indian Defence Estates Service ing, together with their colleagues from the Indian Information Service (Junior Grade) other Services, at the Lal Bahadur Shastri Na- Indian Trade Service (Gr. III) tional Academy of Administration, Mussoorie. Indian Corporate Law Service Thereafter, the probationers join the Foreign 4 Civil Services : The Introduction Service Institute in New Delhi and undergo fo- Functions cused training in the various disciplines that a career diplomat needs to familiarise himself As a career diplomat, the Foreign Service with. The Foreign Service Institute course in- Officer is required to project India’s interests, volves lectures, attachments with various wings both at home and abroad on a wide variety of issues. These include bilateral, political and of the Government as well as familiarisation economic cooperation, trade and investment tours both within the country and abroad. promotion, cultural interaction, press and me- The aim of this course is to inculcate in dia liaison as well as a whole host of multilat- the diplomatic recruit a strong sense of history, eral issues. knowledge of diplomacy and international re- The functions of an Indian diplomat may be sum- lations and a grasp of general economic and marized as: political principles. Representing India in its Embassies, High At the conclusion of the training Commissions, Consulates, and Permanent programme, the officer is assigned his/her com- Missions to multilateral organizations like pulsory foreign language (CFL). After a brief UN. period of desk attachment in the Ministry of External Affairs, the officer is posted to an In- Protecting India’s national interests in the dian Mission abroad in a country where his CFL country of his/her posting. is the native language and enrolled in a lan- Promoting friendly relations with the re- guage course. The officer is expected to de- ceiving state as also its people, including velop proficiency in his CFL and pass the requi- NRI / PIOs. site examination before he is confirmed in ser- Reporting accurately on developments in vice. the country of posting which are likely to Career influence the formulation of India’s policies. A Foreign Service Officer begins his career Negotiating agreements on various issues abroad as a Third Secretary and is promoted to with the authorities of the receiving state. Second Secretary as soon as he is confirmed in Extending consular facilities to foreigners service. Subsequent promotions are to the lev- and Indian nationals abroad. els of First Secretary, Counsellor, Minister and At home, Ministry of External Affairs is Ambassador/High Commissioner/Permanent responsible for all aspects of external re- Representative. Officers can also be posted to lations. Territorial divisions deal with bi- Indian Consulates abroad where the hierarchy lateral political and economic work while (going upwards) is Vice-Consul, Consul and Con- functional divisions look after policy plan- sul General. ning, multilateral organizations, regional The hierarchy at the Ministry of External groupings, legal matters, disarmament, Affairs includes 6 stages: Under Secretary, protocol, consular, Indian Diaspora, press Deputy Secretary, Director, Joint Secretary, Ad- and publicity, administration and other ditional Secretary and Secretary. aspects. 5 civilz byte ALL INDIA SERVICES INDIAN POLICE SERVICE

According to the All India Services Act, The Indian Police Service (IPS) is one of 1951, there are three All India Services viz., the three All India Services constituted under Article 312 of the Constitution of India. The IPS 1. Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officers provide senior level leadership to Police 2. Indian Police Service(IPS) Forces both in the States and at the Centre. The 3. Indian Forest Service (IFoS) Police Division in the Ministry of Home Affairs A common unique feature of the All India (MHA) is responsible for all Cadre Control and Services is that the members of these services Policy Decisions such as cadre structure, are recruited by the Center (Union government) recruitment, training, cadre allocation, but their services are placed under various State confirmation, empanelment, deputation, pay and cadres, and they have the liability to serve both allowances, disciplinary matters of IPS Officers. under the State and under the Centre. In 1948, a year after India gained independence The Department of Personnel and training from Britain, the Indian (Imperial) Police was is the cadre controlling authority for the IAS, replaced by the Indian Police Service. the Ministry of Home Affairs for the IPS while The First Police Commission, appointed on the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Cli- 17 August 1865, contained detailed guidelines mate Change for the IFoS. for the desired system of police in India and The selection of candidates for these posts defined the police as a governmental depart- is made through direct recruitment (recruited ment to maintain order, enforce the law, and on the basis of a competitive examination). For to prevent and detect crime. The Indian Police the IAS and IPS, selection is done through the Service is not a force itself but a service pro- Civil Services Examination and for the Indian viding leaders and commanders to staff the Forest Service through the Indian Forest Ser- state police and All India Central Armed Police vice Examination held by the Union Public Ser- Forces. Its members are the senior officers of vice Commission. However, the preliminary the police. exam of Civil Services is common to Candidates Objectives of both IFos & Civil Services. The Rules of the All India Services Act, 1951 With the passage of time, Indian Police provide that 33% of the vacancies in the IAS/ Service’s objectives were updated and rede- IPS/IFS should be filled by promotion from fined; the current rules and functions of an In- among the officers of the State Service in con- dian Police Service Officer are as follows: sultation with the Commission. So, it is for this To fulfill duties based on border responsi- 77 other percent that you have to compete for bilities, in the areas of maintenance of to be a part of the All India Services. public peace and order, crime prevention, The 2 services viz., IAS & IPS, which are investigation, and detection, collection relevant to us are discussed in the following of intelligence, VIP security, counter-ter- pages... 6 Civil Services : The Introduction

rorism, border policing, railway policing, Endeavour to inculcate in the police forces tackling smuggling, drug trafficking, eco- under their command such values and nomic offences, corruption in public life, norms as would help them serve the people disaster management, enforcement of better. socio-economic legislation, bio-diversity Inculcate integrity of the highest order, and protection of environmental laws etc. sensitivity to aspirations of people in a Leading and commanding the Indian Intel- fast- changing social and economic milieu, ligence Agencies like Research and Analy- respect for human rights, broad liberal sis Wing (R&AW), Intelligence Bureau (IB), perspective of law and justice and high Central Bureau of Investigations (CBI), standard of professionalism. Criminal Investigation Department (CID) Training etc., Indian Federal Law Enforcement Agencies, Civil and Armed Police Forces in All the officers of Indian Police Service all the states and union undergo probationary training at Lal Bahadur territories. Shastri National Academy of Administration (LBNSAA), Mussoorie and then at Sardar Leading and commanding the Central Vallabhbhai Patel National Police Academy Armed Police Forces (CAPF) which include (SVPNPA), Hyderabad. After successful comple- the Central Police Organisations (CPO) and tion of probation, officers are confirmed in the Central Paramilitary Forces (CPF) such as service. Also, there is provision for mandatory Border Security Force (BSF), Central Re- Mid Career Training for IPS officers spread across serve Police Force (CRPF), Indo-Tibetan the entire service span. Border Police (ITBP), National Security Guard (NSG), Central Industrial Security Allocation of a Cadre Force (CISF), Vigilance Organisations, Successful candidates of Civil Services Ex- Indian Federal Law Enforcement Agencies. amination allocated to the Indian Police Ser- Serve as head of the departments in policy vice are allocated to State Cadres/ Joint Cad- making in the Ministries and Departments res on the basis of their rank, preference and of Central and State Governments and availability of vacancies in their category at public sector undertakings both at centre their turn in terms of provisions of Cadre Allo- and states, Government of India. cation Policy of 2017 or as amended from time To interact and coordinate closely with the to time. Officers recruited through promotions members of other All India Services and from State Police Services remain in their State also with the Indian Armed Forces prima- Cadres. rily with the Indian Army. Appointments to Last but not the least, to lead and com- Other Organizations/ Bodies mand the force with courage, uprightness, IPS officers can be appointed in autono- dedication and a strong sense of service mous organizations/ sub-ordinate organiza- to the people. tions/ Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs)/ UN 7 civilz byte

Organizations/ International Organizations in multilateral negotiations. On deputations they various capacities. They can also serve as Per- work at Intergovernmental organizations like sonal Secretaries to Ministers in Central Gov- World Bank and United Nations or its Agencies. ernment. A large number of senior posts in Cen- IAS officers at various levels of administration tral Armed Paramilitary Forces (viz, CRPF, CISF, play vital roles in conducting free, fair and BSF, SSB, ITBP, NSG), besides CBI, IB, RAW, etc smooth elections in India under the direction are manned by IPS officers. of Election Commission of India and states. Training

INDIAN Every successful candidate has to undergo ADMINISTRATIVE SERVICE eighteen (18) to twenty (20) months of training as a probationary Officer before he/she is con- Bharatiya Prashashanik Sheva as called in firmed and inducted to the specific service and Hindi, Indian Administrative Service is the pre- posted in the department concerned. mier administrative Civil Service of the Govern- The training is divided into two parts: ment of India. IAS officers hold key and strategic positions in the Union Government, States 1. The Foundational course (FC) and Public-Sector Undertakings (PSUs). 2. The Professional Course (PC) IAS, as the permanent bureaucracy in In the case of IAS, the Lal Bahadur Shastri India forms an inseparable part of the execu- National Academy of Administration, Mussoorie tive branch of the Government of India (GOI) offers training to the Probationers. Of late, it thus providing continuity and neutrality to the has gained global recognition and stature as a administration. Unlike Candidates selected to world-class institution for training career civil other civil services, a person once appointed servants. to Indian Administrative Service or Indian For- eign Service (IFS) becomes ineligible to reap- Functions of IAS Officers pear in Civil Services Examination conducted A civil servant is responsible for the law by Union Public Service Commission because and order and general administration in the area there are no higher Civil Services other than these two services under Government of India. under his work. Typically, the functions of an IAS officer are as follows: Upon confirming to service after probation as Sub-Divisional Magistrate, an IAS officer To handle the daily affairs of the govern- is given administrative command of ment, including framing and implementa- entire district as District collector. On attain- tion of policy in consultation with the mining the upper levels of Super Time Scale to Apex ister-in-charge of the concerned ministry Scale, they can go on to head whole depart- which requires supervision and proper en- ments and subsequently entire Ministries of forcement at ground realities. Government of India and States. In the process of policy formulation and IAS officers represent Government of In- decision making, officers at higher level dia at the international level in bilateral and contribute to the final shape of the policy 8 Civil Services : The Introduction

and/or take a final decision with the con- To travel to places to oversee implementa- currence of the minister concerned or the tion of policies. cabinet (depending on the gravity of the Appointments to issue). Other organizations / Bodies To implement government policies at grass-root level when posted at field work Besides, IAS officers can be appointed in i.e. as SDM, ADM, DM and Divisional Com- autonomous organizations/sub ordinate orga- missioner and act as intermediate between nizations/PSUs/UN Organizations/international public and government by good execution organizations like World Bank, Asian Develop- and deliverance skills. ment bank, in various capacities. They also serve as Personal Secretaries to Ministers in Supervision of implementation of policies Central Government. There is provision for of State Government and Central Govern- deputation of IAS Officers to private organiza- ment. tions also for a fixed tenure.

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9 CHAPTER civilz byte 2 UPSC Union Public Service Commission

he efficiency and effectiveness of the ad- 1937. After independence, with the promulga- ministration and governance of the nation of the new constitution for Independent Ttion depends on the impartiality, probity India on 26th January, 1950, the ‘Federal Pub- and intellect of the Civil Servants. India as a lic Service Commission’ was accorded a Consti- democratic nation, bestowed the responsibil- tutional Status and was renamed as ‘Union Pub- ity of recruiting this ‘Steel Frame’ to an inde- lic Service Commission.’ pendent & neutral body called Union Public The UPSC usually conducts over a dozen Service Commission (UPSC). examinations like Combined Geo-Scientist & The UPSC has been established under Ar- Geologist Exam, Combined Medical Services ticle 315 of the Constitution of India. (Also, Exam, Combined Defence Services Exam, Engi- Articles 315 – 323, Part XIV deal with this body.) neering Services Exam…etc. every year on an The Commission consists of a Chairman and all India basis. These include examinations for other Members appointed by the President. recruitment to services/posts in various fields, such as Civil Services, Defence, Railways, Medi- One of the chief functions of the UPSC is cal and Forest Service, etc. to conduct examinations for appointment to the Civil Services/Posts of the Union as per Article Apart from conducting the exams, UPSC is consulted in the cases of promotion, deputa- 320. Competitive examinations are also held by tion, etc. relating to different Civil Services. this constitutional body under arrangements UPSC also plays an advisory role on matters re- with different Ministries like Ministry of Defence lating to methods of recruitment to various ser- for entry to certain Defence Services, through vices and posts. Nevertheless, the major role the exams like National Defence Academy...etc. played by the Commission is to select persons Initially, the Govt. of British India has es- to man the various Central Civil Services and tablished ‘Public Service Commission’ for the Posts and the Services common to the Union first time in India in Oct, 1926 as per the Govt. and States (viz. All India Services). of India Act, 1919 with Sir Ross Barker as its Because of the unpredictable nature of its Chairman. questioning style in the examinations, and the Subsequently, with the Govt. of India Act, toughness involved in passing a UPSC held exam, 1935, the then Public Service Commission be- it is also called in a lighter vein, by many aspir- came the Federal Public Service Commission in ants, as UnPredictable Service Commission. 10 CHAPTER Civil Services : The Introduction 3 Scheme of the Examination

he complete selection process of candi- Name of the General OBC SC/ST dates is divided into 3 parts. Actually, it Category Tis two stages viz., Prelims & Main (In- cludes both Written & Interview). But, let us go Age Limits 32 35 37 in the way we grew up listening . Number of Attempts i. The Preliminary Examination (Popularly called as Prelims) Candidates of the general category have a maxi- ii. The Main Examination mum of 6 attempts, while those of OBC have 9. (Generally called Mains) For candidates belonging to SC/ST, there is no iii. The Personality Test (Interview) upper limit with regard to the number of attempts. Appearing even for a single paper of THE ELIGIBILITY the CS (P) makes it a countable attempt. CRITERIA Name of the General OBC SC/ST Category Educational Qualifications No. of Attempts 6 9 Unlimited Being a graduate is the primary criterion of eligibility to appear for this exam. The can- Educational Background didate must have a degree of graduation from People of all educational backgrounds ir- a recognized university (It doesn’t matter if it’s respective of the subject of graduation, who distance or regular). Or a qualification equiva- fulfill the aforesaid criteria, are eligible to ap- lent to this is also okay. pear. They can opt for any of the optional sub- Age Limits jects included in the list of UPSC.

The candidate must be of 21 years of age (Other Qualification about Nationality is or more on the cut-off date (as on 1st of Au- excluded here; please refer to the recent noti- gust) and not more than 32 years. The upper fication if you need.) limit of age is relaxed by 3 years for OBC i.e., 35 years and 5 years for SC/ST candidates i.e., ––––––––––– ––––––––––– 37 years. 11 CHAPTER civilz byte 4 Civil Services Exam

relims is essentially a screening test to tion, in the written part of the Main Exam shall eliminate the majority of the candidates. be summoned for interview for a Personality PThe big battle is Mains. And the final fron- Test. The number of candidates to be summoned tier is the Interview. for interview will be about twice the number of vacancies to be filled. The marks obtained in the Preliminary Ex- amination by the candidates who are declared Marks thus obtained by the candidates in qualified for admission to the Main Examina- Mains & Interview would determine their final tion will not be counted for determining their ranking. Candidates will be allotted to the vari- final order of merit. Only marks obtained in the ous services keeping in view their ranks in the Mains & Interview are considered to determine exam & the preferences expressed by them for the final ranking of the candidates. the various services and posts including states for cadre. Generally, the number of candidates who are qualified for the Main Exam will be about twelve (12) to thirteen (13) times the THE PRELIMINARY total approximate number of vacancies to be EXAMINATION filled in the year in various services or posts. Civil Services – Prelims (CS (P)) or the pre- Only those candidates who are declared lims, as we generally call it, is the initial stage by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) to have qualified in the Preliminary Examina- of the selection process. It’s like the first level, tion in the year will be eligible for admission to first door, first hurdle and the first giant leap. the Main Exam of that year provided they also If you cross it, you are half done. You lose it, satisfy other eligibilities for admission to the you lose a whole year. Until the next prelims. Main Examination. Now about its structure, it has got two com- Candidates who obtain the minimum quali- pulsory objective type papers of two hundred fying marks, as fixed by the UPSC at its discre- (200) marks each. 12 Civil Services : The Introduction

S.No General Studies Paper-1 General Studies Paper-2 (GS-1) (Civil Services Aptitude Test) 1 200 Marks 200 Marks 2 100 Questions (2 Marks Each) 80 Questions (2 ½ Marks Each) 3 120 Minutes* 120 Minutes* 4 Negative Marking** Negative Marking** 5 Considered for Cut-Off Considered for Qualifying

*Each paper will be of two hours duration. you will find everything in detail in the Blind candidates and the candidates with Loco- respective sections on GS -1 & CSAT. motor Disability and Cerebral Palsy where dominant (writing) extremity is affected to the ex- THE MAIN EXAMINATION tent of slowing the performance of function (minimum of 40% impairment) will, however, • The Main Exam; the bridge b/w prelims & be allowed an extra time of twenty minutes per interview, has 9 descriptive type papers hour (40 Mins, as a whole) for each paper. scheduled to be written back to back in **A penalty of one-third of the marks that just 5 to 6 working days. ;-) a question carries is deducted for a wrong an- • Well, you know, when on an average, 10 swer. There is no penalty for unattempted ques- lakh candidates apply for the prelims, less tions. than 4% of the aspirants who attend it are UPSC draws a list of candidates from Pre- qualified for mains. Worried? Cool dear!! liminary Exam to be qualified for the Main exam Half of those 10 lakh candidates don’t even based on two things... attend the exam… ;-) 1. The criterion minimum qualifying marks • Check the tables in the next page to un- of 33% (33% = 66 for 200 marks) in General derstand the scenario of Civil Services Studies paper-II (Civil Services Aptiude Exam… Test - CSAT) of Prelims. Is it Possible to Succeed in this 2. Total Qualifying marks of General Studies Cut-Throat Competition ? Paper-I of Preliminary Exam. When the notification for Civil Services • So, you have got to pass the CSAT with Exam was issued in the last week of May 2015, 33% and then get a good score in GS-1 a record no. of nine lakh forty five thousand for 200, to Qualify prelims. nine hundred and eight (9,45,908) candidates • Both the Question papers of prelims will applied for it. be set in Hindi & English. The no. of candidates who downloaded the • Do you feel like, you did not get every e-admit card to write the prelims on last-but- detail about the prelims? Don’t worry, one Sunday of August were only Six lakh eighty 13 civilz byte

Type of Candidates (CSE 2015-16) Number Percentage No. of Candidates applied for the Exam 9,45,908 100% No. of Candidates - downloaded the e-Admit card 6,81,549 72% No. of Candidates appeared for Prelims 4,65,882 49% No. of Candidates qualified for Mains 15,008 < 1.5% No. of Candidates called for the Interview 2797 < 1% No. of Candidates selected for Services 1078 < 0.25% one thousand five hundred and forty nine Out of these 15K youngsters, who wrote (6,81,549). the Mains a week before Christmas, two thou- Out of this big number, four lakh sixty five sand seven hundred and ninety seven (2797) thousand eight hundred and eighty two candidates received call letters from UPSC for (4,65,882) candidates attended the preliminary an Interview held in March 2016. exam and felt, “Oh! The paper is so easy.” And at the end of the day one thousand The above figures show clearly that more and seventy eight (1078) candidates woke up than 50% of the candidates who have applied on a hot day in May, 2016 to know that they did not attend the exam. And moving forward, were selected & recommended for appointment out of these 4.65 Lakh studious aspirants, a to various Central Government Services. But, number of 15,008 candidates as small 3.22% to them the day was pleasant. This was when could qualify for the mains to be held in Mrs. Tina Dabi created the history. December. SCENARIO IN THE TELUGU STATES (Telangana State + Andhra Pradesh) Type of Candidates (CSE 2015-16) Number No. of Candidates appeared for Prelims 38,295 No. of Candidates appeared for Mains 450 No. of Candidates appeared for Interview 75 No. of Canidates recruited for Services 65+ (Approx)

The Nature of Mains career in Civil Services.

This exam is intended to assess the overall in- The questions are likely to test the tellectual traits and depth of understanding of candidate’s basic understanding of all relevant candidates rather than merely the range of their issues, and ability to analyze, and take a view information and memory. on conflicting socio-economic goals, objectives and demands. The questions in Mains will be such as to test a candidate’s general awareness of a vari- So, you are expected to give relevant, ety of subjects, which will have relevance for a meaningful and succinct answers and express 14 Civil Services : The Introduction the idea in few words not exceeding the word ranking. limit the questions have. The Other Seven, Real Or ‘Competitive’, Out of the nine papers, candidates have Papers Counted For The Merit Comprise Of… to necessarily pass in two language papers (One 1. General Essay English and another language from 22 statutory 2. General studies languages) that are compulsory. But, their marks are not counted for evaluation during the final 3. Optional.

Paper NAME OF THE PAPER MARKS DURATION No. 1 General Essay 250 3 Hours 2 General Studies – 1 (Indian Heritage & Culture, History & Geography of the World and Society) 250 3 Hours 3 General Studies – 2 (Governance, Constitution, Polity, Social Justice and International Relations) 250 3 Hours 4 General Studies – 3 (Technology, Economic Development, Bio-Diversity, Environment, Security and Disaster Management) 250 3 Hours 5 General Studies – 4 (Ethics, Integrity and Aptitude) 250 3 Hours 6 Optional Paper – 1 250 3 Hours 7 Optional Paper – 2 250 3 Hours

One subject has to be chosen from the list The nature, scope, syllabus of each of of optionals and two papers have to be writ- these papers and the standard of the questions ten. The scope of the syllabus for the Optional is elaborately explained in the respective chap- subject Papers (Paper VI & VII) for the exam is ters of the Papers. broadly of the honours degree level i.e. a level Subtotal 1750 Marks higher than the bachelors’ degree and lower (Written Test) than the masters’ degree. Personality Test 275 Marks In the case of Engineering, Medical Science (Interview) and Law, the level corresponds to the bachelors’ degree. Grand Total 2025 Marks

15 civilz byte THE PERSONALITY TEST Some of such qualities to be judged are mental alertness, critical powers of assimila- On the basis of the marks secured in the tion, clear and logical exposition, balance of written test, the candidates get a call for the judgment, variety and depth of interest, abil- interview. Generally, 2,500 to 3000 aspirants ity for social cohesion and leadership, intellec- manage to reach this stage held at UPSC Bhavan, tual and moral integrity. New Delhi. The actual technique of the interview is The total number of candidates usually not that of a strict cross-examination but of a called for the interview is 2.5 to 3 times the natural, though directed and purposive conver- number of vacancies mentioned in the notifi- sation which is intended to reveal the mental cation. The Interviews are held, generally, be- qualities of the candidate tween February and April. The interview test is not intended to test The primary objective of the interview is either of the general or specialized knowledge to assess the Personality Traits of the candi- of the candidate which has been already tested dates and find the personal suitability of the through their written papers. candidate for a career in Public Service not Candidates are expected to have taken an merely her/his Knowledge Quotient. intelligent interest not only in their special sub- The candidate will be interviewed by a jects of academic study but also in the events Board of competent & unbiased observers who which are happening around them both within will have before them a record of his/her ca- and outside their own state or country as well reer. He will be asked questions on matters of as in modern currents of thought and in new general interest. discoveries which should rouse the curiosity of well educated youth. An Interview board normally has five to six members including a Chairman, who are The allocated marks for the interview are experts from different fields and former Civil 275. However, the marks actually awarded can Servants. be found to be ranging from as high as 80% to as low as 30%. This test is intended to judge the mental caliber of a candidate. In broad terms, this is The final list of ranks, and subsequently really an assessment of not only his intellec- marks, are announced by the UPSC within a tual qualities but also social traits and his in- couple of weeks after the completion of Inter- terest in Current Affairs. views.

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16 CHAPTER Civil Services : The Introduction 5 ABCDs = NCERTs

CERT Textbooks are the Best books to you do this. start your preparation with. Remember Some suggest not wasting time on 6th, 7th Nthem as the Best starters. These are & 8th class text books. But we recommend written in a very simple and lucid manner. You you read them that you might get a new can make a quick grasp of difficult topics & con- point you didn’t know earlier. cepts which are rather very much important. We gave you a table below with the list of Here is why you have no choice but to start all the essential NCERT Text books for your your preparation with them... preparation. They help you achieve a comprehensive Complete all the books of different classes understanding of various issues. of a subject and go to other subject rather They are being the source of questions in than studying all subject books of one class exams. and going to next class. You can be clear with basic concepts when Give them as many readings as possible. you re-learn with these NCERT Text Books. You will get a different perspective every It definitely lays strong foundation for your time you read them. Civil Services Exam Preparation & works Summaries of few NCERT Textbooks are like your knowledge base. available on Unacademy.com in the form Since, many aspirants don’t properly re- of short videos. If possible, watch them member what they studied in their high before you read. It helps a lot. Period. school; it will work like quick revision, And please don’t read NCERT text books brushing up the basics. lightly or just for namesake or formality Since NCERTs are prepared by experts of because UPSC will usually give you four the country, they are reliable and authen- statements in a question and all of them tic. would sound equally plausible. You should Make a thorough reading of all the Social be thoroughly clear on ground principles/ Studies & Science Text books of 6th to 10th concepts. end to end. Believe us; you will get lot of Given here below is a list of text books confidence about your preparation once that have to be used for the preparation. 17 civilz byte

The numbers of the important chapters of the next readings, write the notes. Don't a particular textbook for specific topics note down everything and write one more have been mentioned in the respective textbook. Instead, underline in the text- sections of those papers in this book. book and note down only those things you feel are important. Your notes will be a SUBJECT CLASS lot helpful in quick revision instead of Political science 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11 & 12 wasting time by reading the textbook again Geography 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11 &12 and again. Economics 9, 10, 11 & select chap- Apart from these starting sources for Civil ters of 12th Services Preparation, there are few chap- History 7, 8, 9, 10 and old editions ters in other text books of NCERT as well. of 11th & 12th Ancient In- You can find their mention in the respec- dia (R.S. Sharma), Medi- tive sections about approach to different eval India (Satish Chandra) papers in the following parts of this book. & Modern India (Bipan As said, once you finish reading these text- Chandra) books, you can gain a lot of confidence Sociology 11 & 12 about yourself in the preparation. If you Science 6 to 10 are studying your intermediate be it MPC or MEC or HPG, put it as your first prefer- The most important of all is to make short ence to finish off NCERTs before you get notes. Give a basic first reading. And in to B.A. apart from reading the Hindu daily.

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18 CHAPTER Civil Services : The Introduction 6 Science of Reading The Hindu

"Interesting news may not be important, read and understand The Hindu in the initial Important news may not be interesting, stages and would probably take multiple attempts Don't read the best thing, to get comfortable with. Taking a bit more time read the right thing." at such beginning levels to read the newspaper or decades together "THE HINDU" daily is completely okay and common to everyone so, has served as The Bible of current affairs don't worry about it. But if you make it a habit Ffor the aspirants of civil services. Some- to read it daily, the amount of time you spend times, questions appeared in the Exam had di- will gradually decrease because you will be well- rect answers in this newspaper. Moreover, its versed with the science of reading it. authenticity, wide coverage, unbiased news in Also, one thing that many students say is various issues, rich vocabulary and error proof that they can't understand the words used in language separates it from the other set of na- the Hindu. The trick is this. There are about tional newspapers and makes it a Civils-Prep- 300-500 words that constitute the key vocabu- friendly daily for the aspirants. So, it is sug- lary of the Hindu. And many of them keep re- gested to select, and only select, The Hindu for peating every day. If you learn the simple mean- the preparation. ing of the words from editorials etc, in 3-4 Current Affairs takes a prominent role both months, you can comfortably read the paper in prelims and mains. All the recent totally Cur- without any problem with the words. Later, you rent Affairs oriented General Studies, CS (P) will understand how to guess the meaning of a papers tell it all. Though the actual notifica- word based on its context. tion mentions the words 'Current Affairs' only Now moving ahead, we want you to read in the prelims syllabus for GS, this area's pur- the newspaper from a strict and serious view extends to most of the papers in Mains as aspirant's point of view. Not like an uncle in 60s well. And to be well-versed in this area, follow- or 70s reading newspaper casually for pleasure ing a reliable newspaper like The Hindu regu- along with a coffee mug in hand. The following larly is a strict must. tips will be helpful for you to cut all the wast- For beginners, it might be very difficult to age of your time on the newspaper and make a 19 civilz byte better reading in a minimum required time… Totally ignore the advertisements, tenders, contracts, etc. Sometimes the first page WHAT NOT TO READ can carry a charming advertisement about a car or mobile or something that can Newspaper is basically a dump of good X greatly distract you. They provide you a bad, rubbish X treasure, necessary X unneces- good source of unnecessary attention. So sary. Initially, everything may seem important mercilessly avoid reading all such things on the newspaper. To select that news which is that kill your time. important for you is the most required thing. When you don't distinguish between reading State news/city news/local news may look what is needed and what is not, you'll end up interesting to you, but most of the time spending most of your time reading the news- they have nothing to offer from the exam paper for hours. 60-90 minutes is what should perspective. Avoid reading it but you can take if you read it properly without compro- just give a glance of the headlines. For mising on any important things. exclusive Local News, refer a regional Lan- Hence, the first and most important sug- guage Newspaper like Eenadu. gestion is, 'intensely memorize the Mains sylla- Totally turn blind eye to the sports page bus of Civil Services Exam first.' You don't have and metroplus. If there is something re- to go anywhere; it's given in this book itself. It ally very important, that issue would ap- doesn't even take 30 seconds to read the sylla- pear on the national news or editorial. bus of prelims and 30 minutes to read mains syllabus. Find the syllabus sheets in the 'Tear A weekly column titled Readers' Editor Away' section at the end of the book, cut them appears on the Oped Page written by A.S. off and stick them on you locker or somewhere Pannerselvan. Readers' Editor is the inter- where you can see it daily. nal ombudsman of the Hindu and the col- When you have the names of the topics in umn generally talks about ethics in jour- your mind, you'll pick those articles in the news nalism or some journalistic issues, which paper to read which have some connection with is not important from the civil services the syllabus and ignore what is unnecessary. exam perspective.

If you are a true aspirant, Civils syllabus must be on the tip of your tongue and you must READING IT THE be able to tell it at any time. Once you're with RIGHT WAY… this, then everything is already in your hands. Here is what you can happily neglect in the Main Page: Pay heed to all the columns on the Newspaper: main page and choose what you have to read, tracking it in the pages within… 20 Civil Services : The Introduction

Editorial: This is the indispensable part of your National: Read it. Read it all in micro details. civils preparation. Read all the four editorials International: You don't have to track the in- on the page. These editorials are written with ternational news on a day to day basis, for it optimism followed by pessimism followed by develops at a snail's speed. Generally, the page constructive criticism followed by redressal offers news about blasts, massacres, and other mechanism. Read them and develop a style of core political issues. Reading the headlines and writing essays like that. the highlighted points would be sufficient. It's Editorials give you insights into the issues better to read and understand international is- and help you form an opinion. Learn the new sues on magazines like Frontline..etc. words from them, use a notebook to write them Business: All the items relevant broadly to In- and practise using them in your language. In no dian Economy have to be read. Once you are a time, you can be a word master. To sum up, it little well-versed with the basic concepts of is 'One shot, many birds…' Indian Economy, you can understand this Page even better. Core business news about differ- And about the letters to the editor, read- ent companies can be left. But this page is very ing them can give you different perspectives important from Prelims GS and Mains GS-III point about the same issue. So, it helps. of view. Oped: Oped Page carries very informative and Sports: Unless and until there is an event like opinion loaded columns that can be of great Olympics…etc, there is hardly anything this page help to us. It brings interview on Wednesday, a can offer. The ball-ball, over to over analysis column titled 'Yes, No, It's Complicated' on Fri- might only make it an interesting reading hav- days with three perspectives on a given issue. ing nothing important in it. But see to that you Short columns like Single File, Conceptual, Data don't waste your time on this page. Point are also helpful parts of the Newspaper. And about the events like Olympics, know The Saturday edition carries 'Ground Zero' the official mascot, venue, theme, motto and in this page which is like an investigative jour- other details. nalistic report on an issues that needs atten- ast Page: The golden rule of "Last but not the tion. L least" does not apply here to the 'Life' Page. Editorial and Oped Pages are the heart of Occasionally, short news about artifact discov- the newspaper and require your enough focus. eries, UN bodies finds a place on this page. Give But again apply the same rule for everything - it a minute; yes, only a minute. This page also If the subject of the articles or opinions ex- covers Hollywood gossip like which celebrity pressed is relevant to civils, then give it your couple is going to get divorced next, filmy news time. etc. which can safely be avoided. 21 civilz byte

Supplements: The supplements like Metro Plus Quick Tips & Property Plus can be left at the door itself. Make some notes from the newspaper by Monday's Edge is not really helpful. Few articles jotting down the info from Editorials and in 'Friday Review' tend to help us understand the important articles in small key phrases. dance forms and things sort of with beautiful Pick up the primary subject from the news pictures. you are reading and learn about its fundamentals. For example, if the news is about The Hindu on Sunday: It carries Pages like inflation, go learn the basics about infla- Science and Technology and Being. They are very tion also. Generally, most questions in the important. The Sunday edition also brings in- preliminary exam are very basic in nature teresting columns like '5Ws - Explainer (Who but are linked to the current events. What Why When Where) etc which can be a Sometimes articles about the recent dis- helpful read. Section II of the Hindu on Sunday coveries of artifacts, archaeological evi- is another supplement that comes with the same dences are given. They don't really require title 'The Hindu on Sunday.' The national news it great attention. But give a quick glance of carries is very important for us. Unless you are the heading and highlighted matter. Now specially interested, a lot of international news and then, news about the United Nations under 'World' and 'Despatches' that this edition or its associated organizations is covered. Spare a minute to read them. carries can be avoided. Prefer to ignore the core political news. This is followed by Business pages. Now, There is no real requirement to read a fi- you have to pay your attention to such stories nancial newspaper like Economic Times, which are relevant to our Indian Economy. But, The Financial Express etc., separately a lot of business related news about compa- again for the economy section. nies, start ups' stories, interviews with indus- You may find, on different websites, ad- trialists, stock market updates..etc is also there vertisements like "The Hindu monthly gist." which you do not have to give a lot of focus. Don't prefer to choose them, they can't replace your daily newspaper reading. Sunday Magazine brings a lot of great content and stories under heads like Arts, Cinema, 10 high quality multiple choice questions Heritage, Story Board or the Back Page. It can (MCQs - Current Affairs) are posted on Unacademy.com daily created based on be very interesting to read and can actually ex- that day's Newspaper. Solving them will be pand your horizons. But from a strict exam point a super add-on. Also, watch the Hindu Edi- of view, it doesn't carry much weight and so can torial Analysis videos now and then on the be ignored. website or youtube. 22 Civil Services : The Introduction

Generally, we tend to read and leave the ber of basic questions when you read an article. reports of the newspaper. But, a little bit of And then try to find answers to such questions. added research (go dig the Google) can help us For example, when you read an article about answer many questions in the prelims. 'Rhino poaching,' and find a word like sanctuary, then go learn the difference between na- EENADU tional park, sanctuary and wild life reserves. Or when you read an article about some endan- Thirty minutes is what it should take for gered wild life species, know the related things you to read Eenadu including the Editorial and like critically endangered species, vulnerable Zilla edition. Learn good words from the news- species, what is red book data etc. paper and add them to your vocabulary. Keep Don't be a passive reader. Discuss them an eye on the government initiatives, perfor- with your teachers and debate the issues among mance and political developments of your home your friends, classmates, room-mates...etc. Re- state. member that the Hindu is an important docu- Lines of Conclusion ment for the train that takes you from NICS to LBSNAA (Mussoorie). Learn the technique of questioning yourself. Keep questioning until you get ample num-

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23 CHAPTER civilz byte 7 Magazine Mantra

agazines are a periodical compilation A good magazine would also give analyti- of articles, essays and news items. cal perspective of the issue including the pros MThey not only cover what is happening and cons. Therefore, reading good magazines around us, but also convey the views and opin- and journals is equally important, as much as ion of the authors on a variety of issues of sig- reading newspapers. nificance. Periodical journals capture crucial topics of the current times. When compared to Nevertheless, let us be clear. We don’t newspapers, their presentation of news and undermine Newspapers at all. In preparation for views is not only more condensed, but also cov- Civil Services, if you don’t read Newspapers and ers more of those issues which are more rel- read about the issue in a magazine alone, it’s evant from the preparation perspective. Thus, not going to work. Both have to go synchro- reading a good magazine always helps in iden- nously. tifying, compiling & consolidating the knowl- Which Magazines to Read edge about news items from relevant news items of important occurrences from newspa- Generally, we have two kinds of Magazines pers and electronic media. for our preparation, viz., that of general in- Magazines have a holistic approach. They terest, and those exclusively related to Civil analyse the topic from historical perspective Services preparation. In the former category, to contemporary relevance and present the Frontline is a preferred choice for CSE aspir- whole gamut in a concise yet lucid manner. For ant. This magazine, published by ‘The Hindu instance, while reporting about some Indo- US Group,’ offers wide coverage and balanced agreement, newspapers may just report the day analysis of news and issues. Other good maga- – to – day occurrences giving perhaps a very brief zines in this category are The Outlook, The Week background. However, an article in a magazine and India Today. Spare some time to read the will bring out not only what occurred recently, relevant articles from ‘Economic & Political but what happened in the past leading up to Weekly.’ It is a very imp. Weekly and we mean it. the event. 24 Civil Services : The Introduction

General interest magazines need not be stand you in good stead right up to the read from end to end. You need to be selective Interview stage. and read only those articles which offer value While preparing notes always note down for time. Go through the ‘Contents’ page first. the title of the article and reference of Identify those articles which you consider are the source, viz., magazine, edition and very important. These must be thoroughly read. page number. This will immensely help you Also identify articles which are important but want to make a reference to it later. You not to the extent of the previous ones. Give can find those articles on internet as well. them a second preference and read if you have time. If you consider an article too long to re- Quick Tips member or too important not to capture it, then you can bookmark the article on Always read an article either with a pen internet for a later reference. or pencil in hand. Once you are done with Always periodically review and revise the the article, identify the salient portions notes you have prepared and the articles of it and highlight/underline or jot down compiled / bookmarked. If at a later stage, the points on a sheet of Paper. It would be the articles do not appear significant or even better if you put a notebook for this you seem to be compiling too many of purpose and write in it a quick & short them, then do not hesitate to discard some summary of the articles you read. of them. Recapitulate as to what is the sum and Always remember that as far as CSE prepa- substance of the article and try to ration is concerned, time is of utmost es- summarise it in a few points. sence and be conscious of the need to Make a mental note of the article sum- optimise it. As such it is as important to mary and salient points. Making one’s own declutter your article compilation and also note after reading an important article is be selective about its complication. a very healthy and paying habit. This not Beware of the most alluring and creatively only enables you, to grasp succinctly, designed time stealing advertisements in analyse and internalise what the article the magazines. Don’t dare to step in and endeavours to convey, but also to remem- out rightly reject to see them and save ber the facts and figures for a longer pe- your time for the real required things. riod and review it later. Besides, it also keeps you in the habit of writing. This is Don’t get tensed with the bombarding lan- one attribute which is a sine-qua-non for guage or vocabulary in the magazines. With success in the examination. This habit will practise, you’ll gradually get accommo- 25 civilz byte

dated with it. Much importantly, prefer to Choose one and read it every month. grasp the essence & analysis rather than Go through them on magazine stands in the language content. the library. These magazines bring out articles Magazines Especially for the typically useful for CSE aspirants. They also Civil Services Examination cover the important events/news items and publish analytical essays on concurrent issues, A number of magazines cater specifically interviews and guidance of toppers and model to the requirements of CSE aspirants. Some of question papers. these magazines are Civil Services Chronicle, Civil Services Times, Competition Wizard, In short, they are a good investment both Pratyogita Darpan, Competition Success Review in terms of time and effort. etc. These magazines are usually monthly.

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26 CHAPTER Civil Services : The Introduction 8 Yojana Aur Kurukshetra

ojana and Kurukshetra are two journals powerment). It’s a requisite for the prepara- which are often, rightly, recommended tion of General Studies Paper-I of the Prelimi- Yto the CSE aspirants. Although these jour- nary examination as well. In a nut shell, you nals are not exclusively for the CSE aspirants, can’t by-pass it. their nature and content makes them ideally It is not essential to go through each and suit for CSE preparation. every article of this magazine. Go through the Yojana is a development monthly. It is a Contents page and mark out the articles you Government of India publication brought out by propose to read as per the order of the signifi- the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting cance of the issues entailed. Capture the es- whose publication started in 1957 with Mr. sence, prepare notes and compile it in a sepa- Khuswant Singh as its first Chief Editor. This rate notebook. If you have access to the journal primarily brings out essays on a wide internet, you may choose to read the articles range of socio-economic issues, government on the website www.yojana.gov.in. This website policies as well as new government initiatives. provides PDF versions of editions of this monthly It also carries special issues on specific topics, right from 1957. In this manner, the relevant such as budget, environment, disaster manage- portions of the articles can easily be compiled ment, international trade, sustainable devel- even in soft form. opment, urban and rural development etc. Kurukshetra is also a monthly journal on For the purpose of preparation of GS Pa- rural development albeit a bit less popular than per III, (which has got topics like technology, Yojana. It is a Ministry of Rural Development economy, environment, security and disaster publication which brings out articles and essays management), some of the essays of this maga- on various socio-political issues particularly re- zine can be a virtual gold mine. Besides, ar- lated to rural development. ticles can also be insightful for some topics of From the perspective of CSE preparation, GS Paper II (governance, constitution polity, Yojana and Kurukshetra both have great con- social justice and international relations). tent density of useful articles. Henceforth, iden- For that matter, you unavoidably need it for tify, read and make notes and update your ex- the preparation of General Essay and also GS pertise regarding various relevant issues. Paper I (Indian Society, Women and social Em- ––––––––––– ––––––––––– 27 CHAPTER civilz byte 9 e Preparation Websites

nternet is a wonderful place where you get You can google your doubts and check on every kind of information about everything Wikipedia regarding many topics and can have Iin the world. Like it is true to any sphere of clarifications. The more appropriate use you life, it is also a very valuable source of knowl- make, the best it offers. Altogether, it makes edge for Civil Services Preparation. In fact, it internet a haven to rely parts of your preparation on. At the same time, it is, but, crucial to turns to be a boon for candidates of this gen- learn how to tap this source to one’s best ad- eration, for it was not the case just a decade vantage. ago. So, stay focused while you browse through You can find lot of information on the web. the internet for what you really require. And You can follow few blogs which would help you try revising what you learnt from it or the points in updating your current affairs & knowledge you jotted down while preparing online. And base. You can bookmark or save a soft copy of make sure, you are not carried away by what the article on newspaper instead of cutting and internet offers you for its advantage and kills storing a physical one. You can update yourself your time. with the recent developments of issues & con- We have provided you with a list of cepts in which books can’t totally help. websites used by most aspirants which can guide Dealing with internet is a tricky task & if you to some levels… you are not alert, click after click, you land 1. insightsonindia.com somewhere else. Every click of yours on internet 2. Mrunal.org turns to be a commercial advantage for some- 3. iksa.in one. 4. ClearIAS.com Some students after a few mins of prepa- 5. IASexamportal.com ration, open Facebook, some Twitter to follow 6. swapsushias.blogspot.in their favourite celebrities, some to read filmy 7. iaspassion.com news, some Flipkart to not really buy but check 8. CivilServiceIndia.com gadgets, clothing etc. 9. iasbaba.com 28 Civil Services : The Introduction

10. iaspaper.in at least. And the websites given below are im- 11. visionias.in portant 12. Unacademy.com - ***Very very impor- Economics tant. This website is managed by Dr. Roman Saini & his team. He is a doctor from AIIMS and an arthapedia.in – A new article daily about a ex-IAS officer of 2013 batch with all India Rank concept of Indian Economy explained (AIR) – 18. A ranker in his very first attempt, he by Officers of Indian Economic Service. resigned to IAS recently to look after unacademy Current Affairs full time. Select one of these Current Affairs websites and follow it regularly. We mean, daily IAS Toppers’ Blogs & or at least weekly. YouTube Channels gktoday.in 1. thesupermanreturns.wordpress.com – Gaurav Agarwal (AIR 1 - 2013) jagranjosh.com 2. rijubafna.com civilsdaily.com 3. irasinghal.blogspot.in Apart from the above mentioned list 4. youtube.com/user/unacademy of free and paid preparation websites, it is ad- 5. lohitmatani.wordpress.com vised to refer the below select websites when- 6. jhinujha.wordpress.com ever you are free. These are maintained by the 7. unravellingcse.wordpress.com Indian Government and other Non Governmen- tal Organizations (NGOs). Of course, there are many other websites and blogs available, but we tried to restrict the 1. upsc.gov.in– Official Website of UPSC. list to the useful ones. Visiting the above men- 2. ncert.nic.in – Download NCERT Texts as tioned sources purposelessly or simply roaming PDF. on the web can prove useless & counter-pro- 3. nios.ac.in–Download NIOS Online Materials. ductive. Do not excessively depend upon 4. www.cprindia.org - India’s leading public websites or exclusively rely on them. policy think tank since 1973 offering Ana- Internet confuses you about the prepara- lytical write-ups. tion. It distracts a lot. With all experience, we 5. yojana.gov.in – Download Yojana and suggest that you give more time for books than Kurukshetra Magazines. internet. 6. prsindia.org – Website for tracking bills in We gave you a list of nineteen (19) Parliament. websites not to follow everyone of them. Check 7. idsa.in – IDSA website for Defense and For- them. Select one or two, not exceeding three eign relations. and try following the updates in the website 8. gatewayhouse.in – Indian Council for Glo- regularly. If not, daily, try doing it weekly once bal relations. 29 civilz byte

9. envfor.nic.in – Ministry of Environment and 17. ptinews.com – Press Trust of India. Forests. 18. pib.nic.in – Press Information Bureau 10. wcd.nic.in - Ministry Of Women & Child Website for government updates. Development 19. pdgroup.upkar.in – Pratiyogita Darpan 11. mea.gov.in – Ministry of External Affairs. Magazine. 12. mha.nic.in - Ministry of Home Affairs. 13. niti.gov.in - National Institution for Trans- 20. ibef.org – India Brand Equity Foundation forming India for economy and business. 14. mnre.gov.in - Ministry of New & Renew- 21. vikaspedia.in – Knowledge initiative able Energy by InDG. 15. mdoner.gov.in - Ministry of Development “A knife can be used by a thief to kill. But of North Eastern Region the same knife can save lives while in the hands of a doctor. It all depends on how you make 16. indiabudget.nic.in – Download Budget and use of things from internet.” Economic Survey. HAPPY LEARNING…

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30 CHAPTER Civil Services : The Introduction 10 APPs Tapping the Internet Resources

obile Applications (Apps, as we com- OPEDDICTION : It is ‘Opinion – Editorial – Ad- fortably call them) may not totally sub- diction.’ Instead of installing news apps sepa- Mstitute the standard study material or rately like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Times of India’, ‘First- News paper. But can decently complement them Post’, ‘Inshorts’, use this app to have all of them to a great extent. in it. When you are in a vacation or not in the reach of a newspaper, you can use it to read the Here below, we gave you a list of nine (9) editorials. And you can also bookmark the im- apps after using them & confirming that they portant articles to view later. are good and helpful. Some help in updating ourselves with the knowledge of current affairs NCERT – NIOS BOOKS : This app helps you down- and some are other way useful. Why not give load Portable Document Format (PDF) files of them a trial and help yourself…! NCERT & NIOS text books and view them in the app. CIVILS DAILY : Relevant and important Current Affairs & News updates crisp & short with nec- CONSTITUTION OF INDIA : This app can be used essary context like how, what, where, to refer to the articles, schedules and each part importance..etc. Follow it genuinely and you of the Constitution. Make a habit to read an can make most of it. article totally at least once whenever an article is dealt with in the class and it would defi- PIB : Use this app on a daily basis to listen to nitely help you remember the number of the ‘Spotlight’, a daily news analysis programme article at least. of 15 minutes that you can listen at any time. You can use this app to read PIB News & listen PRATYOGITA DARPAN ENGLISH : You can read to the news on ‘News on AIR’ both national & the editions of Pratyogita Darpan (PD) on the regional, in English and any of your local lan- app. Generally such apps ask for a subscription guages. This is a government app and you can fee. But it is free in this case. Since PD is an totally rely on it. Spend at least 10 mins a day important magazine for the aspirants of Civil reading the PIB News. There were direct ques- Services, make sure you read it here or in the tions in Prelims from PIB. physical form every month. 31 civilz byte

MERRIAM WEBSTER DICTIONARY : There are even in darkness without getting your eyes much many dictionary apps on Playstore, Appstore or strained. Since, Previous question papers, etc. Windows store. We recommended this since we are generally found as PDF files, it is better to felt it is a better one out of all of them. Use it use it. (Moon+ Reader is also a good choice.) for a quick check of meanings, synonyms and There are many other apps in the e-stores origin of the word. But do not substitute like “IAS, UPSC IAS, MISSION IAS, IAS GK, IAS “Oxford Advanced Learner’s Dictionary” (book) Bytes, Crack UPSC, IAS Quiz, IAS CSAT, IAS Prepa- with this app. Since you have to use the best ration, IAS Prelims, Ias History, Ambition dictionary, only use Oxford for your general ref- IAS…etc.” Remember, the preparation for CSE erences. at every level must only be from standard & EPW : It is the application version of the most authentic sources. Don’t waste your time on respected ‘Economic & Political Weekly.’ Articles stuff like that. up to a limit can be read on the app, but will We guarantee you, if you seriously spend require a subscription fee thereafter. But you half the time that you do on apps like Facebook, can comfortably use it to a decent extent for Insta, Clash of Clans or Ludo on these apps, you free. can transform yourself like never before. Re- ADOBE READER : This is not an app for the ally!! It worked for me. preparation. But you use it to view Files of PDF. Or try it for yourself... The ‘Night mode’ option helps you in reading

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32 CHAPTER Civil Services : The Introduction 11 India Year Book A Confused Territory

or most aspirants, India Year Book (IYB) cies, recent developments in various facets of is a fat bulky textbook of incomprehen- the country and data with numerical statistics Fsible stats and facts running into a little from different departments. This book is pub- more than thousand pages that always lies dull lished by the Publications division of Ministry in the shelf and never on the study table. Ow- of Information and Broadcasting, Government ing to the only fact that it's a government pub- of India. lication and an authentic source to prepare The book would be helpful in a way that it from, there's not more to tolerate it. But this can be used to enhance descriptive type an- very fact makes it the most reliable and stan- swers in mains by adding the facts provided in dard all-in-one book to refer and learn the sub- this book and sometimes questions in prelims ject from. can be traced into this also. It is most often a confused territory just We wish to convey you a five-point-for- because "how-to-use-it-well?" is not known. Af- mula to use this book such that both time and ter it's bought, some seriously start reading it your efforts can be optimized… from page 1 and stop doing that after page 5 or 1. Not Everything Needs to be may be 6 when they find a table of stats. And Read nor Remembered the book ends up lying in the shelf; just there.

Well, it shouldn't be the way it has to be The book runs into a little more than thou- used. India Year book totally needs a different sand pages and can be equal to more than a thousand grams too (Yeah, 1200 grams it is…;-) ). approach. Choosing to read everything in the book For beginners to know what India Year Book is… only makes a blunder. So don't read everything. It is a Governmental compilation of ex- Be choosy and selective in reading. And about clusive and comprehensive detailed informa- remembering things; understand the core con- tion about the country's status, progress in dif- cepts first and revise them as many times as ferent fields, Governmental schemes & poli- possible later. 33 civilz byte

For example, in the very first chapter of Infrastructure 'Land and the People,' there are few things re- 8. Communications and Information lated to census like population density, sex ra- Technology tio etc. Such concepts are generally defined first 11. Energy and then their facts are given. If you can un- 17. Housing derstand the definition of sex ratio; remember- 19 Industry ing the fact of 943 females per 1000 can hap- 26. Transport pen after a few multiple attempts of revision.

2. Divide the Book into Parts III. DEFENCE & There are 32 chapters in the book followed INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS by appendices. It's not recommended to start 9. Defence reading the book from first chapter and end it 18. India and the World with 32nd in a linear fashion. No. Divide the book into 5 Sections. IV. POLITY 1. Geography, Tech & Science 2. National Symbols 2. Economy 3. Polity 3. Defence & IR 20. Law and Justice 4. Polity & Welfare 14. Corporate Affairs 5. Miscellaneous GK Set a target of completing each section in Welfare this order of chapters so that you complete sec- 10. Education tor wise with a better understanding. 15. Food and Civil Supplies 16. Health and Family welfare I. GEOGRAPHY, TECH & SCIENCE 21. Labour 1. Land and the People 23. Planning 4. Agriculture 24. Rural and Urban Development 12. Environment 28. Welfare 25. Science and Technological Developments 27. Water Resources V. MISCELLENEOUS GK 30. States and Union Territories 5. Culture and Tourism II. ECONOMY 22. Mass Communication 6. Basic Economic Data 29. Youth Affairs and Sports 7. Commerce 31. Diary of National Events 13. Finance 32. General Information 14. Corporate Affairs 34 Civil Services : The Introduction

3. Know what to say ‘NO’ to... it in the year or a little earlier you are about to give your attempt. As mentioned earlier, the book is a strict compilation of many tables, numbers, exhaustive history about everything, detailed alloca- 5. REVISE THE NOTES tion of funds in the concerned years, micro level Make some very short notes while you pre- elaborate particulars and data on most pare from IYB. Revise it weekly once. Stick small things..etc. sheets with important points on the wall in your It's not possible to tell everything about room/locker or somewhere in a place where what can be ignored through this article. So an you can see it regularly. This might help you intelligent thought process must be applied to remember them. identify & select what to read and what to ig- You must be able to relate whatever you read nore. But the most important thing is to remem- in this book to the daily happenings that you ber that few things can be or have to be ig- read in the newspaper. And it's also advisable nored. that India Year Book must be picked for the preparation only after the completion of NCERT 4. Learn the Theory Now & Stats Books. When You are about to go for the Make the below table and add the details Exam from IYB, Yojana etc. Keep updating it. Alloca- By the time some of you give your first tion of funds was also a part of the prelims pre- attempt, census 2020-21 becomes valid. And vious questions. So, to rightly guess the near- even to those who give their attempt before est figure of amount, giving attention to allo- 2020, the facts and details can be different from cation too is necessary. Learn the hindi names year to year in many areas. So mean while, learn of schemes too. It can be helpful in the exam all the static concepts like explanations, his- sometimes. tory etc. given in IYB. But the factual data; learn

S.No Name of the Nodal Year of Allocation Targeted Policy Other Scheme Ministry Launch of Funds Beneficiaries Info Data 1 2 3

There's nothing to worry about the size of the book. With a right plan and correct understanding of how to make the best use of it, India Year Book turns out to be a treasure for the aspirants… ––––––––––– ––––––––––– 35 CHAPTER civilz byte 12 A recipe for Success

his is a prescription of success as con Since 'most of you' are at least 3-6 years ceived by a successful mentor and our away from your first attempt, it is fair to say Tmost respected officer, Shri Ajit Kumar that you have a lot of time to learn a good Mohanty, former Director General of Police amount of general knowledge (GK) slices. Given (DGP), Andhra Pradesh in 2009, which he shared below here is a way to remember and master with us when he guided us few years ago at this various static GK areas just by spending few Academy. He would always say that civils is an minutes a day. examination in communication, both written and oral. Learn as mentioned here and note them About any topic, in a book. Once in a while, revise whatever is When you speak, you should be able to learnt. Do this with commitment, consistently speak for three minutes. and that will boost your confidence like never When you write, you should be able to before. Remember! Knowledge is power. write 50 words. Daily Activities One good book and its Questions on any topic. author. Learn 20 good English One good word - meaning One economics term. expressions (From Hindu One abbreviation 2 important headlines of Editorial). An Idiom that day. One heading of an article. A phrase from the Editorial One caption of Editorial. A Joke One country with its Names of four countries capital Monthly Activities (mapping included). One important river Prepare a project. One Mountain of a country Weekly Activities Make points for an issue in One date and event A proverb. news- for and against. One famous personality A Saying. Express opinions of differ- (with the country) Write a para on a Current ent kinds (X, Y, Z…) One war/Revolution. issue (100-150 words). Make a power point One Discovery/Invention- One test. presentation. inventor. Thought of the week. Narrate an inspiring story/ One scientific term. Frame 10 Multiple Choice Anecdote/poem

36 CHAPTER Civil Services : The Introduction 13 Television Radio & YouTube (TRY)

o rightly use and tap the resources that pression which doesn’t fade in a day or two. 21st Century’s technology offers us is Prefer to watch English news channels. So Tan art and all the civil services aspir- that they cover news at national level and can ants should master it. Devices like Television also help you develop your listening skills of and Mobile form a crucial part of our daily lives. English. Try watching channels like Rajya Sabha And this is how we should use them for the ad- TV or Lok Sabha TV which offer a wide coverage vantage of our preparation. of important things without fabrications. Be cautious about the Yellow Media as well. TELEVISION Instead of choosing news channels which keep on telecasting their views and survive on For us at the college, Television, in the mess sensationalism, bank on reporting filmy gossip or somewhere in the campus, is only a source of & advertisements, prefer something you think entertainment to watch a stand-up comedy show is unbiased. Wion channel is doing good. You in our local language, or cricket, or a movie, or can also follow NDTV 24X7, CNN IBN, Times Now, that’s all. NDTV India…etc. Believe us, this box has a lot more to give Choose good news analysis programmes. you and help you in your Civils Preparation. Prefer panel discussions and debates on key is- Using the TV for entertainment once or twice sues. And make sure, you don’t spend too much in a week is okay and good. But using it for that time there on channels which offer little value sole purpose will not benefit you. for your time.

Whatever we watch on the Television can The ‘Big Picture’ & ‘Science Monitor’ in leave a profound and enduring impact on us. rajyasabha TV are important programmes rang- Be it a programme on Environment, disaster ing from 25 to 30 minutes worth watching. When management or a debate on a contemporary you’re at vacation or some where with ample issue (Something national okay, not the regional access to internet, instead of watching new ones always) or news coverage on an interna- teasers & trailers, try watching the episodes of tional summit, all of these leave a lasting im- important issues on YouTube, be it ‘Big Picture 37 civilz byte of Rajya Sabha TV’ or anything that you know can be listened in more than 15 languages apart worth watching. Sarokaar is also a very good from English. programme in RajyaSabha TV provided you know Once the programme is broadcast, it can Hindi well. be accessed on the app at any convenient time. RADIO You can access and listen to these programmes through the link www.newsonair.com. We don’t ask you to dig up your store room and find that Precambrian music device. Just hook on to the All India Radio News App (or PIB) YOUTUBE on your mobile. Listening to news on the App is a good way of catching up with what has hap- 8 In connection, we would also like to re- pened during the day. They usually give com- mind the importance of YouTube and the great prehensive news in a short span of time, with- help it’s got to offer you. Watch the greatest out any frills and thus truly offer value for time. speeches of all time, TED Talks, Interviews of eminent people. You are more benefitted with ‘SPOTLIGHT’ (A daily 15 Minute news analysis programme) on All India Radio is a good this than while you binge watch Game of Thrones programme to listen. Make sure that it is as or Bigg Boss back to back. basic as brushing. There are many TV Series on YouTube like Other evening news programmes like The Pradhanmantri, Satyameva Jayate, Bharat Ek News at Nine (15 Mins) are worth following. Khoj, Samvidhan etc. and Youtube channels like Besides, other programmes on AIR like the CUR- CEC UGC, Lucky Podcasts, Factly etc. and chan- RENT AFFAIRS (A weekly programme with a dis- nels with IGNOU lectures to spend time learn- cussion on some current topic) and MARKET ing smartly & wisely. MANTRA (economic news programme) can also be tuned to. Remember it as TRY (Television Radio & YouTube) and try trying TRY… The Regional and National news Bulletins

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38 Civil Services : The Introduction

SECTION - II Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

☯ Structure of the Preliminary Exam ☯ General Studies - 1 ☯ Current Affairs ☯ Indian History ☯ Geography of India and World ☯ Indian Polity and Governance ☯ Indian Economy ☯ Environment and Ecology ☯ General Science (and Technology) ☯ Prelims Instructions ☯ Civil Services Aptitude Test ☯ Understanding & Preparing for CSAT

CHAPTER Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle 14 Structure of the Preliminary Exam

“First Step - A Giant Leap in the year 2011 prior to which the candidates First battle - A long Road to Peace” could opt for any of the specified optional subjects for this paper. Questions in this paper fig- he Preliminary test comprises two papers, ure from areas of comprehension, inter-personal the General Studies Paper I (GS Paper I) skills, logical reasoning and analytical ability, and the General Studies Paper II (GS Pa- T decision making and problem solving. The sec- per II – Civil Services Aptitude Test). Each of tion on ‘English language comprehension skill’ these papers is of 200 marks and a time of two has been done away with in 2014. Now, CSAT is hours is allotted to attempt them. The ques- only a qualifying paper with minimum qualify- tions in both the papers are of objective type ing marks fixed at 33% i. e., 66 for 200. with multiple choices. Negative marks are awarded for each wrong answer. The total marks Thus, both the papers assess not only the obtained out of 200 in GS-1 determine whether knowledge and its application on a wide vari- or not the candidate moves to the next phase. ety of subjects (Paper I), but certain basic abili- However, these marks are not considered for ties and their application as well (Paper II- the final ranking of the candidates which is de- CSAT). cided only on the basis of the marks secured in the Main (written) examination and the Inter- THE CUT OFF view (personality test). The UPSC in its notification to CSE does The GS Paper I evaluates the candidates not specify at the outset any definite cut off of with regard to areas like Current Affairs, Indian GS-1 or pass marks for clearing the examina- History and Indian National Movement, Indian tions. The objective of UPSC is to filter, reject and World Geography, Indian Polity and Gover- the bulk of the candidates from prelims and to nance, Indian Economic and Social Development, consider only 15,000 – 17,000 candidates for Sustainable Development, Environment, Ecology, the next phase. Biodiversity and Climate change etc. Thus, GS Earlier, the ‘general’ cut off used to be Paper I is, in a true sense, a test of ‘general somewhere between 210 and 240 for 400. But, studies’. since CSAT has been made qualifying and GS the Paper II on the other hand is a test of apti- cut off determining paper, the cut off is only for tude and is often referred as CSAT or the ‘civil 200 marks now. Here is the trend of cut off over services aptitude test’. This test was introduced the past 6 years. 41 civilz byte

YEAR 2011* 2012* 2013* 2014## 2015^^^ 2016@ CATEGORY General 198 209 241 205 107.34 116 OBC 175 190 222 204 106 110.66 SC 165 185 207 182 94 99.34 ST 161 181 200 172 91.34 96

*For 400 Marks ##For 385 Marks ^^^For 200 Marks @ For 200 Marks

Irrespective of you belonging to any cat- The deduction of marks is done in the be- egory, we want you to aim for the General low way… Category’s cut off. 1. There are four alternatives for the answers Although the marks of this examination are to every question. For each question for not counted for the final rankings, if you do not which a wrong answer has been given by clear this hurdle, you do not survive in the race. the candidate, one-third (0.33%)* of the Then, you have to face an agonizing wait of marks assigned to that question will be one whole year before you can take the next deducted as penalty. shot. *0.66 MARKS IN GS & 0.83 MARKS IN CSAT. Do Not Neglect CSAT (Every 3 wrong answers will deduct 2 The focus should, for obvious reasons, be marks in GS) more on General Studies. But do not take the (Every 3 wrong answers will deduct 2.5 CSAT lightly or believe over confidently that you marks in CSAT) can pass it with very little preparation. If the 2. If a candidate gives more than one answer, bar of the standard of questions is raised, then it will be treated as a wrong answer even undue stress and panic can set in while taking if one of the given answers happens to be this examination. As such, it is prudent to put correct. And the penalty will be same as in sufficient efforts to clear this paper with a above for those questions. safe margin. 3. If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer NEGATIVE MARKING is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question. There will be negative marking for incor- The preliminary exam is not essentially a rect answers in both the papers of Preliminary test of your knowledge and aptitude. It involves Exam. The only exception is for some questions a hidden strategy of analyzing your judgement where negative marking is inbuilt in the form and decision making skills. The key is answer- of differential marks being awarded to the most ing correctly from deductions even when an- appropriate answer and not so appropriate answer is not known. swer etc. ––––––––––– ––––––––––– 42 CHAPTER Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle 15 General Studies– 1

“GS is the Nerve Centre to Prelims” This makes the process of discerning the right aper I of General Studies of the prelimi- choice all the more challenging, especially in nary examination is the first but a cru- the ‘combination questions.’ Considering fur- Pcial hurdle to be tackled in the quest for ther, the pressure of time within which the can- success in this keen competition. This paper didates have to answer the question (72 sec- often poses a stiff challenge before many of onds for an answer), and the possibility of nega- the aspirants. The reason is not very difficult tive marks with each wrong answer, it is no won- to gauge. The syllabus of this GS Paper I is quite der that even the toppers are finding it difficult extensive. Further, it specifies only the broad to score beyond 70 per cent in this paper. areas from which the questions would be asked It is said that in a competition it is not the without specifying the sub-topics or any further absolute score, but the relative performance details. This makes the ambit of study and the which is important. So, don’t worry much about scope of questions extremely wide. it and concentrate well on the preparation. And For instance, the syllabus for the subject generally, in CSE (Prelims), one has to score at of history only mentions ‘History of India and least 100 marks in the Paper I (as discussed ear- the Indian national movement’. It does not lier) which in itself is not a mean task for most specify any further sub-topics under history of the candidates. 100 marks are essential to which spans over 4,000 years and covers a vast be in the top 2 to 3 percent of the performance and diverse country like India. Quite understand- bracket and move on to the next round. ably, it is extremely difficult for a candidate to SUMMARY cover the entire subject thoroughly, especially Total Marks 200 when the questions can pop up from any por- Number of questions 100 tion of this vast period of Indian history. The Marks per Question 2 state of affairs is no better in respect of any Number of options 4 other subjects included in this Paper I. Adding to the above difficulty, the questions are mostly Negative Marking 1/3 of allotted marks per question based on the application of knowledge and are not merely a test of awareness of information. Nature of Paper Cut off Determining 43 civilz byte THE SUBJECTS IN tion, Political System, Panchayat Raj, Pub- lic Policy, Rights Issues, etc. GENERAL STUDIES - I 5. Indian Economy : Economic and Social Development, Sustainable Development, 1. Current Affairs : Current events of na- Poverty, Inclusion, Demographics, Social tional and international importance. Sector Initiatives etc. 2. History : History of India and Indian Na- 6. Environment & Ecology : General Issues tional movement. (Also Art & Culture) on Environmental Ecology, Bio-diversity 3. Geography : Indian & World Geography - and Climate Change – that do not require Physical, Social & Economic Geography of subject specialization. India and the world. 7. General Science 4. Indian Polity and Governance: Constitu-

The section wise division of questions of 2015’s Question paper is given here below for your understanding…

Art & Culture -2

Geography Polity - 16 14

Economy - 18 Current Affairs - 12

History - 12

S&Tech. Environment 12 14

No. of Questions from various sections in General Studies, CS (P) - 2015

44 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle QUICK TIPS 3. Focus on Your Strengths but Work on Your Weaknesses The following points emerge from a decent Focusing on your strengths is natural. This analysis of the different previous years’ ques- is likely to earn you decent marks in that par- tion papers. ticular subject. But you have to work upon your weak areas too. In this examination format, 1. Extensive Reading is a Must your strengths do not cover up your weaknesses. The syllabus of the Preliminary test only Although over the years no particular subject gives a broad outline of the subjects and does has been a favorite of the examiners, in a par- not specify the topics within each subject. This ticular year questions of history may be more, makes the domain from which the questions are while in another year Environment & Ecology asked quite vast. Accordingly, the study of Pa- may get more than its fair share of questions. per I has to be wide and extensive to the ex- If the subject which is ruling the roost in a par- tent possible covering diverse topics from each ticular year happens to be your weak link, then subject. Remember, not in depth & specific but it might be the cause of your debacle. Thus, wide & vast. the bottom line is to work equally well even on your weak areas. 2. Cover the Entire Syllabus: Do Not Neglect Any Subject 4. Application type Questions As can be seen from the data above, it is Most of the questions are not direct questions i.e., they do not test merely awareness of understood that an average of 13-16 questions the candidate about the information content out of 100 have emerged from all the topics of an issue/topic. They also involve Application except current affairs and culture. This is un- Knowledge on the issue. This implies that though like the question distribution pattern in Paper information is important, merely mugging up II (CSAT) where the topic ‘comprehension’ alone of facts is not going to help. Application of logic accounts for 30 per cent of the questions. As and reasoning has to be done often to select such in Paper I, the candidates must lay equal the correct choice. emphasis on all the subjects. However, this does not in any way dimin- This would also imply that aspirants should ish the relevance of capturing the right infor- plan to devote equal time/study hours to all mation. Rather information (i.e., facts) has to the subjects except for the weak areas. It is be remembered as well as understood. Without quite understandable that a candidate may not the right information, the questions cannot be be equally proficient in all subjects and in one solved. But this information has also to be ap- or two subjects/topics he/she might get stuck plied to identify the right option. up. Many candidates try to avoid such a subject 5. Be Thorough with the Subject and instead concentrate on those subjects which are their forte. For instance, a student of his- The nature of questions is such that they tory/political science may concentrate more on require you to remember the information or their core subjects rather than on general sci- facts in entirety and not partially. Partial knowl- ence and vice-versa. edge about a topic is often insufficient to choose 45 civilz byte the right answer. For instance, a question asks ing at least something. As such, be thorough with us to identify as to which among the four com- whatever you read. binations of the given statement(s) reflect(s) 6. Equally emphasize on all the subjects correctly the teachings of Buddhism. The answer option includes four combinations of the given The recent 2016 Paper was a fully Current statements. In such a combination type ques- Affairs oriented one. But it was not the case in tion (you’ll understand the types of questions as 2017. 2018 can have a different subject in fo- you see the question papers in the next sections), cus. Few subjects you paid the highest concen- one has to explicitly know as to what the fea- tration to, might give you only a very few ques- tures/teachings of Buddhism are and whether tions in the paper. The trend of questions from the four statements are actually part of the Bud- each subject always keeps varying. So, give dhist teaching. Here partial knowledge is not equal importance to all the sections. going to help. We may be able to identify with 7. Remember and Revise What You Have our limited knowledge that one or two of the Learnt remaining two statements represent Buddhist This is pretty obvious but extremely im- teachings. But we would not be completely sure portant. Unless you remember well whatever of the remaining two statements. you have covered in your preparation, you may At times, partial knowledge can be even not be able to answer the questions, especially more dangerous than not knowing the subject the combination type questions. Rather you may at all. In the latter situation, one would skip even get the answer wrong. As the syllabus is the question without wasting his/her time and quite vast, you can only remember all what you try his luck in the next one. But when an aspir- have learnt, if you have a fantastic memory or ant has only a broad idea of the topic, not only if you revise it periodically. there is perplexity in his mind as to what is the In your course of preparation, keep at least right answer, but also a quandary whether to few hours every week and half an hour every attempt the question at all. day to revise what all you have studied. Use This often causes a loss of time. If the can- small pocket books / scribbling pad to jot down didate becomes a bit adventurous, takes his important points and quickly revise those high- chance and gets the answer wrong, then he/ lighted & important things. Mnemonics/short she will incur negative marks. As such, partial forms of several points have to be remembered. knowledge may not be helpful and at times, Tables, charts, maps, etc., are good ways of even be detrimental. It is not a subjective ex- remembering things as they consign the sub- amination where you fetch some marks for writ- ject to the brain’s visual memory area.

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46 CHAPTER Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle 16 Current Affairs

urrent Affairs is one area of preparation Don’t neglect this section on the fact that which undoubtedly has the maximum in- you may be appearing for the Civil Services Exam Cfluence on your performance in the at least after two or may be after 5 years. Mean- whole of Civil Services Prelims Exam. Not only while keep following the current affairs by regu- does the paper carry a number of questions larly reading the newspaper and master the art which can only be attempted if the candidate of preparing current affairs from other various has closely followed the current events, but sources like magazines...etc. and start to rightly many questions of science & technology, envi- emphasize Current Affairs in your preparation ronment and ecology, culture, economics and from 2 years before you give your attempt. even polity that are directly or indirectly linked Some of the magazines published exclu- to what is happening around us. The reason for sively for aspirants of Civil Services like Civil the latter is quite obvious. What is important Services Chronicle, Civil Services Times, Com- and has been in news is very likely to also catch petition Wizard, Competition Success the attention of the question paper setters. Review..etc. have a separate section on Cur- rent Affairs in a condensed form like News Quite unlike other subjects, there can be capsules..etc. Following them will also be help- no structured course content or even a ‘cover ful. All India Radio presents ‘News at Nine,’ it all’ book for current affairs. The only effec- News bulletins in different languages. This can tive technique to mastering Current Affairs is be listened in the App version and the website meticulous and diligent follow up of daily hap- newsonair.com. Rajya Sabha TV and Lok Sabha penings from the news papers. TV are better alternatives to most of the other As far as the preliminary level of the exam news Channels. is concerned, the emphasis should be to under- Go through other sections in this book like stand and be extensively familiar with all the ‘Science of reading The Hindu,’ ‘Magazine Man- important points concerning the issue while in tra,’ ‘e preparation - Websites’ and the write the case of mains, the focus must be on how a up on ‘Tapping the Internet Resources - Apps’ subjective answer can be developed from the for even elaborate suggestions on preparing cur- extracted key points from a news item. rent affairs from different sources. Anyway, the 47 civilz byte present current affairs will be future General Political Issues Knowledge. Social Issues The summary of each day’s PIB News, The Science & technology Issues Hindu, AIR News is available on Unacademy.com Personalities the same day. Moreover, each day 10 high qual- Places ity MCQs are being posted with explanation in Books & Authors the form of videos. They can be of definite help. Sports Awards SYLLABUS - TOPIC WISE Miscellaneous

1. National Issues GENERAL KNOWLEDGE Economic Issues Political Issues Apart from the Current happenings, ques- Social Issues tions from standard or static GK can also crop Science & technology Issues up now and then. In some years, not even one Personalities is asked. Otherwise, 1 or sometimes 2, some- Places times 3 too are asked. Again, there is no spe- Books & Authors cific syllabus for this part. Use Lucent’s or Sports Arihant’s latest ‘General Knowledge’ book to Awards read the important sections of GK in your free Miscellaneous time. Keep solving the quizzes in Newspapers. And that would suffice. Anyway, no one can get 2. International Issues a one hundred percent when the exam is Civil Economic Issues Services. So, it’s okay.

SOURCES OF STUDY : Newspaper + AIR + Rajya Sabha TV + Magazines + Apps + Websites.

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48 CHAPTER Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle 17 Indian History

tudying History is a quintessential require The old textbooks of NCERT of classes 11th ment from the exam perspective. Since & 12th – Ancient, Medieval and Modern authored Sofficers of IAS or IPS are expected to ad- by Dr. R.S. Shama, Dr. Satish Chandra, Dr. Bipan Chandra respectively, are most-sought after minister the country, it is very essential to have books for the preparation of history in Prelims. an understanding of the social milieu, in which For the 3rd part i.e., Modern Indian History or an aspirant is supposed to play. Thus, the his- ‘Indian National Movement,’ “A brief History of tory portion is very important, both for the exam Modern India,” a spectrum publication, will help and for your competency for the post. a lot. As per the structure of Civil Services Exam Complete reading these books and make notified by the UPSC, ‘History of India’ and short but comprehensive notes of it. Then, re- ‘Indian National Movement’ comprise the His- vise it as many times as possible. If you are a tory section of General Studies paper in Pre- beginner, NCERT History text books of class 7 & 8 can be of help. lims. History of India is generally divided into Ancient, Medieval & Modern. A decent analysis Indian Art & Culture is not specified as a of the previous question papers would suggest separate topic in the syllabus of Prelims. Ap- parently, it is considered to be a part of the that the Modern Indian History is given more subject of History. However, an analysis of the weightage within History. past years’ questions reveals that many of these, Apart from these 3 subtopics within His- which are attributable to culture, cannot be tory, we also have questions asked from ‘Art & solved or even attempted if the candidate is to Culture’ section. Hence, divide your history depend merely on the coverage in the history books. preparation for prelims into 4 parts… This is because, topics like ‘Performing 1. Ancient India arts’ (like dances, music…etc) are not a part of 2. Medieval India history. While preparing for Art & Culture, keenly 3. Modern India observe various photographs of sculpture, 4. Indian Art & Culture. temple, dance forms, folk art etc. 49 civilz byte

For the ‘Indian Art & Culture’ part, Mc Neolithic or the New Stone Age Graw Hill publication authored by Nitin Chalcolithic Settlements Singhania will be of very great help. Make a 3. Harappan Civilization habit to open the website of ‘Ministry of Cul- (c.2500/2900-1800 BC) ture’ now and then and it will be of help. The Harappan Civilization website hosted by Centre for Cultural Resources Origin & Evolution and Training (CCRT) carries some important in- The Extent formation. The aforesaid links can be found in Important Centres the ‘Sources of Study’ section. A Text book in Fine Arts of 11th class “An Introduction to In- Major Characteristics dian Art” is also a good source to prepare Art & 4. The Vedic Age Culture from. The Aryan Problem Early Vedic Society The preliminary Exam requires its candidates to retain information and facts. So, do The Later Vedic Period that. If you keep revising regularly, all the im- 5. Sixth Century BC to Fourth Century BC portant points would automatically get regis- Sources of information tered. Otherwise, use some creative memory Emergence of New Social Groups techniques like mnemonics, story-telling etc. Polity to retain it for more time. There are many vid- Emergence of Mahajanapadas eos on YouTube and ways in Google about the Rise of Magadha tricks to remember dates and other things. Persian Invasion When you start loving history, the opinion that Alexander’s Invasion it is vast vanishes and a kind of interest drives you ahead. Milieu of Religious Movements Buddhism The syllabus of this section as per UPSC is Jainism “History of India and Indian National Move- ment.” 6. The Mauryas (321-185 BC) Source Material SYLLABUS – TOPIC WISE Emergence of the Mauryan Empire The Mauryan Conquests INDIAN HISTORY Land Revenue 1. Introduction The Urban Economy India: Physicial Features Society and Religion 2. Prehistoric Period Ashoka’s Policy of Dhamma Palaeolithic Period Mauryan Administration Mesolithic Period The Mauryan Public Works 50 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

Provincial Administration 10. Transformation of the Ancient Phase (AD District & Village Level Administration 500- 800) Relations with other Powers Economy The Downfall of the Mauryan Empire The Society Mauryan Art Developments in Religion 7. India After the Mauryans (200 BC-AD 100) 11. Northern India Sources Rajputs and other regional Kingdoms Religious traditions and regional cultures Local Powers North - Western India Im- pact of Central Asian Contacts 12. The Delhi Sultanate (1206-1526) The Deccan The Slave Sultans(1206-1290) The Khiljis (1290-1320) Sculptural Art The Tughlaq Sultans(1320-1414) The Beginning of Hinduism The Sayyid Dynasty (1414-1451) Craft, Trade & Towns The Lodi Sultans (1451-1526) Contemporary South India Causes of the downfall of the Delhi Sul- 8. The Age of the Guptas tanate Political Background Sources of Revenue Chandragupta I Smaller Kingdom Samudragupta (AD 335-275) Ecomony Chandragupta II (AD 375- 415) Sources of Revenue Gupta Administration Smaller Kingdom Revenue Administration 13. South Indian Kingdoms Trade and Towns The Kingdoms Society Kakatiyas Art and Architecture Vijayanagaras Literature Bahamanis Science and Astronomy War and Expansion 9. The Age of Smaller Kingdoms Economy Harshavardhan (AD 606-647) Architecture The Post Harsha Period: North India 14. Source Material of Delhi Sultanate The Deccan and the South Alberuni (Slave Sultan) Art and Architecture Amir Khusrau (The Khilji Period) The Cholas and its Art and Architecture Zia-Ud-Din Barani et al., (The Tughlaqs) 51 civilz byte

15. Religious Movements in Medieval Period 23. Consolidation of British Power The Sufi Movement Burma The Bhakti Movement Afghanistan Kabir and Nanak Sindh 16. Influences on Architecture, Painting & Punjab Music Dalhousie & the Policy of Annexation (1848-1856) Architecture 24. The Administrative Structure Painting & Music Regulating Act of 1773 17. The Mughals Pitt’s India Act of 1784 Babar(1526-1530) Charter Act of 1813 Humayun (1530-1556) Charter Act of 1833 Akbar(1556-1605) Army Jahangir(1605-1627) Police Shah Jahan (1626-1658) Civil Service Aurangzeb(1658-1707) Judiciary 18. Decline of the Mughal Empire Land Revenue System Causes for the Decline Trade and Industry 19. Source Material of Mughal Empire Social and Cultural Policy 20. Cultural Developments during the Mughal Modern Education Era First Institutions Architecture Education Policy Painting 26. Social and Cultural Awakening in the First Music Half of the 19th Century Literature Raja Ram Mohan Roy and the Brahma Samaj 21. The Europeans in India Young Bengal Movement The Portugese Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar The Dutch 27. The Revolt of 1857 and its Consequences The English Causes 22. British Expansion in India The Revolt The Carnatic Wars Reasons for Failure The British Conquest of Bengal 28. Reorganisation of the British Empire in Extension of British Influence(1765- India 1792) Changes in the Army British Expansion from 1798-1809 British Policy Towards Princely States. 52 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

29. The Economic Impact of British Rule 14. Emergence of Gandhi Impoverishment of the Peasantry 15. Montague-Chelmsford Reforms (July 1918) Ruin of Artisans and Craftsmen 16. Rowlatt Act 30. Development of Transport and Trade 17. Jallianwala Bagh Incident Transport 18. The Non - Co-operation Movement (1920- Foreign Trade 1922) 31. Development of Modern Industries up to 19. Peasant Movements 1947 20. Emergence of Communists Three Phases 21. Revolutionary Terrorism 32. Social & Religious Reforms Movements in 22. Subhash Chandra Bose & Jawahalal Nehru the Later Half of the 19th Century 23. Simon Commission & Nehru Report Veda Samaj and Prarthana Samaj 24. Lahore Congress and Purna Swaraj Ramakrishna and Viekananda 25. Civil Disobedience Movement (1930-1931) Arya Samaj 26. First Round Table Conference and Gandhi Theosophical Society Irwin Pact Sayyid Ahmed Khan and the Aligarh 27. Karachi Session of the Congress, 1931 School 28. Second Round Table Conference Social Reforms 29. Civil Disobedience Resumed (1932- Cultural Awakening 1934) Chronology of Principal Events. 30. Communal Award and Poona Pact 31. Government of India Act, 1935 32. Lucknow and Faizpur THE INDIAN NATIONAL MOVEMENT 33. Muslim League Tactics & Growth of 1. Rise of Indian Nationalism Communalism 2. Emergence of a National Consciousness 34. Gandhian Reforms 3. The Indian National Congress (1885-1905) 35. States People Movement 4. Drawback of Early Nationalists 36. Congress Crisis and formation of forward 5. Partition of Bengal Bloc 6. Swadeshi and Boycott 37. National movement during world war II 7. Rise of Revolutionary Nationalism 38. Jinnah’s Two – Nation Theory 8. Surat Split of 1907 39. August Offer - 1940 9. Indian Councils Act of 1909 40. Cripps’ Mission 10. The Muslim League 41. Quit India Movement 11. First World War and Indian Politics 42. Advance of Muslim League 12. Lucknow Pact of 1916 43. Indian National Army & Netaji 13. Home Rule League 44. Independence & Partition (1945-1947) 53 civilz byte 45. Rajaji Formula and Gandhi – Jinnah Talks SOURCES OF STUDY 46. Wavell Plan and Simla Conference 47. Cabinet Mission Plan Books 48. Direct Action Day and Interim Government 1. Old versions of NCERT History textbooks 49. Attlee’s Announcement of classes 11th & 12th 50. Mountbatten Plan a. Ancient India - Dr. R.S.Shama 51. Partition b. Medieval India - Dr. Satish Chandra c. Modern India - Dr. Bipan Chandra INDIAN ART AND CULTURE 2. A brief History of Modern India – Spectrum Visual Art Publications Architecture 3. NCERT History Text books of classes 7th & Indian Sculpture 8th. Indian Pottery 4. Indian Art & Culture by Nitin Singania - Mc Graw Hill publication Indian Painting Performing Art 5. “An Introduction to Indian Art” – NCERT Fine Arts text book for class 11th. Indian Music 6. National Symbols - Chapter 2, India Year Dance Forms Book Indian Theatre Indian Puppetry WEBSITES Indian Crafts 1. www.facebook.com/indiaculture.goi Music, Art & Culture Topics - Facebook page of Ministry of Culture Indian Cinema 2. www.ccrtindia.gov.in - Centre for Cultural Languages in India Resources and Training Religions in India 3. www.goo.gl/NAxzSF - NIOS Indian Heritage Indian Literature & Culture Material download Schools in Philosophy 4. www.goo.gl/VN9KtY Indian Handicrafts – NCERT Books Download Indian Calendar 5. www.indiaculture.nic.in Fairs and Festivals - Ministry of Culture Cultural aspects related to Medicine, 6. www.kmpathi.wordpress.com - A blog with Maths, Astronomy, Coinage, Weights few articles pertaining to Art & Cultre and Measures. 7. www.culturalindia.net - Art, Culture, Heri- Awards tage & beyond. Cultural Institutions 8. www.unacademy.com Issue of Stolen Art and Artifacts – Watch video lessons of this subject 54 CHAPTER Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle 18 Geography of India & World

he knowledge of Geography is very im- Remember the necessary facts. But do not portant as the candidate should be waste your time in mugging up the names of Taware of the different physiological con- different places and other facts that are not ditions of the country. Since an IAS, IPS could necessary. Rather, try to establish the links be- be posted in any part of the country, it is ex- tween various geographical concepts. This pected that the person would be acquainted would ease your task greatly. Focus on the con- with the general topographical and climatic temporary and new developments relating to features and things such, of the country. environment and climate, as it has been asked Proper study of Geography is extremely very often. important for success in CS (P). Not only a large An atlas is a must while studying Geogra- number of questions figure from this section phy. If you don’t carry Atlas, you will be at loss, every year, but more importantly the areas of at last. Start your preparation with the NCERT study from which they have been appearing are Textbooks of classes 11th & 12th. Your knowl- consistent and hence more predictable, espe- edge of Maps is very important for the fact that cially compared to other sections. As a subject, few questions can be answered only based on Geography involves clear understanding of con- some knowledge over Maps i.e., India & world - cepts apart from remembering of facts and in- Physical & Political. formation. What is understood well is retained in our memory much longer than what is simply Many topics of Geography overlap with mugged-up. environment, ecology, mineral resources…etc. Though, strictly, they are classifiable as ques- Further, a lot of study of geography can tions on those sections, studying them thor- be done through study of maps and diagrams. oughly as a topic of geography serves a dual It is a common experience that our brain is able purpose. to remember visual data for a long duration and recollect it much quicker. All these factors sub- After your preparation with the NCERT text stantially improve the overall effectiveness of books, go to “Certificate Physical and Human study of this subject and enable us to score well Geography” by G. C. Leong. And then, “Geog- in the examination. raphy of India” by Majid Hussain is a very good 55 civilz byte book for Prelims & Mains. Do not forget the At- Insolation and Heat Budget las at any stage of your Geography preparation. Green House Effect If possible, hang maps of India & world – Distribution of Temperature Physical & political. Peruse the Maps for few min- Inversion of Temperature utes daily even when you are not studying Geog- Range of Temperature raphy. There have always been questions test- Pressure ing the knowledge over maps. Unacademy Pressure and Winds website has got beautifully made video lessons Planetary Winds about this subject. Watch them and we are sure, Seasonal and Local Winds it boosts your confidence… Direction and velocity of winds Air Masses and Fronts SYLLABUS – TOPIC WISE Cyclones and Anticyclones WORLD & GENERAL GEOGRAPHY The Jet Stream States of Water and Heat Exchange 1. Origin of the Earth Humidity Origin of the earth Dew point and Condensation 2. The Earth and its Position in the Solar Vapour Pressure System Clouds. The Solar System Shape and Size of the Earth Fog, Mist and Haze Motions of the Earth and their Effects Rain Shadow Inclination of the Earth’s Axis Dew and Frost Latitude and longitude Types of Climate Great Circle and Small Circle Hydrological Cycle & Global Water Local and Standard Time and the Inter- Balance national Date line Ground Water and Water Table Solar and Sidereal Time Sources of Ground Water Calendar 4. The Hydrosphere (Oceanography) The Earth and the Moon Oceans of the World Eclipses and Phase of the Moon The Ocean Floor Moon and Tides Salinity 3. The Atmosphere (Climatology) Temperature Structure and Composition of the Waves and Currents Atmosphere Marine Resources Aurora and Magnetic Storms 5. The Lithosphere (Geomorphology) Weather and Climate Interior Structure of the Earth 56 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

Materials of the Earth’s Crust-Rocks and Distribution, size and Pattern of Settle- Minerals ments Classification of Rocks 7 Economic Geography Landforms Resources and their Classification Landforms of the First Order-Oceans World Agriculture and Continents Farming Organisation and Farming Sys- Landforms of the Second Order tem Forces and Processes Affecting the Types of Cultivation Earth’s Crust Intensive and Extensive Farming Internal Forces and their impact Agricultural Typology Volcanic Activity Chief Agricultural Products and the Chief Diastrophic Forces and Earth movements Producers Folding and Warping Animal Rearing and Animal Products Faulting Forestry and Forest Products Earthquakes Deforestation and Conservation of Isostacy Forests External Forces and their Impact Important Minerals, Power Resources Weathering and Leading Producers Erosion Chief Industrial Products and Leading Cycle of Erosion Producers Soils Major Products of Various Natural Classification and Distribution of World Regions Soils Some Important Boundary Lines 6. Human Geography Important Cities and what they are fa- World Population and its Distribution mous for Density of Population Important Names changed Population Structure 8 Natural Regions of the World Population and Resources The Equatorial Region Population Problems of Under-Developed The Tropical/Hot Deserts and Advanced Countries The Savanna or the Tropical Grasslands Races and Tribes Region Migration The Temperate Grasslands (Steppe) Causes and Consequences of Migration The Monsoon Lands Types of Migration The Mediterranean Region Settlement The Tiga Region Classification of Settlements The Tundra Region 57 civilz byte

INDIAN GEOGRAPHY Types of Cultivation 9. Indian Geography Intensive and Extensive Farming Introduction Cropping and Land use Pattern Location Fertility and Productivity Areas and Boundaries Agricultural Infrastructure Administrative Divisions Agricultural Regions Geology Important Crops 10. Physiography Crop Diseases Himalayas Animal Husbandry The Plains of India Fishing Peninsular Plateau 16. Irrigation and Power Islands of India Sources 11. Drainage 17. Mineral Resources Himalayan Rivers Classification and Distribution of Rivers of Peninsular India flowing into Minerals the Bay of Bengal 18. Industries West flowing Rivers of the Peninsular Agricultural based industries Region Mineral based industries Differences between the Himalayan and Electronic industries the Peninsular Rivers 19. Transport and Communications Drainage of the Thar Desert Region Transport 12. Climate Communications The Monsoon and its Mechanism 20. Foreign Trade The Seasons Important Features of India’s Export Importance of monsoons Trade Climatic Regions 21. Social Aspects Floods and Droughts Population 13. Soils Density Important Types Sex Ratio Soil Erosion and Conservation Literacy 14. Natural Vegetation- Plant and Animal Life Trend of Growth Major Types Languages Forestry Religions Flora and Fauna Racial Groups 15. Agriculture Tribal Groups Crop Groups Urbanization 58 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle SOURCES OF STUDY 3. Geography of India – Majid Hussain 4. Oxford / Blackswan Atlas BOOKS 5. India A comprehensive Geography by D. R. 1. NCERT BOOKS Khullar a. Textbooks of 6th, 7th & 8th b. Fundamentals of Physical Geography – WEBSITES 11th Class 1. www.goo.gl/VN9KtY c. India Physical Environment - 11th Class – NCERT Books Download d. Fundamentals of Human Geography – 2. www.unacademy.com 12th Class – Watch video lessons of this subject e. India: People & Economy – 12th class. 2. Certificate Physical and Human Geography by G. C. Leong

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59 CHAPTER civilz byte 19 Indian Polity & Governance

wing to the large number of questions Reading the latest version of M. asked from polity in the prelims or the Laxmikanth’s ‘Indian Polity’ is mandatory and Osyllabus content of the subject being no one can by-pass it. Apart from this book, reasonably structured makes Indian Polity & choose another book between D.D. Basu’s “In- Governance a very important subject in the troduction to Indian Constitution” and Subash Exam. And otherwise too, Indian Polity & Gov- Kashyap’s “Our Constitution.” Do this at a level ernance is different from subjects like Current when you understand Polity well and not in the beginning. Affairs or History where the ambit of questions is quite vast. All this makes Indian Polity & Gov- A selective reading of the “Parliament hand ernance a more predictable and scoring sub- Book” while preparing the related topics would ject for the GS paper in Prelims. be of definite help. The website link is provided in the ‘Sources of study section.’ If enough concentration, efforts and time are devoted, a very strong foundation can be Indian Polity can be prepared article wise laid for Indian Polity which can be of great help i.e., articles 1 to 395 or heading wise i.e., Union in preparing subjects like Social Justice & de- Executive, State Executive…etc. Have a soft or hard copy of the constitution. A mobile App can velopment, Administration & Governance in GS- be the best preference. Before the next class, II of Mains and many topics of second paper in get to know what the next topic would be. Read Public Administration Optional. that chapter in ‘Laxmikanth’ and read those The NCERT Text book of 11th class “Indian articles which appear in that topic in the soft Constitution at work” is a must read. If this book or hard copy of the Constitution you have. While is completed, you can be at great ease in the reading the article, do not worry, even if you further levels of preparation of Polity. Quick but don’t understand. You do this and we guarantee steady study of NCERT Text books of ‘Social & that you’ll understand the class even better. Political Life’ from class 6 to 10 will give you a As far as Indian Polity & Governance is very clear understanding of different topics that concerned, you can’t prepare it once for Pre- occur in Indian Polity & Governance. So, make lims and again for Mains. A segregated approach sure you complete them. would not work here. Hence, it is suggested that 60 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle the Preparation for Prelims & Mains go hand in Articles, Parts, Schedules & Amendments hand. It really helps. of the Constitution The questions can be from the theory or 2. Indian Union & its Territories the current happenings. So, correlation of the 3. Citizenship knowledge you acquire from preparation of In- Citizenship Act dian Polity & Governance with issues in news & Acquisition and Termination current happenings is the real important part. You are advised to read The Hindu, Yojana & 4. Fundamental Rights Kurukshetra from this perspective. For instance, History CAG’s (Comptroller & Auditor General) expo- Classification sure of major scams like 2G scam. In a moment Importance like this, go back to the basics of CAG you learn Criticism in Polity. Brush up, re-learn and revise. That is how it has to work. Pay special attention to 5. Fundamental Duties learning the terminology. The better you un- Fundamental Duties derstand the words; the better will be the grasp 42nd Constitutional Amendment of the subject. 6. The Directive Principles of State Policy Though easy to read & prepare, the ac- Introduction tual difficulty lies in answering the questions in DPSP - Types the exam. So, regular practice of MCQs (Mul- Difference between Directive Principles tiple Choice Questions) is a must. This would and fundamental Rights strengthen your basic understanding & concepts of the subject and will also boost your confi- Important Directive Principles dence. Directive Principles in Practice The syllabus of this section as per UPSC is… Relation between Directive Principles and Fundamental Rights “Indian Polity and Governance – Constitution, 7. The President Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights Issues etc.” President Power of the President SYLLABUS – TOPIC WISE Position of the President Vice President 1. The Constitution 8. The Prime Minister and Council of Ministers Constitutional Development The Prime Minister Framing of the Constitution Objectives of the Constitution Powers & Functions Features of the Indian Constitution Deputy Prime Minister Preamble Council of Ministers 61 civilz byte

9. The Parliament 16. Constitutional Amendments Organization Procedure for Amendment Functions Important Constitutional Amendments Parliament Committees 17. Civil Services under the Union & States 10.The Supreme Court Classification of Civil Services Organization Public Service Commission Powers & Functions Civil Servants and Fundamental Rights Integrated Judiciary 18. Provisions for Minorities, Scheduled Judicial Activism Castes and Scheduled Tribes Judicial Review Introduction Public Interest Litigation National Commission of Scheduled 11. State Executive Castes Introduction National Commission of Scheduled The Governor Tribes Powers of the Governors Chief Minister 19. Official Language Council of Ministers Hindi as Official Language and use of 12. State Legislature English Organization Regional Languages Powers & Functions 20. Jammu & Kashmir 13. High Court Special Status for Jammu & Kashmir Organization Constitution of Jammu & Kashmir Powers & Functions Demand for Abrogation of Article Administrative Tribunal Jammu and Kashmir Resettlement Act Family Courts 21. Different Constitutional & Statutory Lok Adalats bodies Nyaya Panchayats 22. Electoral System and Elections Legal Aid Election Commission 14. Union Territories Electoral System National Capital Territory Elections held in India since Indepen- Puducherry, Delhi & other Union Terri- dence tories Anti – Defection Law 15. Centre – State Relations Political Parties Recommendations of Different Commit- tees Registration of Political Parties Zonal Councils National and Regional Parties 62 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

23. Panchayati Raj by Dr. Durga Das Basu (D.D. Basu) Panchayati Raj 7. ‘Our Parliament’ by Subhash C. Kashyap Three – tier System 8. ‘Our Political System’ by Subhash C. Assessment of Panchayati Raj Kashyap Important Committees 9. ‘Polity’ section in the latest “India Year 73rd & 74th Constitutional Amend- Book” ment Acts 24. Schedules of the Constitution WEBSITES Introduction 1. http://164.100.47.134/intranet/ Discussion of the important Schedules pract&proc/prac&proced.htm 25. Public Policy - Parliament Hand Book (For very selec- Concept tive study) Different kinds & Policies 2. www.goo.gl/VN9KtY – NCERT Books Download 26. Rights Issues 3. www.unacademy.com – Watch video lessons of this subject SOURCES OF STUDY 4. https://goo.gl/QA3HzR BOOKS - Watch Indian Polity Videos of Mr. Kalyan. 1. NCERT Text books - 6th to 8th – Social & 5. Sankaran IAS Study Circle Political Life - YouTube Channel 2. NCERT Text books - 9th & 10th – Demo- cratic Politics APPs 3. ‘Indian Constitution at work’ – 11th Class 1. CONSTITUTION OF INDIA NCERT Political Science Text Book 2. CIVILS DAILY 4. ‘Indian Polity’ by M. Laxmikanth 3. ALL INDIA RADIO 5. ‘Our Constitution’ by Subhash C. Kashyap 4. OPEDDICTION (OR) 5. NCERT – NIOS BOOKS 6. ‘Introduction to the Indian Constitution’

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63 CHAPTER civilz byte 20 Indian Economy

he topic of Economy as a subject of study cepts especially, to the beginners. The Econom- offers a unique challenge as well as an ics Textbook of 11th Class “Indian Economic Topportunity to the aspirants. The prob- Development” is absolutely essential, helpful & lem is for those candidates who have had little concise as well. The two textbooks of 12th class previous exposure to economy or because of its are more statistical with full of derivations and superficial coverage in earlier academic courses. calculations. The below chapters are enough to And those who were not confident & comfort- read able with various economic concepts..etc, find a. India: People & Economy. – 12th Geography it difficult to cope with it.… i. Unit III – Chapter 5 – Land Resources & However, the silver lining is that the na- Agriculture ture of questions is such that the candidates can ii. Chapter 6 – Water Resources anticipate and prepare for them well if they fol- iii. Chapter 8 – Mineral & Energy low regularly the economic issues in news. iv. Chapter 9 – Planning & Sustainable De- Whether it’s the rising inflation, CRR (Cash Re- velopment serve Ratio), SLR (Statutory Liquidity Ratio), GST (Goods & Services Tax), inclusive growth, GDP b. Introductory Macro Economics -12th Class (Gross Domestic Product)…etc., all of these which i. Chapter 5 – Government Budget & have given rise to questions in the past papers Economy of Prelims, have always been of sharp focus in ii. Chapter 6 – Open Economy Macroeco- news at one point of time or the other. Thus, to nomics score well in questions of economy, the deficit If read, understood and revised well, then of past knowledge should not be a problem. What along with the day to day economic news, they is pertinent is to meticulously follow the day to would easily cover more than 80 percent of the day economic news. This makes an opportunity questions that figure in the examination in the to all kinds of candidates. economy section. You can make this a starting The NCERT Textbooks of 9th & 10th can point irrespective of your current level of give a good understanding about various con- proficiency. 64 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

Apart from the NCERT Text books, Sanjiv them. For example, if SLR, CRR etc., is men- Verma’s “The Indian Economy” will be a good tioned pertaining to a news item about RBI, then companion to the absolute beginners. It is quiet read not only about what is SLR & CRR, but widen concise. your study horizon and know more about the monetary policy committee or RBI. Complete Sanjiv Verma’s book. And then, go for “Indian Economy” by Ramesh Singh. For Similarly, if the issue pertains to food se- prelims, this book is a good choice. In fact this curity, WTO, then understand what is India’s book can be helpful in terms of Mains also. If food security needs & policy, what is WTO and you still wish to supplement your preparation on background behind these issues. All these may Indian Economy, study “Indian Economy, Perfor- not be found in the news article itself. So, make mance and policies” by Uma Kapila. This is quite short notes of them and find about them from good for Mains as well. the recommended books & naturally, internet.

Reading “Indian Economy” by Dutt & The Syllabus of this section as per UPSC is Sundaram IS TOTALLY YOUR CHOICE. If you are “Economic and Social Development, Sustainable comfortable, then, go on. If you are not, it’s Development, Poverty, Inclusion, Demograph- okay. But we think it can be ignored. ics, Social Sector Initiatives etc.”

Remember, the bottom-line is to keep NCERT books and daily news items as your core SYLLABUS – TOPIC WISE reading materials and supplement them with any 1. Economic Development of those four books suggested above. Definitions Besides, read chapters of Economic Survey Determinants of India on… Growth-Definitions a) Agriculture Difference between Growth & Develop- b) Sustainable Development & Climate ment Change Growth Models c) Human Development / Inclusive growth Growth Theories (These chapters are damn important) National Income, Economic Development Indicators/Concepts – India’s National Give special emphasis to write ups/items Income given in coloured boxes in the Economic 2. Social Developments Survey. Occupational Distribution of Labour While reading the newspaper, always iden- Sectorial Division of the Economy with tify as to what are the important news items Population particularly, from the important topics mentioned Educational – Economic Development below. Mark important terms and understand Health – Economic Development 65 civilz byte

Social Infrastructure and Human Devel- 8. Industrial Sector opment Index HDI Mixed Economy Physical Infrastructure Economic Policies Transport Economic Reforms Insurance, Science & Technology Classification of Markets/Industries Postal, Communication etc Problems 3. Poverty 9.Sustainable Development Definitions Meaning Concept Types Diagrammatic Application related to Causes – Remedial measures India India’s Programs Vs. Unemployment 10. Money and Banking 4.Unemployment Monetary Fund Definitions Indian Monetary Policy Types Functions RBI/Balance of Payments Causes – Remedial measures 10 Years Corporate Plan (1993 – 2002) India’s Programs Vs Poverty Foreign Exchange Management 5. Inclusive Growth Capital Account Convertibility India’s Growth and Development through Tara pore Committee plans – Review, Money Market Instruments Inequalities in income, Regional Etc. Treasury Bills 6.Demographic Indian Financial System Population theories Indigenous Banking India’s Population 1881 – 2012 Commercial banking Causes of Population Explosion Narasimham Committees Population Policy of 2000 AD Development Finance Institutions Problems and Stabilisation 2045 AD Insurance Sector 7. Social Sector Initiatives (Sectorial Develop- Malhotra Committee ment) Insurance Regulatory Authority Agricultural Sector Stock Exchange Dr LC Gupta Committee Productivity Securities and Exchange Board of India Co- Operative Sector (SEBI) NABARD RRB, etc. National Securities Depository Limited Green Revolution (NSDL) AG. Marketing Problem Etc Foreign Portfolio Investment 66 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

11.Foreign Trade and Foreign Exchange 2. ‘The Indian Economy’ by Sanjiv Varma Historical Background 3. ‘Indian Economy’ by Ramesh Singh Composition of Trade 4. ‘Indian Economy, Performance and policies’ Direction of Foreign Trade by Uma Kapila (or) SAPTA and SAFTA 5. Economic Survey – Select Topics. India’ Balance of Payments Rangarajan Panel on BOP WEBSITES BOP in the Post 1991 Period 1. www.mrunal.org/Economy Trade Policy - Use this for an easy understanding of Role of IMF Economy part. World Trade 2. www.arthapedia.in - A portal run by Indian Economic Service Organisation (WTO) Officers to Explain concepts of Indian Functions of WTO Economy Seattle and Beyond 3. www.rbi.org.in Doha Declaration - Reserve Bank of India. Trade in Services 4. www.niti.gov.in/niti-blogs Indian and the Euro - A blog by NITI Aayog 12. Liberalisation and New Economic Policy 5. www.unacademy.com Stabilisation Programme – Watch video lessons of this subject Structural Adjustment 6. www.goo.gl/VN9KtY – Second Generation Reforms NCERT Books Download A Decade of Reforms A Balance Sheet APPs 1. CIVILS DAILY SOURCES OF STUDY 2. ALL INDIA RADIO NEWS 3. OPEDDICTION BOOKS 4. NCERT – NIOS BOOKS 1. NCERT Text Books – 9th, 10th, 11th 5. EPW (Indian Economic Development) & 12th (Select chapters as mentioned earlier)

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67 CHAPTER civilz byte 21 Environment & Ecology

ith the change in Prelims format since An analysis of the past year’s question pa- 2011, UPSC is constantly giving more pers reveals that every year nearly 15 to 17 ques- Wweightage to ‘Environment Section’. tions pertain to environment & ecology. There There can be various reasons to it from inclu- are some questions which have overlap of this sion of Indian Forest Services (IFoS) to increas- topic with science, geography, current affairs and ing worldwide environmental concerns. even economy. If all these overlapping questions are also to be included, then the weightage of The question papers year after year are the topic would be even greater than 20 per- proving that Environment and related areas are cent. a must-know for every Civil Services aspirant. Considering the fact that environmental In fact, Environmental Changes and degra- issues are capturing headlines and are bound to dation is an extremely important challenge be- do so in the near future, this topic from the CS fore the modern world and accordingly this topic (P) perspective is likely to remain as important is duly included in the syllabi of both the prelimi- or may even become more crucial in the coming nary as well as the Main Exam. However, the years. As such, it calls for concerted & serious syllabus of Prelims pertaining to this topic pro- study. If you take light of it, you are at the risk vides only a fleeting description. of your own peril. The GS syllabus specifies that ‘the ques- Though questions from environment & ecol- tions would cover only general issues on envi- ogy touch areas of basic understanding, they are ronmental ecology, bio-diversity and climate only very much well connected to hot topics of change that do not require subject specializa- current importance like Global warming, Urban tion.’ A candidate may perceive such a syllabus Heat Islands, Endangered species, Genetic pol- description to imply, that Civil Services Prelims lution, recent climate summits etc. and can also proposes to test the candidate’s general aware- make an interesting preparation if enough of ness about environmental issues, which may not love for the subject is invested. require a dedicated or elaborate study of the Thus, a simple approach for environment subject. However, such a notion would prove di- related topics is a mix of static and dynamic sastrous for the candidate. portion. 68 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle QUICK TIPS (The list is not comprehensive. So, keep adding the days you start knowing) Begin your preparation with reading the 5 Follow Science Reporter Magazine. chapters of 2 NCERT Text books, as mentioned in the ‘sources of study’ section below, which Watch Science Monitor Episodes of Rajya cover the basic topics such as ecology, ecosys- Sabha TV. tems, biodiversity etc. Follow some of the websites mentioned in The book on Environment by Shankar IAS the ‘Sources of Study’ here below Academy is widely read and a high seller. It is regularly. available on Amazon.in and in the market as Keep a close watch on environmental news well. The language of this book is simple and items. Get to know their context & the content engaging. So, make sure, you don’t backgrounds. This is the most important miss the topics from this book. part cos the questions appearing are very Make sure, you read the special articles well carved out from the current develop- that are published in newspapers on certain days ments. of the year, as mentioned below, that are important in the context of Environment & Ecol- Know about various environmental laws, ogy. in India, in brief. Get to know the policies and programmes pertaining to environ- World Wetlands Day – 2nd February ment through Economic Survey & Ministry World Forestry Day – 21st March website of Environment. World Water & Sanitation Day – 22nd March Earth Day – 22nd April And you are also supposed to know about International Day for Biological Diversity – organizations in India and abroad dealing 22nd May with environmental issues (UNFCC, IUCN, World Environment Day – 5th June IPCC, WWF, BHNS, TERI). These can be covered through internet/Wikipedia. World Oceans Day – 8th June World Population day - 11th July You must be knowing about the interna- World Rivers Day – Last Sunday of tional conventions such as Rio-earth sum- September mit, UNFCC, Kyoto Protocol, Cancun Sum- World Habitat Day – First Monday in Octo- mit, Montreal Protocol, Stockholm Conven- ber tion etc. So, read the salient points about International Natural Disaster Day – 13th them from the official websites and rel- October evant sources as mentioned in the ‘Sources Zero Emission Day – 21st September of Study’ Section. 69 civilz byte SYLLABUS – TOPIC WISE 6 Ecologically sensitive areas Western Ghats 1. General issues on Environmental Ecology Himalayas Ecological terms like Ecotone 7 Climate Change Ecological niche ecosystem, Mitigation measures taken at national Effects of environmental deterioration- and international level (Kyoto protocol, its affects on human being Montreal protocol) recent climate Food chain in the ecosystem change summits held 2 Pollution Objectives of the summits Acid rain 8 Laws, Regulatory Bodies and Policies at na- Photochemical smog tional and international level Green House Gases (GHG’s) Environment Protection Act Ozone hole Forest Right Act Algal bloom National Biodiversity Authority 3 Bio-diversity (which also overlaps with top- Protocols and Summits like Cartanega ics from Geography) Protocol, Nagoya Protocol and Lima Conference etc. Bio-diversity - Important for human 9 Intergovernmental Organizations, Treaties survival and Conventions related to climate change, International Union for Conservation of biodiversity Nature (IUCN) – Red Data Book Ramsar Convention Biodiversity Hotspots Montreux Record 4 Conservation - Conservation of natural The three Rio Conventions— Conven- resources tion on Biological Diversity(CoB), National Parks United Nations Framework Convention Wildlife conservations on Climate Change (UNFCCC) Wetlands, Biosphere Reserves etc. United Nations Convention to Combat Internationally recognized Wetlands and Desertification – from the 1992 Earth Biosphere Reserves of India Summit) etc. 5 Sustainable Development 10 Organisations Connected Renewable energy UNEP Biotechnology (bio-fertilizers, bio-pes- FAO ticides) IPCC Biomass gasification UNESCO…etc. 70 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle SOURCES OF STUDY www.indiabudget.nic.in – Download Budget and Economic Survey. Books www.goo.gl/VN9KtY 1. NCERT Biology Text book for 12th class. – NCERT Books Download (Only chapters 13, 14, 15 & 16.) www.vikaspedia.in/energy/environment Chapter 13 – Organisms and Population - Environment & Ecology – India Chapter 14 – Ecosystem www.iucn.org Chapter 15 – Bio diversity and conser- - IUCN (International Union for Conserva- vation tion of Nature). Track India section in this Chapter 16 – Environmental Issues site. 2. NCERT Chemistry Text book for 11th class www.ipcc.ch Unit – 14 - Environmental Chemistry. – Intergovernmental Panel on Climate 3. Economic Survey of India Change Chapter on ‘Sustainable Development www.cop21paris.org and Climate Change.’ – Conference of Parties 4. Science Reporter Magazine www.unacademy.com – Watch video lessons of this subject 5. “Environment” chapter in ‘India Year Book’ APPs 1. CIVILS DAILY Websites 2. ALL INDIA RADIO NEWS www.downtoearth.org.in/india - Read few Essays from ‘Down to Earth’ 3. OPEDDICTION magazine through website. 4. NCERT – NIOS BOOKS www.envfor.nic.in 5. EPW – Ministry of Environment and Forests.

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71 CHAPTER civilz byte 22 General Science (And Technology)

cience helps us know and understand how est developments in various fields. Besides, the the world around us works. Being a Civil questions in S & Tech also have a dominant over- SServant is a lot about taking logical, ra- lap with environmental issues like ecology, pol- tional and analytical decisions. The learning of lution etc., which makes the ambit of assess- science helps us do this. ment quite wide. You cannot neglect this section at any cost. Though the syllabus notified by the UPSC for prelims mentions this section as ‘General So, because of things like that, the ap- Science,’ it must not be mistaken as the core proach for this section has to be slightly differ- subjects of science like Biology, Physics & Chem- ent. The candidates, apart from having a basic istry. For, the nature of the questions being understanding of science subjects, are also re- asked do not directly pertain to the core knowl- quired to make enough, wide and extensive edge of these subjects. And what forms the crux reading. has been the application part of science i.e., Back_to_Basics #NCERT ‘Technology.’ But, UPSC also wants its candidates to be enough informed about the general Learn the basic static concepts of science basic concepts of science. Hence, you have got that don’t change over time. UPSC seeks clar- to learn the basics of Bi. P. C as well… ity of concepts in Physics, Chemistry, Biology, In case of subjects like history, geography, space, defence, nuclear technology, comput- polity or economy, the syllabus from which ques- ers.. etc. Clarity in these concepts is required tions can be asked can be anticipated, if not to understand the dynamic topics which are from one then from other books. However, the natural processes, recent developments, inven- same cannot be considered to be true for S & tions.. etc. in the field of science. The static Tech. The nature of the questions from this sub- (Theory) & Dynamic subject (Application & reject pertains to testing the candidate’s ability cent developments) - both are required in com- in application of the theoretical knowledge of bination to answer the questions. sciences. In fact, frequently, the questions on basic More often, the questions assess the concepts are the application part of such con- candidate’s awareness of current issues and lat- cept rather than factual or on formulae. 72 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

Begin your preparation by going through preparation. the NCERT Science books of 6th, 7th, 8th, 9th Any scientific development that is fre- & 10th classes. It would be a wise choice to quently covered in news should be your thing. cover the chapters in the text books of 6th, 7th Concentrate on such issues. Keep tracking the & 8th quickly than totally leaving them behind. achievements and major projects of ISRO and And also, there is no real need to solve the nu- other important Govt. Space agencies across the merical-based questions which are given in world like NASA, ESA, Roscosmos etc. Learn the these textbooks. important details and definitely the outline of Biology_Significance the project.

An apt analysis of the Science & Tech ques- Likewise, once you identify an issue from tions asked in the previous years’ question pa- the news, try to cover it in entirety. Questions pers will make you understand that 50% of ques- on recent developments are also not very much tions are from NCERT and out of that, 50% come direct. Rather, a little analysis is required to from Biology. answer them. Questions in the previous papers reveal it. E.g., Bio-toilets, Shale gas, 3D Print- After completion of those books, study the ing, Fuel cells, Blue Ray disc, Li-fi, Digi Locker 12th class biology text book of NCERT, which ...etc. has got some very important topics that can’t be overlooked. Neither 11th class text book for For instance, if there is a news article about biology can be left. So, read both these text the successful field trial of Bt cotton or Bt Brinjal, books and try making the most from it. They then try to find out what Bt means. Get to know constitute a really very important source. what is the science behind it and technology be- Dynamic Part of Science & Tech. hind it, advantages and the disadvantages of this technology, besides the controversy surround- Though, the nature of this part of S & Tech ing it. is totally unpredictable, there is one thing that While reading a current topic in this sec- can save us and give us some inputs and keep tion, make a habit to do it in a questioning style. us ahead in the preparation. It is the most sought Question the question and what all you get as after and honoured source of preparation for answers make the solution. this section. There is no S &T faculty who doesn’t suggest this. WHAT – WHY – HOW

It is the ‘Science & Tech’ Page of ‘The This questioning approach helps you learn Hindu’ that comes every Sunday. It gives a right better. For example, consider the recent dis- & necessary idea about the current discoveries covery about Gravitational Waves by LIGO Team. in the scientific community or things otherwise. Question yourself while reading this as to why All that makes this source the most invaluable it is important & is in news, What is its back- one. Follow the current issues pertaining to S&T ground, How does it work...etc. And see that from this source and stay on the track of the questions are answered. 73 civilz byte QUICK TIPS SYLLABUS – TOPIC WISE

Have a decent knowledge about the Nobel BOTANY & ZOOLOGY (BIOLOGY) Prize pertaining to its recipients and their 1. The Study of Life achievements in the fields of in Physics, Introduction Chemistry & Medicine. Cover this about Living & the non –Living the last three years from the year you give 2. Cell- The Basic Unit of Life your attempt. Prokaryotic & Follow S & Tech section in ‘unacademy.in’. Eukaryotic Cells It really helps a lot. Plant & Animal Cells ‘Science Reporter’ magazine also plays an Cell Division important role. Read the last 12 editions Viruses- the filterable Agents before you take the exam. But make a Viroids habit of reading it from this stage itself. Prions For the level of prelims, it may not be 3. Classification of Living Organisms necessary to search websites of different Binomial Nomenclature Ministries & Departments pertaining to Classification S&Tech. But occasionally do it if you want 4. Organisation of the Living Body to resolve a very specific query of yours. Organisation in Plants The ‘General Science’ section in Lucent’s Plant Tissues GK Book will also help you cover things Morphology of the Plant you might have forgotten. Organisation in Animals Frequent revision is essential. Otherwise, Organisms it would remain in your notes but you won’t 5.Nutrition be able to recall it in the actual exam. Food –The Source of Energy NCERT Physics & Chemistry Text books of Enzymes 11th & 12th need not entirely be prepared. Digestion We tried making it simple for you by men- Nutritional Requirements tioning the list of chapters which would Energy Requirements be enough. Find it in the ‘Sources of study’ Plant Nutrition section. Mineral Nutrition of Plants Solve the S & Tech questions of prelims Photosynthesis from the last 10 years’ question papers. 5 6. Respiration such papers are given in this book itself. Aerobic and Anaerobic Respiration The Syllabus of this section as per UPSC is Respiration-Gaseous Exchange and En- “General Science.” ergy Production 74 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

Respiration Media 12. Reproduction- Perpetuation of the Species Breathing Organs in Man Asexual Reproduction The Breathing Mechanism Sexual Production Gaseous Exchange & Transport Parthenogenesis in Animals Cellular- Respiration- An Energy yield- Reproduction in Plants ing Process Parthenogenesis in Plants 7.The Transport System 13. Plant Growth and Development Transport in Animals Speaking of the Heart Patterns of Growth Transport in the Plants Control Of Growth and Development 8.Excretion of Metabolic Wastes Growth and Turgor Movements in Plants Nephron-The Structure and Functional 14. Genetics –The Science of Heredity Unit Kidney Gregor Mendel- Father of Genetics Urine Formation Genotype & Phenotype Acid- Base Balance-The Kidneys as Sex Chromosomes Blood pH Regulators Sex- linked Inheritance Artificial Kidney Man- The Heterogametic Sex Kidney Diseases The Gene 9.Biocommunication Nervous System Linkage, Crossing Over and Recombi- Nerve Impulse Vs Stimulus nation of Genes Physiology Conduction of Nerve Impulse Mutation Salutatory Nerve Conduction Blood Group Inheritance Transmission on Impulse Across the Syn- Rh factor apse The Genetic Code Neuromuscular Transmission Transcription The Endocrine System Translation 10. Muscle Movement(Contraction) Gene Regulation Ultrastructure of Skeletal Muscle Fibre Jumping Genes Sliding Filament Genetic Engineering Theory of Muscle Contraction Genes and Cancer 11. Skeletal System DNA Finger Printing Functions Types of Bones Cloning Individuals Divisions of the skeletal System Human Genome Project Bone Movement and the Joints 15. Plant Diseases Clinical Application Diseases and Their Causative Agents 75 civilz byte

16.Human Diseases and Defense Mechanism Camels Human Diseases Poultry Communicable or Infectious Diseases Cross Breeding Non- communicable or Non-infectious or Artificial Insemination (AI) Degenerative Diseases Animal Diseases Deficiency Diseases 21.Plants and Human Welfare Allergies Introduction Cancer Food Plants Human Defence Mechanism Spices and Condiments 17. Ecology – Organisms in Relation to their Fibre Plants Surrounding Beverage Plants Ecology Masticatory & Fumitory Plants Ecosystem Medicinal Plants Food Chains & Food Webs Bioinsecticides The Physical Environment Biomes PHYSICS Environmental Types Man & Environmental Pollution 1. Physical Quantities, Standards & Units 18.Origin & Evolution of life Unit of Length Theory of Special Creation Unit of Mass Theory of Spontaneous Generation Unit of Time Chemosynthetic Origin of Life 2. Mechanics and Properties of Matter Evolution of Life Motion Evidences for Evolution Force Evolution of Man Newton’s laws of Motion Life Impulse 19. Drug Abuse & Alcoholism Work –Power-Energy Stimulants Moment of a Force Depressants Centre of Gravity Hallucinogens Machines Alcoholism Artificial Satellites 20.Animal Husbandry Density and Relative Density Cattle Pressure Buffaloes Up-thrust Goats Hydrometer Sheep Matter and its Properties Pigs Motions of fluids-Bernoulli’s Theorem 76 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

3. Heat 8. Magnetism Internal Energy Earth’s magnetism Thermal Expansion 9. Static Electricity Transmission of Heat Electricity of Friction Quantity of Heat Insulators-Conductors, Super Conduc- Change of State tors & Semi – conductors Relative Humidity 10. Current Electricity Air Conditioning Effect of Electric Current Pressure Cooker Power Generation and transmission 4. Wave Motion Domestic Electric Installation Wave Motion Electric Light 5. Electromagnetic Radiations Some Electronic Devices 11. Atomic Physics Radio and Television Transmission Atomic Structure RADAR Emission of Radiation Microwave Oven 12. Nuclear Physics 6. Light Radio activity Rectilinear Propagation, Shadows and Nuclear Energy Eclipses 13. Astronomy and Space Science Reflection Celestial Bodies Refraction Solar System Total Internal Reflection Artificial Satellites - their applications Dispersion 14. Computers and Internet Colour of Objects Computers & Internet Lenses Eye Optical Instruments CHEMISTRY Scattering of Light 1.Matter and its Nature Interference of Light Classification Diffraction of Light Composition of Earth 7. Sound Elements Characteristics Compounds Speed of Sound Mixtures Reflection of Sound and Echo 2. Kinetic Theory of Matter Refraction of Sound Kinetic Theory of Matter Resonance 3. Chemical reactions and the Chemical Doppler Effect Equations Sonic Boom Balancing Chemical Equations 77 civilz byte

Rate of Reaction 12. Environmental Chemistry & Pollution Energy Changes in Reactions Air Pollution 4. Structure of the Atom Water Pollution & land Pollution Modern Atomic Theory Radioactive Pollution Isotopes and Isobars The Natural Ozone Layer 5. Chemical Bonding Ozone Destruction by Chlorofluorocar- Chemical Bonding bons 6.Oxygen and Air The Ozone Hole Composition of Air 13. Agricultural Chemistry Air and Life Chemical Control Respiration(Inhaled & exhaled Air) Fertilizers 7. Hydrogen & Water 14. Medicinal Chemistry Hydrogen Diseases Isotopes of Hydrogen Drugs Solubility & Solutions Common Drugs Osmosis 15. Food Chemistry Molar & Normal Solutions Food Additives 8.Carbon & its Compounds Advantages & Disadvantages of Bever- Allotropes of Carbon ages & Tobacco Carbon Monoxide(CO) 16. Biochemistry & Life processes Carbon dioxide and the Environment Chemical Basis of Life Carbon Cycle in Nature & Biological Role of Sodium, Potassium, Photosynthesis Magnesium & Calcium Fuels Buffers Rocket Fuels 17.Polymers and Plastics Hydrocarbons Polymers 9.Nitrogen and its Compounds Plastics Ammonia Applications Nitrogen Cycle Rubber 10. Acids, Bases and Salts Liquefied Petroleum Gas Acids Petrochemicals Bases 18. Biotechnology Salts 11. Petroleum and Gas Introduction Uses of Various Fractions Applications of Biotechnology Other Fractions Fermentation Biotechnology 78 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

SCIENCE & TECH. OVER THE YEARS (No. of Questions)

2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016 2017

SOURCES OF STUDY

BOOKS 6. NCERT 11th class Chemistry Text book. 1. NCERT TEXT BOOKS OF SCIENCE – 6th, 7th, (Part-2) 8th, 9th & 10th. a. Unit 14 – Environment Chemistry 2. NCERT 11th class Biology Text book. 7. NCERT 12th class Chemistry text book. 3. NCERT 12th class Biology Text book. Read (Part-2) the chapters in this order to make a. Unit 14 – Bio Molecules it an interesting reading b. Unit 15 – Polymers a. Unit V – Human Physiology c. Unit 16 – Chemistry in everyday life. b. Unit I –Classification of living organisms 8. Science Reporter Magazine c. Unit III – Cellular Biology 9. “Science & Tech” in ‘The Hindu’ (Sunday) d. Unit IV – Plant Physiology e. Unit II – Structural Organization WEBSITES 4. NCERT 11th class Physics Text books (Vol- 8 www.unacademy.com ume 1&2). Need not entirely be prepared. – S & T section Make a choosy reading. The following chapters generally suffice. 8 www.khanacademy.org a. Chapter 1 – Physical World – Science videos b. Chapter 2 – Units & Measurements 8 www.goo.gl/VN9KtY c. Chapter 15 – Waves (Not the entire – NCERT Books Download chapter but things like Doppler effect etc.) APPS 5. NCERT 12th class Physics Text book. (Part 2) 1. CIVILS DAILY a. Chapter 9 – Ray optics & Optical 2. NCERT – NIOS BOOKS instruments ––––––––––– ««« ––––––––––– 79 CHAPTER civilz byte 23 Prelims Instructions

DO NOT OPEN THE BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 200

I N S T R U C T I O N S

1. Immediately after commencement of the examination, you should check that test booklet does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items, etc. If so, get it replaced by a complete test booklet.

2. Please note that it is the candidate's responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test Booklet series A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the An- swer Sheet liable for rejection.

3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. Do not write anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (Questions) [80 in case of CSAT]. Each item is printed both in Hindi and English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose only one response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses only on the separate Answer Sheet provided.

6. All items carry equal marks.

7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per the instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.

80 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.

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10. Penalty for wrong answers :

There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by a candidate in the objective type question papers.

a. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.

b. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happen to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.

c. If a question id Left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THE BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

81 CHAPTER civilz byte 24 Treasure Trove: General Studies GENERAL STUDIES - 1 2013

1. What will follow if a Money Bill is substan- a legislative setup, the Chief Minister tially amended by the Rajya Sabha? is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the (a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with basis of majority support the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha 3. Which one of the following pairs is correctly (b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill matched? further Geographical Feature Region (c) The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the (a) Abyssinian Plateau : Arabia Rajya Sabha for reconsideration (b) Atlas Mountains : North-Western (d) The President may call a joint sitting Africa for passing the Bill (c) Guiana Highlands : South-Western Africa 2. Which one of the following statements is (d) Okavango Basin : Patagonia correct? (a) In India, the same person cannot be 4. With reference to the history of Indian rock- appointed as Governor for two or more cut architecture, consider the following States at the same time statements (b) The Judges of the High Court of the 1. The caves at Badami are the oldest sur- States in India are appointed by the viving rock-cut caves in India. Governor of the State just as the Judges 2. The Barabar rock-cut caves were origi- of the Supreme Court are appointed by nally made for Ajivikas by Emperor the President Chandragupta Maurya. (c) No procedure has been laid down in the 3. At Ellora, caves were made for differ- Constitution of India for the removal ent faiths. of a Governor from his/her post Which of the statements given above is/ (d) In the case of a Union Territory having are correct? 82 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

5. Recombinant DNA technology (Genetic En- 8. Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking water in some gineering) allows genes to be transferred parts of India? 1. across different species of plants 1. Arsenic 2. Sorbitol 2. from animals to plants 3. Fluoride 4. Formaldehyde 3. from microorganisms to higher organ- 5. Uranium isms Select the correct answer using the codes Select the correct answer using the codes given below. given below. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2, 4 and 5 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 3 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 9. With reference to Indian History, the Mem- 6. The Chinese traveller Yuan Chwang (Hiuen bers of the Constituent Assembly from the Tsang) who visited India recorded the gen- Provinces were eral conditions and culture of India at that (a) directly elected by the people of those time. In this context, which of the follow- Provinces ing statements is/are correct? (b) nominated by the Indian National Con- 1. The roads and river-routes were com- gress and the Muslim League pletely immune from robbery. (c) elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies 2. As regards punishment for offences, or- deals by fire, water and poison were the (d) selected by the Government for their expertise in constitutional matters instruments for determining the inno- cence or guilt of a person. 10. Consider the following animals : 3. The tradesmen had to pay duties at fer- 1. Sea cow 2. Sea horse ries and barrier stations. 3. Sea lion Select the correct answer using the codes Which of the above is/are mammal/mam- given below. mals? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

7. Consider the following : 11. Consider the following statements : 1. Star tortoise 2. Monitor lizard 1. An amendment to the Constitution of 3. Pygmy hog 4. Spider monkey India can be initiated by an introduc- Which of the above found in India? tion of a bill in the Lok Sabha only. 83 civilz byte

2. If such an amendment seeks to make 14. Variations in the length of daytime and changes in the federal character of the nighttime from season to season are due Constitution, the amendment also re- to quires to be ratified by the legislature (a) the earth’s rotation on its axis of all the States of India. (b) the earth’s revolution round the sun in Which of the statements given above is/ an elliptical manner are correct? (c) latitudinal position of the place (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (d) revolution of the earth on a tilted axis (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 15. The Narmada river flows to the west, while 12. Consider the following statements : most other large peninsular rivers flow to the east. Why? Attorney General of India can 1. It occupies a linear rift valley. 1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok 2. It flows between the Vindhyas and the Sabha Satpuras. 2. be a member of a committee of the Lok 3. The land slopes to the west from Cen- Sabha tral India. 3. speak in the Lok Sabha Select the correct answer using the codes 4. vote in the Lok Sabha given below. Which of the statements given above is/ (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 are correct? (c) 1 and 3 (d) None (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only 16. On the planet earth, most of the freshwater exists as ice caps and glaciers. Out of 13. With reference to the usefulness of the by- the remaining freshwater, the largest pro- products of sugar industry, which of the portion following statements is / are correct? (a) is found in atmosphere as moisture and 1. Bagasse can be used as biomass fuel for clouds the generation of energy. (b) is found in freshwater lakes and rivers 2. Molasses can be used as one of the feed- (c) exists as groundwater stocks for the production of synthetic (d) exists as soil moisture chemical fertilizers. 3. Molasses can be used for the production 17. Consider the following pairs : of ethanol. 1. Nokrek Bio-sphere Reserve : Garo Hills Select the correct answer using the codes 2. Logtak (Loktak) Lake : Barail Range given below. 3. Namdapha National Park : Dafla Hills (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only Which of the above pairs is/are correctly (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 matched? 84 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) the uprooting of Zamindari system and (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None the end of serfdom (d) writing off all peasant debts 18. Consider the following : 1. Electromagnetic radiation 21. The Parliament can make any law for whole 2. Geothermal energy or any part of India for implementing in- 3. Gravitational force ternational treaties 4. Plate movements (a) with the consent of all the States 5. Rotation of the earth (b) with the consent of the majority of States 6. Revolution of the earth (c) with the consent of the States con- Which of the above are responsible for cerned bringing dynamic changes on the surface (d) without the consent of any State of the earth? (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only 22. In the grasslands, trees do not replace the (b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only grasses as a part of an ecological succes- (c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only sion because of (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6. (a) insects and fungi (b) limited sunlight and paucity of nutri- 19. Which of the following bodies does not/do ents not find mention in the Constitution? (c) water limits and fire 1. National Development Council (d) None of the above 2. Planning Commission 3. Zonal Councils 23. Which one of the following is the correct Select the correct answer using the codes sequence of ecosystems in the order of given below. decreasing productivity? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (a) Oceans, lakes, grasslands, mangroves (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes (c) Mangroves, grasslands, lakes, oceans 20. The demand for the Tebhaga Peasant Move- (d) Oceans, mangroves, lakes, grasslands ment in Bengal was for (a) the reduction of the share of the land- 24. Contour bunding is a method of soil con- lords from one-half of the crop to one- servation used in third (a) desert margins, liable to strong wind (b) the grant of ownership of land to peas- action ants as they were the actual cultiva- (b) low flat plains, close to stream courses, tors of the land liable to flooding 85 civilz byte

(c) scrublands, liable to spread of weed (a) the Preamble and Fundamental Rights growth (b) the Preamble and the Directive Prin- (d) None of the above ciples of State Policy (c) the Fundamental Rights and the Direc- 25. The Government enacted the Panchayat tive Principles of State Policy Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in (d) None of the above 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective? 29. Due to improper / indiscriminate disposal (a) To provide self-governance of old and used computers or their parts, (b) To recognize traditional rights which of the following are re- (c) To create autonomous regions in tribal leased into the environment as e-waste? areas 1. Beryllium 2. Cadmium (d) To free tribal people from exploitation 3. Chromium 4. Heptachlor 5. Mercury 6. Lead 26. Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Tra- 7. Plutonium ditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Select the correct answer using the codes Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the given below. authority to initiate the process for deter- (a) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only mining the nature and extent of individual (b) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only or community forest rights or both? (c) 2, 4, 5 and 7 only (a) State Forest Department (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 (b) District Collector/Deputy Commissioner (c) Tahsildar /Block Development Officer / 30. Acid rain is caused by the pollution of en- Mandal Revenue Officer vironment by (d) Gram Sabha (a) carbon dioxide and nitrogen (b) carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide 27. Improper handling and storage of cereal (c) ozone and carbon dioxide grains and oilseeds result in the production of toxins known as aflatoxins which (d) nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide are not generally destroyed by normal cooking process. Aflatoxins are produced by 31. With reference to food chains in ecosys- (a) bacteria (b) protozoa tems, consider the following statements : (c) moulds (d) viruses 1. A food chain illustrates the order in which a chain of organisms feed upon each other. 28. ‘Economic Justice’ as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been pro- 2. Food chains are found within the popu- vided in lations of a species. 86 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

3. A food chain illustrates the numbers of 35. In which of the following States is lion-tailed each organism which are eaten by macaque found in its natural habitat? others. 1. Tamil Nadu 2. Kerala Which of the statements given above is / 3. Karnataka 4. Andhra Pradesh are correct? Select the correct answer using the codes (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only given below. (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 32. Consider the following pairs : National Park River flowing 36. Some Buddhist rock-cut caves are called through the Park Chaityas, while the others are called 1. Corbett National Park : Ganga Viharas. What is the difference between 2. Kaziranga National Park : Manas the two? 3. Silent Valley National Park : Kaveri (a) Vihara is a place of worship, while Which of the above pairs is/are correctly Chaitya is the dwelling place of the matched? monks (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only (b) Chaitya is a place of worship, while (c) 1 and 3 (d) None Vihara is the dwelling place of the monks 33. Consider the following organisms (c) Chaitya is the stupa at the far end of 1. Agaricus 2. Nostoc the cave, while Vihara is the hall axial 3. Spirogyra to it Which of the above is / are used as (d) There is no material difference between biofertilizer / biofertilizers the two (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only 37. Which one of the following describes best the concept of Nirvana in Buddhism? 34. Which of the following adds / add nitrogen (a) The extinction of the flame of desire to the soil? (b) The complete annihilation of self 1. Excretion of urea by animals (c) A state of bliss and rest 2. Burning of coal by man (d) A mental stage beyond all comprehen- 3. Death of vegetation sion Select the correct answer using the codes 38. According to the Constitution of India, given below. which of the following are fundamental for (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only the governance of the country? (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

87 civilz byte

(a) Fundamental Rights 42. The Reserve Bank of India regulates the com- (b) Fundamental Duties mercial banks in matters of (c) Directive Principles of State Policy 1. liquidity of assets (d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental 2. branch expansion Duties 3. merger of banks 4. winding-up of banks Select the correct answer using the codes 39. The people of India agitated against the given below. arrival of Simon Commission because (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (a) Indians never wanted the review of the (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 working of the Act of 1919 (b) Simon Commission recommended the 43. An increase in the Bank Rate generally in- abolition of Dyarchy (Diarchy) in the dicates that the Provinces (a) market rate of interest is likely to fall (c) there was no Indian member in the (b) Central Bank is no longer making loans Simon Commission to commercial banks (d) the Simon Commission suggested the (c) Central Bank is following an easy money partition of the country policy (d) Central Bank is following a tight money 40. Quit India Movement was launched in re- policy sponse to (a) Cabinet Mission Plan 44. In India, deficit financing is used for rais- (b) Cripps Proposals ing resources for (c) Simon Commission Report (a) economic development (d) Wavell Plan (b) redemption of public debt (c) adjusting the balance of payments (d) reducing the foreign debt 41. The balance of payments of a country is a systematic record of 45. Which of the following characterizes/ char- (a) all import and transactions of a coun- acterize the people of Indus Civilization? try during a given period normally a 1. They possessed great palaces and year temples. (b) goods exported from a country during a 2. They worshipped both male and female year deities. (c) economic transaction between the gov- 3. They employed horse-drawn chariots in ernment of one country to another warfare. (d) capital movements from one country Select the correct statement/ statements to another using the codes given below. 88 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (a) NO2, O3 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the (c) 1, 2 and 3 presence of sunlight

(d) None of the statements given above is (b) CO, O2 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the correct presence of sunlight

46. Which of the following diseases can be (d) High concentration of NO2, O3 and CO transmitted from one person to another in the evening through tattooing? 1. Chikungunya 2. Hepatitis B 50. Consider the following minerals 3. HIV-AIDS 1. Calcium 2. Iron Select the correct answer using the codes 3. Sodium given below. Which of the minerals given above is/are (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only required by human body for the contrac- (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 tion of muscles? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only 47. Which of the following statements is/are (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 applicable to Jain doctrine? 1. The surest way of annihilating Karma is 51. Consider the following statements: to practice penance. The Parliamentary Committee on Public 2. Every object, even the smallest particle Accounts has a soul. 1. consists of not more than 25 Members 3. Karma is the bane of the soul and must of the Lok Sabha be ended. 2. scrutinizes appropriation finance ac- Select the correct answer using the codes counts of Government given below. 3. Examines the report of the Comptroller (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only and Auditor General of India (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the statements given above is / are correct? 48. Which one of the following terms describes (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only not only the physical space occupied by an (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 organism, but also its functional role in the community of organisms? 52. Consider the following Bhakti Saints: (a) Ecotone (b) Ecological niche 1. Dadu Dayal 2. Guru Nanak (c) Habitat (d) Home range 3. Tyagaraja Who among the above was/were preach- 49. Photochemical smog is a resultant of the ing when the Lodi dynasty fell and Babur reaction among took over? 89 civilz byte

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 only 56. Which of the following constitute Capital (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 Account? 1. Foreign Loans 53. With reference to the food chains in eco- 2. Foreign Direct Investment systems, which of the following kinds of 3. Private Remittances organism is / are known as decomposer 4. Portfolio Investment organism/organisms? Select the correct answer using the codes 1. Virus 2. Fungi 3. Bacteria given below. Select the correct answer using the codes (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 given below. (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4 (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 57. Consider the following historical places: 1. Ajanta Caves 2. Lepakshi Temple 54. The most important fishing grounds of the 3. Sanchi Stupa world are found in the regions where Which of the above places is / are also (a) warm and cold atmospheric currents known for mural paintings? meet (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (b) rivers drain out large amounts of fresh (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None water into the sea

(c) warm and cold oceanic currents meet 58. With reference to the history of philosophi- (d) continental shelf is undulating cal thought in India, consider the following statements regarding Sankhya school : 55. Which of the following is/are unique char- 1. Sankhya does not accept the theory of acteristic/characteristics of equatorial for- rebirth or transmigration of soul. ests? 2. Sankhya holds that it is the self-knowl- 1. Presence of tall, closely set trees with edge that leads to liberation and not crowns forming a continuous canopy any exterior influence or agent. 2. Coexistence of a large number of spe- Which of the statements given above is / cies are correct? 3. Presence of numerous varieties of epi- (a) 1 only (b) 2 only phytes (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Select the correct answer using the code given below: 59. In the context of India, which of the fol- (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only lowing principles is/are implied institution- (c) 1 and 3 only (d)1, 2 and 3 ally in the parliamentary government? 90 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of 62. Which of the following statements regard- the Parliament. ing laterite soils of India are correct? 2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy 1 . They are generally red in colour. confidence in the Parliament. 2. They are rich in nitrogen and potash. 3. Cabinet is headed by the Head of the 3. They are well-developed in Rajasthan State. and UP. Select the correct answer using the codes 4. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these soils. given below. Select the correct answer using the codes (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only given below. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 3 only 60. The annual range of temperature in the interior of the continents is high as com- 63. Consider the following statements: pared to coastal areas. What is / are the 1. Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana reason / reasons? beds. 1. Thermal difference between land and 2. Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma. water 3. Dharwars are famous for petroleum. 2. Variation in altitude between continents Which of the statements given above is/ and oceans are correct? 3. Presence of strong winds in the interior (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only 4. Heavy rains in the interior as compared (c) 2 and 3 (d) None to coasts Select the correct answer using the codes 64. Consider the following crops given below. 1.Cotton 2. Groundnut (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only 3. Rice 4.Wheat (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Which of these are Kharif crops? (a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4 61. Which of the following is / are the characteristic/ characteristics of Indian coal? 65. “Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty and 1. High ash content the people used to be nomadic herders.” 2. Low sulphur content The above statement best describes which 3. Low ash fusion temperature of the following regions? Select the correct answer using the codes (a) African Savannah given below. (b) Central Asian Steppe (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) North American Prairie (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Siberian Tundra 91 civilz byte

66. Consider the following statements : 3. The Constitution of India prescribes that 1. Inflation benefits the debtors. Panchayats should be assigned the task 2. Inflation benefits the bond-holders. of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice. Which of the statements given above is/ Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3

67. Disguised unemployment generally means 70. Consider the following statements: (a) large number of people remain unem- 1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chair- ployed man of the Rajya Sabha are not the (b) alternative employment is not available members of that House. (c) marginal productivity of labour is zero 2. While the nominated members of the (d) productivity of workers is low two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, 68. Consider the following statements: they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President. 1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre Which of the statements given above is/ shall be collectively responsible to the are correct? Parliament. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only 2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 during the pleasure of the President of India. 71. With reference to National Legal Services 3. The Prime Minister shall communicate Authority, consider the following state- to the President about the proposals for ments : legislation. 1. Its objective is to provide free and com- Which of the Statements given above is/ petent legal services to the weaker sec- are correct? tions of the society on the basis of equal (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only opportunity. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3 2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the 69. Consider the following statements: legal programmes and schemes 1. National Development Council is an or- throughout the country. gan of the Planning Commission. Which of the statements given above is / 2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept are correct? in the Concurrent List in the Constitu- (a) 1 only (b) 2 only tion of India. (C) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 92 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

72. During a thunderstorm, the thunder in the (a) borrowing by scheduled banks from the skies is produced by the RBI 1. meeting of cumulonimbus clouds in the (b) lending by commercial banks to indus- sky try and trade 2. lightning that separates the nimbus (c) purchase and sale of government secu- clouds rities by the RBI 3. violent upward movement of air and (d) None of the above water particles Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 76. Priority Sector Lending by banks in India constitutes the lending to (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 (C) 1 and 3 (a) agriculture (d) None of the above produces the thunder (b) micro and small enterprises (c) weaker sections 73. Consider the following pairs : (d) All of the above Tribe State 1. Limboo (Limbu) : Sikkim 77. Which one among the following industries 2. Karbi : Himachal Pradesh is the maximum consumer of water in In- 3. Dongaria : Odisha dia? 4. Bonda : Tamil Nadu (a) Engineering (b) Paper and pulp Which of the above pairs are correctly (e) Textiles (d) Thermal power matched? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only 78. To obtain full benefits of demographic divi- (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 dend, what should India do? (a) Promoting skill development 74. Consider the following liquid assets: (b) Introducing more social security 1. Demand deposits with the banks schemes 2. Time deposits with the banks (c) Reducing infant mortality rate 3. Savings deposits with the banks (d) Privatization of higher education 4. Currency The correct sequence of these decreasing order of Liquidity is 79. In the context of cultural history of India, (a) 1-4-3-2 (b) 4-3-2-1 a pose in dance and dramatics called (c) 2-3-1-4 (d) 4-1-3-2 ‘Tribhanga’ has been a favourite of Indian artists from ancient times till today. Which 75. In the context of Indian economy, ‘Open one of the following statements best de- Market Operations’ refers to scribes this pose? 93 civilz byte

(a) One leg is bent and the body is slightly 1. an increase in the money supply but oppositely curved at waist and neck 2. a decrease in the aggregate level of out- (b) Facial expressions, hand gestures and put make-up are combined to symbolize 3. an increase in the effective demand certain epic or historic characters Select the correct answer using the codes (c) Movements of body, face and hands are given below. used to express oneself or to tell a story (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (d) A little smile, slightly curved waist and (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 certain hand gestures are emphasized 83. Which one of the following groups of items to express the feelings of love or eroti- is included in India’s foreign-exchange re- cism serves? (a) Foreign-currency assets, Special Draw- 80. Annie Besant was ing Rights (SDRs) and loans from for- 1. responsible for starting the Home Rule eign countries Movement (b) Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings 2. the founder of the Theosophical Society of the RBI and SDRs 3. once the President of the Indian National (c) Foreign-currency assets, loans from the Congress World Bank and SDRs Select the correct statement/statements (d) Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings using the codes given below. of the RBI and loans from the World (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only Bank (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 84. Which one of the following is likely to be 81. The Ilbert Bill controversy was related to the most inflationary in its effect? the (a) Repayment of public debt (a) imposition of certain restrictions to (b) Borrowing from the public to finance a carry arms by the Indians budget deficit (b) imposition of restrictions on newspa- (c) Borrowing from banks to finance a bud- pers and magazines published in Indian get deficit languages (d) Creating new money to finance a bud- (c) removal of disqualifications imposed on get deficit the Indian magistrates with regard to the trial of the Europeans 85. Supply of money remaining the same when (d) removal of a duty on imported cotton there is an increase in demand for money, cloth there will be 82. A rise in general level of prices may be (a) a fall in the level of prices caused by (b) an increase in the rate of interest 94 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

(c) a decrease in the rate of interest Which of the above are optical illusions? (d) an increase in the level of income and (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3, 4 and 5 employment (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 5

86. Fruits stored in a cold chamber exhibit 90. Rainbow is produced when sunlight falls on longer storage life because drops of rain. (a) exposure to sunlight is prevented Which of the following physical phenom- (b) concentration of carbon dioxide in the ena are responsible for this? environment is increased 1. Dispersion 2. Refraction (c) rate of respiration is decreased 3. Internal reflection (d) there is an increase in humidity Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 87. Consider the following fauna of India: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only 1. Gharial (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 2. Leatherback turtle 3. Swamp deer 91. Many transplanted seedlings do not grow Which of the above is/are endangered? because (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (a) the new soil does not contain favourable (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None minerals (b) most of the root hairs grip the new soil 88. Ball bearings are used in bicycles, cars, too hard etc., because (c) most of the root hairs are lost during (a) the actual area of contact between the transplantation wheel and axle is increased (d) leaves get damaged during transplan- (b) the effective area of contact between tation the wheel and axle is increases (c) the effective area of contact between 92. Economic growth in country X will neces- the wheel and axle is reduced sarily have to occur if (d) None of the above statements is cor- (a) there is technical progress in the world rect economy (b) there is population growth in X 89. Consider the following phenomena: (c) there is capital formation in X 1. Size of the sun at dusk (d) the volume of trade grows in the world 2. Colour of the sun at dawn economy 3. Moon being visible at dawn 4. Twinkle of stars in the sky 93. Which of the following statements is / are 5. Polestar being visible in the sky correct? 95 civilz byte

1. Viruses lack enzymes necessary for the 96. The efforts to detect the existence of Higgs generation of energy. boson particle have become frequent news 2. Viruses can be cultured in any synthetic in the recent past. What is /are the impor- medium. tance/importances of discovering this particle? 3. Viruses are transmitted from one organ- 1. It will enable us to understand as to why ism to another by biological vectors elementary particles have mass. only. 2. It will enable us in the near future to Select the correct answer using the codes develop the technology to transferring given below. matter from one point to another with- (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only out traversing the physical space be- (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 tween them. 3. It will enable us to create better fuels 94. Which of the following leaf modifications for nuclear fission. occurs/occur in desert areas to inhibit wa- Select the correct answer using the codes ter loss? given below: 1. Hard and waxy leaves (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 2. Tiny leaves or no leaves 3. Thorns instead of leaves 97. Mycorrhizal biotechnology has been used Select the correct answer using the codes in rehabilitating degraded sites because given below. mycorrhiza enables the plants to (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only 1. resist drought and increase absorptive (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 area 2. tolerate extremes of pH 95. The known forces of nature can be divided 3. Resist disease infestation into four classes, viz, gravity electromag- Select the correct answer using the codes netism, weak nuclear force and strong given below: nuclear force. with reference to them, (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only which one of the following statements is (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 not correct? (a) Gravity is the strongest of the four 98. Who among the following constitute the (b) Electromagnetism act only on particles National Development Council? with an electric charge 1. The Prime Minister (c) Weak nuclear force causes radioactivity 2. The Chairman, Finance Commission (d) Strong nuclear force holds protons and 3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet neutrons inside the nuclear of an atom. 4. Chief Ministers of the States 96 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

Select the correct answer using the codes produced given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only 100. Which of the following grants/ grant di- (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 rect credit assistance to rural households ? 1. Regional Rural Banks 99. The national income of a country for a given 2. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural period is equal to the Development (a) total value of goods and services pro- 3. Land Development Banks duced by the nationals Select the correct answer using the codes (b) sum of total consumption and invest- given below: ment expenditure (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) sum of personal income of all individu- (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 als (d) money value of final goods and services

1. A 11. D 21. D 31. A 41. A 51. B 61. A 71. C 81. C 91. C 2. C 12. C 22. C 32. D 42. D 52. B 62. C 72. D 82. D 92. C 3. B 13. C 23. C 33. B 43. D 53. B 63. B 73. A 83. B 93. A 4. C 14. D 24. D 34. C 44. A 54. C 64. C 74. D 84. D 94. D KEY 5. D 15. A 25. C 35. A 45. B 55. D 65. B 75. C 85. B 95. A 6. B 16. C 26. D 36. B 46. B 56. B 66. A 76. D 86. C 96. A 7. A 17. A 27. C 37. A 47. D 57. B 67. C 77. D 87. C 97. D 8. C 18. D 28. B 38. C 48. B 58. B 68. B 78. A 88. C 98. B ANSWER 9. C 19. D 29. B 39. C 49. A 59. A 69. B 79. A 89. C 99. D 10. B 20. A 30. D 40. B 50. D 60. A 70. B 80. C 90. D 100. C

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97 civilz byte GENERAL STUDIES - 1 2014

1. What are the significances of a practical therein should not be destroyed approach to sugarcane production known (d) It is given the status of “World Heri- as ‘Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative’ ? tage Site “ 1. Seed cost is very low in this compared to the conventional method of cultiva- 3. Which one of the following pairs of islands tion. is separated from each other by the “Ten 2. Drip irrigation can be practiced very ef- Degree Channel”? fectively in this. (a) Andaman and Nicobar 3. There is no application of chemical/ in- (b) Nicobar and Sumatra organic fertilizers at all in this. (c) Maldives and Lakshadweep 4. The scope for intercropping is more in this compared to the conventional (d) Sumatra and Java method of cultivation. Select the correct answer using the code 4. Consider the following pairs given below. Programme/Project Ministry (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only 1. Drought-Prone Ministry of (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Area Programme Agriculture 2. Desert Development Ministry of 2. If a wetland of international importance is Programme Environment and brought under the ‘Montreux Record’, what Forests does it imply? (a) Changes in ecological character have 3. National Watershed Ministry of Rural occurred, are occurring or are likely to Development Project Development occur in the wetland as a result of hu- for Rainfed Areas man interference Which of the above pairs is/are correctly (b) The country in which the wet land is matched? located should enact a law to prohibit (a)1 and 2 only (b)3 only any human activity within five kilometers from the edge of the wet land (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d)None (c) The survival of the wetland depends on the cultural practices and traditions of 5. With reference to Bombay Natural History certain communities living in its vicin- Society (BNHS), consider the following ity and therefore the cultural diversity statements 98 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

1. It is an autonomous organization under is further used in electricity generation the Ministry of Environment and For- process. est. 2. Photovoltaics generates Alternating 2. It strives to conserve nature through Current (AC), while Solar Thermal gen- action-based research, education and erates Direct Current (DC). public awareness. 3. India has manufacturing base for Solar 3. It organizes and conducts nature trails Thermal technology, but not for Photo- and camps for the general public. voltaics. Which of the statements given above is/ Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? are correct? (a)1 and 3 only (b)2 only (a)1 only (b)2 and 3 only (c)2 and 3 only (d)1, 2 and 3 (c)1, 2 and 3 (d)None

6. With reference to ‘Global Environment Fa- cility’, which of the following statements 8. Consider the following languages: is/are correct? 1. Gujarati 2. Kannada (a) It serves as financial mechanism for 3. Telugu ‘Convention on Biological Diversity’ and Which of the above has / have been de- ‘United Nations Framework Convention clared as “Classical language / languages” on Climate Change’ by the government? (b) It undertakes scientific research on en- (a)1 and 2 only (b)3 only vironmental issues at global level (c)2 and 3 only (d)1, 2 and 3 (c) It is an agency under OECD to facilitate the transfer of technology and 9. Consider the following pairs : funds to underdeveloped countries with specific aim to protect their environ- 1. Dampa Tiger Reserve : Mizoram ment 2. Gumti Wild Life Sanctuary : Sikkim (d) Both (a) and (b) 3. Saramati Peak : Nagaland Which of the above pairs is/are correctly 7. With reference to technologies for solar matched? power production, consider the following (a)1 only (b)2 and 3 only statements (c)1 and 3 only (d)1, 2 and 3 1. ‘Photovoltaics’ is a technology that generates electricity by direct conversion 10. With reference to a conservation organi- of light into electricity, while ‘Solar zation called ‘Wetlands International’, Thermal’ is a technology that utilizes which of the following statements is/are the Sun’s rays to generate heat which correct? 99 civilz byte

1. It is an intergovernmental organization Select the correct answer using the code formed by the countries which are sig- given below. natories to Ramsar Convention. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only 2. It works at the field level to develop (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 and mobilize knowledge, and use the practical experience to advocate for 14. Other than poaching, what are the possible better policies. reasons for the decline in the population Select the correct answer using the code of Ganges River Dolphins? given below. 1. Construction of dams and barrages on (a) 1 only (b) 2 only rivers (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Increase in the population of crocodiles in rivers 11. With reference to a grouping of countries 3. Getting trapped in fishing nets acciden- known as BRICS, consider the following tally statements: 4. Use of synthetic fertilizers and other 1. The First Summit of BRICS was held in agricultural chemicals in crop- fields in Rio de Janeiro in 2009. the vicinity of rivers 2. South Africa was the last to join the Select the correct answer using the code BRICS grouping. given below. Which of the statements given above is/ (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only are correct? (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only 15. The Radcliffe Committee was appointed to (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Solve the problem of minorities in India 12. Consider the following diseases : (b) Give effect to the Independence Bill 1. Diphtheria 2. Chickenpox (c) Delimit the boundaries between India and Pakistan 3. Smallpox (d) Enquire into the riots in East Bengal Which of the above diseases has/have been eradicated in India? 16. Brominated flame retardants are used in many household products like mattresses (a)1 and 2 only (b) 3 only and upholstery. Why is there some concern (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None about their use? 1. They are highly resistant to degrada- 13. Which of the following phenomena might tion in the environment. have influenced the evolution of organisms? 2. They are able to accumulate in humans 1. Continental drift 2. Glacial cycles and animals. 100 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

Select the correct answer using the code the cattle to seize the insects disturbed by given below. their movement through grasses. Which of (a) 1 only (b) 2 only the following is/ are such bird/birds? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Painted Stork 2. Common Myna 3. Black-necked Crane 17. Consider the following : Select the correct answer using the code 1. Bats 2. Bears 3. Rodents given below. The phenomenon of hibernation can be (a)1 and 2 (b) 2 only observed in which of the above kinds of (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only animals (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only 21. In medieval India, the designations (c) 1, 2 and 3 ‘Mahattara’ and ‘Pattakila’ were used for (d) Hibernation cannot be observed in any (a) military offices of the above (b) village headmen (c) specialists in vedic rituals 18. Which of the following is the largest Com- mittee of the Parliament? (d) chief of craft guilds (a) The Committee on Public Accounts 22. Lichens, which are capable of initiating (b) The Committee on Estimates ecological succession even on a bare rock, (c) The Committee on Public Undertakings are actually a symbiotic association of (d) The Committee on Petitions (a) algae and bacteria

19. Which of the following adds/add carbon (b) algae and fungi dioxide to the carbon cycle on the planet (c) bacteria and fungi Earth? (d) fungi and mosses 1. Volcanic action 2. Respiration 3. Photosynthesis 23. If you travel through the Himalayas, you 4. Decay of organic matter are likely to see which of the following Select the correct answer using the code plants naturally growing there? given below. 1. Oak 2. Rhododendron (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only 3. Sandalwood (c)1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Select the correct answer using the code given below. 20. If you walk through countryside, you are (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only likely to see some birds stalking alongside (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 101 civilz byte

(b) tax imposed by the Central Government 24. Which of the following are some important but collected by the State Government pollutants released by steel industry in (c) tax imposed by the State Government India? but collected by the Central Govern- 1. Oxides of sulphur ment 2. Oxides of nitrogen (d) tax imposed and collected by the State Government 3. Carbon monoxide 4. Carbon dioxide 28. What does venture capital mean? Select the correct answer using the code (a) A short-term capital provided to indus- given below. tries (a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only (b) A long-term start-up capital provided (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 to new entrepreneurs (c) Funds provided to industries at times 25. Which of the following Kingdoms were as- of incurring losses sociated with the life of the Buddha? (d) Funds provided for replacement and 1. Avanti 2.Gandhara renovation of industries 3. Kosala 4. Magadha Select the correct answer using the code 29. The main objective of the 12th five year given below. plan is (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 (a) Inclusive growth and poverty reduction (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 (b) Inclusive and sustainable growth (c) Sustainable and inclusive growth to re- 26. Every year, a monthlong ecologically im- duce unemployment portant campaign/festival is held during (d) Faster, sustainable and more inclusive which certain communities/tribes plant growth saplings of fruit-bearing trees. Which of the following are such communities/tribes? 30. With reference to balance of payments, (a) Bhutia and Lepcha which of the following constitutes/consti- (b) Gond and Korku tute the Current Accounts? (c) Irula and Toda 1. Balance of trade (d) Sahariya and Agariya 2. Foreign assets 3. Balance of invisibles 27. The sales tax you pay while purchasing a 4. Special Drawing Rights toothpaste is a Select the correct answer using the code (a) tax imposed by the Central Government given below. 102 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 3. To prevent the commercial banks from (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4 making excessive profits 4. To force the banks to have sufficient 31. The terms ‘Marginal Standing Facility Rate’ vault cash to meet their day-to-day re- and ‘Net Demand and Time Liabilities’, quirements sometimes appearing in news, are used in Select the correct answer using the code relation to given below. (a) banking operations (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (b) communications networking (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) military strategies 34. Recently, a series of uprisings of people (d) supply and demand of agricultural prod- referred to as ‘Arab Spring’ originally ucts started from (a) Egypt (b) Lebanon 32. What is/are the facility/ facilities the ben- (c) Syria (d) Tunisia eficiaries can get from the services of Busi- ness Correspondent (Bank Saathi) in branch- 35. Consider the following countries : less areas? 1. Denmark 2.Japan 1. It enables the beneficiaries to draw their subsidies and social security ben- 3. Russian Federation efits in their villages. 4. United Kingdom 2. It enables the beneficiaries in the ru- 5. United States of America ral areas to make deposits and with- Which of the above are the members of drawals. the ‘Arctic Council’? Select the correct answer using the code (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 given below . (c) 1, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 3 and 5 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 36. Consider the following pairs : Region often Country 33. In the context of Indian economy, which of in news the following is/are the purpose/purposes 1. Chechnya : Russian Federation of ‘Statutory Reserve Requirements’? 2. Darfur : Mali 1. To enable the Central Bank to control 3. Swat Valley : Iraq the amount of advances the banks can Which of the above pairs is/are correctly create matched? 2. To make the people’s deposits with (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only banks safe and liquid (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 103 civilz byte

37. With reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only the following statements is/are correct? (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 1. It is a surface-to-surface missile. 2. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only. 40. In India, cluster bean (Guar) is traditionally used as a vegetable or animal feed, 3. It can deliver one-tonne nuclear war- but recently the cultivation of this has as- heads about 7500 km away. sumed significance. Which one of the fol- 4. Select the correct answer using the lowing statements is correct in this con- code given below. text? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (a) The oil extended from seeds is used in (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 the manufacture of biodegradable plastics 38. With reference to two non-conventional (b) The gum made from its seeds is used in energy sources called ‘coalbed methane’ the extraction of shale gas and ‘shale gas’, consider the following (c) The leaf extract of this plant has the statements : properties of anti-histamines 1. Coalbed methane is the pure methane (d) It is a source of high quality biodiesel gas extracted from fine-grained sedimentary rocks. 41. Which of the following have coral reefs? 2. In India, abundant coalbed methane 1. Andaman and Nicobar islands sources exist, but so far no shale gas 2. Gulf of Kachchh sources have been found. 3. Gulf of Mannar 4. Sunderbans Which of the given above is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 39. With reference to ‘Changpa’ community of India, consider the following statements : 42. In India, the problem of soil erosion is associated with which of the following? 1. They live mainly in the state of Uttarakhand. 1. Terrace cultivation 2. They rear the Pashmina goats that yield 2. Deforestation a fine wool. 3. Tropical climate 3. They are kept in the category of Sched- Select the correct answer using the code uled Tribes. given below. Which of the statements given above is/ (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only are correct? (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 104 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

43. The seasonal reversal of winds is the typi- 47. Which one of the following pairs does not cal characteristic of form of the six systems of Indian Philosophy? (a) Equatorial climate (a) Mimamsa and Vedanta (b) Mediterranean climate (b) Nyaya and Vaisheshika (c) Monsoon climate (c) Lokayata and Kapalika (d) All of the above climates (d) Sankhya and Yoga

44. With reference to the cultural history of 48. Consider the following pairs : India, the term ‘Panchayatan’ refers to Hills Region (a) an assembly of village elders 1. Cardamom Hills : Coromandel coast (b) a religious sect 2. Kaimur Hills : Konkan Coast (c) a style of temple construction 3. Mahadeo Hills : Central India 4. Mikir hills : North-East India (d) an administrative functionary Which of the above pairs are correctly matched? 45. Consider the following pairs : (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 1. Barak 2. Lohit 3. Subansiri (c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4 Which of the above flows/flow through Arunachal Pradesh? 49. Which one of the following Schedules of (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only the Constitution of India contains provisions (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 regarding anti-defection? (a) Second Schedule (b) Fifth Schedule 46. Consider the following pairs : (c) Eighth Schedule (d) Tenth Schedule

Wetlands Confluence of rivers 50. The most important strategy for the con- 1. Harike wetlands Confluence of Beas and servation of biodiversity together with tra- Sutlej/Sutlej ditional human life is the establishment of 2. Keoladeo Ghana Confluence of Banas (a) biosphere reserves National Park and Chambal (b) botanical gardens 3. Kolleru Lake Confluence of Musi and (c) national parks Krishna (d) wild life sanctuaries Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? 51. Turkey is located between (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (a) Black sea and Caspian sea (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Black sea and Mediterranean sea 105 civilz byte

52. What is the correct sequence of occurrence 55. In the constitution of India, promotion of of the following cities in South-East Asia as international peace and security is included one proceeds from south to north? in the 1. Bangkok 2. Hanoi (a) Preamble to the constitution 3. Jakarta 4. Singapore (b) Directive Principles of State Policy Select the correct answer using the code (c) Fundamental Duties given below. (d) Ninth Schedule (a) 4-2-1-3 (b) 3-2-4-1 (c) 3-4-1-2 (d) 4-3-2-1 56. What are the benefits of implementing the ‘Integrated Watershed Development 53. The scientific view is that the increase in Programme’? global temperature should not exceed 20C 1. Prevention of soil runoff above pre-industrial level. If the global 2. Linking the country’s perennial rivers temperature increases beyond 30C above with seasonal rivers the pre- industrial level, what can be its 3. Rainwater harvesting and recharge of possible impact/impacts on the world? groundwater table 1. Terrestrial biosphere tends toward a net 4. Regeneration of natural vegetation carbon source. Select the correct answer using the code 2. Wide spread coral mortality will occur. given below. 3. All the global wetlands will perma- (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only nently disappear. (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 4. Cultivation of cereals will not be possible anywhere in the world. 57. Which of the following are associated with Select the correct answer using the code ‘Planning’ in India given below. 1. The Financial Commission (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only 2. The National Development Council (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 3. The Union Ministry of Rural Develop- ment 54. The national motto of India, ‘Satyameva 4. The Union Ministry of Urban Develop- Jayate’ inscribed below the Emblem of In- ment dia is taken from 5. The Parliament (a) Katha Upanishad Select the correct answer using the code (b) Chandogya Upanishad given below. 106 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

(a) 1, 2 and 5 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only 3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of (c) 2 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 the President of India

58. Which of the following is/are the function/ 4. Making the rules to conduct the busi- functions of the Cabinet Secretariat? ness of the State Government 1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Select the correct answer using the code Meetings given below. 2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Com- (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only mittees (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries 61. If the interest rate is decreased in an Select the correct answer using the code economy, it will given below. (a) decrease the consumption expenditure (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only in the economy (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) increase the tax collection of the Gov- ernment 59. Consider the following statements : (c) increase the Investment expenditure in A Constitutional Government is which the economy 1. places effective restrictions on indi- (d) increase the total savings in the vidual liberty in the interest of State economy Authority 2. places effective restrictions on the Au- 62. Consider the following statements : thority of the State in the interest of 1. The President shall make rules for the individual liberty more convenient transaction of the Which of the statements given above is/ business of the Government of India, are correct? and for the allocation among Ministers (a) 1 only (b) 2 only of the said business. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be exposed to be taken in 60. Which of the following are the discretion- the name of the Prime Minister ary powers given to the Governor of a State? Which of the following statements given 1. Sending a report to the President of In- above is/are correct ? dia for imposing the President’s rule (a) 1 only (b) 2 only 2. Appointing the Ministers (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 107 civilz byte

63. Consider the following statements regard- 66. In addition to fingerprint scanning, which ing a Non-Confidence Motion in India : of the following can be used in the bio- 1. There is no mention of a Non-Confidence metric Identification of a person? Motion in the Constitution of India. 1. Iris scanning 2. Retinal scanning 2. A Motion of Non-Confidence can be in- 3. Voice recognition troduced in the Lok Sabha only. Select the correct answer using the code Which of the statements given above is/ given below. are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 67. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding vegetative propagation 64. With reference to Neem tree, consider the of plants? following statements : 1. Vegetative propagation produces clonal 1. Neem oil can be used as a pesticide to population. control the proliferation of some species of insects and mites. 2. Vegetative propagation helps in eliminating the virus. 2. Neem seeds are used in the manufac- 3. Vegetative propagation can be prac- ture of biofuels and hospital detergents ticed most of the year. 3. Neem oil has applications in pharmaceu- Select the correct answer using the code tical industry. given below. Which of the statements given above is/ (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only are correct? (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 and 2only (b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 68. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? 65. Which one of the following is the process Spacecraft Purpose involved in photosynthesis? 1. Cassini-Huygens : Orbiting the Venus and (a) Potential energy is released to form free transmitting data to the energy Earth (b) Free energy is converted into Potential 2. Messenger : Mapping and investigat- energy and stored ing the Mercury (c) Food is oxidized to release carbon di- 3. Voyager 1 and 2 : Exploring the outer so- oxide and water lar system (d) Oxygen is taken, and carbon dioxide and Select the correct answer the code given water vapour are given out below. 108 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only Which of the above is/are used to create (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 transgenic crops (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 69. Consider the following pairs : (c) 1 and 3 (d) None Region Well-known for the production of 73. Consider the following statements : 1. Kinnaur : Areca nut 1. Maize can be used for the production 2. Mewat : Mango of starch 3. Coromandel : Soya bean 2. Oil extracted from maize can be a feed- Which of the above pairs is/are correctly stock for biodiesel matched? 3. Alcoholic beverages can be produced (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only by using maize (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None Which of the statements is/are correct?

70. Which of the following is/are the example/ (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only examples of chemical change? (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Crystallization of sodium chloride 2. Melting of ice 3. Souring of milk 74. Among the following organisms, which one Select the correct answer using the code does not belong to the class of other three? given below. (a) Crab (b) Mite (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) Scorpion (d) Spider (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None 75. The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in 71. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and (a) the President of India the State falls under its (b) the Parliament (a) advisory jurisdiction (c) the Chief Justice of India (b) appellate jurisdiction (d) the Law Commission (c) original jurisdiction 76. Consider the following towns of India : (d) writ jurisdiction 1. Bhadrachalam 2. Chanderi 3. Kancheepuram 4. Karnal 72. Consider the following techniques/ phenomena : Which of the above are famous for production of traditional sarees/fabric? 1. Budding and grafting in fruit plants (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only 2. Cytoplasmic male sterility 3. Gene silencing (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4 109 civilz byte

77. Consider the following pairs : 80. Which one following is the correct sequence of a food chain? National : Cities connected Highway (a) Diatoms-Crustaceans-Herrings (b) Crustaceans-Diatoms-Herrings 1. NH 4 : Chennai and Hyderabad (c) Diatoms-Herrings-Crustaceans 2. NH 6 : Mumbai and Kolkata (d) Crustaceans-Herrings-Diatoms 3. NH 15 : Ahmedabad and Jodhpur Which of the above pairs is/are correctly 81. The Partition of Bengal made by Lord matched? Curzon in 1905 lasted until (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (a) the First World War when Indian troops (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None were needed by the British and the 78. Consider the following international agree- partition was ended ments : (b) King George V abrogated Curzon’s Act 1. The International Treaty on Plant Ge- at the Royal Durbar in Delhi in 1911 netic Resources for Food and Agricul- (c) Gandhiji launched his Civil Disobedi- ture ence Movement 2. The United Nations Convention to Com- (d) the Partition of India in 1947 when East bat Desertification Bengal became East Pakistan 3. The World Heritage Convention 82. The 1929 session of Indian National Con- Which of the above has/have a bearing on gress is of significance in the history of the the biodiversity? freedom movement because the (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (a) attainment of Self-Government was (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 declared as the objective of the congress 79. Consider the following statements regard- (b) attainment of Poorna Swaraj was ing “Earth Hour” adopted as the goal of the Congress 1. It is an initiative of UNEP and UNESCO. (c) Non-Cooperation Movement was 2. It is a movement in which the partici- launched pants switch off the light for one hour (d) decision to participate in the Round on certain day every year. Table Conference London was taken 3. It is a movement to raise the awareness about the climate change and the 83. With reference to the famous Sattriya need to save the planet. dance, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/ 1. Sattriya is a combination of music, are correct? drama and dance. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only 2. It is a centuries-old living tradition of (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Vaishnavites of Assam. 110 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

3. It is based on classical Ragas and Talas Which of the pairs given above is/are cor- of devotional songs composed by rectly matched? Tulsidas, Kabir and (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only Mirabai. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? 86. The Ghadr (Ghadar) was a (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (a) revolutionary association of Indians (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 with headquarters at San Francisco (b) nationalist organization operating from 84. Chaitra 1 of the national calendar based Singapore on the Saka Era corresponds to which one (c) militant organization with headquarters of the following dates of the Gregorian cal- at Berlin endar in a normal year of 365 days? (d) communist movement for India’s free- (a) 22nd March (or 21st March) dom with headquarters at Tashkent (b) 15th May (or 16th May) (c) 31st March (or 30th March) 87. With reference to India’s culture and tra- (d) 21st April (or 20th April) dition, what is ‘kalaripayattu’? (a) It is an ancient Bhakti cult of Shaivism 85. With reference to the Indian history of art still prevalent in some parts of South culture, consider the following pairs : India Famous work of sculpture Site (b) It is an ancient style bronze and brasswork still found in southern part 1. A grand image of Buddha’s : Ajanta of Coromandel area Mahaparinirvana with nu- (c) It is an ancient form of dance-drama merous celestial musi- and a living tradition in the northern cians above and the sor- part of Malabar rowful figures of his followers below (d) It is an ancient marital art and a living tradition in some parts of South India 2. A huge image of Varaha : Mount Abu Avatar (boar incarnation) 88. Consider the following pairs : of Vishnu, as he rescues 1. Garba : Gujarat Goddess Earth from the deep and chaotic waters, 2. Mohiniattam : Odisha sculpted on rock 3. Yakshagana : Karnataka 3. “Arjuna’s Penance”/”De- : Mamallapuram Which of the pairs given above is/are cor- cent of Ganga” sculpted rectly matched? on the surface of huge (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only boulders (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 111 civilz byte

89. With reference to Buddhist history, tradi- 3. To regulate East India Company’s trade tion and culture in India, consider the fol- with India lowing pairs Select the correct answer using the code Famous shrine Location given below. 1. Tabo monastery and (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only temple complex : Spiti Valley (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 2. Lhotsava Lhakhang temple, Nako : Zanskar Valley 3. Alchi temple complex : Ladakh 93. Ibadat khana at Fatehpur Sikri was Which of the pairs given above is/are cor- (a) the mosque for the use of Royal Family rectly matched? (b) Akbar’s private prayer chamber (a) 1 only (b)2 and 3 only (c) The hall in which Akbar held discussions (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 with scholars of various religions (d) the room in which the nobles belong- 90. Consider the following statements : ing to different religions gathered to 1. Bijak is a composition of the teachings discuss religious affairs of Saint Dadu Dayal. 2. The philosophy of Pushti Marg was pro- 94. In the context of food and nutritional se- pounded by Madhvacharya . curity of India, enhancing the ‘Seed Re- Which of the statements given above is/ placement Rates’ of various crops helps in are correct? achieving the food production targets of (a) 1 only (b) 2 only the future. But what is/are the constraint/ constraints in its wider/greater implemen- (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 tation?

91. A community of people called Manganiyars 1. There is no National Seeds Policy in is well-known for their place. (a) martial arts in North-East India 2. There is no participation of private sec- (b) musical tradition in North-West India tor seed companies in the supply of quality seeds of vegetables and plant- (c) classical vocal music in South India ing materials of horticultural crops. (d) pietra dura tradition in Central India 3. There is a demand-supply gap regarding quality seeds in case of low value 92. What was/were the object/objects of and high volume crops. Queen Victoria’s proclamation (1858)? Select the correct answer using the code 1. To disclaim any intention to annex In- given below. dian States (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only 2. To place the Indian administration under the British Crown (c) 2 and 3 (d) None 112 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

95. With reference to ‘Eco-Sensitive Zones’, 98. There is some concern regarding the which of the following statements is/are nanoparticles of some chemical elements correct? that are used by the industry in the manu- 1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas that facturing of various products. Why? are declared under the Wildlife (pro- 1. They can accumulate in the environ- tection) act, 1972. ment, and contaminate water and soil. 2. The purpose of the declaration of Eco- 2. They can enter the food chains. Sensitive Zones is to prohibit all kinds of human activities in those zones ex- 3. They can trigger the production of free cept agriculture. radicals. Select the correct answer using the code Select the correct answer using the code given below. given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

96. Consider the following statements : 99. Which of the following organizations brings 1. Animal Welfare Board of India is estab- out the publication known as ‘World Eco- lished under the Environment (Protec- nomic Outlook? tion) Act, 1986. (a) The International Monetary Fund 2. National Tiger Conservation Authority (b) The United Nations Development is a statutory body. Programme 3. National Ganga River Basin Authority is (c) The World Economic Forum charred by the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/ (d) The World Bank are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only 100.With reference to Union Budget, which of (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 the following is/are covered under Non- Plan Expenditure? 97. Consider the following pairs: 1. Defence expenditure Vitamin Deficiency disease 2. Interest payments 1. Vitamin C : Scurvy 3. Salaries and pensions 2. Vitamin D : Rickets 4. Subsidies 3. Vitamin E : Night blindness Select the correct answer using the code Which of the pairs given above is/are cor- given below. rectly matched? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) None 113 civilz byte

1. B 11. B 21. B 31. A 41. A 51. B 61. C 71. C 81. B 91. B 2. A 12. B 22. B 32. C 42. B 52. C 62. A 72. B 82. B 92. A 3. A 13. C 23. A 33. A 43. C 53. B 63. C 73. D 83. B 93. C 4. D 14. C 24. D 34. D 44. C 54. D 64. C 74. A 84. A 94. B KEY 5. C 15. C 25. C 35. D 45. B 55. B 65. B 75. B 85. C 95. D 6. A 16. C 26. B 36. A 46. A 56. C 66. D 76. B 86. A 96. B 7. A 17. C 27. D 37. A 47. C 57. C 67. C 77. D 87. D 97. A 8. C 18. B 28. B 38. D 48. C 58. C 68. B 78. D 88. C 98. D ANSWER 9. C 19. C 29. D 39. B 49. D 59. B 69. D 79. C 89. C 99. A 10. B 20. B 30. C 40. B 50. A 60. B 70. B 80. A 90. D 100. C

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1. ‘Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana’ has been Select the correct answer using the code launched for given below. (a) providing housing loan to poor people (a) 1 only (b) 2 only at cheaper interest rates (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) promoting women’s Self-Help Groups in backward areas 3. The ‘Fortaleza Declaration’, recently in the (c) promoting financial inclusion in the news, is related to the affairs of country (a) ASEAN (b) BRICS (c) OECD (d) WTO (d) providing financial help to the marginalized communities 4. A decrease in tax to GDP ratio of a country indicates which of the following? 2. With reference to the Fourteenth Finance 1. Slowing economic growth rate Commission, which of the following state- 2. Less equitable distribution of national ments is/are correct? income 1. It has increased the share of States in Select the correct answer using the code the central divisible pool from 32 per- given below. cent to 42 percent. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only 2. It has made recommendations concerning sector-specific grants. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 114 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

5. In the South Atlantic and South- Eastern 9. Which of the following National Parks is Pacific regions in tropical latitudes, cyclone unique in being a swamp with floating veg- does not originate. What is the reason? etation that supports a rich biodiversity? (a) Sea surface temperatures are low (a) Bhitarkanika National Park (b) Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone sel- (b) Keibul Lamjao National Park dom occurs (c) Keoladeo Ghana National Park (c) Coriolis force is too weak (d) Sultanpur National Park (d) Absence of land in those regions 10. Which of the following statements is/are 6. Which one of the following pairs of States correct regarding National Innovation Foun- of India indicates the easternmost and dation-India (NIF)? westernmost State? 1. NIF is an autonomous body of the De- (a) Assam and Rajasthan partment of the Department of Science and Technology under the Central Gov- (b) Arunachal Pradesh and Rajasthan ernment. (c) Assam and Gujarat 2. NIF is an initiative to strengthen the (d) Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat highly advanced scientific research in India’s premier scientific institutions in 7. Consider the following statements regard- collaboration with highly advanced for- ing the Directive Principles of State Policy: eign scientific institutions. 1. The Principles spell out the socio-eco- Select the correct answer using the code nomic democracy in the country. given below. 2. The provisions contained in these Prin- (a) 1 only (b) 2 only ciples are not enforceable by any court. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? 11. What can be the impact of excessive/in- (a) 1 only (b)2 only appropriate use of nitrogenous fertilizers in agriculture? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 8. In the ‘Index of Eight Core Industries’, 1. Proliferation of nitrogen-fixing micro- which one of the following is given the high- organisms in soil can occur. est weight? 2. Increase in the acidity of soil can take (a) Coal production place. 3. Leaching of nitrate to the ground wa- (b) Electricity generation ter can occur. (c) Fertilizer production Select the correct answer using the code (d) Steel production given below. 115 civilz byte

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) Difference in salinity of water (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Occurrence of the belt of calm near the equator 12. With reference to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural 15. Consider the following pairs: Resources (IUCN) and the Convention on Place of Pilgrimage Location International trade in Endangered Species 1. Srisailam : Nallamala Hills of Wild Fauna and flora (CITES), which of 2. Omkareshwar : Satmala Hills the following statements is/are correct? 3. Pushkar : Mahadeo Hills 1. IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and CITES is an international agreement Which of the above pairs is/are correctly between governments. matched? 2. IUCN runs thousands of field projects (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only around the world to better manage (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 natural environments. 3. CITES is legally binding on the States 16. With reference to Rowlatt Satyagraha, that have joined it, but this Conven- which of the following statements is/are tion does not take the place of national correct? laws. 1. The Rowlatt Act was based on the rec- Select the correct answer using the code ommendations of the ‘Sedition Com- given below. mittee’. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only 2. In Rowlatt Satyagraha, Gandhiji tried (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 to utilize the Home Rule League. 3. Demonstrations against the arrival of 13. The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of Simon Commission coincided with sugarcane is approved by the Rowlatt Satyagraha. (a) Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs Select the correct answer using the code given below. (b) Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Directorate of Marketing and Inspec- tion, Ministry of Agriculture 17. Among the following, which were fre- (d) Agricultural Produce Market Committee quently mentioned in the news for the out- break of Ebola virus recently? 14. What explains the eastward flow of the (a) Syria and Jordan equatorial counter-current? (b) Guinea, Sierra Leone and Liberia (a) The Earth’s rotation on its axis (c) Philippines and Papua New Guinea (b) Convergence of the two equatorial currents (d) Jamaica, Haiti and Surinam 116 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

18. With reference to ‘fly ash, produced by the Select the correct answer using the code power plants using coal as fuel, which of given below. the following statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only 1. Fly ash can be used in the production (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2and 3 of bricks for building construction. 2. Fly ash can be used as a replacement 21. Which one of the following issues the ‘Glo- for some of the Portland cement con- bal Economic Prospects’ report periodi- tents of concrete. cally? 3. Fly ash is made up of silicon dioxide (a) The Asian Development Bank and calcium oxide only, and does not (b) The European Bank for Reconstruction contain any toxic and Development elements. (c) The US Federal Reserve Bank Select the correct answer using code given (d) The World Bank below. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only 22. When the Reserve Bank of India reduces the (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only Statutory Liquidity Ratio by 50 basis points, which of the following is likely to happen? 19. With reference to ‘dugong’, a mammal (a) India’s GDP growth rate increases dras- found in India, which of the following state- tically ments is/ are correct? (b) Foreign Institutional Investors may 1. It is a herbivorous marine animal. bring more capital into our country 2. It is found along the entire coast of (c) Scheduled Commercial Banks may cut India. their lending rates 3. It is given legal protection under Sched- (d) It may drastically reduce the liquidity to the banking system ule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Select the correct answer using the code 23. With reference to the use of nano-technology in health sector, which of the follow- given below. ing statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only 1. Targeted drug delivery is made possible (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only by nanotechnology 2. Nanotechnology can largely contribute 20. Who of the following was/were economic to gene therapy. critic/critics of colonialism in India? Select the correct answer using the code 1. Dadabhai Naoroji given below. 2. G. Subramania Iyer (a) 1 only (b) 2 only 3. R. C. Dutt (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 117 civilz byte

24. In India, markets in agricultural products 3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the An- are regulated under the nual Financial Statement. (a) Essential Commodities Act, 1955 Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (b) Agricultural Produce Market Committee Act enacted by States (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) Agricultural Produce (Grading and Mark- (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 ing) Act, 1937 (d) Food Products Order, 1956 and Meat and 28. The Government of India Act of 1919 clearly Food Products Order, 1973 defined (a) The separation of power between the 25. Which one of the following is the national judiciary and the legislature aquatic animal of India? (b) The jurisdiction of the central and pro- (a) Saltwater crocodile vincial governments (b) Olive ridley turtle (c) The powers of the Secretary of State for India and the Viceroy (c) Gangetic dolphin (d) None of the above (d) Gharial

29. Which of the following brings out the ‘Con- 26. With reference to Congress Socialist Party, sumer price Index Number for Industrial consider the following statements : Workers’? 1. It advocated the boycott of British (a) The Reserve Bank of India goods and evasion of taxes. (b) The Department of Economic Affairs 2. It wanted to establish the dictatorship (c) The Labor Bureau of proletariat. (d) The Department of Personnel and 3. It advocated separate electorate for Training minorities and oppressed classes. 30. In the context of modern scientific re- Which of the statements given above is/ search, consider the following statements are correct? about ‘Ice Cube’, a particle detector lo- (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only cated at South Pole, which was recently in (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None the news: 1. It is the world’s largest neutrino detec- 27. Consider the following statements: tor, encompassing a cubic kilometer of 1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either ice. to reject or to amend a Money Bill. 2. It is a powerful telescope to search for 2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the De- dark matter. mands for Grants. 3. It is buried deep in the ice. 118 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

Which of the statements given above is/ (a) Central Asia (b) Middle East are correct? (c) South-East Asia (d) Central Africa (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 34. Convertibility of rupee implies (a) Being able to convert rupee notes into 31. The terms ‘Agreement on Agriculture’, gold ‘Agreement on the Application of Sanitary (b) Allowing the value of rupee to be fixed and Phytosanitary Measures’ and ‘Peace by market forces Clause’ appear in the news frequently in (c) Freely permitting the conversion of ru- the context of the affairs of the pee to other currencies and vice versa (a) Food and Agriculture Organization (d) Developing an international market for (b) United Nations Framework Conference currencies in India. on Climate Change (c) World Trade Organization 35. Consider the following pairs: (d) United Nations Environment Progra- Medieval Indian Present Region mme 1. Champaka : Central India 2. Durgara : Jammu 32. With reference to ‘Near Field Communica- 3. Kuluta : Malabar tion (NFC) Technology’, which of the fol- Which of the above pairs is/are correctly lowing statements is/are correct? matched? 1. It is a contactless communication tech- (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only nology that uses electromagnetic radio (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only fields. 2. NFC is designed for use by devices 36. Consider the following rivers which can be at a distance of even a 1. Vamsadhara 2. Indravati metre from each other. 3. Pranahita 4. Pennar 3. NFC can use encryption when sending Which of the above are tributaries of sensitive information. Godavari? Select the correct answer using the code (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 given below. (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 37. When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament, it has 33. The area known as ‘Golan Heights’ some- to be passed by times appears in the news in the context (a) A simple majority of members present of the events related to and voting 119 civilz byte

(b) Three-fourths majority of members 3. Establishment of Timurid dynasty in the present and voting region (c) Two-thirds majority of the Houses Select the correct answer using the code (d) Absolute majority of the Houses given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only 38. Which one of the following regions of India (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 has a combination of mangrove forest, evergreen forest and deciduous forest? 42. The Government of India has established (a) North Coastal Andhra Pradesh NITI Aayog to replace the (b) South West Bengal (a) Human Rights Commission (c) Southern Saurashtra (b) Finance Commission (d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands (c) Law Commission (d) Planning Commission 39. Which of the following kingdoms were associated with the life of the Buddha? 43. What is Rio-20 Conference, often men- 1. Avanti 2.Gandhara tioned in the news? 3. Kosala 4. Magadha (a) It is the United Nations Conference on Select the correct answer using the code Sustainable Development given below. (b) It is a Ministerial Meeting of the World (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only Trade Organisation (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 only (c) It is a Conference of the Inter-governmental Panel on Climate Change 40. Which one of the following is associated with the issue of control and phasing out (d) It is a Conference of the Member Coun- of the use of ozone-depleting substances? tries of the Convention on Biological Di- (a) Bretton Woods Conference versity (b) Montreal Protocol 44. Consider the following statements: (c) Kyoto Protocol 1. The Executive Power of the Union of (d) Nagoya Protocol India is vested in the Prime Minister.

41. Consider the following: 2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio The arrival of Babur into India led to the Chairman of the Civil Services Board. 1. Introduction of gunpowder in the sub- Which of the statements given above is/ continent are correct? 2. Introduction of the arch and dome in (a) 1 only (b) 2 only the region’s architecture (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 120 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

45. The term “Goldilocks Zone’ is often seen (a) 1 only (b) 2 only in the news in the context of (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) The limits of habitable zone above the surface of the Earth 49. Which of the following statements regard- (b) Regions inside the Earth where shale ing ‘Green Climate Fund’ is/are correct? gas is available 1. It is intended to assist the developing (c) Search for the Earth-like planets in countries in adaptation and mitigation outer space practices to counter climate change (d) Search for meteorites containing pre- 2. It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, cious metals QECD, Asian Development Bank and World Bank. 46. Who of the following organized a march on Select the correct answer using code given the Tanjore coast to break the Salt Law in below. April 1930? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) V. O. Chidambaram Pillai (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) C. Rajagopalachari (c) K. Kamaraj 50. Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament (d) Annie Besant and development for 2014 was given to which one of the following? 47. Who of the following founded a new city (a) Bhabha Atomic Research Centre on the south bank of a tributary to river Krishna and undertook to rule his new king- (b) Indian Institute of Science dom as the agent of a deity to whom all (c) Indian Space Research Organisation the land south of the river Krishna was sup- (d) Tate Institute of Fundamental Research. posed to belong?

(a) Amoghavarsha I (b) Ballala II 51. With reference to the Cabinet Mission, (c) Harihara I (d) Prataparudra II which of the following statements is/are correct? 48. Consider the following statements: 1. It recommended a federal government. 1. The first woman President of the In- 2. It enlarged the powers of the Indian dian National Congress was Sarojini courts. Naidu. 3. It provided for more Indians in the ICS. 2. The first Muslim President of the Indian Select the correct answer using the code National Congress was Badruddin Tyabji. given below. Which of the statements given above is/ (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 are correct? (c) 1and 3 (d) None 121 civilz byte

52. Which one of the following national parks Select the correct answer using the code has a climate that varies from tropical to given below. subtropical, temperate and arctic? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3only (a) Khangchendzonga National Park (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2and 3 (b) Nandadevi National Park (c) Neora Valley National Park 56. ‘BioCarbon Fund Initiative for sustainable Forest Landscapes’ is managed by the (d) Namdapha National Park (a) Asian Development Bank 53. Amnesty international is (b) International Monetary Fund (a) an agency of the united nations to help (c) United Nations Environment Progra- refugees of civil war mme (b) a global human rights movement (d) World Bank (c) a non-governmental voluntary organization to help very poor people 57. India is a member of which among the following? (d) an inter-governmental agency to cater to medical emergencies in war-ravaged 1. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation regions 2. Association of South-East Asian Nations 3. East Asia Summit 54. With reference to the art and archaeologi- Select the correct answer using the code cal history of India, which one among the given below. following was made earliest? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (a) Lingaraja temple at Bhubaneswar (c) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Rock-cut Elephant at Dhauli (d) India is a member of none of them (c) Rock-cut Monuments at Mahabalipuram (d) Varaha image at Udayagiri 58. In India, the steel production industry requires the import of 55. With reference to Indian history, which of (a) saltpetre (b) rock phosphate the following is/are the essential element/ (c) coking coal (d) All of the above elements of the feudal system? 1. A very strong centralized political au- 59. The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth thority and a very weak provincial or Schedule in the Constitution of India are local political authority made in order to 2. Emergence of administrative structure (a) Protect the interests of Scheduled based on control and possession of land Tribes 3. Creation of lord-vassal relationship be- (b) Determine the boundaries between tween the feudal lord and his overlord States 122 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

(c) Determine the powers, authority and Programme was launched in 1974-75 for responsibilities of Panchayats the development of water- (d) Protect the interests of all the border use efficiency. states Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? 60. With reference to the Union Government, (a) 1 only (b) 2 only consider the following statements: (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Bud- 63. The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Commit- get that is tee is constituted under the presented to the Parliament. (a) Food Safety And Standards Act, 2006 2. No amount can be withdrawn from the (b) Geographical Indications of Goods (Reg- Consolidated Fund of India without the istration And Protection) Act, 1999 authorization from the Parliament of (c) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 India. (d) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 3. All the disbursements, made from Pub- lic Account also need the authorization 64. In the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation, an ini- from the Parliament of India tiative of six countries, which of the fol- Which of the statements given above is/ lowing is/are not a participant/partici- are correct? pants? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only 1. Bangladesh 2. Cambodia (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3. 3. China 4. Myanmar 5. Thailand 61. Who/which of the following is the custo- Select the correct answer using the code dian of the constitution of India? given below. (a) The president of India (a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 (b) The prime minister of India (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2and 5 (c) The Lok Sabha secretariat (d) The Supreme Court of India 65. ‘Base III Accord’ or ‘Basel III’ often seen in the news, seeks to 62. Consider the following statements : (a) develop national strategies for the con- 1. The Accelerated Irrigation Benefits servation and sustainable use of bio- Programme was launched during 1996- logical diversity 97 to provide loan as- (b) improve banking sector’s ability to deal sistance to poor farmers. with financial and economic stress and 2. The Command Area Development improve risk management 123 civilz byte

(c) reduce the green house gas emissions (a) Swadeshi Movement but places a heavier burden on devel- (b) Quit India Movement oped countries (c) Non-Cooperation Movement (d) transfer technology from developed (d) Civil Disobedience Movement countries to enable them to replace the use of chlorofluorocarbons in refrigera- 69. In a particular region in India, the local tor with harmless chemicals people train the roots of living trees into robust bridges across the streams. As the 66. Consider the following statements : time passes these bridges become stron- 1. The winds which blow between 30O N ger. These unique living root bridges are and 60O S latitudes throughout the year found in are known as westerlies. (a) Meghalaya (b) Himachal Pradesh 2. The moist air masses that cause winter (c) Jharkhand (d) Tamil Nadu rains in North – Western region of India are part of westerlies. 70. Tides occur in the oceans and seas due to Which of the statements given is /are cor- which among the following? rect ? 1. Gravitational force of the Sun (a) 1 only (b) 2 only 2. Gravitational force of the Moon (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. Centrifugal force of the Earth 67. With reference to the ‘Indian Ocean Rim Select the correct answer using the code Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR- given below ARC), consider the following statements : (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only 1. It was established very recently in re- (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 sponse to incidents of piracy and accidents of oil spills. 71. In which of the following activities are In- 2. It is an alliance meant for maritime dian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellites used? security only. 1. Assessment of crop productivity Which of the statements given above is/ 2. Locating groundwater resources are correct? 3. Mineral exploration (a) 1 only (b) 2 only 4. Telecommunications (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 5. Traffic studies Select the correct answer using the code 68. Which one of the following movements has given below contributed to a split in the Indian National Congress resulting in the emergence of (a) 1, 2and 3 only (b) 4 and 5 only ‘moderates’ and ‘extremists’? (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 124 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

72. Consider the following states: Select the correct answer using the code 1. Arunachal Pradesh given below 2. Himachal Pradesh (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only 3. Mizoram (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2and 3 In which of the above states do “Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests” occur? 75. Which one of the following was given classical language status recently? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (a) Odia (b) Konkani (c) 1 and 3only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Bhojpuri (d) Assamese

73. The term ‘IndARC’, sometimes seen in the 76. With reference to an organization known news, is the name of as ‘BirdLife International’, which of the (a) an indigenously developed radar system following statements is/are correct? inducted into Indian Defence 1. It is a global partnership of conserva- (b) India’s satellite to provide services to tion organizations. the countries of Indian Ocean Rim 2. The concept of ‘biodiversity hotspots’ (c) a scientific establishment set up by originated from this organization. India in Antarctic region 3. It identifies the sites known/referred (d) India’s underwater observatory to to as ‘Important bird and Biodiversity scientifically study the Arctic region Areas’. Select the correct answer using the code 74. With reference to ‘Forest Carbon Partner- given below. ship Facility’, which of the following State- (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only ments is/ are correct? (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 1. It is a global partnership of governments, business, civil society and in- 77. Which one of the following countries of digenous peoples. South-West Asia does not open out to the 2. It provides financial aid to universities, Mediterranean Sea? individual scientists and institutions in- (a) Syria (b) Jordan volved in scientific forestry research to (c) Lebanon (d) Israel develop eco-friendly and climate adaption technologies for sustainable 78. In India, in which one of the following types forest management. of forests is teak a dominant tree species? 3. It assists the countries in their ‘REDD+ (a) Tropical moist deciduous forest (Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation+)’ efforts by (b) Tropical rain forest providing them with financial and tech- (c) Tropical thorn scrub forest nical assistance. (d) Temperate forest with grasslands 125 civilz byte

79. ‘Beijing Declaration and Platform for Ac- (a) 1 only (b) 2 only tion’, often seen in the news, is (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) a strategy to tackle the regional terrorism, an outcome of a meeting of the 82. Consider the following statements : Shanghai Cooperation Organization 1. The Legislative Council of a State in In- (b) a plan of action for sustainable eco- dia can be larger in size than half of nomic growth in the Asia-Pacific Region, the Legislative Assembly of that par- an outcome of the deliberations of the ticular State. Asia-Pacific Economic Forum 2. The Governor of a State nominates the (c) an agenda for women’s empowerment, Chairman of Legislative Council of that an outcome of a World Conference con- particular State. Which of the state- vened by the United Nations ments given above is/are correct? (d) a strategy to combat wildlife traffick- (a) 1 only (b) 2 only ing, a declaration of the East Asia Sum- (c) Both (d) Neither 1 nor 2 mit 83. “To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, 80. “Each day is more or less the same, the Unity and Integrity of India” is a provision morning is clear and bright with a sea made in the Breeze; as the sun climbs high in the sky, (a) Preamble of the Constitution heat mounts up, dark clouds form, then rain (b) Directive Principles of State Policy comes with thunder and lightning. But rain (c) Fundamental Rights is soon over.” (d) Fundamental Duties Which of the following regions is described in the above passage? 84. Which one of the following is the best de- (a) Savannah (b) Equatorial scription of the term ‘ecosystem’? (c) Monsoon (d) Mediterranean (a) A community of organisms integrating with one another 81. With reference to Indian economy, consider (b) That part of the earth which is inhab- the following statements: ited by living organisms 1. The rate of growth of Real Gross Do- (c) A community of organisms together mestic product has steadily increased with the environment in which they live in last decade. (d) The flora and fauna of a geographical 2. The Gross Domestic Product at market area prices (in rupees) has steadily increased in the last decade. 85. The fundamental object of Panchayati Raj Which of the statements given above is/ system is to ensure which among the fol- are correct? lowing? 126 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

1. People’s participation in development Which among the above are Nuclear Weap- 2. Political accountability ons States as recognized by the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons, 3. Democratic decentralization commonly known as Nuclear Non-Prolifera- 4. Financial mobilization tion Treaty (NPT)? Select the correct answer using the code (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only given below (c) 2, 4, and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 89. The ideal of ‘Welfare State’ in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its 86. With reference to Indian economy, consider (a) Preamble the following : (b) Directive Principles of State Policy 1. Bank rate (c) Fundamental Rights 2. Open market operations (d) Seventh Schedule 3. Public debt 4. Public revenue Which of the above is/are component/com- 90. The substation of steel for wooden ploughs ponents of Monetary Policy? in agricultural production is an example of (a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 (a) labour-augmenting technological (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 3 and 4 progress (b) Capital - augmenting technological 87. With reference to inflation in India, which progress of the statements is correct? (c) Capital-reducing technological progress (a) Controlling the inflation in India is the (d) None of the above responsibility of the Government of In- dia only 91. There is a Parliamentary System of Gov- (b) The Reserve Bank of India has no role ernment in India because the in controlling the inflation (a) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the (c) Decreased money circulation helps in people controlling the inflation (b) Parliament can amend the Constitution (d) Increased money circulation helps in (c) Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved controlling inflation (d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha 88. Consider the following countries: 1. China 2. France 92. H1N1 virus is sometimes mentioned in the 3. India 4. Israel news with reference to which one of the 5. Pakistan following diseases? 127 civilz byte

(a) AIDS (b) Bird flu (c) Den- Which of the statements given above is/ gue(d) Swine flu are correct? 93. With reference to bio-toilets used by the (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only Indian Railways, consider the following (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 statements: 1. The decomposition of human waste in 96. Kalamkari painting refers to the bio-toilets is initiated by a fungal (a) a hand-painted cotton textile in South inoculum. India 2. Ammonia and water vapour are the only (b) A Handmade drawing on bamboo handi- end products in this decomposition crafts in North-East India which are released into the atmo- (c) A block-painted woolen cloth in West- sphere. ern Himalayan region of India Which of the statements given below is/ are correct? (d) A hand- painted decorative silk cloth in North-Western India (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 97. Which one of the following best describes the main objective of ‘Seed Village 94. The problem of international liquidity is Concept’? related to the non-availability of (a) Encouraging the farmers to use their (a) goods and services own seeds and discouraging them to buy (b) gold and silver the seeds from others (c) dollars and other hard currencies (b) Involving the farmers for training in (d) exportable surplus quality seed production and thereby to make available quality seeds to others 95. With reference to ‘fuel cells’ in which hy- at appropriate time and affordable cost drogen-rich fuel and oxygen are used to (c) Earmarking some villages exclusively generate electricity, consider the follow- from the production of certified seeds ing statements : (d) Identifying the entrepreneurs in villages 1. If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the and providing them technology and fi- fuel cell emits heat and water as by- nance to set up seed companies products. 98. There has been a persistent deficit budget 2. Fuel cells can be used for powering year after year. Which of the following ac- buildings and not for small devices like tions can be taken by the government to laptop computers. reduce the deficit? 3. Fuel cells produce electricity in the 1. Reducing revenue expenditure form of Alternating Current (AC) 2. Introducing new welfare schemes

128 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

3. Rationalizing substances (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only 4. Expanding industries (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Select the correct answer using the code given below. 100.With reference to the Indian Renewable (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only Energy Development Agency Limited (IREDA), which of the following statements (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 is/are correct?

99. Which of the following has/have been ac- 1. It is a Public Limited Government Com- corded ‘Geographical Indication’ status? pany. 1. Banaras Brocades and Sarees 2. It is a Non-Banking Financial Company. Select the correct answer using the code 2. Rajasthani Daai Bati-Churma given below. 3. Tirupathi Laddu (a) 1 only (b) 2 only Select the correct answer using the code given below. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

1. C 11. C 21. D 31. C 41. B 51. A 61. D 71. A 81. B 91. D 2. A 12. B 22. C 32. C 42. D 52. D 62. B 72. C 82. D 92. D 3. B 13. A 23. C 33. B 43. A 53. B 63. C 73. D 83. D 93. D 4. A 14. B 24. B 34. C 44. D 54. B 64. C 74. C 84. C 94. C KEY 5. B 15. A 25. C 35. B 45. C 55. A 65. B 75. A 85. C 95. A 6. D 16. B 26. D 36. D 46. B 56. D 66. B 76. C 86. C 96. A 7. C 17. B 27. B 37. A 47. C 57. B 67. D 77. B 87. C 97. B 8. B 18. A 28. B 38. D 48. B 58. C 68. A 78. A 88. A 98. A ANSWER 9. B 19. C 29. C 39. D 49. A 59. A 69. A 79. C 89. B 99. C 10. A 20. D 30. D 40. B 50. C 60. C 70. D 80. B 90. B 100. C

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129 civilz byte GENERAL STUDIES - 1 2016

1. Which of the following statements is/are (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only correct? (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 1. A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation. 4. The establishment of ‘Payment Banks’ is 2. A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which being allowed in India to promote finan- has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, cial inclusion. Which of the following state- shall not lapse on ments is/are correct in this context? dissolution of the Lok Sabha. 1. Mobile telephone companies and super- Select the correct answer using the code market chains that are owned and con- given below. trolled by residents are eligible to be (a) 1 only (b) 2 only promoters of Payments Banks. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Payment Banks can issue both credit cards and debit cards. 2. Which of the following is/are the indica- tor/indicators used by IFPRI to compute the 3. Payment Banks cannot undertake lend- Global Hunger Index Report? ing activities. 1. Undernourishment Select the correct answers using the code 2. Child stunting 3. Child mortality given below. Select the correct answer using the code (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only given below. (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only 5. With reference to ‘LiFi’ recently in the news, which of the following statements 3. There has been a persistent deficit budget is/are correct? year after year, which action/actions of the 1. It uses light as the medium for high- following can be taken by the Government speed data transmission. to reduce the deficit? 2. It is a wireless technology and is sev- 1. Reducing revenue expenditure eral times faster than ‘WiFi’. 2. Introducing new welfare schemes Select the correct answer using the code 3. Rationalizing subsidies given below. 4. Reducing import duty Select the correct answers using the code (a) 1 only (b) 2 only given below. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 130 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

6. The term ‘Intended Nationally Determined Select the correct answer using the code Contributions’ is sometimes seen in the given below. news in the context of (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) pledges made by the European coun- (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 tries to rehabilitate refugees from the war-affected Middle East 9. Regarding the taxation system of Krishna (b) plan of action outlined by the countries Deva, the ruler of Vijayanagar, consider the of the world to combat climate change. following statements: (c) capital contributed by the member 1. The tax rate on land was fixed depend- countries in the establishment of Asian ing on the quality of the land. Infrastructure Investment Bank. (d) plan of action outlined by the countries 2. Private owners of workshops paid an in- of the world regarding Sustainable De- dustries tax. velopment Goals Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? 7. Which one of the following is a purpose of (a) 1 only (b) 2 only ‘UDAY’, a scheme of the Government? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Providing technical and financial assistance to start-up entrepreneurs in the 10. Which one of the following books of an- field of renewable sources of energy cient India has the love story of the son of (b) Providing electricity to every household the founder of Sunga dynasty? in the country by 2018 (a) Swapnavasavadatta (c) Replacing the coal-based power plants (b) Malavikagnimitra with natural gas, nuclear, solar, wind and tidal power plants over a period of (c) Meghadoota time (d) Ratnavali (d) Providing for financial turnaround and revival of power distribution companies 11. In the context of which of the following do you sometimes find the terms ‘amber box, 8. With reference to ‘IFC Masala Bonds’ some- blue box and green box’ in the news? times seen in the news, which of the state- (a) WTO affairs (b) SAARC affairs ments given below is/are correct? (c) UNFCCC affairs 1. The International Finance Corporation, (d) India-EU negotiations in FTA which offers these bonds, is an arm of the World Bank. 12. Which of the following is/are included in 2. They are the rupee-denominated bonds and are a source of debt financing for the capital budget of the Government of the public and private sector. India? 131 civilz byte

1. Expenditure on acquisition of assets like 15. With reference to the International Mon- roads, buildings, machinery etc. etary and Financial Committee (IMFC), con- 2. Loans received from foreign govern- sider the following statements : ments 1. IMFC discusses matters of concern af- 3. Loans and advances granted to the fecting the global economy, and advises States and Union Territories the International Monetary Fund (IMF) Select the correct answer using the code on the direction of its work. given below 2. The World Bank participates as observer (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only in IMFC’s meetings. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? 13. What is/are the importance/importances (a) 1 only (b) 2 only of the ‘United Nations Convention to Com- (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 bat Desertification’? 1. It aims to promote effective action 16. ‘Rashtriya Garima Abhiyaan’ is a national through innovative national progra- campaign to mmes and supportive international (a) rehabilitate the homeless and destitute partnership. persons and provide them with suitable 2. It has special/particular focus in South sources of livelihood Asia and North Africa regions and its (b) release the sex workers from their prac- Secretariat facilitates the allocation of tice and provide them with alternative major portion of financial resources to sources of livelihood these regions. 3. It is committed to bottom-up approach, (c) eradicate there practice of manual encouraging the participation of local scavenging and rehabilitate the manual people in combating the desertifica- scavengers. tion. (d) release the bonded laborers from their Select the correct answers using the code bondage and rehabilitate them. given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only 17. With reference to the cultural history of (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 medical India, consider the following statements : 14. Recently, which one of the following cur- 1. Siddhas (Sittars) of Tamil region were rencies has been proposed to be added to monotheistic and condemned idolatry. the basket of IMF’s SDR? 2. Lingayats of Kannada region questioned (a) Rouble (b) Rand the theory of rebirth and rejected the (c) Indian Rupee (d) Renminbi caste hierarchy. 132 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

Which of the statements given above is/ 3. It provides assistance and protection to are correct? states (Parties) against chemical weap- (a) 1 only (b) 2 only ons threats. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? 18. Which of the following best describes the (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only team ‘import cover’ sometimes seen in the (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 news? (a) It is the ratio of value of import to the 21. With reference to ‘Pradhan Mantri Fasal Gross Domestic Product of a country Bima Yojana’, consider the following state- (b) It is the total value of imports of a coun- ments : try in a year 1. Under this scheme, farmers will have (c) It is the ratio between the value of ex- to pay a uniform premium of two per- ports and that of imports between two cent for any crop they cultivate in any countries season of the year. (d) It is the number of months of imports 2. This scheme covers post-harvest losses that could be paid for by a country’s arising out of cyclones and unseasonal international reserves rains. Which of the statements given above is/ 19. Consider the following pairs : are correct? Community sometimes in the affairs of (a) 1 only (b) 2 only mentioned in the news 1. Kurd : Bangladesh (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Medhesi : Nepal 3. Rohingya : Myanmar 22. In which of the following regions of India are you most likely to come across the Which of the pairs given above is/are cor- ‘Great Indian Hornbill’ in its natural rectly matched? habitat? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (a) Sand deserts of northwest India (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only (b) Higher Himalayas of Jammu and Kash- 20. With reference to ‘Organization for the mir? Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW)’, (c) Salt marshes of western Gujarat consider the following statements : (d) Western Ghats 1. It is an organization of European Union in working relation with NATO and WHO. 23. Which of the following are the key features 2. It monitors chemical industry to pre- of ‘National Ganga River Basin Authority vent new weapons from emerging. (NGRBA)’? 133 civilz byte

1. River basin is the unit of planning and 26. With reference to ‘Stand Up India Scheme’, management. which of the following statements is/are 2. It spearheads the river conservation ef- correct? forts at the national level. 1. Its purpose is to promote entrepreneur- 3. One of the Chief Ministers of the States ship among SC/ST and women entre- through which the Ganga flows be- preneurs. comes the Chairman of NGRBA on rota- 2. It provides for refinance through SIDBI. tion basis. Select the correct answers using the code Select the correct answers using the code given below. given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 27. The FAO accords the status of ‘Globally 24. Why does the Government of India promote Important Agricultural Heritage System the use of Neem-coated Urea in agricul- (GIAHS)’ to traditional agricultural systems. ture? What is the overall goal of this initiative? (a) Release of Neem oil in the soil increases 1. To provide modern technology, train- nitrogen fixation by the soil microor- ing in modern farming methods and fi- ganisms nancial support to local communities of identified GIAHS so as to greatly en- (b) Neem coating slows down the rate of hance their productivity dissolution of urea in the soil 2. To identify and safeguard eco-friendly (c) Nitrous oxide, which is a greenhouse traditional farm practices and their gas, is not at all released into atmo- associated landscapes, agricultural sphere by crop fields biodiversity and knowledge systems of (d) It is a combination of a weedicide and the local communities a fertilizer for particular crops 3. To provide Geographical Indication status to all varieties of agricultural pro- 25. Consider the following statements : duce in such identified GIAHS 1. The Chief Secretary in a state is ap- Select the correct answer using the code pointed by the governor of that state. given below. 2. The Chief Secretary in a state has a (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only fixed tenure. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? 28. Which of the following is/are the tributary/ (a) 1 only (b) 2 only tributaries of Brahmaputra? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Dibang 2. Kameng 3. Lohit 134 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

Select the correct answer using the code 31. In the context of developments in given below. Bioinformatics, the term ‘transcriptome’, sometimes seen in the news, refers to (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (a) a range of enzymes used in genome (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 editing (b) the full range of mRNA molecules ex- 29. The term ‘Core Banking Solution’ is some- pressed by an organism times seen in the news. Which of the fol- (c) the description of the mechanism of lowing statements best describe/describes gene expression this term? (d) a mechanism of genetic mutations tak- 1. It is a networking of a bank’s branches ing place in cells which enable customers to operate their accounts from any branch regard- 32. ‘Mission Indradhanush’ launched by the less of where they open their accounts. Government of India pertains to 2. It is an effort to increase RBI’s control (a) immunization of children and pregnant over commercial banks through com- women puterization. (b) construction of smart cities across the 3. It is a detailed procedure by which a country bank with huge non-performing assets (c) India’s own search for the Earth-like is taken over by another bank. planets in outer space (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (d) New Education Policy (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 33. Which of the following best describes/describe the aim of ‘Green India Mission’ of 30. Consider the following pairs: the Government of India? Terms sometimes Their Origin 1. Incorporating environment benefits and seen in the news costs into the Union and State Budgets 1. Annex – 1 countires : Cartenega Protocol there by implementing the ‘green ac- 2. Certified Emmissions counting’ Reductions : Nagoya Protocol 2. Launching the second green revolution 3. Clean Development to enhance agricultural output so as to Mechanism : Kyoto Protocol ensure food security to one and all in the future Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 3. Restoring and enhancing forest cover and responding to climate change by a (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only combination of adaptation and mitiga- (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 tion measures 135 civilz byte

Select the correct answer using the code (c) installation of CNG kits in motor-cars given below. (d) installation of water meters in urban (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only households (c)3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 37. India’s ranking in the ‘Ease of Doing Busi- 34. With reference to pre-packaged items in ness Index’ is sometimes seen in the news. India, it is mandatory to the manufacturer Which of the following has declared that ranking? to put which of the following information on the main label, as per the Food Safety (a) Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Standards (Packaging and Labeling) and Development (OECD) Regulations, 2011? (b) World Economic Forum 1. List of ingredients including additives (c) World Bank 2. Nutrition information (d) World Trade Organisation (WTO) 3. Recommendations, if any, made by the medical profession about the possibil- 38. Banjaras during the medieval period of In- ity of any allergic reactions dian history were generally 4. Vegetarian/non-vegetarian (a) agriculturists (b) warriors Select the correct answer using the code (c) weavers (d) traders given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 39. Who of the following had first deciphered the edicts of Emperor Ashoka? (c) 1,2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 (a) Georg Buhler (b) James Prinsep

35. ‘Project Loon’, sometimes seen in the (c) Max Muller (d) William Jones news, is related to 40. With reference to the ‘Gram Nyayalaya (a) waste management technology Act’, which of the following statements is/ (b) wireless communication technology are correct? (c) solar power production technology 1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can (d) water conservation technology hear only civil cases and not criminal cases. 36. ‘Net metering’ is sometimes seen in the 2. The act allows local social activists as news in the context of promoting the mediators/reconciliators. (a) production and use of solar energy by Select the correct answer using the code the households/consumers given below. (b) use of piped natural gas in the kitch- (a) 1 only (b) 2 only ens of households (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 136 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

41. With reference to the ‘Trans-Pacific Select the correct answer using the code Patnership’, consider the following state- given below. ments : (a) 1 only (b)2 only 1. It is an agreement among all the Pa- (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 cific Rim countries except China and Russia. 44. What is/are unique about ‘Kharai camel’, 2. It is a strategic alliance for the pur- a breed found in India? pose of maritime security only. 1. It is capable of swimming up to three Which of the statements given above is/ kilometers in seawater. are correct? 2. It scurvies by grazing on mangroves. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only 3. It lives in the wild and cannot be do- (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 mesticated. Select the correct answer using the code 42. Consider the following statements : given below. The India-Africa Summit (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only 1. held in 2015 was the third such Sum- (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 mit

2. was actually initiated by Jawaharlal 45. Recently, our scientists have discovered a Nehru in 1951 new and distinct species of banana plant Which of the statements given above is/ which attains a height of about 11 meters are correct? and has orange-coloured fruit pulp. In which (a) 1 only (b) 2 only part of India has it been discovered? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Andaman Islands (b) Anaimalai Forests 43. What is/are the purpose/purposes of the (c) Maikala Hills ‘Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (d) Tropical rain forests of northeast (MCLR)’ announced by RBI? 1. These guidelines help improve the 46. Which one of the following is the best de- transparency in the methodology fol- scription of ‘INS Astradharini’, that was in lowed by banks for determining the in- the news recently? terest rates on advances. (a) Amphibious warfare ship 2. These guidelines help ensure availability of bank credit at interest rates which (b) Nuclear-powered submarine are fair to the borrowers as well as the (c) Torpedo launch and recovery vessel banks. (d) Nuclear-powered aircraft carrier 137 civilz byte

47. What is ‘Greased Lightning-10 (GL-10)’, re- 50. With reference to the religious history of cently in the news? India, consider the following statements : (a) Electric plane tested by NASA 1. The concept of Bodhisattva is central (b) Solar-powered two-seater aircraft de- to Hinayana sect of Buddhism. signed by Japan 2. Bodhisattva is a compassionate one on (c) Space observatory launched by China his way to enlightenment. (d) Reusable rocket designed by ISRO 3. Bodhisattva delays achieving his own salvation to help all sentient beings on 48. With reference to ‘Initiative for Nutritional their path to it. Security through Intensitive Millets Promo- Which of the statements given above is/ tion’, which of the following statements is/are correct? are correct? 1. This imitative aims to demonstrate the (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only improved production and post-harvest (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 technologies, and to demonstrate value addition techniques, in an integrated 51. ‘Doctors Without Borders (Medecines Sans manner, with cluster approach. Frontieres)’, often in the news, is 2. Poor, small, marginal and tribal farm- (a) a division of World Health Organisation. ers have larger stake in this scheme. (b) a non-governmental international 3. An important objective of the scheme organization. is to encourage farmers of commercial (c) an inter-governmental agency crops to shift to millet cultivation by offering them free kits of critical in- sponsored by European Union. puts of nutrients and microirrigation (d) a specialized agency of the United equipment. Nations. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 52. With reference to an initiative called The (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (TEEB)’, which of the following statements is/are correct? 49. The ‘Swadeshi’ and ‘Boycott’ were adopted 1. It is an initiative hosted by UNEP, IMF as methods of struggle for the first time and World Economic Forum. during the 2. It is a global initiative that focuses on (a) agitation against the Partition of Bengal drawing attention to the economic ben- (b) Home Rule Movement efits of biodiversity. (c) Non-Cooperation Movement 3. It presents an approach that can help (d) Visit of the Simon Commission to India. decision-makers recognize, demon- 138 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

strate and capture the value of ecosys- (b) It is an initiative of the United Nations tems and biodiversity. to offer financial incentives to devel- Select the correct answer using the code oping countries to reduce greenhouse given below gas emissions and to adopt eco-friendly (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only technologies. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) It is an intergovernmental agreement ratified by all member countries of the 53. With reference to ‘Red Sanders’, sometimes United Nations to reduce the green- seen in the news, consider the following house gas emissions to specified levels statements: by the year 2022. 1. It is a tree species found in a part of (d) It is one of the multilateral REDD+ ini- South India. tiatives hosted by the World Bank. 2. It is one of the trees in the tropical rain forest areas of South India. 56. With reference to ‘Financial Stability and Which of the statements given above is/ Development Council’, consider the follow- are correct? ing statements : (a) 1 only (b) 2 only 1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. It is headed by the Union Finance Min- ister. 54. Which of the following statements is/are 3. It monitors macro prudential super vi- correct? sion of the economy. Proper design and effective implementation of UN-REDD+ Programme can signifi- Which of the statements given above is/ cantly contribute to are correct? 1. Protection of biodiversity (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only 2. Resilience of forest ecosystems (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 3. Poverty reduction Select the correct answer using the code 57. With reference to ‘Agenda 21’, sometimes given below. seen in the news, consider the following statements (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 1. It is a global action plan for sustainable development. 55. What is ‘Greenhouse Gas Protocol’? 2. It originated in the World Summit on (a) It is an international accounting tool Sustainable Development held in for government and business leaders to Johannesburg in 2002. understand, quantify and manage Which of the statements given above is/ greenhouse gas emissions are correct? 139 civilz byte

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Gujarat (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Maharashtra (d) Uttar Pradesh

58. Satya Shodhak Samaj organized 62. What is/are the purpose/purposes of ‘Dis- trict Mineral Foundations’ in India? (a) a movement for upliftment of tribals in Bihar 1. Promoting mineral exploration activities in mineral-rich districts. (b) a temple-entry movement in Gujarat 2. Protecting the interests of the persons (C) an anti-caste movement in Maharashtra affected by mining operations. (d) a peasant movement in Punjab 3. Authorizing State Governments to issue licenses for mineral exploration. 59. Which of the following statements is/are Select the correct answer using the code correct? given below. Viruses can infect (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only 1. Bacteria 2. Fungi 3. Plants (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Select the correct answer using the code given below. 63. ‘SWAYAM’, an initiative of the Government (a) 1 and 2 only (b)3 only of India, aims at (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) promoting the Self Help Groups in rural areas. 60. The term ‘Base Erosion and Profit Shifting’ (b) providing financial and technical assis- is sometimes seen in the news in the con- tance to young start-up entrepreneurs. text of (c) promoting the education and health of (a) mining operation by multinational com- adolescent girls. panies in resource-rich but backward (d) providing affordable and quality edu- areas. cation to the citizens for free. (b) curbing of the tax evasion by multinational companies. 64. The Montague-Chelmsford Proposals were (c) exploitation of genetic resources of a related to country by multinational companies. (a) social reforms (d) lack of consideration of environmental (b) educational reforms costs in the planning and implementa- (c) reforms in police administration tion of developmental projects (d) constitutional reforms

61. Recently India’s first ‘National Investment 65. What is/are common to the two historical and Manufacturing Zone’ was proposed to places known as Ajantha and Maha be set up in balipuram? 140 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

1. Both were built in the same period. 68. ‘Gadgil Committee Report’ and ‘Kasturi 2. Both belong to the same religious de- rangan Committee Report’, sometimes seen nomination. in the news, are related to 3. Both have rock-cut monuments. (a) constitutional reforms Select the correct answer using the code (b) Ganga Action Plan given code given below. (c) linking of rivers (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (d) protection of Western Ghats (c) 1 and 3 only (d) None of the statements given above is 69. Consider the following : correct. 1. Calcutta Unitarian Committee 2. Tabernacle of New Dispensation 66. With reference to ‘Bitcoins’, sometimes 3. Indian Reform Association seen in the news, which of the following Keshab Chandra Sen is associated with the statements is/are correct? establishment of which of the above? 1. Bitcoins are tracked by the Central (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only Banks of the countries. (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 2. Anyone with a Bitcoin address can send and receive Bitcoins from anyone else 70. Which of the following is not a member of with a Bitcoin address. ‘Gulf Cooperation Council’? 3. Online payments can be sent without (a) Iran (b) Saudi Arabia either side knowing the identity of the other. (c) Oman (d) Kuwait Select the correct answer using the code given below. 71. What is/are the purpose/purposes of (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only Government’s ‘Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme’ and ‘Gold Monetization Scheme’? (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 1. To bring the idle gold lying with Indian 67. Consider the following statements : households into the economy. 1. New Development Bank has been set 2. To promote FDI in the gold and up by APEC. jewellery sector. 2. The headquarters of New Development 3. To reduce India’s dependence on gold Bank is in Shanghai. imports. Which of the statements given above is/ Select the correct answer using the code are correct? given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 141 civilz byte

72. ‘Belt and Road Initiative’ is sometimes 76. Regarding ‘Atal Pension Yojana’, which of mentioned in the news in the context of the following statements is/are correct? the affairs of 1. It is a minimum guaranteed pension (a) African Union (b) Brazil scheme mainly targeted at unorganized sector workers. (c) European Union (d) China 2. Only one member of a family can join 73. Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana is aimed at the scheme. 3. Same amount of pension is guaranteed (a) bringing the small entrepreneurs into for the spouse for life after subscriber’s formal financial system death. (b) providing loans to poor farmers for cul- Select the correct answer using the code tivating particular crops given below. (c) providing pensions to old and destitute (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only persons (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) funding the voluntary organizations involved in the promotion of skill devel- 77. The term ‘Regional Comprehensive Eco- opment and employment generation. nomic Partnership’ often appears in the news in the context of the affairs of a group 74. In which of the following regions of India of countries known as are shale gas resources found? (a) G20 (b) ASEAN (c) SCO (d) SAARC 1. Cambay Basin 2. Cauvery Basin 78. On which of the following can you find the 3. Krishna-Godavari Basin Bureau of Energy Efficiency Star Label? Select the correct answer using the code 1. Ceiling fans 2. Electric geysers given below. 3. Tubular fluorescent lamps (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only Select the correct answer using the code given below (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only 75. ‘Global Financial Stability Report’ is pre- (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 pared by 79. India is an important member of the ‘In- ternational Thermonuclear Experimental (a) European Central Bank Reactor’. If this experiment succeeds, what (b) International Monetary Fund is the immediate advantage for India? (c) International Bank for Reconstruction (a) It can use thorium in place of uranium and Development for power generation (d) Organization for Economic Cooperation (b) It can attain a global role in satellite and Development navigation 142 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

(c) It can drastically improve the efficiency impact of millions of refugees arriving of its fission reactors in power genera- from Middle East. tion (b) Agency of EU that provides financial (d) It can build fusion reactors for power assistance to eurozone countries. generation (c) Agency of EU to deal with all the bilateral and multilateral agreements on 80. In the context of the history of India, con- trade. sider the following pairs : (d) Agency of EU to deal with the conflicts Term Description arising among the member countries 1. Eripatti : Land, revenue from which was set apart for the mainte- 83. Which of the following is/are the advan- nance of the village tank tage/advantages of practicing drip irriga- 2. Taniyurs : Villages donated to a single tion? Brahmin or a group of Brah- 1. Reduction in weed min or a group of Brahmins 2. Reduction in soil salinity 3. Ghatikas : Colleges generally attached 3. Reduction in soil erosion to the temples. Select the correct answer using the code Which of the pairs given above is/are cor- given below. rectly matched? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 (d) None of the above is an advantage of practicing drip irrigation 81. Consider the following statements : 1. The International Solar Alliance was 84. Regarding ‘DigiLocker’, sometimes seen in launched at the United Nations Climate the news, which of the following state- Change Conference in 2015. ments is/ are correct? 2. The Alliance includes all the member 1. It is a digital locker system offered by countries of the United Nations. the Government under Digital India Which of the statements given above is/ Programme. are correct? 2. It allows you to access your e-docu- (a) 1 only (b) 2 only ments irrespective of your physical (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 location. Select the correct answer using the code 82. ‘European Stability Mechanism’, sometimes given below. seen in the news, is an (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) agency created by EU to deal with the (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 143 civilz byte

85. Recently, linking of which of the following (a) bonded labour rivers was undertaken? (b) land grants made to military officers (a) Cauvery and Tungabhadra (c) waterwheel used in the irrigation of (b) Godavari and Krishna land (c) Mahanadi and sone (d) wasteland converted to cultivated land (d) Narmada and Tapti 89. With reference to the cultural history of 86. In the cities of our country, which among India, the memorizing of chronicles, dynas- the following atmospheric gases are nor- tic histories and epic tales was the profes- mally considered in calculating the value sion of who of the following? of air Quality index? 1. Carbon dioxide 2. Carbon monoxide (a) Shramana (b) Parivraajaka 3. Nitrogen dioxide 4. Sulfur dioxide (c) Agrahaarika (d) Maagadha 5. Methane Select the correct answer using the code 90. Recently, for the first time in our country, given below. which of the following states has declared (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3,and 4 only a particular a particular butterfly as ‘State Butterfly’? (c) 1, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (a) Arunachal Pradesh 87. With reference to ‘Astrosat’, the astro- (b) Himachal Pradesh nomical observatory launched by India. (c) Karnataka Which of the following statements is/are (d) Maharashtra correct? 1. Other than USA and Russian, India is the 91. Consider the following statements : only country to have launched a similar observatory into space. The Mangalyaan launched by ISRO 2. Astrosat is a 2000 kg satellite placed in 1. is also called the Mars Orbiter Mission an orbit at 1650 km above the surface 2. made India the second country to have of the earth. a spacecraft orbit the Mars after USA Select the correct answer using the code 3. made India the only country to be suc- given below. cessful in making its spacecraft orbit (a) 1 only (b) 2 only the mars in its very first attempt (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? 88. With reference to the economic history of medieval India, the term ‘Araghatta’ (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only refers to (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 144 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

92. What was the main reason for the split in 95. The Parliament of India acquires the power the Indian National Congress at Surat in to legislate on any item in the state list in 1907? the national interest if a resolution to that (a) Introduction of communalism into In- effect is passed by the dian polities by Lord Minto (a) Lok Sabha by a simple by a majority of its total membership (b) Extremists’ lack of faith in the capacity of the moderates to negotiate with (b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than the British Government two-thirds of its total membership (c) Foundation of Muslim League (c) Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership (d) Aurobindo Ghosh’s inability to be (d) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less elected as the president of the Indian than two-thirds of its members present National Congress and voting.

93. The plan of Sir Stafford Cripps envisaged 96. Recently, Which of the following states has that after the Second World War explored the possibility of constructing an (a) India should be granted completed in- artificial inland port to be connected to sea dependence by a long navigational channel? (b) India should be partitioned into two (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Chhattisgarh before granting independence (c) Karnataka (d) Rajasthan (c) India should be made a republic with the condition that she will join the com- 97. With reference to the agreement at the monwealth UNFCCC Meeting in Paris in 2015, which of (d) India should be given Dominion status the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Agreement was signed by all the 94. Consider the following pairs : member countries of the UN and it will Famous place Region go into effect in 2017. 1. Bodhgaya : Baghelkhand 2. The Agreement aims to limit the 2. Khajurabo : Bundelkhand greenhouse gas emissions so that the rise in average global temperature by 3. Shirdi : Vidarbha the end of this century does not exceed 4. Nasik (Nashik) : Malwa 2oC or even 1.5o C above pre-industrial 5. Triupati : Rayalaseema levels. Which of the pairs given above are correctly 3. Developed countries acknowledged matched? their historical responsibility in global (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 warming and committed to donate (c) 2, and 5 only (d) 1, 3, 4 and 5 $1000 billion a year from 2020 to help 145 civilz byte

developing countries to cope with 99. A recent movie titled ‘The Man Who Knew climate change. Infinity’ is based on the biography of Select the correct answer using the code (a) S. Ramanujan (b) S. Chandrasekhar given below. (c) S. N. Bose (d) C. V. Raman (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 100.Consider the following statements : 1. The minimum age prescribed for any 98. Consider the following statements : person to be a member of Panchayat is 1. The Sustainable Development Goals 25 years. were first proposed in 1972 by a global think tank called the ’Club of Rome’. 2. A Panchayat reconstituted after prema- ture dissolution continues only for the 2. The sustainable Development Goals remainder period. have to be achieved by 2030. Which of the statements given above is/ Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

1. B 11. A 21. B 31. B 41. D 51. B 61. A 71. C 81. A 91. C 2. C 12. D 22. D 32. A 42. A 52. C 62. B 72. D 82. B 92. B 3. C 13. C 23. A 33. C 43. C 53. A 63. D 73. A 83. C 93. D 4. B 14. D 24. B 34. C 44. A 54. D 64. D 74. D 84. C 94. C KEY 5. C 15. C 25. D 35. B 45. A 55. A 65. B 75. B 85. B 95. D 6. B 16. C 26. C 36. A 46. C 56. C 66. B 76. C 86. B 96. D 7. D 17. C 27. B 37. C 47. A 57. A 67. B 77. B 87. D 97. B 8. C 18. D 28. D 38. D 48. C 58. C 68. D 78. D 88. C 98. B ANSWER 9. C 19. C 29. A 39. B 49. A 59. D 69. B 79. D 89. D 99. A 10. B 20. B 30. C 40. B 50. B 60. B 70. A 80. D 90. D 100. B

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146 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle GENERAL STUDIES - 1 2017

1. With reference to the Parliament of India, 3. Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme' is consider the following statements: sometimes mentioned in the news with ref- 1. A private member's bill is a bill pre- erence to sented by a Member of Parliament who (a) Certifying the skills acquired by con- is not elected but only nominated by struction workers through traditional the President of India. channels. 2. Recently, a private member's bill has (b) Enrolling the persons in Universities for been passed in the Parliament of India distance learning programmes. for the first time in its history. (c) Reserving some skilled jobs to rural and Which of the statements given above is/ urban poor in some public sector un- are correct? dertakings. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (d) Certifying the skills acquired by train- (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 ees under the National Skill Develop- ment Programme. 2. With reference to the difference between the culture of Rigvedic Aryans and Indus 4. From the ecological point of view, which Valley people, which of the following state- one of the following assumes importance ments is/are correct? in being a good link between the Eastern 1. Rigvedic Aryans used the coat of mail Ghats and the Western Ghats? and helmet in warfare whereas the (a) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve people of Indus Valley Civilization did (b) Nallamala Forest not leave any evidence of using them. (c) Nagarhole National Park 2. Rigvedic Aryans knew gold, silver and copper whereas Indus Valley people (d) Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve knew only copper and iron. 5. One of the implications of equality in soci- 3. Rigvedic Aryans had domesticated the horse whereas there is no evidence of ety is the absence of Indus Valley people having been aware (a) Privileges (b) Restraints of this animal. (c) Competition (d) Ideology Select the correct answer using the code given below: 6. Consider the following statements in re- (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only spect of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC): 147 civilz byte

1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Na- (a) World Economic Forum tions Environment Programme (UNEP). (b) UN Human Rights Council 2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that (c) UN Women trade in wild plants and animals is not (d) World Health Organization a threat to the conservation of nature. Which of the above statements is/are cor- 10. Which of the following statements is/are rect? correct regarding Smart India Hackathon (a) 1 only (b) 2 only 2017? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme for developing every city of our country 7. Which principle among the following was into Smart Cities in a decade. added to the Directive Principles of State 2. It is an initiative to identify new digi- Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Con- tal technology innovations for solving stitution? the many problems faced by our coun- (a) Equal pay for equal work for both men try. and women 3. It is a programme aimed at making all (b) Participation of workers in the manage- the financial transactions in our coun- ment of industries try completely digital in a decade. (c) Right to work, education and public as- Select the correct answer using the code sistance given below : (d) Securing living wage and human condi- (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only tions of work to workers (c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only

8. Which one of the following statements is 11. Which of the following statements is/are correct? correct regarding the Monetary Policy Com- mittee (MPC)? (a) Rights are claims of the State against the citizens. 1. It decides the RBI's benchmark interest rates. (b) Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution of a State. 2. It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted (c) Rights are claims of the citizens against every year. the State. 3. It functions under the chairmanship of (d) Rights are privileges of a few citizens the Union Finance Minister. against the many. Select the correct answer using the code given below : 9. Which of the following gives 'Global Gen- der Gap Index' ranking to the countries of (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only the world? (c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only 148 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

12. With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, con- Select the correct answer using the code sider the following statements: given below : 1. It is a song and dance performance. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only 2. Cymbals are the only musical instru- (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 ments used in the performance. 3. It is performed to narrate the life and 15. The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 provided deeds of Lord Krishna. for Which of the statements given above is/ (a) the participation of workers in the man- are correct? agement of industries. (a) 1, 2 and 3. (b) 1 and 3 only (b) arbitrary powers to the management (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only to quell industrial disputes. (c) an intervention by the British Court in 13. Who among the following was/were asso- the event of a trade dispute. ciated with the introduction of Ryotwari Settlement in India during the British rule? (d) a system of tribunals and a ban on strikes. 1. Lord Cornwallis 2. Alexander Read 3. Thomas Munro 16. Local self-government can be best ex- Select the correct answer using the code plained as an exercise in given below: (a) Federalism (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (b) Democratic decentralisation (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Administrative delegation 14. In the context of solving pollution problems, (d) Direct democracy what is/are the advantage/advantages of bioremediation technique? 17. Consider the following statements: 1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollu- With reference to the Constitution of In- tion by enhancing the same biodegra- dia, the Directive Principles of State Policy dation process that occurs in nature. constitute limitations upon 2. Any contaminant with heavy metals 1. legislative function. such as cadmium and lead can be 2. executive function. readily and completely treated by Which of the above statements is/are bioremediation using microorganisms. correct? 3. Genetic engineering can be used to cre- (a) 1 only (b) 2 only ate microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 149 civilz byte

18. The term 'Digital Single Market Strategy' 1. Pollination of some plants could be ad- seen in the news refers to versely affected. (a) ASEAN (b) BRICS 2. There could be a drastic increase in the (c) EU (d) G20 fungal infections of some cultivated plants.

19. At one of the places in India, if you stand 3. It could lead to a fall in the population on the seashore and watch the sea, you of some species of wasps, spiders and birds. will find that the sea water recedes from the shore line a few kilometres and comes Select the correct answer using the code back to the shore, twice a day, and you given below: can actually walk on the sea floor when (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only the water recedes. This unique phenom- (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 enon is seen at (a) Bhavnagar (b) Bheemunipatnam 22. It is possible to produce algae based biofuels, but what is/are the likely (c) Chandipur (d) Nagapattinam limitation(s) of developing countries in promoting this industry? 20. With reference to the 'Prohibition of Benami 1. Production of algae based biofuels is Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)', possible in seas only and not on conti- consider the following statements: nents. 1. A property transaction is not treated 2. Setting up and engineering the algae as a benami transaction if the owner based biofuel production requires high of the property is not aware of the level of expertise/technology until the transaction. construction is completed. 2. Properties held benami are liable for 3. Economically viable production neces- confiscation by the Government. sitates the setting up of large scale fa- 3. The Act provides for three authorities cilities which may raise ecological and for investigations but does not provide social concerns. for any appellate mechanism. Select the correct answer using the code Which of the statements given above is/ given below: are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only 23. Which of the following are the objectives 21. Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall of 'National Nutrition Mission'? in the population of species of butterflies, 1. To create awareness relating to mal- what could be its likely consequence/con- nutrition among pregnant women and sequences? lactating mothers. 150 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

2. To reduce the incidence of anaemia 26. The object of the Butler Committee of 1927 among young children, adolescent girls was to? and women. (a) Define the jurisdiction of the Central 3. To promote the consumption of millets, and Provincial Governments. coarse cereals and unpolished rice. (b) Define the powers of the Secretary of 4. To promote the consumption of poul- State for India. try eggs. (c) Impose censorship on national press. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (d) Improve the relationship between the (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only Government of India and the Indian States. (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only

24. Consider the following statements: 27. The term 'Domestic Content Requirement' is sometimes seen in the news with refer- 1. The Factories Act, 1881 was passed with ence to a view to fix the wages of industrial workers and to allow the workers to (a) Developing solar power production in form trade unions. our country 2. N.M. Lokhande was a pioneer in orga- (b) Granting licences to foreign T.V. chan- nizing the labour movement in British nels in our country India. (c) Exporting our food products to other Which of the above statements is/are cor- countries rect? (d) Permitting foreign educational institu- (a) 1 only (b) 2 only tions to set up their campuses in our (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 country

25. In the context of mitigating the impending 28. Consider the following statements: global warming due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the fol- 1. The Nuclear Security Summits are pe- lowing can be the potential sites for car- riodically held under the aegis of the bon sequestration? United Nations. 1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams 2. The International Panel on Fissile Ma- 2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs terials is an organ of International Atomic Energy Agency. 3. Subterranean deep saline formations Select the correct answer using the code Which of the statements given above is/ given below: are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 151 civilz byte

29. Who among the following can join the Na- 32. Consider the following statements: tional Pension System (NPS)? 1. The Standard Mark of Bureau of Indian (a) Resident Indian citizens only Standards (BIS) is mandatory for auto- motive tyres and tubes. (b) Persons of age from 21 to 55 only 2. AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark (c) All State Government employees join- issued by the Food and Agriculture ing the services after the date of noti- Organisation (FAO). fication by the respective State Gov- Which of the statements given above is/ ernments are correct? (d) All Central Government employees in- (a) 1 only (b) 2 only cluding those of Armed Forces joining (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 the services on or after 1st April, 2004

33. What is/are the advantage/advantages of 30. With reference to river Teesta, consider the implementing the 'National Agriculture following statements: Market' scheme? 1. The source of river Teesta is the same 1. It is a pan-India electronic trading por- as that of Brahmaputra but it flows tal for agricultural commodities. through Sikkim. 2. It provides the farmers access to na- 2. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and tionwide market, with prices commen- it is a tributary of river Teesta. surate with the quality of their produce. 3. River Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal Select the correct answer using the code on the border of India and Bangladesh. given below : Which of the statements given above is/ (a) 1 only (b) 2 only are correct? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 34. With reference to the 'National Intellectual Property Rights Policy', consider the following statements: 31. Consider the following statements: 1. It reiterates India's commitment to the 1. In tropical regions, Zika virus disease Doha Development Agenda and the is transmitted by the same mosquito TRIPS Agreement. that transmits dengue. 2. Department of Industrial Policy and Pro- 2. Sexual transmission of Zika virus dis- motion is the nodal agency for regulat- ease is possible. ing intellectual property rights in India. Which of the statements given above is/ Which of the above statements is/are cor- are correct? rect? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 152 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

35. According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, (a) Liberty of thought 1972, which of the following animals can- (b) Economic liberty not be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law? (c) Liberty of expression 1. Gharial 2. Indian wild ass (d) Liberty of belief 3. Wild buffalo Select the correct answer using the code 39. With reference to 'Quality Council of India given below: (QCI)', consider the following statements: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only 1. QCI was set up jointly by the Govern- (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 ment of India and the Indian Industry. 2. Chairman of QCI is appointed by the 36. Which of the following statements is/are Prime Minister on the recommendations true of the Fundamental Duties of an In- of the industry to the Government. dian citizen? Which of the above statements is/are cor- 1. A legislative process has been provided rect? to enforce these duties. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only 2. They are correlative to legal duties. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only 40. What is the purpose of setting up of Small Finance Banks (SFBs) in India? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. To supply credit to small business units 37. Consider the following pairs: 2. To supply credit to small and marginal 1. Radhakanta Deb - First President of the farmers British Indian Association 3. To encourage young entrepreneurs to 2. Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty -Founder set up business particularly in rural ar- of the Madras Mahajana Sabha eas. 3. Surendranath Banerjee - Founder of the Select the correct answer using the code Indian Association given below: Which of the above pairs is/are correctly (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only matched? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 41. With reference to 'Asia Pacific Ministerial 38. Which one of the following objectives is Conference on Housing and Urban Devel- not embodied in the Preamble to the Con- opment (APMCHUD)', consider the follow- stitution of India? ing statements: 153 civilz byte

1. The first APMCHUD was held in India in (a) Observation and understanding of the 2006 on the theme 'Emerging Urban Universe Forms - Policy Responses and Gover- (b) Study of the solar and the lunar eclipses nance Structure'. (c) Placing satellites in the orbit of the 2. India hosts all the Annual Ministerial Earth Conferences in partnership with ADB, (d) Origin and evolution of living organisms APEC and ASEAN. on the Earth Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? 45. With reference to agriculture in India, how (a) 1 only (b) 2 only can the technique of `genome sequencing', (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 often seen in the news, be used in the immediate future? 42. Democracy's superior virtue lies in the fact 1. Genome sequencing can be used to that it calls into activity identify genetic markers for disease re- (a) the intelligence and character of ordi- sistance and drought tolerance in vari- nary men and women. ous crop plants. (b) the methods for strengthening execu- 2. This technique helps in reducing the tive leadership. time required to develop new varieties (c) a superior individual with dynamism of crop plants. and vision. 3. It can be used to decipher the host- (d) a band of dedicated party workers. pathogen relationships in crops. Select the correct answer using the code 43. Which of the following is a most likely con- given below: sequence of implementing the 'Unified Pay- (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only ments Interface (UPI)'? (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Mobile wallets will not be necessary for online payments. 46. The main advantage of the parliamentary (b) Digital currency will totally replace the form of government is that physical currency in about two decades. (a) the executive and legislature work in- (c) FDI inflows will drastically increase. dependently. (d) Direct transfer of subsidies to poor (b) it provides continuity of policy and is people will become very effective. more efficient. (c) the executive remains responsible to 44. The terms 'Event Horizon', 'Singularity', `String Theory' and 'Standard Model' are the legislature. sometimes seen in the news in the (d) the head of the government cannot be context of changed without election. 154 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

47. In the context of India, which one of the 51. Which one of the following was a very im- following is the correct relationship be- portant seaport in the Kakatiya kingdom? tween Rights and Duties? (a) Kakinada (b) Motupalli (a) Rights are correlative with Duties. (c) Machilipatnam (Masulipatnam) (b) Rights are personal and hence indepen- (d) Nelluru dent of society and Duties. (c) Rights, not Duties, are important for 52. With reference to 'Global Climate Change the advancement of the personality of the citizen. Alliance', which of the following statements is/are correct? (d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State. 1. It is an initiative of the European Union. 2. It provides technical and financial sup- 48. The mind of the makers of the Constitu- port to targeted developing countries tion of India is reflected in which of the to integrate climate change into their following? development policies and budgets. (a) The Preamble 3. It is coordinated by World Resources In- (b) The Fundamental Rights stitute (WRI) and World Business Coun- (c) The Directive Principles of State Policy cil for Sustainable Development (d) The Fundamental Duties (WBCSD). Select the correct answer using the code 49. If you travel by road from Kohima to given below: Kottayam, what is the minimum number of (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only States within India through which you can (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 travel, including the origin and the destination? (a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9 53. With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements: 50. The Parliament of India exercises control 1. Sautrantika and Sammitiya were the over the functions of the Council of Minis- sects of Jainism. ters through 2. Sarvastivadin held that the constituents 1. Adjournment motion of phenomena were not wholly momen- 2. Question hour tary, but existed forever in a latent 3. Supplementary questions form. Select the correct answer using the code Which of the statements given above is/ given below: are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 155 civilz byte

54. Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of (d) UNCTAD funded initiative that seeks to the following countries? finance and facilitate infrastructure de- 1. Jordan 2. Iraq velopment in the world. 3. Lebanon 4. Syria Select the correct answer using the code 57. For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomina- given below: tion paper can be filed by (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (a) anyone residing in India. (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested. 55. With reference to 'National Investment and (c) any citizen of India whose name Infrastructure Fund', which of the follow- appears in the electoral roll of a ing statements is/are correct? constituency. 1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog. (d) any citizen of India. 2. It has a corpus of ` 4,00,000 crore at present. 58. Consider the following statements: Select the correct answer using the code 1. In India, the Himalayas are spread over given below: five States only. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only 2. Western Ghats are spread over five (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 States only. 3. Pulicat Lake is spread over two States 56. The Global Infrastructure Facility is a/an only. (a) ASEAN initiative to upgrade infrastruc- Which of the statements given above is/ ture in Asia and financed by credit from are correct? the Asian Development Bank. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (b) World Bank collaboration that facili- (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only tates the preparation and structuring of complex infrastructure Public-Pri- 59. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a stan- vate Partnerships (PPPs) to enable mo- dard criterion for bilization of private sector and institu- (a) Measuring oxygen levels in blood tional investor capital. (b) Computing oxygen levels in forest eco- (c) Collaboration among the major banks systems of the world working with the OECD and focused on expanding the set of infra- (c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems structure projects that have the poten- (d) Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude tial to mobilize private investment. regions 156 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

60. With reference to the role of UN-Habitat 62. In the context of Indian history, the prin- in the United Nations programme working ciple of `Dyarchy (diarchy)' refers to towards a better urban future, which of the (a) Division of the central legislature into statements is/are correct? two houses. 1. UN-Habitat has been mandated by the (b) Introduction of double government i.e., United Nations General Assembly to Central and State governments. promote socially and environmentally (c) Having two sets of rulers; one in Lon- sustainable towns and cities to provide don and another in Delhi. adequate shelter for all. (d) Division of the subjects delegated to the provinces into two categories. 2. Its partners are either governments or local urban authorities only. 63. Consider the following in respect of 'Na- 3. UN-Habitat contributes to the overall tional Career Service': objective of the United Nations system 1. National Career Service is an initiative to reduce poverty and to promote ac- of the Department of Personnel and cess to safe drinking water and basic Training, Government of India. sanitation. 2. National Career Service has been Select the correct answer using the code launched in a Mission Mode to improve given below: the employment opportunities to uneducated youth of the country. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only Which of the above statements is/are (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only 61. With reference to 'National Skills Qualifi- (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 cation Framework (NSQF)', which of the statements given below is/are correct? 64. Which of the following statements best 1. Under NSQF, a learner can acquire the describes the term 'Scheme for Sustainable certification for competency only Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A)', re- through formal learning. cently seen in the news? 2. An outcome expected from the imple- (a) It is a procedure for considering eco- mentation of NSQF is the mobility be- logical costs of developmental schemes tween vocational and general educa- formulated by the Government. tion. (b) It is a scheme of RBI for reworking the financial structure of big corporate en- Select the correct answer using the code tities facing genuine difficulties. given below: (c) It is a disinvestment plan of the Gov- (a) 1 only (b) 2 only ernment regarding Central Public Sec- (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 tor Undertakings. 157 civilz byte

(d) It is an important provision in 'The In- 68. Consider the following in respect of Indian solvency and Bankruptcy Code' recently Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS): implemented by the Government. 1. Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian 65. Consider the following statements: Navy. 1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) 2. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to Reduce Short Lived Climate Pollut- to increase maritime co-operation ants is a unique initiative of G20 group among navies of the littoral states of of countries. the Indian Ocean Region. 2. The CCAC focuses on methane, black Which of the above statements is/are carbon and hydrofluorocarbons. correct? Which of the statements given above is/ (a) 1 only (b) 2 only are correct? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 69. The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the most famous and oft-illustrated 66. With reference to 'Indian Ocean Dipole paintings at (IOD)' sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting Indian monsoon, which (a) Ajanta (b) Badami of the following statements is/are correct? (c) Bagh (d) Ellora 1. IOD phenomenon is characterised by a difference in sea surface temperature 70. Consider the following pairs: between tropical Western Indian Ocean Traditions Communities and tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean. 1. Chaliha Sahib Festival - Sindhis 2. An IOD phenomenon can influence an 2. Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra - Gonds El Nino's impact on the monsoon. Select the correct answer using the code 3. Wari-Warkari - Santhals given below: Which of the pairs given above is/are cor- (a) 1 only (b) 2 only rectly matched ? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) None of the above 67. If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which one of the following is the 71. Which of the following practices can help best place to visit? in water conservation in agriculture? (a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves 1. Reduced or zero tillage of the land. (b) Chambal River 2. Applying gypsum before irrigating the field. (c) Pulicat Lake (d) Deepor Beel 3. Allowing crop residue to remain in the field. 158 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

Select the correct answer using the code 1. OLED displays can be fabricated on flex- given below : ible plastic substrates. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only 2. Roll-up displays embedded in clothing (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 can be made using OLEDs. 3. Transparent displays are possible using 72. Consider the following statements: OLEDs. The nation-wide 'Soil Health Card Scheme' Select the correct answer using the code aims at given below 1. expanding the cultivable area under ir- (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only rigation. (c) 1, 2 and 3 2. enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers (d) None of the above statements is correct on the basis of soil quality. 3. checking the overuse of fertilizers in 75. Which of the following is/are famous for farmlands. Sun temples? Which of the above statements is/are 1. Arasavalli 2. Amarakantak correct? 3. Omkareshwar (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only Select the correct answer using the code (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 given below : (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only 73. Consider the following pairs: Commonly used / Unwanted or (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 consumed controversial materials chemicals likely 76. Consider the following statements: to be found in them 1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State 1. Lipstick - Lead Assembly, the winning candidate must 2. Soft drinks - Brominated vegetable get at least 50 percent of the votes oils polled, to be declared elected. 3. Chinese fast food - Monosodium glutamate 2. According to the provisions laid down Which of the pairs given above is/are cor- in the Constitution of India, in Lok rectly matched? Sabha, the Speaker's post goes to the (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only majority party and the Deputy Speaker's (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 to the Opposition. Which of the statements given above is/ 74. Organic Light Emitting Diodes (OLEDs) are are correct? used to create digital display in many devices. What are the advantages of OLED (a) 1 only (b) 2 only displays over Liquid Crystal displays? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 159 civilz byte

77. Which of the following has/have occurred (a) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna in India after its liberalization of economic (b) Maintenance of Tiger Reserves policies in 1991? (c) Indigenous Satellite Navigation System 1. Share of agriculture in GDP increased (d) Security of National Highways enormously. 2. Share of India's exports in world trade 81. What is/are the most likely advantages of increased. implementing 'Goods and Services Tax 3. FDI inflows increased. (GST)'? 4. India's foreign exchange reserves in- 1. It will replace multiple taxes collected creased enormously. by multiple authorities and will thus Select the correct answer using the codes create a single market in India. given below : (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only 2. It will drastically reduce the 'Current Account Deficit' of India and will en- (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 able it to increase its foreign exchange reserves. 78. What is the application of Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer Technology? 3. It will enormously increase the growth (a) Production of biolarvicides and size of economy of India and will (b) Manufacture of biodegradable plastics enable it to overtake China in the near future. (c) Reproductive cloning of animals Select the correct answer using the code (d) Production of organisms free of diseases given below:

79. Consider the following statements: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only 1. National Payments Corporation of In- (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 dia (NPCI) helps in promoting financial inclusion in the country. 82. 'Broad-based Trade and Investment Agree- 2. NPCI has launched RuPay, a card payment (BTIA)' is sometimes seen in the news ment scheme. in the context of negotiations held between Which of the statements given above is/ India and are correct? (a) European Union (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (b) Gulf Cooperation Council (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development 80. The term 'M-STrIPES' is sometimes seen in the news in the context of (d) Shanghai Cooperation Organization 160 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

83. Consider the following statements: 86. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a 1. India has ratified the Trade Facilitation (a) Fundamental Right Agreement (TFA) of WTO. (b) Natural Right 2. TFA is a part of WTO's Bali Ministerial (c) Constitutional Right Package of 2013. (d) Legal Right 3. TFA came into force in January 2016. Which of the statements given above is/ 87. What is the purpose of 'evolved Laser In- are correct? terferometer Space Antenna (eLISA)' (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only project? (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) To detect neutrinos (b) To detect gravitational waves 84. What is the importance of developing (c) To detect the effectiveness of missile Chabahar Port by India? defence system (a) India's trade with African countries will (d) To study the effect of solar flares on enormously increase. our communication systems (b) India's relations with oil-producing Arab countries will be strengthened. 88. What is the purpose of Vidyanjali Yojana'? (c) India will not depend on Pakistan for 1. To enable the famous foreign educa- access to Afghanistan and Central Asia. tional institutions to open their campuses in India. (d) Pakistan will facilitate and protect the 2. To increase the quality of education installation of a gas pipeline between provided in government schools by tak- Iraq and India. ing help from the private sector and the community. 85. In India, it is legally mandatory for which 3. To encourage voluntary monetary con- of the following to report on cyber secu- tributions from private individuals and rity incidents? organizations so as to improve the in- 1. Service providers 2. Data centres frastructure facilities for primary and 3. Body corporate secondary schools. Select the correct answer using the code Select the correct answer using the code given below: given below : (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (a) 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only 161 civilz byte

89. What is the aim of the programme `Unnat Bharat Abhiyan'? 91. In India, if a species of tortoise is declared (a) Achieving 100% literacy by promoting protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife collaboration between voluntary orga- (Protection) Act, 1972, what does it imply? nizations and government's education (a) It enjoys the same level of protection system and local communities. as the tiger. (b) Connecting institutions of higher edu- (b) It no longer exists in the wild, a few cation with local communities to ad- individuals are under captive protec- dress development challenges through tion; and now it is impossible to pre- appropriate technologies. vent its extinction. (c) Strengthening India's scientific research (c) It is endemic to a particular region of institutions in order to make India a sci- India. entific and technological power. (d) Both (b) and (c) stated above are cor- (d) Developing human capital by allocat- rect in this context. ing special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and 92. In India, Judicial Review implies organizing skill development (a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce programmes and vocational training for upon the constitutionality of laws and them. executive orders. (b) the power of the Judiciary to question 90. Consider the following statements : the wisdom of the laws enacted by the 1. The Election Commission of India is a Legislatures. five-member body. (c) the power of the Judiciary to review 2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides all the legislative enactments before the election schedule for the conduct they are assented to by the President. of both general elections and bye-elec- (d) the power of the Judiciary to review tions. its own judgements given earlier in 3. Election Commission resolves the dis- similar or different cases. putes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties. 93. With reference to Indian freedom struggle, Which of the statements given above is/ consider the following events : are correct ? 1. Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only 2. Quit India Movement launched (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only 3. Second Round Table Conference 162 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

What is the correct chronological sequence Select the correct answer using the code of the above events ? given below: (a) 1-2-3 (b) 2-1-3 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 3-2-1 (d) 3-1-2 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

94. Consider the following statements : 97. Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Con- 1. Tax revenue as a percent of GDP of In- stitution of India? dia has steadily increased in the last decade. 1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour 2. Fiscal deficit as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last 2. Abolition of untouchability decade. 3. Protection of the interests of minorities Which of the statements given above is/ 4. Prohibition of employment of children are correct ? in factories and mines (a) 1 only (b) 2 only Select the correct answer using the code given below: (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only

95. Recently there was a proposal to translo- (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 cate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the fol- 98. Which of the following is geographically lowing sites ? closest to Great Nicobar ? (a) Corbett National Park (a) Sumatra (b) Borneo (b) Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary (c) Java (d) Sri Lanka (c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary 99. Out of the following statements, choose the (d) Sariska National Park one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government: 96. Which of the following are not necessarily (a) An arrangement for minimizing the the consequences of the proclamation of criticism against the Government the President's rule in a State? whose responsibilities are complex and 1. Dissolution of the State Legislative As- hard to carry out to the satisfaction sembly of all. 2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in (b) A mechanism for speeding up the ac- the State tivities of the Government whose re- 3. Dissolution of the local bodies sponsibilities are increasing day by day. 163 civilz byte

(c) A mechanism of parliamentary democ- (a) There is an independent judiciary in In- racy for ensuring collective responsi- dia. bility of the Government to the people. (b) Powers have been clearly divided be- (d) A device for strengthening the hands tween the Centre and the States. of the head of the Government whose (c) The federating units have been given hold over the people is in a state of unequal representation in the Rajya decline. Sabha. (d) It is the result of an agreement among 100.Which one of the following is not a feature the federating units. of Indian federalism?

(Fill the Answer Key yourself for this Question Paper.)

1. 11. 21. 31. 41. 51. 61. 71. 81 91 2. 12. 22. 32. 42. 52. 62. 72. 82 92 3. 13. 23. 33. 43. 53. 63. 73. 83 93 4. 14. 24. 34. 44. 54. 64. 74. 84 94 KEY 5. 15. 25. 35. 45. 55. 65. 75. 85 95 6. 16. 26. 36. 46. 56. 66. 76. 86 96 7. 17. 27. 37. 47. 57. 67. 77. 87 97 8. 18. 28. 38. 48. 58. 68. 78. 88 98 ANSWER 9. 19. 29. 39. 49. 59. 69. 79. 89 99 10. 20. 30. 40. 50. 60. 70. 80. 90 100

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164 CHAPTER Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle 25 CSAT Civil Services Aptitude Test

“At times, little things too matter a lot and ity of the candidates with a view to assessing bring a sea change. CSAT can be the same.” his/her suitability for certain kinds of tasks.

aper II of General Studies of the prelimi- Usually, these tests appraise a candidate’s nary examination, though qualifying in linguistic ability, comprehension skills, numeri- Pnature, is an important hurdle to be tack- cal aptitude, logic and reasoning, abstract think- led in the quest for success in this keen compe- ing, spatio-visual abilities, intrapersonal & in- tition. This paper replaced the pattern of Op- terpersonal skills, rhythm and kinesthetic abili- tional Paper in prelims in 2011. This paper has ties. Hence, CSAT evaluates most of these at- 80 questions. And major part of this paper contributes, though not all. sists of Reading Comprehension. The table below gives a better understanding… As Per The Syllabus Notified By The UPSC, The Following Are The Topics Included In CSAT… SUMMARY Comprehension Total Marks 200 Interpersonal skills including communica- Number of questions 80 tion skills Marks per Question 2.5 Number of options 4 Logical Reasoning and analytical ability 1/3 of allotted Decision making and problem solving Negative Marking marks per question General Mental Ability QUALIFYING (Only 66 Nature of Paper Basic numeracy (numbers and their rela- Marks – 33% needed) tions, orders of magnitude, etc.) (Class X level) The term ‘Aptitude’ refers to the intrinsic abilities and intelligence of a person that de- Data interpretation (charts, graphs, tables, termines his/her level. It is distinct from knowl- data sufficiency etc. - Class X level) edge and understanding, which are more in the As per the development in the year 2014, nature of information and knowledge gained. the section on ‘English Language Comprehen- Aptitude tests aim at evaluating the innate abil- sion skills,’ has no place in this paper. 165 civilz byte DETAILED OVERVIEW OF BASIC NUMERACY THE SYLLABUS Simplification Squares/cubes PART – A Fractions Percentage Interpersonal Skills Including Profit & Loss Communication Skills Average 1. Interpersonal Skills Number System Analyzing the Situation LCM & HCF Establishing a realistic objective Partnership Selecting appropriate ways of behaving Ratio & Proportion Controlling one’s behavior Problems on Ages Shaping other people’s behavior Allegation & Mixtures Monitoring our own and other’s Time & Distance behavior Problems on Trains 2. Communication Skills Boats & Streams Introduction Time & Work Mapping the Theoretical Landscape Work & Wages Pipes & Cisterns 3. Comprehension Skills Chain Rule Introduction Simple Interest Practicing the Comprehension Tests Area (Mensuration-2D) Volumes(Mensuration-3D) PART – B Calendar Basic numeracy (numbers and their rela- Clocks tions, orders of magnitude, etc.) (Class X Races & Games level) Discounts Data interpretation (charts, graphs, tables, Basic Algebra data sufficiency etc,-Class X level) Set Theory General mental Ability Powers & Exponents Logical Reasoning and analytical ability. Surds & Indices Progressions

166 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

Arithmetical Reasoning Geometry Logical Venn Diagrams Permutations & Combinations Probability Number & Time Sequence Test Coordinate Geometry Cubes & Dices Data Interpretation Inserting the Missing Character a) Venn diagrams b) Pie – Charts Non–Verbal Reasoning c) Bar graphs Series d) Line graphs Analogy e) Tabulation Classification f) Passage analysis Analytical Reasoning Data Sufficiency Mirror Images Statistics Water Images Spotting out the Embedded Figures GENERAL MENTAL ABILITY Completion of Incomplete Pattern (Reasoning) Paper Folding Verbal Reasoning Paper Cutting Coding & Decoding Puzzles Test Number Series Letter Series Logical Reasoning & Analytical Ability Number Analogy Logic (Syllogism) Letter Analogy Statements - Arguments Word Analogy Statements - Assumptions Number Classification Statements - Course of Action Letter Classification Statements - Conclusions Word Classification Deriving Conclusions from the passage Ranking Test Assertion - Reason Direction Test Punchline Mathematical Operations Situation Reaction Test Blood Relations Cause & Effect Alpha beta Test Analytical Tests (Misc) Sitting Tests 167 civilz byte SECTION-WISE ANALYSIS… jects like political memoirs, autobiographies etc. Reading The Hindu regularly can also help de- Comprehension velop reading skills.

This is the most important topic as far as Interpersonal skills the aptitude test is concerned. Questions rang- including communication skills ing from 30-35% arise from this topic alone. The No questions have been asked earlier in comprehension passages appearing in the ex- the past years pertaining to this topic. Of amination are usually of 200-400 words. De- course, communication skills are partly tested pending on the length, content density and com- in the section on ‘comprehension,’ but that is plexity of issues, two to six questions may be largely limited to understanding of languages. asked from each such passage. Some are pas- ‘Interpersonal skills including communication sages measuring 50-100 words with one ques- skills’ usually incorporate several traits, the tion under it. most relevant ones being… In many aptitude tests, the test of comprehension usually evaluates the ability to lo- A. Psychological Disposition cate an answer from somewhat long passages. B. Linguistic Communication Skills Further, questions are generally factual in na- C. Verbal Communication Skills ture and the answers are easily discernible. In a class room based written/objective However, in CSAT the answers are not likely to type aptitude test, what can be evaluated is be obvious or explicitly locatable amidst the only the third category of skills. But in past stated facts. Rather, the questions are such that years, questions from even this area haven’t the answers have often to be deciphered from arisen. Although direct questions from the topic the stated facts or delineated from the numer- cannot be ruled out in the subsequent exami- ous issues incorporated in the passage. This calls for understanding of every issue, every line and nations, it will be prudent to channelize one’s word stated in the passage. As such to be profi- effort to other sections particularly ‘compre- cient in this section, apart from the comprehension’ hension of language, the traits most essential Logical Reasoning and are the ability to concentrate and ability to un- Analytical Ability derstand issues. From the perspective of CSAT, the twin It is good to start developing the habit of topics are the most important ones after the reading from novels. But don’t get carried away ‘comprehension’. While in the 2011 examina- by the same genre and keep reading romance tion there were four questions each from both and love stories. Once you get well versed with the topics. In 2012, the no. of questions jumped reading, start picking books from different sub- to 13 and 12 respectively. These figures were 168 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle nine each in 2014. In 2015, 2016 & 2017, the four courses of action, the most suitable is to questions from both these topics were above be selected.

20. Thus, nearly 25-30% of the questions can be It is noteworthy, that this is the only sec- expected from this chapter. tion in which there are no negative marking for a wrong answer. This implies that there may As discussed earlier, questions related to not be only one absolutely right course of ac- ‘logical reasoning and analytical ability’ are tion and only one correct answer. Therefore the distinct from each other. Logical reasoning ques- answer choices may have grading marks rang- tions are those which entail application of logic ing from 0-2.5 depending on the level of appro- and argument to a given statement, usually priateness of the answer that has been selected. called a logic stimulus to arrive at a conclu- In the years 2011-2013, six to eight sion. On the other hand, questions on analyti- questions were asked from this topic. However, cal ability consist of matrix of conditions to in the years 2014, 2015, 2016 & 2017 no which, by means of deductions and analysis, a questions originated from this topic. The candidates should not let themselves to be desired solution is to be arrived at. Many can- misled, that no questions or only a few questions didates may find it difficult to get a hang of are going to arise from the ‘Decision making’ questions of logical reasoning. While for some, section in future. analytical deductions required in the latter topic may appear to be their waterloo. A word of General Mental Ability (GMA) advice to such candidates, do not lose heart at This is an important but relatively easier the outset or try to evade these topics. With and scoring topic of CSAT. The three abilities time you will surely notice a quantum jump in generally tested are…visuo-spatial ability, ver- your grasp of both the topics. bal ability and numerical ability. The first category involves problems requiring the candi- Decision Making and dates to visually perceive spatial relationships Problem Solving between different objects. Verbal ability problems in the context of GMA require understand- This is an area of evaluation which is ing of words and their context of use between unique to CSAT and generally not found in other a set of words. Problems on numerical ability aptitude tests. The problems on decision mak- usually require understanding of relationship ing narrate a hypothetical situation, which one between numbers in a given set of matrix of numbers. is likely to encounter as a civil servant, an executive in the private sector or as a common Basic Numeracy and Data citizen. The narrative usually revolves around Interpretation a problem which generally relates to decision Both the topics have seen a wide fluctua- making dilemma. The answer choice contains tion in the number of questions emanating from 169 civilz byte them in the past few years. In 2011, there were this section is above 25. 10 questions from basic numeracy and 12 from 2017 too had the same trend. As such, from data interpretation. But in 2012 these figures the perspective of scoring decent marks in CSAT, plummeted to 2 and 1 respectively. But in the scoring and preparing well in these two topics next two years there has been a sharp resur- is extremely important. Particularly, students gence in questions figuring from both the top- from HPG have to relearn and by heart the ics. While six questions appearing each from tables. Practise simple & basic mathematical data interpretation in 2013 and 2014, there operations like additions, subtractions, multi- were 12 and 16 questions each in these two plications & divisions apart from learning the years respectively from the area of basic formulae & shortcuts for solving the problem. numeracy and the trend regularly differs. In the Once solving with speed is achieved, confidence recent 2016 paper, the no. of questions from is automatically boosted.

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170 CHAPTER Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle 26 Understanding & Preparing for CSAT

COMPREHENSION not merely the candidates faculty of literal understanding of what is written, but more impor- A. Introduction tantly the ability to absorb and analyze the issue at hand, to apply his /her own thoughts to sub- The word comprehension is derived from ject and to take a decision as to what should be the Latin words comprehendre/prehendre, most appropriate to the choice in the given con- which mean, to seize. The contextual meaning text. of the word is to understand or to perceive. This ability is indeed an absolute prerequisite B. Features of the for every aspiring civil servant as every act of comprehension passage decision making begins with understanding of The comprehension passages incorporate the facts and seizing of the issues at hand. From subjects of varied nature. This may range from the perspective of the civil services preliminary issues like governance to global warming, bu- examination (paper II), this test is undoubtedly reaucratic accountability to demographic profile, the most important area of a candidate’s apti- economic concepts to scientific researches, tude, as nearly a third of questions emanate programmes of local government to policies of from it. international organizations. But, notwithstand- The next logical question is what skills ing the range of issues, the nature of selected would be required to be evaluated and how it passages is such that they do not presuppose would be done? The test of comprehension as- any prior in-depth knowledge of the subject on sesses a person’s ability not only to understand part of the candidates. Thus, even a candidate an issue, but to analyze it and to distinguish having a little previous exposure to the issue, what is relevant from what is not. It comprises but having the basic comprehension ability, will a comprehension passage followed by a set of comfortably be able to understand the passage questions. The candidates are required to read and attempt the questions. and comprehend the passage and answer the ensuing questions which are of objective type. The length of the passage is lightly to be The nature of questions are such that they test between 100-400 words. Depending on the length 171 civilz byte and nature of passage, the candidates are re- choice or lose valuable time in re-reading the quired to answer 1-6 questions from each pas- relevant portion and then deciding the choice sage. All questions are of 2½ marks. This sec- of the answer. So careful and focused reading tion (on comprehension) usually has 30-35% has to be made your second nature. weightage in the entire question paper and un- 2. Comprehension of language : It means, doubtedly is the most important section. having the ability of literal understanding of the C. Essential abilities passage. This requires a basic command over the language and a reasonable vocabulary. Good Primarily the candidates are required to vocabulary and command over language is sure have the ability to comprehend the passage, to aid quicker and better grasp of the passage. understand the importance of question and se- This is especially true about your vocabulary. If lect the appropriate choice. But reducing the you do not happen to know the meaning of a skills to these three broad categories perhaps word used in the passage, then it is possible is too simplistic. Each of these abilities in turn that your understanding of what the word im- require several skills and abilities, the impor- plies is only a contextual conjecture, which may tant ones are discussed below. or may not be right. So learn a new word a day. 1. Careful reading : The reading of the Use the Oxford Advanced Learner’s Dictionary. comprehension passage has to be careful and Working on your language is likely to be doubly meticulous. Unlike the perusal of story books, helpful. magazines and news papers where one tends 3. Ability to concentrate : Concentration to go through the matter rather curiously, at is that one ability which is of utmost impor- best casually, comprehension passages require tance in the entire examination and more so in a very focused and thorough reading. this section. Even a momentary lapse of con- Every sentence and every word has to be centration can mean that you lost grasp of the meticulously gone through and what author is subject or waste valuable time in having to go trying to say has to be grasped. There are times through the portion where your concentration when, while reading in ordinary course, we are wavered again. not able to fully comprehend what is implied in While the eyes keep on perusing the text, a sentence or in a paragraph. Although we have the mind loses connect with the subject and by visually perused such a portion, we choose to the time we become aware of the concentra- move ahead without waiting to completely un- tion lapse, you have already marched ahead to derstand what has been said or without making another line or a paragraph. And then comes a diligent effort to do so. Such an approach is the quandary whether to keep on reading ahead likely to back fire in the test of comprehension and risk not understanding the passage fully or ability. As a result of improper comprehension, whether to return to the portion where we either we may not be able to pick the correct mentally strayed off and spend more time in 172 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle grasping it. While the first choice is fraught with allowed to rot and if need be it should be distrib- the possibility of loss of marks due to improper uted free amongst the poor.” comprehension, the second one entails the loss Did you notice any mental images getting of precious time. In either of the cases, what is evolved? If not, then read again and try to take adversely affected is the candidate’s perfor- note of the images coming before you, or make mance. a conscious effort to picturize what is being said. Thus, it is essential to fully concentrate The word Supreme Court may evolve the image on the passage, to be aware of the occurrence of the Supreme Court, which we see on televi- of concentration lapse (if that happens) and to sion or in pictures, or that of judges sitting in a come back to course as quickly as possible. court room. The word government evokes dif- D. Visualizing what is being said ferent images in different persons. While rot- While the necessity for concentration can ting food grain may produce a picture of piles hardly be over emphasized, the significant ques- or sacks of grain lying in the open. tion is how to achieve it or improve upon it. An Though all words and ideas may not and important skill which prevents the concentra- cannot be converted into images, still the abil- tion from wavering is the ability to visualize ity to visualize a reasonable portion of what is what is being said. In simple words, this means contained in the passage helps in the following trying to picturize the gist of the text. This is ways. converse of imagery, where vivid descriptions in words are used to produce a mental image. It helps in easier and better understand- In fact, visualizing what is being said or written ing of the letter and import of the text. is a usual feature of our brain’s ability to inter- It enables a clear and quicker recollection pret text and language. However, generally you of the significant points when you are to are not conscious of this, or at times the pro- read and answer the questions. cess is so quick and subtle that we fail to, or It helps in remaining focused on the task hardly, take note of it. As such a conscious ef- you are reading and in understanding the fort has to be made to be aware of that visualization process or to induce the conscious por- passage. tion of our brain to picturize the text. To un- This is so, as our mind remains engaged in derstand what is implied by visualization, con- the multiple activities, reading, understanding sider the following news item. and visualizing. Further, whenever the concen- “The Supreme Court has noted with grave tration waivers and the visualized images stop concern that lakhs of tonnes of food grains are being generated, the brain takes note of the rotting in government godowns. It has directed concentration lapse and sets out on a correc- the government that food grains should not be tion course. 173 civilz byte

E. Reading speed If you don’t have the habit of reading at all, make it a habit now. Start by reading Reading speed is one aspect which is often one of Chetan Bhagat’s Books. Consider- thought to be an area of concern by some aspiring your age and his style of writing, we ants. They believe that a better reading speed guess, you will get better connected to his would translate into their being able to solve the comprehension passage questions quicker. books. Later, change the genre from fic- Therefore, the faster they read the better it is. tion to something that interests you. Keep However, there is only part truth in this assump- developing the habit and make reading a tion. daily compulsory part of your life. Reading faster would translate into being Read good books and articles which have better, provided speed does not compromise the rich and fluent language especially those comprehension ability. If it does, then speed on topical issues, which wet your thought instead of being an advantage becomes a li- process. Reading editorials of leading na- ability. After all, marks are awarded for right tional dailies and articles of substance and answers and if comprehension of the passage concurrent and relevant issues can also be and choice of correct answers is sacrificed, then very helpful. quick reading may save you a few minutes, but Note those words, whose meaning you are in turn may cause loss of valuable marks. not aware of or sure about. Check it up in But then what is optimal speed? Well, this a dictionary, especially the usage of the may vary from person to person. But on an av- word in different contexts. Instead of erage, a speed of 150-160 words a minute can learning the meanings of words individu- be considered to be reasonable. So find out what ally (e.g., contemplate=Deep thought), is your own optimum speed and try to gradu- make a habit to learn them in phrases. ally improve upon it. This can be done with more E.g., “Contemplating (deep thought about practice and better concentration. But do al- something) his future.” ways remember, it is the quality of comprehension which matters most. 2. Improve comprehension ability:

F. How to prepare: Developing skills Comprehension ability refers to a number of attributes which have been discussed ear- Having known what skills and abilities are lier, such as understanding the literal text, expected of you, the next logical step is to de- theme and essence, ability to think on an issue velop and hone them. Here are some suggestions and tips which you may find handy. etc. Here is what you can do to hone them. 1. Improving language skills and vocabulary: Grasp the essence whenever you read an article in magazines, news paper, an edi- Proficiency in language and vocabulary form torial, or a thought provoking essay or a a fundamental aspect of comprehension. Improv- long status on Facebook, ask yourself what ing on the skills pays you doubly. 174 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

is the writer trying to say? What is the main G. How to answer theme? This instills an ability to grasp the Here are some suggestions and tips which salient aspects of any write up. will be helpful while answering, in ascertaining Visualize while you read. As discussed in the right option, saving time and avoiding mis- previous sections, try to picturize what the takes. author is trying to convey. This also gives Read the questions and their options first a boost to your skill of mental imagery and and then read the passage. ability to correlate words with thoughts While going through the passage, try to and ideas. underline the relevant words, portions and Reflect and ponder over what you have key concepts which you consider the pas- read. Merely passive reading is not suffi- sage is trying to convey. This not only helps cient. Ask yourself whether or not you are in better understanding of the passage, but in agreement with what the author has to helps in quickly repeating the relevant say. Is the view expressed balanced? Such portions, if you need to refer to while an- an exercise sharpens your analytical abili- swering. ties and understanding of the issue. Read the questions and options properly. Practice and practice more. Please re- Once you have read the question, pause member there is no substitute for actual for a second and repeat the question to practice. No matter how much of theory yourself, or ask yourself what you have you have mastered, it is meaningless un- understood. This helps in clearing any mis- conceptions bred by your own haste. Do less you have tested your abilities on the not hesitate to read the question again or touch stone of actual practice. Practice to go back to the relevant portion in the reveals your shortcomings and helps you passage to recollect, if need be. to overcome them. It indicates where do you stand and with time and learning, Look out for expressions such as, ‘which is whether you have to show improvement not the correct reasoning’ (a question in or not. It helps to understand what your negative) or, ‘which is not the suggestion areas of strength and weakness are and made by the author’. In haste one is likely to miss the word `not’ and select the how to plan your strategy. It will be pru- wrong choice. dent to improve practice sessions with questions from previous papers & other In certain cases the question asks, “what sources so that you are aware of how much as per the author/passage are the rea- time you are likely to take in attempting sons...?” Here the question has to be an- a comprehension passage and could plan swered strictly as per views expressed/ your strategy of attempting the paper ac- facts stated in the passage. Question in cordingly. such cases should not be answered on the 175 civilz byte

basis of a commonly known fact which may and you do find an option closely matching otherwise even be true. to your reply, then the probability of it being the correct choice becomes quite high. Read all options carefully before deciding This helps in saving time as you are able to your answer. Do not jump to a conclusion conclude which is the right option rather just after reading the first or the second quickly. choice. The answer choices offered may be quite similar to each other with only a Budgeting your time for various sections fine difference between them. As such, an and chalking out beforehand a time strat- incorrect choice may also appear to be the egy is always very helpful. This means how right answer, until you read the subsequent much time do you propose to allot to each choices and realize that one of them ap- section and to each question in that sec- pears to be a better option. tion should be planned beforehand. If you are stuck at a question or have already Many a time, the choices of answers are over shot the time but cannot figure out such, that all or more than one of them, the correct answer, then it is always pru- may be partly correct. The fully correct dent to leave the question and not to waste one or the right option in such cases can further time on it. You may revisit the ques- only be picked up by very careful reading tion later (if time permits) or make an in- and understanding the theme and the es- telligent guess between the possible sence of the passage. choices. However, guess work is ill advised In some questions, one or more than one where your confidence is low about the of the options may be totally illogical or correctness of the choice, as negative patently incorrect. Here the technique of marks will be awarded for wrong answers. ‘selection by elimination’ may be applied. For the comprehension passages which may After the first reading of the options, strike be having 10 marks (4 questions), budget- out those ones which are totally incorrect. ing around six to seven minutes for read- Choosing amongst the remaining options ing the entire passage and answering the becomes easier. Besides, this saves some questions, is considered reasonable. As time in arriving at a conclusion, as one known, CSAT will be of 200 marks and 120 does not have to go through the struck out minutes will be the time permitted. As such, options again. if one allots a minute for every one and a Prejudging or pre-phrasing your reply is half marks, then in two hours’ time, one also a technique which works well in some would be able to attempt questions worth cases. If the question is such that you can 180 marks. This should be considered a articulate/frame your reply without hav- good attempt. Thus, for a comprehension ing to look at the given options, then it is passage of 10 marks, keeping roughly six called pre-judging or pre-phrasing the re- to seven minutes budgeted, is a reason- ply. Once you have pre-judged the reply able time allocation. But if you are taking 176 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

much more than this time span, then ei- his own work and the organization he is employed ther be very confident of your answers (so with. Any organization would expect its employ- that you get some return for the heavy in- ees to have a positive attitude. In the context vestments made in terms of time) or move of the civil services, this would imply an officer to another question or section where you being optimistic and happy with his work and think you can fare better. prospects in the organization as opposed to being cynical and frustrated. This would also mean INTERPERSONAL SKILLS being respectful of seniors and colleagues, and having traits which would enable him to exact INCLUDING respect of subordinates. Having a reasonable COMMUNICATION SKILLS degree of emotional quotient would be another desirable inter-personal trait. This means being Interpersonal skills refer to those skills able to manage one’s own emotions as well as which help a person in effective interaction with the emotions of others to some extent and not people in different kinds of social setups. These being overwhelmed by emotions, especially in skills are essential for a person to be a produc- adverse situations. These skills are essential to tive employee in any organization and work establish a positive work environment, prevent environment. Understandably, this is one qual- conflict between employees and to usher ‘work ity which the aptitude test aims to assess. synergy’ between them. Interpersonal skills have several dimen- B. Verbal Communication Skills sions, and incorporate different skills. The most important and relevant among them are the fol- These are skills which enable a person to lowing. effectively put across what he intends to communicate. This includes, not only what is being Psychological disposition or the attitude of person. said but more importantly how it is being said. The tone and tenor of the speaker, the poise Verbal communication skills including tone and delivery of speech, all form a part of the and tenor of voice, listening skills etc. verbal communication skills. But perhaps the Linguistic communication skills including most important aspect of verbal communica- command over language and understand- tion is active and intent listening. Without being its basics. ing a good listener, one cannot be adept in the The latter two broad categories specified art of verbal communication. All of the afore- above form what is referred as the communi- said skills and attitude are either inborn or de- cation skills. velop over a period of time. In the context of A. Psychological evaluation, they often require a personal or face Disposition or Attitude to face interaction with the evaluator. The holistic assessment of these traits is less feasible The psychological disposition refers to the by means of a written objective type evalua- attitude of the person towards other people, tion and not likely to be done. Therefore, the 177 civilz byte questions which are likely to figure in the apti- student of Class X. tude test are likely to be of the third category From the perspective of preparation, the specified above. task can be divided in two broad areas; C. Linguistic Communication Skills a) Working upon grammar and syntax These skills refer to a person’s understand- b) Improving vocabulary and understanding ing and command of those aspects of language of phrases and expressions. which help to be an effective communicator. Some tips and techniques of preparation These would include understanding of grammar are being given below. and syntax grasp over vocabulary and comprehension of contextual usage of words. Such skills (II) How to Prepare are essential for a person to precisely put across Preparation for this section involves some what he wants to convey, without leaving much techniques which are common to the prepara- room for ‘ambiguity. tion for the comprehension passages. As such, Generally, these skills get inculcated over while the principal activity remains the same a period of time. They are a culmination of a (viz., wide reading) the focus has to be made person’s flair for language and years of learn- broader to incorporate preparation for this sec- ing. Bringing improvement in these skills re- tion also. quires gradual but systematic and diligent ef- Read good books and articles which have forts. However, a reasonable degree of improve- fluent language, especially those which ment can be made with sincere and concerted hone your language skills and enrich your efforts. As such, the objective of the following vocabulary. pages is to give an overall idea for the possible Note those words, whose meaning you are areas from which the questions are likely to fig- not aware of or sure about. Check it up in ure, the standard which is expected of the can- the dictionary, especially the usage of the didates and how to go about the preparation, word in different contexts. Always keep a despite the constraint of time. This will enable good English dictionary readily available you to gauge where you stand and chart out for near your reading table, preferably the yourselves the road ahead in the course of the ‘Latest Edition of Oxford Advanced preparation here at the Academy. Learner’s Dictionary’. Do not procrastinate (I) Linguistic Communication Skills : What looking up the meaning. It’s also advisable and How to Prepare to make a note of the sentence in which This section aims to assess a candidate’s you spotted the new word. If the word has grasp over the fundamental aspects of language different contextual meanings, then try to and communication. This would include gram- make a sentence (at least mentally) in dif- mar, syntax, vocabulary, contextual understand- ferent contexts in which the word can be ing of phrases, expressions and, words etc. The used. This helps in absorption of the word standard expected of the candidate is that of a and its usage in your active vocabulary. 178 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

If you are unable to look up the dictionary (apart from correction of sentence struc- then underline/mark the word or jot it ture/spotting grammatical mistakes) from down in a diary or a note book or even in which questions are likely to emanate. The your smart phone. A pocket note book best method to work upon such areas is to which you can carry with you is the best solve as many exercises as possible in a form of making such notes. Look up the good work book. dictionary and note the word usage at the Antonyms and synonyms are another topic earliest. We suggest you to put a separate from which the questions can possibly notebook to jot down the newly learned arise, although the question may not be words. direct i.e., requiring you to pick up the A good approach to understanding word antonym or synonym from the given meaning is, trying first to guess what is choices. The question may require the can- the contextual meaning of the word or didate to pick up the Word closest in mean- expression. Then, look it up in the dictio- ing, or having the same contextual mean- nary and check whether your understanding, as a particular word underlined or ing was correct or not. Also, cross check highlighted in the sentence. Candidates the meaning in the dictionary to under- often face the dilemma, whether or not stand the entire gamut of the contextual to use a thesaurus to work upon antonyms usages of a word. and synonyms. It is always advisable to work upon your vocabulary by doing wide Always revise whatever you have noted and extensive reading. So, thesaurus can periodically and preferably daily. This be a good reference book. ‘Thesaurus.com’ steadily but surely enriches your vocabu- is also a good site for reference. lary and understanding of the language. Watch your punctuation. This is an area Keep an eye for expressions, idioms and where many falter. Do a preliminary read- phrases whose meaning you are unaware, ing of the basics of punctuation from a or which you seldom or never use your- grammar book. Practice exercises on it self. Make a note of these also, in your from a workbook. Be conscious of the punc- notebook. tuation marks being used in the articles/ If you consider grammar/syntax to be your news items which you are reading. Make a weak area, then it is advisable to go back mental note of the punctuation marks you to the basics. Pick up a high school or/ come across while reading, ascertain men- class 10th grammar book and go through tally whether the usage is appropriate or it (Preferably, High school English Gram- not. mar by Wren & Martin). Peruse the por- Make a fair assessment of your proficiency tion on the parts of the sentence. Work in this entire area of preparation. We upon areas such as prepositions, punctua- strongly recommend that you spend few tions, articles etc. These are the areas mins on a daily basis in learning new words 179 civilz byte

or grammar or something. Don’t neglect about this area. Dr. R. S. Agarwal’s books on this section at any cost for it helps you in verbal & non verbal reasoning are a must for all spheres & walks of life. practice.

TEST OF LOGICAL DECISION MAKING AND REASONING PROBLEM SOLVING

A. Abilities to be tested A. Introduction

The questions on logical reasoning test the The test of ‘decision making and problem ability of the reader to fully comprehend the solving’, is a unique aspect of the Civil Services import of the given statement or a concise pas- (Preliminary Paper II) Examination. Its objec- sage. It may further require one to be a cri- tive is to go beyond the linguistic, numerical tique of the conclusion drawn by applying the and other abilities which are usually assessed touchstone of logic and argument. This means in any aptitude tests. And that to evaluate those one has to test the logical consonance of state- set of traits which are integral to becoming a ments and the conclusion drawn. But not nec- competent and upright civil servant. Taking essarily all questions of ‘Logical reasoning’ are decisions is an inseparable and critical part of statements and conclusion type. Some may re- the work profile of a civil servant. And often quire the reader to determine as to which state- these decisions are to be exercised in environment is the logical conclusion of the other. But ments involving ethical, legal and practical di- irrespective of the format of questions, they lemmas or acute physical constraints. How quintessentially test the reasoning and logical would a candidate respond to such situations is comprehension of a candidate. what this topic endeavors to evaluate. B. Nature and type of questions B. Features of Questions

The questions on LR usually consist of three I) Nature of questions : The questions will parts viz., a logical stimulus, a question stem deal with different real life situations. It will and the answer choices. The logical stimulus is describe who you are and what is the situation statement or a concise passage, the underlying viz., a District Collector dealing with flood re- logic in which has to be comprehended. The lief; a doctor dealing with supply of medicines/ question stem indicates what is expected of the vaccines; an executive of an MNC dealing with candidate and how the logic has to be applied. the launch of a product; etc. The question will There can be several types of questions de- then present a dilemma or a situation of diffi- pending on, whether the conclusion is a part of culty in which a course of action has to be logical stimulus or it is contained in the ques- adopted or a decision taken. This can be, the tion stem or has to be picked out from answer course of action to be adopted by the District choices. Keep practicing questions from this Collector where merchants are charging double section and you’ll subsequently gain confidence the usual price for relief materials; or in case of 180 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle scarcity of medicine, as a doctor which patient Upholding truth and justice to accord priority; or as an executive of a MNC Upholding law and observation of rules whether to choose corporate responsibility or Honesty and integrity corporate profit in case of conflict of interest Sense of responsibility and sincerity between the two. This is followed by four options each describing a different course of ac- Initiative in work and devotion to duty tion to deal with the situation. You are required Valuing merit despite pressure to indicate your choice of the most preferred Valuing transparency and probity in public course of action. Considering that you were in life that given role. Valuing ethics and morality in public life II) Marking of questions: Each of these Not succumbing to extraneous pressures questions is of 2.5 marks like other section ques- and influences in course of discharge of tions. However, the unique feature of the ‘deci- duties. sion making’ questions is that there is no nega- The list of course is not exhaustive. What tive marking for these questions, while CSAT is pertinent is to first identify which of these or has negative marking for the rest of the ques- other values or principles are entailed in the tions. This implies, that unlike other questions situation. Then the most important thing is to in the paper, this set of questions may not nec- ascertain which of the given options best up- essarily have, only one option which is right, while holds the aforesaid principles or values. At times other options are absolutely wrong. Rather, the the practicability or feasibility of the options is four choices which are given may actually be also to be seen and a fine balance has to be graded ranging from the best to the worst choice. struck between the principles and its applicabil- e.g., 2.5 marks for choice ‘b’, 1.5 marks for ity in a given situation. Thus, it is not merely choice ‘c’, 1 mark for choice ‘a’ & 0 mark for the identification of the values, but also the choice ‘d.’ sense of balance of Judgment which is put to C. Test of Ability test. The questions in this section are of such a TEST OF BASIC NUMERACY nature that they entail ethical and moral dimensions of decision making. As mentioned AND earlier, each of these questions present a deci- DATA INTERPRETATION sion making dilemma or difficulty. The key to selecting the right option lies in understanding The test of basic numeracy (BN) and data which principle or value is entailed in the situ- interpretation (DI) forms a salient part of every ation given. This forms the nucleus of the ques- aptitude assessment. Such tests are usually de- tion around which the described circumstances signed to gauge the candidate’s comprehension and possible course of actions revolve. Some of of various numerical relations and operations, these values/principles are… and ability to understand and interpret data, 181 civilz byte represented in the form of charts, graphs, tables tion (area, perimeters) etc. The understanding etc. The scheme of the civil services examina- of these topics in itself may not be a challenge tion clearly specifies that the level of expecta- for most. However, if you are from HPG or weak tion from the candidates is that equivalent to in this, then it will be a good idea to regularly the standard of questions of class X. Thus, in- solve the questions pertaining to these topics. stead of coping with complex mathematical Dr. R. S. Agarwal’s book on Quantitative Apti- theories and performing tedious calculations, tude is compulsory for practice. the candidate will be expected to have a basic B. Data Interpretation idea of a subject to which they already have a prior exposure. This section deals with solving these problems which are based on information or data From the perspective of the examination, furnished in the form of tables, bar charts, pie this section presents a challenge as well as an charts, graphs etc. You would probably have opportunity. The speed and accuracy demanded some basic familiarity with these forms of data by the BN and DI questions may be a challenge presentation. To name some important forms to some. But these questions also present the are… right opportunity to grab some good marks, and thus catapult your score to a higher level. 1. Tables A. Basic numeracy 2. Bar Charts 3. Pie Charts The scheme of the examination specifies 4. Graphs (or) X-Y Charts that the candidates should have an understanding of numbers and their relations, orders of Most questions in DI are likely to test your magnitude etc. Though a detailed description understanding of data, and analysis and inter- of topics has not been given in the notification, pretation of the data. They are not likely to a detailed list of topics is given in this book. involve complex numerical calculations although Moreover, it is known that questions are likely elementary computation may be involved. to figure from topics such as, number system, With a smart strategy and thorough prac- average, percentage, ratio and proportion, HCF tice, CSAT would be a cakewalk for a student of and LCM, profit-loss-discount, basic mensura- any caliber to qualify with 33%.

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182 CHAPTER Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle 27 Treasure Trove: Civil Services Aptitude Test CSAT - QUESTION PAPER 2013

Directions for the following 8 (eight) items : ates about the possibility of democratic practice in the world would be extremely hard to Read the following four passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your justify. There were several experiments in lo- answers to these items should be based on the cal democracy in ancient India. Indeed, in un- passages only. derstanding the roots of democracy in the world, we have to take an interest in the history of people participation and public reasoning in Passage - 1 different parts of the world. We have to look beyond thinking of democracy only in terms of The subject of democracy has become se- European and American evolution. We would fail verely muddled because of the way rhetoric sur- to understand the pervasive demands for par- rounding it has been used in recent years. There ticipatory living, on which Aristotle spoke with is, increasingly, an oddly confused dichotomy between those who want to ‘impose’ democ- far-reaching insight, if we take democracy to racy n countries in the non-Western world (in be a kind of a specialized cultural product of these countries’ ‘own interest’, of course) and the West. those who are opposed to such ‘imposition’ (be- It cannot, of course, be doubted that the cause of the respect for the countries’ ‘own institutional structure of the contemporary ways’). But the entire language of ‘imposition’, practice of democracy is largely the product of used by both sides, is extraordinarily inappro- European and American experience over the last priate since it makes the implicit assumption few centuries. This is extremely important to that democracy belongs exclusively to the West, recognize since these developments in institu- taking it to be a quintessentially ‘Western’ idea tional formats were immensely innovative and which has originated and flourished only in the ultimately effective. There can be little doubt West. that there is a major ‘Western’ achievement But the thesis and the pessimism it gener- here. 183 civilz byte

1. Which of the following is closest to the view Passage - 2 of democracy as mentioned in the above Corporate governance is based on principles passage? such as conducting the business with all integ- (a) The subject of democracy is a muddle rity and fairness, being transparent with regard due to a desire to portray it has a west- to all transactions, making all the necessary ern concept, ‘alien’ to non-western disclosures and decisions, complying with all the countries. laws of the land, accountability and responsi- (b) The language of imposition of democ- bility towards the stake holders and commitment to conducting business in an ethical man- racy is inappropriate. There is, how- ner. Another point which is highlighted on cor- ever, a need to consider this concept porate governance is the need for those in con- in the backdrop of culture of ‘own trol to be able to distinguish between what are ways’ of non-western society. personal and corporate funds while managing a (c) While democracy is not essentially a company western idea belonging exclusively to Fundamentally, there is a level of confi- the west, the institutional structure of dence that is associated with a company that is current democratic practices has been known to have good corporate governance. The their contribution. presence of an active group of independent di- (d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) rectors on the board contributes a great deal given above is correct. towards ensuring confidence in the market. Corporate governance is known to be one of the criteria that foreign institutional investors 2. With reference to the passage, the follow- are increasingly depending on when deciding ing assumptions have been made: on which companies to invest in. It is also known 1. Many of the non-Western countries are to have a positive influence on the share price unable to have democracy because they of the company. Having a clean image on the take democracy to be a specialized cul- corporate governance front could also make it tural product of the West. easier for companies to source capital at more 2. Western countries are always trying to reasonable costs. Unfortunately, corporate governance often becomes the centre of discus- impose democracy on non-Western sion only after the exposure of a large scam. countries. Which of the above is/are valid assump- 3. According to the passage, which of the following should be practice/practices in good tion/assumptions ? corporate governance? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only 1. Companies should always comply with (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 and 2 labour and tax laws of the land. 184 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

2. Every company in the country should been that even in households where adults eat have a government representative as adequate quantities of food, more than 50% of one of the independent directors on the children-under-five do not consume enough board to ensure transparency. food. The child’s dependence on someone else 3. The manager of a company should never to feed him/her is primarily responsible for the invest his personal funds in the com- malnutrition. Very often the mother is working pany. and the responsibility of feeding the young child Select the correct answer using the codes is left to an older sibling. It is therefore crucial given below: to increase awareness regarding the child’s food (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only needs and how to satisfy them. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 5. According to the passage, malnutrition in 4. According to the passage, which of the fol- children can be reduced lowing is, are the major benefit/benefits (a) If the children have regular intake of of good corporate governance? food. 1. Good corporate governance leads to in- (b) After they cross the age of 5 crease in share price of the company. (c) If the food needs of younger children 2. A company with good corporate gover- are known nance always increases its business turnover rapidly. (d) If the responsibility of feeding younger 3. Good corporate governance is the main children is given to adults. criterion for foreign institutional investors when they decide to buy a com- 6. According to the author, poverty is not the pany. main cause of malnutrition, but the fact Select the correct answer using the codes that given below: 1. Taking care of younger ones is not a (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only priority for working mothers. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 2. Awareness of nutritional needs is not propagated by the Public Health au- Passage - 3 thorities. Select the correct answer using the code Malnutrition most commonly occurs between the ages of 6 months & 2 years. This hap- given below : pens despite the child’s food requirements be- (a) 1 only (b) 2 only ing less than that of an older child. Malnutri- (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 tion is often attributed to poverty, but it has 185 civilz byte Passage - 4 7. The need for policy intervention to mitigate risks in agriculture is because A number of empirical studies find that (a) Famers are extremely risk averse. farmers are risk-averse, though only moderately in many cases. There is also evidence to show (b) Farmers do not know to mitigate risks that farmers’ risk aversion results in cropping (c) The method adopted by farmer and ex- patterns and input use designed to reduce risk isting risk sharing institutions are not rather than to maximize income. Farmers adopt adequate a number of strategies to manage and cope with (d) Majority of farmers depend on rain fed agricultural risks. These include practices like agriculture. crop and field diversification, non-farm employment, storage of stocks and strategic migra- 8. Which of the following observations tion of family members. There are also institu- emerges from the above passage? tions ranging from share tenancy to kinship, extended family and informal credit agencies. (a) One can identity a single policy that One major obstacle to risk sharing by farmers can reduce risk without any side effect. is that the same type of risks can affect a large (b) No single risk-specific policy is suffi- number of farmers in the region. Empirical stud- cient to reduce agricultural risk. ies show that the traditional methods are not (c) Policies which affect risk indirectly can adequate. Hence there is a need for policy in- eliminate it. terventions especially measures that cut across (d) Government’s policy intervention can geographical regions. mitigate agricultural risk completely. Policies may aim at tacking agricultural risks directly or indirectly. Examples of risk spe- 9. Consider the following statement : cific policies are crop insurance, price stabili- (i) A primary group is relatively smaller in zation and the development of varieties resistant to pests and diseases. Policies which af- size. fect risk indirectly are irrigation, subsidized (ii) Intimacy is an essential characteristic credit and access to information. No single spe- of a primary group. cific risk policy is sufficient to reduce the risk (iii)A family may be an example of a pri- and without side-effects, whereas policies not mary group. specific to risk influence the general situation In the light of the above statements, which and affect risks only indirectly. Crop insurance, one the following is true? as a policy measure to tackle agriculture risk (a) All families are primary groups. directly deserves careful consideration in the Indian context and in many other developing (b) All primary groups are families. countries –becomes the majority of farmers (c) A group of smaller size is always a pri- depend on rain-fed agriculture and in many ar- mary group. eas yield variability is the predominant cause (d) Members of a primary group know each if their income instability. other intimately. 186 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

10. Four friends A, B, C and D distribute some 14. Between which two cities among the pairs money among themselves in such a man- of cities given below are there maximum ner that A gets one less than B, C gets a travel options available ? more than D, D gets 3 more than B. Who (a) Q and S (b) P and R gets the smallest amount? (c) P and T (d) Q and R (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D Directions for the following 3 (three) Directions for the following 4 (four) items: items: Read the following passage and answer the Read the following statements and answer three items that follow: the four items that follow: A tennis coach is trying to put together a Five cities P, Q, R, S and T are connected team of four players for the forthcoming by different modes of transport as follows: tournament. For this 7 player are available: P and Q are connected by boat as well as males A, B and C; and females W, X, Y and rail. Z. All players have equal capability and at S and R are connected by bus and boat. least 2 males will be there in the team. Q, and T are connected by air only. For a team of four, all players must be able to play with each other. But, B cannot play P and R are connected by boat only. with W, C cannot play with Z and W cannot T and R are connected by rail and bus. play with Y.

11. Which mode of transport would help one 15. If Y is selected and B is rejected, the team to reach R starting from Q but without will consist of which one of the following changing the mode of transport? groups? (a) Boat (b) Rail (c) Bus (d) Air (a) A, C, W and Y (b) A, C, X and Y (c) A, C, Y and Z (d) A, W, Y and Z 12. If a person visits each of the places starting from P and gets back to P which of the following places must he visit 16. If B is selected and Y is rejected, the team twice? will consist of which one of the following groups? (a) Q (b)R (c) S (d)T (a) A, B, C and W (b) A, B, C and Z 13. Which one of the following pairs of cities (c) A, B, C and X (d) A, W, Y and Z is connected by any of the routes directly without going to other cities? 17. If all the three males are selected then how (a) P and T (b) T and S many combination of four member team are possible? (c) Q and R (d) None of these (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 187 civilz byte

18. The music director of a film wants to se- A and D play basketball and football lect four persons to work on different as- C and D play hockey and basketball pects of the composition of a piece of music. Seven persons are available for this 20. Who does not play hockey? work; they are Rohit, Tanya, Shobha (a) D (b) C (c) B (d) A Kaushal, Kunal, Mukesh and Jaswant. Rohit and Tanya will not work together. Kunal and 21. Who plays football, basketball and hockey? Shobha will not work together. Mukesh and Kunal want to work together. (a) D (b) C (c) B (d) A Which of the following is the most acceptable group of people that can be selected 22. Which game do B, C and D play? by the music director? (a) Basketball (b) Hockey (a) Rohit, Shobha, Kunal and Kaushal (c) Cricket (d) Football (b) Tanya, Kaushal, Shobha and Rohit (c) Tanya, Mukesh, Kunal and Jashwanth 23. Geeta is older than her cousin Meena. Meena’s brother Bipin is older than Geeta. (d) Shobha, Tanya, Rohoy and Mukesh When Meena and Bipin visit Geeta, they like to play chess. Meena wins the games more 19. Five people A, B, C, D and E are seated often than Geeta. Based on the above in- about a round table. Every chair is spaced formation, four conclusions, as given be- equidistant from adjacent chairs. low, have been made. Which one of these (i) C is seated next to A logically follows from the information given (ii) A is seated two seats from D above? (iii) B is not seated next to A (a) While playing chess with Geeta and Which of the following must be true? Meena, Bipin often loses. (I) D is seated next to B. (b) Geeta is the oldest among the three. (II) E is seated next to A. (c)Geeta hates to lose the game. Select the correct answer from the codes (d) Meena is the youngest of the three given below (a) I only (b) II only Directions for the following 4 (four) items: (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II Read the following passage and answers the four items that follow. Your answers to Directions for the following 3 (three) these items should be based on the pas- items: sage only. Examine carefully the following statements and answer the three items that Passage follow: A and B play football and cricket Financial markets in India have acquired B and C play cricket and hockey greater depth and liquidity over the years. Steady 188 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle reforms since 1991 have led to growth linkages 2. uncertainties in the international finan- and integration of the Indian economy and its cial markets. financial system with the global economy. Weak 3. sovereign risk concerns in the Euro area. global economic prospects and continuing uncer- 4. bad monsoons and the resultant crop tainties in the international financial markets loss. therefore, have had their impact on the emerg- Select the correct answer using the code ing market economies. Sovereign risk concerns, given below. particularly in the Euro area, affected financial (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 markets for the greater part of the year, with (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 the contagion of Greece’s sovereign debt problem spreading to India and other economies by 25. The Indian financial markets are affected way of higher-than-normal levels of volatility. by global changes mainly due to the The funding constraints in the international (a) increased inflow of remittances from financial markets could impact both the avail- abroad. ability and cost of foreign funding for banks and (b) enormous increase in the foreign ex- corporate. Since the Indian financial system is change reserve. bank dominated, banks’ ability to withstand (c) growing global linkages and integration stress is critical to overall financial stability. In- of the Indian financial markets. dian banks, however remain robust, not with- (d) contagion of Greece’s sovereign debt standing a decline in capital to risk –weighted problem. assets ratio and a rise in non-performing asset levels in the recent past. Capital adequacy lev- 26. According to the passage, in the Indian fi- els remain above the regulatory requirements. nancial system, banks’ ability to withstand The financial market infrastructure continues to stress is critical to ensure overall financial function without any major disruption. With fur- stability because Indian financial system is ther globalization, consolidation, deregulation (a) controlled by the Government of India. and diversification of the financial system, the (b) less integrated with banks. banking business may become more complex and (c) controlled by Reserve Bank of India. riskier. Issues like risk and liquidity management (d) dominated by banks. and enhancing skill therefore assume greater significance. 27. Risk and liquidity management assumes 24. According to the passage, the financial more importance in the Indian banking sys- markets in the emerging market economies tem in future due to including India had the adverse impact in 1. further globalization. recent years due to 2. more consolidation and deregulation of 1. weak global economic prospects. the financial system. 189 civilz byte

3. further diversification of the financial wearing a cap of a different colour like vio- system. let, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and 4. more financial inclusion in the economy. red. D is able to see in front of him green Select the correct answer using the code and blue, but not violet. E can see Violet given below: and yellow, but not red. G can see caps of all colours other than orange. If E is wear- (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 ing an indigo coloured cap, then the colour (c)1 and 2 only (d)3 and 4 of the cap owned by F is (a) blue (b) violet 28. There are five hobby clubs in a college viz., (c) red (d) orange photography, yachting, chess, electronics and gardening. The gardening group meets every second day, the electronics group 31. There are some balls of red, green and yel- meets every third day, the chess group low colour lying on a table. There are as many meets every fourth day, the yachting group red balls as there are yellow balls. There meets every fifth day and the photography are twice as many yellow balls as there are group meets every sixth day. How many green ones. The number of red balls times do all the four groups meet on the (a) is equal to the sum of yellow and green same day within 180 days. balls. (a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 10 (d) 1 (b) is double the number of green balls. (c) is equal to yellow balls minus green balls. 29. A, B, C, D and E belong to five different (d) cannot be ascertained. cities P, Q, R, S and T (not necessarily in that order). Each one of them comes from Directions for the following 2 ( two) items: a different city. Further it is given that : Read the following passage and answer the 1. B and C do not belong to Q. two items that follow. Your answers to 2. B and E do not belong to P and R. these items should be based on the pas- 3. A and C do not belong to R, S and T. sage only. 4. D and E do not belong to Q and T. Which one of the following statements is Passage not correct? Crude mineral oil comes out of the earth as (a) C belongs to P (b) D belongs to R a thick brown or black liquid with a strong smell. (c) A belongs to Q (d) B belongs to S It is a complex mixture of many different substances, each with its own individual qualities. 30. Seven men A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are stand- Most of them are combinations of hydrogen and ing in a queue in that order. Each one is carbon in varying proportions. Such hydrocar- 190 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle bons are also found in other forms such as bitu- 34. In a class of 45 students, a boy is ranked men, asphalt and natural gas. Mineral oil origi- 20th. When two boys joined, his rank was nates from the carcasses of tiny animals and dropped by one. What is his new rank from from plants that live in the sea. Over millions of the end? years, these dead creatures form large deposits (a) 25th (b) 26th (c) 27th (d) 28th under the sea-bed; and ocean currents cover them with a blanket of sand and silt. As this 35. A thief running at 8 km/hr is chased by a mineral hardens, it becomes sedimentary rock policeman whose speed is 10 km/hr. If the and effectively shuts out the oxygen, so pre- thief is 100 m ahead of the policeman, then venting the compete decomposition of the ma- the time required for the policeman to rine deposits underneath. The layers of sedimen- catch the thief will be tary rock become thicker and heavier. Their pres- (a) 2 min (b) 3 min (c) 4 min (d) 6 min sure produces heat which transforms the tiny carcasses into crude oil in a process that is still 36. A train travels at a certain average speed going on today. for a distance of 63 km and then travels a 32. Mineral oil deposits under the sea do not distance of 72 km at an average speed of 6 get completely decomposed because they km/hr more than its original speed. If it takes 3 hours to complete the total jour- (a) are constantly washed by the ocean ney, what is the original speed of the train currents. in km/hr? (b) become rock and prevent oxygen from (a) 24 (b) 33 (c) 42 (d) 66 entering them.

(c) contain a mixture of hydrogen and car- Directions for the following 7 (seven) bon. items: (d) are carcasses of organisms lying in sa- Read the following two passages and an- line conditions. swer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be 33. Sedimentary rock leads to the formation based on the passages only. of oil deposits because (a) there are no saline conditions below it. Passage-1

(b) it allows some dissolved oxygen to en- The law in many parts of the world increas- ter the dead organic matter below it. ingly restricts the discharge of agricultural slurry (c) weight of overlying sediment layers into watercourses. The simplest and often the causes the production of heat. most economically sound practice returns the (d) it contains the substances that cata- material to the land as semisolid manure or as lyze the chemical reactions required to sprayed slurry. This dilutes its concentration in change dead organisms into oil. the environment to what might have occurred 191 civilz byte in a more primitive and sustainable type of ag- Oceanic dead zones are typically associated with riculture and converts pollutant into fertilizer. industrialized nations and usually lie off coun- Soil microorganisms decompose the organic com- tries that subsidize their agriculture, encour- ponents of sewage and slurry and most of the aging farmers to increase productivity and use mineral nutrients become available to be ab- more fertilizers. sorbed again by the vegetation. The excess input of nutrients, both nitro- 37. According to the passage, why should the gen and phosphorus – based, from agricultural discharge of agricultural slurry into water- runoff (and human sewage) has caused many courses be restricted? ‘healthy’ oligotrophic lakes (low nutrient con- 1. Losing nutrients in this way is not a good centrations, low plant productivity with abun- practice economically. dant water weeds, and clear water) to change 2. Watercourses do not contain the micro- to eutrophic conditions where high nutrient in- organisms that can decompose organic puts lead to high phytoplankton productivity components of agricultural slurry. (sometimes dominated by bloom-forming toxic 3. The discharge may lead to the eutrophi- species). This makes the water turbid eliminates cation of water bodies. large plants and, in the worst situations, leads Select the correct answers using the codes to anoxia and fish kills; so called cultural given below : eutrophication. Thus, important ecosystem ser- (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only vices are lost, including the provisioning service of wild-caught fish and the cultural ser- (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 vices associated with recreation. 38. The passage refers to the conversion of The process of cultural eutrophication of “pollutant to fertilizer”. What is pollutant lakes has been understood for some time. But and what is fertilizer in this context ? only recently did scientists notice huge dead zones in the oceans near river outlets, particu- (a) Decomposed organic component of larly those draining large catchment areas such slurry is pollutant and microorganisms as the Mississippi in North America and the in soil constitute fertilizer. Yangtze in China. The nutrient-enriched water (b) Discharged agricultural slurry is pollut- flows through streams, rivers and lakes, and ant and decomposed slurry in soil is eventually to the estuary and ocean where the fertilizer. ecological impact may be huge, killing virtually (c) Sprayed slurry is pollutant and water- all invertebrates and fish in areas up to 70,000 course is fertilizer. km2 in extent. More than 150 sea areas world- (d) None of the above expressions is cor- wide are now regularly starved of oxygen as a rect in this context. result of decomposition of algal blooms, fuelled particularly by nitrogen from agricultural run- 39. According to the passage, what are the ef- off of fertilizers and sewage from large cities. fects of indiscriminate use of fertilizers? 192 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

1. Addition of pollutant to the soil and changes, his physical needs will always arise, water. and miseries will always be felt, and no amount 2. Destruction of decomposer microorgan- of physical help will remove them completely. isms in soil. The only solution of the problem is to make 3. Nutrient enrichment of water bodies. mankind pure. Ignorance is the mother of evil 4. Creation of algal blooms. and of all the misery we see let men have light, Select the answers from the codes given let them be pure and spiritually strong and edu- below: cated; then alone will misery cease in the world. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only We may convert every house in the country into (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 a charitable asylum, we may fill the land with hospitals, but human misery will continue until 40. What is/are the characteristics of a water man’s character changes. body with cultural eutrophication? 42. According to the passage, which of the fol- 1. Loss of ecosystem services lowing statements is most likely to be true 2. Loss of flora and fauna as the reason for man’s miseries? 3. Loss of mineral nutrients (a) The poor economic and social condi- Select the correct answer using the code tions prevailing in society. given below: (b) The refusal on the part of man to (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only change his character. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) The absence of physical and material help form his society. 41. What is the central theme of this passage? (d) Ever increasing physical needs due to (a) Appropriate legislation is essential to changing social structure. protect the environment.

(b) Modern agricultural is responsible for 43. With reference to the passage, the follow- the destruction of environment. ing assumptions have been made : (c) Improper waste disposal from agricul- 1. The author gives primary importance ture can destroy the aquatic ecosys- to physical and material help in tems. eradiating human misery. (d) Use of chemical fertilizers is undesirable in agriculture. 2. Charitable homes, hospitals, etc can remove human misery to a great extent. Passage-2 Which of the assumptions is/are valid? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only The miseries of the world cannot be cured by physical help only. Until man’s nature (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 193 civilz byte

44. Consider the following figures 1, 2, 3 and 4: 45. Problems figure :

Answers figures : 1 2

(a) (b) (c) (d) 3 4 46. Problem figures : In the figures from 1 to 4 above, two symbols are shown to change their position in a regular direction. Following the same sequence, which one of the following will appear at the fifth stage? Answers figures :

(a) (b) (a) (b) (c) (d)

47. Consider the following diagrams: x men, working at constant speed, do a (c) (d) certain job in y days. Which one of these diagrams shows the relation between x and y? y y

Directions for the following 2 (two) Days Days items: 0 x 0 x Men Men In each item, there are two sets of fig- diagram I diagram II ures; first four figures named Problem fig- y y ures and next four figures named Answer figures indicated as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Days Days The problem figures follow a particular x 0 x 0 Men sequence. In accordance with the same, Men diagram III diagram IV which one of the four answer figures should appear as the fifth figure ? (a) diagram I (b) diagram II (c) diagram III (d) diagram IV 194 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

48. Consider the following matrix: cube are shown below:

3 370 7 1 3 3 4 2 224 6 6 1 2 5 6 1 730 X What possible numbers can exist on the two What is the number at ‘X’ in the above faces marked A and B respectively on the matrix? cube? (a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 11 B 5 49. Four cars are hired at the rate of `6 per A km plus the cost of diesel at `40 a litre. In this context, consider the details given in (a) 2 and 3 (b) 6 and 1 the following table: (c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 1 Mileage Total Car Hours (km/l) Payment (`) Directions for the following 5 (five) items: A 8 20 2120 Study the two figures given below and an- B 10 25 1950 swer the five items that follow : C 9 24 2064 35 D 11 22 1812 30 25 Which car maintained the maximum aver- 20 age speed? 15 10 (a) Car A (b) Car B (c) Car C (d) Car D 5 0

Maths 50. Examine the following three figure in which Physics Botany Chemistry the numbers follow a specific pattern : Psychology Economics Figure 1 : Number of professors in 81 81 88 selected disciplines in a University by sex

14 12 18 9 ? 11

35-44 The missing number (?) in the third figure 25-34

above is 60-65

(a) 7 (b) 16 (c) 21 (d) 28 45-59

51. A cube has six numbers marked 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 on its faces. Three views of the Figure 2 : Age of Physics Professors 195 civilz byte

52. How many Physics professors belong to the age group 35-44? (a) 18 (b) 16 (c) 14 (d) 12 (a) (b) (c) (d) 53. Which one of the following disciplines has the highest ratio of males to females? Directions for the following 2 (two) (a) Physics (b) Mathematics items: (c) Chemistry (d) Economics Read the following passage and answer the two items follow. Your answer to these items should be based on the passage only. 54. What percentage of all Psychology professors are females? (a) 40% (b) 50% (c) 60% (d) 70% Passage Ecological research over the last quarter 55. If the number of female Physics Professors of the century has established the deleterious in the age group 25-34 equals 25% of all effects of habitat fragmentation due to min- the Physics professors in that age group, ing, highways and other such intrusions on for- then what is the number of male Physics ests. When a large block of forests get frag- professors in the age group 25-34? mented into smaller bits, the edges of all these (a) 9 (b) 6 (c) 3 (d) 2 come in to contact with human activities resulting in the degradation of the entire forests. 56. If the Psychology professors in the Univer- Continuity of forested landscapes and corridors sity constitute 2% of all the professors in gets disrupted affecting several extinction- the University, then what is the number of prone species of wildlife. Habitat fragmenta- professors in the University? tion is therefore considered as the most seri- (a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 600 (d)700 ous threat to biodiversity conservation. Ad hoc grants of forest lands to mining companies 57. Consider the following figures: coupled with rampant illegal mining is aggra- vating this threat.

123 458. What is the central focus of this passage? (a) Illegal mining in forests (b) Extinction of wildlife 567 (c) Conservation of nature Which one of the following figures would logically come in the 7th position indicated (d) Disruption of habitat. above by a question mark? 196 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

59. What is the purpose of maintaining the what is the least value of the prize? continuity of forested landscapes and cor- (a) ‘ 30 (b) ‘ 40 (c) ‘ 60 (d) ‘ 80 ridors? 1. Preservation of biodiversity. 63. Out of 120 applications for a post, 70 are 2. Management of mineral resources. male and 80 have a driver’s license. What is the ratio between the minimum to maxi- 3. Grant of forest lands for human activi- mum number of males having driver’s li- ties. cense? Select the correct answer using the codes (a) 1 to 2 (b) 2 to 3 (c) 3 to 7 (d) 5 to 7 given below. (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 64. In a garrison, there was food for 1000 sol- (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 diers for one month. After 10 days, 1000 more soldiers joined the garrison. How long 60. In a rare coin collection, there is one gold would the soldiers be able to carry on with coin for every three non-gold coins. 10 more the remaining food? gold coins are added to the collection and (a) 25 days (b) 20 days the ratio of gold coins to non-gold coins (c) 15 days (d) 10 days would be 1:2. Based on the information, the total number of coins in the collection now becomes 65. The tank-full petrol in Arun’s motor-cycle lasts for 10 days. If he starts using 25% more (a) 90 (b) 80 (c) 60 (d) 50 every day, how many days, will the tank- full petrol last? 61. A gardener has 1000 plants. He wants to (a) 5 (b) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8 plant them in such a way that the number of rows and the number of columns remains the same. What is the minimum number of 66. A person can walk a certain distance and plants that he needs more for this purpose? drive back in six hours. He can also walk both ways in 10 hours. How much time will (a) 14 (b) 24 (c) 32 (d) 34 he take to drive both ways? (a) Two hours 62. A sum of ‘ 700 has to be used to give seven cash prizes to the students of a school for (b) Two and a half hours their overall academic performance. If each (c) Five and a half hours prize is ‘20 less than its preceding prize, (d) Four hours 197 civilz byte

Directions for the following 8 (eight) items: his bicycle. The following eight items (items 67 to 74) (d) They were late only by 30 minutes. are based on three passages in English to test the comprehension of English language English Passage -2 and therefore these items do not have Hindi version. Read each passage and an- It was already late when we set out for the swer the items that follow. next town, which according to the map was about fifteen kilometers away on the other side of the hills. There we felt that we would find a English Passage-1 bed for the night. Darkness fell soon after we Seven-year-old Jim came home from the left the village, but luckily we met no one as park without his new bicycle. “An old man and we drove swiftly along the narrow winding road a little boy borrowed it,” he explained. “They that led to the hills. As we climbed higher, it are going to bring it back at four o’clock.” His became colder and rain began to fall, making it parents were upset that he had given his ex- difficult at times to see the road. I asked John, pensive new bicycle, but were secretly proud my companion, to drive more slowly. After we of his kindness and faith. Came four o’clock, had travelled for about twenty kilometers, there no bicycle. The parents were anxious. But at was still no sign of the town which was marked 4:30, the door bell rang, and there stood a happy on the map. We were beginning to get worried. man and a boy, with the bicycle and a box of Then without warning, the car stopped and we chocolates. Jim suddenly disappeared into his found we had run out of petrol. bedroom, and then came running out. “All right,” he said, after examining the bicycle. 69. The author asked John to drive more slowly “You can have your watch back.” because (a) The road led to the hills. 67. When Jim came home without his bicycle, (b) John was an inexperienced driver. his parents (c) The road was not clearly visible. (a) were angry with him. (d) They were in wilderness (b) were worried. (c) did not feel concerned. 70. The travelers set out for the town although (d) were eager to meet the old man and it was getting dark because the little boy. (a) They were in a hurry. (b) The next town was a short distance away 68. Jim returned the watch to the old man and and was a hill-resort. the little boy because (c) They were in wilderness. (a) they gave him chocolates. (d) The next town was a short distance away (b) his father was proud of him. and promised a good rest for the night. (c) He was satisfied with the condition of 198 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

71. The travelers were worried after twenty ki- (c) she did not like walking on the pave- lometers because ment. (a) It was a lonely countryside. (d) she was confused. (b) They probably feared of having lost their way. 74. The old lady failed to realize that (c) The rain began to fall. (a) she was not really free. (d) It was getting colder as they drove. (b) her liberty was not unlimited. (c) she was an old person. English Passage – 3 (d) roads are made for motor vehicles only. A stout old lady was walking with her basket down the middle of a street in Petrograd to Directions for the following 6 (six) items: the great confusion of the traffic and no small Given below are six items. Each item de- peril to herself. It was pointed out to her that scribes a situation and is followed by four the pavement was the place for foot-passen- possible responses. Indicate the response gers, but she replied, “I’m going to walk where you find most appropriate. Choose only one I like. We’ve got liberty now.” It did not occur response for each item. The responses will to the dear lady that if liberty entitled the foot- be evaluated based on the level of appro- passenger to walk down the middle of the road priateness for the given situation. it also entitled the taxi-driver to drive on the Please attempt all the items. There is pavement, and that the end of such liberty would be universal chaos. Everything would be no penalty for wrong answer for these getting in everybody else’s way and nobody six items. would get anywhere. Individual liberty would have become social anarchy. 75. You are the head of your office. There are certain houses reserved for the allotment to the office staff and you have been given 72. It was pointed out to the lady that she the discretion to do so. A set of rules for should walk on the pavement because she was the allotment of the houses has been laid down by you and has been made public. (a) a pedestrian. (b) carrying a basket. Your personal secretary, who is very close (c) stout. (d) an old lady. to you, and pleads that as his father is seriously ill, he should be given priority in 73. The lady refused to move from the middle allotment of a house. The office secretariat of the street because that examined the request as per the rules (a) she was not afraid of being killed. turned down the request and recommends (b) she felt that she is entitled to do what- the procedure to be followed according to ever she liked. the rules. You do not want to annoy your 199 civilz byte

personal secretary. In such circumstances, 77. A person lives in a far off village which is what would you do? almost two hours by bus. The villager’s (a) Call him over to your room and person- neighbor is a very powerful landlord who is ally explain why the allotment cannot trying to occupy the poor villager’s land by force. You are the District Magistrate and be done. busy in a meeting called by a local Minis- (b) Allot the house to him to win his loy- ter. The villager has come all the way, by alty bus and on foot, to see you and give an (c) Agree with the office note to show that application seeking protection from the you are not biased and that you do not powerful landlord. The villager keeps on indulge in favouritism. waiting outside the meeting hall for an (d) Keep the file with you and don’t pass hour. You come out of the meeting and are any orders. rushing to another meeting. The villager follows you to submit his application. What would you do? 76. While travelling in a Delhi-registered commercial taxi from Delhi to an adjacent city (a) Tell him to wait for another two hours (another State), your taxi driver informs till you come back from your next meet- you that as he has no permit for running ing. the taxi in that city, he will stop at its Trans- (b) Tell him that the matter is actually to port Office and pay the prescribed fee of be dealt by a junior officer and that he ‘forty for a day. While paying the fee at should give the application to him. the counter you find that the transport (c) Call one of your senior subordinate of- clerk is taking an extra fifty rupees for ficers and ask him to solve the villager’s which no receipt is being given. You are in problem. a hurry for your meeting. In such circum- (d) Quickly take the application from him, stances, what would you do? ask him a few relevant questions re- (a) Go up to the counter and ask the clerk garding his problem and then proceed to give back the money which he has to the meeting. illegally taken. (b) Do not interfere at all as this is a mat- 78. There is a shortage of sugar in your District where you are the District Magistrate. The ter between the taxi driver and the tax Government has ordered that only a maxi- authorities. mum amount of 30 kg sugar is to be re- (c) Take note of the incident and subse- leased for wedding celebrations. A son of quently report the matter to the con- your close friend is getting married and your cerned authorities. friend requests you to release at least 50 (d) Treat it as a normal affair and simply kg sugar for his son’s wedding. He expresses forget about it. annoyance when you tell him about the 200 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

Government’s restrictions on this matter. (c) By offering incentives for adopting fam- He feels that since you are the District ily planning devices. Magistrate you can release any amount. You (d) By asking people who have been steril- do not want to spoil your friendship with ized or are using contraceptives to di- him. In such circumstances, how would you rectly talk to the residents. deal with the situation? (a) Release the extra amount of sugar 80. You are a teacher in a University and are which your friend has requested for. setting a question paper on a particular (b) Refuse your friend the extra amount subject. One of your colleagues, whose son and strictly follow the rules. is preparing for the examination on that (c) Show your friend the copy of the Gov- subject, comes to you and informs you that ernment instructions and then persuade it is his son’s last chance to pass that ex- him to accept the lower amount as pre- amination and whether you could help him scribed in the rules. by indicating what questions are going to be in the examination. In the past, your (d) Advise him to directly apply to the al- colleague had helped you in another mat- lotting authority and inform him that ter. Your colleague informs you that his son you do not interfere in this matter. will suffer from depression if he fails in this examination. In such circumstances, what 79. You are in-charge of implementing the Fam- would you do? ily Planning programme in an area where (a) In view of the help he had given you, there is a strong opposition to the present extend your help to him. policy. You want to convince the residents of the need for keeping small families. (b) Regret that you cannot be of any help What would be the best way of communi- to him. cating this message? (c) Explain to your colleague that this (a) By logically explaining to the residents would be violating the trust of the Uni- the need for family planning to improve versity authorities and you are not in the health and living standards. position to help him. (b) By encouraging late marriages and (d) Report the conduct of your colleague proper spacing of children. to the higher authorities. 1. C 9. D 17. B 25. C 33. C 41. C 49. A 57. D 65. D 73. B 2. D 10. A 18. C 26. D 34. C 42. B 50. B 58. D 66. A 74. B

KEY 3. A 11. A 19. C 27. A 35. B 43. D 51. A 59. A 67. B 75. A,C

4. A 12. B 20. D 28. A 36. C 44. B 52. B 60. A 68. C 76. A,C 5. C 13. D 21. A 29. D 37. C 45. C 53. A 61. B 69. C 77. D,C 6. B 14. A 22. B 30. C 38. B 46. B 54. C 62. B 70. D 78. B,C 7. C 15. B 23. D 31. B 39. B 47. D 55. A 63. C 71. B 79. A,C 8. B 16. C 24. B 32. B 40. B 48. C 56. B 64. D 72. A 80. B,C ANSWER 201 civilz byte CSAT - QUESTION PAPER 2014

Direction for the following 5 (five) items policies for promoting growth need to be Read the following two passages and an- complemented with polices to ensure that more swer the items that follow each passage. and more people join in the growth process and, Your answers to these items should be further, that there are mechanisms in place to based on the passage only. redistribute some of the gains to those who are unable to partake in the market process and, Passage-1 hence, get left behind.

In recent times, India has grown fast not A simple way of giving this idea of inclu- only compared to its own past but also in com- sive growth a sharper form is to measure a parison with other nations. But there cannot nation’s progress in terms of the progress of its be any room for complacency because it is pos- poorest segment, for instance the bottom 20 sible for the Indian economy to develop even per cent of the population. One could measure faster and also to spread the benefits of this the per capita income of the bottom quintile of growth more widely than has been done thus the population and also calculate the growth far. Before going into details of the kinds of rate of income; and evaluate our economic suc- micro-structure changes that we need to con- cess in terms of these measures that pertain to ceptualize and then proceed to implement, it the poorest segment. This approach is attrac- is worthwhile elaborating on the idea of inclu- tive because it does not ignore growth like some sive growth that constitutes the defending con- of the older heterodox criteria did. It simply cept behind that Government’s various eco- looks at the growth of income of the poorest nomic policies and decisions. A nation interested sections of the populations. It also ensures that in inclusive growth views the same growth dif- those who are outside of the bottom quintile ferently depending on whether the gains of the do not get ignored. If that were done, then those growth are heaped primarily on a small seg- people would in all likelihood drop down into ment are heaped primarily on a small segment or shared widely by the population. The latter the bottom quintile and so would automatically is cause for celebration by not the former. In become a direct target of our policies. Hence other words, growth must not be treated as an the criterion being suggested here is a statisti- end in itself but as an instrument for spreading cal summing up of the idea of inclusive growth, prosperity to all. India’s own past experience which, in turn, leads to two corollaries: to wish and the experience of other nations suggest that that India must strive to achieve high growth growth is necessary for eradicating poverty but and that we must work to ensure that the weak- it is not a sufficient condition. In other words, est segments benefit from the growth. 202 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

1. The author’s central focus is on Passage-2 (a) applauding India’s economic growth not It is easy for the government to control only against its own past performance, State-owned companies through nods and winks. but against other nations. So what really needs to be done as a first step (b) emphasizing the need for economic is to put petrol pricing on a transparent for- growth which is the sole determinant mula- if the price of crude is x and the exchange rate y, then every month or fortnight, the gov- of a country’s prosperity. ernment announces a maximum price of petrol, (c) emphasizing inclusive growth where which anybody can work out from the x and the gains of growth are shared widely by y. The rule has to be worked out to make sure the population. that the oil-marketing companies can, in gen- (d) emphasizing high growth eral, cover their costs. This will mean that if one company can innovate and cut costs, it will make greater profits. Hence, firms will be more 2. The author supports policies which will help prone to innovate and be efficient under this (a) develop economic growth. system. Once the rule is announced, there should be no interference by the government. (b) better distribution of incomes irrespec- If this is done for a while, private companies tive of rate of growth. will re-enter this market. And once a sufficient (c) develop economic growth and redistrib- number of them are in the fray, we can remove ute economic gains to those getting left the rule-based pricing and leave it truly to the behind. market (subject to, of course, the usual regulations of anti-trust and other competition (d) put an emphasis on the development laws). of the poorest segments of society. 4. Consider the following statements: 3. Consider the following statement : According to the passage, an oil company According to the author, India’s economy can make greater profits, if a transparent has growth but there is no room for com- formula for petrol pricing is announced placency as every fortnight or month, by 1. promoting its sales. 1. growth eradicates poverty 2. undertaking innovation. 2. growth has resulted in prosperity for 3. cutting costs. all. 4. selling its equity shares at higher prices. Which of the statements given above is/ Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4 203 civilz byte

5. Consider the following statements : 9. Consider that : According to the passage, private oil com- 1) A is taller than B. panies re-enter the oil producing market if 2) C is taller than A. 1. A transparent rule-based petrol pricing 3) D is taller than C. exists. 4) E is the tallest of all. 2. There is no government interference in If they are made to sit in the above order the oil producing market. of their height, who will occupy the mid 3. Subsidies are given by the government. position? 4. Regulations of anti-trust are removed. (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D Which of the statements given above are correct? 10. Consider the following statements : (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 There are six villages A, B, C, D, E and F. (c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4 F is 1 km to the west of D. B is 1 km to the east of E. 6. Five persons fire bullets at a target at an A is 2 km to the north of E. interval of 6, 7, 8, 9 and 12 seconds re- C is 1 km to the east of A. spectively. The number of times they would D is 1 km to the south of A. fire the bullets together at the target in an Which three villages are in a line? hour is (a) A, C, B (b) A, D, E (a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9 (c) C, B, F (d)E, B, D

7. A group of 630 children is seated in rows 11. Four children are sitting in a row. A is oc- for a group photo session. Each row con- cupying the seat next to B but not next to tains three less children than the row in C. If C is not sitting next to D, who is/are front of it. Which one of the following num- occupying seat/seats adjacent to D? ber of rows is not possible? (a) B (b) A (c) B and A (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 (d) Impossible to tell.

8. There are seven persons up on a ladder, A, 12. Assume that B, C, D, E, F and G (not in that order). A is further up than E but is lower than C. B is 1. the hour and minute hands of a clock in the middle. G is between A and B. E is move without jerking. between B and F. If F is between E and D, 2. the clock shows a time between 8 the person on the bottom step of the lad- o’clock and 9 o’clock. der will be 3. the two hands of the clock are one (a) B (b) F (c) D (d) E above the other. 204 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

After how many minutes (nearest integer) For example, water runoff from the will the two hands be again lying one above Himalayas is predicated to increase over the the other? next 30 years as glaciers melt, but then decline (a) 60 (b) 62 (c) 65 (d) 67 substantially thereafter. It will be critical to provide incentives to plan for these large-scale shifts in agro-ecological conditions. Directions for the following 6(six) items: Read the following two passages and an- India needs to make long term investment swer the items that follow each passage. in research and development in agriculture. In- Your answers to these items should be dia is likely to experience changed weather based on the passages only. patterns in future.

Passage-I 13. Consider the following statements : Climate change may force the shifting of Climate change poses potentially devastat- locations of the existing crops due to ing effects on India’s agriculture. While the 1. Melting of glaciers. overall parameters of climate change are in- 2. Water availability and temperature creasingly accepted – a 1oC average tempera- suitability at other locations. ture increase over the next 30 years, sea level 3. Poor productivity of crops. rise of less than 10 cm in the same period, and regional monsoon variations and corresponding 4. Wider adaptability of crop plants. droughts – the impacts in India are likely to be Which of the statements given above are quite site and crop specific. Some crops may correct? respond favourably to the changing conditions, (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only others may not. This emphasizes the need to (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 promote agricultural research and create maximum flexibility in the system to permit adap- 14. According to the passage, why is it impor- tations. tant to promote agricultural research in India? The key ingredient for “drought proofing” is the managed recharge of aquifers. To ensure (a) To predict variations in monsoon pat- continued yields of important staple crops (e.g. terns and to manage water resources wheat), it may also be necessary to shift the (b) To make long term investment decisions locations where these crops are grown, in re- for economic growth sponse to temperature changes as well as to (c) To facilitate wider adaptability of crops water availability. The latter will be a key fac- (d) To predict drought conditions and to tor in making long term investment decisions. recharge aquifers. 205 civilz byte Passage-2 climate change. Any such effort, however, would require lifestyles to change appropriately also. It is essential that we mitigate the emis- Mitigation of greenhouse gas emissions is not a sions of greenhouse gases and thus avoid some mere technological fix, and clearly requires of the worst impacts of climate change that changes in lifestyles and transformation of a would take place in coming years and decades. country’s economic structure, whereby effec- Mitigation would require a major shift in the tive reduction in emissions is brought about, way we produce and consume energy. A shift such as through the consumption of much lower away from overwhelming dependence on fossil quantities of animal protein. The Food and Ag- fuels is now long overdue, but unfortunately, riculture Organization (FAO) has determined technological development has been slow and that the emissions from the livestock sector inadequate largely because government policies amount to 18 percent of the total. The reduc- have not promoted investments in research and tion of emissions from this source is entirely in development, myopically as a result of relatively low prices of oil. It is now, therefore, impera- the hands of human beings, who have never tive for a country like India treating the oppor- questioned the impacts that their dietary hab- tunity of harnessing renewable energy on a large its of consuming more and more animal protein scale as a national imperative. This country is are bringing about. Mitigation overall has huge extremely well endowed with solar, wind and co-benefits, such as lower air pollution and biomass sources of energy. Where we have health benefits, higher energy security and lagged, unfortunately, is in our ability to de- greater employment. velop and to create technological solutions for harnessing these resources. 15. According to the passage, which of the fol- One particular trajectory for carrying out lowing would help in the mitigation of stringent mitigation of greenhouse gas emissions greenhouse gases? assessed by the Intergovernmental Panel on Cli- 1. Reducing the consumption of meat mate Change (IPCC) clearly shows the need for 2. Rapid economic liberalization ensuring that global emissions of greenhouse 3. Reducing the consumerism gases peak no later than 2015 and reduce rapidly thereafter. The cost associated with such a 4. Modern management practices of live- trajectory is truly modest and would amount, stock in the estimation of IPCC, to not more than 3 Select the correct answer using the code percent of the global GDP in 2030. In other given below : words, the level of prosperity that the world (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 would have reached without mitigation would (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only at worst be postponed by a few months or a year at the most. This is clearly not a very high 16. Why do we continue to depend on the fossil price to pay for protecting hundreds of millions of people from the worst risks associated with fuels heavily? 206 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

1. Inadequate technological development English is 21, then how many students can 2. Inadequate funds for research and de- speak Hindi, how many can speak only Hindi velopment and how many can speak only English? 3. Inadequate availability of alternative (a) 21, 11 and 29 respectively sources of energy (b) 28, 18 and 22 respectively Select the correct answer using the code (c) 37, 27 and 13 respectively given below : (d) 39, 29 and 11 respectively (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 20. A gardener increased the area of his rect- angular garden by increasing its length by 17. According to the passage, how does the 40% and decreasing its width by 20%. The mitigation of greenhouse gases help us? area of the new garden 1. Reduces expenditure on public health (a) has increased by 20% 2. Reduces dependence on livestock (b) has increased by 12% 3. Reduces energy requirements (c) has increased by 8% 4. Reduces rate of global climate change (d) is exactly the same as the old area. Select the correct answer using the code given below : 21. Six books are labeled A, B, C, D, E and F (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4 and are placed side by side. Books B, C, E and F have green covers while others have (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 only yellow covers. Books A, B and D are new while the rest are old volumes. Books A, B 18. What is the essential message of the and C are law reports while the rest are passage? medical extracts. Which two books are old (a) We continue to depend on fossil fuels medical extracts and have green covers? heavily (a) B and C (b) E and F (b) Mitigation of the greenhouse gases is (c) C and E (d) C and F imperative

(c) We must invest in research and devel- 22. A straight line segment is 36 cm long. Points opment are to be marked on the line from both the (d) People must change their lifestyle end points. From each end, the first point is at a distance of 1 cm from the end, the 19. There are 50 students admitted to a nurs- second point is at a distance of 2 cm from ery class. Some students can speak only the first point and the third point is at a English and some can speak only Hindi. 10 distance of 3 cm from the second point and students can speak both English and Hindi. so on. If the points on the ends are not If the number of students who can speak counted and the common points are 207 civilz byte

counted as one, what is the number of Directions for the following 8 (eight) points? items: (a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 14 (d) 16 Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow each passage. 23. If Sohan, while selling two goats at the Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only. same price, makes a profit of 10% on one goat and suffers a loss of 10% on the other Passage-1 (a) he makes no profit and no loss (b) he makes a profit of 1% The Himalayan ecosystem is highly vulner- (c) he suffers a loss of 1% able to damage, both due to geological reasons and on account of the stress caused by increased (d) he suffers a loss of 2% pressure of population, exploitation of natural resources and other related challenges. These 24. Out of a total of 120 musicians in a club, aspects may be exacerbated due to the impact 5% can play all the three instruments, gui- of climate change. It is possible that climate tar, violin and flute. It so happens that the change may adversely impact the Himalayan number of musicians who can play any two ecosystem through increased temperature, al- and only two of the above instruments is tered precipitation patterns, episodes of 30. The number of musicians who can play drought and biotic influences. This would not the guitar alone is 40. What is the total only impact the very sustenance of the indig- number of those who can play violin alone enous communities in uplands but also the life of downstream dwellers across the country and or flute alone? beyond. Therefore, there is an urgent need for (a) 45 (b) 44 (c) 38 (d) 30 giving special attention to sustain the Himalayan ecosystem. This would require conscious efforts 25. Six identical cards are placed on a table. for conserving all the representative systems. Each card has number ‘1’ marked on one Further, it needs to be emphasized that the side and number ‘2’ marked on its other endemics with restricted distribution, and most side. All the six cards are placed in such a often with specialized habitat requirements, are manner that the number ‘1’ is on the up- among the most vulnerable elements. In this per side. In one try, exactly four (neither respect the Himalayan biodiversity hotspot, more nor less) cards are turned upside with rich endemic diversity, is vulnerable to cli- down. In how many least number of tries mate change. The threats include possible loss can the cards be turned upside down such of genetic resources and species, habitats and that all the six cards show number ‘2’ on concomitantly a decrease in ecosystem services. the upper side? Therefore, conservation of endemic elements in representative ecosystems/habitats assumes (a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 7 a great significance while drawing conservation (d) This cannot be achieved plans for the region. 208 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

Towards achieving the above, we will have 28. What is the most important message con- to shift towards contemporary conservation veyed by the passage? approaches, which include a paradigm of land- (a) Endemism is a characteristic feature of scape level interconnectivity between protected Himalayan region. area systems. The concept advocates a shift (b) Conversation efforts should emphasize from the species-habitat focused to an inclu- on biogeographic ranges rather than on sive focus on expanding the biogeographic range some species or habitats. so that natural adjustments to climate change (c) Climatic change has adverse impact on can proceed without being restrictive. the Himalayan ecosystem.

26. Consider the following statements : (d) Without Himalayan ecosystem, the life of the communities of uplands and According to the passage, the adverse im- downstreams will have no sustenance. pact of climate change on an ecosystem can be a 29. With reference to the passage, the follow- 1. Permanent disappearance of some of ing assumptions have been made : its flora and fauna. 1. To maintain natural ecosystems, exploi- 2. Permanent disappearance of ecosystem tation of natural resources should be itself. completely avoided. Which of the following statements given 2. Not only anthropogenic but also natu- above is/are correct? ral reasons can adversely affect eco- (a) 1 only (b) 2 only systems. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. Loss of endemic diversity leads to the extinction of ecosystems. 27. Which one of the following statements best Which of the above assumptions is/are cor- implies the need to shift toward rect? contemporary conservation approach? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (a) Exploitation of natural resources causes (c) 2 and 3 (d)3 only a stress on the Himalayan ecosystem. (b) Climate change alters precipitation Passage-2 patterns, causes episodes of drought and biotic interference. It is often forgotten that globalization is (c) The rich biodiversity, including endemic not only about policies on international eco- diversity, makes the Himalayan region nomic relationships and transactions, but has a biodiversity hotspot. equally to do with domestic policies of a na- (d) The Himalayan biogeographic region tion. Policy changes necessitated by meeting should be enabled to adapt to climate the internationally set conditions (by WTO etc.) change smoothly. of free trade and investment flows obviously 209 civilz byte affect domestic producers and investors. But (c) more profitability to industries. the basic philosophy underlying globalization (d) free play of market forces with regard emphasizes absolute freedom to markets to to industries. determine prices and production and distribution patterns, and view government interven- 31. According to the passage, the basic phi- tions as processes that create distortions and losophy of globalization is to bring in inefficiency. Thus, public enterprises (a) give absolute freedom to producers to have to be privatized through disinvestments determine prices and production. and sales; sectors and activities hitherto re- (b) give freedom to producers to evolve served for the public sector have to be opened distribution patterns. to the private sector. This logic extends to the (c) give absolute freedom to markets to social services like education and health. Any determine prices, production and em- restrictions on the adjustments in work force ployment. by way of retrenchment of workers should also (d) give freedom to producers to import be removed and exit should be made easier by and export. removing any restrictions on closures. Employ- ments and wages should be governed by free 32. According to the passage, which of the fol- play of market forces, as any measure to regu- lowing is/are necessary for ensuring glo- late them can discourage investment and also balization? create inefficiency in production. Above all, in 1. Privatization of public interest line with the overall philosophy of reduction in the role of the State, fiscal reforms should be 2. Expansionary policy of public expendi- undertaken to have generally low levels of taxa- ture tion and government expenditure should be kept 3. Free play of market forces to deter- to the minimum to abide by the principle of mine wages and employment physical prudence. All these are policy actions 4. Privatization of social services like edu- on the domestic front and are not directly re- cation and health. lated to the core items of the globalization Select the correct answer using the code agenda, namely free international flow of goods given below : and finance. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 30. According to the passage, under the globalization, government interventions are 33. According to the passage, in the process of viewed as processes leading to globalization the State should have (a) distortions and inefficiency in the (a) expanding role (b) reducing role economy. (c) statutory role (b) optimum use of resources. (d) None of the above roles 210 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

Directions for the following 4 (four) (a) Non-increasing (b) Non-decreasing items: (c) Steady (d) Fluctuating The following graph shows the average profit of two fruit – sellers A and B in thou- 38. The following table shows the marks sands (` ) per year from the year 1995 to obtained by two students in different 2000. Consider the graph and answer the subjects: 4 (four) items that follow : Student Maximum Student Maximum A Marks B Marks

English 60 100 80 150 Psychology 70 100 70 100 History 50 100 60 100 Sanskrit 30 50 15 25

The difference in the mean aggregate percentage marks of the students is (a) 2.5% (b) 13.75% (c) 1.25% (d) Zero

35. What is the difference between the average profit of B and A in the year 1998? Which one of the following figures has the (a) ` 100 (b) ` 1,000 above figure embedded in it? (c) ` 600 (d) ` 300

36. How much more average profit did A make in the year 2000 than in the year 1999? (a) ` 200 (b) ` 1,000 (c) ` 1,500 (d) ` 2,000

37. What is the trend of the average profit of B from the year 1997 to the year 2000? 211 civilz byte

40. Consider the following matrix : (d) Per capita income was highest in 1994.

42. Consider the table given below in which the numbers bear certain relationship among themselves along the rows :

29 13 18 33 X 19 30 27 3

Which one of the following numbers is the missing number indicated above by X? (a) 19 (b) 15 (c) 14 (d) 8 Which one of the following figures fits into the blank part of the above matrix? 43. Consider the matrix with one empty block in the lower extreme corner :

41. The following table gives population and total income of a city for four years : Year Population Income In Lakhs in crores (`) 1992 20 1010 1993 21 1111 1994 22 1225 1995 23 1345 Which of the following figures could fit in Which one of the following statements is the empty block and thus complete the correct in respect of the above data? matrix? (a) Population increased by 5% or more every year. (b) Income increased by 10% or more every year. (c) Per capita income was always above `.5,000. (a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 18 212 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

45. Consider the following figures : (c) The values of the things sold would be halved. (d) The value of money only would be halved.

Change in positions of beads in the four 48. A and B decide to travel from place X to figures above follows a sequence. Follow- place Y by bus. A has ‘ 10 with him and he ing the same sequence, which of the fig- finds that it is 80% of the bus fare for two ures below should appear as the fifth fig- persons. B finds that he has ‘ 3 with him ure above? and hands it over to A. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct? (a) Now the money A has is just enough to buy two tickets. (b) A still needs ‘ 2 for buying the tickets. 46. A bell rings every 18 minutes. A second bell (c) After buying the two tickets A will be rings every 24 minutes. A third bell rings left with 50 paise. every 32 minutes. If all the three bells ring (d) The money A now has is still not suffi- at the same time at 8 o’clock in the morn- cient to buy two tickets. ing, at what other time will they all ring together? 49. As per agreement with a bank, a businessman had to refund a loan in some equal (a) 12 : 40 hrs (b) 12 : 48 hrs installments without interest. After paying (c) 12 : 56 hrs (d) 13 : 04 hrs 18 installments he found that 60 percent of his loan was refunded. How many install- 47. “Price is not the same thing as value. Sup- ments were there in the agreement? pose that on a day the price of everything (a) 22 (b) 24 (c) 30 (d) 33 viz., coal, bread, postage, stamps, a day’s labour, the rent of houses, etc. were to 50. A worker reaches his factory 3 minutes late double. Price then would certainly rise, but if his speed from his house to the factory is values of all things except one would not.” 5 km/hr. If he walks at a speed of 6 km/hr, then he reaches the factory 7 minutes early. The writer wants to say that if prices of all The distance of the factory from his house is things were doubled (a) 3 km (b) 4 km (c) 5 km (d) 6 km (a) The values of all things would remain constant. 51. “Liberty, therefore, is never real unless the (b) The values of the things sold would be Government can be called to account when doubled. it invades rights.” 213 civilz byte

Which one of the following is the best jus- Their arguments betray and ideological bias tification of the above statement? with the assumptions that an unregulated mar- (a) In the realization that the government ket is fair and competent, and that the exer- can be brought to book in a court of cise of private greed will be in larger public law interest (b) In identifying a man as a political unit Few recognized the bidirectional relation- in a way which distinguishes him from ship between capitalism and greed; that each other citizens reinforces the other. Surely, a more honest (c) In a decentralized society wherein the conceptualization of the conflicts of interest basic needs of men can find satisfaction among the rich and powerful players who have (d) In the understanding that liberty and benefitted from the system, their biases and restraints are complementary ideology is needed; the focus on the wealth creation should also highlight the resultant gross inequity. Directions for the following 7 (seven) items: 52. The apologists of the “Free Market Sys- Read the following two passages and an- tem”, according to the passage, believe in swer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be (a) market without control by government based on the passages only. authorities. (b) market without protection by the gov- Passage-1 ernment. (c) ability of market to self correct. Many nations now place their faith in capi- (d) market for free goods and services. talism and governments choose it as the strategy to create wealth for their people. The spec- tacular economic growth seen in Brazil, China 53. With reference to “ideological bias”, the and India after the liberalization of their econo- passage implies that mies is proof of its enormous potential and suc- (a) free market is fair but not competent. cess. However, the global banking crisis and the (b) free market is not fair but competent. economic recession have left many bewildered. (c) free market is fair and competent. The debates tend to focus on free market op- (d) free market is neither fair nor biased. erations and forces, their efficiency and their ability for self correction. Issues of justice, in- 54. “The exercise of private greed will be in tegrity and honesty are rarely elaborated to the larger public interest” from the pas- highlight the failure of global banking system. sage The apologists of the system continue to justify the success of capitalism and argue that 1. refers to the false ideology of the recent crisis was blip. capitalism. 214 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

2. underlies the righteous claims of the est cover will have to be a new priority for the free market. public sector assets.

3. shows the benevolent face of Take the example of steel. With near-zero capitalism. tariffs, India is a globally competitive market 4. ignores resultant gross inequity. for the metal. Indian firms export steel into the Which of the statements given above is/ global market which demonstrates there is no are correct? gap in technology. Indian companies are buying (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 up global steel companies, which shows there (c) 1 and 4 (d) 4 only is no gap in capital availability. Under these conditions, private ownership works best.

Passage – 2 Private ownership is clearly desirable in regulated industries, ranging from, finance to Net profits are only 2.2% of their total as- infrastructure, where a government agency sets for central public sector undertakings, performs the function of regulation and mul- lower than for the private corporate sector. tiple competing firms are located in the pri- While the public sector or the State-led entre- vate sector. Here, the simple and clean solu- preneurship played an important role in trig- tion - government as the umpire and the pri- gering India’s industrialization, our evolving vate sector as the players is what works best. development needs, comparatively less-than- In many of these industries, we have a legacy satisfactory performance of the public sector of government ownership, where productivity enterprises, the maturing of our private sector, a much larger social base now available for extends to be lower, fear of bankruptcy is absent, panding entrepreneurship and the growing in- and the risk of asking for money from the tax stitutional capabilities to enforce competition payer is ever present. There is also the conflict policies would suggest that the time has come of interest between government as an owner to review the role of public sector. and as the regulator. What should the portfolio composition of The formulation and implementation of the government be? It should not remain static competition policy will be more vigorous and all times. The airline industry works well as a fair if government companies are out of action. purely private affair. At the opposite end, rural roads, whose sparse traffic makes tolling 55. According to the passage, what is/are the unviable, have to be on the balance-sheet of reason/reasons for saying that the time has the State. If the government did not own rural come to review the role of public sector? roads, they would not exist. 1. Now public sector has lost its relevance Similarly, public health capital in our towns and in the industrialization process. cities will need to come from the public sector. 2. Public sector does not perform satis- Equally, preservation and improvement of for- factorily. 215 civilz byte

3. Entrepreneurship in private sector is (c) Government has no control over private expanding. sector players. 4. Effective competition policies are avail- (d) None of the above statements is cor- able now. rect in this context. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct in the given context ? 59. A question paper must have a question on (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only one of the eight poets : A, B, C, D, E, F, G or H. The first four belong to the medieval (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 period while the rest are considered modern poets. Generally, modern poets figure 56. According to the passage, rural roads should in the question paper in alternate years. be in the domain of public sector only. Why? Generally those who like H like G also; and (a) Rural development work is the domain those who like F like E also. The paper- of government only. setter does not like to ask about F as he (b) Private sector cannot have monetary has written a book on F, but he likes F. Last gains in this. year, the paper contained a question on A. (c) Government takes money from tax pay- On the basis of the information given, this ers and hence it is the responsibility of year’s paper is most likely to contain a ques- government only. tion on (d) Private sector need not have any so- (a) C (b) E (c) F (d) H cial responsibility. 60. In a group of six women there are four danc- 57. The portfolio composition of the govern- ers, four vocal musicians, one actress and ment refers to three violinists. Girija and Vanaja are (a) Public sector assets quality. among the violinists while Jalaja and Shailaja do not know how to play the vio- (b) Investment in liquid assets. lin. Sailaja and Tanuja are among the danc- (c) Mix of government investment in dif- ers. Jalaja, Vanaja, Shailaja and Tanuja are ferent industrial sectors. vocal musicians and two of them are also (d) Buying return on Investment yielding violinists. If Pooja is an actress, who among capital assets. the following is certainly a dancer and a violinist? 58. The author prefers government as the um- (a) Jalaja (b) Pooja pire and private sector as players because (c) Shailaja (d) Thanuja (a) Government prescribes norms for a fair play by the private sector. 61. The letters L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T in (b) Government is the ultimate in policy their order are substituted by nine inte- formulation. gers 1 to 9 but not in that order. 4 is as- 216 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

signed to P. The difference between P and In the context of political development, the T is 5. The difference between N and T is assumption in the above passage is that 3. What is the integer assigned to N? (a) Political leadership is not an effective (a) 7 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 6 instrument. (b) Military fills in political vacuum. 62. The number of deaths among the army per- (c) Military intervention is inevitable for sonnel is 8 in 1000, but among the civilian development. population it is 20 per 1000. Which one of (d) None of the above. the following inferences can be drawn from this statement? 65. Four persons, Alok, Bhupesh, Chander and (a) It is better to join the army. Dinesh have a total of ‘100 among them- (b) The relationship is fortuitous. selves. Alok and Bupesh between them have (c) Quality of Life Index is very high within as much money as Chander and Dinesh be- the armed forces. tween them, but Alok has more money than (d) The groups cannot be compared due to Bhupesh; and Chander has only half the their heterogeneity. money that Dinesh has. Alok has in fact ‘5 more than Dinesh has. Who has the maxi- 63. Given the statement : “Buses are the cause mum amount of money? of more accidents than cars, and trucks (a) Alok (b) Bhupesh cause fewer accidents than buses”, which (c) Chander (d) Dinesh of the following conclusions can we draw? (a) There are more buses on the road than 66. Examine the following statements : trucks. 1. George attends Music classes on Mon- (b) Car drivers are more careful than bus day. drivers. 2. He attends Mathematics classes on (c) Truck drivers are more skilled than ei- Wednesday. ther car or bus drivers. 3. His Literature classes are not on Fri- (d) None of the above. day. 4. He attends History classes on the day 64. “If political leadership fails to emerge, following the day of his Mathematics there is likelihood of military taking over classes. power in developing countries. Radical stu- 5. On Tuesday, he attends his Sports dent groups or labour may try to raise revo- classes. lution but they are not likely to compete If he attends just one subject in a day and with the military. Military intervention, his Sunday is free, then he is also free on rule, and withdrawal from politics is closely (a) Monday (b)Thursday related to a society’s level of political development.” (c) Saturday (d) Friday 217 civilz byte

67. In a row ‘A’ is in the 11th position from the carried a long whip which perhaps he himself left and ‘B’ is in the 10th position from the had made. As he walked down the road he right. If ‘A’ and ‘B’ interchange, then ‘A’ stopped now and then to eat the wild berries becomes 18th from the left. How many that grew on bushes along the uneven road. persons are there in the row other than ‘A’ When he threw away the seeds, the bold birds and ‘B’? would fly to peck at them. Sometimes a stray (a) 27 (b) 26 (c) 25 (d) 24 dog watched the procession philosophically and then began to bark. When this happened, my 68. Location of B is north of A and location of C two little sons would stand still holding my hands is east of A. The distances AB and AC are 5 firmly. A dog can sometimes be dangerous in- km and 12km respectively. The shortest deed. distance (in km) between the locations B and C is 70. The author’s children held his hands firmly because (a) 60 (b) 13 (c) 17 (d) 7 (a) they were scared of the barking dogs. 69. Two cars start towards each other, from two (b) they wanted him to pluck berries. places A and B which are at a distance of (c) they saw the whip in the old man’s 160km. They start at the same time 08:10 hand. AM. If the speeds of the cars are 50km and (d) the road was uneven. 30km per hour respectively, they will meet each other at 71. The expression “a stray dog watched the (a) 10:10 AM (b) 10:30 AM procession philosophically” means that (c) 11:10 AM (d) 11:20 AM (a) the dog was restless and ferocious. (b) the dog stood aloof, looking at the pro- Directions for the following 6 (six items): cession with seriousness. The following six items are based on two (c) the dog looked at the procession with passages in English to test the comprehen- big, wondering eyes. sion of English language and therefore (d) the dog stood there with his eyes these items do not have Hindi version. closed. Read each passage and answer the items that follow. Passage -2 Passage-1 Cynthia was a shy girl. She believed that she was plain and untalented. One day her In front of us was walking a bare-headed teacher ordered the entire class to show up for old man in tattered clothes. He was driving his audition for the school play. Cynthia nearly died beasts. They were all laden with heavy loads of of fright when she was told that she would have clay from the hills and looked tired. The man to stand on stage in front of the entire class 218 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle and deliver dialogues. The mere thought of it (c) the surprise on the faces of her class- made her feel sick. But a remarkable transfor- mates. mation occurred during the audition. A thin, shy (d) the stunning performance of Cynthia. girl, her knees quaking, her stomach churning in terror, began to stun everyone with her ex- 76. If the 3rd day of a month is Monday, which cellent performance. Her bored classmates sud- one of the following will be the fifth day denly stopped their noisy chat to stare at her from 21st of this month? slender figure on the stage. At the end of her (a) Monday (b) Tuesday audition, the entire room erupted in thunder- ous applause. (c) Wednesday (d) Friday

77. For a charity show, the total tickets sold 72. Cynthia was afraid to stand on stage be- were 420. Half of these tickets were sold cause at the rate of ` 5 each, one-third at the (a) she felt her classmates may laugh at rate of ` 3 each and the rest for ` 2 each. her. What was the total amount received? (b) her stomach was churning. (a) ` 900 (b) ` 1,540 (c) she lacked self-confidence. (c) ` 1,610 (d) ` 2,000 (d) she did not like school plays. Directions for the following 3 (three) 73. Cynthia’s classmates were chatting because items: (a) it was their turn to act next. Read the passage given below and answer (b) they were bored of the performances. the items that follow. (c) Cynthia did not act well. A, B, C, D, E, F are members of a family. They are engineer, stenographer, doctor, (d) the teacher had no control over them. draughtsman, lawyer and judge (not in order). A, the engineer is married to the lady 74. Cynthia’s knees were quaking because stenographer. The judge is married to the (a) she felt nervous and shy. lawyer. F, the draughtsman is the son of B (b) the teacher scolded her. and brother of E. C, the lawyer is the daugh- (c) she was very thin and weak. ter-in-law of D. E is the unmarried doctor. D is the grandmother of F. There are two (d) she was afraid of her classmates. married couples in the family.

75. The transformation that occurred during the audition refers to 78. What is the profession of B? (a) the nervousness of Cynthia. (a) Judge (b) Lawyer (b) the eruption of the entire room in thun- (c) Draughtsman derous applause. (d) Cannot be determined 219 civilz byte

79. Which of the following is/are a couple/ 80. What is the profession of D? couples? (a) Judge (b) Stenographer (a) AD only (b) BC only (c) Doctor (c) Both AD and BC (d) Both AC and BD (d) Cannot be determined

1. C 9. C 17. B 25. A 33. B 41. C 49. C 57. C 65. A 73. 2. C 10. B 18. B 26. A 34. B 42. B,D 50. C 58. A 66. D 74. 3. D 11. B 19. D 27. D 35. C 43. A 51. D 59. B 67. C 75. KEY 4. B 12. C 20. B 28. B 36. D 44. D 52. C 60. D 68. B 76. C 5. A 13. B 21. B 29. B 37. B 45. B 53. C 61. D 69. A 77. C 6. B,C 14. C 22. B 30. A 38. D 46. B 54. C 62. D 70. 78. A 7. D 15. C 23. C 31. C 39. C 47. D 55. C 63. D 71. 79. C ANSWER 8. C 16. D 24. B 32. C 40. B 48. C 56. B 64. B 72. 80. B

CSAT - QUESTION PAPER 2015

Directions for the following 8 (eight) (a) Man seeks control over external things items: affecting him. Read the following six passages and answer (b) In society, there are ‘super’ and sub’ the items that follow. Your answers to human beings. these items should be based on the pas- (c) Exceptions to universal citizen partici- sage only. pation are conducive to systematic efficacy. Passage-1 (d) Governing implies recognition of dis- Human history abounds in claims and theo- parities in individual capacities. ries confining the right of governing to a few select citizens. Exclusion of the many is justi- Passage-2 fied on the ground that human beings may be rightfully segregated for the good of society and By 2050, the Earth’s population will be viability of the political process. likely have swelled from seven to nine billion people. To fill all those stomachs - while ac- 1. Which one of the following statements is counting for shifting consumption patterns, cli- least essential as a part of the argument in mate change, and a finite amount of arable land the above passage? and portable water- some experts say food 220 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle production will have to double. How can we (b) The greater spending on weapon-build- make the numbers add up? Experts say higher ing by us would lessen the possibility yielding crop varieties and more efficient farm- of armed conflict with our neighbours. ing methods will be crucial. So will waste re- (c) It is necessary to have state of the art duction. Experts urge cities to reclaim nutri- weapons systems for national security. ents and water from waste streams and pre- (d) Many people in India believe that we serve farmland. Poor countries, they say, can are wasting our resources on weapon- improve crop storage and packaging and rich building. nations could cut back on resource-intensive foods like meat. Passage-4

2. Which one of the following statements best India accounts for nearly a fifth of the sums up the above passage ? world’s child deaths. In terms of numbers, it is (a) The population of the world is growing the highest in the world - nearly 16 lakhs every very fast. year. Of these, more than half die in the first month of life. Officials believe that the reason (b) Food security is a perennial problem for this is the absence of steps to propagate only in developing countries. basic health practices relating to breast feed- (c) The world does not have enough re- ing and immunization. Also the large reproduc- sources to meet the impending food tive population of 2-6 crore remains bereft of scarcity. care during the critical phases of pregnancy and (d) Food security is increasingly a collec- post-delivery. Added to this is the prevalence tive challenge. of child marriages, anemia among young women and lack of focus on adolescent sanitation, all Passage-3 of which impact child death rates.

Many people in India feel that if we cut our 4. Which is the critical inference that can be defence expenditure on weapon-building, we made from the above passage? can create a climate of peace with our neighbours, subsequently reducing the conflict (a) A lot of Indians are illiterate and hence or creating a no-war situation. People who pro- do not recognize the value of basic claim such ideas are either the victims of war health practices. or the propagators of false argument. (b) India has a very huge population and the government alone cannot manage 3. With reference to the above passage, which public health services. of the following is the most valid (c) Universalization and integration of ma- assumption? ternal health and child health services (a) Building of weapons systems by us has can effectively address the problem. instigated our neighbours to wage wars (d) The nutrition of women in child bearing against us. age does not affect child mortality rate. 221 civilz byte Passage-5 thoughts. And I can now give myself the certificate that a thoughtless word hardly ever es- Foods travel more than the people who eat capes my tongue or pen. I do not recollect ever them. Grocery stores and supermarkets are having had to regret anything in my speech or loaded with preserved and processed foods. writing. I have thus been spared many a mishap This, however, often leads to environmental and waste of time. Experience has taught me threats, such as pollution generated by long that silence is part of the spiritual discipline of distance food transportation and wastage of a votary of truth. Proneness to exaggerate, to food during processing and transportation, de- suppress or modify the truth, wittingly or un- struction of rain forests, reduced nutritional wittingly, is a natural weakness of man, and content, increased demand for preservation and silence is necessary in order to surmount it. A packaging. Food insecurity also increases as the man of few words will rarely be thoughtless in produce comes from regions that are not feeding their own population properly. his speech; he will measure every word. We find so many people impatient to talk. There is no 5. With reference to the above passage, which chairman of a meeting who is not pestered with of the following statements is/are true ? notes for permission to speak. And whenever the permission is given the speaker generally 1. Consuming regionally grown food and exceeds the time-limit, asks for more time, and not depending on long travelled food is a part of eco-friendly behavior. keeps on talking without permission. All this talking can hardly be said to be of any benefit 2. Food processing industry puts a burden to the world. It is so much waste of time. My on our natural resources. shyness has been in reality my shield and buck- Select the correct answer using the code ler. It has allowed me to grow. It has helped me given below: in my discernment of truth. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 6. The author says that a thoughtless word hardly ever escapes his tongue or pen. Passage-6 Which one of the following is not a valid I must say that, beyond occasionally ex- reason for this? posing me to laughter, my constitutional shy- (a) He has no intention to waste his time. ness has been of no disadvantage whatever. In (b) He believes in the economy of words. fact I can see that, on the contrary, it has been (c) He believes in restraining his thoughts. all to my advantage. My hesitancy in speech, which was once an annoyance, is now a plea- (d) He has hesitancy in his speech. sure. Its greatest benefit has been that it has stopped me the economy of words. I have natu- 7. The most appropriate reason for the au- rally formed the habit of restraining my thor to be spared many a mishap is that 222 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

(a) he hardly utters or writes a thought- 11. Consider the figures given below: less word. (b) he is a man of immense patience. (c) he believes that he is a spiritual person.

(d) he is a votary of truth. To fit the question mark, the correct answer is 8. For the author, silence is necessary in order to surmount (a) constitutional shyness (b) hesitancy in speech (c) suppression of thoughts (d) tendency to overstate 12. Consider the following matrix : 38102?1 9. Twelve people from a club. By picking lots, 656902200 one of them will host a dinner for all once What is the missing number at ‘?’ in the in a month. The number of dinners a par- matrix? ticular member has to host in one year is (a) 5 (b) 0 (c) 7 (d) 3 (a) One (b) Zero

(c) Three 13. What is the missing number ‘X’ of the se- (d) Cannot be predicted ries 7, X, 21, 31, 43 ? (a) 11 (b) 12 (c) 13 (d) 14 10. An automobile owner reduced his monthly petrol consumption when the prices went 14. Four cardboard pieces of specific shapes up. The price-consumption relationship is are shown in the following figure: as follows:

Price (in ` per litre) 40 50 60 75 Monthly consumption 60 48 40 32 (in litres)

If the price goes up to `80 per litre, his expected consumption (in litres) will be (a) 30 (b) 28 (c) 26 (d) 24 223 civilz byte

18. Consider the following statements: 1. A man had a wife, two sons and two daughters in his family. 2. The daughters were invited to a feast and the male members of the family went out to take part in a picnic. 3. The man’s father did not return from his work. Which of the following statements is true? 15. In a test, a candidate attempted only 8 (a) Only the man’s wife was left at home. questions and secured 50% marks in each (b) It is likely that the man’s wife was left of the questions. If he obtained a total of at home. 40% in the test and all questions in the test carried equal marks, how many questions (c) None was left at home. were there in the test? (d) More than one person was left at home. (a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) 16 19. Geeta: Naresh has become a better boxer 16. A father is nine times as old as his son and since he started meditation. the mother is eight times as old as the son. Radha: Impossible. A boxer’s most impor- The sum of the father’s and the mother’s tant asset is his aggressiveness. age is 51 years. What is the age of the son? Radha’s statement reflects her belief that (a) 7 years(b) 5 years(c) 4 years (d)3 years (a) Meditation tends to make a person less aggressive. 17. Four persons A, B, C and D consisting of (b) Meditation has little or no effect on the two married couples are in a group. Both person who practices it. the women are shorter than their respec- (c) Naresh was a poor boxer earlier be- tive husbands. A is the tallest among the cause he was not aggressive enough. four. C is taller than B. D is B’s brother. In (d) Naresh would not have taken to me- this context, which one of the following diation as he was a boxer. statements is not correct? (a) All four have family ties. 20. All good athletes want to win and all ath- (b) B is the shortest among the four. letes who want to win want a well-balanced (c) C is taller than D. diet; therefore all athletes who do not eat (d) A is B’s husband. a well-balanced diet are bad athletes. 224 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

The best conclusion from this statement is (a) The richer States must lead in the that production and adoption of renewable (a) No bad athlete wants to win. energy. (b) No athlete who does not eat a well- (b) The poor States always have to depend balanced diet is a good athlete. on rich States for electricity. (c) Every athlete who eats a well-balanced (c) The State Electricity Boards can im- diet is a good athlete. prove their finances by undertaking clean energy projects. (d) All athletes who want to win are good athletes. (d) The high economic disparity between the rich and poor States is the major Directions for the following 8 (eight) cause of high carbon emissions in India. items: Read the following seven passages and an- Passage-2 swer the items that follow. Your answers Set against a rural backdrop, ‘Stench of to these items should be based on the pas- kerosene’ is the story of a couple, Guleri and sages only. Manak, who have been happily married for several years but do not have a child. Manak’s Passage-1 mother is desperate to have a child. Manak’s mother is desperate to have a grandchild to The richer States have a responsibility to carry on the family name. Hence, she gets cut down carbon emissions and promote clean Manak, remarried in Guleri’s absence. Manak, energy investments. These are the States that who acts as a reluctant but passive spectator, got electricity, grew faster and now have high is meanwhile, informed by a friend that Guleri, per capita income, making them capable of on hearing about her husband’s second mar- sharing India’s burden of becoming eco-friendly. riage, poured kerosene on her clothes and set Delhi, for example, can help by generating its fire to them. Manak is heartbroken and begins own clean electricity using solar rooftop pan- to live as if he were a dead man. When his sec- els or even help poor States finance their clean ond wife delivers a son, Manak stares at the energy projects. It is no secret that State Elec- child for a long time and blurts out, “Take him tricity Boards, which control 95% of the distri- away! He stinks of kerosene.” bution network, are neck-deep in losses. These losses further discourage State utilities from 22. This is a sensitive issue-based story which adopting renewable energy as it is more expen- tries to sensitize the readers about sive than fossil fuels. (a) Male chauvinism and infidelity (b) Love and betrayal 21. Which among the following is the most logical and rational assumption that can be (c) Lack of legal safeguards for women made from the above passage? (d) Influence of patriarchal mindset 225 civilz byte Passage-3 nicipal employees, including senior management are recruited does not adequately factor in the The ultimate aim of government is not to technical and managerial competencies required. rule or control by fear, nor to demand obedi- Cadre and recruitment rules only specify the bare ence, but conversely, to free every man from minimum in academic qualifications. There is fear, that he may live in all possible security. In no mention of managerial or technical compe- other words, to strengthen his natural right to tencies, or of relevant work experience. This is exist and work without injury to himself or oth- the case with most municipal corporations. They ers. The object of government is not to change also suffer from weak organization design and men from rational beings into beasts or pup- structure. pets. It should enable them to develop their minds and bodies in security, and to employ their 24. Which among the following is the most logi- reason unshackled. cal and rational assumption that can be made from the above passage? 23. Which among the following is the most logi- (a) The task of providing urban services is cal and rational inference that can be made a complex issue which requires the or- from the above passage? ganizational expansion of municipal (a) The true aim of government is to se- bodies all over the country. cure the citizens their social and po- (b) Our cities can provide better quality of litical freedom. life if our local government bodies have (b) The primary concern of government is adequate staff with required skills and to provide absolute social security to competencies. all its citizens. (c) Lack of skilled staff is due to the ab- (c) The best government is the one that sence of institutions which offer the allows the citizens to enjoy absolute requisite skills in city management. liberty in all matters of life. (d) Our country is not taking advantage of (d) The best government is the one that the demographic dividend to manage provides absolute physical security to the problems associated with rapid ur- the people of the country. banization. Passage-4 Passage-5 Our municipal corporations are under- Flamingos in large flocks in the wild are staffed. The issue of skills and competencies of social and extremely loyal. They perform group the staff poses an even greater challenge. Ur- mating dances. Parents are very fond of their ban services delivery and infrastructure are chicks, gathering them into crèches for protec- complex to plan and execute. They require a tion while both males and females fly off to high degree of specialization and professionalism. The current framework within which mu- search for food. 226 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

25. Which among the following is the most logi- (b) The paper-based system of payments cal corollary to the above passage? is more efficient than electronic pay- (a) Mass nesting in all species of birds is ment in the present scenario. essential to ensure complete survival (c) The goal of electronic wage payments of their offspring. was not to eliminate meditation by vil- (b) Only birds have the capacity to develop lage leaders. social behavior and thus can do mass (d) It is essential to provide financial lit- nesting to raise their chicks in safety. eracy to the rural poor. (c) Social behavior in some species of birds increases the odds of survival in an un- Passage-7 safe world. Individuals, groups and leaders who pro- (d) All species of birds set up crèches for mote human development operate under strong their chicks to teach them social be- institutional, structural and political constraints havior and loyalty. that effect policy options. But experience suggests broad principles for shaping and appro- Passage-6 priate agenda for human development. One important finding from several decades of hu- Vast numbers of Indian citizens without man development experience is that focusing bank accounts live in rural areas, are financially exclusively on economic growth is problematic. and functionally illiterate, and have little ex- While we have good knowledge about how to perience with technology. A research study was advance health and education, the process of conducted in a particular area in which elec- growth or much less certain and growth is of- tronic wage payments in Mahatma Gandhi Na- ten elusive. For that, an unbalanced emphasis tional Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme on growth is often associated with negative (MGNREGS) are meant to go directly to the poor. It was observed that recipients often assume environmental consequences and adverse dis- that the village leader needs to mediate the tributional effects. The experience of China, process, as was the case under the previous with its impressive growth record, reflects these paper-based system. Among households under broader concerns and underlines the importance this research study area who claimed to have of balanced approaches that emphasize invest- at least one bank account, over a third reported ments in the non-income aspects of human de- still receiving MGNREGS wages in cash directly velopment. from a village leader. 27. With reference to the above passage, con- 26. What is the most logical, rational and cru- sider the following statements : cial message that is implied in the above 1. In developing countries, a strong insti- passage? tutional framework is the only require- (a) MGNREGS should be extended only to ment for human development and those who have a bank account. policy options. 227 civilz byte

2. Human development and economic (a) C is the richest (b) D is the poorest growth are not always positively inter- (c) C has more than what A and D have to- related. gether. 3. Focusing only on human development (d) B is richer than D. should be the goal of economic growth. Which of the above statements is/are cor- 31. In a town, 45% population read magazine rect? A, 55% read magazine B, 40% read maga- (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only zine C, 30% read magazines A and B, 15% read magazines B and C, 25% read maga- (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 zines A and C; and 10% read all the three magazines. What percentage do not read 28. With reference to the above passage, the any magazine? following assumptions have been made : (a) 10% (b) 15% (c) 20% (d) 25% 1. Higher economic growth is essential to ensure reduction in economic dispar- 32. Examine the following statements: ity. 1. Lady’s finger is tastier than cabbage. 2. Environmental degradation is some- 2. Cauliflower is tastier than lady’s finger. times a consequence of economic 3. Cabbage is not tastier than peas. growth. The conclusion that can be drawn from Which of the above is/are valid assump- these statements is that tion/assumptions? (a) Peas are as tasty as lady’s finger. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (b) Peas are as tasty as cauliflower and (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 lady’s finger. (c) Cabbage is the least tasty of the four 29. If A runs less fast than B, and B runs as fast vegetables. but not faster than C; then, as compared (d) Cauliflower is tastier than cabbage. to A, C runs (a) slower than A (b) faster than A 33. Shahid and Rohit start from the same point (c) with same speed as A in opposite directions. After each 1km, (d) Given data is not sufficient to deter- Shahid always turns left and Rohit always mine. turns right. Which of the following statements is correct? 30. Each of A, B, C, and D has `100. A pays `20 (a) After both have travelled 2 km, the dis- to B, who pays `10 to C, who gets `30 from tance between them is 4 km D. In this context, which one of the follow- (b) They meet after each has travelled 3 ing statements is not correct? km. 228 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

(c) They meet for the first time after each more than twice the number of parked ve- has travelled 4 km. hicles. The number of cars parked is (d) They go on without ever meeting again. (a) 35 (b) 45 (c) 50 (d) 55

34. In a 500 metres race, B starts 45 meters 39. The mangroves can shed tons of leaves per ahead of A, but A wins the race while B is acre every year; fungi and bacteria break still 35 meters behind. What is the ratio of down this leaf litter and consume it, they the speeds of A to B assuming that both then, are consumed by tiny worms and start at the same time? crustaceans, which in turn feed small fish, (a) 25:21 (b) 25:20 (c) 5:3 (d) 5:7 which feed larger fish and birds and crocodiles. 35. Two equal glasses of same time are respec- Which among the following is the most logi- tively 1/3 and 1/4 full of milk. They are cal inference of the above statement? then filled up with water and the contents (a) Coastal areas cannot have food chains are mixed in a pot. What is the ratio of without mangroves. milk and water in the pot? (b) Mangroves are an essential component (a) 7:17 (b) 1:3 (c) 9:21 (d) 11:23 of all marine ecosystems. (c) Mangroves have a crucial role in some 36. Out of 130 students appearing in an exami- of the coastal food chains. nation, 62 failed in English, 52 failed in (d) The composition of marine flora and mathematics, whereas 24 failed in both fauna is largely determined by man- English and mathematics. The number of groves. students who passed finally is (a) 40 (b) 50 (c) 55 (d) 60 40. “By liberty I mean the eager maintenance of that atmosphere in which men have the 37. In a group of persons travelling in bus, 6 opportunity to be their best selves.” persons can speak Tamil, 15 can speak Which one of the following expresses the Hindi, and 6 can speak Gujarathi. In that view implied in the above statement? group none can speak any other language. If two persons in the group can speak two (a) Liberty is the absence of restraint on languages only and one person can speak human action. all the three languages, then how many (b) Liberty is what law permits people to persons are there in the group? perform. (a) 21 (b) 22 (c) 23 (d) 24 (c) Liberty is the ability to do what one desires. 38. In a parking area, the total number of (d) Liberty is the maintenance of condi- wheels of all the cars (four-wheelers) and tions for the growth of human person- scooters / motorbikes (two-wheelers) is 100 ality. 229 civilz byte Directions for the following 7 (seven) Passage-2 items: Read the following six passages and answer The Global Financial Stability Report finds the items that follow. Your answers to that the share of portfolio investments from these items should be based on the pas- advanced economies in the total debt and eq- sages only. uity investments in emerging economies has doubled in the past decade to 12 percent. The Passage-1 phenomenon has implications for Indian Policy makers as foreign portfolio investments in the Climate change is already making many debt and equity markets have been on the rise. people hungry all over the world, by disrupting The phenomenon is also flagged as a threat that crop yields and pushing up prices. And it is not could compromise global financial stability in a just food but nutrients that are becoming chain reaction, in the event of United States scarcer as the climate changes. It is the poor- Federal Reserve’s imminent reversal of its est communities that will suffer the worst af- “Quantitative Easing” policy. fects of climate change, including increased hunger and malnutrition as crop production and 42. Which among the following is the most ra- livelihoods are threatened. On the other hand, tional and critical inference that can be poverty is a driver of climate change, as des- made from the above passage? perate communities resort to unsustainable use (a) Foreign portfolio investments are not of resources to meet current needs. good for emerging economies. (b) Advanced economies undermine the 41. Which among the following is the most logi- global financial stability cal corollary to the above passage? (c) India should desist from accepting for- (a) Government should allocate more funds eign portfolio investments in the fu- to poverty alleviation programmes and ture. increase food subsidies to the poor (d) Emerging economies are at a risk of communities. shock from advanced economies. (b) Poverty and climate impacts reinforce each other and therefore we have to Passage-3 re-imagine our food systems. Open defecation is disastrous when prac- (c) All the countries of the world must ticed in very densely populated areas, where it unite infighting poverty and malnutri- is impossible to keep away human faeces from tion and treat poverty as a global prob- crops, wells, food and children’s hands. Ground lem. water is also contaminated by open defecation. (d) We must stop unsustainable agricultural Many ingested germs and worms spread dis- practices immediately and control food eases. They prevent the body from absorbing prices. calories and nutrients. Nearly one-half of India’s 230 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle children remain malnourished. Lacks of them 44. Which one of the following statements best die from preventable conditions. Diarrhea sums up the above passage? leaves Indians’ bodies smaller on average than (a) Our country has a lot of diversity with those of people in some poorer countries where its many castes, communities and reli- people eat fewer calories. Under weight moth- gions. ers produce stunted babies prone to sickness (b) True democracy could be established who may fail to develop their full cognitive by providing equal opportunities to all. potential. The germs released into environment (c) So far none of us have actually under- harm rich and poor alike, even those who use stood the meaning of democracy. latrines. (d) It will never be possible for us to establish truly democratic governance in 43. Which among the following is the most criti- our country. cal inference that can made from the above passage? Passage-5 (a) The Central and State governments in India do not have enough resources to The existence/establishment of formal fi- afford a latrine for each household. nancial institutions that offer safe, reliable, and alternative financial instruments is fundamen- (b) Open defecation is the most important tal in mobilising savings. To save, individuals public health problem of India. need access to safe and reliable financial insti- (c) Open defecation reduces the human tutions, such as banks, and to appropriate fi- capital of India’s workforce. nancial instruments and reasonable financial (d) Open defecation is a public health prob- incentives. Such access is not always available lem in all developing countries. to all people in developing countries and more so, in rural areas. Savings help poor households Passage-4 manage volatility in cash flow, smoothen consumption, and build working capital. Poor house- We generally talk about democracy but holds without access to a formal savings mecha- when it comes to any particular thing, we pre- nism encourage immediate spending tempta- fer a belonging to out caste or community or tions. religion. So long as we have this kind of temp- tation, our democracy will remain a phoney kind 45. With reference to the above passage, con- of democracy. We must be in a position to re- sider the following statements : spect a man as a man and to extend opportuni- 1. Indian financial institutions do not of- ties for development to those who deserve them fer any financial instruments to rural and not to those who happen to belong to our households to mobilize their savings. community or race. This fact of favoritism has 2. Poor households tend to spend their been responsible for much discontent and ill- earnings/savings due to lack of access will in our country. to appropriate financial instruments. 231 civilz byte

Which of the statements given above is/ (a) Government should always be given are correct? wide discretionary power in all matters (a)1 only (b) 2 only of administration. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) The supremacy of rules and safeguards should prevail as opposed to the influ- 46. What is the crucial message conveyed in ence of exclusive discretion of author- the passage? ity. (a) Establish more banks. (c) Parliamentary democracy is possible only if the Government has wider dis- (b) increase the Gross Domestic Product cretionary power. (GDP) (d) None of the above statements is a logi- (c) Increase the interest rate of bank deposits. cal assumption that can be made from this passage. (d) Promote financial inclusion.

Passage-6 48. A selection is to be made for one post of Principal and two posts of Vice-Principal. Governments may have to take steps which Amongst the six candidates called for the would otherwise be an infringement on the Fun- interview, only two are eligible for the post damental Rights of individuals, such as acquir- of Principal while they are eligible for the ing a person’s land against his will, or refusing post of Vice-Principal. The number of pos- permission for putting up a building, but the sible combinations of selectees is larger public interest for which these are done (a) 4 (b) 12 (c) 18 must be authorized by the people (Parliament). (d) None of the above. Discretionary powers to the administration can be done away with. It is becoming more and 49. A student has to opt for 2 subjects out of 5 more difficult to keep this power within limits subjects for a course, namely, Commerce, as the government has many number of tasks Economics, Statistics, Mathematics I, and to perform. Where discretion has to be used, Mathematics II. Mathematics II can be of- there must be rules and safeguards to prevent fered only if Mathematics I is also opted. misuse of that power. Systems have to be de- The number of different combinations of vised which minimise, if not prevent, the abuse two subjects which can be opted is of discretionary power. Government work must be conducted within a framework of recognised (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8 rules and principles, and decisions should be similar and predictable. 50. A person ordered 5 pairs of black socks and some pairs of brown socks. The price of a 47. Which among the following is the most logi- black pair was thrice that of a brown pair. cal assumption that can be made from the While preparing the bill, the bill clerk in- above passage? terchanged the number of black and brown 232 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

pairs by mistake which increased the bill From the graph, which one of the following by 100%. What was the number of pairs of can be concluded ? brown socks in the original order? (a) On the average A earned more than B (a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 20 (d) 25 during this period. (b) On the average B earned more than A 51. The number of persons who read magazine during this period. X only is thrice the number of persons who (c) The earnings of A and B were equal dur- read magazine Y. The number of persons ing this period. who read magazine Y only is thrice the num- (d) The earnings of A were less as compared ber of persons who read magazine X. Then, to B during this period. which of the following conclusion can be drawn? 53. Two pipes A and B can independently fill a 1. the number of person who read both tank completely in 20 and 30 minutes re- the magazines is twice the number of spectively. If both the pipes are opened si- persons who read only magazine X. multaneously, how much time will they take to fill the tank completely? 2. The total number of persons who read (a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 15 (d) 25 either one magazine or both the magazines is twice the number of persons 54. Each of the six different faces of a cube who read both the magazines. has been coated with a different colour i.e., Select the correct answer using the code V, I, B, G, Y and O. Following formation is given below: given; (a) 1 only (b) 2 only 1. Colours Y, O and B are on adjacent (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 faces. 2. Colours I, G and Y are on adjacent 52. The graph below depicts the earnings of A faces. and B over the period 2000 to 2010: 3. Colours B, G and Y are on adjacent faces. 4. Colours O, V and B are on adjacent faces. Which is the colour of the face opposite to the face coloured with O ? (a) B (b) V (c) G (d) I

55. Consider the following statements followed by two conclusions: Statements : Some men are great. Some men are wise. 233 civilz byte

Conclusion I : Man are either great or wise. Conclusion II : Some men are neither great nor wise. Which one of the following is correct? (a) Only conclusion I is valid. (b) Only conclusion II is valid. (c) Both the conclusions are valid. (d) Neither of the conclusions is valid.

56. Consider the following statements: 1. Some claim to have seen UFOs (Uniden- The price of the commodity in the year 1990 tified Flying Objects). (a) Must have been ` 10/- 2. Life on other heavenly bodies is con- (b) Must have been ` 12/- sidered to be a possibility. (c) Must have been anywhere between `10 3. Voyage to space is now an established and ` 20 fact. (d) Is higher than that in the year 1991 From the above statements, it may be concluded that 59. The portion of expenditure on various items (a) UFOs are heavenly bodies. by two families A and B are represented in the following bar charts: (b) UFOs are sent from other heavenly bodies. 10% Food (c) Some living species in other heavenly 50% bodies are more intelligent than man. Food 60% (d) Nothing definite can be said about the Other itmes UFOs. 30% Other items 57. If ABC x DEED = ABCABC; where A, B, C, D 30% 20% and E are different digits, what are Education Education the values of D and E? Family A Family B (a) D = 2, E = 0 (b) D = 0, E = 1 Total expenditure: Total expenditure: (c) D = 1, E = 0 (d) D = 1, E = 2 ` 20,000 per month `1,00,000 per month From these charts, we can conclude that 58. Year- wise variation of the price of a cer- (a) Family A spent more money on food tain commodity is shown in the following than family B. 234 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

(b) Family B spent more money on food (a) Under the present circumstances, In- than family A. dia should completely avoid all trade (c) Family A and Family B spent the same liberalization policies and all subsidies. amount on food. (b) Due to its peculiar socio-economic situ- (d) The expenditure on food by Family A ation, India is not yet ready for trade and Family B cannot be compared. liberalization process. (c) There is no solution insight for the prob- 60. Usha runs faster than Kamala, Preethi runs lems of continuing poverty and infla- slower than Swathi, Swathi runs slower than tion in India in the near future. Kamala. Who is the slowest runner? (d) Economic reforms can often create a (a) Kamala (b) Preethi high inflation economy. (c) Swathi (d) Usha Passage-2 Directions for the following 7 (seven) items: No right is absolute, exclusive or inviolable. Read the following four passages and an- The right of personal property, similarly, has to swer the items that follow. Your answers be perceived in the larger context of its assumed to these items should be based on the pas- legitimacy. The right of personal property should sages only. unite the principle of liberty with that of equality, and both with the principle of cooperation. Passage-1 62. In the light of the argument in the above India has suffered from persistent high in- passage, which one of the following state- flation. Increase in administered prices, demand ments is the most convincing explanation? and supply imbalances, imported inflation ag- (a) The right of personal property is a Natu- gravated by rupee depreciation, and specula- ral Right duly supported by statutes and tion - have combined to keep high inflation go- scriptures. ing. If there is an element common to all of them, it is that many of them are the outcomes (b) Personal property is a theft and an in- of economic reforms. India’s vulnerability to the strument of exploitation. The right of effects of changes in international prices has personal property is therefore violative increased with trade liberalization. The effort of economic Justice. to reduce subsides has resulted in a continuous (c) The Right of personal property is viola- increase in the prices of commodities that are tive of distributive justice and negates administered. the principle of cooperation. (d) The comprehensive idea of economic 61. What is the most logical, rational and cru- justice demands that the right of each cial message that is implied in the above person to acquisition of property has passage? to be reconciled with that of others. 235 civilz byte Passage-3 is a large impediment to implementing adaptation plans. The scale and magnitude of the fi- The conflict between man and State is as nancial support required by developing coun- old as State history. Although attempts have tries to enhance their domestic mitigation and been made for centuries to bring about a proper adaptation actions are a matter of intense de- adjustment between the competing claims of bate in the multilateral negotiations under the State and the individual, the solution seems to United Nations Framework Convention on Cli- be still far off. This is primarily because of the mate Change (UNFCCC). The convention sparely dynamic nature of the human society where old puts the responsibility for provision of finan- ideas and values constantly yield plays to new cial support on the developed countries, taking ones. It is obvious that if individuals are allowed into account their contribution to the stack of to have absolute freedom of speech and action, greenhouse gases (GHGs) in the atmosphere. the result would be chaos, ruin and anarchy. Given the magnitude of the task and the funds required domestic finances are likely to fall 63. The author’s view point can be best short of the current and projected needs of the summed up in which of the following state- developing countries. Global funding through ments? the multilateral mechanism of the convention (a) The conflict between the claims of will enhance their domestic capacity to finance the mitigation efforts. State and individual remains unre- solved. 64. According to the passage which of the fol- (b) Anarchy and chaos are the obvious re- lowing is/are a matter of intense debate sults of democratic traditions. in the multilateral negotiations under (c) Old values, ideas and traditions persist UNFCCC regarding the role of developing despite the dynamic nature of human countries in climate change? society. 1. The scale and size of required finan- (d) Constitutional guarantee of freedom of cial support. speech is not in the interest of society. 2. The crop loss due to climate in the developing countries. Passage-4 3. To enhance the mitigation and Climate change is a complex policy issue adaptation actions in the developing with major implications in terms of finance. All countries. actions to address climate change ultimately Select the correct answer using the code involve costs. Funding is vital for countries like below: India to design and implement adaptation and (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only mitigation plans and projects. Lack of funding (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 236 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

65. In this passage, the convention puts the the countries to implement adaptation responsibility for the provision of financial plans. support on the developed countries because (d) Governance problems of developing of countries as a result of climate change. 1. their higher level of per capita incomes 68. Between 6 PM and 7 PM the minute hand of 2. their large quantum of GDP. a clock will be ahead of the hour hand by 3 3. their large contribution to the stock of minutes at the GHGs in the atmosphere. (a) 6: 15 PM (b) 6: 18 PM Select the correct answer using the code (c) 6: 36 PM (d) 6: 48 PM given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only 69. There are 5 tasks and 5 persons. Task - l (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 cannot be assigned to either person - l or person - 2. Task - 2 must be assigned to either person - 3 or person - 4. Every per- 66. With regards to developing countries, it can son is to be assigned one task. In how many be inferred from the passage that climate ways can the assignment be done? change is likely to have implications on (a) 6 (b) 12 (c) 24 (d) 144 their 1. Domestic finances 70. The monthly incomes of Peter and Paul are 2. Capacity for multilateral trade in the ratio of 4 : 3. Their expenses are in Select the correct answer using the code the ratio of 3 : 2. If each saves Rs. 6,000 at given below: the end of the month, their monthly incomes respectively are (in `) (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) 24,000 and 18,000 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 28,000 and 21,000 (c) 32,000 and 24,000 67. Which one of the following is essentially discussed in the passage ? (d) 34,000 and 26,000 (a) Conflict between developed and devel- 71. Two cities A and B are 360 km apart. A car oping countries support for mitigation. goes from A to B with a speed of 40 km/hr (b) Occurrence of climate change due to and returns to A with a speed of 60 km/hr. excessive exploitation of natural re- What is the average speed of the car? sources by the developed countries. (a) 45 km/hr (b) 48 km/hr (c) Lack of political will on the part of all (c) 50 km/hr (d) 55 km/hr 237 civilz byte

Directions for the following 2 (two) Which of the following statements is true? items: (a) Both the Tamil speakers can drive a car. Read the following passage and answer the (b) Both the Marathi speakers can drive a 2 (two) items that follow: car. A, B, C, D, E and F are cousins. No two (c) Both of those who can drive a car speak cousins are of the same age, but all have Marathi. birthdays on the same day of the same (d) One of those who can drive a car speaks month. The youngest is 17 years old and Tamil. the oldest E is 22 years old. F is somewhere between B and D in age. A is older than B. 76. In a plane, line X is perpendicular to line Y C is older than D. A is one year older than C. and parallel to line Z; line U is perpendicular to both lines V and W; line X is perpen- 72. Which one of the following is possible? dicular to line V. (a) D is 20 years old (b) F is 18 years old Which one of the following statements is (c) F is 19 years old (d) F is 20 years old correct? (a) Z, U and W are parallel. 73. What is the number of logically possible (b) X, V and Y are parallel. orders of all six cousins in terms of increas- (c) Z, V and U are all perpendicular to W. ing age? (d) Y, V and W are parallel. (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

77. A cow costs more than 4 goats but less than 74. In a society it is customary for friends of 5 goats. If a goat costs between `600 and the same sex to hug and for friends of op- `800, which of the following is a most valid posite sex to shake hands when they meet. conclusion? A group of friends met in a party and there were 24 handshakes. (a) A cow costs more than ` 2,500. Which one among the following numbers (b) A cow costs less than ` 3,600. indicates the possible number of hugs? (c) A cow costs between `2,600 and (a) 39 (b) 30 (c) 21 (d) 20 `3,800. (d) A cow costs between `2,400 and 75. Two men, Anil and David, and two women, `4,000. Shabnam and Rekha are in a sales group. Only two speak Tamil. The other two speak 78. A society consists of only two types of Marathi. Only one man and one woman can people - fighters and cowards. Two cow- drive a car. Shabnam speaks Marathi. Anil ards are always friends. A fighter and a speaks Tamil. Both Rekha and David can coward are always enemies. Fighters are drive. indifferent to one another. If A and B are 238 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

enemies, C and D are friends, E and F are (a) 26 (b) 28 (c) 32 (d) 36 indifferent to each other, A and E are not enemies, while B and F are enemies. 80. Candidates in a competitive examination Which of the following statements is cor- consisted of 60% men and 40% women. 70% rect? men and 75% women cleared the qualify- (a) B, C and F are cowards. ing test and entered the final test where 80% men and 70% women were successful. (b) A, E and F are fighters. Which of the following statements is (c) B and E are in the same category. correct? (d) A and F are in different categories. (a) Success rate is higher for women. (b) Overall success rate is below 50%. 79. In a box of marbles, there are three less white marbles than the red ones and five (c) More men cleared the examination than more white marbles than the green ones. women. If there are a total of 10 white marbles, (d) Both (a) and (b) above are correct. how many marbles are there in the box?

1. A 9. D 17. C 25. C 33. B 41. B 49. C 57. C 65. C 73. B 2. D 10. A 18. B 26. D 34. A 42. D 50. D 58. C 66. A 74. C 3. B 11. A 19. A 27. C 35. A 43. C 51. 59. C 67. A 75. D KEY 4. C 12. A 20. B 28. B 36. A 44. B 52. A 60. B 68. C 76. D 5. C 13. C 21. A 29. B 37. C 45. B 53. B 61. D 69. C 77. D 6. A 14. D 22. D 30. C 38. C 46. D 54. C 62. D 70. A 78. B 7. A 15. B 23. A 31. C 39. C 47. B 55. D 63. A 71. B 79. B ANSWER 8. D 16. D 24. B 32. D 40. D 48. D 56. D 64. C 72. B 80. C

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239 civilz byte CSAT - QUESTION PAPER 2016

Directions for the following 6 (six) items: emphasis seems to have tilted in favour of Read the following two passages and an- greater internal accountability of the civil ser- swer the items that follow each passage. vices to the political leaders of the day who in Your answers to these items should be turn are expected to be externally accountable based on the passages only. to the society at large through the election process. This system for seeking accountability to Passage-1 Society has not worked out, and has led to several adverse consequences for governance. Accountability, or the lack of it, in governance generally, and civil services, in particu- Some special measures can be considered lar, is a major factor underlying the deficien- for improving accountability in civil services. cies in governance and public administration. Provisions of articles 311 and 312 should be re- Designing an effective framework for account- viewed and laws and regulations framed to en- ability has been a key element of the reform sure external accountability of civil services. agenda. A fundamental issue is whether civil The proposed Civil Services Bill seeks to address services should be accountable to the political some of these requirements. The respective executive of the day or to society at large. In roles of professional civil services and the po- other words, how should internal and external litical executive should he defined so that pro- accountability be reconciled? Internal account- fessional managerial functions and management ability is sought to be achieved by internal per- of civil services are depoliticized. For this pur- formance monitoring, official supervision by pose, effective statutory civil service boards bodies like the Central Vigilance Commission should be created at the centre and in the and Comptroller and Auditor General, and judi- states. Decentralization and devolution of au- cial review of executive decisions. Articles 311 thority to bring government and decision mak- and 312 of the Indian Constitution provide job ing closer to the people also helps to enhance security and safeguards to the civil services, accountability. especially the All India Services. The framers of the Constitution had envisaged that provision 1. According to the passage, which of the fol- of these safeguards would result in a civil ser- lowing factor/factors led to the adverse vice that is not totally subservient to the po- consequences for governance/public ad- litical executive but will have the strength to function in larger public interest. The need to ministration ? balance internal and external accountability is 1. Inability of civil services to strike a bal- thus built into the Constitution. The issue is ance between internal and external where to draw the line. Over the years, the accountabilities 240 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

2. Lack of sufficient professional training 4. According to the passage, which one of the to the officers of All India Services following is not a means of enhancing in- 3. Lack of proper service benefits in civil ternal accountability of civil services? services (a) Better job security and safeguards 4. Lack of Constitutional provisions to de- (b) Supervision by Central Vigilance Com- fine the respective roles of professional mission civil services vis-a-vis political execu- (c) Judicial review of executive decisions tive in this context (d) Seeking accountability through en- Select the correct answer using the code hanced participation by people in de- given below : cision making process (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 Passage-2

In general, religious traditions stress our 2. With reference to the passage, the follow- duty to god, or to some universal ethical prin- ing assumptions have been made : ciple. Our duties to one another derive from 1. Political executive is an obstacle to the these. The religious concept of rights is prima- accountability of the civil services to rily derived from our relationship to this divin- the society ity or principle and the implication it has on 2. In the present framework of Indian pol- our other relationships. This correspondence ity, the political executive is no longer between rights and duties is critical to any fur- accountable to the society ther understanding of justice. But, for justice Which of these assumptions is/are valid? to be practiced; virtue, rights and duties can- (a) 1 only (b) 2 only not remain formal abstractions. They must be (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 grounded in a community (common unity) bound together by a sense of common union (commun- 3. Which one of the following is the essential ion). Even as a personal virtue, this solidarity is message implied by this passage? essential to the practice and understanding of (a) Civil services are not accountable to the justice. society they are serving (b) Educated and enlightened persons are 5. With reference to the passage, the follow- not taking up political leadership ing assumptions have been made : (c) The framers of the Constitution did not 1. Human relationships are derived from envisage the problems being encoun- their religious traditions tered by the civil services 2. Human beings can be duty bound only (d) There is a need and scope for reforms if they believe in god to improve the accountability of civil 3. Religious traditions are essential to services practice and understand justice 241 civilz byte

Which of these assumption(s) is/are valid? (a) The rate of population growth is in- (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only creasing due to rural-urban migration (b) The rate of population growth is in- (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 creasing due to decline in death rate only 6. Which one of the following is the crux of (c) The rate of population growth is in- this passage? creasing due to increase in birth rate (a) Our duties to one another derive from only our religious traditions (d) The rate of population growth is in- (b) Having relationship to the divine prin- creasing due to faster decline in death ciple is a great virtue rate than in birth rate (c) Balance between and duties is crucial 9. A person X was driving in a place where all to the delivery of justice in a society roads ran either north-south or east-west, (d) Religious concept of rights is primarily forming a grid. Roads are at a distance of 1 derived from our relationship to god km from each other in a parallel. He started at the intersection of two roads, drove 3 7. A ate grapes and pineapple; B ate grapes km north, 3 km west and 4 km south. Which and oranges; C ate oranges, pineapple and further route could bring him back to his apple; D ate grapes, apple and pineapple. starting point, if the same route is not re- After taking fruits, B and C fell sick. In the peated? light of the above facts, it can be said that (a) 3 km east, then 2 km south the cause of sickness was : (b) 3 km east, then 1 km north (a) Apple (b) Pineapple (c) 1 km north, then 2 km west (c) Grapes (d) Oranges (d) 3 km south, then 1 km north

8. Consider the following statements. 10. Consider the following statement: “We shall go either for a picnic or for trek- 1. The rate of population growth is in- king”. creasing in the country Which of the following, if true, would fal- 2. The death rate is declining faster in the sify this claim? country compared to birth rate (a) We go for a picnic but not for trekking 3. The birth rate is declining faster in the (b) Activities such as picnic and trekking country compared to death rate are encouraged by the health 4. Rural-urban migration is taking place authorities regularly in the country (c) We go for trekking and not for picnic Which one of the following conclusions may (d) We do not go either for picnic or for be true in the light of the above facts? trekking 242 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

11. There were 50 faculty members compris- 13. There are five hobby clubs in a college — ing 30 males and the rest females. No male photography, yachting, chess, electronics faculty member knew music, but many of and gardening. The gardening group meets the female faculty members did. The Head every second day, the electronics group of the institution invited six faculty mem- meets every third day, the chess group bers to a tea party by draw of lots. At the meets every fourth day, the yachting group meets every fifth day and the photography party it was discovered that no member group meets every sixth day. How many knew music. The conclusion is that: times do all the five groups meet on the (a) the party comprised male faculty mem- same day within 180 days? bers only (a) 5 (b) 18 (c) 10 (d) 3 (b) the party comprised only those female faculty members who could not give 14. There are some nectar-filled flowers on a renderings in music tree and some bees are hovering on it. If (c) the party comprised both male and fe- one bee lands on each flower, one bee will male faculty members be left out. If two bees land on each flower, one flower will be left out. The number of (d) nothing can be said about the gender flowers and bees respectively are: composition of the party (a) 2 and 4 (b) 3 and 2

12. Five people A, B, C, D and E are seated (c) 3 and 4 (d) 4 and 3 about a round table. Every chair is spaced equidistant from adjacent chairs. Directions for the following 5 (five) items: (i) C is seated next to A Consider the following information and an- (ii) A is seated two seats from D swer the five items that follow : (iii)B is not seated next to A There are five persons in a group — P, Q, R, On the basis of above information, which S and T. The group has one doctor, one law- of the following must be true? yer and one artist. P and S are unmarried 1. D is seated next to B students. T is a man married to one of the group members. Q is the brother of P and 2. E is seated next to A is neither doctor nor artist. R is not doctor. 3. D and C are separated by two seats Select the correct answer using the code 15. Who is the doctor? given below : (a) T (b) P (c) Q (d) R (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only 16. Who is the artist? (d) Neither 1 nor 2 nor 3 (a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) T 243 civilz byte

17. Who is the spouse of R? mass production is also sensitive to the physical (a) P (b) T (c) Q (d) S impacts of a changing climate. Projections of the future role of biomass are 18. Who is the lawyer? probably overestimated, given the limits to the (a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S sustainable biomass supply, unless breakthrough technologies substantially increase productivity. 19. Who of the following is definitely a man? Climate-energy models project that biomass use could increase nearly four-fold to around 150 — (a) P (b) S (s) Q 200 exajoules, almost a quarter of world pri- (d) None of the above mary energy in 2050. However the maximum sustainable technical potential of biomass re- 20. There is an order of 19000 quantity of a sources (both residues and energy crops) with- particular product from a customer. The out disruption of food and forest resources ranges firm produces 1000 quantity of that prod- from 80 — 170 exajoules a year by 2050, and uct per day out of which 5% are unfit for only part of this is realistically and economically sale. In how many days will the order be feasible. In addition, some climate models rely completed? on biomass-based carbon capture and storage, (a) 18 (b) 19 (c) 20 (d) 22 an unproven technology, to achieve negative emissions and to buy some time during the first Directions for the following 5 (five) half of the century. items: Some liquid biofuels such as corn-based Read the following two passages and an- ethanol, mainly for transport, may aggravate swer the items that follow each passage. rather than ameliorate carbon emissions on a Your answers to these items should be life-cycle basis. Second generation biofuels, based on the passages only. based on ligno-cellulosic feedstocks — such as straw, bagasse, grass and wood — hold the prom- Passage-1 ise of sustainable production that is high-yielding and emit low levels of greenhouse gases, Biomass as fuel for power, heat, and trans- but these are still in the R & D stage. port has the highest mitigation potential of all renewable sources. It comes from agriculture 21. What is/are the present constraint/con- and forest residues as well as from energy crops. straints in using biomass as fuel for power The biggest challenge in using biomass residues generation? is a long-term reliable supply delivered to the power plant at reasonable costs; the key prob- 1. Lack of sustainable supply of biomass lems are logistical constraints and the costs of 2. Biomass production competes with food fuel collection. Energy crops, if not managed production properly, compete with food production and may 3. Bio-energy may not always be low car- have undesirable impacts on food prices. Bio- bon on a life-cycle basis 244 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

Select the correct answer using the code 24. With reference to the passage, following given below: assumptions have been made : (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only 1. Some climate-energy models suggest (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 that the use of biomass as a fuel for power generation helps in mitigating 22. Which of the following can lead to food greenhouse gas emissions security problem? 2. It is not possible to use biomass as a 1. Using agricultural and forest residues fuel for power generation without disas feedstock for power generation rupting food and forest resources Which of these assumptions is/are valid? 2. Using biomass for carbon capture and storage (a) 1 only (b) 2 only 3. Promoting the cultivation of energy (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 crops Select the correct answer using the code Passage-2 given below: We are witnessing a dangerous dwindling (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only of biodiversity in our food supply. The green (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 revolution is a mixed blessing. Over time farmers have come to rely heavily on broadly 23. In the context of using biomass, which of adapted, high yield crops to the exclusion of the following is/are the characteristic/ varieties adapted to the local conditions. characteristics of the sustainable produc- Monocropping vast fields with the same geneti- tion of biofuel? cally uniform seeds helps boost yield and meet 1. Biomass as a fuel for power generation immediate hunger needs. Yet high-yield variet- could meet all the primary energy re- ies are also genetically weaker crops that requirements of the world by 2050 quire expensive chemical fertilizers and toxic pesticides. In our focus on increasing the amount 2. Biomass as a fuel for power generation of food we produce today, we have acciden- does not necessarily disrupt food and tally put ourselves at risk for food shortages in forest resources future. 3. Biomass as a fuel for power generation could help in achieving negative emis- 25. Which among the following is the most logi- sions, given certain nascent technolo- cal and critical inference that can be made gies from the above passage? Select the correct answer using the code (a) In our agricultural practices, we have given below: become heavily dependent on expen- (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only sive chemical fertilizers and toxic pes- (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 ticides only due to green revolution 245 civilz byte

(b) Monocropping vast fields with high- 28. 30g of sugar was mixed in 180 ml water in yield varieties is possible due to green a vessel A, 40 g of sugar Was mixed in 280 revolution ml of water in vessel B and 20 g of sugar (c) Monocropping with high-yield varieties was mixed in 100 ml of water in vessel C. is the only way to ensure food security The solution in vessel B is to millions (a) sweeter than that in C (d) Green revolution can pose a threat to (b) sweeter than that in A biodiversity in food supply and food (c) as sweet as that in C security in the long run (d) less sweet than that in C 26. A class starts at 11:00 am and lasts till 2:27 pm. Four periods of equal duration are held 29. In aid of charity, every student in a class during this interval. After every period, a contributes as many rupees as the number rest of 5 minutes is given to the students. of students in that class. With the addi- The exact duration of each period is : tional contribution of Rs. 2 by one student (a) 48 minutes (b) 50 minutes only, the total collection is Rs. 443. Then (c) 51 minutes (d) 53 minutes how many students are there in the class? (a) 12 (b) 21 (c) 43 (d) 45 27. Four friends A, B, C and D need to cross a bridge. A maximum of two persons can cross 30. Anita’s mathematics test had 70 problems it at a time. It is night and they just have carrying equal marks i.e., 10 arithmetic, one lamp. Persons that cross the bridge 30 algebra and 30 geometry. Although she must carry the lamp to find the way. A pair answered 70% of the arithmetic, 40% of the must walk together at the speed of slower algebra and 60% of the geometry problems person. After crossing the bridge, the per- correctly, she did not pass the test because son having faster speed in the pair will re- she got less than 60% marks. The number turn with the lamp each time to accom- of more questions she would have to an- pany another person in the group. Finally, swer correctly to earn a 60% passing the lamp has to be returned at the original marks is: place and the person who returns the lamp has to cross the bridge again without lamp. (a) 1 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 9 To cross the bridge, the time taken by them is as follows : A: 1 minute, B: 2 minutes, C: 31. In a class, there are 18 very tall boys. If 7 minutes and D: 10 minutes. What is the these constitute three-fourths of the boys total minimum time required by all the and the total number of boys is two-thirds friends to cross the bridge? of the total number of students in the class, (a) 23 minutes (b) 22 minutes what is the number of girls in the class? (c) 21 minutes (d) 20 minutes (a) 6 (b) 12 (c) 18 (d) 21 246 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

32. Consider the following statements: is at the extreme right. The hockey ball is 1. Either A and B are of the same age or A neither in box D nor in box E. The box C is older than B having cricket ball is painted green. The hockey ball is neither in the box painted 2. Either C and D are of the same age or D blue nor in the box painted yellow. The box is older than C C is fifth from right and next to box B. The 3. B is older than C box B contains volleyball. The box contain- Which of the following conclusions can be ing the hockey ball is between the boxes drawn from the above statements? containing golf ball and volleyball. (a) A is older than B (b) B and D are of the same age 34. Which one of the following boxes contains the golf ball? (c) D is older than C (a) F (b) E (c) D (d) A is older than C (d) None of the above 33. The monthly average salary paid to all the employees of a company was Rs. 5000. The 35. Which of the following statements is/are monthly average salary paid to male and correct? female employees was Rs. 5200 and (a) D is painted yellow Rs.4200 respectively. Then the percentage (b) F is painted indigo of males employed in the company is (c) B is painted blue (a) 75% (b) 80% (c) 85% (d) 90% (d) All of the above

Direction for the following 3 (three) 36. The football is in the box of which colour? items: (a) Yellow (b) Indigo Consider the given -formation and answer (c) Cannot be determined as data are in- the three items that follow. adequate Six boxes A, B, C, D, E and F have been (d) Blue painted with six different colours viz., violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow and orange and arranged from left to right (not neces- 37. Two numbers X and Y are respectively 20% sarily either kept or painted with the and 28% less than a third number Z. By what colours in the same order). Each box con- percentage is the number Y less than the tains a ball of any one of the following six number X ? games: cricket, hockey, tennis, golf, foot- (a) 12% (b) 10% (c) 9% (d) 8% ball and volleyball (not necessarily in the same order). The golf ball is in violet box 38. A daily train is to be introduced between and is not in the box D. The box A which station A and station B starting from each contains tennis ball is orange in colour and end at 6 AM and the journey is to be com- 247 civilz byte

pleted in 42 hours. What is the number of the middle-income trap where crony capitalism trains needed in order to maintain the creates oligarchies that slow down the growth. Shuttle Service? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 7 41. Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage ? 39. A piece of tin is in the form of a rectangle (a) Launching more welfare schemes and having length 12 cm and width 8 cm. This allocating more finances for the cur- is used to construct a closed cube. The side rent schemes are urgently needed of the cube is: (b) Efforts should be made to push up eco- (a) 2 cm (b) 3 cm (c) 4 cm (d) 7 cm nomic growth by other means and provide licenses to the poor 40. In a. question paper there are five ques- (c) Greater transparency in the function- tions to be attempted and answer to each ing of the government and promoting question has two choices - True (T) or False the financial inclusion are needed at (F). It is given that no two candidates have present given the answers to the five questions in (d) We should concentrate more on devel- an identical sequence. For this to happen oping manufacturing sector than ser- the maximum number of candidates is: vice sectors (a) 10 (b) 18 (c) 26 (d) 32 Passage-2 Directions for the following 8 (eight) items: Climate adaptation may be rendered inef- Read the following eight passages and an- fective if policies are not designed in the con- swer the item that follows each passage. text of other development concerns. For in- Your answers to these items should be stance, a comprehensive strategy that seeks to based on the passages only. improve food security in the context of climate change may include a set of coordinated mea- Passage-1 sures related to agricultural extension, crop diversification, integrated water and pest man- By killing transparency and competition, agement and agricultural information series. crony capitalism is harmful to free enterprise, Some of these measures may have to do with opportunity and economic growth. Crony capi- climate changes and others with economic de- talism, where rich and the influential are al- velopment. leged to have received land and natural resources and various licences in return for pay- 42. What is the most logical and rational infer- offs to venal politicians, is now a major issue ence that can be made from the above to be tackled. One of the greatest dangers to passage? growth of developing economies like India is

248 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

(a) It is difficult to pursue climate adapta- continuously interact among them- tion in the developing countries selves (b) Improving food security is a far more (d) Living organisms could not have come complex issue than climate adaptation into existence without hydrological cycle (c) Every developmental activity is directly or indirectly linked to climate adaptation Passage-4 (d) Climate adaptation should be examined In the last decade, the banking sector has in tandem with other economic devel- been restructured with a high degree of auto- opment options mation and products that mainly serve middle- class and upper middle-class society. Today Passage-3 there is a need for a new agenda for the banking and non-banking financial services that does Understanding of the role of biodiversity not exclude the common man in the hydrological cycle enables better policy- making. The term biodiversity refers to the va- 44. Which one of the following is the message riety of plants, animals, microorganisms, and that is essentially implied in the above pas- the ecosystems in which they occur. Water and sage? biodiversity are interdependent. In reality, the (a) Need for more automation and more hydrological cycle decides how biodiversity products of banks functions. In turn, vegetation and soil drive the (b) Need for a radical restructuring of our movement of water. Every glass of water we entire public finance system drink has, at least in part, passed through fish, (c) Need to integrate banking and non- trees, bacteria, soil and other organisms. Pass- banking institutions ing through these ecosystems, it is cleansed and made fit for consumption. The supply of water (d) Need to promote financial inclusion is a critical service that the environment provides. Passage-5

Safe and sustainable sanitation in slums has 43. Which among the following is the most criti- immeasurable benefits to women and girls in cal inference that can be made from the terms of their health, safety, privacy and dig- above passage? nity. However, women do not feature in most (a) Biodiversity sustains the ability of na- of the schemes and policies on urban sanita- ture to recycle water tion. The fact that even now the manual scav- (b) We cannot get potable water without enging exists, ones to show that not enough has the existence of living organisms been done to promote pour-flush toilets and discontinue the use of dry latrines. A more sus- (c) Plants, animals and microorganisms 249 civilz byte tained and rigorous campaign needs to be (c) Social life is a specific characteristic launched towards the right to sanitation on a of man very large scale. This should primarily focus on (d) Diverse natural wants forced man to- the abolition of manual scavenging. wards social system

45. With reference to the above passage, con- Passage-7 sider the following statements: The nature of the legal imperatives in any 1. Urban sanitation problems can be fully given state corresponds to the effective de- solved by the abolition of manual scav- mands that state encounters, and that these, enging only in their turn, depend, in a general way, upon 2. There is a need to promote greater the manner in which economic power is distrib- awareness on safe sanitation practices uted in the society which the state controls. in urban areas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 47. The statement refers to: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) the antithesis of Politics and Economics (c) Both I and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) the interrelationship of Politics and Economics Passage-6 (c) the predominance of Economics over Politics To understand the nature and quantity of (d) the predominance of Politics over Government proper for man, it is necessary to Economics attend to his character. As nature created him for social life, she fitted him for the station she Passage-8 intended. In all cases she made his natural wants About 15 percent of global greenhouse gas greater than his individual powers. No one man emissions come from agricultural practices. This is capable, without the aid of society, of sup- includes nitrous oxide fertilizers; methane from plying his own wants; and those wants, acting livestock, rice production, and manure storage; upon every individual, impel the whole of them and carbon dioxide (CO2) from burning biom- into society. ass, but this excludes CO2 emissions from soil management practices, savannah burning and 46. Which among the following is the most logi- deforestation. Forestry, land-use and land-use cal and rational inference that can be made change account for another 17 percent of green- from the above passage ? house gas emissions each year, three quarters of which come from tropical deforestation. The (a) Nature has created a great diversity in remainder is largely from draining and burning human society tropical peatland. About the same amount of (b) Any given human society is always short carbon is stored in the world’s peatlands as is of its wants stored in the Amazon rainforest. 250 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

48. Which among the following is the most logi- The average age of the family today is the cal and rational inference that can be made same as it was 3 years ago, because of an from the above passage? addition of a baby during the intervening (a) Organic farming should immediately period. How old is the baby ? replace mechanized and chemical de- (a) 6 months (b) 1 year pendant agricultural practices all over (c) 2 years the world (d) 2 years and 6 months (b) It is imperative for us to modify our land use practices in order to mitigate cli- 52. The total emoluments of two persons are mate change. the same, but one gets allowances to the (c) There are no technological solutions to extent of 65% of his basic pay and the other the problem of greenhouse gas emis- gets allowances to the extent of 80% of his sions basic pay. The ratio of the basic pay of the (d) Tropical areas are the chief sites of car- former to the basic pay of the latter is: bon sequestration (a) 16 : 13 (b) 5 : 4 (c) 7 : 5 (d) 12 : 11

49. A person climbs a hill in a straight path from 53. A person is standing on the first step from point ‘O’ on the ground in the direction of the bottom of a ladder. If he has to climb 4 north-east and reaches a point ‘A’ after more steps to reach exactly the middle travelling a distance of 5 km. Then, from step, how many steps does he ladder have? the point ‘A’ he moves to point ‘B’ in the (a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d) 11 direction of north-west. Let the distance AB be 12 km. Now, how far is the person Direction for the following 3 (three) away from the starting point ‘O’? items: (a) 7 km (b) 13 km (c) 17 km (d) 11 km Consider the given information and answer the three items that follow. 50. An agricultural field is in the form of a rect- When three friends A, B and C met, it was angle having length X meters and breadth 1 found that each of them wore an outer X meters (X and X are variable). If X + X 2 1 2 1 2 garment of a different colour. In random = 40 meters, then the area of the agricul- order, the garments are: jacket, sweater tural field will not exceed which one of the and tie; and the colours are: blue, white following values? and black. Their surnames in random or- (a) 400 sq m (b) 300 sq m der are: Ribeiro, Kumar and Singh. (c) 200 sq m (d) 80 sq m Further, we know that : 1. neither B nor Ribeiro wore a white 51. The sum of the ages of 5 members com- sweater prising a family, 3 years ago was 80 years. 2. C wore a tie 251 civilz byte

3. Singh’s garment was not white (a) 5 km (b) 9 km (c) 37 km (d) 61 km 4. Kumar does not wear a jacket 5. Ribeiro does not like to wear the black 59. A cube has all its faces painted with differ- colour ent colours. It is cut into smaller cubes of equal sizes such that the side of the small 6. Each of the friends wore only one outer cube is one-fourth the big cube. The num- garment of only one colour ber of small cubes with only one of the sides painted is: 54. What is C’s surname ? (a) 32 (b) 24 (c) 16 (d) 8 (a) Riberio (b) Kumar

(c) Singh 60. Ram and Shyam work on a job together for (d) Cannot be determined four days and complete 60% of it. Ram takes leave then and Shyam works for eight more 55. What is the colour of the tie ? days to complete the job. How long would (a) Black (b) Blue Ram take to complete the entire job alone? (c) White (a) 6 days (b) 8 days (d) Cannot be determined (c) 10 days (d) 11 days

56. Who wore the sweater ? 61. A military code writes SYSTEM as SYSMET (a) A (b) B (c) C and NEARER as AENRER. Using the same code, FRACTION can be written as: (d) Cannot be determined (a) CARFTION (b) FRACNOIT 57. AB is a vertical trunk of a huge tree with A (c) NOITCARF (d) CARFNOIT being the point where the base of the trunk touches the ground. Due to a cyclone, the 62. If R and S are different integers both divis- trunk has been broken at C which is at a ible by 5, then which of the following is height of 12 meters, broken part is par- not necessarily true? tially attached to the vertical portion of (a) R - S is divisible by 5 the trunk at C. If the end of the broken (b) R + S is divisible by 10 part B touches the ground at D which is at (c) R x S is divisible by 25 a distance of 5 meters from A, then the original height of the trunk is: (d) R2 + S2 is divisible by 5 (a) 20 m (b) 25 m (c) 30 m (d) 35 m 63. How many numbers are there between 100 and 300 which either begin with or end 58. A person walks 12 km due north, then 15 with 2? km due east, after that 19 km due west and then 15 km due south. How far is he (a) 110 (b) 111 (c) 112 from the starting point? (d) None of the above 252 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

Directions for the following 8 (eight) Passage-2 items: All humans digest mother’s milk as infants, Read the following five passages and an- but until cattle began being domesticated swer the items that follow each passage. 10,000 years ago, children once weaned no Your answers to these items should be longer needed to digest milk. As a result, they based on the passages only. stopped making the enzyme lactase, which breaks down the sugar lactose into simple sug- Passage-1 ars. After humans began herding cattle, it became tremendously advantageous to digest As we look to 2050, when we will need to milk, and lactose tolerance evolved independently among cattle herders in Europe, the feed two billion more people, the question of middle East and Africa. Groups not dependant which diet is best has taken on new urgency. on cattle, such as the Chinese and Thai, remain The foods we choose to eat in the coming de- lactose intolerant. cades will have dramatic ramifications for the planet. Simply put, a diet that revolves around 65. Which among the following is the most logi- meat and dairy a way of eating that is on the cal assumption that can be made from the rise throughout the developing world, will take above passage? a greater toll on the world’s resources than one (a) About 10,000 years ago, the domesti- that revolves around unrefined grains, nuts, cation of animals took place in some parts of the world fruits and vegetables. (b) A permanent change in the food habits of a community can bring about a ge- 64. What is the critical message conveyed by netic change in its members the above passage? (c) Lactose tolerant people only are ca- (a) Our increasing demand for foods pable of getting simple sugars in their sourced from animals puts a greater bodies burden on our natural resources (d) People who are not lactose tolerant (b) Diets based on grains, nuts, fruits and cannot digest any dairy product vegetables are best suited for health in developing countries Passage-3 (c) Human beings change their food habits “The conceptual difficulties in National from time to time irrespective of the Income comparisons between underdeveloped health concerns and industrialised countries are particularly serious because a part of the national output in (d) From a global perspective, we still do various underdeveloped countries is produced not know which type of diet is best without passing through the commercial for us channels.” 253 civilz byte

66. In the above statement, the author implies 67. Which among the following is the most logi- that: cal corollary to the above passage ? (a) the entire national output produced and (a) Carbon dioxide is essential for the sur- consumed in industrialized countries vival of microorganisms and plants passes through commercial channels (b) Humans are solely responsible for the release of carbon dioxide into the at- (b) the existence of a non-commercialized mosphere sector in different underdeveloped countries renders the national income (c) Microorganisms and soil carbon are mainly responsible for the increased comparisons over countries difficult plant growth (c) no part of national output should be (d) Increasing green cover could trigger the produced and consumed without pass- release of carbon trapped in soil ing through commercial channels (d) a part of the national output being pro- Passage-5 duced and consumed without passing through commercial channels is a sign Historically, the biggest Challenge to world of underdevelopment agriculture has been to achieve a balance between demand for and supply of food. At the Passage-4 level of individual countries, the demand-supply balance can be a critical issue for a closed An increase in human-made carbon diox- economy, especially if it is a populous economy and its domestic agriculture is not growing suf- ide in the atmosphere could initiate a chain ficiently enough to ensure food supplies, on an reaction between plant and microorganisms that enduring basis; it is not so much and not al- would unsettle one of the largest carbon reser- ways, of a constraint for an open, and growing voirs on the planet-soil. In a study, it was found economy, which has adequate exchange sur- that the soil, which contains twice the amount pluses to buy food abroad. For the world as a of carbon present in all plants and Earth’s at- whole, Supply-demand balance is always an in- mosphere combined, could become increasingly escapable prerequisite for warding off hunger volatile as people add more carbon dioxide to and starvation. However, global availability of the atmosphere. This is largely because of inadequate supply does not necessarily mean that creased plant growth. Although a greenhouse food would automatically move from countries gas and a pollutant, carbon dioxide also sup- of surplus to countries of deficit if the latter ports plant growth. As trees and other vegeta- lack in purchasing power. The uneven distribution flourish in a carbon dioxide-rich future, tion of hunger, starvation, under- or malnour- their roots could stimulate microbial activity ishment, etc., at the world-level, thus owes itself to the presence of empty-pocket hungry in soil that may in turn accelerate the decom- mouths, overwhelmingly confined to the under- position of soil carbon and its release into the developed economies. Inasmuch as ‘a two- atmosphere as carbon dioxide. square meal’ is of elemental significance to 254 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle basic human existence, the issue of worldwide 70. According to the above passage, which of supply of food has been gaining significance, in the following helps/help in reducing hun- recent times, both because the quantum and ger and starvation in the developing econo- the composition of demand has been undergo- mies ? ing big changes, and because, in recent years, 1. Balancing demand and supply of food the capacities individual countries to generate 2. Increasing imports of food uninterrupted chain of food supplies have come under strain. Food production, marketing and 3. Increasing purchasing power of the poor prices, especially price-affordability by the poor 4. Changing the food consumption pat- in the developing world, have become global terns and practices issues that need global thinking and global Select the correct answer using the code solutions. given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only 68. According to the above passage, which of, (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 the following are the fundamental solutions for the world food security problem? 71. The issue of worldwide supply of food has 1. Setting up more agro-based industries gained importance mainly because of: 2. Improving the price affordability by the 1. overgrowth of the population world- poor wide 3. Regulating the conditions of marketing 2. sharp decline in the area of food pro- 4. Providing food subsidy to one and all duction Select the correct answer using the code 3. limitation in the capabilities for sus- given below: tained supply of food (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only 69. According to the above passage, the (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 biggest challenge to world agriculture is: (a) to find sufficient land for agriculture 72. Four-digit numbers are to be formed using and to expand food processing indus- the digits 1, 2, 3 and 4; and none of these tries four digits are repeated in any manner. (b) to eradicate hunger in underdeveloped Further, countries 1. 2 and 3 are not to immediately follow (c) to achieve a balance between the pro- each other duction of food and non-food items 2. 1 is not to be immediately followed by 3 (d) to achieve a balance between demand 3. 4 is not to appear at the last place for and supply of food 4. 1 is not to appear at the first place 255 civilz byte

How many different numbers can be formed? person in the same family if the income of (a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 9 one person increased by Rs. 1,20,000 per year? (d) None of the above (a) Rs. 12,000 (b) Rs. 16,000 73. A cylindrical overhead tank of radius 2 m (c) Rs. 20,000 (d) Rs. 34,000 and height 7 m is to be filled from an underground tank of size 5.5m x 4m x 6m. 78. In a race, a competitor has to collect 6 How much portion of the underground tank apples which are kept in a straight line on is still filled with water after filling the a track and a bucket is placed at the be- overhead tank completely? ginning of the track which is a starting (a) 1/3 (b) 1/2 (c) 1/4 (d) 1/6 point. The condition is that the competitor can pick only one apple at a time, run 74. In a class of 60 students, where the num- back with it and drop it in the bucket. If he ber of girls is twice that of boys, Kamal, a has to drop all the apples in the bucket, boy, ranked seventeenth from the top. If how much total distance he has to run if there are 9 girls ahead of Kamal, the num- the bucket is 5 meters from the first apple ber of boys in rank after him is: and all other apples are placed 3 meters apart ? (a) 13 (b) 12 (c) 7 (d) 3 (a) 40 m (b) 50 m (c) 75 m (d) 150 m 75. A and B walk around a circular park. They start at 8 a.m. from the same point in the 79. A round archery target of diameter 1 m is opposite directions. A and B walk at a speed marked with four scoring regions from the of 2 rounds per hour and 3 rounds per hour centre outwards as red, blue, yellow and respectively. How many times shall they white. The radius of the red band is 0.20 cross each other after 8 00 a.m. and be- m. The width of all the remaining bands is fore 9.30. a.m.? equal. If archers throw arrows towards the (a) 7 (b) 6 (c) 5 (d) 8 target, what is the probability, that the arrows fall in the red region of the archery target? 76. W can do 25% of a work-in 30 days, X can do 1/4 of the work in 10 days, Y can do 40% (a) 0.40 (b) 0.20 (c) 0.16 (d) 0.04 of the work in 40 days and Z can do 1/3 of the work in 13 days. Who will complete the 80. A person allows 10% discount for cash pay- work first? ment from the marked price of a toy and (a) W (b) X (c) Y (d) Z still he makes a 10% gain. What is the cost price of the toy which is marked Rs. 770? 77. The average monthly income of a person (a) Rs. 610 (b) Rs. 620 in a certain family of 5 is Rs. 10,000. What (c) Rs. 630 (d) Rs. 640 will be the average monthly income of a 256 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

1. C 9. B 17. B 25. D 33. B 41. C 49. B 57. B 65. B 73. A 2. A 10. D 18. B 26. A 34. B 42. D 50. A 58. A 66. B 74. B 3. D 11. D 19. C 27. A 35. B 43. A 51. B 59. B 67. D 75. A KEY 4. D 12. B 20. C 28. D 36. C 44. D 52. D 60. C 68. B 76. D 5. A 13. D 21. D 29. B 37. B 45. B 53. B 61. D 69. D 77. A 6. C 14. C 22. B 30. B 38. C 46. D 54. A 62. B 70. C 78. D 7. D 15. A 23. C 31. B 39. C 47. B 55. B 63. A 71. B 79. C ANSWER 8. D 16. C 24. A 32. D 40. D 48. B 56. A 64. A 72. A 80. C

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CSAT - QUESTION PAPER 2017

Directions for the following 8 (eight) 1. What does the above passage imply? items: (a) Resource-based conflicts are always po- Read the Following eight passages and an- litically motivated. swer the items that follow the passages. (b) There are no political solutions to re- Your answers to these items should be solve environmental and resource based based on the passages only. conflicts. (c) Environmental issues contribute to re- Passage-1 source stresses and political conflict. (d) Political conflict based on identity or What climate change will undeniably do is ideology cannot be resolved. cause or amplify events that hasten the reduction of resources. Competition over these di- Passage-2 minishing resources would ensue in the form of political or even violent conflict. Resource based The man who is perpetually hesitating which of the two things he will do first, will do conflicts have rarely been overt and are thus neither. The man who resolves, but suffers his difficult to isolate. Instead they take on veneers resolution to be changed by the first counter that appear more politically palatable. Conflicts suggestion of a friend-who fluctuates from opin- over resources like water are often cloaked in ion to opinion and veers from plan to plan-can the guise of identity or ideology. never accomplish anything. He will at best be stationary and probably retrograde in all. It is 257 civilz byte only the man who first consults wisely, then re- (d) Climate change poses a threat to the solves firmly and then executes his purpose with survival of polar bears. inflexible perseverance, undismayed by those petty difficulties which daunt a weaker spirit- Passage-4 that can advance to eminence in any line. Why do people prefer open defecation and 2. The keynote that seems to be emerging not want toilets or, if they have them, only use from the passage is that them sometimes? Recent research has shown two critical elements : ideas of purity and pol- (a) we should first consult wisely and then lutions, and not wanting pits or septic tanks to resolve firmly fill because they have to be emptied. These are (b) we should reject suggestions of friends the issues that nobody wants to talk about, but and remain unchanged if we want to eradicate the practice of open (c) we should always remain broad-minded defection, they have to be confronted and dealt (d) we should be resolute and achieve- properly. ment-oriented 4. Which among the following is the most cru- Passage-3 cial message conveyed by the above passage? During the summer in the Arctic Ocean, sea (a) The ideas of purity and pollutions are ice has been melting earlier and faster, and the so deep-rooted that they cannot be re- winter freeze has been coming later. In the last moved from the minds of the people. three decades, the extent of summer ice has declined by about 30 per cent. The lengthening (b) People have to perceive toilet use and period of summer melt threatens to undermine pit-emptying as clean and not polluting. the whole Arctic food web, atop which stand (c) People cannot change their old habits. polar bears. (d) People have neither civic sense nor sense of privacy. 3. Which among the following is the most crucial message conveyed by the above pas- Passage-5 sage? (a) Climate change has caused Arctic sum- In the last two decades, the world's gross mer to be short but temperature to be domestic product (GDP) has increased by 50 per- high. cent, whereas inclusive wealth has increased (b) Polar bears can be shifted to South Pole by a mere 6 percent. In recent decades, GDP- to ensure their survival. driven economic performance, has only harmed inclusive wealth like human capital; and natu- (c) Without the presence of polar bears, ral capital like forests, land and water. While the food chains in Arctic region will dis- the world's human capital which stands at 57 appear. 258 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle percent of total inclusive wealth grew by only 8 (b) Labour reforms are required in India to percent, the natural capital which is 23 percent make optimum use of its vast labour of total inclusive wealth declined by 30 per cent force productively. worldwide in the last two decades. (c) India is poised to achieve the double- digit growth very soon. 5. Which of the following is the most crucial (d) India is capable of supplying the skilled inference from the above passage? young people to other countries. (a) More emphasis should be laid on the development of natural capital. Passage-7 (b) The growth driven by GDP only is nei- The very first lesson that should be taught ther desirable nor sustainable. to us when we are old enough to understand it, (c) The economic performance of the coun- is that complete freedom from the obligation tries of the world is not satisfactory. to work is unnatural, and ought to be illegal, as (d) The world needs more human capital we can escape our share of the burden of work under the present circumstances. only by throwing it on someone else's shoulders. Nature ordains that the human race shall per- Passage-6 ish of famine if it stops working. We cannot escape from this tyranny. The question we have By 2020, when the global economy is ex- to settle is how much leisure we can afford to pected to run short of 56 million young people, allow ourselves. India, with its youth surplus of 47 million, could fill the gap. It is in this context that labour re- 7. The main idea of the passage is that forms are often cited as the way to unlock (a) it is essential for human beings to work double-digit growth in India. In 2014, India's (b) there should be a balance between labour force was estimated to be about 40 per work and leisure cent of the population, but 93 per cent of this (c) working is a tyranny which we have to force was in unorganized sector. Over the last face decade, the compound annual growth rate (d) human's understanding of the nature of (CAGR) of employment has slowed to 0.5 per work is essential cent, with about 14 million jobs created during last year when the labour force increased by about 15 million. Passage-8 There is no harm in cultivating habits so 6. Which of the following is most rational in- long as they are not injurious. Indeed, most of ference from the above passage? us are little more than bundle of habits. Take (a) India must control its population growth away our habits and the residuum would hardly so as to reduce its unemployment rate. be worth bothering about. We could not get on 259 civilz byte without them. They simplify the mechanism of 1. Some supporters of 'party X' knew Z. life. They enable us to do a multitude of things 2. Some supporters of 'party X', who op- automatically, which, if we had to give fresh posed Z's campaign strategy, knew Z. and original thought to them each time, would 3. No supporters of 'party X' supported Z's make existence an impossible confusion. campaign strategy. Which of the statements given above, is/ 8. The author suggests that habits are not correct? (a) tend to make our lives difficult (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (b) add precision to our lives (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3. (c) make it easier for us to live (d) tend to mechanize our lives 11. If second and fourth Saturdays and all the Sundays are taken as only holidays for an Directions for the following 2 (two) office, what would be the minimum num- items: ber of possible working days of any month Consider the given information and answer of any year? the two items that follow. (a) 23 (b) 22 (c) 21 (d) 20 No supporters of 'party X', who knew Z and supported his campaign strategy, agreed for 12. If there is a policy that 1/3rd of population the alliance with 'party Y'; but some of them of a community has migrated every year had friends in 'party Y'. from one place to some other place, what is the leftover population of that commu- 9. With reference to the above information, nity after the sixth year, if there is no fur- which one among the following statements ther growth in the population during this must be true? period? (a) Some supporters of 'party Y' did not (a) 16/243rd part of the population agree for the alliance with the (b) 32/243rd part of the population `party X'. (c) 32/729 th part of the population (b) There is at least one supporter of `party (d) 64/729th part of the population Y' who knew some supporters of 'party X' as a friend. 13. Four tests-Physics, Chemistry, Mathemat- (c) No supporters of 'party X' supported Z's ics and Biology are to be conducted on four campaign strategy. consecutive days, not necessarily in the (d) No supporters of 'party X' knew Z. same order. The Physics test is held before the test which is conducted after Biology. 10. With reference to the above information, Chemistry is conducted exactly after two consider the following statement tests are held. Which is the last test held? 260 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

(a) Physics (b) Biology down 3 cm. C climbs on Z by 6.5 cm but (c) Mathematics (d) Chemistry slips down 2 cm. If each of them requires 40 chances to reach the top of the pillars, 14. The sum of income of A and B is more than what is the height of the shortest pillar? that of C and D taken together. The sum of (a) 161 cm (b) 163 cm income of A and C is the same as that of B (c) 182 cm (d) 210 cm and D taken together. Moreover, A earns half as much as the sum of the income of B and 17. "Rights are certain advantageous conditions D. Whose income is the highest? of social well-being indispensable to the (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D true development of the citizen." In the light of this statement, which one of 15. Consider the following: the following is the correct understanding Statement: of rights? Good voice is a natural gift but one has to (a) Rights aim at individual good only. keep practising to improve and excel well (b) Rights aim at social good only. in the field of music. Conclusions: (c) Rights aim at both individual and social good. I. Natural gifts need nurturing and care. (d) Rights aim at individual good devoid of II. Even though one's voice is not good, one social well-being. can keep practising. Which one of the following is correct, in respect of the above statement and con- 18. 15 students failed in a class of 52. After clusions? removing the names of failed students, a merit order list has been prepared in which (a) Only conclusion I follows from the state- the position of Ramesh is 22nd from the ment. top. What is his position from the bottom? (b) Only conclusion II follows from the (a) 18th (b) 17th (c) 16th (d) 15th statement. (c) Either conclusion I or conclusion II fol- 19. Consider the following: lows from the statement. A+ B means A is the son of B. (d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement. A - B means A is the wife of B. What does the expression P + R - Q mean? 16. There are three pillars X, Y and Z of differ- (a) Q is the son of P. ent heights. Three spiders A, B and C start (b) Q is the wife of P. to climb on these pillars simultaneously. In (c) Q is the father of P. one chance, A climbs on X by 6 cm but slips (d) None of the above down 1 cm. B climbs on Y by 7 cm but slips 261 civilz byte 20. Gopal bought a cell phone and sold it to Passage-2 Ram at 10% profit. Then Ram wanted to sell it back to Gopal at 10% loss. What will "The individual, according to Rousseau, puts be Gopal's position if he agreed? his person and all his power in common under the supreme direction of the General Will and (a) Neither loss nor gain in our corporate capacity we receive each mem- (b) Loss 1% ber as an indivisible part of the whole." (c) Gain 1% (d) Gain 0.5% 22. In the light of the above passage, the na- Directions for the following 7 (seven) ture of General Will is best described as items: (a) the sum total of the private wills of the Read the following seven passages and an- individuals swer the items that follow the passages. (b) what is articulated by the elected rep- Your answer to these items should be based resentatives of the individuals on the passages only. (c) the collective good as distinct from pri- Passage-1 vate wills of the individuals (d) the material interests of the community We have hard work ahead. There is no rest- ing for any of us till we redeem our pledge in Passage-3 full, till we make all the people of India what destiny intends them to be. We are citizens of In a democratic State, where a high de- a great country, on the verge of bold advance, gree of Political maturity of the people obtains, and we have to live up to that high standard. the conflict between the will of the sovereign All of us, to whatever religion we may belong, law-making body and the organized will of the are equally the children of India with, equal people seldom occurs. rights, privileges and obligations. We cannot encourage communalism or narrow mindedness, 23. What does the above passage imply? for no nation can be great whose people are (a) In a democracy, force is the main phe- narrow in thought or action. nomenon in the actual exercise of sovereignty. 21. The challenge the author of the above pas- (b) In a mature democracy, force to a great sage throws to the public is to achieve extent is the main phenomenon in the (a) a high standard of living, progress and actual exercise of sovereignty. privileges (c) In a mature democracy, use of force is (b) equal privileges, fullfilment of destiny irrelevant in the actual exercise of sov- and political tolerance ereignty. (c) spirit of adventure and economic parity (d) In a mature democracy, force is nar- (d) hard work, brotherhood and national rowed down to a marginal phenomenon unity in the actual exercise of sovereignty. 262 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle Passage-4 Passage-6

A successful democracy depends upon wide- The greatest blessing that technological spread interest and participation in politics, in progress has in store for mankind is not, of which voting is an essential part. To deliber- course, an accumulation of material posses- ately refrain from taking such an interest, and sions. The amount of these that can be effec- from voting, is a kind of implied anarchy, it is tively enjoyed by one individual in one lifetime to refuse one's political responsibility while is not great. But there is not the same narrow enjoying the benefits of a free political soci- limit to the possibilities of the enjoyment of leisure. The gift of leisure may be abused by ety. people who have had no experience of making use of it. Yet the creative use of leisure by a 24. This passage relates to minority in societies has been the mainspring (a) duty to vote of all human progress beyond the primitive (b) right to vote level. (c) freedom to vote 26. With reference to the above passage, the (d) right to participate in politics following assumptions have been made : Passage-5 1. People always see the leisure time as a gift and use it for acquiring more ma- In a free country, the man who reaches the terial possessions. position of leader is usually one of outstand- 2. Use of leisure by some people to pro- ing, character and ability. Moreover, it is usu- duce new and original things has been ally possible to foresee that he will reach such the chief source of human progress. a position, since early in life one can see his Which of these assumptions is/are valid? qualities of character. But this is not always true (a) 1 only (b) 2 only in the case of a dictator; often he reaches his (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 position of power through chance, very often through the unhappy state of his country. Passage-7

25. The passage seems to suggest that There is more than a modicum of truth in the assertion that "a working knowledge of an- (a) a leader foresees his future position cient history is necessary to the intelligent in- (b) a leader is chosen only by a free country terpretation of current events". But the sage (c) a leader must see that his country is who uttered these words of wisdom might well free from despair have added something on the benefits of study- (d) despair in a country sometimes leads ing particularly the famous battles of history to dictatorship for the lessons they contain for those of us who 263 civilz byte lead or aspire to leadership. Such a study will bank employees. If Shyamala is a postgradu- reveal certain qualities and attributes which ate in Commerce, who among the follow- enabled the winners to win-and certain defi- ing is both a tennis player and a bank em- ciencies which caused the losers to lose and ployee? the student will see that the same pattern re- (a) Amala (b) Komala curs consistently, again and again, throughout (c) Nirmala (d) Shyamala the centuries.

30. P = (40% of A) + (65% of B) and Q = (50% of 27. With reference to the above passage, the A) + (50% of B), where A is greater than B. following assumptions have been made: In this context, which of the following 1. A study of the famous battles of his- statements is correct? tory would help us understand the mod- (a) P is greater than Q. ern warfare. (b) Q is greater than P. 2. Studying the history is essential for (c) P is equal to Q. anyone who aspires to be a leader. (d) None of the above can be concluded Which of these assumptions is/are valid? with certainty. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 31. A watch loses 2 minutes in every 24 hours while another watch gains 2 minutes, in 24 28. Suppose the average weight of 9 persons is hours. At a particular instant, the two 50 kg. The average weight of the first 5 watches showed an identical time. Which persons is 45 kg, whereas the average of the following statements is correct if 24- weight of the last 5 persons is 55 kg. Then hour clock is followed? the weight of the 5th person will be (a) The two watches show the identical (a) 45 kg (b) 47.5 kg time again on completion of 30 days. (c) 50 kg (d) 52.5 Kg (b) The two watches show the identical time again on completion of 90 days. 29. In a group of six women, there are four (c) The two watches show the identical tennis players, four postgraduates in Soci- time again on completion of 120 days. ology, one postgraduate in Commerce and (d) None of the above statements is three bank employees. Vimala and Kamla correct. are the bank employees while Amala and Komala are unemployed. Komala and 32. In a city, 12% of households earn less than Nirmala are among the tennis players. `30,000 per year, 6% households earn more Amala, Kamla, Komala and Nirmala are than `2,00,000 per year, 22% households postgraduates in Sociology of whom two are earn more than `1,00,000 per year and 990 264 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

households earn between `30,000 and possessed by D and E is equal to the num- `1,00,000 per year. How many households ber of cards possessed by earn between `1,00,000 and `2,00,000 per (a) A, B and C (b) B, C and F year? (c) A, B and F (d) A, C and F (a) 250 (b) 240 (c) 230 (d) 225 33. A clock strikes once at 1 o'clock, twice at 2 37. There is a milk sample with 50% water in o'clock and thrice at 3 o'clock, and so on. If it. If 1/3rd of this milk is added to equal it takes 12 seconds to strike at 5 o'clock, amount of pure milk, then water in the new what is the time taken by it to strike at 10 mixture will fall down to o'clock? (a) 25% (b) 30% (c) 35% (d) 40% (a) 20 seconds (b) 24 seconds (c) 28 seconds (d) 30 seconds 38. There are 4 horizontal and 4 vertical lines, parallel and equidistant to one another on 34. Consider the given statement and the two a board. What is the maximum number of conclusions that follow: rectangles and squares that can be formed? Statement: (a) 16 (b) 24 (c) 36 (d) 42 Morning walk is good for health. Conclusions: 39. A freight train left Delhi for Mumbai at an 1. All healthy people go for morning walk. average speed of 40 km/hr. Two hours later, 2. Morning walk is essential for maintain- an express train left Delhi for Mumbai, fol- ing good health. lowing the freight train on a parallel track at an average speed of 60 km/hr. How far What is/are the valid conclusion/ from Delhi would the express train meet conlusions? the freight train? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) 480 km (b) 260 km (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 240 km (d) 120 km

35. There are thirteen 2-digit consecutive odd 40. In a test, Randhir obtained more marks than numbers. If 39 is the mean of the first five the total marks obtained by Kunal and such numbers, then what is the mean of Debu. The total marks obtained by Kunal all the thirteen numbers? and Shankar are more than those of Randhir. (a) 47 (b) 49 (c) 51 (d) 45 Sonal obtained more marks than Shankar. Neha obtained more marks than Randhir. 36. Six boys A, B, C, D, E and F play a game of Who amongst them obtained highest marks? cards. Each has a pack of 10 cards. F bor- (a) Randhir (b) Neha rows 2 cards from A and gives away 5 to C who in turn gives 3 to B while B gives 6 to D (c) Sonal who passes 1 to E. Then the number of cards (d) Data are inadequate 265 civilz byte

Directions for the following 8 (eight) wards towards regions and communities since items : 1990s. This process, which involves the creation Read the following seven passages and an- of new political entities and bodies at a sub- swer the items that follow the passages. national level and an increase in their content Your answers to these items should be and powers, is known as devolution. Devolu- based on the passages only. tion has been characterized as being made up of three factors-political legitimacy, decentrali- Passage-1 zation of authority and decentralization of resources. Political legitimacy here means a mass Disruption of traditional institutions, demand from below for the decentralization identifications and loyalties is likely to lead to ambivalent situations. It is possible that some process, which is able to create a political force people may renew their identification with for it to take place. In many cases, decentrali- traditional groups whereas others align zation is initiated by the upper tier of govern- themselves with new groups and symbols ment without sufficient political mobilization emergent from processes of political for it at the grassroots level, and in such cases development. In addition, political development the decentralization process often does not fulfil tends to foster group awareness of a variety of its objectives. class, tribe, region, clan, language, religion, occupation and others. 42. Which among the following is the most logical, rational and critical inference that can 41. Which among the following is the best ex- be made from the above passage? planation of the above passage? (a) Emergence of powerful mass leaders is (a) Political development is not a unilinear essential to create sub-national politi- process for it involves both growth and cal entities and thus ensure successful decay. devolution and decentralization. (b) Traditional societies succeed in resist- (b) The upper tier of government should ing positive aspects of political devel- impose devolution and decentralization opment. on the regional communities by law or (c) It is impossible for traditional societies otherwise. to break away from lingering loyalties. (c) Devolution, to be successful, requires (d) Sustenance of traditional loyalties is a democracy in which there is free ex- conducive to political development. pression of the will of the people at lower level and their active participa- Passage-2 tion at the grassroots level.

There has been a significant trend world- (d) For devolution to take place, a strong wide towards regionalism in government, re- feeling of regionalism in the masses is sulting in a widespread transfer of powers down- essential. 266 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle Passage-3 beyond a point-a point that is well short of incomes in the developed West. The IMF identi- We live in digital times. The digital is not fies a number of causes of middle-income trap- just something we use strategically and spe- none of which is surprising-from infrastructure cifically to do a few tasks. Our very perception to weak institutions, to less than favourable of who we are, how we connect to the world macroeconomic conditions. But the broad, over- around us, and the ways in which we define our all cause, says IMF, is a collapse in the growth domains of life, labour and language are hugely of productivity. structured by the digital technologies. The digital is everywhere and, like air, invisible. We live 44. Which among the following is the most logi- within digital systems, we live with intimate cal, rational and critical inference that can gadgets, we interact through digital media, and be made from the above passage? the very presence and imagination of the digi- (a) Once a country reaches middle-income tal has dramatically restructured our lives. The stage, it runs the risk of falling produc- digital, far from being a tool, is a condition and tivity which leads to stagnant incomes. context that defines the shapes and boundaries (b) Falling into middle-income trap is a of our understanding of the self, the society, general characteristic of fast growing and the structure of governance. economies. (c) There is no hope at all for emerging 43. Which among the following is the most logi- Asian economies to sustain the growth cal and essential message conveyed by the momentum. above passage? (d) As regards growth of productivity, the (a) All problems of governance can be performance of Asian economies is not solved by using digital technologies. satisfactory. (b) Speaking of digital technologies is speaking of our life and living. Passage-5 (c) Our creativity and imagination cannot be expressed without digital media. An innovative India will be inclusive as well as technologically advanced, improving the lives (d) Use of digital systems is imperative for of all Indians. Innovation and R&D can mitigate the existence of mankind in future. increases in social inequality and relieve the Passage-4 pressures created by rapid urbanization. The growing divergence in productivity between The IMF has pointed out that the fast grow- agriculture and knowledge-intensive manufac- ing economies of Asia face the risk of falling turing and services threatens to increase income into 'middle-income trap'. It means that aver- inequality. By encouraging India's R&D labs and age incomes in these countries, which till now universities to focus on the needs of poor people have been growing rapidly, will stop growing and by improving the ability of informal firms 267 civilz byte to absorb knowledge, an innovation and research also so that their problems can be addressed agenda can counter this effect. Inclusive inno- properly. vation can lower the costs of goods and services and create income-earning opportunities for the 46. Which among the following is the most ra- poor people. tional inference from the above passage? (a) The world will not be able to cope with 45. Which among the following is the most large-scale migration of climate refu- logical and rational assumption that can be gees. made from the above passage? (b) We must find the ways and means to (a) Innovation and R&D is the only way to stop further climate change. reduce rural to urban migration. (c) Climate change will be the most im- (b) Every rapidly growing country needs to portant reason for the migration of minimize the divergence between pro- people in the future. ductivity in agriculture and other sec- (d) Relation between climate change and tors. migration is not yet properly under- (c) Inclusive innovation and R&D can help stood. create an egalitarian society. (d) Rapid urbanization takes place only Passage-7 when a country's economic growth is rapid. Many farmers use synthetic pesticides to kill infesting insects. The consumption of pes- Passage-6 ticides in some of the developed countries is touching 3000 grams/hectare. Unfortunately, Climate change is likely to expose a large there are reports that these compounds pos- number of people to increasing environmental sess inherent toxicities that endanger the health risks forcing them to migrate. The international of the farm operators, consumers and the envi- community is yet to recognize this new category ronment. Synthetic pesticides are generally of migrants. There is no consensus on the defi- persistent in environment. Entering in food nition and status of climate refugees owing to chain they destroy the microbial diversity and the distinct meaning the term refugees carry cause ecological imbalance. Their indiscrimi- under international laws. There are still gaps nate use has resulted in development of resis- in understanding how climate change will work tance among insects to insecticides, upsetting as the root cause of migration. Even if there is of balance in nature and resurgence of treated recognition of climate refugees, who is going populations. Natural pest control using the bo- to provide protection? More emphasis has been tanical pesticides is safer to the user and the given to international migration due to climate environment because they break down into change. But there is a need to recognize the harmless compounds within hours or days in the migration of such people within the countries presence of sunlight. Plants with pesticidal

268 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle properties have been in nature for millions of 49. Certain 3-digit numbers have the following years without any ill or adverse effects on the characteristics: ecosystem. They are easily decomposed by 1. All the three digits are different. many microbes common in most soil. They help 2. The number is divisible by 7. in the maintenance of biological diversity of 3. The number on reversing the digits is predators and the reduction of environmental also divisible by 7. contamination and human health hazards. Bo- How many such 3-digit numbers are there? tanical pesticides formulated from plants are biodegradable and their use in crop protection (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8 is a practical sustainable alternative. 50. Examine the following statements: 47. On the basis of the above passage, the fol- 1. All colours are pleasant. lowing assumptions have been made: 2. Some colours are pleasant. 1. Synthetic pesticides should never be 3. No colour is pleasant. used in modern agriculture. 4. Some colours are not pleasant. 2. One of the aims of sustainable agricul- Give that statement 4 is true, what can be ture is to ensure minimal ecological im- definitely concluded? balance. (a) 1 and 2 are true. (b) 3 is true. 3. Botanical pesticides are more effective (c) 2 is false. (d) 1 is false. as compared to synthetic pesticides.

Which of the assumptions given above is/ 51. How many numbers are there between 99 are correct? and 1000 such that the digit 8 occupies the (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only units place? (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 64 (b) 80 (c) 90 (d) 104

48. Which of the following statements is/are 52. If for a sample data correct regarding biopesticides? Mean < Median < Mode 1. They are not hazardous to human then the distribution is health. (a) symmetric 2. They are persistent in environment. (b) skewed to the right 3. They are essential to maintain the (c) neither symmetric nor skewed biodiversity of any ecosystem. (d) skewed to the left Select the correct answer using the code given below. 53. The age of Mr. X last year was the square (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only of a number and it would be the cube of a (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 number next year. What is the least num- 269 civilz byte

ber of years he must wait for his age to 57. If 2 boys and 2 girls are to be arranged in a become the cube of a number again? row so that the girls are not next to each (a) 42 (b) 38 (c) 25 (d) 16 other, how many possible arrangements are there? 54. P works thrice as fast as Q, whereas P and (a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 12 (d) 24 Q together can work four times as fast as R. If P, Q and R together work on a job, in 58. The outer surface of a 4 cm x 4 cm x 4 cm what ratio should they share the earnings? cube is painted completely in red. It is (a) 3 : 1 : 1 (b) 3 : 2 : 4 sliced parallel to the faces to yield sixty (c) 4 : 3 : 4 (d) 3 : 1 : 4 four 1 cm x 1 cm x 1 cm small cubes. How many small cubes do not have painted 55. Consider the following relationships among faces? members of a family of six persons A, B, C, (a) 8 (b) 16 (c) 24 (d) 36 D, E and F: 1. The number of males equals that of fe- 59. Consider the following: males. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are standing in a 2. A and F are sons of F. row facing North. 3. D is the mother of two, one boy and B is not neighbour of G. one girl. F is to the immediate right of G and 4. B is the son of A. neighbour of E. 5. There is only one married couple in the G is not at the extreme end. family at present. A is sixth to the left of E. Which one of the following inferences can H is sixth to the right of C. be drawn from the above? Which one of the following is correct in (a) A, B and C are all females. respect of the above? (b) A is the husband of D. (a) C is to the immediate left of A. (c) E and F are children of D. (b) D is immediate neighbour of B and F. (d) D is the daughter of F. (c) G is to the immediate right of D. (d) A and E are at the extreme ends. 56. A bag contains 20 balls. 8 balls are green, 7 are white and 5 are red. What is minimum number of balls that must be picked 60. In a certain code, '256' means 'red colour up from the bag blindfolded (without re- chalk', '589' means 'green colour flower' and placing any of it) to be assured of picking '254' means 'white colour chalk'. The digit at least one ball of each colour? in the code that indicates `white' is (a) 17 (b) 16 (c) 13 (d) 11 (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 8 270 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle Directions for the following 7 (seven) Passage-2 items: Read the following seven passages and an- Productive jobs are vital for growth and a swer the items that follow the passages. good lob is the best form of inclusion. More than Your answers to these items should be half of our population depends on agriculture, based on the Passages only. but the experience of other countries suggests that the number of people dependent on agri- Passage-1 culture will have to shrink if per capita incomes An air quality index (AQI) is a way to com- in agriculture are to go up substantially. While bine measurements of multiple air pollutants industry is creating jobs, too many such jobs into a single number or rating. This index is ide- are low-productivity non-contractual jobs in the ally kept constantly updated and available in unorganized sector, offering low incomes, little different places. The AQI is most useful when protection, and no benefits. Service jobs are lots of pollution data are being gathered and relatively of high productivity, but employment when pollution levels are normally, but not al- growth in services has been slow in recent years. ways, low. In such cases, if pollution levels spike for a few days, the public can quickly take pre- ventive action (like staying indoors) in response 62. Which among the following is the most logi- to an air quality warning. Unfortunately, that is cal and rational inference that can be made not urban India. Pollution levels in many large from the above passage? Indian cities are so high that they remain well a. We must create conditions for the above any health or regulatory standard for large part of the year. If our index stays in the faster growth of highly productive ser- 'Red/Dangerous' region day after day, there is vice jobs to ensure employment growth not much any one can do, other than getting and inclusion. used to ignoring it. b. We must shift the farm workers to the highly productive manufacturing and 61. Which among the following is the most logi- service sectors to ensure the economic cal and rational inference that can be made growth and inclusion. from the above passage? (a) Our governments are not responsible c. We must create conditions for the enough to keep our cities pollution free. faster growth of productive jobs out- (b) There is absolutely no need for air qual- side of agriculture even while improv- ity indices in our country. ing the productivity of agriculture. (c) Air quality index is not helpful to the d. We must emphasize the cultivation of residents of many of our large cities. high-yielding hybrid varieties and ge- (d) In every city, public awareness about netically modified crops to increase the pollution problems should increase. per capita income in agriculture. 271 civilz byte Passage-3 (d) The yield of food crops will be very high if ecoagricultural practices are adopted A landscape-scale approach to land use can to cultivate them. encourage greater biodiversity outside protected areas. During hurricane 'Mitch' in 1998, Passage-4 farms using ecoagricultural practices suffered 58 percent, 70 percent and 99 percent less dam- The medium term challenge for Indian age in Honduras, Nicaragua and Guatemala, re- manufacturing is to move from lower to higher spectively, than farms using conventional tech- tech sectors, from lower to higher value-added niques. In Costa Rica, vegetative windbreaks sectors, and from lower to higher productivity and fencerows boosted farmers' income from sectors. Medium tech industries are primarily pasture and coffee while also increasing bird capital intensive and resource processing; and diversity. Bee pollination is more effective when high tech industries are mainly capital and tech- agricultural fields are closer to natural or nology intensive. In order to push the share of seminatural habitat, a finding that matters be- manufacturing in overall GDP to the projected cause 87 per cent of the world's 107 leading 25 per cent, Indian manufacturing needs to cap- crops depend on animal pollinators. In Costa ture the global market in sectors showing a ris- Rica, Nicaragua and Colombia silvopastoral sys- ing trend in demand. These sectors are largely tems that integrate trees with pastureland are high technology and capital intensive. improving the sustainability of cattle production, and diversifying and increasing farmers' 64. Which among the following is the most logi- income. cal and rational inference that can be made from the above passage? 63. Which among the following is the most logi- (a) India's GDP displays high value-added cal and rational inference that can be made and high productivity levels in medium from the above passage? tech and resource processing industries. (a) Agricultural practices that enhance (b) Promotion of capital and technology in- biodiversity can often increase farm tensive manufacturing is not possible output and reduce the vulnerability to in India. disasters. (c) India should push up the public invest- (b) All the countries of the world should ments and encourage the private in- be encouraged to replace vestments in research and develop- ecoagriculture with conventional agri- ment, technology upgradation and skill culture. development. (c) Ecoagriculture should be permitted in (d) India has already gained a great share protected areas without destroying the in global markets in sectors showing a biodiversity there. rising trend in demand. 272 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle Passage-5 (a) A strong Centre and strong States make the federation strong. Over the last decade, Indian agriculture has (b) A strong Centre is a binding force for become more robust with record production of national integrity. food grains and oilseeds. Increased procure- (c) A strong Centre is a hindrance to State ment, consequently, has added huge stocks of autonomy. food grains in the granaries. India is one of the (d) State autonomy is a prerequisite for a world's top producers of rice, wheat, milk, fruits federation. and vegetables. India is still home the quarter of all undernourished people in the world. On Passage-7 an average, almost half of the total expenditure of nearly half of the households is on food. Really I think that the poorest he that is in England has a life to live, as the greatest he, 65. Which among the following is the most and therefore truly, I think it is clear that every logical corollary to the above passage? man that is to live under a government ought (a) Increasing the efficiency of farm to-fork first by his own consent to put himself under value chain is necessary to reduce the the government, and I do think that the poor- poverty and malnutrition. est man in England is not at all bound in a strict (b) Increasing the agricultural productiv- sense to that government that he has not had a ity will automatically eliminate the voice to put himself under. poverty and malnutrition in India. 67. The above statement argues for (c) India's agricultural productivity is already great and it is not necessary to (a) distribution of wealth equally to all increase it further. (b) rule according to the consent of the (d) Allocation of more funds for social governed welfare and poverty alleviation progra- (c) rule of the poor mmes will ultimately eliminate the (d) expropriation of the rich poverty and malnutrition in India. 68. The average rainfall in a city for the first Passage-6 four days was recorded to be 0.40 inch. The rainfall on the last two days was in the The States are like pearls and the Centre is ratio of 4 : 3. The average of six days was the thread which turns them into a necklace; if 0.50 inch. What was the rainfall on the fifth the read snaps, the pearls are scattered. day? (a) 0.60 inch (b) 0.70 inch 66. Which one of the following views corrobo- rates the above statement? (c) 0.80 inch (d) 0.90 inch 273 civilz byte

Directions for the following 3 (three) (c) Neither Hyderabad nor Mumbai items : (d) Cannot be determined as data are in- consider the given information and answer adequate the three items that follow. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are Lecturers from 71. Who of the following belongs to Hyderabad? different cities-Hyderabad, Delhi, Shillong, (a) B (b) E (c) Neither B nor E Kanpur, Chennai, Mumbai and Srinagar (not necessarily in the same order) who partici- (d) Cannot be determined as data are in- pated in a conference. Each one of them is adequate specialized in a different subject, viz., Eco- nomics, Commerce, History, Sociology, Ge- 72. In a school, there are five teachers A, B, C, ography, Mathematics and Statistics (not D and E. A and B teach Hindi and English. C necessarily in the same order).Further and B teach English and Geography. D and 1. Lecturer from Kanpur is specialized in A teach Mathematics and Hindi. E and B Geography teach History and French. Who teaches maximum number of subjects? 2. Lecturer D is from Shillong (a) A (b) B (c) D (d) E 3. Lecturer C from Delhi is specialized in Sociology 73. A 2-digit number is reversed. The larger of 4. Lecturer B is specialized in neither His- the two numbers is divided by the smaller tory nor Mathematics one. What is the largest possible remainder? 5. Lecturer A who is specialized in Eco- (a) 9 (b) 27 (c) 36 (d) 45 nomics does not belong to Hyderabad 6. Lecturer F who is specialized in Com- 74. The monthly incomes of X and Y are in the merce belongs to Srinagar ratio of 4 : 3 and their monthly expenses 7. Lecturer G who is specialized in Statis- are in the ratio of 3: 2. However, each saves tics belongs to Chennai ` 6,000 per month. What is their total monthly income? 69. Who is specialized in Geography? (a) ` 28,000 (b) ` 42,000 (a) B (b) D (c) E (c) ` 56,000 (d) ` 84,000 (d) Cannot be determined as data are inadequate 75. Two walls and a ceiling of a room meet at right angles at a point P. A fly is in the air 1 70. To which city does the Lecturer specialized m from one wall, 8 m from the other wall in Economics belong? and 9 m from the point P. How many meters (a) Hyderabad is the fly from the ceiling? (b) Mumbai (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 12 (d) 15 274 Preliminary Exam: The First Hurdle

Directions for the following 3 (three) items 78. If the route between G and C is closed, : which one of the following stations need Consider the given information and answer not be passed through while travelling from the three items that follow. H to C? Eight railway stations A, B, C, D, E, F, G (a) E (b) D (c) A (d) B and H are connected either by two-way passages or one-way passages. One-way 79. There are certain 2-digit numbers. The dif- passages are from C to A, E to G, B to F, D ference between the number and the one to H, G to C, E to C and H to G. Two-way obtained on reversing it is always 27. How passages are between A and E, G and B, F many such maximum 2-digit numbers are and D, and E and D. there? (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 76. While travelling from C to H, which one of (d) None of the above the following stations must be passed through? 80. What is the total number of digits printed, (a) G (b) E (c) B (d) F if a book containing 150 pages is to be num- bered from 1 to 150? 77. In how many different ways can a train (a) 262 (b) 342 (c) 360 (d) 450 travel from F to A without passing through any station more than once? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

(Fill the Answer Key yourself for this Question Paper.)

1. 9. 17. 25. 33. 41. 49. 57. 65. 73. 2. 10. 18. 26. 34. 42. 50. 58. 66. 74. 3. 11. 19. 27. 35. 43. 51. 59. 67. 75. KEY 4. 12. 20. 28. 36. 44. 52. 60. 68. 76. 5. 13. 21. 29. 37. 45. 53. 61. 69. 77. 6. 14. 22. 30. 38. 46. 54. 62. 70. 78. 7. 15. 23. 31. 39. 47. 55. 63. 71. 79. ANSWER 8. 16. 24. 32. 40. 48. 56. 64. 72. 80.

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Main Examination : The Big Battle SECTION - III Main Examination: The Big Battle

☯ Main Examination: The Big Battle ☯ Compulsory Language Papers: Qualifying Natured ☯ Paper - A: Indian Language ☯ Paper - B: English ☯ General Essay ☯ General Studies - 1 ☯ General Studies - 2 ☯ General Studies - 3 ☯ General Studies - 4 ☯ Optional - Key to Success in CSE ☯ Public Administration as Optional ☯ History as Optional ☯ Geography as Optional

277

CHAPTER Main Examination : The Big Battle 28 Main Examination: The Big Battle

ou can sincerely believe that you do have, them, or a day’s gap between the papers. what it takes to overcome all the ensu The marks for the General Studies, the ing hurdles, travel the rest of the jour- Y Optional and the Essay paper is 250 each,which ney and achieve what you aspired for, if you totals to 1,750 marks (out of 2,025 including clear prelims and reach this stage. 275 marks for the interview). So, bear in the The Civil Services Prelims separates the mind that the final ranking of the candidate is wheat from the chaff. Once you are in the se- made or marred by your performance in the Main lect group of the 15,000 competitors, you have Examination and truly it is a big battle. as good a chance as any one of them to reach the final 1000 or even the top 100. What really UNDERSTANDING THE matters is hard but smart work, self confidence and a systematic and focussed approach. It re- PATTERN & STRUCTURE ally means a lot to win this Big Battle of Mains OF THE EXAM and reach the next and final level of Interview, optimising your efforts, time and preparation The Essay is the first paper which is fol- as a whole. lowed by the compulsory English language paper, the four General Studies, two Optional pa- If you do not do well in the Mains, where the bulk of the marks are in the offing, all these pers and the Indian Language compulsory pa- years of prior study at the Academy would mean per. For a moment, consider you are writing little. So, channelize every possible moment the exam in this very year. See how tight the towards this magnificient goal, ‘The Main Ex- schedule is with little or no gap for revision. amination.’ This calls for a preparation of notes of key The Main Exam comprises nine papers topics and repeated revision then. Very concise (Four General Studies, Two Optional, One Essay notes has to be prepared for your last minute and two compulsory qualifying language pa- preparation apart from the regular notes you pers). The entire exam is held, generally in the make in the course of preparation. But, for a months of Oct/Nov/Dec, in a week’s time (5-7 quick understanding of the structure of the days) back to back without any gap between exam, take a look here… 279 civilz byte

MAIN EXAMINATION *When we sat down to write this book back in Qualifying Papers february 2016, coaching for three subjects i.e., Public Administration, Geography & History was 1. Paper – A – 300 Marks – 3 hours offered at Narayana IAS Academy for the stu- (One of the Indian Languages to be selected dents of Integrated Civil Services Programme. by the candidate from the Languages in- The same optionals are dealt in this Book. cluded in the eighth Schedule of the Con- stitution) Subtotal (Written Test) - 1750 Marks 2. Paper – B – English – 300 Marks – 3 hours Personality Test - 275 Marks Papers counted for the Merit Grand Total - 2025 Marks 3. Paper 1 General Essay – 250 Marks – 3 hours 4. Paper 2 General Studies-I – 250 Marks – 3 CHANGE IN THE SCHEME hours 2013 (Indian Heritage and Culture, History and OF EXAM IN Geography of the World and Society) The Union Public Service Commission has 5. Paper 3 General Studies-II – 250 Marks – made drastic changes, owing to the reports of 3 hours Yogindhar Alagh Committee and 2nd Adminis- (Governance, Constitution, Polity, Social trative Reforms Committee (2nd ARC), in the Justice and International Relations) structure and Pattern of the Main (+ Interview) Exam from the year 2013. The earlier pattern 6. Paper 4 General Studies-III – 250 Marks – used to be different with 2 Optionals, 2 Gen- 3 hours eral Studies papers with different marks for each (Technology, Economic Development, Bio- paper in the Mains and Interview. diversity, Environment, Security and Disas- ter Management) Just understand that the pattern of the exam is prone to change anytime and that you 7. Paper 5 General Studies-V – 250 Marks – have to be ready for it. Any such changes too 3 hours would be made with enough prior information (Ethics, Integrity and Aptitude) and time given. Hence, there need not really 8. Paper 6 Optional Subject* – Paper 1 – be anything to worry about the different 250 Marks – 3 hours rumours that keep coming up all the time about 9. Paper 7 Optional Subject* – Paper 2 – civil services exam with or without authentic 250 Marks – 3 hours and standard backing of sources. 280 Main Examination : The Big Battle THE SYLLABUS GENERAL STUDIES – 4 (Ethics, Integrity & Aptitude) The Syllabus of the Mains, as notified by 16. Ethics, Integrity & Aptitude the Union Public Service Commission can be di- 17. Case Studies vided into various sub-heads to conveniently consider them as subjects for our preparation. Given below is a list of various sub heads of Optional Papers dealt in each Paper… civilz byte. GENERAL STUDIES – 1 PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION (Indian Heritage and Culture, History and Paper – 1 Administrative Theory Geography of the World and Society) Paper – 2 Indian Administration 1. Indian Heritage and Culture 2. Modern Indian History HISTORY 3. World History Paper – 1 History of Ancient & 4. Indian Society Medieval India 5. World & Physical Geography Paper – 2 Modern Indian & World History (with spl. reference to India) GEOGRAPHY GENERAL STUDIES – 2 Paper – 1 Principles of Geography (Governance, Constitution, Polity, Social Paper – 2 Geography of India Justice and International Relations) 6. Indian Constitution & Comparative Study Carefully prepare your study plan, and don’t hesitate to revise it to suit time and situation. 7. Indian Polity & Governance Once you are done with the syllabus, start your 8. Social Justice & Development revision, again. Remember, every subsequent 9. International Relations revision should take lesser time than the previ- GENERAL STUDIES – 3 ous one. (Technology, Economic Development, Bio- Being your own judge is very important to diversity, Environment, Security & Disaster self-evaluate yourself, from time to time. This Management) helps you to analyze the effectiveness of your 10. Indian Economy & preparation, and make necessary amendments. Economic Development Thus, after you finish with a topic, check your 11. Indian Agriculture & Food proficiency for it, by looking at different question papers. After you read something, put the 12. Science & Technology book/source aside and try writing it on a paper 13. Bio Diversity & Environment with whatever you remember. This is the actual 14. Disaster Management secret many don’t follow. Take enough care, do 15. Internal Security & Issues well… 281 civilz byte KEYWORDS 5. Bring out the causes... 6. Comment.* 7. Critically discuss. "You are what you write." 8. Critically evaluate the pros and cons. Unlike Prelims, where an option can be se- 9. Critically evaluate.* 10. Critically examine* lected from the four alternatives, the test of 11. Discuss the merits and demerits. Mains has questions framed as such your elabo- 12. Discuss various aspects. rate answers become a door for the evaluator 13. Discuss with justification. to get into your mind, understand its bent and ideas vividly. So, answering to the point, what 14. Discuss with logical arguments. is asked forms the crux in this exam. And this is 15. Discuss.* where Keywords in questions come into picture. 16. Distinguish _____ and _____ with example. Observe the following question from GS - II 17. Do you agree? 18. Elaborate. (2014). 19. Elucidate. 20. Enumerate. "Has the Cadre based Civil Service Organi- 21. Evaluate. zation been the cause of slow change in 22. Explain the implications. India? Critically Examine." 23. Give arguments in favour of your answer. Now the question clearly has two parts in 24. Give reasons with examples for your it. And the second part "Critically examine" is viewpoint. what we call as the 'Keywords.' Now as you an- 25. Highlight... 26. Identify. swer this question in 200 words, these 2 words 27. Justify your answer with illustrations. form the base of your writing. First you either agree or disagree with the statements. Either 28. Justify. ways you justify why you take that stand. You 29. Mention the advantages of... might write about why it became a cause of 30. Present an account of... slow change and what committees like II Ad- 31. Substantiate with suitable examples. ministrative Reforms Commission speak about 32. Substantiate. this. You then conclude with some suggestions. 33. Suggest measures. Now this answer should have been different if the keywords used are different. 34. What do you understand by this... 35. What is your opinion in this regard? There are plenty of Keywords. We identi- 36. Why? fied some of them for you from the question papers of the past five years. 37. With a brief background, introduce the... 1. Analyse.* 2. Assess. 38. Write a critical note on... 3. Briefly outline. 4. Clarify how... *Important and frequently asked Keywords 282 Main Examination : The Big Battle

These keywords decide the shades of the Comment: It means both the views have to question and give you a hint at how you have to be presented in favour and against. It is an brainstorm and write your answer. Based on the art of keeping forward your opinion in brief. keyword, the manner of the writing has to dif- Substantiate: It means to give information fer from simple reasoning to deep analysis. or evidence to prove or support something. To simplify the understanding about the Critically: The word critically is used be- keywords, let us divide the questions into three fore many keywords like evaluate, exam- types. ine, discuss etc. Here critically doesn't mean you should write negatively or bad a. Analysis Questions: You should examine about something. In fact, it means you the relationship between various facts and should make a careful judgement of some- concepts in your answer for them. thing. This involves making fair judgement E.g. Analyse, Compare the merits and de- about the good and bad of something. This merits etc. example sentence can help you understand better. "Students are encouraged to develop b. Comprehension Questions: These ask you critical thinking skills instead of accepting to demonstrate your understanding of con- opinions without questioning them." cepts. You should clearly show that you understand the concepts that underlie the facts. CHECKLIST

E.g. Explain, Elaborate, Elucidate, Illus- There are few things you cannot afford to trate, Distinguish etc. ignore while you are writing the Mains exam. c. Evaluation Questions: Most of the ques- As you read, you might think that these are tions are Evaluation type questions. These simple and silly things. But as they say, "Excel- ask you to make value judgements and lence is not doing extraordinary things. It is doing ordinary things extraordinarily well." present your own opinions. It is important to support your opinions by quoting views The Main exam takes place in less than 7 and recommendations made by different days. Sometimes in 4-5 days, you have to committees or commissions, experts etc. write nine papers three hours each. It's to- If possible. tally an exhaustive task. And Mains is organized in winter season. You should not ne- E.g. Examine, Discuss, Justify, Evaluate etc. glect your health at any cost at any point Most of the keywords given above are eas- of your preparation. You cannot have ill- ily understandable. But we explained few terms ness when you are writing the exam. for you. Hope it can clear some of your doubts. It's a myth that if high-sounding words or But you should personally work on understand- vocabulary is used, it would impress the ing each of these terms and create your defini- evaluator and fetch marks. That is grossly tion for it. a wrong notion. While such words can be 283 civilz byte

used if the script or answer demands them, 1. Overt (openly) Optimisim it is not a good choice to use sophisticated 2. Subtle (not very noticeable) Pessimism or posh words unnecessarily. 3. Constructive Criticism Do not be taken aback if you don't know 4. Redressal Mechanism (Solution/Mea- the answers for a few questions. Focus on sures) the questions you are well prepared for. Always spend time to think and plan your Don't waste time in filling Pages on ques- answer mentally before you embark on tions where you know little like it is done writing it. here in OU Exams. Time Management is the crucial skill you Be to the point in answers. should have. Considering that a GS question paper has 20 questions, you get 8-9 Be balanced in the views and stands. The minutes for each question in the duration conclusions too have to be moderate. of 180 minutes. So if you are exceeding It is always recommended to quote and time for one, you are sacrificing other write the views of prominent people, ex- question's time. perts etc. Names of the politicians should Don't let the invigilators disturb you with not be used without a strong need. While their chit-chat. writing foreign policy issues, they can be used if need be. Carry 5-6 pens or even more.

The answer should carry Carry chocolates.

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284 CHAPTER Main Examination : The Big Battle 29 Compulsory Language Papers: Qualifying Natured

he candidates appearing for the Main GENTLE REMINDER Exam are supposed to write a total of 9 Tdescriptive papers, 7 of which are The 2 compulsory language papers (One counted for merit and the remaining 2 being Indian language from 8th schedule & qualifying natured. English), although are qualifying in nature, cannot totally be ignored. Paper A – 300 Marks – 3 Hours – Qualifying marks – 75/300 (25%) Some candidates feel this to be a cake walk & only have a first look at what is asked in Paper B – 300 Marks – 3 Hours – the paper, in the examination itself. Such Qualifying marks – 75/300 (25%) an extra casual approach can only prove disastrous for your attempt. PAPER – A Remember! Every year, at least 8 to 10% of One of the 22 statutory Indian languages the candidates are said to be rejected by has to be selected by the Candidate from the the UPSC for not obtaining the requisite 8th Schedule of the Constitution. One Language qualifying marks in either one or both of from the below list… these compulsory papers. • Assamese • Bengali • Bodo The seven actual papers (Essay, General • Dogri • Gujarati • Hindi Studies & Optional) of these candidates will • Kannada • Kashmiri • Konkani • Maithili • Malayalam • Manipuri not be evaluated at all and even the best • Marathi • Nepali • Oriya of given preparation can go totally in vain. • Punjab • Sanskrit • Santhali If you don’t neglect your language paper • Sindhi • Tamil • Telugu like English, Telugu, Hindi etc. in your in- • Urdu ter or Degree exams and are learning the functional grammer and flawless writing, PAPER – B then you are already good for this paper. If • English Language not, you should buckle up now. 285 CHAPTER civilz byte 30 Paper - A: Indian Language

riends, the actual aim of the paper is to Though 75 marks out of 300 can keep you test the candidate’s ability to read and qualified, please don’t totally neglect this Funderstand serious discursive prose, and paper. There are people who get shocked, literally too may be, after seeing their whether he/she can express his idea clearly and mains result, who excelled in the papers correctly in the Indian language concerned or counted for merit but could not manage not. So, choose a language that you are most to pass a qualifying paper. comfortable with. It can be any language. It is For instance, in 2010, 1,264 candidates generally the mother tongue that people pre- (10.6%) out of 11, 865 have failed to pass fer to opt. But it need not be so in every case. these compulsory language papers either If you are more than comfortable with any other Paper-A or B or both. In 2011, the number language, you are free to choose it. After all, it of candidates who could have toiled so is enough to pass this paper. hard to score more in actual papers but miserably failed to pass the qualifying pa- One of the 22 statutory Indian languages pers is 705 which is 6.29% out of 11, 865. has to be selected by the Candidate from the So make sure, you don’t worry later for 8th Schedule of the Constitution. One Language what you don’t do now. from the table mentioned in the page before... Coming to the general facts, 60 to 65% of The structure of the paper & pattern of the the candidates every year choose prefer questions would be broadly as follows: Hindi as their language for Paper-A. (The 1. Comprehension of given passages average of Hindi speaking people across nation is actually only 45%) 2. Precis Writing The most widely chosen one being Hindi, 3. Usage and vocabulary it is followed by Marathi, then Telugu, 4. Short Essays Tamil and so on.. 5. Translation from English to the Indian A decent 25% of marks i.e., 75/300 can Language and vice-versa. suffice to qualify this paper. 286 Main Examination : The Big Battle

This paper will be of Matriculation (10th 6. Note down few good expressions, idioms, Standard) level. This article is written putting tough but commonly used words from the students with Hindi & Telugu as their choice. editorials of the newspaper and previous Rest, substitute this language with yours as you papers. Revise them 5 to 10 times. read the below tips. 7. It is better to write ‘précis writing’ after SOURCES OF STUDY & you complete other questions, for it takes so much your valuable time in the exam. QUICK TIPS 8. You would get a broad idea about answer- 1. Start the preparation for this paper by ob- ing the grammar part like synonyms, ant- serving & solving last 5 to 10 years ques- onyms, corrections, idioms...etc. if you tion papers. have practiced the previous papers cor- (You can find 5 Telugu papers & 3 Hindi rectly. paper in this book. Question Papers up to 5 9. When you solve the previous papers, iden- years can be downloaded from ‘upsc.gov.in’ tify your areas of shortcoming and work and up to 15 years from ‘mrunal.org’) upon them.

2. Have a good knowledge of vocabulary. So 10. Put a stop watch and check how much of that you can translate from Hindi/Telugu time you are taking to complete a ques- to English and vice versa. tion paper. So that you can adjust yourself 3. If you choose Hindi, the best book in the according to the three hour duration of the market is “Samanya Hindi: by Unique Pub- Main Exam. lishers.” You should also make a habit to 11. It is also important that you really have to read a Hindi Newspaper regularly without get your practice answer sheet checked by fail. a person who has a reasonable proficiency 4. For the students with Telugu as their choice, over the language. This would help in spot- following this write-up is a detailed article ting the grammatical errors & spelling mis- written by Mr. Bolugadde Anil from the takes that you can’t identify on your own. School of Telugu of our Academy. It will help 12. Don’t go for a over-kill or don’t neglect the with deeper insights about every part of paper totally. Spend the right required time this paper & relevant style of preparation on this paper and budget your time for the required. GS, Optional & Essay. 5. Practise the previous papers. Practice writ- ––––––––––– ––––––––––– ing 5 to 10 essays. 287 civilz byte ÉèÏëê~å^èŒ#O – ÉèÏ"å=QÍÇ¨Ï#O

(COMPULSORY TELUGU STRATEGY) „Ñ¨ÑÖK«OÖ’ =∞x+≤ `«# ÉèÏ"åxfl, Z^Œ∞\˜"åiH˜ KÕ~°"ÕÜ«∞_®xH˜ LÑ¨Ü≥∂yOKÕ L`«Î"≥∂`«Î=∞ ™ê^èŒ#O ÉèÏ+¨. „Ñ¨â◊flÅ"åsQÍ =∂~°∞¯Å qÉèí[# U q*Ï˝#"≥∞ÿ# ÉèÏ+¨^•fi~å<Õ É’kèOÑ¨|_»∞`«∞Ok. =∞#O 1. "åºã¨~°K«#(Essay) 100=∂ ZO`« <ÕiÛ<å ÉèÏ+¨Ñ¨@¡ J=QÍÇ¨Ï# ÖËHõáÈ`Õ =∞#O (XHõ^•xH˜ ã¨=∂^è•#O „"åÜ«∂e) K≥Ñ¨Ê^ŒÅ∞Û‰õΩ#fl q+¨Ü«∞O Z^Œ∞\˜"åiH˜ J~°÷=∞=fi^Œ∞. JO^Œ∞ˆH ÉèÏ+¨ KåÖÏ KåÖÏ =ÚYºO. 'Kèå"£∞ã‘¯— =O\˜ 2. QÆ^•ºxfl K«kq WzÛ# „Ñ¨â◊flÅ‰õΩ ã¨=∂^è•<åÅ∞ ÉèÏëê"Õ`«ÎÅ „Ñ¨HÍ~°O ÉèÏ+¨ PÖ’K«#‰õΩ ™ê^èŒ#O. „"åÜ«∂e 12˛5´60=∂ ã¨$[<å`«‡Hõ`«‰õΩ, HõÅÊ<å â◊H˜ÎH˜ P^è•~°O. D q+¨Ü«∂xfl (Question & Answers from Passage) ^Œ$+≤ìÖ’ LOK«∞H˘x „Ñ¨Éèí∞`«fiO"å~°∞ 2025 QÆ∞}=ÚÅ`À 3. ãÖH˜∆Ñ¨Î "åºã¨~°K«# ( ) 60=∂ (Marks) ãÖã≤^ŒúOKÕã≤# ÉèÏ~°fÜ«∞ J`«∞º#fl`« q^•ºÑ¨sHõ∆Ö’ Précis Writing (Civil Service) 300 QÆ∞}=ÚÅ‰õΩQÍ#∞ (marks) 4. POQÆ¡O#∞O_ç `≥Å∞QÆ∞Ö’H˜ J#∞"å^ŒO HõzÛ`«OQÍ XHÍ<˘Hõ ÉèÏ~°fÜ«∞ÉèÏ+¨#∞ J=QÍÇ¨Ï<å~°÷"≥∞ÿ (Translation from English to Telugu) 20=∂ ZOÑ≤Hõ KÕã¨∞H˘x Ñ¨sHõ∆~å¿ã Ñ¨^Œúux qkèOzOk (Com- pulsory). 5. `≥Å∞QÆ∞#∞O_ç POQÆ¡OÖ’H˜ J#∞"å^ŒO ÉèÏ~°`« „Ñ¨Éèí∞`«fiO QÆ∞iÎOz# 22 ÉèÏ+¨Ö’¡ U ÉèÏ+¨<≥·<å (Translation from Telugu to English) 20=∂

ZOÑ≤Hõ KÕã¨∞HÀ=K«∞Û. "≥∞~Ú<£ûÖ’ ¿ÑÑ¨~ü–Z Ö’ D Ñ¨sHõ∆ 6. ™⁄O`«"åHÍºÅ∞ (Usages) 2˛5´10=∂ LO@∞Ok. Ç≤ÏOn `«~åfi`« ^Õâ◊OÖ’ JkèHõãÖMÏº‰õΩÅ∞ fã¨∞‰õΩ<Õ ÉèÏ+¨Å∞ =∞~åsî, `≥Å∞QÆ∞, `«q∞àò, ÉˇOQÍb =O\˜ 7. ã¨=∂<å~°÷HÍÅ∞ (Synonyms) 2˛5´10=∂ ÉèÏ+¨Å∞. „Ñ¨ã¨∞Î`«O `≥Å∞QÆ∞ ÉèÏ+¨#∞ ZOÑ≤Hõ KÕã¨∞‰õΩ#fl 8. =ºuˆ~HÍ~°÷Hõ Ñ¨^•Å∞ (Antonyms) 2˛5´10=∂ q^•º~°∞÷Å‰õΩ D `≥Å∞QÆ∞ÉèÏëê~°›`« Ñ¨sHõ∆#∞ QÆ∞iOz K≥Ñ¨Ê_»O <å =ÚM’º^ÕÌâ◊ºO. J~°›`«ˆH J~Ú<å.... P^Œ=∞~°∞Ñ¨Ù =^ŒÌx 9. `«Ñ¨CÅ#∞ ãïKÕÜ«Ú@ (Corrections) 2˛5´10=∂. ^•fi.<å.âß¢ã≤ÎQÍ~°∞ XHõ "åºãÖ „"åâß~°∞. x["Õ∞ =∞i D J~°›`« Ñ¨sHõ∆Ö’ HõhãÖ 300 Å‰õΩ 75 QÆ∞}=ÚÅ∞ `≥Å∞ˆQ Hõ^• Jx JÅ∞ã¨∞QÍ K«∂¿ãÎ #Å∞Ãã· W|ƒOk ~å"åe. JO>Ë 25% QÆ∞}=ÚÅ∞ ~å"åÅ#fl=∂@. D ÃÑ_»∞`«∞Ok. HÍ|\˜ì x~°¡Hõ∆ ºO =^Œ∞Ì. WOHÀ =ÚYº"≥∞ÿ# Ñ¨sHõ∆#∞ z#flK«∂Ñ¨Ù K«∂_»@O=Å¡, ÖË^• ÉèÏëê=QÍÇ¨Ï#O â◊√Éèí"å~°Î Uq∞@O>Ë `≥Å∞QÆ∞ ~å¢ëêìÅ∞ Ô~O_»∞ ‰õÄ_®#∂ ÖËHõáÈ=_»O=Å¡, ÖË^• nè=∂`À HÍ~°}O U^≥·<å 2010Ö’ W\©=e _ç„w SzÛùHÍOâßÖ’¡ (syllubus) D J~°›`« Ñ¨sHõ∆‰õΩ ãÖ|OkèOz# ã≤Å|ãπ<Õ áê~îåºOâßÅ∞QÍ KÕiÛ H˘O`«=~°‰õΩ 11,865 =∞OkH˜ QÍ#∂, 1,264 =∞Ok q^•º~°∞÷Å∞ "åiH˜ `À_®Ê@∞x™ÈÎOk. HÍ|\˜ì _ç„w `≥Å∞QÆ∞ ã≤Å|ãπ#∞ J#~°∞›ÅÜ«∂º~°∞. 2013Ö’ ‰õÄ_® D ãÖYº QÆ} ‰õÄ_® Ñ≤Å¡Å∞ *Ï„QÆ`«ÎQÍ LÑ¨Ü≥∂yOK«∞HÀ"åe. hÜ«∞OQÍ<Õ LOk. 288 Main Examination : The Big Battle LÑ¨Hõ~°}ÏÅ∞ 2. Ô~O_»= „Ñ¨â◊fl QÆ^•ºxfl K«kq WzÛ# „Ñ¨â◊flÅ‰õΩ (Reference Books) ã¨∂\˜QÍ ã¨=∂^è•#O „"åÜ«∂e. 1. „Ñü~ÀE D<å_»∞ k#Ñ¨„uHõ#∞ „Hõ=∞O`«Ñ¨Ê‰õΩO_® 3. ãÖH˜∆Ñ¨Î"åºã¨ ~°K«#Ö’ WzÛ# ÉèÏQÍxfl `«yæOz JO>Ë K«^Œ"åe. =¸_À=O`«∞ Ñï=∂}ÏxˆH (1/3) `«yæOz 2. l.Ü«∞<£.Ô~_ç¤QÍi Ñ¨~åºÜ«∞Ñ¨^Œ xÑ¶¨∞O@∞=Ù#∞, Ñ≤. „"åÜ«∂e. ~å*Ëâ◊fi~° ~å=ÙQÍi <å<å~°÷Ñ¨^Œ xÑ¶¨∞O@∞=Ù#∞, 4,5. J#∞"å^ŒO K«Hõ¯QÍ ‰õΩ^Œ~åÅO>Ë ™êÇ≤Ï`åº#∞"å^ŒO |∂^Œ~åA ~å^è•Hõ$+¨‚QÍi '*ÏfÜ«∂Å∞ Ñ¨Ù@∞ì ™êOˆHuHÍ#∞"å^ŒO, âß¢ã‘ÎÜ«∂#∞"å^ŒO H˘xfl Ñ¨Ó~Àfi`«Î~åÅ∞— J#∞"å^Œáê~îåÅ∞ J<Õ Ñ¨Ùã¨ÎHÍÅ#∞, =ÚYº~°OQÍÅ‰õΩ ãÖ|OkèOz# áêiÉèÏ+≤Hõ Ñ¨^•ÅÃÑ· JÖÏˆQ ™ê"≥∞`«Ö’¡ [#r=#O J<Õ Ñ¨Ùã¨ÎHÍxfl Ñ¨@∞ìO>Ë J#∞"å^ŒO ÉÏQÍ H˘#™êQÆ∞`«∞Ok. K«^Œ=_»O =∞Ozk. W"ÕQÍHõ qâßÖÏO„^èŒ, #"À^ŒÜ«∞, 6,7. WO^Œ∞Ö’ "åºHõ~°} ÉèÏQÆO LO@∞Ok. D "åºHõ~°}O #=Ü«ÚQÆ, #=KÕ`«<£, hÖòHõ=∞Öò, ~å*òHõ=∞Öò =O\˜ „Ñ¨Ü≥∂QÆOÃÑ· P^è•~°Ñ¨_ç LO@∞Ok. Ö∫H˜Hõ*Ï˝#O =Å¡ Ñ¨Ùã¨ÎHÍÅ JOQÆà◊§Ö’ á⁄_»∞Ñ¨Ù Hõ^äŒÅ g∞^Œ, D „Ñ¨â◊flÅ‰õΩ ã¨∞ÅÉèíOQÍ ã¨=∂^è•<åÅ#∞ W=fiQÆÅO. ™ê"≥∞`«Åg∞^Œ, *ÏfÜ«∂Åg∞^Œ, "åºHõ~°}Og∞^Œ Z<Àfl Ñ¨Ùã¨ÎHÍÅ∞ Åaèã¨∞Î<åfl~Ú. "åºHõ~°} ÉèÏQÆ q=~°} : 3. 'q^•ºi÷ HõÅÊ`«~°∞=Ù— J<Õ Ñ¨Ùã¨ÎHõO q∞H˜¯e 1. *ÏfÜ«∞O J#O>Ë ÃÑ·H˜ XHõ J~å÷xfl Ö’Ñ¨Å WOHÀ LÑ¨Ü≥∂QÆHõ~°O. J~å÷xfl Hõeæ LO\Ï~Ú. g\˜<Õ Idioms Jx JO\Ï~°∞. L^•Ç¨Ï~°} :

Ñ¨sHõ∆ „"å¿ã q^è•#O ã≤OÇ¨Ïã¨fiÑ¨flO (ÉèíÜ«∞Ñ¨_»@O) ~å=Ú_»O>Ë ~å=}Ïã¨∞~°∞xH˜ ã≤OÇ¨Ïã¨fiÑ¨flO. 1. "≥Ú^Œ\˜ „Ñ¨â◊fl "åºãÖ. ™ê=∂#ºOQÍ ã¨=∞HÍb# J~°KÕuÖ’ ã¨fi~°æO (=∞#=Ú#fl KÀ>Ë P#O^ŒO ãÖÑ¶¨∞@#Å#∞ ( ) "åºãÖQÍ contemporary LO_»@O) „"åÜ«∞=∞x J_»∞QÆ∞`å~°∞. „"å¿ã@Ñ¨C_»∞ qâı¡+¨}Ï =∞Oz L^ÀºQÆO Åaè¿ãÎ J~°KÕuÖ’ ã¨fi~°æO Ñ¨Ó~°fiHõOQÍ q=iã¨∂Î „"åÜ«∂e. L#fl>Ë¡. LáÈ^•…`«O 2. ™ê"≥∞`«Å∞ J#O>Ë áÈeHõ Jx J~°÷O. =∞# L^ÕÌâ◊ºO Hõà◊§=ÚO^Œ∞ XHõ ãÖÑ¶¨∞@# [iy#Ñ¨C_»∞ ^•xH˜ „Ñ¨Ü≥∂[<åÅ∞ Ö’áêÅ∞ ™ê=∞ºOQÍ Hõ#Ñ¨_Õ LÑ¨^Õâß`«‡Hõ, [iy# ÖË^• HõeÊ`« QÍ^äŒ#∞ ãÖH˜∆Ñ¨ÎOQÍ UHõ"åHõºOÖ’ K≥|∞`åO. ã¨∂K«#Å∞ L^•Ç¨Ï~°} : =ÚyOÑ¨Ù J<Õ JOâßÅ`À K«Hõ¯x *ÏfÜ«∂ Å#∞, ™ê"≥∞`«Å#∞, _≥·ÖÏQÆ∞Å#∞ L@OH˜ã¨∂Î K≥¿ÑÊk ~å=∂Ü«∞}O, Ñ¨_»Q˘>Ëìk ^Õ"åÅÜ«∞O. PHõ~°¬}©Ü«∞OQÍ "åº™êxfl „"åÜ«∂e. ~åAÅ z`«ÎO, =∂#∞Å h_» XHõ>Ë. 289 civilz byte 3. ã¨=∂<å~°÷HÍÅ∞ JO>Ë Ñ¨~åºÜ«∞Ñ¨^•Åx J~°÷O. JO>Ë J^Õ J~°÷O =KÕÛ =∞iH˘xfl Ñ¨^•Å∞. J#∞"å^Œ âßGO L^•Ç¨Ï~°} : (4,5 „Ñ¨â◊flÅ‰õΩ ãÖ|OkèOz# J=QÍÇ¨Ï#) Éèí∂q∞ ´ J=x, =ã¨∞O^èŒ~°, ^èŒ~°}˜, Ñ¨Ù_»q∞. J#∞"å^ŒO: 4. =ºuˆ~HõÑ¨^•Å∞ JO>Ë Ñ¨^•xH˜ Ñ¨ÓiÎ q~°∞^Œú"≥∞ÿ# XHõ ÉèÏ+¨Ö’x q+¨Ü«∂xfl WOH˘Hõ ÉèÏ+¨Ö’H˜ `«~°∞˚=∂ J~å÷xflKÕÛ Ñ¨^•Å#∞ „"åÜ«∂e. KÕÜ«∞_®xfl 'ÉèÏëêO`«sHõ~°}O— ÖË^• 'J#∞"å^ŒO— Jx L^•Ç¨Ï~°} : JO\Ï~°∞. ÃÇÏK«ÛiHõ ˛ Hõ∆=∂Ñ¨} D J#∞"å^ŒOÖ’ U ÉèÏ+¨<≥·`Õ =∞#O J#∞"å^•xH˜ tHõ∆ ˛ ã¨<å‡#O ZOÑ≤Hõ KÕã¨∞‰õΩ<åfl"≥∂ P ÉèÏ+¨#∞ =¸ÅÉèÏ+¨ (Source 5. <å<å~å÷Å∞ JO>Ë XˆHÑ¨^•xH˜ Z<Àfl aè#fl"≥∞ÿ# ) Jh, U ÉèÏ+¨Ö’H˜ J#∞"å^ŒO KÕã¨∞Î<åfl"≥∂ J~å÷Å∞ LO\Ï~Ú. "å\˜x `≥Å∞ã¨∞H˘x „"åÜ«∞_»O. Language P ÉèÏ+¨#∞ ÅHõ∆ ºÉèÏ+¨ ( ) Jx JO\Ï~°∞. L^•Ç¨Ï~°} : Target Language SL - TL =~°‚O ´ ~°OQÆ∞, JHõ∆~°O, ‰õΩÅO Ç¨Ïi ´ HÀu, HõÑ¨Ê, ^˘OQÆ J#∞"å^ŒO ~°HÍÅ∞: 6. UHõ - |Ç¨ï=K«<åÅ∞ JO^ŒiH© `≥eã≤#"Õ. J#∞"å^ŒOÖ’ „Ñ¨^è•#OQÍ 4 ~°HÍÅ ÉèË^•Å∞<åfl~Ú. #∂<≥, aÜ«∞ºO, hà◊√§, ^è•#ºO, _»|∞ƒ =O\˜ Ñ¨^•Å∞ 1. ¿ãfiKåÛù#∞"å^ŒO (Free Translation) x`«º |Ç¨ï=K«<åÅ∞. g\˜H˜ UHõ=K«#O LO_»^Œ∞. 2. Ñ¨^ŒÑ¨^•#∞"å^ŒO (Word to Word Translation) HõOk, â◊#QÆ J#flÑ¨C_»∞ |Ç¨ï=K«#O HÍh 3. Ü«∞^ä•=∂`«$HÍ#∞"å^ŒO (Literal Translation) HõOkÑÖ@, â◊#QÆÑÖ@ J#flÑ¨C_»∞ =∂„`«O 4. eÑ¨ºO`«sHõ~°}O ( ) UHõ=K«#O. =∞m§ HõOk ÑÖ@Å∞ JO>Ë =∂„`«O Graphological Translation |Ç¨ï=K«#O. 1. ¿ãfiKåÛù#∞"å^ŒO : XHõ q+¨Ü«∂xfl ã¨=~°}, q=~°}, L^•Ç¨Ï~°} : Ñ¨Ó~°}Å`À xiÌ+¨ì"≥∞ÿ# xÜ«∞=∂Å#∞ ÑÖ_»∞ – ÑÖ_»∞¡ / Ñ¨à◊√§ J#∞ãïOK«‰õΩO_® J#∞"å^ŒO KÕ¿ãÎ J@∞=O\˜ „áê}˜ – „áê}∞Å∞. J#∞"å^•xfl ¿ãfiKåÛù#∞"å^ŒO Jx JO\Ï~°∞.

7. ™ê^èŒ∞ â◊ÉÏÌÅ#∞ QÆ∞iÎOK«_»O JO>Ë Corrections L^• : ÉèÏ~°`«O, ÉèÏQÆ=`«O, ~å=∂Ü«∞}O. Jx J~°÷O. JO>Ë Ñ¨^•ÅÜ≥ÚHõ¯ =~°‚^Àëêxfl 2. Ñ¨^ŒÑ¨^•#∞"å^ŒO : =¸ÅÉèÏ+¨#∞O_ç „ÑüÑ¨^•xfl ã¨=iOz ãïÜ≥ÿ∞# =~°‚„Hõ=∂xfl (Spelling) „"åÜ«∂e. J#∞=kã¨∂Î KÕ¿ã ~°K«#‰õΩ Ñ¨^ŒÑ¨^•#∞"å^ŒO Jx L^•Ç¨Ï~°} : ¿Ñ~°∞. J~Ú`Õ nxfl KåÖÏ *Ï„QÆ`«ÎQÍ KÕÜ«∂eû `«Ñ¨C () – XÑ¨C ( ) LO@∞Ok. „ÑüÑ¨^•xfl Jxfl ãÖ^Œ~åƒùÖ’¡ Éè’^Œ# – É’^èŒ# KÕÜ«∞‰õÄ_»^Œ∞. JÖÏKÕ¿ãÎ ã¨=∞ã¨ºÅ∞ =™êÎ~Ú. ^èŒ$=Ñ¨„`«O – „^èŒ∞=Ñ¨„`«O "≥#∞Hõ\˜H˘‰õ_»∞ J^ÕÌÑë¡ |OQÍ~°=∞‡ J<Õ M.L.A., 290 Main Examination : The Big Battle

K«xáÈ`Õ WOy¡+πÖ’ Rent Village gold Mother L^• : Sinθ, „QÍÑ¶π, ˆ~_çÜ«∞<£, ÖÏQÆi^äŒ"£∞û, has died Jx J#∞"å^ŒO KÕ™ê_»@. Wk ãïHÍ^Œ∞. ÃãO\©„ˆQ_£, *∫Öòû, "≥Ú^ŒÅQÆ∞#q. L^• : ÉèíQÆ=næ`«, Y∞~å<£, Éˇ·aÖò „QÆO^ä•Å∞ 2. ™êOã¨¯ $uHõ ã¨=∞ã¨ºÅ∞ : ãÖã¨¯ $uÖ’ ÉèÏQÆOQÍ Ñ¨^ŒÑ¨^•#∞"å^•xH˜ =∞Oz L^•Ç¨Ï~°}Å∞. K≥Ñ¨Ê|_Õ H˘xfl Ñ¨^•Å#∞ J#∞=kOK«ÖË=Ú. 3. Ü«∞^ä•=∂`«$HÍ#∞"å^ŒO : =¸ÅÉèÏ+¨Ö’x L^•Ç¨Ï~°} : q+¨Ü«∂xfl =∂„`«"Õ∞ =¸ÖÏxH˜ q^èÕÜ«∞OQÍ Ü«∞V˝O, â◊~î°QÀÑÖ, [O^èŒº=Ú, Ñ¨Ù}ÏºÇ¨Ï "åK«#O, J#∞=k¿ãÎ ^•xx Ü«∞^ä•=∂`«$HÍ#∞"å^ŒO JH˜∆O`«Å∞ – "≥Ú^ŒÅQÆ∞#q. JO\Ï~°∞. 3. #∞_çHÍ~°Ñ¨Ù ã¨=∞ã¨ºÅ∞ : XHõÉèÏ+¨‰õΩ „Ñ¨`ÕºHõ â◊|Ì, L^• : Text books Translation J~°÷ ™œO^Œ~åºxfl HõÅ∞QÆ*Ë¿ã =∂@Å#∞ #∞_çHÍ~åÅx 4. eÑ¨ºO`«sHõ~°}O : eÑ≤x =∂„`«"Õ∞ J#∞"å^ŒO KÕ¿ãÎ JO\Ï~°∞. Wq ÉèÏ+¨Ö’ ZÑ¨Ê\˜#∞O_À JÖÏ ^•xx eÑ¨ºO`«sHõ~°}O Jx JO\Ï~°∞. H˘@∞ìH˘x =ã¨∂Î L<åfl~Ú. g\˜x J#∞=kOK«@O L^• : =∞#O ÃãÖòá¶È#¡Ö’ KÕ¿ã Kå\ÕQ∑ ‰õÄ_® Hõ+¨ì"Õ∞. g\˜Ö’ *ÏfÜ«∂Å∞, ™ê"≥∞`«Å∞, Ammaa baagunnaavaa á⁄_»∞Ñ¨ÙHõ^äŒÅx =¸_»∞ „Ñ¨^è•#"≥∞ÿ# ÉèË^•Å∞<åfl~Ú. *ÏfÜ«∂Å∞ : g\˜x Idioms Jx JO\Ï~°∞. Wq J#∞"å^Œ ã¨=∞ã¨ºÅ∞ ÃÑ·H˜ XHõ J~å÷xfl, JO`«~°OQÍ WOH˘Hõ J~å÷xfl W™êÎ~Ú. g\˜x J#∞=kOK«_»O „â◊"Õ∞ J=Ù`«∞Ok. J#∞"å^ŒO KÕ¿ã@Ñ¨C_»∞ Z<Àfl~°HÍÅ ã¨=∞ã¨ºÅ∞ L^•Ç¨Ï~°} : U~°Ê_»`å~Ú. =∞Oz J#∞"å^Œ‰õΩ_»∞ "å\˜x JkèQÆq∞ã¨∂Î ã≤OÇ¨Ïã¨fiÑ¨flO, J~°KÕuÖ’ ã¨fi~°æO, Hõ~°`«ÖÏ =∞ÅHõO, =¸ÅÉèÏ+¨Ö’x J~°÷O K≥_»‰õΩO_® J#∞"å^ŒO KÕ™êÎ_»∞. QÍeÖ’ "Õ∞_»Å∞. J#∞"å^Œ ã¨=∞ã¨ºÖ’¡ „Ñ¨^è•#"≥∞ÿ#q 5 ~°HÍÅ ã¨=∞ã¨ºÅ∞. Jq: 4. ™ê"≥∞`«Å∞ : ™ê"≥∞`«Å∞ P ^Õâ◊Ñ¨Ù ÖË^• P ÉèÏ+‘Ü«ÚÅ ãÖã¨¯ $u ÖË^• ãÖ|O^è•Å=Å¡ ÖË^• 1. ™êOˆHuHõ ã¨=∞ã¨ºÅ∞ (Technical Problems) 2. ™êOã¨¯ $uHõ ã¨=∞ã¨ºÅ∞ ( ) ãÖÑ¶¨∞@#Å=Å¡ Ñ¨Ù_»`å~Ú. g\˜x J#∞"å^ŒO Cultural Problems KÕÜ«∞_»O Hõ+¨ìO. 3. #∞_çHÍ~°Ñ¨Ù ã¨=∞ã¨ºÅ∞ (Idiomatic Problems) ÖË^• L^•Ç¨Ï~°} : *ÏfÜ«∂Å ã¨=∞ã¨ºÅ∞ (Idioms) 1. JOQÆ\’¡ Jhfl L<åfl~Ú. JÅ∞¡_ç<À\’¡ â◊x 4. ™ê"≥∞`«Å ã¨=∞ã¨ºÅ∞ (Proverbs) LOk. 5. á⁄_»∞Ñ¨Ù Hõ^äŒÅ ã¨=∞ã¨ºÅ∞ (Riddles) 2. L\˜ìÔHQÆ~°ÖË#=∞‡ ã¨fi~åæxÔHyiO^Œ@. 1. ™êOˆHuHõ ã¨=∞ã¨ºÅ∞ : ™êOˆHuHõOQÍ H˘O`« 5. á⁄_»∞Ñ¨ÙHõ^äŒÅ∞ : D á⁄_»∞Ñ¨ÙHõ^äŒÅ#∞ J#∞"å^ŒO áêiÉèÏ+≤Hõ Ñ¨^Œ*ÏÅO (Technical terminology) KÕÜ«∞_»O WOHÍ Hõ+¨ìO. LO@∞Ok. nxfl Ü«∞^ä•qkèQÍ J#∞"å^ŒO KÕÜ«∂e. L^•Ç¨Ï~°} :

291 civilz byte H˜@H˜@ `«Å∞Ñ¨ÙÅ∞, H˜\Ïi `«Å∞Ñ¨ÙÅ∞ ÖË^Œ∞ HÍ|\˜ì ~°ëêºÖ’ dowry x U=∞O\Ï~À K≥Ñ¨Ê_»O ZÑ¨C_»∞ `≥~°z# K«Ñ¨C_Õ HÍ=Ù. Hõ+¨ìO. JÖÏˆQ =∞OK«∞Ö’ 48 ~°HÍÅ ÉèË^•Å∞<åfl~Ú. D WO^Œ∞Ö’ H˜@H˜@, H˜\Ïi Ñ¨^•Å‰õΩ J#∞"å^Œ q+¨Ü«∞O @O„_® „áêO`åÖ’¡ rqOKÕ "åiˆH `≥Å∞ã¨∞ JO^Œ∞ˆH "Õ∞=ÚO@∞Ok? J#∞=kOK«ÖË=Ú. "å~°∞ =∞OK«∞‰õΩ 48 ¿Ñ~°∞¡ ÃÑ\Ïì~°∞. =∞#‰õΩ QÆ_»¤=∞OK«∞, =∞iH˘xfl J#∞"å^Œ ã¨=∞ã¨ºÅ∞ á⁄QÆ=∞OK«∞ =∂„`«"Õ∞ `≥Å∞ã¨∞. WOy¡+π"å~°∞ ÉÏQÍ Hõ+¨ìÑ¨_ç Ñ¨xKÕ¿ã =ºH˜Îx JO\Ï~°∞. =∞i =∞#‰õΩ J#∞"å^ŒOÖ’ WO^•Hõ K«iÛOz# ã¨=∞ã¨ºÖËQÍHõ XHõ Blue colour man Ñ¨^•x‰õΩO_Õ aè#fl"≥∞ÿ# J~å÷Å=Å¡ ‰õÄ_® ã¨=∞ã¨ºÖÁ™êÎ~Ú. nx J~°÷O he~°OQÆ∞ HÍÅ~ü K˘HÍ¯ "Õã¨∞‰õΩ#fl "å_»xÑ≤ã¨∞ÎOk. =∞#O PHÍâ◊O #∞O_ç ‰õΩi¿ã ÉèÏs =~å¬xfl L^•Ç¨Ï~°}‰õΩ ' — J<Õ Ñ¨^•xH˜ Ç¨ã≤Ê@ÖòÖ’ Discharge ‰õΩO_»áÈ`« =~°¬=∞x JO\ÏO. HÍh WOw¡+π"å~°∞ ~Àyx |Ü«∞@‰õΩ ÑÖÑ¨@=∞x, ã≤qÖò WO[h~ü‰õΩ _®ºO It is ˆQ@∞¡ `≥~°=_»=∞x, "åºáê~°ã¨∞÷xH˜ ÖÏsÖ’x ã¨~°∞‰õΩÅ∞ raining cats and dogs Jx JO\Ï~°∞. WÖÏ =º`åº™ê Å∞#flÑ¨C_»∞ J#∞"å^ŒO Hõ+¨ì=∞=Ù`«∞Ok. HÍh *Ï„QÆ`«ÎQÍ kOK«_»=∞x J~å÷ÖÁ™êÎ~Ú. JÖÏˆQ dowry system ~°ëêºÖ’ J#∞=k¿ãÎ =∞Oz J#∞"å^ŒO J=Ù`«∞Ok. - ™êÇ≤Ï`åº~å^èŒHõ É’Å∞QÆ^≥Ì JxÖò‰õΩ=∂~ü PO„^èÀÑ¨<åºã¨‰õΩÅ∞ <å~åÜ«∞} SZÜ«∞ãπ JHÍ_»g∞, ÃÇ·Ï^Œ~åÉÏ^£. ÃãÖò: 9502568218

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292 CHAPTER Main Examination : The Big Battle 31 Treasure Trove: Compulsary Telugu Question Papers COMPULSARY TELUGU 2013

Time Allowed : Three Hours Maximum Marks : 300

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions.

All questions are to be attempted. The number of marks carried by a question is indicated against it. Answers must be written in TELUGU unless otherwise directed in the question. Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to and if answered in much longer or shorter than the prescribed length, marks may be deducted. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the answer book must be clearly struck off. 1. D „HÕk "åxx =¸_»∞ =O^ŒÅ Ñ¨^•Å‰õΩ q∞OK«‰õΩO_® XHõ z#fl "åº™êxfl ~åÜ«∞O_ç: 2˛50´100 (J) =∞#O Ñ¨#∞Å`À rq™êÎ"Õ∞ HÍx ãÖ=`«û~åÅ`À HÍ^Œ∞. 50 (P) U XHõ¯ ãÖÑ¶¨∞=Ú K«\ÏìxH˜ Ö’|_»‰õΩO_® rqOK«^Œ∞. 50

2. D „HÕk YO_çHõ#∞ *Ï„QÆ`«ÎQÍ K«kq, ^•x z=~° WzÛ# „Ñ¨â◊flÅ‰õΩ ã¨Ô~·# ã¨=∂^è•<åÅ∞ ~åÜ«∞O_ç: 6 ˛ 10 ´ 60 Ñ¨„uHÍ ãÖáê^Œ‰õΩÅÖ’ qÉèË^•Å∞O_»_»O ÑïáêÅ‰õΩÅ‰õΩ XHõ =~°„Ñ¨™ê^Œ=∞x K≥Ñ¨Ê=K«∞Û. JO>Ë Ñ¨„uHõÅ |ÅO, Ñ¨Å∞~°HÍÖˇ·# Q˘O`«∞HõÅ`À =∂\Ï¡_»_»O =Å¡ H©∆}˜ã¨∞ÎO^Œ<Õ K≥áêÊe. Wk ZÅ∞ÔQuÎ K≥Ñ¨Ê_»O =Å¡<À ÖËHõ áê~î°‰õΩÅ∞ Z‰õΩ¯=QÍ LO_»_»O =Å¡<À „Ñ¨[Å‰õΩ JO^Œ∞`«∞O^Œx, "åà◊§#∞ „Ñ¨ÉèÏq`«O KÕã¨∞ÎO^Œx K≥Ñ¨ÊÖË=Ú. Ñ¨„uHÍ|ÅO J#flk JO`«∞Ñ¨@ì*ÏÅxk. Jk Ñ¨„uHõÅ ^èŒ<å~°˚# ÃÑ·# QÍh, Ñ¨„uHõÅ∞ Z‰õΩ¯=QÍ J=Ú‡_»∞áÈ`«∞#fl q^è•#O g∞^Œ QÍh P^è•~°Ñ¨_»_»OÖË^Œ∞. 293 civilz byte Ñ¨„uHõÅ J=∞‡HõO P Ñ¨„uHõ Q˘Ñ¨Ê^Œx „Ñ¨[Å∞ ã¨∞Îuã¨∞Î<åfl~°x J#∞HÀ‰õÄ_»^Œ∞. P Ñ¨„uHõÖ’x Ö’áêÅ#∞ QÆ∞iÎOz "å\˜x ZÖÏ W`«~°∞Å∞ QÆ~°fiÑ¨_Õ q^èŒOQÍ fiÛk^•Ìe. ã≤x=∂Ö’ 'ÉÏH±û PÑ¶‘ãπ Ç≤Ï\ò— ÖÏO\˜^Õ Wk ‰õÄ_®. ã≤x=∂Å |ÅO PÜ«∂ áê„`«Å Jaè#Ü«∂#∞™ê~°OQÍ =∂~°∞`«∞O\Ï~Ú. "åºáê~° ^Œ$ëêìº Jaè=$kú K≥Ok# ã≤x=∂Å∞† HõàÏ`«‡HõOQÍ#∞, Q˘Ñ¨ÊqQÍ L#fl ã≤x=∂Å‰õΩ aè#flOQÍ LO\Ï~Ú. nxH˜ HÍ=Åã≤# HõàÏ`«‡Hõ^Œ$+≤ì „¿ÑHõ∆‰õΩÅO^ŒiÖ’#∞ LO_»^Œ∞. D HõàÏ`«‡Hõ Jaè~°∞z Hõey#"å~°∞ KåÅ `«‰õΩ¯= =∞Ok LO\Ï~°∞. HõàÏ`«‡Hõ^Œ$+≤ì Hõey#"åà◊√§, XHõ ã≤x=∂Ö’x ãÖ`Àëêxfl `«=∞‰õΩ `≥eÜ«∞‰õΩO_®<Õ J#∞ÉèíqOKÕ"åà◊¥§ LO\Ï~°∞. D Ô~O_»= =~åæxfl Jaè=$kú KÕÜ«∞_»"Õ∞ Ñ¨„uHõÅ, ã≤x=∂Å =ÚM’º^ÕÌâ◊ºOQÍ LO_®e. Hõ$+≤ Ô~O\˜H© XHõ>Ë. PHõ~°¬}‰õΩÖ’#∞ HÍ‰õΩO_® LO_»_»O Ô~O\˜H© ã¨=∂# ^èŒ~°‡"Õ∞.

(i) U Ô~O_»∞ q+¨Ü«∂Å#∞ "åºã¨Hõ~°Î `«∞Å<å`«‡HõOQÍ K«∂ã¨∞Î<åfl_»∞? 10 (ii) „Ñ¨[Å∞ U q^èŒOQÍ `«=∞‰õΩ J#∞QÆ∞}"≥∞ÿ# Ñ¨„uHõÃÑ· K«~°ºÅ∞ fã¨∞H˘O@∞<åfl~°∞? 10 (iii) "åºã¨Hõ~°Î U q^èŒ"≥∞ÿ# 'J¢™êÎxfl— LÑ¨Ü≥∂yã¨∞Î<åfl_»∞? 10 (iv) "åºã¨Hõ~°Î Ñ¨„uHõÅ L^ÕÌâßºxfl ZÖÏ K«∂Ñ≤ã¨∞Î<åfl_»∞? 10 (v) "åºã¨Hõ~°Î Z@∞=O\˜ „Ñ¨[Å#∞ XÑ¨CH˘#_»O ÖË^Œ∞? 10 (vi) Ñ¨„uHõ#∞ U q+¨Ü«∞O `«Ñ¨C_»∞ ^À=#∞ Ñ¨\˜ìOK«QÆÅ^Œ∞? 10 3. D „HÕk YO_çHõ#∞ XHõ^•xÖ’ =¸_»∞ =O`«∞Å Ñ¨^•ÅÖ’ ‰õΩkOz ~åÜ«∞O_ç. nxH˜ ji¬Hõ ÃÑ@ì_»O J#=ã¨~°O. (¿Ñ~˘¯#fl Ñ¨^•Å ãÖYºHõ<åfl Z‰õΩ¯= ~åÜ«∞_»O =Å¡ =∂~°∞¯Å∞ áÈ`å~Ú) 60=∂ „Ñ¨ã¨∞Î`« „Ñ¨ÑÖK«OÖ’ '^Õâ◊O— =∞iÜ«Ú '^Õâ◊ ~åRO— J#fl Ñ¨^•Å x~°fiK«<åÅ∞ ãïQÍ `≥eÜ«∞_»O ÖË^Œ∞. '^Õâ◊ ~åRO— x~°fizOK«_»O ã¨∞ÅÉèí"Õ∞. Jq „Ñ¨ÑÖK« ~å[H©Ü«∞ ãÖã¨÷ÅÖ’ K≥Ñ¨CHÀ^Œy# qÉèÏQÍÅ∞QÍ L<åfl~Ú. Jq ™ê~°fiÉè∫=∞ ~å*ÏºÅ‰õΩ ã¨=∂#OQÍ K≥Ñ¨Ê|_»`å~Ú. Jq XH˘¯Hõ¯\˜ SHõº~å[ºã¨q∞uÖ’ XHõ ÉèÏQÆOQÍ ÑïQÆ}ÕÑ¨|_»∞`å~Ú. Jq POQÆ¡ ÉèÏ+¨Ö’ 'HõO„\©ãπ— Jx ¿Ñ~˘¯#|_»∞`å~Ú. "å\˜x ã¨∞ÅÉèí Ñ¨^ŒúuÖ’ ~å¢ëêìÅx ¿Ñ~˘¯#=K«∞Û. HÍh ^Õâ◊ ~å¢ëêìÅHõ<åfl z#flqQÍ L#fl "å\˜x ¿Ñ~˘¯#_»O qKå~°Hõ~°"≥∞ÿ#k. ^Õâ◊ ~å¢ëêìÅ#∂, ™ê~°fiÉè∫=∞ ~å¢ëêìÅ#∞ ã¨=∂#OQÍ K«∂_»=K«∞Û J#fl Jaè„áêÜ«∞O HõÅ∞QÆ=K«∞Û. HÍh Wk ÃÑ_»„`À=#∞ Ñ¨@ì=K«∞Û. ZO^Œ∞HõO>Ë D P^èŒ∞xHõ HÍÅOÖ’ ™ê~°fiÉè∫=∞`«fi=∞#flk KåÖÏ `«~°∞QÆ∞^ŒÅÖ’ LO_»_»"Õ∞. x[OQÍ '^Õâ◊ ~å¢ëêìÅ∞— `«=∞ ™ê~°fiÉè∫=∞`åfixfl H˘kÌQÍ JO`«~å˚fÜ«∞ ãÖã¨÷Å‰õΩ q_çz ÃÑ\Ïì~Ú. D JO`«~å˚fÜ«∞ ãÖã¨÷ J~Ú# SHõº~å[ºã¨q∞u XHõ K«Hõ¯\˜ L^•Ç¨Ï~°}. ZO^Œ∞HõO>Ë SHõº~å[ºã¨q∞u ^Õâ◊ ~å¢ëêìÅ #∞O_ç `«=∞ PkèÑ¨`åºxfl „QÆÇ≤Ïã¨∞ÎOk. JO`ÕHÍx P ã¨q∞u ^Õâ◊ ~å¢ëêìÅÃÑ· `«=∞ PkèÑ¨`åºxfl K«∂Ñ¨^Œ∞. ^ÕâßxH©, ^ÕâßxH© =∞^èŒº JkèHÍ~° |ÅOÖ’#∞, JOwHÍ~°`«fiOÖ’#∞ QÆ_»∞¤ ã¨=∞ã¨ºÅ∞<åfl~Ú. XHõ „Ñ¨Hõ¯# D ã¨q∞u H˘xfl ÃÑ^ŒÌ ^ÕâßÅ‰õΩ KåÖÏ JkèHÍ~åeã¨∞Î#flk. =∞~À „Ñ¨Hõ¯# H˘xfl z#fl ~å¢ëêìÅ∞ `«=∞ á⁄~°∞QÆ∞# L#fl JkèHÍ~° =~åæÅ`À#∞ ÖËHõ JO`«~å˚fÜ«∞ ãÖã¨÷Å P^Œ~åaè=∂<åÅ‰õΩ Ö’|_ç LO_»=Åã≤# Ñïã≤÷u U~°Ê_ç J<ÕHõ q^èŒ∞ÅÖ’ ã¨fiÜ«∞O „ÑüÑüÎ HÀÖ’Ê`«∞#flk. 294 Main Examination : The Big Battle J<ÕHõ ^Õâ◊ ~å¢ëêìÅ∞ `«=∞#∞ ^ÕâßÅ<Õ =ºH©ÎHõiã¨∞Î<åfl~Ú. WÖÏ L#fl Ñïã≤÷`«∞ÅÖ’ =∞#"≥∞O^Œ∞‰õΩ ^Õâ◊ ~å¢ëêìxfl, ^Õâßxfl XˆHÖÏQÍ ÑïQÆ}ÕK«‰õÄ_»^Œ∞. HÍh Wk ™ê^èŒºO HÍ^Œ∞. "å\˜ "å\˜H˜ K«@ìÑ¨~°"≥∞ÿ# `Õ_®Å∞<åfl~Ú. ^Õâ◊ ~åRO XHõ „Ñ¨`ÕºHõ K«@ìÑ¨~°"≥∞ÿ# qÉèÏQÆO. ^Õâ◊O J#flk „Ñ¨[Å∞. HÍh P^èŒ∞xHõ „Ñ¨[Å∞ `«=∞‰õΩ `å=Ú '^Õâ◊"Õ∞— J#∞H˘x '^Õâ◊ ~å¢ëêìx—‰õΩ#fl ™ê÷~Úx á⁄O^•Å#∞H˘O@∞<åfl~Ú. HÍh D Ñïã≤÷u KåÖÏ `«‰õΩ¯=QÍ<Õ LOk. J<ÕHõ =∞Ok "åºMÏº`«Å∞ WO`«‰õΩ =ÚO^Œ∞ ™ÈqÜ«∞\ò Ü«¸xÜ«∞<À¡ Z‰õΩ¯= „áê=ÚYº`« Hõey# QÆ}`«O„`« ~å*ÏºÅ∞ – *Ïi˚Ü«∞#∞¡, e^äŒ∞OxÜ«∞#∞¡ =∞iÜ«Ú _»¢ÔH·#∞Å∞ – ™êfi`«O„`åºxH˜ =ÚO^Œ∞ ^ÕâßÅÖÏˆQ LO_Õ=x `≥eáê~°∞. HÍh ^Õâ◊OÖ’ QÆ}∞uÔHH˜¯# „áêO`åÅ∞, L^•Ç¨Ï~°}‰õΩ – ™ê¯\òÖÏO_£. Z‰õΩ¯= =∞Ok `«=∞‰õΩ '^Õâ◊ ~åR— „ÑüÑüÎ L#fl^Œx ZOz ^•xx J=∞Å∞ Ñ¨~°KåÅx `«ÅOKå~°∞. KåÖÏ z#fl =∂~°∞Ê`À „Ñ¨`ÕºHõ`«, ™êfi`«O„`«º=Ú LO>Ë KåÅ∞ Jx ‰õÄ_® K≥áêÊ~°∞. ~å[H©Ü«∞ áêsìÅ∞ P^èŒ∞xHõ ^Õâ◊ ~å¢ëêìxH˜ XHõ q^èŒ"≥∞ÿ# J<åÖ’K«<å`«‡Hõ=Ú, Ju „áêp#=Ú, H˘xfl "ÕÅ ãÖ=`«û~åÅ‰õΩ =ÚO^Œ∞#flk. D „áêp# ~å[H©Ü«∞ áêsìÖË P^èŒ∞xHõ HÍÅOÖ’ ^Õâ◊ ~å¢ëêìÅ∞QÍ =∂i, P^èŒ∞xHõ HÍÅOÖ’ Jq "Õà◊¥§x L<åflÜ«∞x K≥Ñ¨Ê=K«∞Û. P¢™Èì–Ç¨ÏOˆQiÜ«∞<£, ~°+¨º<£ =∞iÜ«Ú X\’ì=∞<£ ~å*ÏºÅ∞ 1917/1918 ãÖ=`«û~åÅÖ’ L#flq =Oâ◊áê~°OÑ¨~°º ~å*ÏºÖË. P „Ñ¨[ÅO^ŒiH© ã¨=∞"≥∞ÿ# *ÏfÜ«∞ „Ñ¨`ÕºHõ`« ÖË‰õΩO_≥#∞. ™ÈqÜ«∞\ò Ü«ÚxÜ«∞<£ 1991 =~°‰õΩ Ñ¨Å∞~°HÍÖˇ·# ãÖã¨¯ $`«∞Å#∞ JÅ=~°∞K«∞H˘#fl^Õ J~Ú<å J<ÕHõ ^ÕâßÅ#∞ W=Ú_»∞ÛH˘x L#fl^Õ. WÑ¨Ê\˜H˜ ‰õÄ_® '^Õâ◊=Ú— '^Õâ◊ ~åR=Ú— ã¨∞ÅÉèíOQÍ XHõ ã¨∂„`«O g∞^Œ #_»=^Œx K≥Ñ¨Ê=K«∞Û. ^Õâ◊ ~å¢ëêìÅ∞ `«=∞ ~å[H©Ü«∞ áêsìÅ#∞ ^ÕâßÅ∞QÍ ¿Ñ~˘¯<åfl KåÖÏ ^ÕâßÅ∞ „Ñ¨*Ï™êO„^Œ`« Hõey=Ù<åfl Jq ^ÕâßÅ∞QÍ ¿Ñ~˘¯#|_»_»O ÖË^Œ∞. „a@#∞Ö’ KåÖÏ =∞Ok ™ê¯\òû =∞iÜ«Ú "ÕÖò¬ L<åfl "åà◊√§ „a\˜+¨µ ^ÕâßxH˜ K≥Ok# "åàı§. "åà◊§#∞ ™ê¯\ò „a\˜+π, "ÕÖò¬ „a\˜+π ^Õâ◊ã¨∞÷Åx Ñ≤Å∞ã¨∞Î<åfl~°∞. J~°|∞ƒ ^Õâ◊ ~åROÖ’ KåÖÏ=∞Ok `å=Ú J~°|∞ƒ ^Õâ◊ "åã¨∞Å=∞x `«Åz<å "åà◊√§ W~åH± #∞Oz "≥Ú~°HÀ¯ =∞iÜ«Ú ™œ`ü D=∞<£ =~°‰õΩ "åºÑ≤Oz L<åfl~°∞. KåÖÏ =∞Ok ÉèÏëêÑ¨~°"≥∞ÿ# QÆ∞iÎOÑ¨Ù Z‰õΩ¯=QÍ L#fl "åà◊§Ö’ ^Õâ◊Ñ¨Ù QÆ∞iÎOÑ¨Ù KåÖÏ `«‰õΩ¯=QÍ L#flk. HÍh Wk JO`« =ÚYº"≥∞ÿ#k HÍ^Œ∞. nxH˜ L^•Ç¨Ï~°}Å∞QÍ "≥Ú^Œ\˜ J"≥∞iHõ#∞¡ ÖË^• P¢Ñ¶≤Hõ<£ `≥QÆÅ qÉèÏQÍÅ#∞ K≥Ñ¨Ê=K«∞Û. ^Õâ◊=Ú, ^Õâ◊ ~åRO Ô~O_»∂ XHõ>Ë Jx K≥Ñ¨Ê_®xH˜ gÅ∞ÖË^Œ∞ HÍh D Ô~O_çO\˜H© ^ŒQÆæi ÉÏO^èŒ"åºÅ∞<åfl~Ú. PO\’xã≤‡`ü (K«∂_»∞=Ú–ã≤‡`ü 1991) ^Õâßxfl Ô~O_»∞ q^è•Å∞QÍ qÉèílOKå_»∞. XHõ*Ïu =ÚYºOQÍ [#™êO„^Œ`« „áêO`åÅ∞QÍ Jaè=$kú K≥Ok#kQÍ#∞, XHõ~åROÖ’ ã¨=∂# *ÏfÜ«∞`å ÉèÏ"åÅ∞ Hõey# qaè#fl [#™êO„^Œ`«#∞ =∞~˘Hõ qÉèÏQÆOQÍ ¿Ñ~˘¯<åfl_»∞. (434 Ñ¨^•Å∞)

4. D „H˜Ok POQÆ¡ YO_çHõ#∞ `≥Å∞QÆ∞Ö’H˜ J#∞=kOK«O_ç: 20=∂

Raman completed school when he was just eleven years old and spent two years studying in his father's college. When he was only thirteen years old, he went to Madras (which is now Chennai), to join the B.A. course at Presidency College. Besides being young for his class, Raman was also quite unimpressive in appearance and recalls, '...... in the first English class that I attended, Professor E.H. Elliot addressing me, asked if I really be- 295 civilz byte longed to the junior B.A. class, and I had to answer him in the affirmative'. He, however, stunned all the sceptics when he stood first in the B.A. examinations. Seeing what a brilliant student he was, his teachers asked him to prepare for the Indian Civil Services (ICS) examination. It was a very prestigious examination and very rarely did non-Britishers get through it. Yet Raman had impressed his teachers so much that they urged him to take it up at such an early age. In spite of their student's brilliance, the plan was not to work. Raman had to undergo a medical examination before he could qualify to take the ICS test and the Civil Surgeon of Madras declared him medically unfit to travel to England! This was the only examination that Raman failed, and he would later remark in his characteristic style about the man who disqualified him, 'I shall ever be grateful to this man,' but at that time, he simply put the attempt behind him and went on to study Physics. 5. D „HÕk `≥Å∞QÆ∞ YO_çHõ#∞ POQÆ¡OÖ’H˜ J#∞=kOK«O_ç:– 20=∂ _»|∞ƒ J#flk XHõKÕu #∞O_ç =∞~˘Hõ KÕuH˜ =∂ˆ~ q„HõÜ«∞ =ã¨∞Î=Ù Jx x~°fizOK«=K«∞Û. „áêp# HÍÅOÖ’ =ã¨∞Î=Ù‰õΩ =ã¨∞Î=Ù ÖË^• U^≥·<å XHõ Ñ¨^•~°÷O =¸ÅOQÍ LO_Õk. g\˜x J#∞ãïOK«_»OÖ’ J"Õ∞‡"åà◊§‰õΩ, H˘<Õ"åà◊§‰õΩ KåÖÏ W|ƒO^Œ∞Å∞ HõeˆQq. H˘<Õ"åà◊√§ J=∞‡HõÑ¨Ù ^èŒ~°#∞ XÑ¨CHÀ=_»OÖ’#∞ z‰õΩ¯Å∞O_Õq. nxx ã¨∞ÅÉèí`«~°O KÕÜ«∞_®xH˜ _»|∞ƒ „áê=ÚYº`« =Ç≤Ïã¨∞ÎOk. ãÖÑ¶¨∞OÖ’ „áê^è•#º`«, HÍi‡Hõ =sæHõ~°} – Ô~O_»∂ =ÚYº"≥∞ÿ# JOâßÅ∞. D Ô~O_çO\˜h ã¨∞ÅÉèí`«~°O KÕ¿ãk _»|∞ƒ. _»|∞ƒ ^Õx`À<≥·<å, U ~°∂ÑÖÖ’<≥·<å `«Ü«∂~°∞KÕÜ«∞=K«∞Û. HÍh ^•xH˜ K«@ì, ãÖã¨¯ $`«∞Å∞ qkèQÍ LO_®e. JO^Œ~°∂ ^•xx XÑ¨CH˘#_»"Õ∞ =ÚYº"≥∞ÿ# q+¨Ü«∞O. „áêp# HÍÅOÖ’ Ñ¨â◊√=ÙÅ∞, ÃÑO‰õΩÅ∞, aÜ«∞ºO, \© – _»|∞ƒQÍ LÑ¨Ü≥∂yOKå~°∞. P^èŒ∞xHõ HÍÅOÖ’ Jaè=$kúK≥Ok# ^ÕâßÅ∞ HÍy`«OQÍh, Ö’Ç¨ÏOQÍh LÑ¨Ü≥∂yã¨∞Î<åfl~°∞. <å}ÏÅ∞, <À@∞¡ ~°∂ÑÖÖ’ L#fl _»|∞ƒ – fã¨∞ÔHà◊§_®xH˜ J#∞=ÙQÍ#∞, Z‰õΩ¯=HÍÅO LO_Õ q^èŒOQÍ#∞, ã¨*ÏfÜ«∞"≥∞ÿ#kQÍ#∞, JO^Œ~°∂ JOwHõiOKÕ q^èŒOQÍ#∞ LO_»_»O =ÚYº"≥∞ÿ#k. WO^Œ∞Ö’ =ÚYºOQÍ |OQÍ~°∞, "≥O_ç, ~åy, xÔHÅ∞ LÑ¨Ü≥∂yOÑ¨|_»∞`å~Ú. <À@∞¡ J<ÕHõ q^è•Å∞QÍ „Ñ¨K«∞iOÑ¨|_»`å~Ú. _»|∞ƒ H˘#∞QÀÅ∞‰õΩ =∂„`«"Õ∞ HÍ‰õΩO_®, qÅ∞=Å#∞ QÆ∞iÎOK«_®xH˜, ^•x =¸ÅOQÍ `«∞Å<å`«‡HõOQÍ K«∂_»_®xH˜, ~°∞}ÏÅ _»|∞ƒ#∞ QÆ∞iÎOK«_®xH˜ =∞iÜ«Ú qÅ∞=Å#∞ xÅÉˇ@∞ìHÀ=_®xH˜ _»|∞ƒ LÑ¨Ü≥∂QÆÑ¨_»∞`«∞Ok. „áê=∂}˜Hõ ^èŒ#O =∞iÜ«Ú JkèHÍiHõOQÍ `≥eÜ«∞*Ë¿ã aà◊§‰õÄ KåÖÏ `Õ_® L#flk. "≥Ú^Œ\˜k =ã¨∞Î=Ù Ü≥ÚHõ¯ „áê=∂}˜Hõ`«#∞ `≥e¿Ñk, ^•x`À W`«~° =ã¨∞Î=ÙÅ „áê=∂}˜Hõ`«#∞ ‰õÄ_® `«∞Å<å`«‡HõOQÍ `≥eÜ«∞*Ë¿ãk. „áê=∂}˜Hõ _»|∞ƒ =ã¨∞Î=ÙÖ’ L#fl JOâßÅ#∞ `≥Å∞Ñ¨Ù`«∞Ok. HÍh JkèHÍiHõOQÍ `≥eÜ«∞*Ë¿ã aà◊§ K«@ìO ÖËHõ ZQÆ∞=∞u kQÆ∞=∞`«∞Å‰õΩ ãÖ|OkèOzO^Õ J~Ú=ÙO@∞Ok QÍh, Ö’Ñë =ã¨∞Î=Ù‰õΩ ãÖ|OkèOz#k HÍ^Œ∞.

6. (J) D „HÕk "å\˜x g∞ ™⁄O`« "åHÍºÖ’¡ „Ñ¨Ü≥∂yOK«O_ç: 5 ˛ 2 ´ 10=∂ (i) `å=∞~å‰õΩ g∞^Œ h\˜ÉÁ@∞ì (ii) #_»=∞O„`«Ñ¨Ù ã≤i (iii) J_»qQÍz# "≥<≥flÅ (iv) `«Ñ¨Ê@_»∞QÆ∞ "ÕÜ«Ú (v) Hõ_»∞Ñ¨ÙÖ’ |Öˇ¡O 296 Main Examination : The Big Battle 6. (P) D „HÕk "å\˜H˜ ã¨=∂<å~°÷Hõ Ñ¨^•Å#∞ „"åÜ«∞O_ç: 5 ˛ 2 ´ 10=∂ (i) =∂~å˚Å=Ú (ii) QÆ~°ƒù=Ú (iii) "åºkè (iv) hà◊√§ (v) WÅ∞¡ (P) D „HÕk "å\˜H˜ =ºuˆ~HÍ~°÷Hõ Ñ¨^•Å#∞ „"åÜ«∞O_ç: 5 ˛ 2 ´ 10=∂ (i) á⁄_»∞QÆ∞ (ii) =∞Oz (iii) ã¨^Œæu (iv) ^Œ∞~å‡~°æ=Ú (v) |Ü«∞@ (W) D „HÕk "å\˜H˜ |Ç¨ï=K«<åÅ∞ „"åÜ«∞O_ç: 5 ˛ 2 ´ 10=∂ (i) WÅ∞¡ (ii) QÆk (iii) HõÅO (iv) `åÉËÅ∞ (v) QÆ∞_ç.

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297 civilz byte COMPULSARY TELUGU 2014

Time Allowed : Three Hours Maximum Marks : 300

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions.

All questions are to be attempted. The number of marks carried by a question/ part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in TELUGU (Telugu Script) unless otherwise directed in the question. Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to and if answered in much longer or shorter than the prescribed length, marks may be deducted. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the answer book must be clearly struck off. 1. D „HÕk JOâßÅÖ’ XHõ^•xx QÆ∞iOz ã¨∞=∂~°∞ P~°∞=O^ŒÅ (600) Ñ¨^•ÅÖ’ XHõ "åº™êxfl ~åÜ«∞O_ç: 2 ˛ 50 ´ 100 a. ~å[H©Ü«∂ÅÖ’ =∞Ç≤Ïà◊Å áê„`« b. K≥·<å Pi÷HÍaè=$kú`À ÉèÏ~°`«^Õâ◊O ÉèíÜ«∞Ñ¨_®ÖÏ? c. q_®‰õΩÅ‰õΩ ÉèÏ~°fÜ«∞ ã¨=∂[OÖ’ ÃÑ~°∞QÆ∞`«∞#fl P"≥∂^ŒO d. Hõiî# K«\ÏìÅ ^•fi~å <≥·uHõ`« |ÅÑ¨_»∞`«∞O^•? 2. „HÕk „Ñ¨™êÎqHõ#∞ „â◊^ŒúQÍ K«kq, z=~° WzÛ# „Ñ¨â◊flÅ‰õΩ ã¨Ô~·# ã¨=∂^è•<åÅ#∞ g∞ ™⁄O`« =∂@ÅÖ’ ~åÜ«∞O_ç 12 ˛ 5 ´ 60 â◊`åÉÏÌÅ „H˜`«"Õ∞ J<ÕHõ HÍ~°}ÏÅ`À Éè∫QÀoHõ ™ê÷~ÚÖ’ XHõ „áêO`«O #∞O_ç "Õ~˘Hõ „áêO`åxH˜ =∂#=ÙÅ =Åã¨ „áê~°OÉèí=∞~ÚOk. Ñ¨zÛHõ <ÕÅÅ∞† Ñ¨K«Ûx á⁄ÖÏÅ J<Õfi+¨}† Ñ‘_»#, Ç≤ÏOã¨Å #∞O_ç `«Ñ≤ÊOK«∞‰õΩx áêiáÈ=_»O† ã‘fiÜ«∞ qâßfi™êÅ, =ºH©ÎHõ~°}Å ¿ãfiKåÛùHÍOHõ∆† ÖË^• ãÖKå~°„Ñ‘u "≥Ú^ŒÖˇ·# HÍ~°}ÏÅ`À =Åã¨Å∞ „áê~°OÉèí=∞Ü«∂º~Ú. ãÖKå~° „Hõ=∞OÖ’ ^•i á⁄_»∞QÆ∞<å =Åã¨ =∂#=ÙÅ∞ `«=∞ ™êOã¨¯ $uHõ =¸ÖÏÅ#∞ Ñï~°H˜∆OK«∞‰õΩO@∂ ~å=_»O`À áê@∞, „Ñ¨Kå~°O KÕã¨∂Î, qHõã≤OÑ¨*Ëã¨∂Î H˘`«Î „áêO`åÅ‰õΩ „Ñ¨™ê÷#=∞Ü«∂º~°∞. =∂~°æ=∞^èŒºOÖ’ "å~°∞ W`«~° `≥QÆÅ`À `«ÅÑ¨_®¤~°∞. HõÜ«∞º=Ú ^•fi~å<À, qÜ«∞º=Ú ^•fi~å<À, =~°ÎHõ=Ú ^•fi~å<À, "åºáê~° =º=Ç¨~åÅ ^•fi~å<À qq^èŒ `≥QÆÅ∞ HõÅQÆÅã≤ áÈÜ«∂~Ú. „áê~°OÉèíOÖ’ `≥QÆÅ =∞^èŒº HõÅÇ¨Å∞, *Ï`«∞Å =∞^èŒº Ü«Ú^•úÅ ^Œâ◊ XHõ\˜ LO_çOk. HÍÅ„Hõ=∞OÖ’ JO`å ã¨^Œ∞Ì =∞}˜yOk. ã¨~°∞Ì‰õΩáÈ=_»O "≥Ú^ŒÅ~ÚOk. ã¨Ç¨Ïr=#^Œâ◊ „áê~°OÉèí=∞~ÚOk. âßOux „Ñ¨É’kèOKÕ Åe`«Hõà◊Å∞,

298 Main Examination : The Big Battle KÕu=$`«∞ÎÅ∞ =iúÅ¡ ™êQÍ~Ú. P^•#„Ñ¨^•<åÅ∞ =∂#= ãÖ|O^è•Å "åÇ≤ÏHõÅ∞QÍ =∂~å~Ú. ™êOã¨¯ $uHõ PkèÑ¨`åºÅ‰õΩ `å=ÙÖËx ¿ãfiKåÛùÜ«Ú`« "å`å=~°}OÖ’ „Ñü ã¨=¸Ç¨ÏO XHõ |Ç¨ï=∞v# ã¨=∂[OÖ’ ÉèÏQÆ=∞~ÚOk. ^•O`À =∞OQÀeÜ«∂ „Ñ¨[Å∞ JÅ™ê¯ n=ÙÅ#∞ ^•\˜ LO\Ï~°∞. POQÀ¡–™êHõû<£ „Ñ¨[Å∞ „a@<£ "≥·Ñ¨Ù "≥o§ LO\Ï~°∞. JÖÏˆQ |Ç¨ïâß „Ñ¨=HõÎ "≥∂*ˇãπ `å#∞ ZOÑ≤Hõ KÕã¨∞‰õΩ#fl „Ñ¨[Å#∞ Ñ¨q„`« Éèí∂q∞ "≥·Ñ¨Ù, ÖË^• "åQÍÌ#=Ú KÕã≤# Éèí∂q∞x J<Õfi+≤ã¨∂Î #_çÑ≤Oz LO\Ï_»∞. JÖÏˆQ |Ç¨ïâß H˘ÅO|ãπ S~Àáê ^ÕâßÅ#∞ Éè∫QÀoHõ ™êÇ¨ÏãÖ kâ◊QÍ #_çÑ≤Oz LO\Ï_»∞. JÑ¨Ê\˜flOz „Hõ=∞OQÍ W`«~° ^ÕâßÅ#∞ =∞iÜ«Ú ãÖã¨¯ $`«∞Å#∞ [~ÚOK«_®xH˜ =Åã¨ XHõ ™ê^èŒ#OQÍ =∂iOk. q*Ë`«Å ™êOã¨¯ $uHõ PkèÑ¨`«ºO "≥Ú^ŒÅ~ÚOk. <Õ_»∞ XHõ ^Õâ◊O #∞O_ç =∞~À ^ÕâßxH˜ QÆi+¨ª ™ê÷~ÚÖ’ H˘#™êQÆ∞`«∞#fl =∂#=ÙÅ =Åã¨Å‰õΩ "å}˜[ºO =∞iÜ«Ú "åºáê~°O „Ñ¨^è•#"≥∞ÿ# L^ÕÌâßºÅ∞. W=hfl ™êOã¨¯ $uHõ ã¨"Õ∞‡à◊<åxH˜ ^Œ$ëêìO`åÅ∞. „Ñü „Ñ¨*Ï ã¨=¸Ç¨ÏO `«# P#∞=OtHõ ã¨fiÉèÏ"åxfl, ã¨Ç¨Ï[ *Ï˝<åxfl, ã¨fi^Õâ◊ „Ñ‘ux Hõey LO@∞Ok. XHõ\˜ Ô~O_»∞ `«~åÅ áê@∞ áê`« J#∞|O^è•Å KèåÜ«∞Å∞ „Ñ¨ã¨∞Êù@=∞=Ù`«∞O\Ï~Ú. ~å#∞#fl =∞~À â◊`åÉÏÌxH˜ D „áêOfÜ«∞ J#∞|O^è•Å∞ ã¨fi^Õâ◊ „Ñ‘u ÉèÏq `«~åÅÖ’ H˘#™êQÆ∞`«∞O^À, ÖË^À TÇ≤ÏOK«@O Hõ+¨ìO. „Ñ¨ã¨∞Î`«O ZHõ¯_» g∞~°∞ x=ã≤ã¨∞Î<åfl~À, J^Õ g∞ „áêO`«=∞=Ù`«∞Ok. H˘`«Î ™ê÷xHõ`«Ö’x =∞Oz K≥_»∞Å‰õΩ, "åã¨ÎqHõ`«‰õΩ JÅ"å@∞ Ñ¨_çáÈ`å~°∞. ™ê÷xHõ`« Éè∫QÀoHõ`«Ö’ b#=∞=Ù`«∞Ok. J~Ú<å `«=∞ áê`« Jã≤Î`«fiO`À H˘#™êˆQ"å~°∞ H˘O^Œ~°∞O\Ï~°∞. JxflKÀ\Ï¡ XHõ H˘`«Î r=# q^è•#O ã≤÷~°Ñ¨_çáÈ`«∞Ok. WÑ¨Ê\˜ˆH ~°∂á⁄O^Œ∞`«∞#fl ãïH˘`«Î`«~°O, „áêÉèí"åxfl HÀÖ’Ê`«∞#fl áê`« Jã≤Î`åfiaè=∂<åÅ #∞O_ç q=ÚHõÎ"≥∞ÿ, =ÚO^Œ∞ K«∂Ñ¨Ù`À =º=Ç¨Ïiã¨∞Î#flk. U Ñ¨~°∞+¨µ_»∞ ÖË^• ¢ã‘Î n~°…HÍÅO áê@∞ UHÍO`«"åãÖÖ’ rqOK«ÖË~°∞, z=~°‰õΩ ãÖã¨¯ $u ‰õÄ_®. ˆHO„^À#∞‡Y"≥∞ÿ# =∞iÜ«Ú ˆHO„^Œ q=ÚY"≥∞ÿ# â◊‰õΩÎÅ∞ H˘O`«HÍÅO áê@∞ „H˜Ü«∂jÅOQÍ LO_»=K«∞Û. ÖˇHõ¯‰õΩ q∞H˜¯e JQÆ}˜`« `«~åÅ∞ Jã≤Î`«fiOÖ’H˜ ~å=_®xH˜ „áê~°÷#Å "≥#∞Hõ „áê~°÷#Å∞ KÕã≤ LO\Ï~Ú. „Ñü áœ~°∞_»∞ |Ü«∞\˜ â◊‰õΩÎÅ „Ñ¨ÉèÏ"åxH˜ Ö’#∞ HÍ‰õΩO_® `«# ã¨fiO`« #=∞‡HÍÅ#∞ YzÛ`«OQÍ Éèí„^ŒÑ¨~°∞K«∞H˘#_®xH˜ „Ñ¨Ü«∞uflOz LO\Ï_»∞. J~Ú`Õ D q+¨Ü«∞OÖ’ Z^Œ∞Ô~·# Ju ã¨∞xfl`«"≥∞ÿ#, QÍÜ«∞Ñ¨_ç#, ZO`À ã¨∂Hõ∆ ‡"≥∞ÿ# JÜ«∂z`«"≥∞ÿ# „Ñü„H˜Ü«∞Å∞ =∞#‰õΩ `≥Å∞ã¨∞. ZO`À ã¨fi`«O„`«`«, XHÀ¯™êi =∞Ô~O`À Ñ¨~ånè#`«, [#∞º=ÙÅ∞, _çZ<£U =∞iÜ«Ú PÔ~ZãπUÅ∞ WÑ¨Ê\˜ˆH ^Œ$_è»"≥∞ÿ# |O^è•Å∞. QÆ`«OÖ’ Uq∞ [iyO^À „Ñü #~åxH© *Ï˝Ñ¨HõO LOk. W`«~°∞Å∞ U =∂Ö’zã¨∞Î<åfl~À, UO K≥|∞`«∞<åfl~À, UO KÕã¨∞Î<åfl~À „QÆÇ≤ÏOK«QÆÅ â◊H˜Î â◊s~åxH©, "≥∞^Œ_»∞‰õÄ =∞iÜ«Ú P^è•ºu‡Hõ =ºH˜Î`åfix‰õΩ#flk. J=∂Ü«∞Hõ`«fiO, J*Ï˝#O =¸ÅOQÍ *Ï`«∞Å∞ ÉèíÜ«∞Ñ¨_»`å~Ú. ÉèíÜ«∞O ^Õfiëêxfl ã¨$+≤ìã¨∞ÎOk. ^Õfi+Ö P`«‡qâßfi™êxfl ^≥|ƒfã¨∞ÎOk. ^•O`À „Hõ=∞OQÍ =∞$`«∞º=Ù‰õΩ ^•i fã¨∞ÎOk. ã¨∞^Œ∂~° QÆ`«OÖ’ Z<Àfl „áêp# ãÖã¨¯ $`«∞Å∞ D „Hõ=∞OÖ’<Õ JO`«"≥∞ÿ LO\Ï~Ú. =∞#∞QÆ_» H˘#™êyOKåÅO>Ë XHõ~°∞ "Õ~˘Hõix, "å~°∞ #~°Hõ„áêÜ«∞"≥∞ÿ<å ã¨ˆ~, ã‘fiHõiOKåe. „Ñ¨â◊flÅ∞:

(a) `å=Ú J_»∞QÆ∞ÃÑ\˜ì# „áêO`«OÖ’ =Åã¨ =∂#=ÙÅ∞ JHõ¯_ç „Ñ¨[Å`À `˘Å∞`« ZÖÏ =º=Ç¨ÏiOKå~°∞? (b) Pk=∞ HÍÅOÖ’ „Ñ¨[Å∞ =Åã¨ "≥à◊§_®xH˜ HÍ~°}ÏÖËq∞\˜? JÑ¨C_»∞ =Åã¨Å‰õΩ, WÑ¨C_»∞ H˘#™êQÆ∞`«∞#ﬂ ã¨=∞HÍb# =Åã¨Å‰õΩ `Õ_® Uq∞\˜? 299 civilz byte

(c) ãÖã¨¯ $`«∞Å∞ XHõ^•x`À XHõ\˜ ZÖÏ Hõeã≤ áÈÜ«∂~Ú? (d) J<ÕHõ „áêp# ãÖã¨¯ $`«∞Å∞ ZÖÏ JO`«iOKå~Ú? (e) U ãÖã¨¯ $u J~Ú<å XO@iQÍ H˘#™êQÆ_»O ™ê^èŒºO HÍ^Œx "åºã¨Hõ~°Î ZO^Œ∞HõO@∞<åfl~°∞? 3. „HÕk YO_çHõ#∞ K«kq, J~°÷O KÕã¨∞‰õΩx, L#fl^•x HõO>Ë =¸_À=O`«∞ Ñï=∂}ÏxH˜ `«yæOz, ãÖH˜∆Ñ¨Î "åº™êxfl ~åÜ«∞O_ç. ã¨∂K«#‰õΩ aè#flOQÍ Z‰õΩ¯= ~åã≤<å, =∞s `«‰õΩ¯= ~åã≤<å =∂~°∞¯Å∞ `«yæOK«|_»`å~Ú. ji¬Hõ J=ã¨~°O ÖË^Œ∞: 60=∂ XHõ L^ÀºQÍxH˜ ^Œ~°MÏã¨∞Î ÑÖÑ¨Ù`«∞#flÑ¨C_»∞ HÍh, =∞# Ô~ã¨∂º"£∞ (ãÖH˜∆Ñ¨Î r=# ÑïK«Ü«∞ Ñ¨„`«O) `«Ü«∂~°∞ KÕã¨∞Î#flÑ¨C_»∞ HÍh =∞#O ™ê^è•~°}OQÍ =∞#O J#∞Éèí=O, <ÕÑ¨^äŒºO, =ºH˜Î`åfixH˜ ãÖ|OkèOz# =∞Oz q+¨Ü«∂Å#∞ =∂„`«"Õ∞ „Ñ¨=ÚYOQÍ ¿Ñ~˘¯O\ÏO. KåÖÏ=∞Ok `«=∞ L^ÀºQÆ „Ñ¨™ê÷#OÖ’x ZQÆ∞_»∞kQÆ∞_»∞Å#∞, Z^Œ∞Ô~·# ã¨=∞ã¨ºÅ#∞ ^•zÃÑ\˜ì, ™êkèOz# Ñ¶¨∞# q[Ü«∂Å#∞ =∂„`«"Õ∞ „Ñ¨Hõ\˜™êÎ~°∞. WÖÏO\˜ Ô~ã¨∂º"£∞Å#∞ ÃÑ· JkèHÍi K«kq#Ñ¨C_»∞, „Ñü XHõ¯~°∂ `«=∞#∞ `å=Ú J##º ™ê=∂#º"≥∞ÿ# Ju Q˘Ñ¨Ê =º‰õΩÎÅ∞QÍ =i‚OK«∞‰õΩ<åfl~°x ÉèÏq™êÎ~°∞. L^ÀºQÍxfl á⁄O^Œ_®xH˜ =∞#"Õ∞ ã¨~°fiq^è•Å∞QÍ J~°∞›Å=∞x „Ñ¨Hõ\ÕK«∞‰õΩ<Õ „Ñ¨Ü«∞`«flO KÕ™êÎO. D ãÖ^Œ~°ƒùOÖ’<Õ „H©_® [QÆ`«∞Î‰õΩ ãÖ|OkèOz# XHõ "åã¨Î= QÍ^äŒ#∞ „Ñ¨™êÎqOK«∞‰õΩO^•O. XHõ qâ◊fiq^•ºÅÜ«∞ Ñ¶¨Ù\òÉÏÖò [@∞ì `«# <≥·Ñ¨Ù}Ïºxfl ÃÑOK«∞HÀ=_®xH˜ Ñ¨~°∞QÆ∞ JÉèÏºãÖ KÕã¨∞Î#flk. XHõ „H©_®HÍ~°∞_çH˜ Öˇ·<£=∂<£ ÉÏ^èŒº`« ÅaèOzOk. xÜ«∞O„`«}ˆ~Y ~°Hõ∆} ÉÏ^èŒº`« Jk. J`«<˘Hõ á⁄_»∞QÆ∞ „H©_®HÍ~°∞_»∞. `«# ÉÏ^èŒº`«‰õΩ `«y# =ºH˜Î Jh, [@∞ìÖ’ Ju "ÕQÆOQÍ Ñ¨~°∞ÔQ`ÕÎ Öˇ·<£=∂<£ Jh J`«xH˜ QÆ∞iÎOÑ¨Ù LOk. XHõ~ÀA J`«#∞ `«# tHõ∆‰õΩ_ç (HÀKü) =^ŒÌ‰õΩ "≥o§, Ñ¨~°∞QÆ∞ „H©_® |$O^ŒO`À áê@∞ `å#∞ áÈ\© Ñ¨_»=KåÛ? Jx J_çQÍ_»∞. ^•O`À tHõ∆‰õΩ_»∞ J`«_çH˜ tHõ∆ qkèOKå_»∞. Öˇ·<£=∂<£Ö’ Ñ¨@∞ì^ŒÅ ÃÑiyOk. „Ñü~ÀE Ñ¨~°∞QÆ∞ |$O^ŒOÖ’ áÈ\© á⁄_»∞`«∂ Ñ¨~°∞ÔQ_»∞`«∞<åfl_»∞. HÍh, "≥#∞Hõ|_»∞`«∞<åfl_»∞. ~À*ˇ#Hõ ~ÀE J`«#∞ „Hõ=∞O `«Ñ¨Ê‰õΩO_® Ñ¨~°∞QÆ∞ „H©_®HÍ~°∞Å |$O^ŒO`À áÈ\© Ñ¨_»∞`«∂<Õ L<åfl_»∞. Ñ¨~°∞ÔQ_»∞`«∂, "≥#∞Hõ|_»∞`«∂<Õ L<åfl_»∞. Wk TÇ≤ÏOK«x q+¨Ü«∞"Õ∞. ZO^Œ∞HõO>Ë Öˇ·<£"≥∞#∞¡ Ñ¨~°∞QÆ∞ |$O^Œ=∞O`« "ÕQÆOQÍ Ñ¨~°∞ÔQ`«ÎÖË~°∞. Wk qO`«QÍ LO^Œx tHõ∆‰õΩ_»∞ (HÀKü) PÖ’zã¨∞Î<åfl_»∞. `«##∞ `å#∞ „Ñ¨tflOK«∞‰õΩ<åfl_»∞ – ''ZO^Œ∞H© Ñ¶¨Ù\òÉÏÖò „H©_®HÍ~°∞_»∞ xÑ¨Ù}`« QÆÅ Ñ¨~°∞QÆ∞ „H©_® |$O^ŒO`À áÈ\© Ñ¨_®Å#∞‰õΩO@∞<åfl_»∞? „Ñü™ês "≥#∞Hõ|_»∞`«∂<Õ L<åfl_»∞ Hõ^•! `À\˜ Öˇ·<£"≥∞<£Å`À áÈ\© Ñ¨_ç#Ñ¨C_»∞ J`«<Õ =ÚO^Œ∞O@∞<åfl_»∞—— tHõ∆‰õΩ_»∞ (HÀKü) P Ü«Ú=‰õΩ_çfl QÆ=∞xã¨∂Î<Õ L<åfl_»∞. Öˇ·<£=∂<£ ÉÏ^èŒº`«Ö’¡ L#fl „H©_®HÍ~°∞_»∞ Ñ¨~°∞QÆ∞ „H©_®HÍ~°∞Å`À áÈ\© Ñ¨_»∞`«∂<Õ L<åfl_»∞, "≥#∞Hõ|_»∞`«∂<Õ L<åfl_»∞. KåÖÏ ~ÀAÅ∞ QÆ=∞xOz# tHõ∆‰õΩ_»∞ J`«_ç`À J_çQÍ_»∞ – ''`À\˜ Öˇ·<£=∂<£Å`À áÈ\© Ñ¨_ç ÔQÅ∞=QÆÅ=Ù Hõ^•! Ñ¨~°∞QÆ∞ |$O^ŒO`À áÈ\© Ñ¨_»∞`«∂ F_çáÈ=_»O ZO^Œ∞‰õΩ?——. Ñ¶¨Ù\òÉÏÖò „H©_®HÍ~°∞_ç ã¨=∂^è•#O qx tHõ∆‰õΩ_»∞ Pâ◊Û~°ºáÈÜ«∂_»∞. P Ü«Ú=‰õΩ_»∞ J<åfl_»∞ – ''<Õ#∞ Öˇ·<£=∂<£Å#∞ JkèQÆq∞OKÕ ÅHõ∆ ºO ÃÑ@∞ìHÀÖË^Œ∞. Wk=~°ˆH Jk ™êkèOz L<åfl#∞. WOHÍ "ÕQÆOQÍ ZÖÏ Ñ¨~°∞ÔQ`åÎÖ’ WHõ¯_»

300 Main Examination : The Big Battle „Ñ¨Ü«∞`«flO KÕã¨∞Î<åfl#∞. g∞~°∞ QÆ=∞xOKÕ LO\Ï~°∞ ™ê~ü! „Ñü~ÀE Ñ¨~°∞QÆ∞ |$O^ŒO`À áÈ\©Ö’ <å "≥·Ñ¶¨ÖÏºxfl „Hõ=∞OQÍ `«yæOK«∞‰õΩO@∂ =ã¨∞Î<åfl#∞.—— WO^Œ∞Ö’ =∞# KÕ`«<å`«‡Hõ „Ñ¨QÆu ~°Ç¨Ïã¨ºO Wq∞_ç LOk. =∞#O =∞# ^≥·#Ok# HÍ~°ºHõÖÏáêÖ’¡ ZÅ¡Ñ¨C_»∂ J`«∞º`«Î=∞OQÍ<Õ Hõ#|_»∞`«∞O\ÏO, J^Õ P^è•ºu‡Hõ HÍ~°ºOÖ’, ^Õ=Ù_ç Z^Œ∞@ =∞#efl =∞#O ^•K«∞HÀÖËO. =∞# Ñ¨Ù~ÀQÆu JO`å ^Õ=Ùx =ÚO^Œ∞ `≥iz# Ñ¨Ùã¨ÎHõO. =∞# z`«Îâ◊√kú`À ‰õÄ_ç# „Ñ¨Ü«∞`åflÅ∞ =Å# =∂„`«"Õ∞ P^è•ºu‡Hõ „Ñ¨QÆuH˜ ^Õ=Ù_ç J#∞„QÆÇ¨xfl á⁄O^Œ∞`åO. ã¨$+≤ìHõ~°Î =ÚO^Œ∞ =∞# P^è•ºu‡Hõ [Ü«∂Ñ¨*ÏÅ#∞ ^•K«∞HÀÖËO Hõ^•! Ñ¶¨Ù\òÉÏÖò P@QÍ_»∞, QÆ`«"≥·Éèí= ã¨fiáêflÖ’¡ |`«∞‰õΩ`«∂ Ñ¨Ù~ÀQÆux ™êkèOK«ÖË=∞#fl "åã¨Î"åxfl „QÆÇ≤ÏOKå_»∞. `«##∞ `å#∞ ã¨"åÅ∞ KÕã¨∞‰õΩO@∂ Jaè=$kúx ™êkè™êÎ#x J`«xH˜ `≥Å∞ã¨∞. XHõ ~°#fl~üQÍ `«# |ÅÇ‘Ï#`« Uq∞\’ K«∂ã¨∞‰õΩ<åfl_»∞. Ñ¨Ù~ÀQÆq∞OK«_®xH˜ „â◊q∞OKå_»∞. `å#∞ ÅH˜∆ ºOK«∞‰õΩ#fl ~°OQÆOÖ’ `«#Hõ<åfl „ÑüÉèÏ=O`«∞Å`À áÈ\© Ñ¨_»_»O ^•fi~å `«# Ö’áêÅ∞ `«#‰õΩ Hõ#|_®¤~Ú. "å\˜x JkèQÆq∞OK«_®xH˜ „â◊q∞OKå_»∞. `å#∞ =$kúK≥Ok# `«~åfi`« á⁄QÆ_»ÎÅ#∂, „Ñ¨â◊Oã¨Å#∂ PtOK«ÖË^Œ∞. Ñ¶¨Ù\òÉÏÖò P@QÍ_»∞, W`«~° Ñ¨~°∞QÆ∞ „H©_®HÍ~°∞Å∞ UO KÕã¨∞Î<åfl~À K«∂âß_»∞, `«# ™ê=∞~å÷ºxfl =$kú KÕã¨∞HÀ=_®xH˜ Ñï„â◊q∞OKå_»∞. „Ñü Ñ¨~å[Ü«∞O, `«^Œ∞Ñï „Ñ¨Ü«∞`åflxH˜ UO KÕÜ«∂Ö’ J`«xH˜ ã¨∂zOzOk. ^•O`À „Ñü „Ñ¨Ü«∞`«flOÖ’#∂ H˘O`« Ñ¨Ù~ÀQÆux ™êkèOKå_»∞. =∞# Ñ¨~å[Ü«∂Å#∞ =∞#O ã¨g∞H˜∆OK«∞‰õΩO>Ë, „Ñü~ÀE "å\˜x JkèQÆq∞OK«_®xH˜ =∞#O UO KÕÜ«∂Ö’ `≥Å∞ã¨∞‰õΩO\ÏO. `«^•fi~å, =∞# „Ñ¨Ü«∞`åflÅ`À x#fl\˜ Hõ<åfl <Õ_»∞ =∞# "≥·Ñ¶¨ÖÏºÅ#∞ `«yæOK«∞‰õΩO\ÏO. H˘O`« HÍÖÏxH˜ JOu=∞OQÍ Ñ¨~å[Ü«∂xfl [~ÚOz, xˆ~Ìt`« ÅH∆Íºxfl ™êkèOK«QÆÅ∞QÆ∞`åO. =∞#O ^Õ=Ùx =ÚO^Œ∞ =∞# "≥·Ñ¶¨ÖÏºÅ#∞ ^•K«ÖËO, J`«_»hfl K«∂ã¨∂Î<Õ LO\Ï_»∞. "å\˜x JkèQÆq∞OK«_®xH˜ z`«Îâ◊√kú`À ‰õÄ_ç# =∞# „Ñ¨Ü«∞`åflÅ#∞ ^Õ=Ù_»∞ Pt™êÎ_»∞. x*Ï~ÚfQÍ =∞#O „Ñ¨Ü«∞uflOz#Ñ¨Ê\˜H© ™êkèOK«ÖË#Ñ¨C_»∞ ^Õ=Ù_»∞ =∞# z`«Îâ◊√kúx QÆ∞iÎ™êÎ_»∞. JÑ¨C_»∞ =∞#Ñ¨@¡ ^ŒÜ«∞`À, ™ê#∞Éèí∂u`À ^Õ=Ù_»∞ „Ñüã¨ÊOk™êÎ_»∞. J~Ú#Ñ¨Ê\˜H© =∞#q∞OHÍ J=ã¨÷Ñ¨_»∞`«∂ LO>Ë, =∞#‰õΩ ã¨Ç¨Ü«∞O Åaèã¨∞ÎOk. Ñ¨~å[Ü«∂Å#∞ JkèQÆq∞OKÕ Ãã÷Â~åºxfl ^Õ=Ù_»∞ =∞#H˜™êÎ_»∞. ^•x`À "≥·Ñ¶¨ÖÏºÅ#∞ `«iq∞"Õã≤, =∞#O Ñ¨Ù~ÀQÆux ™êkè™êÎO. 4. D „HÕk POQÆ¡ YO_çHõ#∞ `≥Å∞QÆ∞Ö’H˜ J#∞=kOK«O_ç: 20=∂

Most people involved in the film production industry know that there is a constant evolution. The change is in the way movies are made, discovered, marketed, distrib- uted, shown, and seen. Following independence in 1947, the 1950s and 60s are regarded as the 'Golden Age' of Indian cinema in terms of ilms, stars, music and lyrics. The genre was loosely defined, the most popular being 'socials', films which addressed the social problems of citizens in the newly developing state. In the mid-1960s, cam- era technology revolutionized the documentary method by enabling the synchronized recording of image and sound. Today, CINEMA 4D users are free to create scenes with- 301 civilz byte out worrying about the size of objects or how many objects are in scene, shaded settings, texture size, multipass-rendering or eye-catching particle systems. Until the 1960s, filmmaking companies, many of whom owned studios, dominated the film industry. Artistes and technicians were either their employees or were contracted on a long-term basis. Since the 1960s, however, most performers went the freelance way, resulting in the star system and huge escalations in film production costs. Financing deals in the industry also started becoming murkier and murkier, since then. According to estimates, the Indian film industry has an annual turnover of Rs.60 billion. It employs more than 6 million people, most of whom are contract workers as opposed to regular employees. In the late 1990s, it was recognized as an industry. More money impacted the perception, visual representation, and definitions of reality. Like any other media of mass communication, the themes are relevant to their times. Thus, filmmaking became more expensive and riskier. As opposed to the time of the Gemini Studios, when only 5 percent of a movie was shot outdoor, filmmakers often select overseas locations in order to create greater realism, manage costs more efficiently or source people and props. Filmmakers spend considerable time scouting for the perfect location.

5. D „HÕk `≥Å∞QÆ∞ „Ñ¨™êÎqHõ#∞ POQÆ¡OÖ’H˜ J#∞=kOK«O_ç? 20=∂ „Ñ¨[Å LÖÏ¡ã¨ J#∞Éèí∂`«∞Å#∞ `«\˜ìÖËÑ¨_®xH˜ Ç¨ã¨ºO XHõ J~°›`« ÖË^• =∂#= ã¨fiÉèÏ=O. HÍÅˆH∆Ñ¨ ~°∂áêxH˜ Ñ¨~åºÜ«∞Ñ¨^ŒO. TÇ¨ÏÅ#∞ „¿Ñˆ~Ñ≤OK«_®xH˜, „Ñ¨[Å∞ #=fi_®xH˜ ÖË^• P#O^•#∞Éèí∂ux á⁄O^Œ_®xH˜ Ç¨ã¨ºO XHõ =∂#= Jaè=ºH˜Î. q=∞~°≈ XHõ f~°∞Ê „Ñ¨„H˜Ü«∞, ÖË^• „Ñ¨Hõ\˜`« "åºMÏº#O. x~å‡}Ï`«‡Hõ q=∞~°≈ XHõ ÉèÏ"åaè=ºH˜Î ~°∂ÑÖ. XHõ =ºH˜Î =∞~À =ºH˜Î „Ñ¨=~°Î##∞, ™ê=∂lHõ `«Ñ≤Ê^•xfl JxÜ«∞O`«$`«fi =∂~°æOÖ’ ãïk^ŒÌ_®xH˜ LÑ¨HõiOK«∞ K«`«∞~°"≥∞ÿ# ™ê^èŒ#O. PkèÑ¨`«ºO ÖË^• J==∂<åÅ‰õΩ gÅ∞ÖËxk, HÍ|\˜ì Wk 'x~å‡}Ï`«‡Hõ"≥∞ÿ#k—, Ö’áêÅ#∞ „Ñ¨âßO`«OQÍ, B^•~°ºO`À ãïk^ÕÌ „Ñ¨„H˜Ü«∞. q=∞~°≈‰õΩ_»∞ LÑ¨Ü≥∂yOKÕ ™ê^èŒ#O JkèˆH∆ÑÖ. Wk ™ê^è•~°}OQÍ Kè«Ö’H˜Î ÖË^• Ç¨™ÈºH˜Î. JkèˆH∆áêxH˜ „áê^äŒq∞Hõ „Ñ¨Ü≥∂[#O Ç¨ã¨ºO HÍ^Œ∞† XHõ ãÖÑ¶¨∞@#, XHõ =ºH˜Î, ÖË^• XHõ ã¨=¸Ç¨xfl `≥e"≥·# Ñ¨^ŒúuÖ’ q=∞i≈OK«_»"Õ∞ JkèˆH∆ÑÖ. JkèˆH∆ÑÖ J#flk Ju ãÖH˜∆Ñ¨Î ™êÇ≤Ï`«º Ñ¨^•Ö’¡ XHõ\˜. nxH˜ ™ê^è•~°}OQÍ XHõ xiÌ+¨ì ÅHõ∆ ºO LO@∞Ok, Jk XHõ =ºH˜Î HÍ=K«∞Û, =º‰õΩÎÅ ã¨=¸Ç¨ÏO HÍ=K«∞Û, XHõ ÉèÏ=# ÖË^• XHõ „Ñ¨=$uÎ, XHõ ãÖã¨÷ ÖË^• XHõ ™ê=∂lHõ PKå~°O. g\˜Ö’ U^≥·<å, P xˆ~Ìt`« ÅH∆Íºxfl ÑïÇ¨ãÖ KÕÜ«∞_»O. ™ê^è•~°}OQÍ P„QÆÇ¨ÏO =∞iÜ«Ú Ç¨™êºÅ ã¨q∞‡„t`« ~°∂ÑÖ JkèˆH∆ÑÖ J~Ú#O^Œ∞=Å# Jk PO^Àà◊# Ñ¨~°∞ã¨∞ÎOk. Wk „Ñ¨^è•#OQÍ ÑïÇ¨™ê`«‡HõO. ÑïÇ¨™êxH˜ Ñ¨~åHÍ+¨ª ~°∂Ñ¨"≥∞ÿ# JÑ¨Ç¨ã¨ºO. Wk `«~°∞K«∞QÍ ^Œ∞~°=QÍÇ¨Ï#‰õΩ Ö’#=Ù`«∂ LO@∞Ok. W^˘Hõ HõàÏ`«‡Hõ ~°∂ÑÖ. WO^Œ∞Ö’ =∂#= ÖË^• =ºH˜ÎQÆ`« ^ÀëêÅ∞, 302 Main Examination : The Big Battle Jq"ÕHõO, ^Œ∂+¨}Å∞, Ö’áêÅ∞, PˆH∆Ñ≤OÑ¨|_»`å~Ú. H˘xfl™ê~°∞¡ ÉÏQÆ∞ÑïKÕ ÅHõ∆ ºO`À ÑïÇ¨ã¨=Ú, ZQÆ`åo, #QÆ∞ÉÏ@∞ ~°∂áêÅÖ’ =∞O^ŒeOÑ¨Ù LO@∞Ok. ™êÇ≤Ï`«ºO =∞iÜ«Ú <å@HõO nx „Ñ¨^è•# "åÇ≤ÏHõÅ∞, HÍh ã≤x=∂Å∞, ^Œ$â◊º=∂^èŒº=∂Å∞, ~å[H©Ü«∞ HÍ~°∂ì#¡Ö’#∂ nxx QÆ=∞xOK«QÆÅO. Ç¨ÏŸˆ~ãπ Jaè„áêÜ«∞O „Ñ¨HÍ~°O – JkèˆH∆Ñ¨‰õΩ_»∞ „Ñ¨ÑÖK«OÖ’x XHõ <åQÆiHõ =∂#=Ù_»∞. „ÑüKÀ@ J`«_»∞ =¸_è»`åfixfl, Jq"ÕHÍxfl K«∂™êÎ_»∞. J~Ú`Õ "å\˜x P„QÆÇ¨ÏO`À HÍ‰õΩO_® ã¨∞xfl`«"≥∞ÿ# Ç¨ã¨ºO`À ZuÎ K«∂Ñ¨Ù`å_»∞.

6. (a) D „H˜Ok "å\˜x g∞ ™⁄O`« "åHÍºÖ’¡ „Ñ¨Ü≥∂yOK«O_ç: 2 ˛ 5 ´ 10=∂ (i) `«ÅÖ’ <åÅ∞Hõ (ii) Hõ$`åº^Œº=ã¨÷ (iii) TK«HÀ`« (iv) JO^≥"Õã≤# KÕ~Ú (v) ÅHõ∆ ‡}ˆ~Y

(b) D „H˜Ok "å\˜H˜ ã¨=∂<å~°÷Hõ Ñ¨^•Å#∞ „"åÜ«∞O_ç: 2 ˛ 5 ´ 10=∂ (i) „^Œ=ºO (ii) ÔH·OHõ~°ºO (iii) â◊â◊Hõ=Ú (iv) Ñ¨Ó[ºO (v) WO^èŒ#O

(c) D „H˜Ok "å\˜H˜ =ºuˆ~HÍ~°÷Hõ Ñ¨^•Å#∞ „"åÜ«∞O_ç: 2 ˛ 5 ´ 10=∂ (i) ã¨<åºã≤ (ii) `≥Å∞Ñ¨Ù (iii) ^ŒÜ«∞ (iv) ^è≥·~°º=Ú (v) Ö’aè

(d) D „H˜Ok "å\˜H˜ `«á⁄ÊÑ¨CÅ#∞ „"åÜ«∞O_ç: 2 ˛ 5 ´ 10=∂ (i) JO`«~åÌ#=Ú (ii) q^èŒº (iii) K«zÛùáÈ=Ù (iv) L^èŒº=∞O (v) "Õâ◊=Ú.

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303 civilz byte COMPULSARY TELUGU 2015

Time Allowed : Three Hours Maximum Marks : 300

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2. D „HÕk „Ñ¨™êÎqHõ#∞ „â◊^ŒúQÍ K«kq, kQÆ∞= WzÛ# „Ñ¨â◊flÅ‰õΩ ã¨Ô~·# ã¨=∂^è•<åÅ#∞ Ü«ÚHõÎsux ‰õΩ¡Ñ¨ÎOQÍ „"åÜ«∞O_ç: 12 ˛ 5 ´ 60=∂ ÉèÏ~°`«^Õâ◊OÖ’x HõàÏâßÅÅ #∞Oz LfÎ~°∞‚Öˇ· =ã¨∞Î#fl "åiÖ’ UHõOQÍ 80âß`«O =∞Ok L^ÀºQÍÅ‰õΩ J#~°∞›Åx x"ÕkHõÅ∞ LQÆæ_çã¨∞Î<åfl~Ú. Ü«Ú=`«~°O`À x`«ºÑïK«Ü«∞O =Å¡ <Õh JOÔH ãïHÍ^Œx qÉèËk™êÎ#∞. Ü«Ú=`«`À Ñ¨~°ã¨Ê~° ã¨ÖÏ¡ÑÖ KÕã¨∞Î#fl <Õ#∞ "åi ÉÏ^èŒº`å~åÇ≤Ï`åºxfl, `«Ñ≤ÊOK«∞‰õΩ u~°QÆ\Ïxfl Ñ¨Ù~°ã¨¯iOK«∞H˘x giÖ’ 90âß`«O ^•HÍ Ü«Ú=fÜ«Ú=‰õΩÅ∞ Z@∞=O\˜ LáêkèHõÅÊ#‰õÄ `«y#"å~°∞ HÍ~°x `«Ñ¨ÊHõ K≥Ñ¨ÊQÆÅ#∞. ZO^Œ∞HÀQÍx Jq^èÕÜ«∞`«#∞, ^Œ∞¢+¨Ê=~°Î##∞ P`«‡qâßfiã¨=∞x á⁄~°|_»∞`«∞<åfl~°∞. Ñ¨Ù+¨¯Å"≥∞ÿ# ^èŒ<å~°˚# `«Ñ¨Ê "Õˆ~g∞ KÕÜ«∂Å#∞HÀ=@O ÖË^Œ∞. g~°O^Œ~°∂ Ñ¨xH˜~åx "å~°x HÍ^Œ∞† KåÖÏ=∞Ok =∞Oz WOw¡+¨µ =∂\Ï¡_»∞`«∂ JO`«∞ÖËx P`«‡qâßfi™êxfl Hõey#"åˆ~. ÃãÖòá¶È#¡Ö’ iOQ∑\’#∞¡, ã≤x=∂Å∞, Ç¨™Èº‰õΩÎÅ∞ `≥eã≤# "åˆ~. H˘OK≥O JO`«‰õΩq∞Oz =ÚO^Œ∞‰õΩ ™êQÍ"≥∂, <åˆHã≤ HÍOuqÇ‘Ï#OQÍ K«∂™êÎ~°∞. „Ñ¨™ê~° =∂^èŒº=∂Å „Ñ¨Kå~°Ñ¨Ù J@ìÇ¨ãÖ, r`åÅ ã¨ˆ~fiHõ∆}Å ã¨=∂Kå~°O Ñ¨Ù}º=∂ Jx Z_®ÃÑ_®¤ _»|∞ƒ ãÖáêkOKåÅ#fl ÅHõ∆ º"Õ∞ `«Ñ¨Ê JO`« ÃÑ^ŒÌ "≥Ú`«ÎOÖ’ ^èŒ<å~°˚#

304 Main Examination : The Big Battle KÕÜ«∞\ÏxH˜ P=â◊ºHõ"≥∞ÿ# <≥·Ñ¨Ù}ºO LO_»^Œ∞. "åi _ç„wÅ q^•º~°›`« J#∞=∂<åã¨Ê^Œ"Õ∞. Ñ¨@ìÉèí„^Œ`« <å_»∞ K«kq# áê~îåºOâßÅÖ’ #∞Oz H˘xfl „Ñ¨â◊flÅ#∞ J_çy K«∂_»O_ç: "≥O@<Õ `«_»|_»_»O "≥Ú^ŒÅ=Ù`«∞Ok. PÃÑ·x J^Œ#OQÍ K«kq#^ŒO>Ë<À, Ñ¨xH˜=KÕÛ^Õn K«kq#>Ë¡ LO_»~°∞. WqQÍHõ "Õˆ~ „Ñ¨â◊flÅ∂ `«Öˇ`«∞Î`å~Ú. hu=~°Î##∞ QÆ∞iOKÀ, ã¨„`«Ê=~°Î##∞ QÆ∞iOKÀ, g∞ˆ~ q+¨Ü«∞"≥∞ÿ „áêg}Ïºxfl QÆ_çOKå~°<À, fiHõ ã¨=∞Ü«∂ÅÖ’ HÍÅO ZÖÏ QÆ_»∞Ñ¨Ù`«∞<åfl~°<À „Ñ¨â◊flÅ_»∞QÆ∞`å#∞. JO`«^•HÍ P`«‡qâßfiãÖ L\˜ìÑ¨_»∞`«∞#fl D #= Ü«Ú=f Ü«Ú=‰õΩÅ∞ ##∞fl K«∞@∞ì=Ú\˜ì, k‰õΩ¯`ÀK«x K«∂Ñ¨ÙÅ`À ''D „Ñ¨â◊flÅ‰õΩ <Õ<Õ=∞x ã¨=∂^è•#O K≥áêÊe?—— J#fl@∞¡ K«∂™êÎ~°∞. J~Ú`Õ Wk "åi rq`«O† `«=∞QÆ∞iOz "åˆ~ <å‰õΩ `≥eÜ«∞*ËÜ«∂e – Jx q=iOK«@O =Å¡ „Ñ¨Ü≥∂[#"Õ∞g∞ LO_»^Œ∞. "åà◊§‰õΩ ã¨=∞Ü«∂#∞‰õÄÅOQÍ U^À XHõ\˜ K≥¿ÑÊO^Œ∞‰õΩ ~°∂á⁄Ok# ã¨=∂^è•<åÅ∞ =∂„`«"Õ∞ HÍ"åe. 'XHõ\˜H˜ Ñ¨k™ê~°∞¡ JÉèÏºãÖ KÕã≤ Jk <å ™⁄O`« ã¨=∂^è•#"Õ∞#x #q∞‡OK«QÆÅ#∞— J#∞‰õΩO\Ï~°∞. ~å„uH˜ ~å„u D Ü«Ú=[#∞ÅO^Œ~°∂ „â◊^ŒúQÆÅ áê~î°‰õΩÅ∞, y\Ï~ü "å^Œ#∞Å∞, ÉÏ\òû"≥∞<£QÍ `å~å™ê÷~ÚH˜ KÕ~°∞‰õΩ#fl"å~°∞, HÍ^ŒO>Ë #\©#@∞Å∂ ‰õÄ_® J~ÚáÈ`å~°∞. g~°∞ K≥¿ÑÊ =pÛ~åx Hõ@∞ìHõ^äŒÅ#∞ #"Õ∞‡"å~°∞O\Ï~å Jx <Õ#∞ qã¨∞ÎáÈ`«∞O\Ï#∞. ÉèÏ~°`«^Õâ◊O =ÚO^ŒO[ "Õã¨∞Î#fl `«~°∞}OÖ’ x¢+≤¯Ü«∞OQÍ ã¨∞Yr=#O QÆ_»Ñ¨@O `«Ñ¨Ê =∞ˆ~ PÖ’K«<å ÖËx XHõ `«~åxfl =∞#=Ú ~°∂á⁄OkOKå=Ú. U ^•~°≈xHõ`å ÖËHõ, JOH˜`«ÉèÏ==¸ ^èŒ~°‡=~°Î<å ÖËHõ xÅHõ_» ÖËx u~°∞QÆ∞_»∞~åà◊§ =O\˜"åix ã¨$+≤ìã¨∞Î#fl@∞¡ JxÑ≤™ÈÎOk. `åºQÆjÅ`«`À ã¨„`«ÊÜ≥∂[‰õΩÖˇ·# HÍ~°ºjÅ∞~°∞QÍ LO\Ï~å? Un g∞ g∞kH˜ ~å‰õΩO_® K«∂ã¨∞H˘O\Ï~å? JO>Ë, `«Ñ≤ÊOK«∞‰õΩ u~°QÆ@"Õ∞ ^èŒ#º`« Jx giÖ’ KåÖÏ=∞Ok |^Œ∞e™êÎ~°∞. Ü«∞ø=#OÖ’ L#flÑ¨C_»∞ g∞ PÖ’K«#Ö’¡ Ñ¨ã¨ ÖË^ŒxÑ≤Oz<å, XHõ x|^Œú`«`À xÅ|_®Å#fl P^Œ~°≈O ZO`À H˘O`« g∞Ö’ LO_®e. D ~ÀAÖ’¡ Ü«Ú=[#∞Å∞ U ™ê=∂lHÍ^Œ~å≈xH© nHõ∆`À Hõ@∞ì|_ç LO_»~°∞. =Ú‰õΩ¯# |\˜ì# ã¨=∂^è•<åÅ#∞ UHõ~°∞=Ù ÃÑ_»∞`«∞O>Ë, qO@∞#fl <å‰õΩ gà◊§ ãïH˘`«Î =∞O„`«=∞ÖÏ¡ LÉÁƒHõ>Ë Jx J~°÷=∞=Ù`«∞O@∞Ok. JO`«‰õΩ q∞Oz Z=Ô~·<å U^≥·<å J~°÷=O`«QÍ =∂\Ï¡_ç`Õ HÍÅO K≥e¡# ã¨~°∞Hõx J#∞H˘O\Ï~°∞.

a. Ü«Ú=[#∞Å∞ L^ÀºQÍ#~°∞›Å∞QÍ ~°∂á⁄O^Œ\ÏxH˜ QÆÅ HÍ~°}ÏÖËq∞\˜? b. ~°K«~Ú`« #∞Oz D <å\˜ Ü«Ú=`«‰õΩ HÍ=Åã≤#^Õq∞\˜? c. ~°K«~Ú`« L^ÕÌâß#∞™ê~°O <Õ\˜ Ü«Ú=fÜ«Ú=‰õΩÅ UÔH·Hõ ÅHõ∆ ºO Uq∞\˜? d. D<å\˜ Ü«Ú=`«~°O [Ñ≤ã¨∞Î#fl =∞O„`«O U^ŒxÑ≤™ÈÎOk? d. P^Œ~°≈"å^ŒO Ñ¨@¡ „Ñ¨ã¨∞Î`« Ü«Ú=`«~°Ñ¨Ù ^Œ$+≤ìHÀ}O Uq∞\˜? 3. „HÕk „Ñ¨™êÎq‰õΩ =¸_»= =O`«∞ Ñï=∂}ÏxH˜ ‰õΩkOK«O_ç. ^•xH˜ ji¬Hõ J=ã¨~°O ÖË^Œ∞. D ãÖH˜∆Ñ¨Î ~°K«# g∞ ™⁄O`«=∂@Ö’¡<Õ LO_®e: 60=∂ ^Õâ◊~°Hõ∆} q+¨Ü«∞"≥∞ÿ ã¨fiÜ«∞O„ÑüÑüÎx ™êkèOz q^ÕâßÅÃÑ· P^è•~°Ñ¨_»\Ïxfl `«yæOK«@O ˆH=ÅO Pi÷Hõ, =ÓºÇ¨`«‡Hõ HÍ~°}ÏÅ=Å¡ JaèÅ+¨}©Ü«∞O =∂„`«"Õ∞ QÍHõ <Õ_˘Hõ =ÚMÏº=â◊ºHõ`« J~ÚOk. „Ñ¨Éèí∞`«fiO =∞# ™êÜ«Ú^èŒ ^ŒàÏÅ

305 civilz byte J=ã¨~åÅ HÀãÖ |Ç¨ïà’`åÊ^Œ# â◊H˜Î Hõey# PÜ«Ú^èŒx~å‡} Hõ~å‡QÍ~åÅ#∞, „Ñ¨Éèí∞`«fi~°OQÆ ãÖã¨÷Å#∞ <≥ÅH˘eÊOk. UkÜÕ∞"≥∞ÿ<å, qq^èŒ ~°Hõ∆} ÑïHõ~åÅ L`åÊ^ŒHõ â◊H˜Îx, ã¨=∞~°÷`«#∞ Jaè=$kúÑïKÕO^Œ∞‰õΩ ÉèÏ~°fÜ«∞ ¢ÃÑ·"Õ\ò~°OQÆ ãÖã¨÷Åáê„`«#∞ qã¨ÎiOÑ¨*ËÜ«∞=Åã≤ L#flk. '"Õ∞H± WO_çÜ«∂— (ÉèÏ~°`«^Õâ◊OÖ’ `«Ü«∂s) ¿Ñ~°∞`À qq^èŒ =ã¨∞Î=ÙÅ *ÏfÜ≥∂`«ÊuÎx „áÈ`«ûÇ≤ÏOK«\ÏxH˜ ZO`À =ÚYº"≥∞ÿ# HÍ~åºK«~°} „Ñ¨}ÏoHõ ~°∂á⁄OkOK«|_çOk. D ~°Hõ∆} ™ê^èŒ#™ê=∞„y `«Ü«∂s J=ã¨~°O ^Õâ◊OÖ’x `«H˜¯# ~°OQÍÅÖ’ HõO>Ë ZO`À qÅ∞"≥·# q^Õj=∂~°Hõ „^Œ"åºxfl á⁄^Œ∞Ñ¨ÙKÕ¿ãO^Œ∞ˆH QÍHõ *ÏfÜ«∞ Éèí„^Œ`« xq∞`«Î"≥∞ÿ ‰õÄ_® P=â◊ºHõ"≥∞ÿ L#flk. „Ñ¨Éèí∞`«fiO XHõ¯>Ë qxÜ≥∂QÆ^•~°∞ HÍ=@O=Å¡ D 'ÉèÏ~°`«^Õâ◊OÖ’ `«Ü«∂s— HÍ~°º„Hõ=∞O ~°Hõ∆}~°OQÍxH˜ P=â◊ºHõO HÍQÆÅ =#~°∞Å ¿ãHõ~°} q^è•#OÃÑ· P^è•~°Ñ¨_ç LO@∞Ok. ^Õâ◊OÖ’x ~°Hõ∆} Ñï„â◊=∞#∞ „áÈ`«ûÇ≤ÏOKÕ „Ñ¨Éèí∞`«fi q^è•#O HÍ~°}OQÍ ~°Hõ∆} ÑïHõ~åÅ H˘#∞QÀÅ∞ q^è•#OÖ’ '(^ÕjÜ«∞ =ã¨∞Î=ÙÅ) H˘#∞QÀÅ∞—, '(^ÕjÜ«∞ =ã¨∞Î=ÙÅ) H˘#∞QÀÅ∞`À<Õ `«Ü«∂s— J#fl Ñ¨^ŒúuÖ’ ã¨=∞‰õÄ~°∞ÛHÀ=\ÏxH˜ '(q^Õj) H˘#∞QÀÅ∞— HõO>ˇ JkèHõ„áê^è•#ºO ÅaèOzOk. *ÏfÜ«∞ Ñï„â◊=∞Å‰õΩ ã¨Ç¨ÏHÍ~°HõOQÍ P=â◊ºHõ =º=ã¨÷Å#∞ ~°∂á⁄OkOz ^Õâ◊OÖ’<Õ `«Ü«∂s KÕ¿ãO^Œ∞‰õΩ „Ñ¨^äŒ=∂=HÍâßxfl HõeÊOK«@O =Å¡ ~å#∞#fl ~ÀAÖ’¡ kQÆ∞=∞u J#flk =∞iO`« J~°∞^Œ=Ù`«∞Ok. ÉèÏ~°`«^Õâ◊ x~å‡}ãÖã¨÷ÅÖ’ „Ñ¨ã¨∞Î`«O ™êOˆHuHõÑ¨~°OQÍ `«y#O`« ã¨=∞~°÷`« LO_»HõáÈ=K«∞Û#∞ Hõ#∞Hõ, Jq q^Õj ãÖã¨÷Å`À XÑ¨ÊO^•Å#∞ ‰õΩ^Œ∞~°∞ÛH˘x ãÖÜ«ÚHõÎ HÍ~åºK«~°}‰õΩ, ™êOˆHuHõ q*Ï˝# ã¨~°Ñ¶¨~å‰õΩ, [q∞e x~°fiÇ¨Ï}‰õΩ XÑ¨ÊO^•Å∞ KÕã¨∞HÀ=@O „áÈ`«ûÇ≤ÏOÑ¨|_»∞`«∞#flk. ^ÕjÜ«∞ áêi„âßq∞Hõ ãÖã¨÷Å∞ ~°Hõ∆}~°OQÆOÖ’ „Ñ¨"ÕtOKåÅO>Ë x#fl "≥Ú#fl\˜=~°‰õΩ Öˇ·Ãã#∞ûÅ#∞ *ÏsKÕÜ«∞@O, q^Õj „Ñ¨`«ºHõ∆ÃÑ@∞ì|_ç (ZÑ¶π._ç.S)H˜ Hõ@∞ìÉÏ@∞¡ "≥Ú^ŒÖˇ·# J=~À^è•Öˇ<Àfl LO_Õq. D ~°OQÆOÖ’ q^Õj ÃÑ@∞ì|_çx PHõi¬OKÕO^Œ∞‰õΩ ~°Hõ∆} ÑïHõ~åÅ L`åÊ^Œ# q+¨Ü«∞"≥∞ÿ ZO`À K˘~°=`À q^è•#OÖ’ ãï„H˘`«Î =∂~°∞ÊÅ∞ KÕÜ«∞|_®¤~Ú. ~°Hõ∆}~°OQÆOÖ’ q^Õj ÃÑ@∞ì|_çx „áÈ`«ûÇ≤ÏOKÕO^Œ∞‰õΩ ZÑ¶π._ç.S. q^è•# áêÅHõ=º=ã¨÷#∞ Ñ¨ÓiÎQÍ ã¨~°mHõiOz#O^Œ∞=Å¡ Ü«∞O„`«ÑïHõ~åÅ∞, q_ç Ñ¨x=Ú@∞¡, =Ú_çã¨~°∞‰õΩ, Ñ¨sH∆Í ™ê^èŒ<åÅ∞, L`åÊ^ŒHõ ™ê=∞„y "≥Ú^ŒÖˇ·# "å\˜x D Ñïkè#∞Oz `˘ÅyOKå~°∞. W@∞=O\˜ ÑïHõ~åÅ#∞ xi‡OÑ¨^ŒÅz# HõOÃÑhÅ‰õΩ WHõÃÑ· áêi„âßq∞Hõ Öˇ·Ãã#∞ûÅ J=ã¨~°O LO_»^Œ∞. ^ÕjÜ«∞, q^ÕjÜ«∞ ÃÑ@∞ì|_ç^•~°∞Å‰õΩ ~°Hõ∆}~°OQÆOÖ’ W^˘Hõ =∞Ç¨Ï`«Î~å=HÍâ◊O. XHõ"≥·Ñ¨Ù „Ñ¨Éèí∞`«fiO q^è•<åÅÖ’ „H˘`«Î =∂~°∞ÊÅ#∞ KÕã≤ P=â◊ºHõ =ã¨∞Î=ÙÅ H˘#∞QÀÅ∞, q^Õj „Ñ¨`«ºHõ∆ ÃÑ@∞ì|_ç`À ã¨Ç¨ ÃÑ@∞ì|_çH˜ J=HÍâ◊O, Öˇ·ÃãxûOQÆ∞ q^è•#O, ZQÆ∞=∞`«∞Å‰õΩ =ãü "≥Ú^ŒÖˇ·# ™œHõ~åºÅ#∞ HõeÊã¨∞ÎO_»QÍ áêi„âßq∞Hõ ãÖã¨÷Å∞ Ãã·`«O D J=HÍâßxfl ã¨kfixÜ≥∂QÆO KÕã≤H˘x ™êOˆHuHõ q*Ï˝#O, P=â◊ºHõ"≥∞ÿ# ÃÑ@∞ì|_»∞Å∞ "≥Ú^ŒÖˇ·# q+¨Ü«∂ÅÖ’ ZÑ¨Ê\˜HõÑ¨C_»∞ JÉèí∞º#flux ™êkèOÑ¨=Åã≤ L#flk. ™êOˆHuHõ q*Ï˝#O, ÃÑ^ŒÌ "≥Ú`åÎÅÖ’ ÃÑ@∞ì|_ç J=ã¨~°"≥∞ÿ# D ~°Hõ∆}~°OQÆO q#∂`«fl ^èÀ~°}˜Ö’ Ñ¨Ù~ÀQÆq∞OÑ¨ =Åã≤ L#flk. Ñïâ’^èŒ#, Ñ¨Ù~Àaè=$kú =∞iO`« ÃÑOá⁄Ok, J`åº^èŒ∞xHõ HõàÏ`«‡Hõ `«Ü«∂s â◊H˜ÎÃÑ· W`ÀkèHõOQÍ ^Œ$+≤ì xÅáêe. ^ÕjÜ«∞ Ñï„â◊=∞ L#flux á⁄Ok, *ÏfÜ«∞–¢ÃÑ·"Õ@∞ ~°OQÍÅÖ’x Jxfl L`åÊ^ŒHõ ãÖã¨÷Å „Ñ¨QÆuH˜ ™ê=∞º"≥·+¨=∂ºÅ∞ ÖËx "å`å=~°}Ïxfl ~°∂á⁄OkOKåe. (330 Ñ¨^•Å∞)

306 Main Examination : The Big Battle 4. D „HÕk `≥Å∞QÆ∞ YO_çHõ#∞ POQÆ¡OÖ’H˜ J#∞=kOK«O_ç: 20=∂ Jˆ~aÜ«∂Ö’ J`«ºkèHõÉèÏQÆO Z_®i. Wã¨∞Hõ, ~åà◊√§ `«Ñ¨Ê WHõ¯_Õg∞ LO_»^Œ∞. Wã¨∞Hõ ZO`« "Õ_çQÍ LO@∞O^ŒO>Ë, Ñ¨QÆ\˜Ñ¨Ó@ =\˜ìHÍà◊§`À ^•xÃÑ· #_»=ÖË~°∞. D Z_®iÖ’ <ÕÅ J@ì_»∞QÆ∞ #∞Oz – ZO`« J_»∞QÆ∞#∞Oz JO>Ë, ã¨∂~°∞º_»∞ Ãã·`«O ZO_çOÑ¨ÖË#O`« Ö’`«∞Å#∞Oz LaH˜# h\˜ T@Å∞ JHõ¯_»Hõ¯_» Hõ#∞Ñ≤ã¨∞ÎO\Ï~Ú. XHõ T@#∞Oz =∞~˘Hõ\˜ ZO`À ^Œ∂~°OQÍ L<åfl, Jg H˘<Õfl J~Ú<å, [Ö^è•~° á⁄Oy=zÛ#Ñ¨C_»∞ "å\˜K«∞@∂ì ZO`À Z`≥·# K≥@∞¡ =∞Ç≤Ï`«â’ÉèÏÜ«∞=∂#OQÍ ÃÑiy, Ñ¨K«Û^Œ#O "≥e¡qi¿ã KÀ@¡ K«Å¡<≥·# h_»#∞ „Ñ¨™êk™êÎ~Ú. Ñ¨@ì}"åã¨∞Å∞ HÍx Jˆ~cÜ«ÚÅ∞ U_®k á⁄_»∞QÆ∞<å D Z_®iÖ’ x=ã≤ã¨∞ÎO\Ï~°∞. "å~°∞ `«=∞ Q˘éˇ]Å∞, XO>ˇÅ∞, QÆ∞éÏ]ÅHÀãÖ QÆ_ç¤, h~°∞ ÅaèOKÕ [ÖÏâ◊Ü«∂ÅÖ’ XHõ KÀ\˜#∞Oz =∞~˘HõKÀ\˜H˜ `«fii`«QÆux, ã¨∞ÅÉèíOQÍ „Ñ¨Ü«∂}ÕKÕO^Œ∞‰õΩ J#∞=ÙQÍ Hõ∆}OÖ’ "Õã≤, =∞~°∞Hõ∆}OÖ’ f¿ãÜ«∞QÆÅ _Õ~åÅÖ’ x=ã≤ã¨∞ÎO\Ï~°∞. D Z_®i Jˆ~cÜ«ÚÅ∞ q~°QÆ|O_ç fÜ«∞<≥·# JuÑÖ_»¡#∂† `åà◊=$H∆ÍÅ =O\˜ K≥@¡ÃÑ· ÑÖ_ç# Y~°∂˚~° Ñ¶¨ÖÏÅ#∞ ZO_»Éˇ\˜ì U_®k "≥Ú`«ÎO PÇ¨~°OQÍ ã‘fiHõiã¨∞ÎO\Ï~°∞. „Ñ¨ÑÖK«OÖ’x L`«Î=∂âßfiÅ∞ D J~°|∞ƒÅ =^ŒÌ LO\Ï~Ú. Jâßfi~ÀÇ¨Ï}=∞O>Ë giH˜ ÉèÏ~°º JO>Ë#∂, Ñ≤Å¡ÅO>Ë#∂ L#flO`« „¿Ñ=∂uâ◊Ü«∞O. =∞<ÀÇ¨Ï~°"≥∞ÿ# Jâßfixfl HõO>ˇ "åiH˜ ã¨=Ú#fl`«^ÕÇ¨xfl Hõey, |e+¨ªOQÍ LO_Õ XO>ˇ =∞iO`« LÑ¨Ü≥∂QÆHõ~°O. XHõ XO>ˇ UHõOQÍ Ô~O_»∞ QÆ∞éÏ]Å∞ "≥∂Ü«∞QÆey#O`À, JO`«HõO>ˇ Z‰õΩ¯"À "≥∂Ü«∞QÆÅ^Œ∞. ^•xÃÑ· `«# =ã¨∞Î™ê=∂„yx ZH˜¯Oz, `å#∂ ZH˜¯ 'Z_®i F_»— Jx Ñ≤Å∞K«∞H˘<Õ P XO>ˇÃÑ· ZH˜¯ J`«#∞ Z_®i "≥O|_çx "≥∞ÿà◊§‰õΩ "≥∞ÿà◊√§ „Ñ¨Ü«∂}ÕÑ¨QÆÅ_»∞.

5. D „H˜Ok POQÆ¡ „Ñ¨™êÎqHõ#∞ `≥Å∞QÆ∞Ö’H˜ J#∞=kOK«O_ç: 20 =∂

Language and communication are something that children learn by talking to one another. But schools consider this an act of indiscipline. Instead, we have a special grammar class to learn language! One educationist remarked, "It is nice that children spend just a few hours at school. If they spend all 24 hours in schools, they will turn out to be dumb!" In most schools, teachers talk, children listen. The same is true for other skills also. Children learn a great deal without being taught, by tinkering and pottering on their own. Changes in the school system, if they are to be of lasting significance, must spring from the actions of teachers in their classrooms, teachers who are able to help children collectively. New programmes, new materials and even basic changes in organizational structure will not necessarily bring about healthy growth. A dynamic and vital atmosphere can develop when teachers are given the freedom and support to innovate. One must depend ultimately upon the initiative and respectfulness of such teachers and this cannot be promoted by prescribing continuously and in detail what is to be done. In education, we can cry too much about money. Sure, we could use more, but some of the best classrooms and schools I have seen or heard of, spend far less per pupil than the average in our schools today. We often don't spend well what money we have. We waste 307 civilz byte

large sums on fancy buildings, unproductive administrative staff, on diagnostic and remedial specialists, On expensive equipment that is either not needed, or underused or badly misused, on tons of identical and dull textbooks, readers and workbooks, and now on latest devices like computers. For much less than what we do spend, we could make our classrooms into far better learning environments than most of them are today.

6. (a) D „H˜Ok Ñ¨^•Å#∞ g∞ ™⁄O`« "åHÍºÖ’¡ „Ñ¨Ü≥∂yOK«O_ç: 2 ˛ 5 ´ 10 =∂ (i) Ñ¨~°∞â◊√~å=∞ „Ñ‘u (ii) <Õu c~°HÍÜ«∞ (iii) `≥~°z~åA (iv) Éèíw~°^äŒ „Ñ¨Ü«∞`«ﬂO (v) Ñ¨ÙH˜¯\˜ Ñ¨Ù~å}O

(b) D „HÕk "å\˜H˜ ã¨=∂<å~°÷Hõ Ñ¨^•Å#∞ „"åÜ«∞O_ç: 2 ˛ 5 ´ 10=∂ (i) ÑÖ_ç`«∞_»∞ (ii) ÃÑO_ç¡ (iii) |∞∞+≤ (iv) Hõ#∞fl (v) QÆ∞_ç

(c) D „H˜Ok "å\˜H˜ =ºuˆ~HÍ~°÷Hõ Ñ¨^•Å#∞ „"åÜ«∞O_ç: 2 ˛ 5 ´ 10=∂ (i) <≥=∞‡k (ii) `«_ç (iii) ã¨∂÷Å=Ú (iv) P~ÀQÆº=Ú (v) „áêp#=Ú

(d) D „H˜Ok Ñ¨^•ÅÖ’x `«Ñ¨CÅ#∞ „"åÜ«∞O_ç: 2 ˛ 5 ´ 10=∂ (i) [<å~°ú#∞_»∞ (ii) ^èŒ#∞O[Ü«Ú_»∞ (iii) ã‘`«Å=Ú (iv) ^Œ~°‡q„Ñ¶¨∞Ç¨ï_»∞ (v) q^è•º~°O|=Ú

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308 Main Examination : The Big Battle COMPULSARY TELUGU 2016

Time Allowed : Three Hours Maximum Marks : 300

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions.

(a) ãÖã¨¯ $u „áê^è•#º`«. 100=∂ (b) K«∞~°∞ÔH·# (™ê‡~üì) #QÆ~åÅ∞ – L^•ã‘# (J<£™ê‡~üì) áœ~°∞Å∞ (c) <åºÜ«∞ „H˜Ü«∂jÅ`«‰õÄ – <åºÜ«∂xfl JkèQÆq∞OK«_®xH© =∞^èŒº "≥·~°∞^èŒºO. (d) áê~î°âßÅ q^•º~°∞÷Ö’¡ =∞# "å~°ã¨`«fiO Ñ¨@¡ Q“~°"åxfl ÃÑOá⁄OkOK«_»O. 2. D „HÕk „Ñ¨™êÎqHõ#∞ „â◊^ŒúQÍ K«kq, kQÆ∞= WzÛ# „Ñ¨â◊flÅ‰õΩ ã¨Ô~·# ã¨=∂^è•<åÅ#∞ ‰õΩ¡Ñ¨ÎOQÍ ~åÜ«∞O_ç. 12 ˛ 5 ´ 60=∂ ¢ã‘ÎÅ∞ PHÍâ◊OÖ’ ã¨QÆO J<Õk Ö’Hõ =º=Ç¨~°O. =∞#O ÑïjeOz K«∂¿ãÎ, "åà◊√§ JO`«Hõ<åfl JkèHõ™ê÷<åxH˜ J~°∞›Åx `≥Å∞ã¨∞ÎOk. J~Ú`Õ "åã¨Î"åxfl QÆ=∞x¿ãÎ „Ñü ^Õâ◊OÖ’, „Ñü HÍÅOÖ’, „Ñü ãÖã¨¯ $u =∞iÜ«Ú ãÖ„Ñ¨^•Ü«∞OÖ’, „Ñü „áêO`«O, =∞`«O, ‰õΩÅO, =~°‚O, =~°æO, *Ïu, ˆH∆„`«OÖ’ QÆ`«HÍÅO "≥Ú^ŒÅ∞H˘x =~°Î=∂# ãÖ^Œ~°ƒùO =~°‰õΩ Jxfl r=# ~°OQÍÅÖ’ Ñ¨Ù~°∞+¨µÅ`À áÈe¿ãÎ ¢ã‘ÎÅ∞ ã¨~°fi^• "≥#H˜¯ <≥@ì|_»∞`«∞<åfl~°∞. XHõ Ñ¨^Œúu „Ñ¨HÍ~°O ‰õÄ_»∞, QÆ∂_»∞, h_», Ñ¨x, q^Œº, P~ÀQÆº Éèí„^Œ`«Å q+¨Ü«∞OÖ’ "å~°∞ q=Hõ∆‰õΩ QÆ∞~°=Ù`«∞<åfl~°∞. Jaè=$kúÖ’ ÉèÏQÆ™êfi=ÚÖˇ· <Õ`«$`«fiO =Ç≤ÏOK«_®xH˜, PÖ’zOK«_®xH˜, ã¨fiÑ≤flOK«_®xH˜, `«=∞ HõÅÅ#∞ ™êHÍ~°O KÕã¨∞HÀ=_®xH˜ "åiH˜ J=HÍâßÅ∞ ÖË=Ù. ã¨Ç¨Ï„™êÉÏÌÅ∞QÍ "å~°∞ „Ñ¨ÑÖK«OÖ’x 'Ju ÃÑ^ŒÌ JÅÊ ãÖMÏº‰õΩÅ∞—QÍ H˘#™êQÆ∞`«∞<åfl~°∞. Ñ≤`«$™êfi=∞º ã¨=∂[O ¢ã‘ÎÅ#∞ ã¨fiO`« =ºH˜Î`«fiO QÆÅ =∞#∞+¨µÅ∞QÍ ÑïQÆ}ÕK«^Œ∞. "åà◊√§ ã¨fiÜ«∞O ãÖÑ¨Ó~°∞‚Å∞

309 civilz byte QÍ#∂, P`å‡aè=∂#O, ã¨fiÜ«∞O x~°‚Ü«∂kèHÍ~°O QÆÅ"å~°∞QÍ#∂ ÉèÏqOÑ¨|_»_»O ÖË^Œ∞. <åºÜ«∞, ™ê=∂lHõ =º=ã¨÷Ö’¡ ã¨=∂#"≥∞ÿ# Q“~°=O =∞iÜ«Ú Ç¨Ï‰õΩ¯Å∞ á⁄O^Œ_®xH˜ "åiH˜ J~°›`« LOk. nxH˜ aè#flOQÍ "å~°∞ ˆH=ÅO Ñ¨Ù~°∞+¨µÅ J=ã¨~åÅ∞ fˆ~Û ™ê^èŒ<åÅ∞QÍ =º=Ç¨ÏiOÑ¨|_»∞`«∞<åfl~°∞. `«=∞ ãÖ`«ux ÃÑOá⁄OkOKÕ Ñ¨Ù#~°∞`«ÊuÎ „Ñ¨fHõÅ∞QÍ, ãÖ~°Hõ∆‰õΩÅ∞QÍ, ¿ã=‰õΩÅ∞QÍ, â◊$OQÍ~° ™ê^èŒ<åÅ∞QÍ, ‰õΩ@∞O| ™ê^è•~°} ãÖÑ¨^Œ‰õΩ "åÇ≤ÏHõÅ∞QÍ K«∂_»|_»∞`«∞<åfl~°∞. "åiH˜ ÅaèOz# ™êOã¨¯ $uHõ P"≥∂^ŒO ˆH=ÅO XHõ Ñ¨Ù~°∞+¨µ_ç ‰õÄ`«∞~°∞, ÉèÏ~°º ÖË^• `«e¡ ~°∂ÑÖÖ’<Õ Hõ#|_»∞`«∞#flk. nxH˜ Jf`«OQÍ "åiH˜ QÆ∞iÎOÑ¨Ù ÖË^Œ∞. WÖÏ ã¨fiÜ«∞O QÆ∞iÎOÑ¨Ù ÖË#O^Œ∞=Å¡ "å~°∞ `«‰õΩ¯= ™ê÷~ÚÖ’<Õ H˘#™êQÆ∞`«∞<åfl~°∞. XO@i ¢ã‘ÎÅ∞ D =º=ã¨÷‰õΩ ^Œ∂~°OQÍ xÅ|_ç#@∞ì Hõ#|_»`å~°∞. giÖ’ ™êOã¨¯ $uHõOQÍ P"≥∂k`«"≥∞ÿ# q"åÇ¨Ï Ü≥∂QÆº`« L#flÑ¨Ê\˜H©, ã¨HÍÅOÖ’ ÃÑo§ HÍ#O^Œ∞# Jq"åÇ≤Ï`«Å∞QÍ q∞yeáÈ~Ú#"å~°∞ H˘O^Œ~°∞<åfl~°∞. q`«O`«∞=ÙÅ∞, q_®‰õΩÅ∞ á⁄Ok#"å~°∞, q_çáÈ~Ú#"å~°∞ XO@i rq`«O QÆ_»∞Ñ¨Ù`«∞<åfl~°∞. Ñ¨Ù~°∞+¨µÅ '~°Hõ∆} =∞iÜ«Ú Éèí„^Œ`«—Å =ÅÜ«∂xH˜ ^Œ∂~°OQÍ L#fl ¢ã‘ÎÅ#∞ ã¨=∂[O ã¨=∂^ŒiOK«x ^Œ∞ã≤÷u L#flk. Ñ¨Ù~°∞+¨µÅ#∞O_ç ~°Hõ∆}#∞ L^ÕÌâ◊ºÑ¨Ó~°fiHõOQÍ<Õ u~°ã¨¯iOz# ¢ã‘Î XHõÔ~·`Õ, „Ñ¨=∂^Œ HÍ~°}O QÍ<À, J<å~ÀQÆºO =¸ÅOQÍ<À r=# ÉèÏQÆ™êfiq∞x HÀÖ’Ê~Ú# ¢ã‘Î =∞~˘Hõ~°∞ HÍ=K«∞Û. ˆH=ÅO XO@iQÍ rqOK«_»"Õ∞ HÍ^Œ∞, Ñ¨Ù~°∞+¨µÅ ^ŒÜ«∂^•H˜∆}ÏºÅ h_» ‰õÄ_® Ñ¨_»‰õΩO_® ã‘fiÜ«∞ Jã≤Î`«fiO`À XO@iQÍ rqã¨∞Î#fl ¢ã‘ÎÅ Ñ¨@¡ Ñ¨Ù~°∞+¨µÅ∞ JkèHõ ^Õfiëêxfl „Ñ¨Hõ\˜ã¨∞ÎO\Ï~°∞. J<ÕHõ Jaè=$kú K≥O^Œ∞`«∞#fl ^ÕâßÅÖ’ =∞Ç≤Ïà◊Å∞ 60 #∞O_ç 80 âß`«O, JO>Ë „Ñ¨ÑÖK« PÇ¨~°OÖ’ ã¨QÍxH˜ ÃÑ·QÍ PÇ¨~À`«ÊuÎH˜ ÉÏ^èŒº`« =Ç≤Ïã¨∞Î<åfl~°∞. ™êOã¨¯ $uHõ ^Œ$+≤ì`À K«∂¿ãÎ, J<ÕHõ Wà◊§Ö’¡ "åà◊√§ PÇ¨~° „Ñ¨^•`«Å∞. WHõ ÉèÏ~°`«^Õâ◊ ™ê=∂lHõ, ™êOã¨¯ $uHõ =º=Ç¨~åÅ∞ ‰õΩ@∞O|OÖ’ ¢ã‘ÎÅ uO_ç uÑ¨ÊÅ#∞ ‰õÄ_® x~°‚~Ú™êÎ~Ú. ¢ã‘ÎÅ∞ Ñ¨Ù~°∞+¨µÅ Hõ<åfl `«‰õΩ¯= u#_»"Õ∞ HÍ^Œ∞, WO\’¡ JO^ŒiHõ<åfl z=~°QÍ Éèí∞lOK«_»O [~°∞QÆ∞`«∞Ok. H˘xfl ãÖ^Œ~åƒùÖ’¡ ãïÑ¨_® PÇ¨~° ÅÉèíº`« ÖË#Ñ¨C_»∞, "åà◊√§ Ñ¨ã¨∞ÎÅ∞O_»=Åã≤ =ã¨∞ÎOk. ‰õΩ@∞O| JO`«~°æ`« Jã¨=∂#`«Å =Å¡ H˘O^Œ~°∞ Ñ¨ã¨∞ÎÅ∞O>Ë, ã¨=∞$kúQÍ PÇ¨~°O JO^Œ∞ÉÏ@∞Ö’ L#fl Wà◊§Ö’¡ ‰õÄ_® ¢ã‘ÎÅ‰õΩ ãïÑ¨_® Éè’[#O ÃÑ@ìx Ñïã≤÷u LOk. ã¨fi`«O„`«OQÍ, UHÍH˜QÍ „Ñ¨ÑÖK«OÖ’ `«=∞ Ü«Ú^ŒúO `å=Ú KÕã¨∞Î#fl XO@i ¢ã‘ÎÅ∞ =∞iO`« J^Œ#Ñ¨Ù q=Hõ∆‰õΩ QÆ∞i HÍ=_»"Õ∞ HÍHõ, "å~°∞ PÇ¨~°O =∞iÜ«Ú r=<Àáêkè q+¨Ü«∞OÖ’#∂ ™ê=∂lHõ Hõ@∞ìÉÏ@¡#∞ Z^Œ∞~˘¯O@∞<åfl~°∞. Ñ¨Ù~°∞+¨µÅ∞, ÉÏÅÅ ãÖYº HõO>Ë ¢ã‘ÎÅ∞, ÉÏeHõÅ ãÖYº `«‰õΩ¯=QÍ L#fl ^ÕâßÅÖ’ ÉèÏ~°`«^Õâ◊O ‰õÄ_® XHõ\˜. QÆ`« â◊`å|ÌHÍÅOQÍ ^Õâ◊ [<åÉèÏÖ’ gi ÉèÏQÆ™êfi=∞ºO „Hõ=∞„Hõ=∞OQÍ `«QÆ∞æ`«∂ =ã¨∞Î#flk. 2001 <å\˜ [<åÉèÏ ÖˇHõ¯Å „Ñ¨HÍ~°O K«∂¿ãÎ „Ñü "≥~Úº (1000) =∞Ok Ñ¨Ù~°∞+¨µÅ‰õΩ ã¨=∂O`«~°OQÍ ˆH=ÅO 933 ¢ã‘ÎÅ∞ L<åfl~°∞. Ñ¨Ù~°∞+¨µÅ`Àáê@∞ ¢ã‘ÎÅ‰õΩ ‰õÄ_® ã¨=∂# J=HÍâßÅ∞, P~ÀQÆº Éèí„^Œ`«, áœ+≤ìHÍÇ¨~°O HõeÊOK«QÆey`Õ, ¢ã‘Î Ñ¨Ù~°∞+¨µÅ ãÖYº ã¨=∂#=∞ÜÕ∞º J=HÍâ◊O LOk. nxH˜ aè#flOQÍ 2001Ö’ QÆ=∞x¿ãÎ, Ñ¨Ù~°∞+¨µÅ∞ =∞iÜ«Ú ÉÏÅ∞~° Hõ<åfl =¸_»∞ HÀ@¡ Ü«∂Éèˇ· ÅHõ∆Å =∞Ok `«‰õΩ¯=QÍ ¢ã‘ÎÅ∞ =∞iÜ«Ú ÉÏeHõÅ∞<åfl~°∞. 2011 [<åÉèÏ ÖˇHõ¯Å „Ñ¨HÍ~°O D ãÖYº "≥~Úº =∞OkH˜ 940H˜ KÕi, ã¨fiÅÊ"≥∞ÿ# =$kú Hõ#|_»∞`«∞Ok. PO^Àà◊#Hõ~°"≥∞ÿ# q+¨Ü«∞O Uq∞@O>Ë, W\©=e HÍÅOÖ’ D eOQÆ 310 Main Examination : The Big Battle =º`åºãÖ =∞iO`« ÃÑiyOk. #=*Ï`« tâ◊√=ÙÅ∞ "≥Ú^ŒÅ∞H˘x Pˆ~à◊§ „áêÜ«∞O =~°‰õΩ QÆ=∞x¿ãÎ, 2001Ö’ "≥~ÚºH˜ 927 HÍQÍ, 2011Ö’ =∞s Ñ¶¨∞’~°OQÍ "≥~ÚºH˜ 914H˜ Ñ¨_çáÈ~ÚOk. D JOÔHÅ#∞ QÆ=∞x¿ãÎ xã¨ûO^ÕÇ¨ÏOQÍ ¢ã‘ÎÅ ãÖYºÖ’ `«QÆ∞æ^ŒÅ J~°÷=∞=Ù`«∞Ok. ™ê=∂lHõ, ™êOã¨¯ $uHõ ¿ÇÏ`«∞=ÙÖÁHõ"≥·Ñ¨Ù, ÃÑ~°∞QÆ∞`«∞#fl ™êOˆHuHõ q*Ï˝#O =∞~À"≥·Ñ¨ÙQÍ =∞Ç≤Ïà◊Å Ñ¨@¡ q=Hõ∆#∞ =∞iO`« ÃÑOK«∞`«∞<åfl~Ú. D q=Hõ∆, x~°¡Hõ∆ ºO, =ºuˆ~Hõ`«Å =¸ÅOQÍ HÀ\Ï¡k =∞Ok ¢ã‘ÎÅ∞, =ÚYºOQÍ Ñ¨Ù@ìHõ=ÚO^Õ '`«Ñ≤ÊáÈ~Ú#— ÉÏeHõÅ∞, ¢ã‘ÎÅ r=# J=HÍâßÅ∞ ã¨#flyÅ∞¡`«∞<åfl~Ú. =∞s =ÚYºOQÍ =∞# ÉèÏ~°fÜ«∞ ã¨=∂[O ÅHõ∆ÖÏk =∞Ok =∞Ç≤Ïà◊Å#∞, ÉÏeHõÅ#∞ á⁄@ì# Éˇ@∞ì‰õΩO@∞#flk. „Ñ¨â◊flÅ∞:

(a) [<åÉèÏ ÖˇHõ¯Å∞ ÉÏeHõÅ∞ =∞iÜ«Ú ¢ã‘ÎÅ q+¨Ü«∞OÖ’ ZÖÏO\˜ ãÖ^Õâßxflã¨∞Î<åfl~Ú?

(b) PÇ¨~°O =∞iÜ«Ú =∞Ç≤Ïà◊Å Jã¨=∂#`«Å q+¨Ü«∞OÖ’ Hõ#|_»∞`«∞#ﬂ "≥·~°∞^èŒºO Uq∞\˜?

(d) Ñ≤`«$™êﬁ=∞º =º=ã¨÷Ö’ ¢ã‘ÎÅ∞ ''ˆH=ÅO ™ê^èŒ<åÅ∞——QÍ ZÖÏ =∂~å~°∞?

(e) "åºã¨Hõ~°Î Jaè„áêÜ«∞O „Ñ¨HÍ~°O XO@i ¢ã‘ÎÅ∞ Z‰õΩ¯=QÍ ã¨=∂[O KÕ`« ZÖÏ J==∂xOÑ¨|_»∞`«∞<åﬂ~°∞?

3. D „HÕk „Ñ¨™êÎqHõ#∞ =¸_»= =O`«∞ Ñï=∂}ÏxH˜ ‰õΩkOK«O_ç. ji¬Hõ ÃÑ@ì=^Œ∞Ì. ¿Ñ~˘¯#fl Ñ¨^•Å ãÖYº HõO>Ë Z‰õΩ¯= ~åã≤<å. `«‰õΩ¯= ~åã≤<å =∂~°∞¯Å∞ áÈ`å~Ú. D ãÖH˜∆Ñ‘ÎHõ~°} g∞ ™⁄O`« Ñ¨^•Å`À ~åÜ«∞O_ç. 60=∂ q^èÕÜ«∞`« Hõey LO_»_®xfl =∞#Ö’ KåÖÏ=∞Ok „Ñ¨â◊Oã≤™êÎ~°∞. =∞# ‰õΩ@∞O|O Ñ¨@¡, ¿ãflÇ≤Ï`«∞Å Ñ¨@¡, ^Õâ◊O Ñ¨@¡ q^èÕÜ«∞`« Hõey LO_»_®xfl P"≥∂k™êÎO. x[O K≥áêÊÅO>Ë, U =º‰õΩÎÅ‰õΩ, ã¨=¸Ç¨Å‰õΩ =∞#O |∞∞}Ñ¨_ç Hõ$`«A˝Å"≥∞ÿ LO\Ï"≥∂, "åiÑ¨@¡ q^èÕÜ«∞`«#∞ Hõey LO\ÏO. 'q^èÕÜ«∞`«— QÆ∞iOz =∂\Ï¡_»∞`«∞<åfl=∞O>Ë, Z^Œ∞\˜"å~°∞ HõëêìÖ’¡ ÖË^• „Ñ¨=∂^ŒOÖ’ L#flÑ¨C_»∞, "åiH˜ =∞#O ã¨Ç¨Ü«∞O KÕÜ«∞_®xH˜ ãÖã≤^Œ∞úÅ"≥∞ÿ L<åfl=∞#fl =∂@. "åi ÉÏQÀQÆ∞Å Ñ¨@¡ x~°O`«~° Pã¨H˜Îx „Ñ¨^Œi≈™êÎO. ™ê^è•~°}OQÍ XHõ =ºH˜Î Jq^èÕÜ«∞`« ã¨Ê+¨ì=∞=Ù`«∂<Õ LO@∞Ok. `«# `«e¡^ŒO„_»∞Å∞ HõëêìÖ’¡ LO_ç, ÉÏ^èŒ Ñ¨_»∞`«∞O>Ë Ñ¨\˜ìOK«∞HÀ‰õΩO_® LO_»_»O, ÖË^• XHõ =ºH˜Î `«# ã¨fiO`« ^ÕâßxH˜ =ºuˆ~HõOQÍ Ü«Ú^ŒúO KÕã¨∞Î#fl XHõ Ãã·#ºOÖ’ LO_ç, ã¨fi^ÕjÜ«ÚÅ<Õ qK«Hõ∆}Ï~°Ç≤Ï`«OQÍ K«OÑ¨_»O =O\˜q Jq^èÕÜ«∞`«. WÖÏO\˜ =º‰õΩÎÅ K«~°ºÅ#∞ =∞#O P"≥∂kOK«O. J~Ú`Õ J<ÕHõ ãÖ^Œ~åƒùÖ’¡ Z=~°∞ q^èÕÜ«ÚÖ’, Z=~°∞ Jq^èÕÜ«ÚÖ’ x~°‚~ÚOK«_»O Hõiî#`«~°=∞=Ù`«∞Ok. XHõ `≥e"≥·# Ñ≤Å¡"å_»∞ J`«x K«^Œ∞=Ù =∂<Õã≤, ‰õΩ@∞OÉÏxH˜ Pi÷HõOQÍ ã¨Ç¨Ü«∞Ñ¨_»_®xH˜ Ñ¨xÖ’ KÕ~°=∞x HÀ~°∞`«∞#fl `«e¡^ŒO„_»∞Å P^Õâßxfl x~åHõiOK«=K«∞Û. =∞iH˘xfl ãÖ=`«û~åÅ áê@∞ K«^Œ∞=Ù‰õΩx, ã≤÷u=∞O`«∞_≥· `«# `«e¡^ŒO„_»∞Å |∞∞}O f~°∞ÛHÀ=K«Ûx J`«_»∞ qâ◊fiã≤OK«=K«∞Û. XHõ"Õà◊ `åxÑ¨C_»∞ K«^Œ∞=Ù =∂<Õã≤, `«# <≥·Ñ¨Ù}Ïºxfl =º~°÷O

311 civilz byte KÕã¨∞HÀ=_»O =Å¡ Z=iH© LÑ¨Ü≥∂QÆO LO_»^Œx J`«_»∞ ÉèÏqOz LO_»=K«∞Û. ^Œ∂~°^Œ$+≤ì ÖËx"å~°∞ P ÉÏÅ∞_»∞ ÖË^• ÉÏeHõ x~°‚Ü«∂xfl YO_çOK«=K«∞Û. HÍh J<ÕHõ Ñ¨~åºÜ«∂Å∞ WÖÏO\˜ Ñ≤Å¡Å∞, XHõ"Õà◊ "å~°∞ K≥·`«#ºjÅ∞Ô~·, `≥e"≥·#"åÔ~·`Õ gix q=∞i≈OK«_®xH˜ |^Œ∞Å∞QÍ „áÈ`åûÇ¨ÏO á⁄O^Œ_®xH˜ J~°∞›Å∞. =∞~À"≥·Ñ¨Ù WÖÏO\˜ ãÖ^Œ~åƒùÖ’¡ XHõ"Õà◊ P ÉÏÅ∞_ç `«e¡^ŒO„_»∞Å∞ ^Œ∞~°ƒù~° ^•i„^ŒºOÖ’ LO>Ë, "åi =∂@#∞ u~°ã¨¯iOz Ñ¨xH˜ "≥à◊§_®xH˜ x~åHõi¿ãÎ, Jk J`«x Jq^èÕÜ«∞`« J=Ù`«∞Ok. XHõ"Õà◊ JÖÏ x~åHõiOz, `«# rq`«OÖ’ q[Ü«∂xfl ™êkèOz#Ñ¨Ê\˜H©, J`«_»∞ `«# ÉÏÅºO <å\˜ Jq^èÕÜ«∞`« Ñ¨@¡ Ñ¨âßÛ`åÎÑ¨ Ñ¨_»=K«∞Û#∞. H˘xfl ãÖ^Œ~åƒùÖ’¡ =∞iO`« [\˜Å ã¨=∞ã¨º LO@∞Ok. Wk XHõ =∞x+≤ Ü≥ÚHõ¯ ãÖ|O^è•Å∞ J`«x „Ñ¨Éèí∞`«fiO ÖË^• ^ÕâßxH˜ ãÖ|OkèOz LO_»=K«∞Û. ^Õâßxfl „¿Ñq∞OKÕ XHõ |$O^ŒO „Ñ¨Éèí∞`åfixH˜ =ºuˆ~HõOQÍ u~°∞QÆ∞ÉÏ@∞ KÕÜ«∞_»O, |Ç¨˙âß PÜ«Ú^è•Å∞ KÕ`«|\˜ì Z^Œ∞~°∞ u~°QÆ_»O, `«^•fi~å ^Õâ◊ ™œÉèÏQÆºO HÀãÖ „Ñ¨Éèí∞`åfixfl ‰õÄÅnÜ«∞_®xH˜ Ñ¨Óã¨∞HÀ=K«∞Û. "≥O@<Õ "åà◊§#∞ 'u~°∞QÆ∞ÉÏ@∞^•~°∞¡— ÖË^• 'q„^ÀÇ¨ïÅ∞— Jx „Ñ¨Éèí∞`«fiO „Ñ¨Hõ\ÕK«=K«∞Û. g\˜Ö’ "≥Ú^Œ\˜ Ñ¨^ŒO xHõ¯OQÍ x["≥∞ÿ#Ñ¨Ê\˜H©, Ô~O_»= Ñ¨^ŒO x[O HÍHõáÈ=K«∞Û. "å~°∞ „Ñ¨Éèí∞`«fiO Hõ<åfl `å=Ú `À\˜ ^Õâ◊„Ñ¨[Å „Ñ¨Ü≥∂[<åÅ Ñ¨@¡ Z‰õΩ¯= q^èÕÜ«∞`« Hõey L#fl@∞¡ Jaè„áêÜ«∞Ñ¨_»=K«∞Û. ^Œ∞~°^Œ$+¨ì=âß`«∞Î `«~°∞K«∂ nxfl `≥Å∞ã¨∞HÀ=_»O Hõ+¨ì=∞=Ù`«∞Ok. D u~°∞QÆ∞ÉÏ@∞^•~°∞¡ ^Õâ◊O Ñ¨@¡ q^èÕÜ«∞`«`À „¿Ñi`«∞Å~Ú<å~À, ÖË^• ™êfi~°÷ „Ñ¨Ü≥∂[<åÅ`À „¿Ñ~°} á⁄O^•~À J#flk Ñ¶ë`åxfl |\˜ì JOK«<å "ÕÜ«∞=Åã≤ LO@∞Ok. qÑ¨¡=HÍ~°∞Å∞ q*ËÜ«ÚÖˇ· H˘`«Î „Ñ¨Éèí∞`åfixfl U~åÊ@∞ KÕÜ«∞QÆÅ~å? J#fl „Ñ¨â◊fl `«Öˇ`«∞Î`«∞Ok. XHõ"Õà◊ KÕÜ«∞QÆey`Õ, Ü«∂=`«∞Î ^Õâ◊ „Ñ¨[Å, ~å[H©Ü«∞ „Ñ¨`«º~°∞÷Å Hõhã¨ Ç¨Ï‰õΩ¯Å∞ HÍáê_»|_»`åÜ«∞x "å~°∞ =∂@ W=fiQÆÅ~å? "åH± ™êfi`«O„`«ºO, ¿ãfiK«ÛùQÍ `«=∞ ÉèÏ"åÅ#∞ „Ñ¨Hõ\ÕK«∞‰õΩ<Õ ÉèÏ= =ºH©ÎHõ~°} ¿ãfiK«Ûù, „Ñ¨[Å =∞^ŒÌ`«∞#∞ ‰õÄ_»QÆ@∞ì‰õΩ<Õ J=HÍâ◊O W=fi|_»∞`«∞O^•? ÖË^•?? `«=∞ JkèHÍ~åxfl ~å[H©Ü«∞ „Ñ¨`«º~°∞÷Å#∞ x~°∂‡eOK«_®xH˜ LÑ¨Ü≥∂yOK«∞‰õΩO\Ï~å? XHõ"Õà◊ „Ñ¨[Å "åHÍûfi`«O„`«ºO, =ºH©ÎHõ~°} ¿ãfiK«ÛùÅ#∞ Ñï~°H˜∆OK«QÆey`Õ, ˆH=ÅO `«=∞ ã¨=¸Ç¨Ï „Ñ¨Ü≥∂[<åÅ‰õΩ HÍ‰õΩO_® ^Õâ◊ „Ñ¨Ü≥∂[<åÅ‰õΩ Ñ¨Ó#∞‰õΩO>Ë, "å~°∞ x[OQÍ<Õ ^Õâ◊O Ñ¨@¡ q^èÕÜ«∞`« QÆÅ"å~°=Ù`å~°∞. nxH˜ aè#flOQÍ =º=Ç¨Ïi¿ãÎ "å~°∞ ^Õâ◊O Ñ¨@¡, "å~°∞ Ñ¨_»Q˘\˜ì# „Ñ¨Éèí∞`«fiO Ñ¨@¡ Jq^èÕÜ«ÚÅ=Ù`å~°∞. JÑ¨Ê\˜H˜ QÍx =∞#‰õΩ KåÖÏ PÅã¨ºOQÍ *Ï˝<À^ŒÜ«∞=∞~Ú#@∞¡ `≥eã≤~å^Œ∞.

4. D „HÕk `≥Å∞QÆ∞ „Ñ¨™êÎqHõ#∞ POQÆ¡OÖ’xH˜ J#∞=kOK«O_ç: XHõ ãÖÑ¨#∞fl_»∞ `«# F_»Ö’ ã¨=Ú„^ŒÜ«∂#O KÕã¨∞ÎO_»QÍ `«∞á¶ê#∞ =zÛOk. F_»Ö’ Z#fl_»∂ ã¨=Ú„^•xfl K«∂z Ü≥∞~°∞QÆx XHõ ÉÏxã¨ ÉèíÜ«∞„ÉèÏO`«∞_≥·, QÆ\˜ìQÍ J~°∞ã¨∂Î U_»=_»O "≥Ú^ŒÅ∞ÃÑ\Ïì_»∞. Wk WÖÏˆQ H˘O`«¿ãÑ¨Ù H˘#™êy, Z=~°∂ J`«xfl T~°∞HÀÉˇ@ìÖËHõáÈÜ«∂~°∞. 'D hK«"≥∞ÿ# Ñ≤iH˜"å_çfl xâ◊≈|∞Ì_çfl KÕÜ«∞QÆÅ"åÔ~=Ô~·<å L<åfl~å?— Jx HÀáÈ„k‰õΩÎ_≥·# ãÖÑ¨#∞fl_»∞ J_çQÍ_»∞.

312 Main Examination : The Big Battle „Ñ¨Ü«∂}©‰õΩ_çQÍ L#fl XHõ `åuÎfi‰õΩ_»∞ WÖÏ J<åfl_»∞: 'D =∞x+≤x xâ◊≈|∞Ì_çfl KÕÜ«∞QÆÅ#x <Õ#∞ PÖ’zã¨∞Î<åfl#∞ ™ê~ü, XHõ"Õà◊ W`«x`À ZÖÏ =º=Ç¨ÏiOKåÖ’ <å‰õΩ Ñ¨ÓiÎ J#∞=∞u WzÛ#@¡~Ú`Õ.— '=ÚO^Œ∞‰õΩ ™êQÆO_ç— J<åfl_»∞ ãÖÑ¨#∞fl_»∞, 'g∞‰õΩ <å J#∞=∞u L#flk— JO@∂. P `åuÎfi‰õΩ_»∞ H˘O^Œ~°∞ <åq‰õΩÅ#∞ Ñ≤ez, D ÉÏxã¨#∞ ã¨=Ú„^ŒOÖ’H˜ qã≤i "ÕÜ«∞O_»x P*Ï˝Ñ≤OKå_»∞. "åà◊√§ JÖÏˆQ KÕâß~°∞. f„="≥∞ÿ# x~åâ◊`À ÉèíÜ«∞HõOÑ≤`«∞_≥·# P ¿Ñ^Œ"å_»∞ QÆ\˜ìQÍ `«# HÍà◊¥§, KÕ`«∞Å∂ P_çOK«™êQÍ_»∞. J~Ú`Õ H˘xfl Hõ∆}ÏÖ’¡<Õ J`«_çfl uiy <å=Ö’H˜ KÕ~°Û=Åã≤OkQÍ `åuÎfi‰õΩ_»∞ P^ÕtOKå_»∞. uiy =zÛ# "≥O@<Õ JÅã¨@ =∞iÜ«Ú ÉèíÜ«∞O`À xO_ç# ÉÏxã¨ Ñ¨ÓiÎQÍ xâ◊≈|Ì=∞~Ú áÈÜ«∂_»∞. J`«_çÖ’ =zÛ# D PHõã≤‡Hõ =∂~°∞ÊÃÑ· ãÖÑ¨#∞fl_»∞ K«H˜`«∞_≥·, `åuÎfi‰õΩ_çx q=~°} J_çQÍ_»∞. '=∞#O L#fl ã≤÷uÖ’ ZO`« ÉÏQÆ∞<åfl"≥∂ J<Õk ZÑ¨C_»∂ J~°÷O KÕã¨∞HÀÖË=Ú† ZÑ¨C_≥·`Õ JO`«Hõ<åfl ^Œ∞ã≤÷uÖ’H˜ Ñ¨_çáÈ`å"≥∂ JÑ¨Ê\˜H˜ QÍx, `≥eã≤~å^Œ∞— Jx P `åuÎfi‰õΩ_»∞<åfl_»∞.

5. D „H˜Ok POQÆ¡ „Ñ¨™êÎqHõ#∞ `≥Å∞QÆ∞ ÉèÏ+¨Ö’xH˜ J#∞=kOK«O_ç:

Man has always been fascinated by dreams. He has always tried to find explanations for his dreams. Perhaps dreams tell us about the future or the past, perhaps they tell us about our deepest fears and hopes. I don't know. Today, I want to give you a completely different explanation. But before I do so, I must give you one or two facts about dreams. First of all, everybody dreams. You often hear people say, 'I never dream', when they mean, 'I can never remember my dreams'. When we dream, our eyes move rapidly in our sleep as if we were watching a moving picture, following it with our eyes. This movement is called REM, that is Rapid Eye Movement. REM sleep is the sleep that matters. Experiments have proved that if we wake people throughout the night during REM, they will feel exhausted the next day. But they won't feel tired at all if we take them at times when they are not dreaming. So the lesson is clear: it is dreaming that really refreshes us, not just sleep. We always dream more if we have had to do without sleep for any length of time. If that is the case, how can we explain it? I think the best parallel I can draw is with computers. After all, a computer is a very primitive sort of brain. To make a computer work, we give it a programme. When it is working, we can say it is 'awake'. If ever we want to change the programme, that is to change the information we put into the computer, what do we do? Well, we have to stop the computer and put in a new programme or change the old programme.

6. (a) D „H˜Ok "å\˜x g∞ ™⁄O`« "åHÍºÅÖ’ „Ñ¨Ü≥∂yOK«O_ç: 2 ˛ 5 ´ 10=∂ (i) J~åúOQÆ ÅH˜∆ ‡ (ii) HõuÎg∞^Œ ™ê=Ú (iii) K«=∞`å¯~°O (iv) qÉèí∂u g_»º=Ú (v) ^èŒ$`«~åR H“ye 313 civilz byte

(b) D „HÕk "å\˜H˜ ã¨=∂<å~°÷Hõ Ñ¨^•Å#∞ „"åÜ«∞O_ç: 2 ˛ 5 ´ 10=∂ (i) J#ÅO (ii) q∞#∞fl (iii) Pã¨ºO (iv) `«=∞ã¨∞û (v) ~å„u (c) D „HÕk "å\˜H˜ =ºuˆ~HÍ~°÷Hõ Ñ¨^•Å#∞ „"åÜ«∞O_ç: 2 ˛ 5 ´ 10=∂ (i) ¿ãflÇ¨ÏO (ii) x~å‡}O (iii) L^ŒÜ«∞O (iv) J=∂"åã¨º (v) q<À^ŒO

(d) D „HÕk Ñ¨^•ÅÖ’x `«Ñ¨CÅ#∞ ã¨=iOK«O_ç: 2 ˛ 5 ´ 10=∂ (i) *ÏOÉèí=O`«∞_»∞ (ii) ã¨fiÉÏ=O (iii) „|∞Ç¨Ïã¨Êùu (iv) K≥·`«}ºO (v) ™êfiãÖ„`«O

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314 Main Examination : The Big Battle COMPULSARY TELUGU 2017

Time Allowed : Three Hours Maximum Marks : 300

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions.

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2. D „HÕk QÆ^ŒºÉèÏQÍxfl „â◊^ŒúQÍ K«kq, z=~° WzÛ# „Ñ¨â◊flÅ‰õΩ ã¨Ô~·# ã¨=∂^è•<åÅ#∞ „"åÜ«∞O_ç. 12 ˛ 5 ´ 60=∂ |∞kúH˜ xO_≥·# Éè’[#O Ñ¨Ùã¨ÎHÍÅ∞. =∂#=ÙÅ PÖ’K«<å Ñ¨~°OÑ¨~°, "å~°∞ KÕã≤# =∞Ç¨Ï`å¯~åºÅ∞, Hõ#∞Q˘#fl ã¨=∞ã¨ÎO Ñ¨Ùã¨ÎHÍÅÖ’ Ñï~°H˜∆OÑ¨|_»∞`«∞#fl^Œx XHõ "Õ∞^è•q J<åfl~°∞. =∂#= <åQÆiHõ`å ãÖã¨¯ $`«∞Å JÉèí∞º^ŒÜ«∞ qHÍ™êÅ‰õΩ ãÖ|OkèOz# MÏºu Ñ¨Ùã¨ÎHÍÅˆH ^Œ‰õΩ¯`«∞Ok. Ñ¨Ùã¨ÎHÍÅ Ü≥ÚHõ¯ „áê=ÚYºO, qÅ∞= x~°∞Ñ¨=∂#"≥∞ÿ#k. Ñ¨Ùã¨ÎHÍÅ∞ P`«‡*Ï˝<åxfl ÃÑOá⁄Ok™êÎ~Ú. L`«Î=∞ „QÆO^ä•Å∞ =∞#∞+¨µºÅ#∞ ^•#=`«fiO #∞Oz ^≥·=`åfixH˜ #_çÑ≤Oz, jÖ∫#fl`åºxfl *ÏQÆ$`«O KÕã≤ *ÏuH˜, ã¨=∂*ÏxH˜ =∂~°æ^Œ~°≈#O HÍq™êÎ~Ú. =∞#ã¨∞û#∞ L`ÕÎ[Ñ¨~°z, z~°O`«#"≥∞ÿ# ã¨„`«ÊÉèÏ"åxfl <≥~°Ñ¨Ù`å~Ú. =∂#=ÙÅ =∞<À~°O[#‰õΩ Ãã·`«O Ñ¨Ùã¨ÎHÍÅ∞ `À_»Ê_»∞`å~Ú. =∞<À~°O[#=∞O>Ë WHõ¯_» ˆH=ÅO ã¨∞YÉè’QÍ#∞Éèí=O JxQÍHõ =∞iO`« QÆOcè~°"≥∞ÿ# J~°÷O L#flk. U Ñ¨Ùã¨ÎHÍÅ∞ áê~î°‰õΩÅ =∞#ã¨∞û#∞ `åH˜ "Õ∞^è•â◊H˜Îx K≥·`«#º=O`«O

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4. D „HÕk `≥Å∞QÆ∞ =K«<åxfl POQÆ¡OÖ’xH˜ J#∞=kOK«O_ç: 20=∂ ã¨∞„Ñ¨ã≤^Œú ™êfi`«O„`«º ã¨=∞~°Ü≥∂^èŒ∞Å∞ ~å[i¬ Ñ¨Ù~°∞ëÈ`«Î"£∞ ^•ãπ @O_»<£ 1919Ö’ JÅÇ¨ÉÏ^Œ∞ Ñ¨Ù~°áêÅHõ ãÖÑ¶¨∞O K≥·~°‡<£ Ñ¨^Œqx KÕÑ¨\Ïì_»∞. PÜ«∞#Hõk KåÖÏ H˜¡+¨ì"≥∞ÿ# ã¨xfl"Õâ◊O. P ~ÀAÖ’¡ POˆQ¡Ü«ÚÅ‰õΩ ZO`« „áê|Åº=¸, „Ñ¨ÉèÏ=je`« LO_Õ=O>Ë K≥·~°‡<£QÍ L#flÑ¨Ê\˜H© XHõ ™ê=∂#º ÉèÏ~°fÜ«ÚxH˜ `«# ÉÏ^èŒº`«Å#∞ x~°fiiÎOK«@O ZO`À Hõ+¨ìOQÍ LO_Õk. HÍ~åºÅÜ«∞ ÉÏ^èŒº`«#∞ KÕÑ¨\˜ì# `«~åfi`«, q∞e@s HõO\’<≥‡O@∞ "å~°∞ h\˜x "å_»∞H˘O@∞#flÑ¨Ê\˜H© Ñ¨#∞fl=∂„`«O K≥e¡OK«@O ÖË^Œx PÜ«∞# QÆ∞iÎOKå~°∞. POˆQ¡Ü«ÚÅ∞ XHõ <≥Å~ÀAÖ’¡QÍ Ñ¨#∞fl K≥e¡OÑ¨HõáÈ`Õ h\˜ ã¨~°Ñ¶¨~å#∞ xeÑ≤"ÕÜ«∞=Åã≤ =ã¨∞ÎO^Œx PÜ«∞# q∞e@s HõO\’<≥‡O@∞ HÍ~åºÅÜ«∂xH˜ <À\©ã¨∞ ÑÖÑ≤OKå~°∞. P <À\©ã¨∞ HõO\’<≥‡O@∞Ö’#∂, T~°∞ T~°O`«\Ï#∂, Ñ¨Ù~°áêÅHõ ãÖÑ¶¨∞OÖ’#∂ ÃÑ#∞ ãÖK«Å<åxfl ã¨$+≤ìOzOk. ™ê÷xHõ "å~åÎ Ñ¨„uHõÅ∞ @O_»<£ QÍi P[˝#∞ „Ñ¨=ÚYOQÍ „Ñ¨K«∞iOKå~Ú. <À\©ã¨∞ „Ñ¨HÍ~°O h\˜ ã¨~°Ñ¶¨~å xeÑ≤"ÕÜ«∂eû# z\ìz=i ~ÀA# q∞e@s JkèHÍ~°∞Å∞ Ñ¨Ù~°áêÅHõ ãÖÑ¶¨∞O áêÅHõ=~°æO "åi HÍ~åºÅÜ«∂xfl KÕ~°∞H˘<åfl~°∞. =∂ HõO\’<≥‡O@∞‰õΩ h\˜ ã¨~°Ñ¶¨~å xeÑ≤"ÕÜ«∞@O g∞=Å¡ HÍ^Œx ã‘xÜ«∞~ü JkèHÍi XHõ~°∞ @O_»<£ QÍi`À J<åfl~°∞. P ~ÀAHõÖÏ¡ Ñ¨#∞fl K≥e¡OK«HõáÈ`Õ h\˜ ã¨~°Ñ¶¨~å#∞ PÑ≤"Õ™êÎ=∞x `˘}∞‰õÄ Éˇ}∞‰õÄ ÖËx HõO~î°O`À @O_»<£ QÍ~°<åfl~°∞. PÑ¶‘ã¨~°∞ HÀÑÖ PÑ¨ÙHÀÖËHõ Q˘O`≥uÎ ˆHHõÅ∞ ÃÑ\˜ì<å @O_»<£QÍ~°∞ ã≤÷q∞`«OQÍ LO_çáÈÜ«∂~°∞. KÕ¿ã^Õq∞ ÖËHõ q∞\˜@s JkèHÍ~°∞ÅO^Œ~°∂ "≥o§áÈÜ«∂~°∞. HÍ~åºÅÜ«∞=∞O`«\Ï ZO`À L`ÕÎ[Hõ~°"≥∞ÿ# "å`å=~°}O "≥e¡qiã≤Ok. @O_»<£QÍi ã≤÷~°z`åÎxfl âßO`« ã¨fiÉèÏ"åxfl K«∂ã≤ JO^Œ~°∂ Pâ◊Û~°ºáÈÜ«∂~°∞. P =∞~°∞ã¨\˜ ~ÀA# HõO\’<≥‡O@∞‰õΩ K≥Ok# POˆQ¡Ü«∞ q∞e@s JkèHÍ~°∞Å∞ Ñ¨#∞fl K≥e¡Oz"Õâß~°∞. 318 Main Examination : The Big Battle 5. D „HÕk YO_èçHõ#∞ WOw¡+¨µ#∞Oz `≥Å∞QÆ∞Ö’H˜ J#∞=kOK«O_ç: 20=∂

In ancient times in most civilized countries, for example in Egypt, Iraq, India, China and in the Roman Empire, many great irrigation works were constructed. In very hot countries, water is even carried in underground channels to prevent it from being evaporated by the sun's heat. In modern time, great dams have been built across rivers and these are used for more than one purpose, hence they are called multipurpose undertakings. Firstly, such dams help to prevent floods, by controlling the amount of water which rushes down a river in the rainy season. This also prevents an enormous amount of damage and loss to farmers. Secondly, by storing up great quantities of water in the artificial lakes behind the dams, irrigation can be provided for many acres of land in the dry season, so that crops can be grown where none would have grown before. Thirdly, the people in the towns and cities in the neighbourhood can be certain by getting a sufficient supply of water for drinking and other purposes, even in the driest weather. Fourthly, the water stored up behind the dams is made to generate electric power by letting it run through turbines.

6. (a) D „H˜Ok "å\˜x g∞ ™⁄O`« "åHÍºÅÖ’ „Ñ¨Ü≥∂yOK«O_ç: 2 ˛ 5 ´ 10=∂ (i) W#∞Ñ¨QÆ∞yæà◊√§ (ii) J_»∞QÆ∞*Ï_»Å∞ (iii) Hõ_»∞Ñ¨Ù=∞O@ (iv) Ñ¨Hõ¯Ö’ |Öˇ¡O (v) ~°OÑ¨Ñ¨ÙHÀ`«

(b) D „HÕk "å\˜H˜ ã¨=∂<å~°÷Hõ Ñ¨^•Å#∞ „"åÜ«∞O_ç: 2 ˛ 5 ´ 10=∂ (i) HÀiHõ (ii) t+¨µº_»∞ (iii) HÍOu (iv) ãÖ^ÕÇ¨Ï=Ú (v) Ñ¨~°fi`«=Ú

(c) D „HÕk "å\˜H˜ =ºuˆ~HÍ~°÷Hõ Ñ¨^•Å#∞ „"åÜ«∞O_ç: 2 ˛ 5 ´ 10=∂ (i) J#$`«O (ii) ã¨∞=ÚY∞_»∞ (iii) P~ÀÇ≤ÏOK«∞ (iv) Ñ¨Ù}Ïº`«∞‡_»∞ (v) =∞O^Œ=∞u (d) D „HÕk Ñ¨^•ÅÖ’x `«Ñ¨CÅ#∞ ã¨=iOK«O_ç: 2 ˛ 5 ´ 10=∂ (i) B^è•~°ºO (ii) q™êfiã¨=Ú (iii) ™ÈK«hÜ«∞=Ú (iv) qQÍfl#=Ú (v) J=∂"åâ◊º

––––––––––– ––––––––––– 319 CHAPTER civilz byte 32 Treasure Trove: Compulsary Hindi Question Papers COMPULSARY HINDI 2015

Time Allowed : Three Hours Maximum Marks : 300

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions

All questions are to be attempted. The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. Answer must be written in HINDI (Devanagari script) unless otherwise directed in the question. Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to and if answered in much longer or shorter than the prescribed length, marks may be deducted. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off. ü≈å-úﬁ Nz˛ u¬L uƒu∆…b EåÏtz∆ Nw˛úÆÁ ü≈åÁı Nz˛ G∫ tzåz Ãz úÓƒ| uå©åu¬uQo ünÆzN˛ EåÏtz∆ N˛Áz ÜÆÁåúÓƒ|N˛ ú‰jı : Ãßy ü≈åÁı N˛Á G∫ u¬QåÁ EuåƒÁÆ| “{@ ünÆzN˛ ü≈å Nz˛ EÊN˛ GÃNz˛ ÃÁ™åz EÊuN˛o “¯@ G∫ u“ãty ™ı “y u¬Qz \ÁLÊTz, Æut uN˛Ãy ü≈å-uƒ∆z ™ı EãÆsÁ uåut|…b å “Áz@ u\å ü≈åÁı Nz˛ ÃÊ§Êá ™ı EuáN˛o™ ∆£t-ÃÊPÆÁ uåáÁ|u∫o “{, ƒ“ÁÊ FÃN˛Á EåÏúÁ¬å uN˛ÆÁ \ÁåÁ YÁu“L@ Æut uN˛Ãy ü≈å N˛Á G∫, uåáÁ|u∫o ∆£t-ÃÊPÆÁ N˛y oÏ¬åÁ ™ı N˛Á„¢˛y ¬Ê§Á ÆÁ ZÁzbÁ “{ oÁz EÊN˛Áı N˛y N˛bÁ{oy N˛y \Á ÃN˛oy “{@ G∫-úÏuÀoN˛Á N˛Á N˛ÁzF| ßy úw…e EsƒÁ úw…e N˛Á ßÁT, \Áz QÁ¬y ZÁz‰gÁ TÆÁ “Áz, GÃz Àú…b øú Ãz N˛Áb utÆÁ \ÁåÁ YÁu“L@ 320 Main Examination : The Big Battle

1. uå©åu¬uQo ™ı Ãz uN˛Ãy LN˛ uƒ Æ ú∫ 600 ∆£tÁı ™ı uå§ãá u¬uQL : 100

(a) ÆÏƒÁEÁzÊ ™ı §‰joÁ oåÁƒ (b) EÃ¢˛¬oÁ Ã¢˛¬oÁ úÁåz N˛Á ET¬Á N˛t™ “{ (c) MÆÁ ú‰jåz N˛y EÁto ™ı uT∫Áƒb EÁ ∫“y “{? (d) Ã™Á\ ™ı EÊáuƒæÁÁÃÁı Ãz Y¬oÁ ÃÊV |

2. uå©åu¬uQo T˘ÁÊ∆ N˛Áz ÜÆÁåúÓƒ|N˛ úu‰jL EÁ{∫ GÃNz˛ EÁáÁ∫ ú∫ åyYz utL TL ü«ÁíÁı Nz˛ G∫ Àú…b, Ã“y EÁ{∫ ÃÊuqõo ßÁ Á ™ı tyu\L : 12 x 5 = 60

u∫úÁzbΩÃ| §oÁoy “¯ uN˛ ßÁ∫o Nz˛ N˛Á}¬z\Áı Ãz EÁåz ƒÁ¬z 80 üuo∆o ¬ÁzT ∫Áz\TÁ∫ Nz˛ EÆÁzSÆ “¯@ ÆÏƒÁ- úy‰jy Nz˛ Ã©úN|˛ ™ı ∫“åz ƒÁ¬Áı ™ı Ãz LN˛, ™¯ uN˛ãoÏ uÃ¢|˛ Få EÁÂN˛‰gÁı Ãz EÃ“™o “ÁzHÂTÁ@ ÆÏƒÁEÁzÊ Ãz

Ã©úN|˛ Nz˛ EÁáÁ∫ ú∫ ™¯ Nz˛ƒ¬ FoåÁ N˛“ ÃN˛oÁ “ÂÓ uN˛ Gå™ı N˛∫y§ 90 üuo∆o FÃu¬L ∫Áz\TÁ∫ Nz˛ EÆÁzSÆ “¯ MÆÁıuN˛ ƒz LN˛t™ Euåu≥Áo ƒ EåÏ∫tÁÆy “¯@ ÆÏƒÁ ¬ÁzT, N˛“Î úÁæÁ| ™ı ∫“oz “ÏL T¬uoÆÁı N˛y ∆ÏªEÁo T¬o-√Æƒ“Á∫ Ãz ß∫z uƒæÁÁÃ Nz˛ ÃÁs N˛∫oz “¯@ ƒz §“Ïo ú{ÃÁ oÁz §åÁåÁ YÁ“oz “¯ uN˛ãoÏ u§åÁ NÏ˛Z uN˛L “ÏL “y@ LzÃÁ å“Î “{ uN˛ ƒz §zN˛Á∫ “¯, EuáN˛ÁÊ∆ EXZy EÊT¿z\y §Áz¬oz “¯ EÁ{∫ Eúåz §Á∫z ™ı uƒæÁÁÃ Ãz ß∫z “¯@ ƒz åƒyåo™ u∫ÊTbÁzãÃ, u¢˛¡™Áı EÁ{∫ YÏbNÏ˛¬Áı Nz˛ \ÁåN˛Á∫ “¯ ¬zuN˛å \{Ãz “y N˛ÁzF| sÁz‰gÁ EÁTz §‰joÁ “{ oÁz ƒz Eúåy u∫O˛ EÁÂQÁı Ãz ™Ï^z VÓ∫åz ¬Toz “¯@ ƒz §“Ïo ú{ÃÁ N˛™ÁåÁ YÁ“oz “¯, u\ÃNz˛ u¬L ™yugÆÁ-“ÁFú EÁ{∫ uåÆu™o üN˛Áu∆o “Ázåz ƒÁ¬z ƒzoå-ÃƒÁz˙ N˛Áz áãÆƒÁt, ¬zuN˛å GåNz˛ úÁÃ ƒÁz tqoÁ å“Î “{ \Áz uN˛ GåN˛Áz FÃ üN˛Á∫ Ãz ú{ÃÁ E\|å N˛∫åz ™ı ™tt N˛∫z@ GåN˛y ugT¿y N˛Á u¬“Á\ N˛∫oz “ÏL ŒÁÁoN˛-Ào∫ Nz˛ uƒ ÆÁı Nz˛ NÏ˛Z ü«Áí úÓZı, Gå™ı Ãz EuáN˛ÁÊ∆ LN˛t™ “N˛¬Áåz-Ãz ¬Toz “¯@ EÁ{∫, Euou∫O˛ ú‰jÁF| Nz˛ uƒ Æ ™ı, N˛ÁzF| ßy uN˛Ãy uå…N˛ | N˛Áz å“Î ú‰j úÁoÁ “¯@ ¬zuN˛å Æ“ÁÂ NÏ˛Z EÁ{∫ ü«Áí ßy “¯@ ÃtÁYÁ∫ EÁ{∫ √Æƒ“Á∫ Nz˛ §Á∫z ™ı ü«Áí, EÁú ™ı MÆÁ EXZÁ “{, EÁú EúåÁ Euou∫O˛ Ã™Æ N{˛Ãz √Æoyo N˛∫oz “¯, EÁ{∫ o§ Æz EÁ≈ƒÀo ¬‰gNz˛ ƒ ¬‰guN˛ÆÁı Nz˛ Ã™Ó“ ™z∫z N˛Áz FÃ ÃÊ∆Æ Ãz T¿Ào utQ¬ÁF| ú‰goz “¯- <<™Ï^z Få ü«ÁíÁı N˛Á MÆÁ G∫ tzåÁ YÁu“L?>> GåN˛Áz Æ“ N˛“åÁ GuYo å“Î “{ uN˛ Æ“ GåN˛y Eúåy u\ÊtTy “{ EÁ{∫ GåN˛Áz Eúåz §Á∫z ™ı ™Ï^z §o¬ÁåÁ YÁu“L, MÆÁıuN˛ ƒÁz “™z∆Á §åz-§åÁL o{ÆÁ∫ G∫ tzåÁ YÁ“oz “¯, LzÃÁ N˛“åÁ \Áz GåN˛Áz Ã“ÁÆoÁ tzoz “ÏL FÃÃz ™ÏO˛ N˛∫z@ ƒz N˛“oz “¯ uN˛- <<Æut ™¯ Æ“ E•ÆÁÃ úÆÁ|õo ™ÁfiÁ ™ı N˛øÂ, oÁz ™¯ LzÃÁ \ø∫ uÃÚ N˛øÂTÁ@>> FÃ o∫“ ÆÏƒÁ ¬ÁzT ∫ÁoÁı∫Áo ¬Áz¬Ïú úÁeN˛, uTbÁ∫-ƒÁtN˛, ÀbÁ∫-§®z§Á\ EÁ{∫ Æ“ÁÂ oN˛ uN˛ EußåzoÁ oN˛ “Áz \Áoz “¯@ ™Ï^z EÁ≥ÁÆ| “{ Æut N˛ÁzF| åÁÃ™^ ßıbN˛oÁ| GåN˛y EÁáy-EáÓ∫y N˛“ÁuåÆÁı ú∫ uƒæÁÁÃ N˛∫z@ YÂÓuN˛, ßÁ∫o EÁTz §‰j ∫“Á “{, “™Á∫z úÁÃ LN˛ LzÃy ¬Áú∫ƒÁ“ úy‰jy o{ÆÁ∫ Q‰gy “{, u\ÃN˛Á LN˛™Áfi ¬flÆ u§åÁ NÏ˛Z uN˛L LN˛ EXZy u\ÊtTy \yåÁ “{@ LzÃÁ üoyo “ÁzoÁ “{ uN˛ “™ ™Ï¬©™Á Y‰jy LzÃy „¢˛Á{\ uåu™|o N˛∫ ∫“z “¯, \Áz u§åÁ NÏ˛Z t∆|å, u§åÁ ƒYå§ÚoÁ ÆÁ ÃtÁYÁ∫ Ãz ß∫y “{@ Eúåy Y™‰gy N˛Áz 321 civilz byte §YÁåz EÁ{∫ NÏ˛Z GúÆÏO˛ N˛∫åz ™ı Ãz uN˛Ãy LN˛ N˛Á YÏåÁƒ N˛∫åz N˛Áz N˛“åz ú∫, EuáN˛ÁÊ∆ ÆÏƒÁEÁzÊ N˛Á \ƒÁ§ t∫EÃ¬ ™ı Eúåz N˛Áz §YÁåz N˛Á “y “ÁzTÁ@ LzÃÁ ™ÁåÁ \ÁoÁ “{ uN˛ \§ “™ ÆÏƒÁ “Ázoz “¯ oÁz “™Á∫z EÊt∫ NÏ˛Z EÁt∆|ƒÁt uƒ˘™Áå “ÁzoÁ “{, “™Á∫z uƒYÁ∫ NÏ˛Z Ã™^ å“Î uåu™|o N˛∫ úÁoz uN˛ãoÏ “™ uN˛Ãy üÆÁz\å Nz˛ üuo Q‰gz “Ázåz Nz˛ FXZÏN˛ oÁz ∫“oz “¯@ EÁ\N˛¬ Nz˛ ÆÏƒÁEÁzÊ ™ı uN˛Ãy üÆÁz\å Nz˛ üuo N˛ÁzF| ßÁƒÁƒz∆ å“Î “ÁzoÁ@ FÃ úy‰jy Nz˛ EnÆÊo úÓƒÁ|•ÆÁÃ Ãz uƒuåu™|o G∫Áı N˛Áz ÃÏåN˛∫ ™¯ Ã™ôÁ “ÂÓ uN˛ åÆÁ ™Êfi ú{ÃÁ “{@ FÃNz˛ E¬ÁƒÁ Æut N˛ÁzF| NÏ˛Z EÁ{∫ ™“‹ƒúÓm| §Áoı N˛“oÁ “{, oÁz ƒÁz úÏ∫Áoå “{@

(a) ƒz MÆÁ ƒ\“ı “¯, u\åNz˛ N˛Á∫m ÆÏƒÁ ∫Áz\TÁ∫ Nz˛ EÆÁzSÆ “¯? (b) EÁ\ N˛Á ÆÏƒÁ ¬zQN˛ Ãz MÆÁ YÁ“oÁ “¯? (c) ¬zQN˛ Nz˛ EåÏÃÁ∫ ƒo|™Áå ÆÏƒÁ úy‰jy N˛Á LN˛™Áﬁ üÆÁz\å MÆÁ “{? (d) EÁ\ Nz˛ ÆÏƒÁ Nz˛ §yY uƒYÁ∫myÆ åÆÁ ™Êﬁ MÆÁ “{? (e) ƒo|™Áå ÆÏƒÁ úy‰jy N˛Á EÁt∆|ƒÁt Nz˛ üuo MÆÁ å\u∫ÆÁ “{?

3. uå©åu¬uQo T˘ÁÊ∆ N˛Á ÃÊqzúm (Précis) LN˛-uo“ÁF| ∆£tÁı ™ı u¬uQL@ ∆y |N˛ tzåz N˛y EÁƒ≈ÆN˛oÁ å“Î “¯@ ÃÊqzúm Eúåy ßÁ Á ™ı u¬QÁ \ÁåÁ YÁu“L: 60 ∫qÁ qzfi ™ı uƒtz∆Áı ú∫ uåß|∫oÁ N˛™ N˛∫åÁ EÁ{∫ EÁn™uåß|∫oÁ üÁõo N˛∫åÁ ÃÁ™u∫N˛ EÁ{∫ EÁus|N˛ tÁzåÁı N˛Á∫mÁı Ãz EÁ\ Æ“ LN˛ uƒN˛¡ú Nz˛ §\ÁÆ LN˛ EÁƒ≈ÆN˛oÁ “{@ Ã∫N˛Á∫ åz Eoyo ™ı “™Á∫z Ã∆ÕÁ §¬Áı N˛y EÁƒ≈ÆN˛oÁEÁzÊ N˛Áz úÓ∫Á N˛∫åz Nz˛ u¬L EÁÆÏá uå™Á|umÆÁı EÁ{∫ ÃÁƒ|\uåN˛ qzfi Nz˛ GúN¿˛™Áı Nz˛ øú ™ı GnúÁtå q™oÁEÁzÊ N˛Á uå™Á|m uN˛ÆÁ@ “Á¬ÁÂuN˛, uƒußëÁ ∫qÁ GúN¿˛™Áı Nz˛ GnúÁtå N˛y q™oÁEÁzÊ N˛Áz uƒN˛uÃo N˛∫åz Nz˛ u¬L ßÁ∫o ™ı uå\y qzfi N˛y ßÓu™N˛Á §‰jÁåz ú∫ \Áz∫ tzåz N˛y EÁƒ≈ÆN˛oÁ “{@ uƒußëÁ ƒÀoÏEÁzÊ Nz˛ uå™Á|m N˛Áz §‰jÁƒÁ tzåz Nz˛ u¬L <™zN˛ Få FÊugÆÁ> \{Ãy LN˛ ™“‹ƒúÓm| ú“¬ N˛y TF| “{@ EãÆ ƒÀoÏEÁzÊ N˛y EúzqÁ ∫qÁ GúN˛∫mÁı Nz˛ V∫z¬Ó GnúÁtå N˛y EuáN˛ \ø∫o “{, MÆÁıuN˛ FåÃz å Nz˛ƒ¬ §“Ï™Ó¡Æ uƒtz∆y ™Ï¸Á N˛y §Yo “ÁzTy, §u¡N˛ ∫Á…b~yÆ ÃÏ∫qÁ uYãoÁEÁzÊ N˛Áz ßy tÓ∫ uN˛ÆÁ \Á ÃNz˛TÁ@ ∫qÁ qzfi ™ı Ã∫N˛Á∫ “y LN˛™Áfi GúßÁzO˛Á “{@ Eo: <™zN˛ Få FÊugÆÁ> “™Á∫y Q∫yt åyuo ˚Á∫Á ÃÊYÁu¬o “ÁzTy@ Ã∫N˛Á∫ N˛y V∫z¬Ó ∫qÁ G˘ÁzT N˛Áz §‰jÁƒÁ tzåz N˛y åyuo, ∫qÁ Q∫yt åyuo ™ı EXZy o∫“ úu∫¬uqo “Ázoy “{@ \“ÁÂ <§ÁF FÊugÆå> osÁ <§ÁF LÊg ™zN˛ FÊugÆå> »zumÆÁı N˛Á §ÁF S¬Áz§¬ Ãz ú“¬z ÀsÁå EÁoÁ “{@ EÁåz ƒÁ¬z Ã™Æ ™ı EÁÆÁo tÏ¬|ß Ãz tÏ¬|ßo™ “ÁzoÁ \ÁLTÁ EÁ{∫ \ø∫y √ÆƒÀsÁ Nz˛ uå™Á|m EÁ{∫ uƒN˛ÁÃ Nz˛ u¬L Ãƒ|üs™ EƒÃ∫ ßÁ∫oyÆ G˘ÁzT N˛Áz üÁõo “ÁzTÁ@ ß¬z “y ßÁ∫oyÆ NÊ˛úuåÆÁı N˛y ƒo|™Áå ™ı üÁ{˘ÁzuTN˛y Nz˛ ™Á™¬z ™ı úÆÁ|õo q™oÁ å “Áz, Gã“ı uƒtz∆y NÊ˛úuåÆÁı Nz˛ ÃÁs ÃÊÆÏO˛ G˘™, üÁ{˘ÁzuTN˛y “ÀoÁÊo∫m N˛y √ÆƒÀsÁ EÁ{∫ Te§Êáå Nz˛ u¬L üÁznÃÁu“o uN˛ÆÁ \ÁoÁ “{@

322 Main Examination : The Big Battle E§ oN˛ ∫qÁ qzfi ™ı V∫z¬Ó G˘ÁzT Nz˛ üƒz∆ Nz˛ u¬L ¬ÁFÃıÃ EÁ{∫ ünÆq uƒtz∆y uåƒz∆ üuo§Êá EÁut N˛Áz ¬zN˛∫ N˛F| §ÁáÁLÂ sÎ@ ∫qÁ uƒuå™Á|m qzfi ™ı uåƒz∆ N˛y üuN¿˛ÆÁ N˛Áz EÁÃÁå §åÁåz Nz˛ u¬L E§ N˛F| åyuoÆÁı N˛Áz GtÁ∫ §åÁÆÁ TÆÁ “{@ Ã§Ãz ™“‹ƒúÓm| ∫qÁ qzfi ™ı ünÆq uƒtz∆y uåƒz∆ N˛Áz §‰jÁƒÁ tzåz Nz˛ u¬L L¢˛0 gy0 EÁF0 åyuo N˛Áz GtÁ∫ §åÁÆÁ TÆÁ “{@ ¬ÁFÃıÃ åyuo N˛Áz ßy GtÁ∫ §åÁÆÁ TÆÁ “{ EÁ{∫ E§ VbN˛Áı, u“ÀÃz-úÏ\Áz˙, N˛ÄÁÁ ™Á¬, ú∫yqm GúN˛∫m, GnúÁtå ™∆yå∫y EÁut N˛Áz ¬ÁFÃıÃ Nz˛ tÁÆ∫z Ãz §Á“∫ ∫QÁ TÆÁ “{@ \Áz NÊ˛úuåÆÁÂ FÃ o∫“ N˛y ƒÀoÏEÁzÊ N˛Á GnúÁtå N˛∫åÁ YÁ“oy “¯, E§ Gã“ı ¬ÁFÃıÃ N˛y \ø∫o å“Î “ÁzTy@ ∫qÁ qzfi ™ı V∫z¬Ó EÁ{∫ uƒtz∆y tÁzåÁı uåƒz∆N˛Áı Nz˛ u¬L LN˛ §‰gÁ EƒÃ∫ Gú¬£á “{@ LN˛ o∫¢˛ \“ÁÂ Ã∫N˛Á∫ uåÆÁ|o, ¬ÁFÃıuÃÊT, L¢˛0 gy0 EÁF0 Ãu“o uåƒz∆ EÁ{∫ Q∫yt Nz˛ u¬L åyuo ™ı \ø∫y §t¬Áƒ N˛∫ ∫“y “{, ƒ“y G˘ÁzT N˛Áz ßy \ø∫y uåƒz∆ EÁ{∫ üÁ{˘ÁzuTN˛y Nz˛ ™Á™¬z ™ı GëÁÆå N˛∫åz N˛y YÏåÁ{oy N˛Áz ÀƒyN˛Á∫ N˛∫åz Nz˛ u¬L ÃÁ™åz EÁåÁ YÁu“L@ ∫qÁ LN˛ LzÃÁ qzfi “{ \Áz åƒÁYÁ∫ Ãz ÃÊYÁu¬o “ÁzoÁ “{ EÁ{∫ u\Ã™ı ßÁ∫y uåƒz∆ EÁ{∫ üÁ{˘ÁzuTN˛y N˛y EÁƒ≈ÆN˛oÁ “{@ u¬“Á\Á G˘ÁzT N˛Áz ßy EÀsÁÆy ¬Áß Nz˛ §\ÁÆ ¬Ê§y Eƒuá Nz˛ u¬L ÃÁzYåz N˛y ™ÁåuÃN˛oÁ §åÁåy “ÁzTy@ “™ı EåÏÃÊáÁå uƒN˛ÁÃ osÁ åƒyåo™ uƒuå™Á|m q™oÁEÁzÊ ú∫ [ÆÁtÁ ÜÆÁå tzåÁ “ÁzTÁ@ Ã∫N˛Á∫, V∫z¬Ó G˘ÁzT “zoÏ LN˛ LzÃy úÁu∫uÀsuo N˛y ümÁ¬y uƒN˛uÃo N˛∫åz Nz˛ u¬L üuo§Ú “{ u\ÃÃz ƒ“ ÃƒÁ|\uåN˛ EÁ{∫ uå\y tÁzåÁı qzfiÁı ™ı §∫Á§∫ Nz˛ Ào∫ ú∫ √ÆÁƒÃÁuÆN˛ GëÁuo N˛∫ ÃNz˛@

4. uå©åu¬uQo T˘ÁÊ∆ N˛Á EÊT¿z\y ™ı EåÏƒÁt N˛yu\L : 20 E∫§ tz∆ N˛Á [ÆÁtÁ u“ÀÃÁ ∫zuTÀoÁå “{@ Æ“ÁÂ YÁ∫Áı EÁz∫ ∫zo EÁ{∫ YcÁåı “¯@ ∫zo ÆÁ §Á¬Ó Foåy T™| “Ázoy “{ uN˛ utå ™ı åÊTz úÁÂƒ EÁú GÃ ú∫ Y¬ å“Î ÃN˛oz@ ∫zuTÀoÁå ™ı Fá∫-Gá∫ úÁåy Nz˛ Y≈™z “¯, \Áz §“Ïo “y åyYz á∫oy ú∫ Gß∫z “ÏL “¯, ƒz Foåz åyYz “¯ uN˛ ÃÓ∫\ ßy Gã“ı å“Î ÃÁzQ ÃN˛oÁ@ “¯ oÁz ƒz Y≈™z §“Ïo N˛™ ú∫ãoÏ \“ÁÂ ßy N˛ÁzF| LN˛ “{ ƒ“ÁÂ úz‰g ¬©§z GToz “¯ EÁ{∫ §z“t ÃÏãt∫ utQÁF| tzoz “¯, Y≈™ı Nz˛ YÁ∫Áı EÁz∫ ZÁÆÁtÁ∫ “∫y E™∫ÁF| §åÁoz “ÏL@ LzÃy \T“Áı N˛Áz ™ø˘Áå (EÁzLuÃÃ) N˛“oz “¯@ E∫§ƒÁÃy \Áz ∆“∫Áı ™ı uåƒÁÃ å“Î N˛∫oz §∫Ã-ß∫ ∫zuTÀoÁå ™ı “y ∫“oz “¯@ ƒz o©§ÏEÁzÊ ™ı ∫“oz “¯, \Áz EÁÃÁåy Ãz TÁ‰gz EÁ{∫ GQÁ‰gz \Á ÃN˛oz “¯, oÁuN˛ ƒz LN˛ åQu¬ÀoÁå Ãz tÓÃ∫z åQu¬ÀoÁå N˛y EÁz∫ Eúåy ßz‰gÁı, §N˛u∫ÆÁı, HÂbÁı EÁ{∫ VÁz‰gÁı Nz˛ u¬L VÁÃ-úÁåy N˛y QÁuo∫ \Á ÃNı˛@ ∫zuTÀoÁåƒÁÃy E∫§ QÓ§ úN˛y “ÏF| EÊ\y∫ı EÁ{∫ Q\Ó∫ QÁoz “¯, \Áz Q\Ó∫ Nz˛ úz‰gÁı ú∫ GToz “¯@ ƒz Gã“ı ÃÏQÁoz “¯ EÁ{∫ u„¢˛∫ úÓ∫z §∫Ã QÁ˘ útÁs| Nz˛ øú ™ı GåN˛Á GúÆÁzT N˛∫oz “¯@ Få E∫§ƒÁuÃÆÁı Nz˛ úÁÃ ÃÊÃÁ∫ Nz˛ ÃƒÁz|™ VÁz‰‰gz “¯@ LN˛ E∫§ƒÁÃy Eúåz ÃƒÁ∫y VÁz‰gz Nz˛ N˛Á∫m QÏt N˛Áz TÁ{∫ƒÁuãƒo ™“ÃÓÃ N˛∫oÁ “{ EÁ{∫ VÁz‰gz N˛Áz Eúåy únåy EÁ{∫ §ÄÁÁı \{ÃÁ “y õÆÁ∫ N˛∫oÁ “{@ HÂb

323 civilz byte oÁz GÃNz˛ QÓ§ÃÓ∫o VÁz‰gz Ãz ßy [ÆÁtÁ GúÆÁzTy “{, §“Ïo uƒ∆Á¬ EÁ{∫ oÁN˛oƒ∫ ßy@ LN˛ HÂb ¬TßT tÁz VÁz‰gÁı Ãz [ÆÁtÁ EÃ§Á§ jÁz ÃN˛oÁ “{@ E∫§ ¬ÁzT Eúåz HÂbÁı N˛Áz ÃÁ™Áå Ãz QÓ§ ¬Átoz “¯ EÁ{∫ ∫zuTÀoÁå ™ı ™y¬Áı ™y¬ ÃƒÁ∫y ßy N˛∫oz “¯@ ™ÁåÁı ƒ“ ÃY ™ı <∫zuTÀoÁå N˛Á \“Á\> “Áz@ EMÃ∫ GÃz LzÃÁ “y úÏN˛Á∫Á \ÁoÁ “{@

5. uå©åu¬uQo T˘ÁÊ∆ N˛Á u“ãty ™ı EåÏƒÁt N˛yu\L : 20

Changes in the school system, if they are to be of lasting significance, must spring from the actions of teachers in their classrooms, teachers who are able to help children collectively. New programmes, new materials and even basic changes in organizational structure will not necessarily bring about healthy growth. A dynamic and vital atmosphere can develop when teachers are given the freedom and support to innovate. One must depend ultimately upon the initiative and respectfulness of such teachers and this cannot be promoted by prescribing continuously and in detail what is to be done.

In education, we can cry too much about money. Sure, we could use more, but some of the best classrooms and schools I have seen or heard of, spend far less per pupil than the average in our schools today. We often don't spend well what money we have. We waste large sums on fancy buildings, unproductive administrative staff, on diagnostic and remedial specialists, on expensive equipment that is either not needed, or underused or badly misused, on tons of identical and dull text books, readers and workbooks, and now on latest devices like Computers. For much less than what we do spend, we could make our classrooms into far better learning environments than most of them are today.

6.(a) uå©åu¬uQo ™Ï“Áƒ∫Áı N˛Á Es| Àú…b N˛∫oz “ÏL GåN˛Á ƒÁMÆÁı ™ı üÆÁzT N˛yu\L: 2 x 5 = 10

(i) EM¬ ú∫ úns∫ ú‰gåÁ (ii) EÁÀoyå N˛Á ÃÁÂú (iii) GëÁyÃ-§yÃ N˛Á EÊo∫ “ÁzåÁ (iv) “ƒÁF| uN˛¬z §åÁåÁ (v) tÁ¬ ™ı N˛Á¬Á “ÁzåÁ 324 Main Examination : The Big Battle

(b) uå©åu¬uQo ƒÁMÆÁı Nz˛ ∆ÏÚ øú u¬uQL : 2 x 5 = 10

(i) “™ N˛Á}¬z\ \ÁHÊTÁ@ (ii) üÁo:N˛Á¬ ÃÓ∫\ GToÁ “{@ (iii) ƒ“ Eúåz ™ÁoÁ-uúoÁ N˛Á FN˛¬Á{oÁ ÃÊoÁå “{@ (iv) GÃåz N˛¬ ™Ï^z TÁ¬y utÆÁ@ (v) åÁ{N˛∫ EÁbÁ uúÃÁ ¬ÁÆÁ@

(i) §zby (ii) TÊTÁ (iii) ÃÁzåÁ (iv) “ƒÁ (v) o¬ƒÁ∫

(d) uå©åu¬uQo ÆÏS™Áı N˛Áz FÃ o∫“ Ãz ƒÁMÆ ™ı üÆÏO˛ N˛yu\L uN˛ GåN˛Á Es| Àú…b “Áz \ÁL EÁ{∫ GåNz˛ §yY N˛Á EÊo∫ ßy ∆£tÁs| ™ı u¬uQo øú ™ı ƒum|o “Áz : 2 x 5 = 10

(i) Euƒ∫¬-EuƒN˛¬ (ii) ∫ÊT-∫ÊN˛ (iii) ™{¬Á-™z¬Á (iv) åy∫-åÁ∫y (v) úu∫mÁ™-úu∫™Ám

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325 civilz byte COMPULSARY HINDI 2016

Time Allowed : Three Hours Maximum Marks : 300

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ü≈å-úﬁ Nz˛ u¬L uƒu∆…b EåÏtz∆ Nw˛úÆÁ ü≈åÁı Nz˛ G∫ tzåz Ãz úÓƒ| uå©åu¬uQo ünÆzN˛ EåÏtz∆ N˛Áz ÜÆÁåúÓƒ|N˛ ú‰jı : Ãßy ü≈åÁı N˛Á G∫ u¬QåÁ EuåƒÁÆ| “{@ ünÆzN˛ ü≈å Nz˛ EÊN˛ GÃNz˛ ÃÁ™åz EÊuN˛o “¯@ G∫ u“ãty ™ı “y u¬Qz \ÁLÊTz, Æut uN˛Ãy ü≈å-uƒ∆z ™ı EãÆsÁ uåut|…b å “Áz@ u\å ü≈åÁı Nz˛ ÃÊ§Êá ™ı EuáN˛o™ ∆£t-ÃÊPÆÁ uåáÁ|u∫o “{, ƒ“ÁÊ FÃN˛Á EåÏúÁ¬å uN˛ÆÁ \ÁåÁ YÁu“L@ Æut uN˛Ãy ü≈å N˛Á G∫, uåáÁ|u∫o ∆£t-ÃÊPÆÁ N˛y oÏ¬åÁ ™ı N˛Á„¢˛y ¬Ê§Á ÆÁ ZÁzbÁ “{ oÁz EÊN˛Áı N˛y N˛bÁ{oy N˛y \Á ÃN˛oy “{@ G∫-úÏuÀoN˛Á N˛Á N˛ÁzF| ßy úw…e EsƒÁ úw…e N˛Á ßÁT, \Áz QÁ¬y ZÁz‰gÁ TÆÁ “Áz, GÃz Àú…b øú Ãz N˛Áb utÆÁ \ÁåÁ YÁu“L@

326 Main Examination : The Big Battle

1. uå©åu¬uQo ™ı Ãz uN˛Ãy LN˛ uƒ Æ ú∫ 600 ∆£tÁı ™ı uå§ãá u¬uQL : 100

(a) ÃÊÀNw˛uo MÆÁı ™“nƒúÓm| “{? (b) À™Áb| åT∫ LƒÊ EåÀ™Áb| åÁTu∫N˛! (c) ãÆÁuÆN˛ ÃuN¿˛ÆoÁ (Activism) §åÁ™ ãÆÁuÆN˛ EÃyu™ooÁ (Overreach)! (d) “™Á∫y uƒ∫ÁÃo EÁ{∫ ÀNÓ˛¬y §ÄÁz!

2. uå©åu¬uQo T˘ÁÊ∆ N˛Áz ÜÆÁåúÓƒ|N˛ úu‰jL EÁ{∫ GÃNz˛ EÁáÁ∫ ú∫ åyYz utÆz TÆz ü≈åÁı Nz˛ G∫ Àú…b, Ã“y EÁ{∫ ÃÊuqõo ßÁ Á ™ı tyu\L : 12 x 5 = 60 Æ“ N˛“Á \ÁoÁ “{ uN˛ uÀfiÆÁÂ EÁáz EÁN˛Á∆ ú∫ ZÁF| “ÏF| “¯@ “™ FÃ™ı ÃÊ∆Ázáå N˛∫ N˛“ ÃN˛oz “¯ uN˛ ƒz FÃÃz EuáN˛ ÀsÁå N˛y EuáN˛Á∫y “¯@ ¬zuN˛å oÁz ßy ünÆzN˛ tz∆ Nz˛ Fuo“ÁÃ Nz˛ Ãßy N˛Á¬Áı, ÃÊÀNw˛uo EÁ{∫ ú∫©ú∫Á, qzfi, á™| \Áuo, ƒT|, »zmy, åÀ¬, ƒm|, ƒ{uƒÜÆúÓm| Eoyo LƒÊ ƒo|™Áå ™ı uÀfiÆÁı N˛Áz \yƒå Nz˛ ünÆzN˛ qzfi ™ı úÏª Áı Ãz N˛™o∫ EÁÂN˛Á \ÁoÁ ∫“Á “{@ GåNz˛ ÃÁs LN˛ o∫oy§ Ãz ßÁz\å, N˛ÁÆ|, u∆qÁ, ÀƒÁÀ·Æ LƒÊ uƒN˛ÁÃ ™ı üuoßÁTy “Ázåz Nz˛ EƒÃ∫Áı, åzownƒ EÁ{∫ Eúåz ÀƒõåÁı N˛Áz ÃÁN˛Á∫ N˛∫åz ™ı ßztßÁƒ §∫oÁ \ÁoÁ ∫“Á “{@ ƒz ÃÄÁz EsÁz˙ ™ı uƒ≈ƒ N˛y Ã§Ãz §‰gy N˛“y \ÁÃN˛oy “¯@ uúowÃÁ-√ÆƒÀsÁ uÀfiÆÁı N˛Áz LzÃz √ÆuO˛ÆÁı Nz˛ øú ™ı å“Î tzQoy u\åN˛y Eúåy LN˛ ú“YÁå “Áz@ ƒz FÃ øú ™ı ßy å“Î tzQy \ÁoÎ uN˛ ƒz Eúåz EÁú ™ı Ã©úÓm| “¯ uN˛ GåN˛Á EúåÁ Ã©™Áå EÁ{∫ ÀƒÁÆoÁ “{ uN˛ ƒz Ã©™Áå N˛y EuáN˛Áu∫my “¯ uN˛ ÃÁ™Áu\N˛ √ÆƒÀsÁ ™ı, N˛ÁåÓå ™ı LƒÊ ÃÊÀsÁEÁzÊ ™ı GåNz˛ Ã™Áå EuáN˛Á∫ “¯@ FÃNz˛ §\ÁÆ ƒz úÏª Áı Nz˛ ™Áfi EÁ{„\Á∫ Nz˛ øú ™ı tzQy \Áoy “¯@ Gã“ı úy‰jy N˛Áz EÁTz ¬z \Áåz ƒÁ¬z üoyN˛ Nz˛ øú ™ı, ÃzƒÁßÁƒ ∫Qåz ƒÁ¬y, ÆÁ{å-owuõo N˛y úÓuo| N˛Á ÃÁáå EÁ{∫ úu∫ƒÁ∫ N˛y ÃÁ™ÁãÆ Ã©úëÁoÁ Nz˛ ƒÁ“N˛ Nz˛ øú ™ı ™ÁåÁ \ÁoÁ ∫“Á “{@ GåN˛y ÃÁÊÀNw˛uoN˛ ÀƒyNw˛uo Nz˛ƒ¬ FÃ øú ™ı “{ uN˛ ƒz uN˛Ãy úÏª N˛y úÏfiy, únåy ÆÁ ™ÁÂ “¯@ FÃNz˛ Euou∫O˛ GåN˛y N˛ÁzF| EÁ{∫ ú“YÁå å“Î “{ EÁ{∫ GúÆ|ÏO˛ ú“YÁå Nz˛ å ∫“åz ú∫ ƒz “zÆ twu…b Ãz tzQy \Áoy “¯@ LN˛¬ uÀfiÆÁÂ FÃ ƒw Nz˛ §Á“∫ Q‰gy twu…bTÁzY∫ “Ázoy “¯@ Få™z ƒz ∆Áu™¬ “¯ \Áz ÃÁÊÀNw˛uoN˛ øú Ãz ÀƒyN˛ÁÆ| uƒƒÁ“ ÆÁzSÆ EƒÀsÁ N˛y “¯ ¬zuN˛å Eßy oN˛ uƒƒÁu“o å“Î “¯ EsƒÁ ƒz \Áz uƒáƒÁ “¯, o¬Á„N˛∆ÏtÁ “¯ ÆÁ E¬T “Áz YÏN˛y “¯@ úÏª Nz˛ ÃÏ∫qÁƒw N˛y EåÏúuÀsuo Ã™Á\ ˚Á∫Á EXZy å“Î ™Áåy \Áoy@ Æ“ o§ EÁ{∫ ßy §‰j \Áoy “{ \§ LN˛ Àfiy FÃ ÃÏ∫qÁ-ƒw N˛Áz EÀƒyN˛Á∫ N˛∫ tzoy “{ ÆÁ Eúåz ÃÁsy N˛Áz tÏV|båÁ ÆÁ §y™Á∫y Nz˛ N˛Á∫m QÁz tzoy “{@ úÏª N˛Áz ÃƒÁ|uáN˛ ˚z GÃ Àfiy Ãz “{ \Áz å Nz˛ƒ¬ ENz˛¬z ∫“oy “{ §u¡N˛ úÏª N˛y ZÁÆÁ Nz˛ §Á“∫ Eúåy EuÀ™oÁ Nz˛ ÃÁs \yƒå √Æoyo N˛∫oy “{@

™u“¬ÁLÂ ÃƒÁ|uáN˛ uƒN˛uÃo tz∆Áı ™ı ßy 60 Ãz 80 üuo∆o oN˛ ßÁz\å N˛Á GnúÁtå N˛∫oy “¯ EÁ{∫ uƒ≈ƒ Nz˛ EÁáz ßÁz\å-GnúÁtåN˛oÁ| “Ázåz N˛Á »zÆ ßy Gã“ı “y “{@ ÃÁÊÀNw˛uoN˛ øú Ãz ßy Æut tzQÁ \ÁL oÁz

327 civilz byte EuáN˛ÁÊ∆ V∫Áı ™ı uÀfiÆÁÂ “y ßÁz\å-ütÁoÁ “¯@ osÁuú ßÁ∫oƒ | ™ı ÃÁ™Áu\N˛-ÃÁÊÀNw˛uoN˛ ∫yuoÆÁÂ Æ“ ÃÏuåu≈Yo N˛∫oy “¯ uN˛ V∫Áı ™ı uÀfiÆÁÂ å Nz˛ƒ¬ §Át ™ı QÁLÂTy EÁ{∫ N˛™ QÁLÂTy §u¡N˛ N˛ßy-N˛ßy oÁz LzÃÁ ßy “Áz ÃN˛oÁ “{ uN˛ GåNz˛ QÁåz Nz˛ u¬L NÏ˛Z å §Yz@ LzÃz V∫Áı ™ı \“ÁÂ úÆÁ|õo ™ÁfiÁ ™ı ßÁz\å “{, ƒ“ÁÂ ßy uÀfiÆÁı N˛Áz úÁz m-ÆÏO˛ ßÁz\å å“Î u™¬ úÁoÁ@ LN˛¬ uÀfiÆÁÂ ßy ÃÁ™Áu\N˛ §ãáåÁı EÁ{∫ Euou∫O˛ ßztßÁƒ Nz˛ Y¬oz FÃ »zmy ™ı EÁ \Áoy “¯ \§uN˛ ƒz ENz˛¬z Eúåz t™ ú∫ tÏuåÆÁ ™ı ÃÊV | N˛∫oy “¯@ ßÁ∫o Gå tz∆Áı ™ı Ãz LN˛ “{ \“ÁÂ úÏª Áı N˛y oÏ¬åÁ ™ı uÀfiÆÁı N˛y ÃÊPÆÁ N˛™ “{@ tz∆ N˛y \åÃÊPÆÁ ™ı GåN˛Á üuo∆o uúZ¬y ∆oÁ£ty Ãz ¬TÁoÁ∫ uT∫ ∫“Á “{@ 2001 N˛y \åTmåÁ Ãz Æ“ rÁo “ÏEÁ uN˛ ünÆzN˛ 1000 úÏª Áı Nz˛ Ã™ÁåÁão∫ 933 uÀfiÆÁÂ “¯@ Æut úÏª Áı N˛y o∫“ uÀfiÆÁı N˛Áz Ã™Áå \yƒå- EƒÃ∫ u™¬ı EÁ{∫ ÃÁs “y GåNz˛ ÀƒÁÀ·Æ EÁ{∫ úÁz m N˛Á ÜÆÁå ∫QÁ \ÁL oÁz Æ“ ÃÊßÁƒåÁ §¬ƒoy “Áz \ÁLTy uN˛ úÏª Áı EÁ{∫ uÀfiÆÁı N˛y ÃÊPÆÁ §∫Á§∫ “Áz\ÁL@ u¢˛¬“Á¬ 2001 ™ı úÏª Áı N˛y oÏ¬åÁ ™ı uÀfiÆÁÂ 3 N˛∫Áz‰g 50 ¬ÁQ N˛™ sÎ@ Æz EåÏúÁo 2011 N˛y \åTmåÁ ™ı sÁz‰gÁ ÃÏá∫Á EsÁ|oΩ 933 N˛y oÏ¬åÁ ™ı 940 “ÁzTÆÁ@ LN˛ §‰gy uYÊoÁ N˛Á uƒ Æ Æ“ “{ uN˛ 2001 ™ı 6 ÃÁ¬ oN˛ Nz˛ §ÄÁÁı ™ı ¬‰gN˛Áı N˛y oÏ¬åÁ ™ı ¬‰guN˛ÆÁı N˛y \ã™-t∫ 927 “y ∫“ TÆy EÁ{∫ 2011 ™ı EÁ{∫ uT∫ N˛∫ 914 ∫“ TÆy@ Æz EÁÂN˛‰gz §oÁoz “¯ uN˛ ÃÁ™Áu\N˛ EÁ{∫ ÃÁÊÀNw˛uoN˛ uƒÃÊTuoÆÁı LƒÊ §‰joy oN˛åyN˛ Nz˛ Y¬oz ¬TÁoÁ∫ uÀfiÆÁı Nz˛ \yƒå- EƒÃ∫ N˛™ “Ázoz \Á ∫“z “¯@ N˛“Á \Á ÃN˛oÁ “{ uN˛ ßÁ∫oyÆ Ã™Á\ ™ı uåÆu™o øú Ãz ¬ÁQÁı ¬‰guN˛ÆÁÂ LƒÊ uÀfiÆÁÂ ™Á∫y \Á ∫“y “¯@

(a) \åTmåÁ Nz˛ EÁÂN˛‰gz ¬‰guN˛ÆÁı LƒÊ uÀfiÆÁı Nz˛ §Á∫z ™ı MÆÁ Ããtz∆ tzoz “¯? 12 (b) ßÁz\å LƒÊ uÀfiÆÁı Nz˛ ÃÊtß| ™ı u™¬åz ƒÁ¬y EÃ™ÁåoÁ N˛y uƒg©§åÁ MÆÁ “{? 12 (c) FÃ N˛så Ãz ¬zQN˛ N˛Á MÆÁ EußüÁÆ “{ uN˛ uÀfiÆÁÂ EÁáz Ãz EuáN˛ EÁN˛Á∆ ™ı ZÁF| “ÏF| “¯? 12 (d) uúowÃÁn™N˛ Ã™Á\ ™ı uÀfiÆÁÂ N{˛Ãz <<™Áfi EÁ{„\Á∫>> §åN˛∫ ∫“ TÆy “¯? 12 (d) ¬zQN˛ Nz˛ EåÏÃÁ∫ LN˛¬ Àfiy N˛Áz N{˛Ãz “™Á∫z Ã™Á\ ™ı EÁÃÁåy Ãz quo ú“ÂÏYÁF| \Á ÃN˛oy “{? 12

3. uå©åu¬uQo EåÏXZzt N˛Á ÃÁ∫ÁÊ∆ ¬TßT LN˛-uo“ÁF| ∆£tÁı ™ı u¬uQL@ FÃN˛Á ∆y |N˛ u¬Qåz N˛y EÁƒ≈ÆN˛oÁ å“Î “{@ ÃÁ∫ÁÊ∆ Eúåz ∆£tÁı ™ı “y u¬uQL 60 “™™ı Ãz EuáN˛ÁÊ∆ ¬ÁzT FÃ §Áo Ãz Ã“™o “ÁıTz uN˛ ƒ„¢˛ÁtÁ∫ “ÁzåÁ ü∆ÊÃåyÆ “{@ “™ Eúåz úu∫ƒÁ∫ Nz˛ üuo, u™ﬁÁı Nz˛ üuo osÁ Eúåz tz∆ Nz˛ üuo ƒ„¢˛ÁtÁ∫y N˛y EåÏ∆ÊÃÁ N˛∫oz “¯@ ƒÁÀoƒ ™ı Gå Ãßy √ÆuO˛ÆÁı osÁ Ã™Ó“Áı Nz˛ üuo “™ı ƒ„¢˛ÁtÁ∫ “ÁzåÁ ßy YÁu“L u\åNz˛ üuo “™ EÁßÁ∫y “Ázoz “¯@ \§ “™ ƒ„¢˛ÁtÁ∫y N˛y §Áo N˛∫oz “¯ oÁz “™Á∫Á EußüÁÆ Æ“ “ÁzoÁ “{ uN˛ \§ ƒz N˛ueåÁFÆÁı ™ı EsƒÁ uN˛Ãy uƒútÁ ™ı “Áz

328 Main Examination : The Big Battle oÁz “™ GåN˛y Ã“ÁÆoÁ Nz˛ u¬L üÀoÏo ∫“ı@ ÃÁs “y “∫ Ã™Æ GåN˛y ß¬ÁF| “™Á∫y EußªuY “Áz@ EÁ™oÁ{∫ ú∫ Æ“ ßy Àú…b øú Ãz úÁÆÁ \ÁoÁ “{ uN˛ N˛ÁzF| √ÆuO˛ §zƒ„¢˛Á o§ “ÁzoÁ “{ \§ ƒ“ Eúåz ™ÁoÁ- uúoÁ Nz˛ üuo GtÁÃyå ∫“oÁ “{ ÆÁ ƒ“ Eúåz tz∆ N˛y ÃzåÁ Nz˛ uƒªÚ uƒ¸Áz“ N˛∫oÁ “{ EÁ{∫ Eúåz tz∆ Nz˛ ¬ÁzTÁı N˛Áz EÊáÁáÏÊá ™Á{o Nz˛ VÁb GoÁ∫oÁ “{@ FÃ üN˛Á∫ Nz˛ ¬ÁzTÁı N˛Áz “™™ı Ãz EuáN˛ÁÊ∆o: EåÏ™Ázuto å“Î N˛∫oz@ ¬zuN˛å, EåzN˛ §Á∫ LzÃy uÀsuo ßy ú{tÁ “Ázoy “{ uN˛ \§ Æ“ uåm|Æ N˛∫åÁ N˛ueå “Áz \ÁoÁ “{ uN˛ N˛Á{å ƒ„¢˛ÁtÁ∫ “{ EÁ{∫ N˛Á{å å“Î@ LN˛ YoÏ∫ §ÄÁÁ u∆qÁ ZÁz‰g N˛∫ áå N˛™Áåz Nz˛ Eúåz ™ÁoÁ-uúoÁ Nz˛ EÁT¿“ N˛Á uƒ∫Ázá N˛∫ ÃN˛oÁ “{@ GÃN˛Á Æ“ uƒ≈ƒÁÃ “Áz ÃN˛oÁ “{ uN˛ ƒ“ Eúåy u∆qÁ N˛Áz NÏ˛Z EÁ{∫ ƒ | \Á∫y ∫Qoz “ÏL ßuƒ…Æ ™ı Eúåz ™ÁoÁ-uúoÁ N˛Áz EÁ{∫ §z“o∫ jÊT Ãz NÏ˛Z ¬Á{bÁ ÃN˛oÁ “{@ Æut ƒ“ Eúåy u∆qÁ N˛Áz Eßy ÀsÁuTo N˛∫ tzoÁ “{ oÁz GÃN˛y üuoßÁ uƒå…b “Áz \ÁLTy EÁ{∫ GÃN˛Á ¬Áß uN˛Ãy N˛Áz ßy å“Î u™¬ úÁLTÁ@ NÏ˛Z N˛¡úåÁ“yå ¬ÁzT “y FÃ üN˛Á∫ N˛Á uåm|Æ ¬zåz ƒÁ¬z ¬‰gNz˛ ÆÁ ¬‰gN˛y N˛y uåÊtÁ N˛∫ıTz@ uNÊ˛oÏ EÁ™oÁ{∫ ú∫ FÃ üN˛Á∫ N˛Á §ÄÁÁ Æut N˛|√Æuå…e LƒÊ ÃÊƒztå∆y¬ “Áz oÁz GÃN˛y ™tt N˛y \Áåy YÁu“L EÁ{∫ GÃz üÁznÃÁu“o ßy uN˛ÆÁ \ÁåÁ YÁu“L, §\ÁL FÃNz˛ uN˛ GÃN˛y EÁ¬ÁzYåÁ N˛y \ÁL@ tÓÃ∫y o∫„¢˛ NÏ˛Z uƒu∆…b úu∫uÀsuoÆÁı ™ı Æut N˛ÁzF| §ÄÁÁ Eúåz T∫y§ ™ÁoÁ-uúoÁ Nz˛ ™tt Ã©§ãáy EÁT¿“ N˛Áz eÏN˛∫Á tzoÁ “{ oÁz GÃz §zƒ„¢˛Á Ã™^Á \ÁoÁ “{@ Æut ƒ“ ßuƒ…Æ ™ı Ã„¢˛¬oÁ “ÁuÃ¬ N˛∫oÁ “{ oÁz ƒ“ Eúåy ÆÏƒÁƒÀsÁ N˛y §zƒ„¢˛ÁF| ú∫ üÁÆu≈Yo N˛∫oÁ “{@ N˛ßy-N˛ßy Æ“ Ã™ÀÆÁ o§ EÁ{∫ §‰gy “Áz \Áoy “{ \§ uN˛Ãy √ÆuO˛ N˛Áz Eúåz tz∆ N˛y Ã∫N˛Á∫ Ãz \Áz‰g N˛∫ FÃ Ã©§ãá ™ı tzQÁ \ÁoÁ “{@ Eúåz tz∆ ™ı TÊßy∫oÁ EÁ{∫ tÁuÆnƒ-uåƒÁ|“ Nz˛ ÃÁs ∫“åz ƒÁ¬z √ÆuO˛ÆÁı N˛Á ƒ“ Ã™Ó“, \Áz Eúåz tz∆ N˛Áz QÏ∆“Á¬ osÁ Ã™wÚ tzQåÁ YÁ“oÁ “{, N˛ßy-N˛ßy Ã∫N˛Á∫ Nz˛ uƒªÚ Æ“ ÃÁzYN˛∫ uƒ¸Áz“ N˛∫ tzoÁ “{ uN˛ ƒ“ Ã∫N˛Á∫ uåN˛©™y “{, GÃNz˛ úÁÃ GÃ Ã∫N˛Á∫ Nz˛ uƒªÚ Ã∆Àfi uƒ¸Áz“ N˛∫åz Nz˛ Euou∫O˛ N˛ÁzF| EãÆ uƒN˛¡ú å“Î §YÁ@ LzÃz ¬ÁzTÁı N˛Áz Ã∫N˛Á∫ onN˛Á¬ uƒ¸Áz“y EÁ{∫ üƒÊYN˛ VÁzu o N˛∫ tzoy “{@ “Áz ÃN˛oÁ “{ uN˛ ƒz uƒ¸Áz“y “Áı, uN˛ãoÏ Gã“ı üƒÊYN˛ N˛“åÁ GuYo å“Î ¬ToÁ@ “Áz ÃN˛oÁ “{ uN˛ ƒ“ Ã™Ó“ Eúåz tz∆ƒÁuÃÆÁı Nz˛ üuo EuáN˛ ƒ„¢˛ÁtÁ∫ “Áz, §\ÁL FÃNz˛ uN˛ ƒ“ Ã∫N˛Á∫ Nz˛ üuo ƒ„¢˛ÁtÁ∫ “Áz@ tÏßÁ|SÆ Ãz o§ oN˛ Æ“ N˛“åÁ §“Ïo N˛ueå “{ uN˛ GÃ Ã™Ó“ N˛Á uƒ¸Áz“ tz∆ Nz˛ üuo ƒ„¢˛ÁtÁ∫y Nz˛ N˛Á∫m üzu∫o “{ EsƒÁ GÃNz˛ uå\y ÀƒÁsÁz˙ Nz˛ N˛Á∫m, \§ oN˛ uN˛ ƒ“ uƒ¸Áz“ Ã„¢˛¬ å “Áz \ÁL@ o§ Æ“ ü≈å GeoÁ “{ uN˛ E§ \§ uƒ¸Áz“y Ã„¢˛¬ “Áz TL “¯ EÁ{∫ Gã“Áıåz åF| Ã∫N˛Á∫ §åÁ ¬y “{ oÁz MÆÁ ƒz Æ“ ÀƒyN˛Á∫ N˛∫ıTz uN˛ tz∆ N˛y Ã™Ào å\ÃÊPÆÁ EÁ{∫ GåNz˛ ∫Á\åyuoN˛ ∆fiÏEÁzÊ Nz˛ ßy NÏ˛Z EuáN˛Á∫ oÁz Eƒ≈Æ “¯; \{Ãz Eúåz uƒYÁ∫Áı N˛Áz úÓ∫y EÁ\Áty Nz˛ ÃÁs üÀoÏo N˛∫åz N˛Á EuáN˛Á∫ EÁ{∫ \å-Ã™s|å \ÏbÁåz Nz˛ üÆnå N˛Á EuáN˛Á∫@ ÆÁ ƒz Ã™Ó“ Eúåy ∆uO˛ÆÁı N˛Á GúÆÁzT ∫Á\åyuoN˛ ∆fiÏEÁzÊ N˛Áz Ã™Áõo 329 civilz byte N˛∫åz ™ı N˛∫ ∫“z “¯@ Æut ƒz ú“¬Á EÁY∫m N˛∫ ∫“z “¯ oÁz Ã™^Áz uN˛ ƒz Eúåz tz∆ Nz˛ üuo úÓ∫y o∫“ ƒ„¢˛ÁtÁ∫ “¯, å uN˛ ƒz Eúåz Ã™Ó“ Nz˛ ¬Áß Nz˛ üuo ƒ„¢˛ÁtÁ∫ “¯ EÁ{∫ Æut ƒz tÓÃ∫z üN˛Á∫ N˛Á EÁY∫m N˛∫ ∫“z “¯ oÁz “™ı Æ“ Ã™^åÁ YÁu“L uN˛ ƒz u\Ã Ã∫N˛Á∫ N˛Áz uT∫Á N˛∫ EÁL “¯, GÃÃz EuáN˛ ƒ„¢˛ÁtÁ∫y tz∆ Nz˛ üuo ƒz ßy å“Î N˛∫ ∫“z “¯@ FÃN˛Á §Ázá “™ı EnÆuáN˛ tz∫y Ãz \ÁN˛∫ “y “ÁzoÁ “{@ (686 ∆£t)

4. uå©åu¬uQo T˘ÁÊ∆ N˛Á EÊT¿z\y ™ı EåÏƒÁt N˛yu\L : 20 LN˛ E™y∫ Eúåz \“Á„\ ú∫ Ã™Ï¸y ÆÁfiÁ N˛∫ ∫“Á sÁ, GÃy Ã™Æ LN˛ oÓ„¢˛Áå EÁÆÁ@ \“Á\ ú∫ LN˛ TÏ¬Á™ \Áz ú“¬y §Á∫ Ã™Ï¸y ÆÁfiÁ N˛∫ ∫“Á sÁ, EÁoÊuN˛o “Áz N˛∫ ∫Ázåz-uY¡¬Áåz ¬TÁ@ Æ“ NÏ˛Z tz∫ oN˛ Y¬oÁ ∫“Á EÁ{∫ N˛ÁzF| ßy GÃz YÏú å“Î N˛∫Á ÃN˛Á@ N¿˛Ázuáo “Áz N˛∫ E™y∫ åz úÓZÁ <> LN˛ tÁ∆|uåN˛ ßy GÃ \“Á\ ú∫ ÆÁfiÁ N˛∫ ∫“Á sÁ@ GÃåz E™y∫ Ãz N˛“Á- <<™¯ FÃ EÁt™y N˛Áz YÏú N˛∫Á ÃN˛oÁ “ÂÓ@ ™“ÁztÆ, EÁú ™Ï^z §Ã FÃ §Áo N˛y EåÏ™uo tı uN˛ ™¯ \Áz YÁ“ÂÓ, FÃNz˛ ÃÁs N˛øÂ@>> E™y∫ åz N˛“Á- <> tÁ∆|uåN˛ åz NÏ˛Z åÁuƒN˛Áı N˛Áz §Ï¬ÁÆÁ LƒÊ Gã“ı EÁtz∆ utÆÁ uN˛ FÃ TÏ¬Á™ N˛Áz Ã™Ï¸ ™ı ¢ı˛N˛ utÆÁ \ÁL@ åÁuƒN˛Áı åz LzÃÁ “y uN˛ÆÁ@ uåªúÁÆ “Áz N˛∫ GÃ T∫y§ EÁt™y åz ßÆƒ∆ uY¡¬Áoz “ÏL Eúåz “Ás-úÁÂƒ §‰gy oyƒ¿oÁ Ãz Y¬Áåz ∆Ïø N˛∫ utL@ ¬zuN˛å NÏ˛Z “y Ã™Æ ™ı tÁ∆|uåN˛ åz åÁuƒN˛Áı N˛Áz Æ“ EÁtz∆ utÆÁ uN˛ ƒ“ GÃ TÏ¬Á™ N˛Áz \“Á„\ ú∫ ƒÁúÃ ¬z EÁLÂ@ \“Á„\ ú∫ EÁoz “y úÀo EÁ{∫ ßÆßyo TÏ¬Á™ u§¡NÏ˛¬ YÏú “Áz TÆÁ@ E™y∫ FÃ EÁN˛uÀ™N˛ úu∫ƒo|å ú∫ YuN˛o “Áz TÆÁ@ GÃåz tÁ∆|uåN˛ Ãz FÃN˛Á N˛Á∫m úÓZÁ@ tÁ∆|uåN˛ §Áz¬Á- <<“™ N˛ßy Æ“ å“Î Ã™ôz uN˛ “™ uN˛Ãy ßy uÀsuo ™ı uN˛oåz eyN˛-eÁN˛ “¯ \§ oN˛ uN˛ “™ uN˛Ãy §to∫ uÀsuo ™ı å“Î ú“ÏÂY \Áoı@>>

5. uå©åu¬uQo T˘ÁÊ∆ N˛Á u“ãty ™ı EåÏƒÁt N˛yu\L : 20

next day. But they won't feel tired at all if we wake them up at times when they are not dreaming. So the lesson is clear : it is dreaming that really refreshes us, not just sleep. We always dream more if we have had to do without sleep for any length of time.

If that is the case, how can we explain it ? I think the best parallel I can draw is with computers. After all, a computer is a very primitive sort of brain. To make a computer work, we give it a program. When it is working, we can say it is 'awake'. If ever we want to change the program, that is to change the information we put into the computer, what do we do ? Well, we have to stop the computer and put in a new program or change the old program.

6.(a) uå©åu¬uQo ™Ï“Áƒ∫Áı N˛Á Es| Àú…b N˛∫oz “ÏL GåN˛Á ƒÁMÆÁı ™ı üÆÁzT N˛yu\L:2 x 5 = 10 (i) EÊTÁ∫Áı ú∫ ¬Á{båÁ (ii) F|Êb N˛Á \ƒÁ§ úns∫ Ãz tzåÁ (iii) QbÁF| ™ı ú‰gåÁ (iv) VÁz‰gz §zY N˛∫ ÃÁzåÁ (v) \Óoz YÁbåÁ

(b) uå©åu¬uQo ƒÁMÆÁı Nz˛ ∆ÏÚ øú u¬uQL : 2 x 5 = 10

(i) T¬y™o “{ uN˛ ™¯ uT∫oz uT∫oz §Y TÆÁ@ (ii) “™ \ÁoÁ “ÂÓ@ (iii) ¬‰gN˛y QÁoÁ “{@ (iv) “™åz ÀNÓ˛¬ \ÁåÁ “{@ (v) GÃåz ™Ï^z ut¡¬y §Ï¬ÁF|@

(i) úÊN˛\ (ii) F|…ÆÁ| (iii) EÁutnÆ (iv) E\|Ïå (v) EÁN˛Á∆

(d) uå©åu¬uQo ÆÏS™Áı N˛Áz FÃ o∫“ Ãz ƒÁMÆ ™ı üÆÏO˛ N˛yu\L uN˛ GåN˛Á Es| Àú…b “Áz \ÁL EÁ{∫ GåNz˛ §yY N˛Á EÊo∫ ßy ∆£tÁs| ™ı u¬uQo øú ™ı ƒum|o “Áz : 2 x 5 = 10 (i) ü™Ám - ümÁ™ (ii) Eq∫ - Eqo (iii) EÁßÁÃ - EÁƒÁÃ (iv) üuorÁ - üoyqÁ (v) Eá™ - Eá™| ––––––––––– ––––––––––– 331 civilz byte COMPULSARY HINDI 2017

Time Allowed : Three Hours Maximum Marks : 300

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332 Main Examination : The Big Battle

1. uå©åu¬uQo ™ı Ãz uN˛Ãy LN˛ uƒ Æ ú∫ 600 ∆£tÁı ™ı uå§ãá u¬uQL: 100

a) oN˛åyN˛ Nz˛ EnÆuáN˛ üÆÁzT Ãz GnúëÁ Qo∫z b) á™|uå∫úzqoÁ ¬ÁzN˛oÊﬁ N˛y ∆uO˛ “{ c) åÁzb§ãty Ãz ßÁ∫oyÆ Es|√ÆƒÀsÁ N˛Áz tyV| Eƒuá ™ı “Ázåz ƒÁ¬z ¬Áß d) EÁÆÏƒz|t-úÚuo Nz˛ üuo úÁ≈YÁnÆ tz∆Áı N˛Á EÁN˛ |m

2. uå©åu¬uQo T˘ÁÊ∆ N˛Áz ÜÆÁåúÓƒ|N˛ úu‰jL EÁ{∫ GÃNz˛ EÁáÁ∫ ú∫ åyYz utÆz TÆz ü≈åÁı Nz˛ G∫ Àú…b, Ã“y EÁ{∫ ÃÊuqõo ßÁ Á ™ı tyu\L: 12 x 5 = 60 ™uÀo…N˛ N˛Á ÃƒÁz|™ ßÁz\å úÏÀoNı˛ “¯@ LN˛ uƒYÁ∫N˛ N˛Á N˛så “{ uN˛ ™Áåƒ \Áuo åz \Áz NÏ˛Z ÃÁzYÁ, uN˛ÆÁ EÁ{∫ úÁÆÁ “{, ƒ“ úÏÀoN˛Áı ™ı ÃÏ∫uqo “{@ ™Áåƒ-Ã•ÆoÁ EÁ{∫ ÃÊÀNw˛uo Nz˛ uƒN˛ÁÃ N˛Á úÓ∫Á »zÆ úÏÀoN˛Áı N˛Áz \ÁoÁ “{@ úÏÀoN˛Áı N˛Á ™“‹ƒ EÁ{∫ ™Ó¡Æ §z\Áz‰g “{@ úÏÀoNı˛ EÊo:N˛∫m N˛Áz G[[ƒ¬ N˛∫oy “¯@ EXZy úÏÀoNı˛ ™åÏ…Æ N˛Áz ú∆Ïnƒ Ãz tzƒnƒ N˛y EÁz∫ ¬z \Áoy “¯, GÃN˛y ÃÁunƒN˛ ƒwuÆÁı N˛Áz \ÁTwo N˛∫ GÃz úsß¿…b “Ázåz Ãz §YÁoy “¯ LƒÊ ™åÏ…Æ, Ã™Á\ EÁ{∫ ∫Á…b~ N˛Á ™ÁT|t∆|å N˛∫oy “¯@ úÏÀoN˛Áı N˛Á “™Á∫z ™å EÁ{∫ ™uÀo…N˛ ú∫ ÀsÁÆy üßÁƒ ú‰goÁ “{ EÁ{∫ ƒz üz∫mÁtÁÆN˛ “Ázoy “¯@ úÏÀoNı˛ ™åÁz∫Ê\å Nz˛ qzﬁ ™ı ßy ™Áåƒ N˛y ÃzƒÁ N˛∫oy “¯@ Æ“ÁÂ ™åÁz∫Ê\å N˛Á oÁnúÆ| Nz˛ƒ¬ “ÁÃ-uƒ¬ÁÃ Ãz å“Î “{ EuúoÏ ™åÁz∫Ê\å N˛Á Es| T“å “{@ \Áz úÏÀoNı˛ úÁeN˛Áı N˛Áz T“∫ÁF| Ãz ZÓ ¬zoy “¯ EÁ{∫ GåNz˛ ™å N˛Áz ∫™Á ¬zoy “¯ ƒz ÃXYz EsÁz˙ ™ı ™åÁz∫Ê\N˛ úÏÀoNı˛ “¯@ \Áz úÏÀoN˛ úÁeN˛ N˛Áz u\oåy T“∫ÁF| ™ı ¬z \Áoy “{, ƒ“ Goåy “y EÁ⁄ÁtN˛Á∫y “Ázoy “{@ ÆÁı “¡Nz˛-¢Ï˛¡Nz˛ ÃÁu“nÆ N˛Á ™“‹ƒ ßy N˛™ å“Î “{@ LzÃÁ ÃÁu“nÆ ™åÏ…Æ Nz˛ oåÁƒ N˛Áz LN˛ §‰gy Ãy™Á oN˛ N˛™ N˛∫ tzoÁ “{ EÁ{∫ GÃNz˛ ™Ï∫^ÁL ™å N˛Áz uQ¬Á tzoÁ “{@ EXZy úÏÀoNı˛ ™Áåƒ N˛Áz rÁå EÁ{∫ ™åÁz∫Ê\å ütÁå N˛∫oy “¯@ uƒrÁå, ƒÁum[Æ, N˛¬Á EÁ{∫ N˛ÁåÓå N˛y úÏÀoNı˛ ™Áåƒ Nz˛ rÁå ™ı ƒwuÚ N˛∫oy “¯@ Fã“ı ú‰j N˛∫ ™åÏ…Æ Eúåz ßyo∫ EÁÊou∫N˛ ∆uO˛ N˛Á EåÏßƒ N˛∫oÁ “{@ ÃXYy §Áo oÁz Æ“ “{ uN˛ úÏÀoNı˛ “™Á∫y ÃXYy ™ÁT|t∆|N˛ “¯@ ƒz “™ı åL-åL qzﬁÁı EÁ{∫ ∫“ÀÆÁı N˛Á rÁå oÁz N˛∫Áoy “y “¯, ÃÁs “y uYÊoå EÁ{∫ ™åå Nz˛ u¬L ßy §ÁÜÆ N˛∫oy “¯@ úÏÀoNı˛ ™åÏ…Æ N˛y tÏuƒáÁ N˛Áz Ã™Áõo N˛∫ tw‰j ÃÊN˛¡ú \TÁoy “¯@ TÁÂáy \y N˛Áz ™ÁÂ N˛y ÃÊrÁ tzoz sz MÆÁıuN˛ ünÆzN˛ N˛ueå uÀsuo ™ı ƒ“ GåN˛Á ™ÁT|t∆|å N˛∫oy sy@ úÏÀoNı˛ LzÃy ™ÁT|t∆|N˛ “¯ \Áz å oÁz tÊg tzoy “¯, å N¿˛Ázuáo “Ázoy “¯ EÁ{∫ å “y üuotÁå ™ı NÏ˛Z ™ÁÂToy “¯ ¬zuN˛å ÃÁs “y EúåÁ E™wo-o‹ƒ tzåz ™ı N˛ÁzF| N˛ÁzoÁ“y å“Î §∫ooy “¯@ úÏÀoNı˛ ™åÏ…Æ N˛Áz ÃXYÁ ÃÏQ EÁ{∫ uƒ»ÁÊuo ütÁå N˛∫oy “¯@ úÏÀoN˛-üz™y Ã§Ãz EuáN˛ ÃÏQy “ÁzoÁ “{@ ƒ“ \yƒå ™ı N˛ßy ∆ÓãÆoÁ N˛Á EåÏßƒ å“Î N˛∫oÁ “{@ úÏÀoN˛Áı ú∫ úÓ∫Á ß∫ÁzÃÁ uN˛ÆÁ \Á ÃN˛oÁ “{@

333 civilz byte uƒYÁ∫Áı Nz˛ ÆÏÚ ™ı úÏÀoNı˛ “y EÀﬁ “¯@ úÏÀoN˛Áı ™ı uåu“o uƒYÁ∫ Ã©úÓm| Ã™Á\ N˛y N˛ÁÆÁú¬b N˛∫åz N˛∫åz ™ı Ã™s| “¯@ EÁ\ N˛Á ÃÊÃÁ∫ uƒYÁ∫Áı N˛Á “y ÃÊÃÁ∫ “{@ Ã™Á\ ™ı \§ ßy N˛ÁzF| úu∫ƒo|å EÁoÁ “{ EsƒÁ N¿˛Áuão “Ázoy “{, GÃNz˛ ™Ó¬ ™ı N˛ÁzF| å N˛ÁzF| uƒYÁ∫áÁ∫Á “y “Ázoy “{@ »z…e úÏÀoNı˛ Ã™Á\ ™ı åƒYzoåÁ N˛Á ÃÊYÁ∫ N˛∫oy “¯ EÁ{∫ Ã™Á\ ™ı \å\ÁTwuo ¬Áåz ™ı Eúåy ™“‹ƒúÓm| ßÓu™N˛Á EtÁ N˛∫oy “¯@ úÏÀoNı˛ ú‰jåz Ãz ™åÏ…Æ N˛Á twu…bN˛Ázm √ÆÁúN˛ “Áz \ÁoÁ “{ EÁ{∫ GÃ™ı GtÁ-ßÁƒåÁ EÁ \Áoy “{@ úÏÀoNı˛ LzÃy E™∫uåuá “¯ \Áz uúZ¬y úy‰jy Nz˛ EåÏßƒÁı N˛Áz EuƒN˛¬ øú™ı ET¬y úy‰jy oN˛ ú“ÂÏYÁoy “¯@ Få™ı uåu“o rÁå N˛Áz N˛ÁzF| å…b å“Î N˛∫ ÃN˛oÁ@ ÃÊqzú ™ı úÏÀoN˛Áı N˛Á ™“‹ƒ EoÏ¬åyÆ “{@

a) úÏÀoN˛Áı N˛Áz §z\Áz‰g MÆÁı ™ÁåÁ TÆÁ “{? 12

b) FÃ N˛så Ãz ¬zQN˛ N˛Á MÆÁ EußüÁÆ “{ uN˛ <™åÁz∫Ê\å N˛Á Es| T“å “{>? 12

c) úÏÀoNı˛ “™Á∫y ÃXYy ™ÁT|t∆|N˛ MÆÁı “¯? 12

d) TÁÂáy \y N˛Áz ™ÁÂ N˛y ÃÊrÁ MÆÁı tzoz sz? 12

e) úÏÀoNı˛ Ã™Á\ ™ı åƒYzoåÁ N˛Á ÃÊYÁ∫ N{˛Ãz N˛∫oy “¯? 12

3. uå©åu¬uQo EåÏXZzt N˛Á ÃÁ∫ÁÊ∆ ¬TßT LN˛-uo“ÁF| ∆£tÁı ™ı u¬uQL@ FÃN˛Á ∆y |N˛ u¬Qåz N˛y EÁƒ≈ÆN˛oÁ å“Î “{@ ÃÁ∫ÁÊ∆ Eúåz ∆£tÁı ™ı “y u¬uQL@ 60 »™ ÃÊÃÁ∫ ™ı Ã¢˛¬oÁ üÁõo N˛∫åz N˛Á ™“‹ƒúÓm| ÃÁáå “{@ »™ N˛∫ Nz˛ “y “™ Eúåy EÁN˛ÁÊqÁEÁzÊ N˛Áz úÓ∫Á N˛∫ÃN˛oz “¯@ ÃÊÃÁ∫ N˛™|qzfi “{ Eo: N˛™| N˛∫åÁ “y “™ Ã§N˛Á á™| “{@ uN˛Ãy ßy N˛ÁÆ| ™ı “™ı oßy Ã¢˛¬oÁ u™¬ ÃN˛oy “{ \§ “™ úu∫»™ N˛∫ı@ »™ “y \yƒå N˛Áz Tuo ütÁå N˛∫oÁ “{@ Æut “™ »™ N˛y GúzqÁ N˛∫oz “¯ oÁz “™Á∫z \yƒå N˛y Tuo ªN˛\Áoy “{@ EN˛™|lÆoÁ “™ı LzÃz Vz∫ ¬zoy “{ uN˛ GÃNz˛ Vz∫z Ãz uåN˛¬åÁ N˛ueå “Áz \ÁoÁ “{, \§uN˛ úu∫»™y √ÆuO˛ Ãßy üN˛Á∫ N˛y N˛ueåÁFÆÁı Ãz \Ó^ N˛∫ EÁTz §‰joÁ EÁ{∫ Y“ÂÏ™ÏQy Ã¢˛¬oÁ üÁõo N˛∫oÁ “{@ ƒ“ ßÁSÆ N˛Á Ã“Á∫Á å“Î ¬zoÁ §u¡N˛ uå∫ão∫ úÏª Ás| N˛∫oÁ “{@ Ænå N˛∫åz ú∫ ßy úu∫»™y √ÆuO˛ N˛Áz Æut Ã¢˛¬oÁ å“Î u™¬oy oÁz ƒ“ uå∫Á∆ å“Î “ÁzoÁ@ ƒ“ Æ“ \Áååz Nz˛ u¬L ÃYz…b ∫“oÁ “{ uN˛ N˛ÁÆ| ™ı Ã„¢˛¬oÁ MÆÁı å“Î u™¬y EsÁ|oΩ ƒ“ Eúåy N˛u™ÆÁı N˛Áz tÓ∫ N˛∫oÁ “{ oÁuN˛ Ã„¢˛¬oÁ GÃNz˛ N˛t™ YÓ™ ÃNz˛@ FÃ ÃÊÃÁ∫ ™ı “™ı úT-úT ú∫ ÃÊV | N˛∫ EúåÁ ™ÁT| ÀƒÆÊ §åÁåÁ ú‰goÁ “{@ “™ YÁ“z u\oåz ßy ∆uO˛∆Á¬y EÁ{∫ ÃÁáå Ã©úëÁ MÆÁı å “Áı Æut “™ »™ N˛∫åz Ãz §Yoz “¯ oÁz ™Áfi ÃÁáå Ã©úëÁoÁ “™ı ¬flÆ N˛y EÁz∫ å“Î ¬z \Á ÃN˛oy “{@ ÃÊÃÁ∫ ™ı u\oåz ßy ™“ÁúÏª “ÏL “¯ GåN˛y EÁ∆Áoyo Ã„¢˛¬oÁ Nz˛ ™Ó¬ ™ı »™ EÁ{∫ ∆uO˛ N˛Á §‰gÁ ÆÁzTtÁå ∫“Á “{@ 334 Main Examination : The Big Battle “™Á∫z Ã™Á\ ™ı §“Ïo Ãz ¬ÁzT uåÆuoƒÁty ÆÁ ßÁSÆƒÁty “¯@ LzÃz √ÆuO˛ Ã™Á\ N˛y üTuo ™ı §ÁáN˛ “¯@ EÁ\ oN˛ uN˛Ãy ßÁSÆƒÁty åz ÃÊÃÁ∫ ™ı N˛ÁzF| ™“ÁåΩ N˛ÁÆ| å“Î uN˛ÆÁ@ §‰gy-§‰gy QÁz\ı, EÁuƒ…N˛Á∫ LƒÊ uå™Á|m »™ Nz˛ ˚Á∫Á “y ÃÊßƒ “Áz ÃNz˛ “¯@ “™Á∫z ÃÁáå EÁ{∫ üuoßÁ “™ı Nz˛ƒ¬ Gnüzu∫o N˛∫oz “¯, “™Á∫Á ús üt∆|å N˛∫oz “¯ ú∫ ¬flÆ oN˛ “™ »™ Nz˛ ™ÁÜÆ™ Ãz “y ú“ÂÏYoz “¯@ »™ N˛∫åz Ãz Æ∆ EÁ{∫ ƒ{ßƒ- tÁzåÁı N˛y üÁuõo “Ázoy “{@ \§ “™ Eúåz N˛|√Æ N˛Á úÁ¬å N˛∫åz Nz˛ u¬L »™ N˛∫oz “¯ oÁz “™Á∫z ™å N˛Áz LN˛ EtΩßÏo EÁåãt u™¬oÁ “{@ EÊo:N˛∫m N˛Á ÃÁ∫Á úÁú áÏ¬ \ÁoÁ “{ EÁ{∫ ÃÊoÁz N˛Á EåÏßƒ “ÁzoÁ “{@ úu∫»™y √ÆuO˛Nz˛ u¬L N˛ÁzF| ßy N˛™|N˛ÁÊg ™“‹ƒúÓm| å“Î, Eúåz N˛|√Æús ú∫ Y¬åÁ “y GÃN˛y ÃÁáåÁ “{@ \§ N˛ÁzF| uN˛ÃÁå utå ß∫ N˛‰gy áÓú ™ı Eúåz Qzo ™ı ™z“åo N˛∫oÁ “{ EÁ{∫ ÃÁÆÊN˛Á¬ Eúåy ^Ázú‰gy ™ı EÁåãt™Så “ÁzN˛∫ ¬ÁzN˛ TyoÁ TÁoÁ “{ oÁz GÃ Ã™Æ GÃN˛y Àƒ∫ ¬“u∫ÆÁı ™ı \{Ãz ut√Æ ÃÊTyo N˛y Ãwu…b “Ázoy “{@ ∆Á∫yu∫N˛ »™ Ãz ™åÏ…Æ N˛Áz ÃÊoÁz oÁz u™¬oÁ “y “{, GÃN˛Á ∆∫y∫ ßy ÀƒÀs ∫“oÁ “{@ EÁ\N˛¬ ∆Á∫yu∫N˛ »™ Nz˛ EßÁƒ Nz˛ N˛Á∫m “y ™åÏ…Æ EåzN˛ √ÆÁuáÆÁı Ãz uV∫Á “ÏEÁ “{@ ∆Á∫yu∫N˛ »™ ünÆzN˛ √ÆuO˛ Nz˛ u¬L EÁƒ≈ÆN˛ “{@ N˛“åÁ å “ÁzTÁ uN˛ ∆Á∫yu∫N˛ »™ N˛∫åz ƒÁ¬z ¬ÁzT tyV|\yƒy “Ázoz “¯@ Æ“ N˛“Á “y \ÁoÁ “{ uN˛ ÀƒÀs ∆∫y∫ ™ı “y ÀƒÀs ™uÀo…N˛ N˛Á ƒÁÃ “ÁzoÁ “{@ ƒ“ TÊßy∫ Ãz TÊßy∫ o·Æ ßy Ã“\ ™ı “y T¿“m N˛∫ ¬zoÁ “{@ uƒ ™ úu∫uÀsuoÆÁı ™ı ßy ƒ“ V§∫ÁoÁ å“Î “{ §u¡N˛ ÃÁ“Ã Ãz GåN˛Á ™Ï„N˛Á§¬Á N˛∫oÁ “{@ ƒ“ “∫ Ã™ÀÆÁ N˛Á Ã™ÁáÁå QÁz\ ¬zoÁ “{@ ™ÁåuÃN˛ »™ Nz˛ ™“‹ƒ N˛Áz Ã™^ N˛∫ “y “™Á∫z J u uYÊoå ™ı ¬yå ∫“oz sz EÁ{∫ \åu“o N˛Áz ¬z N˛∫ uƒYÁ∫∆y¬ ∫“oz sz@ »™ N˛Á LN˛ uƒu∆…b Es| ßy “{; FÃ Es| ™ı »™ GnúÁtN˛ ßy “{ EÁ{∫ EåÏnúÁtN˛ ßy@ uN˛ÃÁå úu∫»™ Ãz Qzoy N˛∫oÁ “{, Æ“ GnúÁtN˛ »™ N˛y »zmy ™ı EÁLTÁ@ Qz¬ Qz¬åz ™ı ÆÁ √ÆÁÆÁ™ N˛∫åz ™ı \Áz »™ “ÁzoÁ “{, ƒ“ EåÏnúÁtN˛ »™ N˛“Á \ÁLTÁ@ FÃ »™ N˛Á ßy EúåÁ ™“‹ƒ “{@ TÁÂáy \y N˛Á N˛“åÁ sÁ uN˛ \§ »™ “y N˛∫åÁ “{ oÁz GnúÁtN˛ »™ “y MÆÁı å uN˛ÆÁ \ÁL@ ÆÁı TÁÂáy \y Ãßy üN˛Á∫ Nz˛ »™ ™ı EÁåãt N˛Á EåÏßƒ N˛∫oz sz@ u\Ã tz∆ N˛y \åoÁ úu∫»™y “Ázoy “{ ƒ“y tz∆ GëÁuo N˛∫oÁ “{@ \ÁúÁå EÁ{∫ \™|åy åz uƒ≈ƒ ÆÏÚ N˛y uƒßyu N˛ÁEÁzÊ N˛Áz ^z¬åz Nz˛ §Át ßy EúåÁ úÏå:uå™Á|m N˛∫ u¬ÆÁ, FÃN˛Á N˛Á∫m ƒ“ÁÂ N˛y \åoÁ N˛Á »™ “y “{@ uå…N˛ |o: Æ“ N˛“Á \ÁÃN˛oÁ “{ uN˛ »™ “y \yƒå N˛Á ÃÏQ “{ EÁ{∫ Ãw\å N˛Á ™Ó¬ ßy “{@ (705 ∆£t) 335 civilz byte

4. uå©åu¬uQo T˘ÁÊ∆ N˛Á EÊT¿z\y ™ı EåÏƒÁt N˛yu\L 20

ÃÏüuÃÚ ÀƒoÊﬁoÁ ÃzåÁåy ∫Á\u | úÏª Áz™tÁÃ bÊgå åz ÃåΩ 1919 ™ı F¬Á“Á§Át åT∫úÁu¬N˛Á Nz˛ EÜÆq N˛Á N˛ÁÆ|ßÁ∫ ÃÂßÁ¬Á@ Æ“ GåNz˛ u¬L N˛ueå ú∫yqÁ sy MÆÁıuN˛ ƒz ©ÆÏuåuÃú¬ §Ázg| Nz˛ Yz∫™{å oÁz sz ¬zuN˛å EÂT¿z\Áı N˛Á FoåÁ ∫Áz§ EÁ{∫ t§t§Á sÁ uN˛ ÃÁ™ÁãÆ ßÁ∫oyÆNz˛ u¬L GåNz˛ §yY N˛Á™ N˛∫åÁ N˛ueå sÁ@ N˛ÁÆ|ßÁ∫ ÃÂßÁ¬oz “y bÊgå \y åz tzQÁ uN˛ „¢˛Á{\y ZÁƒåy ƒÁ¬z úÁåy N˛Á FÀoz™Á¬ oÁz N˛∫oz “¯ ¬zuN˛å N˛∫ å“Î tzoz “¯@ Gã“Áıåz „¢˛Á{\y ZÁƒåy Nz˛ EuáN˛Á∫y N˛Áz Æ“ åÁzubÃ ßz\Á uN˛ Æut LN˛ ™Á“ Nz˛ ßyo∫ N˛∫ å“Î \™Á uN˛ÆÁ TÆÁ oÁz Gã“ı úÁåy tzåÁ §Êt N˛∫ utÆÁ \ÁLTÁ@ FÃ åÁzubÃ Ãz „¢˛Á{\y ZÁƒåy ™ı, úÓ∫z ∆“∫ ™ı LƒÊ åT∫úÁu¬N˛Á Nz˛ N˛ÁÆÁ|¬Æ ™ı o“¬N˛Á ™Y TÆÁ@ ÀsÁåyÆ EQ§Á∫Áı åz ßy bÊgå \y Nz˛ GúÆ|ÏO˛ EÁtz∆ N˛Áz ü™ÏQoÁ Ãz ZÁúÁ@ ZÁƒåy Nz˛ úÁåy N˛Á N˛åzM∆å N˛Ábåz Nz˛ EÊuo™ utå N˛F| „¢˛Á{\y EuáN˛Á∫y ©ÆÏuåuÃú¬ §Ázg| Nz˛ t°o∫ ™ı ú“ÂÏYz EÁ{∫ Gå™ı Ãz ƒu∫…b EuáN˛Á∫y åz bÊgå \y Ãz N˛“Á uN˛ EÁú ZÁƒåy N˛Á úÁåy §Êt å“Î N˛∫ ÃN˛oz@ bÊgå \y åz ∆ÁÊo ßÁƒ Ãz N˛“Á uN˛ Æut EÁ\ N˛∫ å“Î \™Á uN˛ÆÁ TÆÁ oÁz N˛¬ úÁåy N˛Á N˛∫åzM∆å N˛Áb utÆÁ \ÁLTÁ@ EuáN˛Á∫y N¿˛Ázá ™ı YyQÁ-uY¡¬ÁÆÁ ¬zuN˛å bÊgå \y EuƒYu¬o ∫“z@ Eãoo: Ãßy „¢˛Á{\y EuáN˛Á∫y ƒ“ÁÂ Ãz Y¬z TL@ t°o∫ ™ı ÃåÃåy ¢{˛¬ TÆy@ bÊgå \y N˛y áy∫oÁ EÁ{∫ tw‰joÁ tzQ N˛∫ Ãßy ¬ÁzT uƒuÀ™o sz@ tÓÃ∫z utå ZÁƒåy Nz˛ EÂT¿z\ EuáN˛Áu∫ÆÁı åz N˛∫ \™Á N˛∫ utÆÁ@

5. uå©åu¬uQo T˘ÁÊ∆ N˛Á u“ãty ™ı EåÏƒÁt N˛yu\L 20 In ancient times in most civilized countries, for example, in Egypt, Iraq, India, China and in the Roman Empire, many great irrigation works were constructed. In very hot countries water is even carried in underground channels to prevent it from being evaporated by the sun's heat. In modern times, great dams have been built across rivers and these are used for more than one purpose, hence they are called multipurpose undertakings. Firstly, such dams help to prevent floods, by controlling the amount of water which rushes down a river in the rainy season. This also prevents an enormous amount of damage and loss to farmers. Secondly, by storing up great quantities of water in the artificial lakes behind the dams, irrigation can be provided for many acres of land in the dry season, so that crops can be grown where none would have grown before. Thirdly, the people in the towns and cities in the neighbourhood can be certain of getting a sufficient supply of water for drinking and other purposes, even in the driest weather. Fourthly, the water stored up behind the dams in made to generate electric power by letting it run through turbines. 336 Main Examination : The Big Battle

6. a) uå©åu¬uQo ™Ï“Áƒ∫Áı N˛Á Es| Àú…b N˛∫oz “ÏL GåN˛Á ƒÁMÆÁı ™ı üÆÁzT N˛yu\L 2 x5= 10 i) YÁÂt ú∫ sÓN˛åÁ 2 ii) “sz¬y ú∫ Ã∫ÃÁı GTÁåÁ 2 iii) Yz“∫z ú∫ “ƒÁFÆÁÂ G‰gåÁ 2 iv) EúåÁ G¡¬Ó ÃyáÁ N˛∫åÁ 2 v) T‰gz ™Ïtz| GQÁ‰gåÁ 2

b) uå©åu¬uQo ƒÁMÆÁı Nz˛ ∆ÏÚ øú u¬uQL 2 x 5 = 10

i) Gã“Áıåz “Ás \Áz‰gÁ@ 2 ii) ∆z∫ N˛Áz tzQ N˛∫ GÃNz˛ üÁm ÃÓQ TÆÁ@ 2 iii) Nw˛úÆÁ EÁ\ N˛Á EƒN˛Á∆ tzåz N˛y Nw˛úÁ N˛∫ı@ 2 iv) NÏ˛Z üN˛Á∆N˛ ¬zQN˛Áı N˛Áz uå∫Á∆Á tzoz “¯@ 2 v) åyoÁ QÁoÁ “{@ 2

c) uå©åu¬uQo ∆£tÁı Nz˛ tÁz-tÁz úÆÁ|ÆƒÁYy u¬uQL 2 x 5 = 10

i) úÏ…ú 2 ii) úw·ƒy 2 iii) N˛Á™tzƒ 2 iv) Yã¸™Á 2 v) åty 2

d) uå©åu¬uQo ÆÏS™Áı N˛Áz FÃ o∫“ Ãz ƒÁMÆ ™ı üÆÏO˛ N˛yu\L uN˛ GåN˛Á Es| LƒÊ EÊo∫ Àú…b “Áz \ÁL 2 x 5 = 10

i) ¬ﬂÆ - ¬q 2 ii) Àƒzt - ≈ƒzo 2 iii) ÃÏuá - ÃÏáy 2 iv) ßƒå - ßÏƒå 2 v) úu∫oÁú - üoÁú 2

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candidate qualifies Prelims out of a huge school, you cannot properly speak & write cor- no. of candidates equal to half a million rect English, then now is the time to repent. A(Roughly, 5 lakh people). Generally 3 to We are very firm to tell you that if you do not 5 Lakh people give prelims & only candidates develop your skills in English now at the Acad- close to 15000 make it to mains which is less emy, exactly at this point of your life, be it lis- than 5% tening, reading, speaking or writing, you might But, miserably, candidates who deserve to have to expiate for it later. Keep speaking in be on the final list as well get shocked when English even if some of your friends make sar- they see their Mains marks. The problem is they casm out of it or put you at discomfort by prais- fail to pass this Qualifying paper. As mentioned ing you before everyone about you speaking in in the context of Indian Language, the scripts English. Let anything happen, you keep speak- of close to 10% of the candidates who appear ing only in English. Do not worry about mistakes. for mains are not considered at all for the rea- You can somehow rectify your faulty English in son that they failed either in English or Indian the course of time. language or both. But otherwise, do not be over confident that All the midnight oil burning sessions & hard things which happened to those English gradu- earned sweat would go down the drain because ates mentioned above cannot happen to you. You of some momentary lapse in concentration. might have studied in a reputed school where your medium of teaching was English from nurs- There are ample enough of instances ery. You might have grown up listening to Eminem where even candidates who studied abroad in or Taylor Swift. Or you might hail from a metro- reputed universities like Cambridge & Oxford fail to pass this paper. And the rate of failure is politan city and the way you speak English can more in the case of English than the Indian lan- be flawless. guage of Paper-A. The irony of life is there are Yet, please please, give enough attention also candidates who are graduates of English to this paper and spare whatever time it really Literature who don’t pass this English paper. takes. If continuously, a week or two would suf- If you are of an opinion that though you fice. But adjust it with the way you prepare. completed your schooling in an English Medium Denote 99% of your preparation time to other 338 Main Examination : The Big Battle papers & subjects. But, do not fail to give that 1 Question Papers up to 5 years can be down- full percentage of your time for this. loaded from ‘upsc.gov.in’ and up to 15 years from ‘mrunal.org’) OVERVIEW OF THE PAPER 2. As far as the books in market are concerned, & SYLLABUS “General English by Unique publishers,” is a right choice. The Paper would be of Matriculation (10th 3. But if you feel you are very weak in English Standard) level. Like in the case of Indian Lan- and if the way you write & speak English guage, a decent 25% of marks i.e., 75/300 can tells you the same, it is quite better to start suffice to qualify this paper. learning from the book “High school En- glish Grammar: Wren & Martin.” It’s been And the aim of the paper is to test the a brand for decades teaching the teach- candidate’s ability to read and understand se- ers. Another book “Intermediate English rious discursive prose, and whether he/she can Grammar” by Raymond Murphy is also a express his idea clearly and correctly in English very good one to restart. or not. 4. Make a habit of watching good English Mov- The structure of the paper & pattern of ies like one or two in a month (But, make the questions would be broadly as follows: sure you don’t make this a bad habit of 1. Comprehension of given passages yours wasting time on it). Watch them with 2. Précis Writing English Subtitles. Don’t be surprised to know, there are people who note down few 3. Usage and vocabulary dialogues and try using them in general 4. Short Essays conversations. Watching ‘IMDb 250 movies’ After Analyzing the previous papers, it can is a good preference. Internet Movie Data- be inferred that Essay writing, Reading Com- base (IMDb) is an online database of info prehension & Precise writing will be worth 250 related to movies. marks and the remaining 50 marks for gram- 5. Practise the previous papers. mar topics like ‘Rewriting sentences after cor- 6. Read ‘The Hindu’ regularly on a day to day recting it’, ‘Vocabulary’, ‘Rewriting sentences basis without fail. Reading Metro Plus or as directed in the bracket’ (like direct to indi- sports column in the Initial levels is okay rect speech, active voice - passive voice, simple, for it makes an interested reading. But later compound, complex sentences, sentence con- on, switch to the right articles as explained struction to elucidate meanings..etc.). in “Science of reading The Hindu” so that you don’t waste your time. Sources of Study & Quick Tips 7. Read the essays in whichever book you buy for General English. Practise writing 5 to 1. Start the preparation for this paper by ob- 10 essays. serving & solving last 10 years question pa- 8. Note down the tough but commonly used pers. (You can find 5 papers in this book. 339 civilz byte

words in the newspaper and previous pa- upon them. pers. Revise them 5 to 10 times. The key is 13. Put a stop watch and check how much of to have good English Vocabulary. time you are taking to complete a ques- 9. It is better to write ‘Précis Writing’ after tion paper. So that you can adjust yourself you complete other sections, for it takes according to the three hour duration of the so much of your valuable time in the exam. Main Exam. 10. Sections like ‘Reading comprehension’ and 14. It is also important that you really have to ‘grammar’ are totally in your hands. They get your practice answer sheet checked by can be done in short time scoring more a person who has a reasonable proficiency marks. over language. This would help in spotting 11. You would get a broad idea about answer- the grammatical errors & spelling mistakes ing the grammar part like synonyms, ant- that you can’t identify on your own. onyms, corrections, idioms...etc and the 15. Don’t go for a over-kill or don’t neglect the whole of paper, for that matter, if you have paper totally. Spend the right required time practiced the previous papers correctly. on this paper and budget your time for the 12. When you solve the previous papers, iden- GS, Optional & Essay. tify your areas of shortcoming and work

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340 CHAPTER Main Examination : The Big Battle 34 Treasure Trove: Compulsary English Question Papers COMPULSARY ENGLISH 2013

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 300

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: All questions are to be attempted. The number of marks carried by a question is indicated against it. Answers must be written in ENGLISH only. Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to and if answered in much longer or much shorter than the prescribed length, marks will be deducted. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Answers Book must be clearly struck off.

Q1. Write short essays in about 300 words on each of the following: 50 x 2 =100 1. We Indians are hypocrites. 50 2. Fitness and healthcare - latest fad in urban India. 50

Q2. Read carefully the passage given below and write your answers to the questions that follow in clear, correct, and concise language of your own: 10 x 5 = 50 In barely one generation, we've moved from exulting in the time-saving devices that have so expanded our lives, to trying to get away from them - often, in order to make more time. The more ways we have to connect, the more many of us seem desperate to unplug. Like a teenager, we appear to have gone from knowing nothing about the world to knowing too much, all but overnight. 341 civilz byte

The average person spends at least eight and a half hours a day in front of the screen. The average teenager spends or receives 75 text messages a day. Since luxury, as any economist will tell you, is a function of scarcity, the children of tomorrow will crave nothing more than freedom, if only for a short while, from all the blinking machines, streaming videos and scrolling headlines that leave them feeling empty, and too full all at once. The urgency of slowing down - to find the time and space to think - is nothing new, of course, and wiser souls have always reminded us that the more attention we pay to the moment, the less time and energy we have to place it in some larger context. Even half a century ago, Marshall McLuhan warned, "When things come at you very fast, naturally you lose touch with yourself."

Yet few of those voices can be heard these days, precisely because `breaking news' is coming through perpetually on the news channels, and Meena is posting images of her summer vacation and the phone is ringing. We barely have enough time to see how little time we have. And the more that floods in on us, the less of ourselves we have to give to every snippet.

We have more and more ways to communicate, as Thoreau noted, but less and less to say. Partly because we are so busy communicating. And - as he might also have said - we are rushing to meet so many deadlines that we hardly register that what we need most are lifelines. So what to do ? The central paradox of the machines that have made our lives so much brighter, quicker, longer and healthier is that they cannot teach us how to make the best use of them; the information revolution came without an instruction manual. All the data in the world cannot teach us how to sift through data; images don't show us how to process images. The only way to do justice to our onscreen lives is by summoning exactly the emotional and moral clarity that cannot be found on any screen.

Maybe that is why more and more people, even if they have no religious commitment, seem to be turning to yoga or meditation, or tai chi; these are not New Age fads so much as ways to connect with what could be called the wisdom of old age. A series of tests in recent years has shown that after spending time in a quiet rural setting, subjects "exhibit greater attentiveness, stronger memory and generally improved cognition. Their brains become both calmer and sharper." More than that, empathy, as well as deep thought, depends on neural processes that are "inherently slow". The very ones our high-speed lives have little time for.

QUESTIONS: (a) According to the author, what is likely to become a scarcity in the future? 10 (b) What ability have people lost thanks to the constant inflow of data? 10 (c) Why does the author say, "We have more and more ways to communicate, but less and less to say? 10 342 Main Examination : The Big Battle

(d) Why are people taking an active interest in old-age fads? 10 (e) Why is modern man unable to empathise with others? 10

Q3. (a) Make a précis of the following passage in about one-third of its length. Please do not suggest a title. 60 Honesty in business dealings or in other areas are not the only measures of morals and values. The strength of character of a person is also measured by uncompromising aversion to cowardice, intrigue, envy, ambiguity, falsehood, disloyalty, treachery, in short, all undignified actions. There are, in reality, few human beings endowed with a truly spotless character. This is because an almost immaculate character does not exist until the last lives in human form. Educated individuals are not necessarily endowed with good morals and values. In fact, some of them use education and their intellect as a tool for deceit. However, the advantages and the need for education and culture cannot be denied. They contribute largely for the development of intellectual ability and the power to reason, which are the means by which the spirit analyses, compares, infers and arrives at conclusions in the search for truth about the meaning of life. The most precious assets of the soul are its morals and values, but they are not easy to build. The character of each person requires longer periods of thoughtfulness, reasoning and the practice of those values, during many reincarnations, in the course of which, ideas sink in under life experiences. It is only after enduring much disillusionment, grief, injustice and ingratitude for many successive corporeal lives, that a person will be able to measure, in the innermost recesses of his soul, the extent of human moral misery. Then, disgusted, he rebels against it and opens the door to a more ethical and honorable life. Thus, having known and experienced suffering, the spirit, in countless reincarnations, gradually frees itself from evil actions and, through enlightenment and conviction follows the rigid tracks of a flawless conduct. It is of great significance to talk about morals and values but it is also crucial to define the lines of character that everyone should consider in their lives. Some of the most important ones are: good judgment, fairness, common sense, punctuality, loyalty, courage, magna- nimity, dignity, gratitude, politeness, faithfulness, moderation, truthfulness, self-respect, respect for others, etc. All these qualities, if properly cultivated, compose a prime set of dignifying virtues which accounts for a refined character. For example, we all make mistakes and to err is human. However, once an honest person is advised and becomes convinced of his mistake, he should admit it and try not to repeat it. Unfortunately it is common practice to conceal one's mistakes, instead of avoiding them. This is very detrimental to spiritual growth. Most people seldom use impartiality and justice in the innermost evaluation of their own actions. Even those who are too harsh in the judgment of other people's actions, for whom they always have words of criticism and reproach, do not escape the usual tendency. When their own faults are concerned, they find a full, lenient,

343 civilz byte absolvent justification. In this way, not only it denotes lack of character, but mistakes often end up incorporated to human habits. By acting this way, an individual loses his self- respect and his sense of character and dignity and becomes corrupted. What everyone should do, is to face up his mistakes and avoid new mistakes, by improving his sense of morals and values, with the help of his will-power. (537 words) (b) Make a précis of the following passage in about one-third of its length. Please do not suggest a title. 40 People write and publish autobiographies and autobiographical sketches for a number of reasons. One of these reasons is to put on record the events of a famous or influential career. But not all autobiographies, not even the autobiographies most frequently and widely read, are by famous or extraordinary men. Another reason is to hand on to others, wisdom won through experience and hard labour. Yet many fine autobiographers seem to have little concern to teach or to persuade. A third reason is to distill from past experience events, persons, and situations which hold a firm place in memory, and to put true values on them. In this sense, autobiography is, as Somerset Maugham has said, a 'summing-up', and its first utility is to its author himself. Whatever its purpose or the fame of the man who writes it, autobiography is a thing created out of the recollections of life. It is not life itself. Whether it be valuable or useless depends upon whether it is well- or ill- made. Good autobiographies can be mined from inconspicuous lives. For autobiography is the inclusive and summary form of what we call `themes of experience'. It may contain reminiscences, descriptions of places, of animals, of people, the identification of characteristic preferences and prejudices, and other matters as well. It has the traits of all these minor forms. An autobiography is objectively true, but is not indiscriminately inclusive. It presents a selection of detailed episodes with sufficient fullness to preserve their essential qualities. It is usually written within the framework defined by a consistent point of view. It presents its subject in more than two dimensions, fusing the person and his actions with setting, manner and purpose. One further trait of autobiographical writing raises a few special problems: by its nature autobiography tempts its author to proceed chronologically. The events sort themselves by the calendar, and it is a natural impulse of every autobiographer to begin with the words "I was born on …. " Strict chronological arrangement poses a discipline of some force. It is by no means easy to "begin at the beginning, go until you come to the end, and then stop." Considerations other than the calendar have a way of forcing their way to notice. With due care, however, a chronological autobiography can be accomplished. 344 Main Examination : The Big Battle

It is important to remember that chronology is not the only principle by which autobiography can be organized. Benjamin Franklin, whose procedure in his autobiography is basically chronological, does not hesitate to recognize the Philadelphia girl who laughed at him as the very one who subsequently became his wife. Joseph Conrad prefers the pattern of walking tour to that of the calendar, and his richly imaginative account is stored with pertinent associations of the past with the present and future. Often, to the autobiographer, it seems that life does not pass so much as it accumulates. Qualities emerge as identities independent of time. For this reason, we should not as we write feel compelled to maintain a steady rate of advance through the time marks of our stories. Like Hazlitt on his journey, we linger over a choice adventure or a valued friend, and then, if we choose, we skip a few years to catch up. (541 words)

Q4. (a) Use each of the following words to make sentences that bring out their meaning clearly. Do not change the form of the words. (No marks will be given for vague and ambiguous sentences.) 1 x 10 =10 (i) desultory (ii) grapevine (iii) holistic (iv) insidious (v) intransigence (vi) paradigm (vii) susceptible (viii) ubiquitous (ix) voracious (x) venerable

(b) Correct the following sentences without changing their meaning. Please do not make unnecessary changes in the original sentence. 1 x 10 = 10 (i) One must do what he thinks best. 1 (ii) He will surely not do that, did he? 1 (iii) Can I leave the room now, Sir? 1 (iv) My neighbour, along with two friends, was pushing his car which is stalled. 1 (v) I thought to help him, but he did not welcome my suggestion. 1 (vi) When I was a child, I enjoyed to eat ice cream in the bench. 1 (vii) The Principal, along with the teachers, are planning to apply for a leave. 1 (viii) Do you have an idea who is that man ? 1 (ix) Unemployment as well as poverty influence the votes. 1 (x) When I woke up, the man already disappeared after committing murder in therun- ning train. 1 345 civilz byte

(c) Rewrite each of the following sentences as directed without changing the meaning: 1 x 10 = 10 (i) No one dares to criticize her for what she says. (Rewrite the sentence starting with 'No matter') 1 (ii) Radha was the eldest. She had to look after her parents. (Combine to form a single sentence) 1 (iii) She decorated the room. The purpose was to make it look beautiful. (Combine using 'so that') 1 (iv) "What a beautiful day !", said the young tourist. (Change the narration) 1 (v) The one-man committee determined there was no need to take action. (Rewrite using passive structure) 1 (vi) The proud father remarked, "What a wonderful batsman my son is !" (Change into indirect speech) 1 (vii) My mother remarked, "Aren't the children lovely ?" (Change into indirect speech) 1 (viii) Cricket fans filled the streets during the World Cup. (Rewrite using passive structure) 1 (ix) It would be wonderful if we could go to Shimla. (Change into an exclamatory sentence using 'how') 1 (x) I could have finished the work. But I would have had to go out early. (Combine into one sentence beginning with 'Had') 1

(d) Fill in the blanks using one of the following linkers : 1 × 5 = 5

in case, but , even though, so, provided, as

(i) ____ he was late for the meeting, his boss didn't get angry. 1

(ii) ____ he was late for the meeting, his boss became angry. 1

(iii) I'll not get angry, ___ you are not late for the meeting. 1

(iv) I started early ____ I was still late for the meeting. 1

(v) I'll give you her telephone number ___ you have problems finding her place. 1

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(e) Rewrite the following sentences using 'it' at the beginning of the sentence : 1 x 5 = 5 (i) Impressing Ramesh Mohan would be a piece of cake. 1 (ii) Visiting old people in hospitals is a very good idea. 1 (iii) To smoke 20 cigarettes a day is bad for your health. 1 (iv) Chatting with strangers on the computer can be very dangerous. 1 (v) My father says, keeping the computer on all day is a waste of electricity. 1

(f) Choose the appropriate word to fill in the blanks. 1 x 5 =5 (i) My teacher said that I need to___ (practice, practise) more. 1 (ii) The hot weather ____ (affects, effects) people in different ways. 1 (iii) Wouldn't it be nice if we had to work only on _____ (alternative, alternate) days?1 (iv) Our politicians are known to ____ (avoid, evade) taxes. 1 (v) The Principal ____ (complimented, complemented) the students on their fine performance. 1

(g) Write the opposite of the following words : 1 x 5 = 5 (i) Amateur 1 (ii) Modesty 1 (iii) Shallow 1 (iv) Conceited 1 (v) Atheist 1

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347 civilz byte COMPULSARY ENGLISH 2014

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 300

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Q1. Write an essay in about 600 words on any one topic 100 (a) What kind of crisis is India facing - moral or economic? (b) Participating in sports helps develop good character. (c) Should students be allowed to grade their teachers? (d) Not everything that can be counted counts, and not everything that counts can be counted.

Q2. Read carefully the passage below and write your answers to the questions that follow in clear, correct and concise language : 5×15=75 A complete reading program, therefore, should include four factors : at least one good book each week, a newspaper or news magazine, magazines of comment and interpretation, and book reviews. If you keep feeding your intelligence with these four foods, you can be sure that your brain cells will be properly nourished. To this must be added the digestive process that comes from your own thinking and from discussion with individuals or groups. It is often desirable to make books that you own personally part of your mind by underlining or by marking in the margin the more important statements. This will help you to understand the book as you first read it, because out of the mass of details you must have selected the essential ideas. It will help you to remember better the gist of the book, since the physical act of underlining, with your eyes on the page, tends to put the thought more 348 Main Examination : The Big Battle

firmly into your brain cells. It will save time whenever you need to refer to the book. Above all, never forget that creative intelligence is correlation of facts and ideas, not mere memorizing. What counts is what you can do with your knowledge, by linking it with other things you have studied or observed. If you read Plutarch's life of Julius Caesar, think how his rise to political power paralleled the technique of Adolf Hitler, or that of your local political boss. If you read a play by Shakespeare, think how his portrayal of the characters helps you to understand someone you know. In everything you read, keep at the back of your mind what it means to your life here and now, how it supports or challenges the things you were taught in school, in church and at home, and how the wisdom you get from books can guide you in your thinking, in your career, in your voting as a citizen and in your personal morals.

Questions : (a) What are the four things required for a complete reading program and why? 15 (b) What else is required to feed your intelligence? 15 (c) Why does the writer recommend underlining or marking in the margin the more important statements? 15 (d) What use can you put your knowledge to? 15 (e) How can what you learn from books help you in your life? 15

Q3. Make a précis of the following passage in about one-third of its length. Please do not give a title to it. Précis should be written in your own language. 75 If this century has, in the famous phrase, made the world safe for democracy, the next challenge is to make a world safe for diversity. It is in India's interest to ensure that the world as a whole must reflect the idea that is already familiar to all Indians - that it shouldn't matter what the colour of your skin is, the kind of food you eat, the sounds you make when you speak, the God you choose to worship (or not), so long as you want to play by the same rules as everybody else, and dream the same dreams. It is not essential in a democratic world to agree all the time, as long as we agree on the ground rules of how we will disagree. These are the global principles we must strive to uphold if we are to be able to continue to uphold them securely at home. We want a world that gives us the conditions of peace and security that will permit us to grow and flourish, safe from foreign depredations but open to external opportunities. Whether global institutions adapt and revive will be determined by whether those in charge are capable of showing the necessary leadership. Right now many of us would suggest that there is a global governance deficit. Reversing it would require strong leadership in the international community by a number of powers, including the emerging ones. India is an 349 civilz byte

obvious contender to provide some of that leadership. India should aim not just at being powerful - it should set new standards for what the powerful must do. This is a huge challenge, and one to which India must rise. An analogy from another field is not encouraging; many would argue that India has not acquitted itself well when given the chance to have global impact in one domain - that of the sport of cricket, where India accounts for more than 80 percent of the game's revenues and perhaps 90 percent of its viewership, giving it an impact on the sport that no country can rival. Clearly, international opinion does not believe that in its domination of world cricket, India has set new standards for what the powerful must do. Broadening the analogy to global geopolitics, one could well say: India, your world needs you. So India must play its due part in the stewardship of the global commons (including everything from the management of the Internet to the rules governing the exploitation of outer space). We can do it. India is turning increasingly outward as a result of our new economic profile on the global stage, our more dispersed interests around the world, and the reality that other countries, in our neighbourhood as well as in Africa, are looking to us for support and security. India has the ability and the vision to promote global partnerships across the broad range of its interests; it only needs to act. The world economic crisis should give us an opportunity to promote economic integration with our neighbours in the subcontinent who look to the growing Indian market to sell their goods and maintain their own growth. But as long as South Asia remains divided by futile rivalries, and some continue to believe that terrorism can be a useful instrument of their strategic doctrines, that is bound to remain a distant prospect. We in South Asia need to look to the future, to an interrelated future on our subcontinent, where geography becomes an instrument of opportunity in a mutual growth story, where history binds rather than divides, where trade and cross-border links flourish and bring prosperity to all our people. (603 words)

Q4. (a) Rewrite the following sentences after making necessary corrections. Please do not make unnecessary changes in the original sentence. 1 x 10 = 10 (i) School is very near my home. (ii) They never fail who die in great cause. (iii) It rained an hour before. (iv) He wrote a most complete account of his travels. (v) Either of these three answers is incorrect. (vi) You will be late until you hurry. (vii) He is seldom or ever absent from school.

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(viii) The colours so passed off one another that she could not distinguish them. (ix) The general as well as his soldiers were killed in the battle. (x) The boat was drowned.

(b) Supply the missing words : 1 x 5 = 5 (i) If you see him give him ______message. (ii) I hope to reach the station ______an hour at the outside. (iii) ______Rustam and Sohrab, there were three other boys present. (iv) Invalids are not capable ______continued exertion. (v) ______he had not paid his bills, his electricity was cutoff.

(c) Use the correct forms of the verbs in brackets : 1 x 5 = 5 (i) His company is greatly ______after. (seek) (ii) His courage ______him. (forsake) (iii) The terrified people ______to the mountains. (flee) (iv) The police ______no stone unturned to trace the culprits. (leave) (v) The robber ______him a blow on the head. (strike)

(d) Write the anonyms of the following : 1 x 5 = 5 (i) Ability (ii) Precise (iii) Constructive (iv) Extravagant (v) Pretentious

Q5. (a) Rewrite each of the following sentences as directed without changing the meaning: 1 x 10 = 10 (i) He finished his exercise and put away his books. (Change into simple) (ii) In the event of his being late, he will be punished. (Change into compound) (iii) He said to me, "I have often told you not to play with fire." (Change into indirect speech) (iv) He said that he had come to see them. (Change into direct speech) (v) He drove too fast for the police to catch. (Remove 'too') 351 civilz byte

(vi) The audience loudly cheered the Mayor's speech. (Change into passive voice) (vii) A reward was given to him by the Governor. (Change into active voice) (viii) Sita is not one of the cleverest girls in the class. (Change into comparative degree) (ix) I was doubtful whether it was you. (Change into negative form) (x) It is sad to think that youth should pass away. (Change into exclamatory sentence)

(b) Use each of the following words to make a sentence that brings out their meaning clearly. Do not change the form of the words. (No marks will be given for vague and ambiguous sentences) 1 x 5 =5 (i) gratitude (ii) flavour (iii) explosion (iv) dismal (v) clumsy

(c) Choose the appropriate word to fill in the blank: 1 x 5 = 5 (i) He got a ______blow from his enemy. (deadly/deathly) (ii) The ______of his speech was very lucid and natural. (delivery/deliverance) (iii) I do not know how to express my gratitude; you have been ______to me. (beneficial/beneficent) (iv) My friend will ______me to the hospital. (accompany/escort) (v) We sat in the ______of a tree and relaxed a while. (shadow/shade)

(d) Use these phrases in sentences of your own to bring out their meaning clearly. Do not change the form of the words. 1 x 5 = 5 (i) According to (ii) All of a sudden (iii) Ready money (iv) A burning question (v) Ins and outs

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352 Main Examination : The Big Battle COMPULSARY ENGLISH 2015

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 300

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: All questions are to be attempted. The number of marks carried by a question is indicated against it. Answers must be written in ENGLISH only. Word limit in questions wherever specified should be adhered to. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answers Booklet must be clearly struck off.

Q1. Write an essay in about 600 words on anyone topic 100 (a) Impact of politics on society (b) E-commerce: a win-win situation for all. (c) Harassment of women at workplaces (d) Does the Indian cinema reflect social reality?

Q2. Read carefully the passage given below and write your answers to the questions that follow in clear, correct and concise language 15 × 5 = 75 A desert is a barren area of land where little precipitation occurs and living conditions are threatening for plant and animal life. The lack of vegetation exposes the vulnerable surface of the ground to the processes of denudation. About one-third of the land surface of the world is arid or semi-arid. Deserts are usually hot and barren places; yet they are also beautiful. A few plants, rocks and dusty red-brown soil make up the ingredients of most North American deserts where there is sufficient food and water for certain animals to survive. Deserts cover more than one-fifth of the Earth's land and they are found on every continent. A place that receives less than 10 inches of rain per year is normally considered a desert. They are part of a wider classification of regions called "dry land". These areas exist under a moisture deficit, which means they repeatedly lose more moisture through evaporation than they receive from annual precipitation. Deserts are biologically rich habitats with a vast array of animals and plants that have 353 civilz byte adapted to harsh conditions there. Some deserts are among the planets last remaining areas of total wilderness. Yet more than one billion people, one-sixth of the Earth's population, actually live in the desert regions.

Despite the common notion of deserts as dry and hot, there are cold deserts as well. One famous dry and hot place in the world with no visible rock or plant and barely any water is the Sahara desert. It is the largest hot desert in the world that reaches temperatures of up to 122 degrees Fahrenheit during the day. Some deserts are very cold, like the Gobi desert in Asia and the desert on the continent of Antarctica. Only about 10 percent of deserts are covered by sand dunes. The driest deserts get less than half an inch of precipitation each year and that is from condensed fog.

Desert animals have adapted ways to help them keep cool and use less water. Camels, for example, can go for days without food and water. The hump stores fat, which can be used as both a food and water source for the animal when the going gets tough. Camels also have thick hair in their ears for keeping out sand; they also sport closable nostrils, an eye membrane, and wide feet that act like snow-shoes in the land.

Desert plants may have to go without fresh water for years at a time. Some plants have adapted to the arid climate by growing long roots that tap water from deep underground. Other plants, such as cacti, have special means conserving water. Many desert plants can live to be hundreds of years old.

Some of the world's semi-arid regions are turning into deserts at an alarming rate. This process, known as desertification, is not caused by drought, but usually arises from the demands of human population that settles on the semi-arid lands to grow crops and graze animals. The pounding of the soil by the hooves of livestock may degrade the soil and encourage erosion by wind and water. Global warming also threatens to change the ecology of deserts. Higher temperature may produce an increasing number of wildfires that alter desert landscape by eliminating slow - growing trees and shrubs and replacing them with fast-growing grasses.

Questions:

(a) Explain what you understand by barren and dry land. 15 (b) What do you understand by rich habitats? 15 (c) How have desert animals and plants in arid climate adapted themselves to the use of less water. 15 (d) Describe the process of desertification. 15 (e) What are the camel's two most visible features that make it perfect for deserts? 15 354 Main Examination : The Big Battle

Q3. Make a précis of the following passage in about one-third of its length. Do not give a title to it. The précis should be written in your own language 75 The means may be equated to a seed, the end to a tree; and there is just the same inviolable connection between the means and the end as there is between the seed and the tree. I am not likely to obtain the result flowing from the worship of God by laying myself prostrate before Satan. If, therefore, anyone were to say; 'I want to worship God; it does not matter that I do so by means Satan', it would be set down as ignorant folly. We reap exactly as we sow. If I want to deprive you of your watch, I shall certainly have to fight for it; if I want to buy your watch, I shall have to pay you for it; and if I want it as a gift, I shall have to plead for it; and according to the means I employ, the watch is a stolen property, my own property or a donation. Thus we see three different results from three different means. Will you still say that means do not matter ? Let us proceed a little further. A well-armed man has stolen your property. You have harboured the thought of his act; you are filled with anger: you argue that you want to punish that rogue, not for your own sake, but for the good of your neighbours; you have collected a number of armed men, you want to take his house by assault; he is duly informed of it, he runs away; he, too is incensed. He collects his brother-robbers, and sends you a defiant message that he will commit robbery in broad daylight. You are strong, you do not fear him. You're prepared to receive him. Meanwhile, the robber pesters your neighbours. They complain before you. You reply that you are doing all for their sake, you do not mind that your own goods have been stolen. Your neighbours reply that the robber never pestered them before, and that he commenced his depredations only after you declared hostilities against him. You're between Scylla and Charybdis. You're full of pity for the poor men. What they say is true. What are you to do? You'll be disgraced if you now leave the robber alone. You, therefore, tell the poor men: 'Never mind. Come, my wealth is yours. I will give you arms. I will train you how to use them; you should belabour the rogue; don't you leave him alone.' And so the battle grows. The robbers increase in numbers; your neighbours have deliberately put themselves to inconvenience. Thus the result of wanting to take revenge upon the robber is that you have disturbed your own peace; you are in perpetual fear of being robbed and assaulted; your courage has given place to cowardice. If you patiently examine the argument, you will see that I have not overdrawn the picture. This is one of the means. Now let us examine the other. You set this armed robber down as an ignorant brother, you intend to reason with him at a suitable opportunity; you argue that he is, after all, a fellow man; you do not know what prompted him to steal. You, therefore, decide that when you can, you will destroy the man's motive for stealing. Whilst you are thus reasoning with

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yourself, the man comes again to steal. Instead of being angry with him, you take pity on him. Henceforth, you keep your doors and windows open, you change your sleeping place, and you keep your things in a manner most accessible to him. The robber comes again and is confused as all this is new to him; nevertheless, he takes away your things. But his mind is agitated. He enquires about you in the village, he comes to learn about your broad and loving heart; he repents, he begs your pardon, returns you your things, and leaves off the stealing habit. He becomes your servant, and you find for him honourable employment. This is the second method.

Thus, you see, different means have brought about totally different results. I do not wish to deduce from this that robbers will act in the above manner or that all will have the same pity and love like you. I only wish to show that fair means alone can produce fair results, and that, at least in the majority of cases, if not indeed in all, the force of love and pity is infinitely greater than the force of arms. There is harm in the exercise of force, never in that of pity. (766 words)

Q4. (a) Rewrite the following sentences after making necessary changes in the original corrections. Do not make unnecessary changes in the original sentence 1 x 10 = 10 (i) He enjoyed during the holidays. (ii) Whoever works hard he will win (iii) The man who knocked at the door was stranger. (iv) I asked my colleague when was he going to his home town. (v) Besides clothes, the shopkeeper deals with cosmetics too. (vi) He is desirous for joining the army. (vii) The judge said that the truth always triumphed. (viii) one should help his friend in difficulty (ix) Sachin Tendulkar is the best batsman India has produced, isn't it? (x) More you read less you understand.

(b) Supply the missing words : 1 × 5 = 5 (i) Mr. Sharma is senior ______Mr. Verma. (ii) He is ______poor to afford travelling by air. (iii) More than 160 million people suffer ______malaria (iv) Beware______pickpockets. (v) Time and ______wait for 356 Main Examination : The Big Battle

(c) Use the correct forms of the verbs given in brackets : 1 × 5 = 5 (i) Your friends ______for you tor over an hour, (wait) (ii) It is not worth_____ so much money for this concert (pay) (iii) When I reached the station, the train______(leave) (iv) I______the Taj Mahal last month, (visit) (v) The criminal ______the victim with a blunt object, (attack)

(d) Write the antonyms of the following : 1 × 5 = 5 (i) Arrival (ii) Introvert (iii) Ascend (iv) Save (v) Mortal

Q5 (a) Rewrite each of the following sentences as directed without changing the meaning: 1 × 10 = 10 (i) He is too arrogant to listen to advice. (Change into a complex sentence) (ii) He said to me, "What is your name?" (Change into indirect speech) (iii) My mother asked me if I had finished my breakfast. (Change into direct speech) (iv) The people will make him president. (Change into passive voice) (v) My pocket has been picked. (Change into active voice) (vi) He confessed that he was guilty. (Change into a simple sentence) (vii) He ran fast to reach the bus stop. (Change into an interrogative sentence) (viii) To the best of my knowledge, he is a vegetarian. (Begin the sentence : As far as.…) (ix) A. R. Rehman is a versatile music composer,______? (Supply an appropriate tag question) (x) It is a pity that a noble person should suffer. (Change into an exclamatory sentence)

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(b) Use the following words to make sentences that bring out their meaning clearly. Do not change the form of the words. (No marks will be given for vague and ambiguous sentences.) 1 × 5 = 5 (i) drought (ii) profitable (iii) plunge (iv) deformity (v) restraint

(c) Choose the appropriate word to fill in the blanks : 1 × 5 = 5 (i) Slow and ______wins the race. (study/steady) (ii) The farm scientists have discovered a new______to combat soil erosion. (device/devise) (iii) Going back on your word is a _____ of trust (breach/break) (iv) A ______of cars was following the minister. (fleet/float) (v) The businessman tried to a deal inspector. (strike/stroke)

(d) Use these idioms/phrases their meaning clearly. Do not change the form of the words: 1 × 5 = 5 (i) in spite of (ii) a bed of roses (iii) cold war (iv) to rule with an iron hand (v) to make haste

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358 Main Examination : The Big Battle COMPULSARY ENGLISH 2016

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 300

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: All questions are to be attempted. The number of marks carried by a question is indicated against it. Answers must be written in ENGLISH only. Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to and if answered in much longer or shorter than the prescribed length, marks will be deducted. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

1. Write an essay in about 600 words on any one topic 100 (a) Majoritarianism conflicting with the constitutional spirit, an unhealthy trend in true democracy. (b) The Indian girl child - still a victim of exploitation. (c) Industrialization should not affect but contribute to agricultural growth in India. (d) Mass media has great responsibility in transforming the society.

2. Read carefully the passage given below and write your answers to the questions that follow in clear, correct and concise language 15 × 5 = 75 The thought of Young Bengal (Pearychand Mitra, one of the circle, called it in 1877 'Young Calcutta') flowed through the fourth decade of the 19th century, arising in the late twenties and ebbing away after the mid-forties. Its inspirer was Derozio (1809-31), competent scholar, gifted writer, radical thinker, and the most famous of our teachers in the new education. It will be unusual to link with Young Bengal a second name, that of David Hare (1775-1841) who seems so different from Derozio in so many ways. Hare was indeed no professional instructor or intellectual, no man of letters or of academic learning. He had neither the brilliance nor the waywardness of his contemporary; unlike him he had become in diet and habits almost a half-Hindu. Yet between the two may be detected an underlying resemblance which furnishes a key to a proper estimation of Young Bengal. 359 civilz byte

Common to both was the passionate conviction that for India nothing was more essential than "a dissemination of European learning and science among her people." Both encouraged freedom of thinking and discussion and inspired a courage and personal integrity in their followers "to throw off the fetters of that antiquated bigotry which still clung to their countrymen." And unlike other leaders around them, both were 'godless' secularists with little faith in denominations or religious instruction, and yet staunch idealists. Nor can one forget that in the hour of trail Hare tried to stand by Derozio and his maligned pupils about whom he declared - "your country men look upon you as - their reformers and instructors"; while the Derozians were the first to honour Hare publicly, and after his death they were in the forefront in the endeavour to perpetuate his memory, in the unique First of June anniversaries for 25 years without a break. Henry Louis Vivian Derozio was a Calcutta Eurasian of Portuguese-Indian ancestry, the son of an officer in an English mercantile firm. (In the Hindu College Records of 1831, the name occasionally spelt as De Rozio; Max Muller wrote D.Rozario). He was educated in one of the pioneer English-teaching private schools of the early 19th century, run by the Scots- man Drummond in the Dharmatala area. Drummond was a scholar-poet, and as a notorious free-thinker an exile from his native land. It may safely be conjectured that Derozio derived from Drummond his taste in literature and philosophy, his love of Burns, his faith in the French Revolution and English Radicalism. Derozio's youthful critique on Kant was considered as something which "would not disgrace even gifted philosophers"; his translation of a French essay on Moral Philosophy was printed posthumously. The fame already won secured him an appointment as teacher to the senior class in the Hindu College before he had ended his 'teens'. Derozio's personality brought "a new era in the annals of the College", the youthful teacher drawing the senior boys "like a magnet" round him. According to his biographer "neither before, nor since his day has any teacher, within the walls of any an native educational establishment in India, ever exercised such an influence over his pupils." not alone in the class rooms, but outside the hours as well, he strove with success "to broaden and deepen the knowledge of his pupils" in the Western thought and literature, the new fountain which emancipated and intoxicated. The College students clustered round him and very many of them carried down to their last days the deep impress stamped on them by their Master. This was the cementing link which held together the Young Bengal group, the memory which made a close-knit fellowship of affection and friendship even in later life. Unlike most teachers, Derozio encouraged his students to debate freely and question authority. He urged them to think for themselves, "to be in no way influenced by any of the idols maintained by Bacon-to live and die for truth." One of his pupils, Radhanath Sikdar, said of him: "he has been the cause and the sole cause of that sprit of enquiry after truth, and the contempt of vice - which cannot but be beneficial to India". Another, Ramgopal 360 Main Examination : The Big Battle

Ghosh, held up the motto: "He who will not reason is a bigot; he who cannot is a fool, and he who does not is a slave." (a) Which was the period when the thought of Young Bengal, the youthful band of reformers flourished in Bengal? Who were the two main teachers of the new education and in what ways were they different from each other? (b) What was common to both these teachers? How did they support each other ? (c) Comment on the education of Derozio. Did Drummond have any influence on him? Justify your answer. (d) What kind of influence did Derozio have on his pupils i.e., the Young Bengal group? (e) 'He has been the cause and the sole cause of the spirit of enquiry after truth.' Explain the significance of the statement by Radhanath Sikdar.

3. Make a précis of the following passage in about one-third of its length. Do not give a title to it. The précis should be written in your own language 75 India is essentially a land of knowledge and it must rediscover itself in this aspect. Once this rediscovery is done, it will not require much struggle to achieve the quality of life, strength and sovereignty of a developed nation. Knowledge has many forms and it is available at many places. It is acquired through education, information, intelligence and experience. It is available in academic institution, with teachers, in libraries, in research papers, seminar proceedings and in various organizations and workplaces with workers, managers, in drawings, in process sheets and on the shop floors, knowledge, though closely linked to education, comes equally from learning skills such as those possessed by our artists, craftsmen, hakims, vaidyas, philosophers and saints, as also our housewives. Knowl- edge plays a very important role in their performance and output too. Our heritage and history, the rituals, epics and traditions that form part of our consciousness are also vast resources of knowledge as are our libraries and universities. There is an abundance of unorthodox, earthy wisdom in our villages. There are hidden treasures of knowledge in our environment, in the oceans, bioreserves and deserts, in the plant and animal life. Every state in our country has a unique core competence for a knowledge society. Knowledge has always been the prime mover of prosperity and power. The acquisition of knowledge has therefore been the thrust area throughout the world. Additionally, in India there has been a culture of sharing it, not only through the traditions of guru-shishya but also by its spread to neighbouring countries through the travellers who came to Nalanda and other universities drawn by their reputation as centres of learning. India is endowed with natural and competitive advantages as also certain distinctive competencies. But these are scattered in isolated pockets and the awareness of these is inadequate. During the last century the world has changed from being an agricultural society, in which manual labour was the critical factor, to an industrial society where the management of technol-

361 civilz byte ogy, capital and labour provide the competitive advantage. In the twenty-first century, a new society is emerging where knowledge is the primary production resource instead of capital and labour. Efficient utilization of this existing knowledge base can create wealth for us in the form of better health, education and other indicators of progress. The ability to create and maintain the knowledge infrastructure, to enhance skills and increase productivity through the exploitation of advances in various fields will be the key factors in deciding the prosperity of this society. The knowledge society has two very important components driven by societal transformation and wealth generation. The societal transformation is in respect of education, health care, agriculture and governance. These will lead to employment generation, high productivity and rural prosperity. The task of wealth generation for the nation has to be woven around national competencies. The TIFAC task team has identified core areas that will spearhead our march towards becoming a knowledge society. The areas are: information technology, biotechnology, space technology, weather forecasting, disaster management, telemedicine and tele-education, technologies utilizing traditional knowledge, service sector and infotainment which is the emerging area resulting from convergence of information and entertainment. These core technologies, fortunately, can be interwoven by IT, a sector that took of only due to the enterprising sprit of the young. Thus there are multiple technologies and appropriate management structures that have to work together to generate a knowledge society. With India carving a niche for itself in information technology, the country is uniquely placed to fully capitalize on the opportunity to quickly transform itself in to a knowledge society. The Planning Commission has taken a lead in generating a roadmap for transforming India in to a knowledge society. Evolving suitable policy and administrative procedures, changes in regulatory methods, identification of partners and most important, creation of young and dynamic leaders are the components that have to be put in place. In order to generate wealth, which is the second component for establishing a knowledge society, it is essential that simultaneously a citizen-centric approach to shaping of business policy, user-driven technology generation and intensified industry-lab-academia linkages have also to be established. A knowledge society has a two-dimensional objective of societal transformation and wealth generation, and a third dimension emerges if India is to transform itself into a knowledge superpower. This is knowledge protection and it entails a tremendous responsibility. It is very important that our communication network and information generators are protected from electronic attacks through surveillance and monitoring. There should be a focussed approach to intellectual property rights and related issues, and our ancient knowledge and culture too are part of our resource base and need to be protected as such (776 words) 362 Main Examination : The Big Battle

4. (a) Rewrite the following sentences after making necessary changes in the original corrections. Do not make unnecessary changes in the original sentence (i) I request your favor to grant me leave. 1 x 10 = 10 (ii) He lived there for a day. (iii) He is the fastest runner and he came last. (iv) They know each other since January. (v) All the patients have been admitted and received attention. (vi) They didn't see any movies since March. (vii) We shall go on a tour as soon as the schools will close. (viii) Each of the answers was not correct. (ix) If we had money we would go shopping. (x) I wanted that he should get leave.

(b) Supply the missing words : 1 × 5 = 5 (i) The scene ______us is magnificent, isn't it? (ii) ______your proposals, we shall meet later. (iii) You can't climb ______that high roof. (iv) He pushed his way ______the crowd of people. (v) She ______in with the wrong group of friends in her teens.

(c) Use the correct forms of the verbs given in brackets : 1 × 5 = 5 (i) All our plans of starting a new venture ______up in smoke. (end) (ii) Men of straw are not ______in the society. (respect) (iii) He got angry before I ______a word (say) (iv) Later on he ______his mistake. (realize) (v) Television is a powerful means of ______knowledge. (diffuse)

(d) Write the antonyms of the following : 1 × 5 = 5 (i) Awkward (ii) Diligently (iii) Persist (iv) Traitor (v) Enrich 363 civilz byte

5. (a) Rewrite each of the following sentences as directed without changing the meaning: (i) I have many debts to repay. (Change into a complex sentence) 1×10 = 10 (ii) He hasn't been informed. (Change into active voice) (iii) He wanted to get a raise. He had to study Accounting. (Use 'in order to') (iv) He didn't complain at all. He was kind. (Rewrite the sentence starting with 'It') (v) Arvind said, "I must write it". (Change into indirect speech) (vi) I didn't meet the government official from France. I didn't meet his friend too. (Rewrite using 'neither ….. nor') (vii) He didn't describe it well. He was very excited. (Use 'too') (viii) People respect politicians only when they change their ways. (Rewrite the sentence using 'unless') (ix) We seldom see them nowadays, ______? (Supply an appropriate question tag) (x) The girl worked hard but she didn't succeed. (Change into a simple sentence)

(b) Use the following words to make sentences that bring out their meaning clearly. Do not change the form of the words. (No marks will be given for vague and ambiguous sentences.) 1 × 5 = 5 (i) nebulous (ii) expeditious (iii) contiguous (iv) fastidious (v) proscribe

(c) Choose the appropriate word to fill in the blanks : 1 × 5 = 5 (i) We are______to learn that the President has given his assent to the act. (gratified/grateful) (ii) He did not make a single______to the examination results in his speech. (illusion / allusion) (iii) Make a _____ selection of the books in this library. (judicial /judicious) (iv) The sight of home gave the boys the ______to walk fast. (impetus /impetuous) (v) The lawyer used many______arguments which did not deceive the Judge. (specious/spacious)

(d) Use these idioms/phrases in sentences of your own to bring out their meaning clearly. Do not change the form of the words: 1 × 5 = 5 (i) with impunity (ii) under a cloud (iii) loaves and fishes (iv) a leap in the dark (v) yeoman service. ––––––––––– ––––––––––– 364 Main Examination : The Big Battle COMPULSARY ENGLISH 2017

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 300

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: All questions are to be attempted. The number of marks carried by a question is indicated against it. Answers must be written in ENGLISH only. Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to and if answered in much longer or shorter than the prescribed length, marks will be deducted. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

1. Write an essay in about 600 words on any one of the following topics: 100 (a) Recent Economic Reforms in India (b) Threats to Environment (c) Uses and Abuses of Social Networking (d) Caring for the Aged

2. Read carefully the passage given below and write your answers to the questions that follow in clear, correct and concise language: 15 × 5 = 75 Man, since antiquity, has been an inveterate traveller. Only the motivations for travel have changed. In ancient times, the main motivations for travel were trade, pilgrimage and conquest. It is not often realised how extensive were the contacts among the peoples several thousand years ago. For instance, there was considerable interchange of ideas and knowledge between India and West Asia and the Graeco-Roman civilization. Travel became the means of acquiring culture in Europe. The tradition of the Grand Tour which started in the 17th century was more firmly established in the 18th and the 19th centuries by the emergence of an affluent mercantile class. After the Second World War, Europe lay in ruins. The Marshall Plan which was introduced by the United States for the revival of the economies of European countries made tourism as one of its planks. It 365 civilz byte provided large amount of money for the reconstruction of hotels and tourism infrastructure of Western Europe. What was more significant was that for the first time tourism was viewed as an engine for economic development. This made the Governments start assuming responsibility for the promotion of tourism. Three technological inventions have fuelled the growth of travel on a large scale in successive periods. First, the steam engine which made travel by rail and steamship possible before 1914; then the internal combustion engine which popularized travel by automobile in the inter-War years and lastly, the jet propulsion engine which has led to the international tourist explosion of the post-War era. The Government of India also took note of the new phenomenon of tourism and its economic implications. In 1947, the private sector consisted of a number of hotels and travel agencies in the main cities mainly owned and operated by foreign interests. As it happened in other industries after Independence, the control of many of these hotels passed into the hands of Indian entrepreneurs. At the same time, a number of new indigenously owned and operated travel agencies and hotels started being set up. In the last 50 years, the Indian travel industry has shown remarkable enterprise. Some of the leading Indian hotel groups and travel agencies have branched out overseas and their performance is highly regarded in the international tourism markets. The tourism revolution which started in full measure 50 years ago has not run its course. There are several reasons for taking a long-term optimistic view of tourism. First, the increase in leisure time in industrialised societies; paid holidays which were introduced as a social welfare measure have now become an accepted feature not only in industrialised countries but also in many developing countries. The length of paid holidays has increased. The working week, both in public and private sectors, has come down to 40 hours, spread over 5 days. Evidently Governments will have to concern themselves with the quality of use of leisure. Tourism has become a preeminent form of recreation for the younger people. This is reflected in the increase in travel in the age group of 18 to 25 years. Second, the rise in literacy and educational standards. Third, better health care has made it possible for retired persons, above 60 years, to undertake travel for pleasure. Fourth, the increase in discretionary incomes in real terms in the last twenty years, partly due to two income families with fewer children. Tourism is highly susceptible to income elasticity. Many research studies have established that increase in income level in real terms results in increase in propensity for travel. And lastly, taking a vacation, generally twice a year, has become a way of life in modern societies.

(a) What, according to the author, were the main motivations for travel in ancient times? (b) What was the state of tourism in Europe and the United States?

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(c) What part did technology play in the growth of tourism? (d) How does the author describe the state of tourism in the post-Independence India? (e) Why does the author think that there is a bright future for tourism in modern societies?

3. Make a précis of the following passage in about one-third of its length. Do not give a title to it. The précis should be written in your own language 75 The work of a lawyer or a politician must contain in a more delectable form a great deal of the same pleasure that is to be derived from playing bridge. Here, of course, there is not only the exercise of skill but the outwitting of a skilled opponent. Even where this competitive element is absent, however, the performance of difficult feats is agreeable. A man who can do stunts in an aeroplane finds the pleasure so great that for the sake of it he is willing to risk his life. I imagine that an able surgeon, in spite of the painful circumstances in which his work is done, derives satisfaction from the exquisite precision of his operations. All skilled work can be pleasurable, provided the skill required is either variable or capable of indefinite improvement. If these condition are absent, it will cease to be interesting when a man has acquired his maximum skill. A man who runs three-mile races will cease to find pleasure in this occupation when he passes the age at which he can beat his own previous record. Fortunately there is a very considerable amount of work in which new circumstances call for new skill and a man can go on improving, at any rate until he has reached middle age. In some kinds of skilled work, such as politics, for example, it seems that men are at their best between sixty and seventy, the reason being that in such occupations a wide experience of other men is essential. For this reason, successful politicians are apt to be happier at the age of seventy than any other men of equal age. Their only competitors in this respect are the men who are the heads of big businesses. There is, however, another element possessed by the best work, which is even more important as a source of happiness than is the exercise of skill. This is the element of con- structiveness. In some work, though by no means in most, something is built up which remains as a monument when the work is completed. We may distinguish construction from destruction by the following criterion. In construction, the initial stage of affairs is comparatively haphazard, while the final state of affairs embodies a purpose; in destruction, the reverse is the case : the initial state of affairs embodies a purpose, while the final state of affairs is haphazard, that is to say, all that is intended by the destroyer is to produce a state of affairs which does not embody a certain purpose. Destruction, is of course necessary very often as a preliminary to subsequent construction; in that case it is part of a whole which is constructive. But not infrequently a man will engage in activities of which the purpose is destructive without regard to any construction that may come after. Frequently he will conceal this from himself by the belief that he is only sweeping 367 civilz byte

away in order to build afresh, but it is generally possible to unmask this pretence, when it is pretence, by asking him what the subsequent construction is to be. On this subject it will be found that he will speak vaguely and without enthusiasm, whereas on the preliminary destruction he has spoken precisely and with zest. This applies to not a few revolutionaries and militarists and other apostles of violence. They are actuated, usually without their own knowledge, by hatred; the destruction of what they hate is their real purpose, and they are comparatively indifferent to the question of what is to come after it. Now I cannot deny that in the work of destruction as in the work of construction there may be joy. It is a fiercer joy, perhaps at moments more intense, but it is less profoundly satisfying, since the result is one in which little satisfaction is to be found. You kill your enemy, and when he is dead your occupation is gone, and the satisfaction that you derive from victory quickly fades. The work of construction, on the other hand, when completed, is delightful to contemplate, and moreover is never so fully completed that there is nothing further to do about it. The most satisfactory purposes are those that lead on indefi- nitely from one success to another without ever coming to a dead end; and in this respect it will be found that construction is a greater source of happiness than destruction. (735 words) 4. (a) Rewrite the following sentences after making necessary changes in the original corrections. Do not make unnecessary changes in the original sentence : (i) The older the wine, better it tastes. 1 x 10 = 10 (ii) You cannot cross the bridge until you do not come to it. (iii) He asked me what was my profession. (iv) Give me a pencil to write. (v) Netaji is one of the bravest patriot of the country. (vi) I met an one-eyed beggar in the street. (vii) The traders dealing with garments are jittery about the impact of GST. (viii) His efficiency soon made him the boss's blue-eyes boy. (ix) She does not know cooking, doesn't she? (x) No sooner the bell rang than the children rushed out of their classrooms.

(b) Supply the missing words : 1 × 5 = 5 (i) The quarrel was unnecessary as they were making a ______out of a molehill. (ii) Let us ring ______the New Year with gaiety. (iii) The custom of SATI was done away ______during the British period. (iv) One should not always blow one's own______. (v) I cried myself ______to make him hear. 368 Main Examination : The Big Battle

(c) Use the correct forms of the verbs given in brackets : 1 × 5 = 5 (i) Bread and butter _____ his usual breakfast. (be) (ii) Some of the protestors were ______by bullets. (hit) (iii) When I came out of the building I saw that it ______. (rain) (iv) Floods _____ if it continues to rain. (occur) (v) I _____ for you since 10 o'clock. (wait)

(d) Write the antonyms of the following : 1 × 5 = 5 (i) Amateur (ii) Heavenly (iii) Perfect (iv) Variable (v) Vertical

5. (a) Rewrite each of the following sentences as directed without changing the meaning: 1×10 = 10 (i) The truth of the matter is too obvious to require any proof. (Remove 'too') (ii) Radhika says, "I have pain in my knee." (Change into indirect speech) (iii) He is not hungry. He is not thirsty. (Combine the sentences using 'neither... nor') (iv) Give him a glass of water. (Change into passive voice) (v) The prisoner was set free by the court.(Change into active voice) (vi) He was ill. He came to school. (Rewrite as one sentence beginning with 'despite') (vii) When the sun rises, the birds leave their nests. (Change into a compound sentence) (viii) Those who come late shall be punished. (Change into simple sentence) (ix) Both his parents died in a train accident,______? (Add a question tag) (x) Gold is the costliest metal. (Use comparative degree)

(b) Use the following words to make sentences that bring out their meaning clearly. Do not change the form of the words. (No marks will be given for vague and ambiguous sentences.) 1 × 5 = 5 (i) Evidence (ii) Condemnation (iii) Constitute (iv) Territorial (v) Unseemly

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(c) Choose the appropriate word to fill in the blanks : 1 × 5 = 5 (i) He ran like a _____ through the forest. (doe / dough) (ii) The teacher encouraged the students to understand things and not learn by _____. (wrote / rote) (iii) Indians were determined to throw away the _____ of foreign rule. (yolk / yoke) (iv) After his morning prayers, the priest remained ______for the rest the day. (idle / idol) (v) The hunter killed the bird sitting on the _____. (bow / bough)

(d) Use these idioms/phrases in sentences of your own to bring out their meaning clearly. Do not change the form of the words: 1 × 5 = 5 (i) Wild goose chase (ii) Crocodile tears (iii) Fool's paradise (iv) On cloud nine (v) yeoman service.

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370 CHAPTER Main Examination : The Big Battle 35 General Essay Overview of the Chapter

Structure of the Paper Preparation for the Essay Significance of the Essay Paper Presentation of the Essay Structure of an Essay Sources of study Types of Essays

riends, an essay is a short piece of writ- write concisely. Credit will be given for effective ing on a particular subject. It can be in & exact expression.” Fnature of a composition, a thesis, a dis- sertation, an assignment or even a treatise de- STRUCTURE OF THE pending upon the purpose for which it is being written. PAPER

From the perspective of Civil Services, the The Essay Paper was introduced in 1993 on essay is a composition of 1,000 to 1,200 words the recommendations of Satish Chandra where the aspirants are expected to express their Committee. The civil servants at different levels views, argument or evaluate a topic or an is- are entrusted with task of preparing detailed sue, in a structured, coherent and logical man- reports on the incidents that happen in their ner. domain and also draft policy papers and such In fact and general terms, Essay is a kind of stuff. The candidate is expected to possess this subjective assessment of one’s personality, rea- kind of skills which can help in the service. Since soning & line of thinking. So, what is exactly 1993, in the Civil Services Exam, one topic had reflected in the Essay you write is your person- to be chosen from the given 4 to 8 questions till ality. 2013. Nevertheless, with effect from the CS (M) 2014, the structure of the essay paper has The point that UPSC makes about General undergone a change. The candidates now have Essay is... “Candidates may be required to write to write two essays from two different sections essays on multiple topics. They will be expected (Section A & Section B) of the Paper. to keep closely to the subject of the essay to arrange their ideas in orderly fashion, and to In each of these sections, there are four 371 civilz byte topics specified. Each of the essays have to be candidate there is a substantial variation in the written within a word limit of 1,000 – 1,200 words essay marks between one attempt and the other. and both within a time span of three hours. But the importance of the essay is not merely Earlier the candidate had to write a single because of the scope of scoring well in it, but essay of 2,500 words in the same time dura- more so because of the little effort (as com- tion. Now, the total marks for both the essays pared to the preparation for the GS and Optional is 250 i.e., 125 each. papers) it takes to prepare for it and augment one’s own score. SIGNIFICANCE OF THE ESSAY PAPER THE BASIC STRUCTURE OF AN ESSAY Essay is the first paper which the candidates have to take in the series of nine papers of the Broadly, the structure of all the types of es- CS (MAINS) and carries substantial marks (in- say can be said to comprise three parts. creased from 200 to 250 since CSE 2013). Being I. The Introduction - This is short. the very first paper of the examination, it sets II. The body - Comprising the major por- the tempo for the rest of the papers and also tion of the essay. affects the mood of the candidates. But the real significance of this paper is in the marks it has III. The conclusion - This is short. to offer. The marks allotted to this paper (nearly 14.3 % of the entire marks of the Mains) are The order is very important, just like when equal to each of the two Optional papers as well you are at a restaurant or party, you start with as to each of the four papers of the General Stud- some Starter like soup, go for Main course like ies. Biryani and then, beautifully end the meal with some Dessert like Ice cream. The maximum marks scored by the toppers in the General Studies are around 30-35 per- In the same way, the above three parts are cent and in the Optional Papers it is roughly 50 to be inherent in the structure of the essay. per cent. However, in the essay paper, marks However, they are not to be denoted separately of 50 per cent and above (i.e., 125 plus score) as ‘introduction’, ‘body’, etc., through distinct are not uncommon. Thus, the marks of the es- captions. say can catapult the overall marks scored by A well written and insightful introduction the candidate in the CS (Mains). would lead the reader/examiner into reading Further, unlike the GS papers, the marks the essay with much interest and heightened scored in the essay show a larger variation even curiosity whereas an apt conclusion would leave among the other toppers and among the suc- a savoury taste in his mouth leading to good cessful candidates. At times, even for the same score in the paper. 372 Main Examination : The Big Battle THE INTRODUCTION next in the essay or set the tone for the body of the essay. The opening paragraph (or a couple of short In an argumentative essay (where pros and paragraphs) of the essay is what is referred to cons of an issue are to be discussed), which as the introduction. Along with the topic of the side of the debate you propose to take may essay (which should be written/ specified at be brought out in the introduction itself. the very beginning), the introduction informs Even a general statement in the form of a the reader as to what the writer aims to cap- question can be a good introduction to such ture in the essay. Thus, an introduction is akin an essay. However, in a narrative essay, one to a synopsis to the essay or a formulation of can begin with facts (or even some the thesis of the essay, particularly for an argu- statistics) which are interesting or even mentative category of the essay. But the ob- surprising. jective of the ‘introduction’ is not merely to In an expository descriptive essay, one can convey to the reader the broad contours of what begin with a quotation which captures the it is likely to contain, but also to catch the at- essence of the topic or even with an tention and generate interest on what will fol- anecdote. low. Do not jump into writing the introduction The introduction offers the first impression straight away. Once you have shortlisted to the reader about the essay. Although the first and narrowed on the topic, then for the impression may not always be the last one, it is first 12-15 minutes jot down all the points sure to be a very important one as far as the (in rough) which you want to include in the essay is concerned. As such, a good introduc- essay. Keep on noting them in the order in tion is a must for scoring good marks in the which they come to your mind. Once you essay. Besides, introduction also highlights the feel you have sufficient points or material importance of the topic of the essay, especially to complete the essay then draft a suit- if the issue is a contemporary and relevant one. able introduction. If you are satisfied with Some salient points about composing an intro- your introduction then pen it in fair. duction are discussed below. The need for a carefully composed An introduction should be brief. Consider- introduction can be summed up by the famous ing that the essay is to be written in 1,000- adage, “well begun is half done”. 1,200 words, the introduction should not exceed more than 100- 125 words (or 10 percent of the essay). BODY OF THE ESSAY It should preferably be catchy. A quotation The body of the essay contains all what we or slogan is generally a good way to begin have to say about the topic. The arguments, the introduction. It should strive to make facts, figures, illustrations and all the points the reader interested in what is to follow. which we want to cover, are part of the body. It should help to establish what is coming These are contained in several body paragraphs. 373 civilz byte

Typically, the body of the essay should comprise things can be improved, tourism potential 80 per cent of the essay (the remaining 10 per- in India and economic opportunities it of- cent each for the introduction and the conclu- fers; all can come later. sion). For each of the essays of CSE this would Maintain coherency of thought in the entire mean 800-900 words. The salient points to be body of the essay. This implies that your kept in mind while writing the body are given essay should not be disjointed. Not only the below. introduction but transition from one idea Before commencing to write the main part to another should be smooth and not sud- of the essay, always review as to what are den in all sections of the essay. For in- the points you intend to write about. Are stance, in the topic discussed above, a co- they sufficient to discuss in about 800- herent sequence of thoughts can be like 900words? What is going to be the chro- this... nology of the points or ideas? Are you go- India’s poor share in the international ing to begin the most important point and tourist market; move to the lesser important ones or in the reasons for it; reverse order? Have a broad mental plan steps to be taken to ameliorate the situ- as to how are you going to develop the con- ation, viz., improvement in law and tent before you actually embark upon do- order, infrastructure, cleanliness, infor- ing so. mation services etc.; The body begins where the introduction why invest in tourism? ends. As such, the transition from intro- economic potential; duction to the body of the essay should be India’s tourism potential; smooth and not sudden. This implies that different forms of tourism etc; the thread of the idea which was drawn in future of tourism in India. the introduction should continue in the initial portion of the body as well. Let’s con- In the aforesaid topic, the order sequence sider the topic “Tourism: Can this be the of ideas is not sacrosanct. One could have next thing for India?” (CSE 2014). Suppos- begun with the impact of tourism on the ing that we introduced the topic by com- economy of a religion and then moved to paring the number of foreign tourists com- another idea. But in certain types of es- ing to Singapore(over 1.5 crores ) as com- says, this chronology becomes important. pared to only 70 lakhs coming to India, then For instance, if one is tracing the growth the same idea thread (of much smaller per- of communication technology, then one centage of foreign tourists coming to India cannot discuss the development of com- as compared to many smaller countries ) puters after writing about the proliferation should continue to be the beginning of the of internet. Similarly, in an essay tracing body. The other points, like reason for historical developments, chronology of lesser share of international tourists, how events is important and its order ought to

374 Main Examination : The Big Battle

be maintained in a sacrosanct manner. This This would include the pros and cons in the can be done by proper mental planning of argumentative essay, e.g., “Is growing level the course of the essay. of competition good for youth?” (CSE 2014). In the sighted topic the examiner would The body of the essay should be divided into expect the candidate to discuss the posi- several paragraphs. Care should be taken tive as well as negative effects of comple- to discuss different points or ideas in sepa- tion on youth. While more efforts, hard rate paragraphs. One should not merge two work and greater output by the youth are different points/ ideas in the same para- the positive aspects, undue stress and ex- graph. It is also possible that a single idea/ cessive competition fostering unethical point may extend into more than one para- practices are some of the negative fallouts. graph. In such cases, the content should be A balanced essay would discuss all the as- broken up into two or more paragraphs. pects, but would conclude in favour of one. Don’t make a paragraph very long and surely not more than 150-175 words. SPECLIH Perspective: Think from Social, Political, Economic, Cultural, Legal, Inter- The use of anecdotes, illustration etc., is a national, Humanistic perspective. You can good way of developing your contents as well make more of your own acronyms like this as supporting the hypothesis. For instance, and add more dimensions to think from. to highlight the unrealized potential of tour- Such acronyms help you brainstorm and ism in India, one can cite success stories of gather points to write. Singapore, Thailand, and Turkey etc. In these countries, the influx of foreign tour- Do not write theoretical jargon. Essay is a ists is many times more than that of India, generalist paper and thus writing theories although they are of much smaller size than of economists at length or other subject India and have lesser number of possible heavy jargon will not result in good marks. tourism spots. Examples and anecdotes You don’t need to look like an expert in lessen the burden of writer as what to write your essay. It has to look like a lay man next. Besides, they catch the attention of writing it wonderfully. reader and keep him mentally involved in Always stick to the question asked in the the essay. essay. For example, if the topic is about Similarly, the quotations which support the capitalism, better to write whether or not idea being discussed are a good way of cap- it can bring inclusive growth, or something turing the attention of the examiner as well like that. Don’t start writing about every- as adding substance to your essay. In a tech- thing you know about capitalism because nical topic, definitions and expert opinions that won’t fetch you marks. can also find a place in the body. Cover all the important points you have It is extremely important to cover various thought to incorporate in the body. Avoid perspectives of the issue being discussed. the trap where you keep on writing about a

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single point and later realize that you have everyone’s need but not for everyone’s greed.” little time or legroom to accommodate the other points. TYPES OF ESSAYS & THEIR SALIENT FEATURES... THE CONCLUSION Though it seems a bit academic to divide The final paragraph or two which captures the essay, let us do it for your better under- the essence of what the writer has tried to cover standing. Essays can be categorized into four in the body of the essay is referred to as in the types…. conclusion. The conclusion has to be short, roughly 80-100 words and not exceeding a couple 1. Argumentative Essay of short paragraphs at the most. Its objective 2. Narrative Essay can be said to be as follows: 3. Expository Essay To summarize what the writer wants to con- 4. Descriptive Essay vey To establish the thesis, or the line of argument the writer has been talking ARGUMENTATIVE ESSAY To leave an impact on the mind of the An essay where the writer has to argue reader, inciting the reader to ponder fur- about a particular issue, by evaluating its pros ther on the points / issues raised by the and cons, or to take a specific stand on an is- writer. sue, is referred to as an argumentative essay. Give a sense of closure but not complete Generally, debatable topics fall into this closure of the topic in the conclusion by which category. From the perspective of the exami- we mean, leave some lingering thought in the nation, this is the most important category as mind of the reader to think about. Demonstrate the essay topics in CSE would largely fall in this decisiveness in the conclusion and be assertive category. and positive. Understanding various perspectives of an A good conclusion therefore should only issue and adopting a logical and well-reasoned revisit the highlights of the essay or reinforce line of Argument is the key to proficiency in the proposition. It should not add new points argumentative essays. Following are the ex- not discussed in the body. Further, it also gives amples of an Argumentative Essay. the reader a sense of completion. For instance, on a topic pertaining to striking a balance be- 1. ‘‘Is the growing level of competition good tween ecology and economy / sustainable de- for youth? ’’ (CSE 2014) velopment, the following can be a good con- 2. “Was it policy paralysis or paralysis of cluding remark. implementation which slowed the growth The entire issue is captured in the words of our country?” (CSE 2014) of Mahatma Gandhi, “The world has enough for 376 Main Examination : The Big Battle

EXPOSITORY ESSAY Although certain elements of other essays can also be incorporated in them, the above ones These are essays where the writer is trying broadly fall into this category. From the perspec- to present an explanation on an issue or solicit tive of Civil Services Exam, a narrative essay is the views of the writer on the issue. Often, such less in vogue although other kinds of essays too topics are in the form of a question or the ques- require some narration in them. tion is inherent and the writer is to give an an- The attributes needed in such essays include swer or explanation to it. accurate tracing of the chronology of events and Consider the following questions to be un- lucid as well as structured presentation style. der this category…

1. “In the context of Gandiji’s views on the DESCRIPTIVE ESSAY matter, explore on an evolutionary scale As the very name suggests, description of the terms – Swadhinta, Swarajya, people, places, human emotions, nature, sen- Dharmarajya. Critically comment on their sory details, technical details, etc., all fall in this contemporary relevance to Indian Democ- category. Even imaginative description of a per- racy.” (CSE 2012) son, place, country, society in future..can be 2. “Creation of smaller states and consequent categorized as a descriptive essay. administrative, economic and development Examples of such essays are… implications.” (CSE 2011) 1. “My vision for India in 2001 AD.” (CSE 1994) The key to attempting such Essays is hav- 2. “My vision of an ideal world order.” (CSE ing an understanding of the issue. Its various 2001) aspects and being able to crystallize one’s own views on the issue and express them lucidly. Essays which would exclusively fit in this category are quite far and few in the CSE. Such essays require ability to imagine, visualize, rec- NARRATIVE ESSAY ollect, and a good command over language to Narrative essays are those which call for express. narration of or giving an account of an event/ set of events or record of what happened etc. OTHER KINDS OF ESSAYS For instance, the topics below are close to the description of a narrative essay…. Besides, the above four, some other classi- fications of essays are… 1. “How has the satellite television brought about a cultural change in Indian mindsets.” I. Persuasive Essay: Here, the writer tries to (CSE 2007) convince the reader of a particular point of view or of a specific stand on an issue (akin 2. “The growth of information Technology in to an argumentative essay). India.” 377 civilz byte

For example, ‘Words are sharper than the THEME BASED two edged sword.’ (CSE 2014) CLASSIFICATION OF ESSAYS

There are certain themes which are recur- II. Compare and contrast Essay: Where simi- rent in the topics of essays in the past few years. larities or differences of an issue or other These are… subjects are the point of discussion. 1. Human Development From the CSE Perspective, the categories of most important essays are argumenta- 2. Economy and related issues tive/persuasive and Expository. Aspirants 3. Science and Technology - Impact on society should preferably practise these two types 4. Environment & Ecology of essays. 5. Education & society The topics given in the recent years in CSE 6. Culture & society also have some noticeable characteristic. 7. Women Empowerment & related issues Either they are based on contemporary is- 8. General administration & polity sues or the topics have a philosophical con- 9. India & world text. 10. Philosophy & Values based. e.g: “Is sting operation an invasion on pri- Aspirants should be on lookout for good vacy?” (CSE 2014) articles on such issues, particularly if it is a con- “With great power comes great responsi- temporary issue. Making a mental note of the bility?” (CSE 2014) vital points of the issue is all what is really needed. One can always develop these salient The philosophical essays are often a chal- points if one is aware of the key issues lenge to some candidates as they require understanding as well as exposition of the under- PREPARATION lying philosophy. So, practise both these categories of essays, especially the latter. FOR THE ESSAY

The paper setters often throw surprises by General Essay is often a neglected area of including quite a few challenging albeit inter- CSE preparation. Many candidates do not realise esting philosophical topics. In CSE 2014, two the need for dedicated preparation for the es- out of the four topics of section-A were of this say paper, either because there is no specified category. course content to be covered or they believe As such, philosophical essays may be diffi- that the time spent on preparation may not cult to avoid. In such essays, candidates must result in any tangible improvement in their es- strive to use quotations, anecdotes, examples say marks. from lives of great men and teachings/philoso- It is correct that essay does not have any phies of prominent thinkers, if you are aware, specified syllabus to be covered and the pos- to substantiate the proposition of the topic. sible topics of essay are difficult to predict. 378 Main Examination : The Big Battle

However, you can bring a reasonable improve- You may buy a book from the market for ment in your essay marks by making an optimal preparation of this paper from which you level of preparation. can read few good essays. This will also give you an idea of the structure and style Here is what we suggest you do to have clar- of presentation. ity about this paper and develop your skill of writing an essay…. Wide and extensive reading is very useful in shaping your thought processes. Besides, Although there is not a specified syllabus it is also advised to pick new words, quo- provided for General Essay, the syllabus of tations and anecdotes which can add value General Studies can be broadly considered to your essay. as the baseline for this paper. Practise & practise more. This is even more Set a target to write at least 3 essays ev- important if you are from a science back- ery month. In the worst cases, give your- ground where a regular habit of creative self a chance to skip one. But 2 every month writing is not seen. Generally students from is very necessary. This way, during your background of arts tend to write a lot in course of the preparation, you can explore their academics. Practise as much as you many angles and spheres of creative writ- can. Practice is essential to set your flow ing yourself. of thoughts and to synchronize your think- Select a topic to write. Preferably pick a ing and writing speed. topic from the past years’ question papers. Simulate an exam like environment i.e., PLAN A TIME FRAME write an essay of 1,000 – 1,200 words in a WHILE YOU PRACTISE single stretch of one and a half hours. Ini- tially, if you practice this way, you can ad- Since you have got to write two essays in just the time to 3 hours and practise writ- three hours, divide the time into two parts. For ing 2 essays in a sitting. each of these parts, the choice of the essay topics should be done within 5 – 10 minutes. Do not rush to start the essay. For an es- The next 15 minutes should be spent on pon- say of 1,000 words, set aside 20 minutes dering and planning what to write about the to think about the points you propose to topic. Spend an hour in actually writing the write and jot them down in rough. Also, whole essay. think of the illustrations, quotations, anecdotes (a short story or narrative)...etc. Always keep five to seven minutes for which you would like to include. checking your essay. This is essential as many of our mistakes, like tittling (dot) of i’s, cross- Remember. Merely writing an essay is not ing of t’s, checking of spelling mistakes, errors sufficient. It is a must to get it evaluated of articles/preposition etc., which are all easily by someone competent. It is also important spottable, can be corrected by us in this period. to take a note of the mistakes/ lacunae A similar time frame should be set for the sec- and avoid them in the subsequent essays. ond essay as well. 379 civilz byte

Keep tabs on time. Writing too much in one 4. Quotations, Illustrations & Anecdotes: They essay on a specific point, at the cost of another help you catch the examiner’s attention, point or the second essay, is not prudent. substantiate your proposition and support the line of reasoning. Nevertheless, ensure PRESENTATION OF they are apt & according to the context of what you want to convey and not out of THE ESSAY place.

Right Presentation of the essay helps reader Listed below are a few random sug- understand what the writer thinks about the is- gestions you’ve got to be clear about sue, in a coherent and lucid manner. Broadly to make your essay score you a good speaking, presentation has two primary aspects. number… The structure & the style. If style were to be an The Essay needs to be both optimistic and ‘Art’ which carries your imprint, structure would pessimistic. But the former has to be overt be the ‘Science’ which is standardized. The and visible, and the latter subtle & invis- structure is already discussed. The salient as- ible. pects of style of presentation are… Do not take extreme opinions & stands. Just 1. Neatness of the Presentation: Ensure Proper let your approach be a balanced one. spacing of words, lines and paragraphs and Remember, the essay is not a medium to proper side and bottom margins. Unwanted express your attitudes & prejudices through words have to be struck by a single stroke half – baked opinions. of line instead of striking it untidily. Essay is also not a disgorgement of information and facts. 2. Legible Handwriting: Let the handwriting be Don’t forget. The primary purpose of the clear, not too small or too big. If you waste essay could be to test & assess the writing your time, due to undue haste, you may try skills of the candidates. But it is not the to complete the paper in the time left and sole purpose. hence might not care the handwriting. At The equally important purpose of an essay the end of the day, though the writing need is to get an insight into the candidate’s… not be beautiful, the quality of legibility Thinking. matters a lot. Ability to respond critically & personally 3. Clarity of Expression: Lucid and clear lan- to a problem or issue. guage is a prerequisite of a good style. Con- Acumen to select & use information to vey your ideas in a clear, unambiguous and support an argument & present it in a coherent manner. Make it a habit to use structured & impressive way. simple sentences and appropriate words and The examiner desires a well thought of expressions. Long and complex sentences stream of arguments systematically ar- may confuse the examiner. ranged & rationally substantiated. He wants 380 Main Examination : The Big Battle

it to be brief & concise. Yet, clear & com- The essay has to bring an urge in the reader prehensive in itself. to finish reading the whole piece with Be specific to the extent possible while heightened interest and in one go. extending arguments. Opinions expressed in the essay based on If you do not know remember the quote sound facts and critical unbiased analyses word by word, but have a total idea about are always appreciated by the examiner. it, then paraphrase it and write it in your And the final word and open secret about own words. General Essay is ‘More Practice.’ Don’t misquote someone’s quote to be somebody else’s. Misquoting is disastrous. SOURCES OF STUDY Do not try to show off your knowledge & intellectual prowess. Don’t write the mi- BOOKS nutest and irrelevant details you know 1. Read The Hindu regularly. This goes with- about the topic because you remember. out saying. Pick and learn some beautiful Write the keywords. Use simple but pow- and catchy-worthy phrases, particularly erful sentences. from the editorial. Don’t deviate from the core theme of the essay and write irrelevant things. Doing so 2. Yojana & Kurukshetra Magazines. They are will both waste your time & frustrate the the ultimate sources of learning to write the examiner. best essays. When specific data or general statements 3. Essay module of Vajiram & Ravi Institute. are quoted, take time to explain its relevance to your argument & establish a con- Mobile Applications nect. MERRIAM WEBSTER DICTIONARY – There When you criticize, you are supposed to suggest a solution for the problem too. are many apps on Playstore, Appstore or Windows store. We recommended this since Though the argument in the essay has to we felt it is a better one out of all of them. be concise & relevant, it should also serve Use it for a quick check of meanings, syn- to explain the core point well to the reader. onyms and origin of the word. But do not The most important trait you need here is substitute the book version of “Oxford Ad- relevance. It should corroboratively support vanced Learner’s Dictionary” with this app. your argument. Since you have to use the best dictionary, Completeness is what a good essay really only use Oxford for your general references. requires. So, let it present a holistic and EPW – It is the application version of most multi-dimensional view of the topic. respected ‘Economic & Political Weekly.’ 381 civilz byte

Articles upto a limit can be read on the app, Websites but will require a subscription fee thereaf- www.yojana.gov.in ter. But you can comfortably use it to a de- – Download Yojana and Kurukshetra cent extent for free. Magazines. OPEDDICTION – It is ‘Opinion – Editorial – www.mea.gov.in Addiction.’ Instead of installing news apps – Ministry of External Affairs. seperately like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Times of In- dia’, ‘First-Post’, ‘Inshorts’, use this app www.cprindia.org to have all of them in it. When you are in a - India’s leading public policy think tank vacation or not in the reach of a newspa- offering Analytical write-ups. per, you can use it to read the editorials. www.vikaspedia.in And you can also bookmark the important – Knowledge initiative by InDG… articles to view later. And other such Ministry websites…

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382 CHAPTER Main Examination : The Big Battle 36 Treasure Trove: General Essay Question Papers GENERAL ESSAY 2013

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: The Essay must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (QCA) booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for the answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit, as specified, should be adhered to. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the answer book must be clearly struck off.

Write an essay on any ONE of the following topics in not more than 2500 words : 250

Q1. Be the change you want to see in others - Gandhi Q2. Is the Colonial mentality hindering India's success? Q3. GDP (Gross Domestic Product) along with GDH (Gross Domestic Happiness) would be the right indices for judging the well-being of a country. Q4. Science & Technology is the panacea for the growth and security of the nation.

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383 civilz byte GENERAL ESSAY 2014

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Write TWO Essays, choosing ONE from each of the Sections A and B, in about 1000 -1200 words each : 125 x 2 = 250

SECTION-A 1. With greater power comes greater responsibility. 2. Is the growing level of competition good for the youth? 3. Are the standardized tests good measure of academic ability or Progress? 4. Words are sharper than the two edged swords.

SECTION-B 1. Was it the policy paralysis or the paralysis of implementation which slowed the growth of our country? 2. Is sting operation an invasion on privacy? 3. Fifty Golds in Olympics: Can this be a reality for India? 4. Tourism: Can this be the next thing for India?

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384 Main Examination : The Big Battle GENERAL ESSAY 2015

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Write TWO Essays, choosing ONE from each of the Sections A and B, in about 1000 -1200 words each : 125 x 2 = 250

SECTION-A 1. Lending Hands to someone is better than giving a dole. 2. Quick but steady wins the race. 3. Character of an institution is reflected in its leader. 4. Education without values, as useful as it is, seems rather to make a man more clever devil.

SECTION-B 1. Technology cannot replace manpower. 2. Crisis faced in India - moral or economic. 3. Dreams which should not let India sleep. 4. Can capitalism bring inclusive growth ?

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385 civilz byte GENERAL ESSAY 2016

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Write TWO Essays, choosing ONE from each of the Sections A and B, in about 1000 -1200 words each : 125 x 2 = 250

SECTION-A 1. If development is not engendered, it is endangered 2. Need brings greed, if greed increases it spoils breed 3. Water disputes between states in federal India 4. Innovation is the key determinant of economic growth and social welfare

SECTION-B 1. Cooperative federalism : Myth or reality 2. Cyberspace and internet : Blessing or curse to the human civilization in the long run 3. Near jobless growth in India : An anomaly or an outcome of economic reforms 4. Digital economy : A leveller or a source of economic inequality

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386 Main Examination : The Big Battle GENERAL ESSAY 2017

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Write TWO Essays, choosing ONE from each of the Sections A and B, in about 1000 -1200 words each : 125 x 2 = 250

SECTION-A 1. Farming has lost the ability to be a source of subsistence for majority of farmers in India. 2. Impact of the new economic measures on fiscal ties between the union and states in India. 3. Destiny of a nation is shaped in its classrooms. 4. Has the Non- Alignment Movement (NAM) lost its relevance in a multipolar world?

SECTION-B 1. Joy is the simplest form of gratitude. 2. Fulfilment of 'new woman' in India is a myth. 3. We may brave human laws but cannot resist natural laws. 4. 'Social media' is inherently a selfish medium.

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387 CHAPTER civilz byte 37 General Studies-1

he general Studies (GS) Paper I is un- Indian History, World History, Indian Society and doubtedly the most challenging paper of World & Physical Geography (With spl. reference Tthe entire Mains given the vastness of to India). The strategy for this paper, in the the subjects in this paper and things otherwise following pages, is prepared as per these areas. covering lots of syllabus of History & Geography The official syllabus of the 2nd paper in the of the World, that of India, Culture, Heritage & Main Examination i.e., General Studies-1 can Society of India. be divided into five sub-heads as follows… The questions are opinion and analysis based with all questions being compulsory. If the 1. INDIAN HERITAGE AND CULTURE trend of awarding marks is taken into consider- Indian culture will cover the salient aspects ation, this paper can be dubbed pretty well strict. of Art Forms, Literature and Architecture However, this should not be any reason for disil- from ancient to modern times. lusionment, as in any competition it is the comparative score that matters. 2. MODERN INDIAN HISTORY As an aspirant, your objective is to give Modern Indian history from about the middle of the eighteenth century until the your best, within any constraints like time or present- significant events, personalities, resources. This paper requires adopting a fo- issues. cused approach which would imply a proper un- The Freedom Struggle - its various stages derstanding of the syllabus, the nature of ques- and important contributors /contributions tions, the books to read and the strategy to from different parts of the country. adopt. Take the help of this book as we provide Post-independence consolidation and re- you with an almost-readymade approach. But organization within the country. make sure you incorporate the additions as per your convenience & and let it help you well. 3. WORLD HISTORY This Paper tests the Candidates in five History of the world will include events broad areas - Indian Heritage & Culture, Modern from 18th century such as industrial revolu- 388 Main Examination : The Big Battle

tion, world wars, re-drawal of national 5. WORLD & PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY boundaries, colonization, decolonization, (WITH SPL. REFERENCE TO INDIA) political philosophies like communism, Salient features of world’s physical capitalism, socialism etc.- their forms and geography. effect on the society. Distribution of key natural resources across the world (including South Asia and the In- 4. INDIAN SOCIETY dian sub-continent). Salient features of Indian Society, Diver- Factors responsible for the location of pri- sity of India. mary, secondary, and tertiary sector industries in various parts of the world (includ- Role of women and women’s organization, ing India) population and associated issues, poverty Important Geo-physical phenomena such and developmental issues, urbanization, as Earthquakes, Tsunami, Volcanic activity, their problems and their remedies. cyclone etc., Effects of globalization on Indian society. Geographical features and their location - Social empowerment, communalism, re- changes in critical geographical features gionalism & secularism. (including water-bodies and ice-caps) and in flora and fauna and the effects of such changes.

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389 CHAPTER civilz byte 38 Indian Heritage & Culture

he syllabus as framed by the Union Pub- Sufism and Bhakti movements, socio-reli- lic Service Commission, and notified in gious ideas in India in the Medieval period, Tthe ‘Gazette of India: Extraordinary,’ only important personalities, and impact on so- specifies, “Indian culture will cover the salient ciety aspects of Art Forms, Literature and Architec- Art and Architecture in temples in India ture from ancient to modern times.” Socio-religious reforms particularly in India The scope of the word ‘art form’ is quite and impact on society, religion, art, wide. And in the other part of it, besides litera- literature etc. ture, architecture also has a large domain. Thus, Essential features of art forms of modern the description of syllabus does not help in pre- India cisely understanding what and how much to study. Moreover, it is seen that usually two to SOURCES OF STUDY three questions worth 25-40 marks emanate from this topic. A. NCERT Text Books

The focus of the candidates in this section I. Introduction to Indian Art, part – 1 - should be on the following areas… 11th class Fine Arts Text book Indus Valley Civilization, Culture, Planning, II. Living Craft Traditions of India – 11th Art…etc., class Heritage Crafts Text Book Various schools of Art & Sculpture in An- i. Chapters – 1 to 5, 9 & 10 cient India (Gandhara, Kushana of Mathura..etc) III. Themes in Indian History – 12th class Salient features of Buddhism, Jainism & History Text books Hinduism and their philosophies & texts i. Volume I – Chapter 4 ‘Thinkers: Be- Literature, music, dance and other forms liefs & Buildings of art in ancient India (Sangham literature, ii. Volume II-Chapter 2 ‘Bhakti Sufi Tra- and works of other poets..etc) ditions’ and Chapter 3 ‘Vijaynagara’ 390 Main Examination : The Big Battle

B. Indian Art & Culture by Nitin Singania - Mc www.goo.gl/NAxzSF - NIOS Graw Hill publication Indian Heritage & Culture Material download C. Trends in Indian Culture by Dr. Ausaf Sayeed (or) www.goo.gl/VN9KtY – NCERT Books Download D. The National Culture of India by S. Abid www.indiaculture.nic.in/ Hussain - Ministry of Culture (or) www.kmpathi.wordpress.com/ E. Facets of Indian Culture – Spectrum - A blog with few articles pertaining to Art Publication & Culture www.culturalindia.net/ WEBSITES - Art, Culture, Heritage & beyond. www.facebook.com/indiaculture.goi/ - Facebook page of Ministry of Culture APPS www.ccrtindia.gov.in/ 1. NCERT – NIOS BOOKS - Centre for Cultural Resources and Training

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391 CHAPTER civilz byte 39 Modern Indian History

“Bahut vast hei, aur padna bhi mushkil (His- 1. First of all, read the entire Modern Indian tory is so vast and difficult to study),” is what History once from one of the books listed generally aspirants of Civils say regarding His- below. Do not make a detailed study and tory. But with right approach & choosing limited memorize anything. Just skim through all yet correct sources, one can easily master this the chapters of the book. Make this read- section according to what UPSC seeks from you. ing in a way that you do to novels. The syllabus for this subject according to Do not try to forcefully memorize anything. UPSC is as follows... If your brain likes something, it automatically records that. And do not worry, even if you don’t understand things initially. Go MODERN INDIAN HISTORY with the flow & avoid the tendency to go Modern Indian history from about the back to the previous paragraph. Once you middle of the eighteenth century until the complete reading, give another such read- present- significant events, personalities, ing. issues. a. Spectrum Publication, “A brief History of Modern India” by Rajiv Ahir. The Freedom Struggle - its various stages (or) and important contributors /contributions from different parts of the country. b. Modern Indian History by Bipan Chandra (Old version of 12th NCERT History text- Post-independence consolidation and reor- book) ganization within the country. 2. Then, go through the last 5 years’ papers Generally, the books on History in the mar- and understand how the questions are be- ket can distract you and make your study more ing asked under this section. Try answering research oriented. It’s your responsibility to see them to yourself. You’ll find that you know that you turn those books into your mode of something about few questions. You may preparation. If you feel that you have to re- not be in a position to tell anything about member everything you read in History, we beg few other questions. No worry. to differ with you. It’s not humanly possible to remember everything from the history. 3. After you complete both these tasks, now start a studious study of the subject. Make 392 Main Examination : The Big Battle

logical connections while studying it. Cor- country.” Questions were asked from this relate topics and understand why some- section as well in the previous years. So, thing happens after some event. Just keep to cover this topic, prepare well from these interconnecting the events and develop sources… your own internet (Your personal connect- a. “India Since Independence” by Bipan ing idea of topics). Do not mug up facts, Chandra – Chapters 6 – 12. rather analyse the WHYs & HOWs about what you are reading. Make the notes in b. “India after Gandhi: The History of The simple terms & sentences. World’s Largest Democracy” by Ramachandra Guha – Chapters 8 – 14. When you read the whole of Modern Indian History more than 3 times, you can be sure 9. Now take some time, make short but good of knowing most of the basic facts. quality notes from all these sources. Re- vise the notes as many times as possible. 4. Choose to complete the relevant NCERT After the completion of preparing every History textbooks in the initial stage. (Two chapter, put whatever you remember on parts of 8th class History Textbook & the the paper with the book closed. Writing it old version of 12th class book by Dr. Bipan that way once is equal to reading it ten Chandra) times. 5. Thereupon, go for the spectrum publica- Of all the parts of History, Modern Indian tion “A brief History of Modern India” by History makes an interesting reading. So, Rajiv Ahir. This is actually a small book and plunge in, give your best… as such, will not frighten you with its size. Emphasize on summary given at the end of each chapter. SOURCES OF STUDY 6. By now, you’ll be enough equipped with a 1. Modern Indian History by Bipan Chandra (Old decent knowledge over the Modern Indian version of 12th class NCERT History text- History. So, this is the time you have to book). pick Bipan Chandra’s “India’s struggle for Independence.” Read, not all but, those 2. Spectrum Publication, “A brief History of topics from this book which you wouldn’t Modern India” by Rajiv Ahir. have covered earlier from the books men- 3. “India’s struggle for Independence” by tioned above. This book will give you an Bipan Chandra. analytical understanding of the topics. 4. “India Since Independence” by Bipan 7. After you read all this, read the section on Chandra – Chapters 6 – 12. “Modern Indian History” from Lucent’s Gen- 5. “India after Gandhi: The History of The eral Knowledge Book. World’s Largest Democracy” by 8. The syllabus of “Modern Indian History” of Ramachandra Guha – Chapters 8 – 14. GS – I also includes “Post-independence con- 6. “Themes in Indian History” Part – 3, NCERT solidation and reorganization within the 12th class History Textbook. 393 CHAPTER civilz byte 40 Modern World History

arlier, World History was not a part of Civil section-IV, because we only need Modern part of Services Exam. It was included when the World History). After you complete the chapters Epattern got changed in 2013. The sylla- of section IV of this book, pick Norman Lowe’s bus of this section is… “Mastering Modern World History.” This is a standard book for this section. Watch the videos of History of the world will include events from World History by Unacademy & Khanacademy, 18th century such as industrial revolution, when possible, whose links are given below in world wars, re-drawal of national bound- the ‘Sources of Study’ section. aries, colonization, and decoloni-zation.

Political philosophies like communism, capitalism, socialism etc. - their forms and ef- SOURCES OF STUDY fect on the society. 1. “Themes of World History” (only section- So, you’ve got to prepare the Modern World IV) - NCERT History textbook of 11th class History alone and not histories of Ancient & 2. Mastering Modern World History by Norman Medieval World. And, a thorough understand- Lowe ing of these topics will help you in learning “In- ternational Relations” section in paper-3 i.e., 3. www.unacademy.com General Studies-II well. – Watch video lessons of this subject.

Like other sections in the Mains, World His- 4. www.khanacademy.org/humanities/world- tory too requires an analytic frame of approach history instead of mugging up facts & dates. - World History - Khan Academy Videos. Watch the Modern World History as ex- Develop a basic insight into this section by plained by Sal khan. (Only watch Modern, initially reading NCERT History textbook of 11th not Ancient or Medieval) class – “Themes of World History” (Read only

––––––––––– ––––––––––– 394 CHAPTER Main Examination : The Big Battle 41 Indian Society

t is quite important for any Civil Services This topic contributes questions worth 40 - aspirant that he/she be well versed with the 50 marks in the paper. This is by far the most Iknowledge of Indian Society. Even in gen- unstructured portion of this syllabus and per- eral terms, a fair knowledge of one’s own soci- haps the least predictable of all. This makes ety can help in appreciating the culture of a dif- the questions more challenging and difficult to ferent society. The syllabus of the GS Paper I, as anticipate and prepare. per the notification, prescribes the following topics for this portion. QUICK TIPS AND INDIAN SOCIETY SOURCES OF STUDY

Salient features of Indian Society, Diversity No single book covers the above topics in of India. entirety or even substantially. Role of women and women’s organization, Start with the 12th class NCERT Textbooks population and associated issues, poverty of Sociology. They’ll give you a and developmental issues, urbanization, perfect understanding about this section. their problems and their remedies. Indian Society Effects of globalization on Indian society. Social Change and Development in India Social empowerment, communalism, re- Reading the articles from Yojana Magazine gionalism & secularism. is mandatory and can’t be ignored. It cov- The base development phase for this topic ers the issues extensively and utilizing it has to be really very strong. This phase includes properly can help you get insights for the developing an idea about various issues by read- General Essay. ing and following newspapers/ magazines, using the internet, reports reading etc. UPSC ques- Follow Apps like ‘Civils Daily,’ ‘PIB News’ tions may not directly be from this level. But if & ‘AIR News’ regularly & visit the Ministry we don’t get this right, we won’t get the subse- website of ‘Women & Child Development’ quent phases right. now and then. 395 civilz byte

Candidates may give a reading of the fol- (These reports are accessible at the website lowing books and prepare notes from them. www.wed.nic.in under the link publications & reports) India Development and Participation by Amartya Sen and Jean Dreze - It is an ana- Although it may not be possible to cover the lytical book on growth, development and chapters of all these reports/publications, the more important chapters from each report are poverty alleviation. It is also helpful for GS listed below and must be covered and notes pre- Paper III, the Essay and the Interview. pared there from. Social Problems in India by Ram Ahuja (a) Platform for Action Report Society in India: Concepts, theories & Re- Chapter 2: Women & Poverty cent Trends by Ram Ahuja Chapter 3: Education & Training of Women The topics of communalism, regionalism, Chapter 5: Violence against Women secularism, urbanization, poverty, violence Chapter 6: Women & Economy against woman, illiteracy etc., are well cov- Chapter 12: The Girl Child ered in the book, Social Problems In India Chapter 13: Challenges by Ram Ahuja. Chapter 14: Emerging areas of concern The book by Amartya Sen and Jean Dreze (b) Working Group Report on Empowerment gives a detailed insight on issues of gender of Women inequality and women , economic develop- Chapter III: Women & the Law ment and social opportunity, basic educa- Chapter V: Social Empowerment tion, democracy and security in India etc. Chapter VII: Institutional Mechanism For women related issues, one can go through the select chapters of few reports (c) Annual Report of Ministry of Women and Child Development like… Chapter 2: Women Empowerment & Pro- Platform for Action Report: 10 Years tection After - India Country Report by Ministry Chapter 3: Child Development of Women and Child Development. Chapter 4: Child Protection & Welfare Working Group Report on Empowerment Chapter 5: Gender Budgeting of Woman. Chapter 10: National Commission for Annual Report of the Ministry of Women Women and Child Development. (d) Economic Survey of India Economic Survey of India (Relevant Chapter on Human Development (sub-topic Chapters) –Women & Child Development Programmes) 396 Main Examination : The Big Battle

Preparation of this topic would require more sex ratio, work environment, law and order extensive reading particularly of books, news- problems, violence against women, profes- papers and magazines, identification of relevant sional challenges, representation in the leg- issues, jotting of salient points, forming of one’s islature and other organs of government and own views and preparing notes on the topics. society. Internet can be very handy resource pool. Study- Social problems and challenges in post-In- ing the chapter on ‘Human Development’ in the dependence India, viz., regionalism, lin- Economic Survey of India can also be very help- guistic problems, re-organization and de- ful. Pay special attention to the editorials of The mand for new states. Hindu. It is better to identify 20-25 topics (or more) particularly from past years and concur- Socio-economic issues, social disparities, rent topics in news. Prepare notes of 250-300 human development challenges in India, words on them. Some salient topics can be: educational& work force related challenges. Secularism in India and the world, essential features and challenges. Social structure, transaction & related issues, viz., urbanization, caste, etc. Women- Challenges in India, viz., adverse

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397 CHAPTER civilz byte 42 World & Physical Geography (With Spl. Reference to India)

eography is by far the most important raphy in the last ten years. There are nice vid- section of General Studies Paper – 1 in eos available on YouTube created by Gterms of the questions emerging. From unacademy.in. Watch them once when it’s pos- the previous papers, it can be safely concluded sible and that’ll give you a good understanding that invariably questions worth 70 - 100 marks of the subject. While preparing Geography, con- figure from this subject alone. necting the concepts of the subject to current happenings is needed. So, make as many con- Moreover, Geography has got a considerable nections as possible. Know it well & do it well… overlap with Environment and few topics within Science & Technology. As per the detail in the above lines, it usually covers 40-50% of ques- SYLLABUS tions in this paper. And though it is heavily covered directly in this paper, it is also covered in- The Geography part of the syllabus as noti- directly in many areas of GS-3. fied by the Union Public Service Commission of GS 1 is… Right knowledge & grip over this subject can help you deal with the tricky questions in interview about earthquakes, hunger, drought situa- WORLD & PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY tion in India, agriculture policy and things sort (WITH SPL. REFERENCE TO INDIA) of. In consideration of your aspirations to be- Salient features of world’s physical geog- come the first important civil servant of a district, understand that the task of ‘Disaster Man- raphy. agement’ is your responsibility, it is really nec- Distribution of key natural resources across essary that you have enough knowledge in geog- the world (including South Asia and the In- raphy to deal them. dian sub-continent). An atlas is a must while studying Geogra- Factors responsible for the location of phy. If you don’t carry Atlas, you will be at loss, primary, secondary, and tertiary sector at last. Moreover, preparing Geography by study- industries in various parts of the world ing maps makes it more interesting. Go through (including India) the Previous Years’ Questions (PYQs) on Geog- 398 Main Examination : The Big Battle

Important Geo-physical phenomena such as g. India People & Economy - 12th Class Ge- Earthquakes, Tsunami, Volcanic activity, cy- ography clone etc., 2. Standard Books Geographical features and their location - I. Certificate Physical & Human Geogra- changes in critical geographical features phy by G. C. Leong (including water-bodies and ice-caps) and II. India & World Geography by Majid in flora and fauna and the effects of such Hussain changes. III. Oxford / Blackswan Atlas SOURCES OF STUDY Websites Books www.goo.gl/VN9KtY 1. NCERT Textbooks – NCERT Books Download a. The Earth our Habitat – 6th class Geog- www.unacademy.com raphy – Watch video lessons of this subject b. Our Environment – 7th class Geography www.mrunal.org/geography – Explore this section on this site for a bet- c. Resources & Development – 8th class ter understanding. Geography d. Fundamentals of Physical Geography - 11th Class Geography Apps e. India Physical Environment – 11th Class 1. Civils Daily Geography 2. NCERT – NIOS Books f. Fundamentals of Human Geography - 12th Class Geography

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399 CHAPTER civilz byte 43 Treasure Trove: General Studies-1 Question Papers GENERAL STUDIES-1 2013

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are TWENTY FIVE questions All questions are compulsory. The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question- cum Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions if specified should be adhered to. Any page or portion of the page left blank on the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

Answer questions in NOT MORE than the world limit specified for each in the parenthesis. Content of the answer is more important than its length.

1. Though not very useful from the point of view of a connected political history of south India, the Sangam literature portrays the social and economic conditions of its time with remarkable vividness. Comment. (200 words) 10 2. (a) Discuss the Tandava dance as recorded in early Indian inscriptions (100 words) 5 (b) Chola architecture represents the high watermark in the evolution of temple architecture. Discuss. (100 words) 5 400 Main Examination : The Big Battle

3. Defying the barriers of age, gender and religion, the Indian women became the torch bearer during the struggle for freedom in India. Discuss. (200 words) 10 4. Several foreigners made India their homeland and participated in various movements. Ana- lyze their role in the Indian struggle for freedom (200 words) 10 5. "In many ways, Lord Dalhousie was the founder of modern India." Elaborate. (200 words) 10 6. Critically discuss the objectives of Bhoodan and Gramdan Movement initiated by Acharya Vinoba Bhave and their success. (200 words) 10 7. Write a critical note on the evolution and significance of the slogan "Jai Jawan Jai Kisan" (200 words) 10 8. Discuss the contributions of Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad to pre - and post - independent India. (200 words) 10 9. Analyze the circumstances that led to the Tashkent Agreement in 1966. Discuss the highlights of the Agreement. (200 words) 10 10. Critically examine the compulsions which prompted India to play a decisive role in the emergence of Bangladesh. (200 words) 10 11. " 'Latecomer' Industrial Revolution on Japan involved certain factors that were markedly different from what West had experienced." Analyze.(200 words) 10 12. "Africa was chopped into State artificially created by accidents of European completion." Analyze. (200 words) 10 13. "American Revolution was an economic revolt against mercantilism." Substantiate. (200 words) 10 14. What policy instruments were deployed to contain the Great Economic Depression? (200 words) 10 15. Discuss the various social problems which originated out of the speedy process of urbanization in India. (200 words) 10 16. "Male membership needs to be encouraged in order to make women's organization free from gender bias." Comment. (200 words) 10 17. Critically examine the effect of globalization on the aged population in India. (200 words) 10 18. Growing feeling of regionalism is an important factor in generation of demand of for a separate State. Discuss. (200 words) 10 19. (a) What do you understand by the theory of 'continental drift'? Discuss the prominent evidences in its support. (100 words) 5 (b) The recent cyclone on east coast of India was called' Phailin.' How are the tropical cyclone named across the world? Elaborate. (100 words) 5 401 civilz byte

20. (a) Bring out the causes for the formation of heat islands in the urban habitat of the world. (100 words) 5 (b) What do you understand by the phenomenon of 'temperature inversion' in meteorology? How does it affect weather and the habitants of the place? (100 words) 5 21. Major hot deserts in northern hemisphere are located between 20-30 deg N latitudes and the western side of the continents. why? (200 words) 10 22. (a) Bring out causes for more frequent occurrence of landslides in the Himalayas than in the Western Ghats. (100 words) 5 (b) There is no formation of deltas by rivers of the Western Ghat. Why? (100 words) 5 23. (a) Do you agree that there is a growing trend of opening new sugar mills in southern States of India? Discuss with Justification. (100 words) 5 (b) Analyze the factors for the highly decentralized cotton textile industry in India. (100 words) 5 24. With growing scarcity of fossil fuels the atomic energy is gaining more and more significance in India. Discuss the availability of raw material required for the generation of atomic energy in India and in the world. (200 words) 10 25. It is said that India has substantial reserves of shale oil and gas, which can feed the needs of the country for quarter century. However, tapping of the resource does not appear to be on the agenda. Discuss critically the availability and issues involved. (200 words) 10

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402 Main Examination : The Big Battle GENERAL STUDIES-I 2014

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: All questions are compulsory. The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question- cum Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions if specified should be adhered to. Any page or portion of the page left blank on the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

Answer all the questions in NOT MORE than 150 words each. Contents of the answer are more important than its length. All questions carry equal marks. 10 x 25 = 250 1. To what extent has the urban planning and culture of the Indus Valley Civilization provided inputs to the present day urbanization? Discuss 10 2. Gandhara sculpture owed as much to the Romans as to the Greeks. Explain. 10 3. Taxila university was one of the oldest university of the world with which were associated a number of renowned learned personalities of different disciplines. Its strategic caused its fame to flourish, but unlike Nalanda, it is not considered as a university in the modern sense. Discuss. 10 4. The third battle of Panipat was fought in 1761. Why were so many empire-shaking battles fought at Panipat? 10 5. Sufis and medieval mystic saints failed to modify either the religious ideas and practices or the outward structure of Hindu/Muslim societies to any appreciable extent. Comment. 10 6. Examine critically the various facets of economic policies of the British in India from mid- eighteenth century till independence. 10 7. In what ways did the naval mutiny prove to be the last nail in the coffin of British colonial aspirations in India? 10 403 civilz byte

8. What were the major political, economic and social development in the world which motivated the anti-colonial struggle in India? 10 9. What were the events that led to the Suez Crisis in 1956 ? How did it deal a final blow to Britain self image as a world power? 10 10. The New Economic Policy - 1921 of Lenin had influenced the policies adopted by India soon after independence. Evaluate. 10 11. How does patriarchy impact the position of a middle class working woman in India? 10 12. Why do some of the most prosperous regions of India have an adverse sex ratio for women? Give your arguments. 10 13. The life cycle of a joint family depends on economic factors rather than social values. Discuss. 10 14. Discuss the various economic and socio-cultural forces that are driving increasing femini- zation of agriculture in India. 10 15. How do the Indian debates on secularism differ from the debates in the West? 10 16. Most of the unusual climatic happenings are explained as an outcome of the EI-Nino effect. Do you agree? 10 17. Why are the world's fold mountain systems located along the margins of continents? Bring out the association between the global distribution of fold mountains and the earthquakes and volcanoes. 10 18. Explain the formation of thousands of islands in Indonesian and Philippines archipelagos. 10 19. Tropical cyclones are largely confined to South China Sea, Bay of Bengal and Gulf of Mexico. Why? 10 20. Bring out the relationship between the shrinking Himalayan glaciers and the symptoms of climate change in the Indian sub-continent. 10 21. Whereas the British planters had developed tea gardens all along the Shivaliks and lesser Himalayas from Assam to Himachal Pradesh, in effect they did not succeed beyond Darjeeling area. Explain. 10 22. Why did the Green Revolution in India virtually by-pass the eastern region despite fertile soil and good availability of water? 10 23. Account for the change in the spatial Patten of the Iron and Steel industry in the world. 10 24. Critically evaluate the various resources of the oceans which can be harnessed to meet the resource crisis in the world. 10 25. How does India see its place in the economic space of rising natural resource rich Africa? 10 ––––––––––– –––––––––––

404 Main Examination : The Big Battle GENERAL STUDIES-I 2015

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are TWENTY questions. All questions are compulsory. The number of marks carried by a question is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question- cum Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions, if specified should be adhered to. Any page or portion of the page left blank on the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

Answer the following questions in not more than 200 words each. Contents of the answer are more important than their length. All questions carry equal marks. 12½ x 20 = 250

1. The ancient civilization in Indian sub-continent differed from those of Egypt, Mesopotamia and Greece in that its culture and traditions have been preserved without a breakdown to the present day. Comment. 12½ 2. Mesolithic rock cut architecture of India not only reflects the cultural life of the times but also a fine aesthetic sense comparable to modern painting. Critically evaluate this comment. 12½ 3. How different would have been the achievement of Indian independence without Mahatma Gandhi? Discuss. 12½ 4. Mahatma Gandhi and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, despite having divergent approaches and strategies, had a common goal of amelioration of the downtrodden. Elucidate. 12½ 5. It would have been difficult for the Constituent Assembly to complete its historic task of drafting the Constitution for Independent India in just three years but for the experience gained with the Government of India Act, 1935. Discuss. 12½

405 civilz byte

6. Why did the industrial revolution first occur in England? Discuss the quality of life of the people there during the industrialization. How does it compare with that in India at present? 12½ 7. To what extent can Germany be held responsible for causing the two World Wars? Discuss critically. 12½ 8. Describe any four cultural elements of diversity in India and rate their relative significance in building a national identity. 12½ 9. Critically examine whether growing population is the cause of poverty OR poverty is the main cause of population increase in India. 12½ 10. How do you explain the statistics that show that the sex ratio in Tribes in India is more favourable to women than the sex ratio among Scheduled Castes? 12½ 11. Discuss the changes in the trends of labour migration within and outside India in the last four decades. 12½ 12. Discuss the positive and negative effects of globalization on women in India. 12½ 13. Debate the issue of whether and how contemporary movements for assertion of Dalit identity work towards annihilation of caste. 12½ 14. Explain the factors responsible for the origin of ocean currents. How do they influence regional climates, fishing and navigation? 12½ 15. Mumbai, Delhi and Kolkata are the three mega cities of the country but the air pollution is much more serious problem in Delhi as compared to the other two. Why is this so? 12½ 16. India is well endowed with fresh water resources. Critically examine why it still suffers from water scarcity. 12½ 17. The states of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand are reaching the limits of their ecological carrying capacity due to tourism. Critically evaluate. 12½ 18. How far do you agree that the behavior of the Indian monsoon has been changing due to humanizing landscapes? Discuss. 12½ 19. Smart cities in India cannot sustain without smart villages. Discuss this statement in the backdrop of rural urban integration. 12½ 20. What are the economic significances of discovery of oil in Arctic Sea and its possible environmental consequences? 12½

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406 Main Examination : The Big Battle GENERAL STUDIES-I 2016

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are TWENTY questions. All questions are compulsory. The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question- cum Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to. Any page or portion of the page left blank on the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

Answer all the following questions. Each question is to be answered in not more than 200 words. Each question carries equal marks. 1. Early Buddhist Stupa-art, while depicting folk motifs and narratives, successfully expounds Buddhist ideals. Elucidate. 12½ 2. Krishnadeva Raya, the king of Vijayanagar, was not only an accomplished scholar himself but was also a great patron of learning and literature. Discuss. 12½ 3. Explain how the Uprising of 1857 constitutes an important watershed in the evolution of British policies towards colonial India. 12½ 4. Discuss the role of women in the freedom struggle especially during the Gandhian phase. 12½ 5. Highlight the differences in the approach of Subhash Chandra Bose and Mahatma Gandhi in the struggle for freedom. 12½ 6. Has the formation of linguistic states strengthened the cause of Indian unity? 12½ 7. The anti-colonial struggles in West Africa were led by the new elite of Western -educated Africans. Examine. 12½ 8. To what extent globalisation has influenced the core of cultural diversity in India? Explain. 12½ 407 civilz byte

9. "An essential condition to eradicate poverty is to liberate the poor from the process of deprivation." Substantiate this statement with suitable examples. 7 + 5½ = 12½ 10. Why are the tribals in India referred to as 'the Scheduled Tribes'? Indicate the major provisions enshrined in the Constitution of India for their upliftment. 4½ + 8 = 12½ 11. With a brief background of quality of urban life in India, introduce the objectives and strategy of the 'Smart City Programme." 4 + 8½ = 12½ 12. What is the basis of regionalism? Is it that unequal distribution of benefits of development on regional basis eventually promotes regionalism? Substantiate your answer. 3½ + 9 = 12½ 13. Discuss the concept of air mass and explain its role in macro-climatic changes. 12½ 14. "The Himalayas are highly prone to landslides." Discuss the causes and suggest suitable measures of mitigation. 12½ 15. The effective management of land and water resources will drastically reduce the human miseries. Explain. 12½ 16. South China Sea has assumed great geopolitical significance in the present context. Comment. 12½ 17. Major cities of India are becoming more vulnerable to flood conditions. Discuss. 12½ 18. Present an account of the Indus Water Treaty and examine its ecological, economic and political implications in the context of changing bilateral relations. 12½ 19. Enumerate the problems and prospects of inland water transport in India. 12½ 20. In what way micro-watershed development projects help in water conservation in drought- prone and semi-arid regions of India? 12½

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408 Main Examination : The Big Battle GENERAL STUDIES-I 2017

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are TWENTY questions. All questions are compulsory. The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question- cum Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Answers to questions no. 1 to 10 should be in 150 words, whereas answers to questions no. 11 to 20 should be in 250 words. Keep the word limit indicated in the questions in mind. Any page or portion of the page left blank on the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

1. How do you justify the view that the level of excellence of the Gupta numismatic art is not at all noticeable in later times? (150 words) 10 2. Clarify how mid-eighteenth century India was beset with the spectre of a fragmented polity. (150 words) 10 3. Why did the 'Moderates' fail to carry conviction with the nation about their proclaimed ideology and political goals by the end of the nineteenth century? (150 words) 10 4. What problems were germane to the decolonization process in the Malay Peninsula? (150 words) 10 5. How does the Juno Mission of NASA help to understand the origin and evolution of the Earth? (150 words) 10 6. "In spite of adverse environmental impact, coal mining is still inevitable for development". Discuss. (150 words) 10 7. Mention the advantages of the cultivation of pulses because of which the year 2016 was declared as the International Year of Pulses by United Nations. (150 words) 10 409 civilz byte

8. How does the cryosphere affect global climate? (150 words) 10 9. In the context of the diversity of India, can it be said that the regions form cultural units rather than the States? Give reasons with examples for your view point. (150 words) 10 10. What are the two major legal initiatives by the State since Independence addressing discrimination against Scheduled Tribes (STs)? (150 words) 10 11. The spirit of tolerance and love is not only an interesting feature of Indian society from very early times, but it is also playing an important part at the present. Elaborate. (250 words) 15 12. Examine how the decline of traditional artisanal industry in colonial India crippled the rural economy. (250 words) 15 13. Highlight the importance of the new objectives that got added to the vision of Indian Independence since the twenties of the last century. (250 words) 15 14. Account for variations in oceanic salinity and discuss its multi-dimensional effects. (250 words) 15 15. Petroleum refineries are not necessarily located nearer to crude oil producing areas, particularly in many of the developing countries. Explain its implications. (250 words) 15 16. In what way can floods be converted into a sustainable source of irrigation and all-weather inland navigation in India? (250 words) 15 17. What characteristics can be assigned to monsoon climate that succeeds in feeding more than 50 percent of the world population residing in Monsoon Asia? (250 words) 15 18. The women's questions arose in modern India as a part of the 19th century social reform movement. What are the major issues and debates concerning women in that period? (250 words) 15 19. Distinguish between religiousness/religiosity and communalism giving one example of how the former has got transformed into the latter in independent India. (250 words) 15 20. "The growth of cities as I.T. hubs has opened up new avenues of employment, but has also created new problems". Substantiate this statement with examples. (250 words) 15

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410 CHAPTER Main Examination : The Big Battle 44 General Studies - 2

he GS-II is yet another challenging exam, SYLLABUS very much like GS-I where the syllabus Tis vast and the scores too not so high. The UPSC specifies this one liner about this Considering the past trends, a score around 110 paper with the below points as the syllabus… for 250 can be deemed good and that too, so 'Governance, Constitution & Polity, very tough to attain. Social Justice and Development To be true, GS II pulls down the score. Even & International Relations' candidates with political science find it difficult to score over 110. Not only is the syllabus a bit Indian Constitution - historical underpin- vast but the questions that are asked are also nings, evolution, features, amendments, from topics which are just 'broadly' described in significant provisions and basic structure. the syllabus. And naturally, the preparation has Functions and responsibilities of the Union to involve threading the way through diverse and the States, issues and challenges per- sources. Anyway, the silver lining is that in a taining to the federal structure, devolution competition, it is only the relative score that of powers and finances up to local levels matters. and challenges therein. But we hope this chapter would give you a Separation of powers between various or- better understanding, from whatever you know gans dispute redressal mechanisms and in- now, to what this paper has and how to approach stitutions. it. And moreover, if you seriously & scientifically Comparison of the Indian constitutional prepare for this paper, you'll have an advantage scheme with that of other countries. in other papers like General Essay, Ethics paper & optional paper-II of Public Administration too. Parliament and State Legislatures - structure, functioning, conduct of business, pow- While answering the questions in the exam, ers & privileges and issues arising out of don’t leave any question unattended. 1 or 2 marks these. you might score for such questions can have a huge bearing on the final ranking. Structure, organization and functioning of the Executive and the Judiciary Ministries 411 civilz byte

and Departments of the Government; pres- Role of civil services in a democracy. sure groups and formal/informal associa- India and its neighborhood- relations. tions and their role in the Polity. Bilateral, regional and global groupings and Salient features of the Representation of agreements involving India and/or affect- People's Act. ing India's interests. Appointment to various Constitutional Effect of policies and politics of developed posts, powers, functions and responsibili- and developing countries on India's inter- ties of various Constitutional Bodies. ests, Indian diaspora. Statutory, regulatory and various quasi-ju- Important International institutions, agen- dicial bodies. cies and fora- their structure, mandate. Government policies and interventions for Nevertheless, from the perspective of the development in various sectors and issues preparation, it is better to divide this syllabus arising out of their design and implemen- into four broad categories in the below way for tation. a better clarity and more benefit and then pre- Development processes and the develop- pare… ment industry- the role of NGOs, SHGs, 1. Indian Constitution & Comparative Study various groups and associations, donors, 2. Indian Polity & Governance charities, institutional and other stakehold- 3. Social Justice & Development ers. 4. International Relations Welfare schemes for vulnerable sections of the population by the Centre and States The detailed strategy for each of these and the performance of these schemes; categories, the syllabus divided in the above mechanisms, laws, institutions and Bodies way, various kinds of sources to study from and constituted for the protection and better- salient preparation tips have been discussed and ment of these vulnerable sections. elaborated in the following sections of this chapter. Issues relating to development and management of Social Sector or Services relating to Health, Education, Human Resources. NATURE OF Issues relating to poverty and hunger. GENERAL STUDIES - II

Important aspects of governance, transpar- The No. of questions in this paper was 25 (10 ency and accountability, e-governance- ap- marks each) in 2013. While in 2014, 2015, 2016 plications, models, successes, limitations, & 2017; 20 questions were asked to be answered and potential; citizens charters, transpar- (with 12 ½ marks each). In these years, the no. ency & accountability and institutional and of questions fluctuated but then the basic na- other measures. ture of the questions remained the same; 412 Main Examination : The Big Battle analytical and not solely information oriented or The No. of questions from this paper in factual. The questions require you to discuss, 2013, '14, '15, '16 & '17' can be divided as fol- evaluate, critically examine, elucidate, suggest, lows… (Categorizing based on all the topics a give opinion, evaluate pros & cons, justify, com- question can fall into ) ment, differentiate & analyse on diverse and TOPIC 2013 ‘14 ‘15 ‘16 2017 various issues. Indian Constitution & 5 567 2 For this reason, during the preparation, the Comparitive Study focus should not only be on gathering informa- Indian Polity & tion but also on forming opinions on different 8 556 7 Governance issues and taking stands that can be justified in Social Justice & your way. 4 664 7 Development It is also noteworthy that only the topics International of 'Indian Constitution & Comparative Study' and 8 454 4 Relations 'Indian Polity & Governance' have some standard books to prepare from and the other two must be prepared from miscellaneous sources. QUICK TIPS The past trends clearly indicate that ques- 1. NCERT Political Science Text Books from 6th tions asked in this paper obviously emanate from to 8th will give you basics and Fundamen- the issues which are in news in the relevant tals. Those of 9th to 12th will make you ac- period. For instance, questions on Constitutional quainted with the in-depth subject and rel- validity of Article 66A of Information Technol- ogy Act, National Lokpal Bill, New smaller evant contemporary issues. They'll form a states, String of Pearls were prominent in 2013 well structured knowledge base for you. paper. And questions on Judicial Activism, de- Without these books, the preparation would lay in commuting death sentence by President, be incomplete. size of PM's Cabinet, Freedom of speech & hate 2. Learn the basic political concepts like lib- speech were framed in 2014's paper. erty, equality, fraternity, democracy, social- Similarly, 2015's paper too had questions ism, secularism etc. from these books on Uniform Civil Code, Corporate Governance elaborately. So, when you come across in the light of Satyam scandal, India's perma- these concepts in Indian Constitution, you'll nent seat in UNSC etc. 2016's questions on Delhi be comfortable. Lieutenant Governor-Admin, Cross-border ter- 3. There is a great deal of discussion regard- rorist attacks in India & its relevance to SAARC ing Indian Political System, its structure & and 2017's Supreme Court's judgement on NJAC, a question on the current debate about simul- operational dynamics. You are required to taneous polls to Lok Sabha and State Assem- know about Govts & Classification of Con- blies etc too reflect the importance of 'Current stitutions. Clarity regarding the Govt. at Polity'. Centre, State & Local level is compulsory. 413 civilz byte

4. Now the focus is not on Indian Constitution 8. To anticipate the areas from which ques- itself but also on comparison of Indian Con- tions would likely be asked, you have to stitution with other Constitutions. You have keep a close watch on the news items of to learn some of the important Constitu- national importance that appear repeat- tions of the world. edly. 5. Competitive Electoral Politics & evolution 9. Based on what is important, keep compil- of rising expectations made Govts to in- ing a list of potential topics and prepare troduce many welfare schemes. Follow all notes on them. Adopt a 50-50 strategy for these schemes on news as and when a new all the four topics of this paper i.e., iden- one is introduced or so. tify at least 50 very important & 50 less important topics (Well; the numbers are not 6. Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth, Our Con- sacrosanct :-) ) For the former, prepare stitution, Our Political System & Our Par- detailed notes while for the latter prepar- liament by Subash C. Kashyap can be bet- ing bullet point notes would suffice. ter understood in the next level after the completion of NCERTs. 10. While preparing notes make sure to take input from a variety of sources such as govt. We Suggest you read these books of Subash reports, newspaper editorials, magazine ar- Kashyap too because, his books provide ticles, the material you are preparing from, deep insights into different court cases in- Ministry websites, apps, class notes, and volved in the study of Polity that can’t be other resources on internet. found in Laxmikanth. Moreover, his books Remember that for this paper, reading and cover few areas like Parliamentary the preparation has to be made from wide and Committes better than any other book. diverse sources. That is when you will be able 7. The importance of The Hindu & The Front- to understand various angles of a single issue line and Yojana & Kurukshetra goes unsaid. and suitably modify/adopt your answers as per Following them regularly along with PIB the need of the question while taking the ex- news is, in a way, a must. amination.

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414 CHAPTER Main Examination : The Big Battle 45 Indian Constitution & Comparative Study

conversation in Steven Spielberg's Oscar Primarily, this document is the framework film 'Bridge of Spies' (2015) goes for political principles, procedures & powers of Alike this… government. And no doubt! The government Hoffman (CIA Agent): I'm sorry if the way I put wants its officers to know the Constitution. And it offends you. Don't go Boy Scout on me. We naturally, the UPSC endorses the view. don't have a rule book here. The study of Indian Constitution is very im- James Donovan (Lead Actor - Tom Hanks): portant from the view of both Prelims & Mains. You're Agent Hoffman? And particularly GS-II has 5-7 questions being Hoffman: Yeah. asked every year from this area.

James Donovan: German extraction? The syllabus of this section as per notifica- Hoffman: Yeah, so? tion of UPSC is as follows… James Donovan: My name's Donovan. Irish, both Indian Constitution - historical underpin- sides. Mother and father. I'm Irish and you're nings, evolution, features, amendments, German. But what makes us both Americans? significant provisions and basic structure. Just one thing. One. Only one. The rule book. We call it the Constitution, and we agree to Comparison of the Indian constitutional the rules, and that's what makes us Americans. scheme with that of other countries. That's all that makes us Americans. Yupp! Call it rule book or user manual or Consider these 'Model Questions' anything of your choice. But the Constitution is what keeps us going. Every Constitution has its 1. Indian Constitution is a borrowed Consti- own unique character reflecting the history and tution. Discuss. disposition of its people. Likewise, Constitution 2. India should shift from Parliamentary form of India stands for goals like democracy, secu- of governance to presidential form of gov- larism, socialism and national integration and ernance. Critically analyse. declares India to be a sovereign and democratic republic. 3. In spite of borrowing majority of features 415 civilz byte

from other constitutions, Indian constitu- newspaper which have relevance to the articles tion has failed to survive the present day of Constitution is equally important. complexities of the India's political and Any constitutional crisis in the country can administrative situation. Do you agree? Give be a potential question in the exam. Previous examples. questions on Article 370 of J&K, CAG's Powers - 4. Desirability of a separate flag for states. Article 149, Coelho case - basic features of the Constitution etc. exemplify the statements. 5. One Nation One Election. These issues were repeatedly highlighted and discussed in the news. As such, it is extremely MAKING A LEARNING… important to follow regularly what's in news and take cue from it on which topics to focus and NCERT Political Science Text Books from 6th emphasize upon. to 8th will give you basics and Fundamentals, And in the course of preparation too, un- those of 9th to 12th will get you acquainted derstand the complete backdrop of such issues with in depth subject and relevant contempo- involved in news and not merely what has hap- rary issues. They'll form a well structured knowl- pened. Just google them and you can have more edge base for you. Without these books, the than what you need. Many CSE related websites preparation would be incomplete. Learn the have already been so proactive in identifying basic political concepts like liberty, equality, such areas in news and making content on it. fraternity, democracy, socialism, secularism etc. They can be of great help. from these books elaborately. Again, like any other topic of the exam, Now the focus is not on Indian Constitution this area needs so much of writing practice to itself but also on comparison of Indian Consti- see how much you are able to retain from what tution with other Constitutions. You have to you prepare. learn some important features from different Constitutions of the world. 'Indian Polity' by M. SOURCES OF STUDY Laxmikanth, 'Our Constitution' & 'Our Parliament' by Subash C. Kashyap can help. Books Whichever questions in this paper asked be, 1. NCERT books they have some relevance to what happened in a) Indian Constitution at Work: Class XI the country at least from 1-2 years before the b) Political Theory: Class XII exam. Some questions can be from the regular c) Politics in India since Independence: theory we study but are generally asked in a Class XII twisted manner. Having the static knowledge 2. Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth from the standard books is important but con- 3. An Introduction to the constitution of In- centrating on those recurring issues in the dia by Durga Das Basu 416 Main Examination : The Big Battle

4. Our Constitution by Subash C. Kashyap ment of Centre State Relations - Volume II 5. Our Parliament by Subash C. Kashyap of Punchhi Commission report. (Google it for the PDF of report) Reports Websites 1. Evolution of Centre - State Relations - www.prsindia.org - PRS India Volume I of Punchhi Commission report. (Google it for the PDF of report) www.unacademy.com - Unacademy www.civilsdaily.com - Civils Daily 2. Constitutional Governance and Manage-

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417 CHAPTER civilz byte 46 Indian Polity & Governance

The syllabus of this section as per notifica- Appointment to various Constitutional tion of UPSC is as follows… posts, powers, functions and responsibili- Functions and responsibilities of the Union ties of various Constitutional Bodies. and the States, issues and challenges per- Statutory, regulatory and various quasi-ju- taining to the federal structure, devolution dicial bodies of powers and finances up to local levels and challenges therein. (Any of the above words in newspaper has to be an indication for you that it can be rel- Separation of powers between various organs dispute redressal mechanisms and in- evant for your exam) stitutions. Parliament and State Legislatures- struc- Recommended Reading ture, functioning, conduct of business, pow- and Resource Material ers & privileges and issues arising out of these. The preparation for this topic cannot be made from one source. For, there are no stan- Structure, organization and functioning of the Executive and the Judiciary, Ministries dard textbooks which cover this topic either in and Departments of the Government. entirety or even substantially. As such this topic Pressure groups and formal/informal asso- poses an additional challenge to aspirants as, ciations and their role in the Polity. from where to study and how to go about the Important aspects of governance, transpar- preparation. (Also, refer to Chapter 19 of this ency and accountability, e-governance ap- book.) The study necessarily involves scouting plications, models, successes, limitations, for resource material from diverse sources such and potential. as government reports, editorials/news items Citizens charters, transparency & account- in newspapers, articles in magazines, internet, ability and institutional and other measures. CSE preparation websites, notes on coaching in- Role of civil services in a democracy. stitutions, etc. Thus, the preparation has to be based on information gathered and notes pre- Salient features of the Representation of People's Act. pared from diverse sources. 418 Main Examination : The Big Battle Second Administrative Reforms 12) 12th report on Citizen-Centric Administra- Commission (ARC) Report tion 13) 13th report on Organizational Structure of The second ARC report is a virtual gold mine Government of India for gathering information on issues pertaining 14) 14th report on Strengthening Financial to governance, transparency and accountabil- Management System ity, etc. Besides, it is a must read even for GS Paper III & IV. The report (http://arc.gov.in) 15) 15th report on State and District Adminis- does not give a textbook like theoretical treat- tration ment to the subjects but deals with the issues Various Reports of the as on ground, analyzing it critically, enunciat- Punchhi Commission ing a vision, and suggesting a practical road map. This is what the questions in the exami- 1. Volume I - Evolution of Centre State Rela- nation expect of the candidate. tions As the reports are voluminous, it is pru- 2. Volume II - Constitutional Governance and dent to begin reading them with the summary Management of Centre State Relations of recommendations. If time permits, then go 3. Volume III - Centre State Financial Plan- to the main body of the report (at least for those ning and Relations topics which you consider relevant) and take 4. Volume IV - Local Self Governance and De- notes from them. The Second ARC has submit- centralized Governance ted many reports on issues which are of direct 5. Volume V - Internal Security Criminal Jus- relevance to the topics in GS Papers II, III & IV. tice and Centre State Co-operation These topics are mentioned below. 6. Volume VI - Environment Natural Resource and Infrastructure Various Reports of the Second ARC 7. Volume VII - Socio-economic Development 1) 1st report on Right to Information Public Policy and Good Governance 2) 2nd report on Unlocking Human Capital There is no need to be taken aback by the 3) 3rd report on Crisis Management long list. From the perspective of Paper II, re- 4) 4th report on Ethics in Governance ports on Local Governance, refurbishing personnel administration, Citizen Centric Administra- 5) 5th report on Public Order tion and Organizational Structure of Govern- 6) 6th report on Local Governance ment of India are relevant. While volumes I, II 7) 7th report on Capacity Building for Conflict and III of Punchhi Commission Report are perti- Resolution nent for this paper. At least the summary of 8) 8th report on Combating Terrorism recommendations should be studied well. 9) 9th report on Social Capital - a Shared Along with that, articles, news reports, edi- Destiny torials in newspapers and magazines, Yojana, 10) 10th report on Refurbishing of Personnel Frontline, Economic and Political Weekly (EPW), Administration reading The Hindu have to be given their due 11) 11th report on Promoting E-Governance importance. 419 CHAPTER civilz byte 47 Social Justice & Development

ny Government is responsible for the wel Issues relating to development and manage- fare, social justice and empowerment of ment of Social Sector/Services relating to Adisadvantaged and marginalized sections Health, Education, Human Resources. of society. It should ensure justice in the distri- Welfare schemes for vulnerable sections of bution of opportunities, privileges or wealth the population by the Centre and States and within a society and the fruits of development the performance of these schemes. should reach the last person. Nature of the subject This section in GS-II deals with such issues, This is a very dynamic subject. Not a settled policies, mechanisms and areas of our govern- subject. Every other day there is some Programme ment. In all the past years' papers, there are or scheme or some kind of Policy intervention of about 20% of questions (4-6) from this topic. the Government. So, there's always some 'new' And moreover, preparation for this topic can be to it. Moreover, this area has so many uncon- widely helpful for GS of prelims and the essay nected topics that no single book in the market paper. is readily available for consumption or can cater The syllabus of this section as per notifica- to it fully. tion of UPSC is as follows… The strategy should be that a dedicated Government policies and interventions for notes has to be prepared from a score of sources development in various sectors and issues like Reports, Websites, Newspapers & Magazines arising out of their design and implementa- etc and used for the preparation. Social Justice tion. Modules of Vision IAS, Vajiram IAS etc are also Mechanisms, laws, institutions and Bodies good compilations. But you will always need your constituted for the protection and better- own notes to keep track of all the updates of ment of these vulnerable sections. this dynamic area. The importance of Newspa- Development processes and the develop- pers too should be considered because they are ment industry- the role of NGOs, SHGs, vari- like the treasure mines to stay updated. ous groups and associations, donors, chari- Useful Reports ties, institutional and other stakeholders. 12th five year plan document - Volume III - Issues relating to poverty and hunger. Social Sectors 420 Main Examination : The Big Battle

11th Five year Plan Document - Volume II - Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 Social Sector Maintenance and Welfare of Senior Citizens Appraisal Document of 12th Five year Plan Act, 2007 by NITI Aayog Nature of Questions Chapters on Social Sector from the Economic Most of the time, the questions need you to Survey answer analytically how better things can be Specific Study done, provide solutions for the shortcomings of programmes, offer your opinion on the current The vulnerable sections of the society like mechanisms towards welfare etc. So, learning tribals, dalits, women, children, religious minori- about the schemes, Govt policies etc would only ties, sexual minorities, linguistic minorities, be a base or foundation. The floors atop should specially-abled, Senior Citizens etc form a cru- be the analysis if you make any. And the answers cial part of this Social Justice sphere. Study in the exam must be well brain-stormed and about the Constitutional Provisions, and the pro- organised there itself in the exam to be written. tective legislations related to these communi- Hence, practice writing answers daily (at least a ties. E.g. SC/ST Atrocities Act, PESA Act, Forest 200 word answer a day) and always incorporate Rights Act, Protection of Civil Rights Act. analytical perspective/critical analysis of the im- Then, following all the news about areas like portant issues in your notes. This would mean schemes and programmes, problems, what has analysing the pros and cons of the issues, short- been done, what needs to be done, recent com- comings of various policies, suggestions for im- mittee reports, recommendations, individual provement or overcoming constraints etc. annual ministry reports in connection to these vulnerable communities is very important. SOURCES OF STUDY Relevant Reports Magazines Bandyopadhyay Committee Report on Devel- opment Challenges in Extremist affected 1. Economic & Political Weekly areas 2. Yojana 3. Kurukshetra Anoop Kumar Srivastava Committee Report on Transgender Persons 4. The Frontline Rajinder Sachar Committee Report on So- Websites cial, Economic and Educational status of www.wcd.nic.in - Ministry of Women & Child Muslim Community in India Development Ranganath Mishra Committee Report on www.tribal.nic.in - Ministry of Tribal Affairs Religious and Linguistic Minorities www.socialjustice.nic.in - Ministry of Social Virginius Xaxa Committee Report on Socio- Justice and Empowerment Economic, Health and Educational Status of www.minorityaffairs.gov.in - Ministry of Mi- Tribal Communities in India. nority Affairs 421 civilz byte

www.disabilityaffairs.gov.in - Dept of Em- b. 9th Report - Social Capital powerment of Persons with Disabilities www.india.gov.in - National Portal of India www.yojana.gov.in - Yojana Magazine www.indiabudget.nic.in - Economic Survey www.arc.gov.in - Administrative Reforms (Relevant Chapters) Commission www.gktoday.in - GK Today a. 2nd Report - Unlocking Human Capital

TOPIC FROM SYLLABUS SOURCE OF STUDY Government policies and interventions for Identify and study all the Individual Poli- development in various sectors and issues cies, Schemes, Programmes, legislations & Mis- arising out of their design and implemen- sions from the last 3-4 years. E.g. National tation. Health Policy, National Education Policy, National (Understand that a governmental interven- Rural Health Mission, Coastal Zone Regulation tion for development can be either in the Notification. form of a Policy, Mission, Scheme, BK Chaturvedi Committee Report on Re- Programme or even legislation.) structuring of Centrally Sponsored Schemes NITI Aayog Report, 2015, on Rationaliza- tion of Centrally Sponsored Schemes Isher Judge Ahluwalia Committee Report on Indian Urban Infrastructure and Services Vijay Khelkar Committee Report on Public Private Partnership Development processes and the 9th Report of 2nd Administrative Reforms Com- development industry- the role of NGOs, mission - Social Capital. SHGs, various groups and associations, donors, charities, institutional and other stakeholders. Mechanisms, laws, institutions and Bod- Study about the statutory bodies involved like ies constituted for the protection and bet- National Commission for Women, National SC terment of these vulnerable sections. Commission, National ST Commission etc. their role, functions etc. Welfare schemes for vulnerable sections Apart from the Central ones, read about the of the population by the Centre and States case studies of those prominent State schemes and the performance of these schemes which have been studied even by the Central Govt for implementation on a national level. e.g., Kudumbashree, Rajiv Aarogya Shree etc.

––––––––––– ––––––––––– 422 CHAPTER Main Examination : The Big Battle 48 International Relations

he relationships between different coun- Exam's orientation but later tend to go totally tries, the behaviour that occurs between deep into it; stepping into the shoes of a for- Tthem, the interests of nations in the big eign policy analyst. And that's not what the UPSC world constitute the substance of International needs of the aspirant. Relations. In other words, the diplomacy or the Going by the previous years' papers, it can foreign policy of a nation regulates that be understood that the questions in this area country's relations with other nations in pro- are asked from a view point or the context of moting its national interests. Having a good India. Primarily, they deal with the interests of command over such areas of Indian foreign India with the given issue. Policy is naturally expected of the civil servants. The issues in IR are totally dynamic. Though, The syllabus of this section in GS-II as per there are few books on this area, no single book notification of UPSC is as follows… can capture the whole story. So, the info & India and its neighborhood - relations. knowledge has to be updated regularly. Bilateral, regional and global groupings and agreements involving India and/or affect- THE STRATEGY ing India's interests. Start the preparation by reading from the Effect of policies of developed and devel- textbook (NCERT) in Political Science for 12th oping countries on India's interests and In- standard, "Contemporary World Politics." In a dian Diaspora. strict sense, it may not be international rela- Important international institutions, agen- tions. But it can form a knowledge base for you cies and fora - their structure, mandate. for whatever you are going to read further in this subject involving the world countries. Since this topic is substantially based on the current happenings & the foreign policy of Then go through the chapter on 'Foreign the Govt., in many ways, it is easier to antici- Policy' in 'Indian Polity' of Laxmikanth. It covers pate the areas of questions. Each year, close to the issues like 'Principles & objectives of India's 20-30% of questions emanate from this subject foreign Policy', Look east policy, nuclear doc- in GS-II. Some students start preparing IR in trine, Gujral doctrine etc. This can help you in 423 civilz byte understanding the backdrop of India's foreign watching. Policy. "India Perspectives" is a flagship bi-monthly Former UN Under-Secretary General and the magazine of the MEA. It is available to read current member of Indian Parliament, Dr Shashi online. See for any relevant articles and Tharoor's 2012 Non-fiction book "Pax Indica: In- give them a glance. dia and the world in the twenty-first century" is a wonderful book. It can get you up to the speed Other Sources with most of the important nations. Reading this can make it easy for you to understand the cur- 1. "India's World," a programme broadcast by rent affairs, of this subject, with some context. Rajya Sabha TV is a good one (Available on RSTV YouTube Channel) with former diplo- With these things, the foundation is laid and mats sharing their views on international then it's time for building the floors atop. issues.

Understand the Context & 2. There is a section on Mrunal.org website Remember the facts correct that can help with the preparation of 'Di- plomacy/IR'. Remember. Choose only that In the light of the syllabus, the relevant is- which is relevant in the examination point sues have to be picked and studied from articles of view. of Newspapers & Magazines. Give 'The Hindu' 3. Read the articles of C. Raja Mohan and its due. Since these articles may cover only a Suhasini Haidar in Indian Express and The small aspect of the entire gamut of the whole Hindu respectively. You can access their issue, the background has to be researched from articles with their names over Google. the internet. 4. "Challenge and Strategy: Rethinking India's There are a couple of courses on Foreign Policy by Rajiv Sikri" and "Interna- unacademy.com with lessons on these issues. tional Relations by Ishwar Chandra Dhingra, Sanjay Kataria & Padmini Jha" are two very Ministry of External Affairs good books available in the market. Both (mea.gov.in) make an interesting reading and give so very valuable insights. Pick one of them and Visit the website for "Distinguished lectures" make a diligent study of it. series and other contents that can be helpful in the "Media Center" link on the Since, the books can only provide knowledge website. till a point of time, the responsibility of updating such knowledge based on the current hap- "India Global" is a programme created by penings falls on you. Finally, we reiterate it again All India Radio in collaboration with Minis- that it's good to have a command over the sub- try of External Affairs (MEA, Govt of India). ject. But know where to draw the line and stick Each video is close to 10 mins and worth to the preparation with exam alone in mind. 424 Main Examination : The Big Battle

www.idsa.in SOURCES OF STUDY - Institute for Defence Studies & Analyses www.mea.gov.in BOOKS - Ministry of External Affairs www.unacademy.com 1. Contemporary World Politics - 12th Class - Unacademy Political Science NCERT Textbook www.mrunal.org/diplomacy 2. Chapter on "Foreign Policy" - Indian Polity - Mrunal International Relations Section by M. Laxmikanth. 'India's World' - Rajya Sabha TV (YouTube 3. "Pax Indica: India and the world in the Channel) twenty-first century" - Dr Shashi Tharoor. 4. "Challenge and Strategy: Rethinking India's NEWSPAPERS & MAGAZINES Foreign Policy" by Rajiv Sikri 1. Frontline (or) 2. The Hindu 5. "International Relations by Ishwar Chandra 3. Articles of C. Raja Mohan in Indian Express Dhingra, Sanjay Kataria & Padmini Jha" 4. Articles of Suhasini Haidar in The Hindu WEBSITES www.southasiajournal.net - South Asia Journal

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425 CHAPTER civilz byte 49 Treasure Trove: General Studies-2 Question Papers GENERAL STUDIES-2 2013

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are TWENTY FIVE questions All questions are compulsory. The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions if specified should be adhered to. Any page or portion of the page left blank on the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

Answer questions in NOT MORE than the world limit specified for each in the parenthesis. Content of the answer is more important than its length. 1. The role of individual MPs (Members of Parliament) has diminished over the years and as a result healthy constructive debates on policy issues are not usually witnessed. How far can this be attributed to the anti-defection law, which was legislated but with a different intention? (200 words) 10 2. Discuss Section 66A of IT Act, with reference to its alleged violation of Article 19 of the Constitution. (200 words) 10

426 Main Examination : The Big Battle

3. Recent directives from Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas are perceived by the `Nagas' as a threat to override the exceptional status enjoyed by the State. Discuss in light of Article 371A of the Indian Constitution. (200 words) 10 4. 'The Supreme Court of India keeps a check on arbitrary power of the Parliament in amend- ing the Constitution.' Discuss critically. (200 words) 10 5. Many State Governments further bifurcate geographical administrative areas like Districts and Talukas for better governance. In light of the above, can it also be justified that more number of smaller States would bring in effective governance at State level? Discuss. (200 words) 10 6. Constitutional mechanisms to resolve the inter-state water disputes have failed to address and solve the problems. Is the failure due to structural or process inadequacy or both? Discuss. (200 words) 10 7. Discuss the recommendations of the 13th Finance Commission which have been a depar- ture from the previous commissions for strengthening the local government finances. (200 words) 10 8. The product diversification of financial institutions and insurance companies, resulting in overlapping of products and services strengthens the case for the merger of the two regulatory agencies, namely SEBI and IRDA. Justify. (200 words) 10 9. The concept of Mid Day Meal (MDM) scheme is almost a century old in India with early beginnings in Madras Presidency in pre-independent India. The scheme has again been given impetus in most states in the last two decades. Critically examine its twin objectives, latest mandates and success. (200 words) 10 10. Pressure group politics is sometimes seen as the informal face of politics. With regards to the above, assess the structure and functioning of pressure groups in India. (200 words) 10 11. The legitimacy and accountability of Self Help Groups (SHGs) and their patrons, the micro-finance outfits, need systematic assessment and scrutiny for the sustained success of the concept. Discuss. (200 words) 10 12. The Central Government frequently complains on the poor performance of the State Gov- ernments in eradicating suffering of the vulnerable sections of the society. Restructuring of Centrally sponsored schemes across the sectors for ameliorating the cause of vulnerable sections of population aims at providing flexibility to the States in better implementation. Critically evaluate. (200 words) 10 13. Electronic cash transfer system for the welfare schemes is an ambitious project to minimize corruption, eliminate wastage and facilitate reforms. Comment. (200 words) 10 14. The basis of providing urban amenities in rural areas (PURA) is rooted in establishing connectivity. Comment. (200 words) 10

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15. Identify the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) that are related to health. Discuss the success of the actions taken by the Government for achieving the same. (200 words) 10 16. Though Citizen's charters have been formulated by many public service delivery organizations, there is no corresponding improvement in the level of citizens' satisfaction and quality of services being provided. Analyse. (200 words) 10 17. 'A national Lokpal, however strong it may be, cannot resolve the problems of immorality in public affairs'. Discuss. (200 words) 10 18. The proposed withdrawal of International Security Assistance Force (ISAF) from Afghani- stan in 2014 is fraught with major security implications for the countries of the region. Examine in light of the fact that India is faced with a plethora of challenges and needs to safeguard its own strategic interests. (200 words) 10 19. What do you understand by 'The String of Pearls'? How does it impact India? Briefly outline the steps taken by India to counter this. (200 words) 10 20. Economic ties between India and Japan while growing in the recent years are still far below their potential. Elucidate the policy constraints which are inhibiting this growth. (200 words) 10 21. The protests in Shahbag Square in Dhaka in Bangladesh reveal a fundamental split in society between the nationalists and Islamic forces. What is its significance for India? (200 words) 10 22. Discuss the political developments in Maldives in the last two years. Should they be of any cause of concern to India? (200 words) 10 23. In respect of India - Sri Lanka relations, discuss how domestic factors influence foreign policy. (200 words) 10 24. What is meant by Gujral doctrine? Does it have any relevance today? Discuss. (200 words) 10 25. The World Bank and the IMF, collectively known as the Breton Woods Institutions, are the two inter-governmental pillars supporting the structure of the world's economic and financial order. Superficially, the World Bank and the IMF exhibit many common characteristics, yet their role, functions and mandate are distinctly different. Elucidate. (200 words) 10

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428 Main Examination : The Big Battle GENERAL STUDIES-2 2014

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are TWENTY questions All questions are compulsory. The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions if specified should be adhered to. Any page or portion of the page left blank on the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

Answer questions in NOT MORE THAN 200 words each. Content of the answer is more important than its length. All questions carry equal marks. 12½ x 20 = 250 1. Starting from inventing the 'basic structure' doctrine, the judiciary has played a highly proactive role in ensuring that India develops into a thriving democracy. In light of the statement, evaluate the role played by judicial activism in achieving the ideals of democracy. 12½ 2. Though the federal principle is dominant in our Constitution and that principle is one of its basic features, but it is equally true that federalism under the Indian Constitution leans in favour of a strong Centre, a feature that militates against the concept of strong federalism. Discuss. 12½ 3. The 'Powers, Privileges and Immunities of Parliament and its Members' as envisaged in Article 105 of the Constitution leave room for a large number of un-codified and un- enumerated privileges to continue. Assess the reasons for the absence of legal codification of the 'parliamentary privileges'. How can this problem be addressed? 12½ 4. What do you understand by the concept "freedom of speech and expression"? Does it cover hate speech also? Why do the films in India stand on a slightly different plane from other forms of expression? Discuss. 12½ 429 civilz byte

5. Instances of President's delay in commuting death sentences has come under public debate as denial of justice. Should there be a time limit specified for the President to accept/reject such petitions? Analyse. 12½ 6. The size of the cabinet should be as big as governmental work justifies and as big as the Prime Minster can manage as a team. How far the efficacy of a government then inversely related to the size of the cabinet? Discuss. 12½ 7. Though 100 percent FDI is already allowed in non-news media like a trade publication and general entertainment channel, the Government is mulling over the proposal for increased FDI in news media for quite some time. What difference would an increase in FDI make? Critically evaluate the pros and cons. 12½ 8. The setting up of a Rail Tariff Authority to regulate fares will subject the cash strapped Indian Railways to demand subsidy for obligation to operate non-profitable routes and services. Taking into account the experience in the power sector, discuss if the proposed reform is expected to benefit the consumers, the Indian Railways or the private container operators. 12½ 9. National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) in India can be most effective when its tasks are adequately supported by other mechanisms that ensure accountability of a government. In light of the above observation assess the role of NHRC as an effective complement to the judiciary and other institutions in promoting and protecting human rights standards. 12½ 10. The penetration of Self Help Groups (SHGs) in rural areas in promoting participation in development programmes is facing socio-cultural hurdles. 12½ 11. Do government's schemes for up-lifting vulnerable and backward communities by protecting required social resources for them, lead to their exclusion in establishing businesses in urban economics 12½ 12. An athlete participates in Olympics for personal triumph and nation's glory; victors are showered with cash incentives by various agencies, on their return. Discuss the merit of state sponsored talent hunt and its cultivation as against the rationale of a reward mechanism as encouragement. 12½ 13. Should the premier institutes like IITs/IIMs be allowed to retain premier status, allowed more academic independence in designing courses and also decide mode/criteria of selection of students. Discuss in light of the growing challenges. 12½ 14. Has the Cadre based Civil Service Organization been the cause of slow change in India? Critically examine. 12½ 430 Main Examination : The Big Battle

15. Two parallel run schemes of the Government viz. the Adhaar Card and NPR, one as voluntary and the other as compulsory, have led to debates at national levels and also litigations. On merits, discuss whether or not both schemes need run concurrently. Analyse the potential of the schemes to achieve developmental benefits and equitable growth. 12½ 16. With respect to the South China sea, maritime territorial disputes and rising tension affirm the need for safeguarding maritime security to ensure freedom of navigation and over flight throughout the region. In this context, discuss the bilateral issues between India and China. 12½ 17. The aim of Information Technology Agreements (ITAs) is to lower all taxes and tariffs on information technology products by signatories to zero. What impact should such agreements have on India's interests? 12½ 18. Some of the International funding agencies have special terms for economic participation stipulating a substantial component of the aid to be used for sourcing equipment from the leading countries. Discuss on merits of such terms and if, there exists a strong case not to accept such conditions in the Indian context. 12½ 19. India has recently signed to become founding member of New Development Bank (NDB) and also the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB). How will the role of the two Banks be different? Discuss the significance of these two Banks for India. 12½ 20. WTO is an important international institution where decisions taken affect countries in profound manner. What is the mandate of WTO and how binding are their decisions? Criti- cally analyse India's stand on the latest round of talks on Food security. 12½

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431 civilz byte GENERAL STUDIES-2 2015

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are TWENTY questions. All questions are compulsory. The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions if specified should be adhered to. Any page or portion of the page left blank on the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

Answer all the questions in NOT MORE than 200 words each. Contents of the answers are more important than their length.

1. Starting from inventing the 'basic structure' doctrine, the judiciary has played a highly proactive role in ensuring that India develops into a thriving democracy. In light of the statement, evaluate the role played by judicial activism in achieving the ideals of democracy. 12½ 2. The concept of cooperative federalism has been increasingly emphasized in recent years. Highlight the drawbacks in the existing structure and the extent to which cooperative federalism would answer the shortcomings. 12½ 3. In absence of a well-educated and organized local level government system, 'Panchayats' and 'Samitis' have remained mainly political institutions and not effective instruments of governance. Critically discuss. 12½ 4. Khap Panchayats have been in the news for functioning as extra-constitutional authorities, often delivering pronouncements amounting to human rights violations. Discuss critically the actions taken by the legislative, executive and the judiciary to set the things right in this regard. 12½ 432 Main Examination : The Big Battle

5. Resorting to ordinances has always raised concern on violation of the spirit of separation of powers doctrine. While noting the rationales justifying the power to promulgate ordinances, analyze whether the decisions of the Supreme Court on the issue have further facilitated resorting to this power. Should the power to promulgate ordinances be repealed? 12½

6. What are the major changes brought in the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 through the recent Ordinance promulgated by the President? How far will it improve India's dispute resolution mechanism? Discuss. 12½

7. Does the right to clean environment entail legal regulations on burning crackers during Diwali? Discuss in the light of Article 21 of the Indian Constitution and Judgement(s) of the Apex Court in this regard. 12½

8. Examine critically the recent changes in the rules governing foreign funding of NGOs under the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA), 1976. 12½

9. The Self-Help Group (SHG) Bank Linkage Programme (SBLP), which is India's own innovation, has proved to be one of the most effective poverty alleviation and women empowerment programmes. Elucidate. 12½

10. How can the role of NGOs be strengthened in India for development works relating to protection of the environment? Discuss throwing light on the major constraints. 12½

11. The quality of higher education in India requires major improvements to make it internationally competitive. Do you think that the entry of foreign educational institutions would help improve the quality of higher and technical education in the country? Discuss. 12½

12. Public health system has limitations in providing universal health coverage. Do you think that the private sector could help in bridging the gap? What other viable alternatives would you suggest? 12½

13. Though there have been several different estimates of poverty in India, all indicate reduction in poverty levels over time. Do you agree? Critically examine with reference to urban and rural poverty indicators. 12½

14. In the light of the Satyam Scandal (2009), discuss the changes brought in corporate governance to ensure transparency, accountability. 12½

15. "If amendment bill to the Whistleblowers Act, 2011 tabled in the Parliament is passed, there may be no one left to protect." Critically evaluate. 12½

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16. "For achieving the desired objectives, it is necessary to ensure that the regulatory institutions remain independent and autonomous." Discuss in the light of the experiences in recent past. 12½ 17. Increasing interest of India in Africa has its pros and cons. Critically examine. 12½ 18. Discuss the impediments India is facing in its pursuit of a permanent seat in UN Security Council. 12½ 19. Project `Mausam' is considered a unique foreign policy initiative of the Indian Government to improve relationship with its neighbours. Does the project have a strategic dimension? Discuss. 12½ 20. Terrorist activities and mutual distrust have clouded India-Pakistan relations. To what extent the use of soft power like sports and cultural exchanges could help generate good- will between the two countries? Discuss with suitable examples. 12½

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434 Main Examination : The Big Battle GENERAL STUDIES-2 2016

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are TWENTY questions. All questions are compulsory. The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions should be adhered to. Any page or portion of the page left blank on the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

Answer all the questions in NOT MORE THAN 200 words each. Contents of the answers are more important than their length. All questions carry equal marks. 12½ x 20 = 250 1. Discuss the essentials of the 69th Constitutional Amendment Act and anomalies, if any, that have led to recent reported conflicts between the elected representatives and the institution of the Lieutenant Governor in the administration of Delhi. Do you think that this will give rise to a new trend in the functioning of the Indian federal politics? 12½ 2. To what extent is Article 370 of the Indian Constitution, bearing marginal note "Temporary provision with respect to the State of Jammu and Kashmir", temporary? Discuss the future prospects of this provision in the context of Indian polity. 12½ 3. "The Indian party system is passing through a phase of transition which looks to be full of contradictions and paradoxes." Discuss. 12½ 4. Exercise of CAG's powers in relation to the accounts of the Union and the States is derived from Article 149 of the Indian Constitution. Discuss whether audit of the Government's policy implementation could amount to overstepping its own (CAG) jurisdiction. 12½ 5. Discuss each adjective attached to the word 'Republic' in the 'Preamble'. Are they defendable in the present circumstances? 12½ 6. What was held in the Coelho case? In this context, can you say that judicial review is of key

435 civilz byte

importance amongst the basic features of the Constitution? 12½ 7. Did the Government of India Act, 1935 lay down a federal constitution? Discuss. 12½ 8. What is a quasi-judicial body? Explain with the help of concrete examples. 12½ 9. Professor Amartya Sen has advocated important reforms in the realms of primary education and primary health care. What are your suggestions to improve their status and performance? 12½ 10. "In the Indian governance system, the role of non-state actors has been only marginal." Critically examine this statement. 12½ 11. "Effectiveness of the government system at various levels and people's participation in the governance system are inter-dependent." Discuss their relationship in the context of India. 12½ 12. In the integrity index of Transparency International, India stands very low. Discuss briefly the legal, political, social and cultural factors that have caused the decline of public morality in India. 12½ 13. Has the Indian governmental system responded adequately to the demands of Liberalization, Privatization and Globalization started in 1991? What can the government do to be responsive to this important change? 12½ 14. "Traditional bureaucratic structure and culture have hampered the process of socio-economic development in India." Comment. 12½ 15. Examine the main provisions of the National Child Policy and throw light on the status of its implementation. 12½ 16. "Demographic Dividend in India will remain only theoretical unless our manpower becomes more educated, aware, skilled and creative." What measures have been taken by the government to enhance the capacity of our population to be more productive and employable? 12½ 17. "The broader aims and objectives of WTO are to manage and promote international trade in the era of globalization. But the Doha round of negotiations seem doomed due to differences between the developed and the developing countries." Discuss in the Indian perspective. 12½ 18. Evaluate the economic and strategic dimensions of India's Look East Policy in the context of the post Cold War international scenario. 12½ 19. "Increasing cross-border terrorist attacks in India and growing interference in the internal affairs of several member-states by Pakistan are not conducive for the future of SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation)." Explain with suitable examples.12½ 20. What are the aims and objectives of the McBride Commission of the UNESCO? What is India's position on these? 12½ ––––––––––– ––––––––––– 436 Main Examination : The Big Battle GENERAL STUDIES-2 2017

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Answers to questions no. 1 to 10 should be in 150 words, whereas answers to questions no. 11 to 20 should be in 250 words.

Any page or portion of the page left blank on the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

1. "The local self-government system in India has not proved to be effective instrument of governance." Critically examine the statement and give your views to improve the situation. (Answer in 150 words) 10 2. Critically examine the Supreme Court's judgement on 'National Judicial Appointments Commission Act, 2014' with reference to appointment of judges of higher judiciary in India. (Answer in 150 words) 10 3. "Simultaneous election to the Lok Sabha and the State Assemblies will limit the amount of time and money spent in electioneering but it will reduce the government's accountability to the people." Discuss. (Answer in 150 words) 10 4. How do pressure groups influence Indian political process? Do you agree with this view that informal pressure groups have emerged as more powerful than formal pressure groups in recent years? (Answer in 150 words) 10 5. Discuss the role of Public Accounts Committee in establishing accountability of the government to the people. (Answer in 150 words) 10 437 civilz byte

6. "To ensure effective implementation of policies addressing water, sanitation and hygiene needs the identification of the beneficiary segments is to be synchronized with the anticipated outcomes." Examine the statement in the context of the WASH scheme. (Answer in 150 words) 10 7. Does the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 ensure effective mechanism for empowerment and inclusion of the intended beneficiaries in the society? Discuss (Answer in 150 words) 10 8. Hunger and poverty are the biggest challenges for good governance in India still today. Evaluate how far successive governments have progressed in dealing with these humongous problems. Suggest measures for improvement. (Answer in 150 words) 10 9. "China is using its economic relations and positive trade surplus as tools to develop potential military power status in Asia." In the light of this statement, discuss its impact on India as her neighbour. (Answer in 150 words) 10 10. What are the main functions of the United Nations Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC)? Explain different functional commissions attached to it. (Answer in 150 words) 5+5 11. Explain the salient features of the constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016. Do you think it is efficacious enough" to remove cascading effect of taxes and provide for common national market for goods and services"? (Answer in 250 words) 15 12. In the integrity index of Transparency International, India stands very low. Discuss briefly the legal, political, social and cultural factors that have caused the decline of public morality in India. 15 13. The Indian Constitution has provisions for holding joint session of the two Houses of the Parliament. Enumerate the occasions when this would normally happen and also the occasions when it cannot, with reasons thereof. (Answer in 250 words) 15 14. To enhance the quality of democracy in India the Election Commission of India has proposed electoral reforms in 2016. What are the suggested reforms and how far are they significant to make democracy successful? (Answer in 250 words) 15 15. Is the National Commission for Women able to strategize and tackle the problems that women face at both public and private spheres? Give reasons in support of your answer. (Answer in 250 words) 15 16. "The emergence of Self Help Groups (SHGs) in contemporary times points to the slow but steady withdrawal of the State from developmental activities". Examine the role of the SHGs in developmental activities and the measures taken by the Government of India to promote the SHGs. (Answer in 250 words) 15 17. "Poverty alleviation programmes in India remain mere showpieces until and unless they are backed up by political will." Discuss with reference to the performance of the major 438 Main Examination : The Big Battle

poverty alleviation programmes in India. (Answer in 250 words) 15 18. Initially Civil Services in India were designed to achieve the goals of neutrality and effectiveness, which seems to be lacking in the present context. Do you agree with the view that drastic reforms are required in Civil Services? Comment. (Answer in 250 words) 15 19. The question of India's Energy Security constitutes the most important part of India's economic progress. Analyze India's energy policy cooperation with West Asian countries. (Answer in 250 words) 15 20. Indian diaspora has an important role to play in South-East Asian countries' economy and society. Appraise the role of Indian Diaspora in South- East Asia in this context. (Answer in 250 words) 15

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439 CHAPTER civilz byte 50 General Studies - 3

he general studies paper III, quite like voted to each of the topics based on the aver- the other two papers, too encompasses age number of questions emerging from them. diverse topics, dealing with wide range T It is clear that ‘Indian Economy and Devel- of issues and has a vast syllabus. But then, this opment’ is the most important topic and nearly paper is the most dynamic and current affairs 35% of the questions are expected from it. In- oriented one of all the GS Papers and any standard textbook cannot be totally relied upon. ternal Security is the next important topic (20- However, the general scores of this paper are 25%) followed by agriculture, Science and tech- quite encouraging. nology, Environment and Disaster Management. What and from where to cover each of these Topics to be Covered and topics along with salient tips for preparation is Distribution of Questions discussed in the following sections. Based on the nature of questions and the specified syllabus, the preparation for this pa- SYLLABUS per can be subdivided into the following six topics… The official syllabus of the 4th paper in the (a) Indian Economy & Economic Development Main Examination i.e., General Studies-3 (Tech- (b) Indian Agriculture & Food nology, Economic Development, Biodiversity, (c) Science and Technology Environment, Security and Disaster Manage- ment) can be divided into Six sub-heads as fol- (d) Biodiversity & Environment lows… (e) Disaster Management (f) Internal Security. 1. INDIAN ECONOMY & ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT Some candidates presume disaster management (DM) to be an offshoot of the topic of Indian Economy and issues relating to plan- environment and do not separately prepare for ning, mobilization of resources, growth, de- it. Such an approach is detrimental and DM velopment and employment. should be considered a separate topic and cov- Inclusive growth and issues arising from it. ered sufficiently. The time and effort to be de- Government Budgeting. 440 Main Examination : The Big Battle

Infrastructure: Energy, Ports, Roads, Air- Awareness in the fields of IT, Space, Com- ports, Railways etc. puters, robotics, nano-technology, bio- Investment models. technology and issues relating to intellectual property rights. Effects of liberalization on the economy, changes in industrial policy and their ef- Achievements of Indians in science & tech- fects on industrial growth. nology. Indigenization of technology and develop- 2. INDIAN AGRICULTURE & FOOD ing new technology. Major crops, cropping patterns in various 4. BIO DIVERSITY & ENVIRONMENT parts of the country, different types of irrigation and irrigation systems, storage, Conservation, environmental pollution and transport and marketing of agricultural pro- degradation, environmental impact assess- duce and issues and related constraints. ment. E - technology in the aid of farmers. Issues related to direct and indirect farm 5. DISASTER MANAGEMENT subsidies and minimum support prices. Disaster and disaster management. Land reforms in India. Economics of animal-rearing. 6. INTERNAL SECURITY & ISSUES Public Distribution System objectives, functioning, limitations, revamping. Linkages between development and spread of extremism. Issues of buffer stocks and food security. Role of external state and non state actors Food processing and related industries in in creating challenges to internal security. India- scope and significance, location, upstream and downstream requirements, sup- Challenges to internal security through ply chain management. communication networks, role of media and social networking sites in internal security challenges, basics of cyber security. 3. SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Money-laundering and its prevention. Science and Technology- developments and Security challenges and their management their applications and effects in everyday in border areas. life. Linkages of organized crime with terrorism. Technology missions. Various Security forces and agencies and Achievements of Indians in science & tech- their mandate. nology. Indigenization of technology and develop- ––––––––––– ––––––––––– ing new technology. 441 CHAPTER civilz byte 51 Indian Economy & Economic Development

ith nearly a third of the questions Syllabus of Indian Economy emanating from it, quite clearly, & Economic Development Weconomy is the most important topic Indian Economy and issues relating to plan- of this paper. A good thing about this topic is ning, mobilization of resources, growth, that quite a few good books include a reason- development and employment. able portion of what needs to be covered about Inclusive growth and issues arising from it. economy. But surely, not all that is needed to Government Budgeting. be studied is there even in these books. Infrastructure: Energy, Ports, Roads, Air- By its very nature, economy is dynamic and ports, Railways etc. ever changing study. What is relevant in a year Investment models. may not be pertinent in the next year’s exami- Effects of liberalization on the economy, nation. As such, always study this subject in changes in industrial policy and their ef- conjunction with the important occurrences in fects on industrial growth. the real-time economy. Events happening in the country and world SOURCES OF STUDY are likely to give us a clue as to which areas of the study must be focused upon more. Further, 1. NCERT Textbooks in the topic of economy, what is covered in the a. Indian Economic Development: 11th Class newspapers and magazines are not only the Economics. harbingers of what will appear in the question i. Unit II – Chapter 3: Liberalisation, paper but they are important resource mate- Privatization & Globalization rial which supplements what we read in the ii. Unit III – Chapter 4: Poverty books. iii. Chapter 5: Human Capital Formation But first things first! Understand what the iv.Chapter 6: Rural Development syllabus is and analyse the questions from the v. Chapter 7: Employment, Growth & papers of the previous years. Informalisation 442 Main Examination : The Big Battle

vi. Chapter 8: Infrastructure ii. Chapter 6 – Open Economy Macroeco- vii.Chapter 9: Environment and Sustainable nomics Development 2. OTHER BOOKS b. India People & Economy: 12th Class i. The Indian Economy by Sanjiv Verma Geography. ii.Indian Economy by Ramesh Singh i. Unit III – Chapter 5 – Land Resources & Agriculture iii. Indian Economy: Performance & Policy by Uma Kapila (or) ii.Chapter 6 – Water Resources iii.Chapter 8 – Mineral & Energy iv.Issues in Development & Planning by Uma Kapila iv.Chapter 9 – Planning & Sustainable De- velopment v. Economic Survey of India vi. Report of Latest Finance Commission c. Introductory Macroeconomics: 12th (www.fincomindia.nic.in) Class Economics. i. Chapter 5–Government Budget & Economy

TOPIC SOURCE OF STUDY

Indian Economy and issues relating to plan- • Uma Kapila: Performance & Policies; Sections ning, mobilization of resources, growth, III & IV. • NCERT: Indian Economic Develop- development and employment. ment: Chapters 4, 5, 6 & 7 • Economic Survey of India: Chapter on Hu- Inclusive growth and issues arising from it. man Development. • Uma Kapila-Indian Economy: Chapter 9-Poverty in India • NCERT: Introductory Macroeconomics (12th Class): Chapter 5. • Economic Survey: Chap- Government Budgeting. ter on Public Finance. • Summary of Report of 2nd ARC on Financial Management (14th Report). • Budget Highlights. • Latest Finance Commission Report Infrastructure: Energy, Ports, Roads, Air- • Economic Survey of India: Chapter on En- ports, Railways etc. ergy, Infrastructure and Communication • Uma Kapila-Indian Economy: Chapters on FDI Investment models. and Financial Sector • Uma Kapila-Indian Economy: Chapters 13, Effects of liberalization on the economy, 14, 15 & 16 on Industrial Performance. changes in industrial policy and their ef- • Economic Survey of India: Chapter on Indus- fects on industrial growth. trial Performance 443 civilz byte QUICK TIPS International Economic Organisations, Tax Structure (particularly GST), Public Fi- Begin your preparation with the NCERT nance, Demographic Dividend, Human De- books or revise from them quickly if you velopment, and Sustainability and Climate have already gone through it. The topics Change. covered in NCERT books, particularly the Keep tabs on newspaper so as to identify chapters mentioned above, must be cov- what is important. Make sure, you cover ered thoroughly and notes should be pre- the economic/business section of the na- pared therefrom. The issues are dealt lu- tional newspaper thoroughly viz., The cidly and explained in a simple manner Hindu as we prefer. which would help to grasp the concepts quickly. Identify recurring issues of national and international importance. For instance, the Pick up one amongst the books specified demonitization, recently passed GST, food above. The book by Uma Kapila: Indian security, subsides and WTO, land acquisi- Economy Performance and Policies is the tion and infrastructure development, rural most suited for the GS Paper III and is usu- credit and agricultural finance, Demo- ally recommended by the successful candi- graphic Dividend, skill development and dates. The book need not be covered in employment, FDI in various sectors, entirety but concentrate more on the chap- sustainability, renewable and green energy, ters in Section IV: Growth Development and human development, fiscal responsibility, Structural Change, and Section V: Sectoral Trends and Issues. The other book by Uma and budget management. Look out for and Kapila, “Issues in Development and Plan- read articles on such issues in newspapers, ning,” is also good but gives a much briefer magazines, and from Internet and prepare treatment to the issues. We also recom- notes there from. Check out the material mend you, “Indian Economy : Performance given in the standard books (viz., Uma Policies.” Kapila, Ramesh Singh, etc.,) and incorporate it in your notes. Another book recommended is by Sanjiv Verma. It is a concise book on Indian Always incorporate analytical perspective/ Economy. But more suited for beginners critical analysis of the important issues in who just started off. It is better not to to- your notes. This would mean analysing the tally leave the book by Ramesh Singh for pros and cons of the issues, shortcomings the Mains Preparation. The primary focus of various policies, suggestions for improve- while studying from this book should be on ment or overcoming constraints, etc. This selected chapters particularly in Section B is extremely important as most of the ques- of the book viz., Indian Agriculture, Indian tions do not call for enumeration of points Industry and Infrastructure, India and the of an issue or merely copy-pasting of infor- Global Economy, Indian Financial Market, mation. Invariably questions ask the can- 444 Main Examination : The Big Battle

didates to critically examine, evaluate, dis- also important, the above should not be cuss, analyse, etc. missed. One should also read carefully the write-ups/brief articles given in the boxes A different concept of economy is explained in these chapters. These write-ups are par- in simple terms by officers of Indian Eco- ticularly helpful in developing a critical per- nomic Service in the website spective. Further, they often come up with www.arthapedia.in on a daily basis. Fol- innovative suggestions; highlight salient low it and make short notes. points of the topic under discussion. Read the relevant chapters of the latest We give you here a table with contents from Economic Survey of India particularly the the syllabus along with the sources to study. chapters on public finance, international Prepare your personalized economy notes trade, agriculture and food management, from them & revise it as many times as industrial performance, energy infrastruc- possible. Take a plunge. Wish you the Best ture and communications, and sustainable of success… development. Although other chapters are

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445 CHAPTER civilz byte 52 Indian Agriculture & Food

he topic of Indian agriculture and food E - technology in the aid of farmers. is quite a significant one from the per- Issues related to direct and indirect farm Tspective of the examination. Every year subsidies and minimum support prices. nearly three questions worth 30-40 marks arise from it. This topic is a challenge as there is Land reforms in India. little or insufficient exposure to this subject at Economics of animal-rearing. school or graduation level, at least for most of Public Distribution System objectives, func- the aspirants. tioning, limitations, revamping. Although the books on economy by Uma Issues of buffer stocks and food security. Kapila, Ramesh Singh, Sanjiv Verma incorporate a chapter on agriculture, they don’t sufficiently Food processing and related industries in cover as per the specific syllabus of this section India- scope and significance, location, and also about what is happening in the current upstream and downstream requirements, supply chain management. scenario, the latest challenges, and the problems plaguing this sector. This can be done by going beyond the standard books, peering in the SOURCES OF STUDY government reports, and keeping a close watch on the latest news in this sector. 1. NCERT books I. Indian Economic Development: 11th The syllabus of this section as per the noti- Class Economics fication is… • Chapter 2 : Agriculture II. India People and Economy: 12th Class INDIAN AGRICULTURE & FOOD Geography • Chapter 5 : Land Resources and Major crops, cropping patterns in various Agriculture parts of the country, different types of irrigation and irrigation systems, storage, 2. Other books and resources transport and marketing of agricultural pro- a. Uma Kapila: Indian Economy & Perfor- duce and issues and related constraints. mance Policy 446 Main Examination : The Big Battle

i. Chapter 5: Agriculture culture is a must read. (Find it on ii. Chapter 7: Land Reforms www.agricoop.nic.in) b. Economic Survey: Chapter on Agricul- The website of Commission for Agricultural ture Costs and Prices (www.cacpdocnet.nic.in) contains some excellent material and ar- c. Report on state of Indian Agriculture ticles from persons of accomplishment on d. Resources material on website of Com- this website. The articles are contained in mission for Agriculture Costs & Prices the link titled discussion papers. (www.cacp.docnet.nic.in) Visit the website of Department of e. Government schemes/initiatives as an- Agriculture on the link www.agricoop.nic.in nounced on Press Information Bureau Reports, Publications and Programme and (PIB) website (A very important source Scheme related details available on the of questions) site, offer useful material on relevant f. Yojana/Kurukshetra magazine topics. g. Agriculture news in The Hindu & Front- Look out for releases of Press Information line Bureau (PIB) on its website pertaining to new initiatives, reforms, and government QUICK TIPS programmes pertaining to agriculture. Read the relevant articles from the section The NCERT books only offer brief inputs on agriculture in The Hindu’s Website. Also about agricultural sector, but make sure read the editorials and important articles that you go through them thoroughly. on this topic in The Hindu. The chapters on Agriculture and land re- Yojana and Kurukshetra Journals are very forms in Uma Kapila’s book must be cov- important source materials when there are ered thoroughly. articles on this topic. The book by Ramesh Singh too has a chapter on Agriculture which covers this topic IMPORTANT TOPICS comprehensively. So, ensure you go through it. Some Important topics which are a must of the preparation that you may not find on the Read the chapter on Agriculture in the Eco- actual syllabus given by UPSC are highlighted nomic Survey. This offers a concise account here. Look out for good articles on these issues of challenges, initiatives and Government and prepare notes on them. These are… Policy and programmes for the entire financial year. Agriculture subsides – need, effect, WTO The Annual report on the state of Indian Agricultural research, technology and Agriculture published by Ministry of Agri- dissemination 447 civilz byte

Agricultural produce pricing, Minimum Sup- rehabilitation port Price (MSP), marketing, APMC Act and Second green revolution, pink revolution, features blue revolution, and various ‘missions’ in Agricultural and food security; Food Secu- agriculture rity Act We give you here a table with contents from Agricultural produce warehousing, supply the syllabus along with the sources to study. chain and marketing, Public Distribution Make short and good quality notes from these System (PDS) sources and revise it as many times as possible.Take a plunge. Best of success… Land reforms and impact on agriculture

TOPICS SOURCES OF STUDY

• Major crops, cropping patterns in various • Ramesh Singh: Indian Economy, Chapter 8 – parts of the country, different types of irri- Indian Agriculture gation and irrigation systems, storage, • Uma Kapila: Indian Economy- Performance transport and marketing of agricultural pro- and Policy- Chapter on Agriculture. duce and issues and related constraints. • Report on State of Indian Agriculture 2015- • E - technology in the aid of farmers. 2016. • Website of Commission for Agricultural Cost and Prices. • Issues related to direct and indirect farm • Report on State of Indian Agriculture. subsidies and minimum support prices. • Economic Survey. • Public Distribution System objectives, func- • Website of Commission for Agricultural Cost tioning, limitations, revamping. and Prices. • Economics of animal-rearing. • Notes of IGNOU on Food Security and PDS • Food processing and related industries in India - scope and significance, location, • Report on State of Indian Agriculture. upstream and downstream requirements, • Economic Survey supply chain management. • Issues of buffer stocks and food security. • Uma Kapila: Indian Economy- Performance • Land reforms in India. & Policy (Chapter on Land Reforms). • IGNOU notes on land reforms "

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448 CHAPTER Main Examination : The Big Battle 53 Science & Technology

he topic of Science & Technology has con- Technology missions. tributed 3-4 questions in the past years Achievements of Indians in science & tech- T(Worth 30-40 marks). As such, it is a sig- nology. nificant area of study from the perspective of Indigenization of technology and develop- examination. It is not a technical topic where ing new technology. prior knowledge or being from the science back- Awareness in the fields of IT, Space, Com- ground is essential to comprehend the issues. puters, robotics, nano-technology, bio-tech- Unlike the other topics such as Economy, nology and issues relating to intellectual Agriculture etc., where a reasonable portion of property rights (IPR). study can be done from the standard textbooks, Achievements of Indians in science & tech- Science & Tech calls for a close follow up of the nology; indigenization of technology and issues in news and picking of the resource ma- developing new technology. terial on probable questions from the articles in magazines, newspapers, specific websites etc. SOURCES OF STUDY

Although there are some guide books on this 1. NCERT books topic in the market, one cannot wholly depend a) 9th Class Science on them as the current and the latest develop- • Chapter 14: Natural Resources ments cannot be covered in them. Hence, the • Chapter 15: Improvement in Food preparation has to be more from the unstruc- Resources tured sources and the preparation of notes on each topic should, as a norm, not be missed at b) 10th Class Science any cost. • Chapter 14: Sources of Energy The Syllabus of • Chapter 15: Our Environment Science & Technology • Chapter 14: Management of Natu- ral Resources Science and Technology- developments and c) 11th Class Chemistry - Volume II their applications and effects in everyday • Unit 14: Environmental Chemistry life. 449 civilz byte

d) 12th Class Biology - Volume II questions are ascribable to the other parts. Ques- • Unit VIII: Biology in Human Welfare tions on Patent law (Novartis case), fixed dose • Unit XI: Biotechnology combination drugs, 3D printing technology, Cloud • Unit X: Ecology Hosting, GPS, overuse of antibiotics and drug resistance, etc., which appeared in the past 2. Other Books years’ question papers were repeatedly in news a) Ashok Kumar Singh’s Science & Tech- in the relevant years. nology (McGraw Hill Publications) As such, it is of utmost importance that one b) Spectrum Publications: Development in keeps a close watch and captures the latest de- science and Technology velopment in these fields and also on India’s 3. Other resources achievements in them. a) Science and Technology, Sunday Supple- Begin your preparation with the select chap- ment of The Hindu newspaper. ters of NCERT books as mentioned above. b) Science Reporter Magazine. These chapters are to give only a basic un- c) Relevant articles from Frontline maga- derstanding of the subject but in itself are zine. not sufficient to cover what is needed for d) Websites of ISRO, DRDO, NASA, CERN. the topic. However, they explain the concepts in a concise and lucid manner. As such, e) G.K Today, Wikipedia, and New Scien- it is prudent to cover them first. tist website for specific articles. Pick up any of the two main books on S&T Salient Preparation Tips as mentioned above in the sources of study. Both are comprehensive but voluminous The syllabus of science and technology (S&T) (around 600 pages). Do not strive to cover can be divided into three broad categories: them from end-to-end. Select the relevant I. S & T Development and application in day- chapters particularly of topics in section III to-day life. of the syllabus. However, always supplement II. India’s achievement in S & T. your study on any topic from these books with latest development in the respective III. Issues/latest developments in the fields of field. IT, space computers, robotics, nano technology, biotechnology, Internet of Things, These two books may be covering and ex- Big Data Analytics, Robotic Process Automa- plaining a substantial part and the back- tion, Virtual Reality, IPR and Artificial Intel- ground of the issues but they many not in- ligence. clude the latest developments which take As per the analysis of the past years’ ques- place on day-to-day basis. What is to be tions, most of the questions can be attributed covered should also be decided on the basis to the part III of the above categories and some of what is in news and recurring time and 450 Main Examination : The Big Battle

again. being conducted particularly in search of fundamental particles such as Higgs-Boson. Prepare notes: This is by far the most important action point vis-à-vis S & T particu- d) NASA (www.nasa.gov) : Browse through this larly as there are no standard textbooks. A US Agency’s website for understanding and 20-20 approach would be good. This means learning about various space programmes, identify twenty important topics and pre- international space stations, Mars mission, pare detailed notes on them and twenty e-books, etc. lesser important ones and prepare brief/ e) New Scientist (www.newscentist.com) : Visit bullet point notes on them. This would com- it for the latest developments and re- prise your basic study material. searches in the field of science. Perusing Always visit the websites of ISRO, DRDO, these websites with videos can help in NASA, CERN etc., for study of specific is- quicker understanding and longer retention sues. of the study content. One can also save soft files on the computer for a later reference. a) ISRO (www.isro.gov.in) : Read various space (Select ‘Print’ from options and it’ll be saved missions and write short essays on them. as a PDF file.) Mars orbiter Mission, PSLV, GSAT, LUM3-X/ CARE and various space craft. Keep an eye for good articles in Monday’s Science & Tech supplement of The Hindu, b) DRDO (www.drdo.gov.in) : Visit it for the Science Reporter, GK Today latest research and development and inputs (www.gktoday.in), The Frontline (maga- in the fields of missile programmes of In- zine), besides the editorial pages of news- dia, material sciences, aeronautics, arma- papers for relevant articles of national and ments, life sciences, naval systems etc. international importance and enduring sig- c) CERN (www.home.web.cern.ch) : Use this nificance. site for understanding various researches

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451 CHAPTER civilz byte 54 Biodiversity & Environment

n recent times, environmental issues have SOURCES OF STUDY AND always been in sharp focus in the news and RESOURCE MATERIAL Iare also likely to be so in the future. As a result, biodiversity and environment is a very (i) NCERT Books important topic and comparatively more predict- Class X Science; Chapter 15 - Our Envi- able to be followed from the perspective of CSE. ronment In the past years, two to three questions Class XI Chemistry Volume II; Unit 14- worth 25-30 marks have figured from this topic Environment Chemistry in the General Studies Paper III. The syllabus as Class XII Biology Volume II; Unit X – Ecol- per the notification (mentioned below) gives only ogy a very broad and merely a single line description of the topics to be covered. This leaves the ambit Class XI Fundamentals of Physical Geog. of preparation very wide and the required cov- – Unit 6 – Life on Earth erage vast, making it perplexing for the aspirants to decide, as what all to cover and from (ii) Latest Economic Survey where. Chapters on ‘Climate, Climate Change Further, unlike topics such as Polity, History, and Sustainable Development’ Economy, etc., there are no year marked graduation level topics to be covered or standard text- (iii) Government Reports books to be followed. This section can guide you (a) Latest Annual Report of Ministry of En- about the material to refer to and how to pro- vironment and Forest ceed with the preparation of this topic. Chapter 2 – Conservation Chapter 3 – Environment Impact As- Syllabus of Environment sessment and Biodiversity Chapter 4 – Abatement of Pollution (b) State of Environment Report: India 2009 “Conservation, Environmental pollution and degradation, environmental impact as- Chapter 2 –State and Trends of sessment.” Environment 452 Main Examination : The Big Battle

Chapter 3 – Key Environmental Issues change finance, international negotiation, Chapter 4 – Policy and Institutional important Environment Summits of that Options year, carbon credit market and trends, challenges and outlook, etc. It also covers the (iv)‘Environment’ – a book by Shankar IAS recent focus of India’s policy as carbon taxa- Academy tion vis-à-vis carbon subsidy. (v) The Hindu Environmental Survey 2012 Go through the Annual Report of Ministry of (vi)Yojana, May 2012 issue, Environment Environment, Forest & Climate Change and Development (available at (http://envfor.nic.in/). It covers the top- www.yojana.gov.in) ics of Conservation, Environment impact assessment and abatement of pollution Salient Tips for Preparation along with the challenges and policy initiatives of Government of India. The topics The lists of books and resources appear to are fully in sync with the syllabus of this topic be long and frightening at first sight. How- notified by UPSC and hence have to be cov- ever, the actual material to be covered is ered well. not at all that substantive. Begin your preparation with the chapters of NCERT books (as Also go through the State of Environment indicated above). These chapters cover the Report 2009 (The only latest one yet.) fundamentals of the topics and it is neces- (http://envfor.nic.in/). Though this was sary to properly understand them. prepared quite a few years ago, it’s still relevant. It covers the topics of Environ- The book on Environment by Shankar IAS mental Trends, Key environmental issues, Academy is widely read and a high seller. It policy & institutional options. After discuss- is available on Amazon.in and in the mar- ing each issue, the report also provides kets of Ashok Nagar as well. The language policy suggestions which have to be read of this book is simple and the content en- carefully. Apply your thought while reading gaging. So, make sure, you don’t miss the it. topics from this book. If you are even interested in this topic, read Go through the two chapters of Economic the 6th volume on ‘Environment, Natural Re- Survey (mentioned above). Although the sources & Infrastructure’ of Punchhi Com- chapters are brief (15-20 pages approxi- mittee Report. Reading Chapter 1 on Envi- mately), they are a rich source of informa- ronment & Chapter 6 on summary of rec- tion and issues pertaining to environment ommendations would suffice. viz., why sustainable development is needed and what is it, and how to finance it are Don’t just read those reports lightly as if explained. Besides, it also includes write- they’re the Novels of Sudeep Nagarkar. Pre- ups on issues such as climate change and pare brief & short notes from them and also green house global emissions, climate from the relevant topics of that year’s Eco-

453 civilz byte

nomic Survey. Make the notes well as a read- and programmes’ and peruse the particu- ing material such that you don’t need to lars of various ‘schemes and programmes’. refer to the Original Source again and again. Check the Websites of important contem- Prepare bullet points for a quick reference. porary Environment Summits viz., Regularly follow the news pertaining to the www.ipcc.ch, www.cop21paris.org etc. issues of Environment. This is by far, the Wikipedia most important thing to do. What is in news relating to this topic gives us a clue as to The Energy and Resources Institute what can possibly be asked in the question (www.teriin.org) - Check for relevant ar- paper. As such, you must take note of such ticles on the site and read them. news items particularly if it appears in the Indian Economy by Ramesh Singh – Refer to news repeatedly. When you do that, refer the Chapter on Environment. to the issue’s background information. Then Geography of India by Majid Hussain – Re- you can be up to date with the recent devel- fer to the Chapter on Environment. opments and the background of that issue. Environment & Ecology by Majid Hussain – Some such reference sources are given Use for reading only select chapters and not below... the whole book. Mrunal’s Website (www.mrunal.org) – There IGNOU – Indira Gandhi National Open is a section on Environment on this site University’s Material on Environment. All that generally contains links to various ar- relevant documents can be found on google. ticles covering specified topics. NIOS – National Institute of Open Schooling’s Website of Ministry of Environment, Forest Material on Environment and Climate Change Proceed to the links ‘public information’ and sub link ‘schemes

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454 CHAPTER Main Examination : The Big Battle 55 Disaster Management

he topic of Disaster Management (DM) The field of study of DM is relatively nar- is, at times, perceived to be a part of rower than other topics. This makes the ques- Tgeography. Although there may be few ar- tions more predictable and preparation more eas that look like an overlap with the study of rewarding. Further, it is important to bear in geography, different sources have to be tapped mind that generic information gathered from the for this topic and the coverage is quite separate newspaper reports or articles in magazines about from that of the subject just mentioned. disaster management may not be comprehensive and sufficient to cover the topic in totality Questions and Coverage – although they may serve as a good supplement to our preparation. As such, concerted prepara- Considering the Previous Year Question Pa- tion for DM preferably from sources as indicated pers, it can be observed that every year, one below is essential. question emerges from this topic. Although the marks attributable to DM are quite less as com- SOURCES OF STUDY & pared to other topics, candidates should not come complacent about its preparation or ignore it QUICK TIPS altogether. As mentioned above, the information on the website of NDMA and the 2nd ARC’s - 3rd report The Syllabus are the primary and, thankfully, sufficient re- The UPSC only specifies the words, “DISAS- sources to suitably study the topic. TER AND DISASTER MANAGEMENT” as syllabus. This does not elucidate, at all, the domain of (a) The 2nd ARC - 3rd Report; ‘Crisis study of this topic. As such, one has to refer to Management: From Despair to Hope’ government sources of National Disaster Man- Access the 2nd ARC report titled, Crisis agement Authority (www.ndma.gov.in) and gov- Management. It can be downloaded from the ernment reports to understand as to what the website www.arc.gov.in. The entire document topic disaster and disaster management would need not be read but preferably the following entail. chapters. 455 civilz byte

Chapter 3 – India’s Key Hazards, Vulnerabili- chapters within them as follows should be stud- ties, and Crisis Response Mechanism ied. Chapter 5 – Risk Reduction 1. Guidelines on Management of Earthquakes Chapter 6 – Emergency Response System a. Chapter 6 – Awareness and Preparation Chapter 7 – Recovery b. Chapter 7 – Capacity Development Chapter 9 – Drought Management c. Chapter 8 – Response Chapter 11 – Summary of Recommendations d. Chapter 9 – Disaster Management Plan Out of the above, Chapter 3 and Chapter 11 2. Guidelines on Management of Tsunamis are the most important and a must read at any a. Chapter 3 – Tsunami Preparedness cost. Besides the above, the report also con- b. Chapter 6 – Emergency Response tains boxes which have salient topics and must duly be covered. These boxes and topics are in- c. Chapter 8 – Summary of Action Points dicated below: 3. Guidelines on Management of Cyclones Box no. Topic a. Chapter 6 – Awareness 2.1. Disaster Management and Sustainable b. Chapter 7 – Disaster Risk and Manage- Development ment Capacity Development 2.2. Distinction between Disaster and c. Chapter 8 – Response Hazard 4. Guidelines on Management of Floods 3.2. Traditional Management for Disaster a. Chapter 3 – Flood Prevention, Prepared- Management ness and Mitigation 3.5. Flood Control and Management b. Chapter 7 –Capacity Development 3.6. Land Erosion by Sea and River c. Chapter 8 – Flood Response d. Chapter 10 –Summary of Action Points (b) NDMA Guidelines 5. Guidelines on Management of Urban In the past, questions have also arisen Flooding which call for elucidation of preparedness/tack- a. Chapter 5 – Urban Flood Disaster Risk ling of disaster in the backdrop of 2010 NDMA Management guidelines (www.ndma.gov.in/en/NDMA- b. Chapter 7 – Response guidelines.html). c. Chapter 8 – Capacity Development, Aware- There are 18 guidelines provided by NDMA ness, Generation, Documentation with reference to different disasters. However, d. Chapter 10 – Summary of Action Points all need not be covered. The six important guidelines to be studied are given below. Further, as 6. Guidelines on Drought Management these guidelines themselves are quite exhaus- a. Chapter 3 – Assessment and Early Warn- tive, they need not to be covered fully but select ing System 456 Main Examination : The Big Battle

b. Chapter 4 – Prevention Preparedness and Take a Cue from the Current Affairs Mitigation India and various parts of the world often c. Chapter 4 – Relief and Response see different disasters striking it. Candidates d. Chapter 4 – Summary of Action Points must take note of such disasters (if any) occur- For a quick revision later, cover the sum- ring particularly in India. This would help in an- mary of Action points given in the report. This ticipating as to which disaster is likely to be document is a wonderful source of study, for it asked about in the examination. For instance, is brief while incorporating most of the relevant if parts of Nepal and India have been rocked by points. an earthquake then probability of some kind of questions on earthquake being asked is more. (c) Yojana Special Editions Similarly, if there are major floods in a part on Disaster Management of country (viz., Chennai & other recent floods), The March - 2012, January 2017 editions of then the focus of news is in this topic and likeli- Yojana incorporate a number of good articles on hood of questions emerging from floods is more. disaster management. This must be covered Cover all the six topics as mentioned above and thoroughly (available at www.yojana.gov.in in the emphasize more on the ones in news. archives section).

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457 CHAPTER civilz byte 56 Internal Security

rom the perspective of the GS Paper III, Security challenges and their management Internal Security stands second only in im- in border areas; Linkages of organised crime Fportance to the topic, Economy. Five ques- with terrorism. tions worth 50-60 marks have popped up from Various security forces, and agencies and this interesting topic in the past years. As such, their mandate. proper coverage of this topic is essential to do well in this paper. The contours of Internal Secu- rity change according to government response RESOURCE MATERIAL, and hence it has to be followed from the current REPORTS AND BOOKS affairs. (I) Reports of 2nd Administrative Reforms Com- THE SYLLABUS mission (www.arc.gov.in) (a) 7th Report: Capacity Building for Con- Unlike other subjects, the syllabus of this flict Resolution subject is very well defined and questions ap- Chapter 2: Conflict Resolution- pearing in the past years are largely as per the Conceptual Framework syllabus. As such, the syllabus of Internal Secu- rity must be kept in mind during its prepara- Chapter 3: Left Extremism tion. The topics are indicated here: Chapter 12: Conflict in North East Chapter 13: Operational Arrange- Linkages between development and spread ment for Conflict Management of extremism. Chapter 14: Institutional Arrange- Role of external state and non-state actors ment for Conflict Management in creating challenges to internal security. Conclusion and Summary of Rec- Challenges to internal security through com- ommendations munication networks, role of media and (b) 8th Report: Combating Terrorism-pro- social networking sites in internal security tecting by Righteousness challenges, basics of cyber security; money- Chapter 2: Terrorism- Types, Gen- laundering and it’s prevention. esis, Definition 458 Main Examination : The Big Battle Chapter 3: Terrorism in India SALIENT Chapter 4: Dealing with Terrorism Legal Frame Work PREPARATION TIPS Chapter 5: Measures against Fi- The 2nd ARC, 7th report and the Punchhi nancing Terrorism Commission Report-Volume 5 provide the Conclusion and Summary of Rec- most important and authentic information ommendation on the subject. Go through them carefully. (II) Report of Punchhi Commission on Centre- Begin your preparation by first going State Relations through the conclusion and summary of the Volume V, Internal Security, Criminal Jus- recommendations of the report which is tice and Centre-State Co-operation given at the end of corresponding chapters. (www.interstatecouncil.nic.in/down- Once you are thorugh with it, go to the chap- loads/volume5.pdf) ters indicated above. Remember, summa- Chapter 3: Central Law Enforce- ries are very important. ment Agencies Prepare notes on the topics you read from Chapter 6: Other Internal Security the reports. Notes should be brief or in bul- Issues let points so as to be easy to revise and (i) The Naxal problem remember. They should capture the essence/ (ii) The North East summary of the various sections of the (iii) Jammu and Kashmir above reports. Besides detailed notes, also Chapter 9: Conclusions and Rec- prepare very brief or micro notes which you ommendations can peruse a day before the examination to recollect what you have read. (III) Website of Institute of Defence Studies and Analysis (www.idsa.in) – For articles and The book by Ashok Kumar, Internal Security various publications. and Disaster Management, is concise and can be very helpful to supplement the re- (IV) Books on Internal Security ports. Besides, it is a good source to cover (a) Internal Security and Disaster Manage- the topics otherwise not discussed in the ment: GS Paper III by Ashok Kumar report (viz., cyber security, money launder- (Wriiten by an IPS Officer and is con- ing etc.). sidered the Best book for Preparation) (b) India’s National Security: A Reader by Similarly, the book by Oxford University Oxford University Press Press, ‘India’s National Security: A Reader,’ offers an analytical perspective of the top- Chapter 3: Terrorism in Jammu & Kashmir ics. It is worth a read, if four or five of your friends can jointly buy this book. Chapter 4: Does Counter Insur- gency Theory Apply in North East The IDSA website (www.idsa.in) has good India articles in its weekly journal, ‘The week in 459 civilz byte

review’. This is present under the ‘publica- of cyber threats. Watch out in the newspa- tion’ link at the home page. The newslet- per to know how cyber security and cyber ters/journals can be periodically perused for threat issues are arising. You are also ad- relevant analytical articles. Further, its vised to read about topics such as digital monograph series no. 23 of 2013 titled signature, encryption, cryptography, “India’s internal security situation” is a phishing, trojan-worms, cyber-warfare, good read. cyber-crime, cyber-espionage, cyber stalking, identity theft, cyber-terror, etc., and Check for the articles of Praveen Swami, understand India’s National Cyber Security Rajamohan and C. Uday Bhaskar in news- Policy 2013. Watch the Movie ‘Snowden’ for papers like Hindu & Indian Express. Browse an improved understanding about cyber their names and google will provide you. If intelligence and its dynamics. subject interests you much, also browse through the websites of South Asia Terror- 2. You can also read about these issues from ism Portal and Ministry of Human Affairs. IDSA monograph no. 42 of 2014 titled “Cybersecurity – Global, Regional and Do- The syllabus for IS can be broadly divided mestic Dynamics. into the following distinct areas of study. (a) Spread of extremism, causes, link with de- 3. A report has also been prepared by the velopment, Taskforce of IDSA titled “India Cyber security Challenges.” In this report, one must (b) Internal security, threat due to state and non go through chapter 6 on ‘Recommendations’ state actors, and chapter 2 ‘Cyber security - an overview’. (c) Challenges to cyber security and communication networks, role of media and social 4. The various security agencies and their roles networking sites, can be studied from Wikipedia, which has a good page on this issue. Identify the im- (d) Money laundering and challenges to inter- portant agencies and note down a few points nal security, about the nature of their work. This is also (e) Challenges at borders and link with terror- covered in the book by Ashok Kumar in Chap- ism, and ter 11. (f) Various security forces and agencies. 5. To understand about money laundering as a The reports and chapters mentioned above security threat, one must know a bit about cover the topics (a), (b), and (e). However, the legislations such as Prevention of Money remaining three topics viz. (c), (d) and (f) need Laundering Act (PMLA), Foreign Exchange to be covered separately and through different Management Act and about Financial Action sources. Task Force (FATF) – an inter-governmental 1. From cyber security threat to communica- body. The information about them can be tion networks, one can go through Wikipedia culled from different websites. One may also and familiarise oneself with various forms read FATF Guidance 2013, National Money 460 Main Examination : The Big Battle

Terrorist Financing Risk assessment if this ist extremism, exploitation of poorest of topic interests you. the poor, lack of administrative reach to certain areas, and administrative failures and 6. Candidates must also study government ini- failure of justice delivery. tiatives, policies and programmes for combating generation of black money and pre- Make a habit of watching good movies like vention of money laundering. These often Border, Phantom, Baby, Kuruthipunal, Roja, figure in news and can be tracked at the LoC Kargil... etc that are related to this website PIB (www.pib.nic.in) and also at subject. website of Ministry of Finance Similarly, one should develop some points (www.finmin.nic.in). regarding the solution to the problem viz., initiation of welfare activities, development Conclusion of infrastructure and generation of employment, launching joint operation of security Aspirants must also apply their own thought agencies in co-ordination with the local to the various issues pertaining to Internet se- people in the affected areas etc. Such points curity. This is essential as the questions in the can be developed whenever a question re- examination are Analyse, Critically Examine, and lated to naxalism arises. Depending on what Comment types. They are not straight forward the question asks, the answer should be questions which merely test the information con- moulded accordingly. tent or the knowledge on an issue. As such, on any topic candidates must keep handy four or There are many documentaries on YouTube five basic points. These can be applied to the about the Paramilatary Forces and other different perspectives of the question asked in such subject related concepts. They give an the examination. advanced understanding in a cooler way. For example, on the issue of naxalism, one Follow what is in News. News enables us to must develop a few points on causes of capture the important developments and an- naxalism, viz., lack of economic develop- ticipate the issues on which questions can ment, lack of land reforms, growth of left- arise in the examination.

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461 CHAPTER civilz byte 57 Treasure Trove: General Studies-3 Question Papers GENERAL STUDIES-3 2013

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are TWENTY FIVE questions. All the questions are compulsory. The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question- cum Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions if specified should be adhered to. Any page or portion of the page left blank on the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

Answer all the questions in NOT MORE than the word limit specified for each in the parenthesis. Content of the answer is more important than its length

1. With a consideration towards the strategy of inclusive growth, the new Companies Bill, 2013 has indirectly made CSR a mandatory obligation. Discuss the challenges expected in its implementation in its right earnest. Also discuss other provisions in the Bill and their implications. [200 words] 10 2. What were the reasons for the introduction of Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Manage- ment (FRBM) Act, 2003? Discuss critically its salient features and their effectiveness. [200 words] 10 462 Main Examination : The Big Battle

3. What is the meaning of the term 'tax expenditure'? Taking housing sector as an example, discuss how it influences the budgetary policies of the government. [200 words] 10 4. Food Security Bill is expected to eliminate hunger and malnutrition in India. Critically discuss various apprehensions in its effective implementation along with the concerns it has generated in WTO. [200 words] 10 5. What are the different types of agriculture subsidies given to farmers at the national and at state levels? Critically analyse the agriculture subsidy regime with reference to the distortions created by it. [200 words] 10 6. India needs to strengthen measures to promote the pink revolution in food industry for ensuring better nutrition and health. Critically elucidate the statement. [200 words] 10 7. Examine the impact of liberalization on companies owned by Indians. Are they competing with the MNCs satisfactorily? Discuss. [200 words] 10 8. Establish relationship between land reforms, agriculture productivity and elimination of poverty in the Indian economy. Discuss the difficulties in designing and implementation of agriculture friendly land reforms in India. [200 words] 10 9. (a) Discuss the impact of FDI entry into Multi-trade retail sector on supply chain management in commodity trade pattern of the economy. [100 words] 5 (b) Though India allowed Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in what is called multi-brand retail through the joint venture route in September 2012, the FDI, even after a year, has not picked up. Discuss the reason. [100 words] 5 10. Discuss the rationale for introducing Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India. Bring out critically the reasons for the delay in roll out for its regime. [200 words] 10 11. Write a note on India's green energy corridor to alleviate the problem of conventional energy. [200 words] 10 12. Adoption of PPP model for infrastructure development of the country has not been free of criticism. Critically discuss pros and cons of the model. [200 words] 10 13. Bringing out the circumstances in 2005 which forced amendment to the section (d) in Indian Patent Law, 1970, discuss how it has been utilized by the Supreme Court in its judgment in rejecting Novratis' patent application for 'Glivee'. Discuss briefly the pros and cons of the decision. [200 words] 10 14. What do you understand by Fixed Dose Drug Combinations (FDCs)? Discuss their merits and demerits. [200 words] 10 15. What do you understand by Umpire Decision Review System in Cricket? Discuss its various components. Explain how silicone tape on the edge of bat may fool the system? [200 words] 10 463 civilz byte

16. (a) What is a digital signature? What does its authentication mean? Give various salient built-in features of a digital signature. [100 words] (b) How does the 3D printing technology work? List out the advantages and disadvantages of the technology. [100 words] 5 17. (a) What is an FRP composite material? How are they manufactured? Discuss their applications in aviation and automobile industries. [100 words] 5 (b) What do you understand by Run-of-river hydroelectricity project? How is it different from any other hydroelectricity project? [100 words] 5 18. How important are Vulnerability and risk assessment for pre-disaster management? As an administrator, what are key Areas that you would focus on in a Disaster Management system. [200 words] 10 19. What are the consequences of Illegal mining? Discuss the Ministry of Environment Forests' concept of GO AND NO GO zone for coal mining sector. [200 words] 10 20. Enumerate the National Water Policy of India. Taking river Ganges as an example, discuss the strategies which may be adopted for river water pollution control and management. What are the legal provisions management and handling of hazardous wastes in India? [200 words] 10 21. Money Laundering poses a serious security threat to a country's economic sovereignty. What is its significance for India and what steps are required to be taken to control this menace? [200 words] 10 22. What are social networking sites and what security implications do these sites present? [200 words] 10 23. Cyber warfare is considered by some defense analysts to be a larger threat than even Al Qaeda or terrorism .What do you understand by Cyber warfare? Outline the cyber threats which India is vulnerable to and bring out the state of the country's preparedness to deal with the same. [200 words] 10 24. Article 244 of the Indian Constitution relates to administration of scheduled areas and tribal areas. Analyse the impact of non-implementation of the provisions of the Fifth schedule on the growth of Left Wing extremism. [200 words] 10 25. How far India's internal security challenges linked with border management particularly in view of the long porous borders with most countries of South Asia and Myanmar? [200 words] 10

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464 Main Examination : The Big Battle GENERAL STUDIES-3 2014

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are TWENTY questions. All the questions are compulsory. The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question- cum Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions if specified should be adhered to. Any page or portion of the page left blank on the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

Answer all the questions in NOT MORE than 200 words each. Content of the answer is more important than its length. All questions carry equal marks. 12½ x 20 = 250

1. Normally countries shift from agriculture to industry and then later to services, but India shifted directly from agriculture to services. What are the reasons for the huge growth of services vis-à -vis industry in the country? Can India become a developed country without a strong industrial base? 2. "While we flaunt India's demographic dividend we ignore the dropping rates of employability." What are we missing while doing so? Where will the jobs that India desperately needs come from? Explain. 3. There is also a point of view that agriculture produce market Committees. (APMCs) set up under the state Acts have not only impeded the development of agriculture but also been the cause of food inflation in India. Critically examine. 4. "In the villages itself no form of credit organization will be suitable except the cooperative society." - All India Rural Credit Survey. Discuss this statement in the background of agricultural finance in India. What constraints and challenges do financial institutions supplying agricultural finance face? How can technology be used to better reach and derive rural clients? 465 civilz byte

5. The Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 has come into effect from 1st January, 2014. What are the key issues which would get addressed with the Act in place? What implications would it have on industrialization and agriculture in India?

6. Capitalism has guided the world economy to unprecedented prosperity. However, it often encourages short sightedness and contributes to wide disparities between the rich and the poor. In this light, would it be correct to believe and adopt capitalism for bringing inclusive growth in India? Discuss.

7. Explain how Private Public Partnership arrangements, in long gestation infrastructure projects, can transfer unsustainable liabilities to the future. What arrangements need to be put in place to ensure that successive generations' capacities are not compromised?

8. National Urban Transport Policy emphasizes on 'moving people' instead of 'moving vehicles.' Discuss crucially the success of the various strategies of the Government in this regard.

9. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in the defense sector is now set to be liberalized. What influence this is expected to have in India defense and economy in the short and long run?

10. Scientific research in Indian universities is declining because a career in science is not as attractive as are business professions, engineering or administration and the university are becoming consumer oriented. Critically comment.

11. Can overuse and free availability of antibiotics without Doctor's prescription be contributors to the emergence of drug-resistant-diseases in India? What are the available mechanisms for monitoring and control? Critically discuss the various issues involved.

12. In a globalized world intellectual property Rights assume significance and are a source of Litigations. Broadly distinguish between the term - Copyrights, Patents and Trade Secrets.

13. Should the pursuit of carbon credits and clean development mechanisms set up under UNFCCC be maintained even thought there has been a massive slide in the value of a carbon credit? Discuss with respect to India's energy needs for economic growth.

14. Drought has been recognized as a disaster in view of its spatial expanse, temporal duration, slow onset and lasting effects on vulnerable sections. A focus on the September 2010 guidelines from the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), discuss the mechanisms for preparedness to deal with EL Nino and La Nina fallouts in India.

15. Environmental Impact Assessment studies are increasingly undertaken before a project is cleared by the Government. Discuss the environmental impacts if coal-fired thermal plants located at coal pitheads. 466 Main Examination : The Big Battle

16. "The diverse nature of India as a multi-religious and multi-ethnic society is not immune to the impact of radicalism which is seen in her neighbourhood." Along with strategies to be adopted to counter this environment.

17. International civil aviation laws provide all countries complete and exclusive sovereignty over the airspace above their territory. What do you understand by 'airspace'? What are the implications of these laws on the space above this airspace? Discuss the challenges which this poses and suggest ways to contain the threat.

18. How does illegal transborder migration pose a threat to India's security? Discuss the strategies to curb, this bringing out the factors which give impetus to such migration.

19. In 2012, the longitudinal marking for high-risk Areas for piracy was moved from 65 degrees east to 78 degrees east in the Arabian Sea by the International Maritime Organization. What impact does this have on India's maritime security concerns?

20. China and Pakistan have entered into an agreement for development of an economic corridor. What threat does this pose for India's security? Critically examine.

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467 civilz byte GENERAL STUDIES-3 2015

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are TWENTY questions. All the questions are compulsory. The number of marks carried by a question is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question- cum Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions if specified should be adhered to. Any page or portion of the page left blank on the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

Answer all the questions in NOT MORE THAN 200 words each. Contents of the answer are more important than its length. All questions carry equal marks. 12½ x 20 = 250

1. The nature of economic growth in India in described as jobless growth. Do you agree with this view? Give arguments in favour of your answer. 12½

2. Livestock rearing has a big potential for providing non-farm employment and income in rural areas. Discuss suggesting suitable measures to promote this sector in India. 12½

3. In view of the declining average size of land holdings in India which has made agriculture non-viable for a majority of farmers, should contract farming and land leasing be promoted in agriculture? Critically evaluate the pros and cons. 12½

4. How can the 'Digital India' programme help farmers to improve farm productivity and income? What steps has the Government taken in this regard? 12½

5. In what way could replacement of price subsidy with Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) change the scenario of subsidies in India? Discuss. 12½ 468 Main Examination : The Big Battle

6. What are the impediments in marketing and supply chain management in developing the food processing industry in India? Can e-commerce help in overcoming these bottlenecks? 12½

7. Craze for gold in Indians have led to a surge in import of gold in recent years and put pressure on balance of payments and external value of rupee. In view of this, examine the merits of Gold Monetization Scheme. 12½

8. "Success of 'Make in India' programme depends on the success of 'Skill India' programme and radical labour reforms." Discuss with logical arguments. 12 ½

9. To what factors can the recent dramatic fall in equipment costs and tariff of solar energy be attributed? What implications does the trend have for the thermal power producers and the related industry? 12½

10. There is a clear acknowledgement that Special Economic Zones (SEZs) are a tool of industrial development, manufacturing and exports. Recognizing this potential, the whole in- strumentality of SEZs requires augmentation. Discuss the issues plaguing the success of SEZs with respect to taxation, governing laws and administration. 12½

11. What do you understand by 'Standard Positioning Systems' and 'Protection Positioning Sys- tems' in the GPS era? Discuss the advantages India perceives from its ambitious IRNSS programme employing just seven satellites. 12½

12. What are the areas of prohibitive labour that can be sustainably managed by robots? Dis- cuss the initiatives that can propel research in premier research institutes for substantive and gainful innovation. 12½

13. Discuss the advantage and security implications of cloud hosting of servers vis-à-vis in- house machine-based hosting for government businesses. 12½

14. India's Traditional Knowledge Digital Library (TKDL), which has a database containing for- matted information on more than 2 million medicinal formulations is proving a powerful weapon in the country's fight against erroneous patents. Discuss the pros and cons making this database publicly available under open-source licensing. 12½

15. The Namami Gange and National mission for clean Ganga (NMCG) programmes and causes of mixed results from the previous schemes. What quantum leaps can help preserve the river Ganga better than incremental inputs? 12½

16. The frequency of earthquakes appears to have increased in the Indian subcontinent. How- ever, India's preparedness for mitigating their impact has significant gaps. Discuss various aspects. 12½ 469 civilz byte

17. Human rights activists constantly highlight the view that the Armed Forces (Special Pow- ers) Act, 1958 (AFSPA) is a draconian act leading to cases of human rights abuses by the security forces. What sections of AFSPA are opposed by the activists? Critically evaluate the requirement with reference to the view held by the Apex Court. 12½

18. Religious indoctrination via digital media has resulted in Indian youth joining the ISIS. What is ISIS and its mission? How can ISIS be dangerous for the internal security of our country? 12½

19. The persisting drives of the government for development of large industries in backward areas have resulted in isolating the tribal population and the farmers who face multiple displacements with Malkangiri and naxalbari foci, discuss the corrective strategies needed to win the left wing extremism (LWE) doctrine affected citizens back into the mainstream of social and economic growth. 12½

20. Considering the threats cyberspace poses for the country, India needs a "Digital Armed Force" to prevent crimes. Critically evaluate the National Cyber Security Policy, 2013 out- lining the challenges perceived in its effective implementation. 12½

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470 Main Examination : The Big Battle GENERAL STUDIES-3 2016

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are TWENTY questions. All the questions are compulsory. The number of marks carried by a question is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question- cum Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions should be adhered to. Any page or portion of the page left blank on the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

Answer all the following questions. Each question is to be answered in not more than 200 words. Each question carries equal marks.

1. How globalization has led to the reduction of employment in the formal sector of the Indian economy? Is increased informalization detrimental to the development of the country? 12 ½

2. Women empowerment in India needs gender budgeting. What are the requirements and status of gender budgeting in the Indian context? 12 ½

3. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) is necessary for bringing unbanked to the institutional finance fold. Do you agree with this for financial inclusion of the poorer section of the Indian society? Give arguments to justify your opinion. 12 ½

4. What are 'Smart Cities'? Examine their relevance for urban development in India. Will it increase rural-urban differences? Give arguments for 'Smart Villages' in the light of PURA and RURBAN Mission. 12 ½

471 civilz byte

5. Justify the need for FDI for the development of the Indian economy. Why there is gap between MOUs signed and actual FDIs? Suggest remedial steps to be taken for increasing actual FDIs in India. 12½

6. Comment on the challenges for inclusive growth which include careless and useless manpower in the Indian context. Suggest measures to be taken for facing these challenges. 12½

7. What is water-use efficiency? Describe the role of micro-irrigation in increasing the water- use efficiency. 12½

8. What is allelopathy? Discuss its role in major cropping systems of irrigated agriculture. 12½

9. Discuss the role of land reforms in agricultural development. Identify the factors that were responsible for the success of land reforms in India. 12½

10. Given the vulnerability of Indian agriculture to vagaries of nature, discuss the need for crop insurance and bring out the salient features of the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY). 12½

11. Give an account of the current status and the targets to be achieved pertaining to renewable energy sources in the country. Discuss in brief the importance of National Programme on Light Emitting Diodes (LEDs). 12½

12. Discuss India's achievements in the field of Space Science and Technology. How the application of this technology has helped India in its socio-economic development? 12½

13. Why is nanotechnology one of the key technologies of the 21st century? Describe the salient features of Indian Government's Mission on Nanoscience and Technology and the scope of its application in the development process of the country. 12½

14. Rehabilitation of human settlements is one of the important environmental impacts which always attracts controversy while planning major projects. Discuss the measures suggested for mitigation of this impact while proposing major developmental projects. 12½

15. The frequency of urban floods due to high intensity rainfall is increasing over the years. Discussing the reasons for urban floods, highlight the mechanisms for preparedness to reduce the risk during such events. 12½

16. With reference to National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) guidelines, discuss the measures to be adopted to mitigate the impact of the recent incidents of cloudbursts in many places of Uttarakhand. 12½ 472 Main Examination : The Big Battle

17. The terms 'Hot Pursuit' and 'Surgical Strikes' are often used in connection with armed action against terrorist attacks. Discuss the strategic impact of such actions. 12½

18. 'Terrorism is emerging as a competitive industry over the last few decades." Analyse the above statement. 12½

19. Border management is a complex task due to difficult terrain and hostile relations with some countries. Elucidate the challenges and strategies for effective border management. 12½

20. Use of internet and social media by non-state actors for subversive activities is a major security concern. How have these been misused in the recent past? Suggest effective guidelines to curb the above threat. 12½

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473 civilz byte GENERAL STUDIES-3 2017

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are TWENTY questions. All the questions are compulsory. The number of marks carried by a question is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question- cum Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Answers to questions no. 1 to 10 should be in 150 words, whereas answers to questions no. 11 to 20 should be in 250 words. Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to. Any page or portion of the page left blank on the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

1. Among several factors for India's potential growth, savings rate is the most effective one. Do you agree? What are the other factors available for growth potential? (Answer in 150 words) 10

2. Account for the failure of manufacturing sector in achieving the goal of labour-intensive exports. Suggest measures for more labour-intensive rather than capital-intensive exports. (Answer in 150 words) 10

3. Examine the developments of Airports in India through joint ventures under Public-Private Partnership(PPP) model. What are the challenges faced by the authorities in this regard. (Answer in 150 words) 10

4. Explain various types of revolutions, took place in Agriculture after Independence in India. How these revolutions have helped in poverty alleviation and food security in India? (Answer in 150 words) 10 474 Main Examination : The Big Battle

5. What are the reasons for poor acceptance of cost-effective small processing unit? How the food processing unit will be helpful to uplift the socio-economic status of poor farmers? (Answer in 150 words) 10

6. Stem cell therapy is gaining popularity in India to treat a wide variety of medical conditions including Leukaemia, Thalassemia, damaged cornea and several burns. Describe briefly what stem cell therapy is and what advantages it has over other treatments? (Answer in 150 words) 10

7. India has achieved remarkable successes in unmanned space missions including the Chandrayaan and Mars Orbitter Mission, but has not ventured into manned space missions.What are the main obstacles to launching a manned space mission, both in terms of technology and logistics? Explain critically. (Answer in 150 words) 10

8. Not many years ago, river linking was a concept but it is becoming a reality in the country. Discuss the advantages of river linking and its possible impact on the environment. (Answer in 150 words) 10

9. Discuss the potential threats of Cyber attack and the security framework to prevent it. (Answer in 150 words) 10

10. The North-Eastern region of India has been infested with insurgency for a very long time. Analyze the major reasons for the survival of armed insurgency in this region. (Answer in 150 words) 10

11. One of the intended objectives of Union Budget 2017-18 is to 'transform, energize and clean India'. Analyse the measures proposed in the Budget 2017-18 to achieve the objective. (Answer in 250 words) 15

12. "Industrial growth rate has lagged-behind in the overall growth of Gross-Domestic-Product (GDP) in the post-reform period." Give reasons. How far the recent changes in Industrial- Policy are capable of increasing the industrial growth rate? (Answer in 250 words) 15

13. What are the salient features of 'inclusive growth'? Has India been experiencing such a growth process? Analyze and suggest measures for inclusive growth. (Answer in 250 words) 15

14. What are the major reasons for declining rice and wheat yield in the cropping system? How crop diversification is helpful to stabilize the yield of the crop in the system? (Answer in 250 words) 15

475 civilz byte

15. How do subsidies affect the cropping pattern, crop diversity and economy of farmers? What is the significance of crop insurance, minimum support price and food processing for small and marginal farmers? (Answer in 250 words) 15

16. Give an account of the growth and development of nuclear science and technology in India. What is the advantage of fast breeder reactor programme in India? (Answer in 250 words) 15

17. 'Climate Change' is a global problem. How India will be affected by climate change? How Himalayan and coastal states of India will be affected by climate change? (Answer in 250 words) 15

18. On December 2004, tsunami brought havoc on 14 countries including India. Discuss the factors responsible for occurrence of tsunami and its effects on life and economy. In the light of guidelines of NDMA (2010) describe the mechanisms for preparedness to reduce the risk during such events. (Answer in 250 words) 15

19. Mob violence is emerging as a serious law and order problem in India. By giving suitable examples, analyze the causes and consequences of such violence. (Answer in 250 words) 15

20. The scourge of terrorism is a grave challenge to national security. What solutions do you suggest to curb this growing menace? What are the major sources of terrorist funding? (Answer in 250 words) 15

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476 CHAPTER Main Examination : The Big Battle 58 General Studies - 4 Ethics, Integrity & Aptitude

hough the topic of this paper is a recent Socially accepted norms etc. introduction to the Civil Services It is only the appropriate hour of the need Examination (Since, Mains, 2013), it is T that the prospective Civil Servants quite under- indeed a very important and pertinent addition stand what ethics, integrity and aptitude imply. which makes this a very inspiring, instructive And appreciate its practical relevance. But, to and interesting paper. Paul H. Appleby stated that you, as an aspirant, this subject is important as the most important aspect of Administration is it is a full-fledged paper in itself worth 250 Integrity. Hence, this Paper is critically meant to marks. unfold the attitudinal and aptitudinal dimensions of the candidates in relation not only to the society or community in which he lives, but SIGNIFICANCE OF GS - IV towards his stakeholders in different situations that a Civil Servant is placed in. In the modern The preparation of GS Paper IV is not a material oriented intensive study where you bureaucracy of our country, a Civil Servant’s have to pore over myriad of books or re- ethics, integrity and aptitude is put to test in member countless facts, figures and theo- almost all aspects of duty he/she attends to and ries. even put to question, occasionally. This Paper requires understanding of basic This paper includes questions to test the issues and concepts pertaining to ethics, in- candidates’ Aptitude and approach to issues re- tegrity and other bureaucratic and social lating to Integrity, Probity in Public life and his values. ability to solve the problems to various issues and conflicts that he may be facing in his offi- Besides, it is necessary to hone your innate cial dealings at his level. One important thing is ability to discern what is right, and appro- that there will be questions relating to case-study priate from what is not. And you will find to determine the candidates’ attitude towards this point elaborated in detail in the follow- ethical values, Integrity and Aptitude. ing pages. What is required is critical thinking and an And at the same time, the paper is more rewarding in terms of marks. Top rankers honest open mindset backed by good understand- are able to secure 100+ marks in this paper. ing about Indian culture and Civil Services codes, 477 civilz byte

If you rightly concentrate on this paper, this Human Values – lessons from the lives and can be your game changer in mains. teachings of great leaders, reformers and administrators. But mind you, though this paper gives a greater output of marks with lesser input Role of family, society and educational in- of time and effort, this should not be constitutions in inculcating values. strued as requiring negligible inputs. If there Attitude: content, structure, function - its is a compromised effort, the drop in the influence and relation with thought and be- marks is bound to be sharp. havior. A detailed and exhaustive syllabus of the Moral and political attitudes. paper is given here. Go through it carefully and Social influence and persuasion. keep checking/ticking in the course of your prepa- Aptitude and foundational values for Civil ration whether they are covered or not. This is Service , integrity, impartiality and non-par- essential to ensure that all topics enlisted are tisanship, objectivity, dedication to public duly covered. The previous years’ question pa- service, empathy, tolerance and compassion pers following this article titled “Treasure Trove” towards the weaker-sections. can be perused to arrive at an understanding Emotional intelligence - concepts, and their about the Paper. utilities and application in administration and governance. OVERVIEW OF THE Contributions of moral thinkers and philoso- SYLLABUS phers from India and world. Public/Civil service values and Ethics in This paper will include questions to test the Public administration - Status and problems. candidates’ attitude and approach to issues re- Ethical concerns and dilemmas in govern- lating to integrity, probity in public life and his ment and private institutions. problem solving approach to various issues and Laws, rules, regulations and conscience as conflicts faced by him in dealing with society. sources of ethical guidance. Questions may utilize the case study approach Accountability and ethical governance. to determine these aspects. The following broad areas will be covered. Strengthening of ethical and moral values in governance. 1. ETHICS, INTEGRITY & APTITUDE Ethical issues in international relations and funding. Ethics and Human Interface: Essence, de- Corporate governance. terminants and consequences of Ethics in Probity in Governance: Concept of public human actions. service. Dimensions of ethics. Philosophical basis of governance and Ethics in Private and Public relationships. probity.

478 Main Examination : The Big Battle

Information sharing and transparency in the individuals’ personality. Aptitude and foun- government, Right to Information, Codes dational values for Civil Service reflect on the of Ethics, Codes of Conduct, Citizen’s bent of mind of civil servant. Aptitude, in the Charters, Work culture, Quality of service context of Governance, can be a fitness or readi- delivery, Utilization of public funds, ness to do something required in Public inter- challenges of corruption. est. It is very much supposed that the Civil Ser- 2. CASE STUDIES vant should have the public values like integrity, impartiality, political neutrality, objectivity, com- Case studies on issues relating to Ethics, mitment to public service, empathy, tolerance Integrity & Aptitude (Refer to above issues) and compassion towards the weaker sections. The elements from the syllabus might look Another interesting area in this Ethics paper re- abstract, philosophical or psychological. But the lates to Emotional Intelligence and its applica- meanings of the words are not as complicated tion in Administration and governance. as they look like. Let’s broadly enumerate few aspects relating to this paper. Coming to another important area, it relates to Ethos, values and Ethics in Public Ad- Ethics and Human Interface ministration. A wide range of topics such as Ethi- cal concerns and dilemmas in Government and Under this subject, the candidate is expected to know the fundamental determinants of Ethics corporate institutions, Ethical Governance, Cor- and its various dimensions, the ethical standards porate Governance, Ethical issues in international stipulated in one’s private and public relation- relations also figure prominence in this paper. ships. This requires the basic knowledge about The crucial area in the paper of general studies the lives and teachings of great leaders, reform- (Ethics) is about Probity in Governance. This area ers and rulers besides the role of family, society includes issues, indicators, initiatives and and the educational institutions in inculcating ponderables in respect of good Governance such the long cherished values. as transparency in Governance, Right to infor- Attitude mation, codes of Ethics, codes of conduct, citizen’s charters, and service delivery and so It is said that attitude decides one’s alti- on. Above all, Ethics demands zero tolerance to tude. We need to understand the attitudinal in- corruption. Therefore, this subject of corrup- fluences and its connections with thought and tion, its causes, forms, processes and the con- behavior. Moral and political attitudes...etc also sequences are also key areas in the paper on form the basis for questioning in the examination. Ethics. Moral Governance forms the crux of this Aptitude paper. Finally, an interesting and innovative area It is a very important factor that determines is perhaps the case-studies on the above issues. 479 civilz byte NATURE OF THE PAPER & sporadically. Consistency in your thinking is the most important ingredient of success in this APPROACH REQUIRED paper. Remember that you can’t FAKE ethical behavior. It is noteworthy from the syllabus of this paper that it does not constitute a standard Even if one manages to do that, inconsis- graduation subject or discipline like History, tency would be visible all over his/her answer Geography, Economics..etc. This area is an in- sheet and that leads to only one thing–failure. terdisciplinary one requiring inputs from Politi- Without a personality & character that cal Science, Public Administration, Philosophy, stands strong on values, it is futile to learn the Sociology etc. concepts of paper IV from various reports, books But otherwise, the topics specified in the and websites and writing them in the examina- syllabus themselves are not indicative of the tion hall. Even if one does so, the superficiality study and its extent covered by it. For instance, of his/her intentions would be readily visible in the topic, “Ethics and Human Interface: Essence, the answers. This paper requires an honest foun- determinants and consequences of Ethics in hu- dation that one can’t find in books or websites. man actions,” does not indicate what all has to They are ingrained in all of us. Remember your be covered in its study. But, a topic like the ‘Post childhood school days? independence’ in Indian history is clear as to You knew certain things for sure those days. what all it would entail. You knew lying was bad, stealing was even worse and hurting someone was an open invitation to Henceforth, when you go through the past punishment from parents or teachers. So simple years’ question papers, you will understand the was life and its principles. However, today we sort and style of questions. That will help you love to complicate things. We have internalized understand the nature of preparation and ex- the notions of relative honesty and comparative tent of coverage to be done to this subject. moral behavior. We assess our wrong doings by Friends!! Bear in mind this word of caution and judging and quantifying the action of others. We gentle reminder - ‘Without you being ethical, also justify our actions on many flimsy grounds your answer sheet can’t be ethical.’ Why you? which induce social acceptance and rather pro- For most aspirants across the nation, GS paper mote collective loss of character and integrity. IV is perhaps the most intriguing and misunder- But believe us, the more you complicate things, stood part of the total Civil Services Exam sylla- the more it becomes difficult to hide your true bus. personality and character. Ethics, integrity and honesty should form a The UPSC knows this dilemma well and that common theme during your entire preparation is why so many questions have to be answered and not only for GS paper IV. It should be like a in such a short duration of time that after the canopy similar to that of a tropical rainforest initial few questions our original thoughts start covering the entire region and not like the bushes getting reflected in the answer sheet. All the and shrubs of the deserts, popping here and there philosophers and their teachings are blown away 480 Main Examination : The Big Battle by the series of questions posed by UPSC. Neither What do you feel when you see a young couple in Aristotle nor Plato comes to your rescue. You Public Display of Affection (PDA) in a public place? yourself become a philosopher and university in- Should short clothes for girls be totally banned? stincts take you over. You just pour your thoughts Would you allow your wife to go to work and let on the paper forgetting all the cautions related her wear clothes of her choice? The answers to to balanced views, word limits, use of quotes, these questions flow from two different parts of presentation techniques. You see the papers filled your body - mind and soul. Your heart would fol- by you and feel happy about it as if you are the low rationality and logic while your mind follows only one doing that. the gut feeling or intuition. You become more of yourself with your origi- For example rationality and logic says that nal thought process lying bare on the answer a girl should be independent and it’s her choice sheet. And this is the point when your fate is to wear the clothes of her liking but when it locked by the examiner. If you are an honest comes to your girlfriend or wife, your mind makes person, the same will reflect in your answers and you overprotective and uncomfortable with your you shall be awarded good marks. But if you have partner exercising such choice. This exam is all that typical DNA injected by some material and about balancing these extremes. Internalize your you try to fake your thoughts by presenting some intuitions but at the same time get hold of logic pre cooked answers, you stand a thin chance in and rationality. It is an art and you can master this paper. this art through honesty. Discuss your feelings with your peers, family or a guide. Defend your A standard preparation should be made from thoughts and at the same time be receptive to correct sources with due diligence and commit- criticism as well. Listen to others and if you find ment. But more important than the list of books their arguments logical enough, simply own them. and websites is the need to understand the soul of this paper. As we said before, all the traits It will broaden your horizons. Talk to people demanded by the syllabus should flow like a com- of different cultures and regions. Exchange ideas mon theme in your answers and it is possible with them. Write down your feelings, revisit them only when we enter into dialogues with ourselves. after few days and see whether your thought Introspection of your own behavior and self con- process has changed or not. All this shall not take templation would teach you more than anything much of your time. Remember, you are aspiring else. to become a civil servant and thus your outlook, dialogues and thought process should reflect Know yourself and keep asking those obvi- some responsibility. ous questions having not so obvious answers. What do you want in your life? What does happi- Friends, you’ll find the list of Sources of ness mean to you? How important are friends to study in the following pages. Make the best use you? How do you see your family in your life? of your abilities, right use of your heart & con- What qualities do you want to see in your part- science, and start changing whatever you feel is ner? What changes do you want to see around not correct about you to the right thing, for the you? How do you feel about the current state of well known ‘saying’ rightly tells. “It’s never too society? How can you contribute to change it? late to start something good.” 481 civilz byte FEW QUICK TIPS & A SHORT SOURCES OF STUDY PLAN OF ACTION BOOKS & REPORTS 1) Prepare yourself for problem solving ques- 1. ‘Ethics, Integrity and Aptitude’ by G Subba tions in this paper as set of situations or Rao and PN Roy Choudhary (Access scenario is given. You are expected to give Publication) your own judgment as a solution to the is- 2. 12th NCERT Psychology Text book sues specified. It is something like exten- a. Chapter 6 - Attitude and Social sion of the interview process where your cognition outlook, attitude, behavior and judgment b. Chapter 7 – Social Influence and Group are closely observed. processes 2) It is not the question of your answers being 3. IGNOU Ethics Material (Can be downloaded right or wrong but your moral level of from the web) thoughts, open attitude, courage of convic- Block - 1 Introduction to Ethics tion, integrity, compassion that are ex- Block – 2 Ethical Foundations pected to be out from your solutions. It is Block – 3 Applied Ethics more a paper to examine your bent of mind Block - 4 Current Ethical Debates than your quantum of knowledge of books. 4. Ethical concerns in public administration by 3) The topics normally border on Public Admin- IGNOU (Can be downloaded from the web) istration / Psychology and Philosophy to a 5. 2nd ARC’s reports (Can be downloaded from large extent. So better go through the top- the web) ics related to morality and integrity in Civil Services apart from the second Administra- a. 4th Report - Ethics in Governance – Read tive reforms commission report with spe- chapters 1 & 2 cial reference to corruption etc., b. 10th Report - Refurbishing of Personnel Administration 4) You must also prepare on the contemporary c. 12th Report - Citizen Centric Adminis- challenging issues such as Gender sensitiv- tration ity, sexual harassment irritants in Public Service, challenges to disability, Women 6. Administrative Ethics from any good book. empowerment and ethical orientation in 7. Civil Services Competency Dictionary public life. (Brought out by Dept of Personnel & Train- 5) At the same time, try to browse internet to ing and UNDP – a brief publication bringing solve case studies and problems relating to out the traits essential for civil services & various areas. We voice it out again that what do they stand for) (Can be downloaded no special study will help to answer the ques- from the web) tions in the ethics paper except develop- 8. Civil Services Survey 2010 - Report ment of right attitudes, positive thinking 9. “Emotional Intelligence” by Daniel Goleman. and magnanimous outlook towards social 10. mrunal.org/ethics issues. 482 CHAPTER Main Examination : The Big Battle 59 Treasure Trove: General Studies-4 Question Papers GENERAL STUDIES-4 2013

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are FOURTEEN questions divided into two sections. All the questions are compulsory. The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question- cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions if specified should be adhered to. Any page or portion of the page left blank on the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

Answer questions in NOT MORE than the word limit specified for each in the parenthesis. Content of the answer is more important than its length.

SECTION - A 1. What do you understand by 'values' and 'ethics'? In what way is it important to be ethical along with being professionally competent? (150 words) 10 2. (a) What do you understand by the following terms in the context of public service? (250 words) 3 x 5 = 15 a. Integrity b. Perseverance c. Spirit of service d. Commitment e. Courage of conviction 483 civilz byte

(b) Indicate two more attributes which you consider important for public service. Justify your answer. (100 words) 10 3. Some people feel that values keep changing with time and situation, while others strongly believe that there are certain universal and eternal human values. Give your perception in this regard with due justification. (150 words) 10 4. What is 'emotional intelligence' and how can it be developed in people? How does it help an individual in taking ethical decisions? (150 words) 10 5. (a) What do you understand by the term 'voice of conscience'? How do you prepare yourself to heed to the voice of conscience? (150 words) 10 (b) What is meant by 'crisis of conscience'? Narrate one incident in your life when you were faced with such with such a crisis and how you resolved the same. (150 words) 10 6. Given below are three quotations of great moral thinkers/philosophers. For each of these quotations, bring out what it means to you in the present context : a. "There is enough on this earth for every one's need but for no one's greed." - Mahatma Gandhi (150 words) 10 b. "Nearly all men can withstand adversity, but if you want to test a man's character, give him power." - Abraham Lincoln (150 words) 10 c. "I count him braver who overcomes his desires than him who overcomes his enemies." - Aristotle (150 words) 10 7. "The good of an individual is contained in the good of all." What do you understand by this statement? How can this principal be implemented in public life? (150 words) 10 8. It is often said that 'politics and ethics' do not go together. What is your opinion in this regard? Justify your answer with illustrations. (150 words) 10

SECTION - B In the following questions, carefully study the cases presented and then answer the questions that follow: 9. A Public information Officer has received an application under RTI Act. Having gathered the information, the PIO discovers that the information pertains to some of the decisions taken by him, which were found to be not altogether right. There were other employees also who were party to these decisions. Disclosure of the information is likely to lead to disciplinary action with possibility of punishment against him as well as some of his colleagues. Non-disclosure or part disclosure or camouflaged disclosure of information will results into lesser punishment or no punishment. 484 Main Examination : The Big Battle

The PIO is otherwise an honest and conscientious person but this particular decision on which the RTI application has been filed, turned out to be wrong. He comes to you for advice. The following are some suggested options. Please evaluate the merits and demerits of each of the options: i. The PIO could refer the matter to his superior officer and seek his advice and act strictly in accordance with the advice, even thought he is not completely in agreement with the advice of the superior. ii. The PIO could proceed on leave and leave the matter to be dealt by his successor in office or request for transfer of the application to another PIO. iii. The PIO could weigh the consequences of disclosing the information truthfully including the effect on his career, and reply in a manner that would not place him or his career in jeopardy, but at the same time a little compromise can be made on the contents of the information. iv. The PIO could consult his other colleagues who are party to the decision and take action as per their advice. Also please indicate (without necessarily restricting to the above options) what you would like to advise, giving proper reasons. (250 words) 20 10. You are working as an Executive Engineer in the construction cell of a Municipal Corpora- tion and are presently in-charge of the construction of a flyover. There are two Junior Engineers under you who have the responsibility of day-to-day inspection of the site and are reporting to you, while you are finally reporting to the Chief Engineer who heads the cell. While the construction is heading towards completion, the Junior Engineers have been regularly reporting that all construction is taking place as per design specifications. However, in one of your surprise inspections, you have noticed some serious deviations and lacunae which, in your opinion, are likely to affect the safety of the flyover. Rectification of these lacunae at this stage would require a substantial amount of demolition and re- work which will cause a tangible loss to the Contractor and will also delay completion. There is a lot of public pressure on the Corporation to get this construction completed because of heavy traffic congestion in the area. When you brought this matter to the notice of the Chief Engineer, he advised you that in his opinion it is not a very serious lapse and may be ignored. He advised for further expediting the project for completion in time. However, you are convinced that this was a serious matter which might affect public safety and should not be left unaddressed. What will you do in such a situation? Some of the options are given below. Evaluate the merits and demerits of these options and finally suggest what course of action you would like to take, giving reasons. (250 words) 20 485 civilz byte i. Follow the advice of the Chief Engineer and go ahead. ii. Make an exhaustive report of the situation bringing out all facts and analysis along with your own viewpoints stated clearly and seek for written orders from the Chef Engineer. iii. Call for explanation from the Junior Engineers and issue orders to the contractor for necessary correction within targeted time. iv. Highlight the issue so that it reaches superiors above the Chief Engineer. v. Considering the rigid attitude of the Chief Engineer, seek transfer from the project or report sick. 11. Sivakasi in Tamil Nadu is known for its manufacturing clusters in firecrackers and matches. The local economy of the area is largely dependent on firecrackers industry. It has led to tangible economic development and improved standard of living in the area. So far as child labor norms for hazardous industries like firecrackers industry are concerned, International Labor Organization (ILO) has set the minimum age as 18 years. In India however, this age is 14 years. The units in industrial clusters of firecrackers can be classified into registered and non- registered entities. One typical unit is household-based work. Though the law is clear in the use of child labor employment norms in registered/non-registered units, it does not include household-based work. Household-based work means children working under the supervision of the parents/relatives. To evade child labor norms, several units project themselves as household-based works but employ children from outside Needless to say that employing children saves the costs for these units leading to higher profits to the owners. On your visit to one of the units at Sivakasi, the owner takes you around the unit which has about 10-15 children below 14 years of age. The owner tells you that in his household- based unit, the children are all relatives. You notice that several children smirk, when the owner tells you this. On deeper enquiry, you figure out that neither the owner nor the children are able to satisfactorily establish their relationship with each other. (a) Bring out and discus the ethical issues involved in the above case. (b) What would be your reaction after your above visit? (300 words) 25 12. You are heading a leading technical institute of the country. The institute is planning to convene an interview panel shortly under your chairmanship for selection of the post of professors. A few days before the interview, you get a call from the Personal Secretary (PS) of a senior government functionary seeking your intervention in favor of the selection of a close relative of the functionary for this post. The PS also informs that he is aware of the long pending and urgent proposals of your institute for grant of funds for modernization, which are awaiting the functionary's approval.

486 Main Examination : The Big Battle

(a) He assures you that he would get these proposals cleared. (b) What are the options available to you? Evaluate each of these options and choose the option which you would adopt, giving reasons (250 words) 20 13. As a senior officer in the Finance Ministry, you have access to some confidential and crucial information about policy decisions that the government is about to announce. These decisions are likely to have far-reaching impact on the housing and construction industry. If the builders have access to this information beforehand, they can make huge profits. One of the builders has done a lot of quality work for the government and is known to be close to your immediate superior, who asks you to disclose this information's to the said builder. (a) He assures you that he would get these proposals cleared. (b) What are the options available to you? Evaluate each of these options and choose the option which you would adopt, giving reasons (250 words) 20 14. You are the Executive Director of an upcoming Infotech Company which is making a name for itself in the market. Mr. A who is a star performer, is heading the marketing team. In a short period of one year, he has helped in doubling the revenues as well as creating a high brand equity for the Company so much so that you are thinking of promoting him. However, you have been receiving information from many corners about his attitude towards the female colleagues; particularly his habit of making loose comments on women. In addition, he regularly sends indecent SMS's to all the team members including his female colleagues. One day, late in the evening, Mrs. X, who is one of Mr. A's team members, comes to you visible disturbed. She complains against the continued misconduct of Mr. A, who has been making undesirable advances towards her and has even tried to touch her inappropriately in his cabin. She tenders her resignation and leaves your office. (a) He assures you that he would get these proposals cleared. (b) What are the options available to you? Evaluate each of these options and choose the option which you would adopt, giving reasons (250 words) 20

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487 civilz byte GENERAL STUDIES-4 2014

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Answer questions in NOT MORE than the word limit specified for each in the parenthesis. Content of the answer is more important than its length.

SECTION - A 1. (a) All human beings aspire for happiness. Do you agree? What does happiness mean to you? Explain with examples. (150 words) 10 (b) What does ethics seek to promote in human life? Why is it all the more important in public administration? (150 words) 10 2. (a) In the context of defense services, patriotism demands readiness to even lay down one's life in protecting the nation. According to you, what does patriotism imply in everyday civil life? Explain with illustrations and justify your answers. (150 words) 10 (b) What do you understand by probity in public life? What are the difficulties in practicing it in the present times? How can these difficulties be overcome? (150 words) 10 3. (a) "Integrity without Knowledge is weak and useless, but knowledge without Integrity is dangerous and dreadful." What do you understand by this statement? Explain your stand with illustrations from the modern context. (150 words) 10 488 Main Examination : The Big Battle

(b) "Human beings should always be treated as 'ends' in themselves and never as merely 'means'." Explain the meaning and significance of this statement, giving its implications in the modern techno-economic society. [150 words] 10 4. (a) Which eminent personality has inspired you the most in the context of ethical conduct in life? Give the gist of his/her teachings. Giving specific examples, describe how you have been able to apply these teaching for you own ethical development. [150 words] 10 (b) There is a heavy ethical responsibility on the public servants because they occupy positions of power, handle huge amounts of public funds and their decisions have wide ranging impact on society and environment. What steps have you taken to improve your ethical competence to handle such responsibility? [150 words] 10 5. (a) The current society so plagued with widespread trust-deficit. What are the consequences of this situation for personal well-being and for societal well-being? What can you do at the personal level to make yourself trustworthy? (150 words) 10 (b) It is often said that poverty leads to corruption. However, there is no dearth of instances where affluent and powerful people indulge in corruption in a big way. What are the basic causes of corruption among people? Support your answers with examples. (150 words) 10 6. What factors affect the formation of a person's attitude towards social problems? In our society, contrasting attitudes are prevalent about many social problems. What contrasting attitudes do you notice about the caste system in our society? How do you explain the existence of these contrasting attitudes? (150 words) 10 7. What does 'accountability' mean in the context of public services? What measures can be adopted to ensure individual and collective accountability of public servants? (150 words) 10 8. We are witnessing increasing instances of sexual violence against women in the country. Despite existing legal provisions against it, the number of such incidences is on the rise. Suggest some innovative measures to tackle this menace. (150 words) 10

SECTION - B In the following questions, carefully study the cases presented and then answer the questions that follow: 9. Now-a-days, there is an increasing thrust on economic development all around the globe. At the same time, there is also an increasing concern about environmental degradation caused by development. Many a time, we face a direct conflict between development activity and environmental quality. It is neither feasible to stop or curtail the development process, nor it is advisable to keep degrading the environment, as it threatens out very survival. 489 civilz byte

Discuss some feasible strategies which could be adopted to eliminate this conflict and which could lead to sustainable development. (250 words) 20 10. Suppose one of your close friends, who is also aspiring for civil services, comes to you for discussing some of the issues related to ethical conduct in public service. He raises the following points : i. In the present times, when unethical environment is quite prevalent, individual attempts to stick to ethical principles may cause a lot of problems in one's career. It may also cause hardship to the family members as well as risk to once life. Why should we not be pragmatic and follow the path of least resistance and be happy with doing whatever good we can? ii. When so many people are adopting wrong means and are grossly harming the system, what different would it make if only a small minority tries to be ethical? They are going to be rather ineffective and are bound to get frustrated. iii. If we become fussy about ethical considerations, will it not hamper the economic progress of our country? After all, in the present age of high competition, we cannot afford to be left behind in the race of development. iv. It is understandable that we should not get involved in grossly unethical practices, but giving and accepting small gratifications and doing small favors increases everybody's motivation. It also makes the system more efficient. What is wrong in adopting such practices? Critically analyze the above viewpoints on the basis of this analysis, what will be your advice to your friend? (250 words) 20 11. You are a no-nonsense, honest officer. You have been transferred to a remote district to head a department that is notorious for its inefficiency and callousness. You find that the main cause of the poor state of affairs is the indiscipline of a section of employees. They do not work themselves and also disrupt the working of others. You first warned the troublemakers to mend their ways or else face disciplinary action. When the warning had little effect, you issued a show cause notice to the ringleaders. As a retaliatory measure, these troublemakers instigated a woman employee amongst them to file a complaint of sexual harassment against you with the Women's Commission. The Commission promptly seeks your explanation. The matter is also publicized in the media to embarrass you further. Some of the options to handle this situation could be as follows : i. Give your explanation to the Commission and go soft on the disciplinary action. ii. Ignore the Commission and proceed firmly with the disciplinary action. iii. Brief your higher-ups, seek directions from them and act accordingly. Suggest any other possible options(s). Evaluate all of them and suggest the best course of action, giving your reasons for it. (250 words) 20 490 Main Examination : The Big Battle

12. Suppose you are the CEO of a company that manufactures specialized electronic equipment used by a government department. You have submitted your bid for the supply of this equipment to the department. Both the quality and cost of your offer are better than those of the competitors. Yet the concerned officer is demanding a hefty bribe for approv- ing the tender. Getting the order is important both for you and for your company. Not getting the order would mean closing a production line. It may also affect your own career. However, as a value-conscious person, you do not want to give bribe. Valid arguments can be advanced both for giving the bribe and getting the order, and for refusing to pay the bribe and risking the loss of the order. "What those arguments could be? Could there be any better to get out of this dilemma? If so, outline the main elements of this third way pointing out its merits. (250 words) 20 13. Rameshwar successfully cleared the prestigious civil services examination and excited about the opportunity that he would get through the civil services to serve the country. However, soon after joining the services he realized that things are not as rosy as he had imagined. He found a number of malpractices prevailing in the department assigned to him. For example, funds under various schemes and grants were being misappropriated. The official facilities were frequently being used for personal needs by the officers and staff. After some time, he noticed that the process of recruiting the staff was also not up to the mark. Prospective candidates were required to write an examination in which a lot of cheating was going on. Some candidates were provided external help in the examinations. Rameshwar brought these incidents to the notice of his seniors. However, he was advised to keep his eyes, ears and mouth shut and ignore all these things which were taking place with the connivance of the higher ups. Rameshwar felt highly disillusioned and uncomfortable. He comes to you seeking your advice. Indicate various options that you think are available in this situation. How would you help him to evaluate these options and choose the most appropriate path to be adopted? (250 words) 20 14. In our country, the migration of rural people to towns and cities is increasing drastically. This is causing serious problems both on the rural as well as in the urban areas. In fact, things are becoming really unmanageable. Can you analyze this problem in detail and indicate not only the socio-economic but also the emotional and attitudinal factors responsible for this problem? Also, distinctly bring out why - (a) educated rural youth are trying to shift to urban areas; (b) landless poor people are migrating to urban slums; (c) Even some farmers are selling off their land and trying to settle in urban areas taking up petty jobs. What feasible steps can you suggest which will be effective in controlling this serious problem of our country? (250 words) 20

491 civilz byte GENERAL STUDIES-4 2015

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are FOURTEEN questions divided into two sections. All the questions are compulsory. The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question- cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions wherever specified, should be adhered to. Any page or portion of the page left blank on the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

Answer questions in NOT MORE than the word limit specified for each in the parenthesis. Content of the answer is more important than its length.

SECTION - A 1. (a) What in meant by 'environmental ethics'? Why is it important to study? Discuss any one environmental issue from the viewpoint of environmental ethics. (150 words) 10 (b) Differentiate between the following (200 words) 10 i. Law and Ethics ii. Ethical management and Management of ethics iii. Discrimination and Preferential treatment iv. Personal ethics and Professional ethics 2. Given are two quotations of moral thinkers/philosophers. For each of these, bring out what it means to you in the present context : (a) "The weak can never forgive; forgiveness is the attribute of the strong." (150 words) 10 (b) "We can easily forgive a child who is afraid of the dark; the real tragedy of life is when men are afraid of the light." (150 words) 10 492 Main Examination : The Big Battle

3. (a) "A mere compliance with law is not enough, the public servant also have to have a well-developed sensibility to ethical issues for effective discharge of duties." Do you agree? Explain with the help of two examples where (i) an act is ethically right, but not legally and (ii) an act is legally right, but not ethically. (150 words) 10 (b) How do the virtues of trustworthiness and fortitude get manifested in public service? Explain with examples. (150 words) 10

4. (a) "Social values are more important than economic values." Discuss the above statement with examples in the context of inclusive growth of a nation. (150 words) 10 (b) Some recent developments such as introduction of RTI Act, media and judicial activism, etc., are proving helpful in bringing about greater transparency and accountability in the functioning of the government. However, it is also being observed that at times the mechanisms are misused. Another negative effect is that the officers are now afraid to take prompt decisions. Analyse the situation in detail and suggest how the dichotomy can be resolved. Sug- gest how these negative impacts can be minimized. (150 words) 10

5. Two different kinds of attitudes exhibited by public servants towards their work have been identified as bureaucratic attitude and the democratic attitude. (a) Distinguish between these two terms and write their merits and demerits. (b) Is it possible to balance the two to create a better administration for the faster development of our country? (150 words) 10

6. Today we find that in spite of various measures like prescribing codes of conduct, setting up vigilance cells/commissions, RTI, active media and strengthening of legal mechanism, corrupt practices are not coming under control. (a) Evaluate the effectiveness of these measures with justifications. (b) Suggest more effective strategies to tackle this menace. (150 words) 10

7. At the international level, the bilateral relations between most nations are governed on the policy of promoting one's own national interest without any regard for the interest of other nations. This leads to conflicts and tension between the nations. How can ethical consideration help resolve such tensions? Discuss with specific examples. (150 words) 10

8. Public servants are likely to confront with the issues of "Conflict of Interest". What do you understand by the term "Conflict of Interest" and how does it manifest in the decision making by public servants? If faced with the conflict of interest situation, how would you resolve it? Explain with the help of examples. (150 words) 10 493 civilz byte SECTION - B 9. A private company is known for its efficiency, transparency and employee welfare. The company though owned by a private individual has a cooperative character where employees feel a sense of ownership. The company employs nearly 700 personnel and they have voluntarily decided not to form union. One day suddenly in the morning, about 40 men belonging to political party gate crashed into the factory demanding jobs in the factory. They threatened the management and employees, and also used foul language. The employees feel demoralized. It was clear that those people who gate-crashed wanted to be on the payroll of the company as well as continue as the volunteers/members of the party. The company maintains high standards in integrity and does not extend favours to civil administration that also includes law enforcement agency. Such incident occurs in public sector also. (a) Assume you are the CEO of the company. What would you do to diffuse the volatile situation on the date of gate-crashing with the violent mob sitting inside the company premises? (b) What can be the long-term solution to the issue discussed in the case? (c) Every solution/action that you suggest will have a negative and a positive impact on you (as CEO), the employees and the performance of the employees. Analyse the consequences of each of your suggested actions. (250 words) 20 10. You are the Sarpanch of a Panchayat. There is a primary school run by the government in your area. Midday meals are provided to children attending the school. The headmaster has now appointed a new cook in the school to prepare the meals. However, when it is found that cook is from Dalit community, almost half of the children belonging to higher castes are not allowed to take meals by their parents. Consequently the attendance in the school falls sharply. This could result in the possibility of discontinuation of midday meal scheme, thereafter of teaching staff and subsequent closing down the school. (a) Discuss some feasible strategies to overcome the conflict and to create right ambiance. (b) What should be the responsibilities of different social segments and agencies to create positive social ambiance for accepting such changes? (250 words) 20 11. One of the scientists working in the R & D laboratory of a major pharmaceutical company discovers that one of the company's bestselling veterinary drugs, B has the potential to cure a currently incurable liver disease that is prevalent in tribal areas. However, developing a variant of the drug suitable for human being entailed a lot of research and development having a huge expenditure to the extent of ` 50 crores. It was unlikely that company would recover the cost as the disease was rampant only in poverty-stricken areas having very little market otherwise. 494 Main Examination : The Big Battle

If you were the CEO, then - (a) identify the various actions that you could take; (b) evaluate the pros and cons of each of your actions. (250 words) 20

12. There is a disaster-prone state having frequent landslides, forest fires, cloudbursts, flash floods and earthquakes, etc. Some of these are seasonal and often unpredictable. The magnitude of the disaster is always unanticipated. During one of the seasons a cloudburst caused devastating floods and landslides leading to high casualties. There was major damage to infrastructure like roads, bridges and power generating units. This led to more than 100000 pilgrims, tourists and other locals trapped across different routes and locations. The people trapped in your area of responsibility includes senior citizens, patients in hospitals, women and children, hikers, tourists, ruling party's regional president along with his family, additional chief secretary of the neighboring state and prisoners in jail. As a civil services officer of the state, what would be the order in which you would rescue these people and why? Give Justifications. (200 words) 20 13. You are heading a district administration in a particular department. Your senior officer calls you from the State Headquarters and tells you that a plot in Rampur village is to have a building constructed on it for a school. A visit is scheduled during which he will visit the site along with the chief engineer and the senior architect. He wants you to check out all the papers relating to it and ensure that the visit is properly arranged. You examine the file which relates to the period before you joined the department. The land was acquired for the local panchayat at a nominal cost and the papers showed that clearance certificates are available for the two of the three authorities who have to certify the site's suitability. There is no certification by the architect available on file. You decide to visit Rampur to ensure that all is in the order as stated on file. When you visit Rampur, you find that the plot under reference is a part of Thakurgarh fort and that the walls, ramparts, etc., are running across it. The fort is well away from the main village, therefore a school here will be a serious inconvenience for the children. However, the area near the village has potential to expand into a larger residential area. The development charges on the existing plot, at the fort, will be very high and question of heritage site has not been addressed. Moreover, the Sarpanch, at the time of acquisition of the land, was a relative of your predecessor. The whole transaction appears to have been done with some vested interest. (a) List the likely vested interests of the concerned parties. (b) Some of the options for action available to you are listed below. Discuss the merits and demerits of each of the options: i. You can await the visit of the superior officer and let him take a decision. ii. You can seek his advice in writing or on phone. 495 civilz byte

iii. You can consult your predecessor/ colleagues, etc., and then decide what to do. iv. You can find out if any alternate plot can be got in exchange and then send a comprehensive written report. Can you suggest any other option with proper justification? (250 words) 25

14. You are recently posted as district development officer of a district. Shortly thereafter you found that there is considerable tension in the rural areas of your district on the issue of sending girls to schools. The elders of the village feel that many problems have come up because girls are being educated and they are stepping out of the safe environment of the household. They are of the view that the girls should be quickly married off with minimum education. The girls are also competing for jobs after education, which have traditionally remained in boys' exclusive domain, adding to unemployment amongst male population. The younger generation feels that in the present era, girls should have equal opportunities for education and employment, and other means of livelihood. The entire locality is divided between the elders and the younger lot and further sub-divided between sexes in both generations. You come to know that in Panchayat or in other local bodies or even in busy crossroads, the issue is being acrimoniously debated. One day you are informed that an unpleasant incident has taken place. Some girls were molested, when they were en route to schools. The incident led to clashes between several groups and a law and order problem has arisen. The elders after heated discussion have taken a joint decision not to allow girls to go to school and to socially boycott all such families, which do not follow their dictate. (a) What steps would you take to ensure girls' safety without disrupting their education? (b) How would you manage and mould patriarchic attitude of the village elders to ensure harmony in the inter-generational relations? (250 Words) 25

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496 Main Examination : The Big Battle GENERAL STUDIES-4 2016

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are FOURTEEN questions divided into two sections. All the questions are compulsory. The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question- cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions wherever specified, should be adhered to. Any page or portion of the page left blank on the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

Answer questions in NOT MORE than the word limit specified for each in the parenthesis. Content of the answer is more important than its length.

SECTION - A 1. (a) Explain how ethics contributes to social and human well-being. (150 words) 10 (b) Why should impartiality and non-partisanship be considered as foundational values in public services, especially in the present day socio-political context? Illustrate your answer with examples. (150 words) 10 2. (a) What do you understand by the terms 'governance', 'good governance' and 'ethical governance'? (150 words) 10 (b) Discuss Mahatma Gandhi's concept of seven sins. (150 words) 10 3. (a) Analyse John Rawls's concept of social justice in the Indian context. (150 words) 10 (b) Discuss the Public Services Code as recommended by the 2nd Administrative Reforms commission. (150 words) 10 4. (a) "Corruption causes misuse of government treasury, administrative inefficiency and obstruction in the path of national development." Discuss Kautilya's views. (150 words) 10 497 civilz byte

(b) How could social influence and persuasion contribute to the success of Swachh Bharat Abhiyan? (150 words) 10 5. Law and ethics are considered to be the two tools for controlling human conduct so as to make it conductive to civilized social existence. (a) Discuss how they achieve this objective. (b) Giving examples, show how the two differ in their in their approaches. (150 words) 10 6. Our attitudes towards life, work, other people and society are generally shaped uncon- sciously by the family and social surroundings in which we grow up. Some of this uncon- sciously acquired attitudes and values are often undesirable in the citizens of a modern democratic and egalitarian society. (a) Discuss such undesirable values prevalent in today's educated Indians. (b) How can such undesirable attitudes be changed and socio-ethical values considered necessary in public services be cultivated in the aspiring and serving civil servants? (150 words) 10 7. Anger is a harmful negative emotion. It is injurious to both personal life and work life. (a) Discuss how it leads to negative emotions and undesirable behaviours. (b) How can it be managed and controlled? (150 words) 10 8. "Max Weber said that it is not wise to apply to public administration the sort of moral and ethical norms we apply to matters of personal conscience. It is important to realise that the state bureaucracy might possess its own independent bureaucratic mortality." Criti- cally analyse this statement. (150 words) 10

SECTION - B

9. A fresh engineering graduate gets a job in a prestigious chemical industry. She likes the work. The salary is also good. However, after a few months she accidentally discovers that a highly toxic waste is being secretly discharged into a river nearby. This is causing health problems to the villagers downstream who depend on the river for their water needs. She is perturbed and mentions her concern to her colleagues who have been with the company for longer periods. They advise her to keep quiet as anyone who mentions the topic is summarily dismissed. She cannot risk losing her job as she is the sole bread- winner for her family and has to support her ailing parents and siblings. At first, she thinks that if her seniors are keeping quiet, why should she stick out her neck. But her conscience pricks her to do something to save the river and the people who depend upon it. At heart she feels that the advice of silence given by her friends is not correct though she cannot give reasons for it. She thinks you are a wise person and seeks your advice. (a) What arguments can you advance to show her that keeping quite is not morally right? (b) What course of action would you advice her adopt and why? (250 words) 20 498 Main Examination : The Big Battle

10. Land needed for mining, dams and other large-scale projects is acquired mostly from Adivasis, hill dwellers and rural communities. The displaced persons are paid monetary compensation as per the legal provisions. However, the payment is often tardy. In any case, it cannot sustain the displaced families for long. These people do not possess marketable skills to engage in some other occupation. They end up as low paid migrant labourers. Moreover, their traditional ways of community living are destroyed. Thus, the benefits of development go to industries, industrialists and urban communities whereas the costs are passed on to these poor helpless people. This unjust distribution of costs and benefits is unethical. Suppose you have been entrusted with the task of drafting a better compensation-cum- rehabilitation policy for such displaced persons, how would you approach the problem and what would be the main elements of your suggested policy? (250 words) 20 11. Suppose you are an officer in-charge of implementing a social services scheme to provide support to old and destitute women. An old and illiterate woman comes to you to avail the benefits of the scheme. However, she has no documents to show that she fulfils the eligibility criteria. But after meeting her and listening to her you feel that she certainly needs support. Your enquiries also show that she is really destitute and living in a pitiable condition. You are in a dilemma as to what to do. Putting her under the scheme without necessary documents would clearly be violation of rules. But denying her the support would be cruel and inhuman. (a) Can you think of a rational way to resolve this dilemma? (b) Give your reasons for it. (250 words) 20 12. You are a young, aspiring and sincere employee in a Government office working as an assistant to the director of your department. Since you have joined recently, you need to learn and progress. Luckily your superior is very kind and ready to train you for your job. He is a very intelligent and well-informed person having knowledge of various departments. In short, you respect your boss and are looking forward to learn a lot from him. Since you have a good tuning with the boss, he started depending on you. One day due to ill health he invited you at his place for finishing some urgent work. You reached his house and before you could ring the bell you heard shouting noises. You waited for a while. After entering the house the boss greeted you and explained the work. But you were constantly disturbed by the crying of a woman. At last, you inquired with the boss but his answer did not satisfy you. Next day, you were compelled to inquire further in the office and found out that his behaviour is very bad at home with his wife. He also beats up his wife. His wife is not well educated and is a simple woman in comparison to her husband. You see that though your boss is a nice person in the office, he is engaged in domestic violence at home. 499 civilz byte

In such a situation, you are left with the following options. Analyse each option with its consequences. (a) Just ignore thinking about it because it is their personal matter. (b) Report the case to the appropriate authority. (c) Your own innovative approach towards the situation. (250 words) 20 13. ABC Ltd. is a large transnational company having diversified business activities with a huge shareholder base. The company is continuously expanding and generating employment. The company, in its expansion and diversification programme, decides to establish a new plant at Vikaspuri, in an area which is underdeveloped. The new plant is designed to use energy efficient technology that will help the company to save production cost by 20%. The company's decision goes well with the Government policy of attracting investment to develop such underdeveloped regions. The Government has also announced tax holiday for five years for the companies that invest in underdeveloped areas. However, the new plant may bring chaos for the inhabitants of Vikaspuri region, which is otherwise tranquil. The new plant may result in increased cost of living, aliens migrating to the region, disturbing the social and economic order. The company sensing the possible protest tried to educate the people of Vikaspuri Region and public in general that how its Corporate Social Respon- sibility (CSR) policy would help to overcome the likely difficulties of the residents of Vikaspuri region. In spite of this the protests begin and some of the residents decide to approach the judiciary as their plea before the Government did not yield any result. (a) Identify the issues involved in the case. (b) What can be suggested to satisfy the company's goal and to address the resident's concerns ? (300 words) 20 14. Saraswati was a successful IT Professional in USA. Moved by the patriotic sense of doing something for the country she returned to India. Together with some other like-minded friends, she formed an NGO to build a school for a poor rural community. The objective of the school was to provide the best quality modern education at a nominal cost. She soon discovered that she has to seek permission from a number of Government agencies. The rules and procedures were quite confusing and cumbersome. What frustrated her most was the delays, callous attitude of officials and constant demand for bribes. Her experience and the experience of many others like her has deterred people from taking up social service projects. A measure of Government control over voluntary social work is necessary. But it should not be exercised in a coercive or corrupt manner. What measures can you suggest to ensure that due control is exercised but well meaning, honest NGO efforts are not thwarted ? (250 words) 25 ––––––––––– ––––––––––– 500 Main Examination : The Big Battle GENERAL STUDIES-4 2017

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are FOURTEEN questions divided into TWO SECTIONS. All the questions are compulsory. The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question- cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Keep the word limit indicated in the questions in mind. Any page or portion of the page left blank on the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION - A 1. Conflict of interest in the public sector arises when (a) official duties, (b) public interest, and (c) personal interest are taking priority one above the other. How can this conflict in administration be resolved? Describe with an example. (150 words) 10 2. Examine the relevance of the following in the context of civil service: (150 words)10 (a) Transparency (b) Accountability (c) Fairness and justice (d) Courage of conviction (e) Spirit of service 3. Young people with ethical conduct are not willing to come forward to join active politics. Suggest steps to motivate them to come forward. (150 words) 10 4. (a) One of the tests of integrity is complete refusal to be compromised. Explain with reference to a real life example. (150 words) 10 (b) Corporate social responsibility makes companies more profitable and sustainable. Analyse. (150 words) 10

501 civilz byte

5. (a) "Great ambition is the passion of a great character. Those endowed with it may perform very good or very bad acts. All depends on the principles which direct them." - Napoleon Bonaparte. Stating examples mention the rulers (i) who have harmed society and country, (ii) who worked for the development of society and country. (150 Words) 10 (b) "If a country is to be corruption free and become a nation of beautiful minds, I strongly feel there are three key societal members who can make a difference. They are the father, the mother and the teacher." - A. P. J. Abdul Kalam. Analyse. (150 words) 10 6. (a) How will you apply emotional intelligence in administrative practices? (b) Strength, peace and security are considered to be the pillars of international relations. Elucidate. (150 words) 10 7. (a) The crisis of ethical values in modern times is traced to a narrow perception of the good life. Discuss. (150 words) 10 (b) Increased national wealth did not result in equitable distribution of its benefits. It has created only some "enclaves of modernity and prosperity for a small minority at the cost of the majority." Justify. (150 words) 10 8. (a) Discipline generally implies following the order and subordination. However, it may be counter-productive for the organisation. Discuss. (150 words) 10 (b) Without commonly shared and widely entrenched moral values and obligations, neither the law, nor democratic government, nor even the market economy will function properly. What do you understand by this statement? Explain with illustration in the contemporary times. (150 Words) 10

SECTION - B 9. You are an honest and responsible civil servant. You often observe the following: (a) There is a general perception that adhering to ethical conduct one may face difficulties to oneself and cause problems for the family, whereas unfair practices may help to reach the career goals. (b) When the number of people adopting unfair means is large, a small minority having a penchant towards ethical means makes no difference. (c) Sticking to ethical means is detrimental to the larger developmental goals. (d) While one may not involve oneself in large unethical practices, but giving and accepting small gifts makes the system more efficient. Examine the above statements with their merits and demerits. (250 words) 20 10. You are aspiring to become an IAS officer and you have cleared various stages and now you have been selected for the personal interview. On the day of the interview, on the way to 502 Main Examination : The Big Battle

the venue you saw an accident where a mother and child who happen to be your relatives were badly injured. They needed immediate help. What would you have done in such a situation? Justify your action. (250 words) 20 11. You are the head of the Human Resources department of an organisation. One day one of the workers died on duty. His family was demanding compensation. However, the company denied compensation because it was revealed in investigation that he was drunk at the time of the accident. The workers of the company went on to strike demanding compensation for the family of the deceased. The Chairman of the management board has asked for your recommendation. What recommendation would you provide to the management? Discuss the merits and demerits of each of the recommendations. (250 Words) 20 12. You are the manager of a spare parts company A and you have to negotiate a deal with the manager of a large manufacturing company B. The deal is highly competitive and sealing the deal is critical for your company. The deal is being worked out over a dinner. After dinner the manager of manufacturing company B offered to drop you to the hotel in his car. On the way to hotel he happens to hit motorcycle injuring the motorcyclist badly. You know the manager was driving fast and thus lost control. The law enforcement officer comes to investigate the issue and you are the sole eyewitness to it. Knowing the strict laws pertaining to road accidents you are aware that your honest account of the incident would lead to the prosecution of the manager and as a consequence the deal is likely to be jeopardised, which is of immense importance to your company. What are the dilemmas you face? What will be your response to the situation? (250 Words) 20 13. A building permitted for three floors, while being extended illegally to 6 floors by a builder, collapses. As a consequence, a number of innocent labourers including women and children died. These labourers are migrants of different places. The government immediately announced cash relief to the aggrieved families and arrested the builder. Give reasons for such incidents taking place across the country. Suggest measures to prevent their occurrence. (250 Words) 20 14. You are a Public Information Officer (PIO) in a government department. You are aware that the RTI Act 2005 envisages transparency and accountability in administration. The act has functioned as a check on the supposedly arbitrarily administrative behaviour and actions. However, as a PIO you have observed that there are citizens who filed RTI applications not for themselves but on behalf of such stakeholders who purportedly want to have access to information to further their own interests. At the same time there are those RTI activists who routinely file RTI applications and attempt to extort money from the decision makers. This type of RTI activism has affected the functioning of the administration adversely and also possibly jeopardises the genuineness of the applications which are essentially aimed at getting justice. What measures would you suggest to separate genuine and non-genuine applications? Give merits and demerits of your suggestions. (250 Words) 20 503 CHAPTER civilz byte 60 Optional Key to Success in CSE

he Main examination comprises papers An analysis of the marks scored by the sev- on General Studies (GS Paper I to GS Pa- eral candidates, who have secured ranks in Tper IV), General essay, qualifying language the top 50, reveals that they have scored papers (English and other languages included in nearly 30 - 33 per cent only in the four gen- the schedule VIII of the Constitution) and an Op- eral studies papers, i.e., between 300 - 350 tional subject (two papers). out of 1000 marks.

The Optional is to be selected by the aspir- However, in their respective optional sub- ants from amongst the subjects notified by the ject, all of them have individually scored UPSC. The candidates have to appear in two more than 50 per cent (a score of 250+ out papers of that optional subject, each of 250 of 500 marks). It is also seen that the marks marks. secured in ‘the Optional’ is around 40 percent of the total marks scored in the Mains Thus, out of a total of 2025 marks in the examination, although the weightage of the offing in the Main examination, nearly 25 per Optional is only 28.5 per cent (500 out of cent (500 marks) are allocated to the optional 1750 marks). papers. Therefore, it is apparent that a sizeable The optional subject is the only area in this portion of the marks of the written exami- long winding selection process, where the nation is attributable to the score of the candidate has any choice to exercise. Un- Optional Papers. derstandingly, the choice ought to be exer- Thus, it is a safe conclusion to draw that cised most carefully and after due consid- while the General Studies are comparatively eration of several factors, viz., aptitude and less scoring, the Optional Papers are some- knowledge of the subject chosen and prior what buoying up the overall marks secured. familiarity with it. Evidently, one cannot hope to be in the race But the practical significance of the Optional in this examination if one doesn’t score well lies in the marks being scored by the suc- in the ‘Optional’ and that is not going to cessful candidates in it vis-à- vis the Gen- happen until one has a reasonable command eral Studies papers. over the subject that one opts for. 504 Main Examination : The Big Battle SUBJECTS PERMITTED GROUP II AS OPTIONAL Assamese Konkani Sanskrit Bengali Maithili Santhali In the Main Exam, candidates are permit- Bodo Malayalam Sindhi ted to choose one optional subject, from a list Dogri Manipuri Tamil of 48 subjects (including literatures of languages). The subjects permitted to be taken as Gujarathi Marathi Telugu per group I are given below... Hindi Nepali Urdu

GROUP I Kannada Oriya English • Agriculture • Management Kashmiri Punjab • Animal Husbandry • Mathematics Thus, there are plenty of options available to and Veterinary • Mechanical choose from. This makes the choice for the as- Science Engineering pirants quite wide, but at times more difficult • Anthropology • Medical Science and sometimes even confusing. • Botany • Physics • Chemistry • Philosophy HOW TO CHOOSE • Civil Engineering • Political Science AN OPTIONAL SUBJECT • Commerce and and International Accountancy Relations Don’t wait till your final year of the course to choose optional. Don’t even do it in your first • Economics • Psychology year Intermediate as you enter the Academy. Oth- • Electrical • Public erwise, there are numerous factors which have Engineering Administration to be considered by the aspirants, we believe, • Geography • Sociology before making this choice. These are as dis- • Geology • Statistics cussed below…. • History • Zoology Aptitude and Interest • Law In making the choice of an Optional, aptitude Apart from the 25 subjects listed above, the and interest in a subject should be the foremost candidates also have the option to select the criteria to be considered. In the run up to the literature of any of these following 23 languages Main Examination, you spend hundreds of hours listed in the group 2 below. However, there is no in the study of the optional subject. If requirement for the candidate to have been unfortunately, an aspirant takes two to three graduated in literature of that language as the attempts to qualify or to secure a good rank, main subject. then this time period may even extend to a 505 civilz byte thousand hours. In this preparation schedule of Then what can be the yard stick to measure almost epic proportions, can one sustain in the aptitude and interest or the suitability of a sub- race without a genuine interest in the core ject as an ‘Optional’. The answer lies in apply- subject? ing the ‘read and answer test’.

But, interest is not the sole pre – requisite If you intend to take a subject for which you consider to have aptitude as well as inter- for reaching the bench mark of earning 50 per est, then go through one or more of the recom- cent of the marks in the Optional. One must have mended books for that Optional for a week or aptitude for the subject too. Aptitude here would ten days. May be, you should have already framed imply ability to understand the subject, to re- a fair idea about the subjects while listening to member what all is needed for the examination lectures. Now, try attempting the past years’ and to write that in the short span of three hours. questions pertaining to the topic you have read. Here, aptitude refers to the basic abilities If you do not find the subject interesting enough of conceptual clarity, committing information to to capture your attention even for a week, or memory and written expression skills, vis-à-vis after that, you are clueless about the answers to the subject chosen. Different subjects would the questions appearing in the examination, then require these abilities in varying degrees. While may be, that is not the apt subject to opt for. for the subjects of science, engineering and medicine, conceptual clarity is of essence, for Prior Knowledge of the Subject various literature subjects, command over lan- Prior knowledge of the subject implies that guage and proficiency in writing are of para- you have read the subject at the graduation or mount importance. As such, every aspirant must post – graduation level and you have sufficient understand what his strength or aptitude is and familiarity with the most of the topics included make a choice accordingly. in the syllabus. While choosing an optional, pref- Further, aptitude and interest should not be erence should be given to such a subject. constructed to be one and the same thing. A per- You would not only be familiar with the nu- son may have an interest in Economics, but he merous topics included, but have a responsible may not have the command over the subject, command over them. Besides and most impor- which is a prerequisite to score marks. At times, tantly, you would be aware of what is to be stud- such interest may be limited only to a specific ied and from where. topic or a particular portion of the subject. For instance, some students believe that reading Vast Syllabus Vs. Compact Syllabus Psychology would be very interesting. But they Thus, vastness of a subject in itself should may or may not have the aptitude to understand not be the sole reason for rejecting it as an Op- the concepts of the subject. Thus, appeal or in- tional. Look for alternatives first, specifically stantaneous fascination should not be confused whether you have the necessary aptitude and as a genuine interest for a subject. genuine interest in the subject you contemplate 506 Main Examination : The Big Battle to choose. Apply the ‘read and answer’ test as and effort in preparation of a part of the Gen- mentioned earlier. eral Studies papers. But again this in itself should not be the sole or even primary criteria for choos- Also discuss with those who have opted in ing an Optional. the CSE for the subject you propose to. After all these considerations, you can arrive at a fair The General Studies papers call for inputs conclusion as to which optional would suit you from a variety of subjects. Even the study of best. If you are instantly not ready with it and engineering, science and medicine has utility weak in certain areas, make extra effort and from the perspective of the General Studies Pa- you can gain enough confidence. per. Although History, Public Administration and Geography have a greater overlap, nevertheless Scoring Vs. Non Scoring Optional this overlap is only a fringe benefit. It is said that the tail cannot wag the dog. Some students opt for a particular subject perceiving it to be ‘scoring’, while some reject Similarly, this spin off advantage should not a subject they are familiar with as, ‘they have become the principal reason influencing your heard’ the Optional not be a scoring one. Such choice of the Optional. However, for instance, if perceptions and hearsay, at best are only partly one is equally pre-disposed between choosing correct. Public Administration & Economics as an Optional and other input factors like interest, Some subjects may have a ‘good run’ for a aptitude and knowledge score equally in favour few years in terms of the number of successful of both the choices, then the ‘overlap factor’ candidates and marks scored by them. But such can clinch the issue in favour of ‘Public good runs are never perpetual. Further, our own Administration’. perception about a subject being scoring or not scoring is often based on limited feedbacks from Best Choice of an Optional a few whom we happen to know and not on the basis of a comprehensive analysis. As such, per- Deciding what is the best choice of an Op- ceptions as above should not become a substan- tional for you, is never a straight forward ques- tive for selecting an Optional. tion. But here are a few simple rules which can Nevertheless, it is the interest, aptitude and help you to decide what the best is for you… prior knowledge of a subject that should be the A subject from your graduation study i.e., most important considerations in making the History or Public Administration or Geogra- choice of an optional. phy usually be considered as your first choice for an ‘optional subject’. Prior knowledge, Subject Overlap with General Studies years of study and awareness of where to find what, should make it ordinarily the ob- Some subjects like History, Public Adminis- vious choice. tration, Geography have a sizeable overlap of syllabus with the General Studies Mains papers. If you think of another subject, after due Indeed, study of a subject can save some time and careful consideration, then as advised 507 civilz byte

earlier, go through the subject for a week optional, go through the syllabus and mark or ten days and try answering the past years’ out the various topics and sub-topics in the questions. Discuss with your teachers, se- books you propose to cover from. niors or persons who can guide you before Have one good book as your main study settling for the new subject. material on a particular topic. Go through Interest and aptitude in a subject are the it and revise repeatedly. Other books and primary factors which should determine the reference material should supplement the choice of an Optional. Prior knowledge of a main study material. subject is the next important factor. Vast- Choosing the correct set of books is crucial ness/compactness of syllabus, its overlap for success. Go through the most recom- with the General Studies syllabus, past mended list of books before deciding about trends etc., are tertiary considerations or the books to opt for. fringe factors. Prepare a broad schedule of study. Cover QUICK TIPS & SHORT those topics parallelly with the lectures. Grade the topics in order of importance from RECOMMENDATIONS the perspective of examination. Study/devote time in accordance to it. Before you zero in on a subject as an optional, apply the ‘read and answer test.’ Go Conceptual understanding is of utmost im- through one or more of the recommended portance at every stage of the preparation. books for the optional for a week or ten days. Recapitulate, remember and revise what you After that, try attempting the past years have read. questions pertaining to the topics you have Mark out what are important portions in the read. Assess whether you could sustain read- books you have read. Be in the habit of ing the subject with interest and how com- making good notes. fortable you were in answering the questions. If you do not find the subject inter- Preparing notes on topics studied is essen- esting enough to capture your attention even tial to succeed in the examination. And not- for a week or you were clueless about the ing summaries is a must for revision on the answers to the past questions then under- eve of the examination. stand that this is not the apt subject for Practice writing answers. Being in the habit you to opt for. of writing is an important ingredient of suc- Before embarking on the preparation of the cess in the area of Optional.

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508 CHAPTER Main Examination : The Big Battle 61 Public Admin as Optional

o Amount of training will be sufficient and cope up with different societal problems. for an administrator to be successful as Administrators, present as well as future, re- Nan administrator unless he learns some- quire the help of Public Administration because thing about administration before he joins in “Administrators are Educators, Providers, Pro- the service, opined the famous scholar L. D. tectors, Regulators & Facilitators.” Administra- White, author of the first book of Public Admin- tors are social Scientists in action. istration, ‘An Introduction to the study of Public Good Governance requires efficient and ef- Administration.’ The observation of White is uni- fective administrators. To be effective in as- versally valid. sisting the policy making as well as implementa- Chairman of the second Administrative Re- tion, administrators should possess the knowl- forms Commission, constituted by the Govern- edge of Public Administration. ment of India, Shri Veerappa Moily said that ‘Na- Civil Services Examination is an examina- tional Institute of Public Administration (NIPA) tion in communication which we mean to say should be established to run a degree programme both written and verbal. Since Mains Examina- in Governance to train the future Civil Servants.’ tion is written, aspirants require good writing These two statements highlight the impor- skills. Abilities like limited reading, intensive lis- tance of Public Administration as a discipline or tening and extensive writing are to be honed field of study. In fact, all the students irrespec- which would ultimately bear the fruit of success tive of their academic and professional back- in this tough and tricky Exam. ground require the instruction and theoretical Aspirants preparing for the Civil Services knowledge of Public Administration. Theoretical Exam with Public Administration Optional will knowledge refines practice and practical experi- have the following benefits. ence boosts the theoretical knowledge. Knowl- 1. Less stress on memorizing because it is edge is the fruit of action and action is the ac- primarily more analysis oriented and less complishment of knowledge. factual. Public Administration is an applied discipline 2. Limited Syllabus. and its scope keeps on changing. The knowledge 3. Comprehensive and holistic preparation of of Public Administration enables us to understand both the papers of Public Administration 509 civilz byte

Optional by itself can cover the preparation content, process and contemporary; Theories of of polity section in prelims and papers in Leadership: Traditional and Modern. mains like Indian Polity and Governance, Eth- 4. Organisations ics, General Essay which can be worth 1250 marks. Theories – systems, contingency; Structure and forms: Ministries and Departments, Corpo- 4. Performance and the scoring in Personality rations, Companies, Boards and Commissions; Test (Interview) will be highly rewarding and Ad hoc and advisory bodies; Headquarters and qualitatively different from other aspirants. Field relationships; Regulatory Authorities; Pub- 5. As said, the key is to study limited books lic - Private Partnerships. intensively. 5. Accountability and control: SYLLABUS Concepts of accountability and control PAPER – I Legislative, Executive and Judicial control Administrative Theory over administration; Citizen and Administration; Role of media, interest groups, voluntary orga- 1. Introduction nizations ; Civil society; Citizen’s Charters; Right to Information; Social audit. Meaning, scope and significance of Public Administration; Wilson’s vision of Public Admin- 6. Administrative Law istration; Evolution of the discipline and its Meaning, scope and significance; Dicey on present status; New Public Administration; Pub- Administrative law; Delegated legislation; Ad- lic Choice approach; Challenges of liberalization, ministrative Tribunals. Privatisation, Globalisation; Good Governance: concept and application; New Public Manage- 7. Comparative Public Administration ment. Historical and sociological factors affecting 2. Administrative Thought administrative systems; Administration and poli- Scientific Management and Scientific Man- tics in different countries; Current status of agement movement; Classical Theory; Weber’s Comparative Public Administration; Ecology and bureaucratic model – its critique and post - administration; Riggsian models and their cri- Weberian Developments; Dynamic Administra- tique. tion (Mary Parker Follett); Human Relations 8. Development Dynamics School (Elton Mayo and others); Functions of the Executive (C.I. Barnard); Simon’s decision-mak- Concept of development; Changing profile ing theory; Participative Management (R. Likert, of development administration; ‘Anti develop- C. Argyris, D. McGregor). ment thesis’; Bureaucracy and development; 3. Administrative Behaviour Strong state versus the market debate; Impact of liberalisation on administration in developing Process and techniques of decision-making; countries; Women and development - the self- Communication; Morale; Motivation Theories – help group movement. 510 Main Examination : The Big Battle

9. Personnel Administration ministration - Indianization of public services, revenue administration, district administration, Importance of human resource development; local self-government. Recruitment, training, career advancement, position classification, discipline, performance 2. Philosophical and Constitutional appraisal, promotion, pay and service conditions; framework of government : employer-employee relations, grievance redressal mechanism; Code of conduct; Administrative Salient features and value premises; Con- ethics. stitutionalism; Political culture; Bureaucracy and 10. Public Policy democracy; Bureaucracy and development.

Models of policy-making and their critique; 3. Public Sector Undertakings

Processes of conceptualisation, planning, imple- Public sector in modern India; Forms of Pub- mentation, monitoring, evaluation and review lic Sector Undertakings; Problems of autonomy, and their limitations; State theories and public accountability and control; Impact of liberaliza- policy formulation. tion and privatization. 11. Techniques of Administrative Improvement 4. Union Government and Administration: Organisation and methods, Work study and work management; e-governance and informa- Executive, Parliament, Judiciary - structure, tion technology; Management aid tools like net- functions, work processes; Recent trends; work analysis, MIS, PERT, CPM. Intragovernmental relations; Cabinet Secre- 12. Financial Administration tariat; Prime Minister’s Office; Central Secre- tariat; Ministries and Departments; Boards; Com- Monetary and fiscal policies; Public borrow- missions; Attached offices; Field organizations. ings and public debt Budgets - types and forms; Budgetary process; Financial accountability; Ac- 5. Plans and Priorities counts and audit. Machinery of planning; Role, composition PAPER – II and functions of the Planning Commission and Indian Administration the National Development Council; ‘Indicative’ planning; Process of plan formulation at Union 1. Evolution of Indian Administration and State levels; Constitutional Amendments Kautilya’s Arthashastra; Mughal administra- (1992) and decentralized planning for economic tion; Legacy of British rule in politics and ad- development and social justice. 511 civilz byte

6. State Government and human resource development; Problems of and Administration : implementation. Union-State administrative, legislative and 11. Rural Development financial relations; Role of the Finance Commis- sion; Governor; Chief Minister; Council of Min- Institutions and agencies since indepen- isters; Chief Secretary; State Secretariat; Di- dence; Rural development programmes: foci and rectorates. strategies; Decentralization and Panchayati Raj; 7. District Administration 73rd Constitutional amendment. since Independence 12. Urban Local Government Changing role of the Collector; Union state- Municipal governance: main features, struc- local relations; Imperatives of development management and law and order administration; Dis- tures, finance and problem areas; 74th Consti- trict administration and democratic decentrali- tutional Amendment; Global local debate; New zation. localism; Development dynamics, politics and 8. Civil Services administration with special reference to city management. Constitutional position; Structure, recruitment, training and capacity-building; Good gov- 13. Law and Order Administration ernance initiatives; Code of conduct and disci- British legacy; National Police Commission; pline; Staff associations; Political rights; Griev- Investigative agencies; Role of central and state ance redressal mechanism; Civil service neutrality; Civil service activism. agencies including paramilitary forces in maintenance of law and order and countering insur- 9. Financial Management gency and terrorism; Criminalisation of politics Budget as a political instrument; Parliamen- and administration; Police-public relations; Re- tary control of public expenditure; Role of finance forms in Police. ministry in monetary and fiscal area; Account- ing techniques; Audit; Role of Controller General 14. Significant issues in Indian of Accounts and Comptroller and Auditor Gen- Administration eral of India. Values in public service; Regulatory Commis- 10. Administrative Reforms sions; National Human Rights Commission; Prob- since Independence lems of administration in coalition regimes; Citi- Major concerns; Important Committees and zen-administration interface; Corruption and Commissions; Reforms in financial management administration; Disaster management.

512 Main Examination : The Big Battle STRUCTURE & STRATEGY PAPER – II Paper II, with Indian Administration as its The optional of Public Administration has subject matter, consists of 14 Chapters. This two papers. paper is contextual and analytical. Studying “In- 1. Paper–I - Administrative Theory - 250 Marks dian Administration” by Fadia & Fadia is ben- 2. Paper – II - Indian Administration - 250 Marks efitting. In addition to this, the summaries of different Reforms’ Committees like I ARC, II ARC, Sarkaria, P. C. Hota etc. have to be studied. PAPER – I

Paper I, with Administrative Theory as its SOURCES OF STUDY theme, consists of 12 chapters. This paper is Conceptual and textual. Beginners should first Paper – I (Administrative Theory) read the book “Public Administration” by Fadia 1. ‘Public Administration – Theory and Practice’ & Fadia followed by “Administrative Thinkers” by M.P. Sharma, B.L.Sadana & Harpreet by Ravindra Prasad et al. Then the next book, to Kaur (OR) be diligently read, is “Public Administration – New 2. ‘Public Administration’ by Fadia & Fadia Horizons” by Mohit Bhattacharya. This consti- (OR) tutes the basic preparation. To focus on few chap- 3. ‘Public Administration’ by Avasthi & ters, the following books can be perused… Maheshwari (AND) 1. Comparitive Public Administration 4. ‘New Horizons of Public Administration’ by a. “Comparitive Public Administration” by Mohit Bhattacharya Ferrel Heady 5. ‘Social Theory and Development Adminis- 2. Development Administration tration’ by Mohit Bhattacharya a. “Social Theory Development Adminis- 6. ‘Administrative Thinkers’ by Ravindra tration” by Mohit Bhattacharya Prasad, V.S. Prasad, P. Satyanarayana, Y. 3. Personnel Administration Pardhasaradhi a. “Public Personnel Administration” by S. 7. ‘Public Policy: Formulation, Implementation C. Goel & Evaluation’ by R. K. Sapru b. “Public Personnel Administration” by N. 8. ‘Public Financial Administration’ by M.J.K. Joseph Cayer Thavaraj 4. Public Policy 9. ‘Understanding Public Policy’ by Thomas a. “Public Policy” by R. K. Sapru R.Dye 5. Financial Administration 10. ‘Organizational Behaviour’ by Fred Luthans a. “Public Financial Administration” by 11. “Public Personnel Administration – Theory M.J.K. Thavaraj & Practice” by S. C. Goel 513 civilz byte

Paper – II (Indian Administration) new policy initiatives. The relevant recommendations from the reports of 2nd Administrative 12. ‘Indian Administration’ by Prof. B.L.Fadia Reforms Commission (II ARC) and other impor- & Dr. Kuldeep Fadia tant committees like Punchhi Commission form 13. ‘Indian Public Administration’ by Ramesh K. a good source for the study. So, ensure that at Arora & Rajni Goyal least their summaries are read. 14. ‘Introduction to Indian Constitution’ by There is a misconception that Public Admin- D.D.Basu istration is not scoring all the time. Neverthe- Apart from these books, aspirants are also less, it all really depends on the kind of instruc- advised to regularly read The Hindu, tion received and methodology of the prepara- Kurukshetra, Yojana and Indian Journal of Public tion. Students who have got good writing skills Administration (IJPA) – Quarterly. This will help will have an added advantage. A good result can you to get to know about current happenings and be accomplished with holistic preparation.

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514 CHAPTER Main Examination : The Big Battle 62 Treasure Trove: Public Administration Question Papers PUBLIC ADMIN. PAPER-1 2013

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are EIGHT questions divided in two SECTIONS. Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all. Questions no. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE from each section. The number of marks carried by a question / part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question- cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions if specified should be adhered to. Attempts of questions shall be counted in chronological order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Answer Book must be clearly struck off.

SECTION - A 1. Answer the following questions in not more than 150 words each. 10 x 5 = 50 (a) How did the traditional public administration "resolve the fundamentally irresolvable problem- creating an administration strong enough to be effective but not so strong enough to endanger accountability?" 10 515 civilz byte

(b) The theory of 'organizational incompetence' has two separate and distinct faces. Examine Chris Argyris' views on this. 10 (c) "In the globalized public administration, hierarchy creates more ethical problems than it solves..." Comment. 10 (d) Public Administration in the neo-liberal era is governed less by the instruments of accountability and more by those of external accountability. Elaborate. 10 (e) Discuss the views that "tribunals should have the same degree of independence from the executive as that enjoyed by the Supreme Court and High Courts, especially for those tribunals that look over the functions of High Courts." 10

2. (a) "New Public Management may have neither been the savior its enthusiasts promised nor the devil its critics worried it would be." Discuss. 25 (b) "The design of the physical structure, the anatomy of the organization came first, and was indeed the principal consideration." "An organization is a system of interrelated social behaviours of participants." Analyse these statements and evaluate the contributions of the respective approaches to administration theory. 25

3. (a) "Decisions are not made by 'organizations', but by 'human beings' behaving as the members of organizations." How do Bernard and Simon conceptualize the relation between decision of the individual employee and the organizational authority? 20 (b) "A variety of different organizational arrangements can be used to provide different public goods and services." Explain the theory underlying this proposition and its potential contribution. 15 (c) What is the nature of psychological contract pursued by organizational management through authority and the employees through exertion of upward influence? 15

4. (a) Structural theory is, by and large, grounded in classical principles of efficiency, effectiveness and productivity. Explain. 25 (b) "Public interest is still inadequate as a ground concept to evaluate public policy." Discuss. 25

SECTION B

5. Answer the following questions in not more than 150 words each. 10 x 5 = 50 (a) "Comparative Public Administration both resembles and differs from modern organization theory." Elaborate. 10 (b) "In organizational analysis, there is always gender around." (Gouldner). Argue.10 516 Main Examination : The Big Battle

(c) What is Administrative elitism? How does it evolve in Public Administration? Elabo- rate your response with reference to historical examples. 10 (d) The success of e-government projects in most developing countries s is stated to be rather low. Assess the reason. 10 (e) What new models of budgetary capacity and incapacity have emerged after the decline of Planning Programming Budgeting and Zero-based Budgeting? 10 6. (a) "For those who use the euphemism of 'shared power' for participation, the appropriate literature for guidance is practical politics, and not organization and Manage- ment." "Stronger state and strong civil society are the need to develop both participatory democracy and responsive government as mutually reinforcing and supportive." Bring out the myths and realities associated with public participation. 20 (b) "…in most cases…newly independent states, of the nations of Africa, Asia and Latin America, despite their differences…are in transition." (Ferrel Heady). What common features are indicative of characteristics of their Administrative patterns (cultures)? 15 (c) "To talk about the regulatory framework is to talk about governance." Analyse the statement in the context of public-private partnerships and identify the elements of regulation. 15 7. (a) "Economic reforms are a work in progress, with the state reluctant to fully relinquish its reins. Discussion the statement with regard to implementation of economic reforms in India. 15 (b) "The policy process was not structured in the way required by bureaucratic planning." "Arguably, incrementalism now stands most in contrast to neo-liberal nationality that impose markets against both gradual change and democratic liberalism." Analyse these two statements. 20 (c) Budget allocation involves series of tensions between actors with different backgrounds, orientations and interests and between short-term goals and long-term institutional requirements. Discuss. 15 8. (a) Read the following instances carefully and suggest, what specific perspectives on organizational psychology of motivation would help the concerned organization to reconcile the needs of the following four persons with the needs of organization : I. Mr. A comes to his office with clocklike punctuality; does his work with impec- cable honesty and integrity; takes orders from above gladly; responds well to overtures by peers; but neither mixes with anyone himself nor seeks anyone's company. what is more, he seems quite happy in his isolation. 517 civilz byte

II. Mr. B is an efficient charge-hand at the welding shop. He is very outgoing and makes friends fast, but falls out with them very fast too. He is, however, easily pacified when anyone asks him to calm down in the name of the organization. III. Dr. C is completely happy and absorbed when he is teaching in the classes, and doesn't at all mind when his workload gets heavier and covers new areas. But he gets angry when the finance section raises objections about his medical bills; and is furious that the higher administration is yet to give him full tenure. IV. Mr. D is a metallurgist in the forge shop of the steel plant, and has received honours for his innovativeness in modifying conventional alloys. He also paints well and values his painting skills far more than his metallurgy and is extremely unhappy that the company house journal did not finally carry his water sketch on its front cover. (b) Suppose the government of India is thinking of constructing a dam in a mountain valley girded by forests and inhibited by ethnic communities. What rational techniques of policy analysis should it resort to for coping with likely uncertainties and unforeseen contingencies? 20

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518 Main Examination : The Big Battle PUBLIC ADMIN. PAPER-1 2014

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are EIGHT questions divided in two SECTIONS. Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all. Questions Nos. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE from each section. The number of marks carried by a question / part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question- cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions if specified should be adhered to. Attempts of questions shall be counted in chronological order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Answer Book must be clearly struck off.

SECTION - A 1. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each. 10 x 5 = 50 (a) What are the implications of the post-structuralist perspective on the discrete aspects of Public Administration, coming from its epistemological positions? (b) "Adaptive, problem-solving, temporary systems of diverse specialists, linked together by coordinating executives in an organic flux - this is original form that will gradually replace bureaucracy". Discuss, in the light of this statement, the 'end of bureaucracy' thesis and its strengths and limitations. (c) "Karl Marx's interpretation of bureaucracy was rooted in the history of the nature of the State." Evaluate. (d) "The conceptual division between administrative and constitutional law is quite porous, and that along many dimensions, administrative law can be considered more constitutional in character than the constitutions." How would you justify the statement? 519 civilz byte

(e) Is Peter Drucker justified in saying, "Management principles should not tell us what to do, but only tell us what not to do."? Comment. 2. (a) "Governance theory and the notion of governmentality have many points of convergence, but they run on parallel lines." Comment. 20 (b) "Taylor's ideas need modification in the context of post-industrial economies in contemporary era." Justify with reasons. 20 (c) How does the Strategic Contingencies Theory of organizational design deal with problems arising from sub-unit centrality and non-substitutability? 15 3. (a) According to Macgregor, "True professional help is not in playing God with the client, but in placing professional knowledge and skill at the client's disposal." In the light of the above, justify how theory-Y is indicative and not prescriptive. 20 (b) "The notion of informal organization is a residual or cafeteria concept of diverse and sprawling contents." How does Gouldner establish the need for understanding the interdigitations between the 'formal' and 'informal' organization. 15 (c) "The Right to Information is not all about citizens' empowerment, it essentially rede- fines the concept of accountability." Discuss. 15 4. (a) "New Public Management and post - new public management reforms, initiatives ever affected the balance between managerial, political, administrative, legal, professional and social accountability." Analyze. 20 (b) "Delegation to independent agencies has taken place in an interdependent process driven by emulation." Discuss in the context of independent regulatory agencies in the modern regulatory state. 15 (c) "Voluntary organizations have become tools of sensitization of governmental agencies." Comment. 15

SECTION B

5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each. 10 x 5 = 50 (a) Critically examine the Riggsian concept of differentiation in context of post-globalization era. (b) "The term Development Administration can be used only in a broad sense to mark the variety of approaches and points of view." Discuss. (c) "The bottom line for governance outcomes rather than the outputs of government." Analyse in context of e-government and e-governance. (d) "Policies determine politics as governments constrain." Attempt a critique of this statement. 520 Main Examination : The Big Battle

(e) "Instead of reforms to budgetary process, Wildavsky proposes to redefine the role of political institutions and rules by which politics leads to agreement on budget." Ex- plain.

6. (a) "The fact that we call something performance auditing means that we imply salient features which can distinguish it from other forms of enquiry. Discuss with reference to the main majors or indicators of performance measurement. 20 (b) "The Output Studies Approach to public policy analysis overstresses the rational techniques and allocative dimension of public policy." Analyse the statement. 15 (c) "The field of MIS is not necessarily an extension of computer science, but of management and organization theory." Elucidate. 15

7. (a) "The technical and multidisciplinary nature of e-governance has created an interdependent relationship within government between policymakers, program administrators and technical specialists." Analyse in the context of generalist - specialist relationship. 20 (b) "Self-help groups have not only empowered women, but have also brought about attitudinal change among all stakeholders towards women development." Discuss.15 (c) "Many Asian and African countries have inherited the colonial idea of civil service as a privileged elite. Hence, the social status of the civil services is an important aspect of the bureaucracy's unsuitability for change." Comment. 15

8. (a) Identify the main elements of Program Budgeting, Output Budgeting and 'New' Perfor- mance Budgeting. What do they have in common with PPBS? 20 (b) According to Y. Dror, "The Science of muddling through is essentially a reinforcement of pro-inertia and anti-innovation ideas in policy-making." Comment. 15 (c) "British philosophy of administration is based on a unification of science of Adminis- tration with ethics." Analyze. 15

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521 civilz byte PUBLIC ADMIN. PAPER-1 2015

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are EIGHT questions divided in TWO SECTIONS. Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all. Questions no. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE from each section. The number of marks carried by a question / part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question- cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions if specified should be adhered to. Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Answer Book must be clearly struck off.

SECTION - A 1. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each: 10 x 5 = 50 (a) Waldo's 'The Administrative State' provides a fundamental challenge to some of the orthodox premises. Explain. (b) Discuss how the Public Choice Theory promotes the concept of 'Steering' and undermines the concept of 'Rowing' in visualising efficient and effective administration. (c) "Delegated Legislation is a necessary evil." Comment. (d) Do you agree with the view that the charismatic approach of the mid-1970s is a "new version" of the Classical Trait Theory of Leadership? Give reasons. (e) "The term policy implementation is in some respects preferable to the label public administration." Argue. 2. (a) "Globalisation has transformed the nature and character of State from traditional administrative Welfare State to a Corporate State." Analyse the changes in the nature of public administration in this context. 20 522 Main Examination : The Big Battle

(b) "Contemporary Organisational theory seems further afield of Chester Barnard's Func- tions of the Executive than of organisational ecology." Examine the statement in the light of ecological elements in Barnard's thought. 15 (c) "PPPs serve too many parties and too many interests … to be focussed." Identify in the context of the statement, the parties involved in Public-Private Partnerships and their conflicting aims. 15 3. (a) "Follett's work was not directed towards the resolution of the conflict of ideas, but towards the resolution of structural conflicts between workers and capitalists." In the light of the statement critically evaluate Follett's idea of dynamic administration. 20 (b) "Information constitutes the life-blood of the functioning of an organisation." Explain the utility and significance of communication in decision-making. 15 (c) "Legislative action is not subject to the rules of natural justice." Explain the exceptions to the rule of natural justice. 15 4. (a) "Right from the days of the 'Peoples' Charter' to the new concept of `Precariat Charter', the concept of Citizen's Charter and its scope is constantly evolving." Comment. 20 (b) "Weberian model of bureaucracy lacks emotional validity when applied to modern democratic administration." Comment. 15 (c) How far do you agree with the view that the growing influence of media comes in the way of agenda-setting by the Government? 15

SECTION B 5. Answer the following questions in abouts 150 words each : 10 x 5 = 50 (a) "Comparative Performance Measurement (CPM) bridges everyday work experience with the broader horizons of comparativism." Explain. (b) Analyse the relevance of Whitleyism in contemporary employer - employee relationship. (c) "No significant change can be made in the budgetary process without affecting the political process." (Wildavsky). Analyse. (d) "In the appreciative systems of policy makers, goals are subsidiary to norms and values." (Vickers). Explain. (e) Show in what way the Gender and Development approach differs from the Woman and Development approach. 6. (a) "Administrative ethics is a process of independently critiquing decision standards, based on core social values that can be discovered, within reasonable organisational boundaries that can be defined, subject to the personal and professional accountability." (Denhardt). Explain. 20 523 civilz byte

(b) "Lenin's concept of Socialist management refers to directing the organisational development of Socialist society." Explain. 15 (c) "Policy analysis is incomplete without taking into account policy delivery." Argue. 15 7. (a) How does Ferrel Heady rationalize the three stages of development in comparative administration? 20 (b) Distinguish between 'Codes of Conduct' and 'Codes of Ethics'. Justify your answer. 15 (c) "E-Governance creates a direct relationship between the Citizen and the State." In this context, explain the changing role of the elected representatives. 15 8. (a) "The concept of political feasibility in policy alternative is a probabilistic concept and is related to each policy alternative." In the context of the above statement analyse Dror's contribution. 20 (b) "The position-classification attempts to establish a triangular relationship between duties and responsibilities, working conditions and qualification requirements." Elu- cidate. 15 (c) "MIS, PERT and CPM have accelerated the process of reinventing 0 & M." In the context of the above statement, explain the recent developments in managerial techniques. 15

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524 Main Examination : The Big Battle PUBLIC ADMIN. PAPER-1 2016

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are EIGHT questions divided in two sections. Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all. Questions Nos. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE from each section. The number of marks carried by a question / part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question- cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions if specified should be adhered to. Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Answer Book must be clearly struck off.

SECTION - A 1. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each: 10 x 5 = 50 (a) "Taylorism is considered very controversial despite its popularity."(Stephen P. Waring) Comment. (b) "Public Administration is the translation of politics into reality that citizens see everyday."(Donald F. Kettl and James W. Fesler) Explain. (c) "Morale can drive an organisation forward or can lead to employees' discontent, poor job performanance and absenteeism." Examine. (d) "The autonomy of Public Corporations raised a great debate about their internal working and external relation with the Ministers and the Parliament." Discuss. (e) "In spite of certain advantages, Social Audit arrangements have mostly been ineffective because there is no legal provision for punitive action." Comment. 2. (a) Douglas McGregor's Theory X and Theory Y describe two contrasting models of workforce motivation applied by managers in an organization." Examine. 20 525 civilz byte

(b) "The New Public Administration has seriously jolted the traditional concepts and outlook of the discipline and enriched the subject by imparting wider perspective by linking it closely to the society." (Felix A. Nigro and Lloyd G. Nigro) Elucidate. 15 (c) "The central concern of Administrative Law has been the legal limitation of administrative discretion." Give reason. 15

3. (a) "If the Regulatory Commissions.... are wholly independent, they are completely irre- sponsible for the doing of very important policy determining and administrative work... on the other hand, the rob the commissions of their independence is seriously to menace the impartial performance of their judicial work." (Cushman) Examine. 20 (b) "Good governance is ensuring respect for human rights and the rule of law, strengthening democracy, promoting transparency and capacity in Public Administration." (Kofy Annan) In the light of the statement, critically examine the criteria of good governance as provided by United Nations and Nayef Al-Rodhan. 15 (c) "The legislative control over administration is not as effective as it ought to be". Comment. 15

4. (a) "Blake and Mouton define leadership styles based two dimensions - concern for people and concern for production." In the light of the statement, discuss the Managerial Grid Model. Explain with reason which one of the styles is the best. 20 (b) "Burcau-Shaping Model has been developed as a response to the Budget-Maximizing Model." Comment. 15 (c) "Civil society performs a key role in defending people against the State and market and in asserting the democratic will to influence the State." Analyze the statement with suitable examples. 15

SECTION B 5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : 10 x 5 = 50 (a) "Training is considered as paid holidays." Comment. (b) "Public borrowing produces different effects on the economy." Examine. (c) "Self-Help Groups are considered one of the most significant tools to adopt participatory approach for economic empowerment of women." Comment. (d) "Riggs observed that three 'trends' could be discerned in the Comparitive study of Public Administration." Discuss. (e) "In Public Policy Making, 'Rationalism' is the opposite of 'Incrementalism'." Examine. 526 Main Examination : The Big Battle

6. (a) "Fred Riggs continuously changed his theory in order to create the perfect model." Comment. 20 (b) "The idea of development stands like a ruin in the intellectual landscape" and "it is time to dismantle this mental structure." (Wolfgang Sachs) In the light of the statement, critically examine anti-development thesis. 15 (c) "Information Technology brings efficiency and transparency to Public Administration." Examine the statement with suitable examples. 15 7. (a) "Fiscal policy and monetary policy are the two tools used by the State to achieve its macroeconomic objectives." Examine the statement and point out the difference between the tools. 20 (b) "A Central reason for utilization of Performance Appraisal is performance improvement of the employees." In the light of the statement, analyze the needs of performance Appraisal in an organisation. 15 (c) "The problem is to achieve the right balance between a competitive market economy and an effective State: markets where possible; the State where necessary". Justify your answer. 15 8. (a) "The key to understanding performance-based budgeting lies beneath the word 'result'." In the light of the statement, examine the elements of performance-based budgeting. 20 (b) "Disciplinary actions may be informal and formal." Explain and point out the provisions made in the Constitution or Statute to check the misuse of power to take disciplinary action. 15 (c) "The term 'work study' may be used in narrower and wider senses." Elucidate. 15

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527 civilz byte PUBLIC ADMIN. PAPER-1 2017

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are EIGHT questions divided in two sections. Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all. Questions Nos. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE from each section. The number of marks carried by a question / part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question- cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to. Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question- cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION - A 1. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each: 10 x 5 = 50 (a) "Even after 130 years of its publication, Woodrow Wilson's essay 'The Study of Admin- istration' continues to have great relevance even today." Comment. 10 (b) "What is distinctive about the Classical and Human Relations Schools of administration is their complementarity to each other." Analyse. 10 (c) "Conflict is the appearance of differences - differences of opinions and of interests."(Mary Parker Follet). Comment. 10 (d) "Leaders do the right things; managers do them rightly" - (Warren Bennis). Is this distinction by him valid? Explain. 10 (e) "Administrative Law is recognized by its substance rather than its form." Discuss. 10 2. (a) New Public Management has been branded by certain scholars as 'Neo-Taylorism.' Is it a justified comparison? What factors have led to the decline of NPM so soon after its birth? 20 528 Main Examination : The Big Battle

(b) "Abraham Maslow's 'Hierarchy of Needs' and Frederick Herzberg's "Two Factor Theory" have commonalities in the analysis of human motivation." Comment. 15 (c) Civil Society supplements and complements the State. However, its capacity and role depend upon the will of the State. Comment. 15

3. (a) The Participative Management School of Argyris and Likert advocates democracy within the administrative system. Will this approach be equally useful to developing countries with evolving democracies ? 20 (b) "Executive positions imply a complex morality and require a high capacity of responsibility" - (Chester Bernard). Comment. 15 (c) When the media is controlled by vested interests, how can it control the vested interests in the government? How can the media become more responsible and impartial ? 15

4. (a) "With every major transformation in the applied world of Public Administration , the study of Public Administration has grown in scope and intensity." Discuss the relationship between the evolution of the discipline and profession of Public Administration. 20 (b) "Systems Theory in essence is not a theory, but an approach to the study of administrative phenomena." Comment. 15 (c) The principle of delegated legislation, is I think right, but I must emphasise that it is well for Parliament to keep a watchful and even zealous eye on it at all stages" - (Herbert Morrison). Analyse. 15

SECTION B 5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : 10 x 5 = 50 (a) "Budgeting is a political process" - (Aaron Wildavsky). 10 (b) "Development Administration and Administrative Development have a chicken and egg kind of relationship"- (Riggs). Elaborate. 10 (c) "Digitalization provides great impetus to E-governance." Discuss. 10 (d) "360 degree performance appraisal system is a rational idea, but it involves complex and inauthentic procedures." How can it be made foolproof? 10 (e) "A large public debt forces the adoption of tax and spending policies that result into higher taxes and reduced services." Analyze. 10

6. (a) "Liberalization, Privatization and Globalization have transformed the nature of development administration." Discuss. 20 529 civilz byte

(b) "Lateral entry of competent experts into the government will promote freshness and innovation, but it can create problems of accountability." Discuss. 15 (c) "Lateral entry of competent experts into the government will promote freshness and innovation, but it can create problems of accountability." Discuss. 15 7. (a) "The Riggsian models of Fused-Prismatic-Diffracted Societies and their administrative systems have been inspired by Max Weber's typology of Traditional Charismatic Legal- Rational Authorities." Analyze. 20 (b) "Bureaucracy has inbuilt limitations to act as the prime catalyst to multi-faceted development in a democratic country". Analyze this statement with appropriate examples. 15 (c) Can we say that statutory audit and social audit are two sides of the same coin ? Or, are they two separate coins with varying values ? Discuss. 15 8. (a) "Various components of Human Resource Management are inter-related." Discuss. 20 (b) "Administrative ethics includes the code of conduct of civil servants, but goes beyond it as well." Discuss. 15 (c) "Off all the processes involved in public policy, implementation is of greatest importance." Examine the impediments in policy implementation. 15

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530 Main Examination : The Big Battle PUBLIC ADMIN. PAPER-2 2013

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are EIGHT questions divided in two Sections. Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all. Questions Nos. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE from each section. The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question- cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to. Attempts of questions shall be counted in chronological order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Answer Book must be clearly struck off.

SECTION - A 1. Attempt the following in about 150 words each: 10 x 5 = 50 (a) "The charter act of 1853 marked the beginning of parliamentary system in India." Explain. (b) "Civil service neutrality is founded on the application of the principles of Rule of Law." Comment. (c) "The second generation reforms in Panchayati Raj institution have changed Panchayats from an agency of development at local level into a political institution." Discuss. (d) "Finance commission in India performs the job of statistics aggregation." Comment. (e) "Planning enables comprehensive and scientific understanding of problems." Examine the statement in context of planning methodology. 2. (a) "Bureaucratic agencies, characterized by established procedures, specialization, leadership, clear objectives, are not ideal to handle disaster management." Examine with 531 civilz byte

reference to the need for Administrative flexibility in managing disasters. (In about 250 words) 20 (b) "The liberal-democratic ideology of the West influenced in shaping of value premises of the Indian Constitution." Discuss. (In about 250 words) 20 (c) "Autonomy to public sector undertakings is a myth." Analyze in the context of the use of government expenditures by politicians who control governments at different levels. (In about 150 words) 10 3. (a) "Laws are enacted without involving police in the conception stage, with the result implementation of these laws leaves much to be desired." Examine the role of police in protection of children. (In about 250 words) 20 (b) "Central Secretariat is the nodal agency for administering the Union subjects and establishing coordination among the various activities of government." Discuss. (In about 250 words) 20 (c) Is there a need to dispense with the office of the Governor? Examine in the context of coalition governments. (In about 150 words) 10 4. (a) "There is a tendency of centralism in Indian federalism, but it is not because of its institutional framework but because of its socialist goals and centrally devised plan development." Explain the statement in the context of Union-State relationship. (In about 250 words) 20 (b) "Use of Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in Panchayat's functions enhances efficiency, transparency and accountability and also induces mass ICT culture." Examine. (In about 250 words) 20 (c) "Judicial review of administrative tribunal's decisions defeats the very objective of establishing tribunals." Comment with reference to Central Administrative Tribunal. (In about 150 words) 10

SECTION B

5. Attempt the following in not more than 150 words each : 10 x 5 = 50 (a) "Public Administration today tends to be less of public in quantitative terms, but more responsive to public needs than before in qualitative terms." Examine with reference to citizen-centric administration. (b) "Performance budgeting failed because it was applied to sectors/programs where quantitative evaluation was not feasible." Examine the principles underlying performance budgeting techniques. (c) "The design of the Indian Police was to subjugate the Indian People in the aftermath of 1857." Analyze in the context of Indian Police Act of 1861. 532 Main Examination : The Big Battle

(d) "Reducing the size (geographical area) of the district will provide relief to the over- burdened and overworked collector." Comment. (e) "The concept of social audit is more comprehensive than that of traditional audit." Comment. 6. (a) "Gandhian model of decentralization is similar to the process of reinventing governance." Analyse in the context of good governance. (In about 250 words) 20 (b) "Accounting is the essence of producing promptly and clearly the facts relating to financial conditions and operations that are required as a basis of management." Substantiate the statement in the context of accounting methods and techniques in government. (In about 250 words) 20 (c) Explain the important recommendations of V.T. Krishanamachary Committee (1962) on Indian and State Administrative Services and problems of District Administration. (In about 150 words) 10 7. (a) "The 73rd amendment, it is felt, may accentuate fiscal indiscipline by establishing between States and Local Governments a system of transfers similar to the one in place between the Central and State Governments." (World Bank) Comment. (In about 250 words) 20 (b) "Municipal Administration in India faces both structural and operational challenges." Examine in the context of post-74th Amendment Act. (In about 250 words) 20 (c) "Self-Help Groups (SHGs) have contributed to a change in the role of rural women in development from symbolic participation to empowerment." Discuss. (In about 150 words) 10 8. (a) "There is both criminalization of politics and politicization of criminals in India." Examine and identify the challenges they cause for law and order administration. (In about 250 words) 20 (b) "The basic ethical problem of an administrator is to determine how he/she can use discretionary power in a way that is consistent with democratic values." Comment with reference to corruption in administration. (In about 250 words) 20 (c) Justify the Constitutional provisions to treat certain expenditure as charged upon Consolidated Fund of India. (In about 250 words) 15

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533 civilz byte PUBLIC ADMIN. PAPER-2 2014

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are EIGHT questions divided in TWO SECTIONS. Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all. Questions no. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE from each section. The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question- cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions if specified should be adhered to. Attempts of questions shall be counted in chronological order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION - A 1. Attempt the following in about 150 words each: 10 x 5 = 50 (a) "Ethics in public services has been the central concern of Kautilya's Arthashastra." Critically examine the statement. 10 (b) Discuss the valuable premises of Constitutionalism in India which the bureaucracy cannot violate. 10 (c) The functional role of Prime Minister's Office (PMO) depends on the Prime Minister's policy orientation, personality and style of administration. Comment on the statement with suitable examples. 10 (d) Despite the adoption of decentralized planning, participatory initiatives remain marginalized and divisive in many regions. Discuss. 10 (e) "The Centre - State relations have acquired new dimensions in recent times due to several political parties being in power at the Centre and the States." (Second Administrative Reforms Commission). Do you agree? Give reasons to support your arguments. 10 534 Main Examination : The Big Battle

2. (a) "Public sector undertakings must learn to survive and be entrepreneurial, without assured government budgetary support." In the light of the statement give your suggestions for strengthening their autonomy and reviving the health of sick Public Sec- tor Undertakings. 20 (b) "Indian administration is said to be characterised by its three features viz. Weberian structures, Kautilyan practice and Gandhian rhetoric." Examine the statement. 20 (c) "District collector is a legacy of the British Raj and has largely remained insulated from the demands of contemporary professionalism." Discuss. 10 3. (a) "Gender Responsive Budgeting has infused greater accountability of planning departments towards women empowerment programmes." Examine the statement. 20 (b) "The gubernatorial position of the Governor is comfortably placed in the fuzzy area between 'withdrawal of the pleasure of the President' and 'Compelling reasons for removal'." Discuss with some recent examples. 20 (c) "Beneath the soft outer shell of democratic administrative framework lies unscathed the steel frame of Indian administration which has survived through the ages." In the light of the statement, examine the relationship between bureaucracy and development in the last one decade. 10 4. (a) "Management of inter-governmental relations is as important as that of intergovernmental relations." Examine its impact upon the performance of the government. 20 (b) How far do you agree with the view that the National Development Council (NDC) could resonate the demands of the State governments as long as the Planning Com- mission is kept subservient to it? Critically examine. 20 (c) Critically examine the statement: 'Thana' (Police Station) as the last bastion of the waning British administrative legacy in India. 10

SECTION B

5. Attempt the following in about 150 words each : 10 x 5 = 50 (a) Discuss the changes in the powers of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India (CAG) following a recent Supreme Court judgement in a case concerning a private service provider. 10 (b) Parliamentary committees bring about accountability and public expenditure. Dis- cuss. 10 (c) Do you think that the role of Panchayati Raj should go beyond development administration? Give reasons for your answer. 10 (d) "Police - public relations are a story of insincere efforts made on both sides." Elaborate. 10 535 civilz byte

(e) "From coalition government to one-party dominance is a big change that is bound to affect the governmental system." Explain why and how. 10 6. (a) Assess the role of honest and upright civil servants in regulatory and development administration in India. Give examples to substantiate your arguments. 20 (b) "Social auditing of flagship programmes of the Central government facilitates the performance of the Comptroller and Auditor-General." Elaborate the statement with appropriate examples. 20 (c) Explain the notion of one hundred 'smart cities' and its likely impact on India's urbanization. 10 7. (a) Elaborate the features of the grievance redressal mechanism of the civil services in India. Does this mechanism satisfy the objectives of its creation? 10 (b) The 13th Finance Commission highlighted an indispensable need to improve the finances of rural and urban level bodies. Does this make local bodies more accountable in the discharge of their functions? 20 (c) "Unimplemented reforms in administration weaken the administrative reforms process most." Do you agree? Give your answer citing specific cases as illustrations. 20 8. (a) Discuss the need for civil service neutrality in development administration. Suggest some measures for achieving and strengthening it in practice. 20 (b) Supreme Court ruling on 31st October, 2013 in respect of bureaucracy's functioning would help achieve good governance. Analyze this ruling and add your comments on it. 20 (c) Do you think that the Central para-military police forces have proven more effective than the State police service? Give your answer objectively in a critical vein. 10

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536 Main Examination : The Big Battle PUBLIC ADMIN. PAPER-2 2015

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are EIGHT questions divided in two sections. Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all. Questions no. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE from each section. The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question- cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions, wherever, specified should be adhered to. Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION - A 1. Attempt the following in about 150 words each: 10 x 5 = 50 (a) "Democracy within bureaucracy is likely to reduce its effectiveness." Do you agree with this view? Argue your case. (b) "District Collector's role in the development process has been overemphasized." Com- ment on the statement. (c) Why has District Planning been marginalized in many States and remained prominent in a few States? Explain. (d) "Ordinance-making power of the Executive needs to be suitably restrained." Examine it critically. (e) " 'Minimum government, maximum governance' is not just a slogan but a philosophy of administration with enormous potentialities." Do you agree? Give reasons for your answer. 537 civilz byte

2. (a) To what extent has political culture influenced the administrative culture of India? Explain. 20 (b) Briefly discuss the main recommendations of the Punchhi Commission (2010) on Centre- State relations for transforming Indian Federal System. 20 (c) As Dr. B. R. Ambedkar observed, "the text of the Constitution can provide the organs of the State, but the final outcome of the governance process depends on how it has operationalized by the political parties and people". Elucidate the statement. 10 3. (a) The objectives, approaches and organizational arrangements for decision-making of the NITI Aayog aim at restoring the federal character of the Indian polity. Explain. 20 (b) Explain fully how a balance can be struck between autonomy and accountability of India's public enterprises. 20 (c) "Decentralised governance must serve as an instrument of realizing social change and social justice." Comment on the statement. 10 4. (a) Discuss the arguments for and against the National Judicial Appointments Commis- sion Act, 2014. 20 (b) "In very recent time, the role of the State Governor is found to be more of diplomatic than administrative nature." Comment on the statement with suitable examples. 20 (c) Comment on the recent changes in the approach and methodology of devolution of responsibilities and transfer of funds from the Union to the States. 10

SECTION B

5. Attempt the following in about 150 words each : 10 x 5 = 50 (a) Critically examine the concept of community policing as a tool for improving public- police relations. (b) Explain how budget can be used as a political instrument. (c) "Most Civil Servants in India are competent administrators, but they pay little attention to encourage people's participation in decision-making." Comment on the statement. (d) Do you think that the functioning of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs), in practice, reflects genuine devolution of powers and resources? Give reasons for your answer. (e) "Information Communication Technology (ICT) improves the quality of public service delivery, but fails to check bribery." Comment. 6. (a) "Excellent ideas but poor implementation have characterised the administrative reforms in India since Independence." Critically examine the statement giving examples from the Union and State Governments. 20 538 Main Examination : The Big Battle

(b) Do you agree that there has been a serious governance-deficit in development administration in India? Give reasons for your answer and add your suggestions. 20 (c) What are the major concerns of the Second Administrative Reforms Commission on Civil Service reforms? Indicate the current status of their implementation. 10 7. (a) How do the Union Government policies on Smart and AMRUT Cities address the problems of management of urban development? Explain. 20 (b) Discuss the significance and role of the Central Paramilitary Forces in maintaining law and order and countering insurgency as well as terrorism. 20 (c) Discuss the major highlights of the reforms introduced from time-to-time in Central Civil Services Conduct Rules and add your own comments. 20 8. (a) "Municipal governance in India is not sufficiently prepared to meet the challenges of frequent natural disasters." Elucidate the statement and add your own suggestions. 20 (b) Discuss critically the salient features of the National Investigation Agency (NIA) regarding its purposes and jurisdiction. 20 (c) Argue the case for and against creating Indian Public Enterprises and Industrial Service for boosting the moribund public sector in India. 10

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539 civilz byte PUBLIC ADMIN. PAPER-2 2016

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are EIGHT questions divided in two sections. Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all. Questions no. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE from each section. The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question- cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions, wherever, specified should be adhered to. Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION - A

1. Attempt all of the following questions in about 150 words each: 10 x 5 = 50 (a) "The Regulating Act of 1773 not only introduced values in administration but also laid the foundation of centralized administration in India." Explain. 10 (b) Do you think that some of the ideals enshrined in the Preamble of the Constitution remain only on paper even today? Critically evaluate. 10 (c) Examine the efficacy of the measures taken to redefine and execute cooperative federalism in India. 10 (d) Evaluate the performance and efficacy of the Maharatna, Navratna and Liberaliza- tion, Privatization and Globalization (LPG). 10 (e) "The growing prominence of NGOs in development areas is strongly related to the declining legitimacy of the State." Explain. 10 540 Main Examination : The Big Battle

2. (a) "In contemporary times, Kautilya's Arthashastra is relevant more in the field of international relations than in economic affairs." Analyse the statement. 20 (b) "Dominant centralized administration is correlated with decisive and authoritative leadership provided by the Prime Minister's office." Explain with suitable examples since independence. 20 (c) "A significant legacy of the Mughal rule in India is a well-organized revenue administration at the State and District levels." Comment. 10 3. (a) What factors have led to the expansion of the role the Ministry of Home Affairs? How can it coordinate its affairs more effectively with the Ministry of Defence? 20 (b) "Introduction of G.S.T. (Goods and Services Tax) no doubt has economic benefits, but tends to compromise the States' inherent right to impose taxes." In this context, comment on the changing nature of Union-State financial relations. 20 (c) "Planning in India has failed to meet the challenges of economic development and social changes." Discuss the statement in the context of emergence of NITI Aayog. 10 4. (a) "The absence of congruence of views on appointments to judiciary between the Su- preme Court and the Union Government has had an adverse impact on the judicial system." In the light of the above statement, examine the proposal to constitute an All India Judicial Service (AIJS). 20 (b) "The separation between regulatory and development functions in many States has not only weakened the District Collector but also development administration." Criti- cally examine the need to relook at this policy. 20 (c) "Legislatures have become a place for infighting rather than for proper policy making." Comment in the context of the working of State Governments. 10

SECTION B 5. Attempt all of the following questions in about 150 words each : 10 x 5 = 50 (a) "Autonomy granted to higher civil servants tends to increase their creativity and productivity." Argue the case to make the civil service more accountable as well as innovative. 10 (b) Justify the budgetary support to nationalized banks to overcome crisis resulting out of Non-Performing Assets (NPA). 10 (c) "National Green Tribunal is viewed by many critics as a hindrance to economic development." Evaluate the statement and give arguments in support of your answer. 10 541 civilz byte

(d) Is training of police in India still a reflection of the colonial mindset ? Give reasons for your answer. 10 (e) "The concept of 'new localism' is related to the emerging nature of the relationship between the State Government and local government bodies." Explain. 10

6. (a) "The goals of good governance will remain utopian if local governments responsible for providing all basic services directly to the citizens, are not empowered as mandated by the 73rd and 74th Constitutionals Amendment Acts." Critically evaluate the status of empowerment of the local bodies. 20 (b) Explain how the National Disaster Management Plan (NDMP) provides a framework and direction to the government agencies for all phases of disaster management cycle. 20 (c) What merits do you foresee in the proposed merger of the Railway Budget with the General Budget? 10

7. (a) "The Right to Information Act is a path-breaking legislation which signals the march from darkness of secrecy to draw of transparency." What hurdles do the citizens face in obtaining information from the government? Explain how the reluctance of the government to part with information under R.T.I can be addressed. 20 (b) "The objectives of fiscal devolution to local bodies as mandated by the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts have been derailed by the actual working of the State Finance Commissions."Comment. 20 (c) "The initiative of Income Tax Department on disclosure of black money has had a mixed response." Give suggestions for tackling this complex problem. 10

8. (a) Do you agree that the Seventh Pay Commission's recommendations do not reflect and correlate the need for civil service reforms and accountability with pay increase? Justify your answer. 20 (b) "In a democratic polity , any conception of ethics and integrity in public life must encompass not only politicians and civil servants but also citizens."Discuss. 20 (c) "Police reforms in India have remained a contentious issue." Critically analyse. 10

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542 Main Examination : The Big Battle PUBLIC ADMIN. PAPER-2 2017

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are EIGHT questions divided in two sections. Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all. Questions no. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE from each section. The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question- cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions, wherever, specified should be adhered to. Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION - A

1. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each: 10 x 5 = 50 (a) "Constitutionalism is the foundation of the administrative edifice in India." Discuss. (b) "The status and functioning of the Cabinet Secretariat face a stiff challenge from the Prime Minister's Office (PMO)." Argue both in favour and against the contention. (c) "Effectiveness of local-self government institutions is hampered due to the lack of capacity building of the elected representatives." Elaborate. (d) "Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) in India face tough competition from the private enterprises and Multi-National Corporations (MNCs)." Explain. (e) Do you agree that 'All India Judicial Service (AIJS)' would contribute to timely delivery of justice to the citizens? Argue your case.

543 civilz byte

2. (a) "The market reforms have not infringed the basic structure of the Constitution of India, but have largely compromised the realization of the ideals of social and economic justice." Comment 20 (b) "The idea of lateral entry into the Civil Services would energise Indian administration." What are its possible advantages and limitations? 20 (c) "Pro-Active Governance and Timely implementation (PRAGATI) is an innovative project of the Union Government." Discuss its features and modalities. 10

3. (a) "The position of Council of Ministers in a state is reduced to that of a body of secretaries in the presence of a domineering Chief Minister." Critically analyse with examples. 20 (b) "Indianisation of Public Services is a slow but steady process." Explain. 20 (c) "Digitalization of land records is a necessary but not sufficient precondition for ensuring transparent district administration." Explain. 10

4. (a) "Bureaucracy has to make a balance between the need for environmental sustainability and developmental imperatives." Discuss. 20 (b) "The chief secretary is often termed as the alter ego of the Chief Minister." Discuss, with examples, the dynamics of their relationships in State administration. 20 (c) "District Planning Committee (DPC) has been the weakest structure in the local self- government mechanism in India." Analyze with examples. 10

SECTION B

5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : 10 x 5 = 50 (a) "The institution of Gram Sabha has very little connection with the Gandhian spirit of direct democracy." Critically examine. (b) "There is a need for greater inclusion of technocrats in bureaucracy to ensure effective governance in India." Do you agree? Elucidate. (c) "Civil servants should avoid airing grievances in the media." In this context, discuss the grievance redressal mechanisms available to the Civil Servants in India. (d) Do you think that Public Service Guarantee Acts passed by various State Governments are an extension of the Citizen Charters? Give reasons. (e) "The Office of the Controller General of Accounts (CGA) is expected to strengthen public financial management in India."Discuss its mandate. 544 Main Examination : The Big Battle

6. (a) "The Prime Minister's awards for Excellence in Public Administration encourage good governance initiatives." Discuss some such initiatives by the Civil Servants in this context. 20 (b) "Implementation of Goods and Services Tax (GST) has led to a paradigm shift in the Centre-State relations, both financially and politically." Analyze with examples. 20 (c) "The Right to Information (RTI) has started its journey but is far from its destination." Comment. 10

7. (a) "Disaster preparedness and management has become an important component of district administration in India." Discuss with suitable illustrations. 20 (b) In view of the contemporary internal scenario should "law and order" be made a part of the Concurrent List of the Constitution of India? Justify your opinion. 20 (c) "The image of Indian Police can be improved if its structure and orientations are transformed radically." Do you agree? Elaborate. 10

8. (a) Discuss, with suitable examples, the emerging challenges faced by the Regulatory Com- missions as the arbitrating agents between the State and the market forces. 20 (b) "The 'policy of non-action' regarding the institutional mechanisms and legal provisions to eradicate corruption is a feature of Indian Administration." Critically examine. 20 (c) "The Second Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) makes a strong case for the principle of subsidiarity."Elaborate. 10

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545 CHAPTER civilz byte 63 History as Optional

istory can provide us solutions to many essay paper with a historical perspective. In ad- problems of the present day. At its best, dition, the aspirants will get aware of Interna- H it introduces us many events and insti- tional Relations with ease. More to continue…. tutions (Feudalism, Capitalism etc.,) sufficiently 1. The subject is plain, involves no typical theo- visible in the modern world. History narrates not ries, doctrines or principles and ideas. It is only about how people change the course of marked by the absence of jargons. events but also about how events happen. Study- 2. History has a few concrete theories — nev- ing history is as cool as sitting in a time ma- ertheless, it has no complex theories which chine and visiting our ‘wonderful’ past. How- crop up in some humanities like Sociology, ever, all that is needed for such an experience is Psychology, Geography, Anthropology, Pub- only some ‘Interest’ for the subject. Eventually, lic Administration etc. interest enriches knowledge, analysis, and application of the subject. Often, History appears 4. Added advantage of the subject is it has as an ocean with lot of depth and full of events inter-connections and linkages. So an inte- with description of the dead past. But interest grated approach works well. The result is if will make you to interact with the past. In this one finishes one topic / issue etc., several regard, an eminent historian, E. H. Carr says, other topics / issues are automatically cov- “History is an unending dialogue between past ered. and present.” 5. In the new pattern (From 2013), History covers so much in the whole of Mains. Why is History the best optional Though five subjects viz., History, Political for Civil Services? Science, Geography, Public Administration & Sociology have their elements in GS pa- History is the best choice for optional, for pers; History occupies a major share in GS, it is interesting and proved successful. It is fairly both Prelims & Mains. For instance, in the stable in scoring marks and launches candidates Preliminary Examination, generally there in the orbit of success regularly. Students of any would be about 15 to 18 questions consti- discipline can choose and master the subject. tuting 30 to 36 marks (in 200 marks in GS Apart from that, it enables the candidate to write Paper-I (Prelims). 546 Main Examination : The Big Battle

6. History has got a synergy with the General 3. Indus Valley Civilization Studies – I in Mains. History occupies front Origin, date, extent, characteristics, de- seat with decent number of questions con- cline, survival and significance, art and ar- stituting over 50% (which is 125+ marks) chitecture. covering culture of India, World History, Post Independence developments etc. This gives, 4. Megalithic Cultures for the candidates with History Optional, an Distribution of pastoral and farming cultures edge over other candidates in these areas. outside the Indus, Development of commu- 7. It also develops the skill of writing. This will nity life, Settlements, Development of ag- positively impact on Essay writing as well. riculture, Crafts, Pottery, and Iron industry. Since at least one question from socio-cul- 5. Aryans and Vedic Period tural issues is expected, historic vision gives depth to the arguments which in turn Expansions of Aryans in India. Vedic Period: improvises the writing skills of the candi- Religious and philosophic literature; Trans- date. formation from Rig Vedic period to the later Vedic period; Political, social and economi- SYLLABUS cal life; Significance of the Vedic Age; Evo- lution of Monarchy and Varna system. Paper-I 6. Period of Mahajanapadas Ancient and Medieval Indian History Formation of States (Mahajanapada) : Re- 1. Sources publics and monarchies; Rise of urban cen- Archaeological sources: tres; Trade routes; Economic growth; Intro- Exploration, excavation, epigraphy, numis- duction of coinage; Spread of Jainism and matics, monuments Buddhism; Rise of Magadha and Nandas. Ira- Literary sources: nian and Macedonian invasions and their Indigenous: Primary and secondary; poetry, impact. scientific literature, literature, literature in 7. Mauryan Empire regional languages, religious literature. Foundation of the Mauryan Empire, Foreign accounts: Greek, Chinese and Arab Chandragupta, Kautilya and Arthashastra; writers. Ashoka; Concept of Dharma; Edicts; Polity, 2. Pre-History and Proto-History Administration; Economy; Art, architecture Geographical factors; hunting and gather- and sculpture; External contacts; Religion; ing (Paleolithic and Mesolithic); Beginning Spread of religion; Literature. Disintegra- of agriculture (Neolithic and Chalcolithic). tion of the empire; Sungas and Kanvas. 547 civilz byte

8. Post - Mauryan Period (Indo- sects, Institution of temple and Mathas, Greeks, Sakas, Kushanas, Agraharas, education and literature, Western Kshatrapas) economy and society. Contact with outside world; growth of ur- 12. Themes in early indian cultural ban centres, economy, coinage, develop- history ment of religions, Mahayana, social condi- Languages and texts, major stages in the tions, art, architecture, culture, literature evolution of art and architecture, major and science. philosophical thinkers and schools, ideas in 9. Early state and society in eastern Science and Mathematics. india, deccan and south india 13. Early Medieval India, 750-1200 Kharavela, The Satavahanas, Tamil States of the Sangam Age; Administration, Polity : Major political developments in economy, land grants, coinage, trade guilds Northern India and the Peninsula, ori- and urban centres; Buddhist centres; gin and the rise of Rajputs Sangam literature and culture; Art and ar- The Cholas: administration, village chitecture. economy and society 10. Guptas, Vakatakas and Vardhanas “Indian Feudalism” Agrarian economy and urban settle- Polity and administration, Economic conditions, Coinage of the Guptas, Land grants, ments Decline of urban centres, Indian feudalism, Trade and commerce Caste system, Position of women, Educa- Society: the status of the Brahman and tion and educational institutions; Nalanda, the new social order Vikramshila and Vallabhi, Literature, scien- Condition of women tific literature, art and architecture. Indian science and technology 11. Regional States During Gupta era 14. Cultural Traditions in India, 750- The Kadambas, Pallavas, Chalukyas of 1200 Badami; Polity and Administration, Trade guilds, Literature; growth of Vaishnava and Philosophy: Shankaracharya and Saiva religions. Tamil Bhakti movement, Vedanta, Ramanuja and Vishishta Shankaracharya; Vedanta; Institutions of dvaita, Madhva and Brahma Mimansa temple and temple architecture; Palas, Religion: Forms and features of reli- Senas, Rashtrakutas, Paramaras, Polity and gion, Tamil devotional cult, growth of administration; Cultural aspects. Arab con- Bhakti, Islam and its arrival in India, quest of Sind; Alberuni, The Chalukyas of Sufism Kalyana, Cholas, Hoysalas, Pandyas; Polity Literature: Literature in Sanskrit, and Administration; local Government; growth of Tamil literature, literature in Growth of art and architecture, religious the newly developing languages, 548 Main Examination : The Big Battle

Kalhana’s Rajtarangini, Alberuni’s India in the regional languages of North In- Art and Architecture: Temple architec- dia, literature in the languages of South ture, sculpture, painting India, Sultanate architecture and new structural forms, painting, evolution of 15. The Thirteenth Century a composite culture Establishment of the Delhi Sultanate: Economy: Agricultural production, rise The Ghurian invasions – factors behind of urban economy and non-agricultural Ghurian success production, trade and commerce Economic, social and cultural conse- 18. The fifteenth and early sixteenth quences century Foundation of Delhi Sultanate and early Turkish Sultans Political Developments and Economy: Consolidation: The rule of Iltutmish Rise of Provincial Dynasties: Bengal, and Balban Kashmir (Zainul Abedin), Gujarat, Malwa, Bahmanids 16. The Fourteenth Century The Vijayanagra Empire “The Khalji Revolution” Lodis - Mughal Empire, First phase: Alauddin Khalji: Conquests and terri- Babur and Humayun torial expansion, agrarian and eco- The Sur Empire: Sher Shah’s adminis- nomic measures tration Muhammad Tughluq: Major projects, Portuguese Colonial enterprise agrarian measures, bureaucracy of Bhakti and Sufi Movements Muhammad Tughluq Firuz Tughluq: Agrarian measures, 19. The fifteenth and early sixteenth achievements in civil engineering and century - society and culture: public works, decline of the Sultanate, Regional cultural specificities foreign contacts and Ibn Battuta’s ac- Literary traditions count Provincial architecture 17. Society, culture and economy in Society, culture, literature and the arts the thirteenth and fourteenth cen- in Vijayanagara Empire. turies: 20.Akbar Society: composition of rural society, ruling classes, town dwellers, women, Conquests and consolidation of the religious classes, caste and slavery un- Empire der the Sultanate, Bhakti movement, Establishment of Jagir and Mansab Sufi movement systems Culture: Persian literature, literature Rajput policy 549 civilz byte

Evolution of religious and social out- Provincial architecture and painting look, theory of Sulh-i-kul and religious Classical music policy Science and technology Court patronage of art and technology 24. The eighteenth century 21. Mughal Empire in the Seventeenth Century Factors for the decline of the Mughal Empire Major administrative policies of The regional principalities: Nizam’s Jahangir, Shahjahan and Aurangzeb Deccan, Bengal, Awadh The Empire and the Zamindars Maratha ascendancy under the Peshwas Religious policies of Jahangir, The Maratha fiscal and financial system Shahjahan and Aurangzeb Emergence of Afghan Power, Battle of Nature of the Mughal State Panipat: 1761 Late Seventeenth century crisis and the State of politics, culture and economy revolts on the eve of the British conquest The Ahom Kingdom Shivaji and the early Maratha Kingdom. Paper – II : 22. Economy and Society in the Six- Modern Indian and teenth and Seventeenth Centuries Modern World History Population, agricultural production, 1. European Penetration into India craft production The Early European Settlements; The Por- Towns, commerce with Europe through tuguese and the Dutch; The English and the Dutch, English and French companies : French East India Companies; Their struggle a trade revolution for supremacy; Carnatic Wars; Bengal -The Indian mercantile classes, banking, in- conflict between the English and the Nawabs surance and credit systems of Bengal; Siraj and the English; The Battle Condition of peasants, condition of of Plassey; Significance of Plassey. women 2. British Expansion in India Evolution of the Sikh community and the Khalsa Panth Bengal – Mir Jafar and Mir Kasim; The Battle of Buxar; Mysore; The Marathas; The three 23. Culture in the Mughal Empire Anglo-Maratha Wars; The Punjab. Persian histories and other literature 3. Early Structure of the British Raj Hindi and other religious literature The early administrative structure; From Mughal architecture diarchy to direct control; The Regulating Act Mughal painting 550 Main Examination : The Big Battle

(1773); The Pitt’s India Act (1784); The Char- Dayanada Saraswati; The social reform ter Act (1833); The voice of free trade and movements in India including Sati, widow the changing character of British colonial remarriage, child marriage etc.; The con- rule; The English utilitarian and India. tribution of Indian renaissance to the growth 4. Economic Impact Of British Colo- of modern India; Islamic revivalism – the nial Rule Feraizi and Wahabi Movements. 7. Indian Response to British Rule a. Land revenue settlements in British In- dia; The Permanent Settlement; Peasant movements and tribal uprisings in Ryotwari Settlement; Mahalwari Settle- the 18th and 19th centuries including the ment; Economic impact of the revenue Rangpur Dhing (1783), the Kol Rebellion arrangements; Commercialization of (1832), the Mopla Rebellion in Malabar agriculture; Rise of landless agrarian (1841-1920), the Santal Hul (1855), Indigo labourers; Impoverishment of the rural Rebellion (1859-60), Deccan Uprising (1875) society. and the Munda Ulgulan (1899-1900); The b. Dislocation of traditional trade and Great Revolt of 1857 - Origin, character, commerce; De-industrialisation; De- causes of failure, the consequences; The cline of traditional crafts; Drain of shift in the character of peasant uprisings wealth; Economic transformation of in the post-1857 period; the peasant move- India; Railroad and communication net- ments of the 1920s and 1930s. work including telegraph and postal ser- 8. Factors leading to the birth of Indian Na- vices; Famine and poverty in the rural tionalism; Politics of Association; The Foun- interior; European business enterprise dation of the Indian National Congress; The and its limitations. Safety-valve thesis relating to the birth of 5. Social and Cultural Developments the Congress; Programme and objectives of Early Congress; the social composition of The state of indigenous education, its dis- early Congress leadership; the Moderates location; Orientalist - Anglicist controversy, and Extremists; The Partition of Bengal The introduction of western education in (1905); The Swadeshi Movement in Bengal; India; The rise of press, literature and pub- the economic and political aspects of lic opinion; The rise of modern vernacular Swadeshi Movement; The beginning of revo- literature; Progress of science; Christian lutionary extremism in India. missionary activities in India. 9. Rise of Gandhi; Character of Gandhian na- 6. Social and Religious Reform Move- tionalism; Gandhi’s popular appeal; Rowlatt ments in Bengal and Other Areas Satyagraha; the Khilafat Movement; the Ram Mohan Roy, The Brahmo Movement; Non-cooperation Movement; National poli- Devendranath Tagore; Iswarchandra tics from the end of the Non-cooperation Vidyasagar; The Young Bengal Movement; movement to the beginning of the Civil Dis-

551 civilz byte

obedience movement; the two phases of the rural reconstruction; Ecology and environ- Civil Disobedience Movement; Simon Com- mental policy in post - colonial India; mission; The Nehru Report; the Round Table Progress of science. Conferences; Nationalism and the Peasant 16. Enlightenment and Modern Ideas Movements; Nationalism and Working class movements; Women and Indian youth and (i) Major ideas of Enlightenment: Kant, students in Indian politics (1885-1947); the Rousseau election of 1937 and the formation of min- (ii) Spread of Enlightenment in the colonies istries; Cripps Mission; the Quit India Move- (iii) Rise of socialist ideas (up to Marx); ment; the Wavell Plan; The Cabinet Mission. spread of Marxian Socialism. 10. Constitutional Developments in the Colonial 17. Origins of Modern Politics India between 1858 and 1935 (i) European States System. Other strands in the National Movement The 11. (ii) American Revolution and the Constitu- Revolutionaries: Bengal, the Punjab, tion. Maharashtra, U.P, the Madras Presidency, (iii) French revolution and aftermath, 1789- Outside India. The Left; The Left within the 1815. Congress: Jawaharlal Nehru, Subhas Chandra Bose, the Congress Socialist Party; (iv) American Civil War with reference to the Communist Party of India, other left Abraham Lincoln and the abolition of parties. slavery. (v) British Democratic Politics, 1815- 1850; 12. Politics of Separatism; the Muslim League; Parliamentary Reformers, Free Traders, the Hindu Mahasabha; Communalism and Chartists. the politics of partition; Transfer of power; Independence. 18. Industrialization 13. Consolidation as a Nation; Nehru’s Foreign (i) English Industrial Revolution: Causes Policy; India and her neighbours (1947- and Impact on Society 1964); The linguistic reorganisation of (ii) Industrialization in other countries: States (1935-1947); Regionalism and re- USA, Germany, Russia, Japan gional inequality; Integration of Princely (iii) Industrialization and Globalization. States; Princes in electoral politics; the Question of National Language. 19. Nation-State System 14. Caste and Ethnicity after 1947; Backward (i) Rise of Nationalism in 19th century castes and tribes in post-colonial electoral (ii) Nationalism: state-building in Germany politics; Dalit movements. and Italy 15. Economic development and political change; (iii) Disintegration of Empires in the face Land reforms; the politics of planning and of the emergence of nationalities across the world. 552 Main Examination : The Big Battle 20. Imperialism and Colonialism 26. Unification of Europe (i) South and South-East Asia (i) Post War Foundations: NATO and Euro- (ii) Latin America and South Africa pean Community (iii) Australia (ii) Consolidation and Expansion of Euro- pean Community (iv) Imperialism and free trade: Rise of neo-imperialism. (iii) European Union. 21. Revolution and Counterrevolution 27. Disintegration of Soviet Union and the Rise of the Unipolar World (i) 19th Century European revolutions (i) Factors leading to the collapse of So- (ii) The Russian Revolution of 1917-1921 viet communism and the Soviet Union, (iii) Fascist Counter-Revolution, Italy and 1985-1991 Germany. (ii) Political Changes in Eastern Europe (iv) The Chinese Revolution of 1949 1989-2001. 22. World Wars (iii) End of the cold war and US ascendancy in the World as the lone superpower. (i) 1st and 2nd World Wars as Total Wars: Societal implications (ii) World War I: Causes and consequences QUICK TIPS & (iii) World War II: Causes and consequence SOURCES OF STUDY 23. The World after World War II Paper-I (i) Emergence of two power blocs Ancient and Medieval Indian History

(ii) Emergence of Third World and non- Go through the articles given in this book alignment on History (Prelims & Mains) which will give (iii) UNO and the global disputes. you various perspectives and approaches 24. Liberation from Colonial Rule needed for preparing History. Start the special preparation for Optional (i) Latin America-Bolivar by revising the old textbooks of NCERT of (ii) Arab World-Egypt classes 11th & 12th – Ancient, Medieval and (iii) Africa-Apartheid to Democracy Modern authored by Dr. R. S. Sharma, Dr. (iv) South-East Asia-Vietnam Satish Chandra, and Dr. Bipan Chandra respectively which you must be studying for 25. Decolonization and GS of Prelims & Mains. These books are very Underdevelopment important source books and can’t be by- (i) Factors constraining development: passed. After that, proceed to the following Latin America, Africa books. 553 civilz byte

B.A History Material of IGNOU (not M.A.) to make a list of sites as per areas like Vedic for ancient, medieval & modern Indian his- sites, Megalithic sites etc. The more the tory is a must. There are certain topics in practice, the better will be the scoring. these booklets which you don’t have to study. Barring them, one has to read all the other Paper-II aspects. These books are known for lucid Modern Indian and and crisp (easy & understandable) writing. Modern World History Gazetteer of India Volume-2 for ancient and In paper II, equal attention has to be paid medieval Indian history. You need to be dis- to both Modern World & Modern Indian His- creet enough to leave some topics and sub- tory equally. On modern India, a lot of re- topics throughout the book particularly from search material is available which can be political history. Such topics are not neces- handpicked. sary for the exam but they are very interesting. This book is a good source for art, Comparatively, world history is straight and architecture, Science & Tech, social life, neutral except a few controversies about the different sources of history etc. fall of Napoleon in France. However, there are no such controversies in the case of his- Books for reading extensively about Ancient tory of Modern India. India: “Outline of Ancient India” by D.N. Jha and “The wonder that was India” by A.L. Always keep this book with you and track Basham. where you are in the syllabus, which would definitely turn fruitful. Otherwise, the vast For Medieval India, two volumes of Satish syllabus cannot be covered without the point- Chandra’s “Medieval India: From Sultanat ers. to Mughals.” For Modern India, Spectrum’s “A brief his- There will be a compulsory question on map- tory of Modern India” is generally studied ping in which you will be asked to mark the for History of GS. But this is enough for location of few places of historical impor- optional history too. It is well written and tance or write about the marked locations like an abridged version of Grover and Bipan from either ‘ancient’ or ‘medieval’ India. Chandra put together. Krishna Reddy’s Spectrum’s “Historical Atlas of India” will “Modern World” will also help you to con- help to some extent in this regard. Apart solidate your understanding of the subject. from this book, the aspirants are advised to take help of technology & learn from the For post independence developments, ‘In- internet wherever necessary. dia since Independence’ by Bipan Chandra can better serve the purpose. Questions on mapping should be answered as first priority. For answering these ques- “A History of the Modern World” by Jain and tions appropriately, aspirants are advised Mathur is very relevant book from the exam 554 Main Examination : The Big Battle

point of view. And, “Mastering Modern World Every subject is important. The syllabus of History” by Norman Lowe is also alike for almost every subject is equally lengthy and de- the preparation of World History. mands equal amount of time and labour. The syl- Publication division has done a great job by labus of all popular subjects like Sociology, His- publishing materials which can prove very tory, Geography, Political Science etc. are equally helpful for the mains. They are... vast & comprehensive. One can score high in all 1) India – Art & Architecture in Ancient & subjects through proper guidance, adequate Medieval Period labour and good performance to become success- 2) India – Early History ful. A simple logic is that a subject does not per- 3) India – Government & Economic life in form, an individual performs and performance Ancient and Medieval periods. makes a subject scoring.

Some internet sites like indhistory.com and Preparation for History (Main Examination) Wikipedia are rich in content. Learning from does not require cramming of crude facts. The photographs can prove a magic wand in His- nature of questions is not such, that demands tory for framing answers while in the prepa- memorizing facts. Strong concept with clarity ration. and analytical capability of information and concepts are the essentials of writing a good Few general Guidelines answer.

The Union Public Service Commission does History is as scoring as any other subject in not discriminate subjects in awarding marks in Humanities. Every year there is one or two can- Optionals. It has set a standard for each subject didates among top ten with History as optional. and has incorporated all important topics into Every year there is a good number of students the syllabus of each subject. Scoring good marks getting more than 60% marks in history Opional. solely depends upon one’s performance and certainly not the subject. One can get good marks Besides, there are about 200 selections every in any subject. The results of the Civil Services year from History optional subject. So history is Examination confirm the same fact every year. a better piece of cake to achieve success.

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555 CHAPTER civilz byte 64 Treasure Trove: History Question Papers HISTORY PAPER-1 2013

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are EIGHT questions divided in Two Sections. Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all. Questions no. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE from each section. The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question- cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions if specified should be adhered to. Attempts of questions shall be counted in chronological order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Answer Book must be clearly struck off.

SECTION - A 1. Identify the following places marked on the outline map in the Question-cum-Answer Booklet supplied to you and write short notes of about 30 words on each of them in the space provided in the booklet. Locational hints for each of the places marked on the map are given below seriatim : 2½ x 20 = 50 556 Main Examination : The Big Battle

(i) A Paleolithic and Mesolithic site (ii) A Mesolithic site (iii) An important halting place (iv) A Pre-Harappan site (v) An important Harappan site (vi) Site of important fossils (vii) A sea-port (viii) A Paleolithic site (ix) A Neolithic, Megalithic and Chalcolithic site (x) A Harappan site (xi) A Palaeolithic site (xii) A Neolithic site (xiii) A Chalcolithic site (xiv) A Chalcolithic site (xv) A site of Buddhist Monastery (xvi) Painted Grey Ware site (xvii)Site related to a famous Indian Philosopher (xviii) Historical Rock-cut caves (xix) Famous Fort (xx) Capital of famous Kingdom

INDIA With Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Nepal, Myanmar (Burma), Pakistan and Srilanka 600E700 800 900 1000E

(iii) (xv)

(x)

(xvi) (iv) (xi)

(xii) (ii) (v)

(i) (xiv) (vi)

(xviii)

(xiii) (xx)

(viii)

(xix) (ix)

(xvii)

(vii)

600E700 800 900 1000E 557 civilz byte

2. (a) Evaluate various views regarding human settlements is gleaned from the Vedic sources. 15 (b) Discuss the water management and its conservation planning in the Harappan (Indus- Saraswati) cities. 20 (c) In the absence of a written script Chalcolithic pottery gives us a fascinating insight into the culture and lifestyles of the people of those times. Comment critically. 15 3. (a) On the basis of contemporary sources assess the nature of banking and usuary in ancient India. 20 (b) Social norms for women in the Dharmasastra and Arthasashtra tradition were framed in accordance with the Varnashrama tradition. Evaluate critically. 20 (c) "The varna concept may always have been largely a theoretical model and never an actual description of society." Comment in the context of Ancient India. 15

4. (a) Evaluate the contribution of the Puranas in disseminating secular knowledge among the masses in ancient India. 15 (b) Evaluate the ownership of land in ancient India on the basis of literary and epigraphic sources. 15 (c) Explain as to how the early Buddhist stupa art, while using folk motifs and narratives and common cultural symbols, succeeded in transforming these themes for expounding the Buddhist ideals. 20

SECTION B

5. Write short notes in not more than 150 words on each of the following : 10 x 5 = 50 (a) Evaluate the Malfuzat texts as sources of medieval history. 10 (b) Discuss the state of society and economy of the Bahmani kingdom as gleaned from historical sources. 10 (c) Give a sketch of Indian trade with Europe during the Mughal period. 10 (d) Analyze the steps taken by Razia Sultan to strengthen her position as an independent ruler despite various obstacles. 10 (e) Bhakti and Mysticism of Lal Ded emerged as a social force in Kashmir. Comment. 10

6. (a) Evaluate the conditions of industries in India from 1200-1500 CE. 20 (b) On the basis of contemporary sources evaluate the system of agriculture and irrigation of the Vijaynagar kingdom. 15 (c) Critically evaluate the educational development during Sultanate period. 15 558 Main Examination : The Big Battle

7. (a) On the basis of the accounts of Europeans bring out the agrarian crisis during the 17th century CE India. 20 (b) Evaluate critically the conditions of labour from 1200-1500 CE on the basis of historical sources. 15 (c) Discuss and evaluate critically various trends in the historiography of bhakti. 15

8. (a) Analyse how the political process of state information of Mewar, from 10th - 15th century CE was challenged in the 16th century CE by the imperialist policy of Akbar. 15 (b) Assess the Lekhapaddhati as an important source for evaluating the society and economy of the 13th century CE with special reference to Gujarat. 15 (c) Assess the development of science and technology in the Mughal period. 20

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559 civilz byte HISTORY PAPER-1 2014

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are EIGHT questions divided in Two Sections. Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all. Questions nos. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE from each section. The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question- cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to. Attempts of questions shall be counted in chronological order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question- cum- Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION - A

1. Identify the following places marked on the map supplied to you and write a short note of about 30 words on each of them in your Question-cum-Answer Booklet. Locational hints for each of the places marked on the map are given below seriatim 2½ x 20 = 50 (i) An ancient capital (ii) A Palaeolithic site (iii) A cultural centre (iv) An ancient capital. (v) A Palaeolithic site (vi) A historical site (vii) A Harappan site (viii) An ancient capital (ix) A political and cultural centre (x) A Megalithic site (xi) A Mesolithic site (xii) A Chalcolithic site (xiii) A prehistoric site (xiv) A political and cultural centre (xv) An ancient capital (xvi) A lost port (xvii) Rock-cave art centre (xviii) An ancient capital (xix) A political and cultural center (xx) An ancient town 560 Main Examination : The Big Battle INDIA With Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Nepal, Myanmar (Burma), Pakistan and Srilanka

2. (a) While using the accounts of foreign writers, historians must distinguish between statements based on hearsay and those grounded in perceptive observations." Elabo- rate with examples. 15 (b) "The Upanishadic principles embody the epitome of the Vedic thought." Discuss. 15 (c) Review critically the evolution of different schools of art in the Indian subcontinent between the second century BCE and the third century CE, and evaluate the socio- religious factors responsible for it. 15 3. (a) Review critically the evolution of different schools of art in the Indian subcontinent between the second century BCE and the third century CE, and evaluate the socio- religious factors responsible for it. 20 (b) Do you think the Harappan civilization had a diversity of subsistence base? 20 (c) Discuss different interpretations of historians about the nature of Asoka's 'Dhamma'. Did his principle of `Dhamma-vijaya' render the Mauryan Empire militaristically weak? 15 561 civilz byte

4. (a) Buddha's teachings to a large extent could be helpful in understanding and resolving the problems of today's society. Analyse critically. 15 (b) Discuss the provincial and district administrative units of the Gupta Empire with the designations and functions of the officers. 15 (c) What were the privileges granted to the donees in land-grant charters of early India? How far were these charters responsible for integration or disintegration socio-political milieu? 20

SECTION B 5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each: 10 x 5 = 50 (a) Critically analyse the agricultural economy from 750 to 1200 CE. (b) Evaluate the contribution of Vaishnava saints to the growth of medieval Bhakti literature. (c) Analyse the ordinances mentioned by Barani which Alauddin Khalji promulgated for market control. (d) Give a brief account of resistance offered by Ahom State against the Mughal rule. (e) How was cartaz system used by the Portuguese to maintain their control over the oceanic trade? 6. (a) Evaluating various theories regarding the Chola State, throw light on its village assemblies. 15 (b) Trace the technological and stylistic development in the architecture of the Sultanate period. 15 (c) Analyse the Mughal monetary system and examine their policy of minting of coins. 20 7. (a) Evaluate the 'Kitab al-Hind' of Alberuni as a source of history of India. 15 (b) Evaluating the theory of kingship of the Sultanate, discuss the deviations seen in the reigns of different Sultans. 20 (c) "The Battle of Plassey that decided the fate of Bengal was won by Clive through intrigues." Explain. 15 8. (a) To what extent is 'Segmentary State' model relevant for defining the Vijayanagar State? Critically examine. 20 (b) How was lqta system of the Sultans different from the Jagir system under the Mughals? 15 (c) "India had been for hundreds of years the Lancashire of the Eastern world." Critically examine this view. 15 ––––––––––– ––––––––––– 562 Main Examination : The Big Battle HISTORY PAPER-1 2015

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are EIGHT questions divided in TWO SECTIONS. Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all. Questions nos. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE from each section. The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question- cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to. Attempts of questions shall be counted in chronological order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question- cum- Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION - A 1. Identify the following places marked on the map supplied to you and write a short note of about 30 words on each of them in your Question-cum-Answer Booklet. Locational hints for each of the places marked on the map are given below seriatim : 2½ x 20 = 50 (i) A Neolithic site (ii) A Neolithic site (iii) A Harappan site (iv) A Megalithic site (v) A Harappan site (vi) A painted-Grey-ware site (vii) An inscriptional site (viii) An important ancient city (ix) An ancient port (x) A site of ancient cave-painting (xi) A Buddhist site (xii) An educational centre (xiii) Brahmadeya Village (xiv) An ancient capital (xv) An ancient capital (xvi) A temple site (xvii) An ancient capital (xviii) An ancient sea-port (xix) An archaeological temple site (xx) A Harappan site 563 civilz byte

2. (a) How far can the ancient Indian Sruti literature be used as historical sources? 15 (b) The decline of Harappan civilization was caused by ecological degradation rather than external invasion. Discuss. 20 (c) "Archaeology knows of no Aryans; only literature knows of Aryans." Examine critically. 15 3. (a) How far is it correct to say that changes in the post-Vedic economy gave birth to new religious movements in India? 20 (b) Delineate the nature and impact of India's contact with Western Asia and the Mediter- ranean world during the Mauryan period. 20 (c) "Not only does ancient Tamil literature furnish an accurate picture of widely disparate classes; it also describes the social condition of Tamil country as it was." Discuss. 15 564 Main Examination : The Big Battle

4. (a) Trace the role of guilds and trade organizations in the development of early Indian economy. 15 (b) Kailasa Temple built at Ellora marks the culmination of rock-cut architecture in India. Elucidate. 15 (c) How could the local self-government under the Cholas adjust with their centralized administrative structure? 20

SECTION B

5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each: 10 x 5 = 50 (a) Give a brief account of the early medieval temple architecture of Kashmir. (b) Why is Mamallapuram famous? (c) Mention the salient features of the polity of Vijayanagara Empire under Krishnadevaraya. (d) What measures did Balban adopt to combat the Mongol menace? (e) How does Tuzuk-i-Babri testify that Babar had been a cultured man? 6. (a) Do the evidences of land ownership at our disposal support the theory of the prevalence of feudalism in early medieval India? 15 (b) Discuss in brief the land-revenue system and judicial administration of the Delhi Sultanate. 15 (c) "Sufis and medieval mystic saints failed to modify either the religious ideas and practices or the outward structure of Islamic/Hindu societies to any appreciable extent." Comment for/against. 20 7. (a) Make an estimate of Rana Kumbha as a patron of literature and art. 20 (b) Why should the sixteenth century be regarded as the period of Indian Renaissance? 15 (c) "Tantrism, if not in practice, at last on conception level challenged patriarchy." Exam- ine Tantrism specially keeping in mind the above context. 15 8. (a) "In medieval Indian history Akbar was unique for his religio-political ideas and policies." Analyse this statement. 20 (b) Will it not be correct to say that the rural economy in Mughal India was relatively self- sufficient? 15 (c) Compare the Peshwas' bureaucratic management with that of the Imperial Mughal administration. 15

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565 civilz byte HISTORY PAPER-1 2016

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are EIGHT questions divided in TWO SECTIONS. Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all. Questions Nos. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE from each section. The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question- cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to. Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Ques- tion- cum- Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION - A 1. Identify the following places marked on the map supplied to you and write a short note of about 30 words on each of them in your Question-cum-Answer Booklet. Locational hints for each of the places marked on the map are given below seriatim 2½ x 20 = 50 (i) A Mesolithic site (ii) A Neolithic site (iii) A Megalithic-chalcolithic site (iv) A Neolithic site (v) A Neolithic site (vi) A Megalithic site (vii) A site known for Buddhist remains (viii) A Harappan site (ix) A Harappan site (x) A Harappan site (xi) A Neolithic site (xii) A Harappan site (xiii) A capital city (xiv) A rock-cut cave site (xv) A late Harappan site (xvi) An educational centre (xvii) A terra-cotta art centre (xviii) A seaport (xix) A capital city (xx) A capital city 566 Main Examination : The Big Battle INDIA With Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Nepal, Myanmar (Burma), Pakistan and Srilanka

2. (a) Delineate and account for the regional characteristics of the Neolithic period in India. 15 (b) Explain why the majority of the known Harappan settlements are located in the semi- arid areas with saline groundwater. 20 (c) In what way was the egalitarian character of the early Vedic society changed during the later Vedic period? 15 3. (a) Examine the relationship among economic growth, urbanization and state formation from c. 7th century BCE to 3rd century BCE. 15 567 civilz byte

(b) How does the numismatic evidence of the period reflect the political and economic outlook of the Kushanas and the Satavahanas? 15 (c) "The changes in the field of art from the Kushana period to early medieval period are mere reflection of changing outlook." Comment. 20 4. (a) Critically evaluate the theory and practice of land revenue system in ancient India. 20 (b) "The copious references to the preservation of Varnashrama system by the kings eulo- gized in inscriptions are mere reflection of the Smriti tradition." Discuss. 15 (c) How did the temples of South India, as financial institutions, have deep impact on the social institutions of early medieval period? Critically examine. 15

SECTION B 5. (a) Evaluate the contents of the Tabaqat-i-Nasiri as a source of medieval history. 10 (b) Analyze the significance of the Uttarmerur inscriptions of the Chola king Parantaka I. 10 (c) Evaluate Jonaraja's account of the reign of Zain-ul-Abidin. 10 (d) Comment on the veracity of Alberuni's account of the Indian society. 10 (e) Delineate the development of the Mughal painting during the reign of Jahangir. 10 6. (a) Explain the ingredients of the transitory nature of the early medieval India. 15 (b) What measures were initiated by the Sultans for the consolidation of the Delhi Sultan- ate? Discuss. 15 (c) Identify the broad contours of the Mughal foreign policy and their impacts on the Mughal empire. 20 7. (a) "The Advaita doctrine of Shankara cut at the very root of bhaktivada." Do you agree? 15 (b) Do you think that the economic measures introduced by the Sultanate rulers were beneficial to the common people as well? Illustrate with examples. 20 (c) Assess the contribution of Firoz Shah Bahamani and Mahmud Gawan in the field of education. 15 8. (a) Do you think that the agrarian crisis of the 17th century led to the disintegration of the Mughal empire? Discuss. 20 (b) Was it the weakening of the Mughal empire or the rise of regional powers that led to the British conquest of India? Discuss. 15 (c) Is it true that the court intrigues and weak revenue system led to the collapse of the Maratha empire? Comment. 15 ––––––––––– ––––––––––– 568 Main Examination : The Big Battle HISTORY PAPER-1 2017

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are EIGHT questions divided in TWO SECTIONS. Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all. Questions Nos. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE from each section. The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question- cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to. Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Ques- tion- cum- Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION - A 1. Identify the following places marked on the map supplied to you and write a short note of about 30 words on each of them in your Question-cum-Answer Booklet. Locational hints for each of the places marked on the map are given below seriatim 2½ x 20 = 50 (i) A Prehistoric cave-paintings' site (ii) A Neolithic-Chalcolithic site (iii) An Early Harappan site (iv) A Harappan site (v) An ancient capital city (vi) A Painted grey ware site (vii) A Neolithic site (viii) A site of Ashokan inscriptions (ix) An ancient port and trade centre (x) A Harappan site (xi) A Chalcolithic site (xii) An ancient capital city (xiii) A Rock-cut cave site (xiv) An early fortified city (xv) A Rock-cut temple site (xvi) An ancient temple site (xvii) An ancient capital city (xviii) An ancient temple site (xix) A Palaeolithic site (xx) An ancient capital city 569 civilz byte

2. (a) Art and culture are reflected to a far greater extent than political history in the epigraphic sources. Comment. 15 (b) The second urbanization gave rise to the organized corporate activities that reached their zenith during the Gupta period. Discuss. 20 (c) The emergence of Non-Harappan Chalcolithic cultures in Central India and the Deccan mark a change not only in the subsistence pattern of people but an overall transition from pre to proto historic period. Critically analyze. 15 3. (a) Critically examine various views regarding the Vedic-Harappan relationship in light of the latest discoveries. 15 (b) "The concept of Ashoka's Dhamma as found through his inscriptions had its roots in Vedic-Upanishadic literature." Discuss. 15 570 Main Examination : The Big Battle

(c) The period of Indian History form 3rd century B.C.E. to 5th century C.E. was the period of innovation and interaction. How will you react ? 20 4. (a) Trace the origin and development of temple architecture in India with reference to regional styles and variations. 20 (b) Buddhism and Jainism were social movements under the umbrella of religion. Comment. 15 (c) The accurate picture of the complex socio-cultural milieu of Peninsular Indian is presented in the early Sangam literature. Delineate. 15

SECTION B 5. Answer the following question in about 150 words each: 10 x 5 = 50 (a) The 11th - 12th centuries C.E. saw eventful progression in the cultural history of India. Discuss. 10 (b) Evaluate the accounts of foreign travellers about the Vijayanagar Empire. 10 (c) Critically examine the 'blood and iron' policy of Balban. 10 (d) Do you consider the Rajatarangini of Kalhana to be a reliable source of the political history of Kashmir ? Why? 10 (e) The religion of the Sikhs was the main force of their unity. Comment. 10 6. (a) To what extent was the Caliphate the source and sanction to the legal authority of the Sultans of Delhi ? 15 (b) "Bhakti and Sufi movements served the same social purpose." Discuss. 15 (c) Delineate non-agricultural production and urban economy in the 13th and 14th centuries C.E. 20 7. (a) Do you agree that the schemes of Muhammad bin Tughluq were correctly conceived, badly executed and disastrously abandoned ? Discuss. 15 (b) Do you think that Akbar's Rajput policy was a conscious attempt to incorporate the Indian ruling elite with the Mughal Imperial System ? 15 (c) "The political disintegration was responsible for the socio-economic decline in India during the 18th century." Comment. 20 8. (a) "Mughal paintings reflect social harmony in contemporary society." Discuss. 20 (b) Assess the condition of peasantry during 13th to 17th centuries C.E. 15 (c) How will you view the Maratha policy of expansion ? Delineate. 15

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571 civilz byte HISTORY PAPER-2 2013

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are EIGHT questions divided in TWO SECTIONS. Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all. Questions Nos. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE from each section. The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question- cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to. Attempts of questions shall be counted in chronological order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question- cum- Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION - A 1. Critically examine the following statement in about 150 words each : 10x5=50 (a) "Dupleix made a cardinal blunder in looking for the key of India in Madras: Clive sought and found it in Bengal." (b) Swami Vivekananda opined that "We should give our ancient spirituality and culture and get in return Western science, technology, methods of raising the standards of life, business integrity and technique of collective effort." (c) "Ryotwari falls into three stages - early, middle and late, and the only description common to all is that it is a mode of settlement with small farmers, so small, indeed, that their average holding is, on recent figures, only about 6.5 acres." (d) "Many of us who work for the Congress program lived in a kind of intoxication during the year 1921. We were full of excitement and optimism… We had a sense of freedom and pride in that freedom." 572 Main Examination : The Big Battle

(e) "Gandhi's body is in jail but his soul is with you, India's prestige is in your hands, you must not use any violence under any circumstances. You will be beaten but you must not resist; you must not raise a hand to ward off blows."

2. (a) "Weaving", says R. C. Dutt, "was the national industry of the people and spinning was the pursuit of millions of women." Indian textiles went to England and other parts of Europe, to China and Japan and Burma and Arabia and Persia and parts of Africa. Elucidate. 25 (b) "The first point to note is the continuing importance of religion and philosophy as vital ingredients in the modern Indian Renaissance. Indeed, there is as much reason for regarding it as a reformation as there is for treating it as a Renaissance." Critically examine. 25

3. (a) "At the dawn of the twentieth century Lord Curzon, the Viceroy of India, was full of hostility towards the Indian National Congress and he confidentially reported to the Secretary of State in November 1900 : My own belief is that the Congress is tottering to its fall, and one of my greatest ambitions while in India is to assist it to a peaceful demise." Examine. 25 (b) "Though the Act of 1919 was superseded by that of 1935, the preamble to the former was not repealed-the preservation of the smile of the Cheshire cat after its disappearance, and the latter said nothing about Dominion Status." Elucidate. 25 (c) "Not only does ancient Tamil literature furnish an accurate picture of widely disparate classes; it also describes the social condition of Tamil country as it was." Discuss. 15

4. (a) "Notwithstanding the quest for modernity and the antagonism that guided Nehru's attitude towards the inequalities inherent in the social structure in rural India, the Con- gress Party did not carry out a concerted campaign against discrimination based on caste. Nehru's own perception was that industrial growth was bound to break the strangle- hold of this feudal remnant. This, however, did not happen in India." Examine. 25

(b) "The reorganization resulted in rationalizing the political map of India without seriously weakening its unity. If anything, its result has been functional, in as much as it removed what had been a major source of discord, and created homogeneous political units which could be administered through a medium that the vast majority of the population understood. Indeed, it can be said with the benefit of hindsight that language, rather than being a force for division, has proved a cementing and integrating influence." Examine. 25

573 civilz byte SECTION B (World History)

5. Critically examine the following statements in about 150 words each: 10 x 5 = 50 (a) "For Kant, Enlightenment is mankind's final coming of age, the emancipation of the human consciousness from an immature state of ignorance and error." (b) "Six hundred thousand men had died. The Union was preserved, the slaves freed. A nation 'conceived in liberty and dedicated to the proposition that all men are created equal' had survived its most terrible ordeal." (c) "Colonialism not only deprives a society of its freedom and its wealth, but of its very character, leaving its people intellectually and morally disoriented." (d) "If the 1917 Bolshevik Revolution in Russia (that resulted in the creation of the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics or Soviet Union) inaugurated an international competition for the hearts and minds of people all over the globe, the Chinese Revolution raised the stakes of that struggle." (e) "Decolonization has finished. It definitely belongs to the past. Yet somehow it has refused to become history."

6. (a) "In spite of the careful framing of the Charter, the role of UNO as peacekeeper and international mediator has been somewhat lacklustre and muted and that continues to be so even after the end of Cold War." Elucidate. 25 (b) "Change in Britain came comparatively peacefully through democratic process in the first half of the nineteenth century and a model of a functioning democracy through ballot box was successfully put in place." Elaborate. 25 7. (a) "New imperialism was a nationalistic, not an economic phenomena." Critically examine. 25 (b) "By the 1980s, the Communist system of the Soviet Union was incapable of maintaining the country's role as a Superpower." Elucidate. 25 8. (a) "The European Union is the new sick man of Europe." Critically evaluate. 25 (b) "There must be an end to white monopoly on political power, and a fundamental restructuring of our political and economic systems to ensure that the inequalities of apartheid are addressed and our society thoroughly democratized." Discuss. 25

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574 Main Examination : The Big Battle HISTORY PAPER-2 2014

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are EIGHT questions divided in TWO SECTIONS. Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all. Questions Nos. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE from each section. The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question- cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to. Attempts of questions shall be counted in chronological order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question- cum- Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION - A 1. Critically examine the following statement in about 150 words each : 10 x 5 = 50 (a) "Plassey did not complete the British conquest of India. Had the English been convinc- ingly defeated in any subsequent battle in India, then (the battle of) Plassey would have remained as a minor episode in the history of India." 10 (b) "Montague-Chelmsford reform proposals introduced `dyarchy', but blurred the lines of responsibility." 10 (c) "The military, feudal and traditional overtones of the Revolt of 1857 were overshad- owed by its nationalist or proto-nationalist character." 10 (d) "The 'safety-valve thesis' does not adequately explain the birth of the Indian National Congress in 1885." 10 (e) "M.K Gandhi made a gross mistake in championing the Khilafat cause, an extra-territorial issue which cut at the very roots of Indian nationality." 10 575 civilz byte

2. (a) "The Dual System of Government was a complete failure from the outset. In the first place, the abuse of the private trade reached a greater height than ever. In the second place, the demands of the Company for the increase led to gross oppression of the peasantry." Examine. 20 (b) "… instead of rejecting the plan (Cabinet Mission Plan), they (the Congress Leadership) resorted to a half-baked legalistic stratagem to reserve their position on its long-term arrangements and accepted its short-term provisions." Critically examine. 20 (c) "Dalit Movements for empowerment in independent India have essentially been for carving out political space through electoral politics." Discuss. 10

3. (a) "Politics remained for the bulk of the Moderates very much a part-time affair. The Congress was not a political party, but an annual three-day show…" Elucidate. 20 (b) "The Anti-Partition Agitation (1909) had an economic character in Bengal unlike the Extremist Agitation in Maharashtra which had a religious character." Examine. 20 (c) "Sardar Patel accomplished a silent revolution by ensuring the absorption and assimila- tion of a multitude of principalities without shedding even a drop of blood." Elucidate. 10 4. (a) "Though Sri Ramakrishna became the prophet of neo-Hinduism, he never claimed to have founded any new religion." Elaborate. 20 (b) "Why did the British finally quit India on 15th August 1947? The Imperialist answer is that independence was simply the fulfilment of British self-appointed mission to assist the Indian people to self-government." Examine. 20 (c) To what extent did the Freedom Movement in India influence the Liberation Movement in Africa ? 10

SECTION B 5. Critically examine the following statements in about 150 words each: 10 x 5 = 50 (a) "Rousseau strove to reconcile the liberty of the individual and the institution of Gov- ernment through a new vision of the Contract-Theory of Government." 10 (b) "The commercial and industrial interests created a veritable hothouse atmosphere in Europe for the establishment of colonies." 10 (c) "Enlightened despots (Europe) were not necessarily politically liberal." 10 (d) "… the passing of the 'Reform Act' marked the real beginning of modern party organisation in England … In a real sense, the present political system of England dates from 1832." 10 (e) "The Russo-Japanese War helped in the rise of Japan as a great power." 10 576 Main Examination : The Big Battle

6. (a) "American Revolution seems to have come with remarkable suddenness. A roster of talented leaders emerged during 1763 to 1775 to make it happen." Elucidate. 20 (b) If we were to define our conception of the State, our answer would be that the State is the banker of the poor. The government would finance and supervise the purchase of productive equipments and the formation of workshops." In light of the above statement of Louis Blanc, throw light on the Pre-Marxist Socialist Thought in Europe. 20 (c) To what extent did the expansion of European Powers in the late 19th century help in the modernization of Africa ? 10

7. (a) "The Declaration of Rights was the death-warrant of the system of privilege, and so of the ancient regime … Yet in the history of ideas it belonged rather to the past than to the future." Examine. 20 (b) Critically examine the socio-cultural and economic impact of migration in Europe and Asia in the 18th and 19th centuries. 20 (c) Discuss the circumstances leading to the Suez Crisis of 1956 and examine its repercus- sions on global politics. 10

8. (a) "Europe was eclipsed through European folly due to the two world wars." Elucidate. 20 (b) "The language of narrow nationalism held at Frankfurt destroyed the German Revolu- tion; as the fatal idea of aggrandisement of the House of Savoy destroyed the Italian Revolution." Discuss. 20 (c) Discuss the nature of American overseas expansion in Asia and explain the consequences. 10

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577 civilz byte HISTORY PAPER-2 2015

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are EIGHT questions divided in TWO SECTIONS. Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all. Questions Nos. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE from each section. The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question- cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to. Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Ques- tion- cum- Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION - A 1. Critically examine the following statements in about 150 words each: 10x5=50 (a) "Annexation of Punjab was part of a broad north-west frontier policy set in motion after the exit of Maharaja Ranjit Singh." (b) "The Regulating Act (1773), the Pitt's India Act (1784) and eventually the Charter Act of 1833 left the East India Company as a mere shadow of its earlier political and economic power in India." (c) "The Indigo Revolt of 1859-60 holds a very significant place in our history of national liberation movement. For the first time in the history of our anti-colonial struggle, its two independent currents - spontaneous peasant resistance and constitutional agitation in defence of the peasantry - came into mutual contact." (d) "The very idea of the bomb and the secret society, and of propaganda through action and sacrifice were imports from the West." 578 Main Examination : The Big Battle

(e) "This retention of Rowlatt legislation in the teeth of universal opposition is an affront to the nation. Its repeal is necessary to appease national honour." 2. (a) "Swami Dayananda's philosophy represents both elements of extremism and social radicalism." Substantiate. 20 (b) "To characterize the Quit India Movement as 'Spontaneous Revolution' would be partial interpretation, so also would be to look up at it as the culmination of Gandhian Satyagraha movements." Elucidate. 20 (c) "A powerful left-wing group developed in India in the late 1920s and 1930s, contributing to the radicalization of national movement." Critically Examine. 10 3. (a) "Under the forceful thrust of British colonialism, Indian economy was transformed into a colonial one, the structure of which was determined by the requirements of Britain's fast developing industrial economy." Examine. 20 (b) "James Mill, the apostle of utilitarian philosophy, proposed a revolution off Indian society through the 'weapon of law' solely. But in actual policy framing, other influences and considerations weighed much more than the colonial State." Elucidate. 20 (c) "The Royal Indian Navy Revolt was seen as an event which marked the end of the British rule almost as finally as Independence Day." Explain. 10 4. (a) Analyze the nature of peasant movements during the nationalist phase and bring out their shortcomings. 20 (b) "Jawaharlal Nehru, though a declared socialist, was pragmatist enough to focus on providing building blocks to the making of new India." Examine. 20 (c) "Although the Government of India Act of 1935 replaced diarchy with Provincial autonomy, the overriding powers of the Governor diluted the spirit of autonomy." Elucidate. 10

SECTION B 5. Critically examine the following statements in about 150 words each: 10 x 5 = 50 (a) "France was even more fertile than Britain in producing new socialist theories and movements, though bore less concrete results in France than Britain." (b) "The multiple contradictions that quickly undermined the new edifice, had been expressed even before the meeting of the Estate General in France. The internal conflict among Estates had manifested itself." (c) "The whole episode that is known as the July Revolution (1830) was fought and won not for the establishment of an extreme democracy but to get rid of the aristocratic and clericalist attitude of the restored Bourbons." (d) "Mazzini's conception of Italian nationality was not exclusive and his dominant ideal was the recreation of moral unity of mankind." 579 civilz byte

(e) "The Continental Blockade was a misconceived idea of economically defeating Great britain."

6. (a) "The Berlin Congress (1878) failed to unlock the Eastern Question. Though there was no major war in Europe for nearly three decades after the Treaty of Berlin, it contained the seeds of many future wars." Critically Evaluate. 20 (b) "History of Africa appears to be simply an extension or mere sub-theme under the broad headings of European and American history. According to this historiography, Africa seems to be without any history before the European scramble." Elucidate. 20 (c) "The Truman Doctrine and the Marshall Plan were considered by Russian Bloc as a weapon against Russia in order to restrict her influence." Critically examine. 10 7. (a) How far is it correct to say that the First World War was fought essentially for the preservation of the balance of power? 20 (b) "The failure of Kuomintang against the communist onslaught was unimaginable and it was Mao Tse-tung whose tenacity and innovative approach had accomplished the unthinkable." Discuss. 20 (c) "The oppressive exploitation of the working class in the wake of Industrial Revolution had jolted the social conscience of England." Elucidate. 10 8. (a) "The UNO was created in the light of the experience of the 'League of Nations', but in spite of the mandate contained in the UNO constitution, its effective role in maintaining world peace has lacked cohesiveness and collective approach." Examine. 20 (b) "The European Union, a diplomatic marvel, continues to grapple with intermittent fissures arising out of economic contentious issues that pose a challenge to an effective integration of the Union." Critically examine. 20 (c) The role of the Non-Alignment Movement in world affairs had suffered greatly due to the theatre of internecine conflicts among the Third World countries who spearheaded it." Elucidate. 10

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580 Main Examination : The Big Battle HISTORY PAPER-2 2016

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are EIGHT questions divided in TWO SECTIONS. Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all. Questions no. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE from each section. The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question- cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to. Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Ques- tion- cum- Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION - A

1. Critically examine the following statements in about 150 words each: 10 x 5 = 50 (a) Comment on the French ambition of building a territorial empire in India. 10 (b) After the battle of Plassey, how did India transit from the medieval to the modern age? 10 (c) Do you agree with the view that the growth of vernacular literature in the 19th and the 20th centuries paved the way for social reform and cultural revival in India? 10 (d) "The Mutiny of 1857 was much more than a mutiny of Sepoys and much less than a National Rebellion" Comment. 10 (e) Explain "Constructive Swadeshi" characterized by atmashakti (self-reliance), which propelled the Swadeshi Movement in Bengal. 10

581 civilz byte

2. (a) How far is it correct to say that if Clive was the founder of the British Empire in India, Warren Hastings was its administrative organizer? 20 (b) "Peace hath her victories no less renowned than war." Examine this statement with reference to Lord William Bentinck. 20 (c) "India's need for a federal system was more an imperative than a political choice." Do you agree? 10 3. (a) Critically examine the causes responsible for the phenomenon called 'de-industrialization in India during the nineteenth century. 20 (b) How far is it correct to say that the 19th century tribal uprisings are a part of subaltern nationalism ? 20 (c) How did Dr. B.R. Ambedkar try to seek a political solution to the problem of caste in India ? 10 4. (a) "The need to impose greater parliamentary control over the Company's affairs increased during the decades (1773-1853) after Plassey." Elucidate. 20 (b) What significant role did women play in the Indian National Movement? 20 (c) Critically examine the nature and scope of environmental movements in independent India. 10

SECTION B 5. Answer the following in about 150 words each: 10 x 5 = 50 (a) "Karl Marx applied his critical intelligence to Wealth of Nations… Where Smith had seen only the sunlight, Marx saw only the shadows thrown upon the human scene by the unimpeded exercise of individual liberty… Elucidate. 10 (b) What is Metternich system? Assess its impact on Europe. 10 (c) "League of Nations is a League of Notions" Comment. 10 (d) Explain the main features of the US Federal Constitution. 10 (e) What factors contributed to the emergence of a unipolar world ? 10 6. (a) Critically examine the statement that the French Revolution was not caused by the French philosophers but by the conditions of national life and by the mistakes of the government. 20 (b) "A house divided against itself cannot stand. I believe this government cannot endure permanently half slave and half free" Explain Abraham Lincoln's perspective. 20 (c) Trace the significant role played by Ho Chi Minh in Vietnam's struggle for freedom. 10

582 Main Examination : The Big Battle

7. (a) How did Lenin achieve an abrupt transition from a Monarchial autocratic to a Socialist State? 20 (b) Do you agree with the view that the Treaty of Versailles was a bad compromise between a treaty based upon force and a treaty based on ideas? 20 (c) Trace the growth of British imperialism in South Africa from 1800 to 1907. 10 8. (a) Trace the growth of Arab nationalism after the First World War. How far was it a reaction to Oil imperialism? 20 (b) In what way did the political changes in Soviet Union influence the events in Eastern Europe during the closing decades of the 20th century? 20 (c) Outline the circumstances leading to Détente. 10

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583 civilz byte HISTORY PAPER-2 2017

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are EIGHT questions divided in TWO SECTIONS. Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all. Questions no. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE from each section. The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question- cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to. Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Ques- tion- cum- Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION - A

1. Critically examine the following statements in about 150 words each: 10 x 5 = 50 (a) "The Maratha polity disintegrated through internal stress." (b) "The chief value of Raja's (Raja Rammohan Roy) labours seems to lie in his fight against the forces of medievalism in India." (c) "The British railway construction policy in India benefitted British economy in the nineteenth century." (d) "The Arya Samaj may quite logically be pronounced as the outcome of condition imported into India from the West." (e) "Sri Narayana Guru's was a major intervention in the social reform movement from a subaltern perspective." 584 Main Examination : The Big Battle

2. (a) Explain the factors responsible for the recurrence of famines in the nineteenth century. What remedial measures were adopted by the British Indian Government ? 20 (b) Assess the role of press in arousing awareness on important social issues in the second half of the nineteenth century. 20 (c) Underline the major considerations of the British imperial power that led to the annexation of Punjab. 10

3. (a) Trace the origin of the Ghadar movement and discuss its impact on the revolutionaries in India. 20 (b) Explain why the efforts at finding solution to India's constitutional impasse failed during 1942-1946. 20 (c) Discuss the nature of peasant movements under the Kisan Sabhas during 1920-1940. 10

4. (a) Discuss how the Satyagrahas of Gandhi removed the spell of fear among Indians and thus knocked off an important pillar of imperialism. 20 (b) How far the developments in science and technology in post-Independence period put India on the path of modernity ? 20 (c) Throw light on the nature of 'Instrument of Accession' and 'Standstill Agreement' signed by the Princely States with the Indian Union. 10

SECTION B

5. Critically examine the following statements in about 150 words each: 10 x 5 = 50 (a) "Kant's redefinition of reason and his rehabilitation of conscience marked a high point in the intellectual reaction against dominant rationalism of the Enlightenment." (b) "The spirit behind the great reforms of Napoleon's Consulate at home was the transfer- ence of the methods of Bonaparte the general to task of Bonaparte the statesman." (c) "The roots of the Chartist movement in Great Britain were partly political and partly economic." (d) "18 January, 1871 had been a day of triumph for the strength and pride of Germany and 28 June, 1919 was the day of chastisement." (e) "The collapse of Berlin Wall on 9 November, 1989 brought new meaning to the idea of cooperation in Europe."

6. (a) Explain why England became the harbinger of Industrial Revolution. Also throw light on its social consequences. 20 585 civilz byte

(b) Why was the First World War termed as the first 'total' war in modern history? 20 (c) Discuss how agrarian crisis accompanied by severe industrial depression triggered the Revolutions of 1848. 10

7. (a) What determinant factors, along with diplomatic, shaped the process of German Unifi- cation? 20 (b) Examine the statement that "the danger of 'Bolshevism' dominated not only the history of the years immediately following the Russian Revolution of 1917 but the entire history of the world since that date." 20 (c) Examine why Bolivar's efforts failed to fructify in bringing about united stand of the Latin Americans. 10

8. (a) Examine the circumstances which led to the overthrow of democracy and the establishment of Fascist dictatorship in Italy. 20 (b) "By 1980s, the Communist System of Soviet Union was incapable of maintaining the country's role as a Superpower." Substantiate. 20 (c) Examine the nature of Dutch imperialism in Indonesia. 10

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586 CHAPTER Main Examination : The Big Battle 65 Optional Geography

eography has always been considered as ing given to geography by the UPSC in its changed an interdisciplinary subject. To be able pattern. Candidates with Geography Optional can Gto do well with this subject in the Civil do better with Geography part in GS – I, Mains. Services Exam, one must have a good base of Moreover, the topics like Ecology & Environment the traditional aspects and that has to be coupled in Paper-IV (GS-III) and GS in prelims can be un- with all the contemporary developments. In derstood only with a fair & prior knowledge in UPSC, the questioning style of traditional aspects Geography. In addition, these newer dimensions of geography has taken a paradigm shift. of global warming & ecological sustainability are Every year with the development of tech- making their presence felt at the centre of the nology, we are witnessing the newer dimensions International political discourse. in older theories. The general opinion of an as- The social aspects too which have more pirant is “Geography as an optional subject is weightage in the whole of UPSC syllabus share a ever static with concepts like continental drift geographical angle. Without the study of Human Theory, plate tectonics or cyclones.” But, the cur- geography, no aspirant can get more marks in rent changes and unexpected events across the the social issues. world, for obvious reasons, attract the UPSC to pose questions from such current events. Be- On the other hand, economic development of cause of this, students tend to feel that the ques- our country and the largely employed sector - tion paper is tough. It is only those students that agriculture cannot be discussed and understood succeed who are good at connecting and analyz- without geographical awareness. ing the application of the theories with the con- In a nut shell, you name any topic of the temporary content. Civil Services Exam, it has got a connectivity with Geography. And hence, as a whole, it shares WHY GEOGRAPHY a major chunk of marks in Mains as well as the IN PARTICULAR? Prelims. Mains to be specific, Geography has a ma- To be an efficient administrator, one should jor say in all papers of GS covering almost 400 have a clear understanding and vision about his out of 1250 marks (GS + Essay) alongside the surroundings. As such, much importance is be- optional with 500 marks. The UPSC recognizes 587 civilz byte and takes cognizance of the fact that the up- SYLLABUS coming breed of administrators will have to actively participate in negotiations related to geo- Paper-I graphical aspects of human lives. Accordingly, it (Principles of Geography) is imperative for every aspirant while studying the basic subject, to interlink the current hap- PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY penings. This will also give a better understand- 1. Geomorphology ing of the trend of questions asked and at the end of the day, will certainly help in maintaining Factors controlling landform development an edge over other subjects. Endogenetic and exogenetic forces Origin and evolution of the earth’s crust FEW QUICK TIPS Fundamentals of geomagnetism SIMPLE STRATEGY Physical conditions of the earth’s interior Geosynclines Look into as many Previous Years Question Papers as possible and understand the na- Continental drift ture of the questions. Isostasy Keep an atlas, preferably ‘Oxford’ or ‘Ori- Plate tectonics ent Black Swan’ with you and follow the maps Recent views on mountain building while preparing. Vulcanicity Use google to understand the concepts bet- Earthquakes and Tsunamis ter with images or videos. Concepts of geomorphic cycles and Land- Don’t stop with a single reading and choose scape development to give multiple revisions of what you’ve Denudation chronology prepared. Channel morphology Practise diagrams, graphs and such relevant Erosion surfaces things which are significant in the cogita- Slope development tion of Geography. Applied Geomorphology: Geo hydrology, eco- Preserve this book with you and regularly nomic geology and environment. check about where you are in the syllabus. 2. Climatology Regularly practise writing answers from the topics you have covered. Temperature and pressure belts of the world Read those chapters from India Year Book Heat budget of the earth which are relevant to the topics in syllabus. Atmospheric circulation Videos of ‘Unacademy’ on YouTube will also Atmospheric stability and instability help in understanding the subject better. Planetary and local winds 588 Main Examination : The Big Battle Monsoons and jet streams 5. Environmental Geography Air masses and fronto genesis, Temperate Principle of ecology and tropical cyclones Human ecological adaptations Types and distribution of precipitation Influence of man on ecology and environ- Weather and Climate ment Koppen’s, Thornthwaite’s and Trewartha’s Global and regional ecological changes and classification of world climates imbalances Hydrological cycle Ecosystem their management and conser- Global climatic change and role and response vation of man in climatic changes, Applied clima- Environmental degradation, management tology and Urban climate. and conservation 3. Oceanography Biodiversity and sustainable development Bottom topography of the Atlantic, Indian Environmental policy and Pacific Oceans Environmental hazards and remedial mea- Temperature and salinity of the oceans sures Heat and salt budgets, Ocean deposits Environmental education and legislation. Waves, currents and tides Marine resources: biotic, mineral and en- HUMAN GEOGRAPHY ergy resources Coral reefs, coral bleaching; sea-level 6. Perspectives in Human Geography changes; law of the sea and marine Areal differentiation pollution. Regional synthesis 4. Biogeography Dichotomy and dualism Genesis of soils Environmentalism Classification and distribution of soils Quantitative revolution and locational Soil profile; Soil erosion, Degradation and analysis conservation Radical, behavioural, human and welfare Factors influencing world distribution of approaches plants and animals Languages, religions and secularization Problems of deforestation and conservation Cultural regions of the world measures Human development index. Social forestry Agroforestry 7. Economic Geography Wild life World economic development: measurement Major gene pool centres. and problems 589 civilz byte

World resources and their distribution 9. Regional Planning Energy crisis Concept of a region The limits to growth Types of regions and methods of regiona- World agriculture: typology of agricultural lization regions Growth centres and growth poles Agricultural inputs and productivity Regional imbalances Food and nutrition problems Regional development strategies Food security Environmental issues in regional planning Famine: causes, effects and remedies Planning for sustainable development. World industries: locational patterns and 10. Models, Theories and Laws in problems Human Geography Patterns of world trade. Systems 8. Population and Settlement Analysis in Human geography Geography Malthusian, Marxian and demographic tran- Growth and distribution of world population sition models Demographic attributes Central Place theories of Christaller and Causes and consequences of migration Losch Concepts of over-under-and optimum popu- Perroux and Boudeville lation Von Thunen’s model of agricultural location Population theories, world population prob- Weber’s model of industrial location lems and policies, Social well-being and qual- Ostov’s model of stages of growth ity of life Heartland and Rimland theories Population as social capital. Types and patterns of rural settlements Laws of international boundaries and frontiers. Environmental issues in rural settlements Hierarchy of urban settlements PAPER II Urban morphology: Concepts of primate city Geography of India and rank-size rule Functional classification of towns 1. Physical Setting Sphere of urban influence Space relationship of India with neighbor- Rural - urban fringe ing countries Satellite towns Structure and relief Problems and remedies of urbanization Drainage system and watersheds Sustainable development of cities. 590 Main Examination : The Big Battle

Physiographic regions 4. Industry Mechanism of Indian monsoons and rainfall Evolution of industries patterns, Tropical cyclones and western dis- Locational factors of cotton, jute, textile, turbances iron and steel, aluminum, fertilizer, paper, Floods and droughts chemical and pharmaceutical, automobile, cottage and agro-based industries Climatic regions Industrial houses and complexes including Natural vegetation public sector undertakings Soil types and their distributions. Industrial regionalization 2. Resources New industrial policies Land, surface and ground water, energy, Multinationals and liberalization minerals, biotic and marine resources Special Economic Zones Forest and wild life resources and their con- Tourism including eco - tourism. servation 5. Transport, Communication and Energy crisis. Trade 3. Agriculture Road, railway, waterway, airway and pipeline networks and their complementary roles Infrastructure: irrigation, seeds, fertilizers, in regional development power Growing importance of ports on national and Institutional factors: land holdings, land ten- foreign trade ure and land reforms Trade balance Cropping pattern, agricultural productivity, Trade Policy agricultural intensity, crop combination, land Export processing zones capability Developments in communication and infor- Agro and social-forestry mation technology and their impacts on Green revolution and its socio- economic and economy and society ecological implications Indian space programme. Significance of dry farming 6. Cultural Setting Livestock resources and white revolution Historical Perspective of Indian Society Aquaculture, sericulture, apiculture and Racial, linguistic and ethnic diversities poultry Religious minorities Agricultural regionalization Major tribes, tribal areas and their prob- Agro-climatic zones lems Agro ecological regions. Cultural regions 591 civilz byte

Growth, distribution and density of Regional planning and development of is- population land territories. Demographic attributes: sex-ratio, age 9. Political Aspects structure, literacy rate, work-force, depen- dency ratio, longevity Geographical basis of Indian federalism Migration (Inter-regional, Intra-regional and State reorganization International) and associated problems Emergence of new states

Population problems and policies Regional consciousness and interstate issues International boundary of India and related Health indicators. issues 7. Settlements Cross border terrorism Types, patterns and morphology of rural India’s role in world affairs settlements Geopolitics of South Asia and Indian Ocean Urban developments realm Morphology of Indian cities 10. Contemporary Issues Functional classification of Indian cities Ecological issues: Environmental hazards: Conurbations and metropolitan regions landslides, earthquakes, Tsunamis, floods Urban sprawl and droughts, epidemics Slums and associated problems Issues relating to environmental pollution Town planning Changes in patterns of land use Problems of urbanization and remedies. Principles of environmental impact assess- 8. Regional Development and ment and environmental management Planning Population explosion and food security Experience of regional planning in India Environmental degradation Five Year Plans Deforestation, desertification and soil Integrated rural development programmes erosion Panchayati Raj and decentralized planning; Problems of agrarian and industrial unrest Command area development Regional disparities in economic develop- Watershed management ment Planning for backward area, desert, drought Concept of sustainable growth and devel- prone, hill, tribal area development opment Multi-level planning Environmental awareness

592 Main Examination : The Big Battle

Linkage of rivers 12. “Economic & Social Geography: Made simple Globalization and Indian economy. – Rupa Series SOURCES OF STUDY 13. “Human & Economic Geography” by Goh Cheng Leong Just studying the NCERT textbooks of ge- 14. “Urbanization & Urban Systems in India” by ography is not enough. They can only provide a Ramachandran base of the traditional subject matter of geog- 15. “Regional Planning” by Jaishree Sai Chowdary raphy. So, after a careful understanding of the 16. “Political Geography” by Dixit concepts from NCERT Books (6th to 8th, 11th & 12th), one has to study the following books for PAPER - II Paper 1 & Paper 2 of Optional. 1. “India A comprehensive Geography” by D. PAPER – I R. Khullar Physical Geography 2. NCERT Textbooks of Geography - 6th, 7th, 8th, 11th & 12th. 1. “Certificate Physical and Human Geogra- 3. Relevant Chapters from ‘Indian Economy’ phy” by Goh Cheng Leong. by Dutt & Sundaram 2. “Physical Geography” by Savindra Singh 4. Yojana & Kurukshetra Magazines 3. “Physical Geography : Made simple” – Rupa And relevant chapters from the books rec- Series. ommended for Paper - 1 4. “Modern Physical Geography” by Strahler & Strahler WEBSITES 5. “A Textbook of Geomorphology” by P. Dayal www.noaa.gov - National Oceanic and At- 6. “Oceanography” by D. S. Lal (OR) M. Vatal mospheric Administration and Sharma www.unep.org - United Nations Environment 7. “Climatology” by D. S. Lal Programme 8. “Environmental Geography & Bio geogra- YouTube - National Geographic Channel phy” by Deswal & Deswal / Mishra Videos (You should definitely use YouTube. It’s such a cool stuff.) Human Geography www.wmo.int 9. “Human Geography” by Majid Hussain - World Meteorological Organization 10. “Indian A comprehensive Geography” by D. www.climate.nasa.gov R. Khullar – NASA Climate Change 11. “Geographical Thought” by Majid Hussain www.unfccc.int – United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change ––––––––––– ––––––––––– 593 CHAPTER civilz byte 66 Treasure Trove: Geography Question Papers GEOGRAPHY PAPER-1 2013

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are EIGHT questions divided in TWO SECTIONS. Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all. Questions no. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE question from each section. The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question- cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to. Illustrate your answers with suitable sketches, maps and diagrams, wherever considered necessary. These shall be drawn in the space provided for answering the question itself. Attempts of questions shall be counted in chronological order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question- cum- Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

594 Main Examination : The Big Battle

SECTION - A

1. Write short notes on the following in about 150 words each: 10 x 5 = 50 (a) Differences between Normal cycle and Arid cycle of Davis. 10 (b) Differentiate Storm Surges and Seiches. 10 (c) Uniqueness of fauna in the Notogean realm. 10 (d) Impact of Pleistocene Ice Age on the crust of the Earth. 10 (e) Types of endemic plants and their degree of vulnerability to extinction. 10

2. Answer the following in about 250 words each: (a) With suitable examples, bring out the impact of local winds on the climate of an area. 20 (b) What are the characteristics that make CHC a serious threat to the ecosystem? Give examples. 15 (c) What is 'Base level'? Explain the types of base level. 15

3. Answer the following in about 250 words each: (a) "Offshore Acoustic Study helped the development of the concept of sea floor spreading." Explain. 20 (b) Discuss Dew point and the various forms of condensation. 15 (c) Bring out the relationship between climate and vegetation in the Mountain Biome. 15

4. Answer the following in about 400 words each: (a) Compare the Susidence and Glacial control theories on the formation of coral reefs. 25 (b) Explain the levels of Noise pollution and the legislative measures to control it. 25

SECTION B

5. Answer the following in about 150 words each : 10 × 5 = 50 (a) "Ellen Churchill Semple is an ardent supporter of Determinism." Explain. 10 (b) Role of Venezuela in the production and export of oil. 10 (c) Misra's theoretical stages of Rural - Urban Process. 10 (d) Countries most affected in case of shut-down of Nuclear power. 10 (e) Relevance of Heartland theory in Contemporary world. 10

6. Answer the following in about 250 words each: (a) What is Geriatrics? What are the problems associated with Geriatric population? 20 595 civilz byte

(b) Discuss the changing pattern of production and export of Coffee in the world. 10 (c) What are the basic postulates in the Central Place Model of Christaller? 15

7. Answer the following in about 250 words each : (a) "Urban Solid Waste Management poses the greatest challenge in Metropolitan planning.' Elaborate. 20 (b) Analyse the reasons for a comparatively poorer development of fishing grounds in tropical areas. 15 (c) Explain the parameters for assessment and the spatial pattern of Human Development Index in the world. 15

8. Write about the following in about 400 words each : 25 x 2 = 50 (a) "Urban Geography is nothing but city "in" area and city "as" area." Elaborate. 25 (b) Analyse the causes for changes in the pattern of world trade. 25

596 Main Examination : The Big Battle GEOGRAPHY PAPER-1 2014

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are EIGHT questions divided in TWO SECTIONS. Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all. Questions Nos. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE question from each section. The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question- cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to. Illustrate your answers with suitable sketches/maps and diagrams, wherever considered necessary. These shall be drawn in the space provided for answering the question itself. Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Ques- tion- cum- Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION - A

1. Answer the following in about 150 words each : 10 x 5 = 50 (a) Define the term 'meander' and describe the basic characteristics of entrenched meander and ingrown meander. (b) Discuss the salient features of 'sirocco' and 'mistral'. (c) Discuss an account of the nature of biosphere as an ecosystem. (d) State the uniqueness of the Eurasian Steppe Biome. (e) Illustrate the origin and nature of Sargasso Sea and Lagoon 2. (a) State the concept of plate tectonics. How does it help in explaining the formation of Himalayas and Appalachain Mountains. 20 597 civilz byte

(b) Describe the origin and development of thunderstorms with examples. 15 (c) Enumerate the major causes of increasing degradation of environment in hills and hillslopes, and state its down-valley impact. 15 3. (a) Discuss the nature and origin of Indian monsoon and recent techniques of its prediction. 20 (b) State the concept of erosion surfaces and highlight the factors responsible for their development. 15 (c) Give a critical account of reasons and consequences of marine pollution. 15 4. (a) Explain weathering and mass wasting, and describe their geomorphic significance.20 (b) Define zoogeographic region. Also describe the basic faunal makeup of the Neo-Arctic zoogeographic region. 15 (c) Give an account of recent observations on coral bleaching with reference to Clive Wilkinson's Report. 15

SECTION B

5. Answer the following in about 150 words each : 10 × 5 = 50 (a) Elaborate the concept of mental map. (b) Give an account of food security issues in developing countries. (c) Discuss the factors responsible for counter-urbanisation. (d) Explain the relevance of bottom-up and top-down approaches in the development of agrarian economy. (e) Critically analyse application of models in geography. 6. (a) Explain the necessary conditions of takeoff and subsequent stages of development of a nation as propounded by Rostow. 20 (b) Discuss environmental and economic problems associated with coal production. 15 (c) Discuss the contribution of geographers in the development of radical geography. 15 7. (a) Giving suitable examples, describe the importance of system analysis in geographical studies. 15 (b) "Rural sustainability is necessary for urban sustainability." Discuss the statement in the backdrop of integrated development approach. 20 (c) "Indo-Gangetic hearth is considered to be one of the world's richest cultural realms." Examine. 15 8. (a) Explain the qualitative and quantitative methods of delineation of sphere of urban influence. 20 (b) "World is passing through a global resource dilemma." Comment. 15 (c) "Food productivity with purity of the ecosystem is the need of the hour." Elaborate.15 ––––––––––– ––––––––––– 598 Main Examination : The Big Battle GEOGRAPHY PAPER-1 2015

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are EIGHT questions divided in TWO SECTIONS. Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all. Questions Nos. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE from each section. The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question- cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to. Illustrate your answers with suitable sketches/maps and diagrams, wherever considered necessary. These shall be drawn in the space provided for answering the question itself. Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Ques- tion- cum- Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION - A 1. Answer the following in about 150 words each : 10 x 5 = 50 (a) Attempt a classification of geomorphic process from the zonal point of view. (b) Discuss as to how frontogenesis contributes to weather instability. (c) Describe the characteristics of different types of pelagic deposits. (d) Explain the characteristics of ecological succession. (e) Comment on the impact of environmental education on quality of life it. 2. (a) Discuss the continuations of the American School of Subaerial Denudation in geomorphology. 20 (b) What is Potential Evapotranspiration? Explain how it is used in assessing the water balance in an area. 15 (c) Discuss the methods of conserving biodiversity for sustainable development. 15 599 civilz byte

3. (a) Discuss the basis of Koppen's climatic classification. Bring out the silent characteristics of 'Cs' type of climate. 20 (b) Explain with example, as to how channel dynamic has been responsible for the development of alluvial fans and cones. 15 (c) Classify soils based on their zonal distribution and describe the characteristics of pe- docals. 15 4. (a) Explain the different stages of ecological adaptation of man and bring out the changing balance between man and development. 20 (b) Present -day landforms bear more complexity than simplicity. Elucidate. 15 (c) Explain the meridional circulation of the atmosphere and its importance in world climate. 15

SECTION B 5. Answer the following in about 150 words each : 10 × 5 = 50 (a) "The welfare face of geography makes it an inter-disciplinary subject. Elaborate. (b) "Energy mix is a step towards sustainability." Discuss. (c) Discuss Nelson's method of functional classification of towns. (d) "Marx's view on population is more humanistic." Comment. (e) Development planning has a component of environmental cost. Discuss. 6. (a) "Regional synthesis is the crux of geographical studies." Elaborate. 20 (b) Man-induced famines are becoming more common than nature-induced ones." Comment. 15 (c) Critically examine the theories on population migration. 15 7. (a) Discuss the relevance of Von Thunen's model on agricultural location in the contemporary context. 20 (b) "Cultural regions are the most suited units to study the diversity of an area." Comment. 15 (c) Discuss the approaches to the study of behavioural geography. 15 8. (a) "There is a rejuvenation of environmentalism as a paradigm in geographical studies." Comment. 20 (b) "Geographical traits lead to regional imbalances" Examine. 15 (c) Vital statistics are necessary ingredients for development planning. Elaborate. 15

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600 Main Examination : The Big Battle GEOGRAPHY PAPER-1 2016

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are EIGHT questions divided in TWO SECTIONS. Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all. Questions Nos. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE from each section. The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question- cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to. Illustrate your answers with suitable sketches/maps and diagrams, wherever considered necessary. These shall be drawn in the space provided for answering the question itself. Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Ques- tion- cum- Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION - A 1. Answer the following in about 150 words each : 10 x 5 = 50 (a) Describe the "Basket of eggs topography". (b) Differentiate between insolation and temperature and explain anomalous temperature. (c) Discuss Maritime Zones. (d) Bring out the ecological significance of Tropical Rainforest Biome. (e) Explain the hydro-meteorological hazards in the Himalayas. 2. (a) "In explaining the concept of 'Pediplanation', King combined the ideas of Davis, Penck and Wood with his own." Elaborate. 20 (b) Compare the origin and weather conditions associated with the tropical and temperate cyclones. 15 (c) Give a reasoned account on how the impact of Global Warming differs from one part of the Earth to the other. 15 601 civilz byte

3. (a) Discuss the significance of World Climate Research Programme (WCRP) and its core projects in the understanding of climate change. 20 (b) "The relationship between the winds and the currents is best seen in the Indian Ocean." Justify. 15 (c) Write a critical note on the tendency of "use and throw" in the context of economic status and environment. 15 4. (a) Bring out the various ecological problems associated with the exploitation and use of oceans and their resources. 20 (b) "Geological structure has a dominant control on landforms and is reflected on them." Discuss. 15 (c) Describe Newbigin'scheme of Floristic regions of the world and explain the Mediterra- nean Floristic region. 15

SECTION B 5. Answer the following in about 150 words each : 10 × 5 = 50 (a) "Areal differentiation forms the core theme in Geography." Explain. (b) Explain 'Isodapane'. (c) Discuss the major characteristics of 'CBD'. (d) Elaborate the idea of 'Compage'. (e) Discuss the application of Gravity model in Geographical studies. 6. (a) Trace the origin and progress of Quantitative Revolution in Geography and bring out its merits and demerits. 20 (b) Discuss the role of site in determining the types and patterns of rural settlements. 15 (c) What is a 'region'? Describe 'Thiessen' polygon method of regional delimitation. 15 7. (a) Describe the regional pattern of Life Expectancy in the world and bring out the challenges faced by the developing countries due to increase in life expectancy. 20 (b) Discuss the relevance of 'Stop and Go Determinism' in the present day context. 15 (c) Define and differentiate between boundaries and frontiers. Describe the geometrical boundaries with suitable examples. 15 8. (a) Give a critical account of Losch's theory of central places. 20 (b) "Linkages between resource-endowed regions and resource-utilizing regions determine the pattern of international trade." Elaborate with suitable examples. 15 (c) In what ways can geographers contribute towards optimal land use planning in a region? 15 ––––––––––– ––––––––––– 602 Main Examination : The Big Battle GEOGRAPHY PAPER-1 2017

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are EIGHT questions divided in TWO SECTIONS. Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all. Questions No. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, any THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE QUESTION from each section. The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question- cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to. Illustrate your answers with suitable sketches/maps and diagrams, wherever considered necessary. These shall be drawn in the space provided for answering the question itself. Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Ques- tion- cum- Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION - A 1. Answer the following in about 150 words each : 10 x 5 = 50 (a) Write a note on pseudovolcanic features. 10 (b) Distinguish between low energy coasts and coral coasts. 10 (c) Discuss the impacts of ocean currents on air mass behaviour. 10 (d) Describe the characteristics of biological deserts. 10 (e) Explain the concept of micro carbon sink and its relevance. 10 2. (a) Discuss the forces which govern the air movement on the Earth's surface. 20 (b) "The knowledge of slope analysis has limited field application in the slope management." Explain. 15 (c) Describe the configuration of the Pacific Ocean floor. 15 603 civilz byte

3. (a) "Climate change is a reality." Explain with suitable examples. 20 (b) Distinguish between the characteristics of Chernozem and Sierozem soils. 15 (c) Give a classification of plants based on the amount of water requirement. 15 4. (a) Discuss the concept of Periglacial cycle as propounded by Peltier. 20 (b) "Climate, slope gradient and rock structure influence the avulsion of channels." Explain. 15 (c) Discuss the Perception, Attitude, Value and Emotion (PAVE) Theory of environmental management. 15

SECTION B 5. Answer the following in about 150 words each : 10 × 5 = 50 (a) Explain the concept of Time-Geography. 10 (b) "Whittlesey's agricultural regions are relevant even today." Discuss. 10 (c) Write an explanatory note on geographical systems. 10 (d) "The traditional cultural identities are at loss with the growth of global connectivity." Explain. 10 (e) Give an account on sustainable development and its components. 10 6. (a) Discuss the contemporary paradigms of Geography. 20 (b) "The intensity of energy crisis varies regionally." Explain. 15 (c) Examine the causes and consequences of forced migration of population in the present context. 15 7. (a) Discuss the applicability of Christaller's Central Place Theory. 20 (b) "There are considerable demographic similarities between West European nations and Japan." Explain. 15 (c) Define the quality of life and explain its parameters with adequate examples. 15 8. (a) "The Heartland Theory is gaining importance once again." Comment. 20 (b) Examine the role of small towns in the regional development process. 15 (c) Explain the concept of social capital in relation to India. 15

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604 Main Examination : The Big Battle GEOGRAPHY PAPER-2 2013

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are EIGHT questions divided in TWO SECTIONS. Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all. Questions no. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE question from each section. The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question- cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to. Illustrate your answers with suitable sketches, maps and diagrams, wherever considered necessary. Attempts of questions shall be counted in chronological order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question- cum- Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION - A 1. (a) On the outline map of India provided to you, mark the location of all of the following. Write in your QCA Booklet the significance of these locations, whether physical/commercial/economic/ecological/environmental/cultural, in not more than 30 words for each entry : 2 x 5 = 10 (i) Mishmi Hills (ii) Lipulekh Pass (iii) Beas River (iv) Rihand Dam (v) Amaranth (b) Explain the topographical and structural characteristics of the Siwalik Range. (150 words) 10 (c) Discuss the mechanism of Indian Monsoon. (150 words) 10 605 civilz byte

(d) Identify the main industrial clusters of India and account for their development. (150 words) 10 (e) Explain the method of delineating crop-association regions with reference to India. (150 words) 10 2. (a) Discuss the potentiality and present status of horticulture in the Western and Central Himalaya. (250 words) 20 (b) Delineate the coalfields of India and mention their distinctive features. (150 words) 15 (c) Explain the role of multinationals in globalization of industries in India. 15 3. (a) Distributional pattern of industries in India does not provide requisite basis for division of the country into distinct industrial regions. Elaborate. (250 words) 20 (b) Discuss the role of institutional factors in shaping the pattern of Indian agriculture. (150 words) 15 (c) What do you understand by 'Young India? How can the present state of population composition be converted into an asset for the country? (150 words) 15 4. (a) Comment on the feasibility of interlinking of rivers of India and its possible contribution to resolution of water crisis. (250 words) 20 (b) Define agricultural productivity. Mention the methods of its measurement and bring out the disparities in its regional distribution. (150 words) 15 (c) Discuss the problems in realization of benefits of globalization and liberalization in industrial sector of India. (150 words) 15

SECTION - B

5. For Question Nos. 5(a) to 5(d), write on each in about 150 words and answer Question 5(e) as directed therein. (a) City-regions as territorial unit for regional planning and development. 10 (b) Snags in the Food Security Policy of India. 10 (c) Demographic dividend and its implications on environment. 10 (d) Planning and development of 'Tribal Regions' in India. 10 (e) On the outline map of India provided to you, mark the location of all of the following. Write in your QCA Booklet the significance of these locations, whether physical/commercial/economic/ecological/environmental/cultural, in not more than 30 words for each entry. 2 x 5 = 10 (i) Rajgir (ii) Sindri (iii) National Highway No. 24 (iv) Churk (v) Indira Gandhi Canal 606 Main Examination : The Big Battle

6. (a) Write a note on geopolitics of the Indian Ocean realm. (250 words) 20 (b) Comment on the basis of creation of new States in India in 2000. (150 words) 15 (c) Enumerate the basic indicators of development and explain their application in identification of the spatial diversity in development in India. (150 words) 15 7. (a) Write a note on the emergence of National Settlement System in colonial India and discuss the factors contributing to urbanization in post-independence period. (250 words) 20 (b) Define slums and explain their problems. (150 words) 15 (c) Discuss the objectives of 'Vision 2020' in creation of viable village complex in India for 'Inclusive Rural Development' Programme. (150 words) 15 8. (a) Identify the earthquake-prone zones and suggest strategy for their management. (250 words) 20 (b) Describe the impact of linguistic diversity on the development of various regions of India. (150 words) 15 (c) Describe how urbanization creates air and water pollution in India. (150 words) 15

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607 civilz byte GEOGRAPHY PAPER-2 2014

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are EIGHT questions divided in TWO SECTIONS. Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all. Questions no. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE question from each section. The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question- cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to. Illustrate your answers with suitable sketches/maps and diagrams, wherever considered necessary. Attempts of questions shall be counted in chronological order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question- cum- Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION - A 1. (a) On the outline map of India provided to you, mark the location of all of the following. Write in your QCA Booklet the significance of these locations, whether physical/commercial/economic/ecological/environmental/cultural, in not more than 30 words for each entry : 2 x 5 = 10 (i) Guru Shikhar (ii) Bhor Ghat (iii) Shravanabelagola (iv) Kalibangan (v) Ganga Sagar (b) Explain how eco-tourism activities could be important livelihood options in the Hima- layan and North-Eastern regions of the country. (150 words) 10 (c) How is drainage pattern determined by the water divide? (150 words) 10 608 Main Examination : The Big Battle

(d) Location of thermal power plants and coal fields in India are not mutually conducive. Analyse. (150 words) 10 (e) Why has agro and social forestry has failed to achieve its objectives? (150 words) 10 2. (a) Bring out the distribution of Laterite soils in India and their specific use for agriculture. 20 (b) Suggest the measures of wild-life conservation with reference to extinction of rare species. 15 (c) Describe the problems of agro-based industries in India in general and cotton textiles in particular. 15 3. (a) Highlight the socio-economic and ecological roles of River Cauvery in its riverine tract. 20 (b) Discuss the problems and prospects of National Waterway No. 1. 15 (c) Explain the concept of 'Make in India' and indicate the essential inputs for its success. 15 4. (a) Describe the salient climatological characteristics of Rayalseema region. 20 (b) 'In spite of various negative impacts of Green Revolution, there is a demand for New Green Revolution'. Elaborate. 15 (c) What are the desired possible changes in our trade policy to promote the development of cottage industry? 15

SECTION - B 5. (a) On the outline map of India provided to you, mark the location of all of the following. Write in your QCA Booklet the significance of these locations, whether physical/commercial/economic/ecological/environmental/cultural in not more than 30 words for each entry: 2 x 5 = 10 (i) Mundra Port (ii) Chandipur (iii) Mahendragiri (iv) Hazira (v) Vemband Lake (b) Highlight the implications of declining child sex ratio in India. (150 words) 10 (c) Analyse the feasibility of 'Smart Towns' Development in India. (150 words) 10 (d) Comment on the criteria of identifying Drought Prone Areas in India. (150 words) 10 (e) Bring out the role of terrain in determining India's political influence over neighbouring countries. (150 words) 10 6. (a) Discuss the trends in emigration focusing on its major thrust. 20 (b) Account for the multiple problems of urban agglomerations. 15 (c) Evaluate the Backward Regions Grant Fund Programme. 15 609 civilz byte

7. (a) How can a meaningful skill development programme contribute to the economic growth of hill areas? 20 (b) Differentiate between the 'intensity' and 'magnitude' of an earthquake and explain its varying impact in different parts of India. 15 (c) Discuss the implications of India's strategic location with reference to the Indian Ocean. 15 8. (a) India is involved in a number of border disputes. Explain the reasons and remedies. 20 (b) Discuss the concept of Command Area Development and evaluate its success with reference to Indira Gandhi Canal. 15 (c) How has an inappropriate urban land use policy accounted for undesirable development in and around metropolitan cities. 15

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610 Main Examination : The Big Battle GEOGRAPHY PAPER-2 2015

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are EIGHT questions divided in two sections. Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all. Questions nos. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE question from each section. The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question- cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to. Illustrate your answers with suitable sketches/maps and diagrams, wherever considered necessary. Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Ques- tion- cum- Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION - A 1. Answer all the following. The word limit for (b), (c), (d), (e) has been indicated in the parenthesis: 10 x 5 = 50 (a) On the outline map of India provided to you, mark the location of all of the following. Write in your QCA Booklet the significance of these locations, whether physical/commercial/economic/ecological/environmental/cultural, in not more than 30 words for each entry : 2 x 5 = 10 (i) Tharangambadi (ii) Namcha Barwa (iii) Narcodam (iv) Khajjiar (v) Chunchanakatte (b) Why does the pharmaceutical industry concentrate largely in the western region of the country? (In about 150 words) 10 611 civilz byte

(c) Explain the pattern of winter rainfall in India. (In about 150 words) 10 (d) Discuss the relationship of watershed approach to village level planning. (In about 150 words) 10 (e) How does natural vegetation affect the formation of in situ soils? (In about 150 words) 10

2. (a) Account for the geographical distribution of groundwater resources of India. How serious is its depletion in recent decades? 20 (b) Why is the traditional crafts industry in India on the decline? 15 (c) Explain how modernization of Indian agriculture is affected by unfavourable institutional factors with suitable examples. 15

3. (a) Distinguish between 'agricultural productivity' and 'agricultural efficiency, and bring out the disparity in regional distribution of agricultural efficiency. 20 (b) With the help of a map, indicate the principal areas of dryland farming in the country and account for farmers' suicides mainly in those areas. 15 (c) Evaluate the contribution of Communication and Information Technology to the development of economy and society, and examine the relevance of the recently launched 'Digital India' programme. 15

4. (a) Account for the growing frequency and intensity of floods in India, and suggest short- and long-term remedial measures indicating the chronically flood-prone areas. 20 (b) How does climate change affect the- process of desertification of India? 15 (c) Discuss the scope of replication of 'White Revolution' in lndia. 15

SECTION - B

5. Answer all the following. The word limit for (b), (c), (d), (e) has been indicated in the parenthesis : 10 x 5 = 50 (a) On the outline map of India provided to you, mark the location of all of the following. Write in your QCA Booklet the significance of these locations, whether physical/commercial/economic/ecological/environmental/cultural in not more than 30 words for each entry: 2 x 5 = 10 (i) Nokrek (ii) Goraknath Peak (iii) Indrakiladri Peak (iv) Polavaram (v) Anaimudi (b) "Age-sex pyramid is representative of the history of a region." Explain. (150 words) 10 (c) "Mono-functional towns are economically vulnerable." Discuss. (150 words) 10 612 Main Examination : The Big Battle

(d) Explain how change in land use can promote eco-development at different levels in the country. (150 words) 10 (e) Discuss the social and spatial ramifications of increasing longevity. (150 words) 10 6. (a) Decentralized planning through the strengthening of the Panchayat system is the focus of planning in India in recent times. Suggest a blueprint for an integrated regional development plan. 20 (b) In population planning, the thrust of the Government has been 'planning the population' not 'plan for the population'. Elaborate. 15 (c) Is planning for a cluster of villages a viable option, when planning for backward areas of the country? Discuss with suitable examples. 15 7. (a) Reduction in regional disparities has been one of the priority goals of national planning in India. How the proposed new Smart urban centres may contribute to the process? 20 (b) How has India's 'Look East' policy taken shape in the past two decades and how it may affect India's external trade? 15 (c) Indian island territories are vulnerable to the sea level rise. Explain. 15 8. (a) Discuss the concept of multi-level planning as practised in India, and explain the implications of 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments in this respect. 20 (b) Give a reasoned account of river water disputes related to the River Krishna. 15 (c) Outline the Ghats. Government of India's strategies of conservation of the Western Ghats. 15

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613 civilz byte GEOGRAPHY PAPER-2 2016

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are EIGHT questions divided in TWO SECTIONS. Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all. Questions no. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE question from each section. The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question- cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to. Illustrate your answers with suitable sketches/maps and diagrams, wherever considered necessary. Attempts of questions shall be counted in chronological order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question- cum- Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION - A 1. (a) On the outline map of India provided to you, mark the location of all of the following. Write in your QCA Booklet the significance of these locations, whether physical/ commercial/economic/ecological/environmental/cultural, in not more than 30 words for each entry : 2 x 10 = 20 (i) Pir Panjal Range (ii) River Indravati (iii) Nathu La Pass (iv) Jog Falls (v) Pulicat Lake (vi) Kudankulam (vii) Nalanda (viii) Kudremukh (ix) Headquarters of N-E Railways (x) Farakka Barrage (b) Explain the shifting of river courses and river capturing in the Himalayas.(150 words) 10 614 Main Examination : The Big Battle

(c) Mention the space relationship of India with neighbouring countries. (150 words) 10 (d) Define agricultural intensity and bring out its regional distribution in India. (150 words) 10

2. (a) Discuss the role of spatial pattern of rainfall and temperature in the delimitation of climatic regions of India especially with reference to Stamp's climatic regionalization. (In about 250 words) 20 (b) Describe the flood-prone areas and their management problems in the Ganga Plains. (In about 200 words) 15 (c) Explain the New Industrial Policies in India. (In about 200 words) 15

3. (a) Identify the important biotic resource regions of India and highlight their problems. (In about 250 words) 20 (b) Point out the ethnic disparities in the N-E India. (In about 200 words) 15 (c) Give an account of the development of renewable resources of India. (In about 200 words) 15

4. (a) Bring out the development of river water transport in India and its role in regional development. (In about 250 words) 20 (b) Explain the impact of economic development on environmental degradation in India. (In about 200 words) 15 (c) Describe the distribution of black soils in India and their specific use for agriculture. (In about 200 words) 15

SECTION - B 5. For Question Nos. 5(a) to 5 (e), write on each in about 150 words : (a) Discuss the factors influencing the distribution of sex ratio in India. 10 (b) "The Bokaro Iron and Steel Plant is an example of Industrial Complex." Explain. 10 (c) How do slums develop? Give concrete suggestions for their improvement. 10 (d) Explain the role of India in the geo-politics of South Asia. 10 (e) Analyze the pattern of India's trade with the S-E Asian countries. 10

6. (a) Present a comparative analysis of geographical factors responsible for distribution of human settlements in Rajasthan desert and North-Eastern regions of India. (In about 250 words) 20 (b) Explain with suitable examples the role of road transport in agricultural development in India. (In about 200 words) 15 (c) Evaluate the impact of technology on resource utilization in India. 15 615 civilz byte

7. (a) Analyze the location, distributional pattern and problems of cotton textile industries in India. (In about 250 words) 20 (b) Describe the major tribal regions of India and their problems. (In about 200 words) 15 (c) Examine the causes of regional disparities in economic development in India. (In about 200 words) 15 8. (a) Describe the causes and effects of urbanization in India and explain its impact on rural landscape and urban ecology. (In about 250 words) 20 (b) "India has paid heavily for achievement of Green Revolution in the form of economic, social and ecological cost." Discuss. 15 (c) Explain the origin, dimension and implications of Sino-Indian border dispute. 15

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616 Main Examination : The Big Battle GEOGRAPHY PAPER-2 2017

Time allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are EIGHT questions divided in TWO SECTIONS. Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all. Questions no. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE question from each section. The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question- cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one. Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to. Illustrate your answers with suitable sketches/maps and diagrams, wherever considered necessary. Attempts of questions shall be counted in chronological order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question- cum- Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION - A 1. (a) On the outline map of India provided to you, mark the location of all of the following. Write in your QCA Booklet the significance of these locations, whether physical/ commercial/economic/ecological/environmental/cultural, in not more than 30 words for each entry : 2 x 10 = 20 (i) Thumba (ii) Nayachar Island (iii) Doddabetta (iv) Devasthal (v) Pangong Lake (vi) Hampi (vii) Havelock Island (viii) Luni River (ix) Daringbadi (x) Dudhsagar Waterfalls (b) Give a reasoned account of unusual pattern of distribution of monsoonal rainfall in India in 2017. 10 617 civilz byte

(c) Explain the inter-State issues involved in implementation of the Satluj-Yamuna Link Canal Project. 10 (d) Small towns in India have Problems and Prospects of their own. Elaborate. 10

2. (a) Discuss the freshwater crisis in India and prepare a blueprint for its sustainable management. 20 (b) Identify the Naxal-affected areas in India and discuss their socio-economic problems. 15 (c) Critically examine the feasibility of development of a comprehensive network of airways in India. 15

3. (a) "An effective three-tier Panchayat Raj System will strengthen the bottom-up approach to multilevel planning in India." Explain. 20 (b) "Linguistic diversity is an asset as well as a challenge in India." Explain the statement focussing on the distribution of languages and the major steps taken to address the related issues. 15 (c) How may tourism in hilly areas of India be developed as an important source of economy? 15

4. (a) Mention various methods of functional classification of towns in India and explain the method applied by Asok Mitra. 20 (b) Farmers' suicide is one of the major agrarian problems in India. Bring out its causes and suggest the remedial measures with special reference to Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh and Punjab. 15 (c) Land reform is a key to modern agriculture in India. Describe various measures take in this direction after Independence. 15

SECTION - B 5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each: 10 X 5 = 50 (a) Explain the role of 'Hill Transport Subsidy Scheme' in reducing regional imbalances in areas identified by the Government of India. (b) Bring out the geopolitical implications of Doklam dispute in the context of Indo-China relations. (c) Bring out the significance of Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS). (d) Mini steel plants can act as an instrument of decentralization of iron and steel industry in India. Explain. (e) Goods and Services Tax (GST) has differential impact on developed and backward States of the country. How and Why ? 618 Main Examination : The Big Battle

6. (a) Interlinking of rivers may serve as a major source of assured irrigation and all-weather inland navigation in India. Comment on its feasibility taking into account physical, economic and ecological implication. 20 (b) Religious minorities are largely concentrated in border States of India. Discuss its causes and consequences. 15 (c) What do you understand by soil pollution? Delineate the areas vulnerable to it in India and suggest remedial measures. 15

7. (a) Integrated development of road and rail networks in a complementary framework is a prerequisite for regional development. Explain with reference to North-Eastern Region of India. 20 (b) Describe the salient features of Sagar Mala Project and highlight its role in port-led development of coastal regions in India. 15 (c) Justify the inclusion of Meghalaya in Peninsular India and discuss its vegetation and soil types. 15

8. (a) Name the major industrial regions of India indicating the bases of their identification. Highlight their basic problems. 20 (b) Drainage pattern in Peninsular India is a result of its geological structure and topography. Elaborate. 15 (c) Why has solar energy in India not been developed to desired level in spite of its high potential? 15

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Personality Test: The Final Frontier SECTION - IV Personality Test: The Final Frontier

☯ Significance of the Personality Test ☯ Process of the Personality Test ☯ Attributes desirable in Aspirants ☯ Taking Mock Interviews ☯ How to Answer ☯ Personal Profile ☯ Non-verbal Communication and Body Language ☯ Verbal Communication ☯ Filling the DAF ☯ Belief, Sincerity and Conviction

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CHAPTER Personality Test: The Final Frontier 67 Significance of the Personality Test

“Be Normal, Natural, True & Spontaneous.” “Better sweat in the Peace time than bleed in the war time.”

he personality test is akin to the final Here, it is pertinent to remember that the frontier to be conquered. It is the grand variation in the final marks (out of the total of Tfinale of the prolonged and onerous se- 2025) of all candidates who appeared for the per- lection process. Here the candidates are evalu- sonality test is usually not more than 150-200 ated for 275 marks. Compared to the 1750 marks marks. This implies that for every mark lost, of the Main examination, the weightage of the there may be a drop in the final ranking by five interview may appear to be insignificant. But to six positions. While the difference in the mark this is far from so. of the top ranking candidates (top 100) may be One should not take interview to be granted. wider, the distribution of candidates as per marks If you are really confident about your Mains per- is much more crowded for middle and lower formance, you’re on the safe side. But when you rankings. are doubtful about Mains performance, interview will be very crucial & comes to your rescue. Thus, it is all the more important to give your very best in the personality test as every All candidates who are appearing for the per- additional mark secured here pushes you up by a sonality test are very well within the striking dis- few good positions in the final ranking. And be- tance (of at least being selected if not securing a top rank). As such, the marks awarded by the lieve us, the personality test does offer an op- Board can be a crucial, rather a deciding factor portunity to grab those additional marks on good in determining the final outcomes. While some measure. But, many a candidate fail to fully com- may be awarded an 80% or more, some may even prehend the significance of the personality test land at paltry 30%. Thus, a good show in the and appreciate the golden opportunity these interview can push your ranking to a higher level. marks represent, which may either make or mar This can very well be the difference in qualifying the arduous effects put in up till this stage. or not qualifying and getting a service of your choice. ––––––––––– ––––––––––– 623 CHAPTER civilz byte 68 Process of the Personality Test

“When there is righteousness in heart, there is beauty in the character.” - Thirukkural & APJ

he evaluation of the personality is done in awarding marks and some being liberal. How- through an interview process by a Board, ever, such apprehensions and prejudices are not Tusually comprising five members who are only pointless, but at times detrimental as well. the persons of eminence and experience from The Boards conduct interview by posing ques- various walks of life. One of the members (gen- tions, seeking views, asking for objective ap- erally a member of the UPSC) is designated as preciation and analysis of matters relating to the Chairman of the Board. The Chairman regu- the personal profile of candidate - as disclosed lates the conduct of the interview and also awards in the detailed application form (DAF), issues marks to the candidates, which is usually by con- pertinent to the society, state and country and sensus. about current affairs of national and interna- The UPSC organizes six to seven such Boards tional significance. Thus, the horizon of ques- and interview is conducted in the forenoon as tioning can be pretty wide. well as in the afternoon. Usually, half an hour is slotted for each candidate and up to six candi- The tenor of interview is that of a purpose- dates are taken in a Board in one half. The de- ful conversation. The objective is the assess- tails about which particular Board is to inter- ment of the personality on the whole and not view which candidate is disclosed only on the merely bookish knowledge or theoretical con- day of interview. Some candidates often have cepts, which in any case have already been evalu- apprehensions about certain Boards being strict ated in the preliminary and Main examination.

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624 CHAPTER Personality Test: The Final Frontier 69 Attributes Desirable in Aspirants

he attributes desirable in the aspirants Also, don’t get amazed to know, there are are essentially those which are expected aspirants who get a facial in a beauty parlour Tof a civil servant. These include honesty, before interview. Though we don’t insist you in integrity, sincerity of purpose, clarity of thought this beauty thing, do remember that being physi- and expression, ability to take decisions, bal- cally fit and looking healthy is a good thing and ance of judgment, self – belief and confidence, adds to your charm. ability to reason, to think critically and analyti- Moulding yourself for this can only happen cally, awareness and concern for socio-economic in these years of your stay at the Academy over issues and problems, mental alacrity, positive a period of time. You can’t get ready and be- approach, politeness and leadership qualities. come perfect overnight. Develop your personality and nurture yourself in various aspects like The list of desirable traits in aspirants may the way you eat, sleep, dress, groom yourself, be extended further. But the seemingly long list talk, handle things, the way you perceive or look should not be a cause for trepidation or undue at things, having a non-stereotypical vision and concern. Many of the specified skills and at- the other remaining things. Without a good per- tributes are already a part of one’s personality, sonality, you can’t win in the Personality Test. though in varying degree. What requires to be done is to identify these abilities in one’s own But, remember, the civil services interview self, suitably enhance and modify them wher- is not only an occasion for the expression of one’s ever needed to do so. But amongst the various personality but also an opportunity to modify and attributes, what is of utmost importance is the develop it, to raise the bar to such exalted lev- ability to think. And if you do have the ability to els which are desirable and expected of a civil servant. But, how to go about it? Well, the path think, then coupled with an honest approach, of personality development is often to be tra- sincerity of purpose and willingness to toil hard, versed solitary, but is sincerely hoped that the you can master the other attributes or make up ensuing pages will be of guidance and assistance for them. in your endeavour.

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625 CHAPTER civilz byte 70 Taking Mock Interviews

aking mock interviews can be quite fruit- Besides helping in assessing ourselves, mock ful, specifically for those who have not interviews offer us an opportunity to observe Tappeared earlier for any other interviews. and learn from the strengths and weaknesses of others. This is especially true when we are on Mock interviews aim at simulating the per- the other side of the table and are putting forth sonality test environment where a candidate is questions like an interviewer to assess the de- interviewed by a panel of four to five experts. It sirable traits of a candidate, how should be his/ helps in giving a near interview experience in her approach, body language, reasoning skills, gauging the depth of one’s preparation and in etc. Further, what are the fundamental skills like identifying one’s shortcomings. It is also helpful reasoning ability, communication skills etc. where in imparting confidence and self-belief. he is on a sound footing and which are the areas When you are free at the Academy, you can he needs to work upon. create a platform like this by forming a group of Generally, Mock interviews are conducted at four to five persons who are serious about the our Academy once in a year. Make the best use Exam from your class or room or so. Take turns of them. These are also conducted by some pro- to be the interviewed candidate, while remain- fessional coaching institutes and non-government ing persons can act as interviewers. Ask ques- organizations like ‘Sankalp’. Some of them can tions on personal profile of each other, current provide you good inputs. As many such institutes affairs, issues of national importance, etc. At charge a hefty fee for this, it is always advis- the end of the mock interview, you can discuss able to ascertain their credentials beforehand the important issues that have emerged and jot and join them on prior recommendation. down/make mental note of them.

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626 CHAPTER Personality Test: The Final Frontier 71 How to Answer

here are few prerequisites to answering fore you start replying. The moment of silence the questions in interview well. They en- is extremely important, as it enables you to com- Thance our answer and help us get a bet- pose your thoughts. In this short span of time, ter impression. you comprehend the question, recollect facts, Listen Carefully figures, views etc. and articulate your own answers. Silence often prompts the speaker to ques- In the Interview, the first step towards tion, may at times prompt the interviewer to framing an answer to the question posed is to elaborate or further simplify the question. So concentrate on what is being said and to com- let there be a pause before you begin to answer. prehend fully the import of the question. In case you have not been able to understand the ques- If you have already completed your answer and the Board members are silent then do not tion fully, say, you have lost concentration mid- get tempted to speak further. The silence of the way and you have failed to register a part or members may not necessarily mean that they whole of what the interviewer has said, then do are expecting some more clarification or fur- not hesitate to say “Pardon me sir,” or “I could ther reply from you. On the contrary, they may not understand the question fully,” etc. merely be pondering over your reply or may sim- It is always better to politely request the ply be phrasing their next question. Please re- interviewer to repeat the question than to ven- member that silence is enticing and use it deftly ture out to give an irrelevant or off the mark to your own advantage. reply. Half-smile on Face Pause Before Answering Maintain a half-smile on your face. Don’t It is important to let the speaker finish his smile too much or don’t sit with a stone face. question first and not to interject in between. It Remember, half-smile is confidence. And by the is also important not to immediately start an- way, When there is confidence in mind and righ- swering, or rambling the reply even if you are teousness in heart, your face carries a glow that fully conversant with the issue and have pre- is naturally lit from within and makes you beau- pared well to answer it. Wait for a second be- tiful; in and out. 627 civilz byte

Reply Calmly in the answer often prompts the interviewer to interject and to cross question on such facts, It is important to maintain a calm expres- figures, views etc. This is likely to lead the in- sion and to control your nerves despite the ex- terview astray and opportunity to put forth the citement and gripping nervousness. In case you relevant points is lost. Remember, very often, have been posed a question which you are un- the question which the interviewer asks, ema- able to understand or do not know the answer nates from your own answers. to, do not get flustered or panic. Maintain your calm. You may request the member to further Most Important Points First elaborate. However, if you do not know the an- The interview is quite unlike the written ex- swer at all, then it is better to say politely, “I do aminations, where the candidate has time and not know.” In no situation must you panic or occasion to develop his answers and often leaves lose your composure. the most important points for the conclusion, so Conversely, in a case where the interviewer as to create a final impact. However, the an- has asked a question for which you have pre- swers in an interview must necessarily begin with pared extremely well, even then you must avoid the most important point first, with other rel- getting excited or hurrying up with your reply. It evant points following it. As mentioned earlier makes good sense to convey the impression that also, it is pertinent to remember that the inter- the question was understood and the answer viewer may interrupt in between or pose another paraphrased then and there only. The reply should question. Thus the opportunity to communicate appear to be spontaneous and not a home cooked the most important points may be lost. Remem- answer to an anticipated question. ber, there can be no beating about the bush and Answer Appropriately you must come straight to the point. The tendency to answer what we know No Flab in the answer rather than what has been asked has to be es- All answers should be to the point, crisp and chewed. The answer has to be to the point and concise. There is no space for verbosity, partly as per the question asked. The information avail- relevant or irrelevant facts and off the mark re- able with us has to be suitably modified so as to plies. Just like the physique of a martial art prac- make it appropriate to the question. Trying to titioner which is predominantly muscles and juxtapose or squeeze facts and figure which may bones and no fat, the reply too should have only be remotely or loosely connected to the question matter pertinent to the question and little flab. in an attempt to impress the Board, is most likely to backfire. It conveys the impression to the Views and Opinions Members that the candidate has inappropriate The Board often poses questions which seek comprehension ability and a tendency to be out the views or the opinion of the candidates on an of focus. issue. View and opinion are not one and the same Such an approach should surely be avoided. thing. There is a subtle yet salient difference This is doubly harmful as irrelevant information between the two. 628 Personality Test: The Final Frontier

Any societal issue may be viewed from dif- spective. Of course the opinion should be based ferent perspectives. It may be the perspective on cogent reasoning, and due analysis of the is- of a common man, an administrator, a technical sues, correct and appropriate facts. expert, an economist, a political leader and so Be Firm in whichever stand you take on. It is important to understand and appreciate the divergent views. For instance, on the issue “Don’t be afraid to stand for of Indo-US Nuclear Deal, the perspective of a what you believe common man may largely be, to view the energy in, even if that means standing alone” needs of the country vis-à-vis the national secu- Be firm with whichever opinion you are of. rity concerns. The technical aspects of the nuclear The interviewers may try to trick you to accept co-operation vis-à-vis the nuclear programme with the opposite of your stand. Don’t fumble of India will be the core competence of the sci- and change the stand there. Stay strong and be entists. For the economists, the future energy decently firm. security, its impact on the economy, the cost of Where to Express Views energy production will be the areas mandating and Where Opinion attention. For the political leadership, the international, political and electoral fall out of the The framing of the reply has to be in accor- deal, would be the additional concerns and ar- dance with the question posed. As such, it is eas of consideration. very important to listen carefully as to what the interviewer has asked. Whether he is seeking The specialists mentioned above may have view, or whether your opinion has been asked their own individual perspectives but they do see for. In case of former, briefly highlight the rel- the issues from the perspective of others and evant points, the pros and cons and the various also in totality. Therefore, the opinion or the facets of the issue. But it is worthwhile to con- final stand one has to take will be based on the clude after specifying your own stand. Also, do entire gamut of issues, after duly taking into clarify the reasons for taking that stand. For in- consideration the view point and perspective of stance, if your views have been asked for on the others also. As an administrator and more spe- issue of Indo-US Nuclear Deal, then the differ- cifically as an interviewee, you must have that ent perspectives of the deal and its fall-out should ability to see things from the perspective of oth- be discussed. The reply may be concluded indi- ers as well as in entirety, minutely as well as cating whether you support the deal or not and wholly. Thus, while expressing one’s views, vari- the reasons for it. ous facets of the issue, and the pros and cons In case your opinion has been sought, then must also be specified. it is pertinent to specify your stand at the very The opinion, on the other hand, should bring outset and then the reasons for it. If time per- out the stand of the interviewee. This stand must mits, you may also highlight other aspects of be arrived at after due consideration of the nega- the issue which you may not be agreeing with. tive as well positive aspects and in case of is- However, due emphasis must be laid on the rea- sues having multiple facets, the complete persons why the specific stand was taken. 629 civilz byte

Often candidates highlight only singular as- This dilemma arises in the following three pects of the issue which prompts the interviewer situations: to question him vis-à-vis the other aspects. To I. When the interviewee has not properly elucidate, if the candidate expresses his sup- heard or understood the question. port for the nuclear deal without analyzing the II. When he has understood the question security concerns, impact on India’s own nuclear but is unsure/not fully confident about programme and the political follow up, then the the answer. interviewer may be prompted to interject or to III. When he is sure that he does not know counter – question on these issues. As such, it is the answer. advisable to deal with the other aspects briefly, provided time permits. However, if this could In all of these situations, an honest and sin- not be done earlier and the questions on these cere approach is the best course to follow. In the issues have been posed, then the candidates first situation, it is advisable to politely request should adopt the following approach. the member to repeat or to further elaborate the question. Some possible responses could be: He should appreciate the point of view of the interviewer, but he should also highlight the “Pardon me Sir, could you please repeat the reasons for taking the specific stand. He may question” or “Sir, I could not understand the accept that indeed there are security concerns question fully, would you be kind enough to and possible political fallout, but emphasize on elaborate.” how they can be taken care of. He should also In case you are not sure about the answer emphasize on the need for meeting India’s en- (situation at (II)), then do say, “Sir, I am not ergy needs in a manner which doesn’t contrib- very sure about the issue.” Nevertheless, if the ute to global warming. Board still asks you to continue with your reply, Please remember that at no stage you should then you may proceed to do so as per your knowl- be critical of the point of view of the interviewer edge. However, if you are aware that you do not or be argumentative while expressing your own know the answer, especially to a factual or a opinion. Even if you are not in agreement with knowledge-oriented question (situation (III)), the member’s view point, respect it and express then politely say so. But there is no need to feel your own dissenting opinion humbly. guilty or nervous. Honesty is the Best Policy Do remember that you have already been tested for the knowledge quotient in the Pre- Candidates often face the predicament, liminary and the Main Examination and you have whether to pass a question when they do not been selected out of lakhs of other candidates. know the answer or are unsure about it, or to Further, it is only human to be unaware of cer- attempt a reply which might be incorrect. tain facts or issues. By expressing your lack of Whether to put forth facts and figures which they knowledge you are saving the time of the Board are guessing and are not confident about or to and allowing yourself further opportunity to be let their ignorance about the issue get exposed. questioned in other areas where you may fare 630 Personality Test: The Final Frontier better. Moreover, acceptance of your ignorance views border on the extreme and who do not is an expression of your honesty, which is one of have a flexible attitude, may be perceived as the most desired qualities of a civil servant. misfits in the government. Further, members are However, there can be questions which are likely to form a poor opinion, if the candidate basic to your core competence such as those re- exhibits such hardened approach which lacks lated to your education (HPG), job (if you do sensitivity or which favors narrow rationalistic one after the course here), optional, hobbies, sentiments over national interest. home state, Hyderabad etc.), which you ought Balanced view implies that the various per- to know, or questions requiring analytical appli- spectives of the issue, the pros and cons should cations or appreciation of the issue. These ques- duly be considered and the outlook of the candi- tions carry substantial weightage in the inter- date be assimilative and encompassing of the view and the Board expects a positive reply and numerous facets of the issue. application of mind from the candidate. Passing over such questions affects the assessment of Ideological Outlook the candidate and best efforts should be made The views of a candidate should not be be- to anticipate such issues and prepare well for reft of ideology and hope. This essentially means them. that one’s views must reflect their views & un- Still, if for some reason you are unable to derstanding, as well as have healthy respect for answer such a question, then the best recourse socially desirable ideologies and sincere belief is to express your lack of knowledge about it. in them. These can be principles of democracy, Please do not try to bluff the board under any human rights, rule of law, non – violence, hon- circumstances by quoting incorrect facts or by esty, etc. To illustrate further, if a candidate is lying. The Board members are a set of very ex- questioned about the relevance of the Gandhism perienced people who are experts in their own and non-violence in the modern era, then be- right and can easily see through you. If you think you can bluff them, then you are only bluffing sides expecting him to understand the issues yourself. entailed therein, the Board would also expect him to appreciate and respect the relevance of Moderate and Balanced Views Gandhism to the present strife torn world. An Views and opinion, besides being to the ideology may have its own limitation but it should point, based on appropriate facts and cogent not be discarded in the garb of it being imprac- reasoning, should also be moderate and bal- tical. Such an approach of the candidate might anced. Taking extreme or rigid stand on an is- be viewed as cynical and negative. sue, being too critical of government policies or exhibiting a narrow, parochial outlook is detri- Often candidates are questioned about hy- mental. The board has to pick up candidates for pothetical situations. For instance, if as a Dis- a variety of services who can be posted in any trict Collector or as Senior Official, one is asked part of the country. Therefore, aspirants whose by one’s superiors, to pass certain orders or con-

631 civilz byte duct oneself in a manner which may not be strictly Truthfulness, Frankness as per the prescribed procedure or rule, what and Smartness then would be the candidate’s approach? Con- The interview board comprises a set of very ciliation with the superiors or following the rules experienced and component people, who care- in letter and spirit? What would be correct, to fully observe the behavior, expression and over uphold the ideology of rule of law or to accept all body language of the candidates, apart from the influence and corruption which have become the content of their replies. As such, it will be inseparable part of governance and succumb to foolish to be dishonest. Understandably, being the pressure? truthful should be the only option. However, many The situation in real life may be more com- a time the views of the candidate have several plicated or may not be as black or as white as facets, which are neither absolutely white nor described here. However, by the hypothetical black, but are often in the shades of grey. example, what the interviewer wants to under- What should be the approach of the candi- stand is the fundamental approach of the candidate in such a situation? Should he be truthful date. Does he believe in the rule of law? Does he and allow his negative self to be expressed be- understand the numerous hurdles which he might fore the Board, or should he try to hide it? This face in implementing it? Does he have the sprit is a common dilemma experienced by the candi- to uphold the principles of righteousness, or has dates. The answer lies in discussing this grey he become too fatalistic, too defeatist and hope- into its components black and white and identi- less even before he has embarked upon his ca- fying and expressing only what is positive. For reer as a civil servant? If so, then why shouldn’t instance, most of the candidates want to join a person having self belief and hope be preferred the civil services for the immense opportunities over him? and the bright career it has to offer, besides the Ideologies often aim at attaining a desir- respect it commands in the society. But, for able societal state and healthy human behavior. some, the lust for power may be profound rea- But the process of attaining it would encompass son for opting it. The desire of power has shades overcoming the numerous hurdles. The negative of negativity and it will be imprudent to express outlook would be to reject ideologies as imprac- such a reason for joining the civil services. Al- ticable, on account of the path leading to them though accepting this to be one of the reasons being riddled with difficulties. However, the cor- may be taken as an expression of frankness, rect approach should be, to be positive, to have however, in totality, such a reply is likely to be a pragmatic understanding of the road ahead counter-productive. In such or similar situations, and also to be hopeful of the desirability and the smart approach will be, to cite only positive appropriateness of the end state. Do remember reasons for the desire to join the civil services. that any government would prefer an ideologi- Though masking of negativity is a smart and cal, hopeful and enthusiastic officer rather a easy approach, in our opinion, it is not the very dejected cynic. best approach. 632 Personality Test: The Final Frontier

The purpose of civil services examination it was your failure in the previous attempts, then and the interview is not only to test but also to you need not fell distraught or guilty about it. If some extent, goad the candidate to mould and the Board asks you to explain the long gap, then modify his personality. The best approach is to you simply have to state the truth that you were identify one’s own negative shades and to purge appearing for the civil services examination. But them. It is easier said than done; Nevertheless, if you were to add, without being asked, that honesty and truthfulness remain the best ap- you did a HPG here and could neither qualify for proach, and smartness is only the second best. higher studies nor secure a job and appearing Self Deprecating Replies for the Civil Services examination was your only option, then it will be an uncalled for, self-dep- Needless criticism of one’s own self or of recating statement. Besides, if you have reached one’s behavior has to be avoided. As an officer, the interview stage despite previous failures, one is expected to be positive and to have con- then it truly reflects your ability to overcome fidence in one’s own abilities. A diffident person hardships and commitment to a cause. who undermines his own potential can hardly Shortcomings and failures are a part of al- qualify for leadership positions. As such, uncalled most everybody’s life. As such, there is no rea- for expression of one’s shortcomings or giving son to be remorseful about them or deprecate self deprecating replies is a habit which must be oneself. What is relevant is your own perception eschewed. For instance, if you are appearing for about them, whether you consider them as step- the interview after several years of having com- ping stones to success or stumbling works of life. pleted your graduation and the main reason for

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633 CHAPTER civilz byte 72 Personal Profile

What is Personal Profile? The personality test never includes a set of predetermined questions. Rather, the questions The personal profile forms one of the most and the course of the interview is often sponta- important areas of the Civil Services interview neous. The personal profile as reflected in the preparation. It comprises the entire information DAF, which is right before the eyes of the Mem- about you, which has been sought by the UPSC, bers, forms an important ingredient of the spon- through the Detailed Application Form (DAF), taneous element. This is so, as the different filled in prior to the Main Examination. This may aspects of the profile capture the attention of range from your state of domicile to your cur- the Members and prompt them to question about rent job, your educational profile to your hob- these. bies and interests, your family background to your optional/subjects of graduation. Unlike other aspects of the personality test, where the ‘question horizon’ is extremely wide Personal profile is akin to your home turf, and the questions difficult to anticipate, per- an area with which you are justifiably expected sonal profile entails a reasonable but a limited to be substantially acquainted. The Board may set of issues. With meticulous planning and ef- begin with seemingly innocuous questions per- fort, it may not be difficult to anticipate these taining to your educational qualification or even issues and prepare well in advance. your name (perhaps just to put you at ease). Here, it is pertinent to remember that be- Later on, questions to gauge your critical or ana- ing a familiar terrain, there is also a fair expec- lytical thinking skills may be put forth, such as tation of a reply which is not only precise and questions relating to challenges before the state prompt, but also positive and unequivocal. of your domicile or issues relating to your current job. Thus, ‘personal profile’ as a part and par- cel of personality test, merits due attention and Significance of personal profile a good degree of preparation. The aspects which Each Member of the Board is provided with require to be focused upon are discussed below. a copy of the DAF which has been submitted by Your Name the candidate. Just before the candidate is to appear before the Board and also during the in- It may be felt that what is specially there in terview, the Members peruse it. a name. Practically not much, but from the 634 Personality Test: The Final Frontier perspective of the personality test, it might en- 1. Which states should fall within the tail a question or two. Specifically if your name ambit of preparation? or title is rather uncommon, or is same or simi- 2. The areas and the extent of the study lar to a public figure, historical personality or to be done (e.g. historical, geographi- has a unique meaning. cal, social political, cultural and economic profile, etc. of the State). K. J. Alphons (a 1979 batch Kerala Cadre ex-IAS officer) recounts in his autobiography. 3. The type of questions to expect (e.g. ‘Making a difference’ that in his personality test, analytical, information oriented, etc.). one of the members had remarked jokingly, that 1. Ambit of preparation: The ambit of prepa- his name was very similar to a variety of mango. ration should include: Mr. Alphons was quick to respond that indeed it State as well as district/city/town of was so, but it was the very best variety of mango. domicile. (Maximum emphasis to be The quick repartee must have impressed the given) Board about his presence of mind and sense of State/city/town of current/past asso- humor. ciation where you have spent reason- Questioning about the name may just be a able time and are expected to have a means by the interviewer to let the ball rolling, fair degree of acquaintance, e.g., or to lead the interviewee into a comfort zone. Hyderabad – Telangana, because of your Nevertheless, it is better to be prepared about preparation from Narayana IAS Acad- the meaning of one’s name, title, the ‘root’ word emy here in your case. from which it is derived (especially if it is unique) 2. Extent of Study: The extent of study would or association with famous personalities, lest include brief idea about the state/city, viz. one is caught unawares. i) History ii) Geography Similarly, if your date of birth is associated iii) Social and cultural profile with some significant event in history, or coin- iv) Development index cides with the date of birth of some eminent v) Strength and weakness personality, then you must know about that event vi) Challenges, problems, solutions or personality. vii) Unique Selling Proposition (U.S.P) – the Information about States special qualities which distinguish it Information about the states is an essen- from other states. Important features tial constituent of the ‘personal profile.’ This is of the state such as its industrial specially so, if you are preparing for the State progress, human development, tourism Civil Services interview. But many a time, can- potential, natural resources etc. didates face a dilemma as to nature and extent To start with, the basic information can be of preparation to be done. Three questions crop obtained from “States & UTs” Chapter in up… the latest India Year Book. Official websites 635 civilz byte

of the states/other sites like Wikipedia can source potential. Measures for greater also be very useful in gathering informa- social, cultural integration with rest of tion. Further, always look out for articles in the country. Areas of concern and de- magazines and newspapers or programmes/ velopment, problems regarding sepa- news capsules on television, which deal with ratists, Naxalism, border disputes, law issues pertaining to the states. and order, and approach for addressing them etc. 3. Nature of Questions: The nature of questions will largely be to test your observa- 4. To summarize : tion, understanding and analysis of the is- Queries relating to states are more sue which are emanating from the state/ likely to be analytical or critical evalua- city. But, it is more important to remember tion, rather than mere information-ori- that the super-structure of analysis and criti- ented ones. Such queries will be ema- cal evaluation is to be built upon the bed- nating from the candidate’s domain of rock of knowledge and information. Some association with the state/city/district, typical questions which are indicative of as reflected in the DAF. what to expect can be: The questions from the state do not i) Challenges before metropolitan cities emerge from a sudden vacuum. More specially Hyderabad, Delhi, viz. city in- often than not, the typicality, signifi- frastructure, transportation, town plan- cance, current nature and pertinence ning, water management, power sup- of the issues invites a query. ply, public health, housing, urban pov- Keeping an eye on the current events, erty, polution control, etc. newspapers, magazines and television reports etc. helps in identifying as well ii) For the Candidates from Eastern States as preparing the state/city/city related (viz. Bihar, West Bengal Odisha, issues. Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh), the questions can emanate from areas like de- It is best to try and anticipate such is- velopment challenges, problems of flood sues, jot them down, read, discuss and dwell upon them and finally crystallize and drought, paradox of rich mineral your views. wealth yet non-commensurate development, problem of Naxalism, etc. Hobbies, Games and Achievements iii) Policies of the Govt. of Telangana and The mains form to be submitted to UPSC other aspects of the state. also seeks information about your hobbies, in- iv) In case of Candidates from states of terest in games/sports, besides awards and North Eastern India, the key areas can prizes won. Though, these are distinct from each be measures to be taken for other, from the perspective of preparation for infrastructural and economic develop- the personality test, they represent a singular ment of North Eastern States, better domain - our areas of interest and achievements utilization of natural and human re- therein. 636 Personality Test: The Final Frontier

A hobby is an activity which is done for en- qualify it with, reading novels, magazines, joyment when one is not working. Essentially, short stories, fiction, non-fiction, articles, hobby is an interest which is pursued in one’s etc. or a combination of these. Such a de- leisure time. While furnishing details about hob- scription captures the attention of the in- bies and interests, a careful thought must be terviewer a bit more, while enabling your given to what all should be filled in: own preparation to be more specific and nar- Any hobby, games, etc. indicated in the rower. form, should genuinely be of your interest. How to prepare for Making false claims or trying to hoodwink your Hobbies /Interests the Board can be detrimental. Please do not i. Preparation for the hobby begins by ques- claim ‘social service, medical aid, relief to tioning your own self about what can possi- poor’ as your hobby, just to portray a high bly be asked from this area. Or if I were the ideological self of yours, unless you have interviewer then what would I ask? actually worked or been associated with this field. ii. Seeking questions from others (friends, parents, persons having interest or exper- Claiming an activity which was earlier your tise in that area etc.) can also serve as a hobby but you are not presently actively good starting point. pursuing, is alright. It is quite understandable that the pressure of studies might have iii. Jot down the questions (may be 10-12 from dissociated you from it. But you need to each area of interest and begin preparation) catch up with it and refresh your knowledge iv. Consulting books related to these topics, about it now during your preparation here articles on internet, consulting experts/ ex- at the Academy. perienced persons associated with that Do not shy away from filling a hobby. At field can be very helpful. times, candidates leave the section blank v. Please remember that the Board cannot/ is or indicate hobbies which are less likely to not likely to ask you to showcase your tal- attract questions, such as reading newspa- ent. Thus, if playing cricket or philately is pers, books etc. Hobbies, from the perspec- your hobby, then do not expect that the Board tive of interview, represent an opportunity. will ask you, to display a square cut or to It is an area which is likely to capture the show your collection of stamps. Similarly, attention of the Board and give you a ques- certificates or awards are generally not tion or two, on which you can prepare be- asked to be displayed. What you are likely forehand. Trying to evade being queried on to be asked is questions like your views on hobbies/interest is akin to an opportunity commercialization of cricket, utility and lost. relevance of philately, etc. Know thoroughly. It is advisable to be more specific in your About yourself, your hometown, village hobby. For instance, instead of mentioning & things associated to your life. only ‘reading’ as a hobby, it is better to ––––––––––– ––––––––––– 637 CHAPTER civilz byte 73 Non-Verbal Communication & Body Language

t is often said that the first impression is aging your nervousness. made even before the candidate has uttered Entry in the Interview Room Ithe first word. Non-verbal communication and body language reflect the confidence of a per- Before entering the interview room, gently son, the state of mind and many other facets of knock the door and seek permission to come in. his personality, which otherwise the candidate Then walk into the room at a normal pace. Keep himself may not be conscious of. Certain impor- your head and shoulder firm and do not slouch. tant aspects of this skill are being discussed When you have reached the table where the Board below: Members are seated, wish them ‘Good Morning’ or ‘Good Afternoon’ with a pleasant smile. It is Maintaining Composure a matter of courtesy to wish the lady member Our state of mind is reflected in our body first (if any is present). language and even in our replies. As such, it is Do not bear a weary or a tense expression extremely important to maintain our composure. on your face. Even if you are experiencing ner- While you are seated outside the interview room, vousness and you are hearing your heart pound- waiting for your turn to be called in, you are ing, re-assure yourself that this is nothing but most likely to experience nervousness and a flut- normal. Even the best prepared or the most ex- ter of excitement. perienced of candidates will be going through When it is your turn for the interview, a similar tense moments and such nervousness is UPSC Official will usher you to the interview room. likely to wane as the interview proceeds. Here you are required to wait for a few minutes, Taking a Seat before the official asks you to proceed inside the room for the interview. It is pertinent to Please take a seat only when the Chairman remember that excitement and nervousness is or a Board Member asks you to do so. Do not be natural. But it is important not to let it over- in a hurry to grab the chair. Once you are asked, come us or get the better of us. Close your eyes, then thank the Chairman/Member, gently pull the take a deep breath, cup your eyelids with your chair and take your seat. Adjust the chair so palms and remain calm and cool. This may look that it is neither very far from the table nor too trivial while reading but might help you in man- close to it. 638 Personality Test: The Final Frontier

Sitting Posture on the lap, or placing the wrists on the table, are better options. Similarly, sitting cross legged Sit erect. Let the small of your back press or with feet slightly apart are both acceptable. against the back support of the chair. This enables you to maintain a straight posture with a These are only initial body postures. As the mild forward or backward leaning. It is not nec- interview proceeds, the involuntary self auto- essary to have a stiff upright posture with the matically takes over and understandably one is back bone straight like a ramrod. But do not not too conscious of the body postures. Never- slouch or lean on either side. Such a stance dis- theless, it is important to observe the following plays a sense of casualness and may also be mis- points: interpreted as disrespect towards the Board. An Do not cross your arms. It indicates that erect posture also helps in remaining mentally you are over confident and not open to alert. This is essential as response to the ques- ideas. tions has to be quick. Avoid shaking your legs. It suggests casual- Position of Hands and Feet ness. Besides, it prevents you from concen- trating fully. “What should I do with my hands? Shall I place my elbow on the table? Should I sit cross- Do not fidget, or check time in your watch legged? Will it be improper if I place my ankle of or stare at the objects in the interview room. one leg atop the knee of other?” These are few It indicates nervousness and restless mind. common queries about the body posture besieg- Do not sit with your hands in pocket. ing the interviewee. Gesticulation and Movement of Arms For men, the advisable position for the “Is it proper to gesticulate or should I hold hands is to be placed in the lap, on the legs, my arms stiff? My arm automatically starts sway- over the knee or on the arm rests. (However, ing when I am speaking! Should I hold them to- the chairs in the UPSC interview rooms usually gether?” These are some common concerns do not have arm rests.) While placing wrists on voiced by the interviewees. the table is also okay, some body language specialists consider placing of elbows on the table As discussed earlier, it is normal for your to be a rude posture, although the same is con- hands to move or sway. Do not be unnecessarily sidered as a ladies prerogative. Men should also bothered or become too conscious about them. not be seated with ankles of one legs placed on However, wild gesticulation or too much sway- the knee of the other. This conveys a sense of ing of the arms is not desirable. If you do have casualness. It is advisable to sit with both leg such a habit then it is better to curb it. spread slightly apart. It is better not to sit cross Eye Contact legged. Eye contact is by far the most important Ladies can place their elbow on table if it is aspect of non-verbal communication. Imagine comfortable. However, sitting with palms on yourself in a conversation where the listener is knees or holding hands together and placing it looking elsewhere. He might be listening to you 639 civilz byte intently, but his looking sideways, upwards or ii. Looking towards the Member downwards does not convey this impression. You while replying might think that his mind is pre-occupied or While replying, it is important to establish maybe he is disinterested in whatever you have eye contact with the Member who has put forth to say. You would wish that he were looking to- the question. After a while, it is also necessary wards you and perhaps nodding his head in agree- to look towards other Members in turn. This en- ment. ables you to gauge the impression of other Mem- Eye Contact or looking directly towards the bers about your reply. This is also essential, lest speaker or the listener is an essential ingredi- the other Members feel ignored. This can spe- ent of any meaningful conversation. This is cifically happen when one Member puts forth a equally true for an interview. As a candidate, number of questions one after the other. the following points should be carefully observed: Many candidates have the difficulty in es- i. Looking towards the speaker tablishing eye contact, specially with other Mem- when listening to the question bers. This is one area of non-verbal communication, which may not come naturally to every- Besides listening to the question intently, it body, and therefore needs to be practiced. One is important to establish eye contact with the way of developing the skill is to sit before a full Member who is asking question. Do not look side- length mirror and to pose questions to your own ways or elsewhere. This conveys lack of concen- self. Try answering it by looking towards your- tration and disinterest in what is being said. self and watching your expression in the mirror. Looking towards the speaker also helps in bet- Then also turn towards other directions (left and ter observation of the facial expression and lip right) as if you are speaking to other Members, movements, which might assist in greater un- who are seated in front of you. This can also be derstanding of the question. For instance, done by sitting before a web-cam and recording whether a question or a comment is delivered your reply. Taking mock interviews with a group with a smile or an expression of mocking or se- of friends can also be very helpful, especially in riousness may enable you to better appreciate obtaining feedback about the areas in which your what the question or the comment is aiming at. body language needs refinement.

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640 CHAPTER Personality Test: The Final Frontier 74 Verbal Communication

Significance and Objective of However, if you consider your verbal com- Verbal Communication munication skills not to be an area of concern of “The objective of any good communication rather one of your strengths, then the point to is to convey properly and effectively what the bear in mind is that while these skills, as re- speaker has to say.” This statement empha- quired for the personality test, are essentially sizes upon an obvious but important principle of the same as that you might have developed for verbal communication skills. But many a time, public speaking. Nevertheless, it is sensible to either we choose to remain ignorant about this be cautious and not go overboard. or let our habits and indiscipline get better of us. From the perspective of the personality test, Your tone and tenor, delivery and poise your objective should be: should be firm, yet humble and graceful so as to be fit the interview. It should not appear to be a a) To understand the basic and essential skills discourse or a monologue as in a speech or be of good verbal communication skills. overtly emotional or exceedingly argumentative, b) To assess your own degree of proficiency, as may otherwise be excused or even appreci- as far as these skills are concerned. ated in a debate. Besides, haughtiness and ar- c) If you consider that your verbal communi- rogance has to be eschewed at all costs. cation skills need improvement, then how to go about overcoming your short comings ESSENTIAL VERBAL Here, it is pertinent to bear in mind that communication skills expected of you are those COMMUNICATION SKILLS of a decent conversationalist and not of a public speaker or a powerful orator. As such, if you are Listening Carefully among those who have assiduously avoided your Some may question, whether listening forms activity class or any such forum of public speak- a part of verbal communication skills or not. But ing, then do not fret or panic about your im- from the perspective of the interview, listening pending interview. Just follow the advices and is considered to be the most important commu- tips given below. (But don’t bunk your activity nication skill. class though.) 641 civilz byte

Always listen carefully and attentively. Un- 1. Listening carefully to newsreaders on radio less you do so, you cannot have the full grasp of and television and trying to emulate them. the question and your reply is likely to be inco- 2. Reading aloud newspapers, magazines or herent, tangential or out of focus. Listening care- books for at least 10- 15 minutes a day, at a fully requires you to concentrate fully on what is slow and steady pace. being said. Besides, you also have to subdue the 3. Speaking and reading slowly with concerted urge of shooting off your reply immediately (if you are prone to such a habit) or interrupting effort in front of others and asking them to the speaker. Once the interviewer has stopped interrupt if you over speed. speaking, take a second or two to think and or- C. Pronunciation ganize your thought and then begin your reply. Correct pronunciation is an integral part of Speaking Clearly verbal communication and clarity of speech. We Clarity of Speech is amongst the other most recommend you to concentrate on this aspect essential attributes. However, this entails not a and learn about it. And see to that, there is no singular skill but a few of them, which we be- Mother Tongue Influence (MTI) in the way you lieve, are: speak English. It shouldn’t sound like Hinglish A. Loudness (Hindi like English) or Tinglish (Telugu like En- glish) but like English. Try the following steps to The volume of your reply should be clearly overcome any such problem and develop your audible to all of the members and at the same pronunciation skills. time, not deemed to be too loud. While the Mem- ber sitting nearest to you may only be a couple i) Listen carefully to newsreaders (specially on of feet away, those sitting at the farther end of All India Radio App). Make a mental the table may be a reasonable four or five feet note of common words you mispronounce. away. Volume of speech is usually not an area of ii) Jot down 20-25 such words and devote 5-10 concern for most of the candidates. However, minutes a day practicing pronouncing them those who are too soft spoken, or in the habit of correctly. mumbling during conversation, or those who are too loud, need to work on this aspect. iii) Read aloud in front of your roommates or friends who can correct you, and ask them B. Pace of speech delivery to identify your common mistakes. The delivery of words should be at such a iv) If that is difficult, read aloud for 5-10 min- pace as to be fully comprehensible to the lis- utes every day and record it yourself on a tener, without him having to strain his ears. If mobile. Listen to your own speech and iden- you are accustomed to talking at a high speed tify your mistakes. This is also helpful in and find it difficult to control your gibber, then it’s time to make concerted effort to discipline indentifying and rectifying your short- your speech. Some of the methods which might comings related to other aspects of verbal be helpful are: communication. 642 Personality Test: The Final Frontier Choice of Appropriate Pause and Poise Words and Sentences Pause here refers to a brief halt in our The words, phrases and sentences employed speech which distinguishes sentences, sentence in your answers should preferably be simple and parts and words from each other. This is essen- the ones you are comfortable with. Do not make tial to provide you brief breathing spaces, and an overt attempt to impress the board with your thinking opportunities during conversation. From the listener’s perspective, pauses help not only language and vocabulary. However, if use of good in demarcating and delineating words and sen- expressions and phrases comes naturally to your tences, thus preventing the speech from get- conversation, then there is no need to curb it ting muddled up, but also provide an opportu- either. nity to comprehend and digest what has been Use those words and sentences which are said. concise, to the point and apt. Avoid clichéd words Thus, pauses are an integral part of verbal and expressions, especially the ones like, ‘what communication. If you are amongst those who I mean is’, ‘what you call,’ ‘err, ah’, okay, ‘by are prone to gibber and ramble, without taking the way’, etc., which one uses involuntarily and a pause, then it is time for you to rectify this repeatedly in one’s conversation. aspect of your communication. Listen to good newsreaders, practice reading aloud and record Further, only those abbreviations should be your speech so as to identify your mistakes. Rest used which are common or are being used by the assured that concerted and conscious effort is Members themselves. Similarly, usage of tech- bound to bring a fair degree of improvement. nical terms should be limited to those which are A word of caution for those who are at the common, employed by the Members are man- other extreme is that do not make your pauses dated by the subject matter of the query. so long so as to interrupt the flow of your speech, It is also important to be in control of one’s or to prompt the interviewer to interject and communication. This implies that you should say shoot another question. only what you want and intend to say. Do not end Poise of speech refers to the calm and con- up saying what you did not intend to say. This fidence, the dignity and deportment with which may happen at times, because of haste, improper you carry out your conversation. Poise has to do choice of words, shooting of the reply without more with your mental state than with your first mentally articulating, or because of a slip speaking skills, but then it has an important of tongue. The remedy lies in, composing one’s bearing on the quality of communication. mind, exercising carefulness while replying, con- Try to remain calm and composed (though centrating harder while listening to the inter- it is easier said than done). Take deep breaths viewer and articulating one’s reply, besides mak- and gradually exhale (not in front of the interview ing concentrated effect to practice communica- panel but prior to it). This helps in soothing frayed tion skills. nerves. Maintain a smiling countenance, 643 civilz byte especially when greeting the members. Besides, speaking to, or the occasion, but, at the same do not get unduly excited specially when the time, extending due to respect befitting the members refute you or give you an apparent person and the occasion. snub. Reacting to such a situation will only But how to get the right intonations and disturb your composure. Even in adverse expressions? Well, practice is the only way out. situations maintain your poise and balance. Sit before a full-length mirror (preferably) or Intonation and Expressions record your practice in a web-cam or properly adjusted mobile front cam, or ask someone what Intonation refers to the voice modulation possible queries can arise from your reply and and inflection. These are the crests and falls in answer again and so on. This or similar mod- the voice, which emphasize upon or signify what ules not only help in honing your communication the speaker has to say. skills, but also instill confidence. Besides, it is a It is said that verbal communication has to very useful approach which assists immensely in do more with how a thing is said than what is analyzing and identifying probable primary and actually being said. Of course, in a personality secondary queries. test, what is being said or the content has greater Energy and Emotional Quotient significance, but how it is said is no less important. Intonation and expression of speech are Everyday the human body passes through the critical elements of ‘how it is said’ aspect of several phases of rise and fall in energy levels. the verbal communication. This transition in energy level is reflected in our temperament, thought, creativity, body language Intonation and expressions are natural part and communication. Typically in verbal commu- of speech for most of us. But at times, it is the nication, our energy manifests in the form of excitement and nervousness which either tends strength and firmness of our voice, tone and to subdue it or flare it up. Both the extremes tenor and even our expression and poise. Be- are not desirable. A flat monotonic reply, which sides, our energy levels also influence our men- is devoid of expression, tends to put-off the lis- tal alertness and promptness of our reply. tener. Besides, it fails to emphasize upon the right words and phrases, which the speaker would The personality test can at times be an en- like the listener’s attention to be drawn upon. ergy sapping experience (particularly nervous On the other hand, excessive voice modulation, energy). Even the pre-interview excitement and as may befit a debate or a public speech, is out nervousness can be a heavy draw on your bat- of place in an interview. This may be miscon- teries. As such, it is essential to ensure that strued to be artificial or loud. during your personality test, your energy levels do not plummet to such levels so as to make The right approach is to incorporate the your expressions and verbal communication correct mix of aforesaid, as one would in a con- tepid, and drained. versation with one’s elders or teachers. One has to express one’s viewpoints firmly without be- The following suggestions can be helpful in ing overwhelmed by the person to whom one is restoring and maintaining proper energy balance. 644 Personality Test: The Final Frontier

From a week prior to the interview, treat it is the measure of a person’s emotional Intelli- yourself with the full quota of your sleep. gence. This is described as a person’s ability to Burning mid-night oil, and cutting on your understand and manage others’ as well as one’s sleep at this juncture is likely to be counter- own emotions. productive. Emotional Quotient is surely not a part or One or two days before the interview, stop subset of verbal communication skills. But un- mugging up new things. Just revise and derstanding EQ is better essential, as it has sig- relax. nificant bearing on one’s behavioural and communication skills. Do not miss out on breakfast on the day of interview. But at the same time, do not over From the perspective of Personality Test, stuff yourself as this can induce heaviness. just like one has to channelize and manage one’s Have a light breakfast of cereals and fruits. energies better, one has to understand and manage one’s emotions as well as the emotions of Meditation or other methods of relaxation the Members. These may appear to be high- can be very helpful. If you already know/ sounding words. But at the practical level, it have learnt any, then do practice them. Oth- translates into checking and controlling one’s erwise, learn them at the Academy now so emotions despite any apparent and patent provo- that they would be helpful to you then. cation. So, keep your cool and maintain your Talk to other candidates if that helps to calm composure. The choice of words or expression you. should never be to offend or hurt the sentiments Emotional quotient (EQ) or sensibilities of others. In a nut shell, our communication should be such that the replies re- Many experts are of the view that emotional main firm, yet polite and respectful. quotient also is an important area of evaluation in the personality test and one that most candi- “Civil Services is all about Communication; dates need to improve. But what is Emotional be it written or oral. Quotient? EQ is described differently in various Start communicating groups and by different experts. In simple words, and work on doing it well…”

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645 CHAPTER civilz byte 75 Filling the ‘DAF’

he candidates declared successful in the guage for writing the answers for the essay, the CS (Prelims) are required to fill and sub- General Studies and the Optional subject papers, Tmit a Detailed Application Form (DAF) to the Indian language paper (Paper A) and the lan- UPSC. The 10 page form requires a variety of guage medium for interview, has to be indicated. information, which must be filled carefully with C. Educational qualification and conscious application of mind and double checked Employment particulars before submitting it. Also a soft and a hard copy The form requires the candidates to submit of what one has submitted should be maintained complete particulars of educational qualifications for future reference and for the preparation at starting from class X, the subjects opted for, the Interview stage. The information to be fur- marks scored etc. This information is to be sub- nished may be grouped into five categories, ex- mitted for class X and XII, graduation, post- plained below in this chapter, which vary from graduation, higher studies (if yes). Candidates personal and factual information to those requir- should take care to fill the marks only after duly ing due diligence and application of mind. verifying from their marks certificate (and not A. Personal information approximate scores based on memory). Further, employment particulars should also Name, address, contact number, email Id, be correctly indicated. After the course here at marital status, citizenship, mother tongue, date the Academy, if you work somewhere then do and place of birth, community, particulars of not shy away from indicating jobs taken for a parents; their name, nationality, address, pro- year or even a few months fearing that they might fession and annual income. Although this cat- be asked about in the interview and would have egory of information is only factual, it must be to prepare for it. Indicating previous job expe- cross – checked carefully for any errors. rience, serves as a catchment area of potential B. Choice of Optional, interview questions which can be anticipated and Language and test centre prepared in advance. They are an opportunity and not liability, as some perceive it to be. Be- This is the next category of information sides, giving previous employment particulars required to be filled. The centre of examina- is also essential, as without it the information tion, the choice of optional, the medium of lan- furnished would be untruthful. 646 Personality Test: The Final Frontier

D. Prizes, medals, games, that from the perspective of the interview, hob- hobbies and interests bies represent an opportunity. It is an area which captures the attention of the board members The DAF also requires candidates to indi- and contributes a few questions, which can be cate particulars of prizes, medals, scholarship, anticipated and prepared beforehand. Not indi- position of distinction, leadership held in school cating any hobby is like squandering this oppor- and college, interest in teams, games, sports tunity. and other extracurricular activities (such as hobbies). E. Preference of services and state cadres This is the most crucial information to be furnished. While the awards, scholarships and The DAF requires the candidates to indicate positions of distinction etc., are only factual their order of preference of all services being information, they must be correctly stated. Write offered. Further, they also have to fill the pref- only what you know to be right. Do not proclaim erence for state cadres in case they are appointed what you know is not correct or is an to all India Services (viz., IAS/IPS) exaggeration. Although the above choices/preferences The above information is extremely relevant profoundly affect the professional and personal for the interview as the board can (and is likely life of candidates (as and when selected), how- to) question the candidate about his / her hob- ever adequate thought is often not applied by bies, interests, achievements etc. Any false in- the aspirants while indicating their choices. This formation or exaggeration if defected can prove often happens either because of overconfidence, to be extremely embarrassing and even disas- believing that one is going to secure one of the trous for the interview. Besides, a sense of guilt top ranks and services as well as cadre of choice, always keeps on gnawing one from within, as to or due to lack of information about the informa- what would happen if the untruth is detected. tion about the services. At times, the candidates The particulars of hobbies and interests are too preoccupied to find out about nature and should also be filled with due application of mind. prospects of the various services. The hobbies / interests one proposes to indi- The allocation of services is done on the cate in the DAF should genuinely be of one’s in- basis of rank secured by the candidates and the terest. It is okay to claim an activity which was preference of services as indicating by them. earlier one’s hobby, but one is not actively pur- While the top 80 – 100 rankers can be sure of suing now due to pressure of studies. All one securing the service of first choice the other (90 needs to do is to brush up a bit. per cent) successful candidates would be offered At times, candidates are hesitant to fill any- services which they preferred lower in the list. thing as hobby lest they will be questioned about Once allotted (and accepted), the service sig- it or indicate such hobbies which are less likely nificantly affects your personal and professional to attract questions, such as reading news pa- life as it determines where you live and what pers, books, singing etc. It must be appreciated you do. Many a time, candidates land in a ser- 647 civilz byte vice which to their dismay, they do not have the 4. Zone-IV (West Bengal, Sikkim, Assam- requisite aptitude or interest for, thus leading a Meghalaya. Manipur, Tripura, life of a misfit and frustration. 5. Zone-V (Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, On the other hand, they feel that many other Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Kerala) services which they preferred lower would have *AGMUT - Arunachal Pradesh-Goa-Mizoram suited them better. This happens because often and Union Territory candidates have little information about the na- As per the new policy, a candidate is sup- ture of work and service prospects of the 25 ser- posed to select one state from each zone and vices on offer besides a few which have greater mark them in the preference order first. There- public visibility like IAS, IFS, IPS, and IRS etc. after, second cadre preference for every pre- As a result, they indicate their preference me- ferred zone will be indicated. Similar process will chanically with little application of mind and continue till a preference for all the cadres is many a time in the same sequential order as indicated by the candidate. listed in the DAF. Thus, they often end up in a service by default and not by design. The choice of preference of cadres must be done thoughtfully. While deciding on the choice A new Cadre policy has come into force and of cadre, the factors usually considered are the will be applicable from the 2017-18 Batch (Offic- economic and overall development of the state, ers). The government has divided the existing its political atmosphere and the law and order 26 state cadres into 5 Zonal cadres. The Depart- situation. Candidates also consider the proxim- ment of Personnel and Training (DoTP)/ Minis- ity of the cadre to their home state (or city/ try of Environment, Forests and Climate Change town where parents reside), connectivity by rail/ (MoEF&CC)/ Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) road, language spoken etc. However, there is shall decide the vacancies and the distribution really not much which can be done about the cadre of vacancies in Unreserved, SC, ST, Insider, Out- allocation, as unlike allotment of services, where sider vacancy. allotment pattern of previous years gives a broad 1. Zone-I (AGMUT*, Jammu, and Kashmir, idea as to what rank is likely to fetch which ser- Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Punjab, vice, no such predictions about state cadre allo- Rajasthan, and Haryana) cation has been possible. 2. Zone-II (Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, So, the best approach is not to fret too much and Odisha) about the state cadres, but to indicate one’s 3. Zone-III (Gujarat, Maharashtra, Madhya choice by taking a considered view and hope for Pradesh and Chhattisgarh) the best.

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648 CHAPTER Personality Test: The Final Frontier 76 Belief, Sincerity And Conviction

elief, Sincerity and Conviction are surely taken beliefs. They have to stand the test of like the pillars for your personality test. correctness and appropriateness. In turn, what BThey significantly influence your commu- is correct and appropriate is known only through nication and body language. If we are not con- hard work (viz., reading, discussing, listening vinced about what we are saying, then can we to others etc.) and due application of mind (viz., convince the listener? Further, it must be borne logical & empathy). in mind that lies and hand-beliefs can easily be We said it already in the book and we reit- seen through. erate. A good personality cannot be achieved Besides, conviction of thought cannot be overnight. It is a result of a journey of many practiced art. Conviction stems from our beliefs, years of learning. So, start working on your per- and that too from beliefs those which are sin- sonality from day 1 at the academy or at least cere. But, from the perspective of the Personal- from this day. If you genuinely do that, there is ity Test, our sincere beliefs should not be mis- no way you can score less in the personality test.

Thus, hard work, an honest and sincere approach is essential to imbue one’s personality with self-belief and conviction, which is an integral part of good communication and also hallmark of any success.

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649

Epilogue: The Final Word

SECTION - V Epilogue: The Final Word

☯ Seniors Speak ☯ Messing up Life with UPSC CSE? ☯ Policy of the Commission as we understand it ☯ Hard or Smart: Only effort pays off

651

CHAPTER Epilogue: The Final Word 77 Seniors Speak

"This is an exam not only of knowledge "It's just a few steps ahead; the journey but also of strength, patience and focus. Work from being in the audience to being on the hard. Be ambitious and do not be afraid to dais. There is not a single way to Civil Ser- start. And if you're brave enough to start, you vices. There are umpteen no. of ways. And I will succeed one day." believe it is your choice, the choice you need - Artika Shukla, to take, depending on which way suits you AIR 4, CSE 2015-16 the most. We all have our own shares of hope, hard- "The whole process of this exam is so tough ships and despair, our own moments of joy that every 3rd day, it might feel like, 'Bas, and sorrow. But finally, once you land here, all hamse nei hoga' (No, it doesn't work for me). it turns out to be fruitful. Don't be disheart- Make sure you motivate yourself and stay ened by failures. Keep the passion alive and patient in the whole journey. This is a matter fire burning." of everyday's hard work. Need not insist on - Haritha V Kumar, 16 hours, but stay consistent on whatever du- AIR 1, CSE 2012-13 ration of time you choose to spend daily. Most significantly, please don't lose hope…" - Tina Dabi, "CSE tests your patience, requires you to AIR 1, CSE 2015-16 work hard & have a positive mind. The papers are lengthy and syllabus vast but all you "This exam is not different because of its dif- need is commitment and focus. ficulty but for how your life can turn into af- Sleep for at least seven hours a day and ter this. The most important thing is not crack- make sure you have the same balanced sched- ing this exam, what you choose to do after ule every day." cracking is what matters. " - Athar Aamir Ul Shafi Khan, - Gaurav Agarwal, AIR 2, CSE 2015-16 AIR 1, CSE 2013-14 653 civilz byte

"Be honest, optimistic and confident. "Believe in yourself and work enough hard. There is nothing you cannot achieve. Perse- Don't take your struggle as struggle. Maintain verance is the key. Believe in yourself, be your calm. Maintain your peace. Don't get dis- positive and keep preparing to achieve the tracted. Stay focused. Work smart. " goal." - Ira Singhal, - Revu Mutyala Raju, AIR 1, CSE 2014-15 AIR 1, CSE 2006-07

"What is the one action which will make any human being can ever imagine to fight you great? and never stop your fighting until you arrive Every one of you has a page in the history at your destined place. of the world. What is that page? How do you That is the unique You. To get that Unique make that page which is going to be referred You, there is a big battle to win. This battle by the posterity? you don't need to take a gun. But you need What I will be remembered for. Ask yourself these 4 unique tools." this question. 1. Set the Goal & give a vision to your If you have an answer, then that out-of- ambition. the-box idea will drive you for the rest of your 2. Acquire the knowledge continuously life. 3. Hard work with devotion You have to fight the hardest battle which 4. Perseverance

- Abdul Kalam Sahab (Former President of Republic of India. Affectionately called the People's President)

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654 CHAPTER Epilogue: The Final Word 78 Messing up Life with UPSC CSE?

How many people would have thoroughly screwed their lives up by giving UPSC (IAS) exams? Friends, this is a question answered on Quora.com by Atul Roy, a former aspirant from Lucknow. He appeared in UPSC CSE Mains 4 times & Interview twice.

ell. I have exhausted all my attempts MBA, I started preparing. I was not serious, now and that makes me fit to answer but since I had very good general aware- Wthis question. I reached interview ness since my early childhood, I cleared Pre- stage twice and missed the final selection by a lims very easily. I had no preparation of my very narrow margin. I wasted (if you look at it Optionals, and hence could not clear Mains. that way) almost 6 years of life for a dream that 2011: I was going through some personal after a certain time no one could see except me, problems and hence could not focus very well my brother and father (even my mom gave up on Mains preparation. Failed in Mains again. on me) and some very close friends who stood by me like a rock. I left lucrative placements in 2012: Prepared well. Reached till Interview college after completing my MBA in Finance, I stage. Got good marks in Interview (186/ slept in UPPCS Mains (because I was not inter- 300), but got butchered in Optionals (till date ested in joining PCS, and never gave PCS exams 2012 Geo paper is regarded as one of the again), I never appeared for any other exam like toughest Geo papers and many couldn't touch SSC/Bank etc because I didn't want to settle for even 3 digits in Pub Ad paper 1). Missed anything less than IAS (and only IAS and not other final selection by 19 marks. services). 2013: Just when I had got the hang of the Here is my journey through all these years exam, and I was certain that I will ace it in and attempts: the next attempt (and I was totally determined because it was my last attempt), UPSC 2010 : While still in college pursuing my dropped the bombshell on us by changing 655 civilz byte

the pattern totally. In other exams say CA read newspapers regularly as I was going Exam if ICAI changes patterns they give you through a harrowing phase. Consequently, I an option to continue in the previous pat- failed in the prelims by 3 marks. This came tern for 2-3 years because they know how as a rude shock to me. I had never even difficult it is to prepare and get a hang of a failed prelims, and coming on the back of colossal exam like this. But UPSC didn't care interview, I could see the writing on the wall. at all. So I didn't have any choice but to drop 2016: Battling lack of motivation, depres- for one year because I didn't have the cour- sion, financial problems, personal issues and age to risk my last attempt in the changed what not I tried to prepare. I revised every- pattern. thing this time. But this years' paper had 2014: Due to the largesse granted by Rahul disproportionate amounts of CA questions Gandhi, we got two more attempts. I pre- and that too from previous 1.5 years, and pared with all my heart. Poured everything I since I was not in regular touch with CA and had into this exam. But made two vital mis- newspapers from the past one year, I didn't takes. The mains papers asked us to write have a good grip over the CA. I got 108 close to 4000-4500 words and 20 questions, marks according to various keys and failed whereas people like us (old Pattern) were prelims again. I am sure it must be by 1-2 used to writing 3000 words with comfort- marks. But I was so exhausted by this point able time pressure. We could simply not of time that I was prepared mentally. More- write those 4000 words in the exam because over one part of me even wanted this or- we were still caught up in the old pattern deal to end. So when I failed I kind of felt so (whereas new aspirants who started from relieved because finally I could do things I the new pattern, they prepared with the always wanted to do. Finally I could do what same mindset as the exam wanted them to) normal people do. Finally I could enjoy my- and so my marks in Mains suffered. But still self. reached interview. Got good marks again So did I screw my life or my career? in interview (189/275), but missed the fi- Absolutely not. Let me elaborate why. nal selection again. I was totally devastated. When I started preparation in 2010, I was 2015: I came to Delhi from Lucknow. And an entirely different person. And I am not at all after being totally devastated, I had a spat proud of what I was. I was arrogant, with super- with my brother, who accused me of not pre- ficial knowledge, a man with questionable mor- paring with seriousness. I slipped into deals who didn't believe in honesty and who felt pression, even crying myself to sleep on that taking dowry was acceptable. I had passed many days. I simply could not feel like study- out of a tier 2 MBA college with not so good em- ing at all. I neglected Current Affairs (CA), ploy-ability (not in the league of the very best in did not revise properly and I could not even 656 Epilogue: The Final Word

India i.e. IIMs). I didn't have a good opinion on and children better. I am planning to go for MPP issues. I wanted to join IAS just because it had program from JFK School of Public Policy, Harvard been a childhood dream and not for the public University after working for 3-4 years with the service aspect. Even though I wanted to rub community. Do you think I could have done all shoulders with the very best, I was simply not in this without the knowledge and understanding their league. I lacked empathy and compassion. which I gained from this preparation? Absolutely I never thought about the millions who were lan- Not. guishing and suffering in our country. This exam made me what I am today. It pro- Fast forward 6 years pelled me ahead in life. It made me a far better person than I used to be. It made me conscious Today I have a decent knowledge about ev- of the problems and issues faced by poor and erything and a balanced opinion over issues. I underprivileged millions in my country. It made can understand almost everything from environ- me empathetic to their cause and gave me the mental issues to economic issues. I am an unbi- strength and compassion to work for them. And ased and neutral observer who can see both the I certainly don't think that means screwing up in sides of the coin. I have left behind almost all life by any stretch of imagination. my fellow school/college mates in terms of knowledge, understanding and empathy towards so- I would like to end this with what a friend of cial issues. mine told me once: "If you had become an IAS without this journey just because you were in- I stay with two 'Teach For India (TFI) Pro- telligent and smart, you would have caused a gram' Managers and know many more of them. I great harm to the country (because how bad a discuss with them ideas as to how we can solve person I was), but today even though you are the educational disparities in our country. I am not an IAS you will do a world of good because working with 3 TFI Ex fellows on a social not- you are a much better person." for-profit venture called Raah, in which we are working with women from underprivileged back- Always remember that the journey you un- grounds in Seelampur area of North Delhi in which dertake for this exam is towards self enlighten- we are trying to give them livelihoods and skill ment and growth & will always make you a bet- training. ter person than you already are.

I regularly talk and discuss with some of the I might have failed to become an IAS finest minds in the country (from Ivy League col- Officer, but I succeeded in becoming a better leges like IIT, IIM, Harvard etc) who gave up lu- human being. And that to me is not messing crative jobs in order to serve the community up life at all.

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657 CHAPTER civilz byte 79 Policy of the Commission as we understand it

n a lighter note, Union Public Service The Union Public Service Commission is an Commission is like a woman. Because independent constitutional body. It had always Oyou never understand both. May be had the respect of everyone. There was no his- that's the reason people call UPSC Unpredictable tory of any fraud and there won't be. That much too. (No offense but which woman was ever pre- can be assured of. In recruiting the steel frame dictable too.) But it turns out it's very important of the nation, the UPSC has few things in mind. for us to make an attempt to properly dig, de- They want few kinds of people. They don't want crypt and decipher what exactly the UPSC wants few other kinds of people. They don't want from an aspirant. Einsteins or people with highest intelligence quo- tients. They need normal human beings. They Once that pulse of UPSC is caught hold of, need a formal and decent employee to run the it should become a little easier for us to mould day to day affairs of the government. They need our preparation to suit its needs. Now in doing normal officers to work as government servants this hacking of the policy of this central recruit- who can handle emergencies and offer leader- ing agency, we got no decoding cheat sheet nor ship for different institutional and administra- have we ever had any link with any person asso- tive setups. ciated with UPSC. The below analysis is only They want Average people with extraordi- based on our own understanding after following nary dedication. They need a 'Jack of All Trades, the trends of UPSC for so many years. It's largely Master of None.' They need someone who can based on our conversations with hundreds of work hard. Someone who can maintain a persis- working and retired civil servants over the years, tent routine. Someone who can handle the most the notification texts of UPSC we were following unexpected contingencies and again solve them all the time and finally the interviews, lectures with spontaneity and presence of mind. and talks of former UPSC Chairmen like Madam Alka Sirohi, Prof. David R. Syiemlieh & Dr. D. P. They want someone who can unify the coun- Agrawal we watched on YouTube. try and add to the country's integrity and is in- 658 Epilogue: The Final Word terested to work with a broad outlook of a big and variety and depth of interest. They observe and diversified nation that we are than from a if the aspirant has the critical powers of assimi- narrow local or regional perspective. lation which is a capability to understand ideas and things. The capability to communicate such Through the whole process of the exam, they understanding is also checked which is the 'clear assess your personal suitability for a career in and logical exposition.' And finally, the aspirant public service. Particularly for the interview, the is expected to carry social cohesion and leader- test is not only of intellectual qualities but also ship, intellectual and moral integrity. social traits. They see for an interest in current affairs in the candidate. They test if the candi- Ultimately, all that UPSC is bothered about date has Mental alertness, balance of judgment is ability, sincerity and passion.

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659 CHAPTER civilz byte 80 Hard or Smart: Only effort pays off

The The heights by great men reached and kept were not attained in sudden flight but, they while their companions slept, Epilogue were toiling upwards in the night."

- Henry Wadsworth Longfellow

My mom and I were having a conversation in the last Sankranthi vacation about the civil services exam. She asked me what is more important in Civil Services exam, intelligence or hard work? Now that's a very important question for us. You could have already known the answer. I told her the same. If intelligence was the answer, the hare always defeats the tortoise in our race. But, no. The tortoise wins. Even in our race. People with intelligence, talent and smartness may or may not win this exam. But people with hard work as their weapon will always win the exam. They might take a little time. But they do crack the exam at last. Without fail. If hard work is not your thing, you don't fit in here.

Civil services is a test of commitment. This exam is not like a sprint. It's like a Marathon. It's not like twenty-twenty. It's like the test match. All you need is consistency and commitment but not exceptional intellect or unparalleled talent.

"He who is not courageous enough to take risks will accomplish nothing in life." - Muhammad Ali

We told you a very comprehensive way to crack civil services. But let us tell this too to you. It can be a really hard fact or a harsh truth to accept but not everyone at Narayana IAS Academy will become a civil servant. A very 660 Epilogue: The Final Word small percentage of people might achieve it. But what about others? Employment is inevitable for everybody. My suggestion to you is this. Learn a Skill. Spend time on acquiring Knowledge. Develop your English. Create a good personality.

Make yourself employable. Employability is an ability. Employment is an opportunity. Without ability, do not ask for opportunity. There are avenues always open in the market for people who are employable no matter what. Even if what we carry is a basic degree like Bachelor of Arts.

Pursue Knowledge. Not because it is power but because it is permanent. Read good books and watch good films. Most films have entertainment and yet provide a commentary on contemporary issues.

Learn a Skill. May be start learning a new language if you are interested in it. It's like cracking a code. If you get to know the science of how to learn a language by cracking that code, it becomes a cakewalk for you to learn more. Be a computer literate. Learn to write. There are so many things. Choose one. Learn something that can make you employable in case you do not get into Civil Services. Start learning it as a hobby. You can specialize on it later.

Pursue Ideas. Ideas come in all sizes and shapes. As told in the film V to Vendetta, ‘Ideas are bullet-proof.’ Being able to give shape to an idea, in my opinion, is an art. If your can make your ideas come true, you are an artist. I believe this strongly and tell you the same -

Ideas can take you places.

If not Civil Services, there are Group level examinations conducted by State Public Service Commissions (SPSC). They are very rare. SPSCs like APPSC, TSPSC do not notify for group service recruitments, every year, like the UPSC does on a regular note. I have been in Hyderabad for five years and the Group-I notification never released in this time. `

There are exams like National Defence Academy (NDA)/ Combined Defence Services (CDS) conducted by UPSC. Exams for posts like Combined Higher Secondary Level (CHSL), Combined Graduate Level (CGL) are conducted by Staff Selection Commission. NTPC recruits Executive Train- ees from those who appeared for interview round of civils but could not make it to the final selection. If one is good at Quantitative Aptitude or General Mental Ability as a whole, nothing should stop them, from writing Bank / Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) / Reserve Bank of India (RBI) exams as well. The idea is to get employment. If such exams are looked down at, it only amounts to a grave mistake.

Make sure you do a Post Graduation (PG) after your Under Graduation (UG). As the last resort,

661 civilz byte at least, do a PG in distance if not regularly instead of being totally into civil services with no back up. If you happen to fail at the Prelims or Mains, you will at least have a PG in your hand by the time you finish two years.

There are Public Policy Think Tanks which recruit / hire people with good analytical skills. There is journalism. There is Human Resources Management Field. There is Publishing Industry. There is teaching. There is entrepreneurship. There is Law. Tough to succeed but there are places like YouTube, Film, Theatre and Radio. As said, for those who are committed and efficient, there are many avenues to go and win.

Do not heavily distract or deviate yourself from your aim of becoming a Civil Servant. But you should definitely think of what you should become or do if you do not get into the Civil Services. You got to have a plan B.

L.B. Cowman says in 'Streams in the Desert' that great pressure means great power. It's the same to spiritual realm, physical realm. And it extends to the academic realm too. But without effort; hard or smart, there would not be any fruit or harvest.

Do not neglect your Intermediate/Degree classes or syllabi. The syllabus of HPG is about half of the syllabus of Civil Services Exam. If you only prepare for those public exams a day/month before, it does not really help you in the long run.

And finally when you become an IAS Officer and an ordinary man comes to you, feel that your boss has come. Be determined to lead the nation. Have a true love for the motherland and stay on the path of Dharma (Righteousness). Do not be carried away by Dhanaakanksha, Adhikarakanksha and Keerthikanksha (Lust for wealth, Power and Fame). These are no good signs for Civil Services.

Trust in God Almighty. Trust in yourself. Keep your parents happy. Be content with whatever you have. Hold your head high. Work extremely hard.

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SOME SEE WHAT'S POSSIBLE. SOME CHANGE WHAT'S POSSIBLE...

662 Epilogue: The Final Word GENERAL BIBLIOGRAPHY

BOOKS 11. nios.ac.in 1. What...? When...? How...? Answers to All 12. yojana.gov.in Questions about Civil Services - Madhukar 13. mrunal.org Bhagat - Mc Graw Hill Education 14. civilsdaily.com 2. How to become an IAS Officer - Dr. Vijay 15. powerthesaurus.org Agarwal 16. Byjus.com 3. Face the Challenge: Face The Challenge an insight into UPSC Civil Services Examina- 17. civilserviceindia.com tion - Vijay Kumar - Unique Publishers 18. quora.com 4. Becoming A Civil Servant - Abhay K., IFS - 19. clearias.com Kalinjar Publication 20. plagiarism.org 5. IAS Planner - CIVILSPORTAL Publication 21. brainyquote.com 6. IAS Planner - Udyoga Sopanam Publication 22. wikipedia.org 7. Employment News 23. goidirectory.nic.in 8. Sakshi Bhavitha 24. india.gov.in 9. Eenadu Chaduvu 25. indiabudget.nic.in 10. The Hindu - Edge 26. gktoday.com 11. India Yearbook 2016 & 2017 27. jagranjosh.com 28. arc.gov.in WEBSITES 29. imdb.com 1. upsc.gov.in 30. lbsnaa.gov.in 2. unacademy.com 3. khanacademy.org YOUTUBE CHANNELS 4. iasbaba.com 1. CEC UGC 5. insightsonindia.com 2. Rajya Sabha TV 6. iasexamportal.com 3. Mostly Sane 7. arthapedia.in 4. Unacademy 8. newsonair.com 5. Sankaran IAS Study Circle 9. iksa.in 6. Lucky Podcasts 10. ncert.nic.in

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CivilzEpilogue: Byte The TFinalearaways Word CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMS SYLLABUS

General Studies - 1 (Prelims) Syllabus

1. Current Affairs : Current events of na- 5. Indian Economy : Economic and Social

tional and international importance. Development, Sustainable Development, Poverty, Inclusion, Demographics, Social 2. History : History of India and Indian Na- Sector Initiatives etc. tional movement. (Also Art & Culture) 6. Environment & Ecology : General Issues 3. Geography : Indian & World Geography - on Environmental Ecology, Bio-diversity Physical, Social & Economic Geography of and Climate Change – that do not require India and the world. subject specialization. 4. Indian Polity and Governance: Consti- 7. General Science tution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights Issues, etc.

C S A T (Prelims) Syllabus

Comprehension General Mental Ability Interpersonal skills including communica- Basic numeracy (numbers and their rela-

tion skills tions, orders of magnitude, etc.) (Class Logical Reasoning and analytical ability X level) Decision making and problem solving Data interpretation (charts, graphs, tables, data sufficiency etc. - Class X level)

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Epilogue:Civilz Byte The Tearaways Final Word CIVIL SERVICES MAINS SYLLABUS

General Studies - 1 (Mains) Syllabus

1. INDIAN HERITAGE AND CULTURE Role of women and women’s organization, Indian culture will cover the salient as- population and associated issues, poverty

pects of Art Forms, Literature and Archi- and developmental issues, urbanization, tecture from ancient to modern times. their problems and their remedies. Effects of globalization on Indian society. 2. MODERN INDIAN HISTORY Social empowerment, communalism, re- Modern Indian history from about the gionalism & secularism. middle of the eighteenth century until the present- significant events, personalities, 5. WORLD & PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY issues. (WITH SPL. REFERENCE TO INDIA) The Freedom Struggle - its various stages Salient features of world’s physical and important contributors /contributions geography. from different parts of the country. Distribution of key natural resources Post-independence consolidation and re- across the world (including South Asia and organization within the country. the Indian sub-continent). 3. WORLD HISTORY Factors responsible for the location of primary, secondary, and tertiary sector indus- History of the world will include events tries in various parts of the world (includ- from 18th century such as industrial revo- ing India) lution, world wars, re-drawal of national Important Geo-physical phenomena such boundaries, colonization, decolonization,

political philosophies like communism, as Earthquakes, Tsunami, Volcanic activ- capitalism, socialism etc.- their forms and ity, cyclone etc., effect on the society. Geographical features and their location - changes in critical geographical features 4. INDIAN SOCIETY (including water-bodies and ice-caps) and Salient features of Indian Society, Diver- in flora and fauna and the effects of such sity of India. changes.

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Epilogue:Civilz Byte The Tearaways Final Word CIVIL SERVICES MAINS SYLLABUS General Studies - 2 (Mains) Syllabus

1. INDIAN CONSTITUTION AND posts, powers, functions and responsibili- COMPARITIVE STUDY ties of various Constitutional Bodies. Indian Constitution - historical underpin- Statutory, regulatory and various quasi- nings, evolution, features, amendments, judicial bodies significant provisions and basic structure. 3. SOCIAL JUSTICE & DEVELOPMENT Comparison of the Indian constitutional Government policies and interventions for scheme with that of other countries. development in various sectors and issues 2. INDIAN POLITY AND GOVERNANCE arising out of their design and implementation. Functions and responsibilities of the Union and the States, issues and challenges per- Mechanisms, laws, institutions and Bod- taining to the federal structure, devolu- ies constituted for the protection and bet- tion of powers and finances up to local terment of these vulnerable sections. levels and challenges therein. Development processes and the develop- Separation of powers between various or- ment industry- the role of NGOs, SHGs, gans dispute redressal mechanisms and various groups and associations, donors, charities, institutional and other stake-

institutions. holders. Parliament and State Legislatures- structure, functioning, conduct of business, Issues relating to poverty and hunger. powers & privileges and issues arising out Issues relating to development and man- of these. agement of Social Sector/Services relat- Structure, organization and functioning of ing to Health, Education, Human Re- the Executive and the Judiciary, Ministries sources. and Departments of the Government. Welfare schemes for vulnerable sections Pressure groups and formal/informal as- of the population by the Centre and States sociations and their role in the Polity. and the performance of these schemes. Important aspects of governance, trans- 4. INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

parency and accountability, e-governance- India and its neighborhood - relations. applications, models, successes, limitations, and potential. Bilateral, regional and global groupings and agreements involving India and/or affect- Citizens charters, transparency & accounting India's interests. ability and institutional and other measures. Effect of policies of developed and developing countries on India's interests and Role of civil services in a democracy. Indian Diaspora. Salient features of the Representation of Important international institutions, agen- People's Act. cies and fora - their structure, mandate. Appointment to various Constitutional

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Epilogue:Civilz Byte The Tearaways Final Word CIVIL SERVICES MAINS SYLLABUS General Studies - 3 (Mains) Syllabus

1. INDIAN ECONOMY & ECONOMIC everyday life. DEVELOPMENT Technology missions. Indian Economy and issues relating to Achievements of Indians in science & planning, mobilization of resources, technology. growth, development and employment. Indigenization of technology and develop- Inclusive growth and issues arising from ing new technology. it. Awareness in the fields of IT, Space, Com- Government Budgeting. puters, robotics, nano-technology, bio-tech- Infrastructure: Energy, Ports, Roads, Air- nology and issues relating to intellectual ports, Railways etc. property rights. Investment models. Achievements of Indians in science & tech- Effects of liberalization on the economy, nology. changes in industrial policy and their ef- Indigenization of technology and develop- fects on industrial growth. ing new technology. 2. INDIAN AGRICULTURE & FOOD 4. BIO DIVERSITY & ENVIRONMENT Major crops, cropping patterns in various

Conservation, environmental pollution and parts of the country, different types of ir- degradation, environmental impact assess- rigation and irrigation systems, storage, ment. transport and marketing of agricultural produce and issues and related constraints. 5. DISASTERS & THEIR MANAGEMENT E - technology in the aid of farmers. Issues related to direct and indirect farm 6. INTERNAL SECURITY & ISSUES subsidies and minimum support prices. Linkages between development and spread Land reforms in India. of extremism. Economics of animal-rearing. Role of external state and non state actors Public Distribution System objectives, in creating challenges to internal security.

functioning, limitations, revamping. Challenges to internal security through com- Issues of buffer stocks and food security. munication networks, role of media and Food processing and related industries in social networking sites in internal security India - scope and significance, location, challenges, basics of cyber security. upstream and downstream requirements, Money-laundering and its prevention. supply chain management. Security challenges and their management in border areas. 3. SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Linkages of organized crime with terrorism. Science and Technology- developments Various Security forces and agencies and and their applications and effects in their mandate.

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Epilogue:Civilz Byte The Tearaways Final Word CIVIL SERVICES MAINS SYLLABUS General Studies - 4 (Mains) Syllabus

1. ETHICS, INTEGRITY & APTITUDE Public/Civil service values and Ethics in Public administration - Status and problems. Ethics and Human Interface: Essence, determinants and consequences of Ethics in Ethical concerns and dilemmas in govern- human actions. ment and private institutions. Dimensions of ethics. Laws, rules, regulations and conscience as sources of ethical guidance. Ethics in Private and Public relationships. Accountability and ethical governance. Human Values – lessons from the lives and teachings of great leaders, reformers and Strengthening of ethical and moral values administrators. in governance. Role of family, society and educational in- Ethical issues in international relations and stitutions in inculcating values. funding. Attitude: content, structure, function - its Corporate governance.

influence and relation with thought and Probity in Governance: Concept of public behavior. service. Moral and political attitudes. Philosophical basis of governance and Social influence and persuasion. probity. Aptitude and foundational values for Civil Information sharing and transparency in Service , integrity, impartiality and non- government, Right to Information, Codes partisanship, objectivity, dedication to of Ethics, Codes of Conduct, Citizen’s public service, empathy, tolerance and Charters, Work culture, Quality of service compassion towards the weaker-sections. delivery, Utilization of public funds, challenges of corruption. Emotional intelligence - concepts, and their utilities and application in adminis- 2. CASE STUDIES tration and governance. Contributions of moral thinkers and phi- Case studies on issues relating to Ethics, losophers from India and world. Integrity & Aptitude (Refer to above issues)

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Epilogue: The Final Word Notes...

675 BOOKS /civilz JOURNAL byte John Michael has Worked on...

200% INDIAN

A Semi Non-fiction book co-written with Prithvi Raj on the People’s President Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam. Download the e-book at www.200pcindian.wordpress.com

Kitab-e-Sansad

A one stop direction manual for those who wish to organise a model parliament session, co-edited with Sai Sanjith Download the e-book at www.bit.do/kitabesansad

CIVILSCOPE A Current Affairs Journal cum College Annual of Narayana IAS Academy. Edited by Dr. M.V. Rama Rao. John Michael was the Student Editor. Download the e-book at www.bit.do/civilscope

CIVILZ BYTE A Comprehensive document that answers the question that’s asked over and over again, “How to prepare for Civil Services?” Download the e-book at www.civilzbyte.wordpress.com

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