HISTORY

INDIAN POLITICS

GEOGRAPHY

ECONOMICS

COMMERCE

CONTENTS

HISTORY 5

INDIAN POLITICS 46

GEOGRAPHY 147

ECONOMICS 217

COMMERCE 289

HISTORY

1. The greatest invention of man in palaeolithicA ge was A. Fire B. Potter’s wheel C. Metal implements D. Spinning of cloth 2. Match the following Harappan site state A. Kalibangan 1. Rajasthan B. Mohenjodaro 2. Haryana C. Banawali 3. Gujarat D. Surkotda 4. Sindh A B C D 1) 1 4 2 3 2) 2 4 1 3 3) 3 4 2 1 4) 4 2 1 3 3. The famous figure of a dancing girl found in the excavations of Harappa was made up of A. Terracotta B. Steatite C. Bronze D. Red limestone 4. The Great bath of the indusV alley Civilization was discovered in A. Marut B. Agni C. Shakti D. Varuna 5. The vedic deity indra was the god of A. wind B.Eternity C. Rain and thunder D. Fire 6. Upanishads, also known as the Vedantas, are....in number A. 96 B. 105 C. 108 D. 112 7. Who was considered to be the incarnation of Lakulish? A) Shiva B) Vishnu C) kahma D) Surya 8. Which city was the capital of Indo Greek ruler Menander (16O B.C. to 140 B.C.)? A) Purushpur B) Sanchi C) Bactrea D) Ujjain 9. Where is the Garun Stambha built by Heliodorus in 2nd century B.C situated? A) Bes.Nagar B) Shakal C) Allahabad D) Taxila 10. Two statements have been given below One is Statement (A) and the second is Cause (R) Statement (A) : In the early medieval India there are examples of village resistance. Cause (R) : Due to Agrahar charity to Brahmins and temples-Agrahar and Deodan hurt the rights of villagers.W ith reference to above two which one of the fol lowing is correct ? A) A and R both are true and the correct explanation ofA is R. B) A and R both are true but the correct explanation ofA is not R.. C) A is true but R is not true D) A is not true but R is true 11. About Apaddharma in Smriti which one is true? A) It meant abandonment of duty B) It was legal for Kshatriyas only C) It meant the special Yajnas performed by the Brahmans for the kings D) It meant the permitted duties in times of crisis for different Varna 12. ln the social structure of ancient India who were called ‘Anirvasit’ ? A) Brahmin and Kshatriya B) Vaishyas and Shudras G) Only Shudras D) People outside Varnas 13. The ancient time state craft and polity is described in 1. Mahabharata 2. Rajatarangini 3. Arthashastra 4. Manusmriti 14. The early Vedic society was 1. a tribal society 2. was divided according to caste 3. matriarchal 4. based on monogamy (1) 1 and 4 (2) 1, 2 and 4 (3) 2, 3 and 4 (4) 1, 2, 3 and 4 15. Match the following A. Fourth Buddhist Council1. Vasumitra B.Third Buddhist council 2.Moggaliputa Tissa C. second Buddhist Council 3. Sabakami D. First Buddhist Council 4. Mahakassapa A B C D (1) 1 2 3 4 (2) 2 1 4 3 (3) 1 2 4 3 (4) 3 2 4 1 16. Which of the following features are common to Jainism and Buddtrsm? 1. Denial of the authority of Vedas 2. Condemnation of animal sacrifice 3. pursuing severe ascetism 4. Existance of a Soul 5. Rejection of existence of God 1) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 2) 1and 2 3) 1, 2, 3, and 5 4) 1,4 and 5 17. Jainism was divided into sects known as A) Kapalika and Kalamukha B) Mahayana and Hinayana C) Ajivika and Nyaya Vaisesika D) Svetambara and Digambara 18. Buddha did not recognize 1. ldol worship 2. Existence of soul after death 3. Sacrifice 1) 1 and 3 2) 1 only 3) 2 and 3 4) 1, 2 and 3 19. Match the following A. Hinduism 1. Eight fold path B. Jainism 2. Monotheism C. Buddhism 3. Divinity D. lslam 4. Three fold path 20. The Buddhist Councils were held to 1) preach the Middle path 2) Compile Buddhist canons and settle disputes 3) Send religious missions abroad 4) None of the above 21. Who among the following is considered as the first national ruler of lndia ? 1) Chandragupta maurya 2) Ashoka (3) Chandragupta (4) Kanishka 22. Which of the following gives the correct chronological order of the Vedas? 1.Rig, Sama, Atharva, Yajur 2) Rig, Sama, Yajur, Atharva 3) Rig and Sama together; Yajur and Atharava together 4) All simultaneously 23. Buddhism split up into the Hinayana and Mahayana sects at the Buddhist council held during the reign of (1) Harsha (2) Kanishka (3) Ashoka (4) Chandragupta Maurya 24. In some parts of India, people lived inside the land in pits. It is known through excavations in A) Bihar B) Kashmir C) Karnataka D) Rajasthan 25. In ancient Tamil, the fertile agricultural land was called...... A) Pallai B) Marudam C) Mullai D) Neydal 26. What is the siginificance of Kayavarihan in the history of Shaivism? A) It is the same of the pashypati community’s pashupashV imolshan. B) It was birth place of Lakulish C) It was one of the vows of Kapaliks D) It was religious rite fixed for Kalamukh followers 27. Match the List I with II. Select the correct one from the given options. List - I i) Nyaya ii) Vaisheshik iii) Samkhya iv) Meemansa List - II 1. Jaimini 2. Kapil 3. Kanad 4. Gautam i ii iii iv A) 3 4 2 1 b) 2 3 2 1 c) 4 3 2 1 d) 4 1 3 2 28. In Mauryan age, the reference to Koshthagases who helped during famines is known through...... A) The Girnar Edict II B) Pittar Edict II C) Small Edict of Sasaram D) Sahgaura stone Edict 29. Which institution was destroyed in the laterV edic Period? 1) Sabha 2) Samiti 3) Vjdatha A) 1 only B) 2 and 3 C) 3 only D) Katha opanishad 30. The rebirth of Soul is referred in ...... A) Aitereya Upanishad B) Kaushitaki Upanishad C) Taitteriya Upanishad D) Kenopanishad 31. The first classification of Pran (Respiration) is available in ...... A) Rig Veda B) Aitereya Brahmana C) ChhandogyaUpanishad D) Isha Upanishad 32. In which book the lening of money on interest is condemnd? A) Dharmasutra B) Riti Sutra C) Buddhist Text D) Jain Text 33. Where were the Basadi Jain centres established? A) Magadha B) Orissa C) Rajasthan D) Karnataka Directions (Q.Nos 34 to 35) Based on your reading of the passage given below, answer the next two questions by selecting most appropiate option. shankara, one of the most influential philosphers of lndia, was born in Kerala in eighth century. He was an advocate of advaita or the doctrine of the oneness of the individual soul and the supreme God which is Ulimate Realit.y He taught that Brahman, the only or Ulimate Reality, was formless and without and attributes. He considered the world around us to be an iliusion or Maya and preached, renunciation of the world and adoption of the path of knowledge to understand the true nature of Brahman and attain salvation. Source: Our past ll 34. Where and when the great phirosopher of India, shankara was born? A.Shankara was born in Gujarat in eighth century B. Shankara was born in Gujarat in twelfth century C.Shankara was born in Gujarat in eighth century D.Shankara was born in Gujarat in twelfth century 35. What was the main thinking of Shankara about this world? A) He considered the world around us to be an illustration, which known as ‘maya’ in indian philosophy B) He considered the world around us to be a pleasure C) He considered the world around us to be a supreme soul D) He never define the world around us 36. Match the following Mohenjo - daro means A. Garda city B. Port city C. Mount of dead D. Capital 37. The first discourse of Buddha at Deer Park Sarnath is called A) Mahabhiniskraman B) Mahaparinirvana C) Mahamastabhisheke D) Dharmachakra -avartan 38. The Greek ambassador in the court of Chandragupta Maurya was A) HiuenTsang B) Fehien C) Megasthenese D) Seleucus 39. Vikrama era started from A) 57 AD B) 78 AD C) 57 AD D) 78 BC 40. Match the following A. Dhanvantri 1. Chandragupta vikramaditya B. Banabhatta 2.Harsha Vardhana C. Harisena 3.Samudragupta D)Amir Khusrau 4. Alauddin khlji 5. Kanishka A B C D 1) 1 2 3 4 2) 2 3 4 5 3) 3 5 2 1 4) 4 1 3 5 41. Kalidasa lived during the reign of A) Samudragupta B) Chnadragupta maurya C) Ashoka D) Chandragupta ll 42. The battle at Waihind in 1008-09 AD was fought between (1) Mahmud of Ghazni andA nandapala (2) Mahmud of Ghazni and Jayapala (3) Mohammad Ghori and Prithviraj (4) Mohammad Ghori and Jaichandra 43. Mohammad-bin Tughlaq’s experiment of producing token currency failed on account of the A) rejection of token coins for purchases by for eign merchants B) melting of token coins C) large-scale minting of spurious coins D) Poor quality of token currency 44. The first Muslim ruler to formulate the theory of Kingship similar to the theory of divine right of King was A) Qutubuddin Aibak B) Alauddin Khalji C) lltutmish D) Balban 45. Collection of Buddha’s teachings are...... A) Buddha Charita B) Sutta Pitaka C) Abhidhamma Pitaka D) Vinaya Pitaka 46. Under whom Mahabalipuram was famous? A) Pallava B) Chola C) Chandela D) Satavahana 47. The king of which dynasty built the Raja Rajeshwar temple of Tanjore ? A) Chandela B) Chola C) Pallava D) Satavahana 48. Where was the Tamralipti port in India ? A) In West B) In North C) In East D) In South 49. Who was the Rashtrakuta ruler to construct the famous Kailash temple of Ellora ? A) Dhruva B) Govind II C) Danti Durg D) Krishna I 50. Who started the Kharoshthi Script ? A) Iranis B) Greeks C) Arabian D) Indians 51. Of which metal were the early punch marked coins made? A) Gold B) Silver C) Copper D) Mixed Metal 52. During Buddha’s time what work the officer shaulkin or Shulkadhyaksh did ? A) Collection of Land Revenue B) Toll Tax Collection C) Tax Collection from Artists D) Management of Villages 53. Which tribe did NOT consider it proper to fight against Alexander ? A) Ashwayan (Aspasioi) B) Asnakas (Assokenoi) C) Arjunayan (Aglassoi) D) Adrisht (Adresrai) 54. Which is the least reliable source of History? A) Greek description B) Pauranik description C) Edicts of Ashoka D) Jaina and Buddhist description 55. When was it proved that Devanampriya Prydassi was used for Ashoka ? A) 1837 B) 1845 C) 1905 D) 1915 56. What treatment was done with the prisoners of Kalinga war numbering 1,5O,OOO? A) Death Penalty B) Set free C) Inhabited in new colonies D) b and c 57. Who said that the king should seize the money of temples A) Panini B) Patanjali B) Kautilya D) Gautam 58. Which of the following is the oldest monument ? A) Ajanta B) Qutab Minar C) Taj Manal D) Khajuraho 59. In which order did the following dynasties rule Delhi? I.Slave II.Khalji III. Lodi IV. Sayyid A) I, II, V, IV, III B) I, II, III, IV, V C) II, III, IV, V, I D) IV, V, III, II, I 60. The first dynasty of the Vijayanagar kingdom was A) Hoysala B) Snagama C) Saluva D) Tuluva 61. Match the following A. Kabir 1. Weaver B. Ravidas 2. Barber C. Chandidas 3. Tailor D. Sena 4. Cobbler A B C D 1) 1 4 3 2 2) 3 2 1 4 3) 4 3 2 1 4) 4 1 3 2 62. Match the following Saint-poet Language of their omposition A. Mirabai 1.Malayalam B. Tyagaraja 2.Bengali C. Chandidas 3.Hindi D. Purandardasa 4.Telugu 5.Kannada A B C D 1) 2 4 1 5 2) 3 4 2 5 3) 2 5 1 4 4) 3 5 2 4 63. Match the following A. Namdeva 1. West Bengal B. Chaitanya 2. Uttar Pradesh C. Surdas 3. Maharasthra D. Nanak 4. Punjab A B C D l) 1 4 3 2 2) 2 3 4 1 3) 3 1 2 4 4) 4 2 1 3 64. Babar laid the foundation of Mughal empire in 1526 by defeating A) Daulat Khan Lodi B) lbrahim Lodi C) Rana Sanga D) Alauddin Khalji 65. The Chalisa or the Group of Forty was the nick name of A) forty leading slave officers of lltutmish B) forly great scholars at the court of lltutmish C) Turkish commanders of lltutmish D) Turkish nobility created by lltutmish 66. Who wrote Tughluqnamah? A) Raskhan B) Amir Khusrau C) lsami D) Malik Mohammad Jaisi 67. At which place Buddha attained knowledge? A) Vaishali B) Bodh Gaya C) Saranath D) Kapilavastu 68. How is Buddha’s first Sermon at Saranath described? A) Dharma pravartan B) Dharama Chakra pravartan C) Dharma Samagam D) Madhya Samagam 69. What is the name of megastense book? A) Deep Vansh B) Kapur Manjari C) Geography D) Indica 70. Where have been the relics of Nalanda found which was a centne of Education? A) Uttar pradesh B) Madhya pradesh C) Bihar D) Lucknow 71. Where it is recorded that society in chandraGupta Maurya’s age was divided into 7 classes ? A) Mahabhasya B) Raja Tarangini C) Indica D) Arthashatra 72. On the banks of which river, the excavations of Mohenjodaro were conducted? A) Sutlej B)Vyas C) Ravi D) sindhu 73. Which is NOT true about Nagarjuna? A) He was Indian Martin Luther B) He was one of the four lights of the world C) He was Indian Einstein D) He was comparable to Milton, Gate, Kant and Voltaire 74. There were three big Libraries at Nalanda. Which from the following was NOT there? A) Ratnasagar Library B) Rnatnashodhak Library C) Ratnodahi Library D) Ratnaranjak Library 75. According to Brihaspati Smriti which court could be finally appealed against which court? A) Kul - Shreni - pug B) Shreni - Pug - Kul C) Pug - Kul - Shreni D) Kul - Pug - Shreni 76. Who was Chetak referred in Awashyak Churin? A) Father of Vardhamana Mahavir B) Uncle of Vardhamana Mahavir C) Maternal Uncle of Vardhamana Mahavir D) Brother of Vardhamana Mahavir 77. The medieval ruler who was the first to estab- lish a ministry of agriculture was A) Alauddin Khalji B) Mohammad Bin Tughlaq C) Sher Shah D) Akbar 78. Hampi is situated on the northern bank of A) Tungabhadra B) Godavari C) Cauvery B) Krishna 79. The capital of Bahmani Kingdom was A) Waiangal B) Devagiri C) EllichPur D) Gulbarga 80. Nicolo Conti, the traveller, who visited Vijaynagara kingdom in 1420 AD was A) an ltalian B) a Greek C) a Russian D) a Frenchman 81. Goa was captured by the portuguese in A) 1470 AD B) 1510 AD C) 1570 AD D) 1610 AD 82. In 1757, Siraj-ud-Daula was defeated by A) Canning B) Hastings C) Clive D) Cornwallis 83. Which Indian king requested Napoleon for help to drive the British from lndia? A) Rani of Jhansi B) Jai Singh C) Shivaji D) Tipu Sultan 84. The beginning of the British political sway over lndia can be traced to the battle of A) Buxar B) Plassey C) Wandiwash D) Panipat 85. The first Europeans to come to India were A) British B) Dutch C) French D) Portuguese 86. Who succeeded Aurangzeb after his death in 1707 AD? A) Bahadur Shah I B) Prince Kambaksh C) Prince Azam D) Akbar ll 87. Which was the first newspaper to be published in lndia? A) Bombay Samachar B) Bengal Gazette C) Bengal Chronicle D) The Hindu 88. Match the following A. Brahmo Samaj 1. Swami Vivekanand B. Ramakrishna 2. Dayanand Saraswati Mission C. Arya Samaj 3. Ram Mohan Roy D. Satyashodhak 4. K. Sridharaiu Naidu Samaj 5. Jyotiba phule A B C D A) 2 3 5 1 B) 3 1 2 4 C) 3 1 2 5 D) 3 2 1 5 89. The rulers of which dynasty have been compared to gods? A) Mauryan dynasty B) Kushana dynasty C) Gupta dynasty D) None of these 90. Who did Not belong to kanva dynasty? A) Vasudev B) Susharman C) Seimuk D) Narayan 91. In Divyavadam, what is ‘khalik Chakra’? A) The Chariot Wheel B) Wheel of Potter C) Wheel of Oilmaking D) An arm 92. Who was the south Indian Junagarh inscription? A) Dhruva B) Govind III C) Rudra Daman D) Chantan 93. ‘Jawabit’ means...... A) Royal orders B) Tax on forest products C) Head of Factories D) Tax on plough 94. Which is NOT true of Chishti saints? A) Propagation of Monism B) Protest against personal property C) Faith in the spiritual value of Music D) Thinking about the welfare of their own family 95. Which Sultan of Delhi propounded ‘Niyabat-i- Ktrudai’? A) Iltutmish B) Balban C) Alauddin Khalji D) Mohammad bin Tughlaq 96. Who established the city of Jaunpur? A) Iltutmish B) Nasiruddin Mahmud C) Mohammad bin Tughlaq D) Feroz Tughlaq 97. Who among the following was responsible for the revival of Hinduism in the 19th century? A) Swami Dayananda B) Swami Vivekanand C) Guru Shankaracharya D) Raja Ram Mohan Roy 98. The first Bengali political drama which presented the story of the brutality of english indigo planters was A) Rast Goftar B) lndian Sociat Reformer C) Neel Darpan D) Shome Prakash 99. Who among the following was the first to emphasise the instruction in science and literature through the English language was necessary for building up modern lndia ? A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale C) Sir Syed Ahmad Khan D) lshwar Chandra Vidyasagar 100. Who was the first Englishman to preside over a Congress session ? A) AO Hume B)W Wedderburn C) George Yule D) None

101. One could not term as a ‘Moderate’ A) GK Gokhale B) Dadabhai Naoroji C) Pherozeshah Metha D) Bipin chandra pal 102. The Vernacular Press Act was passed by A) Lord Curzon B) Lord Wellesley C) Lord Lytton D) Lord Hardinge 103. A Public Works Department was set up in India by A) Lord Rippon B) William Bentinck C) Lord Dalhousie D) Warren Hastings 104. Which of the following Land tenure systems was introduced by Lord Cornwallis? A) Mahalwari B) Ryotwari C) Zamindari D) lnamdari 105. Who amongst the following Englishmen was fellow of Gandhiji in South Africa ? A) CF Andrews B) Polak C) Peterson D) None of the above 106. Consider the following events 1. Swadeshi Movement 2. Home Rule Movement 3. Anti-Rowlatt Act Movement 4. Khilafat Movement Their correct chronological order is A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 1, 2, 4, 3 C) 2, 1, 4, 3 D) 3, 1, 2, 4 107. Which of the following institutions was not founded by Mahatma Gandhi ? A) Phoenix AshramB) Vishwa Bharati C) Sevagram Ashram D) Sabarmati Ashram 108. Name of the famous person of lndia who returned the Knighthood conferred on him by the British Government as a token of protest against the atrocities in Punjab in 1919 was A) Tej Bahadur Sapru B) Ashutosh Mukherjee C) Rabrindra Nath Tagore D) Syed Ahmed Khan 109. Who among the following pioneered Khilafat Movement? A) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan B) M.A.Jinnah C) Mahatma Gandhi D) Ali Brothers 110. Under Delhi Sultans, Iqta was a regional distri- bution and one who got it was called Mukti. He has the right to ...... A) He had no right on the peasants except Landtax B) He was the owner of Iqta land C) He had the right to take free service ‘Begar’ from peasants D) He had the right to own physical and material possessions of the peasants. 111. Who was the Sultan to distributeT akabi or Sondhar to peasants for the development of agriculture? A) Balban B) Alauddin Khalji C) Mohammad bin Tughlaq D) Feroz Tughlaq 112. The poliogars were ...... A) The Horsetraders who came to India from A fghanistan in the Mughal age B) A famous caste of Marwar Shreshthis C) The subordinate of Nayaks in Vijaynagar State D) The representatives of European Companies who purchased cotton and silk from Bengal 113. Khalsa in Mughal rule meant A) The Land belonging to Emperor B) All royal system C) Land from where revenue was collected for royal treasure D) Religious Land grant 114. Sardeshmukhi of the Marathas’ meant...... A) A Tax levied upon Deshmukhs B) A Tax levied upon Individuals C) A part of land revenue collected by other officers D) The regions of the villages kept apart for Deshmukhs 115. Where was Guru Govind Singh born? A) Nankana B) Amritsar C) Patna D) Lahore 116. Who was the ruler of India when Changez Khan invaded India ? A) Qutbuddin Aibak B) Iltutmish C) Balban D) Alauddin Khalji 117. Who was the ruler of India when Nadir Shah invaded India ? A) Ahmad Shah B) Muhammad Shah C) Shah Alam D) Bahadur Shah 118. Who was the Mughal Emperor most interested in Painting ? A) Shahjahan B) Akbar C) Jahangir D) Aurangzeb 119. Put the dynasties in chronological order: 1) Khalji 2) Tughlaq 3) Syed 4) Ghulam Select from the following: A) 4, 1, 3, 2 B) 1, 4, 2, 3 C) 1, 2, 3, 4 D) 4, 1, 2, 3 120. Who was the father of Razia Sultan? A) Mohammad Ghori B) Balban C) Iltutmish D) None of these 121. With reference to lndia freedom struggle, consider the following events 1. Champaran Satyagraha 2. Dandi March 3. Jallianwala Bagh tragedy 4. Partition of Bengal The correct chronological order of these events is A) 1, 4, 3, 2 B) 4,1,2,3 C) 1, 4, 2, 3 D) 4, 1,3,2 122. The Non-Cooperation Movement was launched by A) Jawaharlal Nehru B) Dadabhai Naoroji C) Chittaranjan Das D) Mahatma Gandhi 123. Who among the following attended all the three RoundT able Conferences ? A) Madan Mohan Malviya B) Annie Besant C) Mahatma Gandhi D) BR Ambedkar 124. At what place Shershah Suri was hurt while fighting after which he died ? A) Chausa B) Kannauj C) Kalinjar D) Asirgarh 125. In whose reign, foreign traveller Ibn Batuta came to India? A) Balban B) Mohammad bin Tughlaq C) Iltutmish D) Alauddin Khalji 126. To whom did Alauddin Khalji entrust the mission to conquer South ? A) Ulugh Khan B) Malik Kafur C) Khijra Khan D) Ghazi Malik 127. In the early medieval age, Surgery declined because A) Lack of good Surgeons B) Text of Surgery was not available C) To operate the dead body for research was not considered good. D) None of these 128. In which language the Jain Scholars wrote their books? I. Pali II. Sanskrit III. Gujrati IV. Apabhrans A) Iand II B) II and IV C) IIand III D) I and III 129. Who was the sultan when Mongols did NOT invade? A) Iltutmish B) Balban C) Alauddin Khalji D) GhaiyasuddinTughlaq 130. Which building is NOT at Mandu? A) Jama Masjid B) Hindole Mahal C) Jahai Mahal D) Vijay Stambh 131. In which states Marathi was used for official work? I. Bahamani II. Golkunda III. Bijapur IV. Vijayanagar Select from the following: A) I and II B) II and III C) I and III D) III and IV 132. Which does NOT match? A) Humayun - Emperor of Delhi B) Kamran - Kabul Kandhar C) Askari - Sambhal D) Hindal - Baran and Aligarh 133. Which NOT true in regard to Medieval life? A) Shoes were rarely used B) The common fodd was Khichari. C) Oil and Ghee were cheaper than grains D) No differences prevailed among Muslims 134. Razia Sultan died in war with her husand named.... A) Yakut B) Kabir Khan C) Altunia D) None of these 135. Which is NOT true of the Satnamis? A) It was the sect of Vairagis B) They did not believe in pure monism C) They condemned caste D) They rejected Samskars and Superstitions 136. Who was the leader during Mughal-Bundela conflict? A) Madhukar Shah B) Jujhar Singh C) ChamPat Rai D) Chhatra Sal 137. Which poet did NOT write on Chhatrasal ? A) Bhushan B) Keshav C) Lal Kavi D) Nivaj Tewari 138. Which Sufi Silsila directly adopted (spiritual)Y ogic exercise? A) Chishti B) Kshatari C) Saharvardi D) Kadari 139. Who painted the Mughal picture of Syberian Crane? A) Daswanth B) Basawan C) Mansur D) Abul Hasan 140. To which dynasty betonged Zalim Humayun? A) Mughal B) Adilshahi C)Bahmani D) Qutub shahi 141. Who was the ruler to be called ‘Abhinav Bharatcharya? A) Ibrahim Sharqui B) Sikandar Lodhi C) Raja Man Singh D) Rana Kumbha 142. On the both sides of ‘Arched Main Door’ the construction of decorated minars depicts which style of architecture? A) Gujarat B) Bengal C) Jaunpur D) South 143. Who was the Sultan to stop the distribution of betels, sugar candy and sugar and began to distribute flowers and rosewater on Teeja? A) Mohammad bin Tuglaq B) Feroz Tughlaq C) Bahlol Lodhi D) Sikandar Lodhi 144. Which new currency was struck Mohammad binT ughlaq? A) Dinar B) Jeetal C) Tanka D) Dokani 145. Statement (A) : The position of Najmuddaula was weaker in comparison to his father Mir Jafar. Reason (R) : Najmuddaula was forced by the British to surrender Power to a Person nominated by them . A) A and R both are true and R explains A correctly B) A and R both are true but R does not explain A correctly. C) A is right R is wrong D) A is wrong R is right 146. Match the following: i. Partition of 1. 1911 Bengal day 2. 1939 ii. Cancellation of 3. 1946 Partition day 4. 1905 iii. Direct Action Day 5. 1907 Codes: i ii iii A) 1 2 3 B) 4 2 3 C) 2 3 4 D) 5 1 2 147. The first Karnataka war was the echo of a war fought in Europe. which was that war ? A) Seven Years War B) Thirty Years War C) War of Roses D) War of Austian succession 148. Who was the Governor General to merge Sindh in British India ? A) Lord Auckland B) Lord Ellenborough C) Lord Hardings D) Lord Dalhousie 149. Before Quit India movement, the British government made a plan to imprison Gandhi and other Congress leaders. The plan was known as A) Operation Desert B) Operation Blue Star C) Operation Seashore D) Operation Zero Hour 150. Match List I with List II answer the following: List-I List-II i. Dutch 1. Goa ii. English 2. Calicut iii. Portuguese 3. Hooghly iv. French 4. Chinsura Codes: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) A) 3 4 1 2 B) 1 3 2 4 C) 2 3 1 4 D) 2 1 4 3 151. Whose enemies were RajaV allabh, Ghasiti Begum and Shaukat Jang ? A) Alivardi Khan B) Sirajuddaula C) Mir Qasim D) Nand kumar 152. Which was the charter act to close the trade of East India Company with China ? A) 1793 B) 1813 C) 1833 D) 1853 153. Assam was made an independent province when A) In 1905 Curzon divided Bengal. B) Minto declared new reform resolutions in 1906 C) In 1911, the partition of Bengal was cancelled D) In 1919 when Montague Chelmsford reforms were introduced 154. Which of the following rebellion began in 1816 and continued till 1832? A) Kol B) Khasi C) Kutchh D) Naikad 155. Match List I with List II List-I (Nationalist writers) i. Krishanji Prabhakar Khadilkar ii. Subhadra Kumari Chauhan iii. Saadat Hasan Munto iv. Vallathol Narain Menon List-II (Texts) 1. Jhansi Ki Rani 2. KeechakVadh 3. Kali Salvar 4. EnpeyGurunathan Codes: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) A) 4 1 3 2 B) 3 4 2 1 C) 2 1 3 4 D) 2 3 1 4 156. Which one is rightly matched ? 1. Chittu Pandey-Quit India Movement 2. Lakshmi Sehgal-I.N.A. 3. Shashi Bhusan Roy Chaudhary-Non cooperation movernent 4. Guru Deep Singh-Anushilan party A) 1 and 2 B) 1and 3 C) 2 and 4 D) 3and 4 157. What was the main cause of Fourth anglo Maratha War? A) Tipu’s relation with French B) Company’s diplomacy to destroy existence of Mysore C) Tipu’s help to Marathas D) Removal of British Regiment from Mysore 158. Put the events in chronological order ? 1. Cripps-Mission 2. Wavell Plan 3. Cabinet Mission 4. Quit India Movement Select answer from the following: A) 4, 1 ,3 ,2 B) 7, 4, 2, 3 C) 1, 4, 2, 3 D) 1, 4, 3, 2 159. When did Swadeshi movement begin? A) with civil disobedience Movement B) With non cooPeration Movement C) with movernent to stop partition of Bengal D) With Quit India Movement 160. Match the following: i. Karoya Maro 1. Subhash C. Bose ii. Bande Matram 2. Rabindra Nath Tagore iii. Jan Gan Man 3. Bankim C.Chattarjee iv. Jai Hind 4. Mahatma Gandhi Codes: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) A) 3 4 2 1 B) 4 3 7 2 C) 4 3 2 1 D) 3 4 1 2 161. Who started the modern Local SeIf Government? A) Lord Irwin B) Lord Ripon C) Lord Curzon D) Lord Auckland 162. Who granted freedom to India? A) League of Nations B) Lord Mount Batten C) British Parliament D) None of these 163. Who was the Governor-General while the second division of Bengal ? A) Lord wavell B) Lord curzon C) Lord Mount Batten D) Lord Canning 164. On the pretext of misrule, which state from the following was annexed by Lord Dalhousie ? A) Satara B) Jhansi C) Awadh D) Udaipur 165. Match the following: List-I i. Chauri Chaura Event ii. Dandi March iii. Cripps Mission iv. Second Round Table Conference List-II 1. 1931 2. 1922 3. 1942 4. 1920 Select from the following Codes: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) A) 2 4 1 3 B) 2 4 3 1 C) 4 2 3 1 D) 4 2 1 3 166. What is the correct chronological order of the following? i. Communal Award ii. Fourteen Points of Jinnah iii. Quit India Movement iv. Simon commission Report Select from thi following: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) A) 2 1 4 3 B) 1 4 3 2 C) 2 4 1 3 D) 4 3 1 2 167. Match the correct pair of event and its time A) Cripps Mission 1929 B) Montague-Chelmsford Reform 1920 C) Quit India Movement 1942 D) Non Cooperation Movement 1927 168. Who told about Mahatma Gandhi that he was a ‘naked Fakir’ ? A) Atlee B) Cripps C) Churchill D) Wavell 169. From where, did the euit India Movement begin? A) Nagpur B) Delhi C) Calcutta D) Bombay 170. When did Vasco-De-Gama came to India through Sea route ? A) 1398 B) 1498 C) 1489 D) 1598 171. Which was NOT a prograrnme in Gandhi,s Non Cooperation Movement ? A) Resignation of local representatives nomi nated or elected in Vidhan Sabha B) Boycott of educational institutions C) Armed revolt against English D) Rejection of government jobs-honorary or paid. 172. To free Goa from portuguese subjection who started Civil Disobedience movement ? A) Gandhi B) Achyut Patvardhan C) Ram Manohar Lohia D) Jawaharlal Nehru 173. Who encouraged the centralization of Universities? A) Lord Ripon B) Lord Cornwallis C) Lord Curzon D) Lord Wavell 174. Match the following Movement: List-I i. Non Cooperation Movement ii. Quit India Movement iii. Civil Disobedience Movement iv. Home Rule Movement List - II(Related Years) 1. 1916 2. 1920 3. 1930 4. 1942 Select from the Following Codes: i ii iii iv A) 4 2 3 1 B) 2 4 1 3 C) 2 4 3 1 D) 4 2 1 3 175. Match the following: List-I i. A. O. Hume ii. Madan Mohan Malviya iii. Annie Besant iv. Subhash C. Bose List-II 1. Home Rule Movemenr 2. Banaras Hindu University 3. Indian National Congress 4. Azad Hind Fauz Select from the following Codes: i ii iii iv A) 2 3 4 1 B) 2 3 1 4 C) 3 2 1 4 D) 3 2 4 1 176. In whose tenure, Col.sleeman crushed the ‘Thugs’? A) Lord Dalhousie B) William Bentinck C) Lord Wellesley D) Cornwallis 177. Which of the following is NOT related to the period of Lord Chelmsford? A) Establishmenr of Muslim League B) Lucknow pact C) Rowlatt Act D) Dual Government in provinces 178. Who organized the Hindustan Socialist Republi canA rmy? A) Veer Savarkar B) Ram Manohar Lohia C) Chandra ShekharAzad D) Subhash C. Bose 179. When did the Bardoli movement under Sardar Vallabh Bhai patei begin? A) 1942 B) 1930 C) 1919 D) 1928 180. On which of the following Governor General, the British parliament issued Impeachrnent? A) Warren Hastings B) Lord Cornwallis C) Lord Hastings D) Lord Wellesley 181. In which year Bhagat singh, Rajguru and Sukhdev were hung ? A) 1928 B) 1929 C) 1930 D) 1904 182. Arrange chronologically the event that occurred in 1919 1. Rowlatt Act 2. Hunter Report 3. Jallianwala Bagh Tragedy 4. Return of Knighthood by Rabindra Nath Tagore Select from the following: A) 1,3,2,4 B) 1,3,4,2 C) 3,1,2,4 D) 1,2,3,4 183. Who was the leader of Kooka movement against the British ? A) Lai Singh B) Tej Singh C) Daleep Singh D) Ram Singh 184. ln which session of Indian National Congress the proposals to start the non-cooperation movement was passed ? A) Calcutta B) Bombay C) Nagpur D) Haripur 185. Who was the first Governor-General of Bengal in India A) Clive B) Wairen Hastings C) Cornwallis D) Dalhousie 186. Who said, “Give me blood I shall give you Freedom? A) Gandhi B) C. R. Das C) Jawaharlal Nehru D) Subhash C. Bose 187. Why is 5 March, 1931 an important date in Indian History ? A) Gandhi startd the Dandi March B) Gandhi was imprisoned for breaking the law and making salt C) First Round Table Conference began in London D) The Gandhi Irwin Pact was signed 188. Which is NOT the year of Munda revolt in Bihar? A) 1920 B) 1832 C) 1933 D) 1867 189. Which tribal movement occurred outside A) Chuari Movement B) Thmar Revolt C) Koli Revort D) Kherwar Revort 190. Which was the leader of the Koraput Revolt in 1942? A) Lakshaman Nayak B) Tammandora C) Bhagirath D) Tana Bhagat 191. In which Act the legal right to put supplementary question was first given to the Indians? A) In Act of 1861 B) In Act of 1892 C) In Act of 1909 D) In Act of 1919 192. Who said, “ For a Nation, Freedom is very important. Reforms or best state can never be its alternative”? A) Dayanand Saraswati B) Vivekanand C) B. G. Titak D) Lala Lajpat Rai 193. Which magazine was NOT a publication of the revolutionaries? A) Ghadar B) Yugantar C) New India D) Sandhya 194. who were the main revolutionary leaders of Paris Indian Society ? 1. Lala Hardayal 2. S. S. Rana 3. Madame Cama 4. K. R. Kotwal A) 1and 2 B) 2 and 3 C) 1,2 and 3 D) 2, 3 and 4 195. Who presided over Hindustan Association of the Pacific coast in Kotland ? A) Sohan Singh Josh B) Lala Hardayal C) Mohan Singh Bharbana D) Karrar Sinqh Sarawa 196. Who was the Prime Minister of the Interim Government organized by Raja Mahendra PratapSingh? A) Maulana Abdulla B) Maulana Bashir C) Mohammad Ali D) Barakatulla 197. Who abolished the Dual Government of Bengal? A) Cornwallis B) Robert Clive C) Warren Hastings D) John Macfersson 198. Who was the revolutionary leader to kill General O Dyer, responsible for Jallian WaIa Bagh Tragedy? A) Madan Lai Dhingra B) Chandra Shekhar Azad C) Bhagat Singh D) Udham Singh 199. Why did the Indians boycott the Simon Commiission? A) Because its aim was not to solve the Indian problems B) Its aim was to divide the Hindus and Muslims C) All its members were British and no representation was given to Indians D) It was responsible for oppression upon Indians 200. Who was the Viceroy when in the Delhi Durbar queenV ictoria was honoured by the title of Kaiser-e-Hiift A) Lord Curzon B) Lord Ripon C) Lord Lyrtan D) Lord Linlithgo

ANSWERS

1.A 2.1 3.C 4.C 5.C 6.C 7.A 8.B9.A 10.B 11.D 12.C 13.C 14.A 15.A 16.B 17.D 18.D 19.C 20.B 21.A 22.B 23.B 24.B 25.B 26.B 27.C 28.D 29.C 30.B 31.C 32.A 33.D 34.A 35.C 36.C 37.D 38.C 39.A 40.1 41.D 42.A 43.C 44.D 45.D 46.A 47.B 48.C 49.D 50.A 51.B 52.B 53.D 54.B 55.D 56.C 57.C 58.A 59.A 60.B 61.A 62.4 63.3 64.B 65.D 66.B 67.B 68.B 69.D 70.C 71.C 72.D 73.D 74.B 75.A 76.C 77.B 78.A 79.D 80.A 81.B 82.C 83.D 84.B 85.D 86.A 87.B 88.3 89.C 90.C 91.C 92.C 93.A 94.D 95.B 96.D 97.A 98.C 99.A 100.C 101.D 102.C 103.C 104.C 105.B 106.A 107.B 108.C 109.D 110.A 111.C 112.C 113.A 114.C 115.C 116.B 117.B 118.C 119.D 120.C 121.D 122.D 123.D 124.C 125.B 126.B 127.C 128.B 129.D 130.D 131.C 132.D 133.D 134.C 135.B 136.A 137.B 138.B 139.C 140.C 141.D 142.D 143.C 144.D 145.A 146.B 147.D 148.B 149.D 150.C 151.B 152.C 153.B 154.A 155.C 156.A 157.A 158.C 159.C 160.C 161.B 162.C 163.C 164.C 165.B 166.C 167.C 168.C 169.D 170.B 171.C 172.C 173.C 174.C 175.C 176.B 177.A 178.C 179.D 180.A 181.D 182.B 183.D 184.A 185.B 186.D 187.D 188.C 189.C 190.A 191.C 192.D 193.C 194.D 195.C 196.D 197.C 198.D 199.C 200.C INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

1. Habeas is a bulwark of ...... Personal freedom 2. In which case did the Supreme Court take the view the Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles are complementary to each other and there was no need to sacrifice one for the other? Minerva mills case 3. The Constitution has vested the executive power of the Union government in ...... The President 4. The President of India is ...... The head of the state 5. The President of India elected through ...... Elected through an electoral college consisting of the elected members of Parliament and state legislative assemblies 6. Which one does not take part in the election of the President? ...... Members of the legislative councils 7. The name of the candidate for the office of the President of India has to be proposed by ...... Any 50 members of the Electoral College 8. The election to the office of the president is conducted by ...... The Election Commission of India 9. The eligible for election as President, a candidate must be ...... Over 35 years of age 10. The President holds office for a term of five years ...... From the date on which he enters office 11. Which Presidents held office for two consecutive terms? Dr Rajendra Prasad 12. The Head of the state is ...... The Presidents of India 13...... decides the disputes regarding election of the President. The Supreme Court 14. If the President wishes to tender his resignation before the expiry of his normal term, he has to address the same to ...... The Vice-President of India 15...... got the Bharat Ratna Award before becoming the President of India? Dr Zakir Hussain 16. What is the maximum age for election to the office of the President? No limit 17. Impeachment proceedings against the President of India can be initiated ...... In either House of Parliament 18. In the event of the death or resignation of the president, the Vice-President discharges the duties of the office of President ...... For a maximum period of six months 19. Which official discharges the duties of the office of the President, if both the President and Vice-President are not available? The Chief Justice of India. 20. If the office of the President falls vacant, the same must be filled within ...... Six months 21. What is the age of retirement of the President? ...... There is no age limit for retirement 22. Which one Chief Justice of India enjoys the distinction of having acted as president of India? ...... Justice M Hidyatullab 23. Who is legally competent to declare war or concluded peace? The President 24. The final authority to make a proclamation of emergency rests with ...... The President 25. How many members, of the Anglo-Indian community can be nominated by the President to the Parliament? 2 26. The members of the Rajya Sabha can be nominated by the President from amongst persons who have distinguished themselves in art, literature, social service, etc ...... 12 27. After a bill is passed by the Parliament and sent to the President for his consideration, he can ...... Send back the bill to Parliament for reconsideration 28. The President can make laws through ordinances ...... During the recess of the Parliament 29. There is no agelimit for election of ...... The office of the president 30. The supreme court decides the disputes regarding ...... Election of the President 31. The ...... to make a proclamation of emergency rests with the president. Final authority 32. In the appointment of which official the President has no say? Judges of District and Session Courts 33...... types of emergencies have been envisaged by the Constitution. Three 34. Which group ofA rticles relate to the relationship of the president and the Council of Ministers? 74, 75 and 78 35. The President can declare national emergency ...... Only in the event of foreign invasion & armed rebellion 36. How many times has the President declared national emergency so far? Thrice 37. The Proclamation of national Emergency ceases to operate unless approved by the Parliament within ...... One month 38. It a state fails to comply with the directives of the Central Government, the President can ...... Declare break-down of constitutional machinery in the state and assume responsibility for its governance 39. The President can declare constitutional emergency in state ...... If he is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the Constitution. 40. What is the three types of emergencies has been declared by the president maximum number of times? State emergency 41. A national emergency remains in operation, with the approval of the Parliament, for ...... An indefinite period 42. The president can declare financial emergency ...... If there is a threat to the financial stability or credit of India 43. Three types of emergencies have been envisaged by ...... The constitution 44. How many times has the president of India declared financial emergency so far? Never 45. In what respect does the ordinance issued by the President differ from the Acts of Parliament? It has a temporary character 46. Who headed the Second Administrative Reform Commission appointed by the UPA Government in 2005? Veerappa Moily 47. Before entering upon his office, the President has to take an oath or an affirmation, which is administered by ...... The Chief Justice of India 48. The President, who is the head of the state under the Parliamentary system prevailing in India, ...... Enjoys only nominal powers 49. Which article of the Indian Constitution can the president be impeached? Article 61 50. A member of a Parliament or a state legislature can be elected as president but ...... He has to relinquish his seat as soon as he is elected 51. The President of India made use of his veto power only once in ...... The Indian Post Office (Amendment) Bill 52. An ordinance promulgated by the President usually remains in force for ...... Six weeks after the commencement of the next session of Parliament 53. The President can promulgate an ordinance only when ...... The Parliament is not in session 54. Proclamation of President’s rule in a state can be made ...... It the President, on receipt of a report from the governor of the state or otherwise is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution 55. When was new constitution of india adopted? 29th Nov 1949 56. The President can dismiss a member of the Council of Ministers ...... On the recommendation of the Prime Minister 57. The Presidential address is prepared by ...... The Prime Minister and his Cabinet 58. The President of India is elected on the basis of ...... Proportional representation by a single-transferable vote 59. Which elected president of India unopposed? ...... Dr. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy 60. The procedure for the election of the President of India can be modified through an amendment in the Constitution which must by passed by ...... Two-thirds majority by both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha and be ratified by legislatures of at least one half of the states 61. The President can proclaim national emergency only on the written advice of ...... The union Cabinet 62. The President can impose his rule in a state on account of failure of constitutional machinery under ...... Article 356 63. Who is the Supreme Commander of the armed forces of India? The President 64. The President can nominate two members of the Lok Sabha to give representation to ...... The Anglo-Indians 65. To ...... must the President accord his sanction without sending it back for reconsideration? Money Bills 66. For the first time, the President made a Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 in ...... 1962 67. The President made a proclamation of Emergency on grounds of internal disturbances for the first time in ...... 1975 68. Who is not appointed by the President of India? Vice-President 69. Impeachment proceedings can be initiated against the President in either house of Parliament only if a resolution signed by – members of the House is moved ...... 25 per cent of total 70. The value of a vote of a member of Parliament for election of the President of India is determined by dividing the ...... The total value of votes of members of all the state legislative assemblies divided by the elected members of the two houses of Parliament. 71. After a bill is passed by the Parliament it is sent to the president for his assent, who can return it for reconsideration to the Lok Sabha. But if the bill is repassed by the Parliament and sent to the President for his assent he ...... Has to sign it 72. Which emergencies by the President only on receipt in writing of the decision of the Union Cabinet? Emergency due to war, external aggression or armed rebellion 73. The three types of Proclamations of Emergency made by the President have to be placed before each house of Parliament for its approval ...... Within one month in case of national emergency and within two months in case of emergency due to break down of constitutional machinery and financial emergency 74. The Vice-President of India is ...... Elected by the members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha at a joint sitting 75. The tenure of the Vice-President is ...... Five years 76. The Vice-President of India can be removed from his office before the expiry of his term by ...... A resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha and agreed by the Lok Sabha 77. The Vice-President discharges the duties of the President in the even of ...... His resignation his absence dur to illness and his death 78. The Vice-President is the ex-office Chairman of ...... The Rajya Sabha 79. Disputes regarding the election of theV ice-President are decided by ...... The Supreme Court 80. When the Vice-President discharges the duties of the office of the President, he is entitled to ...... The salary and allowances attached to the office of the President 81. Which one consists of correct combination of dignitaries who became Vice-Presidents after having held diplomatic positions? Dr S. Radhakrishnan and GS Pathak 82. With regard to the re-election of the Vice-President ...... The Constitution is absolutely silent 83. If the Vice-President wishes to resign from his of fice, he has to address his resignation to ...... The President 84. The vacancy in the office of the Vice-President ...... Has to be filled with reasonable time, as there is no time limit prescribed in the Constitution 85. Which one Vice-President resigned from his office to contest for the office of President? ...... VV Giri 86. The members of the Council of Ministers are ...... Appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister 87. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to ...... The Lok Sabha 88. The portfolios among the members of the Council of Ministers are allocated by ...... The President on the recommendations of the Prime Minister 89. Who presides over the meetings of the Council of Ministers? The Prime Minister 90. A person can be member of the Council of Ministers without being a member of the Parliament for a maximum period of ...... Six months 91. The members of the Council of Ministers can be dismissed by the President ...... On the recommendation of the Prime Minister 92. If a Vote of ‘no confidence’ is passed against a Minister ...... The whole Council of Ministers has to resign 93. Though the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, the Individual ministers are constitutionally responsible to ...... The President 94. The prime Minister is ...... The head of the government 95. The office of the Prime Minister in India ...... Has been created by the Constitution 96. The Prime Minister is ...... Appointed by the President 97. Generally, the Prime Minister is ...... The leader of the majority party in the Parliament 98. The Prime Minister holds office ...... As long as he enjoys the confidence of Parliament especially the Lok Sabha 99. Which is not the power of the Prime Minister? Appointed the Speaker of the Lok Sabha 100...... enjoys the distinction of having held the office of the Prime Minister for the longest duration. Jawaharlal Nehru 101. Which Prime Ministers never attended the Parliament during his tenure? Choudhary Charan Singh 102. The first BJP ministry which was formed under Atal Behari Vajpayee remained in office for only ...... 13 days 103. If the Prime Minister is taken from the Rajya Sabha ...... Prime minister 104. Who is chairman of planning commusion? He chairs the meetings of the various standing and ad hoc committees of Parliament 105. Who was a member of Rajya Sabha at the time of appointment as Prime Minister? Indira Gandhi 106. The ...... holds office as long as he enjoys the confidence of parliament especially the Lok Sabha. Prime Minister 107. A motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers can be moved in the Lok Sabha if it is supported by at least ...... 50 members 108. The size of the Council of Ministers ...... Has been specified in the Constitution 109. Which were not members of Parliament at the time of their appointment as Prime Minister? 1. Indira Gandhi 2. PV Narasimha Rao 3. HVD Deve Gowda 4. Mooraji Pesai selected the correct answers from the code: ...... 2, 3 and 4 110. The minimum age at which a person can be appointed Prime Minister of India is ...... 25 years 111.The Prime Minister is the chairman of ...... The planning commission 112. Which Prime Ministers resigned after losing a vote of condifence in the Lok Sabha? ...... VP Singh 113. The members of the Council of Ministers ...... Receive the same salaries and allowances which are paid to the members of Parliament plus certain sumptuary allowances 114...... is not provided in the constitution? Planning Commission 115. The salaries and allowances of the members of the Council of Ministers ...... Are determined by the Parliament from time to time 116. The Prime Minister of India occupies a superior position than the British Prime Minister because ...... His office has been created by the Constitution 117. In the event of the resignation or death of the Prime Minister ...... The Council of Ministers stands automatically dissolved 118. The Parliament of India consists of ...... The President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha 119. What is the maximum strength of the Lok Sabha at present? 550 120. The members of Lok Sabha are ...... Directly elected by the people 121. How many seats have been reserved for the UnionT erritories in the Lok Sabha? 20 122. Seats are allotted to various states in the Lok Sabha on the basis of ...... Their population 123. Which state sends maximum representatives to the Lok Sabha? Uttar Pradesh 124. The 42nd Amendment increased the term of the Lok Sabha from five years to ...... Six years 125. The term of Lok Sabha can be extended beyond its normal term of five years ...... By the Parliament during national emergency 126. The Parliament can extend the life of the Lok Sabha during the national Emergency in the first instance for a period of ...... One year 127. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is ...... Elected by members of the Lok Sabha 128. The maximum duration of the zero hour in Lok Sabha can be ...... Unspecified 129. Who can dissolve the Lok Sabha before the expiry of its normal term of five years? The President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister 130. The ...... consists of the president, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Parliament of India 131. Who presides over the joint sessions of Parliament? The Speaker 132. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha makes use of his casting vote only ...... In case of a tie, viz., when the votes are equally divided 133. Lok Sabha passes vote on account to ...... Meet the expenditure during the period between the introduction of Budget and its passage. 134. The Lok Sabha secretariat works under the direct supervision of ...... The Speaker 135. A half-an-hour discussion can be raised in the house after giving notice to ...... The Secretary General of the House 136. The Rajya Sabha, which is the Upper House of Parliament, has a maximum strength of ...... 250 members 137. The members of the Rajya Sabha, except the nominated ones. are ...... Elected by the legislative assemblies of the states 138. In the Rajya Sabha, the states have been provided ...... Representation on the basis of population 139...... states sends the maximum number of representative to the Rajya Sabha? Uttar Pradesh 140. The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected ...... For a term of six years 141. The Rajya Sabha is a permanent house but ...... One-third of its members retire every two years 142. The Secretary General of the Lok Sabha, who is the chief of the Lok Sabha Secretariat, is appointed by ...... The Speaker 143. What can be the maximum gap between the two sessions of parliament? Six months 144. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha ...... Is elected by the members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha 145. The vice-president of India is the ...... of the ajya Sabha. ex-officio Chairman 146. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha has ...... A vote only in case of a tie 147. Who convenes the joint sessions of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha? The President 148. A money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha can be delayed by the Rajya Sabha for a maximum period of ...... 14 days 149. What happens if a Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha is partially amended by the Rajya Sabha? The Lok Sabha can proceed with the Bill with out the amendments proposed by the Rajya Sabha 150. The power to control the expenditure of the Government of India rests exclusively with ...... The Parliament 151. A money Bill can originate ...... Only in the Rajya Sabha 152. Which sets of Bills is presented to the Parliament along with the Budget? Finance Bill and Appropriation Bill 153. The Council of Ministers has to tender its resignation if a vote of no-confidence is passed against it ...... By the Lok Sabha 154. Which of the following powers is exclusively vested in the Rajya Sabha? To recommend the creation of new All India Service 155. The Rajya Sabha can be dissolved before the expiry of its term by ...... It cannot be dissolved 156. No taxes can be levied or expenditure incurred without the approval of ...... The Parliament 157...... decides disputes regarding disqualification of membera of Parliament. The President in consultation with the Election Commission 158. A member of parliament enjoys immunity from prosecution for having said anything ...... In the Parliament and its committees 159. Who decides whether a bill is a Money Bill or not? Speaker of Lok Sabha 160. Which bodies is presided over by a non-member? Rajya Sabha 161. The Parliament of India cannot be considered a sovereign body because of the presence of certain ...... in the constitution. Fundamental Rights of citizens 162. The final decision whether a member o the Lok Sabha has incurred disqualification under the Defection Law rests with ...... The Speaker 163. The maximum strength of the nominated members in both the houses of the Parliament can be ...... 14 164. In case of differences between the two houses of Parliament over a bill, a joint session of the two houses is held where decision is taken by majority vote. In case there is a tie (votes in favour and against a bill are equal) how is the same resolved? The Speaker can make use of his casting vote 165. The Parliament or a state legislature can declare a seat vacant if a member absents himself without permission from the sessions for ...... 60 days 166. Who presides over the Lok Sabh a if neither the Speaker nor the Deputy Speaker is available? A member of the panel of Chairman announced by the Speaker 167. The function of the pro-Term Speaker is to ...... Swear-in members and hold charge till a regular Speaker is elected 168. Which one of the following are the financial committees of Prliament in India? 1. Public Accounts committee 2. Estimates 3. Committe on public under takings 1, 2 and 3 169. The Public Accounts Committee submits its report to ...... The Speaker of Lok Sabha 170. Which Lok Sabha enjoyed a term of more than five years? ...... Fifth Lok Sabha 171. The difference between the two houses of parliament are resolved through ...... A joint session of the two houses 172. The quorum or minimum number of members required to hold the meeting of either house of Parliament is ……….. One-tenth 173. Which bills can be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior approval of the President? Money Bills 174. Members of the Rajya Sabha are not associated with ...... Estimates committee 175. Who was the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha. GV Mavalankar 176. Question Hour in the Parliament refers to ...... The first hour of the sitting 177...... committees comprises of members of Lok Sabha as well as Rajya Sabha? The public accounts committee and the committee on public undertakings. 178. The Comptroller and Auditor General acts as friend, philosopher and guide of ...... The Public Accounts Committee 179. The power to prorogue the Lok Sabha rests with ...... The President 180. Which states sends the largest number of members to Lok Sabha after Uttar Pradesh? ...... Maharashtra 181. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha addresses his letter of resignationt ...... The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha 182. Which statements correctly describes ‘a hung parliament? ...... A Parliament in which no party has a clear majority 183...... is considered the custodian of Lok Sabha? The Speaker 184. The nominated members of both houses of parliament have voting right in the ...... but not in the election of the president. Election of the Vice-President 185. Under the new Committee system launched inA pril 1993, out of the 17 standing committees ...... Six are constituted by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and 11 by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha 186. The term ‘closure’ in Parliamentary terminology implies ...... Stoppage of debate on a motion 187. Which committees of Parliament is concerned with regularity and economy of expenditure? ...... Public Accounts Committee 188. Which committee has associate members from the Rajya Sabha? ...... Public Accounts Committee 189. Which is the correct definition of the term ‘whip’? State in which all the members of the political party are required to be present in the Parliament and vote according to the instructions of the party 190. At present, various states have been allocated seats in the Lok Sabha on the basis of ...... 1971 Census 191. Which parliamentary committee scrutinizes the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India? The Public Accounts Committee 192. Who may belong to the Rajya Sabha but can speak in both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha ...... Ministers who are member of the Rajya Sabha 193. Who is legally competent to declare war? ...... President 194. The term of the Lok Sabha can be extended by ...... at a time. One year 195...... enjoys the distinction of being the first recognized leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha. YB Chavan 196. When a bill is considered by the two houses of Parliament at a joint sitting, the decision is taken by ...... Simple majority 197...... is the Indian contribution to Parliamentary Procedures. Adjournment Motion 198. How many seats are reserved for the members of the Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha? ...... 47 199. The Lok Sabha can be dissolved before the expiry of its term by ...... The President on the advice of the Prime Minister 200. Lok Sabha is superior to the Rajya Sabha because it is ...... Directly elected 201. A Select or Joint Committee of the two houses of Parliament is formed by ...... The Speaker of the Lok Sabha 202. Who said “If there is ...... no opposition there is no democrary? Sir Ivor Jennings 203. The Parliamentary Subject Committees were introduced in 1993 on the recommendation of ...... The Rules Committee of the House 204. How many Standing Committees were set up by the Parliament in 1993 to scrutinize the grants of various ministries? 17 205. Each Standing Committee of Parliament for scrutiny of grant of various ministries comprises of ...... 30 members of Lok Sabha and 15 memers of Rajya Sabha 206. The main advantage of the Standing Committee is ...... The Parliament is able to examine the grants of all ministries and departments in detail. 207. The Standing Committee, apart from examining the grants of all ministries and departments are able to examine the annual reforts of ...... and ...... Ministers and departments 208. The main advantage of the Standing Committee is ...... Members of the Rajya Sabha are able to exercise indirect control over financial matters 209. Which committee of Parliament has the largest membership? Estimates Committee 210...... ensures that no money is spent out of the Consolidated Fund of India without the authority of the Parliament. The Comptroller and Auditor General 211. A member, after being elected as Speaker of Lok Sabha, generally ...... Severes his connections with his party 212. The Supreme Court of India was set up ...... By the Constitution 213. The Supreme Court consists of a Chief Justice and ...... 30 judges 214. The judges of the Supreme Court are ...... Appointed by the President on the advice of the Chief Justice of India. 215. The judges of the Supreme Court hold office till they attain the age of ...... 65 years 216. The Supreme Court holds its meetings at New Delhi, but it can meet elsewhere ...... With the approval of the President 217. The Constitution has tried to ensure the independence of judges of the Supreme Court by making removal of judges uite ...... Difficult 218. The salaries of the judges of the Supreme Court are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to ensure that ...... They dispense justice impartially 219. The judges of the Supreme Court, after retirement, are not permitted to carry on practice before ...... The Supreme court or High courts or the district and bession courts 220. What is the important function of parliament? Law making 221. The judges of the Supreme Court ...... Can be removed by the President on the recommendation of the Parliament 222. The Supreme Court of India is a court of record, which implies that ...... All the decisions have eridentiary value and can be questioned in any court and it has the power to punish for its contempt. 223. The Supreme Court tenders advice to the President on a matter of law or fact ...... Only if he seeks such advice 224. The advice of the Supreme Court is ...... Not binding on the President 225. The cases involving an interpretation of the Constitution fall within the ...... Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court 226. In India, power of judicial review is restricted because ...... The Constitution is supreme 227. The Supreme Court of India enjoys the power of judicial review which implies that it can ...... Declare the laws passed by the legislature and orders issued by the executive as unconstitutional if they contravene any provision of the Constitution 228. The power of judicial review in India is ...... Implicit 229. The doctrine of judicial review is adopted in India ...... To ensure smooth functioning of the Constitution 230. Which imparting justice, the Supreme Court relies on the principle of ...... Procedure established by Law 231. The concept of Public Interest Litigation, which has become quite popular in India in recent years, originated in ...... The United Kingdom 232. Which amendments curtailed the Supreme Court’s power of Judicial Review? 42nd Amendment 233. The concept of ‘judicial activism’ gained currency in india during ...... The 1990s 234. Judicial activism has led to increase in the powers of ...... The judiciary 235. Judicial activism has enhanced the powers and prestige of ...... The Supreme Court 236. Ad hoc judges can be appointed in the Supreme Court ...... By the Chief Justice on India with the prior consent of the President 237. The power of ...... in India is implicit. Judicial review 238. Which condition does not contribute to the independence of the judiciary in India? Once appointed, the judges cannot be removed from their office before the date of retirement. 239. Who can pardon the sentence of death? President 240. Which group of judges took interest in Public Interest Litigation? Bhagwati and Krishna Iyer 241. Which judge of the Supreme Court was unsuccessfully sought to be impeached ...... Justice Ramaswamy 242. Which comes under the jurisdiction of both the High Courts and the Supreme Court ...... Protection of the Fundamental Rights 243. Which article of the Constitution permits the Supreme Court to review its own judgement or order? Article 137 244. The supreme court at present comprises of a ...... and ...... Chief justice and 30 other judges 245. The Supreme court has been created under the ...... Constitution of Indis 246. The theory of ‘basic structure of the Constitution’ implies ...... That certain features of the Constitution are so basic to the Constitution that they cannot be abrogated 247. At present, the Chief Justice of India draws a monthly salary of ...... Rs 1,00,000 248. Every other of the Supreme Court, other than the Chief Justice, at present, draws a monthly salary of ...... Rs 90,000 249. The Supreme Court propounded the theory of ‘basic structure of the Constitution’ in ...... Keshavananda Bharati case 250. The judges of the Supreme Court have to take an oath or affirmation before entering upon their of fice, which is conducted to them by ...... The President 251. A judge of the Supreme Court can relinquish office before the completion of his tenure by addressing his resignation to ...... The President 252. Who is the executive head of a state? The Governor 253. The Governor of a state is ...... Appointed by the President 254. Generally, the Governor belongs to ...... Some other state 255. The Governor of a state holds office ...... During the pleasure of the President 256. As a matter of convention, while appointing the Governor of a state, the President consults ...... The Chief Minister of the state 257. If the Governor of a state wishes to relinquish his office before the expiry of his term, he has to address his resignation to ...... The President 258. The salary and allowances of the Governor are charged to ...... The Consolidated Fund of the State 259. Can a person act as Governor of more than one state? ...... Yes 260. When a person acts as Governor of more than one state his salary is ...... Shared by the concerned states 261. The ...... holds office during the pleasure of the president. Governor of a state 262. In the event of the death or resignation of the Governor, the duties of his office are discharged by ...... The Chief Justice of the High Court 263. The Governor of a state can issue ordinances ...... Only during the recess of the State legislature 264. The Ordinances issued by the Governor are subject to approval by ...... The state legislature 265. The Contingency Fund of the state is operated by ...... The Governor 266. The Governor of a state is accountable for all his actions to ...... The President 267. Unless approved by the state legislature, an ordinance issued by the Governor remains in force for maximum period of ...... Six months 268. The Governor of a state is administered the oath of office by The Chief Justice of the State High Court 269. The Governor can recommend imposition of President’s rule in the state ...... His discretion 270. Judicial powers of the Governor can remit, or ...... a sentence. Suspend 271. Which kind of bills can be reserved by the Governor for the assent of the President? ...... Only certain types of bills passed by the state legislature 272. The Governor of which states has been vested with special powers regarding Scheduled Tribes? ...... Arunachal Pradesh 273. Consider the following statements regarding the Governor of a state. 1. The Governor is the constitutional head of the state. 2. The Governor always acts as an agent of the center. 3. The Governor is an integral part of the state legislature. 4. The Governor appoints the judges of the High Court. 1 and 3 are correct 274. Who of the following ladies served as Chief Ministers in different states of India? 1. Janalci Ramachandran 2. Nandini satpathy 3. Rajinder kau Bhattal 4. Syeda Anwar Taimur selcted the correct answer using following codes : 2 and 3 275. The Sarkaria Commission favoured ...... Retention of the office of the Governor 276. The Governor is an integral part of the ...... State legislature 277. The Chief Minister, who is the head of the government in a state is ...... Appointed by the governor 278. The person who is appointed as Chief Minister ...... Must be a member of either house of state legislature 279...... is regarded as the head of the state council of ministers? The Chief Minister 280. A member of the council of ministers can hold of-office without being a member of the state legislature for a maximum period of ...... Six months 281. The portfolios to the various members of the council of ministers in a state are allocated by ...... The Governor on the advice of the chief Minister 282. The salaries and allowances of the members of the council of ministers in a state are determined by ...... The state legislature 283. Who presides over the meetings of the council of ministers in a state? The Chief Minister 284...... enjoys the distinction of being the first woman Dalit Chief Minister of a state? Mayawati 285. In the event of the death or resignation of a Chief Minister ...... The council of ministers automatically stands dissolved 286. The council of ministers of an Indian state is collectively responsible to ...... The legislative assembly 287. The Governor is the constitutional ...... Head of the state 288. Who enjoys the distinction of serving as the Chief Minister of a state in India for the longest period? Jyoti Basu 289. The Chief Minister of a state can be removed if 1. A no-confidence motion is passed by the legislative assembly 2. A no-confidence motion is passed by both the houses of the state legislature 3. A resolution is passed by two-third of the members of the legislative council or the Rajya Sabha 4. In the opinion of the Governor, by two-there is a break down of constitutional machinery in the state Choose the correct answer from the following codes: 1 and 4 290. Who administers the oath of office to the members of council of ministers in a state? The Governor 291. The Chief minister of a state can get rid of any member of his council of ministers by dropping him from the council by ...... Reshuffing the same 292. Some of the Indian states have bi-cameral legislatures. The names of the two houses of state legislature are ...... Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council 293. The Jammu & Kashmir legislative council has the number of members ...... 36 294. The legislative council in a state can be abolished by the Parliament on the recommendation of ...... The state legislative assembly 295. The membership of the legislative assembly of a state varies between ...... 60 and 500 296. The members of the legislative assembly are ...... Elected by the people 297. The members of the legislative assembly are elected for a term of ...... Five years 298. Which states/union territory has a legislative assembly consisting of only 30 members? Pondicherry, Mizoram and Goa 299. Money bills can be introduced in the state legislature with the prior consent of ...... The Governor 300. Members of the state legislature can focus the attention of the government on matters of public importance through ...... Adjournment motion 301. A money bill can be introduced in the state ...... Only in the legislative assembly 302. In December 2005, the Parliament passed a bill which seeks to revive the Legislative Council in ...... Andhra Pradesh 303. The maximum strength of the elected members in a state legislative assembly can be 500 304. The strength of the legislative council of a state cannot exceed ……… of the membership of the legislative assembly One-third 305. The legislative council of a state is ...... A permanent house, and is not subject to dissolution 306. The chairman of the legislative council is ...... Elected by the members of legislative council 307. The members of the state legislative assembly participate in the election of ...... The president and members of the legislative council 308. Usually each state has a High Court, but a common High Court for two or more states or for two or more states and union territories can be established by ...... The Parliament 309. Generally, the High Court of a state consists of a Chief Justice and ...... Such other judges as may be determined by the President 310...... states/union territories have a common High Court? Punjab, Haryana and Chandigarh 311. The Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by ...... The President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the Governor of the state 312. The judge of the High Court are appointed by the President in consultation with the chief justice of the High court, ...... and ...... The chief Justice of India and the Governor of the state 313. The Chief Justice and other judges of the High Court retire at the age of ...... 62 years 314. Judges of the High Court can be removed from office before expiry of their term by the President ...... On a request of Parliament made through a resolution passed by a two-third majority of its members 315. The Chief Justice of a High Court receives a monthly salary of ...... 90,000 316. The ordinary Judges of High Courts receive a monthly salary of ...... Rs 80,000 317. The salaries and allowances of the High Court judges are charged to ...... The Consolidated Fund of the State 318. The pension of the judges of the High Court is charged to ...... The Consolidated Fund of India 319. The jurisdiction of the High Court can be extended or restricted by ...... The Parliament 320. The High Courts are empowered to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights under ...... Article 226 321. Which writs can the High Court direct public official or the government not to enforce a law which is unconstitutional? Prohibition 322. The High Court of a State is directly under ...... The Supreme Court of India 323. The number of judges of High Court is determined by ...... The President of India 324. On what ground can a judge of a High Court be removed? Proved misbehaviour or incapacity 325. That India is a union of states means ...... It is more centralized 326. The Indian federal system is modelled on the federal system of ...... Canada 327. A government is classified as federal or unitary on the basis of ...... Relations between Centre and States 328. The Union Government has exclusive powers on subjects in ...... The union list 329. The states enjoy exclusive jurisdiction on subjects in the ...... State list 330. The Constitution of India vests the residuary powers in ...... The Union Government 331. The union list contains ...... 99 items 332. The state list contains ...... 61 items 333. The concurrent list contains ...... 52 items 334. In case of conflict between the central and state law on a subject in the concurrent list ...... The law of the centre prevails 335. A law passed by a state on a concurrent subject gets precedence over the law of the centre ...... If it was passed by the state legislature and approved by the President before enactment of the central law 336. The Constitution of India has created ...... A very strong centre 337. The Parliament can legislate on any subject in the state list for the implementation of ...... or agree ments. International treaties 338. The central government can issue directions to the state with regard to subjects in ...... , ...... and ...... The union list, the state list and the concurrent list 339. The central government can assign any function to the state with the consent of ...... The state government 340. The Constitution has vested the ‘residuary powers’ with the Centre. But the final authority to decide whether a mattr falls under residuary powers or not rests with ...... The Supreme Court 341. The Legislature of which states passed a resolution in December 2005 demanding creation of a separate High Court for the state ...... Haryana 342. The Centre provides grants-in-aid to the states ...... To cover gaps on revenue accounts so that states can undertake various beneficial activities 343. Who was the Chairman of the Commission appointed by the Government of India to review the question of Centre-State relations? R S Sarkaria 344. The Sarkaria Commission was appointed ...... To examine Centre-State relations 345. Which states put forth demand for greater autonomy for the states? Andhra Pradesh Jammy & Kashmir, Punjab 346. India has adopted a federal system of government which is based on division of powers between the Union and the States. However, which powers has not been divided between them ...... Judicial 347. A new state can be created in India ...... By a simple majority of Parliament 348. Which taxes is not shared by the Central Government with the state government? Customs duty 349. Which subjects was transferred by the 61st amendment of 1976 from the state list to the concurrent list? Education 350. Which is a leading recommendation of the Sarkaia Commission? Activation of Zonal Councils 351. The Central Government derives maximum revenue from ...... Excise duties 352. Which is the largest contributor to the total tax revenue of the government (Central state and union territory administrations)? ...... Excise duties 353. Indian federahism divides the powers between the ...... Centre and the states 354. If a financial emergency is declared, what is its impact on the relations between the Centre and the state? The President can reduce the Salaries of state civil servants including those of the judges of High Courts 355. Which among the following factors are responsible for increasing control of the centre over the states in India? 1. Lack of strong leadership in the states 2. Enforcement of party discipline 3. Economic dependence of the states on the Centre 4. Emergence of regional parties Choose the correct answers 1, 2 and 3 356. Which machineries is most likely to be effective in solving inter- state disputes? ...... Inter-State Council, as recommended by the Administrative Reforms Commission 357. The Central Government gives grants-in-aid to the states out of the Consolidated Fund of India on the basis of the recommendations of ...... The Finance Commission 358. The ...... is the centralising features of the Indian federalism Single citizenship 359. Which statement correctly depicts the true nature of the Indian Federal System? ...... It is a unitary state with subsidiary federal features rather than a federal state with subsidiary unitary features. 360. Under the Constitution, the Central Government collect various types of taxes, which it has to share with the state governments. Which commission enjoys Constitution authority to decide the share of the states in the taxes? The Finance Commission 361. Which is in the concurrent list? ...... Population control and family planning 362. Who enacts the laws for the those UnionT erritories which do not have Legislative Assembly? ...... The Parliament 363. Zonal Councils were provided under ...... The State Reorganisation Act, 1956 364. The entire country has been divided into ...... Five Zonal Councils 365. The main objective of the Zonal Councils is to ensure ...... Greater cooperation amongst states in the field of planning and other matters of national importance 366. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of a Zonal Council? ...... The chief minister of the state where the Zonal Council meets 367. Two or more Zonal Councils can hold joint meetings. Such meetings are presided over by the ...... Union Home Minister 368. Zonal Councils are ...... Advisory bodies 369. The amendment procedure of the Indian Constitution has been modeled on the constitutional pattern of ...... Union of South Africa 370. Which articles deals with the amendment procedure of the Constitution? Article 368 371. On whose initiative an amendment in the Constitution can be made with regard to the states ...... State Legislature 372...... was the most comprehensive amendment of the Constitution. the 42nd Amendment 373. Which ...... constitutional amendments has been described as a ‘mini revision of the Constitution’ The 42nd Amendment 374...... affirmed the right of the Lok Sabha to amend any part of the Constitution. The 24th Amendment 375. The 24th Amendment which affirmed the right of the Parliament to amend any part of the Constitution, was necessitated on accounts of the Supreme Court judgment in ...... The Golak Nath case 376. The 86th Amendment deals with ...... Free and compulsory education for all children between the age of 6 and 14 years 377. The 42nd Amendment ...... Introduced Fundamental Duties for the first time 378. The titles and special privileges of the former rulers of the princely states were abolished by ...... The 26th Amendment 379. The 52nd Amendment to the Constitution ...... Sought to curb political defections 380. Which has not been provided by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment relating to Panchayati Raj? ...... The Panchayati Raj elected functionaries shall be disqualified to hold their offices if they have more than two children 381. The 45th Amendment ...... Extended reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes for a further period of 10 years 382. The First Amendment to the Constitution, which was carried out in 1951, related to ...... Protection of agrarian reform laws in certain states 383. The ...... amendment of the Constitution provided constitutional status to the municipalities. 74th 384. Which provisions of the Constitution can be amended by Parliament by a simple majority? ...... Articles relating to citizenship 385. Proposal for amendment of the Constitution in India can be initiated by ...... Parliament alone 386...... imposed restrictions on the Fundamental Rights of the citizens to protect the sovereignty and integrity of the country? The 16th Amendment 387. The Constitution of India envisages three types of services ...... All India Services, Central Service and State Services 388. The responsibility for the recruitment ofA ll India Services rests with ...... The Union public Service Commission 389...... appoints the members of the All India Services. The President 390. The Union Public Service Commission, which is concerned with the recruitment of civil services at the Centre, ...... Was provided in the constitution 391. The composition of the Union Public Service Commission has been ...... Laid down in the Constitution 392. At present the UPSC consists of a chairman and ...... Ten other members 393. The chairman of the Union public Service Commission is appointed by ...... The President 394. Members of the UPSC are appointed by ...... The president 395. Members of the UPSC hold office ...... For a term of six years or till they attain the age of 65 years 396. Members of the UPSC can be removed from office before the expiry of their term by ...... The President on the recommendation of the Supreme court 397. What is the major function of the UPSC? To conduct examinations for appointment to All India and central services 398. The UPSC can be assigned additional duties on the recommendation of ...... The Parliament 399. The UPSC submits an annual report on its work to ...... The President 400. Which has been listed as anA ll Indian Service? Indian Foreign Service 401. Which is not a statutory function on the UPSC? To act as a watchdog on the functioning of the state public Service Commissions 402. In India, new All India Services can be created ...... By the Parliament 403. A member of a state Public Service Commission can be removed on the ground of misbehaviuor only after an enquiry has been conducted by ...... The High Court of the state 404...... commissions recommended the abolition of the IAS and the IPS. The Rajamannar Commission 405. The Comptroller and Auditor General acts as ...... The guardian of public finances 406. The Comptroller and Auditor General is appointed by ...... The President 407. The Comptroller and Auditor General holds office ...... For a term of six years 408. The Comptroller and Auditor General can e removed from his office before expiry of his term by...... The President on the recommendation of the Parliament 409. The salary and allowances of the Comptroller and Auditor General are paid put of ...... The Consolidated Fund of India 410. The salary and allowances of the Comptroller and Auditor General ...... Are determined by the Parliament 411. The ...... is appointed by the president. The comptroller and Auditor General 412. The Comptroller and Auditor General performs ...... Only audit functions 413. The Comptroller andA uditor General submits his annual report regarding the Centre to ...... The President 414. The Attorney General of India is ...... The highest legal officer of the Union Government 415. The Attorney General of India is appointed by ...... The President 416. The Attorney General of India holds office ...... During the pleasure of the President 417. Which duties/functions has been assigned to the Attorney General of India? To render legal advice to the Central Government 418. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India was relieved of his responsibilities of maintenance of accounts in ...... 1976 419...... acts as the chief legal advisor to the Government of India? The Attorney General of India 420. The office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India was created ...... Under the Constitution 421. If the Attorney General wishes to tender his resignation before the expiry of his term, he has to address his resignation to ...... The President 422. The Comptroller and Auditor General is intimately connected with the committee of parliament ...... The Public Accounts Committee 423. The Election Commission is responsible for the conduct of elections to the parliament, state legistures, ...... The office of president and vice president 424. The Election Commission of India enjoys ...... Constitutional status 425. The Election Commission generally consists of the Chief Election Commissioner and such other commissioners as ...... Determined by the President from time to time 426. The Chief Election Commissioner is ...... Appointed by the President 427. The Chief Election Commissioner holds office ...... For a fixed term of five years 428. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office before the expiry of his term by ...... The president on the recommendation of the Parliament 429...... is responsible for keeping the voters’ list up to date at all times. The Election Commission 430. A Finance Commission is constituted by the President ...... Every five years 431. The Finance Commission consists of a chairman and ...... Four other members 432. How many Finance Commissions have been appointed by the President so far? 13 433...... was the Chairman of Eleventh Finance Commission constituted in 1998? A.M. Khusro 434...... was the Chairman of the Twelfth Finance Commission appointed by the President? T. Rangarajan 435. The qualifications for the chairman and other members of the Finance Commission ...... Are prescribed by the Parliament from time to time 436. The term of office, salaries and allowances of the chairman and other members of the Finance Commission are determined by ...... The Parliament 437. The Finance Commission submits its report to ...... The President 438. The recommendations of the Finance Commission are ...... Generally accepted as a matter of convention 439. The Constitution seeks to protect and promote the interests of the Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes by reserving seats for them in ...... and ...... Public services and defence services 440. The special officer who looks into the working of the safeguards for Scheduled Castes/Scheduled tribes is known as ...... The Commissioners for Scheduled Castes and Tribes in their separate commissions 441. In which states, it is constitution ally obligatory for the state to have a Minister for Tribal Welfare? Bihae, Madhya Pradesh, Orissa 442. The reservation for members of Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes has been extended up to ...... 2010 443. The Concept of ‘creamy layer’, propounded by the Supreme Court with regard to reservations, refers to ...... Economically better-off people 444. Reservation for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Parliament and state assemblies was extended up to 2010 by the ...... 79th Amendment 445. The Minorities Commission for production of the minorities was first set up in ...... 1979 446. The Minorities Commission was given statutory status in ...... 1992 447. The Minorities Commission consists of ...... Six members 448. The Mandal Commission for backward classes was sep up in ...... 1978 449. Which prime minister was in favour of implementation of the recommendations of the mandal Commission? V P Singh 450. The Tamil nadu Reservation Act, which provides for 69 per cent reservation in the jobs and educational institution, al in the state, was placed in the Nineth Schedule by ...... 76th Amendment 451...... Articles of the Indian constitution empowers the President to appoint a commission to investigate the conditions of backward classes in general and suggest ameliorative measures? ...... Article 342 452. Who has said that it is caste in India that is politicised? Rajni Kothari 453. How many languages were originally recognized by the Constitution as regional languages? 14 454. The regional languages recognized by the Constitution have been listed in ...... The VIII Schedule 455. Which languages was added to the list of regional languages by the 21st Amendment? ...... Sindhi 456. Though Hindi is the official language of India English has been permitted to continue for official purpose ...... For an indefinite period 457. Though originally the use of English for official purpose was permitted for a period of 15 years from the commencement of the Constitution, its use beyond this period was permitted through ...... An Act of Parliament 458. The first Official Language Commission was constituted by the President (under Article 344) ...... In 1955 under B G Kher 459.W ith the addition of new regional languages to the Eighth Schedule, the total number of regional languages rose to ...... 22 460. Which three languages were included in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution by the 71st Amendment? Konkani, Manipui and Nepali 461. Which languages are in the VIII Schedule of the Indian Constitution but are not official languages in any state? ...... , ...... and ...... Sindhi, Sanskrit and kashmiri 462. Which states has a separate Constitution? Jammu and Kashmir 463. The State of Jammu and Kashmir was accorded special status under ...... Article 370 of the Constitution 464. Special status was accorded to Jammu and Kashmir in terms of ...... An assurance given to the state government at the time of its accession 465. The Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir was framed by ...... A special Constituent Assembly set up by the State 466. The Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir came into force ...... On 26 January 1957 467. The special status of Jammu and Kashmir implies that the state has ...... A separate Constitution 468. The head of the state of Jammu and Kashmi,r who was initially known as Sadar-i-Riyasat, was redesignated as Governor in ...... 1965 469. The head of the government of Jammu and Kashmir is known as ...... The Chief Minister 470. The President can make a proclamation of emergency in the State of Jammu and Kashmir ...... With the concurrence of the state legislature 471. The demand for ending the special status of Jammu and Kashmir gained momentum after ...... The enactment of Jammu & kashmir settlment 4ct, 1982 472. The Parliament can make laws with respect to Jammu and Kashmir? Only on subjects in the union list 473...... political parties has been advocating abrogation of Article 370 of the Constitution regarding the special status of Jammu and Kashmir? BJP 474. From which source does money flow into the Consolidated Fund of India? ...... , ...... and ...... Revences, Fresh loans & Reparyment of loans 475. The Consolidated Fund of India is a fund in which ...... All money received by or on behalf of the Government of India is deposited 476. Money can be spent out of the Consolidated Fund of India ...... With the approval of the Parliament 477. The ...... for protection of the minorities was set up in 1992. Minorities commission 478. Money can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India only with the approval of ...... The Parliament 479. The Contingency Fund of India was created ...... Though an act of Parliament in 1950 480. Money can be advanced out of Contingency Fund of India to meet unforeseen expenses by ...... The president 481. Expenses incurred out of the Contingency Fund of India are ...... Recouped through supplementary, additional or excess grants by Parliament 482. Money can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India ...... Only after the Appropriation Act has been passed by the Parliament 483. The Electoral System of India is largely based on the pattern of ...... Britain 484. The details regarding he electoral system of India ...... Were provided by Parliament through an Act 485. Which features of the electoral system of India has been listed? ...... It is based on universla adult finance, it provides a single electoral body & the political parties a are an indispensble part of the electoral process. 486. Elections is India are held on the basis of ...... Single member constituencies 487. Who has voting rights? An adult resident citizen of a state 488. In terms of the election laws in India, electioneering ceases in a constituency atleast ...... 48 hours before the closing hour of polling 489. The first general elections were held in India in ...... 1951-52 490...... general elections of India was spread over 100 days. First 491. The Congress lost its monopoly of power in the states for the first time in the elections held in ...... 1967 492. A large number of coalition governments were formed in the states after the elections of ...... 1967 493...... Lok Sabha was dissolved before the expiry of its normal term and fresh elections held before the due date? Fourth 494. In which elections, there was a virtual straight fight between the Congress and the Janata party? 1977 495. Consider the following statements regarding booth capturing in an election: 1. It has been defined by the Constitution of India 2. It includes the seizure of and taking possession of polling booths to prevent the orderly conduct of elections. 3. It is committed from when any electro is threatened going to the polling station to cast his vote. 4. It has been declared a cognizable offence punishable by imprisonment. which is/are correct? 2, 3 and 4 are correct 496. In India, the citizens have been given the right to vote on the basis of ...... Age 497...... categories of persons is not entitled to exercise his vote through postal ballot? Indian nationals settled abroad 498. According to the Constitution the Election Commission consists of the one Chief Election Commissioner and such other Commissioners as the President may determine. In accordance with this provision the President appointed two election commissioners for the first time in ...... 1989 499. P V Narasimha Rao’s government decided to convert Election Commission into a multi-member body because ...... Of the confrontationist policy followed by the Chief Election Commission (T N Seshan) 500. The main consideration which prompted the government to convert the Election Commission into a multimember body was ...... To check the unbriderdled powers of the Chief Election Commissioner 501. Which does not fall within the purview of the Election Commission? Election of the prime Minister 502. Which statements about the Election Commission is correct? According to a judgment of the Supreme Court, the members of the Election Commission have equal powers with the Chief Election Commissioner. 503. The model code of conduct for political parties and candidates to be followed during the election is ...... Specified in the Representation of the people’s Act, 1951 504. The original Constitution fixed the voting age at 21, but the same was reduced to 18 years through an amendment to the Constitution carried out in ...... 1989 505. India has ...... Multi-party system 506. The first ...... were held in India in 1951-52. General elections 507...... accords recognition to the various political parties as national or regional parties. The Election Commission 508. To be recognized as a national party, it must secure at least ...... Six per cent of the valid votes in four or more states 509. A political party can get recognition as a regional party if it secures ...... Four per cent of the valid votes in a state 510. Which regional parties enjoys the distinction of having acted as an opposition party in the Lok Sabha? Telugu Desham 511. What is the link language of india? English 512. Which was not a constituent of the Janata Party formed in 1977? Swatantra Party 513. In which election did the congress capture the maximum seats and under whose leadership? 1984, under the leadership of Rajiv Gandhi 514. The first non-Congress government in any state was formed in ...... 1957 515. Which political parties enjoys the distinction of having formed the first non-Congress government in a state? Communists in Kerala 516. For the first time the ADMK came to power in Tamil Nadu in ...... 1972 517. Which advocated a partyless democracy? M N Roy 518. The Leftist parties in India have formed governments at different times in ...... Kerala, West Bengal and Tripura 519. Panchayati Raj is ...... An administrative structure 520. The Panchayati Raj was introduced in the country in ...... 1959 521...... was the first state where Panchayati Raj was introduced. Rajasthan 522. Panchayati Raj is based on the principle of ...... Democratic decentralization 523. one of the main advantages of Panchayati Raj is that ...... It gives a sense of political awareness to the rural masses. 524. The Panchayati Raj institutions depend for funds mainly on ...... Government finances 525. For successful functioning, Panchayati Raj needs the cooperation of ...... The local people 526. Which states has not introduced Panchayati Raj so far? Nagaland 527. The committee on whose recommendation Panchayati Rai was introduced in Indian was headed by ...... Balwant Rai Mehta 528...... of the Constitution directs the state to establish Panchayati Raj institutions in the country? The Directive Principles of State policy 529. At ...... level does the Panchayat Samitis exist in India? Block 530. Which ...... union territories has a two-tier system of Panchayati Raj? Dadra and Nagar Haveli 531. The Panchayat consists of ...... Elected representatives of the people 532. The Sarpanch, who is the chairman of the village panchayat, is ...... Elected by the Panchayat from amongst its members 533. The members of the Panchayat Samiti are ...... Elected by the members of the panchayats 534.A committee, under the chairmanship of Ashok Mehta, to review the working of the Panchayati Raj institutions was appointed by ...... The Janata government when it came to power at the Centre after the emergency 535. The Ashok Mehta Committee recommended ...... Replacement of the three-tier system by a two-tier system 536. The schedule of elections for the Panchayats is decided by ...... The state government 537. The basic objective of the Community Development Programme was to ...... Ensure people’s participation in development 538. Panchayats were given constitutional status by ...... The 72nd Amendment 539. The ...... institutions depend for funds mainly on the govt. finances. Panchayati, Raj 540. The 73rd Amendment, dealing with Panchayati Raj, added the Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution, which contains ...... 26 subjects for the economic and social development of villages 541. The 73rd Amendment vests the responsibility for converting Panchayati Raj institutions into instruments of local self- government in ...... The state government 542. The 73rd Amendment provided for a Finance Commission to review the financial position of the Panchayats. This Commission is appointed by ...... The Governor 543...... among the following initiated the Community Development Programme. Balwant Rai Mehta 544. The most important feature in the Community Development Programme is ...... People’s participation 545. The Panchayati Raj system has been established in ...... All the states and union territories of India except Meghalaya, Nagaland, Lakshadweep and Mizoram 546. What is the lowest unit of the Panchayati Raj system? Village panchayat 547. How many schedules are there in the Constitution? 12 548. How many schedules were there in the original Constitution? Eight 549. Which schedules of the Constitution was added by the 35th Amendment in 1974 and deleted by the 36th Amendment in 1975? ...... Tenth 550. The Ninth Schedule ...... Was added to the Constitution by the First Amendment 551. Which schedule contains the details of territories of the state and union territories of India? First Schedule 552. The details of salaries, allowances etc. of the President,V ice- President, Speaker of the Lok Sabha, Judges of the Supreme Court etc. are provided in ...... The Second Schedule 553. Which schedules gives details regarding the subjects in the union, state and concurrent lists? Seventh Schedule 554. The Eighth Schedule of the Constitution contains ...... List of regional languages 555. The total number of laws relating to land reform and abolition of Zamindari System included in the Ninth Schedule, which are protected from judicial scrutiny is ...... Over 280 556. The amendment raised the retirement age of the members of the state/joint Public Service Commission: 41st 557. The ...... amendment added the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution? 52nd Amendment 558. The Tenth Schedule contains ...... defection. Provisions regarding disqualifications on grounds of defection 559. The Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution contains ...... Subjects on which the Panchayats enjoy administrative control 560. The Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution contains ...... List of subject on which the Panchayats enjoy administrative control 561. The ...... of the Constitution provided constitutional status to the municipalities 74th Amendment 562. How many subjects, over which the municipalities have been given administrative control, have been listed in theT welfth Schedule? 18 563...... is the Chairman of the national Development Council The Prime Minister 564...... was the first Chairman of the Planning Commission? Jawaharlal Nehru 565. The planning Commission was set up in ...... March 1950 566. The Planning Commission of India is ...... A non-statutory body 567. The term ‘fourth estate’ refers to ...... The press 568. In which states was President’s rule continued even after the successful completion of assembly elections? ...... Uttar Pradesh 569. With regard to Centre-State relations, Gadgil Formula is used for ...... Division of tax revenues 570...... who is regarded as the first law officer of the Government of India. Attorney General of India 571...... political leaders successfully held the office of Chief Minister, Speaker or Lok Sabha and President of India? Neelam Sanjiva Reddy 572...... has not been provided in the Constitution. Planning Commission 573. The Dinesh Goswami Committee recommended ...... Government funding of parliamentary elections 574...... offices has not been provided by the Constitution. Deputy Prime Minister 575. In the removal of which officials the Parliament plays no role? Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission 576. Nyaya Panchayats are expected to ...... Try cases involving petty civil suits and mince offences. 577. Which union territory has a High Court of its own? Delhi 578. Public Interest Litigation can be resorted to in case of injury due to breach of any public duty, violation of the lawand ...... Violation of a constitutional provision 579. Sometime back the union Cabinet made recommendation for imposition of Presidential rule in a state, but the president returned the same to the Council of Ministers for reconsideration. This happened in the case of Uttar Pradesh and Bihar 580. Which political parties was formed before independence? Communist Party of India 581. The authoritative version of the Constitution in Hindi was provided by ...... The 58th Amendment 582. The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha can e removed from office by ...... Resolution passed by two-third members of the Rajya Sabha present and voting. 583. Which official has the right to take part in the proceedings of the Parliament without being a member? The Attorney General of India 584. Which bill can be introduced in the Parliament only on the recommendation of the President. Bill related to change of state bound aries, ...... and ...... A money Bill and a Bill which seeka to redefinite agricultural income etc. 585. The Vice-President provices over ...... Rajya Sabha 586. Article 254 of the Constitution deals with ...... Dominance of Union laws over state laws in case of any conflict between the two 587. The chief merit of proportional representation is ...... Representation to all parties in the legislature according to their strength 588. India is known as a parliamentary democracy because ...... The executive is responsible to the Parliament 589...... enjoys the distinction of being the first woman Judge of Supreme Court of India. M Fathima Beevi 590. Which is the correct sequence, in order of size, of the following states in India from largest to smallest? Select the correct answers using the list of states. 1. Uttar Pradesh 2. Madhya Pradesh 3. Maharashtra 4. Andhra Pradesh 2, 3, 1, 4 591. In India, the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote is used in the election of ...... The President 592. The Constitution of India assures economic Justice to the Indian citizens through ...... Directive Principles of State policy 593...... was the first leader of the Opposition in the Rajya Sabha. Kamlapati Tripathy 594. Which bodies can be abolished but not dissolved? State legislative council 595. Article 40 of the Constitution of India states that “The state shall take steps to organize X and endow them with such powers and authority, as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government”. In this statement ‘X’ stands for ...... Village Panchayats 596. Rule of Law is a basic feature of the constitution which cannot be amended under ...... of the constitution. Article 368 597. Which is the main source of income for the Municipal Committee? Octroi duty 598. Which statements regarding local government in India has been wrongly listed? a. The elections to local bodies are determined by a commission. b...... 30 Oercent of this seats in local bodies are reserved for the women 599. The Jammu and Kashmir resettlement Bill was associated with the ...... Resettlement of Muslims from Pakistan in Jammy and Kashmir 600. The Constitution of India does not contain and provision for the impeachment of ...... The Governor 601. The salary/emoluments of which is exempted from income tax? The President 602. The national Integration Council is chaired by ...... The Prime Minister 603...... has the right to speak and otherwise take part in the proceedings of either house of parliament but is not entitled to vote. The Attorney General of India 604. The ideals of the framers of the Constitution are reflected in ...... The Preamble 605...... is the largest Committee of the Indian Parliament? The Estimates Committee 606. Which states is the largest in terms of area? Madhya Pradesh 607. Which states of the Indian Union has two capitals? Jammu and Kashmir 608. Elections to the Lok Sabha and the LegisaltiveA ssemblies of states are conducted on the basis of ...... Adult franchise 609. The Swaran Singh Committee considered the question of ...... Suitability of presidential form of government for India 610. The graduates constitute a separate constituency for the election of specified number of members to ...... The state legislative council 611. The Supreme Court has the advisory of jurisdiction under ...... Article 143 612. The President grants pardon on the recommendations of ...... The Union Home Minister 613. Under the Indian Constitution, concentration of wealth violates ...... The Directive Principles 614. At the apex of the subordinate criminal courts stands the ...... Court of session Judge 615. The Constitution of India declares Hindi as ...... The official language of the Union 616...... acts as the chairman of the National Integration Council. The Prime Minister 617. The Supreme Court of India gave its interpretation of Hidutva in the ...... Manohar Joshi case 618. Prasant and workers party : ...... is correctly matched. Maharashtra 619. A member of Parliament can be disqualified on grounds of defection, if he takes a stand contrary to the ...... Stand of the party 620. Which of the following is not it harmony with the system of Rule of Law? 1. Independent judiciary 2. Administrative courts 3. Administrative law 4. Discretionary powers of officers 5. Supremacy of Law 2, 3 and 4 621. The President of India can be impeached by the Parliament if ...... He is charged with the violation the Constitution 622. Which duties/functions has be assigned to theA ttorney General of India? To render legal advice to the Central Government 623. A political party is officially accorded the status of the Opposition Party in Lok Sabha only if it secures at least ...... 10 per cent of the seats 624. The qualifications of the chairman and other members of the Finance Commission Are determined by the Parliament 625. The Lok Sabha and the Rajay Sabha have co-equal powers in ...... Amending powers 626. In the Keshavananda Bharati case the Supreme Court ...... Upheld the right of Parliament to amend any part of the Constitution (including Part III dealing with Fundamental Rights) except the basic structure of the Constitution 627. In which cases did the Supreme Court hold that a constituent assembly be convened amend the Fundamental Rights? Golak Nath case 628. Which is not constituted by the President? The Planning Commission 629. In case of Jammu and kashmir, an amendment to the Constitution become applicable ...... Only after the President issues the necessary orders under Article 370 630. Which was the first state to hold direct elections to Panchayati Raj institutions after the nactment of the 73rdA mendment? Madhya Pradesh 631. The 73rd and 74th Amendments of the Constitution relating to Panchayati Raj and muiciplities ...... Came into force only after these were ratified by the requisite number of states 632. A joint Public Service Commission for two or more states ...... Can be constituted by the Parliament after a resolution to this effect is passed by the legislatures of the concerned states 633. The Law Commission in its report submitted some time back recommended several electoral reforms. Which has been listed? a. Introduction to list system b...... and c...... b) Enhancement of punishment for offences pertaining to booth capturing c) Expenditious disposal of election petitions. 634. With regard to appointment of Judges of Supreme Court, the nine judge bench of the Supreme Court recommended that Chief Justice of India ...... Canre commend means only in consultation with four senior-most judges of the Supreme Court 635. In terms of the opinion of the nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court, the Chief Justice of India can recommend transfer of judges of High Courts ...... In consultation with four senior mot judges of the Supreme Courts as well as the Chief Justices of High Courts from which transfer is to be effected as well as the High Court to which transfer is to be effected. 636. The National Security Council formed in October 1998 is headed by ...... The Prime Minister 637. The Chief Justice of India can recommend names for appointment as judges of State High Court ...... In consultation with the two senior-most judges of Supreme Court 638. Which states are involved in disputes over sharing of river water? Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat 639. The Women’s Reservation Bill introduced in the Parliament by BJP led coalition government in November 1998 was scuttled by ...... and ...... Rashtriya JanataDal and Samajwadi party 640. The ...... formed in october 1998 is headed by the prime minister. National security council 641. The Law Commission which recommended major electoral changes was headed by ...... Justice B.P. Jeevan Reddy 642. Which one political party was sometime back derecognized by the Election Commission because it decided to boycott the elections? ...... Nagaland People’s Council 643...... was the Chairman of the All Party Committee on State Funding of Election set up in May 1998 Inderjit Gupta 644. In which states the Presidents rule was first imposed and subsequently revoked because the Government was not sure of getting it through the Rajya Sabha? ...... Bihar 645. The three Congress leaders who formed National its Congress Party after their expulsion from congress were ...... P.A. Sangma, Sharad Pawar and Tariq Anwar 646. The Parliamentary Elections of 1999, were spread over ...... Four weeks 647. Bal Thackray, Shiva Sena supreme, was disenfrachised by Election Commission on grounds of inciting hatred among communities during the election for a period of ...... Six years 648. The Bill which authorizes the Government to incur the expenditure is known as ...... Appropriation Bill 649. Jawaharlal Nehru was sworn in as the first Prime Minister of independent India on ...... 15 August 1947 650...... enjoys the distinction of being the first Muslim President of India. Zakir Hussain 651. When there is no majority party in the State Legislative Assembly, the principal consideration governing the appointment of a Chief Minister by the Governor of the state is the ...... Ability of the person who is most likely to command a stable majority 652. When an advance grant is made by the Parliament pending regular passage of the Budget, it is called ...... Vote on Account 653. Which is the main source of revenue in the states? Sales Tax 654...... became the prime Minister of India without becoming a Union Cabinet Minister. H.D. Deve Gowda 655. Planning in India derives its objectives from the ...... Directive Principles of State Policy 656. The highest body which approves the Five – Year Plain in India is the ...... Union Cabinet 657. Which amendment places a ban on floor crossing by a member elected on a party ticket to a legislature? 52nd Amendment Act 658. Apart from Jammu and Kashmir which other state has been provided special protection in certain matters? Nagaland 659. The philosophical postulates of the Constitution are based on ...... Objectives Resolution, 1947 660. India is called a ‘Republic’ because ...... The head of the state in India (President) is an elected head. 661. The Commission appointed by the NDA Government to Review the Constitution was headed by ...... Justice Venkatachalaiah 662. Which reasons has been listed for the slow implementation of Directive Principles? a. Lack of political will b...... and c...... b) Lock of resources with and (c) Difficulties arising due to vastness of the country. 663...... Bills must be passed by each House of the Indian Parliament separately by special majority? Constitutional Amendment Bill 664. 1. The Prime Minister controls other branches of government through his advisors. 2. All the ministers function on the basis of collective responsibility. which is/are true? Only 2 is true 665. Which member of the Constitution Review Commission constituted by the Government? ...... NDA 666. The Constitution Review panel appointed by the N.D.A. Government under the Chairmanship of Justice M.N Venkatachaliah comprised of ...... Eleven members 667. Salary of which officials is not charged on the Consolidated Fund of India? ...... Prime Minister 668. The Parliament of India exercises control over administration ...... Through Parliamentary Committees 669. If the Governor of a state feels that theA nglo-Indian community has not been adequately represented in the State legislative Assembly he can nominate ...... One member 670. The sitting of Lok Sabha can be terminated through ...... , ...... and ...... Adjounament, Prorogation & dissolution 671. Ad hoc judges are appointed to the Supreme Court ...... If requisite number of judges are not available to hold the meeting of the Court. 672. Which motions is related with the Union Budget? ...... Cut motion 673. In the event of non-availability of Chief Justice of India, an Acting Chief Justice can be appointed by ...... The President 674. The President has absolute veto with rgard to ...... Private Member Bills 675. The Comptroller and Auditor General presents detailed review of Union Accounts to the Union Finance Minister every ...... Year 676. If the Finance Minister fails to get theA nnual Budget passed in the Lok Sabha, the Prime Minister can ...... Submit the Finance Resignation of his cabinet 677. In which one of the following states there is reservation for the Scheduled Castes for Lok Sabha? ...... Jammu and Kashmir 678. Inter-State Councils in India have been set up under ...... Provisions of the Constitution 679. Which state of India has contributed the maximum Prime Ministers? Uttar Pradesh 680. Maximum number of ‘nocondifence motions’ were admitted and discussed during the Prime Minister ship of ...... Narasimha Rao 681. Which motion can be moved by the Government? Confidence Motion 682. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India does not audit the accounts of ...... Municipal bodies 683...... is regarded as the guardian of the Constitution of India. Supreme Court of India 684. Which basic tenets of secularism has been enshrined in the Constitution of India? in-propagation of any religion by the State 685. Which method is not resorted to by the pressure groups? Contesting of elections to capture power 686. Which is the only state of India to have the Common Civil Code? Goa 687. Which Presidents of India is known as philosopher-president? Dr. S. Radhakrishnan 688. Parliament can ...... the constitution. Amend 689...... was the first woman Governor of a state in the post- Independence period. Sarojini Naidu 690. The current strength of the Lok Sabh a (House of People) and the state assemblies has been freezed up to ...... 2026 691. Jyoti Basu stepped down from the post of chief Minister in West Bengal on 29 October 2000 after serving as Chief Minister for a record period of ...... 23 years 692...... and ...... are associated with the process of planning in India. Planning Commission and National Development Council 693. The proceedings in the Lok Sabha cannot be conducted unless there is quorum. How this quorum is ensured. The lack of quorum is brought to the notice of the Speaker by the members. 694. The ...... Lok Sabha enjoyed the shortest span of life? Twelfth 695. The expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India ...... Can be discussed by not put to vote in Parliament 696. The Parliament can make law for the whole or any part of India for the implementation of international treaties. Without the consent of any state 697. If the Speaker asks a member of the House to stop speaking and let another member speak, the phenomenon is known as ...... Yielding the floor 698. The High Courts have the power to issue writs underA rticle ...... 226 699...... enjoys the distinction of being the first Chief Justice of India? Hiralal J. Kania 700. What is the chronological order in which the ...... states of Indian Union were created? 1. Goa 2. Chhattisgarh 3. Uttarancha 4. Jharkhand 701...... states/union territory has no identified tribal community? Chandigarh 702...... introduced the concept of Public Interest litigation in India? Justice P.N. Bhagwati 703. Which state among the sends the second largest members in the Rajya Sabha? Maharashtra 704...... is legally authorized to declare war or conclude peace. The President 705. The gap between two sessions of Parliament should not exceed six months is based on ...... Provisions of the Constitution 706...... is not an exclusive power of the Lok Sabha. The constitutional amendments can be initiated only by the Lok Sabha 707. The Finance bill includes ...... All tax proposals 708. Which standing Committees of Parliament has no member from Rajya Sabha? Estimates Committee 709. What is the implication of grant of ‘special status’ to a state? ...... and ...... a) Substatially, large percentage of central assistance is provided to the state as grant in. b) The quantum of loan as peicentage of total assistance is quite low. 710. The post of Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha was ...... Created through an Act of parliament in 1977. 711. Which has not been listed as a Fundamental Right in the Constitution but has been articulated by the Supreme Court as a Fundamental Rights? Right to Housing 712. Which duties is not performed by the Comptroller andA uditor General of India? Audit and report on all trading, manufacturing, profit and loss accounts 713. The office of the Deputy Prime Minister ...... Is an extra-constitutional growth 714...... enjoys the distinction of being the first Deputy Prime Minister of India? Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel 715. Lak Krishna Advani enjoys the distinction of being ...... The seventh Deputy Prime Minister of India 716. The first Prime Minister of India was appointed by ...... The Governor General 717. National Development Council is mainly concerned with ...... The approval of Five-year plans 718. A joint session Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha was summoned in 2002 to discuss the issue of ...... POTA 719. The Fundamental Rights granted under which A rticle of the Constitution cannot be suspended by the President even during emergency...... Article 20 and Article 21 720. If a new state is to be created, which schedules of Constitution will have to be amended? First 721. When was the Public Service Commission, a forerunner of Union Public Service Commission, was first of all set up in India? 1926 722...... states sends one member to the Rajya Sabha? Mizoram 723. Which amendment passed by the Parliament requires ratification by atleast one half of states? Representations of states in the Parliament 724...... is the largest union Territory of India. Pondicherry 725. Who among the held the office of the Vice-President of India for two full terms? S. Radhakrishan 726. Who among the became President of India without serving as Vice-President? Sanjeeva Reddy 727. The State government does not enjoy any control over local bodies ...... With regard to personnel matters 728. What was the immediate cause for the launching of Swadeshi movement in India? Partition of Bengal 729. The boundaries of the Indian states can be changed by ...... The Parliament by simple majority 730. Los Adalet consists of a sitting or retired Judicial officer - correct or not? Consists of a sitting or retired judicial officer 731. Which is the most important item of expenditure of the government of India on revenue account? Interest paryments 732. The first ...... of India was appointed by the governor general. Prime Minister 733. Which kind of veto the President can make use of with regard to bills passed by the Parliament? Qualified veto, Judicial veto and Pocket veto 734. Joint-sitting of the two houses of Parliament are held for ...... Resolution of deadlock between the two houses on a non- money bill 735...... power is enjoyed by the Supreme Court. Judicial Review 736. The Chief minister of a state cannot take part in the election of the President if ...... He is a member of the Legislative Council of the state 737. The Government of India has granted dual citizen-ship to the people of Indian origin settled in ...... Only some of the countries 738. The Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the Constitution on the recommendation of ...... Swaran Singh Committee 739. The Legislative Council of a state can delay the enactment of a Bill passed by the Legislative Assembly for a maximum period of ...... Three months 740. Which fundamental rights cannot be suspended even during an emergency? Right to life 741. The awards of Bharat Ratna, Padam Shri etc. have been instituted under ...... Article 18 742. A citizen can directly move the Supreme Court for any violation of Fundamental Right under ...... Article 32 743. President is not a member of council of ...... but can attend its meetings. Ministers 744. The Maharashtra Legislative Council has the number ...... 78 745. In the Lok Sabh ‘point of order’ can be raised ...... Only by the members of opposition 746. Zero Hour is ...... The period immediately following the Question hour when the members voice their concerns on various matters of public importance 747. A political party is accorded status of an Opposition Party in the Lok Sabha if it captures atleast ...... 10 per cent seats 748...... has the power to set up common High Courts in two or more states? The Parliament 749. Which takes part in the election of the President but has no role in his impeachment? State legislative Assemblies 750. An aggrieved public servant can make an appeal against the decision of the Administrative Tribunal before ...... The Supreme Court 751...... parties was no associated with the Constituent Assembly of India? The Communist 752. The House of Peoples (Lok Sabha) can be adjourned sine- die by ...... The Speaker 753. Which is the minimum percentage of Lok Sabha seats that an opposition party should have to get its leader the status of Opposition Leader? 10 per cent 754. If a member of Lok Sabha is appointed Chief Minister of a State ...... He must become a member of the State legislature with in six months 755. The Lok Sabha can be dissolved before the expiry of its normal term under ...... Article 85(2) 756. The Panchayati Raj included in the ...... State list 757. Defectors shall not be allowed to hold office of profit till they ...... an election. Win 758. Part III of the Indian Constitution which deals with Fundamental Rights, has been described as ...... Magna carta of India & conscience of the constitution 759. The Meharaster legistatice council has the ...... number. Maharashtra legislative 760. Economic Planning is a subject in ...... None of the above lists 761. Who the first put forward the concept of Swaeaj? ...... Tilak 762. The four languages which were last added to the VIII Schedule are ...... Bodo, Maithili, Santhali and Dogri 763. Under a newly enacted anti-defection law a person defecting is disqualified and 1. Cannot hold any remunerative political post for the remaining tenure of the legislature 2. Cannot become member of the legislature in the same term. 3. Can become member of the legislature in the same term after re-election Which of the above statements is correct? 1 and 2 764. Which Article of the Indian Constitution stipulates that every state should make adequate arrangements for imparting instructions in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education? Article 350-A 765. A British citizen staying in India cannot claim Right to ...... Freedom of Trade and profession 766. Consider the following statements regarding the National Human Rights Commission of India 1. Its Chairman must be a retired Chief Justice of India 2. It has formations in each state as State Human Rights Commission 3. Its powers are only recommendatory in nature 4. It is mandatory to appoint a woman as a member of the Commission. Which one of the above statements are correct? 1 and 3 767. The Constitution of India recognizes Religious and linguistic minorities 768. The Parliament has the power to set up common High courts in ...... states. Two or more 769. Consider the following statements about the amendments to the Election Law by the Representation of the People (Amendment) Act, 1996. 1. Any conviction for the offence of insulting the Indian Flag or the Constitution of India shall entail disqualification for contesting elections to Parliament and State Legislatures for six years from the date of conviction. 2. There is an increase in the security deposit which a candidate has to make to contest the elections to the Lok Sabha. 3. A candidate cannot not new stand for election from more then one Parliamentary constituency. 4. No election will now be countermanded on the death of a contesting candidate. Which of the above statements are correct? 1, 2 and 4 770...... gap permissible between two sessions of parliament? The union levies, collects and distributes the proceeds of income tax between itself and the states 771. Which one of the following Vice-Presidents of India died in Office? Krishna Kant 772...... occupied the office of the President for shortest period. Dr. Zakir Hussain 773. If a vote of no confidence is passed against the Council of Ministers ...... It stays in office till its successor assumes charge 774. The Rajya Sabha was for the first time constituted on ...... 3 April 1952 775. The Secretary General of Lok Sabha is ...... Appointed by the Speaker 776. The Lok Sabha which was elected in 2004 is ...... Lok Sabha. The 14th Lok Sabha 777. During the elections, free times is allocated to different national and state parties on Air and Doordarshan on the basis of ...... Their performance in the last election 778. Which one of the following has been wrongly listed as a source of revenue for the Panchayats? Property Tax Government Tax 779. The final authority to interpret the Constitution rests with ...... The Supreme Court 780. The Chief Minister of a state can get rid of a minister by asking him to tender his ...... Resignation 781...... is known as the ‘Grand Old Man’ of India. Dadabhai Naoroji 782. The Lok Sabha Secretariat works under the supervision of ...... The Speaker 783...... is regarded as the Father of the Indian Constitution. B R Ambedkar 784...... was the Viceroy when the Partition of Bengal was proposed. Lord Curzon 785. Which Vice President was returned unopposed? Dr. S. Radha Krishnan an Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma 786. Of the seven Union Territories, how many have a Legislative Assembly? Two 787. Which one of the following states has the largest Legislative Council? Uttar Pradesh 788. Which Five Year Plan suggested the introduction of Panchayat Raj in India?...... Second 789. The members of Rajya Sabha are elected by the members of Vidha Sabha through ...... Secret Ballot 790. Who decides whether a particular caste is to be treated as a Schedule Caste or not? The president 791. Who acts as the watch dog of Public Finance? Public Accounts Committee 792. Which Committee recommended the inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the Constitution? Swaran Singh Committee 793. The Speaker is the ex-officio Chairman of ...... The Rules Committee 794. Which is the contribution of India to the parliamentary pratice? Zero hour and calling Attertion motion 795. Which one of the following President died in office? Dr. Zakir Hussain and Dr. Fakuruddin Al: Ahmad 796. When the President submits his resignation to the Vice President, the latter has to inform the ...... Union Home Minister 797...... presides over the joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament in the absence of the Speaker. The Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha 798. Which political party was formed before independence? National Conference 799. Which one of the following UnionT erritory has been provided representation in the Rajya Sabha? Delhi and Pondi cherry 800. There is no provision for reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in ...... and ...... Rajya Sabha and Vidhar parishad 801. How many types of writs can be issued by the Supreme Court/ high Courts? Five 802. Under the latest rules a legislative party can escape provisions of anti-defection law only if ...... Two-thirds of its members decide to merge with another political party 803. Recently a new category of Classical Languages has been created, which languages has been given the status of classical language? Tamil 804. The concept of total revolution is related to ...... J.P. Narayan 805. Who headed the Committee on Civil Service Reforms which submitted its report in July 2004? P C Hota 806. In February 2005 the National Integration Council was re-constituted after a gap of ...... 12 years 807. What is the name of the legislature of Russia? Supreme Soviet 808. How many times the Supreme Court has turned down the request of the Government for setting up regional branches of the Supreme Court at Chennai, Kolkata and Mumbai? Thrice 809. The Supreme Court upheld the decision of which state, for the abolition of Administrative Courts? Madhya Pradesh 810. The Governor of a state can issue Ordinances but these are subject to the approval of ...... The state legislature 811. In which cases the Supreme Court of India held that a Constituent Assembly be convened to amend the Fundamental Rights? Golak Nath case 812. The concept of ...... is related to J.P. Narayan. Total revolution 813. The interpretation of the Constitution of India by the Supreme Court falls within its ...... Appellate jurisdiction 814. The total strength of the elected members of the Jammu and Kashmir Assembly is ...... 100 815...... appoints the Regional Election Commissioners? The President, in consultation with Chief Election Commissioner 816...... draws the list of SC/ST and OBCs? The Parliament 817. When was the first Minority Commission set up? 1979 818. The Rajya Sabha can be dissolved before the expiry of its term by ...... It cannot be dissolved 819...... motion is related to the Budget. Cut motion 820. Which Article the President can take over the administration of the state if the latter does not comply the Union Government directions. Article 365 821. B.R. Ambedkar is regarded as the ...... Farther of the constitution 822. Uttar pradesh has the largest ...... Legislative council 823. Can the election to the office of President be held if one or more state Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved? ...... Yes 824...... ensures that no money is spent out of the Consolidated Fund of India without the authority of the Parliament. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India 825. The PIL in India, has been introduced by ...... Judicial initiative 826. Which Prime Ministers headed a minority Government? V.P. Singh, I.K. Gujaral and chandra chekhar 827. Which states has reserved seats in the Assembly on the basis of religion? Jammu and Kashmir 828. The practice of ‘zero hour intervention’ in Parliament originated in India in ...... 1962 829. Whose Prime Ministership was the antidefection law passed? Rajiv Gandhi 830. Which states is regarded as the pionder of the Right to Information in India? Rajasthan 831. The Right to Information Act passed in 2005 is not applicable to the State of Jammu and Kashmir because ...... Of its special constitutional status 832. In 2006 President Abdul Kalam sent back a bill passed by Parliament for reconsideration. The Bill related to ...... 56 offices of profit 833. In which state Presidential Rule was imposed for the first time? Kerala 834. When was Presidential rule imposed in a state for the first time? 1952 835...... of the following was elected as the Vice-President of the Constituent Assembly of India. H.C. Mukherjee 836. The Objective Resolution moved by Jawaharlal Nehru was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on ...... 22nd January, 1947 837...... was the Chairman of the first Backward Classes Commission. Kaka Kalelkar 838. In which country the money bills can be initiated only in the Upper House? Japan 839. At present how many Fundamental Duties are included in the Indian Constitution? ...... Eleven 840. Part IV of the Indian constitution which lists the Fundamental Duties comprises of only ...... One Article 841. The Privy Purses of the former rulers of Indian States were abolished by ...... 26th Amendment Act 842. Which was member of Rajya Sabha at the time of appointment as Prime Minister? Lal Bahadur Shastri 843. Which Commission was set up in pursuance of the provisions of the Constitution? Election Commission 844. In the present Lok Sabha the seats have been allocated to various states on the basis of Census of ...... 1971 845...... heads the new Commission on Centre-State relations appointed by the government in April 2007? M.M. Punchhi 846. Jasraj Chopra Panel was appointed to look into the problem of ...... Inclusion of Gujjars in the ST category 847...... is the Chairman of the Thirteenth Finance Commission. Vijay Kelkar 848...... has been appointed as the Chairman of the National Land Reform Council. Manmohan Singh 849. The government is empowered to collect the revenues by ...... The Finance Bill 850. A party to be recognised as a national party must secure at least ...... Four states 851. When were the High Courts of Bombay, Calcutta and Madras established? 1861 852. Who served as Speaker of Lok Sabha for two terms? Bharam Jakhar, ...... and ...... Balram Jakhar, N. Sanjiva Reddy and G.M.C. Balayogi 853. The salary and allowances of the High Court judges are paid out of ...... Contingency Fund of India 854. Consider the following statements regarding the Fast Track Courts. 1. The setting up of the courts was recommended by the Eleventh Finance Commission. 2. The courts takes up sessions cases pending for two years or more. 3. The court takes up cases of under trials in jail. Which one of the statements given above is/are correct? 1, 2 and 3 855...... is the highest body concerned with the approval of country’s Five Year Plans. National Development Council 856...... is the highest civil servant of the Union Government. Cabinet Secretary 857. Who is incharge of the Cabinet Secretariat? The Minister for Parliamentary Affairs 858. Who allocates grants-in-aid to the states out of the Consolidated Fund of India? Finance Commission 859. Which High Court enjoys jurisdiction over largest number of territories? Allahabad 860. Vijay L. Kelkar, ...... was appointed as the Chairman of the 13th Finance Commission is a former ...... Finance Secretary 861. The first Mobile Court of India was launched in ...... Haryana 862. National Human Rights Commission consists of a Chairman and ...... Four members 863. The ...... in India has been in troduced by Judicial initiative. PIL 864. Who of the following is the Chairperson of the national Commission for the Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR)? Shanta Sinha 865. In which ...... states the Legislative Council was revived recently? Andhra Pradesh 866. Which regional political parties was recently accorded recognition as a national party? ...... Rashtriya Janata Dal 867. In which case the Supreme Court gave the ruling that Fundamental Rights cannot be amended underA rticle 368? Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala 868. The first elected Lok Sabha was constituted in ...... 1952 869. Disputes regarding election of President and Vice President are decided by ...... The Supreme Court 870. The ...... is regarded as the custodian of Lok Sabha? Speaker 871. The ...... introduced diarchy in India. The Government of India Act, 1919 872. ‘Public Order’ figures in the ...... State list 873. Which part of the constitution outlines the ideals of a welfare, socialist and Gandhism state: Directive Principles of State Policy 874. The ...... amendment of the constitution empowered the Supreme Court to transfer cases from one High Court to another? 42nd 875...... is the largest (areawise) constituency of Lok Sabha. Ladakh 876. How many High Courts enjoy jurisdiction over more than one state/Union territory? Six 877. The right to vote, granted to the Indian citizens, is ...... A political right 878. The concept that the courts can punish a person for contempt of court was borrowed from ...... UK 879. The Central Administrative Tribunal and State. Administrative Tribunals were set up through a law passed in ...... 1985 880. How much notice is required for moving resolution for the impeachment of President? 14 days 881. Who was the Chairman of the First Administrative Reform Commission? Morarji Desai 882. Which language is not included in the English Schedule? English 883. Which Schedule deals with the administration of tribal areas? Sixth Schedule 884. Central Vigilance Commission was set up in ...... 1964 885. Who acts as the returning officer for the election of the President? Secretary General of Rajya Sabha 886. The Right to Information Act came into force in ...... 2005 GEOGRAPHY QUESTION & ANSWERS

1. The regions with the dense transport facility are Plains 2. Railway line connecting Chennai andA rakkonam was laid in 1856 3. The delta area in Tamil Nadu where petroleum is found in Kaveri 4. Petroleum refineries of Tamil Nadu is found in Manali 5. The most important fibre crop of India is Cotton 6. A place in Tamil Nadu which has a Gun factory is Ooty 7. Yercaud town in Tamil Nadu is located in Shervaroy hills 8. Railway engines are produced in Chittaranjan, West Bengal 9. The Granary of Tamilnadu is Tanjore district 10. In Tamil Nadu, mangrove vegetation is found in Pitchavaram 11. The state which tops in the cultivation of just is West Bengal 12...... ports is not located along the eastern coast of India. Kandla 13. The states with the highest population is Uttar Pradesh 14. Rhinoceros is unique to which of the following sanctuaries? Kaziranga 15. The longest river of Tamil Nadu is Kaveri 16. Recently developed Hyundai Car Industry is located in the district of Kancheepuram 17. McMahon line lies between which of the following countries? India and China 18. Which state produces the bulk of natural rubber in India? Kerala 19. The total area of India is about 32 lakh sq.km 20. Place known for windmills is Muppandal 21. Tirupur is located on the banks of river Noyyal 22. In Tamil Nadu sugar mill is located at Lalgudi 23. As per census report 200, percentage of scheduled caste people of population in Tamil Nadu is 19% 24. Indian Telephone Industries Ltd. is located at Bangalore 25. Raurkela steel plant was set up with the assistance from West Germany 26. The Oil and Natural Gas Commission was set up in 1956 27. In Tamil Nadu, the district with the highest sex ratio as per 2001 census is Tuticorin 28. The Jain temples known for the finest marble carving in India are situated at Jaipur 29. Place known for silk fabrics is Kancheepuram 30. The climate Bikarner can be described as Hot desert 31. In which state does the maximum area of black soil occur? Maharashtra 32. India is the seventh largest country in the world. It occupies ……… of world area 2.4% 33. The Khasi and Jaintia hills are located in Meghalaya 34. The largest producer of chillies in the world is India 35. The ideal temperature for the growth of sugarcane is 15oC to 30oC 36...... is the smallest in terms of area? Vatican city 37. The maximum daily range of temperature cam be observed at Delhi 38. The district with highest population in Tamil Nadu as per 2001 census is Chennai 39. The district with highest literacy rate inT amil Nadu is Kanniyakumari 40. The density of population inT amil Nadu is (as per 2001 census) 478 41. The highest mountain peak of India is Mt. K2 42. The port which is not located in the west coast is Paradeep 43. The area which is rich in minerals is Chota Nagpur 44. Mahatma Gandhi National marine Park is situated at Andaman and Nicobar Islands 45. The place where richest mangrove vegetations are found is Pichavaram 46. The peninsula in the east of India is Indo – China 47. The dam constructed across the Sutlej is Bhakra Nangal 48. Which city is known as ‘Pearl city’? Thoothukudi 49. The highest peak on Himalayas is Everest 50. The only nuclear reactor, ‘Kamini’ which uses Uranium-233 as fuel, is located in Tamil Nadu 51. The North-west of peninsular India is Malwa plateau 52. The important food crop of Tamil Nadu is Paddy 53. The heaviest rainfall occurs during the month in ……. Tamil Nadu October – November 54. The land that consists of homogeneous geographical features is Region 55. Adam’s Bridge connects which of the following two places? Pamban island of India and north tip of Sri Lanka 56. The largest reserved of bauxite is found in Orissa 57. The oil and natural gas commission was set up in 1956 58. The region on the solution side of the siwalik hill is called his Dunes 59...... is the primary source of energy in India? Coal 60. The percentage of population depending in agriculture as per the census, 1981 in India is 68 percent 61...... is largest river in south india. Godavari 62. First electric railway was opened in 1925 63. Escape velocity of the earth is 11.2 km/s 64. Fjord coasts are very typical of the Norwegian coast 65. How many tides are experienced in a day? Two times 66. The area of Ganga plain is 3,57,000 sq. kms 67. Coral reefs in the oceans are found between 30oN – 30oS latitude 68. Bokaro Steel Plant is located in the state of Jharkhand 69. The Nilgiris are part of the Western Ghats 70. The famous textile market in Tamil Nadu s Coimbatore 71. Manimutharu Dam is located in the district of Tirunelveli 72. All water lying south of latitude 55o in the southern hemisphere, is called Southern Ocean 73. The devastating cyclone struck the coast of Orissa in India on 29th October, 1999 74. Earthquakes under the sea can cause long, giant, destructive waves called Tsunami 75. The Kudankulam Nuclear Power Station is set up inT amil Nadu in collaboration with Russia 76. Coal mine is situated in Tamil Nadu at Neyveli 77. Maitree express is a train that runs between Kolkata and Dhaka 78. The famous Kashmir valley is located between which of the two ranges? Pirpanjal and Zaskar range 79. Population density is represented by

Totalpopulation Total area 80. The relative proportion of labour earnings in national income in India is Above 30 percent 81. The second longest National Highway of India is NH – 6 82. The line that sets the boundary and consequently the number of the poor refers to Poverty line 83. The major source of irrigation in peninsular India is Wheat granary of india 84. Tamil Nadu stretches between 8o5’ N …………. N latitudes 13o35’ 85. The Manchester of India is Mumbai 86. A district in Tamil Nadu which has government explosive factory is Vellore 87. In paddy production, Tamil Nadu occupies the ……… rank in India Third 88. Gold fields in Karnataka are at Kolar 89. The delta area where petroleum is found in Tamil Nadu is Kaveri 90. Climate of India is highly influenced by Monsoon winds 91. Mudanthurai wildlife sanctuary is located in Tirunelveli district 92. Which is the premier national industry of India? Cotton industry 93. According to the census estimate of 2001, the rate of literacy in Tamil Nadu was ………. Per cent. 73.5 94. Neyveli is famous for ...... Ligrite 95. The solar system that belongs to the galaxy is called Milky way 96. The total number of corporations of Tamil Nadu in 2008 was 10 97. On map places connecting equal sunshine is called Isohels 98. The earth’s magnetic north pole is the earth’s geographical. South pole 99. National Atlas and Thematic Organisation (NATMO) located in Kolkata 100. Paris is famous for ...... Eiffel tower 101. Basalt and granite belong to which type of rocks? Lgneous rocks 102. Punjab and Haryana receive rainfall from Westerly disturbances 103. The topmost atmospheric layer is called Ionosphere 104. India’s best quality sheep rearing is done in which of the following regions? Temperate Himalaya 105. Where in India is theA sia’s largest optical telescope installed? Kavalur – Tamil Nadu 106. In India iron-ore deposits are found in Bailadila 107. In which state is canal irrigation highly used? Uttar Pradesh 108. When the basis of classification is according to location or place, the classification is called ……… classification. Geographical 109. Western ocean is the ancient name of the Atlantic ocean 110. Ring or horse shoe shaped coral reet are called Atoll 111. Land is a Renewable natural resource 112. Emerald Dam is located in Ooty 113. Heliocentric theory according to which sun is supposed to be fixed and the planets go around the sun was proposed by Copernicus 114. The growth rate of population in India as per 2001 census is 1.9% 115. The share of road transport in total transport of the country is 80% 116. Black soil are mostly found in which regions? Coimbatore, Erode, Madurai, Tirunelveli 117. Which district in Tamil Nadu is with largest forest? Salem 118...... lake is in Drissa. Chillks lake 119. The minimum distance between the sun and the earth occurs on January 3 120. On the day the sun is nearest to the earth, the earth Perihelion 121. The earth is at maximum distance from the sun on July 4 122. The rate of rotation of the earth on its axis is highest on It never changes 123...... statement does not prove the spherical shape of the earth? The shadow of the earth at the time of the solar eclipse is circular 124. What is the International Date Line? It is 180o longitude 125. What is the relationship between solar day and sidereal day? Solar day is longer than sidereal day 126. One Astronomical Unit is the average distance between Earth and the Sun 127. How much of the surface of the moon is visible from the earth? About 59% 128. What is the unit of measurement of the distances of stars from the earth? Light year 129. On the surface of the moon, the Mass remains constant and only the weight is lesser 130. Light from the nearest star reaches the earth in 4.3 years 131. Which comet appears every 76 years? Hailey’s 132. The moon’s period of revolution with reference to the sun is Equal to one synodic month 133. We always see the same face of the moon because It takes equal time for both revolution around the earth and rotation on its own axis 134. Bakre Nangal is ...... Multipurpose project on the river sutlej 135. What is a tidal bore? A high tidal wave moving upstream in the mouth of a river 136. Iron is obtained from ...... Harmatite 137...... will never get the vertical rays of the sun? Srinagar 138. The longest day in Australia will be on December 22 139. The difference in the duration of day and night increases as one moves from the ……… to the …….. Equator, poles 140. The sun shines vertically over the tropic of caner at the time of the winter solstice (True or False). The sun shines vertically over the Tropic of Cancer at the time of the winter solstice - wrong. 141. Which place will experience sunlight for the longest period in summer? Srinagar 142. The South Pole experiences continuous light at the time of Winter solstice 143. Nasik is ...... bank of river. Godavari 144. A person planning to travel by the shortest route should follow The longitudes 145. A day is added with one crosses 180o longitude from south to north. 146. The order of the layers in the atmosphere, upwards from below, is Troposhere, stratosphere, ionosphere and exo-sphere. 147. The most prominent gases in the atmosphere, in terms of volume, are Nitrogen and oxygen 148. Most of the weather phenomena take place in the Troposphere 149. Which layer of the atmosphere maintains an almost uniform horizontal temperature? Stratosphere 150. The thickness of the troposphere increases in Summer 151. Which gas in the atmosphere absorbs ultraviolet rays Ozone 152. Fall in air temperature with increasing elevation is known as Lapse rate 153. Where is the doldrums belt located? Near the equator 154. What is the name given to winds blowing from subtropical high pressure regions, to the equator? Tropical easterlies 155. ‘Horse latitudes’ is the tem applied to the 30o – 40o N and S latitudes 156. The stratosphere is said to be ideal for flying jet aircraft. This is because. Of the absence of clounds and other weather phenomena 157. Krishna sidder is associated ...... project. Telugu ganga project 158. The velocity of winds is governed by Pressure gradient 159. Over which region is the temperature the highest near the tropopause? Over the Arctic region 160. Bhakra nangal dam is ...... Highest dem in india 161. Eclipses don’t ocur on all full and new moon day (True or False) True 162. The moon rerolves round the earth in an elliptical orbit. (True or False) True 163. Name the instrument used for measuring humidity Hygrometer 164...... are not a planetary wind? Drainage winds 165. How much pressure is exerted by the atmosphere at sea level? One kg per sq.cm 166. The water content in the atmosphere Increase as temperature increase 167. What will happen if the temperature of water is lowered from 8oC to 3oC? The volume will first decrease, then increase 168. Which is the shortest route from Moscow to San Francisco? Over the North Pole 169...... is a great circle. Equator 170. In which region can the phenomenon of midnight sun be observed? In the Arctic and Antarctic regions 171. Farrel’s Law is concerned with the Direction of winds 172. Blizzards are characteristic of ……. Region. Antarctic 173. What is the importance of ozone in the atmosphere? It provides protection against uultraviolet radiation 174. Assertion (A) : Eclipses do not occur on all full moon and new moon day. Reason (R) : The moon revolves round the earth in an elliptical orbit. A and R are true and R correctly explains . 175. What is a cyclone? A low pressure system with anticlock-ise winds in the northern hemisphere. 176. Which one is an anticyclone? High pressure system with clockwise winds in the northern hemisphere 177. An upper air wind system with very high velocities in certain parts of the atmosphere is called Jest tream 178. What is a tornado? A very low pressure centre 179. Snowfall occurs when Dew point of air is below freezing point 180. The process of change of state of water from solid directly into vapour is called Sublimation 181. When humidity is expressed as a percentage, it is called Relative humidity 182. What is the vapour pressure? Pressure only due to vapour in the air 183. What is measured by the sling psychrometer? Humidity 184. What is stated in terms of grams of water vapour per kilogram f moist air? Specific humidity 185. Amount of water vapour (grams) in a given volume is ...... Absolute humidity 186. The temperature at which an air parcel will become saturated with the present amount of water vapour is called ...... Saturation point 187. What is meant by the term ‘cirrus’? A high cloud 188. What is fog? A low stratus cloud 189. Hail consists of Masses of ice with concentric layers 190. Rainfall caused of ice with concentric layers Orographic rain 191. The leeward side of a mountain which does not receive rain is known as the Rain-shadown area 192. Dew is caused with Humid air condenses on cool surface 193. Where is the famous Tuscarora Deep Located? Off Jpan 194. Which compound is the most abundant in sea water? Sodium chloride 195...... areas is salinity likely to be the highest Red Sea 196. What is Gulf Stream? A warm current in the Atlantic Ocean 197. One of the warm currents in the Indian Ocean is the Agulhas Current 198. What does the term ‘Lithosphere’ refer to? Crust of the earth 199. The term ‘nife’ refers to Core of the earth 200. The crustal layer of the earth is also called Sial 201. The theory suggesting that the continents of South America and Africa were once joined together was the Continental rift theory 202. Plains formed due to the filling up of lakes are called Lacustrine plains 203. Plains formed in limestone regions are called Karst plains 204. Plateaus situated in between plains and mountains are called Piedmont plateaus 205. The Red Sea is an example of a Fauleted structure 206. Metamorphic rocks originate from Both igeneous and sedimentary rocks 207. Rocks formed deep inside the earth as a result of solidification of lava are called Plutonic rocks 208. Which is an organic rock? Coal 209. The layers in soil are referred to as Horizons 210. Which of the pedogenic regimes is associated with hot dry climates? Calcification 211. With what type of climate is the peddogenic regime of podzolisation associated? humid temperate 212. Aravallis are ...... Oldest mountain of india 213. Laterisation occurs in Warm, humid areas 214. The peogenic regime with which the movement of salts to the upper layers of soils is associated (through capillary action) is Calcification 215. Which soil is most common is the Indo-Gangetic Plain? Alluvial 216. To which group does the black cotton soil of India belong? Chernozem 217. The term ‘epicentre’ is associated with Earthquakes 218. Lines joining places experiencing a thunderstorm at the same time are known as Isobronts 219. Isochrones are lines joining places with equal Travelling time from a point 220. Isohalines are the isopleths of Salinity 221. The other name for contour lines is Isohypse 222. Isobaths are used to show Depth 223. Isonif lines the isopleths of Snowfall 224. Isohels are the isopleths of Sunshine 225. What is meant by ‘willy-will’? Tropical cyclone near Australia 226. The rate of erosion in a steram is highest where Velocity is more 227. What is measured on the Richter scale? Earthquakes 228. The best way to define rock types will be Igneous-sedimentary –metamorphic 229. Census has taken every ...... years. Asia 230. Which continent has the highest density of population? Ten 231. As one moves from the equator to the poles along a meridian The variety of plants and animals decrease 232. To which group do most of the Indians belong? Caucasoid 233. Most of the people of the middle-east belong to the ...... group of people Mediterranean 234. Polynesians are beloved to be a subgroup of Mongoloids 235. What is the name given to nativeA merical Indians? Amerinds 236. One of the groups of people inhabiting theA siatic tundra is the Samoyed 237. The homeland of the yakuts is Russian tundra 238. Lapps inhabit European Tundra 239. The indigenous people living in the steppes of the Russia are the Kirghiz 240. Tea is ...... crop. Horticultural crop 241. Vedas - Nepal (True or False) False 242. Of which region is rice the most important crop? Tropical monsoon 243. The most important activity of the tundra region is Hunting 244. Which region is most famous for citrus fruits? Mediterranean regions 245. What is the most important crop of the temperature grasslands? Cereals 246. Which area is important for soft wood forests? Cold temperature regions 247. The largest producer of groundnuts is India 248. Which country is the largest producer of tobacco? China 249. The largest quantity of barley is produced in Russia 250. The largest producer of long staple cotton is USA 251. Which country has the largest cattle population? India 252. India is a leading producer of ...... Butter and ghee 253. The largest producer of fish in the world is ...... China 254. The largest producers of mutton are ...... New Zealand and Australia 255. The leading sulphur producing country in the world is ...... Mexico 256. Iron is obtained mostly from Haematite 257. The largest producer of mercury is Spain 258. Republic of Congo is one of the leading producers of Diamond 259. The leading producers of mica are India and USA 260. The leading producers of rock phosphate are USA and Russia 261. Which country is the leading producer of uranium? Canada 262. Which country is the leading producer of automobiles? USA 263. Which country is the leading producer of cement? USA 264. Which country manufactures the maximum number of loco moves? USA 265. Which countries are separated by the Durand Line? India and Afghanistan 266. The boundary between Germany and Poland is called the Hindenberg Line 267. Which countries are separated by the MacMachan Line? India and China 268. Which countries lie on either side of the Radiliffe Line? India and Pakistan 269. Which countries are joined by the Palk Strait? India and Sri Lanka 270. For what is Philadelphia well known? Locomotives 271. The boundary between North and South Korea is marked by the 38th parallel 272. What is Baku famous for? Petroleum industry 273. Leeds is well-known for Woolen textiles 274. Which country is known as the sugar bowl of the world? Cuba 275. In an oil well, what is the ascending order (from bottom) of oil water and gas? Water, oil, gas 276. Trees shed their leaves in winter season to ...... conserve heat 277. Cotton fibre is obtained from ...... Fruit 278. Duncan Pass is located between South and Little Andaman 279. World silk production has declined due to Competition from man-made fibres 280. The pacific Ring of Fire is associated with Volcanoes and earthquakes 281. Echo-sounding is the technique applied to Measure the depth of the sea 282. On which of the rivers is the famous Kariba Dam situated? Zambezi 283. The southern most limit of India (main land) is 8o4’ N latitude 284. The northernmost limit of India is 37o6’ N latitude 285. The length of India’s coastline is about 6,100 km 286. The total area of India is about 33 lakh sq km 287. India is the seventh largest country in the world. It occupies about ……. of world area. 2.4 per cent 288. Write any one of the states through which theT ropic of Cancer passes. Jharkhand 289. Write any one of the states not bisected by the Tropic of Cancer. Orissa 290. Where is the Gulf of Mannar located? East of Tamil nadu 291. India and its neighbouring countries are together called the India sub-continent because of the Region’s dominance of India 292. When were Indian states first organized on a linguistic basis? 1956 293...... has the oldest rocks in the country. The Aravallis 294. The rocks in the Himalayan system are mainly Sedimentary 295. The Siwaliks stretch between Potwar Basin and Teesta 296. The highest peak in Indian territory is K2. In which range is it located? Karakoram Range 297. The territorial waters of India extend up to 12 nautical miles 298. The total area covered by the Himalays is about 5,00.000 sq.km 299. Which states of India have a common border with Pakistan? Punjab, Jammu and Kashmir, Rajasthan, Gujarat 300. Which is the largest state of India Maharashtra 301...... is the smallest state of India? Sikkim 302. Where is the Maikal Range situated? Chhattisgarh 303...... rivers flows through a rift valley? Narmada 304. What is the most important characteristic of the islands (Indian) located in the Arabian Sea They are all of coral origin 305. Which area in India has an internal type drainage? Western Rajasthan 306. Which part of the islands in the Arabian Sea is known as Minicoy islands? Southern 307...... Dea sea is called ...... Salty sea in the world 308. Which river of India is called Tsangpo in of its reaches? Brahmaputra 309. Which one is not an important characteristic of the Himalayan rivers? They dot not form gorges 310. Which one of the tributaries of the Ganga system flows northwards? Son 311. Of which major river system does the Teesta form a part? Brahmaputra 312. Which river flows between the Satpuras and the Vindhyas? Narmada 313. Through which states does the river Chambal flow? UP, MP, Rajasthan 314. One river flowing towards the west is the Kaveri 315. Most rivers flowing west from the Western Ghats do not form deltas because of The high Gradient 316. Which river forms its delta in Orissa? Mahanadi 317. Where does the Sabarmati originate? The Aravallis 318. The Thar Desert is believed to be expanding. The most suitable way to check it would be by Afforestation 319. Which one is a land-located state? Bihar 320. Which area in India gets the summer monsoon first The Western Ghats 321...... areas is maximum precipitation received from the summer monsoon? The north-Eastern hilly region 322. Winter rains in north-western India are caused by ...... Westely depressions 323. One of the regions that receives rainfall from the north-easterly monsoon is ...... Tamil Nadu 324. During the period of the south-west monsoon, Tamil Nadu remains dry because It lies no mountains in this area 325. Rajasthan receives very little rain because The winds do not comes across any barrier to cause the necessary uplift to cool the air 326. The Aravallis fill to cause orographic precipitation in Rajasthan because They lie parallel to the direction of the winds 327. Which area of India receives the least rainfall? Laddakh 328. The monsoon starts retreating from India in Mid-September 329. When are temperatures the highest in southern India? April 330. Most of the precipitation in India is ……… in nature? Orographic 331...... favours the onset of south-west monsoon? Tropical jet 332. If the time of sunrise in Arunachal Pradesh is 6.00 am, what will be the probable time of sunrise in Saurashtra? 8.00 am 333. In which climatic region are Haryana and Punjab included? Steppe 334. Where can one expect dry winters in India? Bengal plain 335. Which lace receives the maximum solar energy in December? Chennai 336. The westerly disturbances causing winter rains in northern India originate in The Mediteerranean region 337. The climate around Bikaner can be described as Hot desert 338. The amount and intensity of monsoon rains in India are affected by i) Tropical depressions ii) Westerly disturbances iii) Wave cyclones iv) Relief cyclones v) Relief conditions i and iv 339. Which part of the country receives precipitation from the Bay of Bengal branch of the monsoon as well asA rabian Sea branch? The Punjab plains 340. Which are called the twin cities? Hyderabad and Secunderabad 341. The maximum daily range of temperature is likely Delhi 342. What is the major cause of ‘October heat’? High temperature associated with high humidity 343. Which soil swells when wet and develops cracks when dry? Black 344. Which soil owes its colour to oxides of iron? Laterite 345. Name the soil required least application of fertilizers as it gets renewed naturally. Alluvial 346. Which soil requires the least tilling? Black 347. The river Nile is ...... Longest river 348. What kind of soil predominates in the Sunderbans area? Alluvial 349. Mountains soil contains a lot of Coarse material 350...... is highest peak of Nilgiri Hills. Thottapetta 351. Which soul needs only little irrigation as it retains soil moisture? Black 352. Soil erosion in India occurs in almost all the ittoral states, but it is most serious along the coast of Kerala 353. Which state has very little are under alluvial soil? Madhya Pradesh 354. Most plantations of tea, coffee and temperature fruits are laid out on Mountain soil 355. One are in which peaty soil is found is Uttaranchal 356. North east monsoon rainfall is in ...... place. All these 357. An important cash crop of Punjab is Cotton 358. Which of the following are the major characteristics of intensive farming? Tamilnadu 359. Pameer is called ...... Roof of the world 360. What is the quality of basic slag, a byproduct of steel plants? it is potassic fertilizer 361. Which crop is specially prone to bacterial blights? Rice 362. Which crop is most susceptible to root knot? Tomato 363. To which disease is sugarcane especially prone? Red rot 364. The disease called ‘black arm’ affects Cotton 365. The disease, ‘green ear’, affects Bajra 366. Wheat crop is susceptible to ...... Rust 367. Which crop is affected by the disease called ‘blast’? Rice 368. Khaira is a plant disease caused due to deficiency of ...... Rice 369. Which crop is especially prone to the disease called smut? Bajra 370. Which plant is adversely affected by the pest stem borer? Rice 371. One of the pests of storage is ...... Khapra beetle 372. What percentage of the total number of Indian cattle belong to good breeds? About 25 373. About what percentage of the total cattle population of the world is accounted for by India? 20 374. Cattle belonging to the famous Gir breed are found mainly in Gujarat, Rajasthan and Maharashtra 375. What does the word murrah refer to A breed of buffalo 376. The Mehasna breed of buffalo is found mainly in Gujarat 377. Nilli is a breed of buffa’s found mainly in Punjab and Haryana 378. Surti is a breed of ...... Buffalo 379. Rabies affects Black quarts 380. Johns; disease affects Cattle 381. Which animals are prone to the disease called rinderpest? Cattle, buffaloes, sheep, goats and pigs 382. Where is the Forest Research Institute located? Dehradun 383. Which is an area of tropical evergreen forests? The Western Ghats 384. Where is sandalwood commonly found? Tropical deciduous forests 385. In which part of India are thron forests commonly found? Rajasthan and Gujarat 386. Where does teak grow most abundantly? Central India 387. In which area is the deodar tree commonly found? Alpine forests 388. What kind of vegetation is usually found in river estuaries? littoral forests 389. Which state has more than 90 percent of its area under forests? Arunachal Pradesh 390. Which state has the lowest area under forests? Haryana 391. Where is the greatest variety of flowers found? Uttarakhand 392. There are ……… species of birds in India More than 1,200 393. Why are plants grown along river banks? To reduce silting and erosion 394. What kind of soil treated with gypsum to make it suitable for cropping? Alkaline 395. What is the term used to describe cultivation on hill slopes with small patches of land in descending order? Contour farmind 396. What is meant by ‘reserved exclusively for grazing A forest reserved for commercial exploitation with restrictions on grazing 397. Where is the Bandipur National Park? Karnataka 398. Corbett National Park is in Uttarakhand 399. Which s known as the home of theA siatic lion? Gir National Park 400. Where is the wild ass sanctuary? Gujarat 401. Kaziranga wild life reserve is in Assam 402...... is the Manas Sanctuary in Assam known? Tiger 403. Which wild life reserve is known for the Great in Kaziranga 404. The famous Ghana Bird Sanctuary is located in Bharatpur 405. Which sanctuary in Kerala is known for elephants? Periyar 406. What is jhoom? A type of cultivation 407. Sugarcane cultivation in India is an example of erops Irrigated cultivation 408. One of the most prominent of farming in India is Bajra 409. The growing of crops one after the other successively to maintain soil fertility is called Crop rotation 410. The cultivation of rice in West Bengal is an example of Subsistence grain farming 411. Which crop required water-logging its cultivation? Rice 412. What kind of soil is ideal for rice cultivation? Clayey loams of the deltas 413. If rain falls only for two months, the crop best suited to the resulting conditions will be Pulses 414. Jaya is the name of a high yielding variety of Rice 415. What is the ideal temperature for the cultivation of wheat 15o to 20oC 416...... is the leading producer of wheat? Uttar Pradesh 417. Which state is the leading producer of maize Uttar Pradesh 418. Of which crop is Gujarat one of the chief producers? Bajra 419. How can the yield of maize be increased? By evolving high yielding varieties suitable to different areas of the country 420. Elevation is not very important. It is the factor of shade that is important in the case of ...... Coffee 421. In an area with annual rainfall of more than 200 and sloping sloping hills, which crop will be ideal Tea 422. Where are tea and coffee both grown? Southern India 423. The typical area of sal forests in the Indian penirsula occurs To the north-east of Godavari 424. Which state is the leading producer of coconut? Kerala 425. Sugarcane in Indian matures in about 7 months 426. From which part of the plant is jute obtained? Stem 427. From which part of the plant is coffee obtained? Seed 428. Which state produces the bulk of natural rubber produced in India? Kerala 429. The temperature needed for cultivation of rubber is About 35oC 430. Which state is called the ‘sugar bowl’ India? Uttar Pradesh 431. Which of the following are not grown in of the kharif season? Barley and mustard 432. The pepper plant is a Vine 433...... is not a reason for the high concentration of jute cultivation in the West Bengal region? Availability of capital 434. Which state is the leading producer of red chillies? Andhra Pradesh 435. The largest amount of saffron comes from Jammu and Kashmir 436. Which state is the leading producer of ginger? Kerala 437. Which state has the largest cattle population Madhya Pradesh 438. What is Operation Flood concerned with? Improving the availability of milk in the cities 439. Which state has the largest number of sheep and goats? Rajasthan 440. Which is one of the most important items of Indian exports among marine products? Shrimps 441. Th major resin-producing state is Himachal Pradesh 442. Irrigation is required in India because Of the uneven distribution of rainfall over time. 443. Which state in India has the largest area under irrigation in terms of total acreage? Uttar Pradesh 444. Which state irrigates largest percentage of land? Punjab 445. Which state has the largest area under tank irrigation? Tamil Nadu 446. Which state has the largest area under canal irrigation in terms of total acerage? Uttar Pradesh 447. Which state has the largest proportion of its net irrigated area under well irrigation? Gujarat 448. On which river is the Nagarjunasagar project located? Krishna 449. In which state is the Dhuvaran thermal power station located? Gujarat 450. One of the major aims of the Koyna project has been Hydroelectricity generation 451. Kothagudam thermal power project is located in Andhra Pradesh 452. Which states share the Tungabhadra multi-purpose project? Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka 453. From which river has the Rajasthan canal (India Gandhi canal) been taken out? Sutlej 454. In which state is the Neyvali thermal power station located? Tamil Nadu 455. Which river ha been harnessed under the Hirakud multipurpose project? Mahanadi 456. Matatilla multipurpose project is in Uttar Pradesh 457. In which state is the Jundah hydro-electric project located? Tamil Nadu 458. Where is kalpakkam? Tamil Nadu 459. Which state in India is the Major producer of antimony? Punjab 460. Which state is the leading producer of bauxite? Jharkhad 461. Coal producing states are ...... Jharkhand-West Bengal-Madhya Pradesh-Orissa 462. Which state is a major producer of copper? Rajasthan 463. Diamond mines are located in Madhya Pradesh 464. Copper-gold-iron-coal are connected with Khetri-Kolar-Koundremukh-Jharia 465. Aluminium usually occurs in the form of Bauxite 466. Where are iron ore mines located? Singhbhum, Bastar, Mayurbhaj, Keonjhar 467. The Silent Valley project has been abandoned due to The danger of ecological imbalance in the region. 468. In which state is Silent Valley located? Kerala 469. Which kind of power accounts for the largest share of power generation in India? Thermal 470. Which state is the leading producer of thorium? Kerala 471. One of the leading producers of lead is Rajasthan 472. Which state is the leading producer of sulphur? Tamil Nadu 473. What is Talcher important for? Heavy water plant 474. Where is the largest amount of manganese produced? Madhya Pradesh 475. In which state is lignite most abundantly found? Tamil Nadu 476. The main ore from which manganese is extracted in India is Pyrolusite 477. Which government agency is responsible for the mapping and exploration of minerals in India. Geological Survey of India 478. Who prepares the topographical maps of India? Survey of India 479. Towa - Gujarat (True or False) Tawa-Gujarat False 480. What is Koondankulum known for? Proposed nuclear power plant 481. The most important producer of tin in India is Bihar 482. India’s first cotton textile mill was established at West Bengal 483. Which item is the most important among the exports of Indian in terms of total value? Engineering goods 484. The largest number of cotton textile mills is in Tamil Nadu 485. Which industry provides jobs to the maximum number of people Cotton textile 486. Most iron and steel plants are located near coal fields. So that cost of transportation of coal is minimized 487. Which iron and steel plant has been located with out giving importance to the availability of coal? VSL, Bhadravati 488. What is true about sponge iron? Its production requires less coking coal 489. Which iron and steel plant has been established with German collaboration? HSL, Rourkela 490. Which two iron and steel plants have been established with Soviet collaboration? Bokaro and Bhilay 491. HSL, Durgapur, has been established with the help of UK 492. What has had the maximum influence on localization of the woolen textile industry in India Market factor 493. A major plant of Hindustan Machine Tools Ltd is in Prinjore 494. Where are the important plants of BHEL located? Bhopal, Hyderabad, Tiruchirapalli 495. Where are diesel locomotives manufactured? Varanasi 496. Where are the rail coaches made? Kapurthala and Perambur 497. The satellite launching centre of Indian Space Research Organization is in Sriharikota 498. Where is the National Physical Laboratory? New Delhi 499. National Ship Design and Research Centre is located at …………… Vishakhapatnam 500. Where are Ambassador located? Kolkata 501. For what state is Batanagar located? West Bengal 502. For what is Sindri known? Fertiliser plant 503. An important pesticides unit of the Hindustan Insecticides Ltd is located at Rasayani 504. The first paper mill of the country was started in ...... Sehrampore in West Bengal 505. Which state leads in the production of cement? Tamil Nadu 506. Which state is the leading producer of glass? Uttar Pradesh 507. Where is the Hindustan Antibiotics plant located? Rishikesh 508. A pharmaceutical plant of India is IDPL, Hyderabad 509. Name the public sector company manufacturing aluminum products NALCO, Angul 510. Which state is the leading producer of golden coloured muga silk? Assam 511. For what is Rupnarainpur known? Hindustan Cable factory 512. Where are MIG engines assembled? Koraput 513. Where was the first fertilizer plant in the public sector set up? Sindri 514. For what is Ozar known? MIG aircraft factory 515. Where is the oldest oil refinery of India? Digboi 516. What is Obra known for? Thermal power station 517...... can be called a non-conventional source of energy? Solar power 518. Which agency is engaged in the development and exploration of the sources of hydrocarbons? Oil and Natural Gas Commission 519. In which state is Tarapur located? Maharashtra 520. Which means of transport accounts for the largest proportion of passenger traffic in India. Railways 521. Where are the headquarters of the North-Eastern Railway? Gorakhpur 522. The headquarters of the South-Central Railways are at Secunderabad 523. How far apart are rails is a broad gauge line system? 1.676 m 524. What is Chandipur at Sea known for? Missile testing range 525. Which state has maximum length of roads? Maharashtra 526. Which is the correct classification of roads in India? national highways, state highways, village roads. 527. Which national highway (NH) connectsA gra and Mambai? NH3 528. Which places are connected by NH 1? Delhi and Amritsar via Ambala and Jalandhar 529. Which national highway connects Delhi and Kolkata via Mathura and Varanasi? NH2 530. How many public sector shipping companies are there in India? 1 531. How many ports are there in India? 12 major and about 135 minor ports 532. Which one is not a major port on the east coast? Kochi 533. Which one is not a major port on the west coast? Haldia 534. With what is ‘blue revolution’ associated? Fishing 535. Where is the CivilA viation Training Centre? Allahabad 536. Where is the Anna International airport located? Chennai 537. Where is the India Gandhi airport located? Delhi 538. The first postal of India was released in 1837. Where was it released? Karachi 539. When was the postal department set up in India? 1854 540. In which state has the petro-chemical industry developed most in India? Gujarat 541. How many PIN zones has India been divided into? 8 542. Where are teleprinters manufactured in India? Chennai 543. When an where was the first telephone exchange with automatic lines established? 1913, Shimla 544. When was the STD service started in India? 1960 545. Which cities were fires connected by the STD services? Kanpur and Lucknow 546. For what is Arvi known? OCS satellite earth station 547. Which artifical harbour is located on the east coast? Chennai 548. How much is the total population of India as per 2001 census? 102.7 crore 549. An important feature of the balance o India’s foreign trade is that It is usually negative 550. What is the most important item of Indian imports in terms of total value? Petroleum and petroleum products 551. The life expectancy in India is More in the case of females 552. Which area has the highest density of population among the states and the union territories? Delhi 553. Which state has the lowest density? Arunachal Pradesh 554. An area with density of less than 50 persons per sq. km is Mizoram 555. In which state do women outnumber men? Kerala 556. The percentage of literates in India is Higher among males 557. During which decade did the population record a negative growth-rate? 1911-21 558. In which area are Zoroastrians concentrated? Maharashtra 559. Where is a significant concentration of Christians found in India? Nagaland 560. In which group is more than 60 per cent of the total Christian population concentrated? Andhra Pradesh, Kerala, Tamil Nadu 561. Which is the group of languages spoken by the largest number of people in India? Indo-Aryan 562. To which group do the tribals of central and southern India belong? Proto-Australodis 563. Among the Mediterraneans are included the people of Punjab and Uttar Pradesh 564. Who are believed to be the oldest inhabitants of India? Negritos 565. Where are the Amgamis found? Nagaland 566. Where are the Todas found? Tamil nadu 567. Who are the Moplahs? Muslims of Kerala 568. Where do Birhors live? Jharkhand 569. How many villages exists in India? About 5.6 lakh 570. Which state has the largest number of urban units? Uttar Pradesh 571. Which state has the distinction of having no unit habited villages? Kerala 572. Which is not a pre-requisite for a place to be called a town as per the Census of India? Total population of more than 10,000 573. Which city has the largest population? Greater Mumbai 574. Assertion (A): On the equinoxes, the days and night are equal all over the globe Reason (R) : On these days the sun shines vertically over the equator and the circle of illumination passes through the poles. A and R are true and R explains A. 575. What proportion of the total population of the world lives in Asia? About 55 per cent 576. Which racial group has the largest number of members? Caucasoid 577. What is the most abundant element in sea water? Chlorine 578. Which is the westernmost limit of the Siwalik Hills? Potwar basin 579. Which part of the Himalayas has the maximum stretch from east to west? Nepal Himalayas 580. Which river rises in theA ravallis flows into the Gulf of Cambay? Sabarmati 581. What is the other name of the Cardamom Hills? Yelagiri Hills 582...... types of soils has surface accumulation of organic matter ? Peaty soil 583. Which crop requires a large amount of rainfall and no standing water? Tea 584. Anglo-Nubian is a breed of …. Goat 585. How much is the density of population (persons/sq.km) as per Census of India 2001? 324 586. The day Night are equal all over the globe when Equinoxes (True or False) True 587. Chota nagpur is ...... Mireral 588. Which is the most population city in UP as per the 2001 census ...... Kanpur 589...... areas is the literacy rate highest? Kerala 590. Which region has the distinction of having the lowest sex ratio in the country as per Census of India 2001? Haryana 591. Dry chillies is in ...... Andhra 592. The year 1854 is ...... Postal department set up in india 593...... is likely to have a time ahead of GMT? Baghdad 594. A dark plain on the moon is ...... Lunar sea 595. Karst plains are ...... Plains formed in limestone region 596. The name of the airport in Delhi is ...... Indira Gandhi airport 597. Tokyo is situated at longitude 140oE and Karachi is situated at longitude 70oE. Local time at Karachi will be 4 hours 40 minutes behind that of Tokyo 598. The standard time of a country differs from the GMT in multiples of Half hour 599. What is the relative position of the sun, moon, and the earth at the time of a solar eclipse? The sun and moon are in conjunction 600. What is the relative position of moon, earth, and the sun during a lunar eclipse? The sun and moon an equilateral triangle

D D D OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

1. My mother’s sister is my ...... a) Aunt b) Sister c) Cousin d) Grand mother 2. Daughter of ‘D’ is ‘E’ and father of ‘E’ is ‘F’, what is relation between ‘F’ and ‘D’? a) Uncle-niceb) Father-daughter c) Husband-wife d) Sister-brother 3. Match the following ...... List - A List B a) Uncle’s daughter 1. Mother b) Father’s wife 2. Sister c) Son’s brother 3. Son-in-law d) Wife’s brother 4. Son Codes : a) b) c) d) a) 3 4 1 2 b) 2 1 4 3 c) 1 3 2 4 d) 4 2 3 1 4. Rakesh have two sons and one daughter. Sons - Kapil and Monu Daughter - Rita Wife - Monika Monika’s brother is Ranject, who is Ranjeet of Rakesh? a) Brother b) Son-in-law c) Uncle d) Son 5. Parents buy ...... to their children a) Food b) Clothes and all necessary things c) A and B both d) All of these 6. Who cooks the food? a) Father b) Brother c) Mother d) Uncle 7. Where do children play? a) School b) Park c) House d) None of these 8. Where do children go on holiday? a) School b) Circus c) They live in house d) None of these 9. Some animals ...... a) Fly b) Some Swim c) Some hop or Crawl d) All of these 10. Some animals have ...... legs and some have. a) Two b) Four c) (A) and (B) both d) None of these 11. Match the following ..... List - I List - II a) Plants 1. Buffalo, Cow, Deer, Giraffe b) Flesh 2. Eagle, Vulture c) Seeds and Fruits 3. Rabbit, Rat, Squirrel d) Plants and Flesh 4. Dog, Bear Codes : a) b) c) d) a) 1 2 3 4 b) 4 3 2 1 c) 3 1 4 2 d) 2 4 1 3 12. Which of the following is excellent milk yielding cow? a) Sindhi red b) Sire breed c) Sahiwal d) All the above 13. Which of the following is both dairy breed and drought breed? a) Ship wal b) Siri c) Sindhi red d) None of these 14. Keeping honey bees in large scale is known as...... a) Seri culture b) Viticulture c) Apiculture d) Silviculture 15. Annual Plant/plants is /are ... a) Herbs b) Wheat c) Maize d) All of these 16. An example of binnial is ...... a) Wheat b) Carrot c) Maize d) None of these 17. The characteristics of a root is/are ..... a) It grows always toward gravity and moisture b) It grows from the radical of the embryo of seed c) It grows away from sunlight d) All of these 18. Which of the following is cereal Crop? a) Paddy b) Wheat c) Maize d) All the above 19. Which of the following is staple food? a) Potato b) Graphes c) Wheat d) All the above 20. Jaggery is a product of ...... a) Grapes b) Barley c) Mango d) Palm 21. Jute is obtained from which part of the Jute plant? a) Fruits b) Leaves c) Flowers d) Stem bark 22. Cotton is culticvated in which of the following soil? a) Laterite soil b) Loam soil c) Black soil d) Domat soil 23. Which part of cincona is used for malaria cure? a) Fruits b) Roots c) Bark d) Leaves 24. Bonsai plants are ...... a) Herbs b) Shrubs c) Artificially made dwarf plants d) None of the above 25. Green plants are ...... a) Herbivores b) Omnivores c) Carnivores d) Autotrophs 26. The name of the process by which green plants make their food is ...... a) Chemical combination b) Plantation c) Photosynthesis d) Symbiosis 27. The mode of butrition shown by mistletoe is ...... a) Parasitic b) Partial parasitic c) Saprophytic d) Symbiotic 28. Which part of the plant takes up carbon dioxide from the air for photosynthesis? a) Root hair b) Leaf Veins c) Stomata d) Sepals 29. Amarbal is an example of ...... a) Autotroph b) Parasite c) Saprotroph d) Host 30. The long-day plant is ...... a) Wheat b) Oat c) Tobacco d) Tomato 31. In germinating cereals amylase synthesis is stimulated by ...... a) Auxin b) Cytokinins c) Gibberellins d) Abscisic acid 32. An apple tree can be made to bear larger sizes fruit by ...... a) Dehydration b) Decapitation c) Thinning of blossom d) Defoliation 33. Root cap takes part in ...... a) Protection of root tip b) Control of geotropic movement c) Both (A) and (B) d) Absorption of nutrients 34. Terracing is done is ...... a) Desert b) Hilly areas c) Plains d) Dru areas 35. Soil fertility is reduced by ...... a) Intensive agriculture b) Crop rotation c) Decaying organic matter d) Nitrogen fixing bacteria 36. Mule is product of ...... a) Interspecific hybridization b) Intraspecific hybridization c) Breeding d) Mutation 37. Selection is a method of ...... a) Genetics b) Cytology c) Plant breeding d) Plant physiology 38. The best method to yield crop yield, e.g., wheat is ..... a) Sowing seeds of improved varieties b) Reduce ration holders c) Using tractors d) Eradication of weeds 39. ‘Safed Lerma’ is anew variety of ...... a) Bean b) Wheat c) Rice d) Cotton 40. Which of the following is/are insecticides used for killing boring type insects? a) Malathion b) Lindane c) Thiodan d) All of the above 41. River-valley system of irrigation is useful in ...... a) Western Ghats b) Karnataka c) Kerala d) All of the above 42. Cows and buffaloes live in ...... a) Stable b) Kennel c) Shed d) Aquarium 43. Dogs ive in a ...... a) Coop b) Shed c) Kennel d) Stable 44. Hens live in a ...... a) Trees b) Coop c) Stable d) Kennel 45. Fishes are kept in an ...... a) Tree b) Aquarium c) Cage d) Dens 46. Match the following ..... List - I (Animal List - II (Shelter) a) Horses 1. Trees b) Monkeys 2. Burrows c) Birds 3. Stable d) Rabbits 4. Cages Codes : a) b) c) d) a) 1 4 2 3 b) 3 1 4 2 c) 4 2 3 1 d) 2 3 1 4 47. Where do birds lay their eggs? a) In the nests b) In the house c) On the tree d) One the roof 48. Birds makes to build nests with ...... a) Leaves sticks b) Grass c) Cotton and even mud d) All of these 49. Match the following ...... List - I (Animals) List - II (Shelter) a) Snakes 1. Colonies b) Pigs 2. Nests c) Rats 3. Holes d) Birds 4. Sty 5. Holes Codes : a) b) c) d) a) 1 5 4 3 b) 3 2 1 4 c) 5 4 3 2 d) 4 3 2 1 50. Who makes simple nests by putting some twigs, small grass, leaves? a) Sparrow b) Pigeon c) Both (A) and (B) d) None of these 51. Whoc lives in the hollow of a tree? a) Pigeon b) Wood pecker c) Sparrow d) Owl 52. The soil with poorest water holding capacity is ...... a) Clay b) Loam c) Sandy d) None of the above 53. Xerophytic plants have ...... a) Extensive root system, small and thick leaves b) Extensive shoot system c) Profuse and large flowers d) Extensive air sspaces 54. Aquatic plants generally have a ...... a) Well developed vascular system b) Reduced vascular system c) Well developed root system d) Well developed stomatal system 55. Amount of water a soil canm hold against pull of gravity is called ...... a) Field capacity b) Gravitational water c) Storage water d) Hygroscopic water 56. Water holding capacity is maximum in case of ...... a) Clay b) Sand c) Slit d) Gravel 57. Out of the total percentage of water present as ground water is ...... a) 0.1% b) 0.3% c)) 0.5% d) 0.75% 58. Part of earth covered by water is about ...... a) 73% b) 50% c) 92% d) 87% 59. Water present in lakes, ponds and rivers is ...... a) 0.01% b) 0.02% c) 0.05% d) 0.1% 60. Of the total water evaporated from oceans, precipitation returns ...... a) 100% b) 90% c) 75% d) 50% 61. Water in filtraction will be slowest in ...... a) Black cotton soil b) Sandy soil c) Red soil d) Loam soil 62. Who is popularly known as ‘water man’? a) Rajendra Singh b) Gajendra Singh c) Louis Paster d) Tansley 63. Theory of biochemical origin of life propounded by ...... a) A.I. Oparin b) Schlieden and Shwan c) J.B.S. Haldane d) Both (A) and (C) 64. Which was absent in the atmosphere at the time of origin of life? a) NH3 b) H2 c) O2 d) CH4 65. English Scients who worked on origin of life and settled in India was ...... a) A.I.O. Oparin b) J.B.S. Haldane c) S.F.Fox d) Louis Pasteur 66. Gaseous mixture used by miller for synthesis of amino acid through heat and electric discharge included ...... a) CH4, NH3, H2 and water vapours b) CH4, NH3, N2 and water vapours c) Aminoacids, carbohydrates, nitrogenous bases d) NH3, CO2, NH2 and water vapours 67. Oparin’s theory is based on ...... a) Artificial synthesis b) Spontaneous generation c) God’s creation d) Biochemical origin 68. An example of land transport is ...... a) Bus b) Rail c) (A) and (B) both d) None of these 69. An example of air transport is ...... a) Plane b) Car c) Cycle d) None of these 70. An example of water transport is ...... a) Car b) Plane c) Ship d) None of these 71. These roads are mostly found in ...... a) U.S.A. Japan b) France c) Germany d) All of these 72. Our country is connected by roads to ...... a) Pakistan, Nepal b) Bangladesh, Myanmar c) Bhutan, China d) All of these 73. In Europe, the roads connect almost ...... a) Nepal b) China c) Pakistan d) All the countries 74. The Canadian Pacific Railway length is ...... a) 8,050 km b) 7,050 km c) 3,050 km d) 6,050 km 75. The Wright brothers of America, named Orvil wright andV ilbur Wright, successfully developed the first flying machine in ...... a) 1902 b) 1904 c) 1903 d) 1906 76. How many passengers can carry bigplane today? a) upto 850 b) upto 750 c) upto 650 d) upto 350 77. A state of the following in which interatomic space is least ...... a) Solid b) Liquid c) Gas d) None of these 78. Select the mixture from the following ...... a) Sugar b) Salt c) Honey d) Glucose 79. Which of the following is an element? a) Air b) Sea water c) Distilled d) Solution of sugar 80. Choose the wrong statement from the following ...... a) Matter does not possess mass b) Matter occupies space c) Matter is visible d) Matter resists the motion 81. Choose the matter from the following ...... a) Sound b) Light c) Temperature d) Air 82. Which of the following is not a matter? a) Glass b) Wood c) Milk d) Electricity 83. A substance which shows all the three states of matter ...... a) Water b) Wood c) Air d) Wax 84. Choose the element from the following ...... a) Diamond b) Salt c) Glass d) Corundum 85. A matter which sublimes ...... a) Mercury b) Sulphur c) Phosphorus d) Iodine 86. Temperature at which the vapour pressure of a substance is equal to atmospheric pressure is called ...... a) Absolute zero b) Freezing point c) Melting point d) Boiling point 87. Choose the mixture from the following ...... a) Sulphur b) Coal gas c) Gypsum d) Urea 88. Choose the element from the following ...... a) Neon b) Soap c) Well water d) Slaked lime 89. Choose the compound from the following ...... a) Petrol b) Bronze c) Gypsum d) Radium 90. A matter which cannot be decomposed further into more components than its own ..... a) Element b) Compound c) Mixture d) None of these 91. Scientist who discovered neutron is ...... a) Chadwick b) Rutherford c) Newton d) Dalton 92. Which of the following represents a proton? + + a) H b) H2 c) H d) H2 93. Element which has lowest atomic radius ...... a) Hydrogen b) Helium c) Carbon d) Lithium 94. Which of the following has mass equal to that of neutron? a) Electron b) Proton c) particle d) Beta-particle 95. Total number of unpaired electrons in the chlorine atom (z = 17) is ...... a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four 96. The number of electrons in the outer most shell of chlorine atom is ...... a) Two b) One c) Seven d) Eight 97. molecules of a gas have mass 0.16g. The mlecular weight of gas will be ...... a) 80 b) 16 c) 32 d) 96 98. The volume of one gram mole of a gas at STP will be ...... a) 1 litre b) 11.1 litre c) 22400 mL d) 2.24 litre 99. Scientist who discovered proton is ...... a) Chadwick b) Rutherford c) Goldstein d) Bohr 100. When a solid is directly converted into gas, the process is called ...... a) Distillation b) Sublimation c) Melting d) Boiling ECONOMICS

1. Nature and Scope of Economics 1. The author of Wealth Definition is - Adam Smith 2. Welfare definition of Economics was given by - Alfred Marshall 3. According to Lionel Robbins, an economic problem will arise when there is - Scarcity 4. The author of scarcity definition is - Lionel Robbins 5. The father of political economy is - Adams smith 6. In Greek ‘Polis’ means - State 7. Adams smith published his book in the year - 1776 8. Economics is a Positive and Normative science 9. Micro means - Small 10. Macro means - Large 11. Deductive method is also known as - Abstract method 12. Deductive method moves from General to specific application 13. In economics, we make use of - Deductive and inductive method 14. The concept of Net Economic Welfare has been given by - Samuleson 15. Green revolution helped in increasing productivity in - Agriculture sector 16. Production refers to - Creation of utility 17. The value of commodities and services produces by a country during in the year known as - National income 18. “Population increases at the faster rate than food supply” was given by - Malthus 19. Consumer enjoys wider choice in a - Socialist economy 20. The study related to Taxation, Public expenditure and Public debt is called - Public finance 21. The goods which satisfy human wants directly are called - Consumer goods 22. Economics is a Social Science which deals with human wants and their satisfaction. 23. “An Essay on the Nature and Significance of Economic Science” was given by - Lionel Robbins 24. The Socialist economy is also known as -C ommand economy 25. The Great Depression occurred in the year - 1929 26. The father of Socialism is - Karl Marx 27. Psychology is the science of - mind 28. The subject which is called ‘Science of Counting’ - Statistics 29. Free goods are the gifts of nature 30. Price system plays an very important role in the - Socialist economy 31. An example for the National market is - Sarees 32. Laws of economics are - Statement of tendencies 33. Politics is the Science of the States 34. Sociology is the science of society 35. The starting point of all economic activity in the word is the existence of - Human Wants 36. Land, Labour, Capital and Organization are combined to produce - Wealth 37. The title of the book written byA lfred Marshall is - Principles of Economics 38. According to Robbins, Economics is a - Positive Science

Fill in the blanks 39. Political economy is another name for Economics 40. Human wants are - Unlimited 41. Economics is the science of choice 42. Samuelson is the authour of growth definition of Economics 43. In Economics Wealth refers to those scarce goods which satisfy our wants and which have money value 44. Adam Smith’s book “Wealth of Nations” was published in the year - 1776 45. Material Welfare definition was given by - Marshall 46. Material’s definition is considered as an improvement over the definition of - Adams Smith 47. According to Lionel Robbins, ends means - wants 48. Robbins definition is also known as Scarcity definition 49. Samuelson’s definition is known as Modern or Growth definition 50. The concept of Net Economic Welfare has become\me very important in the study of National Income 51. Wants are Unlimited but ,means are limited 52. Ruskin and Carlyle called Economics Dismal Science 53. Black money is Unaccounted money 54. When a want is satisfied, the process is known as Consumption 55. Exchange is the link between consumption and production 56. Positive science is concerned with - what is? 57. Normative science is concerned with - what ought to be? 58. A new and normative branch of economics is -E conometrics 59. Planning Commission is an agency of the Government 60. Macro Economics is sometimes studied under the title Income and Employment analysis 61. History is a record of past events 62. Economics without history has no - root 63. History without economics has no - fruit 64. Ethics is a - social science 65. Ethics deals with moral question 66. The aim of economics according to Marshall is promotion of material welfare 67. Jurisprudence is the science of law 68. Statistics is the science of averages 69. Statistics is the science of counting 70. Socialism was born of economic inequalities and exploitation in England during - Industrial revolution 71. The economic system as a whole is studied in M acro Economics 72. Air and Sunshine are free goods 73. Laws of return come under Production theory 74. The theory that tells population increases at the faster rate than food supply is known as - Malthusian theory of Population 75. The method which moves from scientific observation to generalization is known as - Inductive 76. Francis Bacon advocated Inductive method 77. When value is expressed in money, it is called - Price Answer in one word 78. What is the other name for Economics? - Political economy 79. What are the subjects that Econometrics make use of? - Statistics, mathematics, economics 80. What is the method that Ricardo made use for? - Deductive method 81. Give two examples for free goods - Air , Sunshine 82. What is the other name for money income? -N ominal income 83. What is the author of ‘Wealth of Nations’? - Adam Smith 84. Who wrote the book ‘Principles of Economics’? - Alfred Marshall 85. When was ‘Wealth of Nations’ published? - 1776 86. Who gave the mordern definition of economics? - Paul A. Samuelson 87. Who defined economics as ‘Practical science of production and distribution of Wealth’? - J.S Mill 88. Who called economics a dismal science? - Ruskin and Carlye 89. What is the other name for a capitalist economy? - market economy 90. What was described as ‘the poverty in the midst of plenty’? - Great depression 91. Who coined the concept of Net Economic Welfare? - Samuelson 92. What is the other name for deductive method? - abstract/ analytical method 93. What is the other name for ‘Price adjusted money income’? - Real income 94. Which economist brought about economic recovery of Germany after World War ? — Ludwig Erhard 95. Who influenced economic policies ofA merican Economy during 1930s? - J.M.Keynes 2.Basic Economic Problems 96. All societies must solve the basic issues –what to produce, how to produce and for whom to produce - All the three 97. The basic economic problem are common to - All the above 98. Traditional economy is a - subsistence economy 99. The basic force that derives the capitalist economy is - Profit- motive 100. The capitalist economy is also called as - Market economy 101. The market forces are Supply, Demand and Price 102. The right to property exists largely in - Capitalism 103. Non-interference of the state is a characteristic features of the - Capitalist economy 104. Free market mechanism is the centre of all economic activities under - market economy 105. Inequality leads to - monopoly 106. Fire and Hire policy has become the order of the day for the - Capitalists 107. All decision regarding production and distribution are taken by the - Central planning authority under socialism 108. Social welfare and equal opportunity is given to all by the - Socialist economy 109. The most successful socialist economics today are - China and Cuba 110. Collective welfare id the prime motive of - Command economy 111.In socialist economy, the means of production are owned and operated by - State 112. Socialist economy I s free from business fluctuations 113. Under Socialistic society the state concentrated on the production of basic necessaries instead of luxury goods. 114. Extreme inequality is prevented in - Socialism 115. Human development is more in Socialist country 116. Co-existence of public and private sectors is called mixed economy 117. Mixed economy is expected to retain only the merits of - Socialism and capitalism 118. In mixed economy, the prices of goods which are scarce are administrated by the - Government 119. Mixed economy ensures the efficient utilization of resources 120. Redtapism and corruption leads to - Inefficiency of production 121. Opportunity cost is the cost of something in terms of an opportunity - foregone 122. Our Choice is always constrained or limited by the scarcity of our resources

Fill in the blanks 123. Economics is the science of making choice under conditions of - scarcity 124. Economic system refers to how the different economic elements will solve the central problems 125. In a traditional economy, basic problem are solved byC ustoms and traditions 126. A traditional economy is a subsistence economy 127. A traditional economy produces exactly to its consumption requirement 128. Most of the economic activities are centered on Price mechanism under capitalism 129. Capitalist economy is called free trade economy / market economy 130. Profit motive is the basic force that derives the market economy 131. Under market economy consumers have the freedom to buy anything they want 132. The shortages and surpluses in the capitalist economy are generally adjusted by the force of demand and supply 133. Capitalism derives the producers to innovate something new to boost the sales 134. Capitalism creates extreme inequalities in income and wealth 135. In capitalism, the rich exploits the poor 136. Under capitalism, over-production leads to glut in the market which leads to depression 137. Capitalism encourages mechanization and automation 138. Under capitalism, private enterprises produce luxury goods but ignore basic goods 139. Most of the vital human issues will be ignored inc apitalism 140. In a socialist economy, the means of production are owned and operated by - Government 141. Socialist economy is also called - planned /command economy 142. Today, some of the most successful socialist economies are - China, Cuba, Vietnam and North Korea 143. In command economies, the decision will be taken keeping the maximum welfare of the people in mind 144. Under socialism, all properties of the country will be owned by the State 145. In socialist economies, most of the economic policy decisions will be taken by a Centralized planning authority 146. The prime motive of the socialist economy is Social or collective welfare 147. Under socialism, production is increased by avoiding Wastes of competition 148. Command economy is free from business fluctuations 149. The socialist state concentrated on the production of basic necessaries instead of luxury goods 150. In socialism, the elements of corporation and monopoly are eliminated 151. Under command economy, the consumer’s choice is very limited 152. Under socialism, everything is rigid and technological changes are limited 153. Under mixed economy, the economic control is exercised by public and private sector 154. While the public sector will have social welfare as the prime motive, the private sector will function with the profit motive under mixed economy 155. The opportunity cost is one of the key differences between the concept of economic cost and accounting cost 156. The production possibility curve is also known as - transformation cure of production frontier 157. All possible combination lying on the Production possibility curve shows the combinations of two goods that can be produced by the existing resources

Answer the one word 158. What is the other name for tradional economy? Subsistence economy 159. What is the other name for capitalist economy? Market economy/Free trade economy 160. What is the basic force that derives capitalism?P rofit-motive 161. How are basic problem solved in traditional economy? traditions and customs 162. What is the result of over-population? depression 163. What kind of production techniques are followed in subsistence economy? traditional 164. What type of economy encourages mechanization and automation? capitalism 165. Name any two successful socialist economies? China and Cube 166. In which economy private property is limited? Socialist 167. Which economic system is free from business fluctuation? Socialist economy 168. In which economy the state owns all the means of production in a country? Socialist 169. Who provides job under command economy? State 170. Who decides what, how and for whom to produce under socialist economy? State 171. Is India a mixed economy or capitalist economy? Mixed economy 172. Is there planning in the mixed economy? Yes 173. Who controls the private sector under mixed economy?S tate 174. Why does the state control the private sector under mixed economy? Public welfare 175. What is the prime motive of mixed economy? Social welfare 176. What type of economy experiences fluctuations? Capitalist economy 177. Give a suitable example for mixed economy. India Consumer Behaviour

178. Using up of goods and services in the satisfaction of human wants means Consumption 179. Wants vary with All the above 180. A want can be satisfy by two or more goods Complementary 181. Necessaries are those which are essential for living 182. Martshallian utility analysis is known as Cardinal 183. Necessaries, comforts and luxuries are Classification of intermediate goods and services 184. Thoise goods and services which are not essential for living but which are required for happy living are called Comforts 185. Utility is a Subjective/Psychological concept 186. MU is 187. When marginal utility reaches zero, total utility Reaches maximum 188. When total utility increases at a diminishing rate, marginal utility declines 189. Law of diminishing marginal utility law is known as Gossen’s First law 190. Single commodity consumption mode is the basis of Law of diminishing marginal utility 190. Consumer surplus is Potential price –A ctual price 191. Indifference curve analysis assumes that the consumers af ixed amount of money to spend on the two 192. To understand the extent of purchase of the goods with the given prices and incomes of the consumer, Supply line 193. The existence of Human wants is the basis of all economic activities in a society 194. All desires, tastes and motives of human beings are called wants 195. Consumption means using up of gods and services in the satisfaction of human wants 196. Wants may be both Competitive and Complementary 197. wants may rise due to advertisement , customs and habbits 198. Human wants are Unlimited 199. The alternative goods are known as substitutes 200. Wants are not static in character 201. utility is defined as the power od a commodity or a service to satisfy human wants 202. Utility depends on the consumer and his need of the commodity 203. Total utility refers to the sum of utilities of all units of a commodity consumed 204. Marginal utility refers to the addition made to the total utility by consuming one more unit of commodity 205. 206. When marginal utility decreases , the total utility increases at a diminishing rate 207. Alfred Marshall assumed that marginal utility of money remains constant 208. When total utility starts falling its corresponding marginal utility becomes negative 209. Marginal utility falls to zero, when total utility isM aximum 210. Marshallian utility approach is cardinal analysis 211. The law of equi-marginal utility can be said as the principle of proportionality between Price and marginal utility 212. Consumer surplus is useful to the Finance Minister in formulating Taxation polices 213. According to J.R.Hicks and Allen ,Utility can only be ranked 214. Higher indifference- curve represents higher level of satisfaction 215. An indifference curve is otherwise called iso-utility curve 216. Indifference curve is based on diminishing marginal rate of satisfaction 217. An indifference curve is convex to the origin 218. The concept of Scale of preference has been explained by indifference curve 219. Utility is a subjective/ psychological phenomenon 220. Indifference map is a group of indifference curve for two commodities showing different level of satisfactions 221. consumer is rational 222. Consumer’s surplus = Total utility of a commodities- Total amount spent on the commodities 223. The appraoch that measures the amount of satisfaction is Cardinal utility approach 224. Indifference curve approach uses the idea of comparable utility which is called Ordinal utility 225. The sum of satisfaction is called Total utility 226. When a commodity is consumed more and more, itsM arginal utility decreases. 227. The law of marginal utility is also known as Gossen’s First Law 228. Law of Demand is the result of the Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility 229. As utility falls, the consumer is willing to pay a lower price 230. As more and more money is added to a person’s income, the marginal utility of money begins to fall 231. The law of DMU is the handy tool for the Finance Minister to increases the tax on the rich 232. The law of single commodity consumptions based on a Diminishing Marginal Utility mode 233. The law of Equi-Marginal Utility is called Gosses’s Second law 234. 235. With the advertisement of civilization wants have become Unlimited and Complex 236. Since the resources are scarce man has to choose between wants 237. Man is the bundle of desires 238. Some wants are Complementary 239. Air and Sunshines are free goods 240. Wants are recurring in nature 241. Wants become habits 242. Food, Clothing shelter are necessaries 243. Goods that show higher status in life are luxuries 244. Sofa –cum-bed is an example of comforts 245. The two approaches to study the consumer equilibrium are Utility approach and Indifference curve approach 246. Marshall is the chief exponent of Utility approach 247. J.R.Hicks and R.G.D. Allen introduced the Indifference curve approach 248. According to K.E.Boulding, Indefinite budget period is the another difficulty of law of Equi-Marginal Utility 249. According to Marshall, a prudent person will distribute his earnings in which a way that the MU of the last rupee put in savings is equal to the MUof the last rupee spent on consumption 250. In general theory of distribution, the principle ofs ubstitution is involved to the greater extent 251. The principle of Maximum Social Advantage was enunciated by Dalton 252. Consumer’s surplus was first mentioned by J.A.Dupuit 253. Consumer’s surplus = Potential Price minusA ctual Price

Answer in one word 254. What are the types of wants? Necessaries, comforts, luxuries 255. Which commodities are essential for living? Necessaries 256. Give an examples of human wants which changes into Habits? Drinking coffee and tea 257. What is Utility? Utility means “Usefulness” 258. Give two examples for necessaries? Food and clothing 259. Give two examples for comforts? T.V, Sofa Bed 260. Give two examples for luxuries? Diamond and jewels 261. What is the other name for Marshallian approach? Cardinal approach 262. What is the other name law of Equi-marginal utility? Gossen’s second law 263. What happens to marginal utility when total utility declines? Becomes negative 264. Can a single want be satisfied are not? Yes 265. Who developed cardinal utility method? Marshall 266. Who developed ordinal utility method? J.R.Hicks 267. Who said utility can be measured quantitatively? Marshall 268. Who strongly opposed utility is measurable? J.R.Hicks 269. Who introduce the concept of consumer’s surplus? J.A. Dupuit 270. What is the indifference curve? Locus of different combinations of two commodities 271. What id the indifference map? A group of indifference curve 272. What is the other name of Budget Line? Price –ratio line 273. Give two examples for consumer’s surplus? Salt, Newspaper 274. What is the term of using up of goods and services to satisfy human wants? Consumption 275. Write any two characteristics of human wants? Unlimited and satiable 276. How are the alternative goods called? Substitutes 277. Give an examples for alternative goods? Tea and coffee 278. When two or more goods are required to satisfy a want, what is the nature of want called? Complementary goods 279. Give examples for competitive wants? Tea and Coffee 280. How does the firm increases its demand for its product? Advertisement /selling cost 281. If particular want is satisfied repeatedly by a commodity, how it is called? Habit 282. If goods are used to show off one’s higher status, how is it called? Luxuries 283. What does the sum of utilities of all unit of a commodity consumed refer to? Total utility 284. What is the name for addition made to the total utility by consuming one more unit of a commodity? Marginal Utility 285. How will you derive MU? MUn = TUn-TUn-1 286. When MU reaches zero, what is the level of TU? Reaches maximum 287. Name two economists who contributed initially for the development of Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility Gossen and Bentham 288. When the marginal utility becomes negative, what will happen to total utility? Diminishes 289. What is the fundamental basis for various economics laws? The law of Diminishing Marginal Utility 290. Who assumed that marginal utility of money remains constant? Alfred Marshall 291. Which law guides the consumers? Law of DMU 292. What is the basis of law of DMU? Single commodity consumption 293. Show the consumer’s equilibrium in Law of Equi-Marginal utility y an equation. MUx/Px = MUy/Py = Mum) 294. Who enunciated the principle of ‘Maximum SocialA dvantage? Dalton 295. What is the surplus satisfaction otherwise called?C onsumer’s surplus 296. In which utility analysis, utility of a commodity is measured in money terms? Cardinal utility 297. How is consumer ’s surplus measured? Consumer ’s surplus=Potential Price – Actual price 298. When more and more units of a commodity are purchased, what happens to marginal utility? declines

4. Demand and Supply 299. The demand for a commodity depends on all the above 300. The demand for a commodity refers to the desire backed by ability to pay and willingness to buy 301. Law of demand establishes inverse relationship between price and quantity demanded 302. The demand curve slopes downward mainly due to the Law of diminishing marginal utility 303. A demand schedule for a market can be constructed by adding up demand schedules of the individual consumers. 304. Sir Robert Giffen found that the poor people will demand more of inferior goods if their prices rise and demand less if their prices fall. 305. The movement on or along the given demand curve is known as Extension and contraction of demand 306. Increase and decrease in demand is shown by Shifts in the demand curve 307. Demand for a commodity may change due to All the above 308. The demand for substitutes moves in the Opposite 309. When the number of consumers increase, there will beG reater demand for goods. 310. A consumer may buy a larger quantity of goods in the present if he expects Price rise in future 311. The degree of responsiveness of quantity demanded to a change in price is called Price elasticity of demand 312. The concept of elasticity of demand was introduced byA lfred Marshall

313. Formula for calculating price elasticity of demand is ep = D Q / Q D P / P

314. The degree of responsiveness of demand to the change in income is known as Income elasticity 315. Cross-elasticity of demand is the responsiveness of demand to changes in the prices of Related goods. 316. Price discrimination is possible if the product has Different elasticities indifferent markets. 317. The method used to measure price elasticity of demand at a point on the demand curve is known as Point method 318. Measurement of elasticity through a change in expenditure on commodities due to change in price is called Total outlay method 319. The segment f a demand curve between two points is called Arc 320. If tax is increased on goods having inelastic demand, the Government’s revenue from that tax will increase 321. The terms of trade will be favourable to a country if its exports enjoy inelastic demand. 322. The efforts of trade unions to raise wages will be successful if the demand for workers is inelastic 333. Law of supply establishes Direct relationship 334. The lateral summation of the individual supply curves of all the producers in the market is known as Market supply 335. When a few units are supplied at a lower price it is called Contraction in supply 336. If the quantity supplied changes by a smaller percentage than price then it is known as Relatively inelastic supply 337. If the coefficient of elasticity is equal to zero it represents Perfectly inelastic supply. 338. Factors determining supply are All the above

Fill in the blanks 339. A desire baked by the ability to pay and willingness to buy is called Demand 340. A desire baked by the purchasing power is Demand 341. Demand of the commodity mainly depends on the Price of the commodity 342. The law of demand states theI nverse or negative relationship between price and quantity demanded 343. The amount demanded is increases with a fall in price 344. The amount demanded diminishes with rise in price 345. According to Ferguson the quantity demanded varies inversely with price 346. People will buy less at a higher price and buy more at a lower price 347. The tabular statement showing how much of a commodity is demanded at different prices is Demand schedule 348. The demand curve slopes downwards mainly due to Law of diminishing marginal utility 349. Adding up of individual consumers schedule is Market demand schedule 350. In expectation to the law of demand , people will buy more at higher price and less will be demanded at lower prices 351. The demand curve of certain exceptional cases slopeu pwards 352. The upward slopping demand curve shows the positive relationship between price and quantity demanded 353. Goods that are demanded for their social prestige come under Veblen effect 354. The demand for diamond is a good example of Veblen effect 355. Ragi and Cholam are good example for inferior goods

356. The poor people will demand more of inferior goods 357. Giffen paradox was prepounded by Sir Robert Giffen 358. When changes is demande for the commodity is entirely due to the change in its price, is called Contraction or extension of demand 359. Demand curve shifts due to the operation of non-price factor 360. When income of the consumer increases, there will be more demand 361. Tea and coffee are substitutes 362. The demand for substitudes move in the Opposite direction 363. When the number of the consumer increases , there will Greater demand for goods 364. The concept of elasticity of demand was introduced byA lfred Marshall 365. The price elasticity of demand measures the degree of responsiveness of Demand to change in price 366. If price elasticity of demand is calculated at a point on the linear demand curve, it is called as the point of method 367. Segment of the demand curve between two points is called ans Arc 368. Income elasticity ions the degree of responsiveness of demand to change in income 369. Under cross elasticity , the relationship between the goods X and Y may be substitudes or complementary 370. Price discriminations possible due to different Price elasticites 371. Poverty in the midst of plenty is operated in Agriculture 372. Supply means goods offered for sale at a price 373. Law of supply established a direct relationship between price and supply 374. Supply schedule is the statement of the various prices and quantities supplied 375. Market supply schedule can be derived from the Individual supply schedule 376. When more units are supplied at a higher price, it is called Expansion of supply 377. When fewer goods are supplied at a lower price , it is called Contraction in supply 378. The increase or decrease in supply causes Shift in the supply curve 379. Apart of the cost of the commodity which is borne by the Government ifs known as Subsidy 380. Elasicity of supply explains the rate of change in supply for a change in price 381 If the value of elasticity of supply is greater than one , it is called relatively elastic supply 382. If the quantity supply changes by a smaller percentage than price change it is relatively inelatic supply 383. If the coefficient of elasticity is zero , the supply is Perfectly inelastic 384. Write the demand function 385. What type of relationship exist between price and quantity demanded ? Inverse 386. What type of relationship exist between price and quantity demanded in the case of expectation to the law of demand Positive relationship 387. Why does the demand curve slopes downwards? Due to law of diminishing utility 388. Why does the rich people demand more of highly price goods? Veblen effect or for their social effect 389. Who propounded that poor people will demand more of inferior goods if price rises? Sir Robert Giffen 390. How does the demand change during boom? Demand increases 391. How does the demand change during depression? Demand decreases 392. Give examples for close substitudes? Tea and coffee 393. Who introduced the concept of elasticity of demand ?Alfred Marshall 394. What is the formula for measuring price elasticity of demand? 395. What is the formula for measuring price elasticity of demand by percentage method? 396. Give the formula for point method? 397. Give the formula for Arc method? 398. What is the name for the degree of responsiveness of demand to change in income? Income elasticity 399. Give formula for cross-elasticity of demand? 400. Give examples for complementary goods? Pen and ink 401. When will the terms of trade be favourable to a country? Its export enjkoys inelastic Demand 402. What will be the nature of demand for labour for a trade union to raise wages? Inelastic demand 403. What type of relationship exists between price and quantity supplied? Positive Relationship 404. What is the basis to draw the supply curve? Supply schedule 405. What is the nature of the slope of supply curve? Positive slope 406. How can we get market supply schedule ? Summation of the individual supply schedules 407. What do you call increase or decrease in supply , while price remains constant? Shifts in supply curve 408. When a tac is imposed omn acommodity , what willl happen to the supply? Decreases 409. If subsides are given to the producer, what will happens to supply? Increases 410. Give an example for non economic facto which causes scarcity in the supply of goods? War 411. Write a formula for elasticity of supply? 412. How many types of elasticity of supply are there? Five Equilllibrium Price 413. At the point of equilibrium Quantity demanded = Quantity supplied 414. Equilibrium price occurs At the point of intersection of the supply curve and the demand curve 415. Above the equilibrium price S > D 416. D > S Excess of demand 417. S > D Excess supply 418. The major determinant of supply is Price 419. Changes in quantity demanded occur All the above 420. The time element of Price analysis was introduced by A lfred Marshall 421. Supply is more or less fixed in the Market period 422. In the long period Both variable and fixed factors change 423. The major determinant of supply is Price 424. In economics, equilibrium normally refers to the equilibrium in a Market 425. Agriculture, Industry, growth and distribution are the Sub – systems of the economy 426. When a price is high , buyers prefer to reduce the Purchase 427. Equilibrium in general is defined as the State of rest 428. When there is excess supply , price has a Downward tendency 429. When there is excess demand , price has an Upward tendency 430. At Equilibrium price, there is no tendency to change the price or quantity 431. Time element plays an important role in economics 432. modern Economists divide the period into Short period and Long period 433. The two types of inputs are Fixed input and Variable input When a price is high , buyers prefer to reduce the Purchase 434. The concept of time element in market s was introduced by Alfred Marshall 435. The supply curve in the market period is a Vertical Line 436. Supply is a fixed in the market period 437. Market period supply curve is inelastic 438. In the long period, supply can be Changed

Answer in one word 439. What does equilibrium refers to? Pair of price and quantity 440. What is equilibrium in general? State of rest 441. The relationship between price and quantity supplied is represented by what? Supply curve 442. Who introduced the time Element ?Alfred Marshall 443. Give two types of inputs ? Fixed inputs , Variable inputs 444. Give an example for fixed inputs ? Heavy machinery 445. Give an example for variable input? Labour 446. What is the nature of elasticity of market period supply curve? Inelastic 447. What is S? Long period supply curve 448. What is the nature of the supply in the market period? Fixed

6. Production

449. Production refers to Creation of utility 450. There are Four kinds of utility created in production and redistribution of goods and services. 451. The processing of paddy into rice, wheat into flour and butter into ghee is the example of Form utility 452. Possession Utility is created due to transfer of ownership from one person to another person. 453. Agricultural commodities like paddy, wheat, oilseeds, pulses are stored fro the regular uses of consumers through out the year. It is Time utility 454. Human activity can be broadly divided into Production and consumption 455. The derived factors combined with the primary factors of production raise Total production 456. Land refers to all the natural resources or gifts of Nature. 457. The initial supply price of land is Zero 458. Labour cannot be separated from labourer 459. Labour also covers highly qualified all the above 460. A garment export firm stitches more than 100 shirts a day. It is the result of division of labour 461. capital refers to the man-made physical goods used to produce other goods and services. 462. The various forms of physical capital are all the above communications 463. Reward paid to capital is Interest 464. Capital refers to that part of man-made wealth which is used for further production of wealth 465. There is wear and tear or depreciation for Physical capital 466. A household saves its income in the form of all the above 467. The quality of human capital can be improved through investments in Education, training and health 468. The factor that has got highest mobility is capital 469. Capital lasts over time. 470. Capital involves present sacrifice to get future benefits. 471. The different factors are combined in the right proportion by the entrepreneur 472. A person who al the above is an entrepreneur. 473. In order to gain profit, an entrepreneur should possess Risk- taking skill, managerial and organizational skills 474. The foremost function of an entrepreneur is to Identifying profitable, investible opportunities. 475. The nature of the product and the level of competition the market decides the Size of the plant 476. Proper location of the production unit results in all the above 477. The changing agent of the society is called organizer 478. The factors used in production have to be rewarded on the basis of their productivity 479. According to Knight one of the important functions of entrepreneur is uncertainty-bearing 480. A successful entrepreneur is one who is ready to accept innovations 481. A prudent entrepreneur Accepts known risks 482. The functional relationship between inputs and outputs is called as production function

483. the production function is given as Q = f(X1, X2, X3, …. Xn) 484. The short-run production function is studied throughT he law of variable proportion 485. The long-run production function is explained by Returns to scale 486. If all the inputs are increased by 5% the output increases by more than 5%, it is called as Increasing returns to scale 487. To understand different combinations of two or more factors to produce the given level of outputI soquant analysis is helpful. 488. Iso-product curve represent different combination of two factors that yield the same level output. 489. Isoquant or isoproduct curve is also known as equal product curve 490. An iso-quant curve is convex to the origin because of Marginal rate of technical substitution 491. iso-cost line is defined as locus of points representing various combinations of two factors which the firm can buy with a given outlay

Price of factor X 492. Slope of iso-cost line is Price of factor Y 493. Cobb Douglas production function explains Constant returns to scale 494. Internal economics are enjoyed by the single firm independently of the other firms 495. External economies are outside the firm 496. Too much concentration and localization of industries will create Internal economies in production 497. Beyond the optimum point , the difficulty of management arises; it will increase th e averages cost of production. This is known as Internal diseconomies 498. The economies that arise due to large firm producing many products Economies of survival Fill in the blanks 499. Production is the creation of goods which have exchange value 500. Human activities can be broadly divided into two Components: Production and Consumption 501. Collectively the inputs are called Factors of production 502. The thought process to produce goods and services is called Organisation 503. Factors of production are classified intoP rimary and Derived 504. Land and Labour are primary factors 505. Capital and organisation are derived from primary factors 506. Land refers to all natural resources of giftsof nature 507. Land includes all things that re not man -made 508. Land is fixed/inelastic in supply 509. Land isimmobile 510. land refers in fertility and situation 511. Land is a Passive factor 512. The initial supply Price for land is zero 513. The scarcity of land fetches Price or rent accordingly 514. Labour is the Human input into the production 515. According to Marshall , Labour is use / exertion 516. Labour is perishable 517. Labour is not homogeneous 518. Labour cannot be Seperated from the labourer 519. Labour is mobile 520. Individual labourer has Limited bargainig power 521. The concept of ‘Division of labour’ was introduced by Adam Smith 522. Division of labour means dividing the process of production into distinct and several component process 523. Division of labour is limited by extent of market 524. Repetition of same tas, makes the work monotonous 525. Capital refers to man-made 526. In common language Money is regarded as capital 527. All wealth is not capital but all capital is wealth 528. Physical capital gives a series of annual income calleda nnuties 529. Acccumulation of more and more physical capital is called as physical capital formation 530. ‘An Enquiry into the Nature and Causes ofW ealth of Nations’ was written by Adam Simith 531. Division of labour is limited by the extent of market 532. Investment is made in the form of money is money capital 533. Higher the investment in the human capital, higher will be the Productivity 534. Capital is a Passive factor 535. Production is possible even without Capital 536. Capital has the Higest mobility 537. Entreprenuer is also called Organiser 538. Entreprenuer is the called as the changing agent of the society 539. According to Hawley, a bussiness is nothing but bundle of risks 540. The future is uncertain 541. One why is ready to accept risk becomes a successful entreprenuer 542 The prudent entreprenuer forecast the future risk. 543. According to Knight one of the important funtions of the entreprenuer is Uncertainity -bearing 544. The functional relationship between inputs and outputs is known as Prodution function 545. When the marginal production is positive, the total product increases 546 When the marginal product increases ata an increasing rate 547. The Law of Variable Proportions explains the relationship between one variable factor and output , keeping the quantities of other factors fixed 548. In the long run, all factors can be changed 549. Increasinr return to scale are due to economies of scale 550. Higher the iso-quants higher will be the level of output 551. A set of iso-quants lines are called as Isoquant map 552. The isoquant line is negatively sloped 553. The isoquant is convex to the origin 554. Isoquant line is convex to the origin because of diminishing marginal rate of technical substitution 555. The slope of iso-quant curve represent marginal rate of technical substitution 556. An iso-cost line is defined as locus of points representing various combination of two factors 557. Slope of the isocost line is equal to the ratio ofp rices for two factors 558. The aim of the producer is to maximize his profits 559. A producer produces the level of output with least cost combination 560. A producer will chose htat level of output where given Iso- cost line is tangential to the highest isoquant 561. Producer is in equilllibrium at ‘E’ where the iso-quant is tangential to isocostline 562. At producer’s equilllibrium, the slope of isoquant and is cost are equals 563. At producer’s equilllibrium ‘E’ MRTS ( Marginal Rate of Technical Substitution) is equal to price-ratio of factors 564. Cobb-Douglas production functions is a statistical production function 565. According to the Cobb-Douglas production function , if both factors are increased by one percent , the output will increase by the sum of exponents of labour and capital 566. Cobb-Douglas production function explains Constant return to scale 567. The term ‘Economies’ means advantages 568. Scale refers to size of unit 569. Economies of scale refers to cost advantage due to the larger size of production 570. Two types of economies of scale are internal and external economies 571. Internal economies is enjoyed by single firm 572. As the size of firm is large, the availability ofC apital is more 573. Higher the investment in human capital, higher will be the Productivity 574. Small firms have to Borrow capital 575. Division of labour was the result ofL arge scale of production 576. The first buyer is the producer, who buys the raw material 577. Buying is the first function in the market 578. The advantage enjoyed by all the firms in the industry is the external economies of scale 579. The diseconomies are the disadvantages arising to the firm or group of firms 580. Higher expansion of an industry leads to High rent and high cost 581. External diseconomies affect All the firms of the particular region 582. Labour economies arise due to specialization of labour

Answer in one word 583. What is production? Creation of utilities 584. What are the effectors of production? Land, Labour,Capital and Organization 585. Classify the e factors of production? Primary factors and derived factors 586. What is land? Frer gifts of nature 587. What is labour? Human inputs 588. Who introduced the concept of division of labour? Adam Smith 589. Who wrote “ An Enquiry into the Nature and causes of wealth of nations”? Adam Smith 590. What is capital? Man made physical goods 591. Give four example for physical capital? Plant and machinery , tools , roads, dams 592. What is money capital? Monetary instruments 593. What is human capital? Quality of labour resources 594. What is the other name for organizer? Entreprenuer 595. Who called bussiness as a bundle of risks? Hawley 596. Which is the crucial function of entrprenure ? Payments of rewards 597. What does a prudent Entreprenuer do? Forecast the future risk 598. Which one of the important functions of Entreprenuer according to Knight? Uncertainty- bearing 599. What is the opinion of Schumpeter about the Entreprenuer? Innovator 600. Who is the changing agent of the society? Entreprenuer 601. State the Cobb-Douglas production function? 602. If a factor is fixed and others are varied, which law studies about it? Law of variable proportion 603. Which explained by returns to scale? Long run production function 604. What is the other name for iso-quant line? Isoproduct line 605. Give the equation for the slope for Iso-caost line 606. State the condition for producer’s equillibrium Iso-quant is tangent to iso-cost line 607. What is the other name for cost advantage? Economies of scale 608. How do internal economies arise? Within the production unit 609. What is the possibility of big firms? Float shares 610. Who is the first buyer? Producer 611. Which is the first function in marketing? Buying 612. What is it, if a large firm can have many products? Survival economies 613. When do all the firms enjoys the advantage in the industry? Structural growth 614. Give an example for internal diseconomies? (Difficulty to manage a big firm) 615. What is these result of expansion of an industry?(High rent and high cost)

7. Cost and revenue 616. Cost function is C = f(Q) 617. Money cost is Total money expenses incurred 618. Money cost is known as nominal cost 619. Real cost is all the above 620. Opportunity cost is Alternative cost 621. Economic cost includes explicit cost and implicit cost 622. Economic profit is total Revenue – Economic cost 623. Social costs are those costs costs incurred by the society 624. Total cost is TFC + TVC 625. Average fixed cost is obtained by dividing TFC/Q 626. AVC is TVC/Q 627. AC is TC/Q 628. AC is AFC + AVC 629. MC is AFC + AVC 630. Total revenue is Price X Quantity sold 631. Marginal Revenue is the least addition made to the Total Revenue 632. Profit is total Revenue – Total cost 633. The cost function expresses a functional relationship between cost and output 634. Money cost is also called nominal cost 635. Real cost is a subjective concept 636. Economic cost includes not only the explicit cost but also the implicit cost 637. Economic profit is the difference between total revenue and economic cost 638. The distance between the field and variable factors is possible only in short run 639. The cost incurred on fixed factors is called fixed cost. 640. When the output is nil, the variable cost becomes zero 641. Total cost is the sum of Total fixed cost and total variable cost 642. Average fixed cost is the fixed cost per unit of output 643. Average variable cost curve is U shaped. 644. Average cost is the sum of average fixed cost and average variable cost. 645. Marginal cost curve is U shaped. 646. The marginal cost curve must cut the average cost curve at minimum point from below. 647. Price multiplied with quantity is TR 648. Total revenue divided by quantity is AR

649. TRn-TRn-1 is MR 650. Total Revenue minus Total cost is Profit 651. The aim of any firm is to Maximise its profit. 652. The point at which there is neither profit nor loss to a Firm is Break-even point 653. In the long run, all factors are variable 654. Implicit cost is known as imputed cost 655. The average cost is also known as the unit cost 656. What is the name given for expenses incurred in the production of a commodity? Production cost 657. What is economic cost? Explicit cost + Implicit cost 658. What will you get if TFC + TVC are added? Total cost

659. What do you get from TCn-TCn-1? Marginal cost 660. How will you calculate AC? AC = TC/Q 661. What is marginal revenue? Addition made to the Total Revenue 662. What is the other name for long run average cost curve? Planning curve or Envelope line

663. How do you calculate MR? MR = TRn-TRn-1 664. How do you calculate AR? AR = TR/Q 665. How do you calculate TR? TR = P x Q 666. When the average revenue remains constant, what will be MR? MR will also remain constant 667. What is the aim of the firm? Profit maximization 668. How can you calculate profit? TR-TC 669. What is break-even point? No-profit or No-loss point

8. Market structure and pricing 670. In Economics, market refers to a group of buyers and sellers who are involved in the transaction of commodities and services. 671. If buyers and selles of a commodity carry on business in a particular locality it is called local market 672. When commodities are demanded and supplied throughut the country, the market it is called National market 673. Perisable commodities have Local market. 674. When demand and supply conditions are influenced at the Global level, it is International market 675. If commodities are demanded and supplied over a region, it is called Regional market 676. A period during which supply conditions are fully able to meet the new demand conditions is known as Long period 677. Perfect competition is a market situation where there are Large number of sellers 678. Under perfect completions, the market price is determined by the market forces namely demand and supply 679. The selle is a price-taker in Perfectly competitive market 680. A firm can achieve equilibrium when its MC = MR 681. Under perfect competition, all factors are variable in thel ong run 682. Under Perfectly competitive market, all firms will earn normal profit only when AR = AC 683. Absence of Transport cost is one of the characteristics of Perfect competition 684. Under perfect completion, the demand curve of a firm horizontal 685. The firms and industry are one and the same underm onopoly 686. In monopoly, there is only one seller 687. The monopolist will be in equilibrium whenM C = MR 688. In India, MRTP Act was passed in 1969 689. In the case of Natural monopolies, the price or output is fixed by Government 690. Price discrimination is possible only in Monopoly 691. Under monopolistic competition, the number of firms producing a commodity will be very large 692. Product differentiation is the essence of Monopoly 693. Most important form of selling cost is advertisement 694. Under monopolistic competition, the firms produce less than optimum output 695. In an oligopoy there are a few sellers 696. Under perfect competition, the firms are producing homogeneous product. 697. when commodities are demanded and supplied throughout the country, there is National market 698. In Economics Market refers to a group of buyers and sellers who are involved in the transaction of commodities and services. 699. According to Area, market can be classified into local, regional, national and International markets. 670. The examples for the national market are wheat, rice or cotton 671. In the long run, all factors are variable 672. Marshall introduced time element in classifying the market. 673. An example for the global market is gold/silver/cell phone 674. Perfect competition is a market situation where there arel arge number of sellers. 675. In a perfectly competitive market, there is no Transport cost 676. In perfect competition, the product must be homogeneous/ identical 677. The prefect competitive firms are price takers 678. Both buyers and sellers have perfect knowledge about the market condition in perfect competition. 679. Free entry and free exit in the industry are possible only in the long run 680. Factors of production should be free to move from one firm to another to get better remuneration 681. Under perfect competition, the market price is determined by demand and supply 682. When the average revenue of firm is greater than its average cost, the firm is earning super normal profit. 683. The firm is in equilibrium at the point where marginal cost is equal to marginal revenue 684. all the perfectly competitive firms will earn normal profit in the long run. 685. monopoly Price discrimination is possible only under 686. A monopolist can either fix the price or quantity of output; but he cannot do both at the same time. 687. Firm and industry are one and the same under monopoly 688. Monopoly power achieved through patent rights, copy right and trade marks by the producers is called legal monopoly 689. Public utilities are undertaken by the State 690. Under monopolistic competition, products are similar but not identical 691. The expenditure involved in selling the product is calleds elling cost 692. Sales promotion by advertisement is called non-price competition. 693. Products are homogeneous and identical in thep erfect market. 694. Under monopolistic competition, the firm may earn either abnormal profit or loss in the short period. 695. Excess capacity is the difference between the optimum output that can be produced and the actual output produced by the firm. 696. There is a lot of waste in competitive advertisement under monopolistic competition 697. important feature of Oligopoly is price rigidity. 698. Firms realize the importance of mutual cooperation under Oligopoly 699. Who classified markets based on the time element? Alfred Marshall 700. In which period all factors are variable? Long period 701. What is an industry? Group of firms 702. Who are the price-takers or quantity adjusters? Sellers in the perfectly competitive market 703. Who undertakes the public utilities? State 704. How does the government control monopoly? Taxation or legislative method 705. What is the nature of commodities sold in the market period? Perishable commodities 706. What is the essential feature of monopolistic completion? Product differentiation 707. Which market sells close substitutes for a product? Monopolistic competition 708. In which year the MRTP Act was passed? 1969 709. When does a firm attain equilibrium? MR = MC 710. In which market firm and industry are one and the same? Monopoly 711. Give an example for legal monopoly Patent right 712. Give an example of a product sold under monopolistic competition. Colgate tooth paste 713. What kind of profit, a firm can earn in the long run? Normal 714. What is the nature of supply curve in the long run?P erfectly elastic 715. What is the other name for discriminating monopoly? Price discrimination 716. In which type of market, the financial resources are vast? Monopoly 717. How is monopoly power misused? Exploiting the consumers 718. How does the Government control monopolist from exploiting consumers? By Nationalisation/Legislation 719. In which type of competition, advertisement expenditure is a waste? Monopolistic competition. 720. In which period, the supply of commodity cannot be changed? Very short period/market period. 721. Which is the most important feature of oligopoly? Interdependence in decision-making 722. What is the shape of AC curve under monopoly? U shaped 723. Which is the most important form of selling cost? Advertisement 724. What is the position of AR cure under perfect competition? Horizontally parallel to X axis 725. What method is applied to control monopoly? Controlling price and output

9. Marginal productivity Theory of Distribution 726. The marginal productivity theory explains any variable factor must obtain a reward equal to its marginal product 727. The Demand for factors of production is Derived demand 728. The marginal productivity theory is based on Law of diminishing returns 729. The Marginal productivity theory takes into account only the demand side of the factor. 730. One of the assumptions of the marginal productivity theory is the existence of perfect competition 731. Marginal productivity theory is ag eneral theory of distribution 732. The earliest theory of rent was given by David Ricardo 733. Ricardo referred by rent to the payment made for the use of Agricultural land 734. According to Ricardo, rent is the payment made for the use of its Original powers. 735. Rent is the reward paid for the use of land 736. Rent arise due to differences is Fertility 737. Rent may also arise due to Situational advantage according to Ricardo. 738. Ricardian theory does not take note of Scarcity rent 739. In the modern theory of rent, payment made for factors of production which are imperfectly elastic in supply is rent. 740. The concept ‘Quasi-rent’ was introduced by Marshall 741. Alternative employment refer to the amount that a factor could earn in its best paid. Transfer earnings 742. According to Modern theory, rent is not peculiar to land alone 743. Quasi rent disappears, when once the supply of goods increase 744. Any payment in excess of transfer earning is economic rent 745. Real wages depend mainly on the purchasing power of money 746. Some early theories of wages are: all the above 747. According to Walker wages re paid out of the residue that is left over after making payment of rent, interests and profits. 748. Demand for labour is derived demand 749. In a competitive labour market, equilibrium will be demand for and supply of labour. 750. Wages depend upon the proportion between population and capital. This theory is known as the wages fund theory. 751. The strength of trade union depends upon all the above 752. The price paid for the use of capital is called interest 753. Gross interest includes all the above. 754. According to Abstinence theory of Nassau Senior interest is the reward for abstaining from the immediate consumption of wealth. 755. The theory that tells, the rate of interest is determined by the supply of and demand for capital is classical theory 756. Loanable funds includes all the above 757. The author of Liquidity preference theory is J.M.Keynes 758. Precautionary money is held to meet an unforeseen expenditure. 759. Profits are the reward for Organisation 760. Prof. Taussig explained the wages theory of profit. 761. Marginal productivity theory is the general theory of distribution. 762. Marginal productivity theory is based on the assumption of perfect competition 763. any variable factor must obtain a reward equal to ism arginal product 764. Factor prices are determined in market under forces ofs upply and demand 765. The marginal productivity is equal to the value of the additional product 766. The demand for a factor is derived demand 767. The Marginal Productivity theory is based on Law of diminishing return 768. Rent refers to any periodic payment. 769. House rent is a contract payment 770. The supply of land is inelastic and it differs in fertility 771. According to Ricardo, rent is paid to the landlord 772. The rent is paid for the use of original and indestructible power of the soil. 773. Only superior lands get rent. 774. Rent is a differential surplus 775. Rent may also arise on account of situational advantage 776. Last grade land will not get rent. It is no-rent land 777. No ret lands are called marginal lands 778. Ricardian theory is based on perfect competition 779. According to modern theory of rent, rent is applied forl abour and capital 780. Quasi-rent was introduced by Marshall 781. Transfer earnings refers to the amount that a factor could earn in its best paid alternative employment. 782. Any payment in excess of transfer earning is economic rent 783. The income derived from achiness and other appliances is known as quasi-rent 784. Wages are the reward for labour. 785. If workers are paid less than subsistence, there will be starvation and death 786. According to wages fund theory, wages depend upon the proportion between population and capital 787. wages fund refers to capital set apart for payment of wages. 788. The market theory f wages looks at wages as the price of labour. 789. Under monopoly, wages will be lower than the marginal product of labour. 790. If the demand for labour is high relative to its supply, wages will be high 791. Trade Unions influence wages through collective bargaining 792. Depression is marked by bad trade 793. A trade union may increase wages by restricting the supply of labour 794. When only members of trade union are employed, it isc losed shop policy. 795. Money wages are also known as nominal wages 796. Interest is the price paid for the use of capital 797. Interest is named as net interest or pure interest. 798. Gross interest covers trade risk and personal risk 799. People prefer to have cash balance 800. When people save, they abstain from present consumption. 801. Abstinence involves sacrifice 802. To make people save, interest is paid as reward. 803. Agio theory tells that as present carries a premium over future, a compensation must be paid. 804. The price paid for abstaining from present consumption is interest 805. Classical theory is based on the assumption, that there is a direct relationship between S and I and interest and investment. 806. In classical theory, equilibrium between S and I is brought about by rate of interest 807. Bank credit is important source of funds for investment 808. Demand for funds arose not only for investment but also for hoarding wealth 809. Cash is a Liquid asset. 810. Interest is the reward for parting with Liquidity 811. Money held to finance day to day spending ist ransactionary 812. Money held to meet an unforeseen expense is precautionary 813. Of the three motives speculative motive is more important in determining rate of interest. 814. Money held for speculative motive would vary with the rate of interest. 815. According to Jaccob Viner, the rate of interest is the return for saving without liquidity 816. profit is the reward for entrepreneurship. 817. Risk taking and uncertainty-bearing are important functions of entrepreneur. 818. The reward paid for risk-taking and uncertainty-bearing is profit 819. The huge profit made by the monopolist is known asm onopoly profit 820. Pure profit can be divided into normal profit and super normal profit 821. Normal profit is the minimum necessary to guarantee that the entrepreneur will continue to run the firm. 822. That section of pure profit which is in excess of normal profit is Surplus or Super normal profit 823. The surplus profit earned by the firms and perfect competition will disappear in the long run 824. Profits re the rent of ability 825. According to wages theory of profit, profit are the wages of the entrepreneur 826. Organisation is a distinct factor. 827. Prof. Clark is the author of Dynamic theory of profit. 828. Clark has defined profits as the excess of the prices of goods over their costs 829. According to Schumpeter, profits are the reward for innovation 830. Innovation includes introduction of new goods. 831. Known risks could be insured 832. There is risk because future is uncertain. 833. Which is the general theory of distribution? Marginal productivity theory 834. What determines the reward for each factor of production? Marginal Productivity 835. What is the aim of a firm? Maximisiton of profit

836. Write the condition of equilibrium in the labour marketM CL =

VMPL 837. Why should he firm substitute one factor for another?T o reduce the cost of production 838. Who gave the first systematic theory of rent? David Ricardo 839. According to Ricardo which land will get more rent? Superior land 840. Who introduced the concept of Quasi-rent? Marshall 841. What is the concept used by the modern theory of rent? Transfer earnings 842. What is the payment paid in excess of transfer earnings? Economic rent 843. Name the two kinds of wages 1. Money wages 2. Real wages 844. What is the other name for money wages? Nominal wages 845. On what does the standard of living depend upon? Real wages 846. What is meant by subsistence? The bare needs 847. What is wages fund concept? Proportion between population and capital 848. In which theory fund set apart for payment of wages refers to capita? Wages fund theory 849. What is the assumption of marginal productivity theory? Perfect competition 850. Under monopoly, why is the wage rate lower than marginal product? Exploitation of labour 851. Which theory gives importance to trade unions in determining wages? The bargaining theory of wages 852. Give a good example for pure interest. Interest on government securities 853. What does the gross interest cover? Trade risk and personal risk 854. What is the reward paid for abstaining from immediate consumption of wealth? interest 855. What word did Marshall prefer for ‘abstinence’? waiting 856. Who is the author of Agio theory of interest? Bohm Bawerk 857. Which theory is similar to Agio theory? Time preference theory 858. What is the other name for classical theory of interest?S aving and Investment theory 859. What is the other name for Loanable funds theory? New classical theory 860. Which is the most important motive for liquidity preference? Speculative motive. 861. What is the other name for surplus proftit? Super-Normal profit 862. Who can earn excess profits indefinitely? Monopolist 863. Who defined profits as the reward for innovation? Schumpeter 864. Who gave the risk-bearing theory of profit? Hawley 865. Who is the author of uncertainty-bearing theory of profit? Knight

10. Simple Theory of Income Determination 866. The Great Depression occurred in the year 1929 867. Say’s law of markets denied possibility of general Over- production 868. J.B.Say was A French economist 869. J.B.Say wrote a book called Treatise on Political Economy 870. J.B.Say’s law can be summarized as supply creates its own demand 871. The macro economics thinking was revolutionized by J.M.Keynes 872. The classical theory assumed the existence of Full employment 873. the central problem in macro economics is Income and employment 874. Closed economy no relationship with other economies 875. Keynes brought about a revolution in economic theory attacking Say’s law in the year 1936 876. Say’s law holds good in a Barter economy 877. Keynes wrote the book The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money 878. Keynesian economics is Macro economics 879. Aggregate Demand = C + I + + (X – M)

880. The marginal propensity to consume

881. MPS is 1 - MPC 882. In the long run, the autonomous consumption will becomez ero 883. In the short run, consumption function Remain constant 884. Investment is the addition to real Capital assets 885. According to Keynes, employment depends on investment 886. To explain the simple theory of income determination, Keynes used Aggregate demand function 887. Liquidity means Cash 888. Liquidity preference depends on Rate of interest 889. J.B. Say was a French economist 890. J.B. Say’s book is Treatise on Political Economy 891. According to J.B. Say, supply creates its own demand 892. A country that has no relationship with other economies is a Closed economy economy 893. Money is simply a veil 894. Money is a dominant force in the capitalist economy. 895. Keynes wrote the book “The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money 896. Keynesian economics is sometimes called the Keynesian revolution. 897. Keynesian economics itself can be called Macro economics. 898. According to Keynes, effective demand is that point where the ADF and ASF 899. ASF represents Cost 900. ADF represents Receipts 901. The total expenditure of an economy can be divided intoF our categories of spending. 902. Consumption funciton explains the relationship between income and Consumption 903. The protion of the income not spent on consumption iss aving 904. Marginal propensity to save (MPS) is the raito of change in saving to a Change in income 905. The ratio of change in consumption to change in income is MPC 906. In the long run, the autonomous consumption will becomeZ ero 907. Investment is the addition to real Capital assets 908. The worldwide depression of 1930s was also caused by a fall in investment 909. According to keynes, employment depends on Investment 910. saving is inevitable for capital formation and economic growth 911. Liquidity means cash 912. Liquidity preference refers to the desire to hold cash of the people. 913. According to Keynes, the rate of interest is the reward for parting with Liquidity for a specified period. 914. Liquidity preference depends on rate of interest 915. Liquidity preference relates to the demand for money 916. The level of employment depends on aggregate demand Aggregate demand 917. Aggregate demand curve is the combination of consumption and investment function. 918. The magnified effect of initial investment on income is called Multiplier effect. 919. Keynisian theory of interest is known asL iquidity preference theory of interest 920. What is the basic assumption of the classical economists?F ull employment 921. What crippled the free enterprise economies of US and UK? Great depression 922. State J. B. Say’s law of markets? Supply create its own demand 923. Who attacked the Say’s law? J.M.Keynes 924. Who is the author of “The General Theory of Employment. Interest and Money?J.M.Keynes 925. In which year “The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money? “was published? 1936 926. What is the point of effective demand? ADF = ASF 927. What does C + I + G + (X – M) indicate?A ggregate demand 928. Name the point of intersection of aggregate demand and aggregate supply Keynesian cross/Equilibrium 929. What does the link between two or more variables mean? A function 930. What is I-MPS? MPC 931. What is the name of the ratio of change in saving to a change in income? MPS 932. What is a stable function of income? Consumption 933. What is inevitable for capital formation and economic growth? Savings 934. What does liquidity mean? cash 935. With what motive unforeseen expenditure is connected? Precautionary motive 936. What will be the rate of liquidity preference with lower rate of interest? Higher 937. What is the ultimate determinant of income and employment? Multiplier 938. Give the formula for Multiplier. K = 1/1-MPC 939. Give the formula to calculate the value of Multiplier. K = Y/ I 940. In which year, the Great depression occurred? 1929 941. According to Keynes, what does employment depend on? Investment 942. What is the name of the motive for keeping cash for day to day business? Transaction motive 943. What determines the level of employment according to Keynes? Aggregate demand and Aggregate supply

11. Monetary Policy 944. Modern economy is described as Money economy 945. Monetary policy is controlled by Central Bank

946. Currency with the public is known as M1 947. The Reserve Bank of India is the Central Bank bank of our country. 948. Currency notes in circulation are normally referred to asF iat money. 949. The notes issued by RBI are in the nature of Promissory 950. Marco economic policy can be broadly divided into monetary policy and Fiscal Policy 951. Bank rate is the rate at which the Central Bank will lend money to all other banks. 952. Bank rate is raised during inflation 953. “Money is that which money does” was the statement by Walker

954. M3 is called broad money 955. One rupee notes issued by the Government of India is known as fiat money 956. Reserve money is the cash held by the public and banks. 957. Reserve money may be considered as Government money 958. The equation C + OD + CR refers to reserve money 959. During inflation businessmen gain 960. The difficulties of barter system were got over by Money 961. To control inflation, the Central bank will Increase bank. 962. The ability of a commercial bank to create credit depends upon its Cash reserves 963. The Reserve Bank of India has started applying the selective credit controls since 1955 964. Price mechanism plays a vital role in Capitalism 965. “Too much money chases too few goods” refers to demand- pull inflation 966. Bank money refer to Unaccounted money 967. Cheap money denotes a phase in which loans are available at low rate of interest. 968. Under dear money policy the rate of interest is high 969. Purchasing power of money depends upon the Price level 970. Fisher’s equation of exchange is MV = PT 971. Inflation is defined as “a sustained rise in prices’ by Harry Johnson 972. There can be ‘inflation even without a rise in the price level and it is called Repressed inflation 973. Galloping or Hyper-inflation was experienced in Germany after World War I. 974. Inflation that results from shortages, imbalances and rising marginal costs is called bottleneck inflation 975. Wage cut is sometimes recommended as a remedy for Depression 976. The Great Depression was experienced in 1929 977. People in fixed income groups are hit hard in times ofI nflation 978. Modern economy is described as Money economy 979. Modern economy cannot work without Money 980. The direct exchange of goods for other goods is known as barter 981. In mechanics, the fundamental discovery is Wheel 982. Money is one of the most fundamentalI nventions of mankind. 983. In barter system, cattle is used as Money 984. Money acts as a common measure of Value 985. Money serves as a store of Value 986. Money is used as a standard forf uture or deferred payments. 987. The introduction of money has got over the difficulty of barter system. 988. Price mechanism plays a vital role in Capitalism.

989. M1 is known as Narrow money

990. M3 is known as Broad money 991. Reserve money may be considered as Government money. 992. Macro economic policy can be broadly divided into monetary policy and fiscal policy 993. Bank rate is the rate at which the Central Bank lends money to all other banks 994. Monetary policy is usually effective in controlling Inflation 995. In recent times unaccounted money has been used for financing Speculative dealings. 996. Unaccounted money is also called Black money 997. Consumption is positively related to net private Wealth 998. Dear money refers to a phase or policy when interest rates are high 999. By value of money, we mean the purchasing power of money. 1000. The equation of exchange (MV = PT) was given byI rving Fisher 1001. Inflation without a rise in the price level is known as Repressed inflation. 1002. Galloping inflation is also known as Hyper inflation 1003. Cost-push inflation is induced by rising Costs 1004. The inflation induced by rising costs including wages is known as Cost-push 1005. Wage freeze is recommended to check Inflation 1006. Deflation is a period marked by Falling prices. 1007. Deflation is the opposite of Inflation 1008. Both inflation and deflation are evils 1009. People who have invested their money in Gilt edged securities will get only fixed income. 1010. If the value of money falls continuously, money has no store of value 1011. Inflation is unjust and deflation is inexpedient 1012. The combined effect of stagnation and lack of demand and inflation is called Stagflation 1013. Which is the most important function of money? Medium of exchange 1014. What is used as a standard for future payments? Money 1015. What is the condition for money to be used as a medium of exchange? Universal acceptance 1016. What is regarded as one of the most fundamental inventions of mankind? Money 1017. Name the bank which controls money supply in a country. Central Bank

1018. What is Narrow money? M1

1019. What is Broad money? M3 1020. What is the other name for reserve money? Government money 1021. What happens to supply of money when Reserve money changes? Changes 1022. What are the divisions of macro economic policy? Monetary and Fiscal policy 1023. Have open market operations become a powerful and effective weapon in our country? No 1024. What is positively related to net private wealth? Consumption 1025. What is the other name for unaccounted money? Black money 1026. When is dear money policy followed? During inflation 1027. What is the cheap money policy? Low rate of interest 1028. What is meant by value of money? Purchasing power of money 1029. Who formulated the Quantity theory of money? Irving Fisher 1030. Give the equation of exchange. MV = PT 1031. What is the other name for equation of exchange?F isher’s equation 1032. What is the name of inflation without a rise in price level? Repressed inflation. 1033. Give the example of a country that experienced hyper- inflation. Germany 1034. What is the name of the falling prices in which the value of money is rising? Deflation 1035. Is wage cut, a remedy for depression? No 1036. “Rentiers gain during deflation”. Is it right?Y es

12. Fiscal Policy 1037. Public finance is a branch of economics 1038. Public finance deals with revenue and expenditure of the government 1039. Public finance is concerned with the income and expenditure of Public sector 1040. Fiscal economics is another name for Public Finance. 1041. The economic decisions are guided by the Market forces of Demand and Supply 1042. Raising revenue for the Government is Public revenue 1043. Tax revenue deals with kinds of taxes 1044. Non-tax revenue includes Fees 1045. Borrowing by the Government from the public is Public debt 1046. Internal debt includes borrowing from Commercial Banks 1047. External debt includes borrowing from IMF 1048. The federal form of Government consists of Central, State and local Government 1049. Tax is one of the important sources of Public revenue. 1050. Income tax and wealth tax are good examples of Direct taxes 1051. Taxes on Commodities and services are termed asI ndirect taxes 1052. The compulsory charge levied by the Government is Tax 1053. ‘Canons of taxation’ were propounded by Adam smith 1054. Excise duties, customs duties and sales tax are examples of Indirect taxes 1055. The following is the major source of revenue for the Central Government. Union excise duties 1056. The following is he major source of revenue of state government Sales tax 1057. Irrespective of the level of income, the tax rate remains the same. This is known as Proportional 1058. The tax rate increases as the tax base increases is Progressive 1059. The tax rate decrease as the tax base increases is Regressive 1060. The rate of tax does not increase in the same proportion as the increase in income Degressive tax 1061. A Budget is the annual financial statement of estimated receipts and proposed expenditure of the Government 1062. When there is an excess of income over expenditure it is called Surplus budget 1063. When tax revenue and expenditure are equal, it is called a balanced budget 1064. When there is an excess of expenditure over income it is called Deficit budget 1065. The budget that consists of capital receipts and capital payments is called Capital budget 1066. Expenditure which does not result in creation of assets is called Revenue expenditure 1067. In ZBB every year is considered as a New year 1068. Taxation, public spending and public debt are the effective instruments of Fiscal policy 1069. Taxation can be the most effective means of increasing the total quantum of savings and investment. 1070. In a Mixed economy private sector forms an important constituent of the economy. 1071. Capital formation is considered an important determinant of economic growth 1072. Tax evasion is one of the limitations of fiscal policy 1073. public Finance is a branch economics. 1074. Public finance deals with the financing of the state activities 1075. Fiscal economics is another name for Public finance 1076. In the early days of economic development, the economic decisions were guided by Market forces 1077. The early state was a Police state. 1078. The modern state is a Welfare state 1079. Public revenue means different sources of Government’s income. 1080. Borrowing by the Government from the public is called Public debt 1081. There are two types of public debt; they are concerned with internal debt and external debts 1082. Financial administration is concerned with the organization and functioning of the government machinery. 1083. Federal finance deals with the financial functions of Central and State Government 1084. A Tax is a compulsory charge or payment levied by the Government on an individual or Corporation. 1085. Direct and proportional benefit is Quit-pro-quo 1086. Canons of taxation are considered as fundamental principles of taxation. 1087. The canon of equity is also called the Ability to pay principle of taxation. 1088. In the case of a Direct tax the taxpayer who pays direct tax is also the tax bearer. 1089. In the case of indirect taxes the tax payer and the tax bearer are different persons. 1090. Income tax is a direct tax. 1091. The classification of direct and indirect taxes is based on criterion of Shifting of the incidence COMMERCE

1. A multinational company is also known as - Global gaint 2. Registration is compulsory in the case of – A joint stock company 3. Management of joint Stock company is entrusted to - The board of directors 4. The liability of sole trader is – Unlimited 5. A sole trader – Can keep his business secrets 6. Sole proprietorship is suitable for – Small scale concern 7. A partnership is formed by – Agreement 8. Registration of partnership is – Optional 9. In Partnership there exists a relationship of – Principal and agent 10. A preference share has priority in – Both dividend are return of capital on winding up 11. Where shares are issued at a discount and the nominal value of share is Rs.100 the maximum discount that cab be allowed is – Rs.10 12. Which of the following documents define the scope of company’s activities – Memorandum 13. The interval between two annual general meeting shall not exceed – 15 months 14. Which of the following business is not transacted at Annual general meeting – Issue of debenture 15. A company secretary is appointed by – The board of Directors 16. Stock exchanges deal in – Financial secretaries 17. Stock exchange allow traveling in – Listed Securities 18. A pessimistic speculator is – Bear 19. In a cooperative society, the shares of a member – Can be repaid 20. A co-operative super market supplies – Goods 21. Service is the main objective of – Cooperative Societies 22. An industrial co-operative is organized by – Small scale production 23. Government companies are registered under – Companies Act 1956 24. The oldest form of a public enterprises – Nationalization 25. When the Government takes over an existing private concern it is called – Private sector 26. Exploitation of consumer and employees is a feature of – Private sector 27. A partner who does not take part in the working of the form is called partner – Sleeping partner 28. A partnership firm may be registered under the partnership Act of – 1932 29. The maximum number of member in non-banking form is - 20

30. The partner’s liability in India is – Unlimited 31. The company which need not have separate Articles of As- sociation of its own is company limited by shares – Public 32. An advertisement inviting the public to buy the debenture of a public company is known as – Prospectus 33. Such shares as are entitled to a further dividend in addition t the usual fixed of dividend are known as share – Participating preference shares 34. The maximum number of members in a public company is – Unlimited 35. Altering the articles of Association required resolution – Special Resolution 36. A person appointed to attend a meeting on behalf of a share holder is known as – Proxy 37. The shareholders are the real of the company – Owners 38. A shareholders are the real of the company – 21 Days 39. Primary market is concerned with – Issue of new shares 40. There are regional stock exchanges in India – 21 41. What is the advantage of sole proprietorship – Limited Capital 42. Sole proprietorship ability – Small scale concerns 43. Decision – making process in soletrading business is – Quick 44. Registration of partnership is – Optional 45. A partnership firm may by registered under – 1932 Act 46. A partnership is formed by – Agreement 47. The basis of partnership is – Utmost good faith 48. Registration of a joint stock company is – Compulsory 49. Where the shares are issued at a distant and the nominal value of share is Rs.100, the maximum discount that can be allowed is – Rs.10 50. Debenture holders are entitled to receive interest in the following circumstances – All the above 51. A company should compulsory appoint a qualified company secretary having a paid up capital of more than – Rs.50 Lakh 52. Who can call Extraordinary general meeting – All of these 53. Which of the following must hold a statutory meeting – Public limited companies 54. SEBI has the following number of members including chairman – 6 55. Stock exchanges deal in – Financial Securities 56. An optimistic speculator is – Bull 57. Minority interest can be protected in – Co-operative societies 58. In a Co-operative society, the shares of a member – Can be repaid 59. For the efficient working of state enterprise the form of organization generally considered suitable is – Public corporation 60. Public can also subscribe to the share capital of – Government company 61. Delegation means the part of the work – Entrustment 62. company is regarded as a – Person by law 63. Sole trading business can be started by – Any one person 64. The profit and loss of a partnership form is shared in the among the partners – Agreed ratio 65. The maximum number of members in non-breaking firm is – 20 66. The Partners liability in India is – Unlimited 67. The company, which need not have separate articles for association of its won is company limited by shares – Public 68. Such shares, as are entitled to a further dividend in addition to the usual fixed rate dividend are known as – Participating preference 69. A company the members of which not less than fiftyone and percent of the paid – up – share capital is held by a State Government is known as company – Government 70. When a company has issued shares of Rs.6000 each only the minimum number of qualification shares that a director should hold is – One 71. The time between two consecutive annual general meetings should not exceed months – 15 72. A person appointed to attend a meeting on behalf of a share holder is known as – Proxy 73. A statutory report must be sent to every number of the company atleast daysbefore the meeting is to be held - 21 74. is acknowledgment for raising loan from the public – Debentures 75. There are regional stock exchanges in India – 21 76. Investors retain securities for period – Longer 77. The father of the co-operative movement was – Robert Owen 78. Management of Co-operative society is fully – Democratic 79. Public corporation are created by of central or state government – Special Statute 80. The most suitable form of organization for manufacturing defence goods is – Departmental organisation 81. The share capital of the government company must not be less than – 51% 82. Sole trading business can be started by – 83. The basis of Partnership is – Utmost good faith 84. Which of the following is created by a special act of parliament or in state assemblies – Chartered company 85. A person can held directorship of not more than public limited companies – 15 86. A pessimistic speculator is – Bear 87. Maximum membership in a co-operative society is – Unlimited 88. In a public corporation the management has – Unrestricted free – dom of action 89. A sole trader – None of the above 90. A partnership is formed by – Agreement 91. A preference share has priority in – Both dividend and return of capital in winding up 92. A director is acting as – All of these 93. A bull operator believes in – Increase 94. Consumers co-operation was first successful in – England 95. Government companies are registered under – Companies Act, 1956 96. In partnership there exists a relationship of – Principal and agent 97. Debenture holders are entitled to receive interest the following circumstances – All the above 98. Which of the following business is not transacted at the annual general meeting – Issue of debentures 99. Stock exchange speculator in shares – Encourage 100.Stock partnership firm may be registered under – 1932 Act 101.Government policy is also favorable towards – Multionationals 102.Sole proprietorship is suitable for – Small scale concerns 103.The partners liability in India is – Unlimited 104.The aggregate nominal value of Qualification shares shall not exceed rupees - Five thousand 105.Directors act as trustees and officers of the company – 5 agents 106.Debentures denote interest – Debenture holders 107.An industrial Co-operative is organized by – Small scale promoters 108.The oldest form of public enterprise is – Departmental organisation 109.Division of work is called – Deparatmentation 110. The maximum number of members in non-breaking firm is – 20 111. The liability of a member of a company limited by guarantee is – Limited 112. Auditors age generally appointed and their remuneration, fixed at the meeting – Annual general meeting 113. Act as substitute for initial public offering – Mutual Funds 114. Service is the main objective of – Co-operative Societies 115. Checks concentration of economic power in hands of few – Public sector 116. A partner who does not take part in the working the firm is called partner – Sleeping 117. The manner in which the internal management of a company carried on is contained in – Articles of Association 118. The Quorum for a General meeting of members of a public company is – Five 119. Stag is called – Premium hunter 120.An advertisement inviting the public to buy the debenture of a public company is known as – Prospectus 121.Membership by birth is main feature in – Joint Hindu 122.The liability of sole trader is – Unlimited 123.A soletrader – Can keep is business secrets 124.The basis of partnership is – Utmost good faith 125.In partnership there exists a relationship of – A principal and agent 126.A partnership is formed y – Agreement 127.Registration of partnership is – Optional 128.Shares can be forfeited for – For non payment of call money 129.The liability of shareholders of a private limited company is limited to – The extent of private assets 130.The existence of a company comes to a close – None of these 131.The overall maximum managerial remuneration in a public limited company shall not exceed – 11% of a net profits 132.Which of the following business is not transacted at the annual general meeting – Issue of debentures 133.A director is acting as – All of these 134.Securities contract Regulation Act was passed in – 1956 135.The popular method of sale of new shares in India is – Public issue 136.Jobbers transact in a stock exchange – For their brokers 137.The minimum numbers of members required to form a co- operative society is – 25 138.Central co-operative bank is established at – Districts 139.Government companies are registered under – Companies Act, 1956 140.Public can also subscribe to the share capital of – Government company 141.Public corporation is known as corporation – Statutory 142.Government company employees are not – Government Servants 143.Decision making process in sole trading business is – Agreed ratio 144.The profit and loss of a partnership firm is shared in the among the partners – Agreed ratio 145.A partner who does not take part in the working the firm is a called partner – Sleeping 146.The maximum number of members in non-banking firm is – 20 147.The minimum of a number of members in a public limited company is – Seven 148.A private company should have at least directors – Two 149.The manner in which the internal management of company carried on is contained in – Articles of Association 150.Preference shares which carry a right to arrear dividend are known as –Cumulative preference share 151.The share holders are the real of the company – Owners 152.The minimum number of members required for a meeting is known as –Quorum 153.Statutory meeting must be held not later than and not earlier than from the date on which a public company is entitled to commence business – Six months, One month 154.Are the employees of the members of a stock exchange – Authorised clerks 155.Application money should not be less than percent of the value of a share – 5 156.Listing is for public companies – Compulsory 157.Only of the profits to be distributed as dividend – 9% 158.Transfer of shares are possible in and not possible in – Joint stock company co-operative societies 159.In a government company atleast shares owned by the government – 51% 160.When the government takes over an existing private concern it is called - Nationalisation 161.Which one of the following is not the characteristic of sole proprietorship – Non flexibility 162.Membership by birth is main feature in – Joint Hindu 163.Sole trading business can be started by – Any one person 164.Decision making process in sole trading business is – Quick 165.In a co-operative society – One man One vote principle if followed 166.The most suitable form of organization for operating defence industries is – Departmental 167.A partnership firm may be registered under – 1932 Act 168.Registration o partnership is – Optional 169.A partnership is formed by – Agreement 170.The minimum number of members for a public limited company is – 7 171.The liability of shareholders of a private limited company is limited to – Amount remaining unpaid on shares 172.Which of the following is created by a special act of parliament o in State Assemblies – Statutory company 173.A company should compulsory appoint a qualified company secretary, having a paid up capital of more than – Rs. 50 Lakh 174.Who can call Extra Ordinary general meeting – Company law Tribunal 175.A director is acting as – Agent of the company, Trustee of the company, Chief executive officer of the company. 176.Stock exchange allow trading – Listed securities 177.A cautious speculator is known – Stag 178.SEBI has the following number of members including chairman – 10 179.The minimum number of members refund to join a o-operative society is – 25 180.Dividend is declared in a Co-operative store to its members – Amount of Patronage given 181.Transfer of share are possible in and not possible in – Joint stock company, Co-operative organization 182.Management of a co-operative society is fully – Democratic 183.Which of the following must hold a statutory meeting – Public Limited Companies 184.In a government company at least shares are owned by the government – 51% of 185.Checks concentration of economic bower in the hands of few – Public Sector 186.The maximum number if member in non-banking firm is – 20 187.Partnership there exists a relationship of and – Principal, Agent 188.The basis of partnership – Utmost good faith 189.The profit and loss of a partnership firs is shared in the among the partners – Agreed ratio 190.The liability of a member of a company limited by guarantee is – Limited 191.The maximum number of member in a private company is – 50 192.Preference shares which carry a right to arear dividend are known as –Cumulative Preference share 193.The aggregate nominal value of qualification shares shall not exceed rupees – Five Thousands 194.When a public LTD company makes private arrangement of capital it should file a copy of to registrar of join stock companies – Statement in lien of prospectus 195.Only of the profits to be distributed as dividend in co-operative society – 9% 196.Listing is for public companies – Compulsory 197.There are regional stock exchange in India – 21 198.Investors retain securities for period – Longer 199.Memorandum of Association is said to be the of the company – Charter 200.After allotment of shares, allotees become the of the company – Share-holder NOTES NOTES NOTES NOTES