Q: Name a fixed signal which cannot be placed on a separate SHORT QUESTION-ANSWER post? A: Calling on signal.

Q: What is the maximum speed of a train guided by shunt Q: Which gradient is treated as steep gradient for roller bearing signal? or bogie wagon? A: 15KMPH A: 1:400 Q: What is the maximum speed of train in automatic block Q: From where signal overlap distance is reckoned in case of system during fog if automatic signal is found double single line? yellow? A: From outermost trailing point. A: 30 KMPH.

Q: What is the distance of passenger warning board from first Q: What is the speed of train at Dock platform? stop signal of a station or gate stop signal? A: 10 KMPH. A: 960meters. Q: What is the speed of train if automatic brake fails? Q: Block overlap distance or signal overlap distance- which can A: 8KMPH. be substituted? A: Signal overlap distance. Q: What is the speed of train during non-interlock work? A: 15 KMPH. Q: What should be the minimum gradient in ghat section? A: 1:200 and gradient is continuous Q: What is the maximum speed of train during fog in absolute block system? Q: From where signal overlap distance in multiple aspect A: 60 KMPH. signalling is counted in case of single line? A: 120 meters from outermost trailing point. Q: What is the validity period of Station Working Rule? Q: What is the colour of the post of inner distance signal? A: 5 correction slip or 5 years whichever is earlier. A: White. Q: What is the distance between Starter and Advance starter Q: What signals are used to receive a train in obstructed line? signal at a station in double line section? A: Calling on /Shunt signal. A: 120 meters.

Q: What form will be issued to send ART in occupied block A: Booked speed. section in absolute block system? A: TA-602. Q: Mock Drill is done once in every ------months. A: 2 months. Q: What form will be issued in case of prolonged failure of automatic signals but communication not available? Q: Distance of caution indicator board from speed restriction A: TB-912. zone is ------. A: 1200 meters. Q: What form will be issued in case of single line working on double line in absolute block system? Q: Turn out time of ART at night is------. A: TD-602 A: 45 minutes.

Q: Name a form which is issued by guard to the driver? Q: Turn out time of medical van in case of single exit siding is - A: T-609. -----. A: 25 minutes. Q: What is the form number of Fog Signal Register? A: OPT-124. Q: In case of alarm chain pulling the whistle blown by the driver is ------Q: How many parts are there in OPT-124? A: Two short one long. A: 4 parts (Particulars, Stock, Use, Testing- PSUT) Q: In case of train parting whistle blown by driver is------Q: What form will be issued in case of prolonged failure of A: Long short long short. automatic signals but communication available? A: TD-912. Q: If railway crane is required it will be available at------in Q: What form is used in case of total failure of communication our Division. on double line in absolute block system? A: Beliaghata(Sealdah) A: TC-602. Q: What will be the speed of train via wrong line during single Q: What will be the speed of train in case of total failure of line working on double line on automatic block system? communication in double line? A: Not more than 25 kmph. A: 25/10/ KMPH/WP Q: In case of point zone track failure which button is used to Q: What will be the speed of second and subsequent train in operate point? case of single line working on double line in absolute block A: EWN button. system? Q: For cancelling signal overlap which button is used? A: Line close indication-yellow, line free indication-green A: EOVN button. and Line clear blocking key-In position.

Q: What is the shunting speed of a coaching vehiclewith Q: Which button is to be pressed in UFSBI to stop section occupants? Buzzer? A: 5-8 KMPH. A: ACKN black button.

Q: How many appendices are there in SWR? A: 7 appendices Q: To take line clear via UFSBI which buttons to be pressed? Q: What safety distance should be maintained with live OHE? A: Bell button (black) and train going to button (red) A: 2 meter (7 feet) simultaneously.

Q: What is described in Appendix 7 of SWR? Q: In case of failure of BPAC what is the first duty of SM after A: Working of trains in Electrified Sections. arrival of a train at his station? A: To ensure complete arrival of the train by seeing tail Q: Which buttons are used to cancel line clear in UFSBI? board or tail lamp or by issuing T/1410. A: Cancel co-operation button and Cancel button. Q: In case of failure of BPAC before resetting it what is the duty Q: Fog Signal Post is provided at ------meters away from first of station master? stop signal of a block station. A: To notice error code. If we start resetting error codes A: 270 meters. cannot be observed.

Q: Which officer put his signature in appendix D of SWR? Q: Accidents are classified in how many heads? A: Sr. DOM. A: 5 heads.

Q: Which officers put their signature in SWR? Q: How many categories of accidents are there in I R? A: DOM and DSTE. A: 16 categories.

Q: What is the full form of UFSBI? Q: During accident what is the first duty of SM? A: Universal Fail Safe Block Interface. A: To note down the time of first information.

Q: Before asking line clear through UFSBI what should be Q: Can dead loco be attached with super fast train? verified by SM? A: Yes.

Q: What is the normal speed of DMT? Q: Name an approved substitute of signal overlap. A: 40 Kmph. A: Sand Hump. Q: What is the speed of B class ODC? Q: Maximum how many persons can travel on a heavy duty A: 40/16 kmph.(straight route/curvature) motor trolley? A: 16 persons Q: What is the speed of C class ODC? A: 25/8kmph/dead slow.(Straight route/curvature/while Q: Minimum how many persons should travel on a motor passing a fixed structure) trolley on S/L? A: 6 persons. Q: Whose approval is needed to run C class ODC? A: CRS. Q: Can we take off last stop signal for shunting? A: No. Q: During foggy weather what is the maximum speed of train in automatic block system if the automatic signal is double Q: What is the separation distance between two motor trolleys? yellow? A: 100 meters A: 30 Kmph.

Q: What is the separation distance between train and trolley? Q: During foggy weather what is the maximum speed of train A: 150 meters. in absolute block system and in automatic block system if automatic signal remains in green position? Q: how to receive a train on a non signalled line? A: 60 kmph. A: Bypiloting with T/409. Q: What is ruling gradient? Q: What register is kept by trackman to take signature of A: Steepest gradient of the section is called ruling driver at stop indication board? gradient. A: Restriction Book.

Q: Can shunt signal be placed below advance starter? Q: What does oooooo(6) beats indicate? A: Yes. A: Danger or obstruction.

Q: Why T/431 form is used? Q: During failure under which code can Relay room key be A: Train Examination advice memo. drawn? A: Code 5 Q: Is repeating signal a stop signal? A: No. A: Particulars of fog signal man and their assurance. Q: Goods warning board is provided at what distance from first stop signal or gate stop signal? Q: What is written on OP/T124 part-II? A: 1400 meters. A: Particulars of receipt of detonators and stock of detonators. Q: Goods warning board is provided at what distance from first stop signal or gate stop signal in Rajdhani route? Q: What is written on OPT-124 Part-III? A: 1500 meters. A: Particulars of fog, fog signal man on duty, number of detonators used, date, and time. Q: What is the use of track circuit? A: It indicates presence of vehicle in the portion of track. Q: What is written on OP/T124 Part-IV? A: Particulars of testing of detonators. Q: For reception of train in non signalled line, how far line should be kept clear? Q: What is the distance between speed indicator and speed A: Up to outermost trailing point of the non signalled line. restriction zone? A: 30 meters. Q: What is the authority to proceed on double line for motor trolley? Q: What is the distance between stop indicator and speed A: T/1525. restriction zone? A: 30 meters. Q: What is the form number of Conditional line clear ticket for down line used in case of total failure of communication on Q: What is the speed of goods train in case of bad riding in the single line? section? A: T/H602. A: 16 kmph.

Q: What is the maximum number of person to board on a Q: For how long records of caution orders are preserved in motor trolley on S/L & D/L? station? A: 10 A: One year.

Q: Before giving line clear to a train SM will exchange private Q: For how long records of accident cases of serious nature is number with the gate man of non-interlock gate with what preserved in station? information? A: 5 years. A: Train Number and time. Q: During line clear through VHF set which number sheet is Q: What is written on OP/T124 part-I? used? A: Identification number sheet. Q: Who determines booked speed? A: PCOM Q: What whistle code is used by driver for train parting? A: Long Short Long Short Q: Which form is issued by guard to the driver in case of goods train parting? Q: What whistle code is given by driver if fouling mark is not A: T/609 clear? A: Long- Long- Long Q: Who is the authorised person to take relay room key? A: AuthorisedS&T staff whose names are listed in SI-24. Q: What whistle code is given by the driver if token is lost? A: Short Long Short. Q: At the time of cancellation of S&T/DN what is the duty of SM? Q: What whistle code is given by the driver in case of ACP? A: To check interlocking. A: Short Short Long. Q: If night patrol man does not turn up as per beat chart what Q: What will be the maximum speed of DMT if engine pushes speed restriction should be imposed? the load but brake van leading? A: 40kmph. A: 25 kmph. Q: What will be the speed of EMU if water level rises above rail Q: Who issue Working Time Table? level upto 5 cm? A: PCOM A: 5 kmph. Q: What is the minimum distance between two automatic signals? Q: Suppose home signal at your station has been uprooted due A: 1000meters. to violent storm. How will you receive a train? A: By piloting with T/409 Q: What is the distance between caution indicator board and speed indicator board? Q: In which condition you may put back a signal? A: 1170 meters. A: To avoid an accident. Point should not be altered until SMis personally satisfied that the train has stopped Q: What is the form number of caution register? completely. A: OP/T-91. Q: What is Golden hour? Q: The violation of which rule is called breach of block rule? A: One hour just after an accident. A: GR 8.01

Q: What will be the speed of train while entering dead end Q: For securing hand brakes of at least ------wagons to be platform? tightened in case of goods train. A: 15kmph. A: 6 wagons

Q: For tightening, hand brakes to be moved towards Off/ On. Q: What is the main difference between DLBI and UFSBI? A: Towards ON. A: DLBI is co-operative in nature but UFSBI is non co operative in nature. Q: What is the maximum speed of shunting? A: 15 KMPH

Q: What is the life of detonators? Q: If motor point fails how it is set and locked? A: 5 years. Three years of life can be extended by testing A: Set by Crank handle and locked by clamp & pad lock at each year. both facing and trailing ends.

Q: How long a porter may be utilised as fog signal man at a Q: Adequate distance for shunting is ------? stretch during fog? A: 20 meters A: 3 hours. Q: Name a signal which cannot be used for shunting. Q: What is the safety distance of Fog signal man? A: Home/Advance starter (first stop and last stop signal of A: 45 meters. the station)

Q: What is the full form of VTO? Q: Which copy of T369 (3b) is given to the driver? A: Visibility Test Object. A: First copy.

Q: Distanceof VTO from SM room is------? Q: What is the form number of caution order? A: 180meters. A: T/409

Q: Fog signal man will stand with hand signal lamp of ------Q: What forms and what signals are used to receive a train at colour after placing fog signal during fog. blocked line? A: White colour. A: T/409, T/509, Calling on &Shunt signal

Q: Fog signal man will be a permanent/temporary staff. Q: What is the height of height gauge? A: Permanent A: 4.67meters

Q: A case of detonators contains ---- detonators. Q: What is the depth of check rail and gap between running A: 10 rail and check rail? A: Depth is 38 mm. Gap is 51-57 mm. Q: Number of fog signal register is ------. A: OP/T 124 Q: Where RW/L board located? A: 250 meters from unmanned level crossing. A: Closing the gate. Q: TVU of special class gate should be more than -----. A: 50,000 Q: More than ------inactive wagons should not be marshalled in one hook. Q: Special class gate should not be closed for more than ------A: Two inactive wagons minutes. A: 10 minutes Q: What is the form number of train intact register? A: T/1410 Q: For calculating TVU, train is treated as ------unit. A: 1 unit Q: Driver/Guard who will sign on T/1410? A: Guard Q: TVU is calculated for every ----- year. A: 3 year Q: In which danger gateman will not show red signal? A: Train parting Q: Gate signal should be placed at not less than ------meters from level crossing gate. Q: How distant signal can be distinguished? A: 180meters. A: by seeing ‘P’ marker.

Q: Whistle board is placed at a distance of ------meters from Q: What is the dimension of hand signal flag? level crossing. A: 50cmX45cm. A: 600 meters. Q: Which marker is provided at gate signal? Q: In case of obstruction at level crossing gate Jorider(staff) A: G -marker. with modified red should be placed at a distance of ----- meters from the end of check rail. Q: Engine should be attached with LHB coach at a speed not A: 5 meters/8 sleepers exceeding-----. A: 2-3 KMPH. Q: In case of obstruction at level crossing gate first detonator to be placed at a distance of ------meters from level crossing Q: Name a fixed signal which cannot be placed on a separate gate. post. A: 600meters/9 OHE post A: Calling on signal Q: Which signals are used to receive a train in blocked or obstructed line? Q: When calling on signal is at on position it will show ------A: Calling on or shunt signal. light. A: No light. Q: For using hand generator at ELB Hand Generator Selector Switch to be kept at ------position. Q: When shunt signal is placed below a stop signal it will show A: Back up position. ----- light at on position. A: No light Q: If OHE parts first duty of gateman is------. Q: Shunting speed of passenger coaches with occupants-- Q: In which case before issuing T/369(3b) clamping of points is A: 5-8 KMPH not necessary? A: In PI, EI, RRI, SSI if complete route along with point Q: Shunting speed of wagons with dangerous goods is ------. lock & CH in indication appears in the panel& remain A: 8 KMPH steady but only signal fails clamping of point is not required. Q: During shunting ELB handle should be kept at ------side. A: Loaded side (black) Q: What is the colour of angle cock of feed pipe and brake pipe? Q: Normal aspect of automatic signal is ------A: Angle cock of Feed pipe is White but green for brake A: Green pipe.

Q: Advance starter guards ------Q: For detaching a wagon, angle cock from engine side or A: Block section brake van side to be closed first? A: Engine side. Q: Shunting order form number is ------A: T/806 Q: What is the height of OHE at level crossing? A: 5.5 meters Q: At originating station who will attach engine? A: Assistant driver Q: After completion of shunting what signal should be displayed by shunt man to the gateman so that he may Q: If home signal fails we may use ----- signal to receive the open the gate? train. A: Red hand signal. A: Calling on signal Q: Before showing red hand signal after shunting what will Q: Which block station will not show all right signal? shunt man observe? A: Station having yard with it where shunting pilot works. A: Whether fouling marks are clear or not.

Q: What amount of air pressure should be present in brake Q: If manufacturing date of detonator written on detonator pipe? does not match with the date written on the box- which one A: 5 kg/cm square. should be considered? A: Date written on the detonator is authentic. Q: How many engines can be attached to a train? A: Three (2-Train engine, 1-dead engine) Q: How many sleepers will be considered as 10 meters? A: 16 sleepers. Q: If a vehicle catches fire it should be detached and separated at a distance of ----- meters from other coaches. Q: Whose signature is to be taken on T-1410? A: 45 meters. A: Guard.

Q: In case of failure of shunt signal which form is to be used? A: T/806. block system we can provide more than one train between two block stations by providing series of Q: Mention an instance where red is all right signal. automatic signals. A: After completion of shunting red hand signal is shown by shunt man to cabin or gateman. Q: What is the distance between height gauge and centre of nearest railway track? Q: What is the normal aspect of automatic signal? A: 11 meters. A: Green. Q: How will you come to know that a signal is automatic Q: What is the distance between speed breaker and gate post? signal? A: 20 meters. A: By seeing ‘A’ marker. Q: At the time of detaching engine from load which should be Q: What is the safety distance between OHE and our body? done first- engine to be uncoupled or pressure pipe to be A: 2 meters or 7 feet. opened? A: Pressure pipe to be opened first. Q: During fog signal man will place first detonator at a distance of ------meters from ------signal. Q: Before opening pressure pipe whose angle cock to be closed A: 270 meters, first stop signal (Home signal) of the first- engine or load? station. A: Pressure pipe of engine or engine side is to be closed first. Q: Which hand signal to be shown by the fog signal man in case of fog for an outgoing train in single line station? Q: After attaching engine whose angle cock to be opened first- A: Green hand signal light. engine or load? A: Load. Q: How many fog signals will a fog signal man carry while going to the Home signal for placing detonators? Q: At the time of shunting of wagons what should be the A: No of 20 fog signal. position of knuckle? A: Open. Q: What type of fire extinguisher is used in Indian Railway? A: DCP (dry chemical powder) type. Q: If we put ELB handle of the wagon to the loaded side, we shall place it at which side- black or yellow side? Q: Why B and C are written on fire extinguisher? A: Black side. A: Suitable for B-class fire (inflammable liquid and inflammable gas) Q: Name a form which is not issued to the driver. Suitable for C-class fire (electrical short circuit) A: T/1410(Train Intact Register)

Q: State a difference between absolute block system and Q: How many safety chains are required to stable a load of automatic block system. roller bearing fitted wagons? A: In absolute block system there will be only one train A: At least 2 chains. between two block stations but in case of automatic Q: Where the traffic gates are located? A: Seizure of roller bearing. A: Within the outer most stop signals of the block stations. Q: What do you mean by day in railway? Q: If white light hand signal is moved violently across the body A: Sun rise to sun set. – what does it mean? A: Danger/stop. Q: What is level crossing? A: Intersection of road with railway track at the same Q: If green light hand signal moved across the body what does level. it mean? A: Move towards the person signalling. Q: During fire in a train burning vehicle should be detached at a distance of ----- meters. Q: If white light is moved up and down –what does it mean? A: 45 meters. A: Train parting. Q: What is the form number of paper line clear ticket for up Q: If green light is shown moved up and down – what does it train? indicate? A: T/C 1425. A: Move ahead cautiously. Q: What is the form number of NIL caution? Q: During night while coming on load for attaching which light A: T/A-409. is shown on the body of the standing load near the coupling? Q: What is the form number of starting order? A: White light. A: T/511.

Q: Which types of signals are used to control the movement of Q: How will you receive a train in non-signalled line? shunting? A: By piloting with T/409. A: Fixed signal, hand signal or verbal order. Q: What should be done before taking out emergency key at Q: What should be the minimum air pressure in goods guard level crossing gate? brake van? A: Permission from SM under exchange of private number. A: 4.7 to 4.8 kg/cm square. Q: What is the form number of brake power certificate? Q: Why all right signal is exchanged with the driver and guard A: Mechanical V-5. of through trains? A: To ensure all is right with the train. Q: What is the distance between two rails in broad gauge? A: 1676 millimetres. Q: Guard of which train will not exchange all right signal? A: Guard of that train whose guard brake is air condition Q: How much air pressure should a feed pipe contain? will not exchange all right signal. A: 6 kg/cm square in feed pipe.

Q: If metallic sound comes from wheel –what does it indicate? Q: After issuing T511 what should be the duty of points man/porter? Q: Name a signal which can be passed without any form at ON A: To pilot the train up to the last set of point of position? station/yard. A: Gate signal/ Automatic signal.

Q: At night time if Red colour of hand signal lamp becomes out Q: What is the advance reservation period at present? of order what will porter/gateman do? A: 120 days. A: Wave white light horizontally across his body. Q: Minimum how many engines are required to form Long Q: Suppose a goods train has banking in rear and Home signal Haul? has been failed in face of that train. In that situation A: Two. T/369(3b) has been issued. Driver of which engine will get the copy of T/369(3b)? Q: What is the impact speed of BOXN /BCN wagons during A: Porter will obtain signature of the driver of banking shunting? engine on the record copy and will hand over to the A: Impact speed of single BOXN / BCN wagon is 5kmph & driver of leading engine. in case of atleast 5 such wagons in a hook is 2.5kmph.

Q: In case of failure of home signal after serving T369 (3b) Q: Which type of wagons is suitable for two point rake? porter will show proceed hand signal from the foot of the A: Covered wagons. For example BCN wagons. defective signal or from point? A: From the foot of the defective signal. Q: What is the advance period for current reservation? A: 30 minutes. Q: Will porter show proceed hand signal after issuing T369 (3b) for Advance Starter signal? Q: Name an article which cannot be carried as luggage? A: No. If advance starter guards any point then he will A: Explosives. show proceed hand signal after issuing T369 (3b). Q: Name an article which will not be counted as luggage? Q: Why DDJ, NH are exempted from showing all right signal? A: Ice box. A: These stations have busy yard. Seeing all right signal of porter drivers of shunting engines may be confused. Q: Name a form which is issued by the guard to the Driver. A: T609- Issued in case of train dividing. Q: Before exchanging all right signal what should be ensured by the porter? Q: Name a form which is issued by guard and given to the SM. A: Starter signal has been taken off. A: C/67- Siding clearance memo.

Q: Which type of coupling is used in LHB coach? Q: GR is framed by------. A: CBC-H type coupling. A: Railway board

Q: Which type coupling is used in EMU train? Q: SR is framed by------A: Shaku coupling. A: Authorised officer. COM is authorised officer in our A: 12+03 days zone. Q: CC rake BPC is valid for----- Q: Which line will you prefer to receive a train having seizure of A: 35 days or 7500km whichever is earlier. roller bearing- loop or main line? A: Main line. Q: End-to end rake BPC is valid for------A: Loading to unloading point. Q: What is the indication of train parting? A: A white light by night or a green flag by day moved up Q: Colour of CC rake BPC is ------and down. A: ff.

Q: What does AG- marker in a signal indicate? Q: Colour of end to end rake BPC is --- A: Point is set and locked but gate is either opened or A: Light green. broken. Q: Colour of premium rake BPC is------Q: What is the full form of CTR? A: Deep green. A: Combined Train Report. Q: What is the capacity of high capacity parcel van? Q: What is the full form of VG? A: 23 Ton A: Vehicle guidance. Q: In case of AC failure in a train which form is given by guard Q: What is the full form of SLR? to the passenger? A: Second Class Luggage cum Brake Van. A: Guard Certificate.

Q: Detonators are also known as ----- signals. Q: Write four causes of late running of PASSENGER TRAINS. A: Fog A: A) Non judicious crossing and precedence. B) Signal failure. Q: Speed of train passing a signal with T369(3b) is------C) In adequate platform facility at originating station. A: Not more than 15 kmph D) Banner flag by Engineering department at peak period. Q: Speed of train during NI work is ------E) Excess caution in section A: 15 kmph F) Fog during winter season.

Q: Speed of train while entering a dock platform is--- Q: What do you mean by one set of hand signal flag? A: 10kmph A: 2 red and 1 green.

Q: Speed of train while entering a dead end platform is ------Q: What is the speed of train running without brake van? A: 15 kmph. A: Booked speed. Stop start at station if visibility is not clear. Q: Premium rake BPC is valid for ----- Q: What is the full form of BMBC? BTPN-50 A: Bogie Mounted Brake Cylinder-a type of coach. BOBRN-59 BOBYN-53 Q: Which block station is exempted from exchanging all right signal to the driver and guard of a through train? Q: Name three essential equipment’s of guard. A: Station having large yard where yard pilot works. A: Detonator, hand signal flag, hand signal lamp, wrist watch, walkie talkie, whistle, GR&SR, Accident Manual Q: Write two symptoms of seizure of roller bearing. book etc A: A) Metallic sound B) smell of burning Grease. Q: What are the main duties of guard after train accident?(In Short) Q: Which wagon is suitable for carrying coal, iron ore? Protection of site. A: BOXN, BOXNHL,BOBRN  Collect and send information’s to nearest SM and control regarding casualties, nature of accident, nature Q: Which wagon is suitable for carrying food grain, cement, of medical aid required, whether adjacent line is blocked and sugar? or not, nature of assistance required etc. A: BCN,BCNHL  Save lives of passengers then belongings of passengers. Q: Name a wagon which has bottom discharge facility.  Take help of doctors and railway staff available at the A: BOBRN train.

Q: What are the duties of station staff during fog? Q: What are the things that are written on BPC? A: To check VTO frequently A: Issuing station/yard. B) Place two detonators 10 meters apart270meters away o Type of examination. from first stopsignal o Loco number. C) Not to advance any train up to o Number of operative and inoperative pistons. advanceStarterwithout getting lineClear. o Brake power percentage. D) To lit all the white lights at the station, gate. o Air pressure in locomotive and brake van.TXR staff E) Not to instruct driver regarding issue this certificate and hand over to driver and guard. aspectofsignalthrough VHF set. Signature TXR, Driver and Guard is mandatory.

Q: What are the duties of running staff during fog? Q: Speed of train during detonator testing is ---- A: A) Guard should ensure tail lamp at the back of the A: 8-12kmph. train. B) Driver to ensure prescribed speed during fog. Q: Which class of ODC may not run during night? C) Driver should carry first stop signal location A: C-class ODC kilometre chart. Q: when a passenger carrying train is called high speed train? Q: Write the rake composition of the following wagons:- A: If booked speed as well as maximum permissible speed A: BOXN- 59 of the train is above 110 kmph. BCN-42 Q: Dead engine may not be attached to a train consisting of more than ------number of LHB coaches. Q: Adequate distance for shunting is ------? A: 21 No of LHB coaches A: 20 meters

Q: What is the life of detonators? Q: Name a signal which cannot be used for shunting. A: 5 years. Life three years can be extended by testing A: Home/Advance starter(first stop and last stop signal of each year. the station)

Q: What is the full form of VTO? Q: What forms and what signals are used to receive a train at A: Visibility Test Object. blocked line? A: T409/T509. Calling on/Shunt signal Q: Distance between Station Master room and VTO is------? A: 180meters. Q: What is the height of height gauge? A: 4.67meters Q: Fog signal man will stand with hand signal lamp of ------colour after placing fog signal during fog. Q: What is the depth of check rail and gap between running A: White colour. rail and check rail? A: Depth is 38 mm. Gap is 51-57 mm. Q: Fog signal man will be a permanent/temporary staff. A: Permanent Q: Where RW/l board located? A: 250 meters from unmanned level crossing. Q: A case of detonators contains ---- detonators. A: 10 Q: TVU of special class gate should be more than ------. A: 50,000 Q: Number of fog signal register is ------. A: OPT/124 Q: For calculating TVU, train is treated as ------unit. A: 1 unit Q: For securing hand brakes of at least ------wagons to be tightened in case of goods train. Q: TVU is calculated for every ----- year. A: 6 wagons A: 3 year

Q: For tightening, hand brakes to be moved towards Off/ On. Q: Gate signal should be placed at not less than ------meters A: Towards ON. from level crossing gate. A: 180meters. Q: What is the maximum speed of shunting? A: 15 KMPH Q: Whistle board is placed at a distance of ------meters from level crossing. Q: If motor point fails how is it set and locked? A: 600 meters. A: Set by Crank handle and lock by clamp at both facing and trailing ends. Q: In case of obstruction at level crossing gate Jorider(staff) with modified red should be placed at a distance of ----- Q: When calling on signal is at on position it will show --- light. meters from the end of check rail. A: No light. A: 5 meters/8 sleepers Q: When shunt signal is placed below a stop signal it will show Q: In case of obstruction at level crossing gate first detonator ----- light at on position. to be placed at a distance of ------meters from level crossing A: No light gate. A: 600meters/9 OHE post Q: Shunting speed of passenger coaches with occupants----- A: 5-8 KMPH Q: Which signals are used to receive a train in blocked or obstructed line? Q: Shunting speed of wagons with dangerous goods is ---. A: Calling on or shunt signal. A: 8 KMPH

Q: More than ------inactive wagons should not be marshalled Q: During shunting ELB handle should be kept at ------side. in one hook. A: Loaded side(black) A: two Q: Normal aspect of automatic signal is ------Q: Driver/Guard who will sign on T 1410? A: Green A: Guard Q: Advance starter guards ------Q: In which danger gateman will not show red signal? A: Block section A: Train parting Q: Shunting order form number is ------Q: How distant signal can be distinguished? A: T/806 A: by seeing P –marker. Q: At originating station who will attach engine? Q: What is the dimension of hand signal flag? A: Assistant driver A: 50cmX45cm. Q: If home signal fails we may use ----- signal to receive the Q: Which marker is provided at gate signal? train. A: G -marker. A: Calling on signal

Q: Engine should be attached with LHB coach at a speed not Q: Which block station will not show all right signal? exceeding-----. A: Station having yard with it where shunting pilot works. A: 2-3 KMPH. Q: What amount of air pressure should be present in brake Q: Name a fixed signal which cannot be placed on a separate pipe? post. A: 5 kg/cm square. A: Calling on signal Q: How many engines can be attached to a train? Q: How many sleepers will be considered as 10 meters? A: Three (2-Train engine, 1-dead engine) A: 16 sleepers.

Q: If a vehicle catches fire it should be detached and separated Q: Whose signature is to be taken on T-1410? at a distance of ----- meters from other coaches. A: Guard. A: 45 meters. Q: In case of failure of shunt signal which form is to be used? Q: In which case before issuing T369(3b) clamping of points is A: T806. not necessary? A: In case of panel, interlocking, Electrical interlocking, Q: Mention an instance where red is all right signal. RRI, SSI if complete route indication along with point A: After completion of shunting red hand signal is shown lock indication appears in the panel, only signal fails by shunt man to cabin or gateman. clamping of point is not required. Q: What is the normal aspect of automatic signal? Q: What is the colour of angle cock of feed pipe and brake A: Green. pipe? A: Angle cock of Feed pipe-White but cock of brake pipe is Q: How will you come to know that a signal is automatic green. signal? A: By seeing A-marker. Q: For detaching a wagon, angle cock from engine side or brake van side to be closed first? Q: What is the safety distance between OHE and our body? A: Engine side. A: 2 meters or 7 feet.

Q: What is the height of OHE at level crossing? Q: During fog fog signal man will place first detonator at a A: 5.5 meters distance of ------meters from ------signal. A: 270 meters,first stop signalof the station. Q: After completion of shunting what signal should be displayed by shunt man to the gateman so that he may Q: Which hand signal to be shown by the fog signal man in open the gate? case of fog for an outgoing train in single line station? A: Red hand signal. A: Green hand signal light.

Q: Before showing red hand signal after shunting what will Q: What is the adequate distance for shunting? shunt man observe? A: 20 meters. A: Whether fouling marks are clear or not. Q: What is the maximum speed of shunting? A: 15kmph. Q: If manufacturing date of detonator written on detonator does not match with the date written on the box- which one Q: What is the impact speed of a single BOX wagonduring shunting? should be considered? A: 5kmph. A: Date written on the detonator is authentic.

Q: What is the impact speed of shunting of a groupof 5 box wagons during Q: How much pressure does brake pipe contain? shunting? A: 5kg/cm square. A: 2.5 kmph. Q: How much pressure does feed pipe contain? Q: What is the shunting speed of coaching vehicleswith occupants? A: 6kg/cm square. A: 5-8kmph. Q: Give a reason of brake binding. Q: What should be the speed of coaches/wagons while shunting is A: Heavy leakage. performed? with the help of hand signal? A: 5kmph. Q: After giving line clear to a train shunting upto Home signal is permitted or not? A: Not permitted. Q: What is the maximum speed of shunting of wagons containing Petrol/explosives? Q: After arrival of a goods train at a yard what thing is to be ensured first? A: 8kmph. A: Clearance of fouling Mark.

Q: Name two fixed signals that can be used for the purpose of shunting. Q: After completion of shunting and before showing red hand signal what A: Calling on signal and shunt signal. is the first duty of shunt man? A: To ensure clearance of fouling mark. Q: When starter signal can be used for the purpose of shunting? A: When Advance starter signal is provided and starter is free. Q: What is the form number of shunting order? Q: Name two fixed signals that cannot be used for the purpose of shunting. A: T/806. A: Home signal and Advance starter signal Q: What is the form number of Brake Power Certificate? Q: After setting and locking of points man will show red hand signal/green A: MECHANICAL V-5. hand signal. A: Red hand signal. Q: Who issues Mechanical V5? A: TXR staff. Q: After completion of shunting operation shunt man will show red/green hand signal to the gateman to open the gate. Q: What is the colour of Mechanical V5 in case of CC rake? A: Red hand signal. A: Yellow.

Q: What is the colour of the angle cock of Brake pipe? Q: What is the full form VG? A: Green A: Vehicle Guidance.

Q: What is the colour of the angle cock of feed pipe? Q: VG is handed over to ------(Driver/Guard). A: White A: Guard.

Q: At the time of detaching engine, which one to be closed first-Angle cock Q: At least --- safety chains with pad locks are required for securing of of load/angle cock of engine vehicles A: Angle cock of engine. A: 2 safety chains.

Q: At the time of attaching engine, which angle cock to be opened first- Q: When a train is running what will be the position of angle cocks? Engine/Load? A: All angle cocks will remain open but the angle cocks in rear of the A: Angle cock of the load to be opened first. brake van will be in closed position.

Q: Which type of coupling is provided at LHB coach? Q: What is the form number of starting order? A: CBC H type coupling. A: T/511

Q: What are the maximum numbers of engines that can be attached to a Q: What is the duty of point’s man after issuing T511 to the driver? train? A: pilot the train up to the last set of point of the yard/station. A: 3 Engines. Q: Which signals can be used for receiving a train in blocked Q: Which safety items should be used to secure a vehicle against rolling? line/obstructed line? A: Skid, wooden wedges, safety chain, pad lock. A: Calling on signal/shunt signal . Q: How will you understand that angle cock is open? Q: which forms can be used to receive a train in obstructed line? A; Cock handle should be parallel to the pressure pipe. A: T/ 409, T/509

Q: What is facing point? Q: When calling on signal is taken off it shows green/yellow light. A: If point can directly divert a train from one line to another the point is A: Yellow said to be facing point. Q: When shunt signal is taken off it shows two horizontal/angular white Q: When trap point is set at Normal position, trap is open or close? light A: Open. A: Two angular white light.

Q: If the wagon is loaded Empty Load Handle should be placed towards Q: Where fouling mark is provided? Yellow/Black side? A: Where two line join or cross one another. A: Black side. Q: If dead engine is to be attached with passenger train,where will you Q: During securing of a goods train hand brakes of at least --- wagons to be attach it? tightened from either end. A: In rear of train engine. A: 6 wagons. Q: In rear of SLR how many coaches can be attached? Q: At least – skids are required for securing of vehicle. A: Two.(3rd one may be attached but it must be Inspection Car) A: 4 skids. Q: Name some safety items that are used by a shunting staff. A: Hand signal flag, hand signal lamp, clamp, pad lock, skid,safety chain etc. Q: Which express train is not used for travelling purpose? A: Sanskriti express. Q: How many names can be entered in a reservation requisition slip? Q: Which station in India has the smallest name? A: 6 Names can be entered. A: IB in Orissa. Q: Where is Integral Coach Factory located? Q: If dependant is included in a pass, total how many persons A: Chennai. may travel with the pass? A: 5 persons Q: Where is Rail Coach Factory located? Q: Brake journey is permitted for a ticket more than ----- km. A: Kapurthala- Punjab. A: 500km Q: Where is Diesel Locomotive works located? Q: For a ticket more than 1000km maximum brake journey A: Varanasi permitted is------A: Only 2 Q: Where is Wheel and Axle plant located? A: Bangalore. Q: What is the cost and validity period of platform ticket? Q: How may special CL may be availed by a staff who attends A: Rs 10/-. Two hours. TA camp? A: 06 days. Q: What is the form number of major penalty charge sheet? A: SF-5 Q: How many days a staff may avail special CL who donate blood in blood donation camp? Q: What is the form number of minor penalty charge sheet? A: One day(The day of donating blood) A: SF-11 Q: How many zones are there in Indian railway? A: 17 zones Q: Name 5 made over points of Sealdah division. A: Gede with Bangladesh. Petrapol with Bangladesh, Q: In which year Shatabdi express first started running? Majherhat with Dock, CCLink East cabin with Howrah A: In the year 1988 to commemorate the birth ceremony division, NaihatiLink Cabin with Howrah division. of Jawharlal Nehru.

Q: Name four superfast trains of Sealdah division. Q: Who is the first and the present railway minister? A: Rajdhani, Duronto, Darjeeling mail, Akal takth. A: John Mathai and PiyushGoyel.

Q: How many PTO s may be availed during a year? Q: Arrange in decending order according to length of railway A: 4 PTOs network.- India, China USA, Russia A: USA, China, Russia, India Q: Which train travels the largest distance in India? A: Vivek Express. Dibrugarh to Kanyakumari. Q: Which is the longest and busiest railway line in the world? A: Trans-Siberian Railway Q: Which state in India does not have Railway? A: Shikkim Q: Which train runs between Delhi and Lahore? A: Samjhauta Express Q: Name of DRM of our Division. A: Sri PravashDansana Q: Which zone in India has the largest route kilometres? A: Northern Railway Q: Name of GM of our zone A: SriHarindra Kumar Rao Q: Which is the largest marshalling yard in Asia? A: Mughalsarai. Q: Name of Sr. DOM of our division. A: Sri SouravDey Q: Where is National Rail Museum located? A: New Delhi Q: NAME OF CHAIRMAN OF RAILWAY BOARD. A: SriAswani Kumar Lohani Q: Name a station in India which has broad gauges, meter gauges and narrow gauges. Q: Child care leave may be availed minimum of ---- days, A: Siliguri maximum ---- times in a year. A: 15 days. 3 times Q: Who designed first railway time table? A: George Bradshaw Q: Counter signature of railway doctor is not needed on a PMC for a period up to ---- hours. Q: Which is the largest railway junction in India? A: 72 hours. A: Mathura Q: How many passes a railway employ may get after Q: Which city has head quarter of three zones? retirement? A: Kolkata A: 2 set for service more than 25 years. 1 set for service less than 25 years. Q: Gorakhpur which has the longest railway platform is located in ------Q: Recently which train caught fire in Birlanagar near Gwalior? A: Uttar Pradesh A: Andhra Pradesh AC superfast express. Q: How many brake journeys may be availed in a privilege Q: Fairy Queen the world’s oldest steam locomotive still runs pass? between Delhi and Alwar. A: As mentioned in the pass.

Q: What is the longest railway tunnel in India? Q: Recently which train ran without engine about 13 A: PirPanjal tunnel. kilometres? A: AhmadabadPuri express at Titlagarh station in Odisa. Q: What is the mascot of Indian railway? A: Bholu- An elephant Q: What type of fire extinguisher is used in Indian Railway? A: DCP(dry chemical powder) type.

Q: What is the width of Narrow gauge rail? Q: Why B and C are written on fire extinguisher? A: 0.762 A: Suitable for B-class fire (inflammable liquid and inflammable gas)&Suitable for C-class fire( electrical Q: Where is the Headquarters of Konkanrailway? short circuit) A: Bilapur

Q: NAME OF CHAIRMAN OF RAILWAY BOARD. Q: Which is the fastest train in India? A: Vinod Kumar Yadav A: Shatabdi Express

Q: where green signal will be displayed? Q: In which year Indian Railway board established? A: From the foot of the signal. A: 1905

Q: What is the width of Broad gauge rail? Q: Which is the first Railway station in India? A: 1.676 A: ChhatrapatiShivajiTerminus(Victoria terminal)

Q: Which is the First Electric Train in India? Q: Who is the first Indian to present Railway Budget? A: Deccan Queen (Kalyan - Pune) A: John Mathai

Q: When did Life Line Express (1676 millimetres.Rekha) Started? Q: Who is the first railway minister in India? A: In 1991 A: LalBahadurShastri

Q: Which year is declared as “Year of Rail Users “by the IndianRailways? Q Who is the first lady Railway minister of India? A: 1995 A: Mamata Benerjee

Q: Which is the Longest Railway Tunnel? Q: Which is the highest railway station in India? A: PirPanjal Railway Tunnel (Banihal railway tunnel) A: Ghum Railway station

Q: Which is the Longest Railway platform in the World? Q: Which is the longest Railway Bridge in India? A: Gorakhpur station platform (UP) A: Vallarpadam Bridge (Kerala)

Q: Which is the train running betweenIndia and Bangladesh? Q: What is the slogan of Indian Railway? A: Maitree Express A: lifeline of the nation

Q: Which are the states have no Railway? Q: Where is the Museum of Indian Railway situated? A: Meghalaya and Sikkim (building new railway lines) A: Chanakyapuri (New Delhi)

Q: Which is the World’s oldest working steam locomotive engine (train)? Q: Who was first female operator in Delhi Metro? A: Fairy Queen runs in India A: Minakshi Sharma. A: In Morghat (Pure–Bombay root) on 5 January, 1869 Q: Where has National Rail Museum been transferred fromDelhi? A: Rewari (Haryana) Q: Which is the longest rail route in India? A: From Dibrugarh (Assam) To Kanyakumari. Q: First female to become the member of Railway Board? A: VijaylaxmiVishwanathan Q: Where did first monorail operate in India? A: From Sarhind to Alampur and Bhawanimandi to Patiala Q: Where is in India, longest platform situated? A: Khadagpur (West Bengal) Q: What was the name of India's first indigenous steam engine? A: F–734 Q: Where does the only train for women run? A: From Churchgate to Boriwali in Mumbai Q: Which is India’s first longest railway tunnel situated? A: Between Monkey hill and Khandala (2100 mt) Q: After separation from India in 1947, Pakistan got howmuch long railway track? Q: Where the longest rail tunnel at present situated? A: 11,200 km A: Peerpranjal rail tunnel, Banihal (Kashmir) Kajiguda division, 11 km. Q: When did Indian Railway Act Pass? A: In 1890 Q: Where is the biggest Electrical loco shade situated at? A: Mughal Sarai (Uttar Pradesh) Q: Which is the longest railway zone in India? A: Northern Railway Q: First telecommunication between guard and driver began in which train on 20 June, 1982? Q: When did Metro Rail in Calcutta start? A: Mumbai–New Delhi (Rajdhani Express) A: 24 October, 1984 Q: Whose formation took place on 14 April, 1951 as Regional Railway in Q: When is Railway Day celebrated on? Indian Railway? A: 10–16April. A: Southern Railway.

Q: In which rail region did the automatic signal system start? Q: On 10, July 1988, Shatabdi Express began for the first time between A: Central Railway. which two stations? A: Between New Delhi–Jhansi Q: How many Railway Recruitment Boards are there in India? A: 19 Q: On 1st March 1969 first Rajdhani Express ran between which two stations? Q: In Indian railway, where and by what name did first touristrail start? A: New Delhi–Howrah A: Palace on wheels in 1982 between Delhi–Jaipur Q: Name the first DC electrical rail engine? Q: Where did first railway accident in the history of Indian A: Lokmanya (CLW manufactured it in 1961) Railway occurred?\ Q: How many Workshops are there in Indian Railways? Q: Who is the Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu? A: 44 Workshop A: E.K. Palaniswami

Q: Who is the Minister for Railways? Q: Who is the Governor of AP? A: Piyush Goel A: Biswa Bhusan

Q: Where is the Railway Board situated? Q: Write any two allowances admissible to you? A: New Delhi A: DA, HRA,NDA,NHA

Q: What are the currencies of USA, Dubai, Singapore, Australia, Q: Write any two allowances admissible to Railway servant? Bangladesh, Russia, China, Sri Lanka, and Pakistan? A: DA, HRA,NDA,NHA A: Q: Who is Election Commissioner of India? Q: What is meant by D & A Rules? A: Sunil Arora A: Discipline & Appel Rule

Q: How Many states are there in India? Q: How many sets of passes and PTOs are entitled to a Group D employee A: 29 who has put in 4 years of service? A: Pass 01 set andf PTO 4 set Q: How many Union Territories are there in India? A: 7 Q: Where is the only Degree College on Indian Railways? A: JamalPur (IRIMEE) S. C. Railway Q: Who is the Chief Justice of India? A: Ranjan Gogoi Q: What is SBF? A: Staff Benefit Fund Q: Who was called as Punjab Kesari? A: A: 1st Ranjit Singh and 2nd Lala lajpath Rai. Q: How many Trade unions are recognized on Indian Railways? What are they? Q: Where is the Railway Museum located? A: 17 A: New Delhi Q: If an employee opts for widow-complimentary passes, he is entitled for 6 sets of PTOs. Q: Who is the Head of the Indian Railways? A: 4 SET A: CRB Q: The lowest pay scale is Rs. 2610-3540. Q: Which Department handles health care of the employees? A: A: Medical Q: The V Pay Commission recommendations are made effective from 01.04.96. Q: Who is the Head of the Zonal Railway? A: NO A: GM Q: A peon of CPO’s Office can be posted to Vijayawada on promotion. Q: A substitute in Group ‘D’ is entitled to appear for selection to Gr.’C’ post. A: NO Q: The pay scale of Junior Clerk is Rs. 4500-7000. Q: Bungalow Peons are transferable to any Railway along with the officer to whom he is attached. Q: White paper is non-stock item. A: NO A: NO Q: Bonus on Railways is payable twice a year. Q: Tables and Chairs required for an office are stocked items. A: NO A: YES Q: Monthly wages are paid to the staff on the first day of the month. Q: A supervisory official is entitled to draw a brief case for official purposes. A: NO A: YES Q: There are weekly and daily wage periods on Railways. Q: Employees with II Class pass are allowed in Guard’s Break van. A: NO A: NO Q: In case of any grievance, staff must approach the local political leader Q: A Station Master is capable to cancel a train. first. A: NO A: NO

Q: IRPS officers are recruited by RRB. Q: DAR action can be taken if any staffs represent their grievances through A: NO MPs/MLAs. A: YES Q: UPSC recruits Station Managers. A: NO Q: No wages are paid during suspension since the employee is not required to work during the suspension period. Q: Stenographers are personal staff of officers recruited by them. A: NO A: Q: A Bungalow Peon is recruited by RRB. Q: Suspension means punishing the employee for coming late to the office A: NO daily. A: No Q: Bungalow Peons are initially engaged with the approval the officer concerned. Q: Staff get half payment during suspension for unauthorised absence. A: YES A: No

Q: A substitute bungalow peon attains temporary status after 120 days Q: The cost of spectacles is reimbursed under Mutual Benefit Fund. service. A: No A: NO (3years) Q: Wife and husband, if both working as peons can be posted in the same Q: Asst. Officers are entitled to a Substitute Bungalow Peon. office. A: NO A: Yes Q: A Senior Clerk can remove a peon from service. Q: A group D employee should have minimum VIII Class qualification for A: `No recruitment on Railways. A: NO Q: AP Express runs between Secunderabad and Mumbai.

Q: Pension is payable to a Railway servant who retires from service with 5 Q: All Rajadhani Expresses are to and fro Delhi. years’ qualifying service. A: Yes A: No Q: Cattle can also be transported by Trains. Q: If a Group D employees dies after putting in 2 years’ service can be paid A: Yes pension. A: No Q: Fish cannot be carried by passenger trains. A: Yes

Q: Leave encashment is payable at the time of retirement only. Q: The rate of Railway Time Table is Rs.125/-. A: No A: Yes Q: Railway employees are given free food during IOD. A: No Q: The Railway Time Table gives the information about break journey.

Q: Workmen get compensation if one is injured while on duty and in the A: Yes course of one’s duty. Q: A pass holder cannot break his journey before completion of 500 Kms. A: Yes

A: No Q: Group D employees are entitled to free diet while taking treatment as inpatient in a Railway hospital. Q: A local train ticket is valid for 8 hours. A: No A: No Q: Un-married female employees are not entitled to Maternity Leave. A: Yes Q: Refund is granted by Station Master after two days of departure of the concerned train. Q: SC/ST candidates are given a free pass to enable them to attend the written examination conducted by RRB. A: No A: Yes Q: Full refund of fare is entitled on an unconfirmed ticket . Q: 70% of daily TA is payable to a Railway employee on line beyond 8 Kms for 3 hours. A: Yes A: No Q: The reservation charges are non-refundable. A: No A: NO

Q: A privilege pass is valid for 4 months during which the holder can travel Q: CFTM looks after movement of Freight Trains. any number of times. A: YES A: 5 Month Q: Container Corporation sells containers. Q: A TC should collect amount from ticket-less traveler if he is not a staff only. A: No

A: NO Q: IRCTC stands for Indian Railway Catering and Transport Corporation.

Q: Ticket checking staffs are running staff who are entitled for running A: No (Tourism) allowance.

A: YES

Q: Drivers are non-running staff. Q: RailTel is a Department Of Railways Who Tells About Railways To The Passengers. A: No A: No (Network) Q: Staff should be sober while on duty. Fill in the blanks A: YES

Q: Breathalyser test is to test the driver whether he is breathing is properly. Q: A bridge foundation having less then 2M depth below bed level in case of archbridges and 1.2M depth below bed level in case of other bridges A: NO is termed as…Shallow foundation.

Q: Taking intoxicated drinks before 10 hours of commencement of the duty Q: Paint Zinc chromate primer confirms to IS …104…. is punishable under DAR. Q: Paint Zinc chromate Red oxide primer confirms to IS …2074…. A: No (8HRS) Q: Paint Red Oxide confirms to IS …123…. Q: Peons are entitled to washing allowance. Q: Paint Aluminium confirms to IS …2339…. A: NO Q: Abbreviation of DFT ……Dry Film Thickness……… Q: Some trains are called freight trains because of their frightening speed. Q: Metallising is the process of spraying of …Zinc...or..Aluminium.. On thesurface prepared girder. Q: Abbreviation of TF is ……Top of Foundation Q: Greasing of bearings of Steel girder bridges is done once I …Three.. years. Q: Abbreviation of S is ………Sand……

Q: Abbreviation of PTFE is……Poly Tetra Fluoro Ethylene … Q: Abbreviation of C is ………Clay……

Q: Trolley refuges are provided at every …100 m on long bridges Q: Abbreviation of BC is ……Black cotton soil……..

Q: PSC is the abbreviation of….Prestressed Concrete….. Q: Abbreviation of NRS …Numerical Rating System… Q: The minimum thickness of Metallising is 115 micron Q: Abbreviation of CRN …Conditional Rating Number… Q: The average thickness of Metallising is 150micron Q: Abbreviation of ORN …Overall Rating Number Q: The weight of rivet testing hammer is 110 gm Q: Abbreviation of URN … Unique Rating Number Q: The URN of minor bridge shall be represented by its ORN Q: Abbreviation of RUB …Road Under Bridge… Q: The abutment the weep holes should be provided one metre horizontal Q: Abbreviation of ROB … Road Over Bridge and onemetre in vertical in a staggered manner.

Q: Abbreviation of FOB … Foot Over Bridge Q: Painting during night and early morning avoided because of dew Q: In important bridge the total linear waterway is 300 m or the total Q: Abbreviation of HFL …High Flood Level… water way is1000 sq.m.

Q: Stock indent form No is … S1313……. Q: In case of underwater independency diver will be employed in depth beyond 10m should be medically checked Q: Disposal of Unserviceable materials is under Form No. S.1539… Q: Renewal of loose rivet shall be taken up in end bearing stiffener when Q: Abbreviation of RL-BF is …Depth from rail level to bottom of the % ofhammer loose rivet is 30% foundation Q: In case of distressed bridge category II, ADEN shall inspect the bridge Q: Abbreviation WL is Well Foundation once in 6months. Q: Abbreviation of ON is …..Open Foundation Q: Greasing of bearing shall be done with grease graphite Q: Abbreviation of CCN is …Cement Concrete … Q: In case of bridge is distressed category I then special restriction of 15 Q: Abbreviation of BF is ……Bottom of Foundation……… kmph shallbe imposed

Q: The form number used for preparation of indent of stock item is S1313 Q: In a control chart the horizontal row indicates ____TIME______Q: The form used for preparation of Indent on non – stock item is S 1302 Q: Weather warning messages are issued by _____METEROLIGAL Q: In case of transfer of material from one custodian to another through is Department______ST 47challan Q: Bans are imposed by _____DRM______Q: As per GCC Engineer shall mean DEN / XEN Q: In train No. 2723, the first number 2 indicates _long-distance Q: Approved special instructions are issued by ______CRS______trains_/Destination

Q: Office of the Chief Commissioner of Railway Safety is located at Q: Primary train examination is generally conducted at __BASE STN.______Lucknow Q: Z R U C C means Zonal Railway Users' Consultative Committee Q: Section 6 of Railway Act 1989 deals with ___Duties of Commissioner.

Q: Statutory enquiry has to be commenced by CRS within __Day of Q: .At Railway Board, presently the inter-change of wagons are monitored Accident +7 days of an Occurrence of a passenger train accident. by Director Wagon inter Change______

Q: CRS will submit his detailed report to CCRS and other authorities’ Q: The speed of the goods train carrying C class ODC shall not exceed 25_ in__60__ days. KMPH

Q: An ideal time for surprise inspection is __00:00 Hrs to 04:00 (Last Q: CONCOR means ___Container Corpration of India Night)___ Q: IRCTCL means __Indian Railway Tourism and Catering sevice_ Q: Average speed of a goods train = Train KM? A: No Q: ___Durgapur__ is known as Dry port also.

Q: The holding of wagons in a yard is more than the working capacity, it Q: Ranjitpura is known mainly for ___Railway wagon__ loading. leads to _Yeard Congestion _. Q: Ramagundam is known mainly for _Jammikunta, Kesoram Cement_loading. Q: The Divisional Control Office is under the Administrative control of__DRM______Q: A R T shall be ready within_30___ minutes by day and _45______minutes by night. Q: All defects in OHE are to be reported to ______TPC______Q: Accident siren four long, one short indicates _Accident at our station Q: Power block is given by ____OHE___. main block___ Q: The brake power of Mail/Express trains shall not be less than Q: The Station Master who gives line clear shall remain on duty till the train ______90%______per cent en-route. has arrived and the __TOS______signal is given and acknowledged. Q: The engine whistles code for Guard to come to engine is_BREAK OF Q: Verbal directions for shunting have to be accompanied BLULK RULE__ by ____Guard______Q: The amount of air pressure required to be registered in the FP gauge of Q: In an accident where the damage to railway property exceeds Rs._2 the BV of a passenger carrying train is __6KG______Crore______, it is treated as serious accident Q: W.T.T. is published on the orders of __PCOM_. Q: When a colour light distant signal is combined with a gate stop signal protecting a level crossing, it displays _____RED______light in Q: The number of trains which can be run on a section in 24 hours is "ON" position. termed as __Sectional Capacity_.

Q: Normal authority to proceed for the Loco Pilot of a train on single line in Q: Section will be considered saturated (related to line capacity) if the token less territory is __Lowering of LSS_____ number of trains run daily are __GRBATIR____ of the charted capacity.

Q: In double line section where an I.B.H is at 'ON' and telephone fails, the Q: The following are some of the methods available for determining the Loco Pilot after stopping for 5 minutes shall proceed with a speed of Line capacity. (1)___SCOTTS FORMULA___(2) BX-GIP FORMULA __15/8____ kmph. AMERICAN FORMULA_.

Q: Automatic stop signal is distinguished by Marker____ Q: FOIS means__Freight Operations Information System ___

Q: Whenever a train is stopped on a gradient for any reason, it is essential Q: COIS means __Coaching Operation Information System_ to apply the_____BreaK___ Q: Wagon turn round performance is denoted in terms of _DAYS__. Q: When trains are run on T/D 912 in automatic block system, the speed shall not exceed __25km/Hrs. Q: If the number of wagon turn round days is more, the performance is considered to be ___LESS______. Q: Speed of a train while pushing back shall not exceed __25__ Kmph when the Guard is travelling in leading vehicle and ___8__ Kmph when not Q: SLO means ___Samalkot Junction ___ travelling in leading vehicle. Q: The ordering of goods trains depends on the availability of EMPAES Q: In EMU /DMU, the bell code signals O pause O indicates Speed LOADS_,Locomotive, Path and crew. Restriction Zone Over Q: NR cell means __Not Received Cell _. Q: Fixed signals out of use shall be distinguished by keeping Two Cross of meter Q: The time occupied for clearing a block section by a train which runs at maximum permissible speed is called__MINIMUM RUNNING TIME_. Q: ICF is situated at __Chennai, Tamil Nadu__ Q: At Zonal level the management of Passenger Traffic is looked after by CPTM_____. Q: Sun Temple is at __ Odisha, India__

Q: Time Tables are issued ___ONCE___year. Q: Golcumbaz is at Vijayapura, Karnataka,

Q: Accidents are classified under _5__ heads. Q: QutubMinar is at____ Delhi, India._

Q: Charminar is at __ Hyderabad, Telangana, Q: Train accidents are divided into CONSEQUENTIAL__and __INDICATIVE_____ accidents. Q: India Gate is at___ New Delhi, India___

Q: An example of breach of block rule is ___TRAIN PASSING LSS AT ON Q: Gate Way of India__Mumbai, India.___ WITHOUT AUTHORITY______Q: Rail Coach Factory is at__ Kapurthala _ Q: A fire accident to a passenger carrying trains comes under class ___B1- B4______in accident classification. Q: Rail Wheel Factory is at __ Yelahanka, Bangalore__

Q: The ADMOs shall check all the First Aid Boxes in their jurisdiction at the TH Q: Integral Coach Factory is at _Chennai_ station once in a____6 MONTH______Q: There are __18__Zones in Indian Railways Q: DA stands for ___Dearness Allowance____ Q: There are___6__Divisions on SC Railway Q: CCA stands for __Co-Curricular Activities__

Q: Tar is a product of liquid of hydrocarbons Q: HRA stands for __House Rent Allowance_

Q: TA stands for __Travelling Allowance _ Q: Steel Plant in AP is at ___Visakhapatnam Steel Plant,

Q: RCF is situated at __Mumbai._ Q: Fuel used for train Engine is_COAL_or_Diesel_.

Q: Bharat Heavy Electricals is at__New Delhi, India.__ Q: Wagon Workshop is situated at__ Mettuguda and Lallaguda on S.C. Railway. Q: Nagarjuna Dam is in the State of_Telangana and Andhra Pradesh Q: Carriage Repair Shop is situated at Tirupati,on S.C. Railway Q: Konark Express run between Mumbai_to BHUBANESWAR (BBS) Q: ELS stands for ___Electrical System______. Q: Osman Sagar is situated at_Hyderabad_ Q: Electric Loco Sheds are set up at Lallaguda(Secunderabad)on S.C. Q: Kovalam Beach is in _Kerala, state Railway. (a) SF-11 Q: Railway Officers are trained at _____Vadodara__ (b) SF-5 (c) SF-5 Q: A brother who is below ___21____ years of age can be a dependent to (d) None of these be included in the pass declaration. Ans. (C) Q: Lepakshi is in the District of __Andhra Pradesh______Q: Which of the following Rules of DAR 1968 does specify the penalties?

M.C.Q questions and answers (a) Rule-9 (b) Rule-11

(c) Rule-6

(d) None of these Q: Which of the following statement do bear the title of Discipline and

Appeals Rule in Railways? Ans. (c)

(a) The Discipline and Appeal Rules, 1968 Q: Board of enquiry appointed by the Disciplinary authority? (b) The Discipline and Appeal Rules, 1966

(c) The Railway Servants (Discipline and Appeal) Rules, 1968 (a) Not more than 5 members (d) None of these (b) Not less than 2 members

(c) Not less than 3 members Ans. (C) (d) Not more than 4 members

Ans. (b) Rly.Bd’s Ref. E(D&A) 2000 RG 6-24 dt. 20.2.01. Q: What is the current date from which the Railway Servants (D&A)

Rules, 1968 came into force ? Q: Where appointing authority are not available who should be treated

as appointing authority? (a) On the first day of January, 1968

(b) On the 22nd day of August, 1968 (a) Controlling Officer (c) On the first day of October, 1968 (b) DRM (d) None of these (c) GM

(d) CPO Ans. (c)

Ans. (C) Reference: Rly. Board’s No.E(D&A)63 RG6-23 dt.21.02.64.

Q: Which No. of standard form is used for issuance of Major penalty Q: Disciplinary Authority while passing orders for imposing a penalty charge sheet on disciplinary proceedings? should invariably pass?

(a) Orders for penalty (b) Speaking order (a) Rule 9 (c) None (b) Rules 11 (c) Rule 13 Ans. (b) Rly.Bd’s No. E(D&A)91/RG 122 dt. 21.2.92. (d) Rule 20

Ans. (c) Q: Who is the competent authority to make rule on RS (D&A) Rules?

(a) President of India Q: If the disciplinary authority of a charged official is also involved in (b) Ministry of Railways the same case, this case should dealt with by the (c) Member(Staff) (d) Secretary Rly.Bd. (a) Disciplinary Authority (b) Revising Authority Ans. (a) (c) The next higher authority (d) None Qn. When casual labours can be governed under the Railway disciplinary rules? Ans. (C) Ref: Rly. Board’s No. E(D&A)90 RG6-123 dt. 09.11.90.

(a) After 4 months from engagement date (b) After 6 months from engagement date Q: Whether the disciplinary cases initiated against a Rly. Servant and (c) After attaining temporary status RS(D&A) Rules, subsequently he is expired his case should be (d) After regular absorption (a) Continue and finalised Ans. (C) Rly.Board’s No. E(NG)60-CL-13 dt. 13.5.65. (b) Sent to Rly.Board (c) Sent to GM (d) Closed Q: Recognised Trade Union official can be allowed to act as defence counsel in DAR cases in Ans. (d) Rly.Bd’s No. E(D&A) 99 RG-6-26 dt. 19.6.2000.

(a) 2 Nos. of cases Q: What would be correct procedure when a faulty charge-sheet (b) 3 Nos. of cases requires modification/addition (c) 5 Nos. of cases (d) Any number of cases (a) Canceling the earlier C/sheet with reasons (b) Without canceling a fresh C/sheet may be issued Ans. (b) Rly.Bd’s No. E(D&A) 92 RG 6-148 dt. 9.1.92. (c) Continue the proceedings (d) None of these Q: (a) Which is relevant rules in R.S. (D&A) Rules, 1968 for common proceedings? Ans. (a) Rly.Bd’s No. E(D&A) 2001-RG6-3 dt. 20.10.02.

Q: Which of the standard form is required to be used for issuing the Ans. (b) Ref. E(D&A)89 RG6-17 dt. 7.3.89. order of deemed suspension? Qn. An acting Rly. Servant can be allowed to act as Defence counsel? (a) SF-1 (b) SF-3 (a) 2 No. of cases (c) SF-2 (b) 3 No. of cases (d) SF-4 (c) 4 No. of cases (d) 5 No. of cases Ans. (c) Ans. (a) Qn. How many Annexures are attached with major penalty charge memorandum? Q: How many cases are dealing a retd. Railway employee as a defense (a) 2 assistant at a time? (b) 3 (c) 5 (a) 5 (d) 4 (b) 7 (c) 3 Ans. (d) Ans. (b)Ref. RB’s No. E(D&A)2002 RG-6-13 dt. 14.5.03 (RBE 83/13) Q: A Rly. Servant punished with stoppage of increment simultaneously is going promotion to the next grade. The penalty will given effect to Q: Which deduction from subsistence allowance cannot be made? the (a) House Rent (b) P.F.subscription (a) Promotion of the grade for same period (c) Income Tax (b) But not result in greater monetary loss (d) None (c) Retrospective effect Ans. (b)Ref. RB’s No. F(P)62 PF1/14 dt. 12.7.73. Ans. (a) Rly.Bd’s ref. E(D&A) 2000 RG 6-13 dt. 8.10.01. Q: Which of the following deduction is prohibited from subsistence Q: A person appointed directly to a post grade or time scale of pay can allowance? be reduced by way of punishment to a post in lower scale/grade service or to a post which he never held before? (a) House Rent (b) Income Tax (a) Yes (c) Court attachment (b) No (d) Station debits (c) Can be reduce but his pay to be protected (d) None Ans. (C)

Qn. Suspension is not a punishment. However suspension visits Ans. (a) employee with various disadvantages. Which one of the following is not a disadvantage as a consequence of suspension? Qn. A Railway servant under suspension is entitled to

(a) During the period he can not leave Hq. Without permission (a) Leave his head qrs. (b) He need not sign attendance register (b) Have passes for attending PNM/JCM (c) Privilege passes cannot be availed (c) Act as defence counsel (d) No increment is drawn during suspension (d) None

Ans. (b)Ref.Rly. Bd’s No. E(D&A) 83 RG-6-17 dt. 13.5.83. Ans. (C)

Qn. When a Rly. Employee placed under suspension but only a minor Qn. An employee under suspension can be called to appear at a written penalty is imposed, the treatment of the suspension period is as examination required for selection to the promotion? (a) Dies non (b) Non duty a) May be called to appear during suspension (c) Duty b May be called after suspension is over (d) None c)To be decided by the Disciplinary Authority. d)None of these Ans. (C) Ans. (a) Qn. If an employee is placed under suspension on the date of retirement, under who is competent to sign the charge sheet? Qn. Compassionate allowance in case of removed employee may be granted under a) Charge sheet shall be signed by the Rly.Bd. b) Charge sheet shall be signed by the GM (a) Rule 20 of pension rules,1993 c) Charge sheet shall be signed by the Disciplinary authority as on the (b) Rule 64 of pension rules, 1993 date of retirement (c) Rule 65 of pension rules, 1993 d) President of India (d) None

Ans. (C) Ref. E(D&A) 2001 RG 6-3 dt. 20.10.02. Ans. (C)

Qn. An employee under suspension, when he reports sick is eligible for Qn. Stiff major penalty namely. grant of sick leave?

(a) Compulsory retirement a) Grant of sick leave (b) Stoppage of increment b) Grant of extraordinary leave (c) Reduction to the lower stage c) Grant of Half pay leave (d) None d) Not grant of sick leave

Ans. (d) Ans. (a)

Qn. How many types of standard forms that are used while initiating Qn. Review of suspension cases is done action against any Railway employee under D&A Rules, 1968. (a) After 4 months (a) One (b) After 3 months (b) Five (c) After 2 months (c) Eleven (d) None (d) Seven Ans. (b) Ans. (C) Ref. Rule No. 5 of DAR 1968. Qn. What amount shall be taken into account for calculating subsistence Qn. A Rly. Servant punishment with stoppage of increment for a allowance in case of running staff? specified period and becomes due for promotion he should be promoted (a) 40% of basic pay (b) 30% of basic pay (a) Immediate effect (c) 50% of basic pay (b) After expiry of the penalty (d) 60% of basic pay (c) With the approval of GM Ans. (b) Ans. (a) Qn. When an employee under suspension is acquitted by a court of law? Qn. A Railway servant shall be deemed to have been placed under suspension if he has been put in police custody for a period? (a) Full pay and allowance are granted (b) Half pay and allowance for granted (a) exceeding 24 hours (c) 75% pay and allowance are granted (b) exceeding 48 hours (d) No payment (c) immediate effect (d) none Ans. (a) Ref.1343 IREC R-II

Ans. (b) Ref. RS(D&A) Rules, 1968. Qn. Compulsory deduction from subsistence allowance? Qn. 50% of subsistence allowance granted under? (a) PF subscription (a) Rule 1342 R-II (b) LIC premia (b) Rule 1343 R-II (c) House rent (c) Rule 1345 R-II (d) Court attachment (d) None Ans. (c) (c) Rule (13) (d) None Qn. ‘Gr C’ and ‘Gr.D’ employees under suspension may be given Ans. (b) Rly.Bd’s No. E(D&A) 85 RG-6-72 dt. 16.5.86. (a) 3 sets of pass per calender year (b) 2 sets of pass Qn. D&A Rules 1968 will not apply to (c) one set of pass (d) None of these (a) Permanent employee (b) Apprentice Ans. (C) (c) Casual lab our with temporary status (d) None Qn. Can a railway servant placed under suspension act as a defence helper? Ans. (b)

(a)A Railway servant act as a defence helper Qn. Whether Sr.Section Engineer are empowered to suspend a Jr.clerk in (b) Decided by Disciplinary Authority scale RS.3050-4050 (RSRP) working under his control? (c) Decided by GM (e) None of these (a) Sr.Section Engineer is Competent Authority (b) Depends upon offence Ans. (a) Ref.E(D&A) 74 RG6-31 dt. 11.11.74 (c) Office Supdt. is competent authority (d) None of these Qn. The limitation period of revocation of suspension of non-gazetted employee caught red handed while accepting bribe in trap cases? Ans. (a) Ref. As per DOP in schedule II.

(a) 18 months Qn. Inquiry officer’s report is to be supplied to (b) 6 months (c) 3 months (a) Presenting officer (d) none (b) Controlling officer (c) Charged officer Ans. (b) Ref.88/V-1/CBI/5/3 dt. 30.9.99. (d) None

Ans. (C) Ref. E(D&A) RG 6-151 dt. 10.11.89

Qn. Inquiry is not mandatory under Rule

(a) Rule 5 (b) Rule 14(ii) Qn. On transfer from one division to another division, a staff does not report for duty at the new place of posting who will be the Qn. Under which Rule of the R.S.(D&A) Rules, 1968 the appellate competent authority for taking disciplinary action? authority can act as revising authority?

(a) GM (a) Rule-25 (b) D&A Authority at new place (b) Rule - 25 A (c) D&A authority at old place (c) Rule-22 (d) None (d) Rule-21

Ans. (2) Ref. E(D&A) 69 RG 6-8 dt. 29.9.69. Ans. (a)

Qn. The notice of final penalty should be signed by Qn. A charged employee has a choice for choosing an Assistant Railway employee (DC). However certain classes of employees are based as (a) Enquiry officer DC’s which one of the following classes are barred? (b) Controlling officer (c) Disciplinary authority (a) Vigilance inspector (d) None (b) Law Assistant (c) Railway servants under suspension Ans. (C) Rly.Bd’s No. E(D&A)67 RG 6-35 dt. 20.12.67. (d) None the above

Qn. What would be appropriate disciplinary authority when staff Ans. (d) Ref.Bd’s No. E(D&A) 92 RG 6-175 dt. 18/12/92. working under the administrative control of DOM and misconduct pertains to violations of Commercial rule or safety rules? Qn. Reappointment of Railway employee in cases of removal from service may be considered by the (a) DCM/Sr.DCM (b) DSO/Sr.DSO (a) Revising authority (c) DOM/Sr.DOM (b) Disciplinary authority (d) DPO/Sr.DPO (c) Higher than the Revising authority (d) None of the these Ans. (C) E(D&A) 2001 RG-3 dt. 20.10.02. Ans. (c) Qn. All DAR cases are to be completed within the model time scheduled fixed by the Rly.Board. Qn. Reduction to a lower stage in a time scale of pay for a period not exceeding 3 years without calculation effect and not adversely (a) 202 days affecting his pension is (b) 300 days (c) 150 days (a) Major penalty (b) Minor penalty Ans. (c) 150 days (c) None (d) Both of these Qn. While forwarding appeals under Rule 21(3) of the R.S.(D&A) Rules to the appellate authority should confirm its comments to Ans. (b) Ref. Bd’s No. E(D&A) 90 RG 6-12 dt. 16.11.90. (a) the points raised in the appeal only Qn. Penalty of compulsory retirement, removal or dismissed from service (b) comment on any extraneous circumstances on which the charged should be imposed only by official has had no opportunity to explain his position (c) discuss past cases (a) controlling officer (d) comments on his personality (b) disciplinary authority (c) appointing authority Ans. (a) Rly.Bd’s ref. E(D&A) 99 RG-6-40 dt. 13.1.2000. (d) none Qn. Whether Divisional safety officer can act as disciplinary authority in Ans. (c) Ref.RB’s No. E(D&A) 80/RG-25 dt. 20.1.86. the case of misconduct of Dy.S.S.Working under D.O.M?

Qn. The following are not in penalty under D&A Rules? (a) Division Safety Officer is competent (b) Divisional Safety Officer is not competent (a) Censure (c) Divisional Personnel Officer is competent (b) Warning (d) None of these (c) Stoppage of pass (d) The recovery from pay of any pensionary loss Ans. (b) Ref. E(D&A) 74 RG 6-69 dt. 4.8.97.

Ans. (b) Qn. Whether issuance of inquiry or counseling or Govt. Displeasure can constitute a penalty under D&A Rule? Qn. Whether ad-hoc promotee officers are competent to initiate disciplinary proceedings? (a) is a penalty under D&A Rules (b) is not a penalty under D&A Rules Ans. No. (c) All are penalty under D&A Rule (d) None of these Qn. Which penalty is not recorded in the service sheet? Ans. (b) Ref. E(D&A) 77 RG 6-20 dt. 10.5.77. (a) Stoppage of increment (b) Stoppage of passes Qn. Can a disciplinary authority order for stoppage of increment under (c) Warning Rule 6 of the R.S.(D&A) Rules, 1968 effecting from the date of (d) Censure issuance of order or from date of next increment due. (e) None (a) effect from the date of issue of order Ans. (C) (b) effect from date of next increment date (c) from the retrospective effect (d) none of these Ans. (b) Ans. (b)

Qn. What is the permissible time limit for preferring a revision petition to the revising Authority? Qn. During the pendency of a penalty of stoppage of pass/PTO whether promotion of a Railway staff will be affected. (a) 60 days (b) 45 days (a) promotion will be affected (c) 90 days (b) promotion will not be affected (d) none (c) promotion will effect after expiry of punishment (d) none of these Ans. (b) Ans. (b)

Qn. Which Rules comes under when revision petition is not prefer within Qn. When it is not practical to hold any inquiry under Rule 9 of the the time limit? Railway servants (D&A) Rules, whether removal/dismissal can be directly ordered? (a) Rule 25 (b) Rule 27 (a) Rule 6 (c) None (b) Rule 14(ii) (d) Rule 22 (c) Rule 13 Ans. (b) (d) None

Qn. Under which circumstances ‘ex-parte’ inquiry can be held? Ans. (b)

(a)Charge official does not appear before I.O. more than two Qn. What is the correct Rule under R.S.Rules (D&A)for common occasion. proceeding? (b) Presenting Officer not appear before IO (c) Disciplinary Authority not appear before IO (a) Rule 14 (d )None of these. (b) Rule 18 (c) Rule 13 Ans . (a) (d) None

Qn. Can any of the penalties specified in Rule 6 of the Railway servants Ans. (C) Ref. R.S.D&A Rules, 1968. (D&A)Rules be imposed with retrospective effect? Qn. Under which Rule before disposing the revision petition by the GM (a) With retrospective effect the case should be refer to RRT for advice. (b) Both are prospective and immediate effect as admissibleS (c) Always be prospective effect (a) Rule 14(i) (d) None of these (b) Rule 31 (c) Rule 24 Ans. (b) Ans. (C) Ref. R.S.(D&A) Rule, 1968. Qn. Fresh appointment/Re-appointment under D&A Rule can be Qn. Is it necessary the Inquiry Officer should be sufficiently senior in rank consider in terms of Rule to the charged official? (a) 502 IREC Vol-I (b) 402 IREC Vol-1 (a) Always IO should be senior (c) 302 IREC Vol-1 (b) IO may be junior (d) None (c) IO may be equal in rank with CO (d) None of these Ans. (b)

Ans. (a) Rly.Bd’s ref. E(D&A) 2000 RG-6-24 dt. 20.2.01. Qn. How many total number of Rules, the Railway Servants (D&A) Rules, do contain and how many parts are they divided. Qn. Who can exercise reversionary power when no appeal has been preferred in terms of Rule 25 (i) (iv)? (a) 31 Rule in IV parts (b) 25 Rule in VI parts (c) 31 Rule in VII parts (a) The officer not below the rank of DRM (b) The officer not below the rank of JA officer Ans. (C) (c) The officer not below the rank of PHOD Qn. Rule 11 of the R.S.(D&A) Rules, 1968 deals with the procedure for Ans. (a) E(D&A)2003/RG 6-37 dt. 13.2.04. (a) Suspension Qn. Whether it is obligatory of the inquiry officer to inform defence (b) Major penalty proceedings counsel engaged by the charged official in each hearing? (c) Appeal cases (a) IO should inform DC (d) Minor penalty proceeding (b) IO should not inform DC (c) DA should inform DC Ans. (d) (d) None of these Qn. Which of the following is not termed as penalty under DAR 1968? Ans. (a) (a) Censure Qn. What is the current Rule for granting compassionate allowance to (b) Withdrawing of promotion Railway employees who are removed or dismissal from service? (c) Suspension (d) None (a) Rule 64 of R.S.(Pension) Rules (b) Rule 65 of R.S.(Pension) Rules Ans. (C) (c) Rule 60 of R.S.(Pension) Rules Qn Which of the following person is not allowed to be engaged as (d) The President of India defence counsel? Ans. (d) (a) A serving Rly. Employee (b) A retired Rly. Employee Qn. Who is the competent authority to consider the appeal without (c) A legal petitioner restriction of time limit? (d) A trade union official (a) PHOD Ans. (c) (b) GM (c) DRM Qn. Removal from service of Mr.X. Hd.Clerk, CPO’s office, who had (d) HOD absented himself by overstaying his leave without giving him an opportunity of showing cause why he should not be removed. Ans. (b)

(a) No show cause is necessary Qn. When it is no practical to hold any inquiry under Rule 9 of the (b) No opportunity against article 311 of the constitution of India Railway servants (D&A) Rules, whether removal/dismissal can be (c) Approval of PHOD directly ordered? (d) None of these. (a) Rule 9 Ans. (b) (b) Rule 13 (c) Rule 14(ii) Qn. While forwarding appeals under Rules 21(3) of the Railway servants (d) None of these (D&A) Rules to the Appellate Authority should ? Ans. (C) (a) Confine its comments to the points raised in the appeal only (b) Can comments on any extraneous circumstances on which the charged employee had had no opportunity to explain his position Qn. Who would be competent to issue Govt’s displeasure to a retd. (c) Confine its comments with the approval of Revising Authority Railway employee whose case has been dropped after retirement (d) None of these but initiated before retirement?

Ans. (a) Ref.RB”s No. E(D&A)99 RG6-40 dt. 13.1.2000 (RBE 7/2000) (a) Railway Board (b) HOD/PHOD (c) AGM/GM Qn. Who is the competent to review under Rule 25 A the Railway (d) None of these. servants (D&A) Rules, 1968? Ans. (C) Ref.Bd’s No.E(D&A)2001 RG6-3 dt. 20.10.02 (a) General Manager (b) PHOD Qn. Who can exercise reversionary power when no appeal has been (c) Railway Board preferred in terms of Rule 25(i) (iv)?

(a) DCM (a) Rule 20 (b) SrDPO (b) Rule 22 (c) DRM (c) Rule 25 (d) None of these. (d) None

Ans.` (C) Ref. In RB’s No. E(D&A)2003/RG-6/37 dt. 13.2.04. Ans. (b)

Qn. Which authority to cut in pensioner benefit Qn. Which of the following is the order against which no appeal lies? (a) GM (b) Rly.Board (a) An order of suspension (c) President of India (b) An order for enhancement of penalty (d) None (c) Any order passed by an inquiry authority in the course of an enquiry Ans. (C) Ref. Rule 9 of RS(Pension) Rules 1993. (d) None of these.

Ans (C) Qn. Whether Revision/Review of cases already finalsied before retirement of the Railway employees can be initiated after his Qn. Whether The Railway servants (D&A) Rules, 1968 are applicable to retirement with a view to impose a cut in his pensionary benefits? constable of the Railway protection force? (a) are applicable. (a) Can be initiated. (b) are not applicable. (b) Cannot be initiated. (c) are applicable in certain cases. (c) Can be initiated with the approval of GM. (d) None of these. (d) None of these. Ans. (b) Ans. (b) Rly.Board’s ref. E(D&A)93 RG 6-61 dt. 11.1.2000. Qn. Who is the competent to initiate & finalise the D&A proceedings a Qn. Whether pension is payable in the cases of removal or dismissal of a gainst a Comml. Superintendent. railway servant? (a) Pension is payble. a) Sr. DPO (b) Pension is not payable. b) DEE (c) Compassionate allowance can be considered. c) SCM (d) None of these. d) None of these.

Ans. (c) Ref. E(D&A)2003-RG6-2 dt. 13.1.04. Ans (C)

Qn. Under which Rule is permissible for consideration of appeal Qn. Reduction to a lower stage in the time scale of pay cannot affect (d) Cut in retirement complementary passes promotion during penalty. Ans (d) a) Not affect promotion b) Affect promotion c) Affect promotion after expiry of punishment d) None of these.

Ans (A)

Qn. What is Rule 14(II) of the RS(D&A) Rules, 1968. Write True / False of the following sentences.

a) Removal / Dismissal after an SF 5 is issued. Q: Maternity leave may be granted of 100 days. b) Removal / Dismissal without any inquiry when it is not practicable A: False to hold inquiry in a normal manner. Q: Casual leave can be transferred to next year. c) Compulsory retirement without any inquiry. A: False d) Removal / Dismissal in case of conviction. Q: Maximum LAP can be sanction up to 180 days at a time for group cemployees. Ans. (B) A: True Q: Gold pass issued to PHOD OR DRM. Qn. A Railway servants cannot be promoted during the punishment A: False period either minor or major? Which one of the following is an Q: Special C.L. can be sanctioned for blood donation. exception to the above provisions? A: True Q: NFR employees can availed 13 days CL in a year. (a) Recovery of pecuniary loss caused to the Govt. A: True (b) Reduction to the lower stage in the time scale of pay Q: Maternity leave can be given up to 3 alive child. (c) Withholding of increment A: False (d) Reduction to the lower time scale of pay/grade/post Q: Paternity leave can be availed within one year. A: False Ans (a) Q: Group-C Employees can availed only one set pass up to 5 years. Qn. Which one of the penalties cannot be imposed on a retired Railway A: True service? Q: General Manager can sanction C.L. up to 60 days. A: False (a) Cut in pension Q: An Employee can deposit max 300 days HLAP in his account (b) Cut in DCRG A: False (c) Cut in pension/DCRG Q: After retirement group-C Employee can availed 2 set pass A: False completing serviceperiod of 25 years or more. Q: GM can sanctioned 30days special CL. A: True A: True Q: .After retirement Gazetted officer can availed 3 set pass Q: A male employee having 01 survival child is entitled completing serviceperiod of 25 years or more . to get 15 days paternityleave. A: True A: True Q: .DRM is President of PREM at divisional level. Q: Inquiry Officer is nominated by SF 8 A: True A: False Q: Conditions &Principle of regulation of employment is Q: Nomination of presenting officer is done by SF 6. discussed in JCM. A: False A: True Q: Stock item is purchase by non stock requisition. Q: Employee works 12 hours with comfort do called essentially A: False intermittentemployees as Caretaker. Q: Suspension is the Major penalty. A: True A: False Q: CWM is entitled for Silver Pass . Q: August review can be sent in any month . A: True A: False Q: Railway employees get 03 set pass after completing 04 years’ Q: Group ‘A’ officer is entitled for 03 set of PTO in a year. service. A: False A: False Q: Chandigarh is under region ‘A’ of Rajbhasha region Q: A male employee will get 15 days paternity leave having 03 A: False survival children Q: Maternity leave is permissible for 15 days, having 02 survival A: False children. Q: Ambulance is arranged to sent an employee to hospital , A: False injured in an accident Q: A male employee having 01 survival child is entitled to get 15 A: True days paternityleave. Q: Compensation will be paid in case of accident on working A: True Place in alcoholiccondition.. Q: Stock items are purchase through DS 8. A: False A: False Q: Tamilnadu is under region ‘A’ of Rajbnasa Region Q: Group ‘A’ officer is admissible to take 03 Privilege pass in a A: False year. Q: A male employee will get 30 days LAP in a year . A: False A: True Q: Paternity leave is permissible for 15 days, having 02 survival Q: Enquiry Officer is nominated by SF 7 . children. A: True A: True Q: Suspension is the Minor penalty. Q: Gazetted officer is admissible to take 06 PTO in a year. A: False A: False Q: Railway Expenditure is divided into 06 demands . Q: Suspension is not a penalty. A: False A: True Q: Maharastra is under region ‘A’ of Rajbnasa region Q: Condemn material is sent to store on DS8 A: True Q: Chairman Railway board is equivalent to the post of principal Q: Non-Stock items are regularly drawn from store. secretary ofGovernment of India. A: False A: True Q: PAC items are purchase from open market. Q: All Railway expenditure is divided in 18 demands. A: False A: False Q: Global tender is being done by Railway Board. A: True Q: Maintenance of C&W is booked in Demand No. 06. Important abbreviation for Railway Exam A: True Q: Wages of employee should be given after 20 days of closing ADRM : Additional Divisional Railway Manager of the month. AGM : Additional General Manager A: False APPSC : Andhra Pradesh Public Service Commission Q: At Railway Board level member staff is the chairman of JCM. CCO : Chief Claims Officer A: True CPRO : Chief Public Relations Officer Q: In alcoholic condition Compensation is will be paid in case of accident onworking Plac CTE : Chief Track Engineer A: False CBE : Chief Bridge Engineer Q: A lady employee having four survival children will get135 CLW : Chittaranjan Locomotive Works days maternityleave. CPDE : Chief Planning & Development Engineer A: False PCE : Principal Chief Engineer Q: Appeal of the employees is address to disciplinary officer. CMPE : Chief Motive Power Engineer A: False CME : Chief Mechanical Engineer Q: Condemn material is sent to store on issue ticket A: False CWE : Chief Workshop Engineer Q: Stock items are regularly drawn from store. CRSE : Chief Rolling Staff Engineer A: True CEE : Chief Electrical Engineer Q: Global tender is done by HQ. CESEL : Chief Electrical Service Engineer A: False CSC : Chief Security Commissioner Q: Budget is divided into 16 main demands. CCM : Chief Commercial Manager A: True CMD : Chief Medical Director Q: August review is sent in the month of August. A: True CAO/C : Chief Administrative Officer/Construction Q: Wages of employee should be given within 03 days of closing CELE : Chief Electrical Loco Engineer of the month CSTE : Chief Signal & Telecommunication Engineer A: False CCE : Chief Communication Engineer Q: At Workshop level Chairman of PNM is CPO. COS : Controller of Stores A: False CMM : Chief Materials Manager Q: Appeal of the employees is address Presenting officer. A: False CPO : Chief Personnel Officer CPO/A : Chief Personnel Officer Administration RCF : Rail Coach Factory CPOIR : Chief Personnel Officer Industrial Relation RWF : Rail Wheel Factory COM : Chief Operations Manager RDSO : Research Design & Standards Organization CPTM : Chief Passenger Traffic Manager RDC : Railway Degree College CFTM : Chief Freight Traffic Manager RELHS : Railway Employees Liberalized Health Scheme COFMOW : Central Organization for Modernization of RVNL : Rail Vikas Nigam Ltd Workshop STC : Supervisor Training Centre CPM : Chief Projects Manager SBF : Staff Benefit Fund CRB : Chairman Railway Board SWSO : Senior Work Study Officer CRS : Commissioner Railway Safety UNO : United Nations Organization CRS : Carriage Repair Shop ZRTI : Zonal Railway Training Institute CGEGIS : Central Government Employees UNICEF : United Nations Children’s Educational Fund Group Insurance Scheme WHO : World Health Organization DRM : Divisional Railway Manager BHU : Banaras Hindu University DLW : Diesel Locomotive Works UFSBI : Universal Fail Safe Block Instrument EDPM : Electrical Data Processing Manager CRIS : Centre for Railway Information System FA&CAO : Financial Advisor and Chief Accounts Officer ATVM : Automatic Ticket Vending Machine HBA : House Building Advance TMS : Terminal Management System IREM : Indian Railway Establishment Manual NTES : National Train Enquiry System IRCTC : Indian Railways Catering and PREM : Participation of Railway Employees in Tourism Corporation Management ICF : Integral Coach Factory MGR : Missing Goods Report IRISET : Indian Railway Institute of Signal Engineering & IRCTC : Indian Railway Catering and Tourism Telecommunication Corporation IRCON : Indian Railway Construction Organization CONCOR : Container Corporation of India IRWO : Indian Railway Welfare Organization PNM : Permanent Negotiating Machinery ILO : International Labour Organization PNR : Passenger Name Record LAP : Leave at Average Pay DRM : Divisional Railway Manager LHAP : Leave at Half Average Pay RITES : Rail India Technical and Economic Service MBF : Mutual Benefit Fund UTS : Unreserved Ticketing System RITES : Rail India Technical & Economic Services RBS : Rates Branch System RRB : Railway Recruitment Board CIB : Crime Intelligence Branch RCT : Railway Claims Tribunal WHO : World Health Organisation RRT : Railway Rates Tribunal VAT : Value Added Tax MST : Monthly Season Ticket HUDCO : Housing And Urban Development Corporation IPS : Integrated Power Supply FIR : First Information Report SWA : Sahjanwa Railway Station WHO : World Health Organisation FNR : Freight Name Record UNO : United Nation Organisation BEE : Bureau of Energy Efficiency VAT : Value Added Tax TIB : Train Information Board NAIR : National Academy of Indian Railways DRUCC : Divisional Railway Users Consultative (Vadodara} Committee DEITY : Department Of electronics And Information MACP : Modified Assured Career Progression Technology COIS : Coaching Operation Information System LWR : Long Welded Rail IVRS : Interactive Voice Response System CIC : Central Information Commission RCF : Rail Coach Factory FTR : Full Tariff Rate DLW : Diesel Locomotive Works IPAS : Integrated Payroll And Accounting System RSC : Railway Sorting Carriage/ Railway Service SDGM : Senior Deputy General Manager Commission CRB : Chairman Of Railway Board MST : Monthly Season Ticket FOIS : Freight Operation Information System GMT : Greenwich Mean Time RMS : Railway Mail Service PIN : Postal Index Number VG : Vehicle Guidance UNESCO : United Nation Educational Scientific and MT : Matera Railway Station Cultural Organisation ODC : Over Dimension Consignment GAP : Ganga Action Plan NTES : National Train Enquiry System IPL : Indian Premier League VRS : Voluntary Retirement Scheme ONGC : Oil and Natural Gas Commission CCM : Chief Commercial Manager SEBI : Securities and Exchange Board Of India ADRM : Additional Divisional Railway Manager SR. DCM : Senior Divisional Commercial Manager FA & CAO : Financial Adviser and Chief Accounts Officer PTO : Privilege Ticket Order ECRC : Enquiry cum Reservation Clerk EFT : Excess Fare Ticket CRIS : Centre for Railway Information System ATVM : Automatic Ticket Vending Machines BPT : Blank Paper Ticket SM : Station Master RBS : Rates Branch System DRM : Divisional Railway Manager RDSO : Research Design Standard Organisation GM : General Manager AIIMS : All India Institute of Medical Sciences PRS : Passenger Reservation System CAT : Central Administrative Tribunal RRI : Route Relay Interlocking ECG : Electro Cardio Gram IRTS : Indian Railway Traffic Service CSO : Chief Safety Officer BOHS : Battery Operated Hand Signal CRS : Commissioner of Railway Safety ICF : Integral Coach Factory RRB : Railway Recruitment Board WTT : Working Time Table LAP : Leave on Average Pay CIB : Crime Intelligence Bureau BPC : Brake Power Certificate PAM : Punctuality Analysis And Monitoring IRCM : Indian Railway Commercial Manual MPC : Modular Power Connector HBC : Head Booking Clerk STBA : Sabarmati A Cabin DDM : Demand And Delivery Message JTBS : Jan Sadharan Ticket Booking Sewak IPO : Indian Postal Order FIFA : Federation International Football Association AIR : All India Radio FIFO : First-In First-Out MOU : Ministry Of Railway GPS : Global Positioning System CD : Collision Detection SMS : Short Message Service MTNL : Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Limited PTO : Privilege Ticket Order RAC : Reservation Safe Block Interface ECG : Electrocardiography BPAC : Block Proving Axle Counter EEG : Electroencephalography SWR : Station Working Rule ISRO : Indian Space Research Organization CCL : Child Care Leave CAB : Cricket Association Of Bengal DOM : Divisional Operations Manager POH : Periodical Over Hauling DCM : Divisional Commercial Manager ROH : Rutine Over Hauling RELHS : Retired Employees Liberalised Health Scheme UTS : Unreserved Ticketing System ODR : Oldest Day Record PTI : Press Trust Of India UGC : University Grants Commission PMG : Post Master General HMT : Hindustan Machine Tools ARP : Advance Reservation Period LPO : Lost Property Office PRO : Periodical over Hauling RTI : Right to Information COA : Control Office Application PCCM : Principal Chief Commercial Manager PCE : Principal Chief Engineer ICMS : Integrated Coaching Management System  Few More Questions:-

Numbers of Railway Zones in India Q: Who is the General Manager of your Railway? Q: Who is the Additional General Manager of your Railway? S.No Name Of the Zones Abbr. Headquarters Divisions Q: Who is the Principal Chief Engineer of your Railway? 1 Central CR Mumbai Q: Who is Chief Administrative Officer/Construction of your Railway? Q: Who is the Chief Personnel Officer of your Railway? 2 EastCentral ECR Hajipur Q: Who is the Financial Advisor & Chief Accounts Officer? 3 East Coast ECoR Bhubaneswar Q: Where is the Headquarters of Hyderabad Division? 4 Eastern Kolkata Q: Where is the Headquarters of Secunderabad Division? Q: What is the other name of Vijayawada? 5 NorthCentral NCR Allahabad Q: How many privilege passes are eligible to Group D and Group C 6 NorthEastern NER Gorakhpur employees? 7 NorthWestern NWR Jaipur Q: How Many Post Retirement passes are eligible for Group C and D employees, who have put in 25 years service? 8 NortheastFrontier NFR Guwahati Q: In which Division the following stations are situated? (Nanded, 9 Northern NR Delhi Tirupati, Raichur, Nandiyal, Parli) 10 SouthCentral SCR Secunderabad Q: Who is the Prime Minister of India? Q: Where Rail Wheel Factory situated? 11 South EastCentral SECR Bilaspur, CG Q: Who wrote National Anthem ? 12 SouthEastern SE Kolkata Q: Who is the Present Captain of Indian Cricket? 13 SouthWestern SWR Hubli Q: Who Invented television? Q: Which is the capital of Uttaranchal? 14 Southern SR Chennai Q: What is the minimum service required for promotion of junior 15 WestCentral WCR Jabalpur clerk to senior clerk? Q: What is the minimum distance an employee to travel to become 16 Western WR Mumbai eligible for TA/DA? 17 Kolkata Metro KM Kolkata Q: How many days casual leave a fitter in workshop is eligible in a year? Q: How many Zones are there in Indian Railways? Q: What are important Tourist places on S.C. Railway? Q: What is the recruitment agency for S.C. Railway? Q: What are the schemes introduced by SBF Committee on S.C. Railway? Q: Who is the General Secretary of SCRE Sangh?

Q: Who is the General Secretary of SCRM Union?

The End