Of 93 (A) Complete This Sentence About Crude Oil. Crude Oil Is Mainly A

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Q1. (a) Complete this sentence about crude oil.

Crude oil is mainly a mixture of compounds called ______which contain carbon and hydrogen only. (1)

(b) The diagram shows a laboratory experiment used to separate crude oil.

Complete each sentence by choosing the correct words from the box.

condensation distillation evaporation

melting sublimation

The main process taking place at A is ______

The main process taking place at B is ______

This method of separating crude oil is called ______(3)

This method of separating crude oil works because the the molecules are,

the their boiling point and the volatile they are. (1)

Page 1 of 93 (Total 5 marks)

Q2. Petrol is a hydrocarbon fuel.

(a) Complete this sentence.

Hydrocarbons are compounds which are made from the elements ______

and ______only. (2)

(b) This apparatus was used to study the combustion of a hydrocarbon fuel.

(i) Name the substance which changed the anhydrous copper sulphate from white to blue.

______(1)

(ii) Carbon dioxide is also produced when the hydrocarbon fuel is burned. Name the solution, labelled X on the diagram, which tests for carbon dioxide.

______(1)

(iii) Complete this sentence.

Carbon dioxide turns solution X ______. (1)

Page 2 of 93

(i) Describe the changes in the concentration of carbon dioxide in the air since the year 1000.

______

______(3)

(ii) Suggest why the concentration of carbon dioxide in the air has changed since the year 1800.

______

______(1) (Total 9 marks)

Q3. Crude oil is a natural resource from which useful fuels can be separated.

(a) Crude oil is a mixture of hydrocarbons.

Complete the sentence about a hydrocarbon molecule.

A hydrocarbon molecule is made up of ______and carbon atoms only. (1)

(b) Many fuels come from crude oil. Some of these fuels are shown in the diagram.

Page 3 of 93

Suggest two properties of these fuels that allow them to be separated from crude oil.

______

______(2)

When a fuel burns, it combines with oxygen in the air and produces carbon dioxide and water. When there is not enough oxygen, the fuel burns and also produces carbon monoxide and carbon particles.

Draw a straight line from each substance that links it to a possible environmental problem.

One has been done for you.

Page 4 of 93

(3) (Total 6 marks)

Q4. Hot air balloons burn hydrocarbons to heat the air.

(a) The hot air contains these gases: nitrogen, N2 oxygen, O2 argon, Ar carbon dioxide, CO2 water vapour, H2O

(i) Argon is an element.

What is an element?

______

______(1)

(ii) Name one other gas in the hot air that is also an element.

Page 5 of 93 ______(1)

(b) Propane, C3H8, can be represented as:

Use the correct words from the box to complete the sentences.

bond carbon compound element mixture

(i) Propane is a ______and is made up of atoms of hydrogen

and ______(2)

(ii) Each line between the atoms in propane represents a chemical ______(1) (Total 5 marks)

Q5. A drill bit is used to cut holes through materials. The cutting end of this drill bit is covered with very small diamonds.

By Wanderlinse [CC By 2.0], via Flickr

Draw a ring around the correct word in each box.

carbon

Page 6 of 93 atoms (a) Diamond is made from nitrogen .

oxygen

(1) none

(b) Diamond has a giant structure in which some of the atoms are joined together.

all

(1) covalent

metallic

(1) two

(d) In diamond each atom is joined to three other atoms.

four

(1) hard.

(e) Diamond is suitable for the cutting end of a drill bit because it is shiny.

soft

(1) (Total 5 marks)

Q6. This drill contains an electric motor.

The diagram below shows the main parts of an electric motor.

Page 7 of 93

The carbon contacts are made of graphite. Springs push the contacts against the copper ring. The carbon contacts conduct electricity to the copper ring. The copper ring rotates rapidly but does not stick or become worn because the graphite is soft and slippery.

(a) Using this information give two properties that make graphite suitable for making the carbon contacts.

______

______(2)

(b) (i) Draw a ring around the correct word in each box to complete the sentence.

Each carbon atom in graphite is joined to

two covalent

three other carbon atoms ionic bonds. by four metallic

(2)

(ii) Tick ( ) the statement which explains why graphite is soft and slippery.

Tick ( Statement )

It is made of layers of atoms.

It is made of small molecules.

It is an ionic compound.

(1) (Total 5 marks)

Page 8 of 93 Q7. Energy is released by burning fuels.

(a) The bar chart shows the energy in kilojoules, kJ, released by burning 1 g of five different fuels.

(i) Which fuel releases the least energy from 1 g?

______(1)

(ii) How much energy is released by burning 1 g of coal?

Energy = ______kJ (1)

(iii) Coal burns in oxygen and produces the gases shown in the table.

Name Formula

Carbon dioxide CO2

Water vapour H2O

Sulfur dioxide SO2

Use information from the table to name one element that is in coal.

______(1)

(iv) Use information from the bar chart to calculate the mass of petrol that will

Page 9 of 93 release the same amount of energy as 1 g of hydrogen.

______

Mass = ______g (1)

(b) Hydrogen can be made from fossil fuels. Hydrogen burns rapidly in oxygen to produce water only.

A lighthouse uses electricity generated by burning hydrogen.

(i) Use information from the bar chart and the diagram above to suggest two advantages of using hydrogen as a fuel.

1. ______

______

2. ______

______(2)

(ii) Suggest one disadvantage of using hydrogen.

______(1) (Total 7 marks)

Q8. This label was on a container of graphite lubricant.

Super G Graphite Lubricant

Page 10 of 93 Super G forms a thin anti-friction film on metal surfaces. It provides good lubrication when metal parts rub against each other.

(a) Give one reason why a lubricant is used when metal parts rub against each other.

______

______(1)

(b) The diagram shows the arrangement of atoms in graphite.

(i) Draw a ring around the type of atoms in graphite.

aluminium carbon silicon (1)

(ii) Graphite is a good lubricant because it is slippery. Use the diagram to explain why graphite is slippery.

______

______(2) (Total 4 marks)

Q9. Crude oil is a mixture of hydrocarbons. Crude oil can be separated into fractions.

Page 11 of 93

(a) (i) Complete the sentence.

The process used to separate the crude oil into fractions is called

fractional ______. (1)

(ii) Why do the fractions separate at different temperatures?

______

______(1)

(b) Tick ( ) two properties of fraction 6.

Property Tick ( )

contains hydrocarbons

has a small number of carbon atoms in each molecule

is easy to ignite

has a high boiling point

(2)

What is the formula of the alkane that has 5 carbon atoms in each molecule?

Draw a ring around the correct answer.

Page 12 of 93 C5H9 C5H10 C5H11 C5H12

(1) (Total 5 marks)

Q10. The picture shows a student using a pencil to complete a multiple choice answer sheet.

By albertogp123 [CC BY 2.0] , via Flickr

The pencil contains graphite. Graphite rubs off the pencil onto the paper.

Diagrams 1 and 2 show how the atoms are arranged in graphite.

(a) Use Diagram 2 and your Data Sheet to help you to name the element from which graphite is made.

Page 13 of 93 ______(1)

(b) Use Diagram 1 to help you explain why graphite can rub off the pencil onto the paper.

______

______(2)

covalent ionic metallic

(1) (Total 4 marks)

Q11. In the future:

• there will be fewer oil burning power stations

• there may be more wood burning power stations.

(a) Which one of the emissions from the chimney can cause acid rain?

______(1)

Page 14 of 93 (b) Draw a ring around the correct answer to complete the sentence.

acid rain.

Carbon particles in the Earth’s atmosphere cause global dimming.

global warming.

(1)

______(1)

(d) Suggest why there will be fewer power stations burning oil in the future.

______

______(1)

(e) Some power stations burn wood. The wood comes from trees grown in forests.

Suggest why burning wood in power stations is said to be ‘carbon-neutral’.

______

______(2) (Total 6 marks)

Q12. The diagrams represent the structures of five substances, A, B, C, D and E.

Page 15 of 93

(a) Give one substance, A, B, C, D or E, that:

(i) has a very low boiling point

(1)

(ii) is a compound

(1)

(iii) is a metal.

(1)

(b) Draw a ring around the type of bonding holding the atoms together in substance C.

covalent ionic metallic

(1)

Page 16 of 93 (c) Explain why substance E is soft and slippery.

______

______(2) (Total 6 marks)

Q13. Barbecues are heated by burning charcoal or burning hydrocarbons.

(a) Use the Chemistry Data Sheet to help you to answer this question.

The chemical equation for charcoal burning is:

C + O2 CO2

Complete the word equation for this reaction.

carbon + ______carbon dioxide (1)

(b) Propane is a hydrocarbon.

(i) Complete the displayed structure of propane. Draw in the missing bonds.

(1)

(ii) Write the chemical formula of propane.______(1)

(iii) Draw a ring around the correct answer to complete the sentence.

Page 17 of 93 hydrogen.

Propane burns in air to produce carbon dioxide and hydroxide.

water.

(1)

State at room Hydrocarbon Boiling point in °C temperature (20°C)

Ethane (C2H6) gas −89

Ethene (C2H4) gas −104

Butane (C4H10) gas −1

Butene (C4H8) gas −6

Hexane (C6H14) liquid +69

Hexene (C6H12) liquid +64

Tick ( ) two correct statements about the six hydrocarbons.

Statement Tick ( )

Ethane and butane boil at temperatures less than 20°C.

Hexene and butene are alkanes.

Butane and hexane are liquid at 0°C.

Ethene and hexene each have a carbon-carbon double

bond.

(2) (Total 6 marks)

Q14. About 3000 million years ago carbon dioxide was one of the main gases in the Earth’s early atmosphere.

About 400 million years ago Today coal is burned in power plants and trees grew on most stations to release the energy of the land. When the plants needed by industry. and trees died they were covered by sand and slowly decayed to form coal.

Page 18 of 93

(a) The bar chart shows the percentage of some of the elements in this coal.

(i) This coal contains 85 % carbon. Draw the bar for carbon on the chart. (1)

(ii) Coal is burned in the atmosphere to release energy. Two of the products of burning coal are shown.

Draw one line from each product to its environmental impact.

Product Environmental impact

Acid rain

Page 19 of 93 Sulfur dioxide

Global dimming

Carbon particles

Global warming

(2)

(b) Use the information above and your knowledge and understanding to answer these questions.

(i) How did the formation of coal decrease the amount of carbon dioxide in the Earth’s early atmosphere?

______

______(1)

(ii) How does burning coal affect the amount of carbon dioxide in the Earth’s atmosphere? Explain your answer.

______

______(2) (Total 6 marks)

Q15. The diagram shows a carbon atom.

(a) (i) A proton is labelled.

Page 20 of 93 Use the correct answer from the box to label each of the other sub-atomic particles.

electron ion molecule neutron

(2)

(ii) The atom of carbon is represented as:

What is the mass number of this carbon atom?

Draw a ring around the correct answer.

6 13 19 (1)

(iii) Complete the sentence.

Atoms of carbon have no overall electrical charge because the number

of protons is the same as the number of ______. (1)

(b) Butane is represented as:

(i) Use the correct answer from the box to complete each sentence.

bond compound helium hydrogen mixture oxygen

Butane is a ______.

Butane contains atoms of carbon and ______.

Each line between the atoms in butane represents a chemical

______. (3)

(ii) Which is the correct formula for butane?

Tick (✔) one box.

C4H4

Page 21 of 93 C4H8

C4H10

(1) (Total 8 marks)

Q16. (a) Crude oil is a mixture of compounds. These compounds are made up of hydrogen and carbon atoms only.

(i) Draw a ring around the correct answer to complete the sentence.

Compounds made up of carbon and hydrogen atoms only

alcohols.

are called hydrocarbons.

vegetable oils.

(1)

(ii) The table shows five of these compounds.

State at room Compound Boiling point in °C temperature (20 °C)

ethane, C2H6 gas – 89

butane, C4H10 gas 0

hexane, C6H14 liquid +69

pentadecane, C15H32 liquid +270

heptadecane, C17H36 solid +302

Tick ( ) two correct statements about the five compounds.

Statement Tick ( )

ethane has the smallest molecules

hexane and pentadecane are liquid at 100 °C

heptadecane has the highest boiling point

butane boils at 100 °C

(2)

Page 22 of 93 (iii) Draw a ring around the correct answer to complete each sentence.

Fractional distillation is used to separate the compounds in crude oil.

cracking

The first step in fractional distillation is displacing the crude oil.

evaporating

burn

During fractional distillation the condense compounds

decompose at different temperatures. (2)

(b) Steam distillation is used to separate oils from plants.

The diagram shows some apparatus that can be used to separate oil from lavender plants. Four parts of the apparatus are labelled W, X, Y and Z.

(i) In which part, W, X, Y or Z, of the apparatus:

is steam produced

are steam and oil condensed?

(2)

(ii) Use the correct word from the box to complete the sentence.

Page 23 of 93

dissolves floats sinks

When the oil separates from the water, the oil ______(1)

(iii) Describe how part Z of the apparatus can be used to remove the water from the oil.

______

______(2) (Total 10 marks)

Q17. Alkanes are hydrocarbons found in crude oil.

(a) (i) Complete the sentence.

Hydrocarbons contain the elements ______and ______only. (1)

(ii) Ethane is an alkane with the formula C2H6

Draw a ring around the correct answer to complete the sentence.

CnHn

Alkanes are hydrocarbons with the general formula CnH2n

CnH2n+2

(1)

(b) Crude oil is separated into useful fractions by fractional distillation.

Page 24 of 93

Describe and explain how crude oil is separated into fractions by fractional distillation.

Use the diagram to help you answer the question.

______

______(4)

(i) Complete the equation for this reaction.

C12H26 2 C2H4 + ______(1)

(ii) Give two conditions needed for cracking.

1. ______

2. ______(2) (Total 9 marks)

Q18. The picture shows a student filling in a multiple choice answer sheet using a pencil.

Page 25 of 93

The pencil contains graphite. Graphite rubs off the pencil onto the paper.

Diagrams 1 and 2 show how the atoms are arranged in graphite.

(a) Use the diagrams to help you explain why graphite can rub off the pencil onto the paper.

______

______(2)

(b) Draw a ring around the type of bond which holds the atoms together in each layer.

covalent ionic metallic

(1) (Total 3 marks)

Page 26 of 93 Q19. Energy is released by burning fuels.

(a) The bar chart shows the energy in kilojoules, kJ, released by burning 1 g of five different fuels.

(i) Which fuel releases least energy by burning 1 g?

______(1)

(ii) How much energy is released by burning 1 g of coal?

Energy = ______kJ (1)

(iii) Calculate the mass of petrol that will release the same amount of energy as 1 g of hydrogen.

Use information from the bar chart to help you.

______

Mass = ______g (1)

(b) Coal burns in oxygen and produces the gases shown in the table.

Name Formula

Page 27 of 93 Carbon dioxide CO2

Water vapour H2O

Sulfur dioxide SO2

Use information from the table to name one element that is in coal.

______(1)

A lighthouse uses electricity generated by burning hydrogen.

Suggest two advantages of using hydrogen as a fuel.

Use information from the bar chart and the diagram above to help you.

1. ______

______

2. ______

______(2) (Total 6 marks)

Q20. This question is about the Earth and its atmosphere.

(a) Figure 1 shows the Earth and its atmosphere billions of years ago.

Figure 1

Page 28 of 93

The boiling point of water is 100 °C.

Suggest one reason why there was no liquid water on the Earth’s surface billions of years ago.

______

______(1)

(b) The Earth’s atmosphere today contains nitrogen, oxygen, argon, carbon dioxide and other gases.

(i) Draw one line from each substance to a description of the substance.

(3)

(ii) Which gas in the Earth’s atmosphere is used when hydrocarbons burn?

Tick (✔) one box.

carbon dioxide

nitrogen

Page 29 of 93 oxygen

(1)

(iii) What percentage of the Earth’s atmosphere is nitrogen?

Tick (✔) one box.

about 40%

about 60%

about 80%

(1)

Figure 2

(i) What was the carbon dioxide percentage in 1900?

______% (1)

(ii) Describe, in detail, how the carbon dioxide percentage changed from 1900 to 2015.

______

______(2)

Page 30 of 93 (iii) Suggest two reasons for the change in the carbon dioxide percentage from 1900 to 2015.

1. ______

______

2. ______

______(2) (Total 11 marks)

Q21. This question is about electrolysis.

(a) Metal spoons can be coated with silver. This is called electroplating.

Suggest one reason why spoons are electroplated.

______

______(1)

(b) When sodium chloride solution is electrolysed the products are hydrogen and chlorine.

(i) What is made from chlorine?

Tick ( ) one box.

Bleach

Fertiliser

Soap

(1)

(ii) Sodium chloride solution contains two types of positive ions, hydrogen ions (H+) and sodium ions (Na+).

Why is hydrogen produced at the negative electrode and not sodium?

Tick ( ) one box.

Page 31 of 93 Hydrogen is a gas.

Hydrogen is less reactive than sodium.

Hydrogen ions move faster than sodium ions.

(1)

(iii) Hydrogen and chlorine can be used to produce hydrogen chloride.

The diagrams in Figure 1 show how the outer electrons are arranged in an atom of hydrogen and an atom of chlorine.

Complete Figure 2 to show how the outer electrons are arranged in a molecule of hydrogen chloride (HCl).

(1)

(iv) What is the type of bond in a molecule of hydrogen chloride?

Tick ( ) one box.

Covalent

Ionic

Page 32 of 93 Metallic

(1)

(v) Why is hydrogen chloride a gas at room temperature (20 °C)?

Tick ( ) two boxes.

Hydrogen chloride has a low boiling point.

Hydrogen chloride has a high melting point.

Hydrogen chloride is made of simple molecules.

Hydrogen chloride does not conduct electricity.

Hydrogen chloride has a giant structure.

(2)

(c) Aluminium is produced by electrolysis of a molten mixture of aluminium oxide and cryolite. This is shown in Figure 3.

(i) Name a gas produced at the positive electrode.

______(1)

(ii) Aluminium ions move to the negative electrode.

Explain why.

Page 33 of 93 ______

______

______(2)

(iii) At the negative electrode, the aluminium ions gain electrons to produce aluminium.

What is this type of reaction called?

Tick ( ) one box.

Combustion

Oxidation

Reduction

(1)

(iv) Aluminium has layers of atoms, as shown in Figure 4.

Complete the sentence.

Metals can be bent and shaped because the layers of atoms can ______

______(1)

(d) Electrodes used in the production of aluminium are made from graphite.

(i) Which diagram, A, B or C, shows the structure of graphite?

Page 34 of 93

The structure of graphite is shown in diagram

(1)

(ii) The temperature for the electrolysis is 950 °C.

Use the correct answer from the box to complete the sentence.

cross links a giant ionic lattice strong covalent bonds

The graphite does not melt at 950 °C because

graphite has ______. (1) (Total 14 marks)

Q22. Crude oil is a fossil fuel.

(a) To make crude oil more useful it is separated into fractions.

Use the correct word from the box to complete each sentence.

boiling compound decomposition distillation

filtration mixture molecule

(i) Crude oil is a ______of different substances. (1)

(ii) The substances in crude oil have different

______points. (1)

(iii) Crude oil is separated by fractional ______. (1)

Page 35 of 93 (b) Petrol is one of the fractions produced from crude oil.

Car engines use a mixture of petrol and air.

The diagram shows some of the gases produced.

(i) What type of reaction happens to petrol in a car engine?

Tick ( ) one box.

combustion

decomposition

neutralisation

(1)

(ii) Petrol contains octane (C8H18).

Complete the word equation for the reaction of octane with oxygen.

octane + ______+ ______(2)

(iii) Cars use sulfur-free petrol as a fuel.

Describe why sulfur should be removed from petrol.

______

______(2)

These molecules can be cracked to produce smaller, more useful molecules.

Page 36 of 93 An equation for cracking decane is:

C10H22 C3H8 + C2H4 + C5H10 decane propane ethene pentene

(i) Why is propane useful?

Tick ( ) one box.

Propane is a polymer.

Propane is an alloy.

Propane is a fuel.

(1)

(ii) Draw bonds to complete the displayed structure of ethene.

(1)

(iii) What is the colour change when bromine water reacts with ethene?

Tick ( ) one box.

Orange to colourless

Orange to green

Orange to red

(1)

(iv) Complete the sentence.

Pentene is useful because many pentene molecules can join together

to form ______. (1) (Total 12 marks)

Page 37 of 93 Q23. This question is about energy changes in chemical reactions.

(a) Complete the word equation for the combustion of hydrogen.

hydrogen + oxygen → ______(1)

(b) Figure 1 shows a simple energy level diagram.

(i) Which arrow, A, B or C, shows the activation energy?

Tick (✔) one box.

(1)

(ii) What type of reaction is shown by the energy level diagram in Figure 1? Give a reason for your answer.

Type of reaction ______

Reason ______

______(2)

(iii) For a reaction, the value of A is 1370 kJ and C is 3230 kJ. Calculate the value of B.

______

Page 38 of 93 B = ______kJ (1)

A group of students investigated the amount of energy released when different alcohols are burned.

The students used the apparatus shown in Figure 2.

(i) Figure 3 shows the start temperature and the final temperature of the water.

Write the start temperature and the final temperature of the water in Table 1. Work out the increase in temperature to complete Table 1.

Table 1

Start temperature of the water in °C

Final temperature of the water in °C

Increase in temperature in °C (3)

Page 39 of 93 (ii) The students worked out the heat energy released by burning 1 g of each alcohol. The students used the equation:

Heat energy released = m × 4.2 × increase in temperature

Look at Figure 2. What is the value of m?

m = ______g (1)

(iii) Table 2 shows the students’ results.

Table 2

Name of Number of carbon atoms in Heat energy released when 1 g of alcohol one molecule of alcohol alcohol is burned in kJ

Methanol 1 11.4

Ethanol 2 13.5

Propanol 3 20.1

Butanol 4 16.8

Pentanol 5 17.2

Which value of heat energy released is anomalous?

______(1)

(iv) Look at Table 2. What is the relationship between the number of carbon atoms in one molecule of alcohol and the heat energy released when 1 g of the alcohol is burned?

______

______(1)

(v) The value in a data book for the amount of heat energy released when 1 g of butanol is burned completely is 36.2 kJ.

Suggest two reasons why the students’ result for butanol is lower than the data book value.

1. ______

______

2. ______

______(2)

(vi) The displayed structure of butanol is:

Page 40 of 93

What is the functional group of the alcohol?

Tick (✔) one box.

–– C –– C

–– C –– H

–– O –– H

(1) (Total 14 marks)

Q24. Hydrocarbons are used to make useful products.

(a) What are the elements in hydrocarbons?

Tick one box.

Carbon and hydrogen only

Carbon, hydrogen and oxygen

Carbon and nitrogen only

Carbon, nitrogen and oxygen

(1)

(b) Table 1 gives some information about four hydrocarbons.

Table 1

Melting point in Boiling point in Hydrocarbon °C °C

Methane –183 –162

Ethene –169 –104

Octane –57 +126

Decane –30 +174

Page 41 of 93 What are two correct statements about the four compounds?

Tick two boxes.

Methane has the lowest boiling point and decane has the highest melting point

Methane and decane are both gases at 20 °C

Ethene and octane are both alkanes

Decane and ethene are both liquids at 0 °C

Octane is liquid over a larger temperature range than methane (2)

Give the conditions needed for cracking.

______

______(2)

(d) Poly(ethene) is a polymer made from ethene. Poly(ethene) is used to make plastic bags.

Table 2 is from a life cycle assessment comparing paper bags and plastic bags.

Table 2

Paper bag Plastic bag

Raw material Wood Oil or gas (renewable) (non-renewable)

Energy used to make in MJ 1.7 1.5

Solid waste produced in g 50 14

Carbon dioxide produced in kg 0.23 0.53

Evaluate which type of bag is more environmentally friendly.

Use data from Table 2 and your own knowledge to support your answer.

______

Page 42 of 93 ______

______

______(6) (Total 11 marks)

Q25. A student investigated the substances produced when fuels burn.

The figure below shows the apparatus the student used.

(a) The complete combustion of a hydrocarbon produces carbon dioxide and one other substance.

Look at the figure above. What would the student see in tube A?

______

______(1)

(b) When the student burned the fuel she saw soot in the funnel.

Explain why soot forms.

______

Page 43 of 93 ______(2)

The substance in tube B is water containing universal indicator.

The indicator turned red.

Which gas made the indicator turn red?

Tick one box.

Ammonia

Carbon monoxide

Nitrogen

Sulfur dioxide

(1) (Total 4 marks)

Q26. There are several different forms of carbon and many different carbon compounds.

(a) Figure 1 shows a 3D model of a molecule of methane (CH4).

Figure 1

Draw the 2D structure of a methane molecule. (1)

(b) Different forms of carbon have different bonding and structure.

Draw one line from the form of carbon to the bonding and structure.

Form of carbon Bonding and structure

Page 44 of 93

(3)

Crude oil can be separated into useful fractions by fractional distillation.

Figure 2 shows a column used to separate crude oil.

Figure 2

Page 45 of 93 Complete the sentences.

Use words from the box.

condense evaporate freeze

Crude oil is heated so that most of the compounds ______

At different temperatures the compounds cool and ______(2)

(d) Which fraction is the most viscous?

Tick one box.

Engine oil

Diesel oil

Kerosene

Petrol

(1)

(e) Which fraction is the most flammable?

Tick one box.

Diesel oil

Kerosene

Petrol

Refinery gas

(1)

(f) Why does kerosene separate out of the mixture before diesel oil?

______

______(1) (Total 9 marks)

Page 46 of 93 Q27. The apparatus in the figure below is used to separate a mixture of liquids in a fuel.

(a) What is apparatus W on above the figure above?

Tick one box.

Beaker

Boiling Tube

Flask

Jug

(1)

(b) What is the name of this method of separation?

Tick one box.

Crystallisation

Electrolysis

Filtration

Distillation

(1)

Page 47 of 93 Use words from the box.

boiling condensing freezing melting

Change of state at A: ______

Change of state at B: ______(2)

(d) Table 1 shows the boiling points of the hydrocarbons in the fuel.

Table 1

Boiling point Hydrocarbon in °C

Pentane 36

Hexane 69

Heptane 98

Octane 125

Which hydrocarbon will be the last to collect in the beaker?

Tick one box.

Pentane

Hexane

Heptane

Octane

(1)

(e) The fuel is a mixture of liquids that has been designed as a useful product.

What name is given to this type of mixture?

Tick one box.

Catalyst

Formulation

Page 48 of 93 Polymer

Solvent

(1)

(f) Describe how this fuel is different from crude oil.

______

______(2)

(g) A student measured the melting point of a solid hydrocarbon four times.

The student’s results are in Table 2.

Table 2

Trial 1 Trial 2 Trial 3 Trial 4

Melting 35 48 37 37 point in °C

Calculate the mean melting point of the hydrocarbon, leaving out any anomalous result.

Give your answer to two significant figures.

______

Mean melting point = ______°C (2) (Total 10 marks)

Q28. A student investigated how the temperature of an oil affected the time taken for a metal ball to fall through the oil.

Figure 1 shows the apparatus.

Figure 1

Page 49 of 93

This is the method used.

1. Heat the oil.

2. Pour the oil into a measuring cylinder.

3. Drop the metal ball into the oil.

4. Record the time taken for the ball to fall from point A to point C.

5. Repeat steps 1–4 using different temperatures of the oil.

(a) Suggest why the student should not heat the oil directly with a flame.

______

______(1)

(b) Suggest how the student could have heated the oil safely.

______

______(1)

Tick two boxes.

Surface area of ball

Temperature of oil

Time taken for ball to fall

Volume of oil used

(2)

Figure 2 shows the metal ball falling through the oil.

Page 50 of 93 Figure 2

(d) What is force P?

______(1)

(e) Between points A and B, force P is greater than force Q.

Which statement is correct?

Tick one box.

The ball has a constant speed

The ball is accelerating

The ball is not moving

(1)

(f) Between points B and C, the ball moves downwards at constant velocity.

Which statement is correct?

Tick one box.

Force P is larger than force Q

Force P is smaller than force Q

Force P and force Q are the same size

(1)

(g) The ball falls from B to C.

The value of force Q is 0.025 N

Page 51 of 93 The distance between B and C is 0.20 m

Calculate the work done by force Q.

Use the equation:

work done = force × distance

______

Work done = ______J (2) (Total 9 marks)

Q29. Crude oil and natural gas are natural resources in many countries.

The table shows percentages of hydrocarbons in natural gas from three different countries.

Percentage (%) of hydrocarbon in natural Hydrocarbon gas Country X Country Y Country Z

Methane 78.03 88.10 94.36

Ethane 9.70 5.30 2.37

Propane 4.82 2.16 0.15

Butane 1.33 0.72 0.02

Pentane 0.30 0.18 0.00

(a) Calculate the mean percentage of propane from countries X, Y and Z.

Give your answer to 2 decimal places.

______

Mean percentage of propane = ______% (2)

(b) Suggest why natural gas from different countries has different percentages of hydrocarbons.

Page 52 of 93 ______

______(1)

Choose the answer from the box.

an atom an electron an ion a molecule

The formula CH4 represents ______of methane. (1)

(d) Complete the sentence.

The hydrocarbons in the table belong to the homologous series of

______. (1)

Figure 1 shows how properties vary with the increasing size of molecule in this homologous series.

Figure 1

(e) Which graph shows how boiling points vary?

Tick one box.

A B C D

(1)

(f) Which graph shows how viscosity varies?

Tick one box.

A B C D

(1)

(g) Crude oil is fractionally distilled.

Fractions with larger molecules are cracked.

Page 53 of 93 Describe two differences between fractional distillation and cracking.

1. ______

______

2. ______

______(2)

(h) Ethene is a product of crude oil.

Complete the sentence.

Ethene polymerises to produce ______. (1)

(i) The production of plastic bags uses limited resources.

Figure 2 shows two ways (A and B) of saving limited resources.

Figure 2

Name A and B.

Choose the answers from the box.

recycle reduce release reuse reverse

A ______

B ______(2) (Total 12 marks)

Q30. The table shows the gases in the Earth’s atmosphere today.

Gas Percentage (%)

N2 78.0

O2 21.0

Page 54 of 93 Ar 0.9

Other gases X

(a) What is the percentage of X?

Tick one box.

0.01% 0.1% 1% 10%

(1)

(b) Complete Figure 1.

Plot the data from the table on Figure 1.

Figure 1

(1)

Tick one box.

Aluminium

Argon

Page 55 of 93 Arsenic

Astatine

(1)

(d) Figure 2 shows the gases in the atmosphere of Mars today.

Figure 2

Some theories suggest that the Earth’s early atmosphere was the same as the atmosphere of Mars today.

Describe the change in the percentage of oxygen from the Earth’s early atmosphere to the Earth’s atmosphere today.

Use values from the table and Figure 2.

______

______(2)

(e) Figure 3 shows the percentage of greenhouse gases from human activities.

Figure 3

Page 56 of 93

Compare the contribution of each activity to the total amount of greenhouse gases.

Use data from Figure 3.

______

______(4)

(f) Suggest one way greenhouse gas emissions could be reduced.

______

______(1)

(g) Give one reason why it is difficult for some countries to reduce emissions of greenhouse gases.

______

______(1) (Total 11 marks)

Q31.

Page 57 of 93 A student investigated the viscosity of liquid hydrocarbons.

A viscous liquid is a liquid that flows slowly.

The student used this method.

• Measure 50 cm3 of the liquid hydrocarbon.

• Pour the liquid hydrocarbon into the funnel, as shown in Figure 1.

• Time how long it takes for all of the liquid hydrocarbon to run out of the funnel.

• Repeat the experiment for other liquid hydrocarbons.

(a) (i) Give the name of apparatus A in Figure 1.

______(1)

(ii) Name the apparatus that could be used to measure 50 cm3 of liquid hydrocarbon.

______(1)

(b) The student’s results for six liquid hydrocarbons are shown in Table 1.

Table 1

Time for liquid hydrocarbon to run out of the Formula funnel in seconds Mean time in of liquid seconds hydrocarbon Experiment 1 Experiment 2 Experiment 3

C5H12 12 11 13 12

C6H14 14 15 15 15

C7H16 19 20 18

Page 58 of 93 C8H18 27 26 28 27

C10H22 46 48 47

C12H26 65 67 69 67

(i) The student did the experiment three times with each liquid hydrocarbon.

Give two reasons why.

______

______(2)

(ii) Use the data in Table 1 to calculate the mean time, in seconds, for C7H16

______

Mean time = ______seconds (1)

(iii) Complete the sentence.

As the number of carbon atoms in a molecule of liquid hydrocarbon increases, the time taken for the liquid hydrocarbon to run out of the funnel

______. (1)

(iv) A ring has been drawn around one result in Table 1.

This result has not been used to calculate the mean time for C10H22

Suggest why this result was not used.

______

______(1)

(v) Suggest one error the student may have made to get the ringed result.

______

______(1)

Page 59 of 93 (c) The student investigated the effect of temperature on the viscosity of one of the liquid hydrocarbons.

The liquid hydrocarbon he was using had the hazard symbols shown in Figure 2.

(i) Suggest why the student warmed the liquid hydrocarbon using warm water and not a Bunsen flame.

______

______(1)

(ii) The student wore safety glasses.

Give one other safety precaution the student should take, and give a reason for this safety precaution.

Safety precaution ______

Reason ______

______(2)

(d) This is the method the student used to investigate the effect of temperature on the viscosity of one of the liquid hydrocarbons.

• Measure 50 cm3 of the liquid hydrocarbon and pour it into a beaker.

• Stand the beaker of liquid hydrocarbon in a heated water bath.

• Leave for a few minutes.

• Measure the temperature of the liquid hydrocarbon.

• Pour the liquid hydrocarbon into the funnel, as shown in Figure 3.

Page 60 of 93

• Time how long it takes for all of the liquid hydrocarbon to run out of the funnel.

• Repeat the experiment at different temperatures.

(i) The student’s results are shown in Table 2.

Table 2

Temperature of Time to run out of the liquid hydrocarbon funnel in seconds in °C

23 27

30 21

37 17

46 16

55 11

65 9

Plot the results shown in Table 2 on the graph in Figure 4.

Draw a curve of best fit.

Page 61 of 93

(3)

(ii) One of the points is anomalous.

Draw a ring around the anomalous point on your graph. (1)

(iii) Predict how long it will take the liquid hydrocarbon to run through the funnel at 70 °C.

Show your working on your graph.

Time = ______seconds (2)

(iv) Describe the relationship between the temperature of the liquid hydrocarbon and the viscosity of the liquid hydrocarbon.

______

______(3)

(v) The apparatus the student used in Figure 2 could lead to a systematic error in the results.

Identify one source of systematic error, and describe how the student could avoid or reduce the error.

______

Page 62 of 93 ______(2) (Total 22 marks)

Q32. This question is about structure and bonding.

(a) Figure 1 shows part of one layer of graphene.

Figure 1

Which element is graphene made from?

Tick one box.

Carbon

Copper

Hydrogen

Sodium

(1)

(b) Each atom in graphene has one delocalised electron.

Complete the sentence.

Choose the answer from the box.

act as a lubricant be used as a fuel conduct electricity dissolve in water

Delocalised electrons allow graphene to ______. (1)

Page 63 of 93 (c) Which structure is a fullerene?

Tick one box.

(1)

Figure 2 shows part of a large hydrocarbon molecule.

Figure 2

(d) Which two elements are in all hydrocarbons?

1. ______

Page 64 of 93 2. ______(2)

(e) Complete the sentence.

Choose the answer from the box.

an atom a metal a polymer a salt

The large molecule represented in Figure 2 is ______. (1)

(f) Complete the sentence.

Choose the answer from the box.

attract bond slide vibrate

Metals can be stretched into wires

because the layers of atoms can ______. (1) (Total 7 marks)

Q33. Crude oil is a mixture of hydrocarbons.

(a) Name the two elements in a hydrocarbon.

1. ______

2. ______(2)

(b) What was crude oil formed from?

Tick one box.

Acids

Enzymes

Metals

Plankton

(1)

Figure 1 shows how crude oil is separated to produce different fuels.

Page 65 of 93 Figure 1

Tick one box.

Combustion

Fractional distillation

Phytomining

Steam cracking

(1)

(d) Why is the crude oil heated?

______

______(1)

The table below shows some properties of the fuels produced by the process.

Number of carbon Lowest boiling point Highest boiling point Fuel atoms in chain in °C in °C

Petrol 5−10 20 200

Kerosene 10−16 180 260

Page 66 of 93 Diesel oil 14−20 260 340

Fuel oil 20−70 370 600

(e) Which of the fuels has the largest boiling point range?

Tick one box.

Petrol

Kerosene

Diesel oil

Fuel oil

(1)

(f) Plot the data for diesel oil from the table on Figure 2.

Figure 2

(3) (Total 9 marks)

Q34. Plastics are used to make many everyday items, such as the body of the kettle.

Page 67 of 93

(a) Complete the sentences by drawing a ring around the correct words.

catalysts

(i) The plastic is made from many small molecules called monomers

polymers

(1)

(ii) Propene is produced by cracking some of the fractions that are

crude oil

separated from limestone

metal ores

(1)

(b) After a few years the kettle no longer worked.

• Some parts of the kettle are made of plastic. • Some parts of the kettle are made of stainless steel. • The owner of the kettle disposed of it in a landfill site.

Consider these statements.

Suggest three reasons why the kettle should not be disposed of in a landfill site.

1. ______

______

2. ______

______

3. ______

______(3) (Total 5 marks)

Page 68 of 93 Q35. This question is about giant structures. Diamond, graphite and silicon dioxide all have giant structures.

(a) The diagrams show the structures of these three substances.

Draw a line from each structure to its name.

(2)

(b) Complete the sentences using words from the box.

covalent four hard ionic

shiny soft three two

(i) Diamond, graphite and silicon dioxide have high melting points because all

the atoms in their structures are joined by strong ______bonds. (1)

(ii) In diamond each atom is joined to ______other atoms. (1)

(iii) Diamond can be used to make cutting tools because it has a rigid structure

which makes it very ______(1)

(iv) In graphite each atom is joined to ______other atoms. (1)

Page 69 of 93 (v) Graphite can be used to make pencils because it has a structure which makes

it ______(1)

(c) When a diamond is heated to a high temperature and then placed in pure oxygen it burns. Carbon dioxide is the only product.

Name the element in diamond. ______(1) (Total 8 marks)

Page 70 of 93 Mark schemes

Q1. (a) hydrocarbons 1

(b) evaporation 1

condensation 1

distillation allow fractional distillation 1

Q2. (a) hydrogen

accept correct symbols but not H2 1

carbon 1

(b) (i) water

accept H2O 1

(ii) limewater / calcium hydroxide

accept Ca(OH)2 1

(iii) milky / cloudy / chalky / white 1

increases / rises after 1800 1

rapidly (owtte) 1

(ii) increased burning of hydrocarbon / (fossil) fuels, etc. or increased use of fuels accept deforestation accept (more) cars / lorries / planes etc. accept power stations do not accept just ‘factories’

Page 71 of 93 1 [9]

Q3. (a) hydrogen ignore formulae 1

(b) any two from:

• different sized molecules / more or less (carbon) atoms (in molecules) ignore different densities

• fuels have different boiling points

• fuels condense at different temperatures 2

(c)

all three correct = 3 marks two correct = 2 marks one correct = 1 mark 3 [6]

Q4. (a) (i) made up of one sort of atom accept it is in the periodic table or has its own symbol 1

(ii) nitrogen / N / N2 or oxygen / O / O2

Page 72 of 93 do not accept argon or helium do not accept oxide 1

(b) (i) compound 1

carbon 1

(ii) bond 1 [5]

Q5. (a) carbon 1

(b) all 1

(d) four 1

(e) hard 1 [5]

Q6. (a) any two from:

• conducts electricity

• soft

• slippery

• high melting point ignore hardwearing / does not stick apply list principle 2

(b) (i) three 1

covalent 1

(ii) it is made of layers of atoms 1 [5]

Q7.

Page 73 of 93 (a) (i) wood 1

(ii) 30 (kJ) 1

(iii) carbon / C

or hydrogen / H

or sulfur / S

or oxygen / O 1

(iv) 3 / three (g) 1

(b) (i) releases most energy accept releases a lot of energy / burns rapidly ignore references to cost 1

no harmful gases / no or less pollution formed / no global warming / no climate change / no greenhouse gas accept produces water (only) /steam accept does not produce sulfur dioxide / carbon dioxide / carbon monoxide / particles / smoke 1

(ii) any one from:

• expensive

• difficult to produce accept large volume needed

• not available in large quantities

• explosive / dangerous

• not a natural fuel / resource allow will run out / non-renewable

• made from fossil fuels

• difficult to store 1 [7]

Q8. (a) reduce wear of metal ie don’t get damaged or other sensible answer

Page 74 of 93 stop / reduce friction accept stop metal heating up accept move more smoothly ignore make it slippery / rub more smoothly

prevent seizing accept can move freely 1

(b) (i) carbon 1

(ii) layers (of atoms) 1

can slide / slip over each other allow slip off

weak forces of attraction / weak bonds (between layers) allow no bonds accept there are weak forces of attraction for 1 mark even when there is no reference to layers accept atoms slide over each other (for 1 mark) an answer which only states there are weak bonds would gain 0 mark when there is no reference to layers weak covalent bonds = 0 marks 1 [4]

Q9. (a) (i) distillation 1

(ii) condense (at different temperatures) accept they / fractions / hydrocarbons have different boiling points ignore melting point / size of molecule 1

(b) contains hydrocarbons 1

has a high boiling point 1

Page 75 of 93 Q10.

(a) carbon 1

(b) layers 1

have weak forces / attractions / bonds between them or are only held together weakly second mark must be linked to layers

can slide over each other or separate (1) 1

Q11.

(a) sulfur dioxide / SO2 allow sulfur oxide 1

(b) global dimming 1

(d) (oil is a) limited resource / finite / non-renewable accept running out of oil or wood is sustainable accept (burning oil) increases amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere / global warming or releases locked up carbon / global dimming / acid rain accept the oil (may become) too expensive 1

(e) carbon dioxide produced (from burning wood) ignore global warming 1

carbon dioxide used by plants / trees or for photosynthesis if no other mark awarded allow carbon emissions used by plants / trees or for photosynthesis for 1 mark 1 [6]

Q12. (a) (i) C 1

Page 76 of 93 (ii) C or D 1

(iii) A 1

(b) covalent 1

can slide / move over each other accept are weakly bonded (owtte) allow no bonds between layers ignore slip / rub 1 [6]

Q13. (a) oxygen must be name do not accept oxide or dioxide 1

(b) (i) 2 x C–C

and

5 x C–H all single (line) bonds 1

(ii) C3 H8 must be formula do not accept lower case h 1

(iii) water 1

ethene and hexene each have a carbon-carbon double bond 1 [6]

Q14. (a) (i) bar drawn between 84 and 86 1

(ii) sulfur dioxide linked to acid rain 1

Page 77 of 93 carbon particles linked to global dimming 1

(b) (i) any one from:

• plants / trees absorb (carbon dioxide)

• coal ‘locks up’ (carbon dioxide) 1

(ii) it increases the amount (of CO2) 1

because carbon in coal (forms carbon dioxide) accept because carbon / coal burns / reacts with oxygen (to produce CO2) 1 [6]

Q15. (a) (i) Neutron (top label) 1

Electron (bottom label) 1

(ii) 13 1

(iii) electrons 1

(b) (i) compound 1

hydrogen 1

bond 1

(ii) C4H10 1 [8]

Q16. (a) (i) hydrocarbons 1

(ii) ethane has the smallest molecules 1

heptadecane has the highest boiling point 1

(iii) evaporating 1

Page 78 of 93 condense 1

(b) (i) W 1

Y 1

(ii) floats if no answer written on line, allow correct answer indicated in the box 1

(iii) open the tap allow let the water out ignore remove water 1

stop the flow of liquid when the water has run out allow until oil is left behind ignore filter 1 [10]

Q17. (a) (i) hydrogen / H and carbon / C answers can be in either order if letters given, must be capital H 1

(ii) CnH2n+2 1

(b) (most) crude oil vaporises / evaporates or crude oil enters as a vapour 1

(vapour) cools as it rises up the tower / column or tower / column cooler at the top or negative temperature gradient 1

the fractions have different boiling / condensation points / ranges accept the larger the molecules, the higher the boiling point / condensation point 1

so they will condense at different levels in the tower allow will collect at different levels if condensation mentioned allow will condense to give different fractions if no other mark is gained allow 1 mark for mention of heating 1

Page 79 of 93 if one answer is given C8H18 is the only acceptable answer credit any correct combination of alkanes and alkenes, eg C5H12 and C3H6 1

(ii) hot / high temperature accept any temperature in the range 300 − 900 °C ‘heat’ is insufficient 1

catalyst accept a named catalyst − alumina or zeolites or aluminosilicates or broken pot ignore other named catalysts allow (mixing with) steam as an alternative to second marking point ignore pressure 1 [9]

Q18. (a) layers

which have weak forces / attractions / bonds between them second mark must be linked to layers 1

which can slide over each other or separate ignore references to rubbing 1

(b) covalent 1 [3]

Q19. (a) (i) wood 1

(ii) 30 (kJ) 1

(iii) 3 / three (g) 1

(b) carbon / C

or hydrogen / H

or sulfur / S allow oxygen / O 1

Page 80 of 93 accept releases a lot of energy / burns rapidly ignore references to cost 1

no harmful gases / no or less pollution formed / no global warming / no climate change / no greenhouse gas accept produces water (only) / steam accept does not produce sulfur dioxide / carbon dioxide / carbon monoxide / particles / smoke 1 [6]

Q20. (a) the Earth’s (surface) temperature was high or at/above 100 °C allow the Earth’s (surface) temperature was too / very hot or water evaporated / boiled or turned to steam / gas allow because of heat from volcanoes ignore the Earth’s (surface) was covered by volcanoes ignore water turned to water vapour 1

(b) (i) 1

1 allow only one line from each substance

(ii) oxygen 1

(iii) about 80 % 1

(ii) increased 1 slowly then rapidly 1 allow figures from graph to indicate increase

(iii) any two from: • use of fossil fuels • deforestation allow less trees / plants • cars/transport • industry/factories ignore more people 2 [11]

Page 81 of 93 Q21. (a) any one from: • protection / improve lifespan • improve appearance. 1

(b) (i) Bleach 1

(ii) Hydrogen is less reactive than sodium 1

(iii) 1 bonding pair of electrons 6 unbonded electrons on Cl accept dot, cross or e or − or any combination 1

(iv) Covalent 1

(v) Hydrogen chloride has a low boiling point. 1

Hydrogen chloride is made of simple molecules. 1

(ii) aluminium ions are positive 1

so are attracted (to the negative electrode) allow opposites attract 1

(iii) Reduction 1

(iv) slide allow move 1

(d) (i) C 1

(ii) strong covalent bonds 1 [14]

Q22. (a) (i) mixture (of different substances) 1

(ii) boiling (points) 1

(iii) distillation

Page 82 of 93 1

(b) (i) combustion 1

(ii) (reactant)

oxygen allow correct formulae 1

(products) products in any order

carbon dioxide allow carbon or carbon monoxide and water allow water vapour or steam or hydrogen oxide 1

(iii) (burning sulfur) produces sulfur dioxide / S02 allow it / sulfur reacts with oxygen ignore sulfur oxide 1

causes acid rain 1

(ii) double bond drawn between carbon atoms do not allow any other bonds or symbols 1

(iii) orange to colourless 1

(iv) poly(pentene) allow polymer(s) 1 [12]

Q23.

(a) water / H2O allow steam or hydrogen oxide 1

(b) (i) A 1

(ii) exothermic 1

products (energy) lower than reactants (energy) 1

Page 83 of 93 (iii) 1860 (kJ) 1

38.7 1

16.2 allow ecf for correct subtraction 1

(ii) 50 (g) 1

(iii) 20.1 (kJ) allow propanol ignore 3 1

(iv) as the number of carbon atoms (in one molecule of alcohol) increases the heat energy given out increases (when the alcohol is burned) 1

(v) any two from: • no lid • no insulation • no draught shield Allow heat / energy loss to surroundings for any one of these marks

• incomplete combustion • inaccurate measurement • no repeats (to calculate a mean) 2

(iv) -O-H 1 [14]

Q24. (a) Carbon and hydrogen only 1

(b) Methane has the lowest boiling point and decane has the highest melting point 1

Octane is liquid over a larger temperature range than methane 1

catalyst 1

(d) Level 3 (5–6 marks):

Page 84 of 93 A detailed and coherent evaluation is provided that considers a range of relevant points, quotes relevant data from the table and comes to a conclusion consistent with the reasoning.

Level 2 (3–4 marks): An attempt to describe relevant points which comes to a conclusion. The logic and use of data may be inconsistent at times but builds towards a coherent argument.

Level 1 (1–2 marks): Discrete, relevant points made. The logic may be unclear and the conclusion, if present, may not be consistent with the reasoning.

0 marks: No relevant content.

Indicative content • conclusion as to which bag is more environmentally friendly

Points that may be used in argument • Paper bags are made from a renewable resource (wood) • Paper bags more sustainable • Paper bags are biodegradable • Plastic bags are made from a finite resource (oil or gas) • Plastic bags not sustainable • Paper bags require more energy to manufacture (1.7 MJ compared with 1.5 MJ) • Paper bags produce more waste (50 g compared with 14 g) • Paper bags create less CO2 than plastic bags • So manufacture of plastic bags has more effect on global warming / climate change / environmental effects • Plastic bags can be recycled • Recycling reduces use of energy sources in manufacture • justified 6 [11]

Q25. (a) Colourless liquid / condensation / water 1

(b) incomplete combustion of the fuel 1

because not enough oxygen 1

Q26. (a)

Page 85 of 93

(b) Form of carbon Bonding and structure

extra lines from the left negate the mark 3

condense 1

(d) Engine oil 1

(e) Refinery gas 1

(f) because its boiling point is lower 1 [9]

Q27. (a) Flask 1

(b) Fractional distillation 1

B – condensing 1

(d) Octane 1

Page 86 of 93 (e) Formulation 1

(f) the fuel is a pure compound 1

and crude oil is a mixture

the fuel is made up of four hydrocarbons allow crude oil contains a large number of compounds and the fuel contains four

and crude oil could have many more 1

(g) (35 + 37 + 37 / 3) = 36.33 1

36 1 allow (35 + 48 + 37 + 37 / 4 =) 39(.25) for 1 mark [10]

Q28. (a) the oil is flammable 1

(b) water bath or electric heater 1

volume of oil used 1

(d) weight allow gravity 1

(e) the ball is accelerating. 1

(f) force P and force Q are the same size 1

(g) (W=) 0.025 × 0.20 1

= 0.005 (J) an answer of 0.005 (J) scores 2 marks 1 [9]

Page 87 of 93 Q29. (a) 2.38 if answer incorrect, allow 1 mark for 2.37 to full calculator display or for (4.82 + 2.16 + 0.15) / 3 2

(b) different types of biomass / plankton allow they are mixtures 1

(d) alkanes 1

(e) B 1

(f) B 1

(g) any two from: • cracking uses a catalyst, fractional distillation doesn’t • cracking breaks up molecules, fractional distillation separates them • cracking is a chemical process, fractional distillation is a physical process 2

(h) poly(ethene) 1

(i) (A=) reuse 1

(B=) recycle 1 [12]

Q30. (a) 0.1% 1

(b) bar correctly drawn to ±½ square 1

(d) increased 1

data values to justify 1

(e) electricity and industry are equal 1

Page 88 of 93 electricity and industry are highest 1

transport is lowest 1

electricity or industry is double transport 1

(f) use of renewable energy sources or specific example 1

(g) limited investment in renewable technology or disagreement between countries accept specific reason which relates to response to (f), eg insufficient sunlight 1 [11]

Q31. (a) (i) (conical) flask 1

(ii) measuring cylinder / pipette / burette 1

(b) (i) any two from: • so anomalous results could be identified / ignored • so a mean / average could be taken • (to improve) accuracy 2

(ii) 19 1

(iii) increases / gets longer / gets bigger 1

(iv) anomalous / does not agree with other times for C10H22 1

(v) any one from: • shorter hydrocarbon used • volume of hydrocarbon too small • started timing late • stopped timing too early / when liquid left in funnel must suggest why the result is lower than the others. allow the temperature was higher or the students used a wider funnel. 1

(ii) suitable safety precaution

Page 89 of 93 1

reason that links the safety precaution to the hazard symbols eg: • wear gloves • (because) it is hazardous to health / harmful / toxic / irritant or • do not pour down sink or dispose of properly • (because) it is harmful to the environment / kills fish or • wear a mask or do it in the fume cupboard or a well-ventilated area • respiratory irritant 1

(d) (i) points plotted correctly (within half small square) all six points correct scores 2 3, 4 or 5 points correct scores 1 2

smooth curve of best fit 1

(ii) point at 46 °C circled allow point furthest from the line as drawn 1

(iii) working shown on graph 1

value read from graph line drawn (within half small square) 1

(iv) the higher the temperature the lower the viscosity allow the higher the temperature the lower / shorter the time taken for 1 mark 2

non-linear or change gets smaller as temperature gets higher answer relating temperature to time taken can score a maximum of 2 marks. 1

(v) identifying source of the error 1

method of avoiding the error eg: • the temperature will drop • insulate the funnel or • runs out before all added • put a tap on the funnel 1

Page 90 of 93 [22]

Q32. (a) carbon 1

(b) conduct electricity 1

(d) carbon

hydrogen either order 2

(e) a polymer 1

(f) slide 1 [7]

Q33. (a) hydrogen ignore H 1

carbon ignore C 1 in either order

(b) plankton 1

(d) to vaporise the hydrocarbons / (crude) oil allow to evaporate the hydrocarbons / (crude) oil ignore to boil the hydrocarbons / (crude) oil 1

(e) fuel oil 1

Page 91 of 93 (f) lowest boiling point bar correctly plotted (260 °C) 1

highest boiling point bar correctly plotted (340 °C) 1

correct label added to axis: diesel (oil) 1 allow ± ½ a square [9]

Q34. (a) (i) monomers 1

(ii) crude oil 1

(b) any three from:

• metal may not corrode away / remains

• plastic remains / does not break down (decay) / not affected by microorganisms accept non-biodegradable

• should recycle / conserve resources / mend the kettle / burn (plastic) as a fuel accept it is a waste of materials / resources

• landfill sites are limited / filling up

• water pollution ignore harms wildlife / habitats or problems caused by burning the kettle 3 [5]

Q35. (a)

all three lines correct gains 2 marks one or two correct gains 1 mark if there are more than 3 lines then lose mark for each extra line 2

Page 92 of 93 (b) (i) covalent 1

(ii) four 1

(iii) hard 1

(iv) three 1

(v) soft 1

Page 93 of 93 Q1. Crude oil is separated into fractions by fractional distillation.

The table gives information about some of the fractions.

Number of Boiling Fraction carbon atoms point per molecule range in °C Gas Below 20 1 – 4

Petrol 20 – 100 5 – 10

Paraffin 100 – 250 11 – 15

Diesel 250 – 350 16 – 20

Lubricant 350 – 500 21 – 35

Bitumen Above 500 Above 35

(a) What is the relationship between the boiling point of a fraction and the number of carbon atoms in its molecules?

______

______(1)

(b) Give one further difference, other than boiling point, between diesel and paraffin that also depends on the number of carbon atoms in their molecules.

______

______(1)

Name the two elements in a hydrocarbon.

______and ______(1) (Total 3 marks)

Q2. (a) Some hydrocarbons are used as fuels in power stations.

The table gives the boiling points of four hydrocarbons.

Boiling point Hydrocarbon in °C

Page 1 of 78 W 165

X –160

Y –40

Z 180

(i) Which of these hydrocarbons are gases at room temperature (20 °C)?

______(1)

(ii) Which of these hydrocarbons has the largest molecules?

______(1)

(iii) Which of these hydrocarbons ignites most easily?

______(1)

(b) Some hydrocarbons are used to produce polymers.

Which type of hydrocarbons can be converted into polymers?

______(1) (Total 4 marks)

Q3. Crude oil is a mixture of many saturated hydrocarbons. They can be separated into fractions by the process of fractional distillation.

State what is meant by:

(i) hydrocarbon. ______

______(2)

(ii) saturated. ______

______(1)

(iii) fraction. ______

______(1) (Total 4 marks)

Page 2 of 78 Q4. Propane has a small, hydrocarbon molecule, so it is used as a fuel.

(a) Complete the sentences by choosing the correct words from the box.

carbohydrate high hydrogen

hydroxide low volatile

Propane is a hydrocarbon with a ______boiling point. Propane is a

hydrocarbon because it is made of ______and carbon only. (2)

(b) Describe, in as much detail as you can, what happens when propane burns.

______

______(3) (Total 5 marks)

Q5. (a) Crude oil is a mixture of many compounds. Most of the compounds consist of molecules made only of carbon and hydrogen. Choose one word from the list below to complete the sentence.

Page 3 of 78 carbohydrates carbonates hydrocarbons hydrogencarbonates

Compounds made only of carbon and hydrogen are called ______(1)

(b) The fractions contain molecules with similar numbers of carbon atoms. The main fractions are shown in the table below.

NAME OF FRACTION NUMBER OF CARBON ATOMS IN MOLECULES

petroleum gases 1 to 4

gasoline 4 to 12

naphtha 7 to 14

kerosene 11 to 15

diesel oil 14 to 19

lubricating oil 18 to 30

residue more than 30

Naphtha burns more easily than diesel oil. Explain why.

______

______(1) (Total 2 marks)

Q6. Diesel oil is obtained from crude oil. It can be used as a fuel for car engines. The diagram below represents a compound found in diesel oil.

(a) What is the formula of this compound?

______(1)

(b) Each of the lines on the diagram above represents a covalent bond.

What is a covalent bond?

Page 4 of 78 ______

______(2) (Total 3 marks)

Q7. Crude oil is a complex mixture of hydrocarbons, mainly alkanes. The number of carbon atoms in the molecules ranges from 1 to over 100.

(a) How does the boiling point change as the number of carbon atoms in the molecules increases?

______

______(1)

(b) Name the method used to separate petroleum into fractions.

______(1)

Draw the structure of ethane, C2H6. (1) (Total 3 marks)

Q8. The hydrocarbons in crude oil can be separated into useful fractions.

Carbon Boiling point Relative % Relative % Fraction chain in °C in crude oil demand length

Naphtha 20–180 5–9 10 20

Gasoline (petrol) 20–200 5–10 10 20

Kerosene (paraffin) 180–260 10–16 15 23

Diesel 260–340 14–20 20 25

Fuel oil 370–600 20–70 45 12

(a) Why does gasoline (petrol) have a lower boiling point than fuel oil?

Page 5 of 78 ______

______(1)

(b) Suggest why gasoline (petrol) costs more than fuel oil.

______

______(2)

______

______(2) (Total 5 marks)

Q9.

Methane CH4 contains the elements carbon and hydrogen only. A student wanted to find out which new substances are produced when methane is burned. The student set up the apparatus shown below.

(a) Which gas in the air reacts with methane when it burns?

______(1)

(b) Name the liquid collected.

______(1)

Page 6 of 78 (c) Name the gas which turns limewater milky.

______(1)

(d) When methane burns an exothermic reaction takes place. What is meant by an exothermic reaction?

______

______(2) (Total 5 marks)

Q10. The diagram below shows a bunsen burner.

Use words from the list to complete the passage about the Bunsen burner. You may use each word once, more than once or not at all.

air methane argon mechanical energy carbon dioxide nitrogen chemical physical electrical energy potential energy heat oxygen kinetic energy water vapour

In the Bunsen burner the fuel is mixed with ______

which enters through the hole labelled A.

When the fuel burns it reacts with the gas called ______

and energy is given out as ______.

The fuel used in the Bunsen burner contains carbon and hydrogen which are changed

during burning into ______and ______.

Page 7 of 78 Burning is an example of a ______change because new

substances are formed. (Total 6 marks)

Q11. To make crude oil more useful it is separated into different fractions.

(a) Complete the gaps in the following sentences.

Crude oil is separated into different fractions by a process called ______

______. Each fraction has a different ______. (2)

(b) Each fraction is a mixture of compounds. Most of these compounds are hydrocarbons, made up of the elements hydrogen and carbon.

(i) Explain the difference between a mixture and a compound.

______

______(2)

(ii) Explain the difference between a compound and an element.

Page 8 of 78 ______

______

______(2) (Total 6 marks)

Q12. The table gives some data about four fuels, A, B, C and D.

Cost in Energy Energy pence in kJ per Gas ( ) formed on burning Fuel per per penny in

100 g 100 g kJ Carbon Sulphur Water dioxide dioxide vapour

A 6.0 4 800 800

B 4.0 1 200 300

C 3.5 2 800 800

D 18.0 14 400 800

A student was asked to use the data in the table to compare these four fuels, and then place the fuels in an order.

The order that the student chose was:

Use the information in the table to suggest reasons why the student chose this order.

To gain full marks in this question you should write down your ideas in good English. Put them into a sensible order and use the correct scientific words.

______

Page 9 of 78 ______

______

______(Total 4 marks)

Q13. Pure carbon can exist in two forms, diamond and graphite.

(a) Complete the diagram to show the electronic structure of a carbon atom.

A carbon atom has 6 electrons.

Show the electrons as crosses (x).

(1)

(b) A drill bit is used to cut holes through materials. The cutting end of this drill bit is covered with very small diamonds.

By Wanderlinse [CC By 2.0], via Flickr

Page 10 of 78 (i) What property of diamond makes it suitable for use on the cutting end of a drill bit?

______(1)

(ii) Explain, as fully as you can, why diamond has this property. Use your knowledge of the structure and bonding of diamond and the information shown opposite to help you to answer this question.

______

______(3)

______

______(3) (Total 8 marks)

Q14. The electrolysis of sodium chloride solution produces useful substances.

(a) Explain the meaning of electrolysis.

______

Page 11 of 78 ______

______(2)

(b) The diagram shows an apparatus used for the electrolysis of sodium chloride solution.

Reproduced with the permission of Nelson Thornes Ltd from PATRICK FULLICK et al, ISBN 0- 7487-9644- 4. First published in 2006

The electrolysis produces two gases, chlorine and Gas A.

Name Gas A ______(1)

______

______(2) (Total 5 marks)

Q15. Crude oil is a resource from which fuels can be separated.

(a) The name of the main fuel fractions and one of the hydrocarbons in each fraction are shown in the table.

Page 12 of 78

(i) How does the number of carbon atoms in a hydrocarbon affect its boiling point?

______

______(1)

(ii) Suggest the lowest temperature to which crude oil needs to be heated to vaporize all the hydrocarbons in the table.

Temperature = ______°C (1)

(iii) Dodecane boils at 216 °C. At what temperature will dodecane gas condense to liquid?

Temperature = ______°C (1)

(b) The bar chart shows the relative supply and demand for the petrol and diesel fractions.

(i) How does the relative supply and demand for petrol and diesel fractions

Page 13 of 78 cause problems for an oil company?

______

______(2)

(ii) Suggest one way an oil company could solve these problems.

______

______(1) (Total 6 marks)

Q16.

(a) Alkanes are important hydrocarbon fuels. They have the general formula CnH2n+2

The points on the graph show the amount of energy released when 1 mole of methane (CH4), ethane (C2H6), propane (C3H8) and butane (C4H10) are burned separately.

(i) Draw a line through the points and extend your line to the right-hand edge of the graph.

Page 14 of 78 (1)

(ii) Use the graph to estimate the amount of energy released when 1 mole of octane (C8H18) is burned.

Energy released = ______kJ (1)

(iii) Suggest why we can make a good estimate for the energy released by 1 mole of pentane (C5H12).

______

______(1)

(iv) A student noticed that octane (C8H18) has twice as many carbon atoms as butane (C4H10), and made the following prediction:

“When burned, 1 mole of octane releases twice as much energy as 1 mole of butane.”

Use the graph to decide if the student’s prediction is correct. You must show your working to gain credit.

______

______(2)

(b) Some information about four fuels is given in the table.

Combustion products

Fuel Type Heat released CO2 SO2 H2O Type of flame in kJ per g

Bio-ethanol Renewable 29 Not smoky

Coal Non-renewable 31 Smoky

Hydrogen Renewable 142 Not smoky

Natural gas Non-renewable 56 Not smoky

From this information a student made two conclusions.

For each conclusion, state if it is correct and explain your answer.

(i) “Renewable fuels release more heat per gram than non-renewable fuels.”

Page 15 of 78 ______

______

______(2)

(ii) “Non-renewable fuels are better for the environment than renewable fuels.”

______

______(2) (Total 9 marks)

Q17. Crude oil is a mixture of hydrocarbons. Most of these hydrocarbons are alkanes.

(a) The general formula of an alkane is CnH2n+2

Complete the structural formula for the alkane that has six carbon atoms in its molecules.

(1)

(b) The boiling points of alkanes are linked to the number of carbon atoms in their molecules.

Page 16 of 78

(i) Describe the link between the number of carbon atoms in an alkane molecule and its boiling point.

______

______(1)

(ii) Suggest two reasons why all of the alkanes in the bar chart are better fuels than the alkane with the formula C30H62

1. ______

______

2. ______

______(2)

Page 17 of 78 carbon dioxide in the atmosphere at about 0.03 %. Over the last 100 years the percentage of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere has increased to about 0.04 %. Most of this increase is caused by burning fossil fuels to heat buildings, to generate electricity and to power our transport. Fossil fuels contain carbon that has been locked up for millions of years.

(i) Burning fossil fuels, such as petrol, releases this locked up carbon. Balance the chemical equation for the combustion of one of the alkanes in petrol.

2 C8H18 + 25 O2 ____ CO2 + ____ H2O

(1)

(ii) Where did the carbon that is locked up in fossil fuels come from?

______

______(1)

(iii) The burning of fossil fuels has caused the percentage of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere to increase to above 0.03 %. Explain why.

______

______(2) (Total 8 marks)

Q18. There are two main types of diesel fuel used for cars:

• biodiesel, made from vegetable oils

• petroleum diesel, made from crude oil.

(a) A scientist compared the viscosity of biodiesel with petroleum diesel at different temperatures. The scientist measured the time for the same volume of diesel to flow through a small hole in a cup. The scientist’s results are plotted on the grid.

Page 18 of 78

(i) Draw a line of best fit for the biodiesel results. (1)

(ii) What conclusions can the scientist make about the viscosity of biodiesel compared with the viscosity of petroleum diesel at different temperatures?

______

______(2)

(iii) Biodiesel may be less suitable than petroleum diesel as a fuel for cars. Use these results to suggest one reason why.

______

______(1)

(b) Biodiesel can be mixed with petroleum diesel to make a fuel for cars. In a car engine, the diesel fuel burns in air. The waste products leave the car engine through the car exhaust system. The bar chart compares the relative amounts of waste products made when three different types of diesel fuel burn in a car engine.

Page 19 of 78

Nitrogen oxides and sulfur dioxide cause a similar environmental impact.

(i) What environmental impact do particulates from car exhaust systems cause?

______(1)

(ii) What is the percentage reduction in particulates when using B100 instead of petroleum diesel?

______% (1)

(iii) Replacing petroleum diesel with biodiesel increases one type of environmental pollution.

Use the bar chart and the information given to explain why.

______

Page 20 of 78 ______(2)

(iv) A carbon neutral fuel does not add extra carbon dioxide to the atmosphere.

Is biodiesel a carbon neutral fuel?

Use the bar chart and your knowledge to explain your answer.

______

______(2) (Total 10 marks)

Q19. Petroleum diesel is a fuel made from crude oil. Biodiesel is a fuel made from vegetable oils. To make biodiesel, large areas of land are needed to grow crops from which the vegetable oils are extracted. Large areas of forest are cleared by burning the trees to provide more land for growing these crops.

(a) Use this information and your knowledge and understanding to answer these questions.

(i) Carbon neutral means that there is no increase in the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.

Suggest why adverts claim that using biodiesel is carbon neutral.

______

Page 21 of 78 ______

______

______(2)

(ii) Explain why clearing large areas of forest has an environmental impact on the atmosphere.

______

______(2)

(b) Why is there an increasing demand for biodiesel?

______

______(1)

(i) causes ethical concerns

______

______(1)

(ii) causes economic concerns.

______

______(1) (Total 7 marks)

Q20. Crude oil is used to produce many useful materials.

(a) The diagram shows some of the fractions produced from crude oil by fractional distillation.

Page 22 of 78

Use the diagram to help you to explain how crude oil is separated into fractions.

You should use the words evaporated and condensed in your answer.

______

______(3)

(b) The table shows some information about four of the fractions from crude oil that are used as fuels.

Fraction Boiling point in °C Number of carbon atoms found in the molecules

Gasoline (petrol) 20 - 200 5 - 10

Kerosene (paraffin) 180 - 260 10 - 16

Diesel 260 - 340 14 - 20

Fuel oil 370 - 600 20 - 70

Page 23 of 78 Use the information in the table to help you to answer these questions.

(i) How can you tell that each of the fractions is a mixture?

______

______(1)

(ii) How does the number of carbon atoms in a molecule affect its boiling point?

______

______(1)

(i) Name the reaction that releases energy from a fuel such as gasoline (petrol).

______(1)

(ii) Describe how fuel oil is broken down into smaller, more useful molecules such as gasoline (petrol).

______

______(2) (Total 8 marks)

Q21. Read the information

Graphene

Scientists have made a new substance called graphene. The bonding and structure of graphene are similar to graphite.

Graphene is made of a single layer of the same atoms as graphite.

Page 24 of 78 Graphene Graphite

Use the information above and your knowledge of graphite to answer the questions.

(a) This part of the question is about graphene.

Choose the correct answer to complete each sentence.

(i) ionic covalent metallic

The bonds between the atoms in graphene are ______(1)

(ii) chromium carbon chlorine

Graphene is made of ______atoms. (1)

(iii) 2 3 4

In graphene each atom bonds to ______other atoms. (1)

(b) This part of the question is about graphite.

Graphite is used in pencils.

Explain why. Use the diagrams to help you.

______

______(2) (Total 5 marks)

Q22. About 3000 million years ago, carbon dioxide was one of the main gases in the Earth’s atmosphere.

About 400 million years ago, plants and trees grew on most of the land. When the plants and trees died they were covered by sand and slowly decayed to form coal.

(a) Describe and explain how the composition of the Earth’s atmosphere was changed by the formation of coal.

Page 25 of 78 ______

______

______(3)

(b) Today, coal is burned in power stations to release the energy needed by industry. Carbon dioxide, water and sulfur dioxide are produced when this coal is burned.

Name three elements that are in this coal.

______

______(2)

(i) Many chemical reactions happen when this mixture is burned. The chemical equation represents one of these reactions.

Balance the chemical equation.

2CaCO3(s) + 2SO2(g) + O2(g) → ……… + ……… CaSO4(s) CO2(g)

(1)

(ii) Explain how the use of calcium carbonate in the mixture:

increases atmospheric pollution

______

decreases atmospheric pollution.

______

Page 26 of 78 ______

______

______(4) (Total 10 marks)

Q23. A mixture of petrol and air is burned in a car engine. Petrol is a mixture of alkanes. Air is a mixture of gases.

The tables give information about the composition of petrol and the composition of air.

Petrol Air

Alkane Formula Gas Percentage (%)

hexane C6H14 nitrogen 78

heptane oxygen 21

octane C8H18 carbon dioxide 0.035

nonane C9H20 Small amounts of other gases and water vapour decane C10H22

(a) Use the information above to answer these questions.

(i) Give the formula for heptane

______(1)

(ii) Complete the general formula of alkanes. n = number of carbon atoms

CnH (1)

(b) Alkanes in petrol burn in air. The equations represent two reactions of hexane burning in air.

Reaction 1 2C6H14 + 19O2 → 12CO2 + 14H2O

Reaction 2 2C6H14 + 13O2 → 12CO + 14H2O

Reaction 2 produces a different carbon compound to Reaction 1.

(i) Name the carbon compound produced in Reaction 2.

______(1)

(ii) Give a reason why the carbon compounds produced are different.

Page 27 of 78 ______

______(1)

Name of gas Percentage (%)

nitrogen 68

carbon dioxide 15

carbon monoxide 1.0

oxygen 0.75

nitrogen oxides 0.24

hydrocarbons 0.005

sulfur dioxide 0.005

other gases

(i) What is the percentage of the other gases in the table?

______(1)

(ii) What is the name of the compound that makes up most of the other gases?

______(1)

(iii) Give a reason why sulfur dioxide is produced in a petrol engine.

______

______(1)

(iv) State how nitrogen oxides are produced in a petrol engine.

______

______(2)

(d) Many scientists are concerned about the carbon dioxide released from burning fossil fuels such as petrol.

Page 28 of 78 Explain why.

______

______(2) (Total 11 marks)

Q24. (a) Methane is burned in a plentiful supply of oxygen.

Which is the correct balanced chemical equation?

Tick one box.

CH4 + O2 → CO2 + H2O

CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + H2O

CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O

CH4 + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 2H2O

(1)

(b) Burning fuels causes atmospheric pollution.

Write one effect for each pollutant in Table 1.

Table 1

Pollutant Effect

Carbon

monoxide

Sulfur dioxide

Particulates (3)

Table 2 shows information about these fuels.

Table 2

Mass in mg of CO Energy 2 Fuel State produced for one content in kJ kJ of energy

Page 29 of 78 per g released

Methane Gas 52 53

Petrol Liquid 43 71

Coal Solid 24 93

Evaluate the use of the fuels.

Use in the information in Table 2 and your knowledge.

______

______(6) (Total 10 marks)

Q25. Crude oil is a mixture of many different chemical compounds.

(a) Fuels, such as petrol (gasoline), can be produced from crude oil.

(i) Fuels react with oxygen to release energy.

Name the type of reaction that releases energy from a fuel.

______(1)

(ii) Fuels react with oxygen to produce carbon dioxide. The reaction of a fuel with oxygen can produce a different oxide of carbon.

Name this different oxide of carbon and explain why it is produced.

______

Page 30 of 78 ______

______

______(2)

(b) Most of the compounds in crude oil are hydrocarbons. Hydrocarbons with the smallest molecules are very volatile.

In this question you will be assessed on using good English, organising information clearly and using specialist terms where appropriate.

Describe and explain how petrol is separated from the mixture of hydrocarbons in crude oil.

Use the diagram and your knowledge to answer this question.

______

Page 31 of 78 ______

______(6) (Total 9 marks)

Q26. The diagrams show the structures of diamond and graphite.

Diamond Graphite

(a) Diamond and graphite both contain the same element.

What is the name of this element? ______(1)

(b) Use the diagrams above and your knowledge of structure and bonding to explain why:

(i) graphite is very soft

______

______(2)

(ii) diamond is very hard

______

______(2)

(iii) graphite conducts electricity.

______

Page 32 of 78 ______

______(2) (Total 7 marks)

Q27. This question is about oil reserves.

(a) Diesel is separated from crude oil by fractional distillation.

Describe the steps involved in the fractional distillation of crude oil.

______

______(3)

(b) Diesel is a mixture of lots of different alkanes.

What are alkanes?

______

______(2)

(c) In this question you will be assessed on using good English, organising information clearly and using specialist terms where appropriate.

Petroleum products, such as petrol, are produced from crude oil. The graph shows the possible future production of petroleum products from crude oil and the expected demand for petroleum products.

Page 33 of 78

Canada’s oil sands hold about 20% of the world’s known crude oil reserves.

The oil sands contain between 10 to 15% of crude oil. This crude oil is mainly bitumen.

In Canada the oil sands are found in the ground underneath a very large area of forest. The trees are removed. Then large diggers and trucks remove 30 metres depth of soil and rock to reach the oil sands. The oil sands are quarried. Boiling water is mixed with the quarried oil sands to separate the bitumen from the sand. Methane (natural gas) is burned to heat the water.

The mixture can be separated because bitumen floats on water and the sand sinks to the bottom of the water. The bitumen is cracked and the products are separated by fractional distillation.

Use the information given and your knowledge and understanding to suggest the advantages and disadvantages of extracting petroleum products from oil sands.

______

Page 34 of 78 ______

______

______(6) (Total 11 marks)

Q28. Fossil fuels contain carbon and hydrogen.

(a) (i) Use the Chemistry Data Sheet to help you to answer this question.

Complete the figure below to show the electronic structure of a carbon atom.

(1)

(ii) Complete the word equation for the oxidation of hydrogen.

hydrogen + oxygen ______(1)

(b) Coal is a fossil fuel.

Coal contains the elements hydrogen, sulfur, oxygen and carbon.

Name two products of burning coal that have an impact on the environment.

What impact does each of the products you named have on the environment?

______

Page 35 of 78 ______

______

______(4) (Total 6 marks)

Q29. The diagrams represent two compounds, A and B.

Compound A Compound B

(a) (i) Compound B is an alcohol.

Name compound B.

______(1)

(ii) Use the correct answer from the box to complete the sentence.

burned decomposed oxidised

To form compound A,

compound B is ______(1)

(iii) Compounds A and B are both colourless liquids.

A test tube contains a colourless liquid, which could be either compound A or compound B.

Describe a simple chemical test to show which compound, A or B, is in the test tube.

______

Page 36 of 78 ______

______

______(2)

(b) Compounds A and B react to produce compound C and compound D.

Compound A Compound B Compound C

(i) What is the formula of compound D?

______(1)

(ii) Compound C is an ester.

Name compound C.

______(1)

(iii) State one use of esters.

______(1) (Total 7 marks)

Q30.

(a) The hydrocarbon C16H34 can be cracked.

Balance the equation for cracking C16H34

C16H34 → ______C2H4 + C8H18 (1)

(b) Describe the differences between cracking and distillation.

______

______(2)

Page 37 of 78 Tick one box.

Combustion

Decomposition

Neutralisation

Precipitation

(1)

(d) Ethene is used to make poly(ethene).

Poly(ethene) is used to make plastic bags.

the table below shows data from a Life Cycle Assessment (LCA) for a plastic bag and a paper bag.

Plastic bag Paper bag

Raw materials Crude oil or natural gas Wood

Energy used in MJ 1.5 1.7

Mass of solid waste in g 14 50

Mass of CO2 produced in kg 0.23 0.53

Volume of fresh water used in 255 4 520 dm3

A company stated: ‘A Life Cycle Assessment shows that using plastic bags has less environmental impact than using paper bags’.

Evaluate this statement. Use your knowledge and the information from above the table above.

______

Page 38 of 78 ______

______(6) (Total 10 marks)

Q31. This question is about hydrocarbons.

(a) Most of the hydrocarbons in crude oil are alkanes.

(i) Large alkane molecules can be cracked to produce more useful molecules.

The equation shows the cracking of dodecane.

Give two conditions used to crack large alkane molecules.

1. ______

2. ______(2)

(ii) The products hexene and ethene are alkenes.

Complete the sentence.

When alkenes react with bromine water the colour changes

from orange to ______. (1)

(iii) Butane (C4H10) is an alkane.

Complete the displayed structure of butane.

(1)

(b) A group of students investigated the energy released by the combustion of four hydrocarbon fuels.

The diagram below shows the apparatus used.

Page 39 of 78

Each hydrocarbon fuel was burned for two minutes.

Table 1 shows the students’ results.

Table 1

After two minutes

Name and Energy Relative Mass of Temperature Energy formula of released by amount of fuel used increase of released by hydrocarbon 1.0 g of fuel smoke in in g water in °C fuel in kJ fuel in kJ the flame

very little Hexane, C6H14 0.81 40 16.80 20.74 smoke

Octane, C8H18 1.10 54 22.68 20.62 some smoke

Decane, 1.20 58 24.36 smoky C10H22

Dodecane, 1.41 67 28.14 19.96 very smoky C12H26

(i) Calculate the energy released by 1.0 g of decane in kJ.

______

Energy released = ______kJ (2)

(ii) Suggest one improvement to the apparatus, or the use of the apparatus, that would make the temperature increase of the water for each fuel more accurate.

Give a reason why this is an improvement.

______

______(2)

Page 40 of 78 (iii) The students noticed that the bottom of the beaker became covered in a black substance when burning these fuels.

Name this black substance.

Suggest why it is produced.

______

______(2)

(iv) A student concluded that hexane is the best of the four fuels.

Give two reasons why the results in Table 2 support this conclusion.

1. ______

______

2. ______

______(2)

(c) In this question you will be assessed on using good English, organising information clearly and using specialist terms where appropriate.

Most car engines use petrol as a fuel.

• Petrol is produced from the fractional distillation of crude oil.

• Crude oil is a mixture of hydrocarbons.

• Sulfur is an impurity in crude oil.

Car engines could be developed to burn hydrogen as a fuel.

• Hydrogen is produced from natural gas.

• Natural gas is mainly methane.

Table 2 shows information about petrol and hydrogen.

Table 2

Petrol Hydrogen

State of fuel at room Liquid Gas temperature

Word equation for petrol + oxygen → hydrogen + oxygen → combustion of the fuel carbon dioxide + water water

Page 41 of 78 Energy released from combustion of 1 g of the 47 kJ 142 kJ fuel

Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using hydrogen instead of petrol in car engines.

Use the information given and your knowledge and understanding to answer this question. (6) (Total 18 marks)

Q32. Crude oil is a mixture of many different chemical compounds.

The table shows information about four compounds that can be obtained from crude oil.

Chemical Melting point in Boiling point in Compound formula °C °C

Decane C10H22 –30 +174

Ethene C2H4 –169 –104

Icosane C20H42 +37 +343

Methane CH4 –183 –164

(a) Which compound in the table is a liquid at room temperature (20 °C)?

Tick one box.

Decane

Ethene

Icosane

Methane

(1)

(b) Which compound in the table has the highest viscosity?

Tick one box.

Decane

Ethene

Icosane

Page 42 of 78 Methane

(1)

Tick one box.

Decane

Ethene

Icosane

Methane

(1)

(d) The diagram shows the separation of crude oil in a fractionating column.

Explain how crude oil is separated into different fractions by fractional distillation.

______

Page 43 of 78 ______

______

______(6) (Total 9 marks)

Q33. This question is about diamond and graphite.

Figure 1 shows part of the structure of diamond.

Figure 1

(a) Complete the sentence.

Choose the answer from the box.

calcium carbon chromium cobalt

Diamond is a form of ______. (1)

(b) Which two statements about diamond are correct?

Tick two boxes.

Diamond has a giant structure.

Diamond has ionic bonds.

Diamond is made of layers.

Page 44 of 78 Diamond has weak bonds.

Each atom is joined to four other atoms. (2)

Figure 2 shows part of the structure of graphite.

Figure 2

Use Figure 2 and your own knowledge.

______

______(3)

(d) Graphite has covalent bonds between the atoms.

How many covalent bonds does each atom form?

Tick one box.

1 2 3 4

(1)

(e) Explain why graphite can conduct electricity.

You should include a reference to electrons in your answer.

______

Page 45 of 78 ______(2) (Total 9 marks)

Q34. The diagram shows an apparatus that can be used to carry out cracking reactions in a laboratory.

(a) Why is aluminium oxide or broken porcelain used?

______

______(1)

(b) Paraffin contains decane. The cracking of decane can be represented by the equation below. A decane molecule is split into two smaller molecules.

Complete the equation by adding the formula of the other product.

C10H22 (l) →______(l) + C2H4 (g) decane (1)

Position ______.

Explain your answer.

______

Page 46 of 78 ______(1)

(d) Cracking reactions involve thermal decomposition.

What is meant by thermal decomposition?

______

______(2)

(e) Explain, as fully as you can, why cracking is used in the oil industry.

To gain full marks in this question you should write your ideas in good English. Put them into a sensible order and use the correct scientific words.

______

______(3)

(f) The cracking reaction produces a mixture of products. The mixture contains hydrocarbons with different boiling points.

Suggest a method of separating this mixture.

______

______(1) (Total 9 marks)

Q35. Crude oil is a mixture of a large number of compounds most of which are hydrocarbons such as the molecule shown below.

Page 47 of 78

(a) What is a hydrocarbon?

______

______(1)

(b) What is the chemical formula of the molecule shown above?

______(1)

(c) The cracking of large molecules obtained from crude oil is one of the important processes in an oil refinery. Cracking involves the thermal decomposition of large molecules. The diagram below shows an apparatus that can be used to demonstrate cracking in the laboratory. The porous pot acts as a catalyst in the reaction.

(i) What happens during thermal decomposition?

______

______(2)

(ii) What effect does the porous pot catalyst have on the reaction?

______

______(1)

(iii) Complete the equation below for the cracking of the molecule. C20H42.

C20H42 → C12H26 + ______(1)

Page 48 of 78 (Total 6 marks)

Page 49 of 78 Mark schemes

Q1. (a) the higher the boiling point, the greater the number of carbon atoms 1

(b) volatility / viscosity / runnyness / flammability / smokiness / amount of oxygen needed for burning / melting point do not credit how heavy it is / how it burns 1

Q2. (a) (i) X and Y both needed 1

(ii) Z 1

(iii) X 1

(b) unsaturated / alkenes / those with double (C = C) bonds 1 [4]

Q3. (i) carbon and hydrogen only or compound of for 1 mark each 2

(ii) single bonds only or no double bonds etc or contains maximum number of hydrogen atoms for 1 mark 1

(iii) molecules of similar chain length similar boiling points limited range of boiling points etc any 1 for 1 mark 1 [4]

Q4.

Page 50 of 78 (a) low 1

hydrogen 1

(b) any three from

• flame accept it is a blue / yellow colour

• reacts with oxygen accept burns in oxygen / bonds broken

• carbon dioxide carbon monoxide forms

accept CO2 arco / bonds forming in CO2/CO and H2O bonds forming 1 mark max

accept an oxide of hydrogen or H2O

• water (vapour) forms accept heat or light released / temperature increase / exothermic

• energy released 3 [5]

Q5. (a) hydrocarbons for 1 mark 1

(b) less carbon atoms / smaller molecule for 1 mark 1 [2]

Q6.

(a) C16 H34 for 1 mark 1

(b) electron gains 1 mark

but shared electrons gains 2 marks 2 [3]

Q7. (a) the more C atoms the higher the b.pt./temperature Allow just higher. Not answer based on melting point

Page 51 of 78 for 1 mark 1

(b) (fractional) distillation/fractionation for 1 mark 1

(c)

must include H atoms and lines not CH3 – CH3 for 1 mark 1 [3]

Q8. (a) any one from:

• gasoline / petrol / it contains short(er) chains / hydrocarbons or small(er) molecules or contains few(er) carbons accept fuel oil contains long(er) chain length / large(r) molecules or contains many carbons ignore particles

• gasoline / petrol / it has weak(er) / small(er) intermolecular forces accept fuel oil has strong(er) / great(er) intermolecular forces 1

(b) only accept figures if used in a comparative statement

any two from:

• gasoline / petrol / it is in high demand accept fuel oil is in low demand

• gasoline / petrol / it is in short supply accept fuel oil is plentiful accept answers such as ‘gasoline / petrol / its supply is less than demand for 2 marks or gasoline / petrol / its percentage in crude oil is less than demand for 2 marks

• (high) tax / duty

• cracking costs in terms of money / energy accept cracking expensive 2

Page 52 of 78 (c) any two from: ignore particles

• (fuel oil / it) heated / vaporised

• with catalyst accept a named catalyst if first two bullet points are not awarded ‘cracking’ gains 1 mark

• (to give / form / produce) short(er) chains / hydrocarbons or small(er) molecules or contains few(er) carbons if wrong process named max 1 mark 2 [5]

Q9.

(a) oxygen/O2 for 1 mark 1

(b) water/H2O for 1 mark 1

(d) gives out for 1 mark 1

heat or energy (2 independent marks) for 1 mark 1 [5]

Q10. air or oxygen; oxygen; heat; carbon dioxide; water; chemical for 1 mark each [6]

Q11. (a) fractional distillation 1

Page 53 of 78 boiling point or use 1

(b) (i) mixture: compounds or elements or substances together but not chemically combined ignore references to separation 1

compound: (different) elements or different atoms together and chemically combined ignore references to separation 1

(ii) element: contains only one type of atom accept made of atoms which contain the same number of protons 1

compound: contains different types of atom chemically combined ‘chemically combined’ not needed here if already stated in (b)(i) 1 [6]

Q12. Quality of written communication: for correct sequencing or linking of two ideas or two points annotate Q or Q 1

any three from: ignore superfluous statements

• B is least energy efficient in terms of cost (kJ per p), so A = C = D in terms of cost or B is the most expensive in terms of energy efficiency owtte accept B is poor value for money / B is most expensive one is insufficient for mark

• D is 1st, since gives only water as product or gives no harmful products / gases or there are no pollutants owtte

nd • A is 2 best, since produces CO2 owtte

rd • C is 3 , since gives SO2 owtte if no other marks, then D A C B – based on energy per kJ per 100g only = 1 mark and Q mark if 2 ideas are linked 3 [4]

Page 54 of 78 Q13. (a) 2,4 (drawn as crosses) on shells accept dots / e / - etc. 1

(b) (i) hard allow rigid / high melting point do not allow references to bonding ignore strong ignore unreactive ignore structure 1

(ii) any three from max 2 if ionic / metallic / molecule / intermolecular bonds or incorrect number of bonds

• giant structure / lattice / macromolecular allow many bonds

• covalent (bonds)

• (covalent) bonds are strong accept needs lots of energy to break bonds (owtte)

• (each) carbon / atom forms four bonds

(each) carbon / atom bonded to four other atoms 3

graphite

• has delocalised / free electrons do not accept the electrons move unless qualified (around structure etc)

electrons that can move through / around the structure

• each carbon is joined to three other carbon atoms allow graphite has three bonds

one electron from each atom is free / delocalised

diamond

Page 55 of 78 • has no free / delocalised electrons do not accept the electrons do not move

no electrons that move around the structure

• all the electrons are used for bonding allow diamond has 4 bonds

each carbon joined to four other carbon atoms 3 [8]

Q14. (a) electric current / electricity 1

plus one from:

• is passed through ionic compound / substance / electrolyte

• passed through molten/aqueous compound / substance must be linked to electricity allow liquid compound / substance do not allow solution / liquid alone

• causing decomposition accept split up / breakdown / breaking up owtte ignore separated accept elements are formed ignore new substances form 1

(b) hydrogen

accept H2 do not accept H / H2 1

(c) one electron from each atom accept each carbon is bonded to three other carbon atoms leaving one (unbonded) electron owtte 1

is delocalised / free (to move) must be linked to electrons answers of delocalised / free electrons only, gains 1 mark accept each carbon is bonded to three other carbon atoms leaving delocalised / free electrons = 2 marks maximum 1 mark if graphite described as a metal / giant ionic lattice 1

Page 56 of 78 [5]

Q15. (a) (i) the greater the number (of carbon atoms), the higher its boiling point do not accept hydrocarbons for carbon atoms allow converse allow melting point 1

(ii) accept answers in the range 344 to 350 1

(iii) 216 1

(b) (i) EITHER

shortage of petrol or demand for petrol is higher than supply

diesel is in excess or supply of diesel is higher than demand 1

petrol low supply and diesel high supply (1)

petrol high demand and diesel low demand (1) petrol / diesel not specified = max 1 1

(ii) any one from:

• use diesel to make petrol accept crack diesel or description of cracking

• make diesel cheap(er) (than petrol) or make petrol more expensive accept lobby the government to reduce the tax on diesel / increase tax on petrol

• mix ethanol with petrol ignore biodiesel 1 [6]

Q16.

(a) (i) straight line through the ‘points’ and extended to C8H18 do not accept multiple lines 1

(ii) 5500 range 5400 to 5600 accept ecf from their graph

Page 57 of 78 1

(iii) it is a straight line graph allow directly proportional accept constant difference between (energy) values

accept C5H12 close to values on the graph

or C5H12 comes in middle of the graph ignore ‘fits the pattern’ unqualified ignore ‘line of best fit’ ignore ‘positive correlation’ 1

(iv) expected ranges for working are: accept correct numerical answer as evidence of working

(5400 to 5600) – (2800 to 2900) = (2500 to 2800)

their value from (a)(ii) – a value from 2800 to 2900

(5400 to 5600) / their (a)(ii) divided by 2

a value from 2800 to 2900 - 2 1

no / not quite / almost / yes this mark is only awarded on evidence from their correct working 1

(b) (i) incorrect / no or partially correct ignore references to hydrogen 1

bio-ethanol produces least energy mark independently

bio-ethanol produces 29 kJ 1

(ii) ignore incorrect / correct

any two from:

• hydrogen produces only H2O

accept hydrogen does not produce harmful gases / CO2 / SO2

• coal produces SO2

Page 58 of 78 allow coal causes acid rain / respiratory problems

• coal produces smoke allow coal causes global dimming

• both renewable and non-renewable fuels produce CO2

accept bio-ethanol and natural gas / coal produce CO2 / global warming

• (both) the non-renewable fuels produce CO2

accept coal and natural gas produce CO2 / global warming

• (both) renewable fuels produce no smoke accept hydrogen and bio-ethanol do not produce smoke / global dimming

• (both) renewable fuels produce no SO2 accept hydrogen and bio-ethanol

do not produce SO2 / acid rain 2 [9]

Q17. (a) complete diagram with 2 carbon atoms and 5 hydrogen atoms each C–C and each C–H linked by a single line (bond) 1

(b) (i) the greater the number of (carbon) atoms (in an alkane molecule) the greater its boiling point or vice versa allow as the (carbon) chain gets longer the boiling point increases ignore melting points do not accept reference to greater number of molecules 1

(ii) they = hydrocarbons from the graph

it = C30H62

any two from:

• low boiling point / volatile accept they are gases or liquids

• low viscosity

• high flammability accept easier to burn / ignite

• small molecules accept short chains ignore number of carbon atoms

• burn completely

Page 59 of 78 ignore speed of burning 2

(ii) (carbon dioxide in the Earth’s early) atmosphere accept from volcanoes (millions of years ago) or from dead plants / animals allow dead sea creatures ignore shells 1

(iii) increase in burning / use of fossil fuels 1

locked up carbon (carbon dioxide) is released allow carbon / carbon dioxide from millions of years ago is released accept extra carbon dioxide is not ‘absorbed’ (by the carbon cycle) 1 [8]

Q18. (a) (i) a reasonable attempt at a smooth curve allow a curve which is close to but does not necessarily touch all points 1

(ii) any two from: allow thicker / thinner / runny for viscous

• biodiesel is more viscous than petroleum diesel at all / lower temperatures

• biodiesel – as the temperature increases the viscosity decreases or vice versa

• petroleum diesel – the viscosity does not change if no other mark awarded allow 1 mark for any correct conclusion based on time or rate of flow 2

(iii) does not flow as easily (through pipes / engine) allow could form a solid / block pipes / engine at low temperatures

needs a high temperature to flow allow more difficult to vaporise / ignite ignore burning

Page 60 of 78 ignore references to viscosity 1

(b) (i) global dimming allow correct description 1

(ii) 56 (%) 1

(iii) (increases) acid rain 1

because there is more nitrogen oxide(s) ignore sulfur dioxide if no other mark awarded allow 1 mark for nitrogen oxide(s) given 1

(iv) answer yes or no does not gain credit because the marks are for an explanation ignore references to petroleum diesel allow carbon for carbon dioxide

because carbon dioxide (26%) is released / produced 1

this will not all be absorbed by photosynthesis / growing plants for biodiesel accept growing plants / farming uses machinery / fossil fuels releases carbon dioxide

yes

because although carbon dioxide (26%) is released / produced (1)

this was absorbed by photosynthesis / growing plants (for biodiesel) (1) allow this will be absorbed by photosynthesis / growing plants for biodiesel 1 [10]

Q19. (a) (i) use of carbon throughout = max 1

burning biodiesel releases CO2 ignore burning trees 1

CO2 is absorbed / used by the crops/plants (used to produce the biodiesel)

allow CO2 absorbed / used by trees 1

Page 61 of 78 (ii) allow use of carbon for carbon dioxide throughout

increases CO2 / greenhouse effect accept causes global warming

OR allow causes climate change

less CO2is absorbed (from atmosphere) ignore other correct effects 1

because burning trees releases CO2

accept fewer trees to absorb CO2

or crops / plants do not absorb as much CO2 as trees

OR because there is less photosynthesis ignore habitats / biodiversity if no other mark awarded global dimming because of smoke / particles gains 1 mark 1

(b) any one from: ignore carbon neutral / cost / less harmful / environmentally friendly

• crude oil / fossil fuel is running out / non-renewable allow biodiesel is renewable / sustainable

• demand for fuels / energy is increasing ignore demand for biodiesel is increasing

• new legislation / protocols 1

(ii) increases the cost of food / land ignore cost of machinery / process ignore cheaper to produce biodiesel 1 [7]

Q20. (a) crude oil / it is evaporated / vaporised ignore heated 1

vapours / gases / fractions cool and condense accept named fraction(s)

Page 62 of 78 1

(different) vapours / gases / fractions (condense) at different temperatures accept (different) vapours / gases / fractions have different boiling points max 2 marks for description of laboratory method or mention of cracking 1

(b) (i) any one from:

• range of boiling points

• range of carbon atoms 1

(ii) greater the number (of carbon atoms) the higher the boiling point do not accept molecules / particles 1

(ii) any two from: reaction with hydrogen gains max of 1 mark only

• cracking / (thermal) decomposition

• heat / vaporise

• catalyst / aluminium oxide allow porous pot ignore names of other catalysts 2 [8]

Q21. (a) (i) covalent two different answers indicated gains 0 marks 1

(ii) carbon two different answers indicated gains 0 marks 1

(iii) 3 two different answers indicated gains 0 marks 1

(b) layers can slide / slip 1

because there are no bonds between layers accept because weak forces / bonds between layers

Page 63 of 78 or so (pieces of) graphite rubs / breaks off

or graphite left on the paper 1 [5]

Q22. (a) carbon dioxide decreased (by plants / trees) allow plants / trees absorbed carbon dioxide 1

oxygen increased (by plants / trees) allow plants / trees released oxygen if neither of these marks awarded allow plants / trees photosynthesise for 1 mark 1

because coal ‘locks up’ / traps / stores carbon dioxide / carbon allow trees ‘locked up’ carbon dioxide / carbon 1

(b) carbon / C

hydrogen / H

sulfur / S all 3 correct 2 marks 1 or 2 correct 1 mark

allow H2 ignore oxygen 2

(ii) increases atmospheric pollution

carbon dioxide / CO2 released 1

from the (thermal) decomposition of calcium carbonate or

accept causes global warming or CO2 is a greenhouse gas

description of this decomposition or equation ignore sulfur dioxide and effects in this part 1

decreases atmospheric pollution

sulfur dioxide / SO2 is removed

Page 64 of 78 accept less acid rain produced 1

by reaction with calcium oxide or calcium carbonate accept neutralisation or forms calcium sulfate 1 [10]

Q23.

(a) (i) C7H16 mark answer line first answer may be given in the table 1

(ii) CnH2n+2 1

(b) (i) carbon monoxide do not accept carbon oxide do not accept water ignore CO 1

(ii) because of partial / incomplete combustion (in reaction 2) or complete combustion (in reaction 1) allow because there is less / insufficient oxygen (in reaction 2) or sufficient oxygen (in reaction 1) allow different amounts of oxygen used (in the reactions) or 19O2 (in reaction 1) and 13O2 (in reaction 2) ignore air 1

(ii) water (vapour)/steam

allow H2O / OH2 / hydrogen oxide 1

(iii) sulfur in petrol / crude oil (reacts with oxygen) it = sulfur dioxide 1

(ii) because nitrogen and oxygen (are in the air and) react allow nitrogen and oxygen burn accept nitrogen + oxygen → nitrogen oxide or symbol equation ignore air 1

at high temperature (inside a petrol engine) allow heat / hot (engine)

Page 65 of 78 1

(d) because carbon dioxide / it causes global warming or allow because carbon dioxide / it causes greenhouse effect / climate change 1

because carbon dioxide / it has an impact on oceans

because this carbon dioxide / carbon / it was ‘locked up’ (in fossil fuels) or

because the percentage/amount of carbon dioxide / it in the atmosphere is increasing 1 [11]

Q24.

(a) CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O 1

(b) toxic accept causes death 1

acid rain or respiratory problems accept respiratory problems / asthma 1

global dimming 1

(c) Level 3: A judgement, strongly linked and logically supported by a sufficient range of 5-6 correct reasons, is given.

Level 2: Some logically linked reasons are given. There may also be a simple 3-4 judgement.

Level 1: Relevant points are made. They are 1-2 not logically linked.

No relevant content 0

Indicative content • methane is the best fuel because it gives more energy per gram than coal, and gives less carbon dioxide per kJ of energy produced • petrol is best because it being a liquid is easier to handle than gas or coal - although the energy content is lower than

Page 66 of 78 the others, it gives out less carbon dioxide than coal • methane has more energy per gram than coal • coal produces most carbon dioxide • coal can produce sulfur dioxide 6 [10]

Q25. (a) (i) exothermic accept combustion allow burning or oxidation or redox 1

(ii) carbon monoxide / CO (is produced) allow monoxide (is produced) ignore carbon oxide 1

because there is incomplete / partial combustion (of the fuel) accept because there is insufficient oxygen / air (to burn the fuel) 1

(b) Marks awarded for this answer will be determined by the Quality of Written Communication (QWC) as well as the standard of the scientific response. Examiners should also refer to the information in the Marking guidance.

0 marks No relevant content.

Level 1 (1-2 marks) There is a statement that crude oil is heated or that substances are cooled. However there is little detail and any description may be confused or inaccurate.

Level 2 (3-4 marks) There is some description of heating / evaporating crude oil and either fractions have different boiling points or there is an indication of a temperature difference in the column.

Level 3 (5-6 marks) There is a reasonable explanation of how petrol is or fractions are separated from crude oil using evaporating and condensing.

If cracking is given as a preliminary or subsequent process to fractional distillation then ignore.

However, if cracking / catalyst is given as part of the process, maximum is level 2.

Examples of chemistry points made in the response could include:

Page 67 of 78 • Some / most of the hydrocarbons (or petrol) evaporate / form vapours or gases

• When some of / a fraction of the hydrocarbons (or petrol) cool to their boiling point they condense

• Hydrocarbons (or petrol) that have (relatively) low boiling points and are collected near the top of the fractionating column or hydrocarbons with (relatively) high boiling points are collected near the bottom of the fractionating column

• The process is fractional distillation

• Heat the crude oil / mixture of hydrocarbons or crude oil / mixture is heated to about 350°C

• Some of the hydrocarbons remain as liquids

• Liquids flow to the bottom of the fractionating column

• Vapours / gases rise up the fractionating column

• Vapours / gases cool as they rise up the fractionating column

• The condensed fraction (or petrol) separates from the vapours / gases and flows out through a pipe

• Some of the hydrocarbons remain as vapours / gases

• Some vapours / gases rise out of the top of the fractionating column

• There is a temperature gradient in the fractionating column or the fractionating column is cool at the top and hot at the bottom 6 [9]

Q26. (a) carbon allow C 1

(b) (i) (atoms are in) layers (that) can slide over each other 1

because between the layers there are only weak forces accept because there are no (covalent) bonds between the layers accept Van der Waals forces between the layers do not allow intermolecular bonds between the layers if no other marks are awarded allow weak intermolecular forces for 1 mark 1

(ii) because each atom forms four (covalent) bonds or (diamond is a) giant (covalent) structure or lattice or macromolecular any reference to ionic / metallic bonding or intermolecular

Page 68 of 78 forces scores a maximum of 1 mark accept carbon forms a tetrahedral shape 1

(and) covalent bonds are strong accept covalent bonds need a lot of energy / difficult to break 1

(iii) because graphite has delocalised electrons allow sea of electrons allow each carbon atom has one free electron 1

which can move through the whole structure (and carry the current / charge / electricity) 1 [7]

Q27. (a) heat to vaporise (the crude oil) do not accept cracking / burning 1

vapours condense 1

at different temperatures allow they have different boiling points 1

(b) (alkanes) are hydrocarbons or are compounds of hydrogen and carbon only 1

alkanes are saturated or have only (carbon-carbon) single bonds accept have no (carbon-carbon) double bonds

accept general formula is CnH2n+2 for 2 marks 1

(c) Marks awarded for this answer will be determined by the Quality of Written Communication (QWC) as well as the standard of the scientific response.

0 marks No relevant content.

Level 1 (1-2 marks) There is a basic description of at least one advantage or one disadvantage of extracting petroleum products from oil sands.

Level 2 (3-4 marks) There is a clear description of an advantage and a disadvantage of extracting petroleum products from oil sands.

Level 3 (5-6 marks) There is a detailed description of both advantages and disadvantages of extracting petroleum products from oil sands.

Page 69 of 78 Examples of the chemistry/environmental/economic/social points made in the response

Advantages:

• the oil sands are needed because crude oil is running out

• this crude oil is needed because demand is increasing

• the oil sands contain a large amount of crude oil

• the oil sands could improve Canada’s economy

• the oil sands provide employment for a lot of people

• the trees / forest are used for wood products / fuel

Disadvantages:

• destruction of environment / habitats

• fewer trees / forests to absorb carbon dioxide

• specified pollution, for example, visual, noise, atmospheric (including dust), water (including river or drinking) with cause, e.g. gases / particulates from burning diesel

• large amounts of methane (natural gas) are used to provide energy

• energy / fuel needed for cracking and fractional distillation

• burning fuel releases carbon dioxide

• crude oil / natural gas contains locked up carbon

• crude oil is non-renewable 6 [11]

Q28. (a) (i) 2,4 drawn (as dots / crosses / e–) 1

(ii) Water (vapour) / steam

allow hydrogen oxide / H2O do not accept hydroxide 1

(b) any two pairs from:

carbon dioxide (1)

causes global warming (1) allow greenhouse effect / climate change / sea level rise / melting of polar ice caps

Page 70 of 78 carbon (particles) / soot (1) allow particulates

causes global dimming (1) allow blocks out sunlight / smog / prevents plant growth / causes breathing difficulties

carbon monoxide (1)

is toxic (1)

sulfur dioxide (1)

causes acid rain (1) allow kills plants / erosion / acidifies water 4 [6]

Q29. (a) (i) ethanol 1

(ii) oxidised 1

(iii) Test

add any named carbonate or hydrogen carbonate the first mark is for the test; the second is for the result if the test is incorrect award 0 marks. 1

Result

A will effervesce (carbon dioxide) or B will not effervesce. if the result is incorrect, award the first mark only 1

or candidates do not have to name a gas but penalise an incorrect gas.

Test

add a named (magnesium, aluminium, zinc, iron or tin) metal give credit to any test that will work.

Result

A will effervesce (hydrogen), B will not allow a test that would identify B.

Page 71 of 78 or

Test

add an acid-base indicator

Result

credit any acid colour for that indicator eg for universal indicator allow red, yellow or orange

give credit for the neutral colour for B

Test

add an alcohol (+ acid catalyst)

Result

sweet or fruity smell of esters.

(b) (i) H2O 1

(ii) ethyl ethanoate 1

(iii) any one from:

• flavourings • perfumes • solvents • plasticisers allow any correct use of esters 1 [7]

Q30.

(a) 4 (C2H4) 1

(b) cracking involves a catalyst 1

distillation does not

distillation does not involve a chemical change

but cracking does 1

Page 72 of 78 (d) Level 3 (5–6 marks): A logically structured evaluation with links involving several comparisons. Nearly all points made are relevant and correct.

Level 2 (3–4 marks): Some valid comparisons made between the two types of bag. There may be some incorrect or irrelevant points.

Level 1 (1–2 marks): A vague response with few correct and relevant points and with no direct comparisons.

0 marks: No relevant content

Indicative content

Accept converse in terms of plastic bags for all statements • Paper bags are made from a renewable resource • Plastic bags are made from a finite resource • Paper bags require more energy to manufacture • Paper bags produce more waste • Paper bags are biodegradable • Paper bags create more CO2 • CO2 created by paper bags offset by photosynthesis in growing wood • Paper bag requires much more fresh water • Paper bags cannot be recycled • Agree because non-renewability less important than other factors or disagree because of converse or can’t say because data inconclusive / incomplete 6 [10]

Q31. (a) (i) high temperature allow heating / hot / 250-900 °C 1 catalyst or steam

allow named catalyst eg zeolite, Al2O3, silica, ceramic allow in the absence of air / oxygen 1 ignore any references to pressure

(ii) colourless allow decolourised ignore clear / discoloured 1

(iii) 1

Page 73 of 78 (b) (i) 20.3(0) (kJ) if answer incorrect allow 1 mark for 24.36/1.2 2

(ii) use a lid allow insulate beaker or use draught shield 1 reduce energy / heat loss ignore references to thermometer or repeats or distance of flame or loss of water vapour allow stir (1) to distribute energy / heat (1) allow use a metal can (1) as it’s a better conductor (1) 1

(iii) carbon/soot ignore tar, smoke 1 (produced by) incomplete combustion allow from a limited supply of oxygen/air 1

(iv) hexane gives out the greatest energy (per 1.0 g) ignore more energy 1 hexane produces the least smoke / carbon / soot allow has the cleanest flame ignore less smoke / carbon / soot 1

(c) Marks awarded for this answer will be determined by the Quality of Written Communication (QWC) as well as the standard of the scientific response. Examiners should also apply a ‘best-fit’ approach to the marking.

Level 3 (5 – 6 marks): Descriptions of advantages and disadvantages that are linked to their own knowledge.

Level 2 (3 – 4 marks): Descriptions of an advantage and a disadvantage with some use of their knowledge to add value.

Level 1 (1 – 2 marks): Statements made from the information that indicate whether at least one statement is an advantage or a disadvantage or a linked advantage or disadvantage

0 marks: No relevant content

Examples of the added value statements and links made in the response could include: Note that link words are in bold; links can be either way round. Accept reverse arguments and ignore cost throughout.

Advantages of using hydrogen: • Combustion only produces water so causes no pollution

Page 74 of 78 • Combustion does not produce carbon dioxide so this does not contribute to global warming or climate change • Combustion does not produce sulfur dioxide so this does not contribute to acid rain • Incomplete combustion of petrol produces carbon monoxide that is toxic • Incomplete combustion of petrol produces particulates that contribute to global dimming • Petrol comes from a non-renewable resource but there are renewable/other methods of producing hydrogen • Hydrogen releases more energy so less fuel needed or more efficient

Disadvantages of using hydrogen: • Hydrogen is a gas so is difficult to store or transfer to vehicles • Hydrogen gas is very flammable so leaks cause a greater risk of explosion • Most hydrogen is produced from fossil fuels which are running out • Cannot be used in existing car engines so modification / development or replacement is needed • Lack of filling stations so difficult to refuel your vehicle 6 [18]

Q32. (a) decane 1

(b) icosane 1

(d) Level 3: Relevant points (reasons/causes) are identified, given in detail and logically 5-6 linked to form a clear account.

Level 2: Relevant points (reasons/causes) are identified, and there are attempts at 3-4 logically linking. The resulting account is not fully clear.

Level 1: Points are identified and stated simply, but their relevance is not clear and 1-2 there is no attempt at logical linking.

No relevant content 0

Indicative content • crude oil is heated • hydrocarbons/compounds vaporise

• vapours enter the fractionating column near the bottom • there is a temperature gradient in the column

Page 75 of 78 or the column is hotter at the bottom and cooler at the top • vapours / hydrocarbons / fractions condense • to become liquid • at their boiling points • different substances have different boiling points • so the different fractions collect at different levels • hydrocarbons / fractions with smallest molecules have lowest boiling points • collect as gases at top of the column where temperature is lower • hydrocarbons / fractions with larger molecules have higher boiling points • so collect nearer the bottom • where temperature is higher 6 [9]

Q33. (a) carbon 1

(b) diamond has a giant structure 1

each atom is joined to four other atoms 1

no covalent / strong bonds between layers allow which have weak forces between them 1

so (the layers) can slide over each other 1

(d) 3 1

(e) has delocalised electrons allow each (carbon) atom has one free electron 1

Page 76 of 78 which can move through the whole structure or which carry the current 1 [9]

Q34. (a) catalyst or speeds up the reaction (owtte) accept lowers activation energy not just helps reaction to take place ignore increased surface area 1

(b) C8H18

allow H18C8 must be upper case do not accept powers 1

(c) B because it is a gas or because it has small molecules or because they are small position and reason for mark allow it has a lower / very low boiling point than A ignore references to solubility accept does not condense do not accept light molecules or bubbles into B do not accept it is small 1

(d) breakdown of a substance (owtte) do not accept decompose unqualified 1

by the action of heat (owtte) 1

(e) Quality of written communication if the written communication makes sense and it is in context then award Q mark Q Q 1

large to small molecules or scientific word that implies smaller, e.g. alkene / ethane / petrol any name or formula of alkane / alkene smaller than decane 1

either advantages of smaller molecules or disadvantages of larger molecules e.g. hydrocarbons with large molecules are limited in their usefulness or converse for smaller molecules 1

large hydrocarbon molecules do not ignite easily / do not flow easily / are not very volatile or converse for smaller molecules

Page 77 of 78 more large hydrocarbon molecules are produced than are needed or converse for smaller molecules

smaller molecules are useful as fuels

alkenes / products can be used to make polymers

(f) (fractional) distillation accept fractionation accept good description do not accept just diagram 1 [9]

Q35. (a) A compound made from carbon and hydrogen (not mixture etc.) 1

(b) C5H12 1

by heat

(ii) Speeds up reaction

(iii) C8H16 each for 1 mark 4 [6]

Page 78 of 78 Q1. (a) The pie chart shows the energy sources used by one company to generate electricity.

(i) Which two energy sources used by the company do not produce any polluting gases?

______and ______(1)

(ii) Calculate the percentage (%) of electricity that is generated using energy sources that do not produce any polluting gases.

Percentage = ______(1)

(b) Which graph, A, B or C, is most likely to show the electrical power output from a wind turbine over one day?

Write your answer, A, B or C, in the box.

Graph A Graph B Graph C

Graph (1)

(c) The government has said that more electricity must be generated from renewable energy sources. A newspaper reported that:

Page 1 of 87

Why is the statement in the newspaper incorrect?

______

______(1) (Total 4 marks)

Q2. (a) Most electricity in the UK is generated in power stations that burn fossil fuels.

The bar chart shows how much carbon dioxide is produced for each kilowatt-hour of electricity generated using a fossil fuel.

(i) Which fossil fuel produces the smallest amount of carbon dioxide for each kilowat-hour of electricity generated?

______(1)

(ii) Which one of the following statements gives the reason why the data has been shown as a bar chart and not as a line graph?

Put a tick ( ) in the box next to your answer.

Both variables are categoric.

Both variables are continuous.

Page 2 of 87 One variable is categoric, the other is continuous.

(1)

(iii) Why does a nuclear power station not produce any carbon dioxide?

______

______(1)

(b) Some types of power station generate electricity by burning straw.

(i) Use words from the box to complete the following sentences.

boiler gas generator steam turbine water

Straw is burned in a ______Water is heated to make

______which is used to drive a ______

This turns a ______to produce electricity. (4)

(ii) Straw is a type of renewable energy source known as a biofuel.

Name one other type of renewable energy source used to produce electricity.

______(1)

(iii) A power station generates 36 000 000 watts (36 MW) of electrical power by burning straw. The average power used in each home in the UK over one year is 2000 watts.

Calculate the number of homes that the power station could supply electricity to.

Show clearly how you work out your answer.

______

Page 3 of 87 ______

Number of homes = ______(2) (Total 10 marks)

Q3. A person uses a stairlift to go upstairs. The stairlift is powered by an electric motor.

The Sankey diagram shows the energy transfers for the electric motor.

(a) Complete the following sentence.

The electric motor wastes energy as ______energy. (1)

(b) Use the equation in the box to calculate the efficiency of the electric motor.

Page 4 of 87

Show clearly how you work out your answer.

______

Efficiency = ______(2) (Total 3 marks)

Q4. The diagram shows a small-scale, micro-hydroelectricity generator which uses the energy of falling river water to generate electricity. The water causes a device, called an Archimedean screw, to rotate. The Archimedean screw is linked to the generator by a gearbox.

(a) Complete the following sentence by drawing a ring around the correct word in the box.

The gravitational potential energy of the falling water is transformed

chemical

into the electrical energy of the Archimedean screw.

kinetic

(1)

(b) A micro-hydroelectric system generates about 60 kW of electricity, enough for 50 homes. A conventional large-scale hydroelectric power station may generate more than 5 000 000 kW of electricity.

Page 5 of 87 (i) Give one advantage of a conventional large-scale hydroelectric power station compared to a micro-hydroelectric system.

______

______(1)

(ii) Which one of the following statements gives a disadvantage of a conventional large-scale hydroelectric power station compared to a micro– hydroelectric system?

Put a tick ( ) in the box next to your answer.

Energy is wasted as heat and sound.

Large areas of land are flooded.

A constant flow of water is needed.

(1)

(c) The electricity generated by the micro-hydroelectric system is transferred directly to local homes. The electricity generated by a conventional large-scale hydroelectric power station is transferred to homes anywhere in the country through a system of cables and transformers.

(i) What name is given to the system of cables and transformers used to transfer electricity to homes anywhere in the country?

______(1)

(ii) Using short cables to transfer electricity to local homes is much more efficient than using very long cables to transfer electricity to homes anywhere in the country.

Why?

______

______(1)

(d) Nepal is a mountainous country with over 6000 rivers. In Nepal, 9000 kW of electricity are generated using micro-hydroelectric generators.

Suggest one reason why in the UK much less electricity is generated using micro- hydroelectric generators, than in Nepal.

Page 6 of 87 ______

______(1) (Total 6 marks)

Q5. (a) The diagram shows the energy transformations produced by a television.

When the television is working, 1200 joules of energy are supplied to the television every second. The useful energy transferred by the television is 720 joules every second.

(i) Use the equation in the box to calculate the efficiency of the television.

Show clearly how you work out your answer.

______

Efficiency = ______(2)

(ii) Use one word from the diagram to complete the following sentence.

The electrical energy that is not usefully transformed by the television is

wasted as ______. (1)

(b) A homeowner is sent an electricity bill every 3 months. The total amount of electrical energy used during one 3-month period was 800 kilowatt-hours. Electrical energy costs 15p per kilowatt-hour.

Use the equation in the box to calculate the cost of the energy transferred from the mains electricity supply.

Page 7 of 87 total cost = number of kilowatt-hours × cost per kilowatt-hour

Show clearly how you work out your answer and give the unit.

______

Cost = ______(2) (Total 5 marks)

Q6. In the UK, most electricity is generated in power stations that burn fossil fuels.

(a) Which type of fossil fuel power station has the shortest start-up time?

______(1)

(b) The diagram shows how electricity is distributed around the UK.

(i) Which of the parts labelled in the diagram form the National Grid?

______(1)

(ii) A step-up transformer is used near the power station.

Draw a ring around the correct answer in each box to complete each sentence.

current.

A step-up transformer increases the power.

voltage.

Page 8 of 87 less dangerous.

Using a step-up transformer makes the distribution of electricity more efficient.

work faster.

(2)

The graph shows how the percentage of electricity generated in the UK without using fossil fuels changed between 1990 and 2010.

What does the data in the graph suggest will probably happen to the percentage of electricity generated in the UK without using fossil fuels over the next 10 years?

______

______(1) (Total 5 marks)

Q7. Iceland is a country that generates most of its electricity using geothermal power stations and hydroelectric power stations.

(a) (i) Complete the following sentences to describe how some geothermal power stations work.

In regions where volcanoes are active, the ground is hot.

Cold ______is pumped down into the ground

and is ______by hot rocks.

It returns to the surface as steam. The steam is used to turn a turbine.

Page 9 of 87 The turbine drives a ______to produce electricity. (3)

(ii) Which one of the following statements about geothermal power stations is true?

Tick ( ) one box.

Geothermal power stations use fossil fuels.

Geothermal power stations produce carbon dioxide.

Geothermal power stations provide a reliable source of electricity.

(1)

(b) What is needed for a hydroelectric power station to be able to generate electricity?

Tick ( ) one box.

Falling water

A long coastline

Lots of sunny days

(1) (Total 5 marks)

Q8. The appliances shown below transfer electrical energy to other types of energy.

Page 10 of 87

(a) The vacuum cleaner is designed to transfer electrical energy to kinetic energy.

Three more of the appliances are also designed to transfer electrical energy to kinetic energy. Which three?

Draw a ring around each correct appliance. 3

(b) Which two of the following statements are true?

Tick ( ) two boxes.

Appliances only transfer part of the energy usefully.

The energy transferred by appliances will be destroyed.

The energy transferred by appliances makes the surroundings warmer.

Page 11 of 87 The energy output from an appliance is bigger than the energy input.

(2) (Total 5 marks)

Q9. The world’s biggest offshore wind farm, built off the Kent coast, started generating electricity in September 2010.

(a) One advantage of using the wind to generate electricity is that it is a renewable energy source.

(i) Give one other advantage of using the wind to generate electricity.

______

______(1)

(ii) Name one other renewable energy source used to generate electricity.

______(1)

(b) The graph shows how wind speed affects the power output from a large wind turbine.

(i) What is the maximum possible power output from this wind turbine?

______(1)

(ii) Read this part of a newspaper article.

Page 12 of 87

Use the graph to explain why the power output from the wind turbines was less than one sixth of the maximum.

______

______(2)

(iii) Having more nuclear power stations will help to avoid power cuts in the future.

Which two of these reasons explain why?

Put a tick ( ) in the boxes next to your answers.

A small amount of nuclear fuel generates a large amount of electricity.

The radioactive waste produced must be stored for many years.

Nuclear power stations do not depend on the weather to generate electricity.

(1) (Total 6 marks)

Q10. A student has read that a solar cell with a dirty surface will not work as well as a solar cell with a clean surface.

To test the effect of a dirty surface on a solar cell, the student set up the following equipment.

Page 13 of 87

The student put the desk lamp a fixed distance from the solar cell. To represent the effect of a dirty surface, the student covered the surface of the solar cell with pieces of tracing paper. Each time the student added a piece of paper, she measured the output voltage of the solar cell.

(a) The results taken by the student have been used to draw the graph below.

(i) One of the results seems to be anomalous.

Draw a ring around the anomalous data point on the graph. (1)

(ii) The larger the number of sheets of tracing paper used, the lower the intensity of the light reaching the solar cell.

Draw a ring around the correct answer in the box to complete the sentence.

A decrease in the intensity of the light reaching the solar cell

Page 14 of 87 a decrease in

causes no change to the output voltage from the solar cell.

an increase in

(1)

(b) People can buy panels of solar cells to generate electricity for their homes. Any surplus electricity can be sold to the electricity supply company.

(i) Give one environmental advantage of generating electricity using solar cells rather than generating electricity in a coal-burning power station.

______

______(1)

(ii) A homeowner pays £7600 to have solar panels fitted on the roof of their house. The homeowner expects to save £950 each year from reduced energy bills and from selling the electricity.

Assuming these figures to be correct, calculate the pay-back time for the solar panels.

Show clearly how you work out your answer.

______

Pay-back time = ______years (2)

(iii) Draw a ring around the correct answer in the box to complete the sentence.

Allowing the surface of the solar panels to become very dirty

decrease

will not change the pay-back time.

increase

(1)

(iv) Explain your answer to part (b)(iii).

______

Page 15 of 87 ______(2) (Total 8 marks)

Q11. The picture shows a solar-powered aircraft. The aircraft has no pilot.

By NASA/Nick Galante [Public domain], via Wikimedia Commons

(a) Use words from the box to complete the following sentence.

electrical heat light sound

Solar cells are designed to transform ______energy

into ______energy. (2)

(b) On a summer day, 175 000 joules of energy are supplied to the aircraft’s solar cells every second. The useful energy transferred by the solar cells is 35 000 joules every second.

Use the equation in the box to calculate the efficiency of the solar cells.

Show clearly how you work out your answer.

______

Page 16 of 87 Efficiency = ______(2)

Give one environmental advantage of using electric motors to drive the aircraft propellers rather than motors that burn a fuel.

______

______(1) (Total 5 marks)

Q12. Wind and tides are energy sources that are used to generate electricity.

(a) Complete each sentence by putting a tick ( ) in the box next to the correct answer.

(i) The wind is

a non-renewable energy source.

a constant energy source.

an unreliable energy source.

(1)

(ii) The tides are

a renewable energy source.

a constant energy source.

an unreliable energy source.

(1)

(b) If wood is to be used as a renewable energy source, what must be done each time a tree is chopped down?

______

______(1)

Page 17 of 87 (c) In the UK, electricity is generated using renewable and non-renewable energy sources. The graph shows the percentage of electricity generated using renewable energy sources between 1990 and 2005.

Year

Complete the following sentence by drawing a ring around the correct answer in the box.

In 2015, the percentage of electricity generated using renewable energy sources

greater than 4 %.

is most likely to be equal to 4 %.

less than 4 %.

(1) (Total 4 marks)

Q13. The pictures show six different household appliances.

(a) Four of the appliances, including the fan heater, are designed to transform electrical energy into heat.

Name the other three appliances designed to transform electrical energy into heat.

Page 18 of 87 1. ______

2. ______

3 ______(3)

(b) The bar chart shows the power of three electric kettles, X, Y and Z.

Kettle

(i) In one week, each kettle is used for a total of 30 minutes.

Which kettle costs the most to use?

Put a tick ( ) next to your answer.

(1)

(ii) A new ‘express boil’ kettle boils water faster than any other kettle.

Draw a fourth bar on the chart to show the possible power of an ‘express boil’ kettle. (1)

Page 19 of 87

Volume of water in litres

A householder always fills the electric kettle to the top, even when only enough boiling water for one small cup of coffee is wanted.

Explain how the householder is wasting money.

______

______(3) (Total 8 marks)

Q14. The picture shows a temporary road traffic information board.

Page 20 of 87

The batteries power the LEDs used in the information board. The solar cells keep the batteries charged.

(a) Use words from the box to complete each of the following sentences.

chemical electrical light sound

The solar cells transfer light energy to ______energy.

The batteries transfer ______energy to electrical energy.

The LEDs transfer electrical energy to ______energy. (3)

(b) When the total energy input to the solar cells is 200 joules, the useful energy output from the solar cells to the batteries is 50 joules.

Calculate the efficiency of the solar cells.

______

Efficiency = ______(2)

Tick ( ) one box.

Solar cells will charge the batteries day and night.

Page 21 of 87 The information board can be used anywhere it is needed.

A small number of solar cells produce a lot of electricity.

(1) (Total 6 marks)

Q15. Three energy sources used to generate electricity are given in List A. Statements about the energy sources used to generate electricity are given in List B.

Draw one line from each energy source in List A to the statement about the energy source in List B.

List A List B

Energy source Statement about energy source

Uses energy from falling water

Geothermal

Uses energy from inside the Earth

Hydroelectric

Is unpredictable

Nuclear

Produces dangerous waste

(Total 3 marks)

Q16. (a) A student used the apparatus drawn below to investigate the heating effect of an electric heater.

(i) Before starting the experiment, the student drew Graph A.

Page 22 of 87 Graph A shows how the student expected the temperature of the metal block to change after the heater was switched on.

Describe the pattern shown in Graph A.

______

______(2)

(ii) The student measured the room temperature. He then switched the heater on and measured the temperature of the metal block every 50 seconds.

The student calculated the increase in temperature of the metal block and plotted Graph B.

After 300 seconds, Graph B shows the increase in temperature of the metal block is lower than the increase in temperature expected from Graph A.

Suggest one reason why.

______

______(1)

(iii) The power of the electric heater is 50 watts.

Page 23 of 87 Calculate the energy transferred to the heater from the electricity supply in 300 seconds.

______

Energy transferred = ______J (2)

(b) The student uses the same heater to heat blocks of different metals. Each time the heater is switched on for 300 seconds.

Each block of metal has the same mass but a different specific heat capacity.

Metal Specific heat capacity in J/kg°C

Aluminium 900

Iron 450

Lead 130

Which one of the metals will heat up the most?

Draw a ring around the correct answer.

aluminium iron lead

Give, in terms of the amount of energy needed to heat the metal blocks, a reason for your answer.

______

______(2) (Total 7 marks)

Q17. (a) A student investigated how the number of blades on a wind turbine affects the output voltage of the turbine.

The student used the apparatus shown in the diagram.

Page 24 of 87

The fan was used to turn the wind turbine.

(i) The fan was always the same distance from the wind turbine.

Why?

______

______(1)

(ii) After switching the fan on, the student waited 20 seconds before taking the voltmeter reading.

Suggest why.

______

______(1)

(iii) The student changed the number of blades on the wind turbine.

The student’s results are shown in the scatter graph.

Page 25 of 87 Number of blades

What conclusion can be made from the results in the scatter graph?

______

______(2)

(b) The amount of electricity generated using wind turbines is increasing.

Which graph, A, B or C, is most likely to show the electrical power output from a wind turbine over one day?

TimeTimeTime

Write the correct answer, A, B or C, in the box.

Give a reason for your answer.

______

______(2) (Total 6 marks)

Q18. (a) The pie chart shows the proportions of electricity generated in the UK from different energy sources in 2010.

Page 26 of 87

(i) Calculate the percentage of electricity generated using fossil fuels.

______

Percentage = ______% (1)

(ii) The pie chart shows that 7% of electricity was generated using renewable energy sources.

Which one of the following is not a renewable energy source?

Tick ( ) one box.

Oil

Solar

Wind

(1)

(b) Complete the following sentence.

In some types of power station, fossil fuels are burned to heat ______to produce steam. (1)

Why do many scientists think adding carbon dioxide to the atmosphere is harmful to the environment?

Tick ( ) one box.

Page 27 of 87 Carbon dioxide is the main cause of acid rain.

Carbon dioxide causes global warming.

Carbon dioxide causes visual pollution.

(1) (Total 4 marks)

Q19. The image shows a man using a leaf blower to move some leaves.

The leaf blower is powered by an electric motor connected to a battery.

(a) Energy transfers take place when the leaf blower is being used.

Use the correct answer from the box to complete each sentence.

chemical electrical kinetic nuclear sound

The battery stores ______energy which is transferred into electrical energy.

The electric motor transfers electrical energy usefully into ______energy.

The motor wastes energy as ______energy and as energy that heats the surroundings. (3)

(b) The total power input to the leaf blower is 750 W. The useful power output of the leaf blower is 360 W.

Calculate the efficiency of the leaf blower.

______

Page 28 of 87 ______

______

Efficiency = ______(2) (Total 5 marks)

Q20. The figure below shows a car with an electric motor.

The car is moving along a flat road.

(a) (i) Use the correct answers from the box to complete each sentence.

light electrical kinetic potential sound

The car’s motor transfers ______energy

into useful ______energy as the car moves.

Some energy is wasted as ______energy. (3)

(ii) What happens to the wasted energy?

______

______(1)

(b) The electric motor has an input energy of 50 000 joules each second.

The motor transfers 35 000 joules of useful energy each second.

Calculate the efficiency of the electric motor.

______

Efficiency = ______

Page 29 of 87 (2) (Total 6 marks)

Q21. A ‘can-chiller’ is used to make a can of drink colder.

Figure 1 shows a can-chiller.

(a) The can-chiller decreases the temperature of the liquid in the can by 15 °C. The mass of liquid is 0.33 kg. The specific heat capacity of the liquid is 4200 J / kg °C.

Calculate the energy transferred from the liquid as it cools.

______

Energy = ______J (2)

(b) Complete the following sentence.

The specific heat capacity of a substance is the amount of energy required to

change the ______of one kilogram of the

substance by one degree Celsius. (1)

State the name of a measuring instrument used to measure mass.

______(1)

(d) The back of the can-chiller has cooling fins, as shown in Figure 2.

Page 30 of 87

The cooling fins increase the rate of energy transfer from the can-chiller to the surroundings.

Complete the following sentences.

The cooling fins are a ______colour because that makes them

good emitters of infrared radiation.

The large surface area of the cooling fins allows the air around the can-chiller

to gain energy quickly and rise, transferring energy by ______. (2)

(e) (i) The energy input to the can-chiller is the same as the energy output. This shows that energy is conserved.

Complete the following sentence.

Energy can be transferred usefully, stored or dissipated, but cannot be

______or destroyed. (1)

(ii) The temperature of the can of drink decreases while it is in the can-chiller.

What happens to the temperature of the air around the cooling fins?

______(1) (Total 8 marks)

Q22. Used disposable nappies are sent to landfill.

(a) 1 600 000 babies in the UK use disposable nappies.

Each baby uses 5 nappies in 1 day.

Calculate the total number of disposable nappies used in 1 day.

Give your answer in standard form.

Page 31 of 87 ______

______

Total number of nappies = ______(2)

Disposable nappies contain a hydrogel.

A hydrogel is a substance that absorbs water.

A nappy manufacturer investigated the mass of water absorbed by different masses of a hydrogel.

Table 1 shows the results.

Table 1

Mass of water absorbed in g Mean mass Mass of of water hydrogel in absorbed g Experiment 1 Experiment 2 Experiment 3 in g

0.5 148 151 151 X

1.0 292 295 304 297

1.5 452 456 500 454

2.0 599 610 606 605

2.5 742 753 755 750

(b) One of the results for 1.5 g of hydrogel is anomalous.

Which experiment has an anomalous result?

Tick one box.

Experiment 1

Experiment 2

Experiment 3

(1)

______

X = ______g (2)

Page 32 of 87 Some of the results are shown on the graph.

(d) Determine the mass of water absorbed by 1.8 g of hydrogel.

Use the graph.

______

Mass of water absorbed = ______g (1)

(e) Which of the following is a valid conclusion from the graph.

Tick one box.

mean mass of water absorbed in grams ∝ mass of hydrogel in grams

mean mass of water absorbed in grams = mass of hydrogel in grams

mean mass of water absorbed in grams « mass of hydrogel in grams

mean mass of water absorbed in grams ∼ mass of hydrogel in grams

(1)

(f) Fabric nappies are an alternative to disposable nappies.

Table 2 shows information from a life cycle assessment of fabric nappies and disposable nappies.

Table 2

Disposable Fabric nappy nappy

Yes - can be Reusable reused many No times

Page 33 of 87 Biodegradable Yes No

Carbon dioxide produced per 564 519 nappy in g

Water used to make each 1.34 0.15 nappy in m3

Compare the advantages and disadvantages of using fabric nappies instead of disposable nappies.

Use data from Table 2.

______

______(4) (Total 11 marks)

Q23. This question is about metals.

(a) Which unreactive metal is found in the Earth as the metal itself?

Tick ( ) one box.

aluminium

gold

magnesium

(1)

(b) Complete the sentence.

Page 34 of 87 Aluminium is an element because aluminium is made of

only one type of ______. (1)

(i) Use the correct words from the box to complete the sentence.

electrons ions protons neutrons shells

The nucleus of an aluminium atom contains ______and

______. (2)

(ii) Complete the sentence.

In the periodic table, aluminium is in Group ______. (1)

(d) Aluminium is used for kitchen foil.

Figure 2 shows a symbol on a box of kitchen foil.

Page 35 of 87 The symbol means that aluminium can be recycled. It does not show the correct chemical symbol for aluminium.

(i) What is the correct chemical symbol for aluminium?

______. (1)

(ii) Give two reasons why aluminium should be recycled.

______

______(2)

(e) Aluminium has a low density, conducts electricity and is resistant to corrosion.

Which one of these properties makes aluminium suitable to use as kitchen foil? Give a reason for your answer.

______

______(2) (Total 10 marks)

Q24. The electric kettle shown below is used to boil water.

©leeser87/iStock

(a) After the water has boiled, the temperature of the water decreases by 22 °C. The mass of water in the kettle is 0.50 kg. The specific heat capacity of water is 4200 J/kg °C.

Calculate the energy transferred to the surroundings from the water.

______

Page 36 of 87 ______

______

Energy = ______joules (2)

(b) Why is the total energy input to the kettle higher than the energy used to heat the water?

Tick (✔) one box.

Tick (✔)

Energy is absorbed from the surroundings.

Energy is used to heat the kettle.

The kettle is more than 100% efficient. (1) (Total 3 marks)

Q25. Different energy sources are used to generate electricity.

(a) Use words from the box to match the correct energy source to each of the descriptions given in the table.

biofuel coal geothermal nuclear waves

Description Energy source

Energy from the Earth’s core is used to heat water.

Fission of uranium nuclei is used to heat water.

Gases from rotting plant material are burned to heat water. (3)

(b) Energy can be stored in a pumped storage power station.

The figure shows a pumped storage power station.

Page 37 of 87

When electricity is needed, the water in the high level reservoir is allowed to flow to the low level reservoir. The flowing water generates electricity.

Use the correct answer from the box to complete each sentence.

electrical gravitational potential kinetic nuclear sound

The water in the high level reservoir stores ______energy.

The flowing water has ______energy.

The water turns the turbine which is connected to the generator.

The generator produces some ______, this is wasted energy. (3)

The useful power output is 540 MW.

(i) Calculate the efficiency of this pumped storage power station.

______

Efficiency = ______(2)

(ii) Calculate how much power is wasted by the pumped storage power station.

______

Power = ______MW (1)

(iii) How is the temperature of the surroundings affected by the energy wasted by

Page 38 of 87 the pumped storage power station?

______(1) (Total 10 marks)

Q26. Metals are extracted from ores in the Earth’s crust.

(a) Why is copper used in the manufacture of computers?

Tick (✔) one box.

Because it has a high density.

Because it does not react with water.

Because it is a good conductor of electricity. (1)

(b) Figure 1 shows the percentage (%) by mass of some metals in the Earth’s crust.

Figure 1

(i) What is the percentage by mass of magnesium in the Earth’s crust?

Page 39 of 87 ______% (1)

(ii) On Figure 1 draw the bars for:

• calcium at 3.6% by mass

• iron at 5.0% by mass. (2)

The equation for the reaction when zinc carbonate is heated is:

(i) What is the name of this type of reaction?

Tick (✔) one box.

corrosion

decomposition

electrolysis

(1)

(ii) Which substance in the equation is a gas at room temperature (20 °C)?

Tick (✔) one box.

zinc carbonate

zinc oxide

carbon dioxide

(1)

(iii) Complete the table below to show the number of atoms of carbon and oxygen in the formula of zinc carbonate.

Number of atoms in Element the formula ZnCO3

zinc, Zn 1

carbon, C

oxygen, O (2)

Page 40 of 87 (iv) When 125 g zinc carbonate is heated, 81 g zinc oxide is produced.

Calculate the mass of carbon dioxide produced.

______

Mass of carbon dioxide = ______g (1)

(d) Figure 2 shows a simple life cycle of a car body.

Figure 2

(i) What is one reason why iron from the blast furnace is converted into steel?

Tick (✔) one box.

To make the iron pure.

To make the iron more brittle.

To make alloys for specific uses.

(1)

(ii) Apart from cost, give three different reasons why steel should be recycled.

1. ______

______

2. ______

______

3. ______

______(3) (Total 13 marks)

Page 41 of 87 Q27. Hydrocarbons are used to make useful products.

(a) What are the elements in hydrocarbons?

Tick one box.

Carbon and hydrogen only

Carbon, hydrogen and oxygen

Carbon and nitrogen only

Carbon, nitrogen and oxygen

(1)

(b) Table 1 gives some information about four hydrocarbons.

Table 1

Melting point in Boiling point in Hydrocarbon °C °C

Methane –183 –162

Ethene –169 –104

Octane –57 +126

Decane –30 +174

What are two correct statements about the four compounds?

Tick two boxes.

Methane has the lowest boiling point and decane has the highest melting point

Methane and decane are both gases at 20 °C

Ethene and octane are both alkanes

Decane and ethene are both liquids at 0 °C

Octane is liquid over a larger temperature range than methane (2)

Page 42 of 87 (c) Ethene can be produced from long-chain hydrocarbons by cracking.

Give the conditions needed for cracking.

______

______(2)

(d) Poly(ethene) is a polymer made from ethene. Poly(ethene) is used to make plastic bags.

Table 2 is from a life cycle assessment comparing paper bags and plastic bags.

Table 2

Paper bag Plastic bag

Raw material Wood Oil or gas (renewable) (non-renewable)

Energy used to make in MJ 1.7 1.5

Solid waste produced in g 50 14

Carbon dioxide produced in kg 0.23 0.53

Evaluate which type of bag is more environmentally friendly.

Use data from Table 2 and your own knowledge to support your answer.

______

______(6) (Total 11 marks)

Page 43 of 87 Q28. This question is about drinking water.

(a) Name two methods of treating water from rivers, lakes or the sea to produce drinking water.

Tick two boxes.

Anaerobic digestion

Cracking

Desalination

Electrolysis

Sterilising

(2)

(b) The table below shows the amounts of dissolved ions in a sample of drinking water.

Mass in mg Dissolved ion per dm3 Cl– 250

Na+ 200

+ NO3 40

What is the name of the ion with the symbol Cl–?

Tick one box.

Calcium ion

Carbonate ion

Chloride ion

Chlorine ion

(1)

Figure 1

Page 44 of 87

(1)

(d) Look at the questions labelled A, B, C, D.

A How many substances are there in drinking water?

B How much fluoride is in drinking water?

C Is fluoride soluble in drinking water?

D Should fluoride be added to drinking water?

Which one of the questions cannot be answered by science alone?

Tick one box.

A B C D (1)

(e) Give two reasons why the answer you have chosen cannot be answered by science alone.

1. ______

______

2. ______

______(2)

Page 45 of 87 (f) A sample of drinking water contains 1.5 mg of fluoride per dm3 of water. A person drinks 1 dm3 of this water.

The recommended daily amount of fluoride is 4.0 mg.

Which calculation gives the percentage of the recommended daily amount of fluoride in 1 dm3 of this water?

Tick one box.

(1)

(g) Figure 2 shows the effect of fluoride in drinking water on tooth decay in different age groups.

Figure 2

Describe the pattern of tooth decay in Figure 2 for water without fluoride.

Use data to justify your answer.

______

______(2)

(h) Describe the effect of adding fluoride to drinking water for the age groups in Figure 2.

Page 46 of 87 ______

______

______(2) (Total 12 marks)

Q29. There are many different energy resources.

(a) Which two energy resources are renewable?

Tick two boxes.

Biofuel

Coal

Gas

Geothermal

Nuclear fuel

(2)

(b) Some non-renewable energy resources are more reliable than others.

Which statement correctly describes a reliable resource?

Tick one box.

It does not burn fuel.

It is predictable.

It will never run out.

It is cheap to use.

(1)

Page 47 of 87 Figure 1

The total power output of the wind farm is 19.6 MW

All of the wind turbines have the same power output.

What is the power output of one wind turbine?

Tick one box.

2.7 MW

2.8 MW

2.9 MW

3.2 MW

3.3 MW

(1)

(d) Give two reasons why people might not like having wind turbines near their homes.

1. ______

2. ______(2)

(e) Figure 2 shows the electricity generated by different energy resources in the UK.

The total amount of electricity generated was the same in 2014 and in 2015

Figure 2

Page 48 of 87

There are changes in the amounts of different energy resources used between 2014 and 2015

Explain the environmental impacts of the changes.

______

______(4) (Total 10 marks)

Q30. Tablets to cure indigestion contain a mixture that has been designed as a useful product.

(a) Complete the sentence.

Choose the answer from the box.

catalyst formulation hydrocarbon solvent

Tablets to cure indigestion are an example of a ______. (1)

The table shows the substances in one tablet.

Page 49 of 87

Mass Substance in mg

Sodium 64 hydrogencarbonate

Calcium carbonate 522

Magnesium carbonate 68

(b) The total mass of these substances in the tablet is 654 mg

What is the approximate fraction of magnesium carbonate in the total mass of these substances?

Tick one box.

(1)

Suggest why.

______

______(1)

(d) Sodium hydrogencarbonate cures indigestion by reacting with acid in the stomach.

What type of reaction is this?

Tick one box.

Combustion

Displacement

Neutralisation

(1)

A student adds an indigestion tablet to dilute hydrochloric acid.

(e) The gas produced is bubbled through limewater.

The gas turns the limewater milky.

Name the gas produced.

______

Page 50 of 87 (1)

(f) Water is also produced.

Which two statements are reasons why water is a liquid at room temperature?

Tick two boxes.

Water has a boiling point of 100 °C

Water has a giant covalent structure

Water has a melting point lower than room temperature Water has delocalised electrons

Water is made of ions

(2)

(g) Calcium chloride is also produced.

• The formula for a calcium ion is Ca2+

• The formula for a chloride ion is Cl–

What is the formula of calcium chloride?

Tick one box.

CaCl Ca2Cl CaCl2 Ca2Cl2

(1)

(h) The tablets are stored in glass bottles.

The flow chart shows part of a flowchart for recycling glass.

Complete the flow chart.

Choose the answers from the box.

crushed electrolysed frozen melted oxidised

Page 51 of 87

(2) (Total 10 marks)

Q31. Crude oil and natural gas are natural resources in many countries.

The table shows percentages of hydrocarbons in natural gas from three different countries.

Percentage (%) of hydrocarbon in natural Hydrocarbon gas Country X Country Y Country Z

Methane 78.03 88.10 94.36

Ethane 9.70 5.30 2.37

Propane 4.82 2.16 0.15

Butane 1.33 0.72 0.02

Pentane 0.30 0.18 0.00

(a) Calculate the mean percentage of propane from countries X, Y and Z.

Give your answer to 2 decimal places.

______

Mean percentage of propane = ______% (2)

(b) Suggest why natural gas from different countries has different percentages of hydrocarbons.

Page 52 of 87 ______

______(1)

Choose the answer from the box.

an atom an electron an ion a molecule

The formula CH4 represents ______of methane. (1)

(d) Complete the sentence.

The hydrocarbons in the table belong to the homologous series of

______. (1)

Figure 1 shows how properties vary with the increasing size of molecule in this homologous series.

Figure 1

(e) Which graph shows how boiling points vary?

Tick one box.

A B C D

(1)

(f) Which graph shows how viscosity varies?

Tick one box.

A B C D

(1)

(g) Crude oil is fractionally distilled.

Fractions with larger molecules are cracked.

Page 53 of 87 Describe two differences between fractional distillation and cracking.

1. ______

______

2. ______

______(2)

(h) Ethene is a product of crude oil.

Complete the sentence.

Ethene polymerises to produce ______. (1)

(i) The production of plastic bags uses limited resources.

Figure 2 shows two ways (A and B) of saving limited resources.

Figure 2

Name A and B.

Choose the answers from the box.

recycle reduce release reuse reverse

A ______

B ______(2) (Total 12 marks)

Q32. Astronauts have been to the Moon.

(a) Astronauts moved around the surface of the Moon in a lunar rover.

The photograph below shows a lunar rover.

Page 54 of 87

The batteries on the lunar rover provided a potential difference of 36 V

The total charge stored in the batteries was 870 000 C

Calculate the maximum energy that could have been transferred from the batteries.

Use the equation:

energy transferred = charge flow × potential difference

______

Maximum energy transferred = ______J (2)

(b) Not all of the energy from the batteries was usefully transferred to the kinetic energy of the lunar rover.

Explain why.

______

______(2)

The astronauts collected rock samples from the Moon.

Scientists analysed the percentages of elements in Moon rock and Earth rock.

The table below shows the results.

Page 55 of 87 Percentage in Moon Percentage in Earth Element rock rock

Aluminium 8 8

Iron 13 5

Oxygen 42 47

Silicon X 28

Other elements 10 12

X = ______% (1)

(d) Give one similarity and one difference between Moon rock and Earth rock.

Use the table above.

Similarity ______

______

Difference ______

______(2)

(e) Scientists used to think the Earth and Moon formed separately.

Scientists now believe that the Moon formed after a collision between the Earth and a small planet.

This new idea came from the study of Moon rocks.

Why do scientific theories sometimes change?

Tick one box.

Scientists agree that the existing theory is old- fashioned Scientists change their theories to make the theories more popular

Scientists decide that the new theory is more exciting

Scientists discover new evidence which the existing theory cannot explain (1)

(f) Write down the equation which links gravitational field strength, gravitational

Page 56 of 87 potential energy, height and mass.

______

______(1)

(g) When the astronauts left the Moon, they used a spacecraft with a mass of 2150 kg

Calculate the height reached by the spacecraft at the point where it had a gravitational potential energy of 86 000 000 J

The gravitational field strength of the Moon is 1.6 N/kg

______

Height = ______m (3) (Total 12 marks)

Q33. The diagram below shows a girl skateboarding on a semi-circular ramp.

The girl has a mass of 50 kg

(a) Calculate the gravitational potential energy (g.p.e.) of the girl at the top of the ramp.

Use the equation:

g.p.e. = mass × gravitational field strength × height

gravitational field strength = 9.8 N/kg

Page 57 of 87 ______

______

g.p.e. = ______J (2)

(b) The girl has a speed of 7 m/s at the bottom of the ramp.

Calculate the kinetic energy of the girl at the bottom of the ramp.

Use the equation:

kinetic energy = 0.5 × mass × (speed)2

______

Kinetic energy = ______J (2)

Which two statements explain why?

Tick two boxes.

Some energy is wasted.

The mass of the girl is too low.

The ramp is not high enough.

The g.p.e. of the girl is not zero.

The speed of the girl is too great.

(2)

(d) Explain how lubricating the wheels of the skateboard can increase the speed of the girl.

Use ideas about energy in your explanation.

______

Page 58 of 87 ______

______(3) (Total 9 marks)

Q34. Figure 1 shows the main energy transfers from a house.

Figure 1

(a) Which two changes to the house would reduce the rate of energy transfer?

Tick two boxes.

Add thermal insulation to the roof

Increase the temperature of the house

Decrease the thickness of the walls

Replace the single-glazed windows with double-glazed windows

Use materials with a higher thermal conductivity

(2)

The temperature inside the house is controlled using a thermostat.

The thermostat switches the heating on when the temperature drops below a chosen value.

The thermostat switches the heating off when the temperature rises above the chosen

Page 59 of 87 value.

Figure 2 shows how the temperature of the house changes over a 150 minute period.

Figure 2

(b) For how many minutes was the heating switched on?

Number of minutes = ______(1)

What would happen to the time taken for the temperature to fall between points A and B?

Tick one box.

The time taken decreases

The time taken increases

The time taken stays the same

(1)

(d) The householder has solar panels installed on the roof to heat water.

The householder can also heat water with an immersion heater which uses mains electricity.

Explain one advantage and one disadvantage of using a solar panel to heat water for the house, compared to the immersion heater.

Advantage ______

Page 60 of 87 ______

______

Disadvantage ______

______

______(4) (Total 8 marks)

Q35. A teacher extracted copper from copper oxide.

This is the method used.

1. Mix 1.30 g of zinc and 1.59 g of copper oxide.

2. Heat the mixture strongly.

3. When the mixture starts to glow, stop heating.

4. Let the glow spread through the mixture.

5. Leave the mixture to cool.

(a) This reaction is exothermic.

Which part of the method shows the reaction is exothermic?

Tick one box.

Mix zinc and copper oxide

Heat the mixture

Let the glow spread

Leave to cool

(1)

The equation for the reaction between zinc and copper oxide is:

Page 61 of 87 (b) 1.30 g of zinc fully reacted with 1.59 g of copper oxide to produce 1.62 g of zinc oxide.

What mass of copper was produced?

______

Mass of copper produced = ______g (1)

Tick one box.

Aqueous

Gas

Liquid

Solid

(1)

(d) Which substance has been oxidised in the reaction?

Tick one box.

Copper

Copper oxide

Zinc

Zinc oxide

(1)

(e) What type of reaction takes place when zinc reacts with copper oxide?

Tick one box.

Combustion

Page 62 of 87 Crystallisation

Displacement

Neutralisation oxide

(1)

Copper is a metal.

(f) Which structure represents the arrangement of atoms in pure copper?

Tick one box.

(1)

(g) Copper is used in electrical wiring.

Give one reason why.

______

______(1)

(h) In the UK, 40% of the copper we use is recycled copper.

The other 60% is copper obtained by mining.

What is the simplest ratio of recycled copper to copper obtained by mining?

Tick one box.

Page 63 of 87 2 : 3

2 : 5

4 : 10

6 : 4

(1)

(i) What are two advantages of recycling copper?

Tick two boxes.

Conserves copper ores

Increase in greenhouse gases

Less energy used

More jobs for miners

More space used at landfill

(2) (Total 10 marks)

Page 64 of 87 Mark schemes

Q1. (a) (i) solar and wind both required for mark either order 1

(ii) 37(%) accept their two sources in a(i) correctly added as an error carried forward (ecf) 1

(b) A 1

statements such as gas produces CO2 is neutral 1 [4]

Q2. (a) (i) gas 1

(ii) one variable is categoric, the other is continuous 1

(iii) fuel is not burned accept nothing is burned do not accept they don’t use fossil fuels 1

(b) (i) boiler 1

steam 1

turbine 1

generator 1

(ii) any one from:

• wind accept wind turbines

• waves

• tidal accept tide

Page 65 of 87 • geothermal

• solar accept the Sun / sunlight accept solar panels / cells do not accept light

• falling water accept hydroelectric do not accept water do not accept any named biofuel 1

(iii) 18 000 allow 1 mark for showing a correct method ie 36 000 000 ÷ 2 000 an answer of 0.018 gains 1 mark 2 [10]

Q3. (a) heat / thermal or / and sound do not accept noise other forms of energy eg light negates answer 1

(b) 0.4 or 40 %

allow 1 mark for or equivalent fraction an answer 0.4 % gains 1 mark answers 0.4 or 40 given with any unit gains 1 mark 40 without % gains 1 mark 2 [3]

Q4. (a) kinetic 1

(b) (i) generates a lot more energy / electricity / power need fewer conventional large-scale hydroelectric power stations is neutral

Page 66 of 87 can supply (energy / electricity / power) to more homes 1

(ii) Large areas of land are flooded. 1

(ii) less energy / heat loss (from the cables) accept wasted for loss accept answers in terms of fewer transformers needed do not accept less electricity lost / wasted do not accept no energy lost 1

(d) any one from:

• fewer rivers (suitable for generators)

• less mountainous (so rivers fall smaller distances) accept answers in terms of difficulty linking villages and towns to grid (in Nepal) accept answers in terms of more isolated communities accept answers in terms of UK having more resources for large-scale power stations 1 [6]

Q5. (a) (i) 0.6 or 60%

allow 1 mark for correct substitution ie provided no subsequent step shown an answer of 0.6 / 60 with a unit gains 1 mark only an answer of 60 gains 1 mark only 2

(ii) heat allow thermal 1

(b) 12 000 p or £120 to score both marks the unit must be consistent with the numerical answer answers 12 000 and 120 gain 1 mark only allow 1 mark for correct substitution ie 800 × 15 or 800 × 0.15

Page 67 of 87 provided no subsequent step shown 2 [5]

Q6. (a) gas (burning) 1

(b) (i) (transmission) cables and (step-up and step-down) transformers if transformers are named ie step-up transformer then both step-up and step-down must be given mention of power station or consumer negates mark 1

(ii) voltage 1

more efficient 1

Q7. (a) (i) water 1

heated accept boiled or turned to steam do not accept evaporated 1

generator 1

(ii) geothermal power stations provide a reliable source of electricity 1

(b) falling water 1 [5]

Q8. (a) fan 1

drill 1

washing machine four circled including correct three scores 1 mark five circled scores zero 1

Page 68 of 87 (b) Appliances only transfer part of the energy usefully 1

The energy transferred by appliances makes the surroundings warmer 1 [5]

Q9. (a) (i) any one from:

• produces no (air / atmospheric) pollution

accept named pollutant eg CO2 accept no harmful gases accept produces no emissions accept does not add to global warming environmentally friendly is insufficient

• energy (source) is free accept no fuel costs accept the wind / it is free 1

(ii) any one from:

• waves

• tides

• falling water accept hydroelectric do not accept water (flow)

• solar accept Sun / sunlight accept solar panels / cells

• geothermal

• biofuel / biomass accept a named biofuel 1

(b) (i) 3000 (kilowatts) accept 3 megawatts / MW accept 3 000 000 watts / W 1

(ii) (average) wind speed below 6 m/s answers giving a wind speed greater than 3 but less than 6 m/s gain both marks allow 1 mark for calculating the output as 500 kW (maximum)

Page 69 of 87 and allow 1 mark for wind speed too low or wind not strong enough do not accept wind above 25 m/s do not accept the turbines are frozen 2

(iii) A small amount of nuclear fuel generates a large amount of electricity. both required

Nuclear power stations do not depend on the weather to generate electricity. 1 [6]

Q10. (a) (i) correct data point identified (4, 0.96) 1

(ii) a decrease in 1

(b) (i) no / less atmospheric pollution

accept specific examples eg no CO2 / greenhouse gases produced accept no harmful gases / fumes accept reduced pollution from transportation (of coal) accept does not contribute to global warming it / they refers to solar cells do not accept no / less pollution does not harm the environment is insufficient it is a renewable energy source is insufficient 1

(ii) 8

allow 1 mark for showing correct method ie provided that no subsequent step is shown 2

(iii) increase 1

(iv) these marks can score even if (b)(iii) is wrong

less / no electricity generated accept energy for electricity accept reduced power / voltage output 1

(because) lower light intensity (hitting solar panel / cell) or so decreases money paid / gained (from selling electricity) allow less light / sun (hitting solar panel / cell)

Page 70 of 87 1 [8]

Q11. (a) light correct order only 1

electrical 1

(b) 0.2 or 1/5 accept 20% for both marks

allow 1 mark for correct substitution ie answers of 0.2% or 20 gain 1 mark only 2

• produces no (pollutant) gases or no greenhouse gases accept named gas accept no air pollution do not accept no pollution accept less global warming accept harmful for pollutant accept produces no carbon do not accept environmentally friendly

• produces no / less noise

• less demand for fuels accept any other sensible environmental advantage 1 [5]

Q12. (a) (i) an unreliable energy source 1

(ii) a renewable energy source 1

(b) plant / grow (at least) one new tree 1

Page 71 of 87 Q13. (a) iron 1

hairdryer 1

kettle 1 answers can be in any order

(b) (i) Y 1

(ii) bar drawn with any height greater than Y ignore width of bar 1

(so) more energy transferred do not accept electricity for energy 1

(and) this costs more money ignore reference to cost of water wasting more money because heating more water than needed is insufficient 1 [8]

Q14. (a) electrical 1

chemical 1

light 1

(b) 25% or 0.25 allow 1 mark for correct substitution, ie 50 ÷ 200 provided no subsequent step shown or answers of 25 with a unit or 0.25 with a unit gain 1 mark answers of 25 without a unit or 0.25% gain 1 mark 2

Page 72 of 87 Q15.

allow 1 mark for each correct line if more than one line goes from an energy source then all lines from that energy source are wrong [3]

Q16. (a) (i) temperature (increase) and time switched on are directly proportional accept the idea of equal increases in time giving equal increases in temperature answers such as: • as time increases, temperature increases • positive correlation • linear relationship • temperature and time are proportional score 1 mark 2

(ii) any one from: “it” refers to the metal block

• energy transfer (from the block) to the surroundings accept lost for transfer accept air for surroundings

• (some) energy used to warm the heater / thermometer (itself) accept takes time for heater to warm up

• (metal) block is not insulated 1

(iii) 15 000 allow 1 mark for correct substitution, ie 50 × 300 provided no subsequent step shown 2

(b) lead reason only scores if lead is chosen 1

needs least energy to raise temperature by 1°C accept needs less energy to heat it (by the same amount)

Page 73 of 87 lowest specific heat capacity is insufficient 1 [7]

Q17. (a) (i) changing the distance may / will affect / change the voltmeter reading accept so only one independent variable accept distance affects speed of wind (turbine) accept it is a control variable accept to give valid results fair test is insufficient to make the results accurate is insufficient 1

(ii) any sensible practical suggestions, eg

• so fan reaches a steady / full speed accept power for speed

• so wind (turbine) reaches a steady / full speed

• so voltmeter reaches / gives a steady reading accept accurate or valid reading a correct reading is insufficient do not accept precise reading 1

(iii) as the number of blades increases so does the (voltmeter) reading / output / voltage number of blades affects the reading / output is insufficient 1

further relevant detail, eg

• voltmeter increase is greatest up to 3 blades

• voltmeter reading hardly changes with 4, 5 or 6 blades accept does not change between 4 and 6 blades

• increase is directly proportional up to 3 blades

• it reaches a limit accept does not change after 4 / 5 blades

• a numerical example giving two pairs of numbers, eg 2 blades = 0.6V, 4 blades = 1V 1

(b) C reason scores only if C is chosen 1

wind speed / strength varies accept wind is not constant / reliable 1

Page 74 of 87 [6]

Q18. (a) (i) 77 1

(ii) Oil 1

(b) water

accept H2O 1

Q19. (a) chemical correct order only 1

kinetic 1

sound 1

(b) 48% or 0.48 an answer of 0.48 with a unit gains 1 mark an answer of 0.48% gains 1 mark an answer of 48 with or without a unit gains 1 mark 2 [5]

Q20. (a) (i) electrical correct order only 1

kinetic 1

sound 1

(ii) transferred into surroundings / atmosphere accept warms the surroundings allow released into the environment becomes heat or sound is insufficient 1

(b) 0.7 / 70 % an answer of 70 without % or with the wrong unit or 0.7 with

Page 75 of 87 a unit gains 1 mark 2 [6]

Q21. (a) 20 790 (J) an answer of 21 000 (J) (2 s.f.) gains 2 marks allow 1 mark for correct substitution: ie E = 0.33 × 4200 × 15 provided no subsequent step shown 2

(b) temperature 1

(c) (top pan) balance accept scales do not accept a scale do not accept weighing scales do not accept newtonmeter do not accept spring balance 1

(d) dark / black / (dark) grey 1

convection correct order only 1

(e) (i) created accept made 1

(ii) increases 1 [8]

Q22. (a) 1 600 000 × 5 1

(=) 8 × 106 an answer of 8 × 106 scores 2 marks allow 8 000 000 1

(b) experiment 3 1

= 150 (g) an answer of 150 (g) scores 2 marks

Page 76 of 87 1

(d) answer in range 530–550 (g) 1

(e) mean mass of water absorbed in grams ∝ mass of hydrogel in grams 1

(f) Level 2: Scientifically relevant features are identified; the way(s) in which they are similar/different is made clear and (where 3-4 appropriate) the magnitude of the similarity/difference is noted.

Level 1: Relevant features are identified and 1-2 differences noted.

No relevant content 0

Indicative content advantages of fabric nappies • disposable nappies contain non- biodegradable materials • disposable nappies will remain in landfill for long periods • fabric nappies can be reused

disadvantages of fabric nappies • fabric nappies have slightly higher carbon dioxide emissions • (so) bigger impact on global warming • fabric nappies use more water than disposable nappies to make each nappy • fabric nappies use more water than disposable nappies when used (because of washing). 4 [11]

Q23. (a) gold 1

(b) atom (s) 1

Page 77 of 87 neutrons allow neutron 1

(ii) 3 / three 1

(d) (i) Al ignore any numbers / charges 1

(ii) any two from: • limited resource • expensive in terms of energy / mining • effects on the environment, such as, landfill, atmospheric pollution, quarrying allow uses a lot of energy to extract. 2

(e) resistant to corrosion 1

does not react (with water or food) allow one mark for low density with a suitable reason given 1 [10]

Q24. (a) 46 200 accept 46 000 allow 1 mark for correct substitution ie 0.5 × 4200 × 22 provided no subsequent step 2

(b) Energy is used to heat the kettle. 1 [3]

Q25. (a) geothermal 1

nuclear 1

biofuel 1

(b) gravitational (potential) 1

kinetic 1

sound 1

Page 78 of 87 (c) (i) 90% or 0.9(0) an answer of 0.9(0) with a unit gains 1 mark 2

(ii) 60 (MW) allow 10% 1

(iii) increased 1 [10]

Q26. (a) because it is a good conductor of electricity. 1

(b) (i) 2.1 (%) 1

(ii) correct bar for calcium at 3.6 % 1 allow error of +/– 0.05%

correct bar for iron at 5.0 % 1 allow error of +/– 0.05%

(ii) carbon dioxide 1

(iii) carbon = 1 allow one 1 oxygen = 3 allow three 1

(iv) 44 (g) allow forty four 1

(d) (i) to make alloys for specific uses. 1

(ii) any three from: • to conserve resources of iron or iron ore allow steel instead of iron or iron ore allow limited resource or non-renewable • to avoid the need for quarrying/mining • to conserve energy resources or fossil fuels • to limit the amount of carbon dioxide produced or to reduce global warming • to reduce the amount of landfill “it” = steel

Page 79 of 87 ignore cost and reuse and time and waste 3 [13]

Q27. (a) Carbon and hydrogen only 1

(b) Methane has the lowest boiling point and decane has the highest melting point 1

Octane is liquid over a larger temperature range than methane 1

catalyst 1

(d) Level 3 (5–6 marks): A detailed and coherent evaluation is provided that considers a range of relevant points, quotes relevant data from the table and comes to a conclusion consistent with the reasoning.

Level 2 (3–4 marks): An attempt to describe relevant points which comes to a conclusion. The logic and use of data may be inconsistent at times but builds towards a coherent argument.

Level 1 (1–2 marks): Discrete, relevant points made. The logic may be unclear and the conclusion, if present, may not be consistent with the reasoning.

0 marks: No relevant content.

Indicative content • conclusion as to which bag is more environmentally friendly

Page 80 of 87 Q28. (a) Desalination 1

Sterilising 1

(b) Chloride ion 1

- (c) correct bar for NO3 1

(d) D 1

(e) any two from: • people have the right to choose (opinion) • ethical / moral question • cannot be tested by experiment 2

(f) 1

(g) the percentage tooth decay increases with age 1

by 4 % for each increasing age group 1

(h) reduces tooth decay (for all age groups) 1

greater reduction in older people 1 [12]

Q29. (a) biofuel 1

geothermal 1

(b) it is predictable 1

(d) any two from: • visual pollution • noise pollution • dangerous to birds • may lower house prices 2

Page 81 of 87 (e) Level 2: Relevant points (reasons / causes) are identified, given in detail and logically linked to form a clear account. 3−4

Level 1: Points are identified and stated simply, but their relevance is not clear and there is no attempt at logical linking. 1−2

No relevant content 0

Indicative content

• less fossil fuel burnt • more nuclear fuel used • more renewables used • gas remained the same • less carbon dioxide released • less greenhouse gases • less global warming • less acid rain • less environmental pollution • more hazardous waste produced (nuclear) • the percentage generated by coal has decreased 8% • the percentage generated by renewables has increased by 6% • the percentage generated by nuclear has increased by 2% [10]

Q30. (a) formulation 1

(b) 1/10 1

(d) neutralisation 1

(e) carbon dioxide 1

(f) water has a boiling point of 100 °C 1

water has a melting point lower than room temperature 1

(g) CaCl2 1

(h) crushed 1

melted must be in this order

Page 82 of 87 1 [10]

Q31. (a) 2.38 if answer incorrect, allow 1 mark for 2.37 to full calculator display or for (4.82 + 2.16 + 0.15) / 3 2

(b) different types of biomass / plankton allow they are mixtures 1

(d) alkanes 1

(e) B 1

(f) B 1

(h) poly(ethene) 1

(i) (A=) reuse 1

(B=) recycle 1 [12]

Q32. (a) 870 000 × 36 1

31 320 000 (J) or 3.1 × 107 (J) allow 31 000 000 (J) or 31 300 000(J)) 1 an answer 31 320 000 (J) scores 2 marks

(b) some energy was wasted / dissipated

Page 83 of 87 allow efficiency is always less than 100% 1

(and) transferred to thermal energy 1

(d) similarity any one from: • contain same amount of aluminium • contain (very) similar amounts of silicon ignore same amount of silicon unless their answer to part (c) was 28%

• oxygen makes up the highest percentage allow both contain aluminium, iron, oxygen and silicon 1

difference any one from: • Moon rock contains more iron (than Earth rock) • Moon rock contains less oxygen (than Earth rock) • Moon rock contains less silicon (than Earth rock) allow ecf from part (c) 1 do not allow 2 marks for silicon as both similarity and difference

(e) scientists discover new evidence which the existing theory cannot explain 1

(f) gravitational potential energy = mass × gravitational field strength × height

allow Ep = mgh 1

(g) 86 000 000 = 2150 × 1.6 × h 1

(h =) 25 000 (m) 1 an answer 25 000 (m) scores 3 marks [12]

Q33.

(a) Ep = 50 × 9.8 × 4.0 1

Ep = 1960 (J) allow an answer rounded to 2000 (J)

Page 84 of 87 1 allow a maximum of 1 mark if g = 10 N/kg is used an answer of 1960 scores 2 marks

2 (b) Ek = 0.5 × 50 × 7 1

Ek = 1225 (J) allow 1200 or 1230 (J) 1 an answer of 1225 scores 2 marks

the g.p.e of the girl is not zero 1

(d) reduces the amount of friction do not accept reference to friction between the wheels and the ramp 1

so more energy is usefully transferred allow less energy is wasted or less heating 1

greater kinetic energy 1 [9]

Q34. (a) add thermal insulation to the roof 1

replace the single-glazed windows with double-glazed windows 1

(b) 110 1

(d) advantage of solar panel:

cheap(er) to run / use (1) ignore cheap / free unqualified

(as) no energy / fuel cost (1)

no carbon dioxide emissions (1) allow no greenhouse gases emitted

(so) does not contribute to global warming or climate change (1)

Page 85 of 87 allow description of effect of global warming

renewable (1)

(as) sunlight is replenished (1)

conserves nuclear / fossil fuels (1)

(as) sunlight is renewable (1)

does not burn fossil fuels (1)

(so) no carbon dioxide emissions (1) allow no greenhouse gases emitted Max 2 marks

disadvantage of solar panel:

unreliable (1) allow water not always hot enough allow it may not (always) work

(as sun)light not available (1) allow not always sunny allow as it might be cloudy / dark ignore weather ignore night unqualified ignore no sun

expensive (1)

due to high cost of manufacturing / installing solar panels (1) Max 2 marks [8]

Q35. (a) let the glow spread 1

(b) 1.27 (g) 1

(d) zinc 1

(e) displacement

Page 86 of 87 1

(f) A 1

(g) any one from: • (good electrical) conductor • can be bent easily ignore malleability

• does not corrode ignore does not rust 1 allow is ductile

(h) 2 : 3 1

(i) conserves copper ores 1

less energy used 1 [10]

Page 87 of 87 Q1. (a) In winter, energy is transferred from the warm air inside a house to the air outside.

(i) What effect will the energy transferred from the house have on the air outside?

______(1)

(ii) What would happen to the energy transfer if the temperature inside the house were reduced? Assume the temperature outside the house does not change.

______(1)

(b) To increase energy efficiency, a householder installs a heat exchanger to an outside wall of the house. The heat exchanger uses heat from the air outside to warm the inside of the house. The diagram shows the idea of the heat exchanger.

(i) Why does the heat exchanger cost money to run?

______(1)

(ii) The heat exchanger is cost effective in reducing energy consumption. Explain why.

______

______(2) (Total 5 marks)

Page 1 of 102 Q2. The diagram shows the label from a new freezer.

(a) An old freezer has an energy consumption per year of 350 kWh.

Use the equation in the box to calculate the extra cost of using the old freezer for one year compared with using a new ‘A’ rated freezer.

total cost = number of kilowatt-hours × cost per kilowatt-hour

Assume 1 kilowatt-hour (kWh) of energy costs 12 p.

Show clearly how you work out your answer.

______

Extra cost per year = £ ______(2)

(b) The price of the new freezer was reduced in a sale.

Reducing the price reduces the payback time for replacing the old freezer from 12 years to 9 years.

Calculate, in pounds, how much the new freezer was reduced in the sale.

Show clearly how you work out your answer.

______

Price reduced by = £ ______(2)

‘Replacing an old freezer with a new ‘A’ rated freezer will benefit the environment.’

Page 2 of 102 Do you agree that replacing the freezer will benefit the environment?

Answer yes or no. ______

Explain the reasons for your answer.

______

______(2) (Total 6 marks)

Q3. (a) The diagram shows the energy transformations produced by a TV.

(i) Calculate the efficiency of the TV, using the information in the diagram..

Show clearly how you work out your answer.

______

Efficiency = ______(2)

(ii) What eventually happens to the useful energy transferred by the TV?

______

______(1)

(b) Electrical appliances left on standby use energy.

The bar chart shows the power for the appliances that one family leaves on standby when they go on holiday.

Page 3 of 102

The family is on holiday for a total of 175 hours.

(i) Use the information in the bar chart and the equation in the box to calculate the energy wasted by leaving the compact stereo on standby while the family is on holiday.

energy transferred = power × time (kilowatt-hour, kWh) (kilowatt, kW) (hour, h)

Show clearly how you work out your answer.

______

Energy wasted = ______kilowatt-hours (2)

(ii) Electricity costs 12 p per kilowatt-hour.

Use the equation in the box to calculate the cost of leaving the compact stereo on standby while the family is on holiday.

total cost = number of kilowatt-hours × cost per kilowatt-hour

Show clearly how you work out your answer.

______

Cost = ______p (1)

Page 4 of 102

Explain why leaving appliances on standby damages the environment.

______

______(2) (Total 8 marks)

Q4. Aluminium has many uses because of its low density, good electrical conductivity, flexibility and resistance to corrosion.

The main steps in the extraction of aluminium are shown in the flow chart.

(a) Use the information in the flow chart to suggest the benefits of recycling aluminium.

______

Page 5 of 102 ______

______(3)

(b) Pure aluminium is rarely used for the construction of large objects. Small amounts of other metals are usually mixed with aluminium.

Explain why.

______

______(2) (Total 5 marks)

Q5. A farmer has installed a biogas electricity generator on his farm. This device generates electricity by burning the methane gas produced from rotting animal waste. Methane is a greenhouse gas. When methane burns, carbon dioxide and water are produced.

The animal waste rots in an anaerobic digester. The digester and the generator are kept inside a farm building and cannot be seen from the outside.

(a) The animal waste used in the anaerobic digester is a renewable energy source.

What is meant by an energy source being renewable?

______

______(1)

(b) Suggest one reason why farmers have been encouraged to install their own biogas generators.

______

______(1)

(c) The farmer’s monthly electricity bill using the mains electricity supply was £300. The biogas generator cost the farmer £18 000 to buy and install.

Assuming the biogas generator provides all of the farmer’s electricity, what is the pay-back time for the generator?

______

Pay-back time = ______(1)

Page 6 of 102 (d) It would have been cheaper for the farmer to have bought and installed a small wind turbine.

Give two advantages of using the biogas generator rather than a wind turbine, to generate the electricity used on the farm.

1. ______

______

2. ______

______(2) (Total 5 marks)

Q6. The bar chart shows how the UK’s electricity demands in 2007 were met.

(a) What proportion of electricity was generated using renewable energy sources?

Show clearly how you work out your answer.

______

______(2)

(b) By 2020, most of the UK’s nuclear reactors and one-third of coal-fired power stations are due to close, yet the demand for electricity is expected to increase.

Page 7 of 102 Four students, A, B, C and D, were asked how a demand of 380 billion kilowatt- hours could be met. They made the suggestions given in the table.

Bought from Student Fossil fuels Nuclear Renewable other countries

A 200 100 40 40

B 80 240 40 20

C 160 80 100 40

D 280 0 100 0

(i) Which student has made the suggestion most likely to result in the lowest carbon dioxide emissions?

______

Give a reason for your answer.

______

______(2)

(ii) Suggest one realistic way in which a householder could help to reduce the annual electricity demand.

______

______(1)

(c) To increase the amount of electricity generated using renewable energy resources would probably involve erecting many new wind turbines.

The graph shows the power curve of a wind turbine.

Page 8 of 102

(i) Describe, in detail, how the power output of the turbine varies with the wind speed.

______

______(3)

(ii) Give one disadvantage of using wind turbines to generate a high proportion of the electricity required in the UK.

______

______(1) (Total 9 marks)

Q7. The picture shows a new washing machine. When the door is closed and the machine switched on, an electric motor rotates the drum and washing.

Page 9 of 102

(a) What happens to the energy wasted by the electric motor?

______

______(1)

(b) The diagram shows the label from the new washing machine.

An ‘A’ rated washing machine is more energy efficient than a ‘C’ rated washing machine.

Explain what being more energy efficient means.

______

______(2)

Page 10 of 102 (c) The graph shows that washing clothes at a lower temperature uses less energy than washing them at a higher temperature. Using less energy will save money.

(i) Electricity costs 12 p per kilowatt-hour (kWh). The temperature setting is turned down from 40 °C to 30 °C.

Use the graph and equation in the box to calculate the money saved each wash cycle.

total cost = number of kilowatt-hours × cost per kilowatt-hour

Show clearly how you work out your answer.

______

Money saved = ______p (2)

(ii) Suggest why reducing the amount of energy used by washing machines could reduce the amount of carbon dioxide emitted into the atmosphere.

______

______(1) (Total 6 marks)

Q8. Iron is produced by reacting a mixture of haematite and coke in a blast furnace. Haematite is an ore of iron containing iron oxide (Fe2O3). Coke is made from coal and is almost pure carbon.

Page 11 of 102

(a) (i) The coke burns in air. This reaction heats the furnace to above 1300 °C.

Complete the chemical equation for carbon reacting with oxygen to form carbon dioxide.

______+ O2 → CO2 (1)

(ii) Carbon monoxide is also formed in the furnace. Carbon monoxide reacts with iron oxide to produce iron and carbon dioxide.

iron oxide + carbon monoxide → iron + carbon dioxide

Complete and balance the chemical equation for the production of iron.

Fe2O3 + 3CO → ______+ ______(2)

(iii) Iron from a blast furnace is called cast iron and contains about 4% carbon.

Why is pure iron softer than cast iron?

______

______(1)

(b) Steel is made by reducing the percentage of carbon in cast iron and then adding different metals to form the type of steel required.

In the UK we use about 1.8 billion steel cans every year but only 30% of these are recycled. Recycling reduces waste. Producing steel from recycled cans requires only 25% of the energy needed to make steel from iron ore.

Page 12 of 102 Give three environmental benefits of recycling a higher percentage of used steel cans.

1. ______

______

2. ______

______

3. ______

______(3) (Total 7 marks)

Q9. (a) An electricity company claims to generate all of its electricity from environmentally friendly energy sources.

The energy sources used by the company are shown in the pie chart.

Do you think that the claim made by the company is correct?

Draw a ring around your answer.

Yes No Maybe

Explain the reasons for your answer.

______

______(2)

(b) The government is committed to increasing the amount of electricity generated from renewable sources. A newspaper reported that:

Page 13 of 102

Why is the statement made in the newspaper incorrect?

______

______(1) (Total 3 marks)

Q10. (a) By 2023, nearly all of the existing nuclear power stations in the UK will be closed down.

(i) Before a nuclear power station can be demolished, the remaining nuclear fuel, radioactive waste materials and reactor must be carefully removed.

What is this process called?

Put a tick ( ) in the box next to your answer.

decommissioning

decontaminating

dismantling

(1)

(ii) The workers are exposed to radiation as they remove the reactor. One of the biggest risks is from the isotope cobalt-60, which has a half-life of 5.3 years.

Explain the advantage of waiting 11 years after a nuclear power station has closed down before starting to remove the reactor.

______

______(2)

Page 14 of 102 (b) It is almost certain that new nuclear power stations will be built in the UK.

The table shows the results of surveys asking people in the UK whether they were in favour of, or against, the building of new nuclear power stations.

2001 2005 2007

Percentage (%) in favour 20 41 65

Percentage (%) against 60 28 20

Percentage (%) not sure 20 31 15

(i) From these surveys, how did public opinion on the building of new nuclear power stations change between 2001 and 2007?

______

______(1)

(ii) Suggest a reason why some people may think that the results from these surveys are unreliable.

______

______(1)

(iii) Give one reason in favour of building new nuclear power stations.

______

______(1)

(c) The government of one Middle Eastern country has decided to build its first nuclear power station. The oil that would have been used to generate electricity can then be sold to other countries.

On what is this decision based?

Put a tick ( ) in the box next to your answer.

economic issues

ethical issues

Page 15 of 102 social issues

(1) (Total 7 marks)

Q11. The flow diagram shows the main stages used to extract a metal from its ore.

mining the ore → purifying the ore → extracting the metal

The table shows some information about three metals.

Metal Metal ore Purified ore % of metal % of metal in the in the ore Earth’s crust aluminium bauxite aluminium oxide, Al2O3 28.0 8.0

copper chalcocite copper sulfide, Cu2S 0.5 0.001

iron haematite iron oxide, Fe2O3 29.0 5.0

(a) Use the information in the table and your knowledge and understanding to help you to answer the questions.

(i) Suggest why purifying the copper ore produces large quantities of waste.

______

______(1)

(ii) Suggest why the annual world production of iron is forty times greater than that of aluminium.

______

______(1)

(b) Aluminium is used for drinks cans. Aluminium is extracted from its purified ore by electrolysis.

Page 16 of 102

(i) Suggest why the aluminium produced in the electrolysis cell is a liquid.

______

______(1)

(ii) In this electrolysis, aluminium and oxygen gas are produced from the aluminium oxide.

Use the information in the diagram to suggest why most of the waste gas is carbon dioxide and not oxygen.

______

______(2)

(iii) Aluminium is the most abundant metal in the Earth’s crust.

Suggest two reasons why we should recycle aluminium drinks cans.

1. ______

______

2. ______

______(2) (Total 7 marks)

Q12. (a) Geothermal energy and the energy of falling water are two resources used to generate electricity.

Page 17 of 102 (i) What is geothermal energy?

______

______(1)

(ii) Hydroelectric systems generate electricity using the energy of falling water.

A pumped storage hydroelectric system can also be used as a way of storing energy for future use.

Explain how.

______

______(2)

(b) In this question you will be assessed on using good English, organising information clearly and using specialist terms where appropriate.

Read the following extract from a newspaper.

Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of the plan to build thousands of offshore wind turbines around Britain and the suggested electricity power link between Britain and Iceland.

Page 18 of 102 ______

______

______(6) (Total 9 marks)

Q13. The diagram shows the direction of heat transfer through a single-glazed window.

(a) (i) Name the process by which heat is transferred through the glass.

______(1)

Page 19 of 102 (ii) Explain how heat is transferred through the glass.

______

______(2)

(b) The rate of heat transfer through a window depends on the difference between the inside and outside temperatures.

The graph shows the rate of heat transfer through a 1 m2 single-glazed window for a range of temperature differences.

(i) What is the range of temperature differences shown in the graph?

From ______to ______(1)

(ii) A student looks at the graph and concludes:

‘Doubling the temperature difference doubles the rate of heat transfer.’

Use data from the graph to justify the student’s conclusion.

______

Page 20 of 102 ______(2)

(iii) A house has single-glazed windows. The total area of the windows in the house is 15 m2.

On one particular day, the difference between the inside and outside temperatures is 20 °C.

Use the graph to calculate the total rate of heat transfer through all of the windows on this particular day.

Show clearly how you work out your answer.

______

Rate of heat transfer = ______J/s (2)

(c) A homeowner plans to replace the single-glazed windows in his home with double- glazed windows. He knows that double-glazed windows will reduce his annual energy bills.

The table gives information about the double glazing to be installed by the homeowner.

Cost to buy and install Estimated yearly Estimated lifetime of savings on energy the double-glazed bills windows

£5280 £160 30 years

Explain, in terms of energy savings, why replacing the single-glazed windows with these double-glazed windows is not cost effective.

To gain full marks you must complete a calculation.

______

______(2) (Total 10 marks)

Q14. A student finds some information about energy-saving light bulbs.

Page 21 of 102 (a) A 30W light bulb uses 600J of electrical energy in a certain period of time. In that time, it produces 450 J of light energy. The rest of the energy is wasted.

(i) Calculate the energy wasted by the light bulb in this period of time.

______

Wasted energy = ______J (1)

(ii) What happens to the energy wasted by the light bulb?

______

______(1)

(iii) Calculate the efficiency of this light bulb.

______

Efficiency = ______(2)

(iv) Calculate the period of time, in seconds, during which the 600 J is provided to the 30 W light bulb.

______

Time = ______s (2)

(b) A company that makes light bulbs provides information about some of their products.

The table shows some of this information.

Power in watts Lifetime in hours Cost of bulb in £

Filament bulb 60 1250 2.00

LED bulb 12 50 000 16.00

(i) Suggest why it is important to confirm this information independently.

______(1)

(ii) A homeowner is thinking about replacing his filament bulbs with LED bulbs.

Page 22 of 102 A 12 W LED bulb gives the same light output as a 60 W filament bulb.

Suggest reasons why the homeowner is likely to choose LED bulbs.

Use the information given in the table.

______

______(2)

(iii) State one factor, other than efficiency, that is important when considering the choice of a bulb for lighting in the home.

______

______(1) (Total 10 marks)

Q15. The diagram shows how one type of electric storage heater is constructed. The heater has ceramic bricks inside. The electric elements heat the ceramic bricks during the night. Later, during the daytime, the ceramic bricks transfer the stored energy to the room.

(a) (i) Complete the following sentences using words from the box.

conduction convection evaporation

Energy is transferred through the metal casing by ______

The warm air rising from the heater transfers energy to the

Page 23 of 102 room by ______(2)

(ii) The inside of the metal case is insulated.

Which one of the following gives the reason why?

Tick ( ) one box.

To transfer energy from the ceramic bricks to the room faster

To stop energy from the room transferring into the heater

To keep the ceramic bricks hot for a longer time

(1)

(b) In winter, the electricity supply to a 2.6 kW storage heater is switched on for seven hours each day.

(i) Calculate the energy transferred, in kilowatt-hours, from the electricity supply to the heater in seven hours.

Show clearly how you work out your answer.

______

Energy transferred = ______kWh (2)

(ii) The electricity supply to the heater is always switched on between midnight and 7 am. Between these hours, electricity costs 5 p per kilowatt-hour.

Calculate how much it costs to have the heater switched on between midnight and 7 am.

______

Cost = ______p (1)

(c) Between 7 am and 8 am, after the electricity supply is switched off, the temperature of the ceramic bricks falls by 25 °C.

Calculate the energy transferred from the ceramic bricks between 7 am and 8 am.

Total mass of ceramic bricks = 120 kg. Specific heat capacity of the ceramic bricks = 750 J/kg °C.

Page 24 of 102 Show clearly how you work out your answer.

______

Energy transferred = ______J (2) (Total 8 marks)

Q16. Cans for food and drinks are made from steel or aluminium. The main metal in steel is iron.

By Sun Ladder (Own work) [CC-BY-SA-3.0 or GFDL], via Wikimedia Commons

(a) Iron is extracted by heating a mixture of iron oxide and carbon in a blast furnace.

(i) Name this type of reaction.

______(1)

(ii) Balance the symbol equation for this reaction.

2Fe2O3 + ______C → ______Fe + ______CO2 (1)

Page 25 of 102 (b) Aluminium ore, bauxite, contains aluminium oxide, iron oxide and silicon dioxide. Aluminium is extracted by electrolysis of aluminium oxide.

The 'red mud' which is dumped in very large ponds contains:

Name of solid Percentage (%)

Aluminium oxide 10

Iron oxide 65

Silicon dioxide 25

(i) 100 tonnes of bauxite produced 50 tonnes of pure aluminium oxide and 50 tonnes of 'red mud'.

What percentage of aluminium oxide did the bauxite contain?

______

Answer = ______% (1)

(ii) Apart from the solids shown in the table, name one other substance that would be in the 'red mud'.

______(1)

Page 26 of 102 (iii) The purification of the aluminium oxide is usually done near to the bauxite quarries.

Suggest one reason why.

______(1)

During one year in the USA:

• 100 billion aluminium cans were sold

• 55 billion aluminium cans were recycled.

Give one environmental impact of recycling aluminium cans and one ethical or social impact of recycling aluminium cans.

Environmental ______

______

Ethical or social ______

______(2) (Total 7 marks)

Q17. The picture shows a washing machine. When the door is closed and the machine switched on, an electric motor rotates the drum and washing.

(a) Complete the following sentences.

(i) An electric motor is designed to transform electrical energy into

______energy. (1)

(ii) Some of the electrical energy supplied to the motor is wasted as

Page 27 of 102 ______energy and ______energy. (1)

(b) What happens to the energy wasted by the electric motor?

______

______(1)

(c) The graph shows that washing clothes at a lower temperature uses less energy than washing them at a higher temperature. Using less energy will save money.

Temperature setting in °C

(i) Electricity costs 15p per kilowatt-hour (kWh).

The temperature setting is turned down from 40 °C to 30 °C.

Use the graph and equation in the box to calculate the money saved each wash cycle.

total cost = number of kilowatt-hours x cost per kilowatt-hour

Show clearly how you work out your answer.

______

Money saved = ______(2)

(ii) Reducing the amount of energy used by washing machines could reduce the amount of carbon dioxide emitted into the atmosphere.

Explain why.

______

Page 28 of 102 ______

______(2) (Total 7 marks)

Q18. Heat exchangers are devices used to transfer heat from one place to another.

The diagram shows a pipe being used as a simple heat exchanger by a student in an investigation.

Heat is transferred from the hot water inside the pipe to the cold water outside the pipe.

(a) Complete the following sentence by drawing a ring around the correct word in the box.

Heat is transferred from the hot water inside the pipe

conduction.

to the cold water outside the pipe by convection.

radiation.

(1)

(b) The student wanted to find out if the efficiency of a heat exchanger depends on the material used to make the pipe. The student tested three different materials. For each material, the rate of flow of hot water through the pipe was kept the same.

The student’s results are recorded in the table.

Temperature of the cold Temperature of the cold Material water at the start in °C water after 10 minutes in °C

Copper 20 36

Glass 20 23

Plastic 20 21

Page 29 of 102 (i) The rate of flow of hot water through the pipe was one of the control variables in the investigation.

Give one other control variable in the investigation.

______(1)

(ii) Which one of the three materials made the best heat exchanger?

______

Give a reason for your answer.

______

______(2)

(c) The student finds a picture of a heat exchanger used in an industrial laundry. The heat exchanger uses hot, dirty water to heat cold, clean water.

This heat exchanger transfers heat faster than the heat exchanger the student used in the investigation.

Explain why.

______

______(2) (Total 6 marks)

Q19. Diagram 1 shows the energy transferred per second from a badly insulated house on a cold day in winter.

Page 30 of 102 Diagram 1

(a) (i) When the inside of the house is at a constant temperature, the energy transferred from the heating system to the inside of the house equals the energy transferred from the house to the outside.

Calculate, in kilowatts, the power of the heating system used to keep the inside of the house in Diagram 1 at a constant temperature.

1 kilowatt (kW) = 1 kilojoule per second (kJ/s)

______

Power of the heating system = ______kW (1)

(ii) In the winter, the heating system is switched on for a total of 7 hours each day.

Calculate, in kilowatt-hours, the energy transferred each day from the heating system to the inside of the house.

______

Energy transferred each day = ______kWh (2)

(iii) Energy costs 15 p per kilowatt-hour.

Calculate the cost of heating the house for one day.

______

Cost = ______(1)

(iv) The heating system is switched off at midnight.

Page 31 of 102 The graph shows how the temperature inside the house changes after the heating system has been switched off.

Time of day

Draw a ring around the correct answer in the box to complete the sentence.

Between midnight and 6 am the rate of energy transfer from

decreases.

the house decreases then stays constant.

increases.

Give the reason for your answer.

______

______(2)

(b) Diagram 2 shows how the walls of the house are constructed. Diagram 3 shows how the insulation of the house could be improved by filling the air gap between the two brick walls with plastic foam.

Diagram 2 Diagram 3

U-value of the wall = 0.7 U-value of the wall = 0.3

The plastic foam reduces energy transfer by convection.

Explain why.

Page 32 of 102 ______

______

______(2) (Total 8 marks)

Q20. In this question you will be assessed on using good English, organising information clearly and using specialist terms where appropriate.

The information in the box is about the properties of solids and gases.

Solids: • have a fixed shape • are difficult to compress (to squash). Gases: • will spread and fill the entire container • are easy to compress (to squash).

Use your knowledge of kinetic theory to explain the information given in the box.

You should consider: • the spacing between the particles • the movement of individual particles • the forces between the particles.

______

Extra space ______

Page 33 of 102 ______

______

______(Total 6 marks)

Q21. (a) The graph shows how the demand for electricity in the UK changes during one 24- hour period.

Time of day

Page 34 of 102 The table gives the start-up times for two types of power station.

Type of power Start-up time station

Gas A few minutes

Nuclear Several days

How would these two types of power station be used to meet the demand for electricity during this 24-hour period?

______

______(3)

(b) In this question you will be assessed on using good English, organising information clearly and using specialist terms where appropriate.

A farmer plans to generate all the electricity needed on her farm, using either a biogas generator or a small wind turbine.

The biogas generator would burn methane gas. The methane gas would come from rotting the animal waste produced on the farm. When burnt, methane produces carbon dioxide.

The biogas generator would cost £18 000 to buy and install. The wind turbine would cost £25 000 to buy and install.

The average power output from the wind turbine would be the same as the continuous output from the biogas generator.

Evaluate the advantages and disadvantages of the two methods of generating electricity.

Conclude, with a reason, which system would be better for the farmer to buy and install.

______

Page 35 of 102 ______

______

______(6) (Total 9 marks)

Q22. (a) Iceland is a country that generates nearly all of its electricity from renewable sources.

In 2013, about 80% of Iceland’s electricity was generated using hydroelectric power stations (HEP).

Describe how electricity is generated in a hydroelectric power station. Include the useful energy transfers taking place.

______

______(4)

(b) The UK produces most of its electricity from fossil fuels.

Many people in the UK leave their televisions in ‘stand by’ mode when not in use, instead of switching them off.

It is better for the environment if people switch off their televisions, instead of leaving them in ‘stand by’ mode.

Explain why.

______

Page 36 of 102 ______

______

______(3)

‘Appliances that do not automatically switch off when they are not being used should be banned.’

Suggest why scientists alone cannot make the decision to ban these appliances.

______

______(1) (Total 8 marks)

Q23. Crude oil is a mixture of hydrocarbons.

(a) The hydrocarbons in crude oil are separated into fractions by fractional distillation.

Figure 1 shows a fractional distillation column.

Figure 1

Crude oil vapour passes up the column.

Page 37 of 102 Complete the sentence.

Choose the answer from the box.

condenses dissolves freezes melts

Each fraction ______at a different level. (1)

(b) Why do the fractions separate?

Tick one box.

The fractions have different boiling points.

The fractions have different flammability.

The fractions have different melting points.

The fractions have different viscosity.

(1)

Most of the hydrocarbons in crude oil are alkanes.

Figure 2

Name the alkane.

______(1)

(d) Methane (CH4) is an alkane.

What is the general formula for alkanes?

Page 38 of 102 Tick one box.

CnHn

CnH2n

CnH2n−2

CnH2n+2

(1)

(e) Alkanes burn in oxygen.

Balance the equation for methane burning.

______CH4 + ______O2 ⟶ ______CO2 + ______H2O (1)

(f) Ethene is an alkene.

Which reagent is used to test for alkenes?

Tick one box.

Anhydrous copper sulfate

Bromine water

Damp litmus paper

Limewater

(1)

The table below shows data from a life cycle assessment (LCA) for the disposal of 10 000 biodegradable plastic bags.

Burning and using the energy to generate Landfill electricity

Mass of carbon dioxide 25 15 produced in kg

Mass of solid residue in kg 0.050 0.070

Mass of sulfur dioxide 0.20 0.30

Page 39 of 102 produced in kg

(g) Why are life cycle assessments (LCA) done?

______

______(1)

(h) Compare the two methods for the disposal of biodegradable plastic bags.

Use information from the table above.

______

______(4) (Total 11 marks)

Q24. Electricity can be generated using various energy sources.

(a) Give one advantage and one disadvantage of using nuclear power stations rather than gas-fired power stations to generate electricity.

Advantage ______

______

Disadvantage ______

______(2)

(b) (i) A single wind turbine has a maximum power output of 2 000 000 W.

The wind turbine operated continuously at maximum power for 6 hours.

Calculate the energy output in kilowatt-hours of the wind turbine.

Page 40 of 102 ______

______

Energy output = ______kWh (2)

(ii) Why, on average, do wind turbines operate at maximum power output for only 30% of the time?

______

______(1)

They are connected to the National Grid using underground power cables.

Give one advantage of using underground power cables rather than overhead power cables.

______

______(1) (Total 6 marks)

Q25. A householder monitored how the air temperature inside his house changed over a 2-hour period. The householder measured the temperature every 15 minutes.

THe graph shows how the temperature changed with time.

(a) (i) The householder used a digital thermometer to measure the temperature.

What would be an appropriate resolution for the digital thermometer?

Page 41 of 102 Draw a ring around your answer.

0.5 °C 1 °C 5 °C

(1)

(ii) The householder’s results are shown on the graph above.

Why would it not be appropriate to use the results to plot a bar chart?

______

______(1)

(b) The householder’s heating is controlled by a thermostat. The thermostat switches the heating on when the temperature decreases below a certain temperature.

(i) At what temperature does the thermostat switch the heating on?

______°C (1)

(ii) Use the graph to determine the number of minutes that the householder’s heating was switched on between 07:00 and 09:00.

______

Time = ______minutes (1)

. . . decreasing the temperature setting on your thermostat by 1 °C will reduce your heating bill by 10% . . .

On Monday, the householder set his thermostat at 20.0 °C and recorded the energy, in kWh, used to heat his house.

On Tuesday, the householder set his thermostat at 19.0 °C and recorded the energy, in kWh, used to heat his house.

The table shows the results of the householder’s investigation.

Thermostat setting in °C Energy in kWh

20.0 8.0

19.0 7.2

Page 42 of 102 (i) The outside temperature was the same on both days.

Give one reason why this was important.

______

______(1)

(ii) Explain how the results shown in the table above support the extract from the newspaper article.

Justify your answer with a calculation.

______

______(2)

(iii) The statement in the extract is not valid for all situations. Suggest why.

______

______(2) (Total 9 marks)

Q26. (a) In this question you will be assessed on using good English, organising information clearly and using specialist terms where appropriate.

A householder wants to reduce her energy bills. She collected information about a number of ways of reducing energy used. The information is shown in the table.

Ways of reducing Cost to buy and Money saved energy used install in £ per year in £

Install an 2 000 320 energy-efficient boiler

Insulate the loft 400 200

Install double-glazed 12 000 120 windows

Install cavity wall 415 145

Page 43 of 102 insulation

Use the information in the table to compare the different ways of reducing the energy used. Your answer should include some calculations.

______

______(6)

(b) Increasing the amount of insulation in a house affects the total U-value of the house.

(i) What is meant by the term ‘U-value’?

______

______(1)

(ii) How is the U-value affected by increasing the amount of insulation?

______(1) (Total 8 marks)

Q27. Figure 1 shows a battery operated remote control car.

Figure 1

Page 44 of 102

(a) The car’s battery contains a store of energy.

As the car moves, energy from one store is transferred to another store.

Describe how different stores of energy change as the car moves.

______

______(2)

(b) The car has a top speed of 12 m / s and a mass of 800 g.

Write down the equation that links kinetic energy, mass and speed.

Equation ______(1)

______

Maximum kinetic energy = ______J (2)

(d) Explain why having a more efficient motor increases the top speed of the car.

______

Page 45 of 102 ______

______(2)

(e) Figure 2 shows an electric car being charged.

Figure 2

By Alan Trotter Electric Car Charging [CC-BY-2.0]via Flickr

A driver wishes to buy a new car.

The table below gives some data about an electric car and one with a petrol engine.

Electric car Petrol engine car

Cost (£) 27 000 15 000

Running cost per year (£) 250 2 000

Average lifetime (years) 12 12

Which car would be the most economic over its 12 year lifetime?

Use data from the table above to support your answer.

You should include the difference in cost in your answer.

______

Page 46 of 102 ______

______

______(4) (Total 11 marks)

Q28. The image shows a solar thermal power station.

Energy from the Sun is directed at the solar receiver by many mirrors. @

(a) (i) Suggest one reason why a solar thermal power station is built in a hot desert.

______

______(1)

(ii) Complete the following sentence to describe how the mirrors direct energy from the Sun towards the solar receiver.

Page 47 of 102 Energy from the Sun is ______by the mirrors

towards the solar receiver. (1)

(iii) Heated water is used to generate electricity in the solar thermal power station. Choose the correct answer from the box to complete each sentence.

boiler motor transformer turbine

At the solar receiver, water is heated in a ______

which turns the water into steam. The steam turns a

______which is connected to a water into steam. The

steam turns a ______which is connected to a generator.

The generator produces electricity. A ______is used

to change the voltage for transmission along power lines. (3)

(b) A solar storage power station is a new type of solar power station. It is able to store energy from the Sun to generate electricity at night.

The solar storage power station can supply a town with a maximum electrical power of 140 000 kW for 15 hours.

Calculate the maximum energy, in kWh, stored by the solar storage power station.

______

Energy = ______kWh (2)

(c) A different method of generating electricity uses wind turbines. A student researching a wind farm wrote the following.

Top Hill Wind Farm has 25 wind turbines. Last week, one of the wind turbines generated electricity for only 42 hours out of a possible 168 hours. My conclusion is that all wind turbines operate for only 25% of the time.

(i) Give two reasons why the student is not correct in reaching his conclusion.

1. ______

______

Page 48 of 102 2. ______

______(2)

(ii) Give one reason why wind turbines do not generate electricity all the time.

______

______(1)

(iii) Give one advantage of using wind turbines to generate electricity compared with using fossil fuel power stations.

______

______(1) (Total 11 marks)

Q29.

(a) The hydrocarbon C16H34 can be cracked.

Balance the equation for cracking C16H34

C16H34 → ______C2H4 + C8H18 (1)

(b) Describe the differences between cracking and distillation.

______

______(2)

Tick one box.

Combustion

Decomposition

Neutralisation

Page 49 of 102 Precipitation

(1)

(d) Ethene is used to make poly(ethene).

Poly(ethene) is used to make plastic bags.

the table below shows data from a Life Cycle Assessment (LCA) for a plastic bag and a paper bag.

Plastic bag Paper bag

Raw materials Crude oil or natural gas Wood

Energy used in MJ 1.5 1.7

Mass of solid waste in g 14 50

Mass of CO2 produced in kg 0.23 0.53

Volume of fresh water used in 255 4 520 dm3

A company stated: ‘A Life Cycle Assessment shows that using plastic bags has less environmental impact than using paper bags’.

Evaluate this statement. Use your knowledge and the information from above the table above.

______

______(6) (Total 10 marks)

Q30. This question is about copper and its compounds.

Page 50 of 102 (a) The table shows information about bioleaching and phytomining.

Bioleaching and phytomining are used to extract copper from low grade ores.

Bioleaching Phytomining

Metal Contaminated extracted Waste from quarrying ground from

Slow, made Speed of more efficient Very slow process using quick- growing plants

Produces a solution of toxic chemicals which Involves may run off into rivers combustion of Pollution plants but Takes a long time to decontaminates stop the process if river polluted ground pollution occurs

Compare phytomining and bioleaching.

Use the information in the table.

______

______(4)

(b) Describe how copper sulfate solution is obtained from the plants used in phytomining.

______

______(2)

Page 51 of 102 Write a balanced symbol equation for this reaction.

______(2)

(d) How does this displacement reaction take place?

Tick one box.

Electron sharing

Electron transfer

Proton transfer

(1)

(e) Describe how copper conducts electricity.

______

______(2)

(f) Suggest how anhydrous copper sulfate is used to test for water.

______

______(2) (Total 13 marks)

Q31. The diagram shows the flow of water through a hydroelectric power station.

Page 52 of 102

The falling water turns the turbines.

The movement of the turbines causes the electrical generators to generate electricity.

(a) Write the equation which links kinetic energy, mass and speed.

______(1)

(b) In 1 minute, a mass of 9 000 kg of water flows through the turbines.

The speed of the water is 30 m/s

Calculate the total kinetic energy of the water passing through the turbines in 1 minute.

Give your answer in kilojoules (kJ).

______

Kinetic energy = ______kJ (3)

______

______(1)

(d) The efficiency of the turbines and generators is 80%

Page 53 of 102 Calculate the useful output energy transfer from the hydroelectric power station in 1 minute.

Use your answer to part (b).

______

Useful output energy transfer = ______kJ (3)

(e) A small group of people live in an area in the mountains.

The people plan to buy an electricity generating system that uses either the wind or the flowing water in a nearby river. • The wind turbine costs £50 000 to buy and install. • The hydroelectric generator costs £20 000 to buy and install. • The average power output from the wind turbine is 10 kW • The hydroelectric generator will produce a constant power output of 8 kW

Compare the advantages and disadvantages of the two methods of generating electricity.

Use your knowledge of energy resources and information given.

______

______(4) (Total 12 marks)

Page 54 of 102 Q32. Supermarket carrier bags can be made from poly(ethene).

(a) Poly(ethene) is produced from ethene.

The structure of ethene is:

Complete the structure of poly(ethene).

(2)

There are two types of poly(ethene): HD poly(ethene) and LD poly(ethene).

(b) Figure 1 shows the polymer chains in HD poly(ethene) and LD poly(ethene).

Figure 1

Describe the differences in the structure and arrangement of the polymer chains in the two types of poly(ethene).

Page 55 of 102 ______

______

______(2)

A student investigated how poly(ethene) extends when a force is applied.

______

______(4)

Figure 2 shows the results for HD poly(ethene) and LD poly(ethene).

Figure 2

Page 56 of 102 (d) Give two comparisons between the results for HD poly(ethene) and for LD poly(ethene).

Use Figure 2.

1. ______

______

2. ______

______(2)

(e) Carrier bags in supermarkets used to be provided free. Supermarkets now make customers pay for carrier bags.

When they were free, 8.0 billion new carrier bags were used each year.

After supermarkets started making customers pay for carrier bags, the use of new bags dropped by 85%.

Calculate how many carrier bags are now used each year.

______

Number of bags = ______(2)

(f) There are two types of carrier bag in common use:

• disposable bags • bags for life.

Bags for life can be returned to the supermarket when no longer usable.

The supermarket replaces the bag for life free of charge and arranges for the bag to be recycled.

The table below shows data from a life cycle assessment (LCA) for the two types of carrier bag.

Disposable bag Bag for life

Type of polymer HD poly(ethene) LD poly(ethene)

Raw material from Crude oil Crude oil which polymer is made

Mass of waste material per bag from 0.42 0.17 production in grams

Mass of carbon dioxide 1.6 6.9

Page 57 of 102 emitted per bag during production and transport in grams

Mean number of times 1 6 used

Landfill Landfill Possible disposal Incineration Incineration methods Recycling Recycling

Evaluate the use of each type of carrier bag.

Use data from the table above and your own knowledge.

______

______(6) (Total 18 marks)

Q33. This question is about the Earth’s atmosphere.

(a) Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas.

Page 58 of 102 What is another greenhouse gas?

Tick one box.

Argon

Methane

Nitrogen

Oxygen

(1)

(b) Greenhouse gases cause global climate change.

Give two effects of global climate change.

1. ______

______

2. ______

______(2)

Calculate the carbon footprint of one plastic bottle of mass 23.5 g

______

Carbon footprint = ______kg of carbon dioxide (2)

(d) Give one way that carbon dioxide emissions can be reduced when a plastic bottle is manufactured.

______

______(1)

(e) Explain how the percentages of nitrogen, oxygen and carbon dioxide in the Earth’s atmosphere today have changed from the Earth’s early atmosphere.

Page 59 of 102 ______

______

______(6) (Total 12 marks)

Q34. An energy input of 1.3 × 1018 J is supplied each year by power stations to the National Grid.

Not all of this energy is supplied to consumers. Some of the energy is wasted in the distribution process.

(a) Write the equation which links efficiency, total input energy transfer and useful output energy transfer.

______

______(1)

(b) The energy supplied each year to consumers is 1.2 × 1018 J

Calculate the efficiency of the distribution process.

______

Page 60 of 102 Efficiency = ______(2)

Tick one box.

At a high potential difference and a high current

At a high potential difference and a low current

At a low potential difference and a high current

At a low potential difference and a low current

(1)

(d) Write the equation which links energy transferred, power and time.

______

______(1)

(e) A wind turbine supplies a power output of 8000 kW for 1200 seconds.

Calculate the energy transferred by the wind turbine in kJ

______

Energy transferred = ______kJ (3)

(f) Describe the environmental advantages and disadvantages of using wind turbines to generate electricity in the UK.

______

Page 61 of 102 ______

______

______(4) (Total 12 marks)

Q35. Copper is a widely used metal. The main ore of copper contains copper sulfide. Copper can be extracted from copper sulfide in a three stage process.

Cu2S + ____O2 → _____CuO + SO2 (1)

(ii) Explain why there would be an environmental problem if the gas from this reaction were allowed to escape into the atmosphere.

______

______(2)

(b) In the second stage copper oxide, CuO, is reduced using carbon.

Describe and explain what happens during this reaction.

______

______(2)

Page 62 of 102

(i) What is the name of the type of process used for this purification?

______(1)

(ii) Give one use of purified copper.

______(1)

(d) Copper-rich ores are running out.

New ways of extracting copper from low grade ores are being researched.

Recycling of copper may be better than extracting copper from its ores.

Explain why.

______

______(3) (Total 10 marks)

Page 63 of 102 Mark schemes

Q1. (a) (i) makes it warmer / raises the temperature accept produces convection (current) accept makes it less dense 1

(ii) reduced or slows down 1

(b) (i) electrical energy (to run the pump) must be paid for accept electricity for electrical energy accept electricity is needed for the pump accept it uses electricity accept because of the pump 1

(ii) more useful (heat) energy is transferred into the house than the energy used to operate the pump

or reduced cost of heating the house is greater than the cost of running the (electrical) pump

or costs little to run compared to the savings made accept for 1 mark reduces energy bills or reduced fuel costs / heating costs owtte do not accept it’s cheap 2 [5]

Q2. (a) £15 allow 1 mark for use of 125 (kWh) allow 1 mark for an answer 1500 allow both marks for 1500 pence / p allow 1 mark for correct calculation of annual cost for either freezer (£27 and £42) 2

(b) £45

or their (a) × 3 allow 1 mark for correct use of 3 allow 1 mark for 12 – 9 = 3 2

Page 64 of 102 yes plus explanation

• less electricity / energy needed / used accept less energy wasted

• less (fossil) fuels burned accept a named fossil fuel do not accept conserving (fossil) fuels

• less polluting gases emitted accept a named polluting gas / greenhouse gases / carbon emissions / reduce global warming accept an answer in terms of nuclear fuel eg less nuclear fuel required (1) less nuclear waste (1) 2

or no plus explanation

• old freezer must be disposed of

• hazardous chemicals inside freezer accept CFC gases

• (lot of) energy used in producing new freezer [6]

Q3. (a) (i) 0.6 accept 60 % allow 1 mark for useful energy = 480 answer 0.6 with any unit or 60 gains 1 mark only 2

(ii) transferred to surroundings accept goes into the air accept heats the surroundings up accept gets spread out accept transferred into heat (only) do not accept wasted / lost unless qualified destroyed negates mark transferred into light / sound negates mark 1

(b) (i) 1.75 allow 1 mark for converting to kW answers of 0.7, 0.525, 0.35, 0.875, 1.05, 5.25 gains 1 mark answers of 1750 or 17.5 gains 1 mark 2

(ii) 21p or £0.21 or their (b)(i) × 12 1

Page 65 of 102 • (more) electricity needs to be generated (more) electricity is being used

• (more) power stations needed

• (more) fossil fuels burnt accept named fossil fuel

• (more) pollutant gases emitted accept named gas accept harmful for pollutant accept greenhouse gases accept atmospheric pollution accept answer in terms of any form of electricity generation and an associated environmental problem 2 [8]

Q4. (a) any three from:

• resources / aluminium / ores are conserved accept converse argument

• less / no mining or less associated environmental problems eg quarrying / eyesore / dust / traffic / noise / loss of land / habitat ignore just pollution

• less / no waste (rock) / landfill do not accept ‘wastes 50% of the ore’

• no purification / separation (of aluminium oxide)

• (aluminium extraction / production) has high energy / electricity / heat / temperature requirements

• less carbon dioxide produced accept no carbon dioxide produced ignore references to cost 3

(b) statement ignore density 1

linked reason eg (pure) Al / it is weak / soft (1) as layers / rows can slide (over each other) (1) or alloy / other metals / they make it stronger / harder (1) stops layers / rows sliding over each other (1) accept disrupts the structure owtte if no other mark awarded

Page 66 of 102 accept to form an alloy or to change properties for 1 mark 1 [5]

Q5. (a) can be replaced as fast / faster than it is used accept will not run out can be used again negates this mark 1

(b) any one from:

• reduce demand on power stations / National Grid (system)

• to increase the amount of electricity generated (from renewable energy)

• to conserve fossil fuels accept use less fossil fuels

• plenty of animal waste / fuel (available) accept so animal waste can be used usefully accept to save money / sell the electricity

produces less harmful gases / SO2 is insufficient better for environment is insufficient 1

(d)answers must be in terms of the biogas generator

any two from:

• reliable energy source or does not depend on the weather accept works all of the time

• uses up waste products accept animal waste readily available

• not visually polluting

• concentrated energy source

• quieter ignore it is renewable do not accept generates more electricity (than wind turbine) 2 [5]

Q6. (a) 1/25 or 1:25 or 0.04

Page 67 of 102 accept 4 % or or 1 in 25 for both marks

allow 1 mark for total of 375 allow 1 mark for a clearly correct method using a clearly incorrect total do not accept 1:26 2

(b) (i) B do not credit reason if B is not chosen 1

(only) burning fossil fuels produces carbon dioxide / carbon (emissions) or nuclear fuels don’t produce carbon dioxide insufficient – smallest amount of fossil fuels accept less carbon dioxide 1

(ii) accept anything reasonable eg

increased level of insulation

use energy efficient light bulbs

do not leave appliances on standby

switch thermostats down (1°C)

generate own electricity

install solar panels accept insulate accept specific examples eg loft 1

• no power output until wind speed exceeds 4m/s

• output rises rapidly after 4m/s

• output begins to level out / rises less rapidly at / after 13m/s

• output peaks at 21 / 22m/s

• output constant between 21 / 22 and 25 / 26 m/s

• output falls (rapidly) after 25 / 26m/s accept for 1 mark goes up then comes down 3

(ii) any one from:

Page 68 of 102 • unreliable energy source

• dilute energy source

• take up too much land accept wind does not always blow accept need thousands / lots of turbines ignore reference to visual / noise pollution ignore reference to kill birds 1 [9]

Q7. (a) transferred to surroundings / surrounding molecules / atmosphere ‘it escapes’ is insufficient or becomes dissipated / spread out accept warms the surroundings accept degraded / diluted accept a correct description for surroundings eg to the washing machine do not accept transformed into heat on its own 1

(b) a smaller proportion / percentage of the energy supplied is wasted owtte accept a statement such as ‘less energy is wasted’ for 1 mark do not accept costs less to run ignore references to uses less energy 2

(c) (i) 2.4 (p) accept 2 p if it is clear from the working out this is rounded from 2.4 p allow 1 mark for correct substitution of correct values ie 0.2 × 12 allow 1 mark for calculating cost at 40 °C (13.2 p) or cost at 30 °C (10.8 p) 2

(ii) any one from:

• less electricity needed ignore answers in terms of the washing machine releasing less energy

an answer in terms of the washing machine releasing CO2 negates the mark do not accept less energy is produced

• fewer power stations needed

Page 69 of 102 • less fuel is burned accept a correctly named fuel do not accept less fuel is needed 1 [6]

Q8. (a) (i) C must be correct symbol do not accept carbon any balancing must be correct 1

(ii) Fe + CO2 correct formulae 1

2... . + 3... . correct balancing

allow Fe2 + 3CO2 for this mark 1

(iii) layers / atoms in pure iron are able to slide over each other it = pure iron accept ions for atoms ignore molecules / particles

layers / atoms in cast iron are unable to slide over each other (easily) 1

(b) any three from: mention of ozone = max 2

• less iron ore used accept the idea that ores would be conserved but not unspecified conservation

• less other metals extracted / used to make different steels accept the idea that ores would be conserved but not unspecified conservation

• less fuel used accept the idea that fuels would be conserved ignore reduces energy requirements

• less specified pollution

accept global warming / greenhouse effect / CO2 / CO / carbon emissions / acid rain / SO2 / global dimming / do not accept ozone layer

• less / no landfill space needed

Page 70 of 102 ignore reduces waste

• less / no mining needed or fewer specified effects of mining accept effect such as eyesore / loss of habitat eg ‘less mining iron ore’ = 2 marks 3 [7]

Q9. (a) marks are awarded only for the reason but must match the ringed answer for both marks a MAYBE answer should include a YES and NO response answers in terms of the sources being renewable or non-renewable are insufficient

any two from:

YES answers may include:

• wind produces no pollutant gases accept wind burns no fuel

accept CO2 / SO2 / oxides of nitrogen / greenhouse gas for pollutant gases

• nuclear produces no pollutant gases accept nuclear burns no fuel

• (burning) gas does not produce SO2 accept gas does not cause acid rain do not accept they don’t / none produce pollutant gases

NO answers may include:

• nuclear produces radioactive waste

• (burning) gas produces CO2 / pollutant gases / air pollution accept contributes to global warming / greenhouse effect 2

(b) nuclear power stations use a non-renewable fuel accept uranium / plutonium is non-renewable do not accept some are unrenewable 1 [3]

Q10. (a) (i) decommissioning 1

(ii) level of radiation or radiation dose (to workers) decreased accept the isotope / cobalt(-60) has decayed (a lot) accept the isotope / cobalt(-60) has decayed in 2 half lives

Page 71 of 102 accept exposed to less radiation do not accept no radiation left 1

less hazardous / dangerous (to workers' health) accept safer do not accept there is no hazard accept allows reactor to cool (down) an answer of radiation levels decrease by 75 % or drops to 25 % gains 2 marks 1

(b) (i) more in favour or fewer against quoting figures alone is insufficient do not accept it increases ignore any reasons given 1

(ii) any one from:

• sample too small

• do not know how many (people) were asked

• different people asked (in different years)

• sample not representative (of population)

• people did not understand the questions

• do not know who carried out the surveys do not accept they are biased unless acceptable reason for bias given

• do not know if surveys asked same questions 1

(iii) any one from:

• no / less pollutant gases produced accept a named gas accept does not contribute to global warming

• reliable source (of energy / electricity)

• running out of fossil fuels accept a named fossil fuel

• conserve fossil fuels accept fossil fuels won’t have to be used

• meet increasing demand

• less reliance on imported fossil fuels / electricity

Page 72 of 102 accept named fossil fuel

• concentrated energy source(s)

• lower transportation costs for fuel

• to replace old nuclear power stations ignore references to efficiency / job creation / local economy / selling electricity 1

Q11. (a) (i) low percentage / very little of metal (in the ore) accept only 0.5% metal in the ore or over 99% waste in the ore or nearly 100% waste in the ore ignore reference to percentage of metal in the Earth's crust or energy used or pollution 1

(ii) any one from (it = iron)

• iron uses less energy / fuel for extraction ignore electrolysis / uses electricity / reactivity

• iron has more uses

• more demand for iron ignore high abundance in the Earth’s crust / high percentage of metal in ore

• iron is stronger ignore harder

• cheaper / costs less

• easier to extract 1

(b) (i) has melting point lower than 950°C (it = aluminium) allow has a low melting point ignore boiling point 1

(ii) electrode(s) made of carbon 1

oxygen reacts with electrode(s) / carbon

accept C + O2 (→ CO2) NB oxygen reacts with the carbon electrode(s) = 2 marks

Page 73 of 102 1

(iii) any two from:

• saves resources / non-renewable accept aluminium / ore will run out or conserves aluminium

• landfill problem accept aluminium does not corrode

• saves energy / fuel / electricity ignore global warming

• less carbon dioxide / carbon emissions or reduces carbon footprint ignore consequences of quarrying / mining

• less quarrying / mining ignore pollution / harms environment / costs / easy to recycle 2 [7]

Q12. (a) (i) energy from hot rocks in the Earth accept heat that occurs naturally in the Earth accept steam / hot water rising to the Earth’s surface accept an answer in terms of the energy released by radioactive decay in the Earth heat energy is insufficient 1

(ii) water is pumped / moved 1

up (to a higher reservoir) this mark point only scores if first mark point is awarded 1

0 marks No relevant content

Level 1 (1-2 marks) There is a brief description of at least one advantage or disadvantage for either the planned wind turbines or the suggested electricity power link.

Level 2 (3-4 marks) There is a description of advantages and disadvantages for either the planned wind turbines or the suggested electricity power link. or A description of the advantages or disadvantages for both the planned wind turbines and the suggested electricity power link.

Page 74 of 102 Level 3 (5-6 marks) There is a clear and detailed description of at least one advantage and one disadvantage for both the planned wind turbines and suggested electricity power link. examples of the points made in the response

Offshore wind turbines advantages

• renewable (energy resource)

• low running costs

• energy is free

• no gas emissions (when in use)

accept a named gas eg CO2 accept no fuel is burned accept less dependent on fossil fuels

• land is not used (up) disadvantages

• unreliable – accept wind does not always blow ignore references to destroying or harming habitats

• hazard to birds / bats

• visual pollution – do not accept noise pollution do not allow if clearly referring to onshore wind turbines do not accept spoils landscape

• difficulty of linking turbines to the National Grid

• large initial cost

• difficult to erect / maintain accept a lot of maintenance needed

• CO2 emissions in manufacture (of large number of turbines)