M-Cl-09(Bt) 1 P.T.O

Home , DNA polymerase II, DNA polymerase IV

M. TECH. BIOTECHNOLOGY

1. The following is the recognition sequence of which restriction endonuclease ?  G — G — A — T — C — C C — C — T — A — G — G 

(A) EcoR1 (B) Bam H1 (C) Pst1 (D) Sau2 A1

2. Two-dimensional polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis (2D-PAGE) is an effective method to separate which molecule in a population ? (A) DNA (B) RNA (C) Proteins (D) Carbohydrates

3. To convert mRNA to double stranded DNA, which of the following enzymes is used ? (A) DNA Polymerase I (B) RNA polymerase (C) Invertase (D) Reverse transcriptase

4. Which type of restriction endonucleases bind to and cut within a specific DNA sequence ? (A) Type I (B) Type II (C) Type III (D) All of these

5. A genomic library is the collection of which fragments each cloned into a vector that, that represents the entire genome ? (A) Proteins (B) Lipids (C) DNA (D) RNA M-CL-09(BT) 1 P.T.O. 6. Antibodies (immunoglobulins) are glycoproteins, that are activated by a specific antigen are synthesized by :

(A) T-lymphocytes (B) B-lymphocytes

7. Which of the following is not a blood type ?

(A) A (B) B

8. Which of the following diseases is caused by Agrobacterium tumefaciens ?

(A) Crown gall (B) Hairy roots

9. T-DNA region of transforming Ti plasmids contain genes for biosynthesis of :

(A) Lipids (B) Phytochrome-C

10. Which of the following is an example of type of cytokinin used in plant micro- propagation ?

(A) 2, 4-D (B) NAA

11. The plant tissue culture technique used for production of haploid plants is :

(A) Ovary culture (B) Shoot tip culture

M-CL-09(BT) 2 12. Which of the following transformation methods is preferred for producing transgenic mice ?

(A) Biolistics (B) Agrobacterium mediated

13. Members of which genus are the most predominant group of soil microorganisms that degrade xenobiotic compounds ?

(A) Pseudomonas (B) Saccharomyces

14. Starch is the major food reserve polysaccharide in :

(A) Animals (B) Fungi

15. Which of the following is a photosynthetic microorganism ?

(A) E.coli (B) B. subtilis

16. In a fermenter, in which phase of cell growth, cells adopt to new environmental conditions ?

(A) Lag phase (B) Log phase

17. In which type of fermentation process, substrate is added in increments at various times throughout the course of reaction ?

(A) Batch fermentation (B) Fed-Batch fermentation

M-CL-09(BT) 3 P.T.O. 18. Which of the following is non-mechanical method of cell disruptim ?

(A) Ultrasonication (B) Wet milling

19. Which of the following is not a membrane based separation system ?

(A) Ultrafiltration (B) Reverse osmosis

20. The optimum temperature and pressure for sterilization of culture vessels is :

(A) 150ºC and 25 psi (B) 121ºC and 15 psi

21. A protoplast is devoid of :

(A) Cytoplasm (B) Nucleus

22. The chemical most widely used for DNA uptake in intact tissues is :

(A) Polyethylene Glycol (B) Fe- EDTA

23. Agar is extracted from :

(A) Bacteria (B) Red algae

24. Yoghurt is produced by which of the following microorganisms ?

(A) Streptococcus thermophilus (B) Lactobacillus bulgaricus

M-CL-09(BT) 4 25. Cheese production involves which of the following steps ?

I. Coagulum formation

II. Separation of curd from whey

III. Ripening of cheese

Choose the correct options :

(A) I, II (B) II, III

26. Ordinarily, saccharification during beer production is stopped by boiling the wort when about how much of the starch has been converted into fermentable sugars ?

(A) 25% (B) 50%

27. Which of the following proteases is used for meat tenderization ?

(A) Papain (B) Heat labile fungal protease

28. Which of the following organisms is used for SCP production shows the highest growth rate ?

(A) Bacteria (B) Algae

29. Which of the following scientists is recognized as father of microbiology ?

(A) Robert Koch (B) Edward Jenner

M-CL-09(BT) 5 P.T.O. 30. Aabomycin A shows which of the following activities ?

(A) Antifungal (B) Antibacterial

31. Among the given polymer matrices, which one is the most commonly used for cell immobilization ?

(A) Polyglycol oligomers (B) Polyacrylamide gel

32. Which of the following is the most commonly used to achieve cell disruption ?

(A) Drying (B) Lysis

33. In case of downstream processing commonly used approach of drying is which of the following ?

(A) Spray drying (B) Freeze drying

34. In case of downstream processing, separation of cells from liquid medium is achieved by which of the following ?

(A) Centrifugation

(B) Filtration

(D) All of the above

M-CL-09(BT) 6 35. Which of the following options indicates the correct order of ascorbic acid production ?

(A) Glucose  ascorbic acid  D-sorbitol  L-sorbose

(B) Glucose  L-sorbose  D-sorbitol  ascorbic acid

(D) D-sorbitol  L-sorbose  glucose  ascorbic acid

36. In which of the following, enzymes are used in the largest quantity ?

(A) Textile industry (B) Alcohol production

37. Which of the following enzymes catalyses an irreversible reaction of glycolysis ?

(A) Phosphofructokinase (B) Glucose-6-Isomerase

38. Lyase class of enzymes does not contain which of the following ?

(A) Decarboxylases (B) Dehydratases

39. Which of the following enzymes is not obtained commercially from malted barley ?

(A) -Glucanase (B) -Amylase

40. Which of the following biosensor types has the lowest cost ?

(A) Potentiometric (B) Conductimetric

M-CL-09(BT) 7 P.T.O. 41. Which of the following is not an example of physical pollutants ?

(A) Dust and mechanical stress

(B) Sound pollution and electrical storms

(D) Radiation and fires

42. Among the given microorganisms, which one is the most commonly found in aerobic digestion systems ?

(A) Fungi (B) Bacteria

43. Depletion of ozone layer is caused by which of the following ?

– (A) CO2 (B) SO2 (C) CFC (D) Both (B) and (C)

44. Which of the following gases contributes the maximum to the ‘greenhouse effect’ ?

(A) CO2 (B) CFC

45. Which of the following greenhouse gases is being generated by agricultural fields ?

(A) Sulphur dioxide (B) SO3 (C) Nitrous oxide (D) Ammonia

46. Which of the following is regarded as the third revolution in vaccines ?

(A) Recombinant protein vaccines (B) Recombinant polypeptide vaccines

M-CL-09(BT) 8 47. Which of the following cannot be used for treatment of AIDS ?

(A) Interferon

(B) Granulocyte macrophage colony stimulating factor

(D) Didanosine

48. Which of the following plays the major role in histocompatibility ?

(A) MHC loci (B) ABO blood group

49. Immuno-PCR detects the presence of which of the following ?

(A) DNA (B) RNA

50. At a VNTR locus, which of the following is the basis for different alleles ?

(A) Sequence of repeating units

(B) Number of repeating units

(D) Both (A) and (C)

51. Chemolithotroophs are those bacteria which can utilize :

(A) Inorganic material as the energy source

(B) Light as the energy source

(D) Crude oil as carbon source

M-CL-09(BT) 9 P.T.O. 52. All the members of the genus Bacillus are known for :

(A) Their ability to break down sulphur containing compounds

(B) Their ability to form spores

(D) The capsules they possess

53. Autoclaves are routinely used in laboratories for sterilization. It acts by :

(A) Disrupting cell membranes

(B) Denaturing proteins

(D) All of the above

54. Pasteurization of milk is done by :

(A) Boiling the milk for 20 minutes

(B) Heating the milk at 72ºC for 30 minutes

(D) Heating the milk at 62ºC for 30 minutes

55. Interferon :

(A) is species specific

(B) reacts directly with virus particles to inactivate them

(D) is constitutively produced at high levels in cells but requires an inducer for activity

M-CL-09(BT) 10 56. The group of bacteria that do not have cell walls are the :

(A) Archeobacteria (B) Mycobacteria

57. The genome of organism includes genes from :

(A) Chromosome (B) Mitochondria

58. A virus with RNA-dependent RNA polymerase :

(A) Synthesizes DNA from an RNA template

(B) Synthesizes dsRNA from an RNA template

(D) Transcribes mRNA from DNA

59. The ability of a virus to infect an organism is regulated by :

(A) The host species

(B) The type of cells

(D) All of the above

60. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a secondary immune response ?

(A) IgG isotype (B) Low affinity antibodies

M-CL-09(BT) 11 P.T.O. 61. Which of the following is a correct statement for a monoclonal antibody ?

(A) It is raised in a special breed of rabbit

(B) It is prepared by the biochemical purification from a pool of polyclonal antibodies

(D) Its affinity towards the antigen is very high as compared to that of the polyclonal antibody

62. Live vaccine is :

(A) Low dose of the infectious bacteria administered as prophylactic

(B) A dose of bacterial strain in a modified form which retains immunogenicity but is not pathogenic

(D) A sample of cells from a patient who recently recovered from the disease

63. In order to separate the antibodies in an antibody mixture, the laboratory technologist may use a procedure called :

(A) Transfusion (B) Complement fixation

64. Surface receptor (IgA) on the target cell is the site of binding of :

(A) Hepatitis B virus (B) HIV

65. The predominant antibody in saliva is :

(A) IgG (B) IgA

M-CL-09(BT) 12 66. IgM class of antibodies are more effective than IgG in bringing about complement

mediated lysis because :

(A) IgM has higher affinity for complement components

(B) IgM has higher affinity for antigen binding

(D) IgM is present in higher concentration

67. Most antibodies are synthesized by the :

(A) Central lymphoid organs (B) Peripheral lymphoid organs

68. The quaternary structure of human haemoglobin is best described as a :

(A) Dimmer of two myoglobin dimmers

(B) Tetramer of identical subunits

(D) Tetramer of two different subunit

69. The function of E.coli DNA polymerase II in the cell is to :

(A) Initiate replication at the origins

(B) ‘fill in’ reaction at the Okazaki fragments after primer RNA removal

(D) Restart replication at the stalled replication forks

M-CL-09(BT) 13 P.T.O. 70. Transcription termination of mRNA genes in eukaryotes occurs :

(A) At polyadenylation sites by the action of a termination factor

(B) By the formation of a strong hairpin structure in the vicinity of polyadenylation site

(D) At pause sites following the polyadenylation sites

71. Eukaryotic DNA synthesis is inhibited by :

(A) Aphidicoline (B) Cyclohexamide

72. Prions are composed of :

(A) DNA (B) RNA

73. A reporter gene :

(A) Acts as repressor

(B) Allows gene expression to be readily measured

(D) Interacts with RNA polymerase

74. Approximately what percentage of human genome contains protein coding genes ?

(A) ~ 2% (B) ~ 20%

M-CL-09(BT) 14 75. Glucose-6-phosphate inhibits which of the following enzymes ?

(A) Glucokinase (B) Hexokinase

76. What are the assumptions of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium ?

(A) Small population size, random mating, no selection, no migration, no mutation

(B) Large population size, random mating, no selection, no migration, no mutation

(D) Large population size, random mating, no selection, migrants enter from other populations, no mutation

77. Which of the following techniques can be used to accurately measure the molecular weight of proteins ?

(A) NMR

(B) Size exclusion chromatography

(D) Analytical ultracentrifugation

78. Which of the following would not possible to address using a Northern Blot ?

(A) Location of restriction sites in a particular gene

(B) Spatial expression of a particular gene

(D) mRNA size

M-CL-09(BT) 15 P.T.O. 79. Rosalind Franklin’s pictures of the DNA double helix were taken using the technique known as a :

(A) Diffraction

(B) Fluorescence

(D) X-ray crystallography

80. The term “satellite” DNA refers to :

(A) Extrachromosomal DNA fragments that are found close to (orbiting) the full- length chromosomes

(B) Mitochondrial DNA, which is circular in nature

(D) Mobile DNA elements such as transposons and insertion sequence

81. Which of the following hormones binds to a cell surface receptor ?

(A) Estrogen (B) Thyroid hormone

82. Optical density of 1 means :

(A) 1% of the incident light is absorbed

(B) 1% of the incident light is transmitted

(D) 90% of the incident light is transmitted

M-CL-09(BT) 16 83. The maximum number of hydrogen bonds that a molecule of water can form is : (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

84. Which of the DNA polymerases listed below is primarily responsible for the de nova’ synthesis of new DNA strands ? (A) DNA polymerase I (B) DNA polymerase II (C) DNA polymerase III (D) DNA polymerase IV

85. Choose the right combination of components required to set up a polymerase chain reaction from the following : (A) Template DNA, two primers, dNTPs and DNA ligase (B) Template DNA, two primers, NTPs and DNA ligase (C) Template RNA, two primers, NTPs and DNA polymerase (D) Template DNA, two primers, dNTPs and DNA polymerase

86. Most accurate method to determine the molecular weight of a given polypeptide is : (A) Gel permeation chromatography (B) SDS-PAGE (C) Analytical ultracentrifugation (D) MALDI-TOE mass spectrometry

87. The quantity of bacteriophages in a given sample is best given as : (A) Colony forming units (CFU) (B) Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) (C) Plaque forming units (PFU)

(D) Lethal dose 50% (LD50) M-CL-09(BT) 17 P.T.O. 88. Which one of the following statements is true with regard to the nature of viroids and prions ?

(A) Viroids are DNA and prions are RNA

(B) Viroids are protein and prions are RNA

(D) Both are made of protein

89. How many types of leukocytes are present in the mammalian circulatory system ?

(A) Two (B) Three

90. The purification of an antigen using the corresponding antibodies conjugated to agarose is an example of :

(A) Affinity chromatography

(B) Gel filtration chromatography

(D) Hydrophobic interaction chromatography

91. The nucleotide sequence of DNA involved in binding to a transcription factor can be determined by :

(A) DNA footprinting

(B) S1 nuclease treatment

(D) Northern hybridization

M-CL-09(BT) 18 92. The primer of the lagging strand during DNA replication is removed by :

(A) 3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity of DNA pol III

(B) DNA primase

(D) 3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity of DNA pol I

93. If A is a square matrix such that A2 = A, then (I – A)3 + A is equal to :

(A) I (B) 0

94. The function f(x) = x2e– strictly increase on :

(A) [0, 2] (B) [0, ]

x 2 95. The function f() x   has a local minimum at : 2 x (A) x = 1 (B) x = 2 (C) x = – 2 (D) x = – 1

d4 y d 3 y  96. The order and the degree of the ODE cos  0 : 4 3  dx dx 

(A) Order = 4, degree = 1 (B) Order = 3, degree = define (C) Order = 4, degree = define (D) Order = 4, degree = undefine

M-CL-09(BT) 19 P.T.O. 97. If r(x, y) = 0 the variability x and y said to be :

(A) +ve correlation (B) –ve correlation

98. The shape of binomial probability distribution depends upon the value of its :

(A) Mean (B) Variance

99. The two segment-trapezoidal rule of integration is exact for integrating at most...... order polynomials.

(A) First (B) Second

100. Match the following :

a. Newton-Raphson 1. Integration

b. Runge-Kutta 2. Root finding

c. Gauss-Seidel 3. Ordinary differential equation

d. Simpson’s rule 4. Solution of system of linear equation

Choose the correct options :

(A) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1

(B) a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4

(D) a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3

M-CL-09(BT) 20 GENERAL APTITUDE

101. Eight female members of the family decide to have a family photo and are sitting on a bench to be photographed. Read the following instructions to perform the seating arrangement to answers the question :

1. Mrs. Divya is to the right of Mrs. Anne.

2. Akshata is the middle if Myra and Mrs. Banumathi.

3. Mrs. Veena is standing at one of the ends and is second to the right of Mrs. Divya.

4. Myra always wants to stand next to her mother Mrs. Anne and is third to the left of Mrs. Sandhya. Who is standing at the left extreme end in the photograph ?

(A) Mrs. Veena

(B) Mrs. Usha

(D) Akshata

102. Find out the missing number in the following number series : 50, 51, 47, 56, 42, 65, 29, ?

(A) 42

(B) 47

(D) 56

M-CL-09(BT) 21 P.T.O. 103. Directions : Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below : Ten persons are sitting in two rows, such that in row-2 M, N, O, P, Q are sitting and facing in north direction and in row-1 D, E, F, G, H are sitting and facing in south direction. Each person of row-1 facing each person of row-2. All of them are of different ages 15, 20, 23, 30, 33, 35, 38, 45, 49, 50 but not in the same order. There are two people sitting between M and Q and either M or Q is sitting at one of the extreme ends. G is 20 years old and sits third to the left of H. Neither H nor F sits opposite to M and Q, who is not the oldest. No two persons are sitting together according to alphabetical order, except G and F. The age of P is a multiple of 11. G sits opposite to N whose age is a multiple of 7. Two persons sits between the one who is the youngest and the one who sits opposite to the one whose age is 35. Three persons sit between the one whose age is 49 and the one who is the youngest. O’s age is twice the age of H. The age of the person who is facing the person who is sitting 2nd to the left of Q is a prime number. The age of M is equal to the sum of ages of H and O. Only one person is sitting between H and F. Which of the following combinations is true regarding the given arrangement ? (A) E-50 (B) M-45 (C) F-33 (D) D-49

104. In a family of some persons, Sushant says that Meena is the daughter of my sister Reena, who is the only daughter of Tirath. Arun is the child of Tirath and Isha, who is the grandmother of Kamlesh. Roma is the mother of Trisha, who is the only sister of Kamlesh. Arun is unmarried. How is Kamlesh related to Tirath ? (A) Daughter-in-law (B) Grand-daughter (C) Grandson (D) Either option (B) or (C)

M-CL-09(BT) 22 105. Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below : It has been given that- A is + from point B states B is to the NORTH of A. A is = from point B states B is to the SOUTH of A. A is || from point B states A is to the East of B. A is * from point B states A is to the WEST of B. Now, S is =20 m from point P. Point Q is =15 m from point R. Point U is +15 m from point V. Point T is ||20 m from point V. Point U is ||16 m from point Q. Point R is ||30 m from point P. What is the shortest distance between the point T and the point which is to the East of Q ?

(A) 25 m (B) 26 m

106. Study the following information to answer the given question : In a certain code language, ‘return deadline change payment’ is written as ‘su da nc ki’, ‘twice payment stylish success’ is written as ‘ph ra ti da’, ‘decline success change customer’ is written as ‘ti gi ki mo’, ‘customer global stylish return’ is written as ‘zo nc ph gi’. Which of the following is the code for ‘da ph nc’ ?

(A) stylish success return

(B) return payment global

(D) stylish twice success

M-CL-09(BT) 23 P.T.O. 107. How many triangles are there in the following figure ?

(A) 32 (B) 34 (C) 37 (D) 40

108. Directions : From the given options, select a figure in which the Question Figure is hidden/embedded :

(A) (B)

M-CL-09(BT) 24 109. In the question below, a statement is followed by the two assumptions I and II.

An assumption is something that is supposed or taken for granted. You have to

consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the

assumptions is implicit in the statement :

Statement : An advertisement by a bank : We offer higher deposit rate in

comparison to other banks.

Assumptions :

I. The different banks offer different deposit rates.

II. There is competition in the market to attract customers.

(A) Only assumption I is implicit

(B) Only assumption II is implicit

(D) Neither I nor II is implicit.

110. Ecstasy : Gloom : : ?

(A) Congratulations : Occasion

(B) Diligent : Successful

(D) Humiliation : Exaltation

M-CL-09(BT) 25 P.T.O. GENERAL ENGLISH 111. Find the synonym of ACCLIVITY : (A) Index (B) Report (C) Character (D) Upslope of hill

112. Directions : In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word : ACCOLADE (A) Countenance (B) Vulgar (C) Reprimand (D) Virtue

113. The police...... people in the neighborhood since last week. (A) have been interrogating (B) has interrogated (C) have interrogated (D) has been interrogating

114. Directions : In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given sentence, group of words or clauses : One who compiles a dictionary (A) Bibliographer (B) Lapidist (C) Lexicographer (D) Cartographer

115. Idiom and Phrase : On thin ice (A) To endure a harsh winter (B) In a precarious or risky situation (C) To keep failing after repeated efforts (D) To keep one's cool even in a tough situation

116. Which one of the following words is correctly spelt ? (A) Itinarary (B) Itinarey (C) Itinarery (D) Itinerary

M-CL-09(BT) 26 117. In the following sentence, there are blank space/s. Find out which word or pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the sequence to make it grammatically correct : They understand that some...... treatment is necessary in the beginning to...... ingenious aspirants. (A) essential, push (B) imperative, obviate (C) difference, prevent (D) differential, deter

118. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.) (A) The commission set-up to submit a report (B) about the reason for the fall in (C) educational standards could not complete (D) its work even after two years.

119. Fill in the blanks : Welcome...... ! We are delighted to work...... you. (A) in, for (B) aboard, with (C) for, for (D) because, with

120. Rearrange the following sentences in the proper sequences so as to form a meaningful paragraph, and then answer the question given below them. a. Environment education unit of centre for science. b. Environment has always been working towards providing easy to understand reading material. c. Their new publication on this subject is an attempt to lend teachers a helping hand. d. It unfolds in two sections first, climate change, how to make sense of it all and second, natural resources, how to share and care. e. However, they are introduced to students not as a paragraph to memories but as an activity to do. Which one of the following is the last sentence after rearrangement ? (A) a (B) d (C) e (D) c

M-CL-09(BT) 27 P.T.O.