UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS GENERAL STUDIES – 2014
1. In medieval India, the designations ‘Mahattara’ Select the correct answer using the code given and ‘Pattakila’ were used for below: a) military officers a) 1, 3 and 4 only b) village headmen b) 2 and 3 only c) specialists in Vedic rituals c) 1 and 4 only d) chiefs of craft guilds d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans(D) 2. Lichens, which are capable of initiating ecological Explanation : succession even on a bare rock, are actually a Steel manufacturing involves burning of coke symbiotic association of which will lead to release of oxides of sulphur, a) algae and bacteria oxides of nitrogen, carbon monoxide and carbon b) algae and fungi dioxide. c) bacteria and fungi d) fungi and mosses 5. Which of the following kingdoms were associated with the life of the Buddha? 3. If you travel through the Himalayas, you are 1. Avanti likely to see which of the following plants 2. Gandhara naturally growing there? 3. Kosala 1. Oak 4. Magadha 2. Rhododendron Select the correct answer using the code given 3. Sandalwood below: Select the correct answer using the code given a) 1 ,2 and 3 below: b) 2 and 4 a) 1 and 2 only c) 3 and 4 only b) 3 only d) 1, 3 and 4 c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans(C) Ans(A) Explanation Explanation Magadha is main rival to the north-west was In Nepal, the Sacred Himalayan Landscape Kosala with its capital at Sāvatthi and during the harbors numbers important flora such as oaks Buddha's life both countries went to war. Bhudda (Castanopsis and Quercus), Rhododendron never went to gandhara and avanti. (Rhododendron). 6. Every year, a month long ecologically important 4. Which of the following are some important campaign/ festival is held during which certain pollutants released by steel industry in India? communities/ tribes plant saplings of fruit- 1. Oxides of sulphur bearing trees. Which of the following are such 2. Oxides of nitrogen communities/ tribes? 3. Carbon monoxide a) Bhutia and Lepcha 4. Carbon dioxide b) Gond and korku c) Irula and Toda d) Sahariya and Agariya
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UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS GENERAL STUDIES – 2014
Ans(B) 8. What does venture capital mean? Explanation: a) A short-term capital provided to industries Korku is a scheduled tribe (ST) community b) A long-term start-up capital provided to new predominantly found in the East Nimar ... Whilst entrepreneurs they share the love of the forests with the Gonds c) Funds provided to industries at times of 7. The sales tax you pay while purchasing a incurring losses toothpaste is a d) Founds provided for replacement and a) tax imposed by the Central Government renovation of industries b) tax imposed by the Central Government but Ans(B) collected by the State Government Explanation : c) tax imposed by the State Government but Capital provided by investors to start up collected by the Central Government firms with perceived long-term growth potential. d) tax imposed and collected by the State This is a very important source of funding for start Government ups that do not have access to capital markets. It Ans(D) typically entails high risk for the investor, but it has Explanation: the potential for above-average returns. Central Sales Tax (CST) is a tax on sales of goods levied by the Central Government of India.CST is applicable only in the case of inter-state sales and 9. The main objective of the 12th Five-Year Plan is not on sales made within the state or import/export a) inclusive growth and poverty reduction of sales. Accordingly, consignments to agents or b) inclusive and sustainable growth transfers of goods to branch or other offices is not a c) sustainable and inclusive growth to reduce sale as per the CST Act CST is payable in the state unemployment where the goods are sold and movement commences. d) faster, sustainable and more inclusive growth The tax collected is retained by the state in which the Ans(D) tax is collected. CST is administered by Sales Tax Explanation authorities of each state. Thus, the State Government The aim of the 12th Five year plan is Faster, Sales Tax officer who assesses and collects local more inclusive and sustainable growth. Refer 12th (state) sales tax also assesses and collects CST. Sales Five year plan document. Tax is a tax, levied on the sale or purchase of goods. There are two kinds of Sales Tax i.e. Central Sales 10. With reference to Balance of Payments, which of Tax, imposed by the Centre and Sales Tax, imposed the following constitutes/ constitute the Current by each state. The sales tax paid while purchasing a Account? toothpaste may fall in either categories. 1. Balance of trade The sales tax on sale and purchase of goods 2. Foreign assets except news paper falls in the state list of seventh 3. Balance of invisibles schedule of constitution. Refer page number 46 of 4. Special Drawing Rights Indian Economy Key Concepts, Second revised Select the correct answer using the code given edition. below: a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 4
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UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS GENERAL STUDIES – 2014
Ans(C) NDTL (Net Demand & Time Liabilities) = DTL - a Explanation: bank's deposits with other banks. Under current account of the BOP, transactions are classified into merchandise balance 12. What is/are the facility/ facilities the of trade (exports and imports) and invisibles. beneficiaries can get from the services of Invisible transactions are further classified into three Business Correspondent (Bank Saathi) in categories, namely (a) Services-travel, branchless areas? transportation, insurance, Government not included 1. It enables the beneficiaries to draw their elsewhere (GNIE) and miscellaneous (such as, subsidies and social security benefites in their communication, construction, financial, software, villages. news agency, royalties, management and business 2. It enables the beneficiaries in the rural areas services); (b) Income; and (c) Transfers (grants, to make deposits and withdrawals. gifts, remittances, ets.) which do not have any quid Select the correct answer using the code given pro quo. below: a) 1 only 11. The terms ‘Marginal Standing Facility Rate’ and b) 2 only ‘Net Demand and Time Liabilities’, sometimes c) Both 1 and 2 appearing in news, are used in relation to d) Neither 1 nor 2 a) banking operations b) communication networking Ans(C) c) military strategies Explanation d) supply and demand of agricultural products Business Correspondent model is an Ans(A) innovative, technology-based banking model is Explanation giving people in remote areas of India access to Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) formal financial institutions. The scope of activities rate is the rate at which banks borrow funds to be undertaken by the Business Correspondents overnight from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) will include (i) disbursal of small value credit, (ii) against approved government securities. This came recovery of principal / collection of interest (iii) into effect in may 2011. Under the Marginal Standing collection of small value deposits (iv) sale of micro Facility (MSF), currently banks avail funds from the insurance/ mutual fund products/ pension products/ RBI on overnight basis against their excess statutory other third party products and (v) receipt and liquidity ratio (SLR) holdings. Additionally, they can delivery of small value remittances/ other payment also avail funds on overnight basis below the instruments. The main objectives of the project were stipulated SLR up to 2.5% of their respective Net (1) to increase the outreach of financial services to Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL) outstanding at the poorest of the poor by using technology-based the end of second preceding fortnight. Demand solutions, (2) to minimize the occurrence of liabilities are those liabilities which are to be repaid fraudulent payments, and (3) ultimately, to achieve at demand (examples: current deposits, savings total financial inclusion through the use of deposits as per formula, other deposits, inter-bank smartcards. deposits, etc.). Time liabilities are those liabilities which are to be repaid on expiry of a fixed period
(examples: fixed deposits, recurring deposits, etc.).
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UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS GENERAL STUDIES – 2014
13. In the context of Indian economy, which of the Ratio to contain inflation, suck liquidity in the following is/are the purpose/purposes of market, to tighten the measure to safeguard the ‘Statutory Reserve Requirements’? customers money. In a growing economy banks 1. To enable the Central Bank to control the would like to invest in stock market, not in amount of advances the banks can create Government Securities or Gold as the latter would 2. To make the people’s deposits with banks yield less returns. One more reason is long term safe and liquid Government Securities (or any bond) are sensitive to 3. To prevent the commercial banks from interest rate changes. But in an emerging economy making excessive profits interest rate change is a common activity. 4. To force the banks to have sufficient vault cash to meet their day-to-day requirements 14. Recently, a series of uprisings of people referred Select the correct answer using the code given to as ‘Arab Spring’ originally started from below: a) Egypt a) 1 only b) Lebanon b) 1 and 2 only c) Syria c) 2 and 3 only d) Tunisia d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans(D) Ans(B) Explanation Explanation Tunisia :- Following the self-immolation of The ratio of liquid assets to demand and time Mohamed Bouazizi in Sidi Bouzid, a series of liabilities is known as Statutory Liquidity Ratio increasingly violent street demonstrations through (SLR). In simple words, it is the percentage of total December 2010 ultimately led to the ousting of deposits banks have to invest in government bonds longtime President Zine El Abidine Ben Ali on 14 and other approved securities. A SLR bond also January 2011. Egypt : - Protests in Egypt began on qualifies for the portfolio maintained by banks to 25 January 2011 and ran for 18 days. Lebanon :- meet the liquidity requirement. The main objectives The 2011 Lebanese protests were seen as for maintaining the Statutory Liquidity Ratio are the influenced by the Arab Spring.[1] The main following:(i) Statutory Liquidity Ratio is maintained protests focused on calls for political reform in order to control the expansion of Bank Credit. By especially against confessionalism in Lebanon. changing the level of Statutory Liquidity Ratio, Reserve bank of India can increase or decrease bank 15. Consider the following countries: credit expansion.(ii) Statutory Liquidity Ratio in a 1. Denmark way ensures the solvency of commercial banks.(iii) 2. Japan By determining Statutory Liquidity Ratio, Reserve 3. Russian Federation Bank of India, in a way, compels the commercial 4. United Kingdom banks to invest in government securities like 5. United States of America government bonds. If any Indian Bank fails to Which of the above are the members of the maintain the required level of Statutory Liquidity ‘Arctic Council’? Ratio, then it becomes liable to pay penalty to a) 1, 2 and 3 Reserve Bank of India. The defaulter bank pays penal b) 2, 3 and 4 interest at the rate of 3% per annum above the Bank c) 1, 4 and 5 Rate, on the shortfall amount for that particular d) (d) 1, 3 and 5
day.The RBI can increase the Statutory Liquidity Ans(D)
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UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS GENERAL STUDIES – 2014
Explanation surface-to-surface missile with a range of about Only states with territory in the Arctic can be 4,000 km, was successfully test-fired from the members of the Council. All eight countries are Wheeler Island, off the Odisha coast. The members making the Arctic Council a circumpolar sophisticated missile is lighter in weight and has two forum. The Council also has permanent and ad hoc stages of solid propulsion. (Source :- The Hindu, 20 observer countries and "permanent participants".[7] January 2014) Canada; Denmark; representing also the dependencies of Greenland Faroe Islands Finland 18. With reference to two non-conventional energy Iceland Norway Russia Sweden United States sources called ‘coalbed methane’ and ‘shale gas’, consider the following statements: 16. Consider the following pairs: 1. Coalbed methane is the pure methane gas Region often Country in news extracted from coal seams, while 1. Chechnya : Russian Federation 2. shale gas is a mixture of propane and butane 2. Darfur : Mali only that can be extracted from fine-grained 3. Swat Valley : Iraq sedimentary rocks. Which of the above pairs is/are correctly 3. In India, abundant coalbed methane sources matched? exist, but so far no shale gas sources have a) 1 only been found. b) 2 and 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are c) 1 and 3 only correct? d) 1, 2 and 3 a) 1 only Ans(D) b) 2 only Explanation c) Both 1 and 2 Chechnya in Russian Federation. Darfur in Sudan d) Neither 1 nor 2 Swat valley in Pakistan Ans (A) Explanation 17. With reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the The gas composition must be considered, following statements is/are correct? because natural gas appliances are designed for gas 1. It is a surface-to-surface missile with a heating value of about 1000 BTU (British 2. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only thermal units) per cubic foot, or nearly pure 3. It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads methane. Unlike much natural gas from about 7500 km away. conventional reservoirs, coalbed methane contains Select the correct answer using the code given very little heavier hydrocarbons such as propane or below: butane, and no natural-gas condensate. a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only 19. With reference to ‘Changpa’ community of India, c) 1 and 3 only consider the following statements: d) 1, 2 and 3 1. They live mainly in the State of Uttarakhand. 2. They rear the Pashmina goats that yield a fine Ans (A) wool. Explanation 3. They are kept in the category of Scheduled India’s nuclear deterrence programme Tribes.
received a boost on Monday when its Agni-IV, a
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UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS GENERAL STUDIES – 2014
Which of the statements given above is/are stays within the country and another 90% of the correct? exports are used for shale gas and oil industries. a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only 21. The Partition of Bengal made by Lord Curzon in c) 3 only 1905 lasted until d) 1, 2 and 3 a) the First World War when Indian troops were Ans (B) needed by the British and the partition was Explanation ended The Changpa (or sometimes pronounced b) King George V abrogated Curzon’s Act at the Champa) are a semi-nomadic Tibetan ethnic group Royal Durbar in Delhi in 1911 found mainly in Zanskar region of Jammu and c) Gandhiji launched his Civil Disobedience Kashmir.(Source - Wikipedia) Pashmina wool is Movement produced by Changra (Pashmina) goat in Ladakh d) the Partition of India in 1947 when East and Chegu breed of goat in the eastern parts of Bengal became East Pakistan Himalayas. The goats are reared in Ladakh by the Ans (B) Changpa tribe inhabiting Changthang region. Explanation Pashmina bearing goats are also found to a minor On the occasion of the visiting His Majesty extent in other areas of Leh district, Zanskar (Kargil George V to Indo-Pakistan and holding of Darbar at district) and adjoining Lahoul- Spiti valley of Delhi on 12th December 1911 the partition of Bengal Himachal Pradesh. (Source :- woolboard.nic.in) As was cancelled. of 2001, the Changpa were classified as a Scheduled Tribe under the Indian government's reservation 22. The 1929 Session of Indian National Congress is program of affirmative action. of significance in the history of the Freedom Movement because the 20. In India, cluster bean (Guar) is traditionally a) attainment of Self-Government was declared used as a vegetable or animal feed, but recently as the objective of the Congress the cultivation of this has assumed significance. b) attainment of Poorna Swaraj was adopted as Which one of the following statements is correct the goal of the Congress in this context? c) Non-Cooperation Movement was launched a) The oil extracted from seeds is used in the d) decision to participate in the Round Table manufacture of biodegradable plastics Conference in London was taken b) The gum made from its seeds is used in the Ans (B) extraction of shale gas The Purna Swaraj declaration, or Declaration c) The leaf extract of this plant has the of the Independence of India was promulgated by the properties of anti-histamines Santosh Prabu on 26 January 1930, resolving the d) It is a source of high quality biodiesel Congress and Indian nationalists to fight for Purna Swaraj, or complete self-rule independent of the Ans (B) British Empire. Explanation Through the use of guar gum in the extraction of oil and shale gas, the demand has
increased a lot. Only 10% of the Indian production
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UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS GENERAL STUDIES – 2014
23. With reference to the famous Sattriya dance, normally and on March 21 in a leap year. Chitra 1 of consider the following statements: Saka Era is the New Year Day. 1. Sattriya is a combination of music, dance and drama. 25. Consider the following pairs: 2. It is a centuries-old living tradition of Famous work of Site sculpture Vaishnavities of Assam. 1. A grand image of Buddha’s : Ajanta 3. It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of Mahaparinirvana with numerous devotional songs composed by Tulsidas, Celestial musicians above and Kabir and Mirabai. the sorrowful figures of his Which of the statements given above is/are followers below correct? 2. A huge image of :Mount Abu a) 1 only Varaha Avatar b) 1 and 2 only (boar incarnation) c) 2 and 3 only of Vishnu, as he rescues d) 1, 2 and 3 Goddess Earth from the deep and chaotic waters, sculpted Ans (B) on rock Explanation: 3. “Arjuna’s Penance” : It is combination of Music, Dance and Mamallapuram Drama. This dance form has remained a living “Descent of Ganga” sculpted tradition in Assam's Vaishnava monasteries, known on the surface of huge boulders as sattras, for over 500 years now. It was originally Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly practised by celibate monks in the form of matched? mythological dance-dramas. The core of Sattriya a) 1 and 2 only Nritya has usually been mythological stories. This b) 3 only was an artistic way of presenting mythological c) 1 and 3 only teachings to the people in an accessible, immediate, d) 1, 2 and 3 and enjoyable manner. Ans (C) 24. Chaitra 1 of the national calendar based on the Explanation: 1st Pair: The Parinirvana of the Saka era corresponds to which one of the Buddha in Cave 17, with numerous celestial following dates of the Gregorian calendar in a musicians above and the sorrowful figures of his normal year of 365 days? followers below, is one of the grandest and yet most a) 22nd March (or 21st March) delicately expressive scenes ever made in stone. The b) 15th May (or 16th May) grieving figure of Ananda near his feet is an c) 31st March (or 30th March) exceptionally fine and thoughtful representation in d) 21st April (or 20th April) Ajanta. 2nd pair : Is wrong because Rock-cut sculpture of Varaha at the Udayagiri Caves, near Ans (A) Vidisha, 3rd Pair is correct. Explanation A uniform National Calendar based on the Saka Era with Chaitra ... with the dates of the
Gregorian calendar: Chaitra 1 falling on March 22
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UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS GENERAL STUDIES – 2014
26. The Ghadr (Ghadar) was a Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly a) revolutionary association of Indians with matched? headquarters at San Francisco a) 1 only b) nationalist organization operating from b) 2 and 3 only Singapore c) 1 and 3 only c) militant organization with headquarters at d) 1, 2 and 3 Berlin Ans (C) d) communist movement for India’s freedom Explanation with head-quarters at Tashkent Garba is a form of dance that originated in Ans (A) the state of Gujarat in India. The name is derived The Ghadar Party was an revolutionary from theSanskrit term Garbha ("womb") and Deep association founded by Punjabi Indians at San ("a small earthenware lamp"). Many traditional Fransico in the United States. Its aim to gaining garbas are performed around a centrally lit lamp or a India's independence from British rule. Key picture or statue of the Goddess Shakti. members included lala Har Dayal, Sohan Singh Mohiniyattam is a classical dance form from Kerala, Bhakna, Kartar Singh Sarabha, and Rashbehari Bose. India. Believed to have originated in 16th century CE,[1] it is one of the eight Indian classical dance 27. With reference to India’s culture and tradition, forms recognised by the Sangeet Natak Akademi. It what is ‘Kalaripayattu’? is considered a very graceful form of dance meant to a) It is an ancient Bhakti cult of Shaivism still be performed as solo recitals by women. prevalent in some parts of South India Yakshagana is a theater form that combines dance, b) It is an ancient style bronze and brasswork music, dialogue, costume, make-up, and stage still found in southern part of Coromandel techniques with a unique style and form. This theater area style, resembling Western opera, is mainly found in c) It is an ancient form of dance-drama and a the coastal districts and the Malenadu region living tradition in the northern part of (Karnataka) of India. Malabar d) It is an ancient martial art and a living 29. With reference to Buddhist history, tradition and tradition in some parts of South India culture in India, consider the following pairs: Ans (D) Famous shrine Location Explanation 1. Tabo monastery : Spiti Valley Kalaripayattu is an Indian martial art. One of and temple complex the oldest fighting systems in existence,[1] it is now 2. Lhotsava Lhakhang : Zanskar Valley practiced in Kerala, in contiguous parts of Tamil temple, Nako Nadu and among the Malayali community of 3. Alchi temple : Ladakh Malaysia. It was originally practiced in northern and complex central parts of Kerala and the Tulunadu region of Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly Karnataka. matched? a) 1 only 28. Consider the following pairs: b) 2 and 3 only 1. Garba : Gujarat c) 1 and 3 only 2. Mohiniattam : Odisha d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Yakshagana : Karnataka Ans (C)
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UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS GENERAL STUDIES – 2014
Explanation 32. What was/were the object/objects of Queen Tabo Monastery (or Tabo Chos-Khor Victoria’s Proclamation (1858)? Monastery) is located in the Tago village. The 1. To disclaim any intention to annex Indian monastery is situated in the Spiti valley. State 2. To place the Indian administration under the 30. Consider the following statements: British Crown 1. ‘Bijak’ is a composition of the teaching of 3. To regulate East India Company’s trade with Saint Dadu Dayal. India 2. The Philosophy of Pushti Marg was Select the correct answer using the code given propounded by Madhvacharya. below. Which of the statements given above is/are a) 1 and 2 only correct? b) 2 only a) 1 only c) 1 and 3 only b) 2 only d) 1, 2 and 3 c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans (A) Ans (D) Explanation : Explanation The Queen Victoria proclamation- 1858 consists Of Pushti marg ("the Path of Grace") is a To disclaim any Intension to annex Indian States.To Vaishnav sect of the Hinduism, founded by place Indian administration under the British Vallabhacharya (also known as Mahaprabhu) around Crown. 1500 AD. Bijak is the best known of the compilations of the compositions of Kabir, and as such is the holy scripture for followers of the Kabirpanthi religion. 33. Ibadat Khana at Fatehpur Sikri was a) the mosque for the use of Royal Family 31. A community of people called Manganiyars is b) Akbar’s private prayer chamber well-known for their c) the hall in which Akbar held discussions with a) martial arts in North-East India scholars of various religions b) musical tradition in North-West India d) the room in which the nobles belonging to c) classical vocal music in South India different religions gathered to discuss d) pietra dura tradition in Central India religious affairs Ans (B) Explanation Ans (C) The Manganiar and related Langha caste are Explanation : Muslim communities in the desert of Rajasthan, The Ibadat Khana literally means “House of India in the districts of Barmer and Jaisalmer, along Worship” built by Akbar at his palace in Fatehpur the border with Pakistan. Significant numbers are Sikri also found in the districts of Tharparkar and Sanghar in the province of Sindh in Pakistan. They are famous for their classical folk music.
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UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS GENERAL STUDIES – 2014
34. In the context of food and nutritional security of Ans (D) India, enhancing the ‘Seed Replacement Rates’ of Explanation: various crops helps in achieving the food The eco sensitive zones need to be declared in production targets of the future. But what is/are order to provide better sanctity to protected areas; as the constraint/ constraints in its wider/greater an additional tool to strengthen the buffers and implementation? corridors around the Protected Area network; and to 1. There is no National Seeds Policy in place. check the negative impact of industrialization and 2. There is no participation of private sector unplanned development in and around Protected seed companies in the supply of quality seeds Areas. In this background the Indian Board for of vegetables and planting materials of Wildlife in its XXI meeting held on 21st January horticultural crops. 2002 under the Chairmanship of Hon’ble Prime 3. there is a demand-supply gap regarding Minister had adopted a ‘Wildlife Conservation quality seeds in case of low value and high Strategy-2002’ in which one of the action point volume crops. envisaged to notify lands falling within 10 km. of the Select the correct answer using the code given boundaries of National Parks and Sanctuaries as below. Eco-fragile zones under the Environment a) 1 and 2 (Protection) Act, 1986. Purpose of declaring Eco- b) 3 only Sensitive Zone : To create shock-absorber for c) 2 and 3 protected areas. The activities in ESZ will be d) None regulative rather than prohibitive.
Ans (B) 36. Consider the following statements: Explanation 1) Animal Welfare Board of India is established We have a national seed policy and private under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. sector seed companies like Kaveri Seed company Ltd. 2) National Tiger Conservation Authority is a But there is demand and supply mismatch. statutory body. 3) National Ganga River Basin Authority is chaired 35. With reference to ‘Eco-Sensitive Zones’, which of by the Prime Minister. the following statements is/are correct? Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas that are (a) 1 only declared under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, (b) 2 and 3 only 1972. (c) 2 only 2. The purpose of the declaration of Eco- (d) 1, 2 and 3 Sensitive Zones is to prohibit all kinds of Ans (B) human activities in those zones except Explanation agriculture. The Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory Select the correct answer using the code given advisory body on Animal Welfare Laws and below. promotes animal welfare in the country. Established a) 1 only in 1962 under Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty b) 2 only to Animals Act, 1960 (No. 59 of 1960), the Animal c) Both 1 and 2 Welfare Board of India was started under the d) Neither 1 nor 2 stewardship of Late Smt. Rukmini Devi Arundale,
well known humanitarian. From ensuring that
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UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS GENERAL STUDIES – 2014 animal welfare laws in the country are diligently Select the correct answer using the code given followed, to provide grants to Animal Welfare below. Organizations and advising the Government of India a) 1 and 2 only on animal welfare issues, the Board has been the face b) 3 only of the animal welfare movement in the country for c) 1 and 2 only the last 50 years. The National Tiger Conservation d) 1, 2 and 3 Authority is a statutory body under the Ministry of Ans (D) Environment and Forests, constituted under Explanation enabling provisions of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1st Statement :- Consumer technologies 1972, as amended in 2006, for strengthening tiger utilizing nano particles such as sun lotion and anti- conservation, as per powers and functions assigned bacterial clothing currently leach nano particles into to it under the said Act. NGRBA- The Prime Minister the environment during regular use[11] and further the chair of the Authority. Other members include contamination is sure to occur as a result of the the cabinet ministers who include the Ganges among manufacture and disposal of nano particle- their direct concerns and the chief ministers of states containing goods. 2nd Statement :- The main through which the Ganges River flows. concern will be if any of the nano particles entering the environment are toxic or could become toxic to 37. Consider the following pairs: living species in the environment. For example, there Vitamin Deficiency disease is the possibility of nanoparticles being toxic to 1. Vitamin C : Scurvy microorganisms in the soil and groundwater. 2. Vitamin D : Rickets Following on from this would be possible hazards 3. Vitamin E : Night blindness from the nanoparticles or from consuming the Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly microrganisms affected by the nanoparticles for fish, matched? insects or mammals. There is also a risk to plants a) 1 and 2 only from nanoparticles which again could have a follow- b) 3 only on effect on the food chain. For example the c) 1, 2 and 3 deposition of atmospheric particles on crops could d) None provide another route for toxic or reactive nanoparticles into the food chain. 3rd Statement :- Ans (A) some types of particles, the smaller they are, the Explanation greater their surface area to volume ratio and the Night Blindness caused by Vitamin A higher their chemical reactivity and biological deficiency and not Vitamin E deficiency activity. The greater chemical reactivity of nanomaterials can result in increased production of 38. There is some concern regarding the nano reactive oxygen species(ROS), including free particles of some chemical elements that are used radicals. ROS production has been found in a diverse by the industry in the manufacture of various range of nanomaterials including carbon fullerenes, products. Why? carbon nano tubes and nanoparticle metal oxides. 1. They can accumulate in the environment, and ROS and free radical production is one of the contaminate water and soil. primary mechanisms of nano particle toxicity; it may 2. They can enter the food chains. result in oxidative stress, inflammation, and 3. They can trigger the production of free consequent damage to proteins, membranes and
radicals. DNA.
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UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS GENERAL STUDIES – 2014
39. Which of the following organizations brings out With fall in the interest rate there will be the publication known as ‘World Economic increase in consumption as well as investment. But Outlook’? most suitable answer is increase in investment. Refer a) The International Monetary page number 53-59 of Indian Economy Key b) The United Nations Development Concepts, Second revised edition. Programme c) The World Economic Forum 42. Consider the following statements: d) The World Bank 1. The President shall make rules for the more Ans (A) convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation 40. With reference to Union Budget, which of the among Ministers of the said business. following is/are covered under Non-Plan 2. All executive actions of the Government of Expenditure? India shall be expressed to be taken in the 1. Defence expenditure name of the Prime Minister. 2. Interest payments Which of the statements given above is/are 3. Salaries and pensions correct? 4. Subsidies a) 1 only Select the correct answer using the code given b) 2 only below. c) Both 1 and 2 a) 1 only d) Neither 1 nor 2 b) 2 and 3 only c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans (B) d) None Explanation Article 77 (1) and Article 77 (3)
Ans (C) 43. Consider the following statements regarding a Explanation No-Confidence Motion in India: Al these expenditures are classified as non- 1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence plan expenditures as they are incurred on a regular Motion in the Constitution of India. basis and do not form part of plan documents. Refer 2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be page number 37 of Indian Economy Key Concepts, introduced in the Lok Sabha only. Second revised edition. Which of the statement given above is/are correct? 41. If the interest rate is decreased in an economy, it a) 1 only will b) 2 only a) decrease the consumption expenditure in the c) Both 1 and 2 economy d) Neither 1 nor 2 b) increase the tax collection of the Government Ans (C) c) increase the investment expenditure in the Explanation : economy There is no direct mention of the No- d) increase the total savings in the economy Confidence motion in Constitution of India. It is a motion asper rules of business of Lok Sabha. No- Ans (C) Confidence motion can be introduced only in Lok
Explanation Sabha and not in Rajya Sabha.
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UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS GENERAL STUDIES – 2014
44. With reference to Neem tree, consider the Select the correct answer using the codes given following statements: below: 1. Neem oil can be used as a pesticide to control a) 1 only the proliferation of some species of insects b) 2 and 3 only and mites. c) 1 and 3 only 2. Neem seeds are used in the manufacture of d) 1, 2 and 3 biofuels and hospital detergents. Ans (D) 3. Neem oil has applications in pharmaceutical Explanation industry. Biometric identifiers are the distinctive, Which of the statement given above is/are measurable characteristics used to label and describe correct? individuals.[2] Biometric identifiers are often (a) 1 and 2 only categorized as physiological versus behavioral (b) 3 only characteristics. Physiological characteristics are (c) 1 and 3 only related to the shape of the body. Examples include, (d) 1, 2 and 3 but are not limited to fingerprint, palm veins, face Ans (D) recognition, DNA, palm print, hand geometry, iris Explanation : recognition, retina and odour/scent. Behavioral Neem oil is a vegetable oil pressed from fruits characteristics are related to the pattern of behavior and seeds of neem. It has insect repellant and of a person, including but not limited to typing insecticidal properties. Neem oil is used for the rhythm, gait, and voice.[note 2] Some researchers production of bio fuel and used in the preparations have coined the term behaviometrics to describe the of neem based phenyl. latter class of biometrics.
45. Which one of the following is the process 47. Which of the following statements is/are correct involved in photosynthesis? regarding vegetative propagation of plants? a) Potential energy is released to form free 1. Vegetative propagation produces clonal energy population. b) Free energy is converted into potential energy 2. Vegetative propagation helps in eliminating and stored. the virus. c) Food is oxidized to release carbon dioxide 3. Vegetative propagation can be practiced most and water. of the year. d) Oxygen is taken, and carbon dioxide and Select the correct answer using the codes given water vapour are given out. below: a) 1 only Ans (B) b) 2 and 3 only 46. In addition to fingerprint scanning, which of the c) 1 and 3 only following can be used in the biometric d) 1, 2 and 3 identification of a person? 1. Iris scanning Ans (D) 2. Retinal scanning Explanation : 3. Voice recognition Vegetative propagation is a asexual reproduction of plants Only one plant is involved and
the offspring is the result of one parent and thus the
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UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS GENERAL STUDIES – 2014 offspring are clones (genetically identical) of the Ans (A) parent. Only seed and micro propagation can Explanation eliminate virus and vegetative propagation cannote Soya bean largely in Madhyapradesh not in liminate the virus. Vegetative propagation can be Coromandel practiced throughout the year. 50. Which of the following is/are the 48. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly example/examples of chemical change? matched? 1. Crystallization of sodium chloride Spacecraft Purpose 2. Melting of ice 1. Cassini-Huygens : Orbiting the 3. Souring of milk Venus and transmitting data to the Earth Select the correct answer using the codes given 2. Messenger : Mapping and below: investigating the Mercury a) 1 and 2 only 3. Voyager 1 and 2 : Exploring the b) 3 only outer solar system c) 1, 2 and 3 Select the correct answer using the codes given d) None below: Ans (B) a) 1 only Explanation : Souring of milk is a chemical change, b) 2 and 3 only whereas crystallization of sodium chloride and c) 1 and 3 only melting of ice is a physical change. d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans (B) 51. The power of the Supreme Court of India to Explanation : decide disputes between the Centre and the Cassini–Huygens is a mission to Saturn.(NASA, ESA, States falls under its ASI) Messenger is a mission to mercury.(NASA) (a) advisory jurisdiction Voyager 1 and 2 is a mission to explore outer space (b) appellate jurisdiction (NASA). (c) original jurisdiction (d) writ jurisdiction 49. Consider the following pairs: Region Well-known for the Ans (C) production of Explanation: Article 131 (a) 1. Kinnaur : Areca nut 2. Mewat : Mango 52. Consider the following techniques/ phenomena: 3. Coromandel : Soya bean 1. Budding and grafting in fruit plants 2. Cytoplasmic male sterility Which of the above pairs is/are correctly 3. Gene silencing matched? Which of the above is/are used to create transgenic a) 1 and 2 only crops? b) 3 only a) 1 only c) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2 and 3 d) None c) 1 and 3 d) None
Ans (D)
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Explanation : Ans (C) Transgenic crops include transfer of DNA between Explanation: Article 124(1) two unrelated species. All the above methods does not involve transfer DNA. 56. Consider the following towns of India: 1. Bhadrachalam 53. Consider the following statements: 2. Chanderi 1. Maize can be used for the production of 3. Kancheepuram starch. 4. Karnal 2. Oil extracted from maize can be a feedstock Which of the above are famous for the for biodiesel. production of traditional sarees/fabric? 3. Alcoholic beverages can be produced by using a) 1 and 2 only maize. b) 2 and 3 only Which of the given above statement(s) is/are c) 1, 2 and 3 correct? d) 1, 3 and 4 a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only Ans (B) c) 2 and 3 only Explanation: d) 1, 2 and 3 Chanderi :-This is a variety of tissue silk that Ans (D) gives rise to see-through sarees. Madya Pradesh is Explanation : famous for producing these elegant pieces of Maize starch is used for thickening of sauces or masterful art. soups. Maize oil is used for production of biodiesel. Biodiesel made from maize oil has a better cloud 57. Consider the following pairs: point (CP) than yellow grease (YG) or used cooking National Highway Cities connected oil (UCO)biodiesel. 1. NH 4 Chennai and Hyderabad 2. NH 6 Mumbai and Kolkata 54. Among the following organisms, which one does 3. NH 15 Ahmedabad and Jodhpur not belong to the class of other three? Which of the above pairs is/are correctly (a) Crab (b) Mite matched? (c) Scorpion (d) Spider a) 1 and 2 only Ans (A) b) 3 only Explanation c) 1, 2 and 3 Scorpions are closely related to other organisms in d) None the phylum Arthropoda such as spiders like Salticus Ans (D) scenicus, ticks, and mites. Explanation: National Highway 15 ( NH 15) is a major 55. The power to increase the number of judges in National Highway in Western and Northwestern the Supreme Court of India is vested in India. NH 15 connects Samakhiali in Gujarat with a) the President of India Pathankot in Punjab. This 1,526 km (948 mi)-long b) the Parliament highway passes through Pathankot, Amritsar, Tarn c) the Chief Justice of India Taran Sahib, Zira, Kotkapura, Bhatinda, d) the Law Commission Ganganagar, Bikaner, Jaisalmer and Barmer. At
Bikaner the National Highway 11 terminates on this
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Highway. Of its total length of 1,526 km (948 mi), on biodiversity: • Bonn Convention on the National Highway 15 traverses 350 km (220 mi) Migratory Species. • Convention on Biological in Punjab, 906 km (563 mi) in Rajasthan, and 270 Diversity, • Convention on International Trade km (170 mi) in Gujarat.[1] on Endangered Species, • FAO International National Highway 4 (NH 4) is a major National Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for food Highway in Western and Southern India. NH 4 links and agriculture • Ramsar Convention on four of the 10 most populous Indian cities - Mumbai, Wetlands, • World Heritage Convention, • Pune, Bangalore, and Chennai. NH 4 is 1,235 km World Trade Organization, • UN Framework (767 mi) in length and passes through the states of Convention on Climate Change, • UN Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Convention to Combating Desertification, • Nadu UN Commission on Sustainable Development National Highway 6, commonly referred to as NH 6, is a busy National Highway in India that runs 59. Consider the following statements regarding through Gujarat, Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, ‘Earth Hour’: Jharkhand and West Bengal state in India. The 1. It is an initiative of UNEP and UNESCO. highway passes through the cities of Surat, Dhule, 2. It is a movement in which the participants Amravati, Nagpur, Bhandara, Durg, Raipur, switch off the lights for one hour on a certain Mahasamund, Sambalpur, Kolkata. The road is the day every year. part of National Highway network of India, and it is 3. It is a movement to raise the awareness about officially listed as running over 1,949 km (1,211 the climate change and the need to save the mi)from Mumbai to Kolkata. It is also known as planet. Mumbai Road. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 58. Consider the following international agreements: a) 1 and 3 only 1. The International Treaty on Plant Genetic b) 2 only Resources for Food and Agriculture c) 2 and 3 only 2. The United Nations Convention to Combat d) 1, 2 and 3 Desertification. Ans (C) 3. The World Heritage Convention Explanation Which of the above has/have a bearing on the Earth Hour is a worldwide movement for the biodiversity? planet organized by the World Wide Fund for Nature a) 1 and 2 only (WWF). The event is held worldwide annually b) 3 only encouraging individuals, communities, households c) 1 and 3 only and businesses to turn off their non-essential lights d) 1, 2 and 3 for one hour, from 8:30 to 9:30 p.m. on the last Saturday in March, as a symbol for their Ans (D) commitment to the planet.
Explanation: 60. Which one of the following is the correct International Conventions / Agreements India sequence of a food chain? has participated in major international events a) Diatoms/Crustaceans-Herrings on environment and biodiversity conservation b) Crustaceans-Diatoms-Herrings since 1972. India is party to the following c) Diatoms-Herrings-Crustaceans
international agreements which have bearing d) Crustaceans-Herrings-Diatoms
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Ans (A) activity within five Kilio metres from the edge Explanation: of the wetland. Diatoms or auto trophs meaning living beings c) The survival of the wetland depends on the which prepare their own food like plant. Crustaceans cultural practices and traditions of certain are herbivorous animals. Herrings are carnivorous communities living in its vicinity and animals. Thus one eats the other and completes the therefore the cultural diversity therein should food chain. not be destroyed. d) It is given the status of ‘World Heritage Site’ 61. What are the significances of the practical Ans (A) approach to sugarcane production known as Explanation ‘Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative’? The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites 1. Seed cost is very low in this compared to the on the List of Wetlands of International Importance conventional method of cultivation. where changes in ecological character have occurred, 2. Drip irrigation can be practiced very are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of effectively in this. technological developments, pollution or other 3. There is no application of chemical/inorganic human interference. It is maintained as part of the fertilizers at all in this. Ramsar List. 4. The scope for intercropping is more in this compared to the conventional method of 63. Which one of the following pairs of islands is cultivation. separated from each other by the ‘Ten Degree Select the correct answer using the code given below: Channel’? a) 1 and 3 only a) Andaman and Nicobar b) 1, 2 and 4 only b) Nicobar and Sumatra c) 2, 3 and 4 only c) Maldives and Lakshadweep d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 d) Sumatra and Java Ans (A) Ans (C) Explanation : Andaman and Nicobar is right pair Explanation : of islands is separated from each other by 10 degree As per TN Agro university webpage : channel NPK(fertilizers) can be applied at the rate of 112 kg, 25 kg, 48 kg per acre, respectively through inorganic 64. Consider the following pairs: or organic methods. There fore statement 3 is Programme / Project Ministry wrong. So 1,2,4 is right answers. 1. Drought Prone Area Programme : Ministry of 62. If a wetland of international importance is Agriculture brought under the ‘Montreux Record’, what does 2. Desert Development it imply? Programme : Ministry of a) Changes in ecological character have Environment occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur and Forests in the wetland as a result of human 3. National Watershed : Ministry of Rural interference. Development b) The country in which the wetland is located Development Project
should enact a law to prohibit any human for Rainfed Areas
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Which of the above pairs is/are correctly 66. With reference to ‘Global Environment Facility’, matched? which of the following statements is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 only a) It serves as financial mechanism for b) 3 only ‘Convention on Biological Diversity’ and c) 1, 2 and 3 ‘United Nations Framework Convention on d) None Climate Change’ Ans (B) b) It undertakes scientific research on Explanation environmental issues at global level All the three programme are by Rural c) It is an agency under OECD to facilitate the Development Ministry transfer of technology and funds to underdeveloped countries with specific aim 65. With reference to Bombay Natural History to protect their environment. Society (BNHS), consider the following d) Both (a) and (b) statements: Ans (D) 1. It is an autonomous organization under the Explanation : Ministry of Environment and Forests. Global Environment Facility (GEF) the largest public 2. It strives to conserve nature through action- funder of projects to improve the global based research, education and public environment. The GEF serves as financial awareness. mechanism for the following conventions: 3. It organizes and conducts nature trails and • Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) camps for the general public. • United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Which of the statements given above is/are Change (UNFCCC) correct? • UN Convention to Combat Desertification(UNCCD) a) 1 and 3 only • Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic b) 2 only Pollutants (POPs) c) 2 and 3 only • Minamata Converntion on Mercury d) 1, 2 and 3 67. With reference to technologies for solar power Ans (C) production, consider the following statements: Explanation 1. ‘Photovoltaics’ is a technology that generates Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS) – a electricity by direct conversion of light into membership-driven organization - has been electricity, while ‘Solar Thermal’ is a promoting the cause of a natural India for the past technology that utilizes the Sun’s rays to 130 years since 1883. It was started by 8 Mumbai generate heat which is further used in citizens, of which two were Indians. The Society's electricity generation process. guiding principle has always been that conservation 2. Photovoltaics generates Alternating Current must be based on scientific research - a tradition (AC), while Solar Thermal generates Direct exemplified by its former president, late Dr Sálim Current (DC). Ali. Designated as a Scientific and Industrial 3. India has manufacturing base for Solar Research Organization (SIRO) by Department of Thermal technology, but not for Science & Technology, Government of India. Photovoltaics.
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Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the above pairs is/are correctly correct? matched? a) 1 only a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1, 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 only d) None d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans (A) Ans (C) Explanation : Photovoltaic generates direct Explanation current. India has manufacturing base for both solar Dampa Tiger Reserve, the largest wildlife thermal technology and photo voltaics. sanctuary in Mizoram, Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary is famous wildlife reserve in Tripura. Saramati is a 68. Consider the following languages: peak rising above the surrounding peaks at the 1. Gujarati mountainous border of Nagaland state (India) 2. Kannada 3. Telugu 70. With reference to a conservation organization Which of the above has/have been declared as called ‘Wetlands International’, which of the ‘Classical Language/ Languages’ by the following statements is/are correct? Government? 1. It is an intergovernmental organization a) 1 and 2 only formed by the countries which are signatories b) 3 only to Ramsar Convention. c) 2 and 3 only 2. It works at the field level to develop and d) 1, 2 and 3 mobilize knowledge, and use the practical experience to advocate for better policies. Ans (C) Select the correct answer using the codes given Explanation below: In 2004, the Government of India declared a) 1 only that languages that met certain requirements could b) 2 only be accorded the status of a "Classical Language in c) Both 1 and 2 India".[29] (These are not classical languages in the d) Neither 1 nor 2 usual sense.) Languages thus far declared to be Ans (B) Classical are Tamil (in 2004),[30] Sanskrit (in Explanation 2005),[31] Telugu (in 2008), Kannada (in Wetlands International is the only global not-for- 2008),[32] Malayalam (in 2013)[33] and Oriya (in profit organisation dedicated to the conservation and 2014).[34][35] restoration of wetlands. We are deeply concerned about the loss and deterioration of wetlands such as 69. Consider the following pairs: lakes, marshes and rivers. Our vision is a world 1. Dampa Tiger Reserve : Mizoram where wetlands are treasured and nurtured for their 2. Gumti Wildlife beauty, the life they support and the resources they Sanctuary : Sikkim provide. Wetlands International work at the field 3. Saramati Peak : Nagaland level to develop and mobilise knowledge, and use this practical experience to advocate for better policies.
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Explanation : Both will effect the location and 71. With reference to a grouping of countries known temperature of the continent respectively which are as BRICS, consider the following statements: very important factor for evolution of organisms. 1. The First Summit of BRICS was held in Rio de Janeiro in 2009. 74. Other than poaching, what are the possible 2. South Africa was the last to join the BRICS reasons for the decline in the population of grouping. Ganges River Dolphins? Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1. Construction of dams and barrages on rivers a) 1 only 2. Increase in the population of crocodiles in b) 2 only rivers c) Both 1 and 2 3. Getting trapped in fishing nets accidentally d) Neither 1 nor 2 4. Use of synthetic fertilizers and other agricultural chemicals in crop-fields in the Ans (B) vicinity of rivers Explanation Select the correct answer using the codes given The inaugural BRIC summit took place in below: Yekaterinburg, Russia on June 16, 2009 a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only 72. Consider the following diseases: c) 1, 3 and 4 only 1. Diphtheria d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 2. Chickenpox Ans (C) 3. Smallpox Explanation : Which of the above diseases has/have been Indian Gangetic Dolphins are obligate river water eradicated in India? dolphin. Increase in the population of crocodile does a) 1 and 2 only not affect Gangetic Dolphins. b) 3 only c) 1, 2 and 3 75. The Radcliffe Committee was appointed to d) None a) solve the problem of minorities in India Ans (B) b) give effect to the Independence Bill Explanation : c) delimit the boundaries between India and WHO certified the eradication of smallpox in 1979. Pakistan d) enquire into the riots in East Bengal 73. Which of the following phenomena might have Ans (C) influenced the evolution of organisms? Explanation : 1. Continental drift The Radcliffe Line was published on 17 August 1947 2. Glacial cycles as a boundary demarcation line between India and Select the correct answer using the codes given Pakistan upon the Partition of India. The Radcliffe below: Line was named after its architect, Sir Cyril Radcliffe, a) 1 only who as chairman of the Border Commissions. b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans (C)
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76. Brominated flame retardants are used in many Ans (C) household products like mattresses and Explanation : Hibernation is also known as winter upholstery. Why is there some concern about sleep. Animals that undergo hibernation are Bat, their use? Hedgehog, Bear, frog, Rodents etc. 1. They are highly resistant to degradation in the environment. 78. Which one of the following is the largest 2. They are able to accumulate in humans and Committee of the Parliament? animals. a) The Committee on Public Accounts Select the correct answer using the codes given b) The Committee on Estimates below: c) The Committee on Public Undertakings a) 1 only d) The Committee on Petitions Explanation: b) 2 only Committee on Estimates has 30 M.Ps c) Both 1 and 2 Committee on Public d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans (C) Ans (C) Explanation Explanation : Accounts has 22 M.Ps Committee on There are five main classes of Brominated Petitions has 25 M.Ps Committee on Public flameretardants, listed here with their common uses: Undertakings has 22 M.Ps • Polybrominated diphenyl ethers (PBDEs) • Plastics, textiles, electronic castings,circuitry 79. Which of the following adds/add carbon dioxide • Hexabromocyclododecanes (HBCDDs) – to the carbon cycle on the planet Earth? thermal insulation in the building industry 1. Volcanic action • Tetrabromobisphenol A (TBBPA) and other 2. Respiration phenols – printed circuit boards, 3. Photosynthesis thermoplastics (mainly in TVs) 4. Decay of organic matter • Polybrominated biphenyls (PBBs) –consumer Select the correct answer using the codes given appliances, textiles, plastic foams below: a) 1 and 3 only • Other brominated flame retardants. They are b) 2 only persistence in environment and hazardous to c) 1, 2 and 4 only both humans and animals. d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
77. Consider the following: Ans (C) 1. Bats Explanation : 2. Bears Photosynthesis involves uptake of carbon di 3. Rodents oxideand release of oxygen. Through this mechanism The phenomenon of hibernation can be observed only forest acts as carbon sink. in which of the above kinds of animals?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) Hibernation cannot be observed in any of the
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80. It you walk through countryside, you are likely to Bengal, Exclusively Fringing Reefs of about 500 see some birds stalking alongside the cattle to seize Islands , most of this island are with healthy the insects disturbed by their movement through biodiversity . grasses. Which of the following is/are such bird/birds? 82. In India, the problem of soil erosion is associated 1. Painted Stork with which of the following? 2. Common Myna 1. Terrace cultivation 3. Black-necked Crane 2. Deforestation Select the correct answer using the codes given 3. Tropical climate below: Select the correct answer using the codes given a) 1 and 2 below: b) 2 only a) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 b) 2 only d) 3 only c) 1 and 3 only Ans (B) d) 1, 2 and 3 Explanation : Common myna is insect eaters and Ans (B) found mostly alongside of cattle during grazing. Explanation : Deforestation will increase the runoff. Tropical 81. Which of the following have coral reefs? Climates alone cannot create soil erosion. terrace 1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands cultivation also not possible. 2. Gulf of Kachchh 3. Gulf of Mannar 83. The seasonal reversal of winds is the typical 4. Sunderbans characteristic of Select the correct answer using the codes given a) Equatorial climate below: b) Mediterranean climate a) 1, 2 and 3 only c) Monsoon climate b) 2 and 4 only d) All of the above climates c) 1 and 3 only Ans (C) d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Explanation : Explanation Monsoon connotes the climate associated with Gulf Of KUTCH Exclusively Consist Of Fringing seasonal reversal in the direction of winds. Reefs. The Reefs are relatively Less Developed Due to large range of temperature and high salinity . Harbours with less Biodiversity . The Entire Gulf Of 84. With reference to the cultural history of India, Kutch is also known as Marine national park . the term ‘Panchayatan’ refers to Lakshadweep Exclusively Coral Atoll with 36 island (a) an assembly of village elders of which 10 are inhabited . The islands range from (b) a religious sect less than a kilometer to about 9 km in length & does (c) a style of temple construction not exceed 2km across . Gulf Of Mannar Fringing (d) an administrative functionary reefs with a chain of 20 islands from Rameshwaran in North to Tuticorin In South. This part of the gulf Ans (C) forms part of Gulf of mannar bisphere reserve . Explanation
Andaman & Nicobar Island Situated in Bay Of
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Panchayantan means a group of five temples Ans (A) on one platform with main temple at the center Explanation Harike Wetland also known as "Hari-ke- 85. Consider the following rivers: Pattan". It is the largest wetland in northern India. It 1. Barak is located in the Tarn Taran Sahib district of the 2. Lohit Punjab state. The headworks is located downstream 3. Subansiri of the confluence of the Beas and Sutlej rivers. This Which of the above flows/flow through Arunachal wetland was declared a bird sanctuary in 1982 and Pradesh? named as Harike Pattan Bird Sanctuary. Kolleru (a) 1 only Lake is one of the largest freshwater lakes in India (b) 2 and 3 only located in state of Andhra Pradesh. Kolleru is located (c) 1 and 3 only between Krishna and Godavari delta. The Musi River (d) 1, 2 and 3 which flows through the city of Hyderabad
Ans (B) 87. Which one of the following pairs does not form Explanation part of the six systems of Indian Philosophy? The Barak River is one of the major rivers of a) Mimamsa and Vedanta South Assam and is a part of the Surma-Meghna b) Nyaya and Vaisheshika River System Lohit River is a river in Arunachal c) Lokayata and Kapalika Pradesh in India. It is a tributary to the Brahmaputra d) Sankhya and Yoka River. The Subansiri River is a tributary of the Ans (C) Brahmaputra River in the Indian states of Assam and Explanation : The Six Systems of Indian Arunachal Pradesh, and the Tibet Autonomous Philosophy are Region of China. 1. Samkya 2. Yoga 86. Consider the following pairs: 3. Naya Wetlands Confluence of rivers 4. Mimamsa 1. Harike Wetlands : Confluence of Beas 5. Vedanta and Satluj/Sutlej 6. Vaiseshika. 2. Keoladeo Ghana Lokayata & kapalika are the hetrodoxal sects National Park : Confluence of Banas respectively. and Chambal 88. Consider the following pairs: 3. Kolleru Lake : Confluence of Musi Hills Region and Krishna 1. Cardamom Hills : Coromandel Coast 2. Kaimur Hills : Konkan Coast Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? 3. Mahadeo Hills : Central India a) 1 only 4. Mikir Hills : North-East India b) 2 and 3 only Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? c) 1 and 3 only a) 1 and 2 d) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2 and 3 c) 3 and 4
d) 2 and 4
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Ans (C) Ans (B) Explanation Explanation Cardamom Hills, mountainous area in Turkey is situated in Anatolia and the southeastern Kerala state, southern India, forming Balkans, bordering the Black Sea, between Bulgaria part of the Western Ghats range Kaimur Wildlife and Georgia, and bordering the Aegean Sea and the Sanctuary is located in Kaimur District of Bihar and Mediterranean Sea, between Greece and Syria. is near Bhabhua. It is the largest sanctuary in the state and occupies an area of about 1342 km2. The 92. What is the correct sequence of occurrence of the Mahadeo Hills are a range of hills in Madhya following cities in South-East Asia as one Pradeshstate of central India. The hills form the proceeds from south to north? central part of theSatpura Range. The Karbis, 1. Bangkok mentioned as the Mikir in the Constitution Order of 2. Hanoi the Government of India, are one of the major ethnic 3. Jakarta groups in North-east India and especially in the hill 4. Singapore areas of Assam. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 89. Which one of the following Schedules of the a) 4-2-1-3 Constitution of India contains provisions b) 3-2-4-1 regarding anti-defection? c) 3-4-1-2 a) Second Schedule d) 4-3-2-1 b) Fifth Schedule c) Eighth Schedule Ans (C) d) Tenth Schedule Ans (D) 93. The scientific view is that the increase in global Explanation 10th Schedule – Anti – deflection law. temperature should not exceed 20C above pre- industrial level. If the global temperature 90. The most important strategy for the increases beyond 30C above the pre-industrial conservation of biodiversity together with level, what can be its possible impact/impacts on traditional human life is the establishment of the world? a) biosphere reserves 1. Terrestrial biosphere tends toward a net b) botanical gardens carbon source. c) national parks 2. Widespread coral mortality will occur. d) wildlife sanctuaries 3. All the global wetlands will permanently Ans (A) disappear. Explanation : Biosphere reserves are established 4. Cultivation of cereals will not be possible under UNESCO’s Man And Biosphere anywhere in the world. (MAB)Programme. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 91. Turkey is located between a) 1 only a) Black Sea and Caspian Sea b) 1 and 2 only b) Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea c) 2, 3 and 4 only c) Gulf of Suez and Mediterranean Sea d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
d) Gulf of Aqaba and Dead Sea
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Ans (B) Parts of central and northern Africa may experience Explanation small increases in cereal yield At the current increasing rate of greenhouse gas emissions, a temperature rise of up to 4.0°C 94. The national motto of India, ‘Satyameva Jayate’ (7.2°F) this century is a distinct possibility. These inscribed below the Emblem of India is taken changes have already had harmful impacts on coral from reef ecosystems and will continue to affect coral reef a) Katha Upanishad ecosystems globally over the coming century. At the b) Chandogya Upanishad same time, the ocean absorbs approximately one- c) Aitareya Upanishad third of the additional CO2 generated every year by d) Mundaka Upanishad human activities, making the ocean more acidic. The Ans (C) resulting change to ocean chemistry has important Explanation consequences for corals and other marine life, Satyameva Jayate: literal English: Truth especially other important reef builders. Warming Alone Triumphs) is a mantra from the ancient Indian seas and ocean acidification are already affecting scriptureMundaka Upanishad.[1] Upon reefs by causing mass coral bleaching events and independence of India, it was adopted as the national slowing the growth of coral skeletons. Bleaching and motto of India.[2] It is inscribed in Devanagari script infectious disease outbreaks are likely to be more at the base of the national emblem. The emblem and frequent and severe as temperatures rise, increasing the words "Satyameva Jayate" are inscribed on one coral mortality. At current anthropogenic emission side of all Indian currency. The emblem is an rates, the ongoing positive trends in the terrestrial adaptation of the Lion Capital of Ashoka which was carbon sink will peak before mid-century, then begin erected around 250 BC at Sarnath, near Varanasi in diminishing, even without accounting for tropical the north Indian state of Uttar Pradesh. deforestation trends and biosphere feedback, tending strongly towards a net carbon source before 95. In the Constitution of India, promotion of 2100, assuming continued greenhouse gas emissions international peace and security in included in and land-use change trends at or above current rates the (high confidence), while the buffering capacity of the a) Preamble to the Constitution oceans will begin to saturate; The overall effects of b) Directive Principles of State Policy climate-induced changes in land and crop suitability c) Fundamental Duties and yields are small compared with those stemming d) Ninth Schedule from economic and technological growth. By 2020 Ans (A) world cereal production might be only about 0.5 Explanation Art 51(a) percent less than what it would have been in the absence of climate change (IPCC, 2001c; Parry et al., 96. What are the benefits of implementing the 1999), although this decline might be much greater ‘Integrated Watershed Development by 2050 or later. The largest regional reduction Programme? would be in Africa where cereal production is 1. Prevention of soil runoff projected to decline by 2-3 percent. This potential 2. Linking the country’s perennial rivers with fall could be compensated by a relatively small seasonal rivers increase in yields or imports. But this regional 3. Rainwater harvesting and recharge of picture hides important subregional differences. groundwater table
4. Regeneration of natural vegetation.
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UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS GENERAL STUDIES – 2014
Select the correct answer using the codes given 98. Which of the following is/are the below: function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat? a) 1 and 2 only 1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings b) 2, 3 and 4 only 2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees. c) 1, 3 and 4 only 3. Allocation of financial resources to the d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ministries. Select the correct answer using the codes given Ans (C) below: Explanation a) 1 only Major activities of the Watershed project: • b) 2 and 3 only Soil & moisture conservation measures like c) 1 and 2 only terracing, bunding, trenching, vegetative barriers etc. d) 1, 2 and 3 • Rain water harvesting activities like farm ponds, Explanation: percolation tanks, checkdams etc. • Planting & The Cabinet Secretariat is under the direct sowing of multi-purpose trees, shrubs, grasses, charge of the Prime Minister. The administrative legumes and pasture land development • head of the Secretariat is the Cabinet Secretary who Encouraging natural regeneration • Promotion of is also the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services agro-forestry and horticulture • Measures needed to Board. In the Government of India (Allocation of disseminate technology • Training, extension and Business) Rules, 1961 "Cabinet Secretariat" finds a creation of a greater degree of awareness among the place participants • Encouraging peoples’ participation • in the First Schedule to the Rules. The subjects Livelihood activities for assetless people • Production allotted to this Secretariat are:- system and micro-enterprise Source 1. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet and Cabinet Committees. 2. Rules of Business. 97. Which of the following are with ‘Planning’ in 3. The secretarial assistance provided by Cabinet India? Secretariat to the Cabinet and Cabinet 1. The Finance Commission committees, includes 2. The National Development Council 4. Convening of the meetings of the Cabinet on 3. The Union Ministry of Rural Development the orders of the Prime Minister. 4. The Union Ministry of Urban Development 5. Preparation and circulation of the agenda. 5. The Parliament 6. Circulating papers related to the cases on the Select the correct answer using the codes given agenda. below: 7. Preparing a record of discussions taken. a) 1, 2 and 5 only 8. Circulation of the record after obtaining the b) 1, 3 and 4 only approval of the Prime Minister. c) 2 and 5 only 9. Watching implementation of the decisions d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 taken by the Cabinet.
Explanation: The NDC and Parliament are approving authorities of planning.
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UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS GENERAL STUDIES – 2014
99. Consider the following statements: A Constitutional Government is one which 1. places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority 2. places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty. Which of the statement given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans (C) Explanation : A constitutional Government needs to balance between individual liberty viz a viz State Authority
100. Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State? 1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule 2. Appointing the Ministers 3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India. 4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government Select the correct answer using the codes given below: a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans (B) Explanation : For appointing the Minister Governor has to abide by the advise of Chief Minister (Article 164 (1) of Constitution of India). For making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government the Chief Secretary will do on the
instructions of the Council of Ministers- Article 166.
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