VISION IAS™... Inspiring Innovation www.visionias.in www.visionias.wordpress.com

“The significant problems we face cannot be solved at the same level of thinking we were at when we created them." - Albert Einstein ANALYSIS / APPROACH / SOURCE / STRATEGY: GENERAL STUDIES PRE 2020 PAPER - TEAM VISION IAS Observations on CSP 2020

• This year the paper appeared to be on the tougher side and the options framed were confusing. • The static portions like History, Polity, Geography, Economics, etc. as expected were given due weightage. • Questions in almost all the subjects ranged from easy to medium to difficult level. Few unconventional questions were also seen. This year many questions were agriculture related which were asked from geography, environment and economics perspective. • Few questions asked by UPSC, although inspired by current affairs, required overall general awareness. For instance the questions on Indian elephants, cyber insurance, G-20, Siachen glacier, etc. • Polity questions demanded deeper understanding of the Constitution and its provisions. The options in polity questions were close but very easy basic fundamental questions like DPSP, Right to Equality, etc were asked from regular sources like Laxmikanth. Few Questions covering the governance aspect like Aadhar, Legal Services, etc were also given weightage. • In the History section, Ancient questions were given more weightage unlike in the previous years, and their difficulty level was also high. Art & Culture and Medieval Indian history also had tough questions. However, the modern history section was of moderate level difficulty overall. • Environment questions unlike previous years did not focus on International climate initiatives and bodies. This year focus lay on environmental issues, application of technology and related concepts like benzene pollution, steel slag, biochar, etc. • Map reading and Atlas continues to an important role in one's preparation in the Geography section. This year Geography included a mix of factual and conceptual questions like major minerals, ocean mean temperature, jet streams etc. • S&T questions were more on technology aspects than on basic science. Direct relation of S&T developments could be linked with current affairs like Visible light communication, pronuclear transfer, Pneumococcal vaccine etc. However, few questions did seek to test deeper knowledge and clarity like germline gene therapy, e-LISA, Carbon Nano Tubes etc. • Overall weightage to Economics questions was increased this year. It ranged from basic, definition based questions, questions like demand deposit, WPI, commercial paper, reserve tranche etc. to current affairs inspired questions like KCC, MSP. Statistics/trend based questions were this year as compared to last year. • The Current Affairs based questions were not restricted to past one year news but gauged overall depth and comprehension of the topics. • Overall, themes of the questions asked seemed relevant but required in-depth understanding and knowledge. Thus, we can say that UPSC expects the aspirants to even read the fine print and prepare topics holistically. 1 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Recommendations

• Read Basic/standard books, follow one Good News Paper religiously and use the internet as extensively as possible. • Have keen perception about things going around you. After reading newspaper always clarify key terms from internet. Try to refer to the official govt. websites more. • Read standard text books on static subjects and don’t ignore NCERTs. Never ignore any subject completely to increase attemptability in the paper. • An appropriate strategy should be to avoid negative marking in tough questions and maximize your score by first finding the easy ones and completing them. • Read questions carefully and use elimination technique wherever possible.

Nature of Question EM = Essential material like basic books etc. F: Fundamental, Conventional and conceptual question which is easily available in commonly RM = Reference material recommended books. If a current affairs source is mentioned then it indicates that you had one more reason to prepare this. EN = Essential News/Current Affairs FA: Fundamental Applied question is an analytical question which requires information + RR = Random Read like random website etc. application of mind. E : Easy , M : Medium , D : Difficult Answer to these questions are from commonly recommended books but not so obvious to find. CA: Current Affair question which can be answered almost completely using given source alone. CAA: Current Affair Applied question needs information from more than one source to answer AND/OR application of mind (common sense and overall understanding) of aspirant. This is why source for these questions may not be answering the question completely. FCA: Fundamental + Current affair. This is a F or FA question supplemented with current affairs or a current affairs question that needs background information for complete answer. Source to these questions might not answer the questions in entirety. U (Unconventional Question): Unconventional Question means the question that is distantly related to syllabus provided by UPSC. It is neither present in even reference sources (in addition to recommended books) nor prominently in news.

2 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

A L n Vision IAS e s Nat Source (All India Test Series/ QN Section Question Explanation v Source Motivation w ure Type Current Affairs e e Magazine/PT 365) l r 1 S&T When reference to carbon D Carbon nanotubes (CNTs) are D CAA https://www. RR ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: The use of nanotubes, consider the cylindrical large molecules ncbi.nlm.nih.g TEST 2988 technologies based following statements: consisting of a hexagonal ov/pmc/articl In the field of on Carbon Nanotubes 1. They can be used as arrangement of hybridized carbon es/PMC48132 nanotechnology, carbon is gaining ground and carriers of drugs and atoms, which may by formed by 64/ nanotubes (CNT) are that's why it is often antigens in the human body. rolling up a single sheet of gaining importance. In in the news. 2. They can be made into graphene (single-walled carbon https://techno this context, which of the artificial blood capillaries for nanotubes, SWCNTs) or by rolling logy.nasa.gov/ following statements are correct? an injured part of human up multiple sheets of graphene patent/TOP2- 1. They are cylindrical body. (multiwalled carbon nanotubes, 104 molecules that consist of 3. They can be used in MWCNTs). Hence structurally, rolled-up sheets of biochemical sensors. carbon nanotubes (CNTs) can be https://www. carbon atoms. 4. Carbon nanotubes are viewed as wrapped from ncbi.nlm.nih.g 2. They can be used in biodegradable. graphene sheets. ov/pmc/articl drug delivery and Which of the statements Carbon nanotubes were once es/PMC41142 cleaning up of oil spills. given above are correct? considered to be resistant to 41/ 3. They have extremely (a) 1 and 2 only chemical damage due to their high density and low (b) 2, 3 and 4 only rigid and perfect chemical https://nanos chemical stability. (c) 1, 3 and 4 only structure, which rendered them calereslett.spr Select the correct answer using the code given (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 immune to biodegradation. ingeropen.co below. However, enzymes like peroxidase m/articles/10. (a) 1 and 2 only were found to play an important 1186/s11671- (b) 2 and 3 only role in the process of 018-2689-9 (c) 1 and 3 only biodegradation of carbon (d) 1, 2 and 3 nanotubes. Hence option 4 is https://ir.uiow a.edu/cgi/vie EXPLANATION correct. Carbon nanotubes (CNTs) wcontent.cgi? are cylindrical molecules NASA has demonstrated the use article=5488& that consist of rolled-up of carbon nanotube arrays as context=etd biosensors. Hence option 3 is sheets of single-layer correct. carbon atoms (graphene). They can be single-walled Carbon nanotubes (CNTs) are (SWCNT) with a diameter characterized by unique chemical of less than 1 nanometer and biological properties. CNTs (nm) or multi-walled 3 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

have a large surface area that (MWCNT), consisting of allows them to attach a wide several concentrically range of biological substances. In interlinked nanotubes, addition, CNTs are able to with diameters reaching penetrate through cell more than 100 nm. Their membranes, capillaries, and length can reach several accumulated in cells and tissues. micrometers or even millimeters. It is expected that enabling CNTs also have unique technology would facilitate the thermal and mechanical making of nanodevices using properties that make these blood-compatible them intriguing for the nanomaterials as building blocks development of new for biomedical applications such materials: as artificial implants, including their thermal structural tissue replacements, conductivity is better that is, artificial blood vessels, or than that of the diamond. functional devices such as drug they are very light-weight delivery matrixes. Hence – their density is one- statements 1 and 2 are correct. sixth of that of steel just like graphite, they are highly chemically stable and resist virtually any chemical impact unless they are simultaneously exposed to high temperatures and oxygen. their hollow interior can be filled with various nanomaterials, separating and shielding them from the surrounding environment - a property that is extremely useful for nanomedicine applications like drug delivery. CNTs find an incredible range of applications in electronics, materials 4 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

science, energy management, chemical processing, and many other fields. Carbon nanotubes are being developed to clean up oil spills. Researchers have found that adding boron atoms during the growth of carbon nanotubes causes the nanotubes to grow into a sponge-like material that can absorb many times its weight in oil. 2 S&T Consider the following D Drone technology has been used D CAA https://www.i RR The Ministry of Civil activities: by defense organizations for quite sro.gov.in/app Aviation has 1. Spraying pesticides on a some time. However, the benefits lications-of- published the draft crop field of this technology extends well unmanned- Unmanned Aircraft 2. Inspecting the craters of beyond just these sectors e.g. aerial-vehicle- System Rules, 2020, active volcanoes emergency response, uav-based- in a bid to frame 3. Collecting breath samples humanitarian relief, healthcare, remote- regulations around from spouting whales for disease control, weather sensing-ne- drone usage DNA analysis. forecasting etc. Recently, region At the present level of Australian scientists used drones technology, which of the (that flew 200 metres above the https://www.s above activities can be blowholes of whales) to collect ciencedaily.co successfully carried out by the mucus of whales from their m/releases/20 using drones? water sprays to examine their 20/05/200525 (a) 1 and 2 only health.The whale spray collected 115649.htm (b) 2 and 3 only by a drone contains DNA, (c) 1 and 3 only proteins, lipids and types of https://www.f (d) 1, 2 and 3 bacteria. Hence option 3 is irstpost.com/t correct. ech/science/r Drones have also been used to esearchers- study the craters of active are-now- volcanoes to know about their using-drones- recent activities, a place which to-collect- human beings cannot directly whale-mucus- access. Hence option 2 is correct. to-track-their- Recently, the use of drones to health- 5 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

spray pesticides (in Telengana) 6024571.html was in the news. It is considered illegal in India. But in the US it is legally practised in many states. Hence option 1 is correct. Hence option (d) is the correct answer. 3 S&T The experiment will employ D The experimental research on M CA https://www.t EN Gravitational Waves a trio of spacecraft flying in black holes using gravitational hehindu.com/ and associated formation in the shape of an waves expanded following the sci- developments are equilateral triangle that has second detection of gravitational tech/science/S always in the news. sides one million kilometers waves by the LIGO detector. After pace- After LISA pathfinder, long, with lasers shining the success of the LISA Pathfinder antennae-to- eLISA is next in the between the craft." The experiment, the evolved Laser probe- line. experiment in question Interferometer Space Antenna gravitational- refers to (eLISA) project is a plan of setting waves/article1 (a) Voyager-2 into space three spacecraft, a 4433813.ece (b) New Horizons mother and two daughter (c) LISA Pathfinder spacecraft, which will fly in a https://ui.ads (d) Evolved LISA triangular formation, trailing the abs.harvard.e earth in its orbit around the sun at du/abs/2013H a distance of over 50 million km. EAD...1330201 Each arm of the imaginary D/abstract triangle, from the mother to each daughter spacecraft, will measure about a million km. Inside these spacecraft will float “freely falling” test masses – cubes with sides measuring abut 46 mm. Laser interferometers will accurately measure changes in the distance between these cubes. If they should be affected by a gravitational wave, the minute changes in this distance are measure by the interferometer. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

6 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

4 S&T Consider the following D Germline gene therapy targets the M CAA https://world RM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: Gene Therapy and statements: reproductive cells, meaning any health.net/ne TEST 2970 Mitochondrial 1. Genetic changes can be changes made to the DNA will be ws/human- With reference to Gene Replacement Therapy introduced in the cells that passed on to the next generation. embryos- Therapy, consider the have been in the produce eggs or sperms of a Consequently, the practice has gentically- following statements: news. prospective . dramatically divided opinion. altered- 1. It involves the delivery https://www.deccanc 2. A person's genome can be Germline gene therapy is when unintended- of a normal gene into the hronicle.com/lifestyle edited before birth at the DNA is transferred into the cells consequences individual to compensate /health-and- for the non-functional early embryonic stage. that produce reproductive cells, / wellbeing/030817/for gene. 3. Human induced eggs or sperm, in the body. Hence https://www. -first-time-disease- 2. It allows correction of a pluripotent stem cells can be statement 1 is correct. ncbi.nlm.nih.g edited-out-of-genes- gene defect that has injected into the embryo of a Although germline gene therapy is ov/pmc/articl been diagnosed in an in-human- pig. illegal, embryonic genetic editing es/PMC68139 embryo. embryo.html Which of the statements is different from that and is 42/ Which of the statements given above is/are correct? possible to make genome changes given above is/are (a) 1 only to eliminate the vertical trasfer http://sitn.hm correct? (b) 2 and 3 only (through ) of certain s.harvard.edu/ (a) 1 only (c) 2 only diseases and medical conditions. flash/2019/ge (b) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Hence statement 2 is correct. netic-editing- (c) Both 1 and 2 Human-animal chimeras are human- (d) Neither 1 nor 2 animals bearing human cells and embryos- EXPLANATION: organs. They offer insights into united-states- Gene therapy is a early human development and ignites- collection of methods disease onset and provide a debate/#:~:te that allows correction of realistic drug-testing platform. xt=However% a gene defect that has Researchers have experimented 2C%20germ% been diagnosed in a by injecting several different 20cells%20an /embryo. Here genes are inserted into a forms of human stem cells into pig d%20embryos person’s cells and tissues embryos to see which cell-type ,allowing%20s to treat a disease. would survive best. The cells that cientists%20to Correction of a genetic survived longest and showed the %20direct%20 defect involves delivery most potential to continue to evolution.&te of a normal gene into the develop were intermediate xt=Certain%20 individual or embryo to human pluripotent stem cells. genetic%20de take over the function of Hence statement 3 is correct. fects%20that and compensate for the %20cause,cur non-functional gene. ed%20with%2 The first clinical gene 0embryonic% therapy was given in 20gene%20edi 1990 to a 4-year old girl ting. with adenosine 7 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

deaminase (ADA) https://www.s deficiency. This enzyme is ciencedaily.co crucial for the immune m/releases/20 system to function. The 17/01/170126 disorder is caused due to 132536.htm#: the deletion of the gene ~:text=The%2 for adenosine deaminase. 0researchers% In some children ADA deficiency can be cured 20injected%2 by bone marrow 0several%20di transplantation; in others fferent,interm it can be treated by ediate%22%2 enzyme replacement 0human%20pl therapy, in which uripotent%20s functional ADA is given to tem%20cells. the patient by injection. But the problem with both of these approaches that they are not completely curative. As a first step towards gene therapy, lymphocytes from the blood of the patient are grown in a culture outside the body. A functional ADA cDNA (using a retroviral vector) is then introduced into these lymphocytes, which are subsequently returned to the patient. However, as these cells are not immortal, the patient requires periodic infusion of such genetically engineered lymphocytes. However, if the gene isolate from marrow cells producing ADA is introduced into cells at early embryonic stages, it could be a 8 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

permanent cure. Hence, both the statements are correct. 5 S&T What is the importance of B A conjugate vaccine is a type of D CA https://www.t EN In July, 2020 Drug using Pneumococcal vaccine which combines a weak hehindu.com/ Controller General of Conjugate Vaccines in India? antigen with a strong antigen as a sci- India (DCGI) has 1. These vaccines are carrier so that the immune system tech/health/fi given approval to the effective against pneumonia has a stronger response to the rst- first fully as well as meningitis and weak antigen. indigenous- indigenously sepsis. A Pneumococcal Conjugate vaccine-for- developed 2. Dependence on antibiotics Vaccine (PCV) is a pneumococcal - Pneumococcal that are not effective against vaccine which gives prevention pneumonia- Polysaccharide drug resistant bacteria can against pneumococcal diseases, approved/arti Conjugate Vaccine. be reduced. that are infections caused by cle32095084.e This vaccine has been 3. These vaccines have no bacteria called Streptococcus ce developed by M/s. side effects and cause no pneumoniae, or pneumococcus. Serum Institute of allergic reactions. Pneumococcal infections can https://www.s India Pvt. Ltd, Pune. Select the correct answer range from ear and sinus ciencedirect.c Serum Institute first using the code given below: infections to pneumonia and om/science/ar obtained the (a) 1 only bloodstream infections. A ticle/pii/S1201 approval of DCGI to (b) 1 and 2 only pneumococcal vaccine is also 97121930397 conduct Phase I, (c) 3 only commonly called pneumonia 2#:~:text=Whi Phase II and Phase III (d) 1, 2 and 3 vaccine and can prevent le%20vaccines clinical trials of septicaemia (a kind of blood %20are%20no Pneumococcal poisoning, also called sepsis) and t%20intended, Polysaccharide meningitis. Hence statement 1 is reducing%20a Conjugate Vaccine in correct. ntibiotic%20us India. These trials While vaccines are not intended e%20and%20 have since been to replace antibiotics, they can misuse. concluded within the contribute to reduce AMR country. The said (Antimicrobial Resistance or drug https://ourwo Company has also resistance) by preventing rldindata.org/ conducted these (resistant) bacterial diseases and vaccines- clinical trials in their transmission, and by antibiotic- another country i.e. reducing antibiotic use and dependence Gambia. misuse. PCVs for pneumococcos can potentially reduce the dependence on antibiotics by nearly 50 fifty percent per year. Hence statement 2 is correct. 9 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines can have side effects ranging from fever, loss of appetite to headache, fussiness. Hence statement 3 is not correct. 6 CURRENT In India, the term "Public Key A Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is a E CA https://www. RR Digital security AFFAIRS Infrastructure is used in the technology for authenticating pki.network/in infrastructure in context of users and devices in the digital dia/Faq/ news. (a) Digital security world. The basic idea is to have Difference between infrastructure one or more trusted parties Digital signature and (b) Food security digitally sign documents certifying Digital Signature infrastructure that a particular cryptographic key Certificate has (c) Health care and education belongs to a particular user or already been asked infrastructure device. Hence option (a) is the by UPSC. (d) Telecommunication and correct answer. transportation infrastructure 7 GENERAL Which of the following C The most important difference M F https://ncert. EM SCIENCE statements are correct between a plant cell and an nic.in/ncerts/l regarding the general animal cell is that the former has /iesc105.pdf difference between plant a cell wall. A cell wall gives Class 9th and animal cells? mechanical support to a plant cell. NCERT 1. Plant cells have cellulose Animal cells do not have cell walls. cell walls whilst animal cells Plants have both a cell wall that is do not. made up of cell membrane 2. Plant cells do not have (plasma membrane) and cellulose. plasma membrane unlike The cell wall is, a rigid membrane animal cells which do. matrix found on the surface of all 3. Mature plant cell has one plant cells whose primary role is large vacuole whilst animal to protect the cell and its content. cell has many small vacuoles. Hence statement 1 is correct and Select the correct answer statement 2 is not correct. using the code given below: Plant cells have a large central (a) 1 and 2 only vacuole that can occupy up to (b) 2 and 3 only 90% of the cell’s volume. Animal (c) 1 and 3 only cells may have many small (d) 1, 2 and 3 vacuoles, a lot smaller than the plant cell. Hence statement 3 is correct.

10 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

11 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

8 ENVIRONME Which of the following are D Sources of exposure to benzene M FA https://indian RR Benzene pollution NT the reasons/factors for Human exposure to benzene has express.com/a increased during the exposure to benzene been associated with a range of rticle/cities/m lockdown in cities. pollution? acute and long-term adverse health umbai/lockdo 1. Automobile exhaust effects and diseases, including wn-impact- 2. Tobacco smoke cancer and aplastic anaemia. Active sharp-drop-in- 3. Wood burning and passive exposure to tobacco nitrogen- 4. Using varnished wooden smoke is also a significant source of dioxide- exposure. Benzene is highly volatile, furniture benzene/ and most exposure is through 5. Using products made of inhalation. Natural sources of polyurethane https://www. benzene include volcanoes and Select the correct answer forest fires. Benzene is also a who.int/ipcs/f using the code given below: natural part of crude oil, gasoline, eatures/benze (a) 1, 2 and 3 only and cigarette smoke. ne.pdf (b) 2 and 4 only Industrial processes (c) 1, 3 and 4 only As benzene occurs naturally in (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 crude petroleum at levels up to 4 g/l, human activities using petroleum lead to exposure. These activities include processing of petroleum products, coking of coal, production of toluene, xylene and other aromatic compounds, and use in industrial and consumer products, as a chemical intermediate and as a component of petrol (gasoline) and heating oils. The presence of benzene in petrol and as a widely used industrial solvent can result in significant occupational exposure and widespread emissions to the environment. Automobile exhaust accounts for the largest source of benzene in the general environment. Wood finishes can contain and emit various chemicals. For example, paints and some wood treatments can contain formaldehyde, acetone, toluene or butanol. Wood dyes can 12 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

contain: nonane, decane, undecane, dimethyloctane, dimethylnonane, trimethylnonane, trimethylbenzene. During fires, polyurethane foams burn rapidly and produce dense smoke, toxic gases and intense heat. Carbon monoxide is most common, but smoke also contains benzene, toluene, nitrogen oxides and hydrogen cyanide. 9 ECONOMICS If another global financial A If a global financial crisis happens M FA https://www.f EN Global Financial crisis happens in the near in the future, lesser exposure to ocus- Crisis; the ripple future, which of the the foreign financial markets is economics.co effect; considered to following action/policies are likely to give some immunity to m/blog/the- be a negative most likely to give some India. next-financial- landmark in the immunity to India? Option 1 is correct: Short-term crisis-how- world -polico- 1. Not depending on short- borrowings would lead to the when-it-will- economic history. term foreign borrowings burden of paying back the debt, happen- 2. Opening up to more and could result in stressful according-to- foreign banks conditions for the borrowing 26-experts 3. Maintaining full capital economy/ India. account convertibility Option 2 is not correct: Opening https://www. Select the correct answer up to more foreign banks would weforum.org/ using the code given below: lead to an enhanced exposure to agenda/2019/ (a) 1 only the global economy, and hence an 01/what-can- (b) 1 and 2 only increased risk. we-do-to- (c) 3 only Option 3 is not correct: Currency prevent- (d) 1, 2 and 3 convertibility refers to a situation another- in which a currency can be global- converted into a foreign currency, financial- and vice-versa at the prevailing crisis/ exchange rate without any government intervention. In India, we cannot completely convert rupees to dollars- There are restrictions to the same. Now, capital account convertibility is the freedom to convert domestic currency into a foreign currency, and vice-versa

13 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

wrt capital account transactions of the Balance of Payments accounts. It could also be the freedom to convert domestic financial assets (like rupees) / liabilities into foreign assets / liabilities and vice-versa. It is more risky, as the foreign investors can withdraw all their money at once which called capital flight. Risks associated with full capital account convertability: • It increases the vulnerability of the domestic economy to external economic shocks. Hence the economy becomes unstable- For example, during the American recession- countries that were more connected were affected more. • Flight of capital- i.e. the withdrawal of huge foreign exchange within a short period of time. If full convertibility is not there, the RBI can check the complete withdrawal of funds. (This flight of capital happened in the South East Asian crisis of 1997. For these Asian tigers- the fastest growing economies of the world- the current account was in a deficit, but there was significant inflow in their capital accounts. However, as interest rates in America increased, people withdrew their money and foreign exchange began to deplete. The people began to fear that they would not be able to take their 14 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

money out. Out of this fear, everybody started to withdraw their investments- FDI was also withdrawn and the recession set in- they collapsed in one go!) • It increases volatility in the domestic financial markets • The capital Account is potentially more volatile than the current account- People cannot start consuming double/ triple/ four times the previous amount. But investment in shares accumulates, and the entire money can be immediately withdrawn. 10 ECONOMICS If you withdraw Rs. 1,00,000 D There are 4 concepts of money E FA NCERT EM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: in cash from your Demand supply: M1, M2, M3 and M4 TEST 2969 Deposit Account at your 1) M1 = C + DD + OD In the context of the bank, the immediate effect C- Is the currency held by the money supply in an on aggregate money supply public. (Public money means that economy, High Powered in the economy will be money which is held by everybody Money includes (a) to reduce it by Rs. other than the government and (a) Interbank deposits, 1,00,000 the banks. It includes companies, which a commercial (b) to increase it by Rs. general organisations, bank holds in other 1,00,000 households. It does not include commercial banks. (c) to increase it by more inter-bank or government (b) deposits of the than Rs. 1,00,000 deposits in banks) Government of India (d) to leave it unchanged DD- Means net demand deposits and commercial banks with banks. ‘Net’ here indicates held with RBI. the deposits of only the public in (c) currency in banks. circulation with the OD- Means other deposits.These public and vault cash of are the deposits with the RBI, held commercial banks. by certain individuals and (d) Both (b) and (c). institutions • Individuals - like the former governors of the RBI • institutions- like IMF deposits 2) M3 = M1 + TD = C + DD + OD + TD (Broad money)

15 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

'TD' means time deposits M3 shows the total purchasing power in the economy. Therefore, when we say money supply in general, it means M3. So, normally, in newspapers etc. when the word money supply is used, it means M3 (Sometimes, M1 is also used- meaning 100% liquid money- but overall PP is shown by M3) Now, in the given case, while the 'DD' component will fall by Rs. 1,00,000, the 'C' component will increase by Rs. 1,00,000, thereby, leaving the money supply unchanged. Hence option (d) is the correct answer. 11 Art & Culture With reference to the C The Fourth Noble Truth, the Noble M F Al Basham : RM ABHYAAS TEST 1, 3000: cultural history of India, Eightfold Path, gives what the Wonder That He is known as the holder which one of the following is Buddhist pilgrim (or practitioner) Was India Ch- of compassion of all the correct description of the has to practice, and the path Religion: cults, Buddhas. Often term paramitas? which he has to follow, to achieve doctrines and portrayed with a lotus in (a) The earliest Enlightenment and realize metaphysics his hand, he is the one Dharmashastra texts written Nibbana. There is a parallel path Upinder Singh who is full of and in aphoristic (sutra) style which consists of perfecting 8th sympathy. His doctrines are generally found in the (b) Philosophical schools that certain qualities, which leads the impression(20 “Lotus Sutra”. His did not accept the authority pilgrim to becoming a Samma 16) pages 440- painting in the Ajanta of Vedas Sambuddha, a self Enlightened 441 caves is one of the (c) Perfections whose Universal Buddha. The qualities marvelous features of the attainment led to the are called the Paramis caves. Bodhisattva path (perfections) in the Southern Which bodhisattva is (d) Powerful merchant guilds traditions and the Paramitas in being talked about in the of early Medieval South India the Eastern and Northern above passage? traditions. The elements of the (a) Ksitigarbha Noble Path and the Paramis are (b) Manjusri similar. (c) Avalokitesvara The ten Paramis are: (d) Vajrapani Generosity - giving help and benefit to other living beings 16 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Morality - live an ethical life EXPLANATION: Renunciation - renounce worldly According to the older pleasures conceptions, the Buddha Wisdom - achieve a right wrought many deeds of understanding of life and the kindness and mercy in a world long series of Energy - persistent effort and not transmigrations as a being discouraged by failures Bodhisattva. The Jataka stories show that Patience - patiently accept life’s Bodhisattvas can be ups and downs incarnated as men, or Truthfulness - honesty and even as animals; but the truthfulness in all things more advanced Determination - unwavering Bodhisattvas, who have determination to progress on the the greatest power for path good, must be divine Loving-kindness - show beings in the heavens. benevolence and compassion to Bodhisattvas existing at all things present in the universe Equanimity - develop a perfect are working continuously mental equilibrium. for the welfare of all The ten Paramitas of the Eastern things living. and Northern traditions are; Another important Generosity Bodhisattva is Manjusri, Morality whose special activity is Patience to stimulate the Energy understanding, and who Meditation is depicted with a naked sword in one hand, to Wisdom destroy error and Skillful means falsehood, and a book in Resolution the other, describing the Power ten paramitas, or great Knowledge spiritual perfections, Despite slight differences in the which are the cardinal wording, the two sets of qualities virtues developed by are similar. Bodhisattvas. 12 MODERN In the context of Indian B Dr. Rakhmabai Bhikaji was a D F PLASSEY TO RM INDIA history, the Rakhmabai case pioneer in the field of medicine PARTITION by of 1884 revolved around and women’s rights in the 19th Shekhar 1. women's right to gain century. Her efforts to be granted Bandopadhya education the right to choose was y: Ch - Early 17 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

2. age of consent instrumental in raising the age of Nationalism 3. restitution of conjugal consent for women in 1891. She https://shodh rights went on to study in the London ganga.inflibne Select the correct answer school of Medicine for Women in t.ac.in/bitstre using the code given below: 1889. When she came back to am/10603/16 (a) 1 and 2 only India to work in a hospital in 1894, 4670/10/10_c (b) 2 and 3 only she became India’s first practicing hapter%205.p (c) 1 and 3 only lady doctor. df (d) 1, 2 and 3 Rakhmabai got married at 11- years of age to the 19-year old Dadaji Bhikaji. As was convention at the time, she stayed at her house, this was the time she spent in educating herself under the guidance of her stepfather. When Rakhmabai was still in school, her husband, Dadaji, insisted that Rakhmabai come and live with him in his house. Rakhmabai, not one to blindly follow convention, refused. Dadaji soon filed a petition in the court of . Early in 1884, one of India’s most influential and publicized trials began. Rukhmabai asked ‘freedom’ from her nonconsensual , seeking a legal . Her stand gave rise to a nation-wide debate over infant and non-consensual marriage. The legal and social controversies provoked by the case revolved round notions of colonial law, marriage and conjugality, and the prospect of state intervention. For the first time, the social orthodoxy, which had so far resisted state intervention in ‘’ and 18 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

‘religion’, appealed to colonial law to discipline the disobedient wife. Behramji Malabari and Pandita Ramabai came to her defense and formed the Rakhmabai Defense Committee. The case spanned 4 years until Dadaji was “compensated” in 1888, outside of court. 13 MODERN Indigo cultivation in India B Indigo, the blue dye, was extracted M F Our Past-III, EM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: INDIA declined by the beginning of from plants in ancient times, some Ncert class - TEST 2968 the 20th century because of 5000-6000 years ago (3000-4000 8th,chapter:R With reference to (a) peasant resistance to the BCE), both in the Old (Asia, Africa ULING THE , oppressive conduct of and Europe) and New (Americas) COUNTRYSIDE consider the following planters Worlds. It got its name Indigo, , Page.no. 36- statements: (b) its unprofitability in the because it reached Europe from 37 1. The movement was world market because of Indus Valley, India and later from Pg 293 AND led by other parts of India by the new inventions 294 FROM along with Rajendra Portuguese and other European (c) national leaders' PLASSEY TO Prasad, Narhari Parikh, sailors. It was commercially opposition to the cultivation PARTITION by and J.B Kripalani. encouraged and traded by the of indigo British, firstly by the cultivation of Sekhar 2. The satyagraha ended (d) Government control over indigo plant and production of the Bandyopadhy when planters agreed to the planters dye in South Carolina, USA in aya. refund all of the money mid18th century, which was then a Bipin Chandra: they had taken illegally British colony. However, this CH: Gandhiji's from the peasants. stopped after the British colonies in Early Career Which of the USA gained their freedom after and Activism; statements given above American Revolutionary War (1775- Pg: 178-179 is/are correct? 1783). It was then that British East EXPLANATION: India Company (BEIC) started its Champaran Satyagraha production in Bengal and part of the took place in 1917 current Bihar states of India and under the leadership of continued it until the second Mahatma Gandhi. It was decade of 20th century. The the first civil Company looked for ways to disobedience action in expand the area under indigo the history of Indian cultivation in India. From the last National Movement. decades of the eighteenth century, The story of Champaran indigo cultivation in Bengal rapidly begins in the early expanded. Only about 30% of indigo imported to Britain in 1788 was nineteenth century 19 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

from India. This figure went up to when European planters 95% by 1810. had involved the Commercial agents and officials of cultivators in the Company began investing in agreements that forced indigo production to increase their them to cultivate indigo profit. Many Company officials even on 3/20th (not all) of left their jobs to look after their their holdings (known as indigo business. Many people from the tinkathia system). Scotland and England came to India Towards the end of the and became planters; to grab the nineteenth century, opportunity. The Company and German synthetic dyes banks were giving loans for indigo cultivation at that time. forced indigo out of the Thus, indigo crop has been market and the associated with and created quite a European planters of bit of history. Faced by high prices Champaran, keen to charged by the British traders for release the cultivators indigo dye, German chemists had from the obligation of already started their search for cultivating indigo, tried making synthetic indigo and Adolf to turn their necessity to Baeyer succeeded in synthesizing it their advantage by in 1882. This was followed by securing enhancements research by other German chemists, in rent and other illegal namely, Johannes Pfleger and Karl dues as a price for the Heumann in the first decade of 20th release. century. The synthetic dye was much cheaper and blew the final blow to the natural plant produced indigo dye and indigo crop became a part of history. Now most of the indigo dye used world-over is made synthetically. 14 MODERN Wellesley established the D Fort William College was E F 12th Old EM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: INDIA Fort William College at established on 18 August 1800 by NCERT : Bipin TEST 2975 Calcutta because Lord Richard Wellesley (d. 1837), Chandra : With reference to the (a) he was asked by the Governor General of Bengal, in Modern development of civil Board of Directors at London order to provide instruction in the Indian History services during British to do so vernacular languages of India to Spectrum - Ch rule in India, consider the (b) he wanted to revive the civil and military officials of 10 - following statements: interest in oriental learning the East India Company. It was Development 1. Cornwallis was the first to bring into existence in India named after King William III of of Education and organise the civil (c) he wanted to provide England. The purposes were multi Pg 291 20 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

William Carey and his folded: fostering of Indian Spectrum; Ch: services. associates with employment languages and making the British Brief Notes on 2. Wellesley established (d) he wanted to train British officials to be familiar with the Some Aspects the College of Fort civilians for administrative local languages, etc. so that their of British Rule; William at Calcutta for purpose in India administrative work would page- 577-578 the education of young become easier as it involved recruits to the Civil interaction with the Indian Service. natives. 3. Lytton introduced the Statutory Civil Service with covenanted posts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 15 MODERN With reference to the history D Munda Rebellion is one of the E F Civil EM PT 365 Supplementary INDIA of India, "Ulgulan" or the prominent 19th century tribal Rebellions and 2020 Page number 51 Great Tumult is the rebellions in the subcontinent. Tribal "7.1. TRIBAL FREEDOM description of which of the Birsa Munda led this movement in Uprising, Bipin FIGHTERS" following events? the region south of Ranchi in Chandra - ABHYAAS TEST 2-3001 (a) The Revolt of 1857 1899-1900. the ulgulan, meaning India's Consider the following (b) The Mappila Rebellion of 'Great Tumult', sought to establish struggle for pairs: 1921 Munda Raj and independence. independence Tribal Movement Leader 1. Ramosi Uprising (c) The of 1859 The Mundas traditionally enjoyed , Chapter 2. Chittur Singh – 60 a preferential rent rate as the 2. Ulgulan Revolt Sidhu (d) Birsa Munda's Revolt of khuntkattidar or the original and Kanhu 1899-1900 clearer of the forest. But in course 3. Khond Uprising Chakra of the 19th century they had seen Bisoi this khuntkatti land system being Which of the pairs given eroded by the jagirdars and above is/are correctly thikadars coming as merchants matched? and moneylenders. ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: The government attempted to TEST 2968 redress the grievances of the Consider the following Mundas through the survey and passage: settlement operations of 1902-10. The Ulgulan occurred The Chhotanagpur Tenancy Act of during 1899-1900. It 1908 provided some recognition began as a religious to their khuntkatti rights and movement and soon 21 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

banned beth begari. acquired an agrarian and Chhotanagpur tribals won a political connotation. The degree of legal protection for leader of the movement their land rights. encouraged the killing of Jagirdars and Rajas and declared that Satyug would be established in place of the present-day Kalyug. Which of the following is being referred to in the above passage? (a) Santhal rebellion (b) Munda rebellion (c) Tana Bhagat movement (d) Chuar Rebellion 16 ANCIENT With reference to the C Paṇini (4th century BCE or “6th to M F NCERT Class 6 EM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: INDIA scholars/litterateurs of 5th century BCE”) was an ancient History-Our TEST 3222 ancient India, consider the grammarian, and a past-1, page. Consider the following following statements: revered scholar in ancient India. no.116- statements with 1. Panini is associated with Considered the of 117(NEW reference to Pushyamitra Shunga. linguistics, Paṇini likely lived in the EMPIRES AND Chandragupta 2. is associated northwest Indian subcontinent KINGDOMS, : with Harshavardhana. during the Mahajanapada era. chapter-11) 1. The iron pillar 3. Kalidasa is associated with Hence statement 1 is not correct. inscription at Mehrauli Chandra Gupta-II. He is said to have been born in sheds light on the Which of the statements Shalatula of ancient Gandhara, a extent of his empire. given above is/are correct? small town at the junction of the 2. The great Sanskrit (a) 1 and 2 only Indus and Kabul rivers, Pakistan. poet and playwright (b) 2 and 3 only Pāṇini is known for his text Kalidasa was present in (c) 3 only Ashtadhyayi, a sutra-style treatise his court. (d) 1, 2 and 3 on Sanskrit grammar,3,959 3. The Chinese Buddhist “verses” or rules on linguistics pilgrim Fa Hien visited syntax and semantics “eight India during his reign. chapters” which is the Which of the foundational text of the statements given above Vyākaraṇa branch of the Vedanga. is/are correct? Ashtadhyayi is admired for its (a) 1 only simplicity and its rigorous and (b) 2 and 3 only consistent use of meta language. (c) 1 and 3 only 22 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Sutras are like mathematical (d) 1, 2 and 3 formulae. So, a lot of information ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: can be given using a few words. TEST 2989 And since Panini uses sutras, the Which of the following Ashtadhyayi is crisp. Panini also statements is not lays down rules to resolve correct regarding the conflicts between sutras. development of Ashtadhyayi is augmented with literature during the ancillary texts such as Sivasutras Gupta age? (special order of phonemes); (a) During this period dhatupatha (list of verbal roots); secular literature works ganapatha (various sets of nouns) were produced. and linganusaasana (system for (b) The primary themes deciding the gender). of literature during this Pushyamitra Sunga (185 BC TO period were poetry and 151 BC): Pushyamitra Shunga was romantic comedies. the founder and first ruler of the (c) Abhijnashakuntalam Shunga Empire in East India. He work of Kalidas was was a follower of . written during this Pushyamitra was originally a period. Senapati "General" of the Maurya (d) No puranic literature Empire. In 185 BCE he developed during this assassinated the last Mauryan period. Emperor, Brihadratha Maurya, EXPLANATION: during an army review, and The Gupta period was proclaimed himself emperor. considered one of the Chandragupta II, also called finest period for the Vikramaditya, powerful emperor growth and (reigned c. 380–c. 415 ce) of development of northern India. He was the son of literature. This period Samudra Gupta and grandson of saw remarkable growth Chandragupta I. During his reign, in the production of art, architecture, and sculpture secular as well as flourished, and the cultural religious literature. On development of ancient India the secular side, this reached its climax. Chandragupta- period saw the II was known for his deep interest production of several in art and culture and nine gems plays and poems or Navratna adorned his court. written by famous authors including 23 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

The group comprised of Bhasa, Shudraka, and Kalidasa Kalidasa. The themes of Vetala Bhatta literature during this Varahamihira period were poetry, drama, and romantic Amarasimha comedies. Dhanvantari The Mrichchhakatika or kshapanak the little clay cart, which Shanku was written by Ghatakarpura Shudraka, deals with the love affair of poor Kalidasa brahmana with the Kalidasa was a famous Sanskrit beautiful daughter of a writer and poet in the court of courtesan and is Chandragupta II considered as one of the (Vikramaditya). best work in ancient Kalidasa was the author of three drama. famous plays. Kalidas has written the Abhijnanasakuntalam :tells the best works in poetry, story of King Dushyanta and drama as well as in Shakuntala prose. His kavyas such Malavikagnimitram-tells the story as Meghaduta, love of King Agnimitra with Raghuvamsa, and Malavika Kumarasambhava, and Raghuvamsa (“Raghu Dynasty “) dramas such as and Abhijnashakuntalam Kumarasambhava are the best literary Amarasimha: works of this time. Amarasimha was one of the nine The important work Gems in the court of Vikramaditya complied during this of Gupta era. period was Amarakosha He is notably known for his by Amarasimha. It famous Sanskrit thesaurus developed an ornate Amarakosha. style of Sanskrit which It is also known as was different from the Namalinganushasana. old simple Sanskrit. From this period onwards we find a greater emphasis on verses than on prose. 24 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

25 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

17 S&T In the context of recent D A pronucleus (plural: pronuclei) is D CA https://www.s EN April 2019 Monthly In April 2019 , a team advances in human the nucleus of a sperm or an egg ciencedirect.c Current Affairs Page of Greek and Spanish reproductive technology. cell during the process of om/science/ar 59;7.5. 3-PARENT doctors has produced "Pronuclear Transfer" is used fertilization. Pronuclear Transfer ticle/pii/S2212 BABY" a baby from three for is used in mitochondrial transfer 06611630034 ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: people using (a) fertilization of egg in vitro techniques. Pronuclear transfer is 5#:~:text=This TEST 3221 maternal spindle by the donor sperm the transfer of pronuclei from one %20technique Consider the following transfer technique (a (b) genetic modification of zygote to another. This technique %20first%20re statements with respect method of sperm producing cells first requires fertilisation of quires%20ferti to genetic makeup in Mitochondrial (c) development of stem healthy donated egg (provided by lisation,the%2 human beings: Replacement cells into functional embryos the mitochondrial donor) with 0intending%2 1. Mitochondrial DNA in Therapy). (d) prevention of the intending male parent sperm. 0male%20par a child is inherited mitochondrial diseases in Simultaneously, the intending ent%20sperm. exclusively from father offspring mother's affected oocytes (an &text=Therap whereas Nuclear DNA is immature egg cell) are fertilised eutic%20pron inherited exclusively with the intending father's sperm. uclear%20tran from mother. Both sets of fertilised oocytes sfer%20involv 2. In a three parent (that of the mother and the es%20the,into baby, child's DNA has an donor) are allowed to develop to %20the%20en equal proportion of DNA the early zygote stage where the ucleated%20h from each parent. pronuclei are visible. Using ealthy%20zyg Which of the micromanipulation equipment, otes. statements given above the pronuclei of zygotes formed is/are correct? from donated oocytes are removed within a karyoplast (A ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: cellular nucleus together with a TEST 2994 plasma membrane containing a Consider the following small amount of cytoplasm) and statements: discarded. Therapeutic pronuclear 1. Mitochondria and transfer involves the movement nucleus are the two of two pronuclei from the organelles in the human affected zygotes (also in the form cell which contain DNA. of a karyoplast), into the 2. In Mitochondrial enucleated (without a nucleus) Replacement Therapy healthy zygotes. The resulting (MRT), fertilization of zygotes contain nuclear DNA from the cell takes place only each of the intending parents and after the transfer of a a donor's mtDNA. Hence option nucleus from mother (d) is the correct answer. cell to donor cell

26 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? EXPLANATION: In Mitochondrial Replacement Therapy (MRT) the nucleus of the mother cell is transferred to the donor cell. The fertilization of the cell can take place before or after the transfer. This will help remove the mutated/ defective mitochondria of the mother and will replace it by the healthy one of the donor. This technique has run into troubled waters because of genes coming from 3 parents which might later lead to paternity law suit or demand in the property. Also, some orthodox religious factions are opposing such move as it is considered against the of nature. Also, the future effects of this procedure can’t be predicted. Testing on animals has been completed but the clinical trials on humans have not been given a green flag. Three-parent baby is a human offspring 27 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

produced from the genetic material of one man and two women through the use of assisted reproductive technologies, specifically mitochondrial manipulation (or replacement) technologies and three- person in vitro fertilization (IVF). 18 S&T With the print state of D Artificial Intelligence (AI) refers to E CAA https://www. EN AI is frequently in development, Artificial the simulation of human newgenapps.c news. Intelligence can effectively intelligence in machines that are om/blog/ai- do which of the following? programmed to think like humans uses- 1. Bring down electricity and mimic their actions. Artificial applications- consumption in industrial Intelligence has various applications of-artificial- units in today's society. in multiple intelligence- 2. Create meaningful short industries, such as Healthcare, ml-business/ entertainment, finance, education, stories and songs etc. AI has been used in disease 3. Disease diagnosis https://emerj. diagnosis, creating songs like 'I am 4. Text-to-Speech Conversion com/ai-sector- AI' and 'Daddy's Car' and creating 5. Wireless transmission of short stories and fictions. AI has overviews/arti electrical energy been used in Text-to-speech ficial- Select the correct answer conversion, e.g. Cerewave AI. intelligence- using the code given below: Artificial Intelligence has also found for-energy- (a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only use in power industry, e.g. efficiency- (b) 1, 3 and 4 only Machine-learning assisted power and- (c) 2, 4 and 5 only transfer (based on AI) using renewable- (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 magnetic resonance and AI used for energy/ energy efficiency. Hence all the options are correct. 19 S&T With reference to Visible C The signals in the 380-780 nm M CAA https://www.t EN Li-fi technology has Light Communication (VLC) wavelength interval of the hehindubusin been in the news technology, which of the electromagnetic spectrum are the essline.com/n following statements are light signals that can be detected ews/science/li correct? by the human eye. It is possible to fi-technology- 1. VLC uses electromagnetic achieve illumination and data to-monitor- 28 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

spectrum wavelengths 375 transfer simultaneously by means covid-19- to 780 nm of LEDs that is the prominent patients/articl 2. VLC is known as long- lighting equipment lately. By this e31287574.ec range optical wireless way, both interior lighting of a e communication. room and data transfer will be 3. VLC can transmit large achieved without the need of an https://lightin amounts of data faster than additional communication system. gcontrolsassoc Bluetooth This technology is given the name iation.org/201 4. VLC has no of Visual Light Communication. 5/05/20/visibl electromagnetic interference Hence statement 1 is correct. e-light- Select the correct answer Technological advances allow to communicatio using the code given below: modulate the light at higher n-finds-its- (a) 1, 2 and 3 only frequencies, allowing richer applications/ (b) 1, 2 and 4 only information. Light can be (c) 1, 3 and 4 only transmitted across a free space https://www.r (d) 2, 3 and 4 only (e.g., lasers communicating esearchgate.n between two buildings) or across et/figure/Com a medium (e.g., fiber optics). parison-of- With the advent of LED, a new the- idea in VLC is to use general characteristics lighting to communicate with -of-NFC-BLE- users in a space as a replacement and-VLC-a or supplement to Wi-Fi. While traditional light sources present practical limitations, LED lighting can be modulated at very high frequencies, with a cycle as short as nanoseconds. This concept, called Li-Fi, could be a solution to RF bandwidth limitations as the visible light spectrum is 10,000 larger than the radio spectrum. As a bonus, VLC doesn’t cause electromagnetic interference. Hence statement 4 is correct. The light can transmit information either directly or reflected from a surface. It can do so while dimmed. However, light cannot penetrate obstacles such as walls. 29 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Thus for wireless communication purposes VLC cannot be used for long-distances. Hence statement 2 is not correct. While Bluetooth transmits data at the rate of 300kbps (kilobytes per second), VLC can transmit data in the range between mbps-gbps (megabytes per second to gigabytes per second). Hence statement 3 is correct. 20 S&T With reference to D Blockchain technology is a D F https://www.t EN PT 365 2020 S&T Page "Blockchain Technology" structure that stores transactional hehindu.com/ 22 ""3.2. BLOCKCHAIN consider the following records, also known as the block, sci- TECHNOLOGY" statements: of the public in several tech/technolo ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: 1. It is a public ledger that databases, known as the “chain,” gy/what-are- TEST 2986 everyone we inspect, but in a network connected through the- Which of the following which no single user controls peer-to-peer nodes. Typically, this advantages- statements is/are 2. The structure and design storage is referred to as a ‘digital blockchain- correct with reference of blockchain is such that all ledger.’ In simpler words, the offers/article2 to Blockchain the data in it are about digital ledger is like a Google 8621496.ece technology? crypto currency only. spreadsheet shared among 1. The immutability of 3. Applications that depend numerous computers in a the blockchain is critical on basic features of network, in which, the for the preservation of blockchain can be developed transactional records are stored the integrity of the data. without anybody's based on actual purchases. The 2. Bitcoin developed permission. fascinating angle is that anybody using blockchain Which of the statements can see the data, but they cannot technology has been given above is/are correct? corrupt it. Hence statement 1 is accepted as legal tender (a) 1 only correct. in India from the (b) 1 and 2 only The words “block” stands for financial year 2018-19. (c) 2 only digital information and “chain” Select the correct (d) 1 and 3 only stands for public database. answer using the code Specifically, they have three parts: given below. Blocks store information about (a) 1 only transactions like the date, time, (b) 2 only and dollar amount of your most (c) Both 1 and 2 recent purchase from any online (d) Neither 1 nor 2 site that works on a blockchain principle. 30 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Blocks store information about who is participating in transactions. Instead of using your actual name, your purchase is recorded without any identifying information using a unique “digital signature,” sort of like a username. Blocks store information that distinguishes them from other blocks. Even though the details of your new transaction would look nearly identical to your earlier purchase, we can still tell the blocks apart because of their unique codes. Hence statement 2 is not correct. Blockchains can be both permissioned and non- permissioned (permissionless). Public blockchain, typically permissionless as well, is the type associated with Bitcoin (the application depends on the basic features), where access and validation are open to participants, achieving high degree of decentralization. In private permissioned blockchain a trusted entity controls the validation and writing of data permissions. Hence statement 3 is correct. 21 POLITY & A Parliamentary System of B The Constitution of India has E F NCERT: Indian EM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: GOVERNANC Government is one in which opted for the British Constitution TEST 2963 E (a) all political parties in the Parliamentary form of At Work, Ch 4 Which of the following Parliament are represented Government. It is based on the Pg 83 are the characteristics of in the Government principle of cooperation and Laxmikanth: parliamentary form of (b) the Government is coordination between the Indian Polity the government of India? responsible to the legislative and executive organs. 1. The sovereignty of the 31 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Parliament and can be The features of the Parliamentary Indian Parliament removed by it government in India are: 2. Presence of nominal (c) the Government is Presence of nominal and real and real executives elected by the people and executives 3. Collective can be removed by them Majority party rule responsibility of the (d) the Government is Collective responsibility of the executive to the chosen by the Parliament but executive to the legislature legislature cannot be removed by it Membership of the ministers in Select the correct answer using the code given before completion of a fixed the legislature below. term Leadership of the Prime Minister (a) 1 and 3 only or the Chief Minister (b) 2 only Dissolution of the lower house (c) 2 and 3 only (Lok Sabha or Assembly) (d) 1, 2 and 3 22 POLITY & Which part of the A A welfare state is a concept of E F Lamikanth: EM ABHYAAS TEST 3: 3002 GOVERNANC Constitution of India declares government where the state Indian Polity In the context of polity, E the ideal of Welfare State? plays a key role in the protection which of the following (a) Directive Principles of and promotion of the economic is/are considered as the State Policy and social well-being of its essential characteristics (b) Fundamental Rights citizens. It is based on the of a welfare state? (c) Preamble principles of equality of 1. Equality of opportunity (d) Seventh Schedule opportunity, equitable 2. Minimum interference in economic activities of distribution of wealth, and public people responsibility for those unable to 3. Public responsibility for avail themselves of the minimal deprived sections of provisions for a good life. The society Directive Principles of State 4. Equitable distribution Policy embody the concept of a of wealth ‘welfare state’. Select the correct answer A fundamental feature of the using code given below. welfare state is social insurance, a (a) 1 and 4 only provision common to most (b) 2 and 3 only advanced industrialized countries (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (National Social Assistance (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Programme). The welfare state EXPLANATION: also usually includes public A welfare state is a provision of basic education, concept of government health services, and housing etc. where the state plays a Under this system, the welfare of key role in the protection its citizens is the responsibility of and promotion of the the state. India is a welfare state. economic and social well- 32 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

The fact that the Preamble of the being of its citizens. It is Constitution itself envisages India based on the principles of to be a ‘socialist’ state bears equality of opportunity, enough evidence for this. equitable distribution of wealth, and public responsibility for those unable to avail themselves of the minimal provisions for a good life. The Directive Principles of State Policy embody the concept of a ‘welfare state’. 23 POLITY & Consider the following B Statement 1 is not correct: In the E F Lamikanth: EM All INDIA TEST SERIES: GOVERNANC statements: Kesavananda Bharati case, the Indian Polity ADDITIONAL TEST 3222 E 1. The Constitution of India Supreme Court laid down a new In the context of Indian defines its structure in terms doctrine of the ‘basic structure’ Polity, which of the of federalism, secularism, (or ‘basic features’) of the following are followed fundamental rights and Constitution. It ruled that the in India? democracy. constituent power of Parliament 1. Doctrine of the Basic 2. The Constitution of India under Article 368 does not enable Structure of the provides for 'Judicial review' it to alter the ‘basic structure’ of Constitution to safeguard the citizens' the Constitution. From the various 2. Cabinet form of liberties and to preserve the judgements, features like Government ideals on which the Independent Judiciary, 3. Complete separation Constitution is based. Secularism, Rule of law, Free and of legislature and Which of the statements fair elections, The principle of executive given above is are correct? Separation of Powers, Select the correct (a) 1 only Parliamentary system, The answer using the code (b) 2 only "essence" of other Fundamental given below. (c) Both 1 and 2 Rights in Part III, The Sovereign, (a) 1 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Democratic, Republican structure (b) 2 and 3 only etc. emerged as the part of Basic (c) 1 and 2 only Structure. (d) 1, 2 and 3 Statement 2 is correct: Judiciary is EXPLANATION: entrusted with the task of In the Kesavananda protecting rights of individuals. Bharati case, the The Constitution provides two Supreme Court laid ways in which the Supreme Court down a new doctrine of can remedy the violation of rights. the ‘basic structure’ (or 33 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

± First it can restore fundamental ‘basic features’) of the rights by issuing writs of Habeas Constitution. It ruled Corpus; mandamus etc. (article that the constituent 32). The High Courts also have the power of Parliament power to issue such writs (article under Article 368 does 226). not enable it to alter the ± Secondly, the Supreme Court ‘basic structure’ of the can declare the concerned law as Constitution. From the unconstitutional and therefore various judgements, non-operational (article 13). features like Together these two provisions of Independent Judiciary, the Constitution establish the Secularism, Rule of law, Supreme Court as the protector Free and fair elections, of fundamental rights of the Parliamentary system citizen on the one hand and etc. emerged as the interpreter of Constitution on the part of Basic Structure. other. The second of the two ways mentioned above involves ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: judicial review. TEST 2964 The term judicial review is With reference to nowhere mentioned in the power of Judicial Constitution. However, the fact review, consider the that India has a written following statements: constitution and the Supreme 1. It is an element of the Court can strike down a law that basic structure of the goes against fundamental rights, Constitution of India. implicitly gives the Supreme 2. The phrase 'judicial Court the power of judicial review' has nowhere review. been mentioned in the Constitution 3. It is available to the Supreme Court and not to the High Courts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 34 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

EXPLANATION: In India, the Constitution itself confers the power of judicial review on the judiciary (both the Supreme Court as well as High Courts). 24 POLITY & One common agreement A The similarity and dissimilarity M FA https://shodh RR GOVERNANC between Gandhism and between Gandhism and Marxism ganga.inflibne E Marxism is are as under: t.ac.in/bitstre (a) the final goal of a (1) Conception of Ideal State: am/10603/89 stateless society There is a great similarity between 197/6/06chap (b) class struggle Mahatma Gandhi and Kart Marx. ter%202.pdf (c) abolition of private However, while the final aim of property both them it the establishments https://www. (d) economic determinism of a stateless and classless politicalscienc society, their means for achieving enotes.com/ar this aim are different. Mahatma ticles/similarit Gandhi wanted to achieve this y-dissimilarity- end through non-violent means gandhism- but Marx wanted to achieve it marxism/402 through violent means. (2) Capitalism: Though both Mahatma Gandhi and Karl Marx were opposed to capitalism and exploitation, yet they propagated different means to remove capitalism not by violent means but through economic decentralization, by encouraging cottage industries, and by making the capitalist trustees. (3) Spiritualism vs. Materialism: Mahatma Gandhi was decisively a spiritualist. On every aspect of his life there was a deep impact of religion. He was saint and a staunch believer in God. He did not attach any importance to 35 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

materialism and luxuries of life. He said that man should have minimum needs. He did not attach any importance to politics devoid of religion. Karl Marx considered religion as opium for the workers, because in his view religion made man a fatalist and it did not allow discontentment to arise in the workers against capitalism. The result was that they lacked organisation and enthusiasm needed for a revolution. (4) Ends and Means: Mahatma Gandhi was not in favour of using violent means for achieving a good end. Therefore, he adopted non-violent means for the achievement of India’s freedom and criticised revolutionaries who wanted to adopt all types of means, including the violent ones, for the achievement of India’s freedom. Marxists do not believe in non-violence. They believe that capitalism cannot be abolished trough parliamentary means and socialist revolution is not possible without the use of violence. (5) Class War: Marxists have a deep faith in class struggle. Mahatma Gandhi said that class- struggle brought ruin to the country and it made the production of goods fall considerably. All propertied persons were not bad. There was an urgent need to change their minds. 36 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

(6) Investment of Capital: With regard to the investment of capital the views of Marx and Gandhiji are different. Marxists say that there should be socialisation of the means of production. First of all they want to transfer to it the control of all the industries. Mahatma Gandhi allows the investment of private capital but not exploitation through it. He wants to make the capitalists trustees of the national wealth. In case the capitalists do not agree to become the trustees, he is ready to give the power to the state to control the industries of the capitalists by using minimum force. He is also not in favour of snatching land from the landlords by force. He is ready to accept their private ownership on land, while Marx is not ready to allow private ownership on land. Gandhi is also in favour of co- operative farming, while the Marxists are in favour of collective farming, in which there is a great control of the state. (7) Democracy vs. Dictatorship: Gandhiji had a firm faith in democracy, but he considered the Western democracy as incomplete. He said that there should be decentralisation of power. The Panchayats in the village should be given more powers and the villages should be given complete autonomy. He was the supporter of welfare state and 37 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

hated dictatorship or autocracy. The Marxists believe in the Dictatorship of the proletariat. They want to give maximum powers to the workers. 25 POLITY & In the context of India, which D While the heads of government E F NCERT: Indian EM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: GOVERNANC one of the following is the and their ministers, saddled with Constitution TEST 2964 E characteristic appropriate for the overall responsibility of At Work; Ch 4: In the context of polity, bureaucracy? government policy, are together Executive who among the (a) An agency for widening known as the political executive following can be termed the scope of parliamentary having a shorter term of office(In as the 'Permanent democracy India, it is generally for 5 years); Executive '? (b) An agency for those responsible for the day to (a) Council of Ministers strengthening the structure day administration are called the (b) Cabinet of federalism permanent executive, i.e. the (c) President (c) An agency for facilitating Bureaucracy. (d) Bureaucracy political stability and Hence option (d) is the correct ANSWER D economic growth answer. EXPLANATION: (d) An Agency for the While the heads of implementation of public government and their policy ministers, saddled with the overall responsibility of government policy, are together known as the political executive having a shorter term of office(In India, it is generally for 5 years); those responsible for the day to day administration are called the permanent executive, i.e. the Bureaucracy.

38 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

26 POLITY & The Preamble to the D The Preamble of the Indian E F LAXMIKANTH: EM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: GOVERNANC Constitution of India, is Constitution serves as a brief INDIAN TEST 2997 E (a) part of the Constitution introductory statement of the POLITY Consider the following but has no legal effect Constitution that sets out the statements about the (b) not a part of the guiding purpose, principles, and Preamble: Constitution and has no legal philosophy of the Indian 1. The preamble is an effect either Constitution. It is the thinking and integral part of the (c) a part of the Constitution soul of Constitution makers and Constitution. and has the same legal effect the Constituent Assembly. The 2. The objectives set up as any other part preamble is based on the by the Preamble forms a (d) a part of the Constitution Objectives which were drafted part of the basic but has no legal effect and moved in the Constituent structure of the Indian independently of other parts Assembly by Jawaharlal Nehru on Constitution. 13 December 1946. The Supreme 3. No law can be struck Court of India originally stated in down for being violative the Berubari Case (1960) of the Preamble only. presidential reference that the Which of the preamble is not an integral part of statements given above the Indian constitution, and is/are correct? therefore it is not enforceable in a (a) 1 and 3 only court of law. However, the same (b) 1 and 2 only court, in the 1973 Kesavananda (c) 2 and 3 only case, overruled earlier decisions (d) 1, 2 and 3 and recognized that the preamble EXPLANATION: may be used to interpret The Supreme Court of ambiguous areas of the India originally stated in constitution where differing the Berubari Case interpretations present (1960) presidential themselves. The Supreme Court in reference that the the Kesavananda case reiterated preamble is not an that the objectives given in the integral part of the Preamble form a part of the Basic Indian constitution, and Structure of the Indian therefore it is not Constitution. In the 1995 case of enforceable in a court of Union Government vs LIC of India, law. However, the same the Supreme Court once again court, in the 1973 held that the Preamble is an Kesavananda case, integral part of the Constitution. overruled earlier The Preamble is not a legally decisions and binding document. No law can be recognized that the 39 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

struck down if it is found to preamble may be used violate the Preamble only. But its to interpret ambiguous importance lies in the following. areas of the constitution It has been held in many where differing decisions of the Supreme Court interpretations present that when a constitutional themselves. provision is interpreted, the The Preamble, of cardinal rule is to look to the course, is not a legally Preamble as the guiding star and binding document. No the Directive Principles of State law can be struck down policy as the book of if it is found to violate interpretation. the Preamble only.

For example, the keyword contained in the Preamble e.g. 'secular' is substantiated under Part III of the Indian Constitution, which is a basic feature as per the judgements of the Supreme Court. If a law is made, it is taken care of that the 'secular' character of the polity is not violated. Even though 'secular' character of the polity is mentioned in the Preamble, such a law would be considered violative of the (Right to Freedom of Religion) Fundamental Rights and not the Preamble. Thus Preamble has no legal effect independent of the Fundamental Rights in this case. The Preamble may not be an essential part of the ordinary statute, nor it has any legal effect independent of other parts, but it is an essential part of Constitutional Law. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

40 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

27 ECONOMICS "Gold Tranche" (Reserve D A reserve tranche is a portion of E F https://www.r EM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: Tranche) refers to the required quota of currency bi.org.in/script TEST 2988 (a) a loan system of the each member country must s/PublicationR In the context of the World Bank provide to the International eportDetails.a economy, what do you (b) one of the operations of a Monetary Fund (IMF) that can be spx?ID=389 understand by the Central Bank utilized for its own purposes Reserve tranche (c) a credit system granted without a service fee or economic https://www.i position? by WTO to its members reform conditions. mf.org/extern (a) It is the foreign (d) a credit system granted The IMF is funded through its al/pubs/ft/bo currency amounts that by IMF to its members members and their quota p/2018/pdf/Cl a member country may contributions. The reserve arification021 draw from the IMF tranche is basically an emergency 8.pdf without agreeing to account that IMF members can conditions. access at any time without (b) It refers to cash and agreeing to conditions or paying a other reserve assets service fee. held by a central bank The reserve tranches that that are primarily countries hold with the IMF are available to balance considered their facilities of first payments of the resort, meaning they will tap into country. the reserve tranche at a short (c) It denotes the notice before seeking a formal deposits that banks credit tranche. must keep with The reserve tranche represents monetary authority as a the member’s unconditional reserve. drawing right on the IMF, created (d) It refers to reserves by the foreign exchange portion of the Central of the quota subscription, plus government held by the increase (decrease) through the Reserve Bank of India as IMF’s sale (repurchase) of the a banker to member’s currency to meet the government. demand for use of IMF resources by other members in need of balance of payments financing.

41 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

42 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

28 POLITY & With reference to the D DPSPs, contained in Part IV E F Lamikanth: EM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: GOVERNANC provisions contained in Part (Article 36–51) of the Constitution Indian Polity TEST 2964 E IV of the Constitution of of India, are not enforceable by Which of the following India, which of the following any court, but the principles laid limit(s) the Sovereignty of the Indian Parliament? statements is/are correct? down there in are considered in 1. Written nature of the 1. They shall be enforceable the governance of the Constitution by courts. country, making it the duty of the 2. Federal system of 2. They shall not be State to apply these principles in government enforceable by any court making laws to establish a just 3. System of judicial review 3. The principles laid down in society. Hence statements 2 and 4. Directive Principles of this part are to influence the 3 are correct and statement 1 is State Policy making of laws by the State. not correct. Select the correct answer Select the correct answer using the code given below. using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) 1only (b) 2 and 4 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 3 only EXPLANATION: The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are the guidelines or principles laid down by the Constitution and are fundamental in governance of the country. These lay down that the State shall strive to promote welfare of people by securing and protecting as effectively as it may a social order in which justice - social, economic and political, shall inform all institutions of national life. However, these principles are non- justiciable in nature which means they are not enforceable by the courts for their violation. justiceable. Hence, they don't limit the sovereignty of the Indian Parliament.

43 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

29 POLITY & Consider the following D Constitution does not mention D FA http://legislati EM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: GOVERNANC statements: eligibility as a condition to be ve.gov.in/sites ADDITIONAL TEST 3222 E 1. According to the made a minister in a State. /default/files/ Consider the following Constitution of India a Qualifications a person should 04_representa statements in the person who is eligible to vote possess to become eligible for tion%20of%20 context of office of Chief can be made a minister in a appointment as a minister are: the%20people Minister (CM): State for six months even if • He should be a citizen of India. %20act%2C%2 1. Constitution does not he/she is not a member of • He should be above 25 years of 01951.pdf provide any specific the Legislature of that State age procedure for selection 2. According to the • He should not hold any office of and appointment of CM. Representation of People profit under the government of 2. Constitution requires Act, 1951, a person India that a person must convicted of a criminal • If he is not a member of prove his majority in offence and sentenced to Parliament, then he should be Legislative assembly imprisonment for five years elected to the Lok Sabha or the before his/her is permanently disqualified Rajya Sabha within six months appointment as CM. from contesting an election after his appointment as a 3. A person who is not a even after his release from minister. member of the state prison Section 8 in The Representation legislature can also be Which of the statements of the People Act, 1951: A person appointed as CM for 6 given above is are correct? convicted of any offence and months. (a) 1 only sentenced to imprisonment for Which of the (b) 2 only not less than two years [other statements given above (c) Both 1 and 2 than any offence referred to in are correct? (d) Neither 1 nor 2 sub-section (1) or sub-section (2)] (a) 1 and 2 only shall be disqualified from the date (b) 2 and 3 only of such conviction and shall (c) 1 and 3 only continue to be disqualified for a (d) 1, 2 and 3 further period of six years since EXPLANATION: his release. The governor may first appoint him as the Chief Minister and then ask him to prove his majority in the legislative assembly within a reasonable period. A person who is not a member of the state legislature can be appointed as Chief 44 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Minister for six months, within which time, he should be elected to the state legislature, failing which he ceases to be the Chief Minister. ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: TEST 2988 As per the Representation of People Act (1951), a person shall not be qualified for contesting in the elections to the Parliament in which of the following cases? 1. He is convicted for any offense resulting in imprisonment for two or more years. 2. He is detained under preventive detention law. 3. He is punished for preaching and practicing social crimes such as . Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 30 POLITY & Consider the following C Article 85(1) of the Constitution E F Laxmikanth: EM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: GOVERNANC statements: empowers the President to Ch-Parliament TEST 2989 E 1. The President of India can summon each House of Consider the following summon a session of the Parliament to meet at such time https://indian statements with Parliament at such place as and place as he thinks fit, but six express.com/a reference to the 45 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

he/she thinks it. months shall not intervene rticle/explaine presiding officers of the 2. The Constitution of India between its last sitting in one d/parliament- houses of the provides for three sessions of Session and the date appointed winter- Parliament: the Parliament in a year, but for its first sitting in the next session-delay- 1. The presiding officers it is not mandatory to Session. In other words, the congress- summon their conduct all three sessions. Parliament should meet at least november- respective houses from 3. There is no minimum twice a year. Hence statement 1 december- time to time. number of days that the is correct and statement 2 is not assembly- 2. The Chairman of the Parliament is required to correct. elections- Rajya Sabha and the meet in a year. There is no minimum number of 4951659/ Speaker of the Lok Which of the statements days that Parliament is required Sabha are the Leaders given above is/are correct? to meet in a year. Hence of their respective (a) 1 only statement 3 is correct. houses. (b) 2 only 3. The Chairman of the (c) 1 and 3 only Rajya Sabha is the ex- (d) 2 and 3 only officio chairman of the Indian Parliamentary Group. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) None EXPLANATION: Summoning: The President of India from time to time summons each House of Parliament to meet. But, the maximum gap between two sessions of Parliament cannot be more than six months. In other words, the Parliament should meet at least twice a year.

46 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

31 POLITY & Consider the following B Metadata or meta base is a set of M CA https://www.f EN GOVERNANC statements: data that describes and gives inancialexpres E 1. Aadhaar metadata cannot information about other data. s.com/aadhaa be stored for more than “Authentication records are not r- three months. to be kept beyond a period of six card/aadhaar- 2. State cannot enter into months, as stipulated in authentication any contract with private Regulation 27(1) of the -data-cant-be- corporations for sharing of Authentication Regulations. As retained- Aadhaar data. per SC Judgement, retaining beyond-6- 3. Aadhaar is mandatory for authentication data of citizens months-says- obtaining insurance who have enrolled for Aadhaar supreme- products. beyond six months was court/132806 4. Aadhaar is mandatory for “impermissible. Hence statement 6/ getting benefits funded out 1 is not correct. of the Consolidated Fund of Supreme Court has struck down https://econo India. the Section 57 of the Aadhaar Act mictimes.india Which of the statements which allowed sharing of data times.com/ne given above is/are correct? with private entities.The ws/economy/ (a) 1 and 4 only judgement means that private policy/govern (b) 2 and 4 only bodies like telecom companies, e- ment-may- (c) 3 only commerce firms cannot ask for bring-legal- (d) 1, 2 and 3 only biometriric and other data from backing-for- consumers for their services. private- Hence statement 2 is correct. companies-to- Insurance regulator IRDAI has use- advised insurers not to aadhaar/articl mandatorily seek Aadhaar and eshow/65973 PAN/Form 60 from customers, 597.cms existing or new, for KYC (Know Your Customer) purpose. It, https://www.t however, allowed insurers to hehindu.com/ accept Aadhaar card as one of the news/cities/H documents for establishing yderabad/aad identity, address of the customer haar-not- subject to certain conditions that mandatory-to- presumably are being stipulated buy- to guard against misuse of the insurance- information. The insurers can policy/article2 accept Aadhaar as one of the 6123273.ece documents for KYC, only when the 47 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

same is offered voluntarily by the https://pib.go proposer/policy-holder. Hence v.in/Pressrele statement 3 is not correct. aseshare.aspx As per section 7 of the Aadhaar ?PRID=154127 (Targeted Delivery of Financial 4#:~:text=As% and Other Subsidies, Benefits and 20per%20secti Services) Act, 2016, any on%207%20of individual who is desirous of ,furnish%20pr availing any subsidy, benefit or oof%20of%20 service for which the expenditure possession%2 is incurred from the Consolidated 0of Fund of India, shall require to furnish proof of possession of Aadhaar number or undergo Aadhaar based authentication. In case the individual does not have Aadhaar, he/she shall make an application for enrolment and the individual shall be offered alternate and viable means of identification for delivery of the subsidy, benefit or service. Hence statement 4 is correct. 32 POLITY & Rajya Sabha has equal B The powers and status of the E F Laxmikanth: EM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: GOVERNANC powers with Lok Sabha in Rajya Sabha are equal to that of Ch-Parliament TEST 2964 E (a) the matter of creating the Lok Sabha in the following The powers of the Rajya new All India Services matters: Sabha are equal to that (b) amending the Introduction and passage of of the Lok Sabha for Constitution ordinary bills. which of the following (c) the removal of the Introduction and passage of matter(s)? government Constitutional amendment bills. 1. Introduction and (d) making cut motions Introduction and passage of passage of financial bills involving Constitutional expenditure from the Amendment Bills Consolidated Fund of India. 2. Election of the Vice- Election and impeachment of the President president. 3. Approval of Election of the Vice-President. proclamation of all The Vice-President is elected by three types of an electoral college consisting of emergencies 48 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

members of both Houses of Select the correct Parliament, in accordance with answer using the code the system of proportional given below. representation by means of the (a) 1 only single transferable vote and the (b) 1 and 3 only voting in such election is by secret (c) 2 only ballot. The Electoral College to (d) 1, 2 and 3 elect a person to the office of the EXPLANATION: Vice-President consists of all The powers and status members of both Houses of of the Rajya Sabha are Parliament. equal to that of the Lok However, Rajya Sabha alone can Sabha in the following initiate the removal of the vice- matters: president. He is removed by a Introduction and resolution passed by the Rajya passage of ordinary bills. Sabha by a special majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha by a Introduction and simple majority. passage of Making recommendation to the Constitutional President for the removal of Chief amendment bills. Justice and judges of Supreme Introduction and Court and high courts, chief passage of financial bills election commissioner and involving expenditure comptroller and auditor general. from the Consolidated Approval of ordinances issued by Fund of India. the President. Election and Approval of proclamation of all impeachment of the three types of emergencies by the president. President. Election of the Vice- Selection of ministers including President. the Prime Minister. Under the Constitution, the ministers including the Prime Minister can be members of either House. However, irrespective of their membership, they are responsible only to the Lok Sabha. Consideration of the reports of the constitutional bodies like Finance Commission, Union Public 49 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Service Commission, comptroller and auditor general, etc. Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the Union Public Service Commission. 33 POLITY & With reference to the funds D Statement 1 is correct: Members D CA https://mplad EN "PT 365 Government Frequently in news GOVERNANC under Members of of Parliament Local Area s.gov.in/MPLA Schemes page number wrt unspent MPLADS E Parliament Local Area Development Scheme is for DS/UploadedF 149" funds Development Scheme development works and creation iles/MPLADSG (MPLADS), which of the of durable community assets. The uidelines2016 following statements are emphasis is on creation of English_638.p correct? durable community assets based df 1. MPLADS funds must be on locally felt needs in the arenas used to create durable sets of roads, electricity, drinking https://econo like physical infrastructure water, health and education etc. mictimes.india for health, education, etc The recommendations of the times.com/ne 2. A specified portion of each works are made by the Members ws/politics- MP fund must benefit SC/ST of Parliament for the betterment and- populations of the community. These works nation/high- 3. MPLADS funds are are executed by District court-seeks- sanctioned on yearly basis Authorities in accordance with the info-from- and the unused funds cannot respective State Government’s centre-on- be carried forward to the financial, technical and release- next year. administrative rules. utilisation-of- 4. The district authority must The scheme was announced in funds-under- inspect at least 10% of all 1993. Initially the MPLADS was mplads/article work under implementation under the control of the Ministry show/775939 every year. of Rural Development. The 93.cms Select the correct answer MPLAD Scheme was transferred using the code given below: to the Ministry of Statistics and https://www.t (a) 1 and 2 only Programme Implementation in hehindu.com/ (b) 3 and 4 only October 1994. opinion/editor (c) 1, 2 and 3 only The annual MPLADS fund ial/for-better- (d) 1, 2 and 4 only entitlement per MP constituency use-the- is Rs. 5 crores. hindu- Lok Sabha Members can editorial-on- recommend works within their mplads- Constituencies. Elected Members funds/article3 of Rajya Sabha can recommend 1293067.ece works within the State of Election. 50 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Nominated Members of both the https://www.i Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha can ndiatoday.in/e recommend works anywhere in lections/lok- the country. Hence statement 2 is sabha- not correct. 2019/story/lo Statement 2 is correct: M.Ps are k-sabha-mps- to recommend every year, works report-card- costing at least 15 per cent of the mplad-funds- MPLADS entitlement for the year unspent- for areas inhabited by Scheduled amount- Caste population and 7.5 per cent 1487490- for areas inhabited by S.T. 2019-03-29 population. In other words, out of an amount of Rs.5 crores, a M.P. shall recommend for areas inhabited by S.C. population, Rs.75 lacs and Rs.37.5 lacs for areas inhabited by S.T. population. In case there is insufficient tribal population in the area of Lok Sabha Member, they may recommend this amount for the creation of community assets in tribal areas outside of their constituency but within their State of election. In case a State does not have S.T. inhabited areas, this amount may be utilized in S.C. inhabited areas and vice-versa. It shall be the responsibility of the district authority to enforce the provision of the guideline. In order to facilitate implementation of this guideline, it will be responsibility of the district authority keeping in view the extant provisions of State and Central Government’s to declare areas eligible for utilization for funds meant for the 51 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

benefit of SC & ST population.

Statement 3 is not correct: An important aspect of the MPLAD Scheme is that funds released under this scheme are non- lapsable i.e. if the money is not utilised, it gets carried to the next year. Statement 4 is correct: The District Authority would be responsible for overall coordination and supervision of the works under the scheme at the district level and inspect at least 10% of the works under implementation every year. 34 POLITY & Which one of the following D Right to Equality (Article 14-18) E F Lamikanth: EM GOVERNANC categories of Fundamental protects the citizens against any Indian Polity - E Rights incorporate discrimination by the State on the Ch: protection against basis of religion, caste, race, sex, or Fundamental untouchability as a form of place of birth. Rights discrimination? Article 14 says that all citizens enjoy NCERT: Indian (a) Right against Exploitation equal privileges and opportunities. Constitution (b) Right to Freedom Article 15 provides that the State At Work; Ch 2: shall not discriminate against any (c) Right to Constitutional RIGHTS IN THE citizen on grounds only of religion, Remedies INDIAN race, caste, sex or place of birth. (d) Right to Equality CONSTITUTIO Article 16 says that no citizen can be discriminated against or be N ineligible for any employment or office under the State on grounds of only religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth or residence. Article 17 abolishes ‘untouchability’ and forbids its practise in any form. Article 18 abolish all titles national or foreign which create artificial distinctions in social status amongst the people.

52 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

35 POLITY & In India, separation of B Directive Principles of State Policy E F LAXMIKANTH: EM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: GOVERNANC judiciary from the executive can be classified into three broad Indian Polity TEST 2963 E is enjoined by categories, viz, socialistic, Consider the following (a) the Preamble of the Gandhian and liberal–intellectual. pairs: Constitution Socialistic Principles: These Directive Principle of (b) a Directive Principle of principles reflect the ideology of State Policy : Based on State Policy socialism. They lay down the the ideology (c) the Seventh Schedule framework of a democratic 1. To promote cottage (d) the conventional practice socialist state, aim at providing industries on an social and economic justice, and individual or co- set the path towards welfare operation basis in rural state. areas : Gandhian Gandhian Principles: These 2. To prohibit the principles are based on Gandhian consumption of ideology. They represent the intoxicating drinks and programme of reconstruction drugs which are enunciated by Gandhi during the injurious to health : national movement. In order to Liberalism fulfil the dreams of Gandhi, some 3. To secure for all of his ideas were included as citizens a uniform civil Directive Principles. code throughout the Liberal–Intellectual Principles: country : Socialism The principles included in this Which of the pairs given category represent the ideology above is/are correctly of liberalism. They direct the matched? state: (a) 1 only To secure for all citizens a uniform (b) 1 and 2 only civil code throughout the country (c) 2 and 3 only (Article 44). (d) 1, 2 and 3 To provide early childhood care EXPLANATION: and education for all children until The Constitution does they complete the age of six years not contain any (Article 45). classification of To organise agriculture and Directive Principles. animal husbandry on modern and However, on the basis scientific lines (Article 48). of their content and To protect and improve the direction, they can be environment and to safeguard classified into three forests and wild life (Article 48 A). broad categories, viz, To protect monuments, places socialistic, Gandhian and 53 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

and objects of artistic or historic liberal–intellectual. interest which are declared to be Liberal–Intellectual of national importance (Article Principles: The 49). principles included in To separate the judiciary from this category represent the executive in the public the ideology of services of the State (Article 50). liberalism. They direct To promote international peace the state: and security and maintain just and To secure for all citizens honourable relations between a uniform civil code nations; to foster respect for throughout the country international law and treaty (Article 44). obligations, and to encourage To provide early settlement of international childhood care and disputes by arbitration (Article education for all 51). children until they complete the age of six years (Article 45). To organise agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines (Article 48). To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life (Article 48 A). To protect monuments, places and objects of artistic or historic interest which are declared to be of national importance (Article 49). To separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State (Article 50). To promote 54 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

international peace and security and maintain just and honourable relations between nations; to foster respect for international law and treaty obligations, and to encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration (Article 51). 36 POLITY & Along with the Budget, the D Fiscal Responsibility and Budget E F https://www. EN ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: To test the general GOVERNANC Finance Minister also places Management (FRBM) became an business- TEST 2969 awareness. In news E other documents before the Act in 2003. The objective of the standard.com/ Which of the following esp during Budget Parliament which include Act is to ensure inter-generational about/what- fiscal policy statements passage. "The Macro Economic equity in fiscal management, long is-macro- are required to be laid Framework Statement'. The run macroeconomic stability, economic- before the Parliament aforesaid document is better coordination between framework- under the Fiscal presented because this is fiscal and monetary policy, and statement Responsibility and mandated by transparency in fiscal operation of Budget Management (a) Long standing the Government. Act, 2003 (FRBMA)? parliamentary convention 1. Medium-term Fiscal (b) Article 112 and Article It requires for the presentation of Policy 110(1) of the Constitution of the following documents before 2. Fiscal Policy Strategy India the Parliament - the Medium 3. Outcome Budget (c) Article 113 of the Term Expenditure Framework 4. Medium-term Constitution of India Statement (MTEF), Medium-Term Expenditure Framework (d) Provisions of the Fiscal Fiscal Policy Statement, Fiscal Select the correct Responsibility and Budget Policy Strategy Statement and answer using the code Management Act, 2003 Macroeconomic Framework given below. Statement. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 EXPLANATION: Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) became an Act in 2003. The objective of 55 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

the Act is to ensure inter-generational equity in fiscal management, long run macroeconomic stability, better coordination between fiscal and monetary policy, and transparency in fiscal operation of the Government. It requires for the presentation of the following documents before the Parliament - the Medium Term Expenditure Framework Statement (MTEF), Medium-Term Fiscal Policy Statement, Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement and Macroeconomic Framework Statement. 37 POLITY & A constitutional government D Constitutionalism has a variety of E F http://www.le RR ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: UPSC has asked on GOVERNANC by definition is a meanings. Most generally, it is "a galservicesindi TEST 2989 constitutional E (a) government by legislature complex of ideas, attitudes, and a.com/article/ Which of the following government in (b) popular government patterns of behavior elaborating 1699/Constitu reflects previous years. (c) multi-party government the principle that the authority of tionalism.html Constitutionalism in the (d) limited government government derives from and is Indian polity? limited by a body of fundamental (a) The provision of law". Constitutionalism’ means division of power limited government or limitation between the Centre and on government. It is the the states antithesis of arbitrary powers. (b) The provision of Constitutionalism recognizes the Integrated Judiciary need for a government with (c) The fundamental powers but at the same time rights of the citizens are insists that limitation be placed on protected. those powers. The antithesis of (d) The fact that the 56 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

constitutionalism is despotism. A President of India is the government that goes beyond its nominal head of the limits loses its authority and state . EXPLANATION:

Constitutionalism could be seen Constitutionalism has a as constituting the following variety of meanings. elements: Most generally, it is "a complex of ideas, government according to the attitudes, and patterns constitution; of behavior elaborating separation of power; the principle that the sovereignty of the people and authority of government democratic government; derives from and is constitutional review; limited by a body of independent judiciary; fundamental law". Constitutionalism’ limited government subject to a means limited bill of individual rights; government or controlling the police; limitation on civilian control of the military; and government. It is the no state power, or very limited antithesis of arbitrary and strictly circumscribed state powers. power, to suspend the operation Constitutionalism of some parts of, or the entire, recognizes the need for constitution. a government with powers but at the same time insists that limitation be placed on those powers. The antithesis of constitutionalism is despotism. A government that goes beyond its limits loses its authority and legitimacy. 38 POLITY & Other than the Fundamental D The Universal Declaration of D FA https://legalaf RM GOVERNANC Rights, which of the Human Rights was adopted by the fairs.gov.in/sit E following parts of the UN General Assembly in 1948. es/default/file Constitution of India This declaration represents the s/chapter%20 57 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

reflect/reflects the principles first international expression of 3.pdf and provisions of the human rights to which all human Universal Declaration of beings are entitled. It is described Human Rights (1948)? as the “International Magna 1. Preamble Carta”. 2. Directive Principles of The Constitution of India has a State Policy rich content of human rights. The 3. Fundamental Duties Preamble, the Fundamental Select the correct answer Rights and the Directive using the code given below: Principles of State Policy reflect (a) 1 and 2 only the principles and provisions of (b) 2 only the Universal Declaration of (c) 1 and 3 only Human Rights (1948). (d) 1, 2 and 3 The four ideals of the Preamble are aimed at the promotion of human rights. They are as under: Justice in social, economic and political spheres Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship Equality of status and opportunity Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual The Fundamental Rights under Part-III of the Constitution contain an elaborate list of civil and political rights divided into six categories: Right to equality Right to freedom Right against exploitation Right to freedom of religion Cultural and educational right Right to constitutional remedies The Directive Principles of State Policy in Part-IV of the Constitution comprise economic, social and cultural rights. Article 26 of The Universal Declaration of Human Rights: 58 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Everyone has the right to education. Education shall be free, at least in the elementary and fundamental stages. Elementary education shall be compulsory. Technical and professional education shall be made generally available and higher education shall be equally accessible to all on the basis of merit. Education shall be directed to the full development of the human personality and to the strengthening of respect for human rights and fundamental freedoms. It shall promote understanding, tolerance and friendship among all nations, racial or religious groups, and shall further the activities of the United Nations for the maintenance of peace. Parents have a prior right to choose the kind of education that shall be given to their children. All this is reflected in the Fundamental Duty Article 51-A(k) "Who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, between the age of six and fourteen years." Hence all the options are correct. 39 POLITY & In India, Legal Services A As per the Legal Services D F https://nalsa.g RM GOVERNANC Authorities provide free legal Authorities Act, 1987, following ov.in/services/ E services to which of the are entitled to free legal services: legal- following type of citizens? A member of a Scheduled Caste or aid/eligibility 1. Person with an annual Scheduled Tribe; income of less than Rs. A victim of trafficking in human 59 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

1,00,000 beings or begar as referred to in 2. Transgender with an Article 23 of the Constitution; annual income of less than A woman is entitled for free legal Rs. 2,00,000 aid irrespective of her income or 3. Member of Other financial status; Backward Classes (OBC) with Child is eligible for free legal aid till an annual income of less the age of majority i.e. 18 years; than Rs. 3,00,000 A mentally ill or otherwise 4. All Senior Citizens differently abled person; Select the correct answer A person under circumstances of using the code given below: undeserved want such as being a (a) 1 and 2 only victim of a mass disaster, ethnic (b) 3 and 4 only violence, caste atrocity, flood, (c) 2 and 3 only drought, earthquake or industrial (d) 1 and 4 only disaster; or An industrial workman; or a person in receipt of annual income less than the amount mentioned in the following schedule (or any other higher amount as may be prescribed by the State Government), if the case is before a Court other than the Supreme Court, and less than Rs 5 Lakh, if the case is before the Supreme Court. The Income Ceiling Limit prescribed u/S 12(h) of the Act for availing free legal services in different States. Senior Citizen - Senior citizens’ eligibility for free legal aid depends on the Rules framed by the respective State Governments in this regard. Hence option 4 is not correct. o Low income (Annual income less than Rs. 1,00,000 o Transgender (Annual income less than Rs. 2 Lac) in Delhi 60 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

40 CURRENT Consider the following pairs C Alma Ata Declaration: The E CA https://www.t EN PT 365 2020 Social Page AFFAIRS International Declaration of Alma-Ata was heclimategrou number 29 ""4.6. WHO agreement/set-up Subject adopted at the International p.org/project/ INDIA COUNTRY 1. Alma-Ata Declaration - Conference on Primary Health under2- COOPERATION Healthcare of the people Care, Almaty, Kazakhstan, 6–12 coalition STRATEGY (CCS)"& Page 2. Hague Convention - September 1978. It expressed the number 8 1.8. Biological and chemical need for urgent action by all https://www. IN INDIA weapons governments, all health and hcch.net/en/i ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: 3. Talanoa Dialogue - Global development workers, and the nstruments/co TEST 2986 climate change world community to protect and nventions/full- Consider the following 4. Under2 Coalition - Child promote the health of all people. text/?cid=24 statements regarding rights Hence pair 1 is correctly the Hague Convention Which of the pairs given matched. on the Civil Aspects of above is/are correctly Hague Convention: The Hague International Child matched? Convention on the Civil Aspects of Abduction: (a) 1 and 2 only International or 1. The convention seeks (b) 4 only Hague Abduction Convention is a to return children (c) 1 and 3 only multilateral treaty developed by abducted or retained (d) 2, 3 and 4 only the Hague Conference on Private overseas by a parent to International Law that provides an their country of habitual expeditious method to return a residence. child internationally abducted by 2. The convention a parent from one member applies to the child, up country to another. Hence pair 2 to the age of 18 years. is not correctly matched. 3. All the members of The Talanoa Dialogue is a process the United Nations are designed to help countries the party to the Hague implement and enhance their Convention. Nationally Determined Which of the Contributions by 2020. The statements given above Dialogue was mandated by the is/are correct? Parties to the United Nations (a) 1 and 2 only Framework Convention for (b) 1, 2 and 3 Climate Change to take stock of (c) 1 only the collective global efforts to (d) 2 and 3 only reduce the emissions of greenhouse gases, in line with the goals of the Paris Agreement. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched. 61 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

The Under2 Coalition is a global community of state and regional governments committed to ambitious climate action in line with the Paris Agreement. The coalition brings together more than 220 governments who represent over 1.3 billion people and 43% of the global economy. Signatories commit to keeping global temperature rises to well below 2°C with efforts to reach 1.5°C. Hence pair 4 is not correctly matched. 41 MODERN With reference to the history B Aurang – A Persian term for a D F https://ncert. RR INDIA of India, consider the warehouse –a place where goods nic.in/ncerts/l following pairs: are collected before being sold; /hess201.pdf 1. Aurang - In-charge of also refers to a workshop. Hence OUR PAST-III, treasury of the State pair 1 is not correctly matched Page. No. 85, 2. Banian -Indian agent of Banian: In the 18th and 19th chapter- the East India Company centuries, European merchants WEAVERS, 3. Mirasidar - Designated opened and deepened trade IRON revenue payer to the State routes throughout Asia, Africa, SMELTERS Which of the pairs given and Latin America. However, in AND FACTORY above is/are correctly these markets they faced OWNERS matched? considerable challenges due to Shekhar (a) 1 and 2 only linguistic and cultural barriers. Bandopadhya (b) 2 and 3 only This led to difficulties in ya (c) 3 only integrating into indigenous (d) 1, 2 and 3 commercial and political systems, which restricted their operations. The use of intermediaries with expertise of the local markets and languages rapidly proliferated. In South-East Asia, this was known as the ‘comprador’ system, whilst in the Anglo-Indian trade individuals carrying out these functions were known as ‘banians’. These 62 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

intermediaries fulfilled various internal and external roles for trading companies including, managing treasury functions, securing credit, and acting as brokers in the local markets. A contemporary described the banian as an individual, “By whom the English gentlemen in general conduct all their business. He is interpreter, head book-keeper, head secretary, head broker, the supplier of cash and cash-keeper, and in general also secret-keeper. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched. Mirasidars: Under the ryotwari settlement system, the government recognized mirasidars as the sole proprietors of land, dismissing tenants' rights completely. Only in villages where no mirasidar system existed were those villagers holding permanent occupancy rights recognized as landholders responsible for the payment of land revenue. According to Elphinstone (Governor of Bombay), the two important features of the government were: 1. the existence of village communities as units of local administration 2. the existence of mirasi tenure Mirasdars were hereditary peasant proprietors who cultivated their own fields and paid land tax at fixed rates to the state. The Mirasdar belonged to 63 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

the village and could not be dispossessed of it so long as he continued to pay the rent. He could sell and transfer his fields and had the right to sit in the village council. All the land which did not belong to the Mirasdar belonged to government or those to whom government assigned it. His lands were measured out and classified, and the standard demand on them fixed. If, however, the rains failed, if the village suffered from war or pestilence or if a family calamity intervened, he could seek remission. 42 ART & With reference to the B The division of the Buddhist D F AL BASHAM: RM CULTURE religious history of India, community in India in the first three WONDER consider the following centuries following the death of the THAT WAS statements: Buddha in c. 483 BC. INDIA 1. Sthaviravadins belong to The first division in the Buddhist https://www. Mahayana Buddhism. community occurred as a result of ancient.eu/M 2. Lokottaravadin sect was the second council, said to have ahasanghika/ an offshoot of Mahasanghika been held 100 years after the Buddha’s death, at Vaisali (Bihar sect of Buddhism. state) this Council was called to 3. The deification of Buddha condemn certain practices of some by Mahasanghikas fostered monks which were contrary to the the Mahayana Buddhism. Vinaya or Monk’s Code of conduct., Which of the statements when the Acariyavadins (followers given above is/are Correct? of the traditional teaching) split (a) 1 and 2 only away from the Sthaviravadins (b) 2 and 3 only (followers of the Way of the Elders) (c) 3 only and formed their own school, (d) 1, 2 and 3 known as the Mahasanghikas. These Sthaviravadins followed a realist line, stating that all phenomena exist and are unstable compounds of elements. They taught that it is necessary for all 64 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

humans to strive for Arahantship or release from the constant round of rebirth (Samsara). They taught that Buddhas are men - pure and simple, rejecting any notion of their being transcendental. The other group, which were in the majority, were known as the Mahasanghikas. Like the Sthaviravadins, they accepted the fundamental doctrines as taught by the Buddha, such as: the Four Noble Truths, the Noble Eightfold Path etc but they differed in believing that Buddhas are supramundane and transcendental. They also believed that the original nature of the mind is pure and that it is contaminated when it is stained by passions and defilements. It was from the Mahasanghikas that the Mahayana was to evolve. Hence statement 1 is not correct. They differed or came to differ significantly from the Sthaviravada in how they understood the nature of the Buddha, and they are the first to attribute divinity to him and represent him in anthropomorphic form in statuary, setting a precedent which has continued to the present day. Hence statement 3 is correct. Further subdivisions of the Mahasanghikas over the next seven centuries included sect of Lokottarvadin whose philosophy was based on the concept of Lokottara Buddha or Supernatural Buddha., the Ekavyavaharikas, and the Kaukkutikas. Hence statement 2 is correct.

65 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

66 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

43 MODERN Which of the following A India was a major player in the M F Bipin EN ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: INDIA statements correctly explain world export market for textiles in Chandra's TEST 2968 the impact of Industrial the early 18th century, but by the India's Which of the following Revolution on India during middle of the 19th century it had Struggle for was/were the the first half of the lost all of its export market and Independence outcome(s) of economic nineteenth century? much of its domestic market. Ch: Economic policies of British? (a) Indian handicrafts were At the beginning of Industrial Critique of 1. Growth of Urban ruined. revolution cotton industries Nationalism handicrafts industry (b) Machines were developed in England, industrial 2. Development of introduced in the Indian groups began worrying about Plantation industries textile industry in large imports from other countries. 3. Ruin of Old zamindars numbers. They pressurised the government and rise of new class of (c) Railway lines were laid in to impose import duties on cotton landlords many parts of the country textiles so that Manchester goods Select the correct (d) Heavy duties were could sell in Britain without facing answer using code given imposed on the imports of any competition from outside. At below. British manufactures the same time industrialists (a) 2 only persuaded the East India (b) 2 and 3 only Company to sell British (c) 1 and 3 only manufactures in Indian markets as (d) 1 and 2 only well. Exports of British cotton EXPLANATION: goods increased dramatically in British rule in India the early nineteenth century. caused a transformation Cotton weavers in India thus of India’s economy into faced two problems at the same a colonial economy, i.e., time: their export market the structure and collapsed, and the local market operation of Indian shrank, being glutted with economy were Manchester imports. Produced by determined by the machines at lower costs, the interests of the British imported cotton goods were so economy. cheap that weavers could not Deindustrialisation - easily compete with them. By the Ruin of Artisans and 1850s, reports from most Handicraftsmen: weaving regions of India narrated Cheap and machine- stories of decline and desolation. made imports flooded Hence option (a) is correct the Indian market after answer. the Charter Act of 1813 allowing one-way free trade for the British 67 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

citizens. On the other hand, Indian products found it more and more difficult to penetrate the European markets. Another feature of deindustrialisation was the decline of many cities and a process of ruralisation of India. Many artisans, faced with diminishing returns and repressive policies (in Bengal, during the Company’s rule, artisans were paid low wages and forced to sell their products at low prices), abandoned their professions, moved to villages and took to agriculture. Impoverishment of Peasantry: The peasant turned out to be the ultimate sufferer under the triple burden of the Government, zamindar and money-lender. His hardship increased at the time of famine and scarcity. This was as much true for the zamindari areas as for areas under Ryotwari and Mahalwari systems. The peasant became landless. Ruin of Old Zamindars and Rise of New 68 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Landlordism: The heaviness of land revenue under Permanent Settlement Act and rigid law of collection, under which zamindari estates were ruthlessly sold in case of delay in payment of revenue, worked havoc for the first few years. By 1815 nearly half of the landed property of Bengal was transferred from the old zamindars who had traditions of showing cosideration for the tenants. Commercialisation of Agriculture: Apart from machine based industries, the 19th century also witnessed the growth of plantation industries such as indigo, tea and coffee. The commercialisation trend reached the highest level of development in the plantation sector, i.e., in tea, coffee, rubber, indigo, etc., which was mostly owned by Europeans and the produce was for sale in a wider market.

69 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

44 MEDIEVAL Consider the following C The Gurjara Pratihara dynasty D F NCERT class- EM PT 365 2020 Extended INDIA events in the history of India: was founded by Nagabhatta I in 7th-OUR Study material page 1. Rise of Pratiharas under the region of Malwa in the 8th PASTS – number 115 ;7.3.2. King Bhoja century AD. He belonged to a II,NEW KINGS GURJARA-PRATIHARAS" 2 Establishment of Pallava Rajput clan. Gurjara-Pratihara AND & PT 365 2020 Culture power under dynasty ruled much of Northern KINGDOMS. page number 24; 7.3. Mahendravarman-I India from the mid-8th to the 11th pg.16-21. MAMALLAPURAM" 3. Establishment of Chola century. The Pratiharas, derived ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: power by Purantaka their name from the Sanskrit TEST 2967 4. Pala dynasty founded by meaning doorkeeper, are seen as Who among the Gopala a tribal group or a clan of the following rulers was What is the correct Gurjaras. The greatest ruler of the given the titles of chronological order of the Pratihara dynasty was Mihir Bhoja Vichitrachitta, above events, starting from (836–885 CE). He recovered Chitrakarapuli and the earliest time? Kannauj (Kanyakubja) by 836 A.D, Chaityakari? (a) 2-1-4-3 and it remained the capital of the (a) Mangalesha of (b) 3-1-4-2 Pratiharas for almost a century. Chalukya Dynansty (c) 2-4-1-3 The Pallavas were a powerful (b) Krishna Deva Raya of (d) 3-4-1-2 ancient dynasty that ruled a huge Vijaynagara kingdom part of Southern India, including (c) Mahendravarma I of present day Tamil Nadu, between Pallava Dynasty the 6th and 9th centuries AD, with (d) Kanishka I of Kushan Kanchipuram as their capital. The Dynasty Pallavas reached their zenith EXPLANATION: during the reign of Mahendravarman I: He Mahendravarman I (c. 600–630), a was a Pallava King who contemporary of Harsha and succeeded Simhavishnu Pulakeshin II. and reigned for c. 600– Mahendravarman I 630. He was a Pallava King who He was a great patron of succeeded Simhavishnu and art and architecture and reigned for c. 600–630. He was a is known for introducing great patron of art and a new style to Dravidian architecture and is known for architecture, which is introducing a new style to sometimes referred to Dravidian architecture, which is as “Mahendra style.” sometimes referred to as He built temples at “Mahendra style.” He built Panamalai, temples at Panamalai, Mandagapattu and Mandagapattu and Kanchipuram. Kanchipuram. The 70 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

The inscription at Mandagapattu inscription at mentions Mahendravarman I with Mandagapattu numerous titles such as: mentions Vichitrachitta (curious-minded) Mahendravarman I with Chitrakarapuli (tiger among numerous titles such as: artists) Chaityakari (temple Vichitrachitta (curious- builder). minded) Chitrakarapuli The Cholas became prominent in (tiger among artists) the ninth century and established ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: an empire comprising the major TEST 3222 portion of South India. Their Consider the following capital was Tanjore. The Chola pairs: ruler Parantaka succeeded his Dynasty Founder father Aditya I(Aditya I or Aditya 1. Gurjara Pratihara Chola, the son of Vijayalaya Chola, Nagabhatta I is the second ruler of the 2. Pala dynasty Medieval Cholas) on the throne in Dharmapala 907 and ruled for forty-eight 3. Rashtrakuta dynasty years. Soon after his accession, as Dantidurga early as 910, he invaded the Which of the pairs given Pandyan country and assumed the above is/are correctly title Maduraikonda (‘ Capturer of matched? Madura’). (a) 1 only The was an imperial (b) 2 and 3 only power during the post-classical (c) 1 and 3 only period (8th and 9th century AD) (d) 1, 2 and 3 which originated in the Bengal EXPLANATION: region. The empire was founded The Gurjara Pratihara with the election of Gopala as the dynasty was founded emperor of Gauda in 750 CE. by Nagabhatta I in the Hence correct sequence is 2-4-1- region of Malwa in the 3. 8th century AD. He belonged to a Rajput clan. Later one of his successors, Vatsaraja extended his rule over to a large part of North India and made Kannauj in western Uttara Pradesh his capital. One 71 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

of the important kings of this dynasty was Mihira Bhoja (ninth century). In eastern India, Pala dynasty was founded by Gopala (8th century AD). The son and grandson of Gopala, viz; Dharmapala and Devapala greatly extended the power and prestige of the Pala dynasty. Though their expansion towards west was checked by the Pratiharas, the Palas continued to rule over Bihar and Bengal for nearly four centuries with a small break. The Pala kings were the followers of Buddhism. Dharmapala is known to have founded the famous Vikramashila university near Bhagalpur in Bihar. Like Nalanda university, it attracted students from all parts of India and also from Tibet. 45 MEDIEVAL Which of the following C In India, instruments of credit M F NCERT, EM INDIA phrases defines the nature of have been in use since time Accountancy the Hundi' generally referred immemorial and are popularly Chapter: bill to in the sources of the post- known as Hundies. of exchange, Harsha period? The movement of goods during Page.no. 279- (a) An advisory issued by the Medieval period was facilitated by 280. king to his subordinates the growth of a financial system https://www.r (b) A diary to be maintained which permitted easy transfer of bi.org.in/script 72 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

for daily accounts money from one part of the s/ms_hundies. (c) A bill of exchange country to another. aspx (d) An order from the feudal This was done through the use of lord to his subordinates Hundis. The Hundis was a letter of credit payable after a period of time at a discount. 46 MODERN With reference to the book A Sakharam Ganesh Deuskar (1869- D F A History of RR 150th birth INDIA "Desher Kather" written by 1912) a close associate of Sri Modern India- anniversary of Sakharam Ganesh Deuskar Aurobindo. A Marathi Brahmin Ishita Sakharam Ganesh during the freedom struggle, who had settled in Bengal, Banerjee- Deuskar in 2019. consider the following Sakharam was born in Deoghar. Dube. Page. statement : He published a book entitled no. 233. 1. It warned against the Desher Katha describing in Colonial States hypnotic exhaustive detail the British conquest of the mind. commercial and industrial 2. It inspired the exploitation of India. This book performance of swadeshi had an immense repercussion in street plays and folk songs. Bengal, captured the mind of 3. The use of desh' by young Bengal and assisted more Deuskar was in the specific than anything else in the context of the region of preparation of the Swadeshi Bengal. movement. Published first in June Which of the statements 1904, Desher Katha sold ten given above are curt? thousand copies in four editions (a) 1 and 2 only within the year. The fifth edition (b) 2 and 3 only came out in 1905. The (c) 1 and 3 only government of Bengal banned the (d) 1, 2 and 3 book in 1910 and confiscated all the copies. Sakharam Ganesh Deuskar popularized the ideas of Naoroji and Ranade and promoted swadeshi in a popular idiom. His text, titled Desher Katha (Story of the Nation/Country), written in 1904, warned against the colonial state’s ‘hypnotic conquest of the mind'. By the time Desher Katha was banned by the colonial state in 1910, it had sold over 15,000 73 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

copies, inspired swadeshi street plays and folk songs, and had become a mandatory text for an entire generation of swadeshi activists. It is remarkable that in spite of this general growth of ‘national’ and regional awakening and ‘national’ consciousness, there was no word in Bengali for ‘nation’, a fact noted by Rabindranath. Tagore would become an outspoken critique of nationalism, arguing that ‘India had never had a real sense of nationalism’ and it would do India ‘no good to compete with Western civilization in its own field’ . Earlier, he had described nationalism as a bhougalik apadevata, a geographical demon, towards the exorcism of which he had dedicated his Visva-Bharati. Deuskar used desh to mean nation. The overlap of place of origin and nation, as well as jati (literally birth, family or caste) and nationality inflected understandings of the nation/country in distinct ways. Moreover, the constant overlap and conflation of Bengal and India, and Bengalis and Indians in the use of desh and jati, added further twists to notions of nationalism. It is worth quoting part of an article “Amader Desher Katha” [About our Country], that appeared in the children’s periodical Prakriti [Nature] in 1907:

74 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Though we constantly reiterate the phrase ‘our country’ do we have any exact idea of the actual constituents of that territory? . . What are the boundaries of our land? . . . Steering clear of political debates, let us see what Mother Nature has to say in this regard . . . her fingers point to a huge expanse - far greater than Bengal - as our nation. Following her directions we recognize the glorious Bharatbarsha as our majestic land. With walls of the highest mountains and the deepest caverns of the seas, Nature has carved out the contours of Bharat and made it distinct from the rest of the world . . . this great expanse called Bharatbarsha is our nation. 47 MODERN The Gandhi-Irwin Pact B 5 March 1931, the Gandhi-Irwin M F NCERT EM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: INDIA included which of the Pact was signed by Gandhiji on Themes in TEST 2968 following? behalf of the Congress and by Indian History Consider the following 1 Invitation to Congress to Lord Irwin on behalf of the part-III(Class- statements regarding participate in the Round Government. 12th)-, Gandhi-Irwin Pact: Table Conference The pact placed the Congress on Chapter- 1. It included the 2. Withdrawal of Ordinances an equal footing with the Mahatma immediate release of all promulgated in connection Government. The terms of the Gandhi and political prisoners. with the Civil Disobedience agreement included immediate the Nationalist 2. As per the pact, the Movement release of all political prisoners Movement government recognized 3. Acceptance of Gandhiji's not convicted of violence; Civil the right to peaceful suggestion for enquiry into remission of all fines not yet Disobedience and non-aggressive police excesses. collected; and Beyond. picketing. 4. Release of only those return of all lands not yet sold to Page. 360 Which of the prisoners who were not third parties; The Making of statements given above charged with violence lenient treatment to those the National is/are correct? Select the correct answer government servants who had Movement: (a) 1 only using the code given below: resigned; 1870s - (b) 2 only (a) 1 only right to make salt in coastal 1947:Chapter (c) Both 1 and 2 75 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only villages for personal consumption 11 of Our (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 3 only (not for sale); Pasts-3, Social EXPLANATION: (d) 2, 3 and 4 only right to peaceful and non- Science On 5 March 1931 in the aggressive picketing. textbook for Gandhi-Irwin Pact, withdrawal of emergency class 08 which was variously ordinances. described as a ‘truce’ The viceroy, however, turned and a ‘provisional down two of Gandhi's demands: settlement.’ The Pact (i) public inquiry into police was signed by Gandhiji excesses, and on behalf of the (ii) commutation of Bhagat Singh Congress and by Lord and his comrades' death sentence Irwin on behalf of the to life sentence. Government. Gandhi on behalf of the Congress The terms of the agreed: agreement included the (i) to suspend the civil immediate release of disobedience movement. only the political (ii) to participate in the next prisoners who are not Round Table Conference. convicted for violence, the remission of all fines not yet collected, the return of confiscated lands not yet sold to third parties, and lenient treatment for those government employees who had resigned. Statement 2 is correct: The Government also conceded the right to make salt for consumption to villages along the coast and also the right to peaceful and non-aggressive picketing. The Congress demand for a public inquiry into police excesses was not 76 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

accepted, but Gandhiji’s insistent request for an inquiry was recorded in the agreement. The Congress, on its part, agreed to discontinue the Civil Disobedience Movement. 48 MODERN The Vital-Vidhvansak, the A Gopal Baba Walangkar, also D F https://shodh RR INDIA first monthly journal to have known as Gopal Krishna, (ca. ganga.inflibne the untouchable people as 1840-1900) is an early example of t.ac.in/bitstre its target audience was an activist working to release the am/10603/14 published by untouchable people of India from 0701/7/07_ch (a) Gopal Baba Walangkar their historic socio-economic apter%201.pd (b) Jyotiba Phule oppression, and is generally f (c) Mohandas Karamchand considered to be the pioneer of Gandhi that movement. He developed a https://en.wik (d) Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar racial theory to explain the ipedia.org/wik oppression and also published the i/Gopal_Baba first journal targeted at the _Walangkar untouchable people. Walangkar claimed that "high-caste people from the south were 'Australian–Semitic non-' and African negroes, that Chitpavan Brahmans were 'Barbary Jews', and that the high-caste Marathas' forebears were 'Turks'". In 1888, Walangkar began publishing the monthly journal titled Vital-Vidhvansak (Destroyer of Brahmanical or Ceremonial Pollution), which was the first to have the untouchable people as its target audience. 49 ANCIENT With reference to the history A Gupta Economy: The agricultural D F Upinder Singh: EM INDIA of India, the terms crops constituted the main A history of "kulyavapa" and resources which the society Ancient and "dronavapa" denote produced and the major part of Early Medieval (a) measurement of land the revenue of the state came India

77 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

(b) coins of different from the agriculture. monetary value Various types of land are (c) classification of urban mentioned in the inscriptions; land land under cultivation was usually (d) religious rituals called Kshetra, Khila was the uncultivable land, Aprahata was the jungle or forest land, Gopata Sarah was the pasture land and Vasti was the habitable land. Different land measures were known in different regions such as Nivartana, Kulyavapa and Dronavapa. In the inscriptions of Bengal terms like Kulyavapa and Dronavapa are used. It is not possible to classify the regions precisely according to the crops grown, but all the major categories of crops – cereals like barley, wheat and paddy, different varieties of pulses, grams and vegetables as well as cash crops like cotton and sugarcane – were known long before the Gupta period and continued to be cultivated. 50 ANCIENT Who among the following A Major Rock Edict XII of Ashoka: D F NCERT class- EM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: INDIA rulers advised his subjects Beloved-of-the-Gods, King 6th, Our Past- TEST 2974 through this inscription? Piyadasi, honors both ascetics and 1, Page.No.- Consider the following "Whosoever praises his the householders of all religions, 73, chapter: statements about religious sect or blames and he honors them with gifts and ASHOKA, THE Mauryan King Ashoka: other sects out of excessive honors of various kinds. EMPEROR 1. Ashoka Dhamma’s devotion to his own sect, But Beloved-of-the-Gods, King WHO GAVE primary objective was to with the view of glorifying his Piyadasi, does not value gifts and UP WAR attract and convert own sect, he rather injures honors as much as he values this - people to the Buddhist his own sect very severely." - that there should be growth in religion. (a) Ashoka the essentials of all religions. 2. King Ashoka (b) Samudragupta Growth in essentials can be done appointed the special (c) Harshavardhana in different ways, but all of them officials for the peaceful (d) Krishnadeva Raya have as their root restraint in functioning of the 78 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

speech, that is, not praising one's principles of Dhamma. own religion, or condemning the Which of the religion of others without good statements given above cause. And if there is cause for is/are correct? criticism, it should be done in a (a) 1 only mild way. But it is better to honor (b) 2 only other religions for this reason. By (c) Both 1 and 2 so doing, one's own religion (d) Neither 1 nor 2 benefits, and so do other EXPLANATION: religions, while doing otherwise Ashoka is considered as harms one's own religion and the one of the greatest religions of others. Whoever kings in Indian history. praises his own religion, due to He is praised so much excessive devotion, and for his policy of condemns others with the Dhamma. According to thought "Let me glorify my own some of scholars Ashoka religion," only harms his own was a follower of religion. Buddhism and through Therefore (between Dhamma he tried to religions) is good.[24] One should propagate the principles listen to and respect the doctrines of Buddhism. But this professed by others. Beloved-of- does not seem to be the-Gods, King Piyadasi, desires true as Dhamma had that all should be well-learned in nothing to do with the the good doctrines of other propagation of religions. Buddhism. It was a code of conduct or ideal social behaviour common to all religions of the world, which he appealed to his subjects to follow. Although Ashoka himself believed in Buddhism, he never discriminated against other faiths or religions. Twelfth rock edict is specially important since it says “the king Piyadassi, the beloved 79 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

of the gods, respected all sects whether ascetics or householders, and he honours them with gifts and honours of various kinds…let an alien sect also be respected on every occasion.” It shows clearly that neither Dhamma was Buddhism nor Ashoka was trying to convert people to Buddhism. 51 ENVIRONME What are the advantages of C Fertigation has some specific M FCA https://www.t RR Articles related to NT fertigation in agriculture? advantages over broadcast and hehindu.com/ fertigation are 1. Controlling the alkalinity band fertilization: sci- frequently seen in of irrigation water is (1) A frequent supply of nutrients tech/agricultu the news. possible. reduces fluctuation of nutrient re/active- 2. Efficient application of concentration in soil. research- Rock Phosphate and all other (2) There is efficient utilization work-in- phosphatic fertilizers is and precise application of organic- possible. nutrients according to the fertigation/art 3. Increased availability of nutritional requirements of the icle4268032.e nutrients to plants is crop. ce possible. (3) Fertilizers are applied 4. Reduction in the leaching throughout the irrigated soil https://www.i of chemical nutrients is volume and are readily available ndiaagronet.c possible. to plants. om/indiaagro Select the correct answer (4) Nutrients can be applied to the net/manuers_ using the code given below: soil when soil or crop conditions fertilizers/cont (a) 1, 2 and 3 only would otherwise prohibit entry ents/phosphat (b) 1, 2 and 4 only into the field with conventional ic_fertilisers.h (c) 1,3 and 4 only equipment. tm (d) 2, 3 and 4 only The pH of the irrigation water is of great importance, as it affects many chemical reactions. In fertigation, the reasons for adjusting the pH to an optimal range are: 1. To allow optimal uptake of nutrients,

80 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

especially micronutrients; 2. To keep the irrigation system free from clogging. Alkalinity of a fertigation system can be controlled by adding Acid. The injection of acid to the irrigation water should be, as much as possible, uniform and continuous, throughout the entire duration of the irrigation. Drip fertigation increases water and nitrogen use efficiency. Drip fertigation reduced dissolved inorganic and organic N leaching by 90%.. Soluble fertilizers like urea, potash and a wide variety of fertilizer mixtures available in the market could be well mixed with irrigation water, filtered and then passed through the irrigation unit. Rock Phosphate and some other mineral fertilizers containing phosphorus are insoluble in water as well as in citric acid. They are suitable in strongly acid soils or organic soils. These fertilizers are given in green manured fields. The phosphorus is very slowly released by microbes at action and remains in soil for long time. Hence option (c) is the correct answer. 52 GEOGRAPHY Consider the following D Bentonite is essentially a highly D FCA http://ismenvis. RM District Mineral minerals: plastic clay containing not less nic.in/Database Foundations are 1. Bentonite than 85% clay mineral, /Indian_Mineral frequently seen in 2. Chromite montmorillonite. It gets its name s_Yearbook_20 news. It was also 17_Vol- 3. Kyanite from the place where its presence recently reported III_16186.aspx 4. Sillimanite and usages were first discovered, https://indianex that of the total In India, which of the above Fort Benton, America. As per press.com/articl welfare funds is/are officially designated as Govt. of India Notification S.O. e/business/utili collected, only 17 per major minerals? 423(E) dated 10th February 2015 se-funds-with- cent were spent till (a) 1 and 2 only Bentonite has been declared as district-mineral- 2017-end. foundations- 81 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

(b) 4 only 'Minor Mineral'. properly- (c) 1 and 3 only Chromite (Cr) is the single centre-tells- (d) 2, 3 and 4 only commercially viable ore of states-5188890/ chromium which is chemically https://indianex press.com/articl known as iron chromium oxide (Fe e/india/mining- Cr2O4). affected-areas- Kyanite, Sillimanite and andalusite of-12-top- are unhydrous aluminosilicate mineral-rich- minerals that have the same states-of-total- chemical formula Al2O3 but differ welfare-funds- in crystal structure and physical collected-only- properties. 17-spent-till- 2017-end- 5027963/ 53 GEOGRAPHY With reference to Ocean B Ocean heat content (OHC) and D U https://www.t EN Recently, scientists Mean Temperature (OMT), Ocean Mean Temperature (OMT) hehindu.com/ from Pune’s Indian which of the following are important climatic parameters sci- Institute of Tropical statements is/are correct? required for atmospheric and tech/science/ Meteorology (IITM) 1. OMT is measured up to a oceanic studies like cyclone and ocean-mean- found that ocean depth of 26°C isotherm monsoon predictions and ocean temperature- mean temperature which is 129 meters in the heat transport estimations. Sea can-better- (OMT) that has better south-western Indian Ocean surface temperature (SST) is predict- ability to predict during January–March. routinely used for predicting indian- monsoons than the 2. OMT collected during whether the total amount of summer- sea surface January–March can be used rainfall that India receives during monsoon/arti temperature. in assessing whether the the monsoon season will be less cle24842963.e amount of rainfall in or more than the long-term mean ce monsoon will be less or more of 887.5 mm. Now, scientists from than a certain long-term Pune’s Indian Institute of Tropical mean. Meteorology (IITM) find that Select the correct using the ocean mean temperature (OMT) code given below: that has better ability to predict (a) 1 only this than the sea surface (b) 2 only temperature. Compared with SST (c) Both 1 and 2 which has 60% success rate of (d) Neither 1 nor 2 predicting the Indian summer monsoon, OMT has 80% success rate. Hence statement 2 is correct.

82 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

The SST is restricted to a few millimetres of the top ocean layer and is largely influenced by strong winds, evaporation, or thick clouds. In contrast, OMT, which is measured up to a depth of 26 degree C isotherm, is more stable and consistent, and the spatial spread is also less. The 26 degree C isotherm is seen at depths varying from 50–100 metres. During January–March, the mean 26 degree C isotherm depth in the Southwestern Indian Ocean is 59 metres. Hence statement 1 is not correct. 54 ECONOMICS With reference to chemical B The Government of India D CAA https://pib.go EN fertilizers in India, consider subsidizes fertilizers to ensure v.in/PressRele the following statements: that fertilizers are easily available asePage.aspx? 1. At present, the retail price to farmers and the county PRID=1580828 of chemical fertilizers is remains self-sufficient in market-driven and not agriculture. The same has been https://www. administered by the achieved largely by controlling the aiche.org/reso Government. price of fertilizer and the amount urces/publicat 2. Ammonia, which is an of production ions/cep/2016 input of urea, is produced For example, as per the New Urea /september/in from natural gas. Policy of 2015, the government troduction- 3. Sulphur, which is a raw fixes the market price of urea. ammonia- material for phosphoric acid Also, there is a fixed subsidy production fertilizer, is a by-product of component as well. oil refineries. Similarly, for Phosphorous and https://www.i Which of the statements Potassium, as per the Nutrient cfa.org.in/asse given above is/are correct? Based Subsidy Scheme of 2010, ts/doc/reports (a) 1 only subsidy is provided based on /Indian_Fertili (b) 2 and 3 only nutrient content per kg of zer_Market.p (c) 2 only fertilizer. Hence statement 1 is df (d) 1, 2 and 3 not correct. Fertilizer production uses 1.2% of https://econo the world’s total energy out of mictimes.india which 90% is used for ammonia times.com/ind 83 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

production, which is a key ustry/indl- ingredient in the production of goods/svs/che nitrogen fertilizers. Ammonia can m-/- be produced from natural gas. fertilisers/ferti Hence statement 2 is correct liser-prices- Sulfur is a major by-product of oil may-rise-5-26- refining and gas processing. Most per- crude oil grades contain some cent/articlesh sulfur, most of which must be ow/66000270. removed during the refining cms process to meet strict sulfur content limits in refined products. https://www.li Industries, for instance, the vemint.com/ Mathura oil refinery, have been responsible for producing https://ncert. pollutants like sulphur dioxide and nic.in/textboo nitrogen dioxide. Also, Sulphur is k/pdf/hesc118 used in phosphoric acid fertilizer .pdf (There is a process known as 'The Wet Process' for producing the same). Hence statement 3 is correct. 55 ENVIRONME With reference to India's C Desert National Park, Rajasthan, M FCA https://whc.u RM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: Desert National Park, NT Desert National Park, which India, is situated in the west nesco.org/en/ TEST 2994 Rajasthan is a part of of the following statements Indian state of Rajasthan near the tentativelists/ Consider the following UNESCO's tentative are correct? towns of Jaisalmer and Barmer. 5448/#:~:text statements about the list. A Tentative List is 1. It is spread over two This is one of the largest national =The%20Dese Great Indian Bustard an inventory of those districts. parks, covering an area of 3162 rt%20National (GIB) species in India: properties which 2. There is no human km². The Desert National Park is %20Park%20( 1. It is one of the each State Party habitation inside the Park. an excellent example of the DNP,Barmer% heaviest flying birds in intends to consider 3. It is one of the natural ecosystem of the Thar Desert. The 20district%20 the world. for nomination. habitats of Great Indian Desert National Park (DNP) covers of%20Rajasth 2. It is categorised as Bustard. an area of 3162 km² of which an%20State critically endangered by Select the correct answer 1900 km² is in Jaisalmer district the IUCN Red List. using the code given below: and remaining 1262 km² is in 3. The largest (a) 1 and 2 only Barmer district of Rajasthan State. concentration of GIBs (b) 2 and 3 only Hence statement 1 is correct. could be found in the (c) 1 and 3 only The Thar desert is the most thickly state of Gujarat. (d) 1, 2 and 3 populated desert in the world 4. There exist a national with an average density of 83 programme for the 84 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

persons/km² (compared to 7km² conservation of the of other deserts) (Baqri and GIBs. Kankane 2001). However, the Which of the human population within the DNP statements given above is low (4-5 persons per km²). are correct? There are 73 villages and also (a) 1, 2 and 4 only settlements or Dhanis existing (b) 2 and 4 only within the Park. These (c) 1 and 3 only communities have inhabited this (d) 1, 2 and 3 only area for hundreds of years and EXPLANATION: with their rich culture and In 2012 the Indian tradition they are an integral part government launched of this ecosystem. Hence Project Bustard, a national statement 2 is not correct. conservation program to protect the great Indian The DNP is the most important bustard, along with the site for the long-term survival of Bengal florican the Globally Threatened Great (Houbaropsis bengalensis), Indian Bustard and other endemic the lesser florican fauna and flora. Other birds of (Sypheotides indicus), and significance include the their habitats from further endangered Oriental White- declines. The program was backed vulture Gyps bengalensis modeled after Project and Long-billed Gyps indicus, Tiger, a massive national effort initiated in the early Stoliczka's Bushchat Saxicola 1970s to protect the tigers macrorhyncha, Green Munia of India and their habitat. Amandava formosa MacQueen's A conservation centre has or Houbara Bustard Chlamydotis been set up at Desert maqueeni. Eleven bird species National Park in Jaisalmer. representative of Biome-13 have been identified by BirdLife International. Hence statement 3 is correct. 56 GEOGRAPHY Siachen Glacier is situated to D The Nubra Valley acts as the E F Standard Atlas EM Indo-China relations the gateway to the strategically and border areas (a) East of Aksai Chin important Siachen Glacier and have been frequently (b) East of Leh Karakoram Pass. The Karakoram seen in the news. (c) North of Gilgit Pass in the northwest side (d) North of Nubra Valley connects the valley with Xinjiang, China. The area was once part of ancient Himalayan trade path, the 85 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Silk Route that connected China to Middle East. Hence option (d) is the correct answer. The Nubra River is a river in the Nubra Valley of Ladakh in India. It is a tributary of the Shyok River (a part of the Indus River system) and originates from the Siachen Glacier, the second-longest non- polar glacier in the world. 57 ART & With reference to the history A Vidhisha is an ancient city in D U https://vidisha RR CULTURE of India, consider the Madhya Pradesh state in India. It .nic.in/en/abo following pairs: is also the administrative capital ut-district/ Famous Place Present State of the district with the same https://junaga 1. Bhilsa : Madhya Pradesh name. It was known as Besnagar dh.nic.in/touri 2. Dwarasamudra : in ancient times. Vidhisha city was st- known as Bhelsa during the place/girnar/ 3. Girinagar : Gujarat Medieval period. 4. Sthanesvara : Uttar Heliodorus Pillar It is a 20 feet https://www. Pradesh and 7 inches tall stone column, deccanherald. Which of the pairs given believed to be erected by the com/sunday- above are correctly Greek ambassador of King herald/twin- matched? Antialcidas, the Indo-Greek King treasures- (a) 1 and 3 only of ancient times. It is located on nagalapura- (b) 1 and 4 only the northern banks of River Vais. 720961.html (c) 2 and 3 only The inscriptions on this stone (d) 2 and 4 only pillar tells us that it was built to pay homage to Lord Vishnu. Emperor Ashoka the Great of Maurya Dynasty, served as the governor of Vidisha during his father’s regime. Shunga dynasty was established by Pushyamitra Shunga, after the fall of the . Its capital was Pataliputra, but later emperors such as Bhagabhadra also held court at Besnagar (modern Vidisha) in eastern Malwa. 86 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

The Hoysala empire ruled a large part of modern day Karnataka and parts of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu from the 10th to the 14th century. Hoysalas had their capital at Dwarasamudra, the modern Halebidu in Belur Taluk. Girinar is one of the most ancient 22th jain Tirthankar lord Neminath prabhu kshetras in India. Lord Neminath performed penance and salvation at the top of the hill. People have to climb 10,000 (ten thousand) steps to have lord neminath paduka darshan.[1] The group temples of Jainism are situated on the Mount Girnar situated near Junagadh in Junagadh district, Gujarat, India. There temples are sacred to the Digambara and the Svetambara branches of Jainism. Girnar, also known as Girinagar ('city-on-the- hill') or Revatak Parvata, is a group of mountains in the Junagadh District of Gujarat, India. Thanesar (sometimes called Thaneswar and, archaically, Sthanishvara) is a historic town and an important Hindu pilgrimage centre on the banks of the Saraswati River in the state of Haryana in northern India. Prabhakarvardhana was a ruler of Thanesar in the early seventh- century CE and was succeeded by his sons, Rajyavardhana and Harshavardhana.

87 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

88 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

58 ENVIRONME Consider the following B To effectively regulate the M FCA https://scienc RM Atal Bhujal Yojana, a NT statements: groundwater extraction, the e.thewire.in/e groundwater 1. 36% of India's districts are Centre, following the NGT’s nvironment/in management scheme classified as "overexploited" directions, has divided areas with dia- was launched in or "critical" by the Central declining water tables in three groundwater- December 2019. Ground Water Authority categories: Overexploited, extraction- (CGWA). Critical, Semi-critical. Areas with replenishment 2. CGWA was formed under an extraction rate of 70-100% of -ngt-cgwa- the Environment (Protection) groundwater recharge. Two industrial- Act. hundred and fifty six of our growth- 3. India has the largest area approximately 700 districts have sustainability/ under groundwater irrigation groundwater levels which are in the world. “critical” or “over-exploited” as https://indian Which of the statements per the latest data from the express.com/a given above is/are correct? Central Ground Water Board rticle/opinion/ (a) 1 only (2017). (Approx 36%) columns/the- (b) 2 and 3 only Statement 2 is correct: Central respect-she- (c) 2 only Ground Water Authority (CGWA) deserves- (d) 1 and 3 only was constituted under sub-section water-crisis- (3) of Section 3 of the 6236859/ Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 for the purposes of https://niti.go regulation and control of ground v.in/sites/defa water development and ult/files/2019- management in the country. 08/CWMI-2.0- Statement 3 is correct: At 39 latest.pdf million hectares (67% of its total irrigation), India has the world's https://niti.go largest groundwater well v.in/planningc equipped irrigation system (China ommission.go with 19 mha is second, USA with v.in/docs/repo 17 mha is third). India, Pakistan, rts/genrep/re and Bangladesh are, respectively, p_grndwat.pd the first, fourth and sixth largest f users of groundwater globally. India pumps more than the US and China combined - the second and third-largest users, respectively.

89 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

59 GEOGRAPHY Consider the following C Statement 1 is not correct: Jet M F Physical EM statements: streams occur in both the Geography 1. Jet streams occur in the Northern and Southern Class XI NCERT Northern Hemisphere only. Hemispheres. The actual 2. Only some cyclones appearance of jet streams result http://www.i develop an eye. from the complex interaction mdsikkim.gov. 3. The temperature inside between many variables - such as in/cyclonefaq. the eye of a cyclone is nearly the location of high and low pdf 10°C lesser than that of the pressure systems, warm and cold surroundings. air, and seasonal changes. Which of the statements Statement 2 is correct: The given above is/are correct? hurricane's center is a relatively (a) 1 only calm, generally clear area of (b) 2 and 3 only sinking air and light winds that (c) 2 only usually do not exceed 15 mph (24 (d) 1 and 3 only km/h) and is typically 20-40 miles (32-64 km) across. An eye will usually develop when the maximum sustained wind speeds go above 74 mph (119 km/h) and is the calmest part of the storm. Statement 3 is not correct: The eye is the region of lowest surface pressure and warmest temperatures aloft - the eye temperature may be 10°C warmer or more at an altitude of 12 km than the surrounding environment, but only 0-2°C warmer at the surface in the tropical cyclone. 60 ENVIRONME Among the following Tiger C Option (c) is the correct answer: M CAA https://www.t EN ‘Status of Tigers, Co- NT Reserves, which one has the Critical 'tiger' habitats (CTHs), also hehindu.com/ predators, Prey and largest area under "Critical known as core areas of tiger news/national their Habitat, 2018’ Tiger Habitat"? reserves—are identified under the /nearly-3000- report was released (a) Corbett Wild Life Protection Act (WLPA), tigers-in-india- recently. (b) Ranthambore 1972 based on scientific evidence finds- (c) Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam that "such areas are required to census/article (d) Sunderbans be kept as inviolate for the 28744392.ece purpose of tiger conservation, 90 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

without affecting the rights of the https://www. Scheduled Tribes or such other hindustantime forest dwellers". The notification s.com/india- of CTH is done by the state news/tiger- government in consultation with estimation- the expert committee constituted report- for the purpose. provides- Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger glimpse-of- Reserve is the largest tiger reserve hope-for- in India . The reserve spreads over human- five districts, Kurnool District, animal-co- Prakasam District, Guntur District, existence/stor Nalgonda District and y- Mahbubnagar district. The total Ej8dYMZLO4z area of the tiger reserve is 3,728 XO7S3qEjYNI. km2 (1,439 sq mi). html 61 ENVIRONME If a particular plant species is A Option (a) is the correct answer: E F THE WILD LIFE EN Frequently seen in NT placed under Schedule VI of There are six schedules under the (PROTECTION) news. It is also the The Wildlife Protection Act, Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. The ACT, 1972 only schedule which 1972, what is the specified endemic plants in http://legislati includes plants under implication? Schedule VI are prohibited from ve.gov.in/sites the Wildlife (a) a license is required to cultivation and planting. The /default/files/ Protection Act, 1972. cultivate that plant. hunting to the Enforcement A1972- (b) Such a plant cannot be authorities have the power to 53_0.pdf cultivated under any compound offences under this circumstances. Schedule (i.e. they impose fines (c) It is a Genetically on the offenders). Modified crop plant. The wildlife Protection Act defines (d) Such a plant is invasive "specified plant" as any plant and harmful to the specified in Schedule VI. ecosystem. It further states that "Cultivation of specified plants without license prohibited. - (1) no person shall cultivate a specified plant except under, and in accordance with a license granted by the Chief Wildlife Warden or any other officer authorized by the State Government in this behalf; 2) Every license granted under this 91 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

section shall specify the area in which and the conditions, if any, subject to which the licensee shall cultivate a specified plant." 62 ANCIENT With reference to the period A Indian examples of Ancient D F OLD NCERT- RR Buddha statue INDIA of Gupta dynasty in ancient submerged Port Towns: Medieval unveiled at India, the towns Ghantasala, In India evidences of ship building, India-Satish Ghantasala village in Kadura and Chaul were well port and warehouses installations chandra page NOV-2019 known as are datable to Harappan culture. no. 93- Cyclone Nisarga: (a) ports handling foreign The important Harappan and late chapter:The Central team set to trade Harappan ports were Lothal, Bahmani survey losses in (b) capitals of powerful Lakhabawal, Kindarkhera, Kuntasi, Kingdom — Its Chaul, Diveagar and kingdoms Megham, Prabhasa, Todio, Amra. Expansion Kashid in Raigad (c) places of exquisite stone The excavations of these sites and art and architecture have yielded antiquities of Disintegration (d) important Buddhist Bahrain island, Persian gulf, Egypt pilgrimage centres and Mesopotmia cities. https://www.t The same maritime traditions hehindu.com/ continued even during the life news/national time of Buddha, the Mauryas, the /andhra- Gupta and in later period. During pradesh/budd historical period India had trade ha-statue- and cultural contacts with Egypt, unveiled-at- Rome, Greeks, Arabs, China and ghantasala- all most all Southeast Asian village/article countries. through these ports. 29957226.ece The ports on the west coast were Barygaya, Suppara, Calliena, https://www. Semylla, Mandagore, Palaepatme, nodc.noaa.gov Malizigara, Aurranobbas, /archive/arc00 Byzantine, Naura, Tyndis, Muziris 01/9900162/2 and Nelcynda and the ports on .2/data/0- the east coast were Tamralipti, data/jgofscd/h Charitrapur, Paluru, Dantapur, tdocs/marinea Kalingapatnam, Pithunda, rc/ancientwre Sopatma, Ghantasala, Poduca, ck.html Puhar, Korkai and Camara. Merchants thronging sea-port towns like Mamallapuram, Puhar, and Korkai; or busy customs 92 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

officials, and those engaged in loading and unloading vessels in the harbor. The wealth of the Roman Empire reached India through the ports of Kalyan, Chaul, Broach, and Cambay in Western India. Tamralipti was an important port in Bengal. It carried on trade with China, Lanka, Java and Sumatra. In the Andhra region, the ports were Kadura and Ghantasala, Kaveripattanam (Puhar) and Tondail were the ports of the Pandya region. The ports of Kottayam and Muziris were on the Malabar coast. There was a great maritime trade between India and Southeast Asia and China. 63 ENVIRONME What is/are the advantage/ D Statement 1 is correct: Zero-till M CAA https://www.t EN To tackle the problem NT advantages of zero tillage in farming is a way of growing wheat hehindubusin of stubble burning agriculture? crops without tillage or disturbing essline.com/e Happy Seeders were 1. Sowing of wheat is the soil in harvested fields. Happy conomy/agri- frequently seen in possible without burning the Seeder is one of the unique business/cons the news. Also, Direct residue of previous crop. techniques which is used for ervation- seeded rice (DSR) 2. Without the need for sowing seed without any burning agriculture- technique is also nursery of rice saplings, of Crop residue. key-to-better- frequently discussed direct planting of paddy Statement 2 is correct: Direct income- in newspapers. seeds in the wet soil is seeded rice (DSR) has received environment- possible. much attention because of its low- protection- 3. Carbon sequestration in input demand. It involves sowing study/article3 the soil is possible. pre-germinated seed into a puddled 1364196.ece Select the correct answer soil surface (wet seeding), standing https://indian using the code given below: water (water seeding) or dry express.com/a (a) 1 and 2 only seeding into a prepared seedbed rticle/explaine (dry seeding). (b) 2 and 3 only d/explained- Statement 3 is correct: Adopting (c) 3 only using-happy- no-tillage in agro-ecosystems has (d) 1, 2 and 3 seeder-and- been widely recommended as a means of enhancing carbon (C) how-it-affects- sequestration in soils. wheat-yield- 93 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

6017640/ https://www.t hehindu.com/ news/national /other- states/punjab- farmers-to-go- for-direct- seeding-of- rice/article316 10222.ece 64 ENVIRONME According to India's National A Option (a) is the correct answer: M CAA https://www.t EN "PT 365 2020 National Policy on NT Policy on Biofuels, which of Under the National Policy on hehindubusin SUPPLEMENTARY page Biofuels was the following can be used as Biofuels ‘bioethanol’ is defined as essline.com/e number 33 ""NATIONAL extensively covered raw materials for the ethanol produced from biomass conomy/polic POLICY ON in news as it was production of biofuels? such as sugar containing y/cabinet- BIOFUELS- 2018" recently approved by 1. Cassava materials, like sugar cane, sugar approves- ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: the Union Cabinet. 2. Damaged wheat grains beet, sweet sorghum etc.; starch national- TEST 2973 3. Groundnut seeds containing materials such as corn, biofuel- With reference to the 4. Horse grams cassava, rotten potatoes, algae policy/article2 National Policy on 5. Rotten potatoes etc.; and, cellulosic materials such 3903816.ece#: Biofuels-2018, consider 6. Sugar beet as bagasse, wood waste, ~:text=The%2 the following Select the correct answer agricultural and forestry residues 0Cabinet%20o statements: using the code given below: or other renewable resources like n%20Wednes 1. It allows the use of (a) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only industrial waste. day%20appro surplus food grains for (b) 1, 3, 4 and 6 only For Ethanol Production the ved,to%20be the production of (c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only following raw materials may be %20mixed%20 ethanol for blending (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 potentially used: B-Molasses, in%20petrol. with petrol. Sugarcane juice, biomass in form 2. A Biofuel Steering of grasses, agriculture residues http://petrole Committee is headed by (Rice straw, cotton stalk, corn um.nic.in/nati the Prime Minister to cobs, saw dust, bagasse etc.) , onal-policy- oversee the sugar containing materials like biofuel-2018-0 implementation of the sugar beet, sweet sorghum, etc. National Policy on and starch containing materials Biofuels-2018. such as corn, cassava, rotten Which of the potatoes etc., Damaged food statements given above grains like wheat, broken rice etc. is/are correct? which are unfit for human (a) 1 only consumption, Food grains during (b) 2 only 94 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

surplus phase. Algal feedstock and (c) Both 1 and 2 cultivation of sea weeds can also (D) Neither 1 nor 2 be a potential feedstock for EXPLANATION: ethanol production. The Policy expands the For Biodiesel Production: Non- scope of raw material edible Oilseeds, Used Cooking Oil for ethanol production (UCO), Animal tallow, Acid Oil, by allowing the use of Algal feedstock etc. Sugarcane Juice, Sugar For Advanced Biofuels: Biomass, containing materials like MSW, Industrial waste, Plastic Sugar Beet, Sweet waste etc. Sorghum, Starch containing materials like Corn, Cassava, Damaged food grains like wheat, broken rice, Rotten Potatoes, unfit for human consumption for ethanol production 65 ENVIRONME Which one of the following A The social cost of carbon (SCC) is M CAA https://www.t EN Recently, researchers NT statements best describes an estimate, in dollars, of the hehindu.com/ have developed a the term 'Social Cost of economic damages that would sci- data set quantifying Carbon'? result from emitting one tech/energy- what the social cost It is a measure, in monetary additional ton of greenhouse and- of carbon will be for value, of the gases into the atmosphere. The environment/ nearly 200 countries. (a) long-term damage done SCC puts the effects of climate co2- by a tonne of CO2 emissions change into economic terms to emissions- in a given year. help policymakers and other cost-india- (b) requirement of fossil decisionmakers understand the 210-billion- fuels for a country to provide economic impacts of decisions every-year- goods and services to its that would increase or decrease study/article2 citizens, based on the emissions. 5057550.ece burning of those fuels. The country-level SCC for the (c) efforts put in by a climate India alone is estimated to be refugee to adapt to live in a about $86 per tonne of CO2. At new place. current emission levels, the Indian (d) contribution of an economy loses $210 billion individual person to the annually. carbon footprint on the Hence option (a) is the correct planet Earth. answer.

95 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

96 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

66 GEOGRAPHY With reference to pulse A Statement 1 is correct: Many D CAA https://www.f RM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: Pulses production is production in India, consider crops are cultivated in both kharif inancialexpres TEST 2969 frequently discussed the following statements: and rabi seasons. Though pulses s.com/econo With reference to pulses in the news. 1. Black gram can be are grown in both Kharif and Rabi my/kharif- production in India, cultivated as both kharif and seasons, Rabi pulses contribute 2019-after- consider the following rabi crop. more than 60 percent of the total crisis-of-2015- statements: 2. Green-gram alone production. Black gram can be 16-another- 1. India is the world’s accounts for nearly half of cultivated as both kharif and rabi pulses-deficit- largest producer as well pulse production. crop. It is consumed in variety of looms/177641 as consumer of pulses. 3. In the last three decades, ways accross the North to Southin 0/ 2. Pulses are grown both while the production of preparation of differnent regular in Kharif and Rabi kharif pulses has increased and popular dishes like vada, idli, http://dpd.go seasons. the production of rabi pulses dosa etc. During kharif, it is v.in/Reterospe 3. All pulses are covered has decreased. cultivated throughout the cts%20and%2 under the Minimum Which of the statements country. It is best suited to rice 0Prospects%2 Support Prices regime. given above is/are correct? fallows during rabi in southern 02017.pdf Which of the (a) 1 only and south-eastern parts of India. statements given above (b) 2 and 3 only Statement 2 is not correct: Bengal is/are correct? (c) 2 only Gram (Desi Chick Pea / Desi (a) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Chana), Pigeon Peas (Arhar / Toor (b) 2 and 3 only / Red Gram), Green Beans (Moong (c) 1 and 3 only Beans), Chick Peas (Kabuli Chana), (d) 1, 2 and 3 Black Matpe (Urad / Mah / Black Gram), Red Kidney Beans (Rajma), Black Eyed Peas (Lobiya), Lentils (Masoor), White Peas (Matar) are major pulses grown and consumed in India. Gram (Chickpeas) is the most dominant pulse having a share of around 40 per cent in the total production followed by Tur/Arhar at 15 to 20 per cent and Urad/Black Matpe and Moong at around 8-10 per cent each. Statement 3 is not correct: The country’s pulses production stood at 234 lakh tonne in the 2018-19 crop year, down from the record level of 254 lakh tonne in 2017- 97 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

18. The production of pulses for both Rabi and Kharif seasons has increased in the last three decades. Production of Kharif pulses in 2000-01 was 44.48 lakh tonnes which increased to 55.30 lakh tonnes by 2016-17. The production of Rabu pulses has also increased from 66.27 lakh tonnes in 2000-01 to 108.18 lakh tonnes in 2015-16. 67 GEOGRAPHY "The crop is subtropical in A Option (a) is the correct answer: E F G C Leong EM nature. A hard frost is Cotton is grown on a variety of soils injurious to it. It requires at across the world. Deep, fertile soil least 210 frost-free days and with adequate humus and high 50 to 100 centimeters of water holding capacity and good rainfall for its growth. A light internal drainage is best suited for well-drained soil capable of growing cotton. Cotton can be retaining moisture is ideally grown in places wherever, at least 180-200 frost free days are suited for the cultivation of available. Optimum temperature for the crop." Which one of the germination 20-300C. Germination following is that crop? will be delayed if the temperature is (a) Cotton <180C. (b) Jute The climatic conditions in the (c) Sugarcane cotton growing regions of India (d) Tea show considerable variations. High temperature of about 45 degree celcius during sowing and seeding emergence and low temperature accompanied by occasional frost coinciding with the picking period and moderate rainfall ranging from 300-700 mm are the features of the north zone. In the Southern and Central zones, the climate is equal. 68 S&T With reference to solar D Solar water pumps are a relatively D F https://www.t EN Govt to provide 2.75 water pumps, consider the new concept in mechanics. A solar hehindu.com/ million solar pumps following statements: water pump system is commonly news/cities/ch to farmers under 1. Solar power can be used seen in residential and ennai/tamil- KUSUM scheme for running surface pumps commercial uses, as well as for nadu-relaxes- Under the Rs 48,000 98 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

and not for submersible irrigation of agricultural land. rule-for-solar- crore scheme, 1.75 pumps. Through solar panels, the pump powered- million solar pumps 2. Solar power can be used can eliminate the cost of energy pump- will be installed for running centrifugal and provide a more feasible scheme/articl where the grid has pumps and not the ones with option that uses energy from the e32127002.ec not reached and 1 piston. sun (and not fuel-burning e million solar pumps Which of the statements mechanisms) for pumping water. https://solarm where the grid is given above is/are correct? Classification and types of solar agazine.com/s available (a) 1 only pumps olar-water- (b) 2 only When it comes to stand-alone pumps/ (c) Both 1 and 2 solar pumping systems, the main https://www.li (d) Neither 1 nor 2 types include rotating and positive vemint.com/b displacement pumps. Centrifugal udget/news/b pumps are the common choice for udget2020- rotation and are designed for kusum-solar- fixed head applications. Their power-pumps- output increases in proportion to scheme-to-be- their speed of rotation. A positive expanded- displacement (PD) pump moves a 11580537446 fluid by repeatedly enclosing a 121.html fixed volume and moving it mechanically through the system. The pumping action is cyclic and can be driven by pistons, screws, gears, rollers, diaphragms or vanes. Hence statement 2 is not correct. Additionally, pumps are also classified as submersible and surface pumps, based on their placement (underwater and above the waterline). Hence statement 1 is not correct. 69 S&T With reference to the C Sugarcane is commercially D F https://www.t RR Sustainable current trends in the planted using setts (cuttings hehindubusin sugarcane initiative in cultivation of sugarcane in which can develop roots) at the essline.com/e the news India, consider the following rate of 6-8 tonnes per hectare, conomy/agri- statements: amounting to around 10 per cent business/bud- 1. A substantial saving in of the total production. This large chip- seed material is made when mass of planting material creates technology- 99 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

'bud chip settlings' are raised logistical challenges in catching-on- in a nursery and transplanted transportation and storage of among- in the main field. seed cane. The tissue culture sugarcane- 2. When direct planting of technique, owing to its farmers/articl seeds is done, the cumbersome outfit and physical e30502981.ec germination percentage is limitation, is turning out to be e better with single-budded uneconomical. To reduce the setts as compared to setts mass and improve the quality of http://www.a with many buds. seed cane would be to plant gsri.com/imag 3. If bad weather conditions excised axillary buds of canestalk, es/documents prevail when seeds are popularly known as budchips. /symposium_ directly planted, single- These bud chips are less bulky, 1/Pdf%20files budded seeds have better easily transportable and more %20of%20PPT survival as compared to large economical seed material. A bud s/Technical%2 setts. chip nursery can be raised in mini- 0Session%20I/ 4. Sugarcane can be plot near experimental field. Bud%20chip% cultivated using settlings Nutrients are sprayed with PGR 20nurseries_II prepared from tissue culture. (plant growth regulator) solution SR.pdf Which of the statements at 3rd week. Healthy settlings given above is/are correct? were transplanted in well https://www.r (a) 1 and 2 only prepared field after 4-5 weeks esearchgate.n (b) 3 only with row spacing of 90 cm and 30 et/publication (c) 1 and 4 only cm between the two settling /333445991_ (d) 2, 3 and 4 only (small setts). Hence statement 1 Germinated_si is correct. ngle- Various research and experiment bud_setts_in_ shows that, germination pots_a_way_t percentage of 3 bud sets is higher o_improve_ec than the setts having more or less ological_resili than three buds. Germination ence_at_plant percentage of single bud sett is ing very low because of moisture loss from other cut end. Also if whole https://www.r can stalk is planted without giving esearchgate.n any cut, still germination et/publication percentage remain low as only /322976767_S top end will get germinate. Hence UGARCANE_P statement 2 is not correct. LANTING_TEC Various researches found that HNIQUES_A_R large setts seeds have better EVIEW#:~:text 100 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

survival as compared to single- =The%20resea budded seeds when seeds are rchers%20fou directly planted in prevailing bad nd%20that%2 weather conditions. Hence 0the,if%20pro statement 3 is not correct. tected%20wit Planting is the most important h%20chemical and labour intensive operation in %20treatment sugarcane cultivation. To rapidly produce and supply disease-free seed cane of existing commercial varieties Tissue culture is an exciting new way which uses meristem to clone the mother plant. Cane and sugar yield of tissue culture plants similar to conventionally propagated plants. Hence statement 4 is correct. 70 ENVIRONME In the context of India, which D Option (d) is the correct answer: M CAA https://www.t EN Vertical Farming is NT of the following is/are Crop diversification refers to the hehindu.com/ frequently seen in considered to be practice(s) addition of new crops or cropping sci- the news. of eco-friendly agriculture? systems to agricultural production tech/agricultu 1. Crop diversification on a particular farm taking into re/vertical- 2. Legume intensification account the different returns from farming- 3. Tensiometer use value- added crops with explained/arti 4. Vertical farming complementary marketing cle30522508.e Select the correct answer opportunities. ce using the code given below: Legume Intensification: Legumes (a) 1, 2 and 3 only fix the atmospheric nitrogen, https://www.t (b) 3 only release in the soil high-quality hehindu.com/ (c) 4 only organic matter and facilitate soil sci- (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 nutrients' circulation and water tech/agricultu retention. Based on these re/vertical- multiple functions, legume crops farming- have high potential for explained/arti conservation agriculture, being cle30522508.e functional either as growing crop ce or as crop residue. Tensiometer Use: A tensiometer in soil science is a measuring instrument used to determine the 101 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

matric water potential in the vadose zone. When the water pressure in the tensiometer is determined to be in equilibrium with the water pressure in the soil, the tensiometer gauge reading represents the matric potential of the soil. Such tensiometers are used in irrigation scheduling to help farmers and other irrigation managers to determine when to water. Vertical farming is the practice of growing crops in vertically stacked layers. It often incorporates controlled-environment agriculture, which aims to optimize plant growth, and soilless farming techniques such as hydroponics, aquaponics, and aeroponics. In vertical farming, crops are grown indoors, under artificial conditions of light and temperature. Japan has been one of the early pioneers in vertical farming. It holds the largest share in the global vertical farming market. 71 ECONOMICS In India, which of the C Public Investment here refers to M FA https://www. RR following can be considered the creation of either physical downtoearth. as public investment in infrastructure or intangible org.in/news/a agriculture? capital. Hence in this context, griculture/priv 1. Fixing Minimum Support investment is understood as ate-and- Price for agricultural produce either infrastructure-related government- of all crops. capital as given in options 2 and 6 who-is- 2. Computerization of or social capital as given in option investing- Primary Agricultural Credit 3. Subsidies and loan waivers are how-much- Societies not investments. Hence option 1 on- 3. Social Capital is not correct (There is scope for agriculture-- development elimination here). Hence option 65296 102 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

4. Free electricity supply to (c) is the correct answer. farmers Similarly, option 4 (subisdy) and 5 5. Waiver of agricultural are not correct. loans by the banking system 6. Setting up of cold storage facilities by the governments. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 5 only (b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only (c) 2, 3 and 6 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 72 ECONOMICS What is the importance of A The interest coverage ratio is a debt D FA https://www.i RM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: the term "Interest Coverage ratio and profitability ratio used to nvestopedia.c TEST 2994 Ratio" of a firm in India? determine how easily a company om/terms/i/in Which of the following 1. It helps in understanding can pay interest on its outstanding terestcoverag statements with the present risk of a firm that debt. A higher coverage ratio is eratio.asp reference to ‘interest a bank is going to given loan better, although the ideal ratio may coverage ratio’ is/are to. vary by industry. https://www.t correct? 2. It helps in evaluating the Hence statement 3 is not correct. hehindubusin 1. It helps determine emerging risk of a firm that a The Interest coverage ratio is also essline.com/e how easily a company bank is going to give loan to. called “times interest earned.” conomy/slow can pay interest on its 3. The higher a borrowing Lenders, investors, and creditors down-blues- outstanding debt. firm's level of Interest often use this formula to corporates- 2. In India, nearly 40 Coverage Ratio, the worse is determine a company's riskiness unable-to- percent of corporate its ability to service its debt. relative to its current debt or for foot-the-cost- debt is owned by Select the correct answer future borrowing. of- companies with an using the code given below. The interest coverage ratio is used finance/article interest coverage ratio (a) 1 and 2 only to see how well a firm can pay the 29320194.ece less than 1.5 (b) 2 only interest on outstanding debt. Select the correct (c) 1 and 3 only Also called the times-interest- answer using the code (d) 1, 2 and 3 earned ratio, this ratio is used by given below. creditors and prospective lenders (a) 1 only to assess the risk of lending (b) 2 only capital to a firm. (c) Both 1 and 2 Hence statements 1 and 2 are (d) Neither 1 nor 2 correct.

103 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

73 ECONOMICS Which of the following D Option 1 is correct: MSP results in D F, https://www. RR factors/policies were a diversion of stocks from the CAA deccanherald. affecting the price of rice in open market, thus, driving up the com/business/ India in the recent past? price for the ultimate consumers. business- 1. Minimum Support Price Further, MSP prevents the prices news/rice- 2. Government's trading from going down (directly). Price prices-hit-18- 3. Government's stockpiling will not go below the MSP- The months-peak- 4. Consumer subsidies farmer can sell the produce to the as- Select the correct answer government at the MSP. It will coronavirus- using the code given below. also prevent the price from going strains-export- (a) 1, 2 and 4 only up (indirectly)- The price will logistics- (b) 1, 3 and 4 only shoot up only when the 885765.html (c) 2 and 3 only production is less, but if the (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 production will increase, then the https://halshs. prices will not be too high. archives- Option 2 is correct: Though ouvertes.fr/ha factors like climatic shocks lshs- determine rice production and 02275376/doc prices in the short run, the future ument scenario of rice prices must be based on long-term projections of rice demand and supply. Trading results in an increased demand in the international markets, which affects the price of rice in India. Option 3 is correct: Low stock levels constrain the ability to buffer the price rise resulting from other factors. Option 4 is correct: Subsidies lower the prices for the ultimate consumer. Hence all the given factors affect/ have affected the price of rice in the country. 74 CURRENT Consider the following B Bilateral trade between India and D CA https://diplom EN Comprehensive AFFAIRS statements: Sri Lanka has increased by atist.com/202 Economic Partnership 1. The value of Indo-Sri Lanka around 9 times between 2000-01 0/03/03/india- Agreement trade has consistently and 2018-19. Total trade between sri-lanka- negotiations between increased in the last decade. the two countries was US$ 6.2 trade- India and Sri Lanka 104 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

2. "Textile and textile billion in 2018-19, out of which relations/ articles" constitute an India’s exports to Sri Lanka were important item of trade US$ 4.7 billion and imports were https://econo between India and US$ 1.5 billion. Although India has mictimes.india Bangladesh. always had a trade surplus with times.com/ne 3. In the last five years, Nepal Sri Lanka, the gas has widened ws/economy/f has been the largest trading since 2008-09. In 2012-13 and oreign- partner of India in South 2016-17 the trade slumped, thus trade/india- Asia. disturbing the steady increase in plans-to- Which of the statements the graph. Hence statement 1 is enhance- given above is/are correct? not correct. trade-with- (a) 1 and 2 only Bangladesh is India’s biggest trade bangladesh/ar (b) 2 only partner in South Asia. Bilateral ticleshow/768 (c) 3 only trade between India and 81534.cms (d) 1, 2 and 3 Bangladesh has grown steadily over the last decade. India’s exports to Bangladesh in FY 2018- 19 stood at $9.21 billion and imports during the same period was at $1.04 billion. Hence statement 3 is not correct. According to the World Bank, India exports $2.25 billion-worth textile and clothing products to Bangladesh. In turn, it imports $336 million-worth textile and clothing products from . Hence statement 2 is correct. 75 CURRENT In which one of the following A The G20 (or Group of Twenty) is E CA https://www. EN PT 365 2020 IR page 28 G20 is frequently AFFAIRS groups are all the four an international forum for the dfat.gov.au/tr "8.5. G-7" seen in news countries members of G20? governments and central bank ade/organisati (a) Argentina, Mexico, South governors from 19 countries and ons/g20/Page Africa and Turkey the European Union (EU). It was s/g20#:~:text= (b) Australia, Canada, founded in 1999 with the aim to The%20memb Malaysia and New Zealand discuss policy pertaining to the ers%20of%20t (c) Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia promotion of international he%20G20,Sta and Vietnam financial stability. tes%2C%20an (d) Indonesia, Japan, The members of the G20 are: d%20the%20E Singapore and South Korea. Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, uropean%20U China, France, Germany, India, nion. 105 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Republic of Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, Turkey, United Kingdom, United States, and the European Union. Hence option (a) is the correct answer. 76 ECONOMICS Under the Kisan Credit Card B Kisan Credit Card Scheme (KCC) M CAA https://rbidoc EN PT 365 2020 Govt KCC is often seen in scheme, short-term credit • It is a type of loan given to s.rbi.org.in/rd Schemes Page 18 "1.12. the news support is given to farmers farmers ocs/content/p KISAN CREDIT CARD for which of the following • The scheme was introduced in dfs/CRB51005 (KCC)" purposes? 1998 12AN.pdf ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: 1. Working capital for • It is not a credit card for TEST 2989 maintenance of farm assets farmers. Hence statements 2 and https://sbi.co.i Consider the following 2. Purchase of combine 5 are not correct. n/web/agri- statements with respect harvesters, tractors and mini • It is like an overdraft scheme for rural/agricultu to the Kisan Credit Card trucks. farmers- One can overdraw upto re- scheme: 3. Consumption a limit. And interest has to be paid banking/crop- 1. Under the scheme, requirements of farm on the amount so overdrawn. loan/kisan- farmers can avail of households • Also, the limit of overdraft is credit-card interest-free loans up to 4. Post-harvest expense fixed on the basis of the value of Rs. 1 lakh. 5. Construction of family land, though the value of crop 2. The KCC card can be house and setting up of may also be considered. obtained at Regional village cold storage facility. The Features of This Scheme Rural Banks and Co- Select the correct answer • Farmers need money before operative banks only. using the code given below: sowing. For example, to buy 3. Investment credit for (a) 1, 2 and 5 only seeds, fertilisers etc. both farming and allied (b) 1, 3 and 4 only • In this scheme, they have to pay activities can be (c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only back the loan amount/ overdraft obtained under the (d) 1, 2, 3 4 and 5 after the harvest. Kisan Credit Card • Also, interest charged is Scheme. concessional- 4,5,6%- But if they Which of the fail to payback post the harvest, statements given above then the interest charged is/are correct? increases to 13-14%- The subsidy (a) 3 only component is, thus, removed. (b) 2 and 3 only • The scheme has been very (c) 1 and 2 only successful- More than 10 crore (d) None KCCs have already been issued. • Commercial, cooperative, Regional Rural Banks- All types of

106 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

banks isssue KCCs • Also, the loans given to farmers through KCC are counted in Priority Sector Lending- It is a means of giving loans to farmers. • It is very helful and beneficial for farmers, as in order to increase agricultural production, the farmers need to buy various inputs such as seeds, fertilisers etc. This not only leads to an increase in farmers’ income but also in an increase in agricultural production Objectives/Purpose Kisan Credit Card Scheme aims at providing adequate and timely credit support from the banking system under a single window to the farmers for their cultivation & other needs as indicated below: a. To meet the short term credit requirements for cultivation of crops b. Post harvest expenses c. Produce Marketing loan d. Consumption requirements of farmer household e. Working capital for maintenance of farm assets and activities allied to agriculture, like dairy animals, inland fishery etc. f. Investment credit requirement for agriculture and allied activities like pump sets, sprayers, dairy animals etc. Hence statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct. Hence option (b) is the correct answer. 107 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

108 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

77 ECONOMICS Consider the following A Inflation can be described as the E F https://www.li EM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: statements: general rise in the price of goods vemint.com/ TEST 2969 1. The weightage of food in and services in an economy over Consider the following Consumer Price Index (CPI) is time. It is calculated by tracking https://www.r statements with respect higher than that in the increase in prices of bi.org.in/script to Consumer Price Wholesale Price Index (WPI). essentials. s/BS_ViewBull Index: 2. The WPI does not capture The Methods To Calculate etin.aspx 1. It computes price changes in the prices of Inflation changes in both goods services, which CPI does. CPI https://www.r and services. 3. Reserve Bank of India has • The primary index that tracks bi.org.in/script 2. It is computed by the now adopted WPI as its key the change in retail prices of s/BS_ViewBull Office of Economic measure of inflation and to essential goods and services etin.aspx?Id=1 Advisor (OEA), decide on changing the key consumed by Indian households is 8903 Department of policy rates. the Consumer Price Index or CPI. Industrial Policy and Which of the statements It shows the impact of inflation on https://www.r Promotion. given above is/are correct? people bi.org.in/script 3. It is taken as measure (a) 1 and 2 only • It is always used for Dearness s/BS_ViewBull of inflation while (b) 2 only . Now, it is also being etin.aspx?Id=1 formulating monetary (c) 3 only used for monetary policy 9796 policy by RBI. (d) 1, 2 and 3 formulation. https://www.f Which of the • Since 2010, based on the inancialexpres statements given above Rangarajan Committee;s report, s.com/what- are correct? CPI (URBAN), CPI (RURAL), CPI is/wholesale- (a) 1 and 2 only (COMBINED) and CFPI- food indice price-index- (b) 2 and 3 only are calculated therein wpi- (c) 1 and 3 only • It covers both goods and meaning/1627 (d) 1, 2 and 3 services 729/ ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: • 200 Goods and services are TEST 2983 taken- It is a selected basket of Consider the following goods and services. The statements regarding weightage of food in the CPI is the Wholesale Price close to 50% (The weightage for Index (WPI) in India: food is lower in WPI). Hence 1. It is released by the statement 1 is correct Central Statistics Office WPI of the Ministry of • While retail inflation looks at the Statistics and Program price at which the consumer buys Implementation. the product, WPI is measured 2. The direction of based on prices at the wholesale movement of the level. WPI measures the changes Consumer Price Index is 109 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

in the prices of goods sold and invariably linked with traded in bulk by wholesale the direction of businesses to other businesses. It movement of the reflects the inflation in the Wholesale Price Index. economy in general/ general level Which of the of inflation or price level in the statements given above economy. is/are correct? • Another difference between the (a) 1 only two indices is that the wholesale (b) 2 only market is only for goods, you (c) Both 1 and 2 cannot buy services on a (d) Neither 1 nor 2 wholesale basis. So WPI does not Explanation: include services, whereas the Wholesale Price Index retail price index does. WPI, unlike (WPI) measures the the Consumer Price Index (CPI), average change in the only tracks the prices of goods prices of commodities purchased by consumers. Hence for bulk sale at the level statement 2 is correct of early stage of • 697 goods are taken:-Primary transactions. The index goods, Fuel and power and basket of the WPI Manufacturing goods, the latter covers commodities being given the maximum falling under the three weightage (64.23%) major groups namely • Wholesale prices are considered Primary Articles, Fuel • Base year= 2012 and Power and Based on the suggestions of the Manufactured products. Urjit Patel committee, monetary The prices tracked are policy (MP) in India is to be ex-factory price for formulated in reference to the CPI manufactured products, (instead of WPI) based inflation. mandi price for (The suggestion was accepted in agricultural 2014 itself.) The reason is that: commodities and ex- i) CPI shows the impact on the mines prices for people- WPI indicates the minerals. Weights given wholesale price, whereas CPI to each commodity shows the retail price i.e. the price covered in the WPI at which people make purchases basket is based on the from retail market. WPI does not value of production show the impact of inflation on adjusted for net the people. Any policy shud imports. WPI basket 110 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

consider the impact on the people does not cover services. ii) WPI does not account for the In India, WPI is also price in services known as the headline iii) It is an international best inflation rate. In India, practice- most of the countries Office of Economic have shifted to CPI Advisor (OEA), Hence statement 3 is not correct. Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry calculates the WPI. Hence statement 1 is not correct. While the direction of the Consumer Price Index is often in sync with the direction of WPI, there may be a divergence as well. The reasons for the divergence between the two indices can also be partly attributed to the difference in the weight of the food group in the two baskets. CPI Food group has a weight of 39.1 per cent as compared to the combined weight of 24.4 per cent (Food articles and Manufactured Food products) in WPI basket. The CPI basket consists of services like housing, education, medical care, recreation etc. which are not part 111 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

of WPI basket. A significant proportion of WPI item basket represents manufacturing inputs and intermediate goods like minerals, basic metals, machinery etc. whose prices are influenced by global factors but these are not directly consumed by the households and are not part of the CPI item basket. Thus even significant price movements in items included in WPI basket need not necessarily translate into movements in CPI in the short run. Hence statement 2 is not correct. 78 GEOGRAPHY Consider the following pairs: C Pair 1 is not correctly matched: D FA Standard EM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: River Flows into Originating in the icy headwaters Reference TEST 2978 1. Mekong : Andaman Sea of the Tibetan highlands, the Atlas Consider the following 2. Thames : Irish Sea Mekong River flows through the countries: 3. Volga : Caspian Sea steep canyons of China, known as 1. China 4. Zambezi : Indian Ocean the upper basin, through lower 2. Myanmar Which of the pairs given basin countries Myanmar, Laos, 3. Thailand above is/are correctly Thailand, and Cambodia, before 4. Laos matched? fanning across an expansive delta 5. Malaysia (a) 1 and 2 only in Vietnam and emptying into the "River Mekong" passes (b) 3 only South China Sea. through which of the (c) 3 and 4 only Pair 2 is not correctly matched: given countries? (d) 1, 2 and 4 only The River Thames is the longest (a) 4 and 5 only river in England, flowing 215 miles (b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only from the Cotswolds to the North (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only Sea. (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 112 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Pair 3 is correctly matched: The ALSO COVERED IN TEST Volga is the longest river in 2966 Europe, and its catchment area is Consider the following almost entirely inside Russia. It pairs: belongs to the closed basin of the Inland Waterways Caspian Sea, being the longest Continent located in river to flow into a closed basin. 1. Rhine waterways Pair 4 is correctly matched: The Europe Zambezi is the fourth-longest river 2. Great Lakes-St. in Africa, the longest east-flowing Lawrence seaway North river in Africa and the largest America flowing into the Indian Ocean 3. Volga waterway from Africa. Australia Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 79 ECONOMICS Consider the following D Based on the recommendations of E FA Economic EM statements: the Commission for Agricultural Survey 2017- 1. In the case of all cereals, Costs and Prices (CACP), the 18 and 2015- pulses and oil-seeds, the Department of Agriculture and 16 procurement at Minimum Cooperation, Ministry Of https://www.i Support Price (MSP) is Agriculture And Farmers' Welfare, ndiabudget.go unlimited in any State/UT of declares Minimum Support Prices v.in/budget20 India. (MSP) for 22 mandated crops, and 19- 2. In the case of cereals and Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) 20/economics pulses, the MSP is fixed in for Sugarcane. urvey/doc/vol any State/UT at a level to [Cereals (7) - paddy, wheat, 2chapter/echa which the market price will barley, jowar, bajra, maize and p07_vol2.pdf never rise. ragi https://www.i Which of the statements Pulses (5) - gram, arhar/tur, ndiabudget.go given above is/are correct? moong, urad and lentil v.in/budget20 (a) 1 only Oilseeds (8) - groundnut, 16- (b) 2 only rapeseed/mustard, toria, 2017/es2015- (c) Both 1 and 2 soyabean, sunflower seed, 16/echapvol1- (d) Neither 1 nor 2 sesamum, safflower seed and 04.pdf nigerseed 113 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Raw cotton, Raw jute, Copra]. The idea behind MSP is to give guaranteed price and assured market to the farmers and protect them from the price fluctuations and market imperfections. CACP considers various factors such as the cost of cultivation and production, productivity of crops, and market prices for the determination of MSPs. MSP fixed for each crop is uniform for the entire country. However, there is no instance of MSP being fixed in any State/UT at a level to which the market price will never rise. Hence statement 2 is not correct. While the government announces MSP for 23 crops, effective MSP- linked procurement occurs mainly for wheat, rice and cotton. The procurement is also limited to a few states. Due to limitations on the procurement side (both crop- wise and state-wise) and even after having an open-ended procurement at MSP, all farmers do not receive benefits of an increase in MSP. Hence statement 1 is not correct. 80 ECONOMICS With reference to the Indian C 1. Commercial Paper (CP) is an M F https://m.rbi. RM ABHYAAS TEST 1, 3000 economy, consider the unsecured money market org.in/Scripts/ Treasury bills (T-bills) following statements: instrument issued in the form of a FAQView.aspx are often referred to as 1. 'Commercial Paper' is a promissory note. It can be issued ?Id=25 Zero Coupon securities. short-term unsecured for maturities between a Why? promissory note. minimum of 7 days and a https://www.r (a) They have zero 2. 'Certificate of Deposit' is a maximum of up to one year from bi.org.in/Scrip default risk as they are long-term instrument issued the date of issue (short-term). ts/BS_ViewMa issued by the by the Reserve Bank of India Hence statement 1 is correct. sCirculardetail Government. to a corporation. 2. Certificate of Deposit (CD) is a s.aspx?id=988 (b) They pay no interest 114 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

3. 'Call Money' is a short- negotiable money market 2#:~:text=Cert and are issued at a term finance used for instrument and is issued in ificate%20of% discount. interbank transactions. dematerialised form against funds 20Deposit%20 (c) Inflation has zero 4. 'Zero-Coupon Bonds are deposited at a bank or other (CD)%20is,for effect on T-bills as they the interest bearing short- eligible financial institution for a %20a%20speci are indexed to inflation term bond issued by the specified time period. Issued by fied%20time% rates. Scheduled Commercial Banks the Federal Deposit Insurance 20period. (d) Returns on T-bills are to corporations. Corporation (FDIC) and regulated paid regularly with Which of the statements by the Reserve Bank of India, the https://www.r almost zero defaults given above is/are correct? CD is a promissory note, the bi.org.in/Scrip before the maturity (a) 1 and 2 only interest on which is paid by the ts/BS_ViewMa period. (b) 4 only financial institution. Hence sCirculardetail (c) 1 and 3 only statement 2 is incorrect. s.aspx?id=895 ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: (d) 2, 3 and 4 only 3. Call money rate is the rate at 8 TEST 2989 which short term funds are Which of the following borrowed and lent in the money https://www.r statements is/are market among banks on a day-to- bi.org.in/script correct regarding Call day basis. Banks resort to this s/Notification money market? type of loan to fill the asset User.aspx?Id= 1. Under the call money liability mismatch, comply with 651&Mode=0 market, funds are the statutory CRR and SLR transacted on an requirements and to meet the overnight basis. sudden demand of funds. Hence 2. RBI decides the statement 3 is correct. interest rates in the call 4. Bonds are a type of debt money markets. instrument. Zero Coupon Bonds Select the correct are issued at a discount and answer using the code redeemed at par. No interest given below. payment is made on such bonds (a) 1 only at periodic intervals before (b) 2 only maturity. Hence statement 4 is (c) Both 1 and 2 incorrect. (d) Neither 1 nor 2 81 ECONOMICS With reference to Foreign B Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is E F https://www.r RM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: Direct Investment in India, the investment by a non-resident bi.org.in/script TEST 2984 which one of the following is entity/person resident outside s/FAQView.as Consider the following considered its major India in the capital of an Indian px?Id=26 statements with respect characteristic? company under Foreign Exchange to foreign investments (a) It is the investment Management (Transfer or Issue of https://www.i in India: through capital instruments Security by a Person Resident nvestopedia.c 1. FII increases capital essentially in a listed Outside India) Regulations, 2017. om/terms/f/fd availability in general, 115 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

company. The investment is done through i.asp whereas FDI simply (b) It is a largely non-debt capital instruments in (1) an targets specific creating capital flow. unlisted Indian company; or (2) enterprises. (c) It is the investment which 10% or more of the post issue 2. FII helps bring better involves debt-servicing. paid-up equity capital on a fully management skills and (d) It is the investment made diluted basis of a listed Indian technology, while FDI by foreign institutional company. Hence, option a is only brings in the investors in the Government incorrect. The investment can be capital. Securities. made in equities or equity linked 3. As per Foreign instruments or debt instruments Exchange Management issued by the company. Thus, FDI Regulations, FDI is not isn’t directly associated with allowed in startups. government securities, and hence Which of the option (d) is incorrect. statements given above Generally, FDI takes place when is/are correct? an investor establishes foreign (a) 1 only business operations or acquires (b) 1 and 2 only foreign business assets, including (c) 2 and 3 only establishing ownership or (d) 1 and 3 only controlling interest in a foreign company (investments linked with equities), transfer of technology. This means they aren’t just bringing money with them, but also knowledge, skills and technology. Debt servicing is the regular repayment of interest and principal on a debt for a particular period. Thus, option c is incorrect. A non-debt creating capital flow is the one where there is no direct repayment obligation for the residents. FDI is largely a non-debt creating capital flow, and therefore option (b) is correct. 82 ECONOMICS With reference to the D 1. Merchandise trade deficit is the M FA Economic EM Economic Survey international trade of India largest component of India’s Survey 2019- Summary 2020 Volume at present, which of the current account deficit. As per 20 2 page 35 Chapter 3 following statements is/are RBI’s data, India’s Merchandise https://www.i External sector correct? exports during April-August 2019- ndiabudget.go 116 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

1. India's merchandise 2020 was USD 133.14 billion, as v.in/economic exports are less than its compared to USD 210.39 billion of survey/doc/vo merchandise imports. imports during the same period. l2chapter/ech 2. India's imports of iron and Hence statement 1 is correct. ap03_vol2.pdf steel, chemicals, fertilisers 2. Commodity-wise composition and machinery have of imports between 2011-12 and decreased in recent years. 2018-19 shows that imports of 3. India's exports of services iron and steel, organic chemicals, are more than its imports of industrial machinery have services. registered positive growth rates 4. India suffers from an as % of share in imports. Hence overall trade/current statement 2 is incorrect. account deficit. 3. India’s net services (service Select the correct answer exports - service imports) has using the code given below: been in surplus. India’s Service (a) 1 and 2 only exports during April-August 2019- (b) 2 and 4 only 2020 was USD 67.24 billion, as (c) 3 only compared to USD 39.25 billion of (d) 1, 3 and 4 only imports during the same period. Hence statement 3 is correct. 4. Current Account Deficit (CAD) or trade deficit is the shortfall between exports and imports. As per Economic Survey 2019-20, India’s CAD was 2.1% in 2018-19, and 1.5% of GDP in H1 of 2019-20. Hence statement 4 is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (d) 1, 3 and 4 only. 83 CURRENT The term 'West Texas A West Texas Intermediate (WTI) E CA https://www.i EN PT 365 Updated Material AFFAIRS Intermediate', sometimes crude oil is a specific grade of nvestopedia.c (March-May 2020) found in news, refers to a crude oil and one of the main om/terms/w/ Negative oil prices (3.3.2) grade of three benchmarks in oil pricing, wti.asp ABHYAAS TEST 2 3001 (a) Crude oil along with Brent and Dubai Crude. The terms Western Texas (b) Bullion WTI is known as a light sweet oil Intermediate (WTI) and (c) Rare earth elements because it contains 0.24% sulfur Western Canada Select (d) Uranium and has a low density, making it (WCS) are frequently mentioned in the news. "light." Hence option (a) is the They are: correct answer. (a) grades of crude oil. (b) places of frequent 117 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

origin of temperate cyclones. (c) export standards of meat. (d) commercial fishing grounds. 84 ECONOMICS In the context of the Indian D Non-financial debt consists of M F https://www.s RR economy, non-financial debt credit instruments issued by apling.com/66 includes which of the governmental entities, 37532/nonfin following? households and businesses that ancial-debt 1. Housing loans owed by are not included in the financial households sector. (The financial sector 2. Amounts outstanding on comprises commercial banks, credit cards insurance companies, non- 3. Treasury bills banking financial companies, co- Select the correct answer operatives, pension funds, mutual using the code given below: funds and other smaller financial (a) 1 only entities). Non-financial debt (b) 1 and 2 only includes household or commercial (c) 3 only loans, Treasury bills and credit (d) 1, 2 and 3 card balances. They share most of the same characteristics with financial debt, except the issuers are non-financial. Hence correct answer is option (d). 85 CURRENT In India, why are some B The nuclear reactors in India are E CAA https://www.i EN IAEA has always been AFFAIRS nuclear reactors kept under placed under IAEA safeguards aea.org/newsc in the news both wrt "IAEA Safeguards" while only if they are fuelled by enter/news/in Iran and India. others are not? uranium procured from abroad. dia- (a) Some use uranium and There are at present 22 safeguards- others use thorium operational reactors, of which 14 agreement- (b) Some use imported are under the International signed uranium and others use Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) domestic supplies. safeguards as these use imported https://www. (c) Some are operated by fuel. India currently imports business- foreign enterprises and uranium from Russia, Kazakhstan standard.com/ others are operated by and Canada. Plans are also afoot article/pti- domestic enterprises to procure the fuel from stories/new- (d) Some are State-owned Uzbekistan and Australia. By reactors- and others are privately- placing the reactors under the under-iaea-

118 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

owned IAEA safeguards, India gives the safeguards- international nuclear energy decision-will- watchdog access to them. This be-based-on- step was taken by the country in source-of- 2014 to demonstrate that its uranium-says- nuclear energy programme was official- for peaceful purposes. It was a 11902100050 necessary step under the Indo-US 0_1.html nuclear deal. Hence option (b) is the correct answer. 86 ECONOMICS With reference to Trade- C Under the Agreement on Trade- E F https://www. RM TRIMS often seen in Related Investment Related Investment Measures of wto.org/englis the news Measures (TRIMS), which of the World Trade Organization h/tratop_e/in the following statements (WTO), (TRIMs Agreement), WTO vest_e/trims_ is/are correct? members have agreed not to e.htm 1. Quantitative restrictions apply certain investment on imports by foreign measures related to trade in investors are prohibited. goods that restrict or distort 2. They apply to investment trade. (TRIMs Agreement is a measures related to trade in multilateral agreement on trade both goods and services. in goods, and not services). Hence 3. They are not concerned statement 2 is not correct. with the regulation of The TRIMs Agreement prohibits foreign investment. certain measures that violate the Select the correct answer national treatment (Article III) and using the code given below: quantitative restrictions (a) 1 and 2 only requirements (Article XI) of the (b) 2 only General Agreement on Tariffs and (c) 1 and 3 only Trade (GATT) 1994. The list of (d) 1, 2 and 3 TRIMs agreed to be inconsistent with these articles includes measures which require: - particular levels of local procurement by an enterprise (“local content requirements”), - restrict the volume or value of imports such an enterprise can purchase, - use to an amount related to the level of products it exports (“trade 119 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

balancing requirements”). Hence statement 1 is correct. TRIMs Agreement stipulates that certain measures adopted by Governments to regulate FDI can cause trade-restrictive and distorting effects. However, the agreement is only concerned with the trade effects of investment measures. It is not intended to deal with the regulation of investment as such and does not impact directly on WTO members’ ability to regulate and place conditions upon the entry and establishment of foreign investment. Hence statement 3 is correct. 87 ECONOMICS If the RBI decides to adopt an B Expansionist/expansionary E F NCERT Class EM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: expansionist monetary monetary policy is when the XII: TEST 2989 policy, which of the following central bank of a country Introductory Which of the following would it not do? increases money supply to Macroeconom could increase the 1. Cut and optimise the stimulate the economy. ics (Money money supply in the Statutory Liquidity Ratio The tools used by the RBI to and Banking) economy? 2. Increase the Marginal control money supply in the 1. Waving off the cash Standing Facility Rate economy can be quantitative or reserve ratio (CRR) 3. Cut the Bank Rate and qualitative. Quantitative tools requirement on housing Repo Rate control the extent of money and MSME loans. Select the correct answer supply by changing the Cash 2. RBI performing long- using the code given below: Reserve Ratio (CRR), or Statutory term repo operations (a) 1 and 2 only Liquidity Ratio (SLR), or bank rate (LTRO). (b) 2 only or Liquidity Adjustment Facility 3. RBI issuing securities (c) 1 and 3 only (LAF) that includes Marginal under Market (d) 1, 2 and 3 Standing Facility (MSF). Stabilization Scheme If RBI changes reserve ratios, this (MSS). would lead to changes in lending Select the correct by the banks which, in turn, would answer using the code impact the deposits and hence, given below. the money supply. (a) 1 only 1. SLR is the ratio of liquid assets (b) 1 and 2 only 120 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

to the demand and time liabilities (c) 2 and 3 only (NDTL). RBI increases SLR to (d) 1, 2 and 3 reduce bank credit during the time of inflation. Similarly, it reduces SLR during the time of recession to increase bank credit. Therefore, cutting and optimising SLR is something the RBI would do under its expansionist monetary policy. 2. MSF is an emergency window available to scheduled banks to borrow from RBI on an overnight basis by pledging government securities. Increase the MSF rate of interest will make borrowing costly, and thus is something that the RBI would not do as part of its expansionist monetary policy. 3. The rate of interest charged by RBI on loans extended to commercial banks is called Bank Rate. Repo rate is the rate at which the RBI lends to commercial banks by purchasing securities. Lower bank rates and repo rates would reduce the cost of borrowing, and thus will increase liquidity in the economy. Cutting bank rate and repo rate is something the RBI would do under its expansionist monetary policy. Therefore, correct option is (b) 2 only

121 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

122 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

88 ECONOMICS With reference to the Indian B In NITI Aayog’s paper “Changing D CAA NITI Aayog’s RR economy after the 1991 Structure of Rural Economy of India paper “ economic liberalization, Implications for Employment and Changing consider the following Growth 2017”, following Structure of statements: observations were made: Rural 1. Worker productivity (rs. 1. The absolute level of income per Economy of per worker at 2004-05 worker i.e. worker productivity has India prices) increased in urban increased for both rural and urban Implications areas. For rural areas it was Rs. areas while it decreased in for 37273 in 2004-05 and Rs. 101755 in rural areas. Employment 2011-12, while for urban areas it 2. The percentage share of and Growth was Rs. 120419 in 2004-05 and Rs. rural areas in the workforce 282515 in 2011-12. Hence 2017 steadily increased. statement 1 is incorrect. 3. In rural areas, the growth 2. As per 2011 Census, 68.8% of https://niti.go in non-farm economy India’s population and 72.4% of v.in/writeread increased. workforce resided in rural areas. data/files/doc 4. The growth rate in rural However, steady transition to ument_public employment decreased urbanization over the years has led ation/Rural_E Which of the statements to a decline in the rural share in the conomy_DP_fi given above is/are correct? workforce, from 77.8% in 1993-94 nal.pdf (a) 1 and 2 only to 70.9% in 2011-12. Hence (b) 3 and 4 only statement 2 is incorrect. (c) 3 only 3. About two third of rural income is (d) 1, 2 and 4 only now generated in non-agricultural activities. Non-farm economy has increased in rural areas. The share of agriculture in rural economy has decreased from 57% in 1993-94 to 39% in 2011-12. Hence statement 3 is correct. 4. After 2004-05, the rural areas have witnessed negative growth in employment inspite of high growth in output. The growth rate of rural employment was 1.45% during 1994-2005, which fell to -0.28% between 2005-12. Hence statement 4 is correct.

123 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

89 ECONOMICS Consider the following B District Central Co-operative M FA https://www.r RM statements: Banks (DCCBs) are a type of rural bi.org.in/script 1. In terms of short-term co-operatives, along with State s/Publications credit delivery to the Co-operative Banks (StCBs) and View.aspx?Id= agriculture sector, District Primary Agricultural Credit 19366 Central Cooperative Banks Societies (PACS). Short-term co- (DCCBs) deliver more credit operatives are arranged in a in comparison to Scheduled three-tier structure in most of the Commercial Banks and states, with StCBs at the apex Regional Rural Banks. level, DCCBs at the intermediate 2. One of the most important level and PACS at the grassroots functions of DCCBs is to level. provide funds to the Primary 1. Although the focus of rural Agriculture Credit Societies. cooperative lending is agriculture, Which of the statements the share in credit flow to given above is/are correct? agriculture of rural cooperatives is (a) 1 only only 12.1%, as compared to 76% (b) 2 only of Scheduled Commercial Banks (c) Both 1 and 2 (SCBs), and 11.9% of Regional (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Rural Banks. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. 2. DCCBs mobilise deposits from the public and provide credit to the public and PACS. Hence statement 2 is correct. 90 CURRENT In India, under cyber B Cyber Insurance is designed to D CA https://www.t RR Indian banks and AFFAIRS insurance for individuals, guard businesses from the hehindubusine financial services which of the following potential effects of cyber-attacks. ssline.com/por companies are benefits are generally It helps an organisation mitigate tfolio/personal boosting their cyber covered, in addition to risk exposure by ofsetting costs, -finance/cyber- insurance cover as payment for the funds and after a cyber-attack/breach has insurance- businesses have other benefits? happened. To simplify, cyber what-are-the- become increasingly 1. Cost of restoration of the Insurance is designed to cover the options/article reliant on digital 31386501.ece computer system in case of fees, expenses and legal costs technologies. The https://www.t malware disrupting access to associated with cyber breaches Covid-19 crisis, has hehindubusine one's computer that occur after an organisation forced companies to ssline.com/mo 2. Cost of a new computer if has been hacked or from theft or ney-and- work from home, has some miscreant wilfully loss of client/employee banking/dema increased the already damages it, if proved so information. In India, cyber nd-for-cyber- elevated risk of cyber 3. Cost of hiring a specialized insurance covers (generally) the security- attacks. Two large 124 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

consultant to minimize the following: insurance-set- Indian banks recently loss in case of cyber Identity theft to- disclosed that they extortion. Cyber-bullying and cyber-stalking rise/article313 have cyber insurance 4. Cost of defence in the Cyber extortion 47877.ece cover of $100 million Court of Law if any third Malware intrusion https://www.d or nearly Rs 750 party files a suit Financial loss due to unauthorized sci.in/ucch/res crore. Select the correct answer and fraudulent use of bank ource/downloa using the code given below: account, credit card and mobile d- attachment/13 (a) 1, 2 and 4 only wallets /Cyber%20Insu (b) 1, 3 and 4 only Legal expenses arising out of any rance%20in%2 (c) 2 and 3 only covered risk 0India (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Social Media Cover https://www.c Phishing Cover oalitioninc.com E-mail Spoofing /blog/10-costs- Media Liability Claims Cover your-cyber- Cyber Extortion Cover insurance- Privacy Breach and Data Breach policy-may- by Third Party. Hence only not-cover- options 1, 3 and 4 are correct. unless-its-with- coalition 91 ART & With reference to the B The word Parivrajaka means D F History of RR CULTURE cultural history of India, "roaming ascetic". A wandering Early India: consider the following pairs: religious mendicant. Although From the 1. Parivrajaka Renunciant this term occurs in the early Origins to AD and Wanderer Brahmanic tradition of the 1300-Romila 2. Shramana : Priest with a Upaniṣads, it is also applicable to Thapar,Page. high status Buddhist and Jain monks, as well no. 3. Upasaka : Lay follower of as to Hindu saṃnyāsins. The Pāli 62,172,294. Buddhism equivalent is paribbājaka. Which of the pairs given Vedic Brahmanism - drawing its above are correctly identity from the Vedic corpus - matched? was a religious form associated (a) 1 and 2 only with socially dominant groups, (b) 1 and 3 only supporting practices and beliefs (c) 2 and 3 only that could be seen as an (d) 1, 2 and 3 orthodoxy, there have been movements that have distanced themselves in various ways from Vedic Brahmanism. The Shramana group - Buddhism, Jainism and 125 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

various 'heterodox' sects - is one such well-established group. shramanas did not regard the brahmans as being of the highest status. The shramanas included a variety of ascetics, as well as the monks and lay followers of various sects - Buddhist, Jaina, Ajivika and others. Monks renounced social obligations to take on an alternative life when they joined the Order. They lived as equal members of the Order, denying caste distinctions. But they lived in monasteries near villages and towns so that they could draw on the support of the lay community, namely, those who were Buddhists or Jainas but were not initiated into renunciatory groups. Lay followers were referred to as upasaka and upasika. 92 ENVIRONME With reference to Indian A Statement 1 is correct: The Indian D U https://www. RR A tragic case of a NT elephants, consider the elephant is one of three extant elephantvoice young pregnant following statements: recognised subspecies of the s.org/elephant elephant in Kerala 1. The leader of an elephant Asian elephant and native to -sense-a- who had eaten a fruit group is a female. mainland Asia. The oldest female sociality- with firecrackers 2. The maximum gestation in an elephant herd is always the 4/elephants- inside was reported period can be 22 months. leader. are-long- entensively in the 3. An elephant can normally Statement 2 is correct: Elephants lived.html news. go on calving till the age of have the longest gestation period of 40 years only. all mammals. The average gestation https://www. 4. Among the States in India, period of an elephant is about 640 ncbi.nlm.nih.g the highest elephant to 660 days, or roughly 95 weeks. ov/pmc/articl population is in Kerala. Statement 3 is not correct: Female es/PMC41440 Which of the statements elephants live for 60 to 70 years, 32/#:~:text=lo given above is/are correct? but only have about four offspring ng%2Dlived%2 throughout their lifetime. Fertility (a) 1 and 2 only 0species.- decreases after age 50 in elephants, (b) 2 and 4 only ,Results,the%2 126 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

(c) 3 only but the pattern differed from a total 0age%20of%2 (d) 1, 3 and 4 only loss of fertility in menopausal 065%20years. women with many elephants continuing to reproduce at least until the age of 65 years. Therefore it is not till the age of 40 years only. Statement 4 is not correct: South India had the highest number of wild elephants - 14,612. Among the south Indian states, Karnataka leads the table with 6,049 elephants followed by Kerala. 93 GEOGRAPHY Which of the following C Option 1 is correct: Nagarhole M CAA Standard RM OPEN TEST 2999 Papikonda National Protected Areas are located National Park, also known as Rajiv Reference " The Park lies in the Park was in the news. in Cauvery basin? Gandhi National Park, is a wildlife Atlas River Godavari basin. 1. Nagarhole National park reserve in the South Indian state The floral variety of the 2. Papikonda National Park of Karnataka. Nagarhole National https://www. Park is mainly Eastern 3. Sathyamagalam Tiger Park is in the Cauvery Basin. newindianexp Ghats vegetation. The Reserve Option 2 is not correct: ress.com/stat area consists of dry 4. Wayanand Wildlife Papikonda National Park is located es/andhra- deciduous tropical Sanctuary near Rajamahendravaram in the pradesh/2019 forests. It is recognized Select the correct answer Papi Hills in East Godavari and /dec/25/129- as an Important Bird using the code given below: West Godavari districts of Andhra species-of- and Biodiversity Area by (a) 1 and 2 only Pradesh, and covers an area of butterfly- BirdLife International. (b) 3 and 4 only 1,012.86 km2 (391.07 sq mi). It is recorded-in- The Polavaram irrigation (c) 1, 3 and 4 only an Important Bird and Biodiversity papikonda- project once completed (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Area and home to some national-park- will submerge parts of endangered species of flora and 2080722.html the national park." fauna. River Godavari flows Which of the following through Papikonda National Park. National parks is Option 3 is correct: described in the above Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve is passage? a protected area and tiger reserve (a) Papikonda National in the Eastern Ghats in the Erode Park District of the Indian state of (b) Sri Venkateswara Tamil Nadu. It is located at the National Park confluence of two distinct (c) Mrugavani National geographical regions of bio Park diversity landscape; Western Ghat (d) Indravati National and Eastern Ghat. Park Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve, 127 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

the Gateway to Eastern Ghats, is a significant ecosystem and a wildlife corridor in the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve between the Western Ghats and the rest of the Eastern Ghats and a genetic link between the five other protected areas which it adjoins, including the Billigiriranga Swamy Temple Wildlife Sanctuary, Sigur Plateau, Mudumalai National Park, Bandipur National Park and the Cauvery Wildlife Sanctuary. Option 4 is correct: The Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary is an animal sanctuary in Wayanad, Kerala, India. Kabini river (a tributary of Cauvery river) flows through the sanctuary. 94 ENVIRONME With reference to India's A The Sri Lanka frogmouth, Sri Lankan E F https://www.t RM State of India's Bird NT biodiversity, Ceylon frogmouth or Ceylon frogmouth is a hehindu.com/l 2020 was released in frogmouth, Coppersmith small frogmouth (The frogmouths ife-and- this year. barbet, Gray-chinned minivet are a group of nocturnal birds) style/coimbat and White-throated redstart found in the Western Ghats of ores- are south India and Sri Lanka. mohammed- (a) Birds The coppersmith barbet, also called saleem-and- (b) Primates crimson-breasted barbet and team-spot- coppersmith, is an Asian barbet (c) Reptiles some-rare- with crimson forehead and throat, (d) Amphibians birds-on-their- known for its metronomic call that great-indian- sounds similar to a coppersmith striking metal with a hammer. It is a bird- resident bird in the Indian expedition- subcontinent and parts of Southeast across-south- Asia. india/article30 The grey-chinned minivet is a 387704.ece species of bird in the family Campephagidae. It is found from the Himalayas to China, Taiwan and Southeast Asia. The white-throated redstart is a 128 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

species of bird in the family Muscicapidae. It is found in Nepal, Bhutan, central China and far northern areas of Myanmar and Northeast India. Its natural habitat is temperate forests. Hence option (a) is the correct answer. 95 ENVIRONME Which one of the following A Barasingha also known as swamp M CAA https://www.do EM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: It was recently seen NT protected areas is well- deer is one of the largest species of wntoearth.org.i Test 2991 in the news. known for the conservation deer found in India, known for its n/news/wildlife If you want to see of a sub-species of the Indian distinctive character of twelve tined - Barasingha (swamp biodiversity/nea swamp deer (Barasingha) stags. Today, Swamp deer or deer) in their natural Barasingha only found in the Kanha r-extinct-hard- that thrives well on hard ground-swamp- habitat, which one of ground and is exclusively National Park of Madhya Pradesh, the following is the best Kaziranga and Manas National Parks deer-see- graminivorous? revival-in- national park to visit? of Assam and large population in (a) Kanha National Park kanha-69603 (a) Gir National Park Dudhwa National Park of Uttar (b) Manas National Park (b) Pin Valley National Pradesh. (c) Mudumalai Wildlife Park Kanha Tiger Reserve has a Sanctuary significant population of Bengal (c) Keibul Lamjao (d) Tal Chhapar Wildlife tiger, Indian wild dog and National Park Sanctuary barasingha deer in India. The park is (d) Kanha National Park the reintroduction site of barasingha and first tiger reserve in India to introduce Barasingha as officially mascot. There are three subspecies of swamp deer found in the Indian Subcontinent. The western swamp deer (Rucervus duvaucelii) found in Nepal, southern swamp deer (Rucervus duvaucelii branderi) found in central and north India and eastern swamp deer (Rucervus duvaucelii ranjitsinhi) found in the Kaziranga and Dudhwa National Parks. The southern swamp deer has hard hooves and is adapted to hard ground. The other two subspecies are adapted to swampy areas. Hence the correct answer is option (a). 129 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

130 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

96 ENVIRONME Steel slag can be the material D Option 1 is correct: Steel slag, a by- D CAA https://www.f RR Applications of steel NT for which of the following? product of steel making, is inancialexpres slag were often seen 1. Construction of base road produced during the separation of s.com/industr in the news. 2. Improvement of the molten steel from impurities in y/nitin- agricultural soil steel-making furnaces. One of the gadkari- 3. Production of cement ingredients of asphalt is steel slag, a warns- Select the correct answer by-product of the steel and iron cement- using the code given below: production processes. Asphalt roads companies- are made of a mixture of (a) 1 and 2 only asks- aggregates, binders and fillers. The (b) 2 and 3 only construction- aggregates are typically iron and/or (c) 1 and 3 only firms-to-cut- steel slag, sand, gravel or crushed (d) 1, 2 and 3 rock, and they are bound together costs-but-not- with asphalt itself, which is a quality/20799 bitumen. 19/ Option 2 is correct: Steel slags can be used in several activities, such as construction and paving, and also in https://www.f the agricultural sector due to its inancialexpres ability to correct soil acidity, as it s.com/market contains some nutrients for the /commodities plants and also as silicate fertilizer /steel-slag- that is capable of providing silicon may-now-be- to the plants. used-as- Option 3 is correct: Steel slag, fertiliser-for- another waste from Iron & Steel soil/1115559/ Industry, has shown potential for use as a raw mix component up to 10% in the manufacture of cement clinker. Steel slag can also replace granulated blast furnace slag up to 10% in the manufacture of Portland Slag Cement. Steel slag has been used successfully to treat acidic water discharges from abandoned mines. 97 ENVIRONME Which of the following are A Musk deer is a small compact deer M FCA https://forest. EM NT the most likely places to find belonging to the family Cervidae. A uk.gov.in/pag the musk deer in its natural solitary shy animal, the musk deer es/view/160- habitat? lives in mountainous regions from gangotri- 1. Askot Wildlife Sanctuary Siberia to the Himalayas. national-park 2. Gangotri National Park Askot Musk Deer Sanctuary is 131 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

3. Kishanpur Wildlife located 54 km from Pithoragarh Sanctuary near the town of Askot in 4. Manas National Park Uttarakhand. As the name suggests, Select the correct answer the sanctuary has been set up using the code given below: primarily for the conservation of (a) 1 and 2 only musk deer and its natural habitat. (b) 2 and 3 only Gangotri National Park is a national (c) 3 and 4 only park in Uttarkashi District of Uttarakhand in India. Various rare (d) 1 and 4 only and endangered species like bharal or blue sheep, black bear, brown bear, Himalayan Monal, Himalayan Snowcock, Himalayan Thar, musk deer and Snow leopard are found in the park. The Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary is a part of the Dudhwa Tiger Reserve near Mailani in Uttar Pradesh, India. It covers an area of 227 km2 (88 sq mi) and was founded in 1972. The tiger, chital, hog deer, wild boars, otters, and many more animals find themselves a home here. Manas National Park or Manas Wildlife Sanctuary is a national park, UNESCO Natural World Heritage site, a Project Tiger reserve, an elephant reserve and a biosphere reserve in Assam, India. Located in the Himalayan foothills, it is contiguous with the Royal Manas National Park in Bhutan. 98 ENVIRONME In rural road construction, A The use of waste materials in the D CAA https://pib.go RR PT 365 2020 Govt NT the use of which of the road construction industry is v.in/PressRele Schemes page number following is preferred for gradually gaining significance in seDetail.aspx? 130 "38.2. PRADHAN ensuring environmental India, considering disposal and PRID=1558920 MANTRI GRAM SADAK sustainability or to reduce environmental problems and the YOJANA" carbon footprint? gradual depletion of natural https://www.t 1. Copper slag resources. Byproducts, such as hehindu.com/ 2. Cold mix asphalt biomass ash, coal ash, red mud news/national technology and copper slag, generated in /tamil- 3. Geotextiles large volumes, could have nadu/research 132 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

4. Hot mix asphalt applications in the construction of ers- technology roads, buildings and bridges. collaborate- 5. Portland cement Option 1 is correct: The use of to-use- Select the correct answer copper slag in cement and industrial-agri- using the code given below: concrete provides potential byproducts/ar (a) 1, 2 and 3 only environmental as well as ticle32748554 (b) 2, 3 and 4 only economic benefits for all related .ece (c) 4 and 5 only industries, particularly in areas (d) 1 and 5 only where a considerable amount of https://www. copper slag is produced. nbmcw.com/t Option 2 is correct and Option 4 ech- is not correct: Cold asphalt mix is articles/roads- produced by mixing unheated and- mineral aggregate with either pavements/36 emulsified bitumen or foamed 143-cold- bitumen. Unlike hot mix asphalt asphalt-mixes- (HMA), cold asphalt mix does not for-indian- require any heating of aggregate highways- which makes it economical and environment- relatively pollution-free (no friendly- objectionable fumes or odours). technology.ht Production of cold asphalt mix ml#:~:text=Un does not require high investment like%20hot%2 in equipment, which makes it 0mix%20asph economical. It is also suitable for alt%20(HMA,e use in remote areas. Cold asphalt quipment%2C mixes can be used both for initial %20which%20 construction (100% virgin mixes) makes%20it% and for recycling of asphalt 20economical. pavements. Option 3 is correct: Geotextiles are https://link.sp mostly used in road construction, ringer.com/art especially to fill gaps between the icle/10.1007/s roads to improve soil structure. 10163-014- Geotextile makes poor soil more 0254-x beneficial for use and then easy to build in difficult places also. It helps to prevent the erosion of soil but allows the water to drain off. Option 5 is not correct: roducing the portland cement that binds 133 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

concrete together is energy intensive and emits enormous amounts of carbon dioxide (CO 2) as well as numerous other pollutants. 99 ENVIRONME Consider the following D Statement 1 is correct: Coal itself E FCA https://econo EM PT Environment 2020 The environment NT statements: isn't a particularly toxic material. mictimes.india page number 19 "2.1.7. ministry had recently 1. Coal ash contains arsenic, But after it's burned, what times.com/ind SCIENTIFIC DISPOSAL decided that it will no lead and mercury. remains in the ash includes lead, ustry/energy/ AND UTILIZATION OF longer regulate the 2. Coal-fired power plants mercury, cadmium, chromium, power/therma FLY ASH" ash-content of coal release sulphur dioxide and arsenic, and selenium, all in levels l-power- ALSO COVERED IN ALL used by thermal oxides of nitrogen into the that may threaten human health. plants- INDIA TEST SERIES: power plants. environment. Statement 2 is correct: Thermal allowed-to- TESTS 3223/3330 3. High ash content is power plants produce large use-coal-with- Consider the following observed in Indian coal. amounts of nitrogen oxides and high-ash- statements: Which of the statements sulfur dioxide—the pollutants that content/articl 1. Emissions from given above is/are correct? cause acid rain—when they burn eshow/76004 thermal power plants (a) 1 only fossil fuels, especially coal, to 154.cms?from and industries are the (b) 2 and 3 only produce energy. =mdr single largest source of (c) 3 only Statement 3 is correct: India's Sulphur dioxide (SO2) (d) 1, 2 and 3 domestic coal reserves have a emissions in India. high ash content—up to 40 to 45 2. Flue Gas percent. Desulfurization (FGD) system is used to reduce SO2 emissions from thermal power plants. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 ALSO COVERED IN OPEN TEST 3002 Consider the following statements: 1. Fly-ash is recovered as a by-product from burning of coal in thermal power plants. 134 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

2. In order to reduce the ash content, washing of coal supplied to thermal power plants has been made mandatory in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 100 ENVIRONME What is the use of biochar in D Statement 1 is correct: As the use D FCA https://www. RR ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: Articles related to NT farming? of soilless, hydroponic growing dpi.nsw.gov.a TEST 3222 applications of 1. Biochar can be used as a methods becomes more prevalent u/content/arc Consider the following Biochar are part of the growing medium among crop producers, hive/agricultur statements with respect frequently seen in in vertical farming. researchers are looking for new e-today- to biochar: the news. 2. When biochar is a part of materials that can help growers stories/ag- 1. It is a carbon-rich the growing medium, it save money, produce healthy today- porous solid produced by promotes the growth of plants, and contribute to archives/june- the pyrolysis process. 2. It can sequester carbon nitrogen-fixing sustainable practices. biochar, a 2010/biochar- in a stable form microorganisms. charcoal-like material produced boosts- preventing CO2 from 3. When biochar is a part of by heating biomass in the absence nitrogen- organic matter from the growing medium, it of oxygen, can help "close the fixation--- leaking into the enables the growing medium loop" when used as a substrate study atmosphere. to retain water for longer for soilless, hydroponic tomato Which of the time. production. "This method could statements given above Which of the statements provide growers with a cost- is/are correct? given above is/are correct? effective and environmentally (a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only responsible green-waste disposal (b) 2 only (b) 2 only method, and supplement (c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 only substrate, fertilizer, and energy (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3 requirements. EXPLANATION: Statement 2 is correct: Biochar A research team from IIT has the potential to boost the Kharagpur has adapted a natural ability of legumes to fix process called Hydro nitrogen to the soil. Adding Thermal Carbonization biochar to soil not only provides a (HTC) for the Indian way to sequester carbon, but also conditions which can 135 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

has many soil health benefits effectively manage mixed which will help farmers adapt to Municipal Solid Waste climate change and increase (MSW) with high productivity. In addition to moisture content. supporting the life of nitrogen- Through the process fixing microorganisms, biochar most of the mixed MSW can also decrease soil N2O can be converted into emission, and increase nitrogen biofuel, soil amendment and absorbents. use efficiency and nitrogen Hydrothermal retention in the soil Carbonization (HTC) is a Statement 3 is correct: Because of chemical process for the its porous nature, biochar can conversion of organic improve your soil's water compounds to structured retention and water holding carbons. It can be used to capacity – defined as the amount make a wide variety of of water that a soil can hold for its nanostructured carbons, crops – so that your plants will simple production of have more water available to brown coal substitute, them for a longer period of time. synthesis gas, liquid petroleum precursors and humus from biomass with release of energy. The current waste burning processes adopted from the developed nations are primarily focused on treating drier waste content. These processes require high energy input to combust municipal solid waste generated in India which has high moisture content due to tropical weather, open collection systems and mixed waste. The Hydrothermal Carbonization (HTC) process allows the treatment of wet biomass

136 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

without the need for a drying pretreatment, which is necessary for traditional thermochemical processes (combustion, air gasification, pyrolysis). The process novelty lies in the use of water for the reaction thus the moisture in the MSW gets used during the recycling process without requiring any removal of moisture from segregated wet waste or high energy intake. Once the organic waste is entered into the process, the output generated are all usable including the water which can either be reused in the process or can be converted to biogas or methane through anaerobic digestion. The biofuel (biochar) generated as the recovered output is comparable to lignite coal thus significantly addressing the fossil fuel depletion issue and helping curb air pollution issues. The product can further be used as an absorbent to manage soil contamination. This could significantly help brownfield sites or contaminated industrial sites or landfills.

137 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

138 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

TOPIC

Topic No. of Questions

Polity & Governance 18

Environment 18

Geography 8

General Science & S&T 12

Economy 18

Ancient India 4

Medieval India 2

Art & Culture 4

Modern India 9

Current Affairs 7

139 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

DIFFICULTY

Difficulty Number of Questions

Difficult - D 36

Medium - M 32

Easy - E 32

NATURE

Nature Number of Questions

FCA – Fundamental and Current Affair 7

F – Fundamental 47

CA – Current Affair 11

CAA – Current Affair Applied 20

FA – Fundamental Applied 12

U - Unconventional 3

140 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

SOURCE TYPE

Source Type Number of Questions

EN 24

RR 24

RM 16

EM 34

Grand Total 100

141 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

SECTIONWISE DIFFICULTY

TOPIC DIFFICULT MEDIUM EASY

Modern India 4 3 2

Medieval India 1 1 0

Art and Culture 3 1 0

Ancient India 3 1 0

Current Affairs 2 0 5

Geography 4 2 2

Economy 4 7 7

Environment 4 11 3

General Science 7 4 1 and Science and Technology

Polity & 4 2 12 Governance

Copyright © by Vision IAS All rights are reserved. No part of this document may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise, without prior permission of Vision IAS.

142 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS