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Model Test Paper – 11 Max. Marks: 300 ROSE PHARMACY GPAT Time: 3 hours (Subject:- ANS, CNS & CVS)

Instructions 1. All questions are multiple choice objective, you have to select one correct answer. 2. There are 100 questions in question paper. Each question contains three marks. 3. There will be ⅓ (one third) negative marking for each wrong answer. Q.1 Which one of the following drug is selective β1 receptor agonist? a) Ritodrine b) Albutrol c) Dobutamine d) Phenylephrine Q.2 N-cyclopropyl methyl oxomorphone is known as a) Nalorphine b) Naltreoxone c) Naloxone d) Nalbuphine Q.3 Rofecoxib is selective cox-2 inhibitor that possess ………heterocyclic ring system. a) Furan-2-one b) Pyrazole c) Isoxazole d) Imidazole Q.4 β-adrenergic blockers are not used for a) Migraine headache b) Hypertension c) Angina pectoris d) Supraventricular bradicardia Q.5 The cholinergic drug also useful in the treatment of cardiac arrhythmia is a) Physostigmine b) Eudrophonium chloride c) Ipratropium bromide d) Neostigmine Q.6 The mechanism of action of nitrates is a) Inhibits phosphodiestrase b) Stimulates guanylate cyclase c) β-blocker d) α-blocker Q.7 Which statement is false on organic nitrates? a) Organic nitrates can prevent or release coronary artery spam b) Organic nitrates are lipid-soluble and are well absorbed through the skin c) These generate the unstable nitrate salt in situ d) Can administered sub-lingual route Q.8 The antianginal drug that inhibits phosphodiesterase is a) Aspirin b) Dipyridamole c) Amyl nitrate d) Isosorbide dinitrate Q.9 Repaglinide is used as antidiabetic and belongs to the class a) Sulphonyl urea b) Thiozolidinedione c) Benzoic acid derivative d) Biguanide Q.10 The antidiabetic also effective in lowering the cholesterol level is a) Rosiglitazone b) Phenformin c) Chlorpropamide d) Repaglinide Q.11 The mechanism of action Rosiglitazone is a) Insulin releasing agent b) PPARγ agonist c) Increase cellular uptake of glucose d) reduces release of insulin Q.12 Anticoagulants interfere with a) Prothrombin b) Vitamin K c) Factor V d) Factor XII Q.13 One of the following is not a prodrug a) Clofibrate b) Lovastatin c) Simvastatin d) Ciprofibrate Q.14 One of the following drug acts by sesquetering the bile acid in the GIT a) Gemfibrozil b) Colestipol c) Probucol d) Niacin Q.15 The drug that reduces the absorption of cholesterol from the GIT is a) Colestipol b) Niacin c) Ezetimibe d) Gemfibrozil Q.16 The antihyperlipidmic drug that is a benzophenone derivative is a) Ezetimibe b) Probucol c) Fenofibrate d) Dalvastatin Q.17 MexiletineROSE belongs to PHARMACY JAIPUR a) Class IA b) Class IB c) Class II d) Class III Q.18 Mechanism of action of propaphenone is

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a) β-blocker b) Blocks K Channel c) Blocks Na Channel d) Blocks Ca Channel Q.19 Flacainide belongs to a) Class IA b) Class IB c) Class II d) Class IC Q.20 Mechanism of action of Bretylium is a) β-blocker b) Blocks K Channel c) Blocks Na Channel d) Blocks Ca Channel Q.21 The antiarrhythmic drug with local anesthetic action is a) Verapamil b) Bretylium c) Procainamide d) Disopyramide Q.22 The water soluble analogue of prazosin is a) Terazosin b) Trimazosin c) Doxazocin d) Hydralazine Q.23 The drug that act through mediation of nitric oxide is a) Atenolol b) Propranolol c) Hydralazine d) Clonidine Q.24 The anti-hypertensive with both non-selective β- and α-antagonist activity is a) Propranolol b) Timolol c) Esmolol d) Labetalol Q.25 The anti-hypertensive drug that is potassium channel opener is a) Verapamil b) Minoxidil c) Propranolol d) Diltiazem Q.26 Which of the following actions is related to thiazide diuretics? a) Hyperuricemia b) Hyperkalmia c) Hypoglycemia in diabetes d) Hypocalcemia Q.27 One of the following diuretic acts on the loop of henle: a) Spironolactone b) Ethacrynic acid c) Clorexolone d) Dichlorophenamide Q.28 Primary site of action of thiazide diuretics in the nephron is a) Proximal tubule b) Loop of Henle c) Distal tubule d) Convoluted tubules Q.29 Thiazide diuretics can have beneficial effect in osteoporosis/calcium nephrolithiasis due to which effect? a) Hypercalciuria b) hypocalciuria c) hyperurecemia d) Hyperkalmia Q.30 Mechanism of action of Furosemide is: a) Inhibits carbonic anhydrase b) Inhibits Na+-K+-2Cl- transporter c) Osmotic diuretics d) Aldosterone antagonist Q.31 Which of the followings is nonsedative antihistaminic a) Terfenadine b) Cetrizine c) Loratadine d) All of these Q.32 The drug usefull for the treatment of Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome is: a) Cetrazine b) Promethazine c) Famotidine d) Fexofenadine Q.33 Clemastine belongs to a) Ethylenediamine derivative b) Aminoalkyl ether derivative c) Propyl amine derivative d) Piperazine derivative Q.34 The anti-histaminic drug with no heteroaryl ring system in its structure is: a) Doxylamine b) Triprolidine c) Medrylamine d) Meclizine Q.35 An Indole derivative useful for the treatment of Alzheimer’s disease a) Donepezil b) Tacrine c) Besiperidine d) Milsmeline Q.36 Pyridoxine supplement should not be co-administered with a) Isoniazid b) Levodopa c) both a & b d) none of these Q.37 Which area is involved in Parkinson’s disease? a) Neostriatum b) Substantia nigra c) Pallidum d) Amygdala Q.38 One of the following is synthesized using Ullman’s condensation reaction a) Anthralinic acid derivatives b) p-aminophenol derivatives c) Aryl alkanoicROSE acid derivatives PHARMACY d) Pyrazolidinedione derivatives JAIPUR Q.39 Which one of the followings is used as uterine muscle relexant?

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a) Ritodrine b) Tolbutamide c) Dobutamine d) Phenylephrine Q.40 Hypertrichosis is major side effect of a) Hydralazine b) Sodium nitropruside c) Minoxidil d) Diazoxide Q.41 Side effects of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) include except a) Peptic ulcer b) Reduced kidney functions c) GIT bleeding d) Seizers Q.42 6-methoxy-naphthalene-2-acetic acid (MNA) is active metabolite of a) Naproxen b) Naphthyridine c) Nabumetone d) Sulindac Q.43 The drug used as a narcotic substitute in addiction treatment because it prevents morphine Abstinence syndrome is a) Nalorphine b) Methadone c) Pethidine d) Pentazocin Q.44 One of the following drugs is used as antidiarrheal a) Methadone b) Pentazocin c) Dextromethorphan d) Loperamide Q.45 Which one of the following drugs is Serotonin reuptake inhibitor? a) Amoxapine b) Amitriptyline c) Imipramine d) Fluvoxamine Q.46 In which synthesis is Curtius rearrangement employed a) Pargyline b) Tranylcyperomine c) Fluoxetine d) Imipramine Q.47 Extra pyramidal symptoms are common side effects of which of the following medications? a) Haloperidol b) Olanzapine c) Quitiapine d) Ziprasidone Q.48 Dibebzodiazepine derivative atypical neuroleptic drug is a) Loxapine b) Olanzepine c) Ziprasidone d) Clozapine Q.49 This anti-convulsant is prodrug derived from Carbamazepine, with the benefits of fever Side effects and fewer drug interactions a) Lamotriazine b) Oxacarbazepine c) Procarbazepine d) Fosphenytoin Q.50 An enzyme inducer, this anti-convulsant is one of the metabolites of primidone a) Phenytoin b) Phenobarbitone c) Carbamazapine d) Diazepam Q.51 Benzodiazepine in which benzene ring at 5-position when omitted a) Increases the affinity towards the receptor b) acts as antagonist to the receptor c) acts at serotonin receptor d) shows reduced sedative and hypnotics activity Q.52 Anxiolytic drug with no drowsiness is a) Diazepam b) Meprobamate c) Buspirone d) Alprazolam Q.53 The major product formed by the condensation of 2-chloro phenothiazine with sodamide and 1-(3-chloro propyl-4-methylpiperazine). a) Fluphenazine b) Trifluoperzine c) Chlorpromazine d) Prochlorperazine Q.54 The drug Nifedipine can be synthesized from a) o-nitro benzaldehyde, methyl acetoacetate and ammonia b) p-nitro benzaldehyde, methyl acetoacetate and ammonia c) o-nitro benzaldehyde, ethyl acetoacetate and methylamine d) p-nitro benzaldehyde, methyl acetoacetate and methylamine Q.55 Dimethyl-[3-phenyl-3-(2-Pyridyl)-propyl]-amine is chemical name of a) Diphenhydramine b) Pyrilamine c) Dimenhydrate d) Pheniramine Q.56 2-(2-fluoro bi phenyl-4-yl) propionic acid is a) Nabumetone b) Fenoprofen c) Flurbiprofen d) Ketoprofen Q.57 What is chemical name of Triprolidine is a) (E)-2-(3-pyrrolidin-1-yl-1-(4-tolyl) prop-enyl) pyridine b) 1-[4-(4-Chlorophenyl)- 3-phenyl-2-butenyl]ROSE pyrrolidine PHARMACY c) (Z)-2-(3-pyrrolidin-1-yl-1-(4-tolyl) JAIPUR prop-enyl) pyridine d) Dimethyl-[3-phenyl-3-(2-Pyridyl)-propyl]-amine

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Q.58 The major metabolic route of Imipramine is a) by aromatic hydroxylation b) by oxidative deamination c) by N-mono dealkylation d) by hydrolysis Q.59 2H-1,2,4-Benzothiadiazine-7-sulphonamide-6-chloro-1,1-dioxide,can be modified to change biological properties. Which one modification results in diminished activity? a) Saturation of -3,4-double bond b) Substitution of 6-chloro by –CF3 c) Insertion of a benzyl group at position 5 d) Insertion of a methyl group at position 2 Q.60 Gynaecomastia can occur as a side effect of a) Famotidine b) Levodopa c) Bromocriptine d) Cimetidine Q.61 The raw material for the synthesis of Propranolol is a) α-naphthylamine b) β-naphthol c) α-naphthol d) 1-naphthaldehyde Q.62 Which one of the followings is starting material for the synthesis of Indomethacin? a) o-anisidine b) m- anisidine c) p-anisidine d) p-phenitidine Q.63 Which one of the followings is aryloxypropanolamine derivative? a) Pindolol b) Labetalol c) Metaraminol d) Salbutamol Q.64 Buprenorphine acts as antagonist on a) GABA receptor b) Histamine-H2-receptor c) Opiate receptor 4) β-adr. Receptor Q.65 Select the drug that will aggravate bronchial asthma a) Amphetamine b) Morphine c) Propranolol d) Tubocurarine Q.66 Which one of these is not dibenzo[a, d]cycloheptene derivative a) Amitriptyline b) Cyperoheptadine c) Amoxapine d) none of these Q.67 Citalopram is used as antidepressant. It acts as a) MAO inhibitor b) selective nor-adrenaline reuptake inhibitor c) tyrosine hydroxylase inhibitor d) Selective Serotonin reuptake inhibitor Q.68 o-chlorobenzoic acid is condensed with 2,3 xylidine to get a) Diclofenac b) Mefenamic acid c) Meloxicam d) Naproxen Q.69 Zonisamide is used in a) depression b) seizure c) blood pressure d) none of these Q.70 one of the following is intermediate in synthesis of Atenolol a) 4-OH pheylacetamide b) γ-picoline c) 4-NH2 quinoline d) Isobutyl benzene Q.71 Sodium nitropruside is one of the most potent blood pressure lower drug. Its use is limited because of a) Its short duration of action b) Very long duration of action c) Inactive in oral route d) none of these Q.72 Which one of the following is longer acting Insulin preparation? a) Regular Insulin Injection b) Isophane Insulin Injection (NPH) c) Lente Insulin Injection d) Protamine Zinc Insulin Injection (PZI) Q.73 Which of the followings drugs contain Indene moiety in its structure? a) Phenindamine b) Phenindione c) Sulindac d) all of these Q.74 2-Aminopyridine is reductively alkyled using 1 mol of p-methoxybenzaldehyde & reducing agents to give an intermediate. The intermediate on treatment with 1 mol dimethylamino ethylbromide in presence of sodium amide gives an antihistaminic drug. a) Mepyramine b) Pyrilamine c) both a & b d) none of these Q.75 Reye’s syndrome is associated with one of the following drugs a) CodeineROSE b) Morphine PHARMACY c) Aspirin d) Minoxidil JAIPUR Q.76 Which one of following is side effect of morphine?

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a) Hypertrichosis b) Pinpoint pupil c) St. Antony’s fire d) alopecia Q.77 11, 15-dihydroxy-9-oxo- prosta-5,13-dien-1-oic acid is a) PGD2 b) PGF2α c) PGI2 d) PGE2 Q.78 When ramipril and Amiloride are co-administered together cause a) Hypokalmia b) Hyperkalmia c) gout d) none of these Q.79 Which of the following is 5HT3 receptor antagonist that is used in anti-cancer drugs induced emesis? a) Ritodrine b) Ondansetron c) Buspirone d) Cyperoheptadine Q.80 a person taking organic nitrate has to avoid one of the following drugs as it can Cause severe hypotension a) Aspirin b) Cholestyramine c) Warfarin d) Sildenafil Q.81 An acetyl salicylic ester of paracetamol is known as a) Mepenzolate b) Benorylate c) Diphenoxylate d) none of these Q.82 Which of the following is a microsomal enzyme inducer? a) Indomethacin b) Clofibrate c) Tolbutamide d) Glutethemide Q.83 Which one is a arteriolar vasodilator and causes lupus erythromatus? a) Minixodil b) Diazoxide c) Clonidine d) Hydralazine Q.84 1-(p-chlorobenzoyl)-5-methoxy-2-methyl Indole-3-acetic acid is commonly known a) Sulindac b) Indomethacin c) Etodolac d) Ketorolac Q.85 Benzilic acid ester and urea are condensed to prepare one of the following drug a) Phenetoin b) Ethusuximide c) Paramethadone d) Phenobarbitone Q.86 What is A in the reaction that is given below? NaNH2 10, 11-Dihydro-5 H-dibenz (b-f)azepine + Cl-CH2-CH2-CH2-N(CH3)2 A a) Amitriptyline b) Imipramine c) Meclobemide d) Carbamazapine Q.87 A benzomorphan derivative which is an analgesic a) Etorphine b) Levobutorphanol c) Pentazocin d) Dextromethorphan Q.88 What is A in the reaction that is given below? C6H5CH2CN 5-nitroso-2, 4, 6- triamino pyrimidine A NaOCH3/Reflux a) Methotraxate b) Amilride c) Sprinolactone d) Triamterene Q.89 p-Fluoro phenyl acetic acid glycine conjugate is metabolic product of the drug a) Paracetamol b) Diloxanide futoate c) Haloperidol d) Sulindac Q.90 Carvedilol is used as antihypertensive and it is a) non seclective β and α antagonist b) non seclective β antagonist c) non seclective α antagonist d) none of these Q.91 Microsomal enzyme P-450 oxidase causes p-hydroxylation of aromatic ring of a) Phenetoin b) Phenobarbitone c) Both a & b d) Diazepam Q.92 A local anaesthetic that can interfere with the action of guanthidine is a) Lidocaine b) Cocaine c) Procaine d) Procainamide Q.93 Name the class of drug that is dangerous when the person had a meal with a high content of fermented foods. a) Carbonic anhydrase Inhibitors b) ACE inhibitors c) MAO inhibitors d) none Q.94 One of the following opioid peptides is released from pro-Enkephalin A a) Somatostatin b) Beta-endorphin c) Leu-enkephalin d) Dynorphin Q.95 Which oneROSE drug is not used in PHARMACY the control of gout JAIPUR a) Probenecid b) Sulfinpyrazone c) Allopurinol d) D-Penicillamine

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Q.96 Which one of the following thrombolytic agent is used in myocardial infarction? a) Heparin b) Warafrin c) Anistrplase d) Vit. K Q.97 Mechanism of action of antithrombic agent is a) Conversion of plasminogen to plasmin b) Activation of clotting factors c) Inhibit Platelet function d) Agonist of vitamin K Q.98 Mechanism of action of aspirin is a) Inhibits vitamin K absorption b) Antithrombin activity c) Inhibits metabolism of Heparin d) Inhibits platelet aggregation Q.99 Metoclopramide is generally used for a) Prophylaxis of vomiting b) Preventing motion sickness c) Treating irritable Bowel syndrome d) Treatment of pancreatic insufficiency Q.100 An example of haemopoietic growth factor is a) Platelet derived factor b) Epidermal growth factor c) Iron dextran d) Erythropoietin Answer key (ANS, CNS & CVS) Model Test Paper-11 1.c 2.b 3.a 4.d 5.b 6.b 7.c 8.b 9.c 10.a 11.b 12.b 13.d 14.b 15.c 16.c 17.b 18.c 19.d 20.b 21.c 22.c 23.c 24.d 25.b 26.a 27.b 28.c 29.a 30.b 31.d 32.c 33.b 34.c 35.a 36.b 37.b 38.a 39.a 40.d 41.d 42.c 43.b 44.d 45.d 46.b 47.a 48.d 49.b 50.b 51.b 52.c 53.d 54.a 55.d 56.c 57.a 58.c 59.c 60.d 61.c 62.c 63.a 64.c 65.b 66.c 67.d 68.b 69.b 70.a 71.a 72.d 73.d 74.c 75.c 76.b 77.d 78.b 79.b 80.d 81.b 82.d 83d. 84.b 85.a 86.b 87.c 88.d 89.c 90.a 91.c 92.b 93.c 94.c 95.d 96.c 97.a 98.d 99.a 100.d

ROSE PHARMACY JAIPUR

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