25th Bihar Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam , 2000 (G.K. & Law) 109

(C) within whose jurisdiction the plaintiff (B) a party can amend its pleadings at any resides stage (D) within whose local limits ofjurisdiction (C) cannot allow amendment of pleadings the property is situated (D) can allow amendment ofitten statement 89. The principle of Res Judicata only (A) applies to criminalproceedings also (B) applies to suil only 96. The Court (C) applies to execution proceedings also (A) has no power to record admissions of (D) can be decided by the parties to the suit parties at any stage of the proceeding 90. Compensatory costs in respect of false or (B) has power to record admissions only vexatious claim or defence can be awarded on issues of law upto (C) has power to record admissions of (A) Rs.10,000/- (B) Rs. 1,000/- parties at any stage of the proceeding (C) Rs. 500/- (D) Rs. 3,000/- (D) cannot record admissions at all 91. Books of account 97. No one shall be ordered to attend the Court (A) are liable to attachment and sale in in person to give evidence execution of a decree (A) unless he resides within 50 kilometres (B) are not liable to attachment and sale in execution of a decree from the Court (C) are no evidence in the eye of law (B) unless he resides within 100 kilometres (D) can be the sole evidence to decide a suit from the Court house 92. An appeal shall lie (C) unless he resides within 1000 kilometres (A) from all orders passed by the Court from the Court (B) only from such orders as provided In (D) unless he resides within 500 kilometres the Code of Civil Procedure from the Court house (C) from none of the orders passed by the 98. Affidavits to be tiled in a Court can be District Courts (A) authenticated by a Minister of State (D) from none of the decrees passed by the (B) cannot be authenticated except by the District Courts judge presiding 93. The Code of Civil Procedure (A) exempts Ministers of States from (C) authenticated by a Judge, a Magistrate personal appearance in Court or a Notary (B) does not exempt any person from (D) authenticated by an advocate personal appearance in Court 99. An application for review of an order or a (C) exempts advocates from personal decree can be made appearance in Courts (A) to the appellate court (D) exempts Municipal Commissioners (B) by an advocate for a party from personal appearance in Courts (C) by a Sessions Judge 94. A plaintiff (D) to the Court that made the order or (A) cannot unite several causes of action in passed the decree the same suit 100. Inherent powers of the Court can be (B) can unite several causes of action in the exercised same suit against the same defendant (A) for the ends of justice or to prevent the (C) unite only some causes of action in a suit abuse of the process of the Court (D) unite only the questions of law in a suit (B) even when there is a specific provision 95. The Court in the Code of Civil Procedure (A) can allow amendment of pleading at (C) tohelpaparty any stage of the proceeding (D) to defeat the ends ofjustice 110 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS 27th Bihar Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2011 (Solved Paper) (G.K. & Law)

9. Which of the following is fresh water lake? Solved Paper-2011 (A) Phalodi (B) Koleru General Knowledge (G.K.) (C) Shambhar (D) Pullicut 10. Which one is the southern-most mounlaf 1. Chandragupta Maurya was range of India? (A) An autocrat (A) Nilgiri Range (B) A Statesman (B) Annamalai Range (C) A liberal ruler (C) Nallamalai Range (D) An enlightened despot (D) Cardamam Hills 2. Who was the author of Kumarasambhava? 11. In India which area is known as store hoy (A) Bhasya (B) Shudraka of coal? (C) Kalidas (D) Harisena 3. In spite of her virtues Razia was not (A) Raniganj (B) Bokaro successful because (C) Jharia (D) Talchar (A) She married Altuniya 12. Mr. Vivek Kundra joined U.S. President (B) She used to behave like a man Obama’s administration as (C) Of her orthodox-religious belief (A) Federal Chief Health Officer (D) Nobles disliked the rule of a woman (B) Federal Chief Information Officer 4. The great exponent of ‘Nirgun School’ was (C) Chief of the Bureau of Budget (A) Tulsidas (B) Surdas (D) Member of Federal Power Commission (C) Kabir (D) Mirabai 13. Name the cricketer whose record of taking 5. Which chronological order of Babur’s highest number of catches by a non-wicket battles in India is correct? keeper in test cricket was broken by Rahul (A) Panipat, Ghaghara, Chanderi, Khanuah Dravid in the series against New Zealand (B) Panipat, Chanderi, Khanuah, Ghaghara in 2009 (C) Panipat, Khanuah, Chanderi, Ghaghara (A) Ricky Ponting (B) Mark Waugh (D) Panipat, Khanuah, Ghaghara, Chanderi (C) Jacques Kallis (D) Sanath Jayasurya 6. The man who led the Revolt in Bihar was 14. Who won the Women’s World Cup Cricket (A) Amar Singh (B) Bhanwar Singh held in Australia in 2009? (C) Nana Sahib (D) None of the above (A) South Africa (B) England 7. Who wrote ‘India Wins Freedom’? (C) India (D) New Zealand (A) Subhas Bose 15. Which one of the following States has (B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad started “Hooner”, a programme for Muslim (C) Jawaharlal Nehru girls? (D) Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam (A) Kashmir (B) Bihar 8. Who started ‘Bengalee’, a famous (C) Andhra Pradesh (D) Orissa newspaper of Calcutta? 16. In which country Asean Summit to (A) W. C. Bonneijee postponed in April 2009 due to Anti (B) Surendranath Banerjea Government Protests? (C) R. D. Banerji (A) Singapore (B) Philippines (D) B.C. Pal (C) Burma (Myanmar) (D) Thailand 27th Bihar Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2011 (G.K.) 111

17. Which of the following fluids would cool a 28. Who wrote ‘Padmovat’ ? V2 Inch thick piece of steel the fastest? (A) Chandbardai (B) Narpati Nalha (A) Motor oil (C) Gesudraj (D) Jayasi (B) 25% salt water solution 29. In British period the peasantry was ground (C) 5% salt water solution down by the (D) Pure water (A) Zamindar 18. Aspring scale reads 20 N (Newton) as it (B) Government pulls a 5.0 kg mass across a table. What is (C) Moneylender the magnitude of the force exerted by the (D) Merchant middleman mass on the spring scale? 30. Who was the President of Calcutta session (A) 49 N (B) 20 N of Congress in 1886? (C) 5.0N (D) 4.0 N (A) W. C. Bonnerjee 19. Light year is a unit of (B) Dadabhai Naoroji (A) Time (B) Intensity of light (C) Badrudin Tyabji (C) Distance (D) None of these (D) Naoroji Furdoonji 20. Aburn caused by steam is more painful 31. Who has been regarded as the ‘heroine of than a burn caused by boiling water Quit India Movement’ ? because (A) Kamla Devi Chattopadhyay (A) Steam penetrates inside the body (B) Sucheta Kriplani (B) Water is heavier than steam (C) Aruna Asaf Ali (C) Steam has more attacking power (D) Sarojini Naidu (D) Steam contains latent heat 32. Which of the following is not an island? 21. The planet closest to the Sun is (A) Rameshwaram (B) Shriharikota (A) Mercury (B) Venus (C) New Moore (D) Uran (C) Earth (D) Mars 33. What is the name of the reservoir made by 22. What comes in place of the question Tehri dam project? mark (?) (A) Govind Sagar 185  12  30, 66  12 > ? (B) Umed Sagar (A) 12.33 (B) 11.67 (C) Swami Ramthirth Sagar (C) 79.5 (D) 89.5 (D) Govind Ballabh Sagar 23. Which of the following is not a mammal? 34. The heighest waterfall in India is (A) Fish (B) Bat (A) Kalindi waterfall (C) Whale (D) None of these (B) Jog waterfall 24. It Who wrote Jaina Kalpasutra? (C) Milky waterfall (A) Bhadrabahu (B) Sthalabahu (D) Shimsha waterfall (C) Mahavira (D) Parsvanath 25. Fa-hien visited India during the period of 35. After many years, Javan Rhinos were found (A) Chandragupta Maurya in March 2009 in which one of the following (B) Chandragupta I countries? (C) Samudragupta (A) China (B) Malaysia (D) Chandragupta II (C) Indonesia (D) Thailand 26. The Paramara dynasty was founded by 36. ‘Spark’ is the model of a car of which car (A) Upendra (B) Bhoja manufacturing company? (C) Sindhuraja (D) Vakpati-Munja (A) Ford (B) Chevrolet 27. The Kitab-ul-Hind’ was written by (C) Toyota (D) Honda (A) Al-Masudi 37. What was the name of the reality show in (B) Abu Raihan Alberuni which Jade Goody, who died recently of (C) IbnBatuta cancer, had a rift with Indian actress Shilpa (D) Megasthenese Shetty? 112 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

(A) Big Boss (B) Big Brother 44. A diode is a device which forces the electric (C) American Idol (D) Indian Idol current 38. In which among the following events did (A) To flow in one direction only Abhinav Bindra win the first ever (B) To flow in both directions individual Gold medal by an Indian at (C) Not to flow at all Beijing Olympics? (D) None of these (A) 50 metre Rifle (B) 50 metre Pistol 45. The most abundant element in the crust of (C) 10 metre Air Rifle (D) 25 metre Pistol the earth is 39. Which company purchased Satyam (A) Oxygen (B) Nitrogen Computer Services in April 2009 by quoting (C) Manganese (D) Silicon the highest bid? 46. The technique used to detect the paternal (A) L&T (B) W. L. Ross character of an offspring is (C) Infosys (D) Tech Mahindra 40. A quick and simple method CQmmonly (A) Protein synthesis used to inspect whether a metal is (B) Chromosome counting Stainless steel is to (C) Quantitative synthesis of DNA (A) Measure its specific gravity (D) DNA finger printing (B) Pass a current through it and measure 47. The second Buddhist Council was its resistance summoned by (C) Test if it will react with sulfuric acid (A) Bimbisara (B) Kalasoka (D) Test if a magnet will be attracted to it (C) Ananda (D) Asoka 41. A light bulb breaks when it hits the floor 48. What was the name of South Indian but does not break when it hits a rug, moneylenders? because (A) Seths (B) Chettis (A) Change in momentum of the bulb is (C) Panis (D) Nayars greater for the rug 49. Chola age was most famous for (B) Change in momentum of the bulb is (A) Village assemblies greater for the floor (B) War with the Rashtrakutas (C) Light bulb weighs more when it hits the (C) Trade with Ceylon floor (D) Advancement of Tamil culture (D) The time the bulb takes to stop moving 50. Urdu as a new language was evolved for is less for the floor (A) Official use 42. A hunter aims his gun at a monkey sitting at a distant tree. At the moment the bullet (B) Mutual intercourse leaves the gun, the monkey drops vertically (C) Religious purposes down. The bullet will (D) Muslims only (A) Hit the monkey 51. Sheikh Nizam-ud-din Auiia was a (B) Not hit the monkey (A) Courtier (B) Sufi saint (C) Pass above the monkey’s head (C) Religious preacher (D) Poet (D) None of these 52. Faujdar was in-charge of a 43. At higher altitudes water boils at (A) Pargana (B) Province temperature lower than 100°C because (C) Sarkar (D) Village (A) Boiling point of water becomes lower 53. The Young Begal Movemnent was inspired at lower atmospheric pressure by (B) Gravitational pull is lower at higher (A) Raja Rammohan Roy altitudes (B) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar (C) Wind on higher altitudes are stormy (C) David Hare (D) None of these (D) Henry Vivian Derozio 27th Bihar Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2011 (G.K.) 113

54. Strafford Crip 64. Which of the following is measured in hertz? (A) Conservative party (A) Speed (B) Amplitude (B) Labour party (C) Wavelength (D) Frequency (C) Liberal party 65. Which of the following is a source of (D) Official hierarchy emission in a microwave oven? 55. The All India Kisan Sabha was formed in (A) A cyclotron (B) A magnetron (A) 1920 (B) 1932 (C) A laser lamp (D) A cathode ray tube (C) 1936 (D) 1940 66. An athlete can take a longer jump if he 56. Which of the following State has the first comes running from a distance as place in the production of tin? compared to that when he jumps (A) Orissa (B) Jharkhand suddenly.This is because of (C) Rajasthan (D) Madhya Pradesh (A) Inertia of rest 57. Lowest Scheduled Tribes Population is (B) Inertia of motion found in (C) Inertia of direction (A) Mizoram (B) Nagaland (D) Inertia of position (C) Goa (D) Karnataka 67. If water completely filling a bottle be frozen, 58. First nuclear energy plant in India was the bottle cracks because established in (A) Water expands on freezing (A) Nalore (B) Kalpakam (B) Bottle contracts when water freezes (C) Bangalor (D) Hyderabad (C) External temperature of the bottle is 59. INS VIRAAT, the only aircraft carrier of the more than the internal temperature Indian Navy in the Indian ocean was (D) Water contracts on freezing originally commissioned int the Royal 68. If ten bulbs of 100 watt each are kept British Navy is 1959 as switched on for one hour each day, the energy consumed per day will be (A) HMS Hermes (B) HMS Argus (A) 1 Unit (B) 100 KWH (C) HMS Furious (D) HMS Ark Royal (C) 10 Units (D) 10 KWH 60. Who has been appointed as the Director of 69. In all organic compounds an essential the All India Institute of Medical Sciences fundamental element is for a term of five years after the retirement (A) Nitrogen (B) Oxygen of Prof. Venugopal ? (C) Carbon (D) Sulfur (A) Dr. R.C. Das (B) Dr. C. Ramdoss 70. Pinki, Rinku and Tinku divide an amount (C) Dr. T.D. Dogra (D) Dr. P.D. Dave of Rs. 4200 among themselves in the ratio 61. Who won the Women's Singles title in 7:8:6 respectively. If an amount of Rs. 200 Tennis at the Australian Open in 2009 ? be added to each of their shares, what will (A) Dinara Safina (B) Serena Williams be the new respective ratio of their shares? (C) Ana Ivanovic (D) Sania Mirza (A) 8:9:7 (B) 7:8:6 62. Who among the following was the author (C) 7:9:5 (D) 8:9:6 of the novel ‘The White Tiger’ published in 71. Number of chambers in the heart of a 2008? mammal are (A) Jhumpa Lahiri (B) Arvind Adiga (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) Arundhati Roy (D) Salman Rushdie (C) 4 (D) 5 63. Who was the Chairman of Sixth Central 72. Which one of the following Vedas dealt Pay Commission? with rituals? (A) R. Pandian (A) Rigveda (B) Samaveda (B) Ravindra Dholakia (C) Yajurveda (D) Atharveda (C) B. N. Sri Krishna 73. The largest stupa at Sanchi is assignable to (D) J. S. Mathur the period of the 114 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

(A) Mauryas (B) Kushatias 83. Where in India does pearl fishing take placet (C) Satavahanas (D) Guptas (A) Tutikorin (B) Kandla 74. Who were the first rulers to issue gold coins (C) Cochin (D) Puri in India? 84. Which one of the following Tidal Powei (A) Mauryas (B) Indo-Greeks Project? (C) Guptas (D) Kushanas (A) Bhadrawati (B) Koyna 75. The ‘Padmini Episode’ is connected with (C) Bhavnagar (D) RawatBhata which Sultan? 85. Which of the following is the leading Stated (A) Ala-ud-din Khalji India in the production of Lac? (B) Muhammad-bin Tughluq (A) Assam (B) Madhya Pradesh (C) Firozshah Tughluq (C) Bihar (D) Orissa (D) Sikandar Lodhi 86. According to 2001 Census, literacy rate in 76. The Saka era began in the year Kerala is (A) 58 B.C. (B) 78 B.C. (A) 99.81% (B) 95.81% (C) 58 A.D. (D) 78 A.D. (C) 90.92% (D) 98.81% 77. SirThomas Roe came to India during the 87. Malabar coast is situated between reign of (A) Goa and Kanyakumari (A) Akbar (B) Jahangir (B) Gujarat and Goa (C) Shahjahan (D) Aurangzeb 78. Din-i-llahi promulgated by Akbar in 1582 (C) Ganga delta and Kanyakumari was (D) Nellore and Kanyakumari (A) Islamic doctrine 88. The Summit of the leaders of the Worlds (B) Code of Conduct largest economies known as G-20 held in (C) Hindu law influenced by Islam 2009 in (D) None of the above (A) Paris (B) Washington 79. Which class of Indians was impacted by (C) Moscow (D) London Western culture? 89. What is the name of the telescope which (A) Hindu aristocracy was launched into space on Delta-ll Rocket (B) Muslim aristocracy by the US space agency NASA in 2009? (C) Educated Hindu middle class (A) Hubble (B) Spitzer (D) Educated Muslim middle class (C) James Webb (D) Kepler 80. Who founded the Servants of India Society 90. Who wont the Oscar for the base Should in 1905? Mixing in the film Slumdog Millionaire ? (A) Dadabhai Naoroj (A) A. R. Rehman (B) Gulzar (B) Madan Mohan Malviya (C) Resul Pekutty (D) Anil Kapoor (C) Gopal Krishan Gokhale 91. 108th Constitution Amendment Bill is also (D) Motilal Nehru known as 81. Who started Gurukul Kangri (A) Tadae Bill Vishwavidyalya? (B) Women's ( Reservation of Seats) Bill (A) Swami Dayanand (C) Cooperative Societies Bill (B) Lala Lajpat Rai (D) Lokpal Bill (C) Mahatma Hansraj 92. Heating feuls in the absesce of air is called (D) None of the above "Destructive Distillation" because it breaks 82. The road from Leh to Manali is situated them into components. What we get when atthe height of we do the same to wood? (A) 4500m (B) 3500m (A) Charcoal (B) Acetic acid (C) 4000m (D) 5000m (C) Tar (D) All of them 27th Bihar Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2011 (G.K.) 115

93. The 34th Summit of G-8 was held in (A) Japan (B) Itlay Solved Paper-2011 (C) France (D) Germany (LAW) 94. If the sum of all the forces acting on a moving 1. Objective theory of negligence was given object is zero, the object will by (A) Slow down and stop (B) Change the direction of its motion (A) Salmond (B) Austin (C) Accelerate uniformly (C) Halland (D) Pollock (D) Continue moving with constant 2. In the wrong of negligence there is breach velocity of 95. Bodies falling freely from a high tower have (A) Legal duty of the defendant (A) Equal velocity (B) Legal right of the defendant (B) Equal acceleration (C) Equal momentum (C) Of good faith (D) Equal force (D) None of the above 96. Mirages are seen in deserts on a hot 3. The case of Reyland Vs Fletcher has laid afternoon because of down the principle of (A) Refraction (A) Defamation (B) Total internal reflection (B) Conspiracy (C) Dispersion (D) Diffraction (C) Strict liability of land owner 97. Which of the following gas is responsible (D) None of the above for acid rain? 4. Vidyawati Vs State of Rajasthan is a case (A) CFC (B) Methane Law relating to (C) Ozone (D) S0 2 (A) Tortuous liability of corporations 98. Main constituent of polluting gases coming (B) Tortuous liability of a company S out of the exhaust pipes of motor vehicles is (C) Vicarious Liability of State (A) Carbon dioxide (B) Carbon monoxide (D) None of the above (C) Marsh gas (D) Nitrogen oxide 5. Which out of the following cannot be 99. Mohan’s average score after 4 tests is 89, used as defences in an action for tort? what score in the 5th test would bring his (A) Acts of State average to exactly 90? (B) Judicial acts (A) 94 (B) 93 (C) 92 (D) 91 (C) Statutory authority 100. In year 2000, population of town A was (D) A Tax payer 9400 and that of town B was 7600. Since 6. The delivery of goods by one person to then each year, the population of town A another for some specific purpose is has decreased by 100 and that of town B known as has increased by In which year the (A) Bailment populations of both the towns become (B) Pledge equal? (A) 2118 (B) 2117 (C) Hypothecation (C) 2010 (D) 2009 (D) Mortgage 116 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

7. In case of breach of contract which of the 13. A void contract is one which is followin gremedy is avilable to the (A) Enforceable at the option of one party aggrieved party? (B) Enforceable at the option of both the (A) Suit for recession parties (B) Suit for damages (C) Enforceable at the direction of court (C) Suit for specific performance (D) Not enforceable in the court of Law (D) All of these 14. Tort is a special branch of Law which 8. The law relating to the payment of originated in damages is based on the leading English (A) America (B) France case of (C) India (D) England (A) Hadley V. Baxandale 15. The remedy in case of tort is (B) Hobbs V. London Rly. Co. (A) Deterrent punishment to wrong doer (C) Hadley V. Sullivan (B) Reformation of wrong doer (D) None of these (C) Compensation in money (Damages) 9. On the valid performance of the contractual obligations by the parties, the (D) None of the above contract 16. Gloucestour Grammer School case is (A) Is discharged about (B) Becomes enforceable (A) Damnum Sine Injuria (C) Becomes void (B) Injuria Sine Damnum (D) None of these (C) Contributory negligence 10. A person who supplies ‘Necessaries’ to a (D) Strict liability minor is entitled to be reimbursed from 17. A agrees to sell his scooter worth the property of the minor on the basis of Rs.10,000/- to B for Rs. 5000/- only and as a consent was obtained by coercion. Here (A) Valid contract the agreement is (B) Voidable contract (A) Void (B) Valid (C) Quasi contract (C) Voidable (D) Unlawful (D) Contingent contract 18. The case related to minors agreement is 11. As a general rule, an agreement made void abinitio is without consideration is (A) Carlill V. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co (A) Void (B) Voidable (B) Mohoribibi V. Dharmadas Ghose (C) Valid (D) Unlawful (C) Nash V. Inman 12. A voidable contract is one which (D) None of these (A) Can be enforced at the option of 19. The consent obtained by threatening to aggrieved party commit suicide amounts to consent by (B) Can be enforced at the option of both (A) Coercion the parties (B) Undue influence (C) Cannot be enforced in a court of Law (C) Fraud (D) Courts prohibit (D) None of these 27th Bihar Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2011 (Law) 117

20. A buys from B an original paintings of 26. The case of Abranth V. North Eastern Rly. Piccasso. B refuses to honour his promise. Co. is about On what ground A can specifically (A) Malicious prosecution enforce the contract? (B) Defamation (A) Compensation is not an adequate (C) Strict liability remedy (D) None of the above (B) He loves Piccasso’s paintings 27. Which out of the following does not (C) He wants to make his collections of constitute an exception to the rule in paintings rich Ryland V. Fletcher? (D) None of the above (A) Act of God 21. A enters into contract with B to marry er. (B) Malicious Act of Stranger Can this contract be specifically enforced? (C) Plantiffs own fault (A) Yes (D) Poor condition of land (B) No 28. A orally abuses B, it is a case of (C) With the help of court, yes (A) Libel (D) None of the above (B) Slander 22. The meaning of the maxim UBI-JUS-IBI (C) Both (A) and (B) Remediam is (D) None of Above (A) Where there is a right there is a 29. The Sale of Goods Act, 1930 deals with remedy the (B) Rights and Duties are Co-relative (A) Movable goods only (C) Tort is actionable perse (B) Immovable goods only (D) None of the above (C) Both movable and immovable goods 23. Which out of the following persons is an (D) All goods except ornaments exception who cannot sue for tort? 30. The meaning of the term Caveat Emptor (A) An alien enemy is (B) Husband and wife (A) Let the buyer beware (C) A child in mothers womb (B) Goods should be free from defects (D) A Govt. servant (C) Ownership of goods passes after sale 24. Where the consent of both the parties is (D) None of the above given by mistake, the contract is 31. The unpaid seller can exercise his right of (A) Void (B) Valid lien over the goods for (C) Voidable (D) Illegal (A) Price of goods 25. This agrees to sell his car to B at a price (B) Storage charges which B may be able to pay this (C) Any Lawful charges agreement is– (D) All of these (A) Void (B) Valid 32. The registration of partnership firm with (C) Voidable (D) Contingent the Rejistrar of companiese is 118 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

(A) Compulsory (A) Result of an agreement (B) Optional (B) Organised to carry on business (C) Required under Section 54 (C) Carried on by all or any of them acting for all (D) None of the above (D) Separate legal entity 33. Which of the following is not the right of 39. A Dormant partner is one who is a partner? (A) Entitled to share profits only (A) Right to take part in business (B) Neither active nor known to outsiders (B) Right to have access to account books (C) Not interested in the business of the (C) Right to share profits firm (D) Right to receive remuneration (D) Not liable to outsider 34. A person who receives a negotiable 40. Which of the following is not an implied instrument in good faith and for valuable condition in a contract of sale? consideration is known as (A) Condition as to title (A) Holder (B) Condition as to description (C) Condition as to free from (B) Holder for value encumbrance (C) Holder in due course (D) Condition as to sample (D) Holder in rights 41. The unpaid seller can exercise his right of 35. All Cheques are Bills of Exchange, but all stoppage of goods in transit where the Bills of Exchange are not Cheques buyer (A) True (A) Becomes insolvent (B) Refuses to pay price (B) False (C) Acts fraudulently (C) Partly true and partly false (D) All these (D) None of the above 42. The capital with which the company is 36. The case of Ratlam Municipality V. registered called the Virdhichand is related to (A) Subscribed capital (A) Conspiracy (B) Authorised capital (B) Malicious prosecution (C) Working capital (C) Tortuous liability of Municipal (D) None of these Corporation 43. A general procedure for alteration of articles of association which has the effect (D) None of the above of converting a public company into a 37. Kasturilal V. State of U.P. is related to private company is by passing (A) Contractual liability of State (A) Special resolution and approval of (B) Vicarious liability of State CLB (B) Special resolution and approval of (C) Fraud of State Central Govt. (D) None of the above (C) Ordinary resolution and approval of 38. Which of the following is not an essential CLB feature of partnership? (D) None of the above 27th Bihar Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2011 (Law) 119

44. The power to order rectification of 50. Section 138 of the Negotiable lnstrument register of members vests in the Act deals with (A) Court (A) Punishment for dishonour of cheque (B) Company Law Board (B) Rights of holder (C) Central Govt. (C) Rights of holder in due course (D) Board of Directors (D) None of the above 45. On which of the following grounds a 51. The case of Unnikrishnan Vs State ofAndhra Pradesh deals with which of partner may apply to the court for the following rights? dissolution of the firm? (A) Right to go Abroad (A) Insanity of a partner (B) Right to Education (B) Misconduct of a partner (C) Right to Privacy (C) Perpetual losses in business (D) Right of an environment free from (D) All of the above pollution 46. The Negotiable Instruments Act makes 52. Under which article of the Constitution a specific mention of three instruments, distinguished jurist can be appointed a namely Cheque, Bill of exchange and Judge of Supreme Court? (A) Promissory note (A) Art. 124 (2) (B) Hundi (B) Art. 127 (C) Bank Draft (D) All the above (C) Art. 128 47. Which of the following is not competent (D) Art. 130 to draw a valid negotiable instrument? 53. Writ of Quo Warranto is related with (A) Insolvent (A) Illegal detention of a person (B) Company (B) Want of Jurisdiction of a court (C) Agent (C) Illegal holder of a Public Office (D) Both (B) and (C) (D) None of the above 48. A company in which 51% or more shares 54. The case of State of Bihar Vs. Kameshwar are held by the Govt. is called Sing is related with which of the (A) A Private Comapny following doctrines? (B) A Public Company (A) Doctrine of Basic Structure (C) A Govt. Company (B) Doctrine of Eclipse (D) None of the above (C) Doctrine of pith and substance 49. Which of the following is not the (D) Doctrine of Colourable Legislation charcteristic of a Public Company? 55. Entry 97 of Union list of the Constitution (A) It has a separate legal entity deals with (B) It has a perpetual succession (A) Agriculture (C) It has a common seal and separate (B) Education property (C) Police (D) Its shares are non-transferable (D) Reserved Power 120 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

56. Article 301 of the Constitution is related 62. The doctrine of separation of powers in to the context of English constitution is not (A) Right to property fully applicable because (B) Rights of civil servants (A) Executive is responsible to the Legislature (C) Money bill (B) Legislature is responsible to the (D) Freedom of Inter-State Trade Judiciaty 57. Article 329 of the Constitution deals with (C) Executive and Legislature are (A) Amending power of Parliament Independent to each other (B) Taxing power of Parliament (D) None of the above (C) Delimitation of Electoral 63. The doctrine of rule of law in British constituencies constitution was propounded by (D) None of the above (A) Winston Churchil 58. Article 312 of the Constitution is related (B) Douglas Home to (C) Jenning (A) Constitution of all India Services (D) Prof. Dicey (B) Powers of Chief Election 64. The customs, usages and traditions in Commissioner British constitution are known as (C) Breach of Parliamentary privileges (A) Rule of law (D) None of the above (B) Supremacy of the Parliament 59. Under the Govt. of India’s Act 1935, how (C) Conventions of the Constitution many Governors provinces and Chief Commissioners provinces constituted in (D) None of the above British India? 65. The two Houses of British Parliament are (A) l4 and 7 (A) House of Commons and Senate (B) 11 and 7? (B) Senate and House of Lords (C) l5 and 9 (C) House of Commons and Diet (D) None of the above (D) House of Commons and House of Lords 60. The nature of power of Parliament to 66. Which out of the following does not punish any person for breach of its constitute basic structure of the privilege is Constitution? (A) Judicial (A) Right to Equality (B) Administrative (B) Secularism (C) Quasi Judicial (C) Judicial review (D) None of the above (D) Right to speedy trial 61. Delegatus non Potest Delagare means 67. Automobiles Ltd.Vs State of Rajasthan is (A) A delegate can further delegate its a case related to powers (A) Federalism (B) Delegated legislation is valid (B) Amendability of the Constitution (C) A delagate cannot further delegate his (C) Judicial review powers (D) Freedom of trade, commerce and (D) None of the above intercourse 27th Bihar Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2011 (Law) 121

68. As a gurdian of the Govt. of India Act, 1935 74. Under which article of the Constitution, a court was constituted which was called a State can impose tax on Inter-State trade with the prior approval of the (A) Privy Council President? (B) Supreme Court (A) Art. 302 (B) Art.303(1) (C) High Court (C) Art.303(11) (D) Art. 304 (b) (D) Federal Court 75. Article 300 of the Constitution deals with 69. The Mountbaten plan led to the (A) Tortuous and contractual liability of enactment of State (A) Govt. of India Act, 1919 (B) Rightto Property (B) Govt. of India Act, 1935 (C) Freedom of trade and commerce (C) The Indian Independence Act, 1947 (D) Parliamentaiy privileges 76. In civil proceedings, ordinarily a civil (D) None of the above judge is required to deliver judgements 70. The Acts of l9ll and 1948 has made within ninety days of the conclusion of (A) The House of Commons powerless hearing, this was proposed by (B) The House of Lords powerless (A) Amendment Act of 1976 (C) The House of Lords most powerful (B) Amendment Act of 1999 (C) Amendment Act of 2002 (D) None of the above (D) None of the above 71. The Concurrent list of the Constitution 77. From which date Civil Procedure Code has 1908 became operative? (A) 52 Entries (B) 99 Entries (A) 1st January, 1908 (C) 107 Entries (B) lst April, 1908 (D) None of the above (C) 31st December, 1908 72. The doctrine of rule of law in England (D) 1st Januar 1909 means 78. Under which provision of Civil Procedure (A) Absence of Arbitrary powers 78. Code, a High Court can transfer a case? (B) Absence of discretionary powers (A) Section 25 C.P.C. (C) Supremacy of droit administratiff (B) Section 20 C.P.C. (D) None of the above (C) Section 12 C.P.C. 73. The provision relating to the Federal (D) Section 15 C.P.C. Structure can be amended by Parliament 79. Which out of the following is not covered (A) By simple majority under ‘State’ of Article 12 of the Constitution? (B) By 2/3rd majority (A) Central Govt. (C) By assolute majority (B) State Govt. (D) By 2/3rd majority of members present and voting and ratlfication by helf of (C) University of Patna the state. (D) A Deity 122 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

80. No person shall be twice punished for the 87. Out of the followIng which is not a same offence is incorprated in secondary evidence? (A) Art. 19 1(F) (A) Copies made from the original by (B) Art. 20 (2) mechanical process (C) Art. 22 (B) Copies made from or compared with the original (D) Art. 368 (C) Oral accounts of the contents of a 81. Which out of the following is not a right document given by a person who has covered by Art. 21 of the Constitution? himself seen it. (A) Right to Health (D) Oral account of a Pahotograph (B) Right to Education 88. Facts forming part of the same (C) Right to safe drinking water Transanction are known as (D) Right to Strike (A) Plea of Alibi 82. Who out of the following can not be (B) Dying Declaration appointed as arbitrator? (C) Admission (A) A person of sound mind (D) Res Gestae (B) A person who has attained the age of 89. The term Judicial confession means majority (A) It is made before a Police Officer (C) A person who has an interest in the subject matter of dispute (B) It is caused by inducement threat or (C) It is made before any court Officer (D) A person of good character (D) It is made before a Magistrate 83. Under which section of Cr.P.C. a Magistrate can arrest a person? are 90. Under which Section of Cr.P.C a Police known as Officer can release an accused on bail in non-bailable case? (A) Section 38 (B) Section 40 (A) Section 336 (B) Section 337 (C) Section 41 (D) Section 44 (C) Section 436 (D) Section 437 84. In which Section of Indian Evidence Act the Plea of Alibi is laid down? 91. Section 482 Cr.P.C deals with (A) Section 7 (B) Section 26 (A) Injunction (C) Section 49 (D) Section 11 (B) Arrest of a proclaimed offender (C) Appellate Powers of High Court 85. Under which Section of Evidence Act, confession before Police is not admissible? (D) Inherent powers of High Court (A) Section 25 (B) Section 32 92. By which amendment, the words Secular and Socialist were included in the (C) Section 20 (D) Section 21 preamble? 86. In criminal Proceedings, the fact that the (A) lstAmendment person accused is of good character is relevant according to (B) 6th Amendment (A) Section 53 (B) Section 54 (C) 42nd Amefldment (C) Section 55 (D) Section 56 (D) 44th Amendment 27th Bihar Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2011 (Law) 123

93. Under which Section of C.P.C. a notice is 101. When is Iddat observed for three months 9, required to be given at least two (A) On the death of husband months before filing a suit against a Central or State Government? (B) On the death of husband of pregnant (A) Section 50 C.P.C. woman (B) Section 51 C.P.C. (C) On Divorce (C) Section 80 C.P.C. (D) On Invalid marriage (D) Section 81 C.P.C. 102. Talaq which cannot be revoked after 94. A person who is appointed to protect the pronouncement, is called disputed property is known as (A) Talaq-ul Bain (A) Ajudgement debtor (B) Talaq-I Tufweez (B) Commissioner (C) Talaq-I-Iddat (C) Receiver (D) Talaq Hasan (D) A pauper 95. The Arbitration and Conciliation Act 103. Who has no right of maintenance? was enacted in (A) Unmarried Daughter (A) 1908 (B) 1940 (B) Poor Parents (C) 1996 (D) 2002 (C) Physically disabled major son 96. Presumption as to dowty death is laid (D) Widow Daughter down (A) Section 113-B (B) Section 114 104. Which out of the following is not immovable property according to T.P. (C) Section 117 (D) Section 118 Act, 1882? 97. In which section, doctrine of dying declaratio is found? (A) Land (A) Section 16 (B) Section 27 (B) Benefits to arise Out of land (C) Section 32 (D) Section 41 (C) Things attached to earth 98. Under which article of the Constitution (D) Standing timber (A) Art.3 (B) Art. 4 105. Which of the following does not (C) Art. 5 (D) Art. 368 Constitute exception to the rule against 99. In which section of Indian Evidence Act, perpetuity? opinion of third person is relevant? (A) Where a property is transferred for (A) Section 14 (B) Section 34 the benefit of the public (C) Section 44 (D) Section 45 (B) A lease with a covenant for renewal 100. A sues B for Rs. 1000 and shows entries in his account book showing B to be (C) It does not apply to vested interests indebted to him to this amount. This (D) A find is bequeathed to next seven entry is generations (A) Not relevant 106. The Law regarding transfer by ostensible (B) Relevant owner is laid down in (C) Does not have evidentiary value (A) Section 39 (B) Section 41 (D) Inadmissible (C) Section 45 (D) Section 53 124 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

107. Under which section of the Trust Act, 1882 114. Which out of the following is not a kind the defination of the breach of trust is of mortgage? provided? (A) Mortgage by conditional sale (A) 1 (B) 2 (B) Usufructuary mortgage (C) 3 (D) 5 (C) English mortgage 108. As a general rule what is the liability of a trustee for brench of trust by co-trustee? (D) Subrogation (A) Fully liable (B) Partially liable 115. What is the meaning of the maxim equity (C) No liability acts in personam? (D) None of the above (A) Equity enforces its behest by acting 109. The term ces-tui_que trust was used by on the conscience of the person who (A) Queen’s Court is charged therewith (B) High Court (B) Equity looks on that as done which (C) Court of Equity ought to have been done (D) None of the above (C) Where there is equal equity the Law 110. Who out of the following cannot create a still prevail turst ? (D) None of the above (A) A person of 2l years of age 116. Who gave the following comment? “Trust (B) An advocate is very centre and kernel of Equity” (C) A minor (A) Bacon (B) Story (D) A juristic person (C) Snell (D) Hanbury 111. Who will be Guardian of a minor under 117. The term actionable claim does not Muslim Law? include any one of the following : (A) Mother (A) Claim for arrears of rent (B) Father (B) A share in partnership (C) Executor appointed will on death of father (C) The right to the proceed of business (D) Grand father (D) A debt secured by mortgage of 112. The Guardian who does not possess the immovable property right of transfer of property of a minor 118. Which out of the following is not a transfer (A) Natural Guardian according to T.P. Act? (B) De-Facto Guardian (A) Sale (C) Legal Guardian (B) Gift (D) Guardian appointed by Court (C) Exchange 113. The doctrine of part performance is based (D) Abandonment of a claim to property on (A) Section 53A 119. “Equity had come not to destroy the Law but fulfill it”— who said this? (B) Section 54 (C) Section 57(B) (A) Maitland (B) Potter (D) None of the above (C) Salmond (D) Snell 27th Bihar Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2011 (Law) 125

120. The meaning of the maxim “Equality is 126. Out of the following which is not a Void Marriage? (A) Equity delights in equity (A) That at the time of the Marriage either (B) Delay defeats equity party has a spouse (C) Equity looks to the intent rather to (B) The parties are sapindas to each other the form (C) The parties are within prohibited (D) None of the above degree of relationship 121. The literary meaning of Lis Pendens is (D) That either party is of bad character (A) A suit under consideration of any 127. A Hindu female can adopt a male child court of law but, she must be senior to the child by at (B) A previous decision bars the least subsequent filing of the suit (A) 12 years (B) 14 years (C) Exception to Doctrine of Res-judicata (C) 18 years (D) 21 years (D) None of the above 128. Which out of the following is not a ground, which allows a guardian to give 122. Which Section of T.P. Act bars fraudulent a child in adoption? transfer? (A) If both the parents are dead (A) Section 43 (B) Section 53 (B) If parties have finally renounced the (C) Section 63 (D) Section 71 world 123. Out of the following, which is a actionable (C) If parents have been declared claim? judicially to be of unsound mind (A) Mortgage debt (B) Mesne profit (D) If parents are illiterate (C) Decree (D) Provident fund 129. Marriage by a Muslim with his real sister 124. A gift of immovable property can be given is (A) Void (B) Voidable (A) By delivery of immovable property (C) Valid (D) Invalid (B) By written instrument 130. In Muslim Law (C) By delivery and registration of (A) Payment of Meher is necessary document (B) Payment of Meher is not necessary (D) None of the above (C) Meher is to be paid on demand before 125. Which out of the following does not marriage constitute agricultural lease? (D) Meher is determined after marriage (A) A lease for rearing tea plants 131. What type of Muslim marriage is which (B) A lease for cultivation of Indigo is performed temporarily for enjoyment? (C) A lease for cultivation of potatoes (A) Batil (B) Sahih (D) A lease for gathering fruits from trees (C) Muta (D) Fasid 126 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

132. The writ of Habeas corpus means (B) Growth of delegated legislation (A) To produce the Body of a person (C) Parliamentary control of delegated illegally detained before a Court legislation (B) Respect the Human Rights of a person (D) None of the above (C) Stop the violation of a right of a man 138. Marriage with Eunuch is regarded as (D) None of the above (A) Illegal (B) Legal 133. The writ of Certiorari can be issued (C) Void (D) Voidable against 139. Marriage in Muslim Law (A) A person exercising purely (A) A Sacrament administrative powers (B) A Civil Contract (B) Against a Minister (C) A Sacrament and a Civil Contract (C) Against any Quasi Judicial or Judicial both authority (D) A Social Status (D) None of the above 140. What is the age of Puberty for Muslim 134. The term Ombudsman in English marriage? Adminstrative Law means (A) 9 years (B) 12 years (A) A Parliamentary Commissioner (C) l5 years (D) 18 years (B) Vigilance Commissioner of England 141. Two important principles of Natural Justice in the British administrative law (C) Speaker of House of Commons are (D) None of the above (A) Doctrine of Bias and Doctrine of 135. Act of State can be questioned and Hearing challanged in (B) Doctrine of Bias and Right of cross (A) Privy Council examination (B) Queens Court (C) Personal Bias and cross examination (C) High Court (D) None of the above 142. Which out of the following is not modern (D) None of the above source of Hindu Law? 136, During the operation of Martial Law (A) Equity, Justice and good Conscience (A) The citizens important rights are (B) Precedent suspended (C) Legislation (B) Parliament is dissolved (D) Custom (C) Civilian Govt. is suspended 143. The Nature of Marriage of a Impotent (D) None of the above Person is 137. The Statutory Instrurnents Act 1946 (A) Void ensures (B) Voidable (A) Judicial control of delegated (C) Illegal legislation (D) None of the above 27th Bihar Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2011 (Law) 127

144. The Crown Proceeding Act was enacted (A) Gifts from relatives in (B) Property purchased with Stridhan (A) 1935 (B) 1942 (C) Property obtained in lieu of (C) 1945 (D) 1947 maintenance 145. The highest court in British Constitution (D) Gifts of immovable property by is called husband 150. The legal status of a mahant of ‘Math’ is (A) Privy Council (A) A Trustee (B) High Court (B) Corporation sole (C) Supreme Court (C) Owner of ‘Maths’ property (D) House of Lords (D) Manager of ‘Math’ 146. The Fundamental Rights in England are given to citizens by  (A) The written constitution (B) By conventions of the Constitution PUBLISHING SOON (C) By judicial decisions (D) None of the above SOLVED PAPER 147. Hindu Law is not applicable in which of WITH SHORT EXPLAINATIONS the following cases? BIHAR (APO) PRE. EXAM PAPERS (A) Any person who is a Hindu, Jam, Sikh or Bhuddhist by religion [2009-2013] (B) Any person who is born of Hindu parents (C) Any person who is not a Muslim, Christian, Parsi or Jew (D) Members of the scheduled tribes coming within clause (25) of Art. 366 of the Constitution of india. PUBLISHING SOON 148. Which out of the following does not fall SOLVED PAPER Within the meaning of the term ‘Avyavaharika’ debt? BIHAR CIVIL JUDGE & APO (A) An Immoral debt (MAINS) EXAM (B) An Illegal debt (C) A debt resulting from Tortuous act [2009-2019] (D) Suretyship debt 149. Which out of the following is not regarded as ‘Stridhan’ by Shastric Hindu Law? 128 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS 28th Bihar Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2013 (Solved Paper) (G.K. & Law)

7. Raja Ram Mohan Roy was the editor of Solved Paper—2013 (A) Samvad Kaumudi General Knowledge (G.K.) (B) Navashakti (C) Yugantar 1. In 1946, there was a mutiny of Indian naval (D) Vande Mataram ratings in 8. Satya Sodhak Samaj was founded by (A) Calcutta (B) Madras (A) Shahuji Maharaj (C) Vishakhapatnam (D) Bombay (B) B.R. Ambedkar 2. Which commission recommended the (C) JyotibaPhule Famine Code for India? (D) JagjivanRam (A) Campbell Commission 9. During the. British rule, according to which (B) MacDonnell Commission Act, there was permission to arrest without (C) Strachey Commission fair trial? (D) Lyall Commission (A) RowlattAct 3. What proposal was made in the ‘August (B) Sedition Act, 1870 Offers’of 1940? (C) Hindu Code Bill (A) Complete Independence for India (D) Ilbert Bill gradually 10. Who had led the Santhal Revolt? (B) Dominion Status (A) Sido and Kanhu (C) Provincial Autonomy (B) Dolta Ramosi and Birsa (D) Representative Government at the (C) Jatra Bhagat and Jundu Bhagat Centre (D) Motilal Tejavat and Surendra Sai 4. Who had made English language as a 11. The author, who described the Revolt of medium of education? 1857 as the First War of Independence, was (A) Lord Macaulay, 1838 (B) Sir Charles Wood, 1854 (A) Ashok Mehta (B) R.C. Majumdar (C) Lord Clive, 1857 (C) S.N. Sen (D) V.D. Savarkar (D) Lord Curzon, 1899 12. The leaders of the Home Rule Movement 5. In 1946 AD, the Interim Government was borrowed the term ‘Home Rule’ from a headed by similar movement in (A) Liyakat Ali (A) Ireland (B) Jawaharlal Nehru (B) Scotland (C) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (C) United States of America (D) Lord Mountbatten (D) Canada 6. What was established by Indian 13. Rabindranath Tagore gave up his Association to increase national spirit Knighthood because of thereby playing an important role? (A) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (A) Indian National Congress (B) brutal suppression of Civil (B) Bengal British Indian Society Disobedience Movement (C) Indian national Conference (C) execution of Bhagat Singh (D) British India Association (D) Chauri-Chaura incident 28th Bihar Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2013 (G.K.) 129

14. Who was the founder of Anusheelan Samiti (A) the Servants of Indian Society in Bengal? (B) the Theosophical Society (A) Pramatha Mitra (C) the Deccan Education Society (B) Aurobindo Ghosh (D) the Social Service League (C) Prafulla Chaki 24. Who started the Journal ‘Bahiskrit Bharat’? (D) Khudiram Bose (A) JyotibaPhule (B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar 15. Who was the first woman president of (C) Karsandas Mulji (D) Bhandaji Indian National Congress? 25. In Buddhist terminology, the word (A) Sarojini Naidu (B) Annie Besant ‘Dharmachakra Pravartana’ indicates the (C) Sucheta Kriplani (D) Madame Cama (A) belief in the cycle of life and death 16. Who was the author of Economic History (B) attainment of Nirvana by Buddha of India (1901)? (C) first sermon by Buddha (A) R.C. Dutta (B) M. Vishveswaraiya (D) personal religion of the Chakravarti (C) N.G. Ranga (D) D.R.Gadgil 26. Which one of the following sculptures does 17. Who had presided over the first All India not belong to the Mauryan period? Trade Union Congress session? (A) M.N. Joshi (B) M.N. Roy (A) Saranath lion capital (C) Lala Lajpat Rai (D) S.A. Dange (B) Dhauli elephant 18. Who was the founder of Hindu College at (C) Standing Buddha from Mathura Calcutta? (D) Rampurvabull (A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy 27. Squinch system in architecture for (B) Keshav Chandra Sen supporting the dome was used for the first (C) Henri Viviyan Derojiyo time In (D) Ashutosh Chaudhary (A) Iltutmish’s tomb 19. Where did Mahatma Gandhi first used his (B) Alai Darvaza principle of Satyagraha? (C) GhiyasuddinTughluq’stomb (A) Champaran (Bihar) (D) Humayun’s tomb (B) Kheda (Gujarat) 28. Samudragupta’s victories are mentioned In (C) Ahmedabad Mill strike which records? (D) RowlattAct (A) Mathura Rock Edicts 20. Who was the founder of India’s first cotton (B) Gimar Inscriptions cloth mill? (C) Aihole Inscriptions (A) Kavasaji N’anaji Dabhar (D) Allahabad Inscription (B) Jamshedji Tata 29. Who was the author of Abhigyana (C) Ranchodlal Mehta Shakuntalam? (D) Nanji Kalidas Mehta (A) Kalidas (B) Sanghadas 21. Who was the famous painter in the court of (C) Harisen (D) Rajshekhar Akbar? (A) Abdursamad (B) Mansur 30. The Third Buddhist Council was (C) Abul Hasan (D) Bihjad summoned by 22. The Asiatic Society of Bengal was founded (A) Chandragupta Maurya (B) Ashok by (C) Bimbisar (D) Kanishka (A) Ram Mohan Roy (B) Sir William Jones 31. During the Sangam age the Mahabharat in (C) W.W. Hunter (D) William Bentinck Tamil was composed by 23. The famous Fergusson College of Pune was (A) Perundevanar (B) Villiputhur started in 1885 by (C) Kamban (D) Kuttan 130 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

32. The Delhi Sultan, who established a 42. What is the total length of Kaveri river? minister of agricultural development, was (A) 381 km (B) 357 km (A) Balban (C) 802 km (D) 64 km (B) Muhammad Tughluq 43. Amarkantak, source place of Son, Narmada (C) Alauddin Khalji and Mahanadi rivers is situated at (D) Firuz Tughluq (A) Maikala range (B) Makalu range 33. The Vijayanagar Emperor, who made the (C) Rajmahal hills (D) Mahadeo hills greatest contribution to Telugu and Sanskrit 44. Through which of the following districts of literature, was Madhya Pradesh Indian Standard Time (A) Devarayal (B) Devarayall Line passes? (C) Krishnadevaraya (D) Ramraya (A) Bilaspur (B) Jabalpur 34. Yahiya Sirhindi the author of Tarikh-i- (C) Mandla (D) Bhopal Mubarakshahi lived during the period of 45. On which river Bhakhra dam is situated? (A) Lodis (B) Sayidds (C) Tughluqs (D) Khaljis (A) Ravi (B) Beas 35. The Satnamis who rebelled in the time of (C) Jhelum (D) Satluj Aurangzeb and occupied the town of 46. Average height of Kosi plain from mean sea Narmaul were the followers of level is (A) Kabir (B) Dadu (A) 300 m (B) 150 m (C) Guru Nanak (D) Ravidas (C) 100 m (D) 30 m 36. Dandakaranya receives maximum rain 47. Through which State Tropic of Cancer through passes? (A) summer cyclone (A) Meghalaya (B) Uttar Pradesh (B) retreating monsoon (C) Bihar (D) Orissa (C) winter cyclone 48. In which State Lumding is situated? (D) local storm (A) Assam (B) Arunachal Pradesh 37. Small rills or clefts found in lower Ganga (C) Manipur (D) Nagaland delta are called 49. Which State of India experiences maximum (A) khal (B) khadera marine erosion? (C) khari (D) khor (A) Kerala (B) Gujarat 38. Which river is called the ‘Hope of Gujarat’? (C) West Bengal (D) Maharashtra (A) Sabarmati (B) Narmada 50. Which is the glacial lake of India? (C) Tapti (D) Mahi (A) Manasarovar (B) Siachen 39. Which is the oldest drainage system? (C) Dal (D) Wular (A) Chambal (B) Indo-Brahma 51. Who is known as the Father of (C) Ganga (D) Kosi International Green Revolution? 40. Which of the following oil refineries of India has the maximum capacity? (A) Norman Borlaug (A) Koyali (B) Trombay (B) M.S. Swaminathan (C) Barauni (D) Mathura (C) ErikAcharius 41. What is the number of the longest national (D) Peter Artedi highway in India that passes through 52. Which of the following days is celebrated Jabalpur? as the World Earth Day? (A) NH 13 (B) NH 07 (A) January 22 (B) February 22 (C) NH 33 (D) NH 42 (C) March 22 (D) April 22 28th Bihar Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2013 (G.K.) 131

53. Who is the present Director General of 62. Who is the current head of IMF? Indian Council of Agriculture Research (A) Dominique Strauss-Kahn (ICAR)? (B) Robert Zoellick (A) Dr. R.S. Paroda (C) Christine Lagarde (B) Dr. Mangala Rai (D) Ban Ki-moon (C) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan 63. Which of the following services has been (D) Dr. S. Ayyappan recently launched by the Indian Railways 54. The present President of NASSCOM is to find out the location of 6500 trains on (A) Pramod Bhasin (B) Som Mittal real­time basis on Google Map? (C) Ashok Soota (D) Ganesh Natarajan (A) Rail Map (B) RailLoc 55. Which of the following represents the (C) Rail Search (D) Rail Radar number of the member countries of ‘Euro 64. The California-based firm ‘Apple’ has lost a Zone’? case against mobile maker HTC in the UK (A) 12 (B) 14 over the same technology. HTC belongs to (C) 17 (D) 18 (A) South Korea (B) China 56. Who among the following personalities (C) Germany (D) Taiwan won the Nobel Prize in Literature for the 65. Who won Women’s Singles Family Circle year 2012? Cup in 2013? (A) Liu Xiaobo (B) MoYan (A) Maria Sharapova (B) Jelena Jankovic (C) Gao Xingjian (D) Mario Vargas Llosa (C) Serena Williams (D) Jelena Vesnina 57. Who among the following is the President 66. Who won the 12th Asian Billiards of the International Paralympics Championship in Indore? Committee? (A) Alok Kumar (B) Rupesh Shah (A) Philip Craven (C) Ashok Shandilya (D) Devendra Joshi (B) Jacques Rogge 67. The Chairman of the Expert Committee on GAAR (General Anti Avoidance Rules) is (C) John W. Mitchell (A) Y.V. Reddy (D) Stephen Kalonzo Musyoka (B) Sri Kumar Banerjee 58. Which of the following Five-Year Plans was (C) Parthasarathi Shome called the Rolling Plans? (D) Vayalar Ravi (A) Fifth Five-Year Plan 68. ‘Aam Admi Bima Yojana’ is an insurance (B) Sixth Five-Year Plan scheme for rural landless households (C) Ninth Five-Year Plan introduced by (D) Seventh Five-Year Plan (A) National Insurance Co. 59. 16th Non-Aligned Movement Summit was (B) Life Insurance Corporation of India held at (C) NABARD (A) Tehran (B) Baghdad (D) Rural Insurance Co. (C) Cairo (D) Riyadh 69. Dans le Harem de Kadhafi is a book written 60. ‘Liaoning’ is the first aircraft carrier of by (A) China (B) Japan (A) Annick Cojean (B) Larry Ellison (C) India (D) Sri Lanka (C) Jeff Bezos (D) Lewis Hamilton 61. Who among the following is the brand 70. Where would you find the headquarters of ambassador of the ‘Nirmal Bharat Yatra’? Food & Agriculture Organization (FAO)? (A) Priyanka Chopra (B) Vidya Balan (A) London (B) Berlin (C) Rahul Dravid (D) Salman Khan (C) Rome (D) New York 132 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

71. Which of the following statements is 80. Which of the following carbohydrates wrong? would be most abundant in the diet of strict (A) Fermentation process occurs in presence vegetarians? of enzymes (A) Amylose (B) Lactose (B) Fermentation process occurs in presence (C) Cellulose (D) Maltose of oxygen 81. What will be the measure of refractive angle (C) Decomposition of organic compound when incident angle becomes critical angle? occurs in fermentation process (A) smaller than 90° (B) 90° (D) Carbon dioxide gas is produced in (C) greater than 90° (D) 180° 1 fermentation process 82. Velocity of light in vacuum is ms- . 6 8 72. From the visible light, chlorophyll can (A) 3 x 10 (B) 3 x 10 10 15 absorb which color combination (C) 3 x 10 (D) 3 x 10 maximum? 83. Which color is deviated maximum in the (A) Green-yellow (B) Yellow-purple spectrum obtained from a prism? (C) Red-orange (D) Green-purple (A) Red (B) Yellow 73. Which of the following is an omnivorous (C) Violet (D) Blue 84. The unit of electric potential is animal? (A) volt (B) joule (A) Rabbit (B) Tiger (C) watt (D) ampere (C) Deer (D) Rat 85. The magnetic field is maximum in solenoid 74. The digested food is absorbed by the wall (A) at the end of (B) on the axis (A) buccal cavity (B) stomach (C) at the infinite distance (C) rectum (D) ileum (D) none of the above 75. Which accessory digestive gland is present 86. Which form is considered as an optional in human being? source of energy? (A) Buccal cavity (B) Stomach (A) Geothermal energy (B) Natural gas (C) Liver (D) Pancreas (C) Hydrogen (D) Petroleum 76. Which reaction occurs during 87. Which State of India uses geothermal photophosphorylation? energy? (A) Synthesis of ATP from ADP (A) Gujarat (B) Rajasthan (B) Synthesis of ADP from ATP (C) Maharashtra (D) Madhya Pradesh (C) Synthesis of NADPH2 from NADP 88. Which energy source is not connected to the (D) Synthesis of NADP from NADPH2 sun? 77. Which rays strikes on the earth due to (A) Hydel energy (B) Petroleum depletion of ozone layer? (C) Nuclear energy (D) Biogas (A) Ultraviolet (B) Infrared 89. Due to which process, stars are self- (C) Visible light (D) UV and infrared luminous? 78. The length of one helix in DNA is (A) Chemical reaction (B) Nuclear fission (A) 14 A (B) 24 A (C) Radiation (D) Nuclear fusion (C) 34 A (D) 44 A 90. Which system is employed for manufacture

79. The average size of a human gene is of NH3 by Haber’s process? (A) 1000 bp (B) 40000 bp (A) Open system (B) Closed system (C) 2106 bp (D) 1510 bp (C) Isolated system (D) None of the above 28th Bihar Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2013 (G.K.) 133

91. When does the rate of reaction increases? (A) On increasing the pressure of the system Solved Paper-2013 (B) On decreasing the pressure of the (LAW) system 1. A music teacher committing sexual (C) On decreasing the temperature of the intercourse with a minor girl having system obtained her consent on the pretext that the (D) When the collision between reactant same is required to improve her voice, was molecules decreases held guilty of rape in 92. What is brine? (A) Rv. Cathrine (A) Cold solution of concentrated NaCl (B) Ashby v. White

(B) Concentrated NH3 solution (C) Dounghe v. Stevension (C) Aqueous solution with carbonate (D) R v. Williams

(D) Aqueous solution of NH4C1 2. The doctrine of vicarious liabilities is 93. Which substance is used as a fire applied when there is relationship between extinguisher? (A) principal and agent (A) NaCl (B) Na S0 (B) servant and independent contractor 2 3 (C) master and servant (C) NaNO2 (D) NaHCO2 94...... is called dead burnt plaster. (D) All of the above (A) Anhydrous calcium sulphate 3. For the tort of ‘false imprisonment’, there should be (B) Hydrous calcium sulphate (A) total restraint on the liberty of a person (C) Anhydrous sodium carbonate (B) partial restraint on the liberty of a (D) Hydrous sodium carbonate person 95. Which type of glass is used for the (C) means of escape preparation of laborartory glass? (D) All of the above (A) Optical glass (B) Pyrex glass 4. Tort of defamation is divided into libel and (C) Sodium glass (D) Safety glass slander in 96. Which elements are present in stainless (A) English Law only steel? (B) Indian Law only (A) Iron and nickel (C) both Indian Law and English Law (B) Iron, chromium and nickel (D) None of the above (C) Iron and chromium 5. ‘Nuisance’ as a tort was defined as (D) Iron, nickel and manganese “unlawful interference with a person’s use 97. Which compound of the following is not an or enjoyment of land, or some right over, or oxidizing agent? in connection with it” by (A) NaBH (B) KMn0 (A) Winfield (B) Salmond 4 4 (C) Pollock (D) Underhill (C) Cr0 (D) Fehling solution 3 6. Tort of defamation can be in respect of a 98. Which metal is obtained in liquid state? (A) living person only (A) Sodium (B) Galium (B) deceased person (C) Tin (D) Uranium (C) Both (A) and (B) 99. Which is the less reactive metal? (D) Either (A) or (B) (A) Magnesium (B) Potassium 7. Which one of the following can be described (C) Sodium (D) Calcium as malicious prosecution? 100. Which enzyme is used to convert glucose (A) Criminal Proceeding to ethanol? (B) Money Recovery Proceeding (A) Invertase (B) Zymase (C) Bankruptcy Proceeding (C) Lactase (D) Yeast (D) Liquidation Proceeding 134 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

8. The liability for malicious prosecution 16. Which of the following are goods within the arises when the proceedings are instituted meaning of Section 2(7) of the Sale of Goods before Act, 1930? (A) judicial authority (A) Things attached to land which are (B) executive authority agreed to be severed before sale’ (C) quasi-judicial authority (D) Both (A) and (C) (B) Things forming part of the land agreed 9. The doctrine of res ipsa loquiturvias applied to be severed before sale. by the Supreme Court in (C) Either (A) or (B) (A) Jasbir Kaur vVState of Punjab (D) Neither (A) nor (B) (B) Alka v. Union of India 17. The mode of determining the existence of (C) Asha Ram v. Municipal Corporation of partnership has been laid down in Delhi (A) Section 5 (B) Section 6 (D) Muncipal Corporation of Delhi v. (C) Section 9 (D) Section 10 Subhagwanti 10. The maxim res ipsa loquitur is a 18. If a partner chooses to use any assets of the (A) rule of law partnership firm for his own purpose, it (B) rule of procedure gives rise to (C) rule of evidence (A) civil liability of the partner (D) rule of negligence (B) criminal liability of the partner 11. Case of Kasturilal v. State of UP is related to (C) Both (A) and (B) (A) fraud of State (D) Either (A) or (B) (B) contractual liability of State 19. The term ‘goodwill’ is a thing easy to (C) vicarious liability of State describe but very difficult to define, is stated (D) None of the above 12. ‘Goods’ within the meaning of Section 2(7) by of the Sale of Goods Act is (A) Lord Herschell (B) Lord Heldaene (A) actionable claim (C) Lord Macnaughten (D) Lord Eldon (B) money 20. Where a partner is authorised to recover (C) Both (A) and (B) dues of the partnership and spend the same (D) Neither (A) nor (B) for the business of the partnership, and if 13. Under Section 2(6) of the Sale of Goods Act, he does not deposit the money so collected 1930, ‘Future Goods’ mean in the bank, the partner is (A) goods which are not yet in existence (A) guilty of criminal breach of trust (B) unascertained goods (C) ascertained goods (B) accountable civilly to the other partners (D) specific goods (C) Both (A) and (B) 14. The Sale of Goods Act, 1930 came into force (D) Either (A) or (B) on 21. A dormant partner is one who is (A) 1st July, 1930 (A) not interested in the business of the firm (B) 1st December, 1930 (B) not liable to outsider (C) 1st April, 1930 (C) entitled to share profits only (D) 31st January, 1931 (D) neither active nor known to outsiders 15. The meaning of the term ‘caveat emptor’ is (A) goods should be free from defect 22. The term ‘negotiable instrument’ is defined (B) ownership of goods passes after sale in the Negotiable Instrument Act, under (C) let the buyer be aware (A) Section 2(d) (B) Section 12 (D) none of the above (C) Section 13 (D) Section 13A 28th Bihar Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2013 (Law) 135

23. Relation of Section 138 of the Negotiable (A) Memorandum of Association Instruments Act, 1881 is with (B) Share Capital (A) right of holder (C) Prospectus (B) right of holder in due course (D) Certificate of Incorporation (C) punishment for dishonour of cheque 30. How many meetings of the shareholders of (D) None of the above a company in a year is essential? 24. A person who receives a negotiable (A) 4 (B) 2 instrument in good faith for valuable (C) 3 (D) 1 consideration is known as 31. How much amount out of the profits of a company can be distributed as dividend (A) holder of value amongst its shareholders? (B) holder (A) 10% (B) 15% (C) holder in rights (C) 5% (D) Not fixed (D) holder in due course 32. Evidence means and includes 25. All cheques are bill of exchange, but all bills (A) only oral evidence of exchange are not cheques (B) only documentary evidence (A) False (C) both oral evidence and documentary (B) Partly true and partly false evidence (C) True (D) only such oral evidence based on (D) None of the above documents 26. In determining reasonable time for the 33. Any disputed handwriting can be proved purpose of a negotiable instrument (A) by calling a handwriting expert (A) public holidays are excluded (B) by calling a person who is acquainted (B) public holidays are included with the handwriting of the writer (C) only the holidays observed by banks ore (C) by comparing the admitted and excluded disputed handwriting (D) None of the above (D) All of the above 27. ‘A shareholder of a company can enter into 34. Question is this, whether A was raped and a contract with the company’ was held In murdered? The fact that she said, without the case of making complaint, that she was raped (A) Solomon v. Solomon (A) will be relevant as conduct (B) will be relevant as substantial evidence (B) Daimler Co. v. Continental Tyre (C) will be relevant as secondary evidence Company (D) can be relevant under Section 32(1) or (C) Ashbury Railway Carriage and Iron Co. Section 157 of the Evidence Act v. Rick L.R. 35. The Indian Evidence Act was drafted by (D) S.T. Corporatiorrof India v. Commercial (A) Lord Macaulay Tax Officer (B) Sir James F. Stephen 28. Liability of directors of a public company (C) Huxley is towards (D) Sir Henry Summermaine (A) shareholder the company 36. Relevancy and admissibility under the (B) public Evidence Act are (C) government (A) synonymous (D) Company Law Board (B) coextensive 29. Which of the following is most essential fora (C) neither synonymous nor coextensive company? (D) None of the above 136 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

37. Under the law of evidence, the relevant fact 44. Validity of a foreign judgement can be (A) must be logically relevant challenged under Section 13 of the CPC (B) must be legally relevant (A) in a civil court only (C) must be legally and logically relevant (B) in a criminal court only (D) must be legally and logically relevant (C) both in civil court and in criminal court and admissible (D) neither in civil court nor in criminal 38. Confession of an accused is admissible court against the other co accused 45. A dies leaving behind a son X and a married (A) under Section 28 of the Evidence Act daughter Y. A suit filed by A, after his death (B) under Section 29 of the Evidence Act can be continued by (C) under Section 30 of the Evidence Act (A) X alone as legal representative (D) under Section 31 of the Evidence Act (B) Y alone as legal representative 39. A dying declaration to be admissible (C) X, Y and the husband of Y as legal (A) must be made before a magistrate representative (B) must be made before a police officer (D) X and Y both as legal representative (C) must be made before a doctor or a 46. Principle of constructive res judicata is private person contained in (A) Explanation III of Section 11 (D) may be made either before a magistrate (B) Explanation IV to Section 11 or a police officer or a doctor or a private (C) Explanation VI to Section 11 person (D) Explanation VII to Section 11 40. The ‘fact in issue’ means 47. Which one of the following is an incorrect (A) fact, the existence or non-existence of statement? which is admitted by the parties (A) An arbitral award is a contract. (B) fact, the existence or non-existence of (B) An arbitral award must be in writing which is disputed by the parties and signed. (C) fact, the existence or non-existence of (C) An arbitral award includes an interim which is not disputed by the parties award (D) All of the above (D) None of the above 41. Defence of alibi is governed by 48. After the arbitral award is made, each party (A) Section 6 of the Evidence Act shall be delivered (B) Section 9 of the Evidence Act (A) the original award (C) Section 12 of the Evidence Act (B) a signed copy of the award (D) Section 11 of the Evidence Act (C) a photocopy of the award 42. Which of the following is a right of civil (D) an unsigned copy of the award nature? 49. In a bailable offence, the bail is granted as a (A) Right to worship in a temple matter of right (B) Right to share in offerings in a temple (A) by the police officer (C) Right to take out procession (B) by the court (D) All of the above (C) Both (A) and (B) 43. Principle of res judicata applies (D) Either (A) or (B) (A) between coplaintiffs 50. The power to direct investigation under (B) between codefendants Section 156(3) of CrPC can be exercised by (C) Both (A) and (B) (A) a Magistrate (B) a Sessions Judge (D) Neither (A) nor (B) (C) Both (A) and (B)(D) Either (A) or (B) 28th Bihar Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2013 (Law) 137

51. The investigating police officer has power 57. If the positions of President and Vice to summon the attendance of a person President are vacant, who among the acquainted with the facts and following officiates as the President of circumstances of the case under India? (A) Section 158 of Cr.P.C. (A) The Prime Minister (B) Section 159 of Cr.P.C. (B) The Chief Justice of India (C) Section 160 of Cr.P.C. (C) The Speaker of Lok Sabha (D) Section 161 of Cr.P.C. (D) None of the above 52. Which of the following Articles of the Indian 58. “If I were asked to name any particular Constitution empowers the Parliament to Article in this Constitution as the most form new States, change in the area of important— an Article without which this present States, change in the territories and Constitution would be a nullity, I could not name of the States? refer to any other Article except this one.... (A) Article 5 (B) Article 11 it is the very soul of the Constitution and (C) Article 13 (D) Article 3 the very heart of it.” Who among the 53. Which of the following Articles of the following has given the above statement? Constitution of India empowers the (A) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru Parliament to make law on the subject (B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad mentioned in the State List? (C) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (A) Article 245 (B) Article 249 (D) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnanc (C) Article 251 (D) Article 253 59. In which of the following cases it was held 54. In which of the following cases the by the Supreme Court that right to trade traditional concept of equity was not on pavements is a Fundamental Rights? accepted by the Supreme Court and a new (A) Sukumar Mukherjee v. State of Bengal concept of equity was adopted by the (B) Fertilizer Corporation Workers’Union, Supreme Court? Syndri v. Union of India (A) Kedamath v. State of West Bengal (C) P. A. Inamdar v. State of Maharashtra (B) State of West Bengal v. Anwar Ali (D) Sodan Singh v. New Delhi Municipal (C) Balsara v. Bombay State Committee (D) E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu 60. By which of the following Amendment Acts 55. By which of the following Amendment Acts ofthe Constitution, Chapter of Fundamental of the Indian Constitution, Right to Duties have been added as Chapter IV-A in Education was made a Fundamental Right? the Constitution? (A) 42nd Amendment (A) 40th Amendment Act (B) 44th Amendment (B) 42nd Amendment Act (C) 49th Amendment (C) 45th Amendment Act (D) 6th Amendment (D) 49th Amendment Act 56. By which of the following Articles of the 61. Which of the following is the sequence Constitution, constitutional safeguard has number of Ms. Patil as President of the been provided to public servants? Republic of India? (A) Article 251 (B) Article 309 (A) 10th (B) 11th (C) Article 311 (D) Article 312 (C) 12th (D) 13th 138 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

62. According to our Constitution, Rajya 69. The protection and improvement of Sabha is environment including forests and wildlife (A) dissolved in two years of the country are in (B) dissolved every five years (A) Directive Principles (C) dissolved every six years (B) Fundamental Duties (D) not subject to dissolution (C) National Policy 63. In the case of Golaknath v. State of Punjab, (D) both Directive Principles and it was remarked that our “Preamble Fundamental Duties contains in a nutshell its ideals and 70. By which of the following Constitutional inspirations.” Who was the Judge? Amendment Acts the voting age was (A) Justice Mathew reduced from 21 years to 18 years? (B) Justice Krishna Iyer (A) 48th (B) 57th (C) Justice Subba Rao (C) 61st (D) 63rd (D) Justice H.R. Khanna 71. Under the Government of India Act, 1935, 64. In which of the following cases the Supreme the Federal Court had Court held that the Preamble is not a part (A) original jurisdiction only of the Constitution? (B) appellate jurisdiction only (A) A.K. Gopalan’s case (C) advisory jurisdiction only (B) Berubari’s case (D) original, appellate and advisory (C) Minerva Mill’s case jurisdictions (D) A.K. Antony’s case 72. Which one of the following made the Indian 65. Right to life does not include Right to die Legislature bicameral ? was held in (A) Indian Council Act, 1909 (A) R. Rathi Ram v. Union of India (B) Government of India Act, 1919 (B) State v. Sanjay Kumar Bhatia (C) Government of India Act, 1935 (C) Chenna Jagdeshwar v. State of Andhra (D) Indian Independence Act, 1947 Pradesh 73. Which one of the following aimed at (D) Gyan Kaur v. State of Punjab 66. Petitions to the Supreme Court under providing a federal structure for India? Article 32 are subject to the rule of Res (A) Indian Council Act, 1909 Judicata, except (B) Government of India Act, 1919 (A) quo warranto (B) habeas corpus (C) Government of India Act, 1935 (C) certiorari (D) prohibition (D) Indian Independence Act, 1947 67. Which among the following is not a 74. When was Magna Carta granted in Fundamental Right? England? (A) Right to Strike (A) 1832 (B) 1911 (B) Right against Exploitation (C) 1949 (D) 1215 (C) Right to Equality 75. “The British Constitution is the mother (D) Right to Freedom of Religion Constitutions. The British Parliament is the 68. The Right to Property was dropped from mother of Parliaments.” the List of Fundamental Rights by the Whose statement is the above? (A) 24th Amendment (A) William Holdsworth (B) 42nd Amendment (B) Herman Finer (C) 44th Amendment (C) Ogg (D) None of the above (D) Munro 28th Bihar Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2013 (Law) 139

76. Which of the following statements is 84. Which of the following statements is not incorrect? correct? (A) Conventions are certain and clear. (A) Money Bill can be presented first in the (B) Conventions are unwritten. House of Lords. (C) Conventions are not applied by the (B) The House of Lords cannot detain courts. Money Bill for more than one month. (D) Conventions take birth by chance. (C) The Speaker of the House of Commons 77. Which of the following is/are the main decides which bill is Money Bill. source of the British Constitution? (D) The House of Lords is the highest court (A) Judicial Decisions (B) Conventions of appeal. (C) Commentaries (D) Common Law 85. It is convention in Britain that 78. “There are many subtle distinctions in the (A) the Prime Minister can be member of the House of Lords vernacular of the British Constitution but (B) the Prime Minister will be from House none more vital than the distinction of Commons between the King and the Crown.” (C) the Prime Minister will be the person of Whose statement is the above? King’s choice (A) Herman Finer (B) Munro (D) the Prime Minister can be member of (C) Ogg (D) Gladstone the Privy Council 79. The two Houses of the British Parliament 86. The highest court in the British Constitution are is called (A) Senate and House of Lords (A) Supreme Court (B) Privy Council (B) House of Commons and Diet (C) High Court (D) House of Lords (C) House of Commons and Senate 87. Delegatus non potest delegare means (D) House of Commons and House of Lords (A) a delegate can further delegate its 80. In the constitutional history of England, powers veto power was lastly used by the king in (B) delegated legislation is valid (A) 1707 (B) 1832 (C) a delegate cannot further delegate his (C) 1911 (D) 1949 powers 81. In England, the government is called the (D) None of the above (A) Government of the King 88. During the operation of martial law (B) Government of the People (A) important rights of citizens are (C) Constitutional Government suspended (D) Government of Parliament (B) Parliament is dissolved 82. The mother of British Cabinet is (C) Civil Government is suspended (A) Privy Council (B) House of Lords (D) None of the above (C) House of Commons (D) Parliament 89. In Britain, who among the following make 83. “Cabinet is the solar orbital around which Shadow Cabinet? other bodies revolve and that it is a (A) Prime Minister threefold hinge that connects together for (B) King action—the King, the Lords and the (C) Leader of the Opposition Party Commons.” Whose statement is the above? (D) Lord Chancellor (A) Lowell (B) Marriot 90. In England, the doctrine of ‘Rule of Law’ was (C) Munro (D) Gladstone propounded by 140 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

(A) Jenning (B) Blackstone 98. Under which of the following Sections of (C) Prof. Dicey (D) Sydney Low the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, husband 91. Writ of Habeas corpus means and wife may file a petition of divorce by (A) to produce the body of a person illegally mutual consent? detained before the court (A) Section 10 (B) Section 11 (B) stop the violation of right of a man (C) Section 9 (D) Section 13B (C) respect the Human Rights of a person 99. Consent theory of divorce was introduced (D) None of the above in the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 in the year 92. Under Hindu Law, marriage is a (A) 1956 (B) 1961 (A) sacrament (B) contract (C) 1976 (D) 1979 (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Neither (A) nor (B) 100. Under the Hindu Adoption and 93. Law relating to marriages amongst Hindus Maintenance Act, 1956, who among the has been codified under the following is not entitled to adopt? (A) Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 (A) An unmarried person (B) Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, (B) Wife who is divorced 1956 (C) Husband with the consent of wife (C) Child Marriage Restraint Act, 1929 (D) Husband without consent of wife (D) All of the above 101. A Hindu male of 28 years of age adopts a 94. If parties to a Hindu Marriage are ‘Sapinda’ female child of 13 years of age. The to each other, the marriage is adoption is (A) valid (B) voidable (A) valid (B) voidable (C) void (D) None of the above (C) void (D) illegal 95. A Hindu dies intestate leaving behind two 102. Which of the following is the secondary sons, one daughter, and widow. His source of Muslim Law? property shall devolve to (A) Custom (B) Ijma (A) widow only (C) Qiyas (D) None of the above (B) sons and daughter only 103. Which of the following modifies the (C) sons only (D) sons, daughter and widow all application of Muslim Law? 96. Under Section 30 of the Hindu Succession (A) Muslim Marriage Dissolution Act, 1939 Act, 1956, a Hindu can dispose of his interest (B) Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on in a Mitakshara Coparcenary Property by Divorce) Act, 1986 (A) sale (B) gift (C) Shariat Act, 1937 (C) will (D) None of the above (D) All of the above 97. “A person is not disqualified from 104. Who applied Qiyas for the first time as succeeding to any property on the ground source of Muslim Law? of any disease, defect or deformity” is (A) Imam Abu Hanifa (B) Imam Yusuf provided under (C) Imam Jafar (D) Imam Ahmed (A) Section 28 of the Hindu Succession Act, 105. Which of the following is absolute 1956 incapacity for marriage? (B) Section 29 of the Hindu Succession Act, (A) Consanguinity (B) Affinity 1956 (C) Fosterage (D) All of the above (C) Section 30 of the Hindu Succession Act, 106. A Muslim can marry any number of wives 1956 not exceeding four. If a Muslim marries a (D) None of the above fifth wife such a marriage shall be 28th Bihar Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2013 (Law) 141

(A) void (B) valid 114. The gift of future property is (C) irregular (D) Either (A) or (B) (A) valid (B) voidable 107. After divorce, a Muslim woman (C) void (D) conditionally void (A) can immediately marry 115. In case of gift, if the donee dies before (B) cannot remarry acceptance, then (C) can marry only after completion of (A) gift is voidable (B) gift is void Iddat (C) gift is valid (D) None of the above (D) None of the above 116. An unborn person acquires vested interest 108. How many witnesses are necessary in on transfer Shia muslim marriage (A) immediately on birth (A) One sale and two females (B) after attaining majority (B) Two males (C) on attaining 21 years of age (C) No witness is required (D) in case of female after marriage (D) Both (A) and (B) 109. Which of the following is the wife’s right 117. Which one of the following mortgages when her husband does not pay dower? does not require writing and registration? (A) Refuse consummation (A) Simple mortgage (B) File suit for recovery of dower (B) English mortgage (C) Keep possession over dead husband’s (C) Usufructuary mortgage property (D) Mortgage by deposit of title deeds (D) All of the above 118. The ‘rule against perpetuity’ is provided 110. Which of the following is the right of in the T.P. Act under preemption? (A) Section 13 (B) Section 14 (A) A right to seek eviction of tenant and (C) Section 15 (D) Section 17 get vacant possession 119. The principle of lis pendens embodied in (B) A right to purchase property in Section 52 of the T.P. Act pertains to preference to other person (A) bonafide purchase (C) A right to purchase property at low (B) public policy price (C) auction sale (D) None of the above (D) None of the above 111. Custody of illegitimate children belongs 120. According to Section 5 of the T.P. Act, living to person includes (A) the mother (A) company of association of individuals (B) the father (B) individual human being only (C) both the mother and the father (C) only important company or (D) either the mother or the father associations 112. Which one of the following Sections of the T.P. Act defines ‘Transfer of Property’? (D) None of the above (A) Section 2 (B) Section 3 121. The term ‘sale’, in the Transfer of Property (C) Section 4 (D) Section 5 Act, is defined in 113. The T.P. Act came into force on (A) Section 53 (B) Section 54 (A) July 01, 1882 (C) Section 55 (D) Section 56 (B) August 01, 1882 122. The primary source of equity is (C) September 01, 1882 (A) custom (B) written law (D) October 01, 1882 (C) judicial decision (D) conscience 142 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

123. English rules of equity have (C) by subsequent will (A) been substantially incorporated by the (D) in case of person governed by the Hindu Indian legislature Marriage Act by the marriage of the (B) been partially incorporated by the testator Indian legislature 129. A trust is not extinguished (C) been wholly incorporated by the Indian (A) when its purpose is completely fulfilled legislature (B) when its purpose becomes unlawful (D) not all been incorporated by the Indian (C) when the trust being revocable is legislature expressly revoked 124. In case of conflict between equity on one (D) where the trustees have transferred hand and the text of law on the other, the their interest court shall 130. Under Section 10 of the Specific (A) choose equity Performance Act, the specific performance (B) choose law cannot be granted, if (C) have the discretion to choose between (A) there is no concluded contract equity and law (B) there is a concluded contract (D) be bound by precedents (C) the compensation in money is not an 125. Which of the following statements is adequate relief correct? (D) there exists no standard for ascertaining (A) A litigant cannot seek equitable remedies the actual damages as a matter of right as such remedies 131. Specific performance of contract means are at the discretion of the court. (A) actual execution of the contract (B) A litigant can seek equitable remedies according to its stipulations as a matter of right as such remedies (B) claim of damages or compensation for are the duty of the court. non-execution of contract (C) There is distinction between legal (C) Either (A) or (B) interest and equitable interest in India (D) Neither (A) nor (B) (D) Statutory provision shall apply only to 132. A proposal when accepted becomes legal interest and not to equitable (A) promise under Section 2(b) interest in India. (B) agreement under Section 2(e) 126. The concept of ‘trusts’ originated in (C) contract under Section 2(h) (A) France (B) Germany (D) None of the above (C) England (D) Rome 133. An agreement enforceable at the instance 127. The person not necessary for the creation of one party and not of the other is called of trust is (A) a valid contract (B) an illegal contract (A) the author of the trust (C) a void contract (D) a voidable contract (B) trustee 134. A contract made by a minor is void ab (C) legal representative initio. It was laid down in (D) beneficiary (A) Kanhiyalal v. Girdhari Lai 128. A trust created by the will of the testator (B) Mohammad Saeedv. Vishambhar Dayal may be revoked by him at his pleasure (C) Mohri Bibi v. Dharmo Dass Ghosh (A) by express words (D) Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Dutt (B) by acts which lead to the inference that 135. Agreement, the meaning of which is not he intended to revoke it certain or not capable of certainty, is 28th Bihar Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2013 (Law) 143

(A) voidable (B) illegal 144. When both the parties to agreement are at (C) enforceable (D) void mistake regarding facts, the agreement 136. Goods displayed in showcase of a shop will with price tag is (A) be enforceable (B) be voidable (C) not be void (D) be void (A) offer (B) invitation to offer 145. A agrees with B to trace out secret money (C) counteroffer (D) None of the above for him by the way of magic. This 137. An agreement in connection with horse agreement is racing under Section 30 is (A) void (A) unlawful (B) voidable (B) voidable (C) void (D) valid (C) enforceable 138. An agreement to remain unmarried is (D) legal and enforceable in Bengal (A) valid (B) void 146. A enters into contract with B. In this, B is (C) voidable (D) unenforceable guilty of fraud. A can now 139. A contract, the performance of which (A) rescind the contract but cannot get compensation becomes unlawful or impossible, is (B) get compensation only (A) void when the performance becomes (C) rescind the contract and get unlawful or impossible compensation (B) void (D) None of the above (C) voidable when the performance 147. “Tort is a civil wrong for which the becomes unlawful or impossible remedy is common law action for (D) neither void nor voidable unliquidated damages and which is not 140. The age of majority for the purpose of the exclusively the breach of trust or other Contract Act is mere equitable obligation.” (A) 18 years Who has given the above definition of tort? (A) Winfield (B) Fraser (B) 21 years (C) Underhill (D) Salmond (C) 16 years for girls and 18 years for boys 148. The duty under the law of tort is towards (D) 18 years for girls and 21 years for boys (A) a specific individual 141. A sum fixed beforehand as amount of (B) a group of individuals compensation payable in the event of (C) the world at large breach of contract is called (D) Both (A) and (B) (A) liquidated damage 149. To constitute a tort (B) penalty (A) there must be some act or omission on (C) Either (A) or (B) the part of the defendant (B) the act must result in violation of legal (D) Neither (A) nor (B) right vested in the plaintiff R 142. A agrees to pay 1,000/- to B without (C) there must be a legal duty on the part of consideration. This agreement is the defendant (A) voidable (D) Both (A) and (B) (B) void 150. An inevitable accident means (C) not enforceable (A) an act of God (D) not enforceable as it was unwritten (B) an unexpected injury which could not 143. When the consent to the contract is caused have been foreseen and avoided by coercion, the contract under Section 19 is (C) an unexpected injury which could have (A) valid (B) voidable been foreseen and avoided (C) void (D) illegal (D) Both (A) and (B)  144 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS 29th Bihar Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2016 (Solved Paper) (G.K. & Law)

9. Who among the following woman social Solved Paper, 2016 reformers was called ‘Pandit’? General Knowledge (G.K.) (A) Gangabai (B) Ramabai 1. Who was the author of History of British (C) Annie Besant India? (D) Sister Subbalakshmi (A) James Mill (B) V. A. Smith 10. Where did the Indigo Revolt take place? (C) V. D. Savarkar (D) R. C. Majumdar (A) Orissa (B) Uttar Pradesh 2. Which was the first newspaper published in India? (C) Bengal (D) Maharashtra (A) Bengal Gazette (B) Calcutta Gazette 11. Queen Victoria’s Proclamation took Place (C) Bombay Herald(D) Bengal Journal in 3. “Go back to the Vedas.” Who gave this (A) 1856 (B) 1858 slogan? (C) 1859 (D) 1860 (A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy 12. Who among the following authors has (B) Keshav Chandra Sen called the Revolt of 1857 as the First War of (C) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar Independence? (D) Swami Dayanand Saraswati (A) R. C. Majumdar(B) S. N. Sen 4. Arya Samaj was established in (C) V. D. Savarkar (D) Ashok Mehta (A) 1870 (B) 1872 13. ‘Abhinav Bharat’ founded in 1904 was (C) 1873 (D) 1875 (A) a secret organization of revolutionary 5. The worst famine in India under the British activities rule occurred during (B) a newspaper (A) 1860-1861 (B) 1876-1878 (C) a cultural organization (C) 1896-1897 (D) 1899-1900 (D) a trade union movement 6. Who among the following women was 14. “History is a continuous process of associated with the revolutionary interaction between past and present.” movement? Who said this? (A) Toru Dutt (B) Ramabai (A) E. H. Carr (B) Charles Firth (C) Bhikaji Cama (D) Gangabai (C) Karl Marx (D) V. A. Smith 7. Simon Commission visited India in 15. The famine code for India was (A) 1927 (B) 1928 recommended by which Commission? (C) 1929 (D) 1930 (A) MacDonnell Commission 8. Under which Act were the Muslims (B) Campbell Commission provided separate electorates in British (C) Lyall Commission India? (D) Strachey Commission (A) Indian Council Act, 1892 16. Who was associated with the newspaper, (B) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909 Mooknayak? (C) Indian Council Act, 1861 (A) Jyotiba Phule (B) B. R. Ambedkar (D) Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919 (C) M. N. Roy (D) Annie Besant 29th Bihar Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2016 (G.K.) 145

17. Who among the following has called Tilak 26. Which Rock Edict of Ashoka mentions the as Father of Indian Unrest? Kalinga War? (A) Mahatma Gandhi (A) (XIII) Thirteenth (B) Jawaharlal Nehru (B) (VIII) Eighth (C) Powell Price (C) (II) Second (D) Valentine Chirol (D) (V) Fifth 18. Who among the following persons was 27. Rajarajeshwara temple at Tanjore is the considered by Gandhiji as his ‘Political finest example of which architecture? Guru’? (A) Pallava (B) Chalukya (A) Dadabhai Naoroji (C) Chola (D) Pandya (B) M.G. Ranade 28. The system of ‘Dagh’ and ‘Huliya’ was (C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale introduced by (D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (A) Iltutmish 19. New India and Commonweal newspapers (B) Ala-ud-din Khilji were associated with (C) Balban (A) R. C. Dutt (D) Firuz Shah Tughlaq (B) Mahatma Gandhi 29. English traveller William Hawkins visited (C) Raja Ram Mohan Roy India during the time of which Mughal (D) Annie Besant emperor? 20. Who was the founder of Deccan Education (A) Shah Jahan (B) Akbar Society? (C) Aurangzeb (D) Jahangir (A) Jyotiba Phule 30. The ‘lqtadari’ system was introduced by (B) Firoz Shah Mehta (A) Balban (C) M. G. Ranade (B) Iltutmish (D) BaI Gangadhar Tilak (C) Ala-ud-din Khilji 21. The manuscript of Arthashastra was (D) Firuz Shah Tughlaq discovered by 31. What was the name of the Persian (A) Sir William Jones translation of Mahabharata? (B) Shamshastri (A) Sakinat-ul-Auliga (B) Sirrul Asrar (C) Ram Gopal Bhandarkar (C) Anwar-i-Suhaili (D) Razmnama (D) James Mill 32. Krishnadevaraya of the Vijayanagar 22. Who was the author of the famous text, empire was a contemporary of Mudrarakshasa? (A) Akbar (A) Vishakhadutta (B) Kalidas (B) Firuz Shah Tughlaq (C) Sudraka (D) Rajshekhar (C) Babur 23. The first Buddhist Council was summoned (D) Balban by 33. Baburnama was composed in which (A) Chandragupta Maurya language? (B) Ashoka (A) Turkish (B) Persian (C) Ajatasatru (C) Arabic (D) Urdu (D) Kanishka 34. ‘Servants of Indian Society’ was founded by 24. Mahatma Buddha gave his first sermon at (A) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (A) Lumbini (B) Bodh Gaya (B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (C) Sarnath (D) Kapilvastu (C) Mahatma Gandhi 25. Which archaeological site is associated with (D) Govind Ranade the Mauryan palace? 35. Ancient Monuments Preservation Act, 1904, (A) Kaushambi (B) Taxila was passed during the time of which (C) Hastinapur (D) Kumrahar Governor-General? 146 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

(A) Lord Minto (B) Lord Hardinge c. Kakapada 3. Rajasthan (C) Lord Curzon (D) Lord Linlithgow atomic power 36. Main Boundary Thrust (MBT) separates station (A) Ganga Plain and Siwaliks d. Kaiga atomic 4. Maharashtra (B) Siwaliks and Lesser Himalaya power station (C) Lesser Himalaya and Greater Himalaya (A) a b c d (D) Greater Himalaya and Trans-Himalaya 37. The valley of flowers is located in 1 2 3 4 (A) Himachal Himalaya (B) a b c d (B) Garhwal Himalaya 3 4 1 2 (C) Kashmir Himalaya (C) a b c d (D) Nepal Himalaya 4 3 2 1 38. In India, coal is found in the geological (D) a b c d formation of 2 1 4 3 (A) Dharwar (B) Vindhyan 45. ITCZ stands for (C) Gondwana (D) Kadapa (A) Intertemperate convergence Zone 39. Rohtang pass connects the valleys of (B) Intratropical Convergence Zone (A) Bhagirathi and Alaknanda (B) Kali and Dholi (C) India-Thailand Convergence Zone (C) Kulu and Spiti (D) Intertropical Convergence Zone (D) Jhelam and Ravi 46. On which river, the Rana Pratap Sagar Dam 40. The basic reason of winter rainfall in is constructed? northwestern part of India is (A) Ghaghara (B) Kosi (A) south-west monsoon (C) Yamuna (D) Chambal (B) trade wind 47. Amarkantak is the source head of (C) retreating of monsoon (A) Son, Narmada and Mahanadi (D) western disturbances (B) Son, Chambal and Betwa 41. Laterite soil mostly found in (C) Narmada, Ben Ganga and Kene (A) Karnataka (B) Punjab (D) Mahanadi, Tapti and Son (C) Uttar Pradesh 48. Match the following : (D) West Bengal a. Bhotiya 1. Arunachal 42. Which one of the following pairs is not Pradesh correct? b. Gujjar 2. Himachal Pradesh (A) Bhakra Nangal Dam-Sutlej c. Gaddi 3. Kashmir (B) Sardar Sarovar Dam-Narmada d. Dafla 4. Uttarakhand (C) Hirakund Dam-Mahanadi (A) a b c d (D) Nagarjuna Sagar Dam-Godavari 4 3 2 1 43. Which river valley was severely affected (B) a b c d by the disaster in June, 2013? (A) Alaknanda (B) Mandakini 2 1 3 4 (C) Nandakini (D) Bhagirathi (C) a b c d 44. Match the following : 1 3 4 2 a. Tarapur atomic 1. Karnataka (D) a b c d power station 3 2 1 4 b. Rawatbhata 2. Gujarat 49. The largest reserves of sal forest is found in atomic power (A) Nilgiri hills (B) Dun valley station (C) Aravallies (D) Assam 29th Bihar Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2016 (G.K.) 147

50. Telalgana State is surrounded by which of 57. Salma Dam project is being under the following groups of States? reconstruction in which of the following (A) Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Andhra countries? Pradesh and Odisha (A) Nepal (B) Bhutan (B) Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Maharashtra (C) Afghanistan (D) Bangladesh and Karnataka 58. Which of the following countries has (C) Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra launched the DAMPE satellite? Pradesh and Chhattisgarh (A) China (B) Russia (D) Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, (C) Japan (D) USA Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh 59. Which of the following countries has 51. Which of the following space agencies has approved world’s first dengue vaccine? launched the LISA Pathfinder? (A) United Kingdom(B) Canada (A) Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (C) Mexico (D) France (B) NASA (C) European Space Agency 60. Which of the following American (D) China National Space Administration Universities has launched the A.P.J. Abdul 52. The new Parliament building of which of Kalam Fellowship for Indian students? the following countries is built by India? (A) Harvard University (A) Bhutan (B) Afghanistan (B) University of South Florida (C) Nepal (D) Maldives (C) University of California, Berkeley 53. Which of the following committees (D) University of Chicago suggested initiatives on Revisiting and 61. Which of the following countries recently Revitalizing PPP Model? became a member of the World Trade (A) Dinesh Pachori Committee Organization (WTO)? (B) Arun Pasricha Committee (A) Sudan (B) Afghanistan (C) Vijay Kelkar Committee (C) Bhutan (D) Ethiopia (D) Deepak Mohanty Committee 62. Which of the following organizations has 54. Who among the following has been sanctioned $ 1.5 billion loan to support the appointed as the new Director-General of Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM)? National Centre for Good Governance (A) World Bank (NCGG)? (B) IMF (A) Arvind Subramanian (C) ADB (B) Bibek Debroy (D) Japan Bank for International (C) Gyanendra Bandgaiyan Cooperation (D) Sanjay Madhav 63. In which of the following Indian States 55. Which of the following States is planning Lokayukta has been appointed by the to construct the first ever underwater road tunnel in the country? Supreme Court of India by using its (A) Tamil Nadu (B) Gujarat extraordinary powers under Article 142 of (C) Andhra Pradesh(D) Kerala the Constitution? 56. Which of the following countries has (A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Bihar announced to adopt Chinese Yuan as its (C) Karnataka (D) Andhra Pradesh legal currency? 64. Satellites of which of the following countries (A) Greece (B) Egypt have been successfully launched by using (C) Zimbabwe (D) Namibia ISRO’s PSLV C29? 148 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

(A) Canada (B) Singapore (A) Ear (B) Brain (C) Indonesia (D) Saudi Arabia (C) Eye (D) Stomach 65. As per the 2015 Human Development 73. How many units of electricity will be Report (HDR), what was India’s rank in consumed if you use a 60 watt electric bulb Human Development Index (HDI) for 2014? for 5 hours everyday for 30 days? (A) 121 (B) 130 (A) 12 (B) 9 (C) 132 (D) 138 (C) 6 (D) 3 66. India’s largest National Cancer Institute is 74. Soda water obtained by passing carbon set up in which of the following States? dioxide in water is (A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Haryana (A) an oxidising agent (B) basic in nature (C) Gujarat (D) West Bengal (C) acidic in nature (D) a reducing agent 67. Which of the following countries has hosted 75. Which of the following is not a kharif crop? the International Neutrality Conference? (A) Groundnut (B) Maize (A) India (B) Sri Lanka (C) Masoor (D) Paddy (C) Turkmenistan (D) Pakistan 76. The radioactive isotope used to control 68. Which of the following committees has been leukemia is appointed to look into dispute between (A) Phosphorus 32 (B) Cobalt 60 ONGC and RIL on KG gas fields? (C) Iodine 131 (D) Sodium 24 (A) Pradhan Committee 77. White rust is an important fungal disease (B) A. P. Shah Committee of (C) M. B. Shah Committee (A) wheat (B) mustard (D) Deshmukh Committee (C) rice (D) bajra 69. Which of the following is the first bank to 78. Liver fluke lives in the bile duct of tie up with Indian railways to sell rail (A) horse (B) cow tickets through its web site? (C) man (D) sheep (A) State Bank of India 79. Nucleus of helium contains (B) ICICI Bank (A) only one proton (C) Axis Bank Ltd. (B) two protons (D) Punjab National Bank (C) two protons and two neutrons 70. Which of the following banks is the World’s (D) one proton and two neutrons largest bank by assets? 80. Of the following diseases, which one is (A) Bank of America caused by insect bite? (B) Industrial and Commercial Bank of (A) Scurvy (B) Dengue China (ICBC) (C) Pneumonia (D) Asthma (C) BNP Paribas 81. The class of food having highest caloric (D) Bank of China value per unit weight is 71. When beams of red, blue and green lights (A) vitamin (B) fat fall on the same spot, the colour of the light (C) carbohydrate (D) protein becomes 82. Baking soda is (A) violet (B) red (A) sodium carbohydrate (C) yellow (D) white (B) sodium bicarbonate 72. Which organ of the human body does the (C) sodium sulphate Alzheimer’s disease affect? (D) sodium hydroxide 29th Bihar Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2016 (G.K.) 149

83. Density of water is the highest at the (A) Carbon dioxide temperature of (B) Carbon monoxide (A) 0 °C (B) 4 °C (C) Sulphur dioxide (C) 50 °C (D) 100 °C (D) Hydrocarbons 84. In which of the following organs bile is 92. In binary code, the number 7 is written as stored? (A) 110 (B) 111 (A) Spleen (B) Pancreas (C) 101 (D) 100 (C) Appendix (D) Gallbladder 93. Anthophobia is fear of which of the 85. Deficiency of which of the following following? vitamins causes the disease of slow blood (A) Boss (B) Fire clotting? (C) Flowers (D) Dogs (A) Vitamin C (B) Vitamin D 94. Clove is obtained from (C) Vitamin E (D) Vitamin K (A) root (B) stem 86. Which of the following acids does not (C) fruit (D) flower bud contain oxygen? 95. Which of the following fights infection in (A) Nitric acid the body? (B) Sulphuric acid (A) RBC (B) WBC (C) Hydrochloric acid (C) Blood Plasma (D) Haemoglobin (D) All of the above 96. Green Revolution means 87. Which of the following is not (A) use of green manure biodegradable? (B) grow more crops (A) Domestic sewage (C) high yield variety programmes (B) Lab detergents (D) green vegetation (C) Soap 97. Pedology is the science related to the study (D) Plant leaves of 88. The atomic nucleus was discovered by (A) atmosphere (B) soil (A) Rutherford (B) Dalton (C) pollutants (D) seeds (C) Einstein (D) Thompson 98. The unit of electrical resistance of a 89. The branch of Physics that deals with the conductor is motion of a very small particle is called (A) farad (B) volt (A) Field Theory (C) ampere (D) ohm 99. The step that produces largest number of (B) Particle Physics ATP molecules in our system is (C) Quantum Mechanics (A) glycolysis (D) Atomic Physics (B) Krebs cycle 90. Which of the following foods provides the (C) terminal respiratory chain nutrient for the growth of new tissues in (D) hydrolysis the human body? 100.Brass is an alloy of (A) Fruits (B) Vegetables (A) copper and iron (C) Cheese (D) Sweets (B) zinc and iron 91. Which of the following is the largest air (C) copper and zinc Pollutant? (D) iron and nickel 150 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

7. Which of the following Sections of the Code Solved Paper-2016 of Criminal Procedure, 1973 defines the (LAW) term ‘judicial proceeding’? (A) Section 2 (i) (B) Section 2 (j) 1. Communication made ‘without prejudice’ (C) Section 2 (k) (D) Section 2 (l) is protected 8. In which of the following cases, the Supreme (A) under Section 22 of the Indian Evidence Court has issued specific guidelines Act regarding arrest? (B) under Section 23 of the Indian Evidence (A) Vishakha v. State of Rajasthan Act (B) A. R. Antulay’s Case (C) under Section 24 of the Indian Evidence (C) D. K. Basu’s Case Act (D) Nandini Satpathy’s Case (D) under Section 21 of the Indian Evidence 9. What is the maximum amount of Act maintenance which can be ordered by a 2. ‘Necessity rule’ as to the admissibility of Magistrate as monthly allowance under evidence is contained in Section 125 of the Code of Criminal (A) Section 31 of the Indian Evidence Act Procedure, 1973? (B) Section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act (A) Rs. 1,000 (B) Rs. 500 (A) Section 60 of the Indian Evidence Act (C) RS. 2,000 (D) No limit (A) Section 61 of the Indian Evidence Act 3. Delhi High court issued guidelines for the 10. Under Section 164A of the Code of Criminal protection of witnesses in Procedure, 1973, the victim of rape shall be (A) Neelam Katara Case (2003) sent to registered medical practitioner for (B) Naina Sahni Case (2007) examination within ______from the (C) Uphaar Cinema Case (2005) time of receiving the information relating (D) Parliament Attack Case (2006) to the commission of such offence. 4. A prosecutes B for adultery with C’ A’s wife. (A) 6 hours (B) 12 hours B denies that C is A’s wife, but the court (C) 24 hours (D) 36 hours convicts B of adultery. Afterwards, C is 11. Which of the following Sub-sections was/ prosecuted for bigamy in marrying B were inserted by the Code of Criminal during A’s lifetime. C says that she never Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2005 in was A’s wife. The judgment against B is Section 176 of CrPC? (A) relevant as against C (A) 176 (1A) (B) irrelevant as against C (B) 176 (1A) and 176 (1B) (C) relevant and admissible against C (C) 176 (5) and 176 (6) (D) None of the above (D) 176 (1A) and 176 (5) 5. Which of the following chapters of the Indian Evidence Act deals with ‘witnesses’? 12. The Period of limitation prescribed in the (A) Chapter VI (B) Chapter VII Code of Criminal Procedure is not (C) Chapter VIII (D) Chapter IX applicable to the offences under 6. Which of the following provisions of the (A) the Income-tax Act, 1961 (43 of 1961) Indian Evidence Act was omitted by the (B) the Customs Act, 1962 (52 of 1962) Amendment Act of 2002? (C) the Foreign Exchange Management Act, (A) Section 155 (2) (B) Section 155 (3) 1999 (42 of 1999) (C) Section 155 (4) (D) Section 155 (5) (D) All of the above 29th Bihar Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2016 (Law) 151

13. The Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) (A) The concerned High Court Acts, 1999 and 2002 were enacted on the (B) The concerned state Government recommendations of (C) The concerned District Court (A) Santhanam Committee (D) The concerned District Court after (B) Malimath Committee consultation with the concerned High (C) Thakkar Committee Court and the State Government (D) None of the above 21. In which of the following cases, it was 14. Which of the following landmark contended that the Preamble to our Constitution should be the guiding star in judgments of the Supreme Court deals with its interpretation and hence any law made the applicability of res judicata in writ under the Article 21 should be held as void petitions? if it offended against the principles of (A) Satyadhan Ghosal v. Deorajin Debi natural justice? (B) Daryao v. State of UP (A) Gopalan v. State of Madras (C) LIC v. India Automobiles And Co. (B) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (D) None of the above (C) Bhim Singh v. Union of India 15. A court can return the plaint, when the (D) Excel Wear v. Union of India court has got 22. Which of the following cases upheld (A) no territorial jurisdiction ‘secularism’ as a basic feature of the Indian (B) no pecuniary jurisdiction Constitution even before the word ‘secular’ (C) no subject-matter jurisdiction was inserted in the Preamble? (D) Any of the above (A) Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain 16. The Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) (B) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala Act, 2002 came into force on (C) Waman Rao v. Union of India (A) 1st April, 2002 (B) 1st June, 2002 (D) Samatha v. State of AP (C) 6th June, 2002 (D) 1st July, 2002 23. In which of the following cases, the 17. The provision for setting aside the arbitral consensus of the majority of the judgment award is laid down under was that the basic structure of the (A) Section 32 of the related Act Constitution could not be destroyed or (B) Section 36 of the related Act damaged by amending the Constitution in (C) Section 34 of the related Act exercise of the power under the Article 368 of the Indian Constitution? (D) None of the above (A) Waman Rao v. Union of India 18. The parties to the arbitration agreement (B) Golak Nath v. State of Punjab shall appoint arbitrator within (C) Kuldip Nagar v. Union of India (A) thirty days (B) sixty days (D) None of the above (C) forty days (D) ninety days 24. A person who or whose father was not born 19. The decrees or orders made by Small in the territory of India but “who (A) has Causes Court are revisable by his domicile ‘in the territory of India’, and (A) the District Court (B) has been ordinarily residing ‘within the (B) the High court territory of India’ for not less than 5 years (C) Both (A) and (B) immediately preceding the commencement (D) None of the above of the Constitution” is considered as Indian 20. Who is authorised to abolish Courts of citizen. Which of the following Articles of Small Causes? the Indian Constitution describes it? 152 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

(A) Article 5 (B) Article 5B 31. Which of the following Articles of the Indian (C) Article 5A (D) Article 5C Constitution mentions the provision of the 25. Clause (4) of Article 13 of the Indian post of the Prime Minister in India? Constitution which was inserted by the (A) Article 73 (B) Article 74 24th Amendment Act, 1971, states that a (C) Article 75 (D) Article 74 (1) Constitution Amendment Act, passed 32. A person shall be disqualified for being a according to Article 368 of the Indian member of either House of the Parliament Constitution is a law within the meaning if he is so disqualified under the of Article 13 and would, accordingly be void ______Schedule. if it contravenes a fundamental right. This (A) Sixth (B) Eighth amendment was declared void in which of (C) Seventh (D) Tenth the following cases? 33. Judges of the Supreme Court can be (A) Golak Nath v. State of Punjab removed from their office by (B) Edward Mills Co. Ltd. v. State of Ajmer (A) impeachment (C) Minerva Mills v. Union of India (B) the President (D) Ghulam Sarwar v. Union of India (C) the Council of Ministers 26. Which of the following is an essential Part (D) the House of the People of rule of law and independence of judiciary? 34. Which of the following has been held to be (A) Judicial review questions of fact and not of law? (B) Impartial appointment of judges (A) Whether a fact has been proved when (C) Impeachment evidence for and against has been (D) Original jurisdiction properly received 27. The test of reasonableness is not a (B) Whether a statutory presumption has wholly______test and its contours are been rebutted fairly indicated by the Constitution. (C) Whether an endowment is private or (A) subjective (B) objective public, there being no questions of (C) descriptive (D) summative misconstruction of a document 28. Taxation is a/an ______Power of involved the State and there is no fundamental right (D) All of the above to be immune from taxation. 35. The Chief Minister shall be appointed by (A) independent (B) statutory the (C) authoritative (D) administrative (A) Prime Minister (B) Governor 29. ‘Protection in respect of conviction for (C) President (D) Vidhan Sabha offences’ is the essence of which of the 36. Absolutism means following Articles of the Indian (A) the state or quality of being absolute Constitution? (B) a sort of government in which public (A) Article 22 (B) Article 21 power is vested in some person or (C) Article 20 (D) Article 19 persons, unchecked and uncontrolled 30. According to Clause (1) of Article 25 of the by any law or institution Indian Constitution, the freedom of religion (C) unconditional power or sovereignty is subject to the interest of vested in a monarch, an autocrat or an (A) public order (B) morality oligarchy (C) health (D) All of the above (D) All of the above 29th Bihar Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2016 (Law) 153

37. Mandamus 41. “Administrative Law is the law relating to (A) is issued to check the performance of the administration. It determines the duties of a public nature organisation, powers and duties of the (B) is issued to impede the performance of administrative authorities.” Who among duties of a private nature the following jurists has given the above (C) is issued to compel the performance of definition? duties of a public nature (A) Ivor Jennings (D) None of the above (B) K. C. Davis 38. Which among the following has the power (C) Owen Hood Phillips to extend functions of the State Public (D) Keith Service Commission? 42. State the similarity between constitutional (A) The Governor and administrative laws. (B) The State Legislative (A) Both constitutional and administrative (C) The Chief Minister laws are private laws (D) The Advocate General (B) Both constitutional and administrative 39. While a proclamation of emergency is in laws regulate the highest norms of the operation State I. the executive power of the Union shall (C) Both constitutional and administrative extend to the giving of directions to any laws deal with the organisation and State as to the manner in which the functions of the government at rest executive power thereof is to be exercised (D) Both constitutional and administrative II. the power of the Parliament to make laws with respect to any matter shall laws are public laws include the power to make laws on the 43. The privilege to withhold the documents/ subject which is not enumerated in the information under the administrative law Union List is enacted in which of the following Sections Which of the above statements is/are found of the Indian Evidence Act? to be correct? (A) Section 120 (B) Section 126 (A) only I (B) only II (C) Section 123 (D) Section 98 (C) Both I and II (D) Neither I nor II 44. According to Dicey, the meaning of the rule 40. The Governor must remain conscious of his of law may be discussed under which of constitutional obligations and not sacrifice the following heads? either political responsibility or (A) Equality after law parliamentary conventions on the altar of (B) Equality of fixed rules of law ‘political expediency’. In which of the (C) Equality under law following cases, the constitutional (D) Equality before law obligations of the Governor were 45. K.C . Davis in his book, Administrative Law mentioned? gave several meanings of the term ‘rule of (A) S. R. Chaudhari v. State of Punjab law’. Choose the correct option accordingly. (B) B. R. Kapur v. State of Tamil Nadu (A) Fixed rules of law (C) Krishna Ballabh Sahay v. Commission (B) Exclusion of discretion of Inquiry (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above (D) Neither (A) nor (B) 154 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

46. The doctrine of ‘separation of powers’ can (B) There are chances to misuse the powers be explained by which of the following? which given by parent act and thereby (A) Same person should not form the part the executive may enjoy more power of more than one of the three organs of than the Parliament the government (C) Both (A) and (B) (B) Same person should not form the part (D) Neither (A) nor (B) of more than two of the three organs of 51. Conditional legislation under the the government administrative law is (C) Same person should not form the part (A) also known as subordinate legislation. of any organ of the three organs of the While making legislation, the government subordinate authorities can use their (D) None of the above discretion 47. In modern States, the executive function is (B) also known as contingent legislation. No further classified as quasi-legislative, quasi- discretion can be enjoyed as there is no judicial, ministerial and purely rule-making power administrative functions. This observation (C) Neither (A) nor (B) is based on which of the following cases? (D) Both (A) and (B) (A) Haishankar Bagla v. State of MP 52. “The principle of natural justice is one (B) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India procedural rule for the administrative (C) Hamdard Dawakhana v. Union of India action.” Considering the above statement, (D) All of the above which of the following is/are justified? 48. Delegated legislation in India can be decided (A) No man should be judged in his own for post-Constitution period. This was held cause by (B) All men should be judged in their own (A) Queen v. Burah cause (B) Re. Delhi Laws Act, 1912 [AIR 1951 SC (C) All of the above 332] (D) Neither (A) nor (B) (C) J.N. Gupta v. Province of Bihar 53. The courts in almost all the democratic (D) Both (A) and (C) 49. Choose the function which cannot be countries enjoyed the power to decide the delegated under the administrative law. validity, of the delegated legislation under (A) Power to give retrospective effect the administrative law and apply the test. (B) Appointed day or commencement of The above is related to which of the the Act following? (C) Application of existing laws (A) Test of substantive ultra vires and test (D) Suspension of operation of all/any of the of procedural ultra vires provisions of the Act (B) Where the parent act itself is 50. What is the disadvantage in delegated unconstitutional and delegated legislations? legislation is unconstitutional (A) In case of gross violation of rights of the (C) Neither (A) nor (B) people, delegated legislation can be (D) Both (A) and (B) withdrawn/amended suitably without 54. The rule against biased can be discussed much delay under the following heads : 29th Bihar Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2016 (Law) 155

I. Pecuniary bias 59. “‘Tribunals deal with the service matter II. Personal bias only.” Choose the correct option among the III. Bias as to subject-matter following which is true for the above The personal bias is decided by the Supreme statement. Court under which of the following cases? (A) It presides over by the Judge or (A) Dimes v. Grand. Junction Canal Magistrate (B) Gullapalli Nageswara Rao v. APSRTC (B) CPC and rules of evidence must be (C) A. K. Kraipak v. Union of India followed (D) Manak Lal v. Dr. Prem Chand (C) It decides basing on the rule of law, 55. Habeas corpus literally means ‘have the procedure and rules of evidence corpus’ or ‘bring the body’. Under which (D) None of the above case, habeas corpus will not be issued? 60. What is the qualification of Ombudsman? (A) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras (A) Lokpal shall not hold any office of profit (B) Batul Chandra v. State of West Bengal (B) Lokpal shall be a Member of Parliament (C) Both (A) and (B) (C) Lokpal shall carry on any business/ (D) Neither (A) nor (B) profession 56. The essential of audi alteram partem is (D) None of the above (A) issuance of notice without hearing 61. Hindu Law is (B) taking adverse action against him (A) Civil Law (B) Personal Law (C) depriving the rights (C) Constitutional Law(D) Criminal Law (D) notice 62. The ancient source(s) of the Hindu Law is/ 57. What is the essential condition of the are mandamus? (A) Sruti (B) Smriti (A) The petitioner must have legal right (C) digest, commentaries and custom which can be judicially enforceable (D) All of the above (B) The public authority concerned must do 63. Section 5 (i) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 his duty provides for (C) The petitioner should not make a (A) monogamy (B) bigamy demand for the performance of the duty (C) polygamy (D) polyandry (D) None of the above 64. Under which Section of the Hindu Marriage 58. According to the constitutional provisions Act, 1955, ‘judicial separation’ has been regarding contractual liability of the State, provided? which of the following conditions must be (A) Section 9 (B) Section 10 fulfilled in order to make a contract valid, (C) Section 11 (D) Section 13 in which the government is a party? 65. Section 16 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 (A) The contract made has to be executed deals with the legitimacy of the children of on behalf of the President or the (A) void marriages government as the case may be (B) voidable marriages (B) Any executive entering the contract on (C) void and voidable marriages his own (D) valid marriages (C) Any contract expressed to be made 66. A Hindu marriage may be solemnized without any authority according to the customary rites and (D) All of the above ceremonies of 156 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

(A) bride 72. A junior male member of a Hindu (B) bridegroom undivided family may be its ‘Karta’ (C) both the parties (A) when he is able and intelligent (D) either party (bride and bridegroom) (B) without the consent of the coparceners thereto of the family if he is able and clever 67. ‘Son’, in Class I of the Schedule of the Hindu (C) only with the consent of the other Succession Act, 1956, does not include coparceners of the family (A) adopted son (D) only with the order of the mother (B) stepson 73. What are the main sources of the Muslim (C) illegitimate son Law? (D) None of the above 68. Which of the following is correct under (A) Koran Section 10 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 (B) Sunnat and Ahadis for the surviving sons, surviving daughters (C) Ijma and Qiyas and mother of the male intestate? (D) All of the above (A) Each shall take one share 74. By which man a Muslim lady may legally (B) All will take one share marry? (C) All the sons and daughters shall take (A) Hindu one share and mother shall take one share (B) Muslim (D) All the sons and daughters shall take (C) Kitabiya one share and mother shall take no share (D) None of the above 69. Under Section 14 of the Hindu Succession 75. With whom a ‘Shia’ Muslim man is entitled Act, 1956, any property possessed by a to perform a temporary marriage, i.e., female Hindu, whether acquired by her ‘Muta’? before or after the commencement of this Act, shall be held by her as a (A) Muslim woman (A) full owner (B) Christian woman (B) limited owner (C) Jewish or a fire-worship-ping woman (C) coowner with her husband (D) Any of the women stated above (D) None of the above 76. Whether a Muslim may give ‘Talaq’ in the 70. According to the Hindu Adoption and state of intoxication or under pressure? Maintenance Act, 1956, ‘minor’ means a (A) Yes, recognized under the ‘Sunni’ person who has not completed his or her Muslim Law age of (B) Yes, recognized under the ‘Shia’ Muslim (A) 14 years (B) 16 years Law (C) 18 years (D) 21 years (C) Yes, according to the ‘Ismailiya’ Law 71. A female Hindu who is major and is of sound (D) Yes, according to the ‘Usuli’ Law mind is legally capable to take in adoption, 77. By the third pronouncement (utterance) of a son or a daughter, if ‘Talaq’, which kind of ‘Talaq’ becomes (A) she is widow or divorced woman (B) she is unmarried woman effective? (C) her husband has completely and finally (A) Talaq-e-Hassan renounced the world or has ceased to (B) Talaq-e-Ahsan be a Hindu or has been declared by a (C) Talaq-e –Tafweez court of competent jurisdiction to be of (D) None of the above unsound mind 78. Acknowledgement of paternity once made (D) All of the above under Muslim Law 29th Bihar Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2016 (Law) 157

(A) cannot be revoked (A) each attesting witness must see the (B) can be revoked executant sign the instrument or affix (C) can be revoked by previous permission his mark of capable judiciary (B) the executant must see the attesting (D) None of the above witness signing the instrument 79. In whose custody, the Muslim illegitimate (C) each attesting witness must sign the children will be kept? instrument in the presence of the (A) Father executant (B) Mother (D) All of the above (C) Both father and mother 85. A has a wife B and a son C. C in (D) Maternal grandmother consideration of f 5 lakhs paid to him by his 80. Which of the following gifts is not valid? mother B executes a deed by a registered (A) Gift in future instrument releasing his share of (B) Conditional gift inheritance to A’s property. A dies and C (C) Gift based on wagering contract or claims his share in A’s property. Which of contingent contract the following is correct? (D) All of the above (A) C is bound by his instrument and 81. ‘Rule against perpetuity’ given under the cannot claim his share in A’s property Transfer of property Act, 1882 does not (B) C is not bound by his instrument and affect any rule of can claim his share in A’s property (A) Hindu Law (C) C is bound by his instrument if (B) Muhammadan Law instrument is attested by at least two (C) Christian Law witnesses (D) None of the above (D) C can claim the share in properties of A 82. Standing Timbers under the Transfer of only after the death of his mother Property Act, 1882 are 86. A agrees to sell to B a certain quantity of (A) immovable properties only so long as gunny bags deliverable on a future day. Before the due date, B assigns his beneficial not severed from the earth interest in the contract to C. A commits a (B) immovable properties unless there is a breach of contract. Which of the following contract to sever the same from the is correct? earth (A) C is entitled to sue A for damages for (C) not immovable properties not delivering the gunny bags (D) immovable properties if value exceeds (B) C is not entitled to sue for damages as it Rs. 100 will amount to transfer of mere right to 83. Instrument under the Transfer of Property sue by B Act, 1882 means (C) C is not entitled to sue A for damages as (A) a testamentary instrument there is no privity of contract between (B) a testamentary as well as a non- A and C testamentary instrument (D) C is entitled to sue only to get his money (C) a non-testamentary instrument back from B (D) any written document 87. Provision based on doctrine of acceleration 84. For valid attestation of an instrument under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, it (A) Section 29 (B) Section 28 is necessary that (C) Section 22 (D) Section 30 158 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

88. A owns two adjoining properties X and Y. 91. Which of the following pairs is correctly A sells the property X to B and imposes a matched? condition that for the more beneficial (A) Marshalling by subsequent purchaser enjoyment of the property Y, B shall keep —Section 81 open a portion of property X and will not build upon it. Which of the following is (B) Right of mortgagor to redeem correct? —Section 60A (A) The condition is not valid since A has (C) Right of usufructuary mortgagor to sold the property which is an absolute recover possession —Section 62 transfer and hence A cannot impose any (D) None of the above condition on the mode of enjoyment of 92. Relief from Equity Court could be obtained the property X (A) before adjudication in the Common Law (B) The condition is valid Courts (C) The condition would have been valid only if the transfer had been without (B) after decision by the Common Law consideration Courts (D) The condition will be valid only if A (C) both before or after decision by the proves that he has no other way to reach Common Law Courts to his property Y except through the (D) None of the above open portion of the property X 93. Equity Court could be approached 89. A makes a gift of land to B. C sues A for (A) as a matter of right possession of the land. While the suit is pending, B transfers the land to D. A dies (B) as a matter of grace and C obtains a decree for possession (C) Both (A) and (B) against B as legal representative of A. Is D’s (D) None of the above title affected by the rule of lis pendens so as 94. An equitable interest is an interest to be subject of C’s decree? recognised by (A) Yes, because transfer is without (A) the Court of Chancery consideration (B) the Common Law Courts (B) No, because B was not a party to the (C) Both (A) and (B) suit at the time of transfer by B to D (D) None of the above (C) B is not legal representative of A for Cs 95. A transfers t 10,000 in four percent to B, in decree trust to pay the interest annually accruing (D) After gift made to B, C cannot sue A for due to C for her life. A dies. Then C dies. possession of the land Which of the following is correct? 90. Handing over the possession of mortgaged (A) B holds the fund for the benefit of C’s property is required in legal representative (A) mortgage by conditional sale (B) B holds the fund for the benefit of A’s (B) English mortgage legal representative (C) mortgage by deposit of title deeds (C) B may now enjoy the fund for himself (D) None of the above (D) Fund is liable to be forfeited by the State s 29th Bihar Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2016 (Law) 159

96. Where the trust property consists of money 102.Communication of acceptance is complete and cannot be applied immediately or at as against the acceptor an early date to the purposes of the trust, (A) when it is put in the course of the trustee is bound (subject to any transmission direction contained in the instrument of (B) when the proposer conveys the trust) to invest the money on the specified acceptance to the acceptor securities and on no others. Which Section (C) when it is communicated to the acceptor of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882 contains this that the acceptance has reached the proposer provision? (D) when it comes to the knowledge of the (A) Section 18 (B) Section 19 proposer (C) Section 20 (D) Section 21 103. A ‘tender’ is 97. Which of the following Sections of the (A) an offer Indian Trusts Act deals with liability for (B) an invitation to offer breach of trust? (C) an invitation for discussion (A) Section 20 (B) Section 21 (D) a promise (C) Section 22 (D) Section 23 104.An agreement in restraint of marriage is 98. The words and expressions used in the (A) valid (B) illegal Specific Relief Act, but not defined in the (C) void (D) voidable Act, have meaning as defined in the 105.In order to convert a proposal into a (A) General Clauses Act promise (B) Indian Contract Act (A) the acceptance of proposal must be (C) Transfer of Property Act absolute and unqualified (D) Civil Procedure Code (B) the acceptance of proposal may be 99. Which of the following Sections of the varied Specific Relief Act deals with recovery of (C) the acceptance of proposal may be specific movable property? conditional (A) Section 5 (B) Section 7 (D) the acceptance of proposal may be (C) Section 8 (D) Section 9 absolute, varied or conditional 100.Which of the following pairs is not correctly 106.A proposal can be revoked by the proposer (A) by the communication of notice by the matched? proposer to the other party (A) Contracts not specifically enforceable— (B) by the lapse of time prescribed in such Section 15 proposal for its acceptance (B) Power to award compensation in (C) by the failure of the acceptor to fulfil a certain cases—Section 21 condition precedent to acceptance (C) Liquidation of damages not a bar to (D) All of the above specific performance—Section 23 107.Which one of the following is correct? (D) Temporary and perpetual (A) All agreements are contracts once they injunctions—Section 37 have been made between the parties for 101.Every promise and every set of promises, a consideration forming the consideration for each other is (B) All agreements are contracts once they (A) an offer (B) an agreement have been made between the parties (C) an acceptance (D) a contract with their free consent 160 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

(C) All agreements are contracts once they 113.A agrees to sell a horse of worth t 5,000 for t have been made between the competent 1,000 to B. A’s consent to the agreement was parties freely given. The agreement is (D) All agreements are contracts if they are (A) a contract made by the free consent of parties (B) not a contract for inadequacy of competent to contract for lawful consideration and lawful object and not consideration expressly declared by law to be void (C) not enforceable 108.A valid contract at the initial stage ceases (D) against the provision of the Contract Act to be enforceable subsequently due to 114.Which one is the famous case related with intervention of unforeseen factors. The the general offer? contract will (A) Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Dutt (A) remain valid (B) Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose (B) be voidable at the option of either party to the contract, when it ceases to be (C) Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co. enforceable (D) MacPherson v. Appanna (C) become void since the time of its 115.Consent will be said to be free, when it is inception not caused by coercion, undue influence, (D) become void since the time it ceases to fraud, misrepresentation and mistake. The be enforceable term ‘free consent’ has been defined in 109.In Indian Law, a wagering contract is which Section of the Contract Act? (A) treated as voidable (A) Section 14 (B) Section 15 (B) treated as void (C) treated against public policy (C) Section 16 (D) Section 17 (D) treated as valid 116.Which statement is correct for an act of tort? 110.A person who finds goods belonging to (A) It is a civil wrong another and takes them into his custody is (B) All civil wrongs are not tort subject to responsibility in the same way (C) It gives a right in rem as a/an (D) All of the above (A) owner thereof 117.A tort is a breach of duty, which is (B) pledgee thereof (C) bailee thereof (A) imposed by the parties (D) custodian thereof (B) imposed by the law 111.An agency under the Contract Act is (C) imposed by the penal law terminated by (D) imposed by the society (A) principal revoking his authority 118.Who said that liability in law of tort arises (B) the death of either principal or agent only when the wrong is covered by any one (C) principal being adjudicated an or the other nominated tort? insolvent (A) Fraser (B) Winfield (D) All of the above (C) Blackstone (D) Salmond 112.The liability of the surety under the 119.Qui facit per alium facit per se, a maxim in law contract of guarantee is (A) several with that of the principal debtor of tort, is related with which act of tort? (B) alternate with that of the principal (A) Capacity to sue (B) Negligence debtor (C) Vicarious liability(D) Defamation (C) coextensive with that of the principal 120.In a suit for damages on the ground of debtor malicious prosecution, what is required to (D) All of the above be proved by the plaintiff ? 29th Bihar Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2016 (Law) 161

(A) That he was prosecuted by the 127.Where a person willfully and without any defendant justification is dealing with the goods in (B) That the prosecution was instituted such a manner that another person, who is without reasonable and probable cause entitled to its immediate use and possession of the same, is deprived of that is known as (C) Proceedings for malicious prosecution (A) tort of conversion terminated in favour of the plaintiff (B) tort of detinue (D) All of the above (C) tort of trespass to goods 121.The maxim ubi jus ibi remedium means (D) tort of nuisance (A) where there is remedy there is right 128.For application of the rule of strict liability, (B) where there is right there is remedy which of the following essentials is (C) where there is fault there is remedy required? (D) where there is no fault there is no (A) Keeping or storing the dangerous thing remedy by a person on his land 122.Which one of the following famous cases is (B) Non-natural use of the land by the person related to an exception to the application of (C) Escape of the dangerous thing out of the the doctrine of volenti non fit injuria based land of the person storing or keeping it on ‘rescue’ cases? and causing damage or injury (A) Haynes v. Harwood (D) All of the above (B) Padmavati v. Dugganaika 129.Which statement is correct? (C) Ashby v. White (A) A public nuisance is a civil wrong as (D) Wooldridge v. Sumner well as a crime 123.In which case, the principle of absolute (B) A private nuisance is a civil wrong as liability was laid down? well as a crime (A) Bhim Singh v. State of J & K (C) A public nuisance is a crime and not a civil wrong (B) Rylands v. Fletcher (D) A private nuisance is a crime and not a (C) M. C. Mehta v. Union of India civil wrong (D) Lloyd v. Grace, Smith & Co. 130.The leading case in which the test of 124.’Res ipsa loquitur’ is a rule of directness for determining the remoteness (A) criminal law (B) statutory law of damages was finally established is (C) substantive law(D) evidence law (A) Smith v. London South-Western 125.The standard of care required on the part Railway Co. of defendant in the tort of ‘negligence’ is of (B) Wagon Mound Case (A) highly skilled person (C) Re Polemis and Furness Withy & Co. (B) any person of least understanding (D) Overseas Tankship (UK) Ltd. v. Morts (C) a reasonable and prudent man Dock & Engineering Co. Ltd. 131.In a contract for the sale of specific goods, if (D) a person having legal understanding at the time of the contract the goods have, 126.The rule regarding the principle of without the knowledge of the seller, negligence was laid down in the leading case perished, then of (A) the contract is legal for the buyer (A) Glasgow Corp. v. Muir (B) the contract is voidable at the option of (B) Donoghue v. Stevenson the buyer (C) Winterbottom v. Wright (C) the contract is void for both the parties (D) Ishwari Devi v. Union of India (D) the contract has become illegal 162 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

132.In an agreement to sell the goods on the (B) it was a normal sale and the principle terms that the price is to be fixed by the ‘let the buyer beware’ applies and the valuation of a third party but such third seller is not liable for damages party fails to make the valuation, then (C) it was a sale by sample and the plastic (A) the valuation may be made by the seller toy catapult was as per sample, hence (B) the valuation may be made by the buyer the seller is not liable for damages (C) the valuation may be made jointly by (D) after sale, the property in goods was the buyer and the seller transferred to the buyer, hence the seller (D) the buyer and the seller cannot make cannot be held responsible for the the valuation and the contract becomes negligence of the buyer void 135.A sold the goods on credit to B and delivered 133.Sohan, a fraudulent person posing himself the goods to the buyer’s shipping agent a respectable person, purchased a valuable who had put them on board a ship. ring from Mohan, a shopkeeper by giving However, the goods were returned to the him a cheque. The cheque was dishonoured seller for repacking. When the goods were but before the fraud could be detected, still with the seller, the buyer became Sohan pledged the ring with Rohan who insolvent. The seller being unpaid refuses acted in good faith and without notice of to return the goods. Examine the following Sohan’s defect of title. What is the correct options and decide the correct one. position? (A) As the buyer has become insolvent, he (A) Mohan can sue Sohan, the buyer, to is unable to pay the cost, hence he recover the ring cannot sue the seller for goods (B) Rohan’s title to the ring is good against (B) As the seller is still unpaid and he is in Mohan and Sohan, hence he will retain possession of the goods, he has lien on the ring goods and hence he has right to retain (C) Sohan’s title to the ring was defective, the goods hence Mohan can sue Rohan and (C) Though the buyer has become insolvent but the seller too has lost his right of succeed to take the ring back lien on goods and the goods belong to (D) The contract is based on fraud, hence the buyer can be declared void and no liability of (D) The seller will resell the goods and out parties will arise in the void contract of the sale proceeds will retain original 134.A, a toy dealer, displayed in his shop price and refund the extra to the window some plastic toy catapults. B, a original buyer child of six years of age, was attracted to 136.In negotiable instruments, the great element the toys and one plastic toy catapult was of negotiability is the acquisition of bought from the shop after discussion with property by party’s own conduct and not the shopkeeper. While the child was using by another’s, i.e., if you take it bona fide and it, the toy catapult broke off and entered for value, nobody can deprive you of it. the left eye of the child which had to be Which one of the following is the authority removed. The case is filed against the seller of this proposition? for damages. There is contention that (A) Whistler v. Forster (A) it was a sale by description, hence the (B) Raphael v. Bank of England seller is liable for damages as the toy (C) Carlos v. Fancourt was not of merchantable quality (D) Roberts v. Peake 29th Bihar Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2016 (Law) 163

137.The law requires that every party to a 140.When the holder of the cheque receives negotiable instrument must be capable of information from the bank that the cheque contracting according to the law of the has been dishonoured, he should make a contract. What happens when a minor demand______by giving a notice becomes party to the instrument as drawer in writing to the drawer of the cheque for or maker or indorser? payment of the money. (A) The whole instrument is void and all (A) within fifteen days parties are discharged of their liability (B) within thirty days (B) The instrument is voidable and every (C) within twenty-one days party has right to declare it void (C) The instrument is valid and all parties (D) within forty-five days including minor are liable under the 141.A small company’ may be one whose instrument turnover as per its last Profit and Loss (D) The minor is not liable on the Account did not exceed or such higher instrument but it remains binding upon amount as may be prescribed which all other parties cannot be more than 138.Where an instrument requires indorsement (A) R 2 crores, R 10 crores and it has been indorsed, then what is the (B) R 2 crores, R 50 crores rule creating liability on it among the (C) R 2 crores, R 20 crores following options? (D) R 5 crores, R 50 crores (A) Every indorser incurs liability to all the 142.Inactive company means a company which parties that are subsequent to him has not been carrying on any business or (B) Only the first indorser and not the has not filed financial statements and subsequent indorsers will be liable to annual returns during all the parties (A) the last three financial years (C) If an indorser denies the genuineness of the instrument, he may be exempted (B) the last two financial years from his liability (C) the last four financial years (D) If an indorser shows that the (D) the last five financial years instrument had already been altered 143.The Companies Act, 2013 has provided that before he received it, he will be in listed companies, appointment of exempted from his liability independent directors is mandatory and 139.Which of the following options is not the independent directors will be appointed correct? A bill of exchange may have to be (A) from the list provided by the Company presented for acceptance before it is Law Board presented for payment. Presentment for (B) from the list of persons given by the acceptance is necessary only where Ministry of Law and Company Affairs (A) the bill is payable at a given time after sight (C) from the Data Bank maintained for this (B) the bill expressly stipulates that it shall purpose be presented for acceptance before (D) from the list of persons nominated by presentment for payment the share-holders of the company (C) the bill is made payable at a place other 144.The Companies Act, 2013 has done a than the place of business or residence tremendous job by providing Company’s (D) the drawer and the drawee have Social Responsibility (CSR) as a mandatory common interest in presenting the bill activity. A company has to comply with for acceptance mandatory CSR norms where 164 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

(A) the net worth of the company is INR (C) That every partner may borrow money (Indian National Rupee) 1,000 crores or on account of the partnership more (D) That every partner may engage (B) the turnover of the company is INR servants for the partnership business 1,000 crores or more 148.If a person who is minor according to the (C) its net profit during any financial year law to which he is subject is admitted to is INR 50 crores or more the benefits of a partnership, it is claimed (D) its paid-up share capital is INR 200 that crores or more (A) his share in the firm’s property is not 145.The National Company Law Appellate liable to the firm’s debts Tribunal consists of judicial and technical (B) he can sue the partners to show the accounts members. The Chairperson is one who is or (C) he can enjoy, for some time, the status has been a judge of the Supreme Court or of minority even after attaining the Chief Justice of a High Court. The majority maximum number of members in the (D) he can sue the partners for payment of NCLAT has been provided as his share of profits of the firm (A) eleven members (B) nine members 149.Where a partner becomes insolvent, he (C) thirteen members (D)seven members ceases to be partner in the firm 146.A, B and C enter into an agreement for (A) on the date on which he declares himself partnership at will. The partnership deed as insolvent contains the following provisions. Which (B) on the date which is agreed by him with one of the following provisions of the deed other partners for declaring him is inconsistent with partnership at will? insolvent (A) That there will be option for a surviving (C) on the date on which insolvency of the partner to purchase a deceased partner’s partner is advertised publicly by the share at a fixed valuation remaining partners (B) That disputes between the partners, if (D) on the date on which order of any, shall be referred to arbitration adjudication is made (C) That every partner will have a power 150.A, B and C enter into an agreement for to nominate his successor partnership in which C remains a sleeping (D) That if any partner wants to retire from partner. It is found that C is in adulterous partnership, notice of a certain fixed relationship with B’s wife. What is the time will be required before retirement correct line of action? 147.By implied authority, each partner binds (A) B insists that the firm be dissolved on this ground and advances his action for it all other partners by his acts in all matters (B) A advises to terminate C from the firm which are within the scope and objects of and insists B to continue the firm’s partnership. In a partnership of general business commercial nature, which of the following (C) C regrets for his act and insists to is not within the implied authority of compensate the firm’s loss, if any, partners? instead of dissolution of the firm (A) That every partner may pledge or sell (D) A opposes dissolution of the firm as it the partnership property was not a fit ground of dissolution and (B) That any partner may admit any advises to continue the business afresh liability in a suit against the firm  165

30th Bihar Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2018 (Solved Paper) (Series-B) (G.K. & Law)

Solved Paper-2018 10. The Headquarters of ISRO is in (a) New Delhi (b) Hyderabad General Knowledge (G.K.) (c) Mumbai (d) Bengaluru 11. The discoverer of penicillin was 1. Kilowatt-hour is the unit of (a) Lord Lister (a) energy (b) power (b) Alexander Fleming (c) force (d) momentum (c) Karl Landsteiner (d) Walter Reed 2. In a nuclear reactor, which one of the 12. The disease caused by virus is following is used as a fuel? (a) typhoid (b) cholera (a) Coal (b) Uranium (c) common cold (d) tetanus (c) Radium (d) Diesel 13. In nuclear reactors, electricity is produced 3. In MRI machine, what type of waves is used? by the process of (a) Sound wave (b) X-ray (a) nuclear fission (b) nuclear fusion (c) Ultrasound wave (d) Magnetic wave (c) cold fusion 4. Which one of the following types of laser is (d) superconductivity used in laser printer? 14. Which of the following countries has approved world's first dengue vaccine? (a) Excimer laser (b) Dye laser (a) United Kingdom (b) Canada (c) Semiconductor laser (c) Mexico (d) France (d) Gas laser 15. First Indian satellite 'Aryabhatta' was 5. The power of lens is measured in launched in which year? (a) watt (b) lumen (a) 1970 (b) 1972 (c) diopter (d) candela (c) 1975 (d) 1980 6. 'Fermi' is a unit of 16. What is TERLS? (a) maas (b) length (a) A rocket launching station (c) velocity (d) time (b) A satellite launched by India 7. Computed tomography (CT) scan uses (c) A space science and technology centre (a) X-rays (d) A satellite launched by the USA (b) ultrasound waves 17. 'Ohm' is a unit of measuring (c) radio waves (d) infrared waves (a) resistance (b) voltage 8. In binary code, the number 7 is written as (c) current (d) conductivity (a) 110 (b) 111 18. Which among the following principles is (c) 010 (d) 100 used by Bats? 9. Which one of the following has the highest (a) SONAR melting point? (b) RADAR (a) Gold (b) Silver (c) Law of reflection (c) Silicon (d) Copper (d) Law of diffraction 166 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

19. Baking soda is (a) Riboflavin (b) Ascorbic acid (a) sodium carbohydrate (c) Tocopherol (d) Thiamine (b) sodium bicarbonate 30. In which of the following regions, the ozone (c) sodium sulphate layer is present? (d) sodium hydroxide (a) Troposphere (b) Ionosphere 20. Density of water is highest at the (c) Stratosphere (d) Exosphere temperature of 31. Which of the following is the oldest culture (a) 0 0C (b) 4 0C of India? (c) 50 0C (d) 100 0C (a) Palaeolithic culture 21. Gobar gas contains mainly (b) Mesolithic culture (a) methane (b) ethylene (c) Neolithic culture (d) Vedic culture (c) propylene (d) acetylene 32. How many Vedas are there? 22. The Bhopal Gas Tragedy was caused by the (a) One (b) Two leakage of which gas? (c) Three (d) Four (a) Phosgene (b) Carbon dioxide 33. With which material Harappan culture (c) Methyl isocyanate (d) Chlorine tools were made? 23. Consider the following : (a) Gold (b) Silver 1. Submarine communication (c) Copper/Bronze (d) Iron 2. AM radio 34. Dockyard is unearthed from which 3. Shortwave radio Chalcolithic site? 4. Radar (a) Mohenjo-daro (b) Harappa Arrange the above in increasing frequency (c) Lothal (d) Daimabad of the waves used in their applications 35. The end date of Pleistocene is (a) 4-3-2-1 (b) 1-2-3-4 (a) 20000 years BP (b) 10000 years BP (c) 2-1-4-3 (d) 2-3-4-1 (c) 6000 years BP (d) 2000 years BP 24. In which year, Sir C.V. Raman was awarded 36. The world famous rock-art site in India is the Nobel Prize for Raman effect? situated at (a) 1927 (b) 1929 (a) Adamgarh (b) Gupteshwar (c) 1930 (d) 1932 (c) Bhimbetka (d) Kabra Pahar 25. The major component of the LPG is 37. The first bead-making evidence is found (a) methane (b) butane from which of the following? (c) ethane (d) propane (a) Patne (b) Bhimbetka 26. Identify the metal which is non-toxic in (c) Adamgarh (d) Baghor nature 38. From which pre-Harappan site, furrow (a) Chromium (b) Gold evidences were found? (c) Cadmium (d) Cobalt (a) Kalibangan (b) Lothal 27. Which of the following glands produces (c) Ahar (d) Bara insulin? 39. The earliest culture unearthed at Chirand (a) Pancreas (b) Kidney is (c) Liver (d) None of the (a) Neolithic culture above (b) Chalcolithic culture 28. BCG immunization is for (c) Mesolithic culture (a) measles (b) tuberculosis (d) Historical culture (c) diphtheria (d) leprosy 40. Damdama site is situated in which State? 29. Which vitamin is most readily destroyed (a) Bihar (b) Jharkhand by heat? (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Rajasthan 30th Bihar Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2018 (Law) 167

41. Which metal played an important role in 52. Who was the first President of Independent second urbanization? India? (a) Gold (b) Silver (a) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Copper (d) Iron 42. The birthplace of Mahavira was at (b) Rajendra Prasad (a) Kaushambi (b) Kundagrama (c) Sardar Patel (c) Sarnath (d) Prayaga (d) Lal Bahadur Shastri 43. The name of the mother of Mahatma Buddha 53. Which ruler established a department for was the Slaves (Gulam)? (a) Mahamaya (b) Prabhavati (a) Firuz Shah Tugluq (c) Shakuntala (d) Rajashri 44. Pataliputra was the capital of which (b) Razia Sultan kingdom? (c) Sikandar Lodi (a) Kashi (b) Koshal (d) Mahmud of Ghazni (c) Anga (d) Magadha 54. How many parts are there in Akbarnama? 45. The capital of Avanti kingdom was (a) Two (b) Three (a) Pataliputra (b) Kaushambi (c) Ujjain (d) Gaya (c) Four (d) Five 46. Kautilya or Chanakya was the Prime 55. Rajinama is the Persian translation of which Minister of which Emperor? Hindi book? (a) Chandragupta Maurya (a) Ramayana (b) Mahabharata (b) Chandragupta Vikramaditya (c) Ramcharitmanas (d) Kavitavali (c) Samudragupta (d) Harsha 47. Ashoka invaded which kingdom? 56. Who was the last Hindu ruler of Delhi? (a) Kashi (b) Kaushambi (a) Hemchandra Vikramaditya (c) Kalinga (d) Anga (b) Vikramaditya 48. Who convened the fourth Buddhist (c) Dara Shikoh Council? (d) Veer Savarkar (a) Ajatashatru (b) Ashoka 57. Where is British Fort William situated? (c) Kanishka (d) Harsha 49. Chandragupta II was the ruler of which (a) Kolkata (b) Chennai Dynasty/Empire? (c) Hyderabad (d) Delhi (a) Mauryan (b) Gupta 58. The writer of Abhigyan Shakuntalam is (c) Vardhan (d) None of the (a) Kalidasa (b) Tulsidasa above (c) Banabhatta (d) Chand Bardai 50. The 'Chandra' of Meherauli Iron Pillar Inscription is associated with 59. Din-i-Ilahi in 1582 AD was promulgated by (a) Chandragupta Maurya (a) Sher Shah Suri (b) Babur (b) Chandragupta (c) Akbar (d) Aurangzeb (c) Chandragupta II 60. Who founded Khilaphat Andolan? (d) Chand Bardai (a) Maulana Muhammad Ali and Shaukat 51. The oldest coins of India are Ali (a) tribal coins (b) punch-marked coins (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Naga coins (c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Kushana coins (d) Lal Bahadur Shastri 168 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

61. Who started Benares Hindu University? 69. Which one of the following pairs is not (a) Swami Dayanand correctly matched? (b) Pt. Madan Mohan Malviya (a) Doddabetta – Tamil Nadu (c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (b) Guru Shikhar – Rajasthan (d) Sucheta Kripiani (c) Gorakhnath – Gujarat 62. Who is the writer of The Indian War of (d) Mahendragiri – Andhra Pradesh Independence, 1857? 70. Match List-I with List-II and select the (a) Raja Ram Mohan Ray correct answer using the codes given below (b) B.D. Savarkar the Lists: (c) Sarojini Naidu List–I List–II (d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (a) Coal deposits 1. Vindhyan system 63. Who led Savinay Avagya Andolan? (b) Petroleum 2. Cambrian to (a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Rajendra Prasad reserves Permian system (c) Lal Bahadur Shastri (c) Gold deposits 3. Eocene to Miocene (d) Mahatma Gandhi system 64. When did Chauri-chaura incidence take (d) Diamond deposits 4. Dharwar system place? Codes: (a) February 5, 1922 a b c d (b) January 26, 1857 (A) 2 4 1 3 (c) August 15, 1857 (B) 3 2 1 4 (d) December 25, 1925 (C) 2 3 4 1 65. Where is RSS head office situated? (D) 3 1 2 4 (a) Delhi (b) Kolkata 71. Which one of the following pairs is not (c) Mumbai (d) Nagpur correctly matched? 66. The State with highest percentage of (a) Coir Board – Thiruvanathapuram geographical area under mountainous (b) Spice Board – Cochin topography [i.e. more than 2000 meters] is (c) Coffee Board – Bengaluru (a) Sikkim (b) Himachal Pradesh (d) Tea Board – Kolkata (c) Arunachal Pradesh 72. The largest salt-producing State in India is (d) Jammu and Kashmir (a) Tamil Nadu (b) A n d h r a 67. Which one of the following major river Pradesh basins of India is smallest in terms of basin (c) Gujarat (d) Maharashtra area? 73. Wainganga is the tributary of (a) Sabarmati (b) Brahmani (a) Mahanadi (b) Ganga (c) Pennar (d) Mahi (c) Cauvery (d) Godavari 68. Identify the State sharing its boundary with 74. Match List-I with List-II and select the maximum number of States. correct answer using the codes given below (a) Assam (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) Maharashtra (d) Jharkhand the Lists: 30th Bihar Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2018 (Law) 169

List–I List–II 78. Which one of the following major ports of Railway Zone Headquarters India is renamed as Deen Dayal Port? (a) East-Central 1. Secunderabad (a) Nhava Sheva (b) Ennore (b) South-Central 2. Jabalpur (c) Kandla (d) Tuticorin (c) West-Central 3. Allahabad 79. Match List-I with List-II and select the (d) North-Central 4. Hajipur correct answer using the codes given below Codes: the Lists: a b c d List–I List–II (A) 2 3 1 4 (a) Pulicat 1. Punjab (B) 4 1 2 3 (b) Harike 2. Gujarat (C) 3 4 1 2 (c) Nal Sarovar 3. Tamil Nadu (D) 4 2 3 1 (d) Vedanthangal 4. Andhra Pradesh 75. Which one of the following pairs is not Codes: correctly matched? a b c d (a) Highest percentage of forest cover– (A) 3 2 1 4 Madhya Pradesh (B) 4 1 2 3 (b) Highest percentage of area under (C) 2 3 4 1 mangroves–West Bengal (D) 1 4 3 2 (c) Largest area under coral reefs– 80. Which one of the following pairs is not Andaman and Nicobar correctly matched? (d) Largest area under wetlands–Gujarat (a) World's largest single location solar 76. Grey and brown soils are mostly found in power plant–Kamuthi (a) Maharashtra and Karnataka (b) World's largest solar park–Kurnool (b) Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu (c) Banasura Sagar Dam, floating solar (c) Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh power plant–Kerala (d) Rajasthan and Gujarat (d) Pavagada Solar Park–Gujarat 77. Match List-I with List-II and select the 81. Which country hosted the FIFA World Cup, correct answer using the codes given below 2018? the Lists: (a) Australia (b) Russia List–I List–II (c) USA (d) Britain (a) Platinum 1. Madhya Pradesh 82. Where will the 2022 Asian Games be held? (b) Silver 2. Karnataka (c) Diamond 3. Odisha (a) China (b) Pakistan (d) Tungsten 4. Rajasthan (c) Bangladesh (d) India Codes: 83. Who is the Vice Chairman of NITI Aayog of a b c d India? (A) 3 4 1 2 (a) Arvind Saxena (B) 4 3 2 1 (b) R.K. Mathur (C) 2 1 4 3 (c) Dr. Rajiv Kumar (D) 1 2 3 4 (d) Ashim Khurana 170 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

84. Who is the present Secretary-General of 92. Who is the present Chief Justice of the UNO? Supreme Court? (a) Antonio Guterres (b) Ban Ki-moon (a) D.Y. Chandrachud (b) Ranjan Gogoi (c) Miroslav Lajcak (d) Peter Thomson (c) Madan B. Lokur (d) J. Chelameswar 85. Which cricketer has been chosen as 'the 93. 'Operation Madad' is related to cricketer of the year, 2017'? (a) Mahendra Singh Dhoni (a) Kerala flood relief (b) Odisha cyclone (b) Virat Kohli (c) Anti-terror operation in Kashmir valley (c) Chris Gayle (d) Steve Smith (d) Kolkata bridge collapse 86. In which country, the world's largest 'air 94. Who is the currect President of DMK? purifier' has been built? (a) M. Karunanidhi (b) M.K. Stalin (a) India (b) China (c) C.N. Annadurai (d) M.K. Muthu (c) USA (d) France 95. 'Statue of Unity' is related to whom? 87. What is the purpose of 'India Pride Project'? (a) Vallabhbhai Patel (a) To provide justice to the Indians living in foreign countries (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) To provide justice to women who have (c) Deen Dayal Upadhyaya been divorced by NRIs (d) B.R. Ambedkar (c) To attach NRIs with Indian culture 96. Which of the following has been declared as (d) Bringing Indian heritage back to India 'Ayushman Bharat Divas'? 88. Which scheme has been approved by the (a) Dussehra (b) Dhanteras Central Government for providing skill (c) Diwali (d) Ram Navami training to one crore youth across the 97. Mughalsarai Junction Railway Station has country? (a) Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana been officially renamed as (b) Digital India Mission (a) Jal Prakash Narayan Station (c) Start-up India (b) Ram Manohar Lohia Station (d) Stand-up India (c) Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Junction 89. Which Union Department has launched Railway Station India Hackathon program? (d) Sardar Patel Station (a) Ministry of Sports and Youth Affairs 98. Who has been awarded 'Legion of Merit' (b) Ministry of Human Resource Award by the USA? Development (c) Ministry of Urban Development and (a) Gen. Dalbir Singh Suhag Housing (b) Gen. Bipin Rawat (d) Ministry of Earth Sciences (c) Rajendrasinhji Jadeja 90. In which State, Raksha Bandhan Day is (d) Roy Bucher celebrated as 'Tree Safety Day'? 99. Baby Rani Maurya has been appointed as (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Haryana the Governor of which State? (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Bihar (a) Meghalaya (b) Chhattisgarh 91. Which expressway has been named as 'Atal Path'? (c) Odisha (d) Uttarakhand (a) Agra-Lucknow expressway 100. Which State has pubished the first 'National (b) Purvanchal expressway Register of Citizens (NRC)' of India? (c) Bundelkhand expressway (a) Sikkim (b) Tripura (d) Yamuna expressway (c) Assam (d) Goa 30th Bihar Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2018 (Law) 171

(a) Hostile witness – Section 154 Solved Paper-2018 (b) Burden of proof as – Section 110 (LAW) to ownership (c) Refreshing memory – Section 159 1. The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 has been (d) Profession – Section 124 divided into ...... Parts and ...... Chapters. communication (a) 2, 10 (b) 3, 11 8. Classification of offences is given in CrPC (c) 4, 12 (d) 3, 12 under 2. A prosecutes B for adultery with C, A's wife. (a) Section 320 B denies that C is A's wife, but the Court (b) the First Schedule convicts B of adultery. Afterwards, C is (c) the Second Schedule prosecuted for bigamy in marrying B during (d) Section 482 A's lifetime. C says that she never was A's 9. It is mandatory to produce the person wife. The judgement against B is arrested before the Magistrate within 24 (a) relevant as against C hours of his arrest under (b) irrelevant as against C (a) Section 56 of CrPC (c) relevant and admissible against C (b) Section 57 of CrPC (d) None of the above (c) Section 58 of CrPC 3. Law of evidence is (d) Section 59 of CrPC (a) a substantive law 10. Under Section 167 of CrPC, the Magistrate (b) an adjective law can authorize detention for a total period of (c) Both (a) and (b) 90 days during investigation in case of (d) Neither (a) nor (b) offences punishable 4. Electronics record in proper custody gives (a) with death rise to a presumption as to the digital (b) with imprisonment for life signature, to be affixed by that particular (c) with imprisonment for a term not less person under Section 90A of the Indian than 10 years Evidence Act, if the electronic record (d) All of the above produced is 11. The term 'victim' is defined under (a) 20 years old (b) 15 years old (a) Section 2(w) (c) 10 years old (d) 5 years old (b) Section 2(wa) 5. 'Necessity rule' as to the admissibility of (c) Section 2(u) evidence is contained in (d) None of the above (a) Section 31 of the Indian Evidence Act 12. Every person aware of the commission of (b) Section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act an offence punishable under, following (c) Section 60 of the Indian Evidence Act Section is bound to give information thereof (d) Section 61 of the Indian Evidence Act to the nearest Magistrate or Police Officer 6. Section 105 of the Indian Evidence Act (a) Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code applies to (b) Section 302 of the Indian Penal Code (a) criminal trials (c) Section 324 of the Indian Penal Code (b) civil trials (d) Section 448 of the Indian Penal Code (c) Both (a) and (b) 13. A decision in a suit may operate as 'res (d) Neither (a) nor (b) judicata' against persons not expressly 7. Which one of the following is not correctly named as parties to the suit by virtue of matched? Explanation 172 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

(a) II to Section 11 of CPC 20. The decree or orders made by small cause (b) IV to Section 11 of CPC Courts are revisable by the (c) VI to Section 11 of CPC (a) District Court (d) VIII to Section 11 of CPC (b) High Court 14. The Court may impose a fine for default (c) Both (a) and (b) upon a person required to give evidence or (d) None of the above 21. Clause (k) to Article 51A was added by to produce documents directed under (a) the Constitution (73rd Amendment) Section 30(b) of CPC, and such fine as per Act, 1992 Section 32(c) is not to exceed (b) the Constitution (85th Amendment) (a) r 500 (b) r 1,000 Act, 2001 (c) r 5,000 (d) r 10,000 (c) the Constitution (86th Amendment) 15. Appointment of receiver has been dealt Act, 2002 with (d) the Constitution (93rd Amendment) (a) under Order XLIV Act, 2005 (b) under Order XLII 22. In which of the following cases, free and fair (c) under Order XL election is recognized as basic structure of (d) under Order XLV the Indian Constitution? 16. The provision for substituted service of (a) Indira Gandhi vs. Raj Narain summons on the defendant(s) has been (b) Golaknath vs. State of Punjab made under (c) K. Prabhakaran vs. P. Jayarajan (a) Order V, Rule 19 of CPC (d) Minerva Mills vs. Union of India 23. Which one of the following cases is not (b) Order V, Rule 19A of CPC related to the doctrine of severability? (c) Order V, Rule 20 of CPC (a) Kihoto Hollohan vs. Zachillhu (d) Order V, Rule 21 of CPC (b) RMDC vs. Union of India 17. In cases of urgent or immediate relief, where (c) Minerva Mills vs. Union of India leave to investigate the suit without service (d) A.K. Gopalan vs. State of Madras of notice under Section 86 of CPC has been 24. The Parliament has power to legislate with granted respect to a matter in the State List, provided (a) no interim or otherwise, ex parte relief it is in the can be granted (a) public interest (b) interim or otherwise, ex parte relief can (b) national interest be granted generally (c) central interest (c) interim or otherwise, ex parte relief may (d) regional interest be granted under certain circumstances 25. "Courts are flooded with large number of (d) Either (a) or (c) PILs, so it is desirable for Courts to filter out 18. The arbitrator in case of international frivolous petitions and dismiss them with commercial arbitration is appointed by costs." In which of the following judgements, (a) the parties themselves it was held? (b) the Attorney-General of India (a) M.C. Mehta vs. Union of India (c) the Chief Justice of India (b) Dharampal vs. State of UP (d) Both (a) and (c) (c) Holicow Pictures Pvt. Ltd. vs. 19. The Arbitration and Conciliation Premchandra Mishra (Amendment) Act, 2015 came into force on (d) PUCL vs. Union of India (a) 23rd October, 2015 26. Who among the following expressed the (b) 31st December, 2015 view that the Indian Constitution is federal (c) 23rd September, 2015 as much as it establishes what may be called (d) None of the above a dual polity? 30th Bihar Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2018 (Law) 173

(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (a) Banarsi Das vs. Teeku Dutta and Others (b) Sir William Ivor Jennings (b) Rameshwar Prasad vs. Union of India (c) Sir B.N. Rau (c) K.K. Misra vs. State of Bihar (d) Prof. K.C. Wheare (d) B.P. Singhal vs. Union of India 27. The law declared by the Supreme Court 35. A member of the State Public Service becomes law of the land under Commission can be removed on the ground (a) Article 131 (b) Article 136 of misbehaviour only after an inquiry has (c) Article 141 (d) Article 151 been held by 28. The power of the President of India to issue an ordinance is a/an (a) the Supreme Court of India, on reference (a) legislative power being made to it by the President (b) executive power (b) the Governor through High Court (c) quasi-judicial power (c) the Chairman of Board (d) judicial power (d) a Joint Parliamentary Committee 29. In first instance, the President can issue a 36. "Carry forward rule is ultra vires" was held proclamation of financial emergency for a in the case period of (a) Devadasan vs. Union of India (a) fifteen days (b) two months (b) B.N. Tiwari vs. Union of India (c) one month (d) six months (c) State of Kerala vs. N.M. Thomas 30. In which of the following landmark (d) Balaji vs. State of Mysore judgements, right to privacy has been 37. Which one of the following is not correct? declared as a fundamental right? (a) Natural justice implicit in Article 21 (a) Shreya Ghoshal vs. State of UP (b) Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) vs. (b) Right to privacy is a fundamental right Union of India (c) Right to go abroad is not a fundamental (c) Narendra vs. K. Meena right (d) Kharak Singh vs. State of UP (d) right to life includes right to health 31. In which of the following judgements of the 38. Right to freedom of religion cannot be Supreme Court, Triple Talaq was declared restricted on the ground of unconstitutional? (a) morality (b) health (a) Shayara Bano vs. Union of India (c) security of the State (b) Gulshan Parveen vs. Union of India (d) public order (c) Both (a) and (b) 39. Legal maxim 'autrefois' is related to (d) None of the above (a) double jeopardy 32. Which of the following does not find place (b) retrospective operation in the Preamble of the Constitution of India? (c) self-incrimination (a) Liberty of thought and expression (d) ex-post facto law (b) Economic justice for all (c) Education for everyone 40. "The principle of sovereign immunity will (d) Dignity of the individual not apply to a proceeding for award of 33. Prof. K.C. Wheare said that the Constitution compensation for violation of fundamental of India is rights." (a) weak federation (b) non-federal In which case, the Supreme Court of India (c) strong federation (d) quasi-federal held the above view? 34. In which case, the dissolution of Bihar (a) Nilabati Behera vs. State of Orissa Legislative Assembly by the Governor (b) Rudal Shah vs. State of Bihar before formation of government was (c) Kasturi Lal vs. State of UP declared unconstitutional? (d) Ram Singh vs. State of Punjab 174 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

41. According to A.V. Dicey, in India the 'rule of 47. Delegated legislation must be controlled so law' is embodied in that it can be properly exercised. What is (a) Article 12 of the Constitution of India the control of delegated legislation? (b) Article 13 of the Constitution of India (a) Parliamentary control (c) Article 14 of the Constitution of India (b) Procedural control (d) Article 21 of the Constitution of India (c) Judicial control 42. "Administrative law is a study of pathology (d) All of the above of power in a developing society. Account- 48. The test for determining bias is known as ability of the holders of public power for (a) civil liability test the ruled is the focal point of this (b) criminal liability test formulation." (c) reasonable likelihood test Who among the following jurists has given (d) collective responsibility test this definition? 49. 'Rule of law' means (a) A.V. Dicey (b) Davis (a) rule of nature (c) Sir William Ivor Jennings (b) rule of procedure (d) Prof. Upendra Baxi (c) rule of man 43. In which case, Chief Justice Ray said that (d) pervasiveness of the spirit of law and "the Constitution is the rule of law and that to avoid arbitrariness no one can rise above the rule of law in the 50. "Natural justice is universal fact of secular Constitution"? life which has given a new life to legislature (a) Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala administration and judicial adjudication (b) ADM Jabalpur vs. S.K. Shukla and provided way to objective life. These (c) S.P. Gupta vs. Union of India rules are part of social justice." This (d) Bhagat Raja vs. Union of India statement was given by 44. Which of the following cases is not related (a) Justice Prafullachandra Natwarlal with rule of law? Bhagwati (a) Indira Gandhi vs. Raj Narain (b) Justice Vaidyanathapuram Rama Iyer (b) ADM Jabalpur vs. S.K. Shukla Krishna Iyer (c) S.P. Gupta vs. Union of India (c) Justice Hans Raj Khanna (d) Jaisinghani vs. Union of India (d) Justice A.N. Ray 45. Which doctrine of administrative law is a 51. Which of the following doctrines was/were 'dilutory' doctrine because of many developed by the Court to control the exceptions? administrative actions in India? (a) Doctrine of separation of powers (a) Doctrine of Promissory Estoppel and (b) Rule of law Doctrine of Legitimate Expectations (c) Doctrine of pleasure (b) Doctrine of Separation of Powers, (d) Doctrine of proportionality Judicial Activism and Rule of Law 46. There are bulk of laws which govern people (c) Both (a) and (b) and which come not from the legislature (d) None of the above but from the chambers of administrators. 52. A writ of mandamus will not lie against the This is called delegated legislation and it is (a) President of India different from (b) Parliament (a) quasi-legislative action (c) Local Authorities (b) administrative rule-making power (d) Courts and Tribunals (c) subordinate legislation 53. Article 310 of the Indian Constitution (d) executive legislation embodies the 30th Bihar Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2018 (Law) 175

(a) doctrine of pleasure 61. Mitakshara is a commentary on (b) doctrine of separation (a) Manu Smriti (c) doctrine of proportionality (b) Yajnavalkya Smriti (d) doctrine of res judicata (c) Narada Smriti 54. What is the effect of violation of the rule 'audi (d) Parashara Smriti alteram partem' on an administrative 62. By the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, action? 2005 (a) Mere irregularity (b) Null and void (c) An illegality (d) Voidable (a) all Hindu women have become 55. In which of the following cases, the Supreme coparceners in a family Court held that the principles of natural (b) wife of a coparcener has become a justice are applicable to administrative coparcener proceedings also? (c) daughter-in-law has become a (a) M.C. Mehta vs. Union of India coparcener (b) Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India (d) daughter of a coparcener has become a (c) A.K. Kraipak vs. Union of India coparcener (d) Smt. Indira Nehru Gandhi vs. Raj 63. Marriage of a Hindu coparcener with a Narain Hindu girl or with any other under the 56. When reviewing administrative action, the Special Marriage Act, 1954 Court's duty is to confine itself to the (a) does not have any effect on joint family question of legality. What is/are the ground(s) for judicial review? status of the coparcener (a) Committed an error of law or exceeded (b) automatically severs his membership its powers of the coparcenary and of the joint (b) Breach of natural justice or decision family without reason (c) A Hindu coparcener is not allowed to (c) Both (a) and (b) marry under the Special Marriage Act, (d) None of the above 1954 57. Writ of prohibition cannot be issued against (d) His status as joint family member and (a) executive body (b) judicial body a coparcener is suspended for some time (c) quasi-judicial body 64. Pregnancy of a girl at the time of her (d) None of the above marriage under the Hindu Marriage Act, 58. Writ of quo warranto can be filed by 1955 (a) any person aggrieved by public office (a) will not affect the marriage (b) an executive in his official capacity (b) will make the marriage ipso facto (c) any private person whether aggrieved invalid or not (c) will be a ground for making the (d) Only (a) and (b) marriage as void 59. The idea of Ombudsman was first suggested by who among the following? (d) will be a ground for making the (a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar marriage as voidable (b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad 65. Sapinda relationship under the Hindu Law (c) Justice P.N. Bhagwati towards the father's and mother's side (d) Motilal Chimanlal Setalvad extends up to 60. The action of Administrative Tribunal is (a) six degrees towards the father's side considered as and three degrees towards the mother's (a) purely judicial side (b) purely administrative (b) five degrees towards the father's side (c) quasi-judicial and four degrees towards the mother's (d) All of the above side 176 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

(c) five degrees towards the father's side 70. Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, a and three degrees towards the mother's marriage is treated as void, if it side (a) contravenes the condition given under (d) seven degrees towards the father's side Sections 5(i) and (ii) of the Hindu and five degrees towards the mother's Marriage Act side (b) contravenes the condition given under 66. A decree of judicial separation passed by a Sections 5(ii) and (iii) of the Hindu competent Court between the parties to a Marriage Act marriage (c) contravenes the condition given under (a) brings the marriage relationship Sections 5(i), (iii) and (v) of the Hindu between the spouses to an end Marriage Act (b) makes the parties free to marry any (d) contravenes the condition given under other person Sections 5(i), (iv) and (v) of the Hindu (c) does affect the marital relationship Marriage Act between the spouses and they are no 71. A marriage prohibited under the more husband and wife Mohammedan Law by reason of difference (d) does not affect the marital relationship of religion, if done, is but suspends the conjugal relationship (a) valid (b) voidable till the period of decree (c) irregular (d) void 67. Under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, 72. According to Section 4 of the Dissolution of daughter's son and father of a male Hindu Muslim Marriage Act, 1939, apostasy from are legal heirs and they are placed as the Islam of a Muslim wife following (a) will dissolve her marriage ipso facto (a) Both are placed as class I heir of the (b) will not dissolve her marriage ipso facto Schedule (c) dissolves her marriage and she loses her (b) Father is placed in class I and daughter's claim of dower son is placed in class II of the Schedule (d) dissolves her marriage but she does not (c) Daughter's son is placed as class I and lose her claim of dower father as class II heir of the Schedule 73. Which one of the following is not essential (d) Both are class II heirs of the Schedule for a valid gift or Hiba under the 68. Marriage of a Hindu male or female under Mohammedan Law? the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 with a person (a) Declaration of gift of unsound mind or one suffering from (b) Acceptance of gift mental disorder is (c) Delivery of possession of the property (a) not valid (b) void by the donor to the donee (c) voidable (d) perfectly valid (d) Written documentary proof of the gift 69. A child to be adopted under the Hindu 74. Which one of the following is the leading Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 case under the Mohammedan Law on (a) should be a child belonging to any widow's right to retain possession of her religion husband's property? (b) should be a child belonging to Hindu (a) Mohd. Sadiq vs. Fakhr Jahan religion and below the age of 15 years (b) Mohd. Ahmed Khan vs. Shah Bano (c) may or may not be a Hindu but below Begum the age of 18 years (c) Mohd. Mumtaz vs. Zubaida Jan (d) may or may not be a Hindu but below (d) Mst. Maina Bibi vs. Chaudhri Vakil the age of 21 years Ahmed 30th Bihar Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2018 (Law) 177

75. Who under the Mohammedan Law can 83. No transfer of property can operate to create claim right of preemption? an interest which is to take effect after the (a) Shafi-i-Sharik (a co-sharer in the lifetime of one or more persons living at the property) date of such transfer. This provision is (b) Shafi-i-Khalit (a participator in covered under the immunities and appendages) (a) rules against prospective transfer (c) Shafi-i-Jar (an owner of contiguous (b) rules against restrictive transfer immovable property) (c) rules against perpetuity (d) All of them 76. In favour of who among the following a (d) None of the above bequest by a Muslim is valid? 84. The principle of 'lis pendens' pertains to (a) A son (b) A widow (a) public utility (c) A grandson in case of a predeceased son (b) auction sale (d) All of them (c) bona fide purchase 77. In case of a Wakf, the Wakf property vests in (d) fraudulent transfer the 85. Mortgage by conditional sale is (a) Wakif (b) Mutawalli (a) sale (c) Almighty (d) Beneficiaries (b) mortgage 78. By the third pronouncement (utterance) of (c) contract for sale 'Talaq', which kind of 'Talaq' becomes (d) neither sale nor mortgage effective? 86. The vested interest in property depends on (a) Taleq-e-Hassan the happening of an event which is (b) Talaq-e-Ahsan (a) of uncertain nature (c) Talaq-e-Tafweez (b) bound to happen (d) None of the above 79. In Sunni Law of Inheritance, the total (c) of certain or uncertain nature number of sharers is (d) None of the above (a) 10 (b) 15 87. A transfers his property to B for life and after (c) 13 (d) 12 his death to C and D equally to be divided 80. Who is a primary heir under Sunni Law? between them or to the survivor of them. C (a) True grandfather dies during lifetime of B. D survives B. At B's (b) True grandmother death, the property (c) Full sister (d) None of them (a) shall pass to any person 81. Which of the following is not actionable (b) shall pass to the person who is claim? specifically named in the transfer (a) Right to claim arrears of rent of a house (c) shall pass to D (b) Right to claim arrears of maintenance (d) None of the above (c) Right to claim decretal sum 88. There are some characteristics of (d) Right to claim money payable under usufructuary mortgage under Section 58 of Life Insurance Policy the Transfer of Property Act: 82. The general principle of law is that "no man 1. There is no personal liability on the can transfer a better title in property that mortgager. what he himself has got". Exception to this 2. No time limit is fixed. rule is found in Section(s) 3. Mortgagee takes the whole or part of the (a) 35 of the Transfer of Property Act rent and profits (b) 41 of the Transfer of Property Act (a) Only 1 and 2 are relevant (c) 43 of the Transfer of Property Act (b) Only 2 and 3 are relevant (d) 41 and 43 of the Transfer of Property (c) Only 1 is relevant Act (d) All of the above are relevant 178 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

89. "Such condition shall be void which is 95. Choose the correct option. dependent on more than one possibility." (a) Under Indian Law, doctrine of election This principle was recognized later in aims at compensation (a) the principle in Whitby vs. Mitchell (b) Under English Law, doctrine of election (b) Cholmeley's case aims at forfeiture or confiscation (c) Prabodh Kumar Das vs. Dantmara Tea (c) Both (a) and (b) are correct Co. (d) Neither (a) nor (b) is correct (d) Dyson vs. Farster 96. Which of the following persons is not 90. A takes a loan of r 5,000 from B and necessary for creation of trust? mortgages his house as security. In the (a) Beneficiary (b) Trustee mortgage deed, it was also mentioned that (c) Author of trust if he could not pay the amount within 5 years, then B will have right to sell the house (d) Legal representative and recover his amount. If the money could 97. Liability of trustee is provided under not be recovered from sale of house, then A (a) Section 23 to 29 of the Indian Trust Act will be personally liable. It is (b) Section 11 to 18 of the Indian Trust Act (a) mortgage by conditional sale (c) Section 55 to 59 of the Indian Trust Act (b) English mortgage (d) Section 51 to 65 of the Indian Trust Act (c) usufructuary mortgage 98. Liability of breach of trust has been (d) simple mortgage provided in 91. Statutory recognition of the principles of (a) Section 23 of the Indian Trust Act equity in the Specific Relief Act is regarding (b) Section 22 of the Indian Trust Act (a) specific performance (c) Section 24 of the Indian Trust Act (b) injunction (d) Section 25 of the Indian Trust Act (c) rectification and rescission 99. In cases of specific performance of a contract, (d) All of the above the rights of the parties are governed by the 92. "He who seeks equity must do equity" is principle of particularly incorporated in which of the (a) law following? (b) equity (a) Section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure (c) equity and law (b) Section 38 of the Specific Relief Act (d) None of the above (c) Both (a) and (b) 100. The relief by the way of mandatory (d) None of the above 93. Sections 48, 78 and 79 of the Transfer of injunction is Property Act provide the example of which (a) discretionary of the following maxims? (b) prohibitory (c) mandatory (a) Where equities are equal, the first in (d) None of the above time shall prevail 101. "Tortious liability arises from the breach of (b) Equity delights in equality duty, primarily fixed by law." Who said the (c) He who seeks equity must do equity statement? (d) Equity follows the law (a) Salmond (b) Winfield 94. "Where there is equal equity, the law shall (c) Fracer (d) Underhill prevail." Which of the doctrines of Indian 102. Whether for a wrong both tortious and Law is based on this maxim? criminal liability may arise? (a) Doctrine of setoff (a) Only tortious liability may arise (b) Doctrine of marshalling (b) Only criminal liability may arise (c) Doctrine of election (c) Both the liabilities may arise (d) All of the above (d) None of the above 30th Bihar Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2018 (Law) 179

103. The pigeonhole theory was propounded by (a) Bourhill vs. Young (a) Salmond (b) Winfield (b) Donoghue vs. Stevenson (c) R. Pound (d) Blackstone (c) Haynes vs. Harwood 104. Mogul Steamship Co. vs. McGregor, Gow (d) Heaven vs. Pender and Co. (1892) AC 25 belongs to which of 111. Which of the following is not an element in the following maxims? establishing a case in libel? (a) Volenti non fit injuria (a) Publication (b) Injuria sine damnum (b) A defamatory statement (c) Damnum sine injuria (c) A section of the public who know less of (d) Ubi jus ibi remedium the plaintiff 105. The maxim 'scienti non fit injuria' means (d) Reference to the plaintiff (a) where there is no fault, there is no 112. If a person wants to bring an action under remedy Law of Torts for the tort of public nuisance, (b) mere knowledge does not imply consent he must have to prove that to take risk (a) the injury was direct and substantial (c) mere giving consent does not imply to only to him take risk (b) the injury was criminal in nature (d) scientific knowledge is not enough to (c) the injury affects the public at large cause injury (d) None of the above 106. "Right of action is extinguished by the death 113. 'Prosecution' under tort of 'malicious of one or other parties". The statement is prosecution' means (a) true (b) false (a) proceeding at a police station charging (c) true except in certain cases a person with a crime (d) false except in certain cases (b) proceeding in a Court of Law charging 107. In the Law of Torts, nominal damages are a person with a crime (c) proceeding undertaken by Public awarded Prosecutor (a) as a compensation for nominal injury (d) proceeding undertaken both by Police (b) for the recognition of legal right (c) for the recognition of human sufferings Officer and Pubic Prosecutor (d) as a compensation for damages 114. 'False imprisonment' means 108. 'Distress damage feasant' means (a) a false restraint of a person's liberty (a) right to detain the things until without lawful justification compensation is paid (b) a partial restraint of a person's liberty (b) right to get the compensation when without lawful justification there is infringement of legal right (c) a total restraint of a person's liberty (c) right to get compensation will without lawful justification extinguish when death of the party (d) a person is imprisoned for a tort in false caused charges (d) None of the above 115. A person who knowingly and without 109. "An unlawful interference with person's sufficient justification induces another to use or enjoyment of land or some right over break a contract with third person, or in connection with it" is known as tort of whereby the third person suffers damage, (a) trespass (b) nuisance is a tort. For the first time, it was established (c) negligence (d) conversion in which of the following cases? 110. In which case, fundamental test for (a) Ford vs. Lindsey (b) Lumley vs. Gye determining duty to take care was laid (c) Derry vs. Peak down? (d) M.C. Manus vs. Bonis 180 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

116. A contract, which ceases to be enforceable 123. A continuing guarantee may be revoked for by law, ceases to be enforceable. It is known further transaction as (a) after a year (a) unenforceable contract (b) after six months (b) void contract (c) after three months (c) voidable contract (d) at any time (d) contingent contract 124. If the bailee, without the consent of the 117. The legal principle, which was laid down bailor, mixes the goods of the bailor with in the case of Harvey vs. Facey, was firstly his own goods in such a manner that it is impossible to separate the goods and followed by the Supreme Court of India in deliver them back, the bailor is entitled to which of the following cases? be (a) Badri Prasad vs. State of MP (a) compensated by the bailee for the loss (b) Byomkesh Banerjee vs. Nanu Gopal of goods Banik (b) compensated by the bailee for 1/2 of the (c) D.I. MacPherson vs. M.N. Appanna loss of goods (d) Carlill vs. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co. (c) compensated by the bailee for 1/4 of the 118. Which one of the following elements is not loss of goods necessary for a contract? (d) civil imprisonment of maximum six (a) Competent parties months (b) Reasonable terms and conditions 125. The bailment of goods as security for (c) Free consent payment of a debt or performance of a (d) Lawful consideration promise is called 119. In standard form contracts (a) mortgage (b) pledge (a) the individual has no choice but to (c) guarantee (d) indemnity accept 126. Who may employ an agent? (b) the individual has many choices to (a) Any major person accept or refuse (b) Any person who is of sound mind (c) the agreement is without consideration (c) Any major and person of sound mind (d) None of the above (d) A citizen of India 120. What would be the effect of mistake as to 127. In which of the following conditions can an law enforce in India on a contract? agent sub-delegate his authority to another The contract will be person? (a) void (b) voidable (a) When it benefits the principal (b) When it suits the agent (c) not void (d) not voidable (c) When the agent becomes ill 121. A Guru (spiritual advisor) induced the (d) When commercial practice involves Chela (his devotee) to gift him whole of his such delegation property to secure benefit of his soul in the 128. Indemnity-holder, acting within the scope heaven. This gift shall be of his authority, is entitled to recover from (a) void (b) voidable the promisor (c) valid (d) immoral (a) all damages which he may be compelled 122. Section 128 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 to pay in any suit is related with (b) all costs which he may be compelled to (a) surety's liability pay in any suit (b) continuing guarantee (c) all sums which he may have paid under (c) revocation of continuing guarantee the terms of any compromise of any suit (d) consideration for guarantee (d) All of the above 30th Bihar Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2018 (Law) 181

129. The case of Moses vs. Macferlan deals with (b) Sale by seller in possession after sell which of the following? (c) Sale by buyer in possession before sell (a) Quasi-contract (d) Sale by buyer in possession after sell (b) Contingent contract 136. Who among the following is a partner? (c) Doctrine of frustration (a) A moneylender sharing the profits (d) Contract of indemnity (b) A person sharing the profits of business 130. When the parties to a contract agree to carried on by all or any of them substitute the existing contract with a new (c) A person sharing the return arising contract, it is known as from joint property (a) substitution (b) novation (d) A seller of goodwill sharing the profits (c) frustration (d) breach of business 131. An unpaid seller can exercise the right of 137. A partnership is partnership at will lien (a) when no provision is made for duration (a) when he has delivered goods to the of partnership buyer (b) when no provision is made for (b) when the buyer has lawfully obtained determination of partnership possession of goods (c) Both (a) and (b) are true (c) when the seller has waived the right of (d) Either (a) or (b) is true lien 138. Which of the following is not essential (d) when the buyer has become insolvent ingredient of holding out under Section 28 132. Which of the following is not included in of the Partnership Act? the definition of goods? (a) Representation as a partner (a) Actionable claims (b) Knowledge of representation (b) All movable properties (c) Giving credit to the firm (c) Growing crops (d) Grass (d) Representation without knowledge 133. Which of the following statements is not 139. Which of the following is not correct about correct? a minor? (a) Conditions and warranties are (a) He cannot become a partner. stipulations in the contract of sale. (b) He can be admitted to the benefits of (b) A stipulation as a warranty may not be partnership. treated as condition. (c) He is personally liable for the acts of the (c) Condition is a stipulation essential to firm. main purpose of contract. (d) He can elect to become or not to become (d) Warranty is a stipulation collateral to a partner on attaining the majority. main purpose of contract. 140. Which of the following is not a condition 134. A seller sells undergarments which cause precedent for filing a suit under Section 69 skin disease to buyer. What is the liability of the Partnership Act? of the seller? (a) The firm should be registered (a) He is liable for breach of warranty (b) Person suing should be shown as a (b) He is liable for breach of a condition partner in the register of firms (c) He is not liable (c) The enforcement of a right arising from (d) The buyer should be careful contract or conferred by the Act 135. Which of the following is not an exception (d) The enforcement of any statutory right to the doctrine of 'nemo dat quod non habet'? 141. When a Negotiable Instrument is (a) Sale by person in possession under dishonoured, the liable party pays voidable contract compensation to 182 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

(a) holder (b) bank 147. For dissolution of a company, the Tribunal (c) endorser (d) court shall pass order 142. Which of the following is not an example of (a) immediately after winding-up order Negotiable Instrument? (b) when affairs of the company are (a) Promissory Note (b) Bill of Exchange completely wound up (c) Share Certificate (d) Cheque (c) at the instance of the Central 143. A draws a cheque in favour of B, a minor. B Government endorses it in favour of C and C endorses in (d) at the instance of the Company Law Board favour of D. The cheque is dishonoured. 148. Which of the following statements is not Which of the following is not correct about correct? liabilities of the parties? (a) A company cannot have more than one (a) C and D can claim from B Manager at the same time. (b) C can claim payment from A (b) A company can have more than one (c) D can claim against C and A Manager at the same time. (d) C and D cannot claim from B (c) A firm cannot be appointed as Manager 144. Which of the following is not correct with of a company. regard to presentment for acceptance? (d) A Manager can be appointed for a period (a) Only holder of the bill or his agent can of 5 years at a time. present the bill 149. A Director appointed to fill up casual (b) Drawer himself can present the bill vacancy will hold office (c) If the bill has been negotiated before (a) for a term of 5 years acceptance, endorsee can present the bill (b) for a term of 3 years (d) The bill cannot be presented to legal (c) up to next meeting of the Board presentations in case of death of drawee (d) up to date of expiry of term of office of 145. Which of the following statements is correct outgoing Director in relation to bouncing of a cheque? 150. Match List–I with List–II and select the (a) Offence of cheque bouncing is a correct answer using the codes given below compoundable offence. the Lists. (b) Every trial of cheque bouncing shall be List–I List–II (A) Royal British 1. Corporate concluded within 3 months. Bank vs. Turquand personality (c) In trial of such cases, provisions of (B) Salomon vs. Saloman2.Rule of majority under Section 262 to 265 of CrPC will & Co. Ltd. not apply. (C) Foss vs. Harbottle 3. Doctrine of (d) In case of conviction in summary trial ultra vires of such cases, Magistrate shall pass a (D) Ashbury Railway 4. Indoor sentence of imprisonment for a term of Carriage and Iron Co. management 2 years. Ltd. vs. Riche 146. An application for prevention of oppression Codes: and mismanagement in a company should A B C D be made to the (a) 4 1 2 3 (a) High Court (b) 4 3 2 1 (b) Central Government (c) 3 2 1 4 (c) National Company Law Tribunal (d) 1 2 3 4 (d) Registrar of Companies  183

Jharkhand Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2008 (Solved Paper) (G.K., Law & English)

1. Recently, which Indian cricketer set a 7. Gerontology is a branch of study related to record by scoring the highest runs in Test diseases associated with Cricket? (A) children (B) young adults (A) Saurav Ganguly (C) old age (D) women (B) Sachin Tendulkar 8. What is the title of the former US President (C) Rahul Dravid Mr. Bill Clinton’s auto-biography? (D) Yuvraj Singh (A) My Days (B) My Life 2. In the last Olympics at Beijing, who won (C) My Story (D) My Years the first ever individual Gold Medal for 9. On which date of the year is ‘World India? Environment Day’ celebrated? (A) Bijender Singh (B) Abhinav Bindra (A) January 5 (B) March 5 (C) Sushil Kumar (C) June 5 (D) November (D) Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore 10. Who was the first Indian Prime Ministere 3. Till date, who is the only Indian to have to address the UN General Assembly in been awarded the Nobel Prize for Hindi Literature? (A) Jawaharlal Nehru (A) Ramdhari Singh’Dinkar’ (B) Morarji Desai (B) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee (C) Lal Bahadur Shastri (C) Rabindranath Tagore (D) AtalBehari Vajpayee (D) R. K. Narayan 11. From amongst the choices given, which of 4. Which State of India has bagged two the clauses correctly complete the following National Awards associated with tourism sentence? in 2008? I shall have left this place by the time,., (A) Rajasthan (B) Kerala (A) she will come (B) she would come (C) Tamil Nadu (D) Gujarat (C) she comes (D) she will have come 5. What is the full name of the President of 12. Such words as are similar in sound but India? (A) Pratibha Patil different in meaning are called (B) Pratibha Devi Singh Patil (A) synonyms (B) antonyms (C) Pratibha Devi Patil (C) homonyms (D) homophones (D) Pratibha Singh Patil 13. Select the appropriate ‘article’ to be filled in 6. Who propounded the theory that “the earth the blank in the given sentence He is moves round the sun”? ...... SP. (A) Galileo (B) Einstein (A) an (B) a (C) Copernicus (D) Graham Bell (C) the (D) None of these 184 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

14. Identify the ‘figure of speech’that best 22. The expression, “Each party shall bear his defines the following sentence: own costs” implies that The camel is the ship of the desert. (A) both the parties are entitled to cost from (A) Simile (B) Metaphor each other (C) Irony (D) Sarcasm (B) both the parties are not to be deprived 15. Identify the ‘part of speech’ in which the of costs word ‘round’ has been used in the following (C) both the parties are to be deprived of sentence: costs The earth moves round the sun. (D) both the parties are not entitled to cost (A) oun (B) Preposition from each other (C) Adjective (D) Adverb 23. Which of the following questions is not to 16. Identify tbe type of the sentence given be determined by an executing court? below: John proposed that we should sing (A) Discharge of decree together. (B) Execution of decree (A) Assertive (B) Optative (C) Modification of decree (C) Exclamatory (D) Imperative (D) Satisfaction of decree 17. Which underlined part of the given (1) All question arising between the parties to sentence contains an error ? the suit in which the decree was passed, or (A) If I was you their representatives, and relating to the (B) I would not execution, discharge or satisfaction of the (C) agree to decree, shall be determined by the Court (D) that floolish proposal executing the decree and not by a separate 18. Fill in the balnk with appropriate suit. 'preposition': cannot come back— a month. (2) The Court may, subject to any objection as (A) before (B) in to limitation or jurisdiction, treat a (C) within (D) between proceeding under this section as a suit or a 19. Give one word for the following group of suit as a proceeding and may, if necessary, words: order payment of any additional court-fees. A person aged between 60 and 70 (3) Where a question arises as to whether any (A) Sexagenarian (B) Quinquagenarian person is or is not the representative of a (C) Septuagenarian (D) Nonagenarian party, such question shall, for the purposes 20. Which one, from amongst the choices given, of this section, be determined by the Court. would mean the same as the following 24. In which of the following cases the Supreme sentence? Court has upheld the validity of Section 51 I feel an aching void. of Code of Civil Procedure? (A) I feel lonely (B) I feel pain (A) Xavier v. Bank of Canara (C) I feel hungry (D) I feel irritation (B) The Visaka case 21. A plaint is liable to be returned, when (C) Indian Gramophone Co. v. Birendra (A) plaint is on an insufficiently stamped Bahadur Pandey paper (D) Jolly George Verghese v. Bank of Cochin (B) plaint is not filed in duplicate 25. In which of the following cases the Supreme (C) relief is undervalued in the plaint Court has upheld the constitutionality of (D) plaint is filed in a court having no the Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) jurisdiction Acts of 1999 and 2002? Jharkhand Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2008 (Law) 185

(A) Salem Advocate Bar Association, Tamil property by a Nadu v. Union of India person having (B) Delhi High Court Bar Association v. allowance wrongful Union of India possession (C) Allahabad High Court Bar Association Codes: v. Union of India (A) A B C D (D) Punjab and Haryana High Court Bar 4 3 1 2 Association v. Union of India (B) A B C D 26. Which one of the following is a true 3 4 2 1 statement in relation to Section 80 of Civil (C) A B C D Procedure Code? 2 1 4 3 (A) A suit without service of notice can be (D) A B C D instituted generally, with the leave of 28. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly the court matched ? (B) A suit without service of notice can be 1. Right to file Section 148-A, C.P.C. instituted in cases of urgent or caveat immediate relief, with the leave of the 2. Pauper suit Section 33, C.P.C. court 3. Privileged Section 29, C.P.C. (C) In cases of urgent or immediate relief document where leave to institute the suit without 4. Powers of Section 102, C.P.C. service of notice has been granted, appellate court interim or otherwise ex parte relief can Code: be granted (A) 1 only (B) 4 only (D) No suit under Section 80 can be (C) 1 and 2 (D) 2, 3 and 4 instituted without the compliance of the 29. Match List-1 with List-II and select the requirement of notice correct answer using the code given below 27. Match List-1 with List-li and select the the Lists: correct answer using the code given below List-I List-II the Lists: A. Restitution 1. Representative of List-I List-II minor or afresh A. Set-off 1. Amount paid a plaintiff of by the decree-holder unsound mind for detention of the a civil suit judgment-debtor in B. Next friend 2. Person representing civil prison the estate of B. Mesne profit 2. Person the deceased allowed to file suit C. Legal 3. Debtor of the or appeal without representative judgment-debtor court fee liable for payment C. Indigent defendant’s3. Adjustment of or delivery claim with the D. Garnishees 4. Setting aside ex plaintiffs claim parte decree and D. Subsistence 4. Gains from rehearing the case 186 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

Codes: 34. Where a decree is passed against the Union (A) A B C D of India or a State for the act done in the 2 3 1 4 official capacity of the officer concerned, (B) A B C D under Section 82 C.P.C., execution shall not 4 3 2 1 be issued on any such decree unless the (C) A B C D decree remains unsatisfied for a period of (A) 3 months from the date of the decree 4 1 2 3 (B) 6 months from the date of the decree (D) A B C D (C) 1 year from the date of the decree 3 4 2 1 (D) 2 years from the date of the decree 30. In execution of a decree for the maintenance, 35. Assertion (A): The rule of constructive res salary of a person can be attached to the judicata is applicable to writ petitions. extent of Reason (R): Public policy considerations (A) one-fourth (B) one-third underlying res judicata also hold true in (C) two-third (D) one-half relation to writ proceedings. 31. Order XVIII, Rule 4(1) of C.P.C., the Code: examination in chief of a witness shall be (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct recorded explanation of A (A) by the Judge (B) Both A and R are true but R is not the (B) by the Commissioner appointed brt correct explanation of A court (C) A is true but R is false (C) on affidavit (D) A is false but R is true (D) All of the above 36. A residing in Delhi publishes in Kolkata statements defamatory of B. B may sue A in 32. When a party is called upon by notice to (A) Delhi only admit facts by the other party, under Order (B) Kolkata only XII, Rule 4 of C.P.C., the party on whom the (C) either Delhi or Kolkata notice has been served has to admit the facts (D) anywhere in India with the leave of the within court (A) 15 days of the service of notice 37. Which one of the following suits is not of a (B) 9 days of the service of notice civil nature? (C) 7 days of the service of notice (A) Suits relating to rights to property (D) 6 days of the service of notice (B) Suits for rents 33. The commission to make local investigate (C) Suits for recovery of voluntary can be issued for the purposes of payments or offerings 1. collecting evidence on a fact (D) Suits against dismissals from service 2. elucidating any matter in dispute ; 38. Which of the following is not a sufficient 3. ascertaining the amount of mesne profit cause for granting adjournment ? 4. ascertaining the market value of the (A) Sickness of a party, his witness or his property counsel Which of the above are correct? (B) Non-examination of a witness present Code: in the court (A) 1,2 and 3 (B) 2,3 and 4 (C) Non-service of summons (C) 1,2,3 and 4 (D) land 2 (D) Reasonable time for preparation of a case Jharkhand Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2008 (Law) 187

39. Where a plaintiff sues upon a document in 43. In a case the Supreme Court observed his power or possession, he must produce thus— “We are unable to find any magic or it or a copy thereof charm in the ritual of a charge. It is the (A) along with the plaint substance of these provisions (relating to (B) at the time of giving of evidence charge) that count and not their outform.To (C) at the time of framing of issues hold otherwise is only to provide avenues (D) when ordered by the court or escape for the guilty and afford no 40. Voluntary amendment is provided for protection to the innocent.”The court made under these observations in relation to (A) Order 6, R-7, C.P.C. (A) alteration of charge (B) Order 6, R-15, C.P.C. (B) joinder of charges (C) persons who may be charged jointly (C) Order 6, R-17, C.P.C. (D) error, omission or irregularity in charge (D) Order 6, R-19, C.P.C. 44. Which of the following offences is triable 41. There shall be no appeal by a convicted summarily? person where a Chief Judicial Magistrate (A) Theft where the value of the property imposes only a sentence of fine not stolen does not exceed Rs. 500 exceeding (B) Lurking house trespass (A) Rs 1,000 (B) Rs 200 (C) Assisting in the concealment of stolen (C) Rs 100 (D) Rs 300 property of the value not exceeding Rs. (A) where a High Court passes only a 300 sentence of imprisonment for a term not (D) Receiving or retaining stolen property exceeding six months or of fine not under Section 411,I.P.C. when the value exceeding one thousand rupees, or of of the property does not exceed Rs. 250 both such imprisonment and fine; 45. The period of limitation prescribed for (B) where a Court of Session or a taking cognizance of the offence punishable Metropolitan Magistrate passes only a with imprisonment up to 3 years is sentence of imprisonment for a term not (A) 1 year (B) 2 years exceeding three months or of fine not (C) 3 years (D) 4 years exceeding two hundred rupees, or of 46. In which of the following cases the both such imprisonment and fine; constitutional validity of Section 433-A, (C) where a Magistrate of the first class Cr.P.C. was upheld? passes only a sentence of fine not (A) Ashok Kumar Golu v. Union of India exceeding one hundred rupees; or (B) Babu Pahalwan v. State of MP (D) where, in a case tried summarily, a (C) Ramesh v. State of MP Magistrate empowered to act under (D) Karan Singh v. State of HP section 260 passes only a sentence of fine 47. Which of the following is an interlocutory not exceeding two hundred rupees: order for the purposes of revisional powers 42. “Too many appeals and revisions are a bane of the High Court or a Sessions Court? of the Indian Judicial System, involving as (A) Orders summoning witnesses it does sterile expense and delay and (B) An order of bail granted by a Magistrate fruitless chase of perfection.” Justice (C) An order rejecting the plea of the Krishna Iyer made this observation in accused on a point which when (A) Hamam Singh v. State of HP accepted, will conclude the particular (B) Mohd. Sauman Ali v. State of Assam proceeding (C) Sitaram v. State of UP (D) Interlocutory orders which are without (D) Jawaharlal Singh v. Naresh Singh jurisdiction and nullities 188 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

48. A is only charged with theft and it appears Code: that he committed the offence of criminal (A) 1 and 4 (B) 2 and 3 breach of trust. In this context, which one (C) 1,2 and 4 (D) 1,2, 3 and 4 of the following is correct? 53. Assertion (A): (A) He may be acquitted The provisions for reviewing the (B) He may be convicted only of theft decision of a criminal court are essential (C) He may be convicted of criminal breach for the due protection of life and liberty. of trust Reason (R): (D) He may not be convicted of criminal They are based on the notion that Judges breach of trust and Magistrates are not infallible. 49. Which of the following courts can set aside Code: or modify the conditions imposed by a (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct Magistrate when granting bail? explanation of A (A) High Court or Court of Sessions under (B) Both A and R are true but R is not the Section 439, Cr.P.C. correct explanation of A (B) High Court under Section 482, Cr.P.C. (C) A is true but R is false (C) Sessions Court under Section 465, Cr.P.C. (D) A is false but R is true (D) Court of Sessions under Section 438, 54. Assertion (A): Cr.P.C. Subject to some exceptions the provisions 50. An offence of bigamy punishable under of the Code of Criminal Procedure are not Section 494, I.P.C. was committed by A in applicable to tribal areas in undivided Patna. The place where A resided with his first wife B was Gaya and the place where Assam, his first wife took up a permanent residence Reason (R): after the commission of the offence is These areas enjoy special status like the State Bhagalpur.The offence may be inquired into of Jammu and Kashmir. or tried by a court of competent jurisdiction Codes: at (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (A) Patna (B) Bhagalpur explanation of A (C) Gaya (D) All of the above (B) Both A and R are true but R is not the 51. A Magistrate has power to deal with urgent correct explanation of A ; cases of apprehended danger or nuisance (C) A is true but R is false under (D) A is false but R is true (A) Section 133, Cr.P.C. 55. Reasons for non-applicability of some of the (B) Section 144, Cr.P.C. provisions of the Criminal Procedure Code (C) Section 145, Cr.P.C. to the State of Nagaland have been stated (D) Section 107, Cr.P.C. by the Supreme Court in— 52. Which of the following Magistrates have (A) State of Nagaland v. Rattan Singh power to prohibit repetition or continuance (B) Maharaja Vikram Kishore of Tripura v. of public nuisance? Province of Assam 1. District Magistrate (C) Zarzoliana v. Government of Mizoram 2. Sub-Divisional Magistrate (D) State of Nagaland v. Chung 3. Judicial Magistrate 56. Who can appoint a police officer as an 4. Executive Magistrate duly empowered assistant public prosecutor for courts of in this behalf Magistrates? Jharkhand Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2008 (Law) 189

(A) Superintendent of Police 59. Where two or more courts have taken (B) District and Sessions Judge cognizance of the same offence and a (C) District Magistrate question arises as to which of them ought (D) High Court on the request of the State to inquire into or try the offence, the Government question shall be decided 57. Who among the following can be arrested 1. if the courts are subordinate to the same without warrant by any Magistrate? High Court, by that High Court (A) Any person committing offences within 2. by the High Court within the local limits the local jurisdiction of such Magistrate of whose appellate criminal jurisdiction but not in his presence the accused resides, carries on business (B) Any person committing offences or is engaged in a gainful employment anywhere, but in the presence of such 3. if the courts are subordinate to the same Magistrate High Court, by that High Court in (C) Any person within his local jurisdiction consultation with the State Government for whose arrest he is competent to concerned issue a warrant 4. if the courts are not subordinate to the (D) All of the above same High Court, by that court within 58. Match List-1 with List-ll and select the the local limits of whose appellate correct answer using the code given below criminal jurisdiction the proceedings the were first commenced Lists: Which of the above are correct? List-I List-II Code: (A) Special 1. Imprisonment (A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3 Metropolitan up to 7 years or/ (C) 1 and 4 (D) 1,2,3 and 4 Magistrate and fine 60. Assertion (A): (B) Chief 2. Imprisonment Power of the State to order cases to be tried Metropolitan up to 10 years in different sessions divisions is very Magistrate or/and fine limited. (C) Judicial 3. Imprisonment Reason (R): Magistrate of up to 3 years or/ This extraordinary power is to be used Second Class and fine when consideration of public justice (D) Assistant 4. Imprisonment justifies its exercise. Sessions Judge up to 1 year or/ Code: and fine up to Rs. (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 1,000 explanation of A Code: (B) Both A and R are true but R is not the (A) A B C D correct explanation of A 2 4 3 1 (C) A is true but R is false (B) A B C D (D) A is false but R is true 3 2 1 4 61. Husband and wife (C) A B c D (A) are competent witnesses against each 1 4 2 3 other in matrimonial cases (D) A B C D (B) are not competent witnesses against 3 1 4 2 each other as they are one person in law 190 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

(C) are competent witnesses against each Code other in civil cases only (A) A B C D (D) are competent witnesses against each 1 4 3 2 other in civil as well as criminal cases (B) A B C D 62. Match List-I with List-II and select the 2 3 4 1 . correct answer using the code given below (C) A B C D the Lists: 2 1 3 1 (A) Bloodstains and 1. Reg v. Dodson (D) A B C D blood group 3 2 1 4 (B) Automatic 2. State of Gujarat 65. Question is, whether A was robbed. The v. Chhota Lal that he said, he had been robbed wittct Patni making any complaint (C) Tape-recorded 3. B v. Attorney (A) is relevent showing preparation for statement General relevant facts (D) Handwriting 4. Yusuf ali v. State (B) is relevant showing conduct of Maharashtra (C) is relevant showing effect of relevant 63. Which of the following pairs is not correctly facts matched? (D) may be relevant under Section 32 or (A) That a man heard or Fact Section 157 of the Evidenct Act said something 66. A is accused of receiving stolen goods while (B) A map or plan Document knowing them to be stolen. He offers to (C) Copies made from or Evidence compared with the original prove that he refused to sell them below (D) Facts connected to a Rule nisi their value. He may fact in issue in such (A) not prove this statement a manner as to (B) prove if it is relevant otherwise than constitute part of the an admission same transaction (C) prove it as it is explanatory of conduct 64. Match List-I with List-il and select the influenced by facts in issue correct answer using the code given below (D) None of the above the Lists: 67. Which one of the following statements is List-I List-2 correct? (A) Confession caused 1. Aghnoo (A) An admission by a guardian ad litem by inducement, Nagesiav.a State against a minor is evidence threat, promise (B) Admission on a point of law made by a (B) Confession to a 2. State of Punjab pleader in court on behalf of the client is customs officer v. Barkatram evidence (C) Confession in 3. Pyarelal (C) Admission by one of the several the FIR given by Bhargavav. v. defendants in a suit against another the accused State of defendant is evidence Rajasthan (D) Admission of fact made by a pleader in (D) Discovery of a 4. State of court on behalf of his client is evidence fact pursuant to v. Kathi Kalu 68. Which one of the following is the true

a statement in police Oghad t statement in relation to the relevancy of custody character? Jharkhand Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2008 (Law) 191

(A) In criminal cases, previous good 73. Where a bill of exchange is drawn in a set of character is irrelevant five, how many of them need to be proved? (B) In criminal proceedings, previous bad (A) Five (B) Three character is relevant (C) One (D) Two (C) Incivil cases, character to prove conduct 74. Assertion (A): imputed is relevant A gives B a receipt for money paid by B. (D) In civil cases, character of any person Oral evidence is offered for the payment. affecting the amount of damages is The evidence is admissible. relevant Reason (R): 69. When the court has to form an opinion as A receipt is not a contract or grant in respect to the digital signature of any person, the of which oral evidence is barred. opinion of which of the following is Code: relevant? (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (A) Certifying Authority explanation of A (B) Controller appointed under the (B) Both A and R are true but R is not the Information Technology Act correct explanation of A (C) Internet Service Provider (C) A is true but R is false (D) Certifying Authority which had issued (D) A is false but R is true digital signature certificate 75. Assertion (A): 70. In which of the following cases the Supreme Sections 91 and 92, Evidence Act should be Court raised doubts regarding the read together. applicability of the doctrine of equital Reason (R) : estoppel beyond Section 115, Evidence Act? These two Sections supplement each other. (A) Mercantile Bank of India Ltd. v. Central Code: Bank of India Ltd. (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (B) Madanappa v. Chandramma explanation of A (C) Turner Morrison and Co. v. Hungerford (B) Both A and R are true but R is not the Investment Trust Ltd. (D) Sitaram v. State of UP correct explanation of A 71. No revenue officer shall be compelled to say (C) A is true but R is false whence he got any information as to the (D) A is false but R is true commission of any offence against the public 76. The court shall take judicial notice of revenue. This provision is contained in (A) Foreign judicial records (A) Section 125, Evidence Act (B) National Flag of a State not recognized (B) Section 124, Evidence Act by India (C) Section 123, Evidence Act (C) Stephen’s Digest on Criminal Law (D) Section 126, Evidence Act (D) Rule of Road on land (and in sea) 72. No confession made to a police officer shall 77. Which of the following is an example of be proved as against a person accused of ‘may presume’? any offence. The rationale of this rule is (A) Presumption as to electronic records stated in (B) Presumption as to digital signature (A) Queen Empress v. Abdullah certificate (B) Queen Empress v. Babulal (C) Presumption as to electronic messages (C) Queen v. Lillyman (D) Presumption as to electronic (D) Pakla Narayan Swamy v. Emperor agreements 192 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

78. Section 58 of the Evidence Act deals with 81. The principle of agency of necessity is (A) formal admissions (A) applicable in emergent situations where (B) evidentiary admissions communication with the principal is (C) formal as well as evidentiary not possible admissions (B) applicable in normal situations if the communication with the principal is (D) proof of facts by oral evidence possible 79. Which of the following pairs is not correctly (C) unknown to the law of agency matched? (D) None of the above (A) Relevancy of Section 38, 82. A gives woolen cloth’ to B, a tailor, for statements as to Evidence Act making a suit. The tailor’s charges are law contained in settled at Rs. 500. After the suit is ready, A law books tenders RISK for the charges but the tailor (B) Relevancy of Section 35, refuses to deliver the suit till A pays an old statements in Evidence Act due. In such case maps, charts, etc. (A) B can refuse to deliver the suit (C) Relevancy of Section 34, (B) B cannot refuse to deliver the suit certain eivdence Evidence Act (C) B can refuse in certain circumstances for proving in (D) B can sell the suit subsequent 83. Which of the following is correct ? (A) Pledge made by a person having a proceeding the limited interest is valid to the extent of truth of facts that interest therein stated (B) Pledge made by a person under (D) Relevancy of Section 37, voidable contract is valid statement as to Evidence Act (C) Pledge made by a mercantile agent is facts of public valid nature (D) Goods may be pledged by the servant 80. In which of the following instances there is in the absence of owner no reason ground for asking the witness the 84. Assertion (A): question whether he is a dakoit? The liability of the surety is coextensive (A) A barrister is instructed by an attorney with that of the principal debtor unless it that an important witness is a dakoit is otherwise provided by the contract. (B) A pleader is informed by a person court Reason (R): that an important witness isi dakoit. The Any variance, made without the surety’s consent, in the terms of the contract between informant on being questioned by the the principal debtor and the creditor, pleader gives satisfactory reasons for discharges the surety as to transactions his statement subsequent to variance. (C) A witness of whom nothing whatsoever Code: is known, is asked randomly, whether (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct he is a dakoit 89. explanation of A (D) A witness of whom nothing whatsoever (B) Both A and R are true but R is not the is known, being questioned as to hi correct explanation of A mode of life and means of living, giver (C) A is true but R is false unsatisfactory answers (D) A is false but R is true Jharkhand Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2008 (Law) 193

85. A without the request of anybody (A) A promises to paint a picture for B. B extinguishes the fire of B’s godown. A suffers afterwards forbid him to do so injury thereby. B promises to compensate (B) A owes B Rs 5,000. C pays to B Rs 1,000, A for the whole amount he has spent for his which B accepts in satisfaction of his treatment. The contract is claim against A (A) unenforceable (B) void (C) A awaits arrival of B to finish the (C) voidable (D) enforceable painting for B 86. Promissory estoppel is sometimes spoken (D) A owes B Rs 2,000 and is also indebted of as a substitute for to other creditors. A makes an (A) novation (B) quasi-contract arrangement with his creditors, (C) consideration (D) coercion including B, to pay them, half of the loan 87. X, a trader, leaves goods at Y’s house by amount. A pays to B Rs 1,000 mistake. If Y uses the goods, then which one 90. A contingent contract based on the specified of the following is correct when X demands uncertain event not happening within a the price of goods and Y refuses to pay? fixed time (A) Y is not bound to pay as he becomes the (A) can be enforced if the event does not owner of the goods left at his home happen within the fixed time (B) Y is bound to pay as X did not intend to (B) cannot be enforced at all, being void supply goods gratuitously and Y 91. (C) can be enforced if before the expiry of enjoyed the benefits of X’s act fixed time, it becomes certain that such (C) Y is not bound to pay as he did not ask an event shall not happen for the goods (D) Both (A) and (C) (D) X must suffer for his mistake and he 91. Which one of the following is a contract? cannot recover the price of goods from (A) An agreement to do a lawful act by an Y unlawful means 88. Xcontracted with a tent house for erecting (B) An undertaking in writing duly signed a shamiana for performing the marriage of to pay the time-barred debt (C) An agreement in restraint of a lawful his daughter. On the day of marriage, a trade curfew was clamped in the area preventing (D) An agreement to pay Rs. 10,000 without the celebration of the marriage. The consideration shamiana owner claims the charges agreed 92. Which one of the following is not provided to be paid by X. in Sections 4 and 5 of the Contract Act? In the light of the above, which one of (A) Communication of offer the following is correct? (B) Communication of acceptance (A) X has to pay the contracted charges (C) Revocation of proposal and acceptance (B) X need not pay the agreed charges but (D) Revocation of contract only reasonable charges 93. Which one of the following does not (C) X can require the State to bear the claim amount to fraud? for damages (A) Active concealment of a fact (D) X need not pay anything as the (B) A promise made without any intention celebration of the marriage was of performing it impossible on account of the curfew (C) Suggestion as a fact of that which is not 89. In which of the following instances has the true by one who does not believe it to discharge of agreement not been effected? be true 194 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

(D) A representation made without List-I List-ll knowing it to be false, honestly (A) Supervening 1. Uberrima fide believing it to be true contract 94. A stipulation for increased interest from the impossibility date of default is known as (B) Consideration 2. Frustration (A) damage (B) penalty (C) Good faith 3. Privity of contract (C) liquidated damage (D) compensation (D) Dunlp Tyre Co. v. 4. Quid pro quo 95. Match List-1 with List-ll and select the Self ridge and Co. Code: correct answer using the code given below (A) A B C D the Lists; 1 3 4 2 List-I List-II (B) A B C D (A) Tinn v. Hoffman 1. Invitation to 3 2 1 4 and Co. (C) A B c D (B) Fisher v. Bell 2. Offers at large 2 4 1 3 (C) Carlill v. Carbolic 3. Cross offers (D) A B c D Smoke Ball Co. 2 1 3 4 (D) Harvey v. Facey4. Quotation of price 98. Assertion (A): Marriage brokerage contract Code: is valid (A) A B C D Reason (R): Marriage brokerage contract is 3 1 4 2 opposed to public policy. (B) A B C D Codes: 1 2 3 4 (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (C) A B C D explanation of A 2 1 3 4 (B) Both A and R are true but R is not the (D) A B C D correct explanation of A 2 4 1 3 (C) A is true but R is false 96. Which one of the following propositions is (D) A is false but R is true correct? 99. Which of the following are the duties oil (A) A minor’s contract being void, a minor bailee? is not bound to pay for necessities 1. Duty to take reasonable care of goods 2. Duty not to make unauthorised use of supplied to him goods (B) A minor’s contract being voidable he is 3. Duty not to mix his own goods with the bound to pay for necessities supplied to goods bailed him 4. Duty to compensate when goods is (C) A minor is bound to pay for necessities damaged despite of the care of diebailee supplied to him because a minor’s Codes: contract is valid (A) 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1,2 and 3 (D) A minor’s contract is void but he is (C) 3 and 4 (D) l and 2 bound to pay for necessities supplied to 100. Adomsen vs. Jarvis is a leading case on him (A) Bailment 97. Match List-1 with List-ll and select the (B) Contract of Indemninty correcs answer using the code given below (C) Contract of Guarantee the Lists: (D) Pledge 195

Jharkhand Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2014 (Solved Paper) (G.K., Law & English)

1. The word which is most opposite in 9. From the following words, the misspelt meaning to the word ‘Random’ is? word is (A) Accidental (B) Haphazard (A) Relinquish (B) Illuminant (C) Incidental (D) Deliberate (C) Exodes (D) Dependency 2. Find the odd word out 10. ‘Gynaephobia’ stands for (A) Peripheral (B) Necessary (A) fear of woman (B) fear of sex (C) Fundamental (D) Essential (C) fear of chins (D) fear of marriage 3. One who walks in sleep is 11. Exemption from personal appearance in the (A) hypocrite (B) imposter court is provided under (C) somnambulist (D) sarcastic (A) Section 133 of CPC 4. Choose the tense form of the following (B) Section 132 of CPC sentence I was standing outside the post (C) Section 143 of CPC office. (D) Section 142 of CPC (A) Present continuous tense 12. A suit in respect of public charities is (B) Past continuous tense provided under (C) Past simple tense (A) Section 92 of CPC (D) Past Perfect tense (B) Section 41 of CPC 5. I am trying to phone her, but I can’t (C) Section 100 of CPC (A) get up (B) get through (D) Section 105 of CPC (C) get on (D) get away 13. Suit of indigent persons has been provided 6. Which of the following is the sentence with under coordinating conjuction? (A) Order 32 of CPC (A) He held my hand lest I should fall. (B) Order 33 of CPC (C) Order 29 of CPC (B) He is slow but he is honest. (D) Order 34 of CPC (C) Rama will go if Hari goes. 14. The provision in respect of summary (D) A book is a book although there is procedure has been laid down under nothing in it. (A) Order 37 of CPC (B) Order 36 of CPC 7. The word which is most similar in meaning (C) Order 38 of CPC(D) Order 40 of CPC to the word ‘Thrashing’ is 15. Under Section 37 of Code of Criminal (A) Garbage (B) Beating Procedure every person is bound to assist a (C) Shouting (D) Warning Magistrate or a Police Officer 8. The group of words which is most similar (A) in the taking or preventing the escape in meaning to the word ‘Vanished’ is of any other person whom such (A) Gone missing (B) Was found Magistrate or Police Officer is (C) Was killed (D) Was left behind authorized to arrest 196 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

(B) in the prevention or suppression of a 21. What is the time limit prescribed within breach of peace which claims and objections to attachment (C) in the prevention of any injury to be made under CrPC? attempted to be committed to railways (A) 6 months (B) 60 days (D) All of the above (C) 1 year (D) 3 years 16. In a cognizable case under Indian Penal 22. Under what appropriate Section, a Code, the police will have all the powers to Magistrate may issue an order of injunction? investigate (A) Section 133 (B) Section 142 (A) except the power to arrest without (C) Section 144 (D) Section 145 warrant 23. Under what Section of CrPC a Magistrate (B) including the power to arrest without may direct local investigation? warrant (A) Section 139 (B) Section 133 (C) and arrest without warrant, only after (C) Section 145 (D) Section 147 seeking permission from the Magistrate 24. Who among the following may ask for (D) and arrest without warrant, only after security for keeping peace on conviction? in informing the Magistrate having (A) Subdivisional Magistrate jurisdiction to inquire into or try the (B) District Magistrate offence (C) Executive Magistrate 17. For the purpose of taking cognizance of an (D) First Class Judicial Magistrate offence what period of limitation is 25. What is the maximum period, under Section prescribed by the court for an offence 110 of CrPC, for furnishing security carrying punishment not exceeding one prescribed for keeping good behaviour? year? (A) 6 months (B) 1 year (A) 3 months (B) 6 months (C) 2 years (D) 3 years (C) 1 year (D) 3 years 26. A confession made under Section 164 of the 18. What is the maximum period an Executive Criminal Procedure Code of 1973 can be Magistrate may authorize the detention of recorded by a Magistrate, during the course an accused in custody? of (A) Not exceeding 24 hours (A) a trial (B) Not exceeding 3 days (B) an investigation (C) Not exceeding 7 days (C) a trial or an investigation (D) Not exceeding 15 days (D) investigation, but before the 19. Who is not entitled to any maintenance commencement of inquiry or trial under Chapter IX of CrPC? 27. Trial commences in warrant cases instituted (A). Divorced wife on police report (B) Judicially separated wife (A) with the issuance’ of process against (C) Illegitimate child accused person (D) Physically and mentally able adult son (B) with the submission of police report 20. How long a warrant of arrest shall remain (C) on the framing of formal charge in force? (D) on the appearance of the accused in (A) 6 years obedience to the process issued by the (B) 10 years court (C) 12 years 28. Which of the following statements need not (D) Until executed or cancelled be signed by the maker? Jharkhand Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2014 (Law) 197

(A) Statement u/s 313 of CrPC 35. Leading question has been defined under (B) Statement u/s 164 of CrPC the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 under (C) Statement u/s 161 of CrPC (A) Section 141 (B) Section 142 (D) Statement (Confession) by accused u/s (C) Section 143 (D) Section 145 36. Under which Section of the Indian Evidence 164 of CrPC Act, 1872, a public servant shall not be 29. Under which Section of law, Magistrate has compelled to disclose communication made power to issue ‘commission’ for to him in official confidence? examination of witness in prison? (A) Section 123 (B) Section 124 (A) Section 270 (B) Section 271 (C) Section 125 (D) Section 126 (C) Section 272 (D) Section 273 37. A is charged with travelling in a railway 30. Under which Section of law the court has without a ticket. The burden of proving that provision to direct tender of pardon to he had a ticket, is the accused before pronouncement of (A) on prosecution (B) on accused judgement? (C) Neither on prosecution nor on accused (D) None of the above (A) Section 306 (B) Section 307 38. In respect of a certified copy, thirty years (C) Section 301 (D) Section 310 old, which fulfills all the conditions laid 31. If question asked to witness to any matter under Section 90 of the Indian Evidence Act, relevant to the matter in issue and the the court answer given by witness to such question (A) shall presume (B) may presume will criminate him, then (C) will not presume(D) None of the above (A) the witness shall be compelled to answer 39. A certified copy of a registered sale deed such question produced in evidence (B) the witness shall not be compelled to (A) will be proof of execution of the original answer such question and its registration (C) court may presume (C) will be proof of execution only (D) will be merely proof of the fact that an (D) None of the above original document was registered 32. ‘Estoppel’ has been defined under (D) will not prove anything in absence of (A) Section 115 (B) Section 114 original (C) Section 117 (D) Section 130 40. Confession of one accused is admissible 33. The presumption of legitimacy under evidence against co-accused, if they are Section 112 is tried (A) presumption of law (A) jointly for the same offence (B) presumption of fact (B) jointly for different offences (C) mixed presumption of law and fact (C) for the same offence but not jointly (D) None of the above (D) for different offences and not jointly 41. For the purpose of proving a registered 34. A witness may, while under examination, Will’, it shall be necessary to call refresh his memory by referring to any (A) all the attesting witnesses writing made by himself at the time of the (B) one attesting witness at least transaction or soon afterwards. This (C) one attesting witness and the scriber of provision is provided under the Will (A) Section 159 (B) Section 160 (D) one attesting witness and the registering (C) Section 158 (D) Section 166 officer 198 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

42. In the Indian Evidence Act, the conditions 49. The intimation under Section 59 of the in respect of computer output to be deemed Indian Contract Act, 1872 and admissible in evidence as document is (A) must be implied contained in (B) must be expressed (A) Section 65(B)(4) (B) Section 65(B)(1) (C) may be either expressed or implied (C) Section 65(B)(2) (D) Section 65(B)(5) (D) None of the above 43. Which of the following is correct in respect 50. A tender in a newspaper is of determining the date of birth of A? (A) invitation to offer (A) A letter from A’s deceased father to a (B) promise friend, announcing the birth of A is a relevant fact (C) offer (B) A letter from A’s deceased father to a (D) invitation for acceptance friend, announcing the birth of A is not 51. Every promise and every set of promises a relevant fact forming the consideration for each other is (C) a letter from A’s deceased father to a (A) an agreement (B) an acceptance friend, announcing the birth of A is not (C) an offer (D) a contract admissible in evidence 52. A agrees with B to discover treasure by (D) None of the above magic. The agreement is 44. Which of the following is required to be (A) voidable (B) void proved essentially? (C) wrongful (D) enforceable (A) Judicial notice (B) Admitted fact 53. Which of the following Sections of the Indian (C) Confession (D) Relevant fact Contract Act, 1872 defines ‘Contract’? 45. Opinions of experts are not relevant (A) Section 2(h) (B) Section 2(f) (A) upon a point of science (C) Section 2(d) (D) Section 2(a) (B) upon a point of art (C) upon a point of domestic law 54. Which of the following Sections of the Indian (D) as to identity of handwriting Contract Act, 1872 defines ‘Consideration’? 46. Which of the following Sections provides (A) Section 2(a) (B) Section 2(b) that evidence may be given of facts in issue? (C) Section 2(c) (D) Section 2(d) (A) Section 3 (B) Section 4 55. “An agreement without consideration is (C) Section 5 (D) Section 6 void.” Which Section of the Indian Contract 47. Which one of the following is not essential Act, 1872 lays down this provision? for a consideration? (A) Section 23 (B) Section 2(d) (A) It must be given at the desire of the (C) Section 10 (D) Section 25(1) promisor 56. The nature of an agreement made under the (B) Valuable provisions of Section 20 of the Indian (C) Lawful Contract Act, 1872 would be (D) Adequate (A) valid (B) void 48. The provisions relating to contingent (C) invalid (D) voidable contract under the Indian Contract Act, 1872 is laid down under 57. “The liability of the surety is coextensive (A) Sections 31 to 37 with that of the principal debtor.” It has (B) Sections 32 to 37 been provided under (C) Sections 31 to 36 (A) Section 126 (B) Section 127 (D) Sections 30 to 36 (C) Section 128 (D) Section 130 Jharkhand Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2014 (Law) 199

58. ‘An agreement to do an act impossible’ is (A) Virsa Singh vs. State of Punjab; AIR provided in the Indian Contract Act under 1958, SC 465 (A) Section 39 (B) Section 50 (B) States of UP vs. Ramesh Prasad Mishra; (C) Section 56 (D) Section 55 (1996) 10, SCC 360 59. A ‘contract of pledge’ is a contract of (C) K. M. Nanavati vs. State of Maharashtra; (A) indemnity (B) guarantee AIR 1962, SC605 (C) bailment (D) agency (D) Nehru @ Jawahar vs. State; AIR 2008, 60. In kidnapping, consent of minor is SC 2574 (A) wholly immaterial(B) partly immaterial 66. Inducing a person with dishonest intention (C) wholly material(D) partly material to part with his property by putting him 61. A, who deals only in coconut oil, enters into in fear of physical injury amounts to an an agreement with B to sell 50 tons of oil. offence of The agreement is (A) theft (A) enforceable by law (B) criminal misappropriation (B) void due to uncertainty (C) extortion (C) voidable due to uncertainty (D) criminal intimidation (D) None of the above 67. A sees B drowning in the river, but does not 62. B is wife of A. A during lifetime of B and save him. B is drowned. A has committed with her consent makes an agreement with (A) the offence of murder C to marry her (C). The agreement is (B) the offence of abetment of suicide (A) void (B) voidable (C) the offence of culpable homicide not (C) valid (D) None of the above amounting to murder 63. A finds the key of B’s house door, which B (D) no offence had lost, and commits house trespass by 68. ‘Common intention’ signifies entering B’s house, having opened the door (A) similar intention with that key. A has committed the offence (B) prearranged planning of (C) presence of common knowledge (D) common design for common objects (A) lurking house trespass 69. A, knowing that B has murdered Z, assists (B) criminal misappropriation B to hide the body with the intention of (C) attempt to theft screening B from punishment. A is liable to (D) housebreaking (A) imprisonment of either description for 64. What punishment may be awarded to the seven years and to fine also person whose act is covered under general (B) imprisonment for life exceptions of Chapter IV of IPC? (C) death sentence (A) No punishment (D) fine only (B) Half of the punishment prescribed for 70. A is the paramour of Z’s wife. She gives a that offence valuable property to A, which A knows to (C) One fourth of the punishment belong to Z, and A takes it dishonestly, prescribed for that offence without any authority of Z to give away. A (D) Depends upon discretion of the court has committed 65. In which of the following landmark cases, a (A) the offence of theft three-judge bench of the Supreme Court (B) the offence of cheating prescribed four-point test relating to (C) the offence of extortion Section 300, thirdly, of IPC? (D) no offence 200 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

71. Which of the following is not an essential 77. As per IPC, gangrape is punished under element of theft? (A) Section 376A (B) Section 376C (A) Dishonest intention (C) Section 376D (D) Section 376E (B) Removal from possession 78. To which one of the following the word (C) Immovable property ‘Illegal’ used under Section 43 of IPC is not (D) Without consent of the person in applicable? possession (A) Which is an offence 72. For the offence of abduction of person, (B) Which is prohibited by law (C) Which furnishes a ground for civil action abducted must be (D) Which is immoral (A) minor 79. In which State the first ‘Lok-Ayukt’ was (B) major appointed? (C) minor or major (A) Rajasthan (B) Maharashtra (D) None of the above (C) Gujarat (D) Uttaranchal 73. Which of the following is not an essential 80. International Workers Day is observed on element for the offence of kidnapping? (A) 15th April (B) 12th December (A) Minor (C) 1st May (D) 1st August (B) Intention of the accused 81. The ratio of width of our National Flag to its (C) Without the consent of lawful guardian length is (D) Beyond the control of lawful guardian (A) 1:2 (B) 2:3 74. Under IPC, attempt to commit (C) 3:2 (D) 7:9 dacoity is punished under 82. ‘Law Day’ is celebrated in India on which (A) Section 393 (B) Section 394 one of the following dates? (C) Section 395 (D) Section 396 (A) 15th August (B) 26th January 75. In which of the following cases it is settled (C) 26th December (D) 26th November that death sentence should be awarded only 83. The State of Jharkhand was established on in the ‘rarest of rare’ cases? (A) 15th November, 2000 (A) R vs. Govinda (B) 16th November, 2000 (B) Hussainara vs. State of Bihar (C) 15th December, 2000 (C) Bachan Singh vs. State of Punjab (D) 16th December, 2000 (D) Sunil Batra vs. Delhi Administration 84. On the basis of area, the largest State in India is 76. In which one of the following circumstances, (A) Rajasthan (B) Madhya Pradesh the right of private defence of the body (C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Maharashtra extends to causing death? 85. ‘joule’ is the unit of (A) Reasonable apprehension to cause (A) temperature (B) pressure simple hurt (C) energy (D) heat (B) Reasonable apprehension to cause 86. Antibiotics simple theft (A) prevents pain (C) Reasonable apprehension of causing (B) destroys body germs quickly wrongful restraint (C) does not prevent germs from growing (D) An act of throwing or administering (D) Both (B) and (C) acid or of such an attempt that 87. Where did Akbar born? reasonably causes apprehension of (A) Delhi (B) Lahore grievous hurt (C) Agra (D) Amarkot Jharkhand Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2014 (Law) 201

88. The Tax Reform Commission was set up by the (B) fresh suit may be filed with prior (A) Planning Commission permission of the court (B) Prime Minister (C) no fresh suit shall be brought (C) Ministry of Finance (D) new suit may be filed if sufficient cause (D) Interstate Council is shown 89. During proceeding for execution of a decree, 95. Which of the following is not correct if a question arises as to whether any person regarding the powers of Appellate Court? is or is not the representative of a party, (A) Appellate Court has power to such question shall, be determined by determine a case finally (A) the court which passed the decree (B) Appellate Court has power to remand (B) the court executing the decree the case (C) the Appellate Court (C) Appellate Court has no power to take (D) a separate suit additional evidence 90. In execution of a decree, other than a decree (D) Appellate Court has power to frame for maintenance, passed against A, what issue and refer them for trial shall be the attachable portion, if his salary 96. Period of detention in civil imprisonment, is 10,000 per month? as a consequence of disobedience or breach (A) 3,333 (B) r 5,000 of any injunction, shall not exceed (C) 3,000 (D) 6,666 (A) one month (B) three months 91. In an ‘interpleader suit’, there (C) six months (D) one year (A) are several claimants claiming the 97. If a party who has obtained an order to property adverse to each other amend the pleadings under CPC, if not (B) is only one claimant claiming the amended, after expiration of how many property against the other days shall not be permitted to amend the (C) are several claimants claiming the same without the leave of the court? property under common interest of all (A) 15 days (B) 90 days (D) None of the above (C) 14 days (D) 30 days 92. The court cannot order execution of a decree 98. Where party dies after conclusion of the as per Section 51 of CPC, in which of the hearing and before pronouncing of following ways? judgement (A) By delivery of any property specifically (A) the suit shall abate decreed (B) the suit shall not abate (B) By attachment and sale of property (C) the suit shall not abate if cause of action (C) By serving summons on the party survives (D) By appointing a receiver (D) it will be deemed that judgement has 93. if the appellant withdraws the appeal been pronounced before death of the preferred against a decree passed ex parte, party the application under Order 9, Rule 13 of 99. An application for revision under CPC is CPC shall be filed under (A) rejected (B) returned (A) Section 114 (B) Section 115 (C) maintainable (C) Section 116 (D) Section 113 (D) referred for opinion of the Appellate Court 100. Before filing a suit against government 94. Where a suit is abated or dismissed under under Section 80 of CPC it requires a notice Order 22 of CPC on the same cause of action to be given to the government of (A) new suit may be instituted with the (A) 60 days (B) 30 days consent of parties (C) 90 days (D) 14 days 202 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

Jharkhand Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2015 (Solved Paper) (G.K., Law & English)

1. Which of the underlined parts of the given 8. Identify the type of sentence given below: sentence contains an error? Can you lend me your pen, please? One of my sister lives (A) Declarative (B) Operative (A) (B) (C) Imperative (D) Interrogative near the India Gate in New Dethi 9. An ophthalmologist treats the disorders of (C) (D) (A) skin (B) heart 2. Fill in the blank with a suitable form of verb (C) eye (D) brain in the following: 10. The word “terrestrial” means connected with My friend ______living in Mumbai since (A) water (B) land 2014. (C) space (D)air (A) is (B) has been 11. Who appoints thern Judges of High Courts (C) is being (D) was being of India? 3. Fill in the blank with an appropriate (A) Prime Minister preposition. (B) Chief Justice of India They belong to the same party, but they (C) President of India don’t agree everything. (D) Law Minister of India (A) in (B) at 12. The year of Quit India Movement is (C) on (P) with (A) 1930 (B) 1940 4. The word ‘millenium’ refers to a period of (C) 1942 (D) 1947 (A) one hundred years 13. Deficiency of which of the following (B) one million years Vitamins cause ‘Night-blindness’? (C) one thousand years (A) Vitamin B (B) Vitamin A (D) ten thousand years (C) Vitamin C (D) Vitamin 1 5. Fill in the blank with the suitable choice. 14. One of the following gases is the. cause of Dethi is _____ than Shimla in May. ‘Greenhouse effect’ (warming of the earth (A) hot (B) hotter surface) (C) more hot (D) more hotter (A) Nitrogen oxide (B) Nitrous oxide 6. Which of the following is similar in (C) Carbon dioxide (D) Carbon monoxide meaning of “that which cannot be read”? 15. The UNO was formed on ______(A) Illegitimate (B) Illegal (A) 24th October, 1945 (C) Illegible (D) Illogical (B) 23M October, 1945 7. Select the appropriate choice to fill in the (C) 24th October, 1944 blank in the sentence. (D) 22nd October, 1944 tigers are ferocious. 16. The American Journal ‘Time’ has chosen one (A) A (B) The of the following as ‘the person of the year (C) An (D) article is required. 2015. Jharkhand Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2015 203

(A) Angela Markel 24. Under Section 167 of Cr. PC the nature of (B) Barack Obama custody can be altered from judicial (C) Narehdra Modi custody to police custody and vice- versa, (D) Margaret Thatcher this alteration can be done 17. Amaravati is being made new capital of (A) During the period of first seven days which of the following state? (B) During the period of first fifteen days (A) Goa (B) Andhra Pradesh (C) During the period of first fourteen days (C) Mizoram (D) Chhattisgarh 18. Justice Meenakshi Madan Rai has been (D) During the period of first ten c’ays sworn in as the first woman judge of High 25. Cognizance of offence of defamation under Court of which of the following states? Chapter XXI of IPC can be taken (A) Sikkim (B) Kerala (A) On a complaint made by an aggrieved (C) Tamil Nadu (D) Dethi person 19. Who of the following is the writer of the (B) On a police report book: ‘Wings of Fire’? (C) Suo motu (A) Sarojini Naidu (D) All of the above (B) A.PJ. Abdul Kalani 26. Joint trial of several persons is permissible (C) Jagannath Pillai (A) Under Section 219 of Cr.PC (D) Amrita Pritam (B) Under Section 221 of Cr.PC 20. Cristiano Ronaldo has recently been voted (C) Under Section 222 of Cr.PC as a number one footballer. He hails from which of the following countries? (D) Under Section 223 of Cr.PC (A) Portugal (B) Argentina 27. Rule antre for’s aquit or antre for’s commit (C) Brazil (D) Germany is contained in 21. A Magistrate has the power to direct the (A) Under Section 298 of Cr.PC police to investigate into an offence in CrPC (B) Under Section300 of Cr.PC under (C) Under Section 320 of Cr.PC, (A) Section 156(3) Cr.PC (D) Under Section 321 of Cr.PC (B) Section 156 (2) Cr.PC 28. In which of the following cases th Supreme (C) Section 156 (1) Cr.PC Court held that the High Cour cannot (D) All of the above directly entertain bail applicatior of POTA 22. Under the scheme of Criminal Procedure accused without its refusal b) special court? Code non-cognizable offences are (A) State of Gujarat v. Santosh Kumar (A) Private wrongs (B) State of Gujarat v. Shalimbhai Abdul (B) Public wrongs Gaffar Shaikh (C) Both public and private wrongs (D) None of the above (C) State of Uttar Pradesh V. S.N. Srivastava 23. Under Section 159 of Cr.PC, the Magistrate (D) State of Maharashtra v. S.K. Dhinde has the power to 29. ‘A Legal Remembrances canntt be made ex- (A) Depute any Magistrate subordinate to officio public prosecutor.’ This was held in him to hold a preliminary inquiry (A) State of Kerala V. Karveettil Krishnan (B) Direct-investigation by the police (B) V. Ramchandra v. M.C. Jagadhodhara (C) Either (A) or (B) (C) Vijay v. State of Maharashtra (D) Only (B) and not (A) (D) None of the above 204 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

30. Urgent cases of Nuisance or apprehended 36. If the accused is not acquitted under Section danger falls under 232 of Cr. PC then the court calls upon him (A) Section 146 of cr.PC to enter on (B) Section 144 of Cr.PC (A) His defence (B) His counsel (C) Section 142 of Cr.PC (C) His version (D) His statement (D) Section 140 of Cr.PC 37. In case of anticipatory breach of contract, 31. When Warrant also cannot be executed the an aggrieved party court may proceed under (A) Has the right to claim performance at (A) Section 83 and 84 of Cr.PC any time (B) Section 82 and 83 of Cr.PC (B) Cannot claim any remedy as (C) Section 81 and 82 of Cr.PC performance is still executory (D) Section 80 and 81 of Cr.PC (C) May wait till the date of performance 32. “Plea Bargaining” a new chapter was added (D) Does not have the right to terminate the in Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 by the contract Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2005 (2 of 38. Which of the following statements is not 2006) is contained in correct? (A) Section 265 A to 265 N (A) Acceptance must be communicated. (B) Section 265 A to 265 M (B) Acceptance must be in writing. (C) Section 265 A to 265 L (C) Oral acceptance is a valid acceptance. (D) Section 265 A to 265 E (D) Acceptance must be in the prescribed 33. A Magistrate may under SectiOn 252 or Section 255 of Cr.PC convict the accused of manner. any offence triable under 39. The principle “Restitution stops where (A) Chapter XIX of Cr.PC repayment begins’ can be applied against (B) Chapter XX of Cr.PC (A) An alien enemy only (C) Chapter XXI of Cr.PC (B) Any incapable person (D) Chapter XV of Cr.PC (C) Lunatics and idiots only 34. In which of the following cases the Supreme (D) Minors only Court held that FIR was not substantive 40. Promissory estoppels is sometimes spoken evidence and could only be used to of as a substitute for corroborate its maker? (A) Quasi contract (A) Anil Kumar V. B.S. Neelakanta, AIR 2010 (B) Consideration SC 2715 (C) Coercion (B) Viveta Gazra v. State, AIR 2010 SC 2712 (D) Novation (C) Union of India v. A. Kumar, AIR 2010 SC 41. A change of nature of obligation of a contract 2735 known as (D) C. Magesh v. State of Karnataka, AIR (A) Alteration (B) Repudiation 2010 SC 2768 (C) Rescission (D) Novation 35. In summons-cases and inquiries, 42. A notice in the newspapers inviting tenders memorandum is the only is (A) Record of witness (A) An invitation for negotiation (B) Record of accused statement (B) A promise (C) Record of evidence (C) An invitation to proposal (D) Record of all statements (D) A proposal Jharkhand Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2015 205

43. Examine the following statements: (A) Section 65 of the Indian Contract Act, 1. Every contract is an agreement. 1872 2. Every agreement is a contract. (B) Section 60 of the Indian Contract Act, 3. Every lawful civil obligation is a contract. 1872 4. Every contract has a legally enforceable (C) Section 63 of the Indian Contract Act, civil obligation. 1872 Which of these statements are correct? (D) Section 68 of the Indian Contract Act, (A) l and 4 (B) l and 2 1872 49. A continuing guarantee under Section 130 is (C) 2and 3 (D) 3 and 4 (A) Irrevocable absolutely 44. Union of India v. Maddala Thathaiah is an (B) Revocable as regards future transaction illustration, where the tender was in the (C) Revocable absolutely form of (D) Either (A) or (B) Series-A (A) Public offer (B) Standing offer 50. For the purpose of pledge, delivery of (C) Specific offer (D) General offer possession of goods 45. The rule laid down in Adam v. Lindsell was (A) May be symbolic approved by the House of Lords in (B) Either actual or constructive (A) Dunlop v. Higgins (C) May be constructive (B) Elliason v. Henshaw (D) Has to be actual (C) Powell v. Lee 51. A valid lease can be determined by (D) Hyde v. Wrench (A) Force majeure (B) Frustration 46. Which one of the following agreements is (C) Efflux of time (D) None of the above 52. There can also be _____ by estoppels. held to be opposed to public policy? (A) Sale (B) Ownership (A) The arbitration clause for the (C) Fraud (D) Possession application of foreign law 53. Causing of the death of child in the mother’s (B) Payment in foreign currency womb is not homicide as provided under (C) Agreement of payment of less salary (A) explanation V to Section 300 (D) Arbitrators residing in the foreign (B) explanation Ito Section 299 country (C) explanation II to Section 299 47. The facts of Griffith v. Brymere would (D) explanation ifi to Section 299 attract Section 20 and facts of Krell v. Henry 54. Section 511 does not apply in case of attract (A) attempt of riot (B) attempt of theft (A) Section 20 of the Indian Coitract Act, (C) attempt of affray (D) attempt of murder 1872 55. Assault cannot be caused by (B) Section 10 of the Indian Contract Act, (A) mere gestures (B) mere words 1872 (C) mere preparation (C) Section 12 of the Indian Contract Act, (D) All the above 1872 56. Personating a public servant is an offence (D) Section 56 of the Indian Contract Act, (A) Under Section 186 of IPC 1872 (B) Under Section 171 of IPC 48. The obligation to restore advantage in a (C) Under Section 170 of IPC void agreement is provided by (D) Under Section 169 of IPC 206 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

57. The Supreme Court of India has observed a (A) Muichay v. Queen clear distinction between dishonestly and (B) Quinn v. Leatham fraudulently in the case of (C) Abdul Rehman v. Emperor (A) Nathu Lal v. State of M. P. (D) R v. Vincent (B) Central Bank of India v. Narain 64. Homicide cannot be defined as killing of a (C) Mubarik Ali v. State of Bombay person by a person in view of the nature of (D) Vimla Devi v. Dethi Administration the definition of the word ‘person’ in Series-A (A) Section 13 of the Indian Penal Code 58. The minimum duration of imprisonment (B) Section 11 of the Indian Penal Code (C) Section 9 of the Indian Penal Code provided for an offence under the Indian (D) Section 7 of the Indian Penal Code Penal Code is imprisonment for 65. The requirement of possession has been (A) Twenty four hours under Section 511 highlighted by illustrations (B) Twenty four hours under Section 510 (A) (A), (B), (C) and (D) in Section 378 ofIPC (C) Sentence of 20 hours under Section 510 (B) (B), (C), (D) and (e) in Section 378 ofIPC (D) Sentence of imprisonment till rising of (C) (C), (D), (e) and (f) in Section 378 ofIPC the court under Section (D) (D),(e), (f) and (g) in Section 378 of IPC 59. The principle underlying in Section 95 of 66. Theft under Indian Penal Code differs from IPC Is larceny in English Law which contemplated (A) de minimis non curat lex (A) Permanent gain and loss (B) Volenti non fit injuria (B) Loss of property (C) Non compos mentis (C) Moving of property (D) Actus me invito factus non est mens (D) Denying the ownerof his property actus 67 ‘A’ instigates ‘W to murder ‘C’ who refuses 60. Section 97 of IPC expressly states that the to do so. ‘A’ is guilty of right of private defence is subject to the (A) Abetment to commit murder restrictions contained in (B) No offence (A) Section 99 of IPC (C) Criminal conspiracy (B) Section 100 of IPC (D) Criminal instigation 68 Which one of the following brings out the (C) Section 98 of IPC distinction between Section 34 and 149 of (D) Section 102 of IPC the IPC? 61. The language of Part third of Section 105 is (A) Section 149 creates a specific offence similar to that of whereas Section 34 does not (A) Section 39 of IPC (B) Section 37 of IPC (B) SectiOn 34 creates a specific offence (C) Section 38 of IPC (D) Section 40 of IPC whereas Section 149 does not 62. Which of the following Sections of PC has (C) Section 34 as well as Section 149 create incorporated the English law known as specific offences principal in the Second degree? - (D) Section 34 as well as Section 149 do not (A) Section 114 (B) Section 112 create specific offences (C) Section 110 (D) S.ection 109 69 The Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) 63. The definition of criminal conspiracy in I Act, 2002 permits evidence in the form of Section 120-A, IPC has been taken from that (A) Petition (B) Affidavits given in (C) Statements (D) Documents Jharkhand Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2015 207

70. It has been held by the Supreme Court in 79. ‘Necessity rule’ as to the admissibility of R.M. Malkani v. State of Maharashtra that evidence is contained in a contemporaneous tape-record of a (A) Section 61 of Evidence Act relevant conversation is a relevant fact It is (B) Section 60 of Evidence Act (A) relevant (B) res-gestae (C) Section 32 of Evidence Act J (C) admissible (D) documents (D) Section 31 of Evidence Act 71. Section 11 of the Indian Evidence Act enables 80. The res inter alia acta is receivable a person charged with a crime to take what (A) Under Section 48 of Evidence Act is commonly called the pleaof (B) Under Section 47 of Evidence Act (A) res-gestae (B) lis-pendens (C) Under Section 46 of Evidence Act $ (C) alibi (D) res-judicata (D) Under Section 45 of Evidence Act 72. A judicial admission operates as 81. Section 92 of Evidence Act applies to (A) an admission (B) a confession (A) Bilateral documents (C) a plea of ignorance (B) Unilateral documents (D) a waiver of proof (C) Both (A) and (B) 73. The burden of proof means the obligation (D) Either (A) or (B) to prove a fact. This is defined under 82. Estoppel (A) Section 201 of the Indian Evidence Act (A) Need not be specifically pleaded (B) Section 101 of the Indian Evidence Act (B) Should be specifically pleaded (C) Section 200 of the Indian Evidence Act (D) Section 100 of the Indian Evidence Act (C) May be specifically pleaded oi may not 74. The principle stated in Section 106 of the be specifically pleaded Indian Evidence Act is an application of the (D) Both (B) & (C) are coffect principle of 83. Zahira Sheikh was prime witness in (A) res gestae (B) res ipsa loquitur (A) Best Bakery retrial case (2006) (C) res-judicata (D) res sic stantibus (B) Best Bakery case (2004) 75. Leading questions can always be asked (C) Sukh Ram disproportionate assets case (A) in second ecamination (2005) (B) in re-examination (D) Gujjar Killings case (2003)1 (C) in cross-examination 84. The presumption under Section 41 of (D) in first examination Series-A Evidence Act is a 76. Alibi is governed by (A) Presumption of fact (A) Section 8 of Evidence Act (B) Rebuttable presumption of law (B) Section 6 of Evidence Act (C) Presumption of fact & law .J (C) Section 11 of Evidence Act (D) Irrebuttable presumption of law (D) Section 12 of Evidence Act 85 Pecuniary jurisdiction of the court has been 77. Admissions made by a party are evidence dealt with in against (A) Section 6 of CPC (A) Privies in estate (B) Privies in law (B) Section5ofCPC (C) Privies in blood (D) All the above (C) Section4ofCPC 78. Communication made ‘without prejudice’ (D) Section 3 of CPC are protected 86 Section 20 of CPC does not apply to (A) Under Section 21 of Evidence Act (A) Arbitration proceedings (B) Under Section 24 of Evidence Act (B) Civil proceedings (C) Under Section 23 of Evidence Act (C) Both(A) & (B) (D) Under Section 22 of Evidence Act (D) Neither (A) nor (B) 208 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

87. Under Order IV, Rule I, sub-rule (1) of CPC, 95 Provisions relating to interpleader suit are a suit is instituted when contained in (A) a plaint in duplicate is presented to the (A) Order XXXVI of CPC court (B) Order XXII of CPC (B) a plaint is presented to the court (C) Order XXXIV of CPC (C) a plaint in thplicate is presented to the (D) OrderXXXVofCPC court 96. OrderXfl,Rule8ofCPCpertainsto (D) either (A) or (B) or (C) (A) notice to admit (s) 88. A suit in representative capacity can be filed (B) notice to admit document(s) by virtue of (C) notice to produce document(s) (A) under Order I, Rule 8A of CPC (D) both (A) and (B) (B) under Order I, Rule 1OA of CPC (C) under Order I, Rule 8 of CPC 97. Under which section of CPC the principles (D) under Order I, Rule 9 of CPC of equity justice and good conscience are 89. List of witness, after settlement of issues, prescriled? must be filed within (A) Section 121 (B) Section 131 J (A) 60 days (B) 45 days (C) Section 141 (D) Section 151 (C) 30 days (D) l5days 98. Which of the following decisions is not a 90. ‘Pleading’ can be altered or amended decree within the meaning of Section 2(2) of (A) under Order VI, Rule 9 of CPC CPC? (B) under Order VI, Rule 10 of CPC (A) Dismissal of an application for final (C) under Order VI, Rule 16 of CPC decree (D) under Order VI, Rule 17 of CPC (B) Award of tribunal in land acquisition 91. A suit can be dismissed in default case (A) under Order IX, Rule 2 of CPC (C) An order of abatement (B) under Order IX, Rule 3 of CPC (D) Order modifying a scheme under Section (C) under Order IX, Rule 8 of CPC 92 (D) both (B) & (C) 99. Which of the following is a suit of civil 92. An application under Order IX, Rule 7 of nature? CPC can be made (A) Suits for upholding mere dignity or (A) within 60 days of the Order honour (B) within 30 days of the Order (B) Suits for accounts (C) at any time on or before the next date of (C) Suits expressly barred by some hearing enactment (D) any time during the pendency of the suit (D) Suits relating to political questions 93. Judgment on admission can be given 100. The material facts on which a party relies (A) under Order XII, Rule 2 of CPC are called (B) under Order XII, Rule 4 of CPC (A) facta probantia (C) under Order XII, Rule 6 of CPC (B) facta probanda (D) under Order XII, Rule 8 of CPC (C) falsa demonstration non nocet 94. Judgment & decree have been dealt in CPC. (D) fances terrae (A) under Order XX (B) under Order XXI (C) under Order XX-A  (D) under Order XIX 209

Jharkhand Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2019 (Solved Paper) (G.K., Law & English)

Time Allowed : 2 Hours M.Marks : 100 "The patient had died when the doctor 1. Choose the correct meaning of the arrived". underlined phrasal verb in the following (a) Past Tense sentence : (b) Present Perfect Tense (c) Past Perfect Tense "His evidence beans out the testimony of the (d) Past Perfect Continuous Tense accused. 7. Orthopaedics is the branch of medicine (a) Corroborates (b) Falsifies concerned with (c) Does not support (d) Contradicts (a) the study of human skin 2. Choose the correct spelling (b) the study of human nervous system (a) Enciclopaedia (b) Encyclopaedia (c) the study of human bones and muscles (c) Ancyclopedia (d) Incyklopedia (d) the study of eyes and ears 8. The word most opposite in meaning to the 3. Which word is a personification in this word "amateur" is sentence? (a) professional (b) unskilled "Death lays its icy hands on Kings and (c) clumsy (d) talented Paupers alike." 9. Choose the correct meaning of the (a) Hands (b) Kings underlined word in the following sentence : (c) Death (d) Paupers "Trespassers will be prosecuted". 4. Choose the word closest in meaning to the (a) Harassed underlined word in the sentence : (b) Punished unjustly (c) Legal action will be taken against them "I sat next to a distinguished writer". (d) Oppressed (a) Different (b) Eminent 10. Choose the correct meaning of the (c) Common (d) Unknown underlined idiomatic phrase in the following 5. Choose the correct indirect form of the sentence : following sentence : "He was sent off on a wild goose chase to He said to me, "Let us have some tea". look for buried treasure". (a) Foolish unprofitable venture (a) He said me to have some tea. (b) Profitable adventure (b) He proposed to me that we should have (c) Bird hunting some tea. (d) Treasure hunting (c) He told me to have some tea. 11. According to 2011 Census which of the (d) He asked to have some tea. following is least populous State of India? 6. Choos the tense form of the following (a) Mizoram (b) Sikkim sentence : (c) Arunachal Pradesh(d) Goa 210 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

12. Which one of the following is a 'Tiger (c) Only English Reserve' of Jharkhand? (d) English and French (a) Betla (b) Hazaribagh 20. 'International Yoga Day' is celebrated on (c) Palamu (d) Dalma (a) 5th June (b) 8th March 13. Which one of the following classical dance (c) 21st June (d) 1st July forms is mainly associated with Andhra 21. A deposits a box of gold coins with B as his Pradesh? agent. He then writes to C for the purpose of (a) Bharatnatyam (b) Kathakali making the gold coins a security for a debt (c) Kuchipudi (d) Mohiniyattam due from himself to C. A afterwards alleges 14. Under GST taxation framework, CGST that C's debt is satisfied and C alleges the means contrary. Both claim the gold coins from B. (a) Customs Goods and Service Tax B may institute an interpleader suit against (b) Central Goods and Service Tax (a) A (b) C (c) Combined Goods and Service Tax (c) None (d) A and C (d) None of the above 22. A foreign judgement 15. Which of the following is a National Monument of India? (a) can never be conclusive (a) Red Fort (b) India Gate (b) can be conclusive as to any matter (c) Rashtrapati Bhawan indirectly adjudicated upon between (d) Qutub Minar the same parties 16. Which one of the following Indian cities is (c) can be conclusive as to any matter known by the nickname of 'Deccan Queen'? directly adjudicated upon between the (a) Bengaluru (b) Pune same parties if it has not been (c) Hyderabad (d) Chennai pronounced by a court of competent 17. Who among the following is the first jurisdiction woman Chief Minister in post- (d) can be conclusive as to any matter Independence period in India? directly adjudicated upon between the (a) Nandini Satpathy same parties if it has been pronounced (b) Shashikala Kadokar by a court of competent jurisdiction (c) Sucheta Kriplani 23. A, a bank officer, got compulsorily retired (d) Syeda Anwara Taimur in 2014. Since the bank authorities did not 18. Who among the following is the first Chief release the leave encashment in his favour, Election Commissioner of post- he filed writ petition WP 2001 (W) of 2017 Independence India? in Ranchi High Court for the same and also (a) K.V.K. Sundaram (b) Sukumar Sen for the interest on the unpaid amount. The (c) S.P. Sen Verma writ petition was disposed of by a learned (d) Dr. Nagendra Singh Single Judge in December 2018 directing the 19. Which of the following is/are the official bank to release the privileged leave language(s) of the International Court of encashment benefits, to the petitioner to the Justice (ICJ) at the Hague? extent he was entitled to in accordance with (a) English and Dutch law within a certain period. The prayer for (b) English and German interest was not specifically denied by the Jharkhand Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2019 211

court. The bank filed an appeal against the 28. In the case of public nuisance a suit for order. The Division Bench of Ranchi High declaration and injunction may be Court in February, 2019 declined to admit instituted by the appeal. The bank authorities released the (a) two persons with the leave of the court leave encashment in favour of the petitioner. (b) two persons having obtained oral However, A files a writ petition again for a direction to the bank to disburse interest to consent of the Advocate General A at the rate of 18% per annum on leave (c) two persons having obtained the encashment released by the bank. This written consent of the Advocate General petition is covered under which of the and with the leave of the court following? (d) two persons to whom no special (a) Section II, CPC damage has been caused by persons of (b) Section II, Expl. 5, CPC such public nuisance (c) Section II, Expl. 4, CPC 29. Section 20 of CPC does not apply to (d) Order 2, Rule 2, CPC 24. On the reversal of decree, which section (a) arbitration proceedings imposes an obligation on the party to the (b) civil proceedings suit who received an unjust benefit of the (c) Both (a) & (b) erroneous decree to make restitution to the (d) Neither (a) nor (b) other party for what he has lost? 30. 'Pleading' can be altered or amended (a) Section 141, CPC (a) under Order VI, Rule 9, CPC (b) Section 142, CPC (b) under Order VI, Rule 10, CPC (c) Section 143, CPC (c) under Order VI, Rule 16, CPC (d) Section 144, CPC 25. Interveners are (d) under Order VI, Rule 17, CPC (a) entitled to be impleaded 31. A defendant can pray to the court for (b) not entitled to be impleaded rejection of a plaint (c) a waste of time for the court (a) if the stamp writing is not clear (d) a burden for the plaintiff (b) if it is barred by another enactment of 26. Suit for recovery of money in promissory the Parliament notes can be filed (c) if the plaint is made in a foreign (a) under normal procedure language (b) under summary procedure as laid down in Order 37, CPC (d) None of the above (c) in the High Court 32. Where the local limits of jurisdiction of (d) as a writ petition courts are uncertain, the place of institution 27. Inherent powers of the Civil Court are of suit shall be decided according to exercised (a) Section 17, CPC (b) Section 18, CPC (a) to make such orders as may be (c) Section 19, CPC (d) Section 20, CPC necessary for the ends of justice 33. In the execution of a decree for the (b) to make such orders as may be maintenance, salary of a person can be necessary to prevent abuse of the process of the court attached to the extent of (c) Both (a) & (b) (a) 1/4th (b) 1/3rd (d) None of the above (c) 2/3rd (d) 1/2th 212 BIHAR & JHARKHAND JUDICIAL/APO EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

34. A foreign government 40. If the evidence is available about a person (a) cannot be sued who appears to have committed an offence (b) can be sued without any restriction on but his name is not mentioned in the charge- the powers of civil courts sheet as accused (c) can be sued with the restriction that the (a) his name can be added by the Judicial oral consent of the Central Government Magistrate/Sessions Court is communicated to the court (b) his name cannot be added at this stage (d) can be sued with the condition that the (c) his name can be added by the High certificate of consent is issued by the Court secretary to the Central Government in writing (d) his name can be added by the Supreme 35. Which of the following is not a sufficient Court cause for granting adjournment? 41. Which of the following statements is (a) Sickness of a party, his witness or his correct? counsel (a) A police officer has the power to require (b) Non-examination of a witness present attendance of witnesses under the age in the court of 15 years before himself. (c) Reasonable time for preparation of a (b) A police officer has the power to require case attendance of a woman witness before (d) Non-service of summons himself. 36. The Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 was last (c) A police officer has the power to require amended on attendance of witnesses above the age (a) 1 August, 2018 (b) 6 August, 2018 of 65 years before himself. (c) 11 August, 2018 (d) 16 August, 2018 (d) A police officer does not have the power 37. The Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 contains to require attendance of witnesses who (a) 451 Sections (b) 461 Sections are mentally challenged before himself. (c) 481 Sections (d) 484 Sections 38. The First Information Report can be 42. When the inquiry or trial relates to an quashed by the High Court on the ground of offence committed under Section 376, CrPC, (a) parties having arrived at the settlement the inquiry or trial shall be concluded and no heinous offence was committed within a period of according to the charge-sheet (a) 4 weeks after the filing of charge-sheet (b) parties having arrived at the settlement (b) 8 weeks after the filing of charge-sheet and heinous offence was committed (c) 2 months after the filing of charge-sheet according to the charge-sheet (d) 4 months after the filing of charge-sheet (c) parties having arrived at the settlement 43. Rule autrefois acquit or autrefois convict is and serious financial fraud was contained in committed according to the charge- (a) Section 298, CrPC sheet (b) Section 300, CrPC (d) without any ground (c) Section 320, CrPC 39. A Magistrate may dispense with personal (d) Section 321, CrPC attendance of accused under 44. Every person is under an obligation to give (a) Section 204, CrPC information about the commission of the (b) Section 205, CrPC offence to the nearest Magistrate or police (c) Section 206, CrPC officer for (d) Section 207, CrPC Jharkhand Civil Judge (Pre.) Exam, 2019 213

(a) Offences in Sections 115-120 49. When the court of session passes a sentence (b) Offences in Sections 121-126 of death, then (c) Offences in Sections 127-132 (a) the proceedings are submitted to the (d) Offences in Sections 132-140 High Court and death sentence is executed 45. Which section of the CrPC involves the (b) the proceedings are submitted to the reciprocal arrangements to be made by the High Court and death sentence is Central Government with the foreign executed only after the confirmation by governments through a treaty with regard the High Court to the service of summons/warrants/judicial (c) the proceedings are not needed to be process? submitted to the High Court (a) Section 100 (b) Section 103 (d) it exceeds its powers (c) Section 105A (d) Section 104A 50. Anticipatory bail is granted by the High 46. A woman can claim maintenance from her Court or Court of Session husband (a) in anticipation of arrest in non-bailable cases (a) if she lives in adultery (b) in anticipation of arrest in bailable cases (b) if she refuses to live with her husband (c) by passing the regular court which had (c) if she lives separately by mutual to try the offender consent (d) in ordinary circumstances (d) if she is neglected 51. The maxim quando lex aliquid alicui 47. A Magistrate can concedit, concedere vedetur id sine quores (a) ignore the conclusion reached at be the ipsa esse non potest is enshrined in investigating officer (IO) and apply his (a) Section 480, CrPC mind independently (b) Section 481, CrPC (b) not ignore the conclusions reached at (c) Section 482, CrPC by the IO and apply his mind (d) Section 483, CrPC independently 52. Opinion of handwriting expert under the law of evidence in India is (c) ignore the conclusions reached at by the (a) not relevant IO and apply his mind independently (b) relevant and is sole determinant of only upon statements of witnesses genuineness of document recorded by the police in case diary and (c) relevant but not sole determinant of material collected during investigation genuineness of document (d) not ignore the conclusious reached by (d) not clear the I.O. under any circumstances 53. Under Section 90 of Indian Evidence Act 48. A statement made by any person to a police regarding presumption as to old documents officer in the course of an investigation 30 years old, the relevant date of (a) cannot be used for any purpose computation of that document in court is (b) can be used in favour of that person (a) date of production of document in court (c) can be used against that person (b) date of initiation of proceedings in (d) cannot be used for any purpose except which document is produced for the purpose of contradicting a (c) date of oral evidence by a witness witness (d) date of start of hearing