Lawpedia Clat Mock Paper – Ii

LAWPEDIA CLAT MOCK PAPER – II

ENGLISH

Read the following comprehension and answer the questions that follow:

Renewable Energy Technologies (RETs) have long been recognized for their potential as environment friendly, versatile and sustainable energy alternatives for rural areas of India. However, despite efforts by the Ministry of Non- conventional Energy Sources (MNES) and the India Renewable Energy Development Agency (IREDA), RETs have not yet succeeded as a major alternative source of energy in rural India. The programmes of MNES and IREDA designed to support small-scale distributed systems have relied on heavily subsidized credit, technology training and consumer awareness activities to stimulate the market for end-user finance for renewable energy systems for domestic use and a tiered set of capital and interest rate subsidies for water pumping in the agriculture sector. While end-users in some rural areas now have access to solar-powered lanterns or lights and biogas systems for their homes; and agricultural operations are taking advantage of remarkable capital subsidies for solar energy to use for water pumping. The use of heavy capital and interest rate subsidies, and the focus on domestic use rather than on matching renewable energy technology applications with income enhancement opportunities have tied the success of these programmes to government budgets and political cycles limited both the breadth and depth of development and penetration of projects that harness renewable energy resources.

In order to fully understand the barriers to the development of renewably energy enterprises / projects in rural India, we must review a few of the key characteristics of investments in renewable energy projects.

First, investments in renewable energy projects are relatively information and capital-intensive. The greater information intensity arises primarily from the need for more upfront information regarding the energy resource compared to conventional power projects. Renewable energy resources assessments, in most cases, need to be side-specific and preferably with data for a significant period of time. Renewable energy technologies are also more capital-intensive than conventional hydrocarbon ones because of the large upfront investment cost in generation equipment needed to utilize a „free‟ or low-cost energy source. Due to the capital intensity, the financial viability of such investments and projects is often more dependent on longer-term financing structures available at the outset of the project.

Second, individual renewable energy investments are generally smaller than those made in conventional power generation projects due to constraints on local resource availability. Local resource availability is in turn limited by the low energy density of renewable energy resources. As extensive time resources are necessary to catalogue the site specific resource availability before financing can be considered, the technical and managerial know-how requirements and associated costs that occur prior to the project often represent a much larger percentage of projects costs than in the case of conventional power projects.

Third, entrepreneurs developing small-scale renewable energy projects face the same business and financial risks associated with any enterprise. The viability of any enterprise depends on its ability to build a business based on solid concepts and competencies in sound contexts that mitigate those risks.

Considering the aforementioned characteristics, the key barriers to development of small scale renewable energy projects are fourfold. First, rural entrepreneurs do not usually have the knowledge and expertise necessary to write business plans for projects that link renewable energy technologies with productive use of applications, to assess the rewards and risks of the project and estimate the

costs to mitigate the associated risks. All of these are necessary inputs before a project is presented to a financier for investment. In addition, the negotiations with financiers may be complex, involving concepts and approaches that are not familiar to the entrepreneur. Second, the paperwork and soft costs associated with identifying and obtaining access to financing for small and medium-scale projects is high relative to the financing needs. Without critical first-stage financing, most of the entrepreneurs interested in developing renewable energy projects will not be able to take the time away from normal business operations to implement renewable energy projects. Third, many of the renewable energy technologies are still relatively new to the market, so the commercial chains, networks, marketing and financial links and other institutional structures that service traditional energy technologies are not in place to assist the entrepreneur even if she/he has the skills, know-how and capital. Fourth, given the „newness‟, there is a limited availability of investment capital to finance the high upfront costs associated with the initial stages of developing a renewable energy project.

1. Which of the following is/are the small change/s visible in a few rural areas in terms of usage of RETs?

1. Biogas systems are being used.

2. People now use solar powered lights

3. Agricultural operations are now carried out by pumping, of water through the use of solar energy. a. Only 2 b. only 1 and 3 c. only 3 d. only 1 and 2

2. Which of the following is/are the reason/s that the programmes implemented by IREDA and MNES have not yet succeeded in making RETs the major alternative source of energy?

1. Focus on employment generation

2. Emphasis on industrial use of renewable energy

3. Interest rate subsidies linking these to Government budgets and political cycles.

a. Only 2

b. only 2 and 3

c. only 3

d. only 1 and 2

3. Which of the following is/are the problem/s faced by rural entrepreneurs in the development of small-scale renewable energy projects?

1. Lack of technical know-how to implement these projects

2. Lack of willingness amongst local for the implementation of such projects.

3. Inability to deal with intricate details in interactions with financiers of renewable energy projects.

a. Only 2

b. only 1 and 2

c. only 3

d. only 1 and 3

4. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage?

a. Programmes to implement Renewable Energy Projects in Rural Areas.

b. Rural Renewable Energy Projects – The Barriers

c. The Benefits of Alternative Sources of Energy

d. The Government and Renewable Energy Projects

5. Which of the following is/are the characteristic/s of investment in RETs?

1. There are a number of investors willing to invest readily in these projects.

2. These demand more investment of capital over the conventional energy projects

3. These involve lesser risk as compared to the conventional energy projects.

a. Only 1 and 3

b. only 1 and 2

c. only 2

d. only 2 and 3

6. Why are renewable energy projects termed information – intensive?

a. The information on resources required by these projects is specific in terms of the location as well as the time period.

b. Very little information about renewable energy is available for the implementation of these projects.

c. Information needed by these projects is mostly confidential and requires a lot of paperwork in order to gain access.

d. The information required by these projects is far greater than that required by any other project related to energy conservation.

7. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?

1. The renewable energy projects are independent of the government budget.

2. Renewable energy projects require investments for a longer term than a conventional energy project.

3. Securing financing for renewable energy projects involves a lot of paperwork.

a. Only 2

b. only 1 and 2

c. only 2 and 3

d. only 1

8. What, according to the passage, is a drawback of renewable energy projects' „newness‟?

a. The unfamiliarity with the concept of renewable energy amongst the locals.

b. The low risk factor involved in its implementation attracts entrepreneurs who fail to complete these projects in time.

c. Too many investors willing to invest in these projects thereby creating confusion

d. The absence of well established links for networking, marketing and financing

Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

9. OUTSET

a. start

b. periphery

c. boundary

d. culmination

10. VIABILITY

a. technically

b. rigidity

c. regularity

d. feasibility

11. CRITICAL

a. grave

b. vital

c. dangerous

d. final

12. RECOGNIZED

a. predicted

b. standard

c. known

d. resembled

Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

13. MITIGATE

a. aggravate

b. anger

c. moderate

d. alleviate

14. COMPLEX

a. plain

b. simple

c. undisturbed

d. compound

15. LIMITED

a. boundless

b. released

c. freed

d. seamless

Read the following paragraph and fill in the blanks in between the sentences:

The traditional view supposes that the __16__ mantle of the earth behaves as a liquid when it is subjected __17__small forces for long periods and that differences in temperature under oceans and continents are sufficient to produce convection in the mantle of the earth with rising convection currents under the mid ocean ridges and sinking currents under the continents. Theoretically, this convection would carry the continental plates along as though they were __18__ a conveyor belt and would provide the forces needed to produce the split that occurs along the ridge. This view may be correct: it has the advantage that the currents are driven by temperature differences that themselves depend on the position of the continents. Such a back coupling, in which the position of the moving plate has an impact on the forces that move it, could produce complicated and varying motions. On the other hand, the theory is implausible because convection does not normally occur ___19__ lines and it certainly does not occur along lines broken by frequent offsets or changes in direction, as the ridge is.

16. a. upper b. higher c. greater d. superior

17. a. of b. for c. to d. with

18. a. with b. along c. in d. on

19. a. in b. along c. on d. with

20. He saw the fire ______his binoculars. a. by b. with c. in d. through

21. As soon as his shift got over, he made ____ his house. a. with b. for c. to d. along

Choose the synonym for the highlighted word in the sentence out of the options.

22. His habits are innocuous. a. causing no harm b. important c. provocative d. bad

23. I inveighed her for her different outlook. a. criticised b. rebuked c. disliked d. appreciated

Choose the part of the sentence which you believe is wrong and if there is nothing wrong in the sentence, choose the option (d), no error.

24. He asked me (a) / if I am ill and (b) / I answered that I was not (c) / No error. (d)

25. If it weren‟t (a) / for you (b) / I would not be alive today. (c) / No error. (d)

26. The prime Minister announced (a)/ that the taxes will be (b)/ increasing from the (c)/ beginning of next year. (d)/ No error (e)

27. Often in political campaigns, a point is reached at which (a) / the candidates take out their gloves (b) / and start slugging with bare fists (c) / No error.

28. Rajan told me that you had left (a) / the college, a year ago (b) / and looking for a job (c) / No error. (d)

29. I asked two persons (a) / about the way to the station (b) / but none of them knew it (c) / No error. (d)

30. He looked like a lion (a) / baulked from (b) / its prey (c) / No error. (d)

Choose the option which is most close in meaning to the given word

31. Bona fide a. in bad faith b. a certificate c. in good faith d. without doubt

32. Ab initio a. in the end b. from the begining c. giving up a legal right d. unconstitutional

33. Ad hoc a. for a particular purpose b. In agreement c. Endless d. In the current situation

34. Caveat emptor a. A warning b. Let the producer beware c. Let the buyer beware d. Let the seller beware

Read the following passage. Then answer the questions and check your answers.

Most people can remember a phone number for up to thirty seconds. When this short amount of time elapses, however, the numbers are erased from the memory. How did the information get there in the first place? Information that makes its way to the short term memory (STM) does so via the sensory storage area. The brain has a filter which only allows stimuli that is of immediate interest to pass on to the STM, also known as the working memory.

There is much debate about the capacity and duration of the short term memory. The most accepted theory comes from George A. Miller, a cognitive psychologist who suggested that humans can remember approximately seven chunks of information. A chunk is defined as a meaningful unit of information, such as a word or name rather than just a letter or number. Modern theorists suggest that one can increase the capacity of the short term memory by chunking, or classifying similar information together. By organizing information, one can optimize the STM, and improve the chances of a memory being passed on to long term storage.

When making a conscious effort to memorize something, such as information for an exam, many people engage in "rote rehearsal". By repeating something over and over again, one is able to keep a memory alive. Unfortunately, this type of memory maintenance only succeeds if there are no interruptions. As soon as a person stops rehearsing the information, it has the tendency to disappear. When a pen and paper are not handy, people often attempt to remember a phone number by repeating it aloud. If the doorbell rings or the dog barks to come in before a person has the opportunity to make a phone call, he will likely forget the number instantly.* Therefore, rote rehearsal is not an efficient way to pass information from the short term to long term memory.* A better way is to practice "elaborate rehearsal". *This involves assigning semantic meaning to a piece of information so that it can be filed along with other pre-existing long term memories.*

Encoding information semantically also makes it more retrievable. Retrieving information can be done by recognition or recall. Humans can easily recall memories that are stored in the long term memory and used often; however, if a memory seems to be forgotten, it may eventually be retrieved by prompting. The

more cues a person is given (such as pictures), the more likely a memory can be retrieved. This is why multiple choice tests are often used for subjects that require a lot of memorization.

35. According to the passage, how do memories get transferred to the STM? a. They revert from the long term memory. b. They are filtered from the sensory storage area. c. They get chunked when they enter the brain. d. They enter via the nervous system.

36. All of the following are mentioned as places in which memories are stored EXCEPT the: a. STM b. long term memory c. sensory storage area d. maintenance area

37. Why does the author mention a dog's bark? a. To give an example of a type of memory b. To provide a type of interruption c. To prove that dogs have better memories than humans d. To compare another sound that is loud like a doorbell

38. The word cues in the passage is closest in meaning to a. questions b. clues c. images d. tests

39. Which of the following is NOT supported by the passage? a. The working memory is the same as the short term memory. b. A memory is kept alive through constant repetition. c. Cues help people to recognize information. d. Multiple choice exams are the most difficult.

40. The author believes that rote rotation is: a. The best way to remember something b. More efficient than chunking c. Ineffective in the long run d. An unnecessary interruption

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

41. Mukesh Ambani was ranked as the richest Indian as per the Forbes list in 2013. What is his global rank? a. 8 b. 20 c. 22 d. 10

42. Who was sworn as the Chief Minister of Meghalaya for the seconf consecutive term in 2013? a. Mukul Sangma b. PA Sangma

c. WA Sangma d. DD Lapang

43. Which country topped the Global Peace Index in June 2013? a. Bhutan b. New Zealand c. Iceland d. Switzerland

44. Malathi Chandur, a famous novelist, columnist and writer passed away in August 2013. Which language did he write in? a. Hindi b. Marathi c. Kannada d. Telugu

45. Who became the 28th member of the EU on July 1, 2013? a. Latvia b. Croatia c. Turkey d. Jordan

46. Who is the 40th Chief Justice f India? a. Altamas Kabir b. HJ Kania c. SH Kapadia d. P Sathasivam

47. Which country is the 159th member of the World Trade Organisation? a. Latvia b. Tajikistan c. Laos d. Russia

48. As per the most recent census, India‟s population was? a. 1.21 billion b. 1 billion c. 1.01 billion d. 1.31 billion

49. Anti-Tobacco day is observed on? a. 30 May b. 29 May c. 31 May d. 21 May

50. Who, in 2013, was appointed as the Chairman of the All India Football Federation‟s technical committee? a. Subrata Pal b. Sunil Chetri c. Syed Nabi d. Baichung Bhutia

51. What is the capital of Venezuela? a. Caracas

b. Damascus c. Mogadishu d. Belgrade

52. Which place in the United States of America was there a chemical spill in November 2013? a. Arizona b. California c. Colarado d. Ohio

53. Which bank decided to give India a loan of $6 billion to India over the next 3 years? a. World Bank b. Asian Development Bank c. IMF d. Deutsche Bank

54. Which BJP senior leader and MP was expelled from the primary membership of the party after 6 years of service? a. Venkaiah Naidu b. Sushma Swaraj c. Arun Jetly d. Ram Jethmalani

55. Which team won the IPL 2013? a. Mumbai Indians b. Chennai Super Kings

c. Rajasthan Royals d. Sunrisers Hyderabad

56. Who was the world‟s most powerful leader as declared by Forbes as of October 2013? a. Barack Obama b. Xi Jinping c. Vladimir Putin d. David Cameron

57. Where was the 53rd FIDE championship held? a. Chennai b. Hyderabad c. Bangalore d. Delhi

58. Which was India‟s first indigenous aircraft carrier which was launched in August 2013? a. INS Vikrant b. INS Arihant c. INS Vikram d. INS Vikramaditya

59. Who is the head of the Janata Party? a. Nitin Ghadkari b. Rajnath Singh c. Arun Jetly

d. Subramaniam Swamy

60. Who was named as the SAARC Goodwill Ambassadors for HIV/AIDS in 2013? a. Shahrukh Khan b. Ajay Devgan c. Amitabh Bachchan d. Amir Khan

61. When is the World Intellectual Property Day observed? a. 24 April b. 25 April c. 26 April d. 27 April

62. Who was appointed as the National Security Advisor to the US President Barack Obama? a. Susan Rice b. Tom Donilon c. Christopher Stevens d. Samantha Power

63. Which film was awarded the Best Film award in the 60th National Film Awards in March 2013? a. Chittagong b. Paan Singh Tomar c. Kahaani d. Oh My God

64. Which of the following is the new planet discovered by scientists in November 2013? a. M62 b. Pollux b c. Kepler 78b d. Fomalhaut b

65. After the Egyptian army removed the President Mohammed Morsi from office, who was made the caretaker president of Egypt? a. Mohamed Hussain Tantawi b. Adly Mohamoud Mansour c. Abdel Fattah al-Sisi d. Mohamed ElBaradei

66. Who was chosen as the next Director General of the World Trade Organisation? a. Mike Moore b. Peter Sutherland c. Pascal Lamy d. Roberto Azevedo

67. Who was conferred the Liberation War Honour Award by the Bangladesh President, Zillur Rehman? a. Manmohan Singh b. Indira Gnadhi c. Sonia Gandhi d. Pranab Mukherjee

68. Who wrote Das Capital? a. Yussef Bodanskey b. Karl Marx c. Friedrich Engels d. Vladimir Lenin

69. Who became the first woman judge of an Indian High Court? a. Leila Seth b. Fatima Bevi c. Anna Chandi d. Camelia Sorabjee

70. AK Ganguly, the Chairman of the West Bengal Human Rights Commission, has been in the news lately with MPs calling for his resignation over charges. What are these charges? a. Bribery b. Corruption c. Sexual Harassment d. Rape

71. Who did Forbes Magazine announce was the most powerful woman in the world for the third consecutive year? a. Hillary Clinton b. Melinda Gates c. Angela Merkel d. Dilma Rousseff

72. Which global tech giant set up an election portal in India whereby the Indian voter could look up polls and information regarding political parties? a. Google b. Microsoft c. Yahoo d. None of the above

73. Who has, in October 2013, been appointed as India‟s High Commissioner to the United States? a. Gauri Kumar b. S Varadarajan c. Arunendra Kumar d. Rajan Mathai

74. Who is the secretary general of the Indian Olympic Association, which was in September 2013, suspended by the International Committee for failure to eradicate corruption from within its ranks? a. Lalit Bhanot b. Suresh Kalmadi c. Ajay Maken d. Sharad Pawar

75. Which of these international associations does India belong to? a. Association of South East Asian Nations b. South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation c. Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development d. Organisation of the Petroleum Exporting Countries

76. Where was the 5th BRICS summit in 2013 held? a. South Africa b. India c. Russia d. Brazil

77. The Mumbai police filed a chargesheet against Gurunath Meiyappan for his involvement in the IPL betting scandal. Prior to this, which team was he associated with? a. Mumbai Indians b. Rajasthan Royals c. Royal Challengers Bangalore d. Chennai Super Kings

78. Which leader of the Communist Party of China was recently sentenced to life imprisonment on charges of bribery, embezzlement and abuse of power? a. Jiang Zemin b. Bo Xilai c. Wang Lijun d. Zhou Yongkang

79. Who won the 2013 Indian Grand Prix? a. Lewis Hamilton b. Fernando Alonso c. Sebastian Vettel d. Kim Raikonnen

80. A recent toxic gas attack killed nearly 1500 women and children in which country in August 2013? a. Syria b. Egypt c. Iraq d. Iran

81. Who was sworn in as the new Prime Minister of Malaysia in May 2013? a. Anwar Ibrahim b. Muhyiddin Yassin c. Najib Razak d. Mahathir Mahamad

82. What was India‟s position in the UN Human Development Report 2013 as released by the UN as of March 2013? a. 130 b. 131 c. 132 d. 133

83. Which club won the English Premier League 2013? a. Manchester United b. Manchester City c. Chelsea d. Arsenal

84. Indian National Defence University will be set up at which place/

a. Dehradun b. Gurgaon c. Bangalore d. Hyderabad

85. The United States Senate voted in majority to confirm to whom a judgeship in the US Court of Appeals which is the highest judicial post ever for an Indian American? a. Srikanth Srinivasan b. Neal Katyal c. Bobby Jindal d. None of the above

86. Who is the author of the book, „The Cuckoo‟s Calling‟? a. ASA Harrison b. John Green c. Khalid Hosseni d. JK Rowling

87. Where was the 39th G8 summit held in June 2013? a. UK b. USA c. China d. Germany

88. When was the Representation of the People Act enacted? a. 1950

b. 1951 c. 1948 d. 1949

89. The Union Cabinet gave the approval to declare 2013 as the year of? a. Forest Conservation b. Soil Conservation c. River Conservation d. Water Conservation

90. Which committee had proposed the idea of setting up a Bullion Bank or a Bullion Corporation of India for the utilization of idle gold? a. Dandekar Committee b. Rao Committee c. Narasimhan Committee d. GS Patel Committee

MATHEMATICS

91. Last year, the prices of tea and coffee were in the ratio of 2 : 3. Between last year and this year, the price of tea has risen in the ratio of 5 : 6 and that of coffee in the ratio of 7 : 8. If this year, a kg of coffee and a kg of tea together cost Rs. 51, how much does a kg of coffee cost? a. Rs. 17.50 b. Rs. 21 c. Rs. 26.25

d. Rs. 30

92. The surface area of a solid sphere is numerically equal to its volume. What is its radius? a. 1 unit b. 3 units c. 4 units d. 6 units

93. The length of a plot of land is three times its breadth. A square playground measuring 675m2 occupies a fourth of the total area of the plot. What is the length of the plot in metres? a. 92 b. 84 c. 86 d. 90

94. A man can row 9 km an hour in still water. If he takes twice as long to row up as to row down a river, what is the rate of the flow of the river? a. 1 km/h b. 1.5 km/h c. 3 km/h d. 6 km/h

95. Two taps can fill a tank in 20 hrs & 30 hrs respectively. However, as a result of the development of a leak in the tank, it takes 8 hours more to fill the same when both the taps are kept open. If both the taps are closed, in how many hours would the leak completely empty the tank? a. 29

b. 32 c. 30 d. 36

96. If a sum of money doubles itself in 10 years at simple interest, what must be the rate of interest(p.a.) ? a.10% b.20% c.15% d.12.5%

97. A father has 2 sons. Three years ago the elder son was thrice as old as the younger and 3 years hence, the father will be twice as old as elder son. If the younger sons is now 10 years old, what is father‟s present age? a. 48 b. 51 c. 54 d. Data inadequate

98. The average age of 51 students is 14 years. If the age of the teacher is included, the average increases by 1. What is the age of teacher in years? a. 54 b. 51 c. 65 d.66

99. 7½ - 4¼ + 2¾ = ? a. 5¾

b. 3 c. 6 d. 4

100. A‟s income is 20% more than that of B, while B‟s income is 20% less than that of C. Whose income is the highest amongst all? a. A b. B c. C d. A&C both equal

101. In a class, 30% students passed in Mathematics, 50% passed in English, and 10% students passed in both. What percent of students failed in both of these subjects? a. 10 b. 15 c. 30 d. 40

102. A man‟s wages were reduced by 50%. Again the reduced wages were increased by 50%. His loss is______a. 50% b. 25% c. 20% d. 10%

103. Rs. 900 is to be distributed amongst A,B & C in the proportion of 2 : 3 : 4. How much would C get?

a. Rs. 400 b. Rs. 450 c. Rs. 500 d. Rs. 540

104. A can do a piece of work in 12 days. If he is joined by B who is 50% more efficient, in how many days will A and B together finish the work? a. 24/5 b. 25 c. 22 ½ d. 23/5

105. A train travelling at 48 km/h, takes one minute to pass a telegraph pole. What is the length of the train in metres? a. 80 b.320 c.800 d.1000

106. The speed of the river current is 3 km/h. If a person can row 4.8 km up the river and return to the starting point in 3 hours, what is the speed of the boat in still water? a. 5 km/h b. 3 km/h c. 4.5 km/h d. 4.8 km/h

107. If the length of the rectangle is decreased by 20% and the breadth is increased by 20%, a square of area 144cm2 is obtained. What is the area of the rectangle.(in sq cm)? a. 120 b. 138 c. 144 d. 150

108. Eight years from now A will be twice as old as he was 6 yrs ago. What is his present age? a. 14 yrs b. 8yrs c. 12 yrs d. 20 yrs

109. If the total attendance at a party is 252, which of the following cannot be the ratio of ladies and gents at the party? a. 1 : 5 b. 1 : 6 c. 1 : 7 d. 1 : 8

110. Three years ago the average age of a family of 5 members was 17 years. A child has since been born in the family. If the average age of the family remains same today also, what is the present age of the child( in years) ? a. 1 b. 2 c. 1½

d. 2 ½

LOGICAL REASONING

Read the information and answer the questions which follow

Seven people P,Q,R,S,T,W and X are sitting in a straight line facing North, nor necessarily in the same order.

R sits at one of the extreme ends of the line.

T has as many people sitting on his right, as to his left

S sits third to the left of X

Q sits to the immediate left of W

Q does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line.

111. If all the people are made to sit in the alphabetical order from right to left, the positions of how many people will remain unchanged? a. five b. one c. three d. none

112. How many people sit to the right of P? a. Four b. five c. two d. one

113. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way, based on the information given above and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? a. S b. P c. X d. W

114. Who amongst the following are immediate neighbors of S? a. T and R b. Q and P c. W and R d. R and P

115. Who amongst the following sits second to the right of fourth person from the right end of the line? a. W b. Q c. R d. P

Eight friends A,B,C,D,E,F,G, and H are sitting around a circle (not necessarily in the same order) facing the centre.

B sits third to left of F.

E is an immediate neighbor of both B and H. Only one person sits between A and H

C and G are immediate neighbours of each other. Neither C nor G is an immediate neighbor of B.

Only one person sits between C and D.

116. Who amongst the following is an immediate neighbor of both A and H? a. F b. B c. G d. D

117. F is related to D in a certain way based on the seating positions in the given arrangement. Similarly C is related to E in the same way. To whom amongst the following is H related to, following the same pattern? a. G b. A c. F d. C

118. Which of the following represents the correct position of A? a. Second to the left of H b. Immediate left of C c. Exactly between F and E d. Second to the right of E

119. What is the position of D with respect to the position of G? a. Third to the left b second to the right c. immediate right

d. fourth to the left

120. Which of the following is true with respect to give seating arrangement? a. Only two people sit between D and B b. A is an immediate neigbours of B c. C sits third to left of H d. None is true

Seven peoples A,BC,D,E,F and G are sitting in a straight line facing north. A is third to the right of G. B is an immeidate neigbbour of A. C is third to the right of B. Neither F nor C is sitting at an extreme end. D is nto an immediate neighbour of C.

121. Who amongst the following has as many people sitting to his right as to his left? a. A b. F c. C d. B

122. Which of the following pairs of people correctly represents the people sitting at the extreme ends of the line? a. DE b. BE c. GD d. None of these

123. Who is sitting second to the right of F?

a. G b. A c. B d. E

124. Who is sitting second to the left of B? a. E b. D c. G d. F

125. Who is sitting exactly between D and A? a. E b. G c. F d. B

Raman lives in Joint Hindu Family consisting of many relatives. Raman's notes show the following relationships between the relatives: Raman's father Varadan has only one brother Krishnan who is not married. Lakshmi is Varadan's wife. Parvathi is Lakshmi's mother and she lives with Lakshmi. Raman's house is called as Girija Krupa, named after Raman's grandmother. Girija has one grand-daughter by name Shanta and two grandsons one of whom has moved out of the joint family and lives in nearby town.

126. Parvathi is Shanta's

(a) Mother

(b) Aunt

(d) Maternal Grandmother

127. Krishnan is Raman's

(a) Brother

(b) Uncle

(d) Brother-in-law

128. Girija's late husband Parameshwaran would be Shantha's

(a) Uncle

(b) Father-in-law

(d) Maternal Grandfather

129. If Parvathi's brother Ganeshan had been alive

(a) He would be Lakshmi's uncle

(b) He would be Krishnan's uncle

(d) None of these

130. Girija's grandson Shankaran is

(a) Lakshmi's Cousin

(b) Krishnan's nephew

(d) None of the above

Six houses - A, B, C, D, E, F are constructed on a small flat area, the focal point of which is a Temple.

 House A is directly north of the Temple  House C is directly west of the Temple  House D is South of House C  House E is West of House A  The temple is directly Southeast of House B and directly northwest of House F.

131. Which of the following must be true?

(a) House B is east of House C

(b) House B is West of House C

(d) House D is east of House A

132. Which of the following must be false?

(a) House A is north of House E

(b) House C is east of House E

(d) None of the above

133. How many houses must be west of House A?

(a) 1

(b) 3

(d) 5

134. What is maximum number of houses one could encounter while moving directly from house C to the temple?

(a) 0

(b) 2

(d) 4

135. Look at this series: 2, 1, (1/2), (1/4), ... What number should come next?

A. (1/3)

B. (1/8)

C. (2/8)

D. (1/16)

136. Look at this series: 7, 10, 8, 11, 9, 12, ... What number should come next?

A. 7

B. 10

C. 12

D. 13

In each of the following questions, a statement is given followed by 4 conclusions. You have to choose the conclusion which is most close to the statement given. The following are the options to choose from:

(A) If only conclusion I follows

(B) If only conclusion II follows

(D) If neither I nor II follows and

137. Statements: The old order changed yielding place to new.

Conclusions:

I. Change is the law of nature. II. Discard old ideas because they are old.

138. Statements: Prime age school-going children in urban India have now become avid as well as more regular viewers of television, even in households without a TV. As a result there has been an alarming decline in the extent of readership of newspapers.

Conclusions:

I. Method of increasing the readership of newspapers should be devised. II. A team of experts should be sent to other countries to study the impact of TV. on the readership of newspapers.

139. Statements: The manager humiliated Sachin in the presence of his colleagues.

Conclusions:

I. The manager did not like Sachin. II. Sachin was not popular with his colleagues.

140. Statements: To cultivate interest in reading, the school has made it compulsory from June this year for each student to read two books per week and submit a weekly report on the books.

Conclusions:

I. Interest in reading can be created by force. II. Some students will eventually develop interest in reading.

Given below are a number of statements followed by 2 arguments for each statement. Choose the option which most befits the question

(A) If only argument I is strong

(B) If only argument II is strong

(D) If neither I nor II is strong and

141. Statement: Should all the drugs patented and manufactured in Western countries be first tried out on sample basis before giving licence for sale to general public in India?

Arguments:

I. Yes. Many such drugs require different doses and duration for Indian population and hence it is necessary. II. No. This is just not feasible and hence cannot be implemented.

142. Statement: Should India make efforts to harness solar energy to fulfil its energy requirements?

Arguments:

I. Yes, Most of the energy sources used at present is exhaustible. II. No. Harnessing solar energy requires a lot of capital, which India lacks in.

143. Statement: Should India give away Kashmir to Pakistan?

Arguments:

I. No. Kashmir is a beautiful state. It earns a lot of foreign exchange for India. II. Yes. This would help settle conflicts.

In the following, there are 2 statements. Choose the most suitable option which shows the cause effect relationship most accurately:

(A) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect;

(B) If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect;

(D) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes

144. Statements:

I. The prices of petrol and diesel in the domestic market have remained unchanged for the past few months. II. The crude oil prices in the international market have gone up substantially in the last few months.

145. Statements:

I. All the schools in the area had to be kept closed for most part of the week. II. Many parents have withdrawn their children from the local schools.

146. Statements:

I. India has surpassed the value of tea exports this year over all the earlier years due to an increase in demand for quality tea in the European market. II. There is an increase in demand of coffee in the domestic market during the last two years.

147. Marathon : Race :: Hibernation : a. winter b. sleep c. bear d. dreams

148. Window : Pane :: Book : a. Novel b. page c. Cover

d. Glass

149. Cup : Coffee :: Bowl : a. Soup b. Dish c. Spoon d. Food

150. Yard : inch :: quart : a. milk b. liquid c. ounce d. gallon

LEGAL REASONING

151. Principle: 1: strict liability is attracted upon a person who a bring dangerous thing on to his land with a view to making a non-natural use of the land the thing subsequently escapes

Principle 2: the breach of a duty of care and the damage result there from constitute the tort from negligence.

Facts: s is very conscious of the danger to the environment and decides to help the environment starting a compost pit but due to factors specific to the soil in the region the garbage doesn‟t decompose. It just keeps rotting and ferment into a highly dangerous and toxic compound, which leaches into the ground water and causes highly fatal inside a radius of seven miles. Is S liable a. S is strictly

b. S is not liable at all c. S is liable d. s is liable for negligence

152. PRINCIPLE: when an act which would otherwise be a certain offence is not that offence by reason of the unsoundness of mind, every has the sameere right of private defence against that act which he could have if the act were that offence.

Fact: Thomas under the influence of madness attempt to kill dolly. dolly in exercising her right of private defence cause grievous hurt to Thomas and Thomas needs to be hospitalized immediately

Thomas sues dolly decide a. Dolly has committed no offence b. Dolly has committed the offence of causing grievous hurt c. Dolly has committed the offence of causing grievous hurt because Thomas was of unsound mind d. None of the above

153. PRINCIPLE: there can be contractual obligation when there is no reciprocal undertaking between the parties

Facts: manju was madly in love with laila but unfortunately his love was not returned as she was in love with Mr badboy. Crazed by his love he sent a letter to laila starting “marry me and I wil keeps you happy forever. My grandmother antique gold jewellers will be yours “ Mr badboy and laila discussed this and decided that she would marry manju, get the jewellers and then run away with Mr badboy. In pursuance of the sameere laila and manju got married. Later he declined from giving her the jeweller. a. Laila is entitled to the jewellery as it was part of the agreement she had entered into by virtue of her marriage with manju b. Laila is not entered to the jewellery as the performance of the contract by her was tainted by fraud; thus rendering the contract invalid

c. Laila is not entered to the jewellery as there can be no contract for marriage the sameere being contrary to public policy d. Laila is not entitled to the jewellery as manju had asked her to marry him and then later added that the jewellery would be hers.it was not a situation reciprocated by consideration and therefore there is no contract

154. PRINCIPLE: the state can differentiate among citizens only for the achievement of certain aims and the classification that it draws among its citizens must be relevant and important to the achievement of this aim. Administrative efficiency is one such aim

Facts: the law of India impose different requirement for the creation and execution of wills on Christians as opposed to other communities. The requirement of valid Christian will is more rigorous. This distinction has a historical basis since the time at which it was enacted only Christian were allowed to hold more than a certain amount of land the chief purpose of the law is to impose more rigorous restriction on giving away of large property through will. Since at the time only Christian could hold that amount land the law was enacted with specific reference to them. The law commission of India has frequently recommended to the government of India that law be changed since the reasons for its existence are now superfluous. The Christian association of India files a writ petition citing violent their right to equality. Will they succeed a. No there was a clear basis for the law and aim prevents the law from being unconstitutional b. Yes through there was once a basis it is now outdated and irrelevant c. No there must be some reason that the government still hasn‟t repealed the law d. No the requirement of the law are still beneficial to them

155. Principle: no act is in an offence if committed under mistake of facts even though it is not justified by law

Facts: m fire doffs his gun empty before leaving for church. In his absence somebody else used the gun and left it loaded. Later in the day, m took the gun and

touched the trigger. The gun went off and killed his wife. Was m guilty for an offence? a. Yes m was guilty for culpable homicide not amounting to murder b. No as m never intended to kill his wife c. No as M has reasonable ground to believe that the gun was not loaded d. Yes as m ought to have known that his gun was loaded

156. Principle: whoever by words either spoken or written or by sign or by visible representation or otherwise brings or attempts to bring into hatred or contempt or excites or attempts to excite disaffection towards the government established by law is guilty of sedition

Facts: the propaganda secretary roopak of the gondsana sect was addressing a few members including those who were dressed in their traditional red costumes and head gear and in the course of his speech he did not give any direct incitement for violence but gave exaggerated figures of casualties and stories following action of the army in gondsana land. Has roopak committed the act of sedition? a. Roopak has not sought to bring disaffection towards the government through his speech. He is not liable b. Roopak has only stated exaggerated figures of casualties and such stories without actually instigating the person of his sect. He has not committed any crime. c. Roopak has used such and tenor in his speech such as starting exaggerated figure of the casualties and using stories it can be inferred that he sought to bring contempt towards the government and he is liable for sedition d. None of the above is true

157. Principle: all citizen shall have the right to freedom of speech and expression

Facts: the government release postal rules. The government reserves the right to open and read any letter. A writ petition is field against these rules. The government contends that freedom of speech and expression is not violated because it is not going to change the content of the letter or censor it.

a. These rules violated the principle b. These rules don‟t violated the principle c. The rule violate the principle if the government also reserves the right to stop mailing the letter when it wants to d. None of the above

158. principle: an appeal shall lie to the supreme court from any judgment in criminal proceeding of a high court in the territory of India if the high court has on appeal reversed an order of acquittal of an accused person and sentenced him to death or if the high court certifies that the case is a fit one for appeal to the supreme court.

Facts: Sriram is caused of murdering his wife. The session court convicts him and gives him the death sentence. The high court upholds this sentence but gives him a certificate of appeal. a. He has a right to appeal to the Supreme Court b. He has no right to appeal c. He has a right to appeal to the Supreme Court if the supreme court permits d. None of the above.

159. principle: consideration or object of an agreement is lawful, unless it is forbidden by law or is of such a nature that if permitted it would defeat the provision of any law or is fraudulent or involves or implies injury to the person or property of another or the court regards it as immoral or opposed to public police. unlawful every agreement of which object or consideration is unlawful is void.

Facts: Sumit agrees to sell his farm to Biren for Rs. 10000. The farm is situated on land that was transferred as part of a land reform program and further transfer of such land is prohibited for a period 10 years. The land was transferred before 10 years. a. Sumit has given unlawful consideration b. Biren has given unlawful consideration

c. This is a lawful consideration given in an unlawful manner d. The consideration is lawful.

160. Principle: the doctor of res ipsa loquitur says- when an event has taken place that could not have taken place but for the negligence of the defendant, the plaintiff just have to prove the accident and need not prove the negligence of the dependent separately.

Facts: A is living as a tenant on the ground floor of M‟s house and M himself is living on the first floor one day M‟s brother –in-law who is quite hefty leans against a wall M‟s house. The wall comes crashing down and falls on a who is standing on the ground floor. A sues M a. There is no negligence by M it his brother in-law who caused the wall to crash b. M is liable only if a can show how m has been negligent c. M is liable doctrine of res ipsa loquitur applies d. M is not liable because it was an act of god.

161. Principle: only state may be parties to the international criminal court

Facts: India is not a member of international criminal court. Dusht buddhi is a notorious politician in India who has presided over the genocide of a lot of people. The ICC has charged him of such a heinous crime. What can ICC do? a. ICC can get India to arrest and extradite him b. ICC should wait for him to travel to a country which is a member and then get that country to arrest him c. ICC should send its enforcers to arrest him d. None of these above

162. Principle: A person abets an offence who abets either the commission of an offence or the commission of an act which would be an offence if committed by a person capable by law of committing an offence with the same intention or knowledge as that of the abettor

Facts: ram instigates sugreev to kill vali. Sugreev takes a mace and duels with vali and beats him up, but doesn‟t kill vali. Ram is arrested on the charged of abetment to murder. a. Ram is guilty of abetment to murder b. Ram is not guilty of murder because there has been no murder c. Ram is not guilty of murder because he hasn‟t he put into motion a chain events which events which inevitable ends in murder d. Ram is guilty of abetment to murder because he wants to gain something out of it.

163. Principle: when a person bring a hazardous thing onto his property with a profit motive and it escapes and causes damage , then the principle of absolute liability will happy

Facts: the gobichettipalyam mining co.(GMC) is very in the region it operate in. They store a lot of gelatine sticks which they use for blasting rocks. Due to the act of a third party a crate of gelatin sticks breaks open and some of the gelatine stick roll down the hill on which the company has mining operation under the perimeter wire and into a nearby village. There it explodes due the impact of falling from a precipice at the end of the hill. This explosion kills a couple of people and injuries several others. The relatives of the decrease sue the GMC a. GMC is absolutely liable b. It is to be determined whether GMC was operating with a profit motive c. GMC is not liable because the escape was caused by a third party d. GMC is liable only for such damage as could be foreseen.

164. Principle: nothing is an offence which is done in the exercise of the right of private defence

Facts: karuna is in a heated argument with Jaya. Karuna who is an old and feeble man who uses a wheelchair tries to slap jaya picks up a gun and shoots karuna. Jaya is arrested

a. Jaya has rightly exercised the right to private defence b. Jaya has exceeded limits in attracting such a senior person. Karuna being an elderly parson can slap jaya c. Karuna shouldn‟t have started it in the first place d. Jaya response is out of proportion with the act she was threatened of

165. Principle: when a person is accused of a crime in one country and is found in another country the process of transferring such person from the country where he is found to the country where he is accused of the crime is known as extradition.

Facts: Somali pirates attack a Norwegian ship has several Indian sailors. The pirates then stupidly attack a ship of the Indian navy and are captured. The pirates are then brought to India Somalia and Norway ask for their custody. a. India should extradite them to Somalia b. India should extradite them to Norway c. They should first be tried in India for the attack on the Indian navy ship d. None of the above.

166. Principle: A person shall not be qualified for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court unless he is a citizen of India and (a) has been for at least five years a judge of a high court or two or more such court in succession ; or (b) has been for at least ten years an advocate of a high court or of two or more such court in succession; or(c) is the opinion of the precedent, a distinguished jurist

Facts: ivanovic is a Swedish national. His contribution in the field of international law is immense he has received the president intellectual achievement awards from the presidents of India. Is he eligible for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court? a. Ivanovic is eligible b. Ivanovic is not eligible c. Ivanovic would be eligible if he had practiced in the high court

d. None of the above.

167. Principle: every agreement in restraint of the marriage of any person other than a minor is void

Facts: budhiya makes three deals with his three sons. He agrees pay the first son a lakh if he marries lakshmi. He agrees to pay the second son a lakh if he doesn‟t saraswati ; he agrees to pay the third son a lakh if he marries a hindu girl. Which deals is valid a. Deal with 1st son b. Deal with 2nd son c. Deal with 3rd son d. All deals are invalid.

168. Principle: no child can be employed in mines or in places of hazardous employment

Facts: ramesh 12 years old is employed in a mechanical workshop which involves some soldering and welding work. Ramesh is never allowed to do the welding or soldering work. Is there any violation of a fundamental right here? a. Yes ramesh fundamental right are violated b. No ramesh fundamental right are not violated c. It depends on whether ramesh is never allowed to do any other hazardous work also d. None of the above

169. Principle: conscious possession of cocaine above personal consumption quantity is an offence.

Facts: X and Y were driving in a car rented by Z. X had 2 kg cocaine in his possession. On seeing a police check –post ahead, x threw the bag containing the 2 kgs of cocaine out from the near window. To his knowledge the bag was thrown

out of the near window but actually it just landed on the backseat was caught by the police. Decide a. X is liable as he was in possession of more than the permissible quantity for cocaine. b. X is not liable as he had no conscious possession of the cocaine c. X is not liable as the car was rented by Z and the cocaine was found on the backseat of this car d. X is not liable as between him and Y, they were in possession of 1 kg of cocaine per head which is the permissible quantity

170. Principle: whoever, intending to take dishonestly any movable property out of the possession of any person without that person consent moves that property is said to commit theft

Explanation: dishonestly means any act committed with the intention of causing loss to the person or wrongful again for oneself

Facts: X sees a cell phone belonging to Z on the table in Y‟s house. X hides the cell phone in Y‟s house itself in such a place where Y cannot be expected to be able to find it. x did this with the intention of taking away the cell phone from the hidden place when Y forest about it and then to sell it way. a. X is not liable as the cell phone was not in possession of y. b. X is not liable as the cell phone has not been moved outside Y‟s house c. X is liable as he dishonestly took the cell phone with the intention to sell it d. X is not liable because he still has the opportunity to return the cell phone to Z

171. Principle: the exclusive economic zone of a country is an area in the sea adjacent to the coast of the country over which the country has the right of economic exploitation. It is considered as 200 nautical miles from the coast. If the exclusive economic zone extends only up to a point which is equidistant from both coats.

Facts: A foreign ship comes up to 120 nautical miles from the coast of India. It turns out it is a fishing trawler. Is it violating any rule of international law. a. The trawler is not violating any right as of now but it will if it start fishing b. The trawler is violating international law by coming within the EEZ c. The trawler is not violating any rule. d. None of the above.

172. Principle: nothing is an offence which is done in the exercise of the right of private defence

Facts: ram tells bhim.” just wait until next against week , i will bring my club from home and beat you up bhim brings a stick the next day and beats up Ram. Bhim is arrested. Bhim claims that he is exercising the right to private defence. a. Ram was going to commit an offence against bhim, so bhim has the right to defend himself b. Bhim should have waited till next week to beat up ram c. Bhim should have gathered his friends till then d. Bhim cannot claim right of private defence as there was a mere threat of offence by ram which is far-fetched and does not constitute an offence.

173. Principle: nothing is an offence which is done in the exercise of the right of private defence.

Facts: ram lakshman bharath and shatrughan are brother who are walking down the street raavan any comes there and assault ram. Lakshman immediately sets upon Raavan and starts hitting him. raavan takes a gun out pointing towards ram. Then bharath and shatrughan also join in the fray and manage to overcome raavan. Raavan complains against lakshman bharath and shatrughan. The three claim they were exercising their right to private defence. a. They cannot claim the right to private it defence it was not they who were attacked

b. they can claim the right to private defence. Raavan is a known monster c. They can claim the right to private defence. Private can be invoked even when someone else is being attacked d. They can claim the right to private defence. They have a long history of feuds with raavan.

174. Principle: means rea “an evil intention or knowledge about the wrongfulness of the act”- is necessary to constitute a crime

Facts: the clause falls under and psychotropic substance(NDPS) act makes it a crime to be in processing of certain kinds of drugs. The above clause from NDPs act falls under which category? a. The clause falls under category of mens rea amounting to knowledge. b. The clause falls under category of mens rea amounting to negligence. c. The clause falls under category not requiring mens rea d. None of the above.

175. Principle: where parties are in each other presence though separated in space they direct communication eg. Telephone the contract is complete only when the acceptance is received by the offered.

Facts: B from Ahmadabad calls G in Delhi to purchase goods. G asks for some time to about it. G calls back and accepts the offer but by this time B in Rajkot. Now if there is a dispute regarding the contract, they will have to go the court under whose jurisdiction the contract was concluded. Which is this place? a. The place of contract is Ahmadabad as the offer was made from there. b. The place of contract is Delhi as the offer was acceptance there. c. Depending on who is suing whom the jurisdiction of court can be determined d. The place of contract is Rajkot as the acceptance was received there.

176. Principle: a contract to do act which after the contract is made called become impossible or the nature of the ingredient of the contract change is void. Decide

a. Rajat parents will win as both the parties were competent to contract at the date of agreement and consensual decided to marry b. Rajat parents will lose as the performance of contract subsequently became invalid due to insanity of rajat c. Rajat‟ s parents will lose as rita was free to chose her life partner d. Rajat‟s parents will win as rajat had legitimate expectation to marry rita

177. Principle: intention to create a legal relation is essential for a contract

Facts: M lives as a paying guest in the house of P.M and P tighter solve P a crossword on a newspaper subscribed by P and M pays for posting the crossword to the newspaper office although it is sent in P‟s name. They have no agreement beforehand about the prize. When they win it, P refuses to share it. M sues. a. There is a contract here as to a reasonable man it appears that there would have been an intention to create legal relation. b. There is no contract here because there is no agreement between the parties c. There is no contract here because the newspaper is subscribed in P‟s name. d. M should get it because it was posted in her name.

178. Principle: a promise may dispense, wholly or in part the performance of the promise made to him as he deems fit

Facts: ram owed rahim Rs 50000. Ram wife paid to rahim Rs 20000 in satisfaction of rahim total claim. Rahim accepted the payment. After two years rahim filed a suit against ram claiming remaining Rs 30000 along with interested. Whether the suit against ram is main tenable in the eyes of law a. No as rahim accepted Rs 20000 in satisfaction of debt and dispensed the sameer b. Yes as ram still owed to pay deficit of Rs 30000 to rahim c. Yes as ram wife paid on his behalf which would not discharge ram of his liability d. No as rahim has filed the suit after a delay of two years

179. Principle: an act committed under the influence of alcohol does not amount to an offence

Facts: savita insists ram to have alcohol during her graduation party. Ram gives in to her insistence and consumes alcohol. Ram meets with an accident on his way back from the party causing grievous hurt to a pedestrian. Can ram be held guilty for causing grievous hurt a. No as ram did not take alcohol out of free will but insistence of savita b. Yes as ram voluntarily consumed alcohol with full knowledge of its repercussions c. Yes as drunken driving is an offence under law d. No as had ram had not knowledge about influence of alcohol considering that he was a teetotaler

180. Principle: every person has a right to defend his property person or possession against an unlawful harm

Facts: X was passing by y‟s house when Y‟s dog ran out bit X‟s raised the gun and the dog started retreating. X shot the dog as was he was running away. Y filed a suit claiming damages decide.

Whether X is entitled to validly take the ground of private defence? a. Yes as x feared his life from the dog that bit his gaiter b. No as there was no exercise of private defence in this case c. No as the force used by x in private defence was grossly disproportionate d. Yes as there is no requirement to use proportionate force against animal

181. Principle: any agreement entered between the parties to perform an act impossible in itself is void and unenforceable in the eyes of law

Facts: X undertakes to pay Y $ 50000 if he is able to find the lost treasure of sultan allahuddin by magic. Both the parities enter into a formal contract. Decide on the validity of this contract

a. Contract is invalid as magic is an unlawful activity b. Contract is valid as both the parties were competent to contract and consideration was certain c. Contract is valid as sultan allahuddin treasure was in fact missing for last 800 years d. Contract is valid as it was meant to perform an act impossible in itself

182. Principle: whoever cause death by doing an act with the intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death commits the offence of culpable homicide. Culpable homicide is murder. If the act by which the death is caused is done with the intention of such bodily injury as the offender knows to be likely to cause the persons to whom the harm is caused.

Facts: a kicks b in the stomach in the course of an argument. b dies because he suffers from enlarged spleen and the kick would have fatal been for anybody in his condition . Assume,(1) a didn‟t know of b‟s condition ;(2) a knew of b‟s condition. Has a committed culpable homicide or murder? a. B has no business getting into fight when he fatally ill b. (1) murder (2) culpable homicide c. (1) culpable homicide(2) murder d. (1) criminal negligence(2) murder

183. Principle: whoever causes the death of any person by doing any rash or negligent act commits the crime of criminal negligence.

Facts: A and B are married but are facing problem and fight a lot. B goes to dhongi baba for a solution. The dhongi babagives him a love potion and tells him to administer it to A. B does so, and A dies. B did not know that the potion would kill A or even that the effect would be anywhere in that range. Decide a. B and A the dhongi baba are both guilty of criminal negligence. b. Only B is liable of criminal negligence.

c. Only the dhongi baba is guilty. B was reasonable to trust the dhongi baba, especially in a conservative society like india where god –men are respected and feared d. A nagging wife does not deserve to live.

184. PRINCIPLE: theft committed when the thief removes a movable property from the possession of its owner dishonestly, with a view to take property or to profit from it.

Facts: G gives his watch H repair and make the payment in advance. That night he gets drunk and decides that he must have his watch. So he breaks into Hs shop and takes his watch back. Has he committed theft? a. G is protected by the defence of intoxication. b. G has committed the crime of criminal trespass. c. The watch is G‟s and he owes no money to H. Dishonest intention being absent, the crime hasn‟t been committed. d. H must provide faster service if he wants to remain competitive in the modern economy.

185. PRINCIPLE: 1: a contract of guarantee is a contract between the creditor and the surely stipulating that the surely will discharge liabilities of the debtor in case of the debtor in case of the debtor being unable to do so. The liabilities of the debtor then shifts from the creditor to the surety.

PRINCIPLE 2: the surety‟s right to claim the money back from the principle debtor only begins once he has discharged his entire liabilities as a surety in respect to creditor.

Facts: mishra becomes surety for a loan that arti takes from a bank to set up a fashion boutique when arti defaults on the payments, mishra component the bank and thereby discharge the liability. Now mishra wants to claim the money from arti. Decide a. Mishra can legally claim the loan amount from arti since he fulfilled his duties as surety and thus she is now liable to him

b. Arti need not pay mishra anything since there was no contract between them. c. Mishra can now take over the fashion boutique since he has a direct interest over it because of the money he paid d. Mishra cannot claim them money from arti because her fashion boutique is running in a loss.

186. PRINCIPLE: whoever, with an intention to cause, or knowing that he is likely to cause, wrongful loss or damage to the public or to any person, cause the destruction of any property, or any such committing mischief. A person committing mischief is punishable with 3 month imprisonment, or fine or both.

Facts: ram jointly owns a car with bijoy, who is his best friend. One day they had a fight over the possession and usage of the car. Ram is furious and thinking the car to be the reason of dispute between two good friends, pushes caused it is inside a river. He is charged with committing mischief. a. Ram is guilty of mischief b. Ram is not guilty as he was part owner of the car c. Ram is not guilty as he had no intention to cause loss to bijoy. d. Ram is guilty as he knowing caused wrongful loss to bijoy.

187. Principle: undue influence vitiates free consent, and also the contract.

Facts: A contractor took a loan of Rs 35000 from a bank. He could not pay back in time and the banker pressed for repayment or for security. He suggested that A‟s father mortgage the family‟s only residential house, a decent two storey building in Delhi. An officer from the bank visited A‟s father and obtained his signature on the readymade papers. After few months has passed, a still could not pay the money and the banker wanted to enforce the mortgage. This would have resulted in the family being left without a roof over their head. A relies upon the unfair nature of the mortgage and refuse to pay. The banker drags him to court. a. A will lose, since the mortgage papers had been signed only after prior intimation and information

b. A will win because he had agreed to the mortgage there being any correction or threat from the banker. c. A will win because there was undue influence, inasmuch as the banker exploited vulnerability of a‟s father caused by his desire to help his son, so much so that he agreed to enter into the mortgage d. A will win, because the mortgage was on grossly unfair terms and conditions.

188. Principle: 1) The term „undue influence‟ means dominating the will of the other person to obtain an unfair advantage over the other.

2) A contract is said to be induced by undue influence where the relations subsisting between the parties are such that one of them is in a position to dominate the will of the other, and the dominant party uses that position to obtain an unfair advantage over the other.

Facts: Ayesha is a woman who has lived behind the purdah. After her husband‟s death, Basheer a money lender offers to give Ayesha some money for her sustenance but Ayesha has to repay it with 100% interest in one year or Ayesha will lose all her property. Ayesha readily agrees. Later Ayesha is unable to pay wants to set aside the contract. a. A contract exists. There is no domination of will. b. No contract exists. The terms disclose that Ayesha‟s will was dominated by Basheer. c. A contract exists. Ayesha has entered into the agreement knowing the consequence of the agreement. d. No contract exists. Basheer was unfair in his dealings.

189. Principle: A master shall be responsible for the wrongful acts of his servants in the course of his employment.

Fact: The Syndicate Bank was running a small savings scheme under which its authorized agents would go round and collect small savings from several people on daily basis. These agents would get commission, on the deposits so collected. Ananth was one such agent, collecting deposits from factory workers engaged on

daily wages. Though he regularly carried on his business for sometime, slowly he started appropriating deposits for his personal use and one day he just disappeared. One Fatima, who had been handing over her savings to him found that nearly for a month before his disappearance, he was not depositing her savings at all. The Bank, when approached, took the stand that Ananth was not its regular and paid employee, and therefore, it was not responsible for his misconduct. She flies a suit against the Bank. a. The Bank is not liable, since Ananth was not its salaried employee. b. The Bank is liable, since Ananth was projected as its employee. c. The Bank is not liable, since it did not know about misappropriation by Ananth d. None of these

190. Principle: When due to natural disaster or war it becomes impossible to perform a contract, non-performance of such contract shall not make either of the parties liable for breach of contract but this does not include commercial impossibility.

Facts: Rakesh is a merchant based in Kolkata deals in almonds, which he procures from Indian as well as foreign markets. Vimlesh enters into a contract with Rakesh for supply of 500 kilograms of almonds @ Rs.400 per kilogram. The relations between India and Pakistan turned sour and both countries snapped business ties soon after Rakesh agreed to supply almonds to Vimlesh. Rakesh did not deliver almonds to Vimlesh because he mostly procured almonds from Pakistan, which were comparatively cheaper. When asked by Vimlesh, Rakesh said that due to no trade and war like conditions between India and Pakistan, that he is not in a position to supply him almonds. Vimlesh files a suit for breach of contract. a. Vimlesh will succeed b. Rakesh will succeed c. None of them will succeed d. Both of them will partially succeed

191. Principle 1: Only the Centre can ban the distribution of Genetically Modified foods or seeds.

Facts: Experts feel that GM Tomato, a species of GM seed distributed by Monsanto to tribal agriculturists was unsuited for dry and rain-fed areas like Gujarat and feel that the State should have banned this distribution. Hence the experts proceed against the state of Gujarat for being careless, and not heeding the specific requirements of the State of Gujarat. a) The experts are right – it is upto the State Government to develop clarity on matters pertaining to genetically modified foods. b) The experts are right – it is upto the State Government to develop clarity on matters pertaining to soil and germination conditions which are specific to a state. c) The experts are wrong – it is upto the farmers to develop clarity on matters pertaining to genetically modified foods. d) The State has no authority to ban Monsanto Seeds which have been certified by the Centre.

192. Principle: A master shall be liable for the acts of his servants done in the course of employment.

Facts: HMT, a public sector undertaking, is operating a number of bus services for its employees in Bangalore. These buses are quite -distinct in their appearance and carry the board "for HMT employees only". M, a villager from neighbouring state, was waiting fora regular bus in one of the bus stops in Bangalore. A bus belonging to HMT happened to stop nearby and a number of people got into the bus. M, without realising that it was HMT bus, got into the bus and soon thereafter, the bus met with an accident due to the driver's negligence. M, along with several others, was injured in the accident. M seeks to file a suit against HMT claiming damages.

(a) M will succeed, because he got into the bus without realising that it was HMT bus;

(b) M will not succeed, because it was for him to find out whether it was a public transport;

(d) None of the above.

193. Principle: Under Indian Constitution, everybody shall be equal before law.

Facts: The Income Tax Act happens to provide that those whose annual income is upto Rs. 60,000/- shall pay 10% of their income as tax; and those whose annual income exceeds Rs. 60,000/- shall pay the tax at the rate of 20%. Those citizens whose annual income exceeds Rs. 60,000/- challenge this Legislation on the ground that it is a violation of the principle of equality before law.

(a) They will succeed, because the law discriminates against the people who earn more than Rs. 60,000/- per annum.

(b) They will not succeed, because the people who earn more than Rs. 60,000/- are not equal to the people who earn less than Rs. 60,000/-

(c)They will not succeed, because this law enables the Government to equalise the incomes of all the people in the country.

(d) None of the above

194. Principle: The reorganisation of States can be permitted only on a linguistic or regional basis

Fact: The state A, in Country Zindia has a large population of Shia Muslims. The Chief Minister, Sayawati proposes splitting of the state into two units, Alpha and Beta. A States Reorganisation Comittee was formed to consider the demand espoused by Sayawati. The States Reorganisation Committee discovered that the splitting of the State was mainly based on separating the Shia Muslims and the Sunni Muslims, and retained the minerals, the assets and the industries in the portion which housed the Shia Muslims, and the farmlands with the Sunni Muslims. Should the States Reorganisatoin Committee advocate Sayawati‟s proposal? a. Yes, they should, this reorganisation will allow for aligning the two different states‟ interests and for expedient economic growth;

b. No, the Sunni Muslims should get a greater portion of the minerals, and this is an unfair allocation of resources; c. Yes, smaller states allow for better administration, access to resources, and division of funds.

195. Principles:

A. Delay in providing a service constitutes „deficiency of service‟.

B. There can be no „deficiency of service‟ when the reason causing the deficiency is based on a bona-fide case.

Facts: A approached the court stating that it was observed that Pingfisher airlines engaged in allowing the departure of flight before the schedule time of departure from Delhi to Kulu and cancelled the return flight without giving any intimation to the complainant. B complained that the cancellation of flight by Airport Authorities in Vibgyor airlines from Trivandrum to Mumbai after three hours of boarding the flight without giving any reasons as the airlines could not secure the services of a pilot is a deficiency in service. C complained that due to verification of visa papers, his flight with Bet Airlines was delayed by 20 minutes. Which are the airlines which will be liable for deficiency of service? a. Pingfisher, Vibgyor and Bet Airlines. b. Vibgyor, Pingfisher, but not Bet Airlines. c. Pingfisher and Bet Airlines, but not Vibgyor. d. None of the above.

196. Principle: A person is guilty of culpable homicide amounting to murder; if the act by which the death is caused is done with the intention of causing murder and the person

Facts: A was suffering from jaundice and inflammation of the brain and B was in the know this condition. One day during a heated argument on some issue. A slapped B in anger. B lost his self-control and dealt a severe blow on A‟s head. As a result, A died. The police sought to prosecute B for murder.

(a) B was liable for muder becasue he knew A‟s delicate condition

(b) B was not liable for muder becasue he acted in self defense

(d) B was not liable for muder becasue he acted under grave and sudden provocation

197. Principle: A master will be liable for the negligent acts of his servant in the course of employment.

Facts: Samuel was a driver employed by Kohinoor Company to drive their luxury buses during the night. Mohammed has been his assistant over a period of time. One night, when he was driving he felt terribly sleepy and he handed over the steering – wheel to Mohammed and dozed off. The bus hit against a car coming from the opposite side due to the inexperience of Mohammed. The owner of the car filed a suit against Kohinoor.

(a) Kohinoor will be liable, because it was improper on the part of Samuel to ask Mohammed to drive;

(b) Kohinoor will not be liable to pay, because Samuel was not supposed to ask Mohammed to drive;

(d) Kohinoor will not be liable because Mohammad was not acting in the course of his employment.

198. Principle: A person is guilty of culpable homicide amounting to murder; if the act by which the death is caused is done with the intention of causing murder and the person A was suffering from jaundice and inflammation of the brain and B was in the know this condition.

Facts: One day during a heated argument on some issue. A slapped B in anger. B lost his self-control and dealt a severe blow on A‟s head. As a result, A died. The police sought to prosecute B for murder.

(a) B was liable for murder because he knew A‟s delicate condition

(b) B was not liable for murder because he acted in self defense

(d) B was not liable for murder because he acted under grave and sudden provocation

199. Principles: An agreement is enforceable at law if parties competent to contract enter into it with free consent, for consideration. And the contract is not contrary to law and against public policy.

Facts: A, a boy of 16 years entered into an agreement to sell his flat at Bandra for a sum of Rs. 5 lakhs. A‟s father is very annoyed with A at the transaction and does not allow delivery. The buyer files a suit for a specific performance.

(a) the buyer will obtain relief because A freely entered into the contract

(b) the buyer will obtain relief because the agreement is with consideration

(d) the buyer will not succeed because A is below 18 years of age.

200. Principle: When five or more persons jointly commit robbery, they are said to have committed the offence of dacoity.

Facts: Six persons agreed to commit robbery in the house of Mr. Santosh Jain, a jeweler merchant. It was agreed that robbery would be committed on the night of 1st May 2006 at about midnight. On the agreed day at the agreed time,. Only four of them were present. They committed robbery without waiting for the arrival of the other two.

(a) The offence of dacoity has been committed. There are six persons involved through only four have committed robbery.

(b) The offence of dacoity was not committed as the robbery was committed only by four persons.

(d) The other two persons are deemed to have participated in the robbery. Hence the offence of dacoity was committed.