VVT COACHING CENTRE
Time : 3Hrs NEET MODEL GRAND TEST- 2 Max. Marks : 720
01. Which one of the following options gives 07. Which of the following is an allosomal the correct categorization of six animals genetic disorder caused by trisomy? according to the chief nitrogenous wastes (1) Down syndrome they excrete? (2)Turner syndrome Ammono- Ureotelic Uricotelic (3) Klinefelter syndrome telic (4) Marfan syndrome Rohu Locust Shark 08. The diatoms and desmids are also called (1) Catla Monkey Ostrich (1) Chrysophytes (2) Dinoflagellates Catla Rohu Locust (3) Euglenoids (4) Slime moulds (2) Shark Monkey Ostrich 09. A population of 300 individuals is Shark Rohu Locust experiencing exponential growth. If 27 (3) Monkey Catla Ostrich births and 9 deaths occur in one year, the ‘intrinsic rate of natural increase’ for this (4) Rohu Shark Locust population is Catla Monkey Ostrich (1) 0.09 (2) 0.18 (3)0.06 (4) 0.03 02. Ex situ conservation of plant germplasm is 10. Which organisms are correctly assigned to done with their taxonomic group ? (1) Herbarium (2)Museum (1) Lichen is a composite organism (3) Botanical gardens (4)Flora formed from the symbiotic association 03. Correctly matched with reference to Virus of a photo-autotroph and a chemo- and host autotroph (1) Zymophages - Algae (2) Yeast is a fungus used in making (2) Phycophages - Mosses bread and beer (3) Cyanophages – Green algae (3) Nostoc and Anabaena are photo- (4) Mycophages – Fungi autotrophic Protistans 04. The first clinical gene therapy was given in (4) Paramecium and Plasmodium belong to 1990 to a 4-year old girl suffering with the same kingdom as that of deficiency of Mycoplasmas (1) Adenosine deaminase 11. When a resting axonal membrane is (2) Phenylalanine hydroxylase stimulated, (3) Homogentisic acid oxidase (1) The membrane’s potential first (4) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase decreases and then increases 05. What is true for Actinomycetes ? (2) The membrane’s Na+ permeability (1) They lack cell wall increases first followed by a decrease (2) They are the smallest living cells in K+ permeability known (3) The membrane’s Na+ permeability (3) They are filamentous protistans increases first followed by an increase (4) They are filamentous monerans in K+ permeability 06. The component of ECG that represents the (4) The membrane’s K+ permeability return of the ventricles from excited to increases first followed by an increase normal state is in Na+ permeability (1) P wave (2)T wave (3) QRS complex (4)ST segment
Page No.1
12. Which one of the following pairs is 18. Cymose inflorescence is present in correctly matched ? (1) Sesbania (2)Trifolium (1) Viroids – Proteins (3) Brassica (4)Solanum (2) Mustard – Vessel less angiosperm 19. How many plants in the list given below (3) Ginkgo – Naked fruits have marginal placentation ? (4) Salvinia – Heterophyllous cryptogam Mustard, Gram, Tulip, Asparagus, 13. Energy available for consumption to Redgram, Sunhemp, Chilli, Colchicum, herbivores in an ecosystem is Onion, Moong, Pea, Tobacco, Lupin (1) Gross primary production (1) 6 (2)3 (3)4 (4)5 (2) Gross secondary production 20. Gross calorific value of proteins is (3) Net primary production (1) 5.65 kcal (2)4.1 kcal (4) Net secondary production (3) 9.45 kcal (4)4 kcal 14. Select the correct option regarding general 21. The correct floral formula of chilli is characters of Hemichordata. + K C A G Respiratory Circulatory Excretory + (5) 5 5 (2) (1) Organs system organ
(1) Skin Closed Nephridia + K(5) C(5) A5 G(2) (2) + Proboscis (2) Gills Open gland + K(5) C(5) A(5) G2 (3) + (3) Tube feet Closed Flame cell + Green K5 C5 A(5) G2 (4) Gills Open (4) + gland 22. Which is not true for anatomy of the Dicot 15. Cycas and Pteris resemble each other in stem ? having (1) Collenchymatous hypodermis (1) Ciliated Sperms (2) Medullated stele (2) Open vascular bundles (3) Vascular bundles are conjoint and (3) Rhizome closed (4) Seeds (4) Presence of medullary rays 16. The tallest tree with naked seeds is 23. The type of interspecific interaction (1) Cycas (2) Pinus between sea anemone and clown fish is (3) Sequoia (4) Eucalyptus (1) Commensalism (2) Mutualism 17. Match Column - I with Column - II and (3) Amensalism (4) Parasitism select the correct option. 24. Sutures between the cranial bones are a Column I Column II type of (1)Cartilaginous joints (2)Synovial joints (a) Pneumonia (i) Microsporum (3)Freely movable joints (4)Fibrous joints 25. The common bottle cork is a product of (b) Common (ii) Rhinovirus (1) Phellogen (2)Xylem cold (3) Vascular Cambium (4)Dermatogen (c) Typhoid (iii) Salmonella 26. Progestasert is a (1) Hormone releasing IUD (d) Ringworm (iv) Streptococcus (2) Oral contraceptive pill (3) Non-medicated IUD Options: (4) Cervical cap (a) (b) (c) (d) 27. About _____ percent of CO2 is transported (1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) - (2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) in the form of HCO3 . (3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (1) 50 (2) 70 (4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) (3) 20-25 (4) 7
Page No.2
28. Vascular bundles with water containing (2) Free living N2 fixers are all anaerobes cavities are found in (3) Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are non- (1) Maize (2) Cycas pigmented autotrophs (3) Pinus (4) Sunflower (4) Anabaena and Nostoc are capable of 29. When a cell is plasmolysed, it becomes fixing nitrogen in free-living state also (1) Flaccid and its TP becomes 0 36. Read the following four statements (A-D). (2) Turgid and its TP becomes maximum A) Both, photophosphorylation and (3) Turgid and TP becomes equal to OP oxidative phosphorylation involve (4) Flaccid and becomes 0 same mechanism of ATP synthesis. 30. What will be the effect of inbreeding in a B) In dicot stems, a new cambium population? dedifferentiates from cells of pericycle (1) It will increase the frequency of at the time of secondary growth. heterozygotes C) The flowers of Gloriosa and Petunia are (2) It will increase the frequency of hypogynous. dominant individuals D) Major part of woody stem is (3) It will increase the frequency of parenchymatous. homozygotes The number of correct statements are (4) It will decrease the frequency of (1) 4 (2) 1 (3)2 (4) 3 recessive individuals 37. A process that makes important difference 31. Which one of the following options gives between C3 and C4 plants is the correct categorization of six enzymes (1) EMP pathway (2)C3 pathway according to the digestive juice in which (3) Glycolate pathway they are present? (4) Glycolytic pathway 38. Which of the following in mitochondrial Gastric Pancreatic Intestinal E.T.S is not a proton pump ? juice juice juice (1) NADH dehydrogenase Pepsinogen Nucleosidase Enterokinase (2) Succinate dehydrogenase (1) Trypsinogen Lipase Nuclease (3) Cytochrome bc1 complex (4) Cytochrome c oxidase Enterokinase Trypsinogen Nuclease 39. The main difference between GIFT and (2) Lipase Pepsinogen Nucleosidase ZIFT is that (3) Pepsinogen Nuclease Enterokinase (1) In ZIFT, fertilization takes place in vivo Lipase Trypsinogen Nucleosidase (2) GIFT involves in vitro fertilization followed by embryo transfer Pepsinogen Enterokinase Nucleosidase (4) Nuclease Lipase Trypsinogen (3)ZIFTinvolves intrauterine insemination (4)In GIFT, fertilization takes place inside 32. Guttation differs from transpiration in the fallopian tube which aspect ? 40. Which of these steps in Kreb’s cycle is (1) It is the loss of water and minerals energy yielding ? (2) It is the loss of water vapour (1) Conversion of oxalo succinic acid to (3) It occurs during day time –ketoglutaric acid (4) It is controlled by stomata (2) Conversion of fumaric acid to malic 33. Hormone that activates vitamin D is acid
(1) Parathormone (2) ADH (3) Conversion of succinyl CoA to (3) Cortisol (4) Aldosterone succinic acid 34. For its action, nitrogenase requires (4) Conversion of citric acid to isocitric (1) O2 (2)High temperature acid (3) High input of energy(4)Light 41. Anti-auxin property of cytokinins is 35. Which one of the following is wrong (1) Removal of apical dominance statement ? (2) Prevention of leaf abscission (1) Symbiotic N2 fixers live as aerobes (3) Induction of opening of stomata under free-living conditions (4) Delay of scenescene Page No.3
42. Which among these is a correct 48. Which one of the following cellular parts is combination of marine animals? correctly described ? (1) Spongilla, Sepia, Salpa (1) Ribosomes – 80S with 40S and 50S (2) Ctenoplana, Cucumaria, Catla while 70S with 30 and 60S subunits (3) Balaenoptera, Balanoglossus, Betta (2) Lysosomes – Glycosidation of lipids (4) Adamsia, Ascidia, Asterias and proteins 43. Wrongly matched of the following is (3) Thylakoids – flattened membranous (1) Phytochrome – Flowering hormone sacs forming the grana of chloroplasts (2) Auxins – Indole compounds (4) Centrioles – locomotory structures (3) Cytokinins – Adenine derivatives 49. Which one of the following does not make (4) Ethylene – Methionine derivative a difference between Monerans and 44. Exponential growth occurs when protistans ? (1) Environmental resistance is maximum (1) Chromosomal organization (2) Resources are unlimited (2) Cell wall (3) Biotic potential is minimum (3) Cell membrane (4) Individuals compete for limited (4) Ribosomes resources 50. Which one of the following biomolecules is 45. Select the correct route for the passage of correctly characterised? urine in man. (1) Adenylic acid – adenosine without (1) Calyx Pelvis Urinary bladder phosphate Ureter Urethra (2) Basic amino acid – does not contain (2) Ureter Calyx Pelvis Urinary carboxyl group bladder Urethra (3) Lecithin – Phosphorylated glyceride (3) Calyx Pelvis Ureter Urinary (4) Palmitic acid – Unsaturated fatty acid bladder Urethra with 18 carbon atoms (4) Ureter Urinary bladder Calyx 51. Which of the following is not an example Pelvis Urethra of in-situ conservation? 46. Go through the following statements. (1) National park (2)Wildlife sanctuary i) In geometric growth, only one (3) Zoological park (4) Sacred grove daughter cell out of two continues to 52. During oogenesis, meiosis I produces divide. (1) Secondary oocyte and first polar body ii) The ability of plants to follow (2) Primary oocyte and first polar body different phases of life to form (3) Secondary oocyte and second polar different kinds of structures, is called body plasticity. (4) Primary oocyte and second polar iii) The mathematical expression for body arithmetic growth is Lt = L0 + rt while 53. Montreal protocol is an international rt for geometric growth, it is W1 = W0 e . agreement that aims at iv) The growth and differentiation in (1) Reducing the emissions of greenhouse plants are both open. gases in order to prevent global Which of these are correct? warming (1) iii & iv (2) ii, iii & iv (2) Banning all nuclear explosions for (3) ii & iv (4) All are correct both civilian and military purpose 47. Select the correct option regarding features (3) Prohibiting the development and use present in three animals. of biological weapons Character Earthworm Cockroach Frog (4) Protecting the ozone layer by phasing (1) Coelom Pseudocoel Haemocoel Enterocoel out the production and consumption Respiratory Haemo- Haemo- Haemo- (2) of ozone-depleting substances pigment globin cyanin globin 54. Which one is the most abundant protein in Thirteen Two Heart Absent the animal world ? (3) chambered chambered Excretory Malpighian (1) Haemoglobin (2) Collagen Nephridia Kidneys (4) organs tubules (3) Insulin (4) Trypsin Page No.4
55. Spindles are arrested by colchicine at 62. Which one of the following is a wrong (1) Anaphase (2) Metaphase statement regarding mutations ? (3) Telophase (4) Prophase (1) UV and Gamma rays are physical 56. Steroid hormones influence gene mutagens expression in the target cells. Which of the (2) Base substitution of DNA is not following statements are most appropriate mutation explanation for this feature? (3) Deletion and insertion of base pairs (a) They bind to membrane bound cause frame-shift mutation receptors on the cell surface. (4) Cancer cells commonly show (b) Being lipid soluble, steroid hormones chromosomal aberrations can enter the target cells through the 63. Which of the following are homologous? cell membrane. (1) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of (c) They generate a second messenger in Cucurbita the target cells. (2) Sweet potato and potato (d)Hormone-receptor complex binds to DNA. (3) Eyes of Octopus and of mammals Options: (4) Wings of butterfly and bird (1) (a) and (c) (2) (b) and (d) 64. Edward Wilson popularized the term (3) (b), (c) and (c) (4) (a), (b) and (d) (1) Biodiversity (2) Ecosystem 57. Chiasmata can be distinctively seen in (3) Biosphere (4) Ecology (1) Zygotene (2) Pachytene 65. Volume of air remaining in the lungs even (3) Diplotene (4) Leptotene after a forcible expiration is 58. Biological response modifier used in the (1) Expiratory reserve capacity treatment of cancer is (2) Tidal volume (1) -1- antitrypsin (2) amylase (3) Functional residual capacity (3) lactalbumin (4) interferon (4) Residual volume 59. F1 generation resembles neither the parent 66. True about tRNA is due to (1) It was known after postulation of (1) Inheritance of one gene (2)Co-dominance genetic code (3) Incomplete dominance (4)Dominance (2) It is double stranded 60. Mis-match regarding the phenotypical (3) It’s actual structure looks like clover- ratios of following crosses is leaf (1) YyRr x yyrr – 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (Pea) (4) It has some unusual bases (2) tt x TT – 1 : 1 (Pea) 67. The increase in concentration of a toxicant at (3) yyRR x YYrr – 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (F2 progeny successive trophic levels is referred to as of pea) (1) Bioremediation (2)Eutrophication (4) Rr x Rr – 1 : 2 : 1 (Snapdragon) (3) Biomagnification (4)Incineration 61. Match List-I with List-II given below. 68. Menstruation occurs due to List-I List-II (1) Fall in the levels of oestrogens and A) Incomplete 1) Human skin dominance colour progesterone B) Codominance 2) Pea seed shape and (2) Surge of FSH and LH around mid- starch grain size cycle C) Polygenes 3) Human being (3) Rise in the levels of oestrogens and belonging to AB progesterone blood group (4) Transformation of primary follicle D) Pleiotropic 4) Flower colour into secondary follicle in genes dog flower A B C D 69. Choose the correct statement pertaining to (1) 4 3 1 2 genetic code ? (2) 3 4 2 1 (1) It may be doublet code rarely (3) 4 3 2 1 (2) It can never be overlapping (4) 3 4 1 2
Page No.5
(3) It is usually ambiguous in (3) The sino-atrial node has a higher prokaryotes inherent rate of depolarisation. (4) It has no punctuations (4) The sino-atrial node has a lower inherent rate of depolarisation. 70. In small populations, there is a greater 75. Choose the correct sequence of the chance of following IUCN red list categories from (1) Mutations (2)Genetic drift most threatened to least threatened. (3) Natural selection (a) Least concern (4) Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium (b) Endangered 71. Of the ‘X’ billion base pairs that make up (c) Vulnerable human genome, only ‘Y’ percent code for (d) Critically endangered Options: proteins. Select the option that correctly (1) (b), (d), (c), (a) (2)(d), (b), (c), (a) represents ‘X’ and ‘Y’ and provides the (3) (d), (b), (a), (c) (4)(d), (c), (b), (a) explanation. 76. The superiority of hybrids over their The average gene parents is called X = 3 billion consists of 3000 (1) Heterosis (2)Transformation (1) Y = less than 2 bases, but sizes vary (3) Splicing (4)Inbreeding greatly depression 77. Non-N2 fixing bio-fertilizer is Functions are (1) Anabaena (2)Oscillatoria X = 3 million unknown for over (3) Aulosira (4)Glomus (2) Y = 3 50 percent of the 78. Monascus purpureus is a yeast used discovered genes commercially in the production of (1) Streptokinase for removing clots from Eukaryotic genes the blood vessels X = 3 billion (3) are split genes with (2) Citric acid Y = 50 introns (3) Blood cholesterol lowering statins (4) Ethanol Non-coding 79. Which of the following statements is sequences make up X = 3 billion correct? (4) a very large portion Y = less than 2 (1) Vaccines generate memory B cells but of the human not memory T cells. genome (2) Innate immunity is characterized by 72. When acetylcholine is released at the specificity and memory. neuromuscular junction, action potential is (3) The spleen acts as a filter of the blood by generated first in the trapping blood-borne microorganisms. (1) Sarcolemma (2)T tubule (4) The exaggerated response to allergens is (3) Terminal cistern (4)Cross arm due to the release of histamine and 73. Explant used for virus free plant serotonin from plasma cells. 80. production is In India, the Air (Prevention and Control (1) Root (2)Shoot tip of Pollution) Act came into force in (3) Leaf (4)Leaf and Root (1) 1986 (2) 1981 (3)1974 (4) 1988 81. 74. All the components of the conducting The restriction enzyme (s) that make system can generate an action potential for staggered cuts in DNA leaving sticky ends the contraction of heart muscle, but the is / are Eco R I sino-atrial node acts as the pacemaker (1) (2) Hind III because (3) Bam H I (4) All of these 82. (1) All the other components in heart The mouth of molluscs contains a file-like cannot conduct the action potential. rasping organ called (2) Only the sino-atrial node is auto- (1) Ctenidium (2) Mantle excitable and auto-rhythmic. (3) Osphradium (4) Radula Page No.6
83. Biolistics (gene-gun) is suitable for 90. Vestibular apparatus of the inner ear is (1) Selecting pathogen vectors involved in maintenance of body balance. (2) Transformation of plant cells Select the correct option from the following (3) Constructing chimeric DNA statements. (4) DNA amplification (a) The maculae present in the utricle and 84. Vertical distribution of different species the saccule are the receptors for static occupying different levels is seen best in equilibrium. (1) Grassland (2) Tropical rain forest (b) Maculae detect angular acceleration (3) Temperate forest (4) Tropical savannah and deceleration. 85. Which one of the following is a case of (c) The crista ampullaris of each wrong matching ? semicircular duct contains receptors (1) Somatic – Fusion of two for dynamic equilibrium. hybridization diverse cells (d) The hair cells of crista ampullaris (2) Embryoid - Zygotic embryo respond to the gravitational pull due (3) Micropropagation - in vitro production to the movement of otoliths. of plants in Options: large numbers (1) (a) and (c) (2) (b) and (d) (4) Callus - Undifferentiated (3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (c) mass of cells 91. Mark the incorrect option 86. Identify the correct sequence of stages in (1) When an uncharged capacitor is spermatogenesis. connected across the battery, just after the (1) Spermatocytes Spermatogonia connections has been made, it behaves as Spermatids Spermatozoa (2) Spermatogonia Spermatocytes short circuit Spermatids Spermatozoa (2) When capacitor is fully charged it (3) Spermatogonia Spermatocytes behave as short circuit Spermatozoa Spermatids (3) When capacitor is fully charged it (4) Spermatogonia Spermatids behaving as open circuit Spermatocytes Spermatozoa (4) 1 and 3 both 87. The gene that encodes for BT protein, 92. A student measures the distance traversed specific to cotton boll worm is in face fall of a body, initially at rest in a (1) Cry I AC (2) Cry II Abc given time. He uses this data to estimate g, (3) Cry II Ac (4) Cry II Ab the acceleration due to gravity. If the 88. Industrial melanism in the peppered moth maximum percentage error in is an example of measurement of the distance and the time (1) Directional selection because more individuals acquired peripheral character are e1 and e2 respectively, the percentage value at both ends of the distribution error in the estimation of g is
curve (1) ee12 2 (2) ee12 (2) Stabilizing selection because more individuals acquired mean character (3) ee12 2 (4) ee21 value 93. In an adiabatic change, the pressure and (3) Directional selection because it pushed temperature of a monatomic gas are the mean character value of the related as P TC, where C equals population in one direction (1) 3/5 (2) 5/3 (3) 5/2 (4) 2/5 (4) Disruptive selection because it split the 94. A circular current carrying coil has a population into two equal groups radius R. The distance from the centre of 89. Which of the following are a part of the coil on its axis where the magnetic mononuclear phagocytic system? induction will be (1/8)th of its value at the
(1) Mast cells and Schwann cells centre of the coil, is (2) Monocytes and astrocytes (3) Kupffer cells and ependymal cells (1) R 3 (2) R /3 (3) 23R (4)23 R (4) Macrophages and microglia Page No.7
95. A particle moves along a circle of radius 102. If I0 is the intensity of principle maximum (20/)m with constant tangential in the single slit diffraction pattern, then acceleration. If the velocity of the particle is what will be its intensity when the slit 80 m/s at the end of the second revolution width is doubled after motion has begin, the tangential I0 acceleration is (1) I0 (2) (3) 2I0 (4) 4I0 2 2 4 (1) 4 0m s (2) 640 ms 103. A child is standing with folded hands at 2 2 the centre of a platform rotating about its (3) 160 ms (4) 40 ms central axis. The kinetic energy of the 96. The r.m.s velocity of a gas at a certain system is K. The child now stretches his temperature is 2 times than that of the arm so that moment of inertia of the oxygen molecules at that temperature. The system doubles. The kinetic energy of the gas can be system now is (1) H2 (2) He (3) CH4 (4) SO2 (1) 2K (2) K/2 (3) K/4 (4) 4K 97. A p-n junction diode can be used as 104. Water is flowing continuously from a tap (1) condenser (2) rectifier 3 having an internal diameter 8 1 0 m . (3) amplifier (4) regulator 98. A sphere of solid material of specific The water velocity as it leaves the tap is 1 gravity 8 has a concentric spherical cavity 0 .0 4ms . The diameter of the water and just sinks in water. Then the ratio of 1 radius of cavity to that of outer radius of stream at a distance 8 1 0 m below the the sphere must be tap is close to 1/3 1/3 3 3 3 1/3 5 7 1/3 (1) 9.610 m (2) 3.610 m (1) (2) (3) (4) 9 3 3 2 2 2 2 (3) 0.810 m (4) 6.410 m 99. A person at rest is observing two trains 105. A solid sphere of mass M is rolling with a one coming towards him and other leaving speed V on a horizontal surface and strikes with the same speed 4 m/s. If their a massless spring of force constant K. Then whistling frequencies are 240 Hz each, the maximum compression of spring is then the number of beats per second heard by the person will be (if velocity of sound is 320 m/s)
(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 9 (4) zero 5MV2 7MV2 100. Identify the wrong statement (1) (2) (1) De – Broglie waves are probability 3K 5K waves MV2 3MV2 (2) De – Broglie wavelength of a moving (3) (4) K 2K particle is inversely proportional to its 106. The additional kinetic energy to be momentum. provided to a satellite of mass m revolving (3) Wave nature is associated with atomic around a planet of mass M, to transfer it particles only from a circular orbit of radius R to (4) In general wave nature of matter is not 1 observed another of radius RRR221 is 101. Four solid spheres A, B, C and D are of 11 11 same radius but made of different metals. (1) GmM (2) 2GmM RR RR Their densities are in ratio 6 : 3 : 4 : 5 and 12 12 specific heats are in ratio 2 : 5 : 4 : 6. These 1 1 1 11 (3) GmM (4) GmM are initially kept at the same temperature 2 RR 22 12 RR12 and placed in the same surroundings. The sphere which has the slowest rate of cooling is (1) C (2) B (3) D (4) A Page No.8
107. An atomic power nuclear reactor can 112. If λ1and 2 are the wavelengths of the deliver 300 MW. The energy released due first members of the Lyman and Paschen to fission of each nucleus of uranium atom series, respectively, then : is 235 12 U is 170 MeV. The number of uranium (1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 30 (3) 7 : 50 (4) 7 : 108 atoms fissioned per hour will be 113. The first overtone of an open pipe has 22 22 (1) 4 1 0 (2) 3 0 1 0 frequency n. The first overtone of a closed (3) 1 0 1 0 20 (4) 5 1 0 15 pipe of the same length will have 108. In the given potentiometer arrangement a frequency cell is balanced on length l across (1) n/2 (2) 2n (3) 3n/4 (4) 4n/3 potentiometer wire as shown in figure. If 114. A black body is at a temperature of 500 K. It cross sectional radius at potentiometer emits energy at a rate which is proportional to 3 4 2 wire is made double then balancing length (1) (500) (2) 500 (3) (500) (4) (500) on wire would be 115. Two ice skaters A and B approach each other at right angles. Skater A has a mass 30 kg and velocity 1 m/s and skater B has a mass 20 kg and velocity 2 m/s. They meet and cling together. Their final velocity of the couple is l l (1) 2 m/s (2) 1.5 m/s (1) 2l (2) (3) (4) l 4 2 (3) 1 m/s (4) 2.5 m/s 109. Electromagnetic wave of intensity 1400 116. A magnetic substance has susceptibility W/m2 falls on metal surface on area 1.5m2 0. 05 at 300K. The magnetic susceptibility of is completely absorbed by it. Find our the substance at 600K will be force exerted by beam (1) 0 .0 2 5 (2) 0.1 (3) 0. 05 (4) 0.0125 117. Box may have any series combination of L, (1) 1410 5 N (2) 1410 6 N C and R. (3) 710 5 N (4) 710 6 N 110. The colour coded carbon resistance has three bands. The bands from left are blue, yellow and red the resistance is (1) 6400 20% (2) 642 20% (3) 6420 10% (4) 4600 5% Column – I Column – II 111. (a) Centre of gravity (C.G) of a body is the P) Box point at which the weight of the body acts. contain LCR (b) Centre of mass coincides with the at resonance centre of gravity if the earth is assumed to A) be a perfect sphere of uniform density Q) Box (c) To evaluate the gravitational field contain only intensity due to any body at an external LR point, the entire mass of the body can be considered to be concentrated at its C.G. B) (d) The radius of gyration of anybody R) Power rotating about an axis is the length of the factor of perpendicular dropped from the C.G. of box zero the body to the axis of rotation. Which one of the following pairs of C) statements is correct? S) Box (1) a and b (2) b and c contain only (3) c and d (4) d and a CR
D)
Page No.9
(1) A P; B R; C S; D Q (2) A P; B S; C R; D Q (3) A P; B R; C Q; D S (4) A Q; B S; C R; D P 118. A liquid of refractive index 1.6 is contained in (3) the cavity of a glass specimen of refractive index 1.5 as shown in figure. If each of the curved surface has a radius of curvature of 0.20 m, the arrangement behaves as a (4) 123. In the Y.D.S.E., the slits are separated by 0.28 mm and the screen is placed 1.4 m away. The distance between the central bright fringes and the fourth bright fringe is measured to be 1.2 cm. Determine the (1) converging lens of focal length 0.25 m wavelength of light used in the experiment (2) diverging lens of focal length 0.25 m 0 0 (3) diverging lens of focal length 0.17 m (1) 3000A (2) 6000A (4) converging lens of focal length 0.72 m 0 0 119. Two sound waves having a phase (3) 9000A (4) 4800A difference of 600 have path difference of 124. What should be the displacement of a λ λ λ simple pendulum whose amplitude is A, at (1) 2λ (2) (3) (4) 3 6 2 which potential energy is 1/4th of the total 120. A transistor is operated in common emitter energy? configuration at VC = 2 V such that a A A (1) (2) change in the base current from 100 μ A to 2 2 300μ A produces a change in the collector A A current from 10 mA to 20 mA. The current (3) (4) gain is 4 22 (1) 100 (2) 75 (3) 50 (4) 25 125. A copper wire and a steel wire of the same 121. Two coil have a mutual inductance 0.005 diameter and length are connected end to H. The current changes in first coil end and a force is applied which stretches according to equation IIt sin , where their combined length by 1 cm. Then the 0 two wires will have IA0 2 and 100 rad / sec. The (1) The same stress and strain maximum value of induced emf in second (2) The same stress but different strain coil is (3) The same strain but different stresses (1) 4V (2) 3 V (3) 2V (4) V (4) Different stresses and strain 122. The electric field due to a uniformly 126. An eye specialist prescribes spectacles having charged non-conducting sphere of radius a combination of convex lens of focal length 40 R as a function of the distance from its cm in contact with a concave lens of focal centre is represented graphically by length 25 cm. The power of this lens combination in dioptre is (1) + 1.5 (2) – 6.6 7 (3) +6.67 (4) – 1.5 127. The difference in the value of 'g'at pole and (1) 3 2 at a latitude is Rω then latitude angle 4 is (1) 600 (2) 300 0 0 (2) (3) 45 (4) 95
Page No.10
128. The velocity of a particle moving in the 134. In the figure shown the angle made by the positive direction of the X-axis varies as light ray with the normal in the medium of V = K S where K is a positive constant. refractive index 2 is The corresponding V – t graph is (1) A straight line intercepts Y axis (2) A straight line passing through the origin (3) A parabola (4) A symmetric parabola 129. The energy stored in a capacitor of (1) 300 (2) 600 (3) 900 (4) 450 capacity C and potential V is given by 135. A block of mass m is placed on a surface with a vertical cross section given by CV2 CV22 (1) (2) 3 2 2 x y . If the coefficient of friction is 0.5, CV2 CV 6 (3) (4) 2 2 the maximum height above the ground at 130. When radiation of wavelength λ is which the block can be placed without incident on a metallic surface, the stopping slipping is potential is 4.8 volts. If the same surface is 1 1 2 1 (1) m (2) m (3) m (4) m illuminated with radiation of double the 2 6 3 3 wavelength, then the stopping potential 136. In an atom, an electron is moving with a becomes 1.6 volts. Then the threshold speed of 600m/sec with an accuracy of wavelength for the surface is 0.005%. Certainty with which the position (1) 2λ (2) 4λ of the electron can be located is: (3) 6λ (4) 8λ (1) 1.92 × 10-3 m (2) 1.52 × 10-4 m 131. A ship A is moving Westwards with a (3) 2.62 × 10-6 m (4) 0.22 × 10-1 m speed of 10 km h–1 and a ship B 100 km 137. Given South of A, is moving Northwards with a a) n = 4 , m = +1 nlmm2,1,1,1/ 2 speed of 10 km h–1. The time after which b) ls the distance between them becomes The maximum number of electron(s) in an shortest,is atom that can have the quantum numbers (1) 5 2h (2) 10 2h as given in (a) and (b) are respectively (1) 25 and 1 (2) 6 and 1 (3) 5h (4) 0 h (3) 2 and 4 (4) 4 and 1 132. A galvanometer has a current range of 138. 15mA and voltage range of 750mv. To Which among the following is incorrect? (1) MX2 type of molecule will have zero convert this galvanometer into an ammeter dipole moment if ‘M’ uses sp hybrid of range 25A, the shunt resistance required is nearly orbitals for bonding (2) NaCN contains both covalent and ionic (1) 0.2 Ω (2) 0.02 bonds (3) 0.03 (4) 0.5 (3) S.I. unit of dipole moment is Debye 133. A ball A moving with a certain velocity + + collides, with another ball B of the same (4) Positive overlap: mass at rest. If the coefficient of restitution 139. Which of the following molecules has two is e, the ratio of the velocities of A and B sigma ( ) and two pi bonds? just after the collision is 1 e 1 e (1) CH24 (2) NF22 (1) (2) 1 e 2 (3) C2 H 2 Cl 2 (4) HCN 1 e 1 e (3) (4) 2 1 e
Page No.11
140. SO2 and He are kept in a container at Correct order of increasing basic strength of partial pressure P1 and P2 . A thin the base CNFandNO, 2 will be : perforation is made in the wall of the (1) FCNNO2 container and it is observed that gases (2) NOCNF effuse at the same rate. The ratio of and 2 (3) FNOCN will be 2 (4) NO F CN (1) 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 4 (3) 1 : 16 (4) 16 : 1 2 141. Which among the following contains same 149. Which among the following acts as basic number of atoms as in 10 grams of calcium? buffer ? (1) 2grams of He (2) 8grams of He (1) NaCl + NaHCO3 (3) 1 gram of He (4) 4grams of He (2) CH3COOH + CH3COONa 142. NH4Cl crystallizes in a body-centred cubic (3) C6H5NH2 + C6H5NH3+Cl- lattice with edge length of unit cell equal to (4) CH3COONH4(aq) 387 pm. If the radius of the Cl ion is 181 150. For which of the following reactions, Kp + pm, radius of NH4 ion is (assume all ions and Kc are equal ? are spherical in shape) (1) N2(g) + O2(g) ↔ 2NO(g) (1) 264.1 pm (2) 92.6 pm (2) CaCO3(s) ↔ CaO (s) + CO2(g) (3) 154.1 pm (4) 206 pm (3) N2(g) + 3H2(g) ↔ 2NH3(g) 143. Equal volumes of 0.1M AgNO3 and 0.2M (4) 2SO3(g) ↔ 2SO2(g) + O2(g) NaCl are mixed. The concentration of 151. The enthalpy of vaporization of liquid is 30 -1 NO3 ions in the mixture will be: m o l 1 (1) 0.1M (2) 0.01M (3) 0.2M (4) 0.05M kJ and entropy of vaporization is 11 144. The solubility of AgCl is highest in: 75JKmol . The boiling point of the liquid at 1 atm is (1) 0.1M NH3 (2) 0.1M NaCl (1) 250 K (2) 400 K (3) 450 K (4) 600 K (3) 0.1M BaCl (4) Water 2 152. Freshly prepared precipitate sometimes 145. At what concentration of ZnSO4, the gets converted into colloidal solution by: reduction potential of Zn electrode is (1) peptisation (2) coagulation
-0.82V (SRP of Zn electrode is -0.76V)? (3) diffusion (4) electrophoresis
(1) 1M (2) 0.1M (3) 0.05M (4) 0.01M 153. Statement-I: In froth floatation process 146. 2 litres of 1M CuSO4 solution is sodium ethyl xanthate is used as collector electrolysed. The molarity of CuSO4 Statement-II: Mond’s process is used in the solution after passing 2F of electrical charge purification of Ni is: (ignore the change in volume of (1) Statement-I is right. Statement-II is right solution) (2)Statement-I is right. Statement-II is wrong (1) 1M (2) 0.5M (3) 2M (4) 1.5M (3)Statement-I is wrong. Statement-II is right 147. For a first order reaction, A→ products, the (4)Statement-I is wrong.Statement-II is wrong rate of reaction at [A] = 0.2 M is 1.0 × 154. Which of the following polymer has ester -2 -1 -1 10 mol.L .min . The half life period for the linkage? reaction is : (1) Dacron (2) Nylon-6,6 (1) 6.56min (2) 10.45min (3) Buna-S (4) Bakelite (3) 3.86min (4) 13.86min 155. Which among the following is incorrect 148. Values of dissociation constant, Ka are statement ? given as follows : (1) reaction of glucose with Fehling’s K reagent indicates the presence of –CHO Acid a 6.2 1010 group in glucose HCN 4 (2) Aspartame is a dipeptide HF 7.2 10 (3) Sucrose is a reducing sugar 4 HNO2 4.0 10 (4) Nucleotide contains base , sugar and phosphate
Page No.12
156. Which among the following indicates the (3) CH CO22 O NO (4) C H C2 H C H O complete three dimensional structure that || O results from twisting, bending and folding 166. Kjeldahl’s method can be used to estimate of protein helix ? nitrogen present in (1) Primary structure (2) Secondary structure NO2 N = N (3) Tertiary structure (1) (2) (4) Quaternary structure NH N 157. 2 Which among the following is responsible (3) (4) to prevent rapid drying of shaving soaps? 167. Alkenes give vicinal diols when they react (1) cetyl trimethyl ammonium bromide with (2) glycerol (1) O Z n H O (2) KMnO OH (3) Butylated hydroxyl anisole 32 4 + (4) N-acetyl para amino phenol (3) K C227 r O H (4) HOBr 158. Total number of lone pair of electrons on ‘Xe’ in XeOF4 is (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3 159. Propene on hydro formylation will give a 168. compound ‘X’, which on further reduction will give compound ‘Y’, then ‘Y’ is: (1) Butan-1-ol (2) Butan-1-al (3) Propanol (4) t-Butyl alcohol (1) (2) 160. Sodium metal dissolves in liq.NH3 to form a solution which is para magnetic and also has ------colour (1) Red (2) Green (3)Nocolour (4) Blue 161. Which of the following plays an important (3) (4) role in neuromuscular function? Ph (1) Be (2) Al (3) Ba (4) Ca PhCI Heatstrong I 162. Na2 B 4 O 722 .10H 4 ONa72 B ONaBO +Y Ph heat 169. A = CH I3 ; B = ; C= . Y is 2 Correct order of reactivity towards SN (1) H B O (2) H B O (3) BH (4) BO 33 2 26 23 reaction 163. Regarding Silicone rubbers incorrect is (1) B > C > A (2) B > A > C (1) Repeating unit is RSi (3) C > A > B (4) A > B > C (2) They are hydrophobic 170. The structure of the major product formed (3) They have high tensile strength in the following reaction (4) They are condensation homo polymers 164. Colour of KI solution containing starch turns blue when chlorine water is added to it. This happens because (1) Chlorine displace iodine from solution which gives blue colour with starch (2) Chlorine reacts with potassium iodidesolution to from a blue precipitate (3) Iodine which is liberated is more soluble in KI resulting in blue colour (1) (2) (4) Chlorine acts as bleaching agent which decolourises KI and becomes blue 165. The brown haze of photochemical smog is largely attributable to: (3) (4) (1) NO (2) NO2
Page No.13
171. Which of the following gives both Tollen’s ΔHO 2 177. PbNOXNOY 3 . test and iodoform test? 2 ‘X’ is a coloured para magnetic oxide of (1) C H C H O (2) HCHO 3 nitrogen , then ‘Y’ is (3) C H65 C H O (4) C H C33 O C H (1) NO23 (2) NO24 172. Which of the following is not properly (3) NO (4) HNO matched 2 3 178. Incorrect about rhombic and monoclinic (1) C H S O C l --- Hinsberg reagent 652 sulphur (2) C r O H324 S O ---- Jone’s reagent (1) Both coexist at about 369K
(3) N a l iq N H 3 ---- Birch reagent (2) Both are soluble in CS2 (4) C H N H C r O C l ---- Lucas reagent 553 (3) Thermodynamically most stable is CHCl/FeCrOCl/CS25222 173. BenzeneAB+ . HO3 rhombic sulphur B is (4) Monoclinic sulphur is hexa atomic (1) C65 H C H O (2) C652 H C H C H O 179. Melting point is highest for (3) C65 H C O O H (4) C652 H C H C O O H 174. In the reaction, B is (1) Zn (2) Cr (3) Cu (4) Sc Red P NaOHaq CHCHCOOHAB . 180. Field strength of ligand influences crystal 32 Cl2 (1) Lactic acid (2) Alanine field splitting energy in complexes. Crystal (3) hexanoic acid (4) acrylic acid 175. The final product in the following field splitting energy Δo is highest for
sequence of reaction is 3 3 (1) CoCN (2) Co C O 6 243 3 3 (3) CoHO (4) CoNH 2 6 3 6
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
176. Which of the following cannot give benzoic acid on oxidation with alkaline KMnO4 followed by acidification
CH3 COCH3 (1) (2)
CCH CHCH 3 3 2 (3) (4)
Page No.14
NEET MODEL GRAND TEST- 2 KEY
BIOLOGY 1) 4 2) 3 3) 4 4) 1 5) 4 6) 2 7) 3 8) 1 9) 3 10) 2
11) 3 12) 4 13) 3 14) 2 15) 1 16) 3 17) 2 18) 4 19) 1 20) 1
21) 2 22) 3 23) 1 24) 4 25) 1 26) 1 27) 2 28) 1 29) 1 30) 3
31) 3 32) 1 33) 1 34) 3 35) 2 36) 3 37) 3 38) 2 39) 4 40) 3
41) 1 42) 4 43) 1 44) 2 45) 3 46) 2 47) 4 48) 3 49) 3 50) 3
51) 3 52) 1 53) 4 54) 2 55) 2 56) 2 57) 3 58) 4 59) 3 60) 2
61) 1 62) 2 63) 1 64) 1 65) 4 66) 4 67) 3 68) 1 69) 4 70) 2
71) 4 72) 1 73) 2 74) 3 75) 2 76) 1 77) 4 78) 3 79) 3 80) 2
81) 4 82) 4 83) 2 84) 2 85) 2 86) 2 87) 4 88) 3 89) 4 90) 1
PHYSICS 91) 2 92) 1 93) 3 94) 1 95) 1 96) 3 97) 2 98) 3 99) 2 100) 3
101) 3 102) 4 103) 2 104) 3 105) 2 106) 3 107) 1 108) 4 109) 4 110) 1
111) 1 112) 4 113) 3 114) 3 115) 3 116) 3 117) 1 118) 2 119) 3 120) 3
121) 4 122) 2 123) 2 124) 2 125) 2 126) 4 127) 2 128) 2 129) 1 130) 2
131) 3 132) 3 133) 4 134) 1 135) 2
CHEMISTRY
136) 1 137) 2 138) 3 139) 4 140) 1 141) 3 142) 3 143) 4 144) 1 145) 4
146) 2 147) 4 148) 3 149) 3 150) 1 151) 2 152) 1 153) 1 154) 1 155) 3
156) 3 157) 2 158) 2 159) 1 160) 4 161) 4 162) 4 163) 1 164) 1 165) 2
166) 3 167) 2 168) 1 169) 4 170) 4 171) 1 172) 4 173) 2 174) 1 175) 3
176) 3 177) 4 178) 4 179) 2 180) 1
Page No.15