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Are You Suprised ? A DAMB 721 Microbiology Exam 2A 100 points September 28, 2005 Your name: _____________________________________________ Part I. Multiple Choice: Choose the ONE BEST answer. Mark the correct answer in Part 1 of your answer sheet. 1. Of the following, which conveys the highest risk of nosocomial infection to a hospitalized patient? A. the hospital environment (rooms, floors, fomites) B. invasive medical devices (catheters, respirators, etc.) C. hospital personnel, including physicians 2. A strain of Vibrio cholerae is moved from seawater to a low salt, high pH environment where it begins to produce the cholera toxin that will cause profuse diarrhea as well as pili and outer membrane proteins that will allow the bacterium to adhere to the colon. This environmental regulation of a number of closely linked virulence genes is typical of a: A. transposon B. specialized transduction C. phage conversion D. pathogenicity island 3. Primary characteristics that are used to classify bacteria include: A. Gram stain, cell shape and cell size B. Colony morphology C. Cell surface antigens D. Nutritional requirements E. Resistance profiles 4. Bacteria are only susceptible to penicillin and other β-lactam antibiotics during this phase of their growth cyle. A. lag phase B. logarithmic phase C. stationary phase D. death phase 5. Mannitol salt agar is selective and differential for __________________. The selective component is _______________; the differential component is ________. A. Enterococcus faecalis; 7.5% sodium chloride; mannitol B. Staphylococcus aureus; 7.5% sodium chloride; mannitol C. Corynebacterium diphtheria; tellurite; mannitol D. Staphylococcus aureus; mannitol; 7.5% sodium chloride E. Streptococcus pneumoniae; optochin; α-hemolytic response 2 6. Protein A is: A. Useful for serotyping strains of Streptococcus pyogenes. B. A protein that is a virulence determinant for Staphylococcus aureus and can activate fibrinogen to cause clot formation around the bacterial cell. C. A protein that is unique to the cell surface of Staphylococcus aureus and that contributes to the virulence of the bacterium by binding the Fc region of immunoglobulins D. Toxic for white blood cells. E. The unusual capsule of S. pneumoniae. 7. The anti-microbic action of the sulfonamides is due to their molecular: A. resemblance to acyl-d-alanylalanine B. resemblance to penicillin binding proteins (PBPs) C. resemblance to para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) D. resemblance to trimethoprim 8. Dental equipment that is reusable and that penetrates tissue, bone or pulp: A. Is critical and should be disinfected with a high level disinfectant. B. Is semi-critical and should be disinfected with a low level disinfectant. C. Is critical and should be sterilized. D. Is semi-critical and should be disinfected with a high level disinfectant. E. Is semi-critical and should be sterilized. 9. OSHA regulates the following: A. Hazardous waste disposal. B. Employee Exposure to blood borne pathogens. C. Employee Exposure to hazardous chemicals. D. Both A and B. E. Both B and C. 10. Infections caused by bacteria that develop resistance to this anti-microbic are untreatable unless new anti-microbics can be developed to take its place. A. penicillin B. cephalosporin C. sulfonamide D. vancomycin 11. The following are the requirements for microbial pathogenicity: the ability to gain entry into and adhere to the host; the ability to cause damage, for example, by releasing toxins or LPS; the ability to avoid the host immune system; the ability to metabolize and replicate in the area of infection. A. The list is complete. A bacterium that could do these things could cause disease. B. The list is incomplete. A bacterium could do all of these things and still not be able to cause disease. 3 12. Prevotella sp. is (are): A. an asaccharolytic genus of periodontal pathogens B. endogenous pathogens C. a saccharolytic genus of periodontal pathogens D. resistant to most antibiotics E. pathogens for which there are special infection control requirements 13. The insoluble polysaccharide matrix of plaque is: A. fructosyl transferase catalyzing levan B. glucosyl transferase catalyzing alpha-1,3-branched mutan C. fructosyl transferase catalyzing alpha-1,3-banched glucan D. glucosyl transferase catalyzing alpha-1,6-branched mutan 14. Porphyromonas gingivalis are: A. collagenases B. invertases C. hydrolyases D. kinases 15. Which of the following statements is true of bacterial anaerobic respiration but not bacterial aerobic respiration? A. oxygen is the terminal electron acceptor B. nitrate or sulfate may be the terminal electron acceptors C. electron transport occurs in the bacterial cell membrane instead of in the mitochondrion D. is less energetic, because the electron transport chain may have fewer cytochromes and therefore fewer ATP synthetase complexes E. Both B and D. 16. Bacteria as a group produce a variety of acids, gasses, aldehydes and alcohols through fermentation reactions. The most common intermediate in these bacterial fermentation reactions is: A. pyruvate B. lactate C. ethanol D. citrate E. format 17. A form of gene transfer that requires a bacteriophage is: A. conjugation B. transduction C. transformation D. locomotion 4 18. What are Molecular Koch's Postulates trying to determine? A. the bacterium or other microorganism that is the etiologic (causative) agent of a disease B. the virulence determinant (gene) that encodes the major virulence factor of a pathogenic microorganism C. an appropriate animal model for a disease D. both A and B E. both B and C 19. What are Koch's Postulates trying to determine? A. the bacterium or other microorganism that is the etiologic (causative) agent of a disease B. the virulence determinant (gene) that encodes the major virulence factor of a pathogenic microorganism C. an appropriate animal model for a disease D. both A and B E. both B and C 20. A bacterium that undergoes a chromosomal mutation that results in the loss of the major surface antigen has undergone: A. a phage conversion B. an antigenic variation C. a phase variation D. generalized transduction 21. Some bacteria may gain a selective advantage if they have chromosomes with: 1. multiple structural genes that encode an antigen that is required for virulence; and 2. molecular mechanisms that allow them to change the structural gene that is adjacent to the promoter. This mechanism for gaining selective advantage is: A. antigenic variation B. lysogeny C. specialized transduction D. conjugation E. phage conversion 22. A form of gene transfer that requires a competent bacterial cell is: A. conjugation B. transduction C. transformation D. locomotion 5 23. The clonality of pathogenic bacteria refers to: A. the environmental regulation of genes encoding virulence factors B. the acquisition of virulence determinants encoded on extrachromosomal elements C. the infective dose of a specific species of bacteria D. opportunistic pathogens E. among a number of strains in a given bacterial species only a few will be associated with disease 24. Which of the following statements describes the way in which genes are transferred in bacterial conjugation? A. In a viral capsid B. On the plasmid carried by the male (+) donor cell. C. In specific bacteria the male (+) plasmid can integrate into the host chromosome and initiate transfer of the host chromosome to a recipient cell. D. B and C both describe ways in which genes may be transferred in bacterial conjugation. 25. The botulinum, scarlet fever and diphtheria toxins are encoded by a gene carried on a temperate bacteriophage. This type of phage conversion is also known as: A. Transformation B. Conjugation C. Specialized transduction. D. Generalized transduction. 26. The bacterium ___________ is the most frequent cause of nosocomial infections while ___________________ is the second most frequent cause. A. Staphylococcus aureus; Escherichia coli B. Escherichia coli; Enterococcus faecalis C. Enterococcus faecalis; Staphylococcus aureus D. Escherichia coli; Staphylococcus aureus 27. Which of the following anti-microbics disrupts membrane function by binding ergosterol in fungal membranes? A. chloramphenicol B. streptomycin C. the polyene, amphoteracin B D. clindamycin E. polymyxin B 28. An example of a biological vector is: A. a mosquito which harbors a pathogen during part of its life cycle. B. a medicine bottle covered with the pathogen Staph. aureus. C. a disease transmitted by an animal bite. D. a fly whose legs are covered with pathogenic bacteria 6 29. If the portal of exit and portal of entry of a disease is on the same person: A. this is an endogenous infection. B. this is evidence that the disease is spread by a fomite. C. this is evidence of spread by a biological vector. D. the individual must be immunocompromised. 30. A common portal of exit for diseases such as cholera that are spread by contaminated food and water is: A. Blood. B. Skin scales or flakes. C. Respiratory secretions. D. Fecal wastes. 31. Areas of the human body that are colonized by high levels of microorganisms (107 to 1011 per gram, cc or ml) are the: A. skin, stomach and esophagus B. kidneys, middle ear, bladder and dental pulp C. colon, dental plaque and saliva D. skin and nasopharynx 32. The kidneys, middle ear, bladder and dental pulp are areas of the human body that: A. have low levels of microorganisms, approximately103 per gram, cc or ml. B. are not colonized by normal flora and, therefore, are usually sterile C. have high levels of microorganisms, approximately >107 to 1011 per gram, cc or ml D. have medium levels of microorganisms, 104 to 107 per gram, cc or ml 33. Statement A: An endotoxin is likely to be phage or plasmid encoded. Statement B: An exotoxin is usually not heat stable. A. Statement A is true. B. Statement B is true. C. Both statements are true. D. Neither statement is true. 34. To diagnose a patient’s disease by isolating the causative agent (pathogenic microorganism) responsible, specimens are collected from the: A.
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