2019 Tnpsc Indian Polity Questions Part 1 in English 1

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2019 Tnpsc Indian Polity Questions Part 1 In English 1. Which Article of the constitution makes provision for the appointment of a law officer the attorney general by the President of India? (A) Article – 42 (B) Article – 76 (C) Article – 44 (D) Article – 153 2. Social contract theory found the support of (A) Morgan (B) Rousseau (C) Sir Hendry Maine (D) Adam Smith 3. Judicial review is an important contribution of (A) UK (B) USA (C) Germany (D) USSR 4. Match the following and answer by using the codes: (a) Article 370 1. Legislative assembly

(b) Article 153 2. Chief Minister (c) Article 163 3. Jammu and Kashmir (d) Article 170 4. Governor Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 1 4 2 3 (B) 3 1 4 2

(C) 2 4 1 3 (D) 3 4 2 1 5. The Balwantrai Mehta committee was appointed in (A) 1975 (B) 1956 (C) 1950 (D) 1992 6. Who was the true disciple of MG Ranade? (A) Tilak (B) Gokale (C) Gandhi (D) B.C. Pal 7. The teaching of ______resulted in the birth of socialist state in Russia and China. (A) J.S. Mill (B) J.A. Schumpeter (C) Karl Marx (D) Arthur Lewis 8. The General Assembly of UNO passed declaration of Human Rights on (A) December 10, 1948 (B) October 24, 1945 (C) October 24, 1947 (D) December 10, 1946

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9. Which one of the following statement is correct with regard to the qualification of the Supreme court Judge?

(A) He / She must be a citizen of India (B) He / She must have worked at least 5 years as advocate in High court (C) He / She must have worked as advocate in munsiff court (D) He / She must have attained 65 years of age 10. The maximum permissible gap between two sessions of parliament (A) 3 months (B) 4 months (C) 1 year (D) 6 months 11. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The President of India is the head of the State 2. All executive powers of the Union are vested by the President (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) 1, 2 both (D) 1, 2 both are correct 12. Assertion (A): The Vice-Presidents over the meeting of the council of States Reason (R): He is elected by the council of States (A) (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, (R) is false (D) (A) is false, (R) is true 13. Which Act introduced Dyarchy at the center? (A) Indian councils Act 1861 (B) Indian councils Act 1892 (C) Government of India Act 1935 (D) Independence Act 1947 14. In which year, name Chennai from Madras was officially changed? (A) 1990 (B) 1993 (C) 1996 (D) 1999 15. Section 13 IPL which was repealed gave the definition of (A) Queen (B) British India (C) Government of India (D) Government servant 16. Match the following: (a) Culpable hermicide 1. Sec 309

(b) Murder 2. Sec 306 (c) Abetment of suicide 3. Sec 300 Learning Leads To Ruling Page 2 of 43 Indian Polity Prepared By www.winmeen.com

(d) Attempt to commit suicide 4. Sec 299 (a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 4 3 2 1 (B) 1 2 3 4 (C) 2 1 4 3 (D) 3 4 1 2 17. In case of Kidnapping, a minor male means a person of age under (A) 18 years (B) 16 years (C) 21 years (D) 20 years 18. A holds Z down and fraudulently takes Z’s jewels. What offence A has committed?

(A) Theft (B) Robbery (C) Extortion (D) Dacoity 19. Criminal breach of trust by clerk or servant is dealt in sec ______of IPC (A) 407 (B) 406 (C) 408 (D) 409 20. Six persons were charged under Sec 302, Sec 149 of IPC, two were acquisted the remaining four cannot be convicted under (A) Sec 302 (B) Sec 149 (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Sec 300 21. Match the following: (a) Criminal Trespass 1. S. 445 (b) House Trespass 2. S. 443 (c) Lurking House Trespass 3. S. 442 (d) House – Breaking 4. S. 441

(a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 4 3 2 1 (B) 1 2 3 4 (C) 2 4 1 3 (D) 3 1 4 2 22. As per sec. 397 of IPC, punishment for robbery or dacoity with attempt to cause death or grievous hurt is (A) Imprisonment shall not be less than 5 years (B) Imprisonment shall not be less than 3 years Learning Leads To Ruling Page 3 of 43 Indian Polity Prepared By www.winmeen.com

(C) Imprisonment shall not be less than 5 years and fine up Rs. 5, 000 (D) Imprisonment shall not be less than 7 years 23. Match List I with List II:

List I List II (a) Burden of Proof 1. Sec 75 (b) Primary Evidence 2. Sec 133 (c) Private Documents 3. Sec 101 (d) Accomplice 4. Sec 62 (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 2 3 1 4

(B) 3 4 1 2 (C) 4 3 2 1 (D) 1 2 4 3 24. Privileged communications during marriage is dealt in (A) Section 122 IEA (B) Section 123 IEA (C) Section 112 IEA (D) Section 113 IEA 25. The commissioner of Police is empowered to order the investigation by the police in the following cases (A) All cognizable offences (B) All non-cognizable offences (C) Private complaint cases (U/sec 200 CrPC) (D) Human Rights – Violation cases 26. Which provision states that a private person may be arrested without a warrant? (A) Section 43 (1) CrPC (B) Section 33 (1) CrPC (C) Section 44 (1) CrPC (D) Section 32 (1) CrPC 27. Find out the Wrong Match: (i) Sec-200 – Examination of Complainant (ii) Sec-313 – Examination of Accused (iii) Sec-53 – Examination of Accused by Doctor

(iv) Sec-54 – Examination of Victim (A) (iii) only (B) (iv) only (C) (i) only (D) (ii) only Learning Leads To Ruling Page 4 of 43 Indian Polity Prepared By www.winmeen.com

28. Opinions of Expert are relevant under ______Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (A) Sec 45 (B) Sec 48 (C) Sec 49 (D) Sec 47 29. Find out the correct matches: (i) Section 228 Cr.PC – Framing of Charge (ii) Section 227 Cr.PC – Discharge (iii) Section 232 Cr.PC – Acquittal (iv) Section 236 Cr.PC – Previous Acquittal (A) (i), (ii) only (B) (ii), (iii) only (C) (i), (ii), (iii) only (D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) 30. Mallela Shyamsundar v. state of A.P. is related to

(A) Relevancy of fact (B) Dying declaration (C) Hearsay evidence (D) Oral evidence 31. Communication made ‘without’ prejudice are protected under ______of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (A) Sec 22 (B) Sec 23 (C) Sec 24 (D) Sec 21 32. Which section is defined ‘Admission’ under the Indian Evidence Act (A) Section 16 (B) Section 17 (C) Section 18 (D) Section 19 33. The offence is tried by the High Court Under Section 474 Cr.P.C. The High Court observe the same procedure as a court of session and may pass the order of

(A) Sentence authorized by law (B) Sentence authorized by law, except death sentence (C) Sentence authorized by law, except death and life sentence (D) Sentence authorized by law, buy any sentence of death shall be subject to confirmation by the Supreme Court 34. Article 17 of the Indian Constitution deals with (A) Untouchability (B) Poverty (C) Women (D) Children 35. Which one of the following in Our Constitution is similar to that of the United States of America (A) Rigid Constitution (B) Fundamental Rights (C) Directive principles (D) Rule of Law

36. Under these,

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A pre-constitution law inconsistent with a fundamental rights becomes void. (i) Only after commencement of the constitution (ii) From the date of its enactment (A) (i) only (B) (ii) only (C) (i) and (ii) (D) Neither (i) nor (ii) 37. Choose the case law which is NOT connected with Protection of Human Rights (A) Prithipal Singh V State of Punjab (B) Hussainara Khatoon V State of Bihar (C) Sheela Bharse V Children’s Aid Society (D) P.A. Sangma V Pranab Mukherjee 38. Executive power of the union is vested in (A) Union cabinet (B) President of India (C) Prime Minister (D) Council of Ministers 39. The right to poverty was removed from the list of fundamental rights by the (A) 46th Amendment Act 1982 (B) 42nd Amendment Act 1976 (C) 44th Amendment Act 1978 (D) 47th Amendment Act 1987 40. “The State Government cannot avoid their constitutional obligation to provide free legal services to the poor accused by pleasing financial or administration inability” – Dealt in the case.

(A) Khatri – Vs – State of Bihar (B) Hussainara Khotoon – Vs – State of Bhiar (C) Prem Sankar – Vs – Delhi Administration (D) Menaka Gandhi – Vs – union of India 41. “Every award of the Lokadalat shall be deemed to be a decree of a Civil Court” – It is dealt under section ______of Legal Services Authority Act, 1987. (A) Section 20 (B) Section 21(1) (C) Section 21(2) (D) Section 22

42. The Traffic Committee in a District under the Tamil Nadu open places (Prevention of Disfiguremnet) Act, 1959 consist of (A) One women member (B) Two women members (C) Three women members (D) Four women members

43. The term “Thandal” is defined under Section ______of the TN. prohibition of charging Exorbitant Interest Act, 2003.

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(A) Section 2(8) (B) Section 2(9) (C) Section 2(10) (D) Section 2(11) 44. The punishment for being found in a state of intoxication is dealt under section ______of the TN. Prohibition Act, 1937. (A) Section 4 A (B) Section 5 A (C) Section 6 A (D) Section 7 A 45. The preservation and deposit of kidneys removed from dead bodies under the Tamil Nadu Kidneys (Authority for use for Therapeutic Purpose) Act, 1987 is dealt in (A) Section 8 (B) Section 9 (C) Section 10 (D) Section 11 46. The term “Private Clinical Establishment” is defined under section ______of the Tamil Nadu Private Clinical Establishment (Regulation) Act, 1997. (A) Section 2(b) (B) Section 2(d) (C) Section 2(c) (D) Section 2(e) 47. Section 2(5) of the Tamil Nadu Prohibition of charging Exorbitant Interest Act, 2003 defines about (A) Kandhu Vatti (B) Meter Vatti (C) Hourly Vatti (D) Loan 48. Match the following: Principal Legislation Amendments (a) The Child Labour Act 1. 2007 (b) The Copy Right Act 2. 1986 (c) The Dowry Prohibition Act 3. 2012 (d) The Electricity Act 4. 2016 (a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 4 3 2 1 (B) 1 2 3 4 (C) 1 3 2 4 (D) 4 2 3 1 49. “Intoxicating Drugs” is defined under Section ______of The T.N. Prohibition Act 1937. (A) Section 3(7) A (B) Section 3(7) (C) Section 3(8) (D) Section 3(8) A 50. Consider the statement: (i) Untouchability was abolished under Article 17 of the Indian Constitution. (ii) Article 17 of Constitution does not define the word ‘Untouchability’. (A) Statement (i) is correct (B) Statement (ii) is correct (C) Statement (i) is correct but (ii) is incorrect (D) Both statement are correct

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51. The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act 2013 came in to force on (A) 02.04.2013 (B) 03.05.2013 (C) 04.06.2013 (D) 05.07.2013 52. Counterfeiting currency notes or bank notes is dealt in (A) Section 231 IPC (B) Section 232 IPC (C) Section 489 IPC (D) None of these 53. A person whose trees were hanging dangerously over the roof of his neighbour’s premises is a Public Nuisence under the Indian Penal Code. This was held in the case

(A) Jayakrishna Panigrahi vs Hrushikesh Panda (B) Dr. Meera v State (C) Dr.Agarwal v State of Tamil Nadu (D) X v Hospital Z 54. A puts jewels of her into a box belonging to B with the intention that the circumstances may cause B to be convicted of theft. What offence has been committed? (A) Fraud (B) Giving False evidence (C) Fabricating False evidence (D) None of the above 55. Match the following: (a) Accident 1. Sec.82 (b) Trafling acts 2. Sec.80 (c) Child under 7 years 3. Sec.95 (d) Unsound mind 4. Sec.84 a b c d (A) 2 3 1 4 (B) 1 2 4 3 (C) 3 1 4 2

(D) 4 3 1 2 56. What is the minimum number of persons required to constitute Dacoity? (A) Three (B) Four (C) Five (D) Six 57. Under Indian Penal Code, the number of remedies available for “Private Nuisance” is (A) One remedy only (B) Two remedies only Learning Leads To Ruling Page 8 of 43 Indian Polity Prepared By www.winmeen.com

(C) Three remedies only (D) No remedy 58. The case law of state of Maharashtra Vs Mayer Hans George comer under which provision of IPC? (A) Section 2 (B) Section 3 (C) Section 4 (D) Section 5 59. Under Indian Penal Code to file a charge under unlawful assembly Under Sec 141 the minimum number of person involved is (A) Seven (B) Ten (C) Five (D) Two 60. As per section 320, of IPC, how many kinds of hurt are designated as grievous? (A) Five (B) Seven (C) Eight (D) Ten 61. “Public Nuisance” under the Indian Penal Code is dealt in section (A) Section 265 (B) Section 266 (C) Section 267 (D) Section 268 62. A enters into B’s house through a window, what offence he had made out? (A) House Trespass (B) House breaking (C) Criminal trespass (D) Lurking House trespass 63. What are the rules of pleading? i. A pleading must state acts and not law ii. The legal pleas such as estoppel, limitation and resjuidicata may be pleaded iii. Allegations in anticipation of the opponent’s answer may be pleaded iv. Legal interferences should be pleaded (A) i and iii (B) iii and iv (C) ii and iii (D) ii and iv 64. Section 41, I.E.A deals with

(A) Judgments in Personam (B) Judgments in Rem (C) Res Judicata (D) Double Jeopardy 65. Which of the following section(s) of the IEA deal with latent ambiguity? (A) Section 94 (B) Section 95 (C) Section 96 (D) Both (B) and (C) 66. Any confession made to a police is (A) Totally inadmissible (B) Totally admissible

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(A) Dying declaration (B) Post-mortem (C) Time of death (D) Death certificate 68. Dying declaration can be made through signs and gestures was stated in which case? (A) Muniappan vs State Madras (B) Kanwal vs State of Punjab (C) Queen vs Abdulla (D) Avtar Kumar vs State of Orissa 69. Admissibility of electronic records is dealt in (A) Section 65 B (B) Section 120 B (C) Section 67 B (D) Section 69 B 70. The state government is required to exercise It’s power of Remission and commutation of sentence in CBI investigated cases (A) After consultation with the central government under section 433 of Cr.P.C (B) After consultation with the central government under section 433 (A) of Cr.P.C (C) After consultation with the central government under section 435 Cr.P.C (D) After consultation with the central government under section 432 of Cr.P.C 71. Section 5 A of the cinematography Act, 1952 deals about (A) Certification of Film (B) Advisory board (C) Examination of Film (D) Punishment 72. Scandalous questions is related to which provision under the IEA (A) Section 149 (B) Section 150 (C) Section 151 (D) Section 152 73. Any person aggrieved by an award of the motor accident claims tribunal can prefer an appeal to the (A) High court (B) Supreme court (C) District court (D) Sessions court

74. “The members of Lok Adalat are Public Servants” it is dealt in section ______of the legal services authorities act, 1987 (A) Section 23 (B) Section 24 (C) Section 25 (D) Section 26 75. President can remove the chairman of Human Right Commission for the reasons provided under ______of protection of Human Right (Amendment) Act 2006 (A) Section 5 (3) (B) Section 6(3) (C) Section 12 (D) Section 18 76. The case that dealt about chakma refugees is

(A) National Human Right Commission Vs State of Arunachal Pradesh (B) Louis De Raedt Vs Union of India

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(C) Krishna singh Vs State (D) Indian Express newspaper Vs Union of India 77. Which fundamental rights cannot be suspended during national emergency? (A) Art 22 (B) Art. 19 (C) Art 14 (D) Art 21 78. As per the protection of Human rights act, which court in a district acts as human rights court? (A) Small cause court (B) Court of appeal (C) Court of session (D) Munsif court 79. The proximity test was held in the case of (A) Booker V.Wenborn (B) Rylands V.Fletcher

(C) Vaughan V.Menlove (D) Donaghue V.Stevenson 80. Vincent Vs Union of India recognizes ______as a fundamental right (A) Right of HIV persons (B) Right to health (C) Noise pollution (D) Right to reputation 81. This authority is empowered to constitute “Claims Tribunal” under the motor vehicle act 1988 (A) Appropriate government (B) Road transport authority (C) State government (D) Central government

82. The dramatic work under the copyrights act defined under section (A) Section 2 (g) (B) Section 2 (h) (C) Section 2 (i) (D) Section 2 (j) 83. The punishment for publishing or transmitting obscene material in electronic form under the information technology act, 2000 is dealt under section

(A) Section 88-A (B) Section 66-B (C) Section 66-C (D) Section 67 84. Section 10 of the Railway property (Unlawful possession) Act, 1966 deals about (A) Issue of search warrant (B) Power of forfeiture (C) Disposal of person arrested (D) Offences under this Act 85. The imprisonment of owning or keeping of a gaming House under the Public gaming Act, 1867 for a term not exceeding (A) One month (B) Two month (C) Three months (D) Six month 86. Section 18 of the Tamil Nadu Prohibition Act 1937 deals about (A) License for import Learning Leads To Ruling Page 11 of 43 Indian Polity Prepared By www.winmeen.com

(B) License for export (C) License for bonafide medical purpose (D) License for manufacture of non-potable liquor 87. The order to pay compensation under the Tamil Nadu property (Prevention of Damage and loss) Act 1992 is delt under section (A) Section 7 (B) Section 6 (C) Section 5 (D) Section 4 88. The Tamil Nadu Prohibition of charging Exorbitant Interest Act, 2003 come in to force on

(A) 09.06.2003 (B) 09.07.2003 (C) 09.08.2003 (D) 09.09.2003 89. As per the prevention of Damage to Public Property Act, 1984 “Public Property” includes, property owned by i. Central Government ii. State Government iii. Company iv. Corporation Choose the correct answer from codes given below: (A) i only is correct (B) i and ii are correct (C) i, ii and iii are correct (D) i, ii and iv are correct 90. The Child Welfare Officer is defined under section ______of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act 2015 (A) Section 2(14) (B) Section 2 (15) (C) Section 2 (16) (D) Section 2 (17) 91. Which division of the constitution of India explains the right against exploitation? (A) 14-18 (B) 19-22 (C) 25-28 (D) 23-24 92. The period during which the governor of state acts as the real of the executive is (A) Budgetary session (B) Convening of state legislature (C) During emergencies (D) During election 93. The Department of Border management is a department of which one of the following union ministries? (A) Ministry of External Affairs (B) Ministry of Home Affairs (C) Ministry of Environment and Forests (D) Ministry of Defence

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94. Find out the wrongly matched from the following: (A) Prohibition of Discrimination on grounds of religion, race, - Article 15 caste, sex or place of birth (B) Right to association - Article19 (C) Right to Protection of Life - Article 14 (D) Right to constitutional Remedies - Article 32 95. Match the institutions with the Articles of the Indian Constitution (a) Comptroller and Auditor General of India 1. Art.315 (b) Finance Commission 2. Art.280

(c) Administrative Tribunals 3. Art. 148 (d) Union Public Service Commission 4. Art 323 (A) Codes: a b c d (A) 3 4 2 1 (B) 1 2 4 3 (C) 3 2 4 1 (D) 1 4 2 3 96. The separate communal electorates was introduced in India for the first time under the Act of (A) Govt. of India Act, 1909 (B) Govt. of India Act, 1919 (C) Govt. of India Act, 1935 (D) Indian Independence Act, 1947 97. Who among the following have not held the office of the Vice-President of India? (A) Mohammad Hidayatullah (B) Fakrudhin Ali Ahmed (C) V.V.Giri (D) Shankar Dayal Sharma 98. The body that elects the Indian President is (A) Parliament (B) Judiciary (C) Electoral College (D) Legislative assembly 99. In 1917, the South Indian Liberal Federation came to be known as (A) Dravida Kazhagam (B) Women Improvement League Learning Leads To Ruling Page 13 of 43 Indian Polity Prepared By www.winmeen.com

(C) Justice party (D) Minority United League 100. Which is wrong statement about “Rule of Law”? (A) All are equal before the law (B) Legal spirit (C) Law is supremacy (D) Special status to officials 101. Which one of the following feature is NOT in the Parliamentary systems? (A) Majority party rule (B) Leadership of Prime Minister (C) Dissolution of Lower House (D) Single executive 102. Dr. P. V. Rajamannar Committee, was set up in 1969 (A) To review the Centre – State relations (B) To study the Kashmir issue

(C) To study the Indo-Srilankan issue (D) To review defence administration 103. Which one of the following functions is NOT performed by District Collector? (A) Maintenance of Law and Order (B) Collection of land revenue (C) Dispensation of Justice (D) Social Welfare 104. Since 1993 Collegium System in India is a search committee for (A) Appointment Vice Chancellors in University (B) Appointing judges in Supreme Court and High Court (C) Appointing health administrators (D) Appointing Directors in Welfare Board 105. Which is the first federal foray into water pollution? (A) Federal Water Pollution Control Act of 1948 (B) Federal Act of India 1960 (C) Federal Water Act 1945 (D) Federal Act of 1950 106. When was the Indian Independence Act passed by the British parliament? (A) June 28, 1947 (B) July 18, 1947 (C) August 15, 1947 (D) July 4, 1947 107. Article 51(A) of the Indian Constitution deals (A) Fundamental Rights (B) Fundamental Duties (C) Directive principles of State Policy (D) Amendment of the Constitution 108. Which article of the Indian Constitution granted powers to the President of India to nominate two members from Anglo-Indian community to Lok Sabha?

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(A) Article 335 (B) Article 336 (C) Article 331 (D) Article 334 109. The concept of Judicial review was borrowed from (A) USA (B) U.K (C) France (D) Australia 110. Match the following study teams with suitable options: List I (Study team) List II (Chairman) (a) Study team on Panchayat raj Administration 1. G.R.Raj Gopal (b) Study team on Nyaya Panchayats 2. R.R.Diwakar (c) Study team on Panchayat raj Fiances 3. K.Santhanam (d) Study team on the position of gram Sabha in 4. V.Iswaran panchayat raj movement a b c d (A) 1 2 3 4

(A) Arvind Panagariya (B) Nitin Katkari (C) Sushma Swaraj (D) Manohar Parikar 113. Which is the headquarters of Central Zonal Council? (A) New Delhi (B) Kolkatta (C) Allahabad (D) Mumbai 114. How many members were nominated by the British in the Cabinet Mission in 1946? (A) Five Members (B) Six Members (C) Four Members (D) Three Members 115. Which Article of the Indian Constitution says that the ‘State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six fourteen years in such a manner as the state may determine”? (A) 21 (B) 21A (C) 22 (D) 22A 116. The 59th Amendment Act, 1988 provided that necessary restrictions could be imposed on (A) Liberty of individual and life (B) Economic rights (C) Cultural rights (D) Religious rights Learning Leads To Ruling Page 15 of 43 Indian Polity Prepared By www.winmeen.com

117. The number of Benches of Central Administrative Tribunal in India is (A) 15 (B) 17 (C) 19 (D) 21 118. Fifth General Elections was held on

(A) 1971 (B) 1972 (C) 1973 (D) 1974 119. Which one of the following pair is not correctly matched? (A) Art. 280 - Finance Commission (B) Art. 315 - UPSC (C) Art. 324 - Election Commission (D) Art. 328 - National Commission for SC 120. Who was the first Chairperson on National Commission for women? (A) Jayanti Patnaik (B) Mohini Giri (C) Poornima Advani (D) Girija Vyas 121. 42nd Amendment Act of the Indian Constitution was enacted in the year (A) 1972 (B) 1974 (C) 1976 (D) 1977 122. Rajya Sabha consists of ______members. (A) 220 (B) 230 (C) 250 (D) 200 123. Who appoints Central Vigilance commissioner?

(A) Vice President (B) President (C) Parliament (D) Chief Justice 124. The Supreme Court of India is located in (A) Mumbai (B) Chennai (C) Delhi (D) Kolkata 125. The 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 deal with (A) Anti-Detection Law (B) Election Methods (C) Election Reforms (D) Election Campaign 126. One-third of the members of the Rajya Sabha retire after every (A) One Year (B) Two Year (C) Three Year (D) Four Year 127. Match the following: (a) Budget session 1. Lok Sabha (b) Monsoon session 2. February (c) Money bill 3. July Learning Leads To Ruling Page 16 of 43 Indian Polity Prepared By www.winmeen.com

(d) Winter session 4. November a b c d (A) 2 3 1 4 (B) 3 4 2 1 (C) 2 1 3 4 (D) 4 3 2 1 128. In which year was Panchayat Raj system introduced in Tamil Nadu? (A) 1993 (B) 1992 (C) 1994 (D) 1958 129. Which Amendment Right to property abolished by the Indian Constitution?

(A) 42nd (B) 43rd (C) 45th (D) 44th 130. Constitution of India Classified the Fundamental Rights as follows (A) Six (B) Four (C) Five (D) Seven 131. Arrange the following items according to the chronological order of Election Commission I. Electronic voting II. Rajya Sabha Election were reformed III. Election expenditure was Increased

IV. Voting right to citizens of India Living abroad (A) I, II, III, IV (B) IV, I, II, III (C) I, II, IV, III (D) III, I, II, IV 132. Assertion (A): Indian parliament has a bicameral legislature Reason (R): Lok Sabha is the Lower house and Rajya Sabha is the Upper House

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A0 and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true (R) is false (D) (A) is false (R) is true 133. Which one of the following is incorrectly paired? (A) Federal System - Supremacy of the Central Government (B) Written Constitution - Rules are written down in a document (C) Parliamentary form of Government - Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha (D) Right to Equality - Fundamental right

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134. Who is the chair-person of Niti Aayog? (A) President (B) Prime Minister (C) Vice President (D) Supreme Court Judge 135. Rajya Sabha consists of (A) 220 members (B) 230 members (C) 234 members (D) 250 members 136. The Judges were elected by the people in (A) France (B) Canada (C) Australia (D) England 137. A Judge of High court shall hold office until the age of (A) 58 (B) 60 (C) 62 (D) 65 138. Money Bills can be delayed by the Rajya Sabha only for

(A) 30 days (B) 20 days (C) 14 Days (D) 7 Days 139. The status of the chief election commissioner of India equivalent to that of the (A) High Court Judge (B) Supreme Court Judge (C) Cabinet Minister (D) District Judge 140. Consider the following statement. Fundamental duties: 1. Have always been a part of Constitution of India 2. Have been added through an amendment

3. Are mandatory of all citizens of India Which of these statements is/are correct (A) 1 and 3 (B) 1 alone (C) 2 alone (d) 2 and 3 141. Who was the first woman president of Indian National Congress? (A) Sarojini Naidu (B) Sucheta Kripalini (C) Annie Besant (D) Vijayalakshmi Pandit 142. Who presides over the meetings of Rajya Sabha? (A) Speaker (B) Vice President (C) President (D) Prime minister 143. Which Article permits separate constitution for the state of Jammu and Kashmir? (A) Article 360 (B) Article 390 (C) Article 370 (D) Article 152 144. Who said “Judges” elected by people at large is without exception the worst? (A) Laski (B) Garner (C) Finer (D) David Easten Learning Leads To Ruling Page 18 of 43 Indian Polity Prepared By www.winmeen.com

145. Which of the following is a feature of the parliamentary systems? (A) The president is the real executive (B) Individual responsibility (C) Collective responsibility (D) Powerful Judiciary 146. When had been Electronic voting machines introduced in India?

147. In the Parliamentary form of Government the members of the council of ministers are collectively responsible to

(A) The Head of the state

(B) The Chairman of the upper House and the speaker of the lower House

(D) The Prime Minister

148. Who was the Chairman of the Nehru Report Committee?

(A) G.R.Das (B) Pandit Motilal Nehru

149. Who initiated the preamble objectives resolution?

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru (B) B.N.Rau

150. Match the following with

Committees Heads

(a) Economic reforms commissions, 1983 1. Soli Sarabji

(b) Police Act Draft Committee, 2005 2. Ashok Mehta

(d) The Commission on Centre-State Relations, 1983 4. L.K.Jha

a b c d

(A) 3 1 2 4

(B) 4 1 2 3

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(D) 1 3 4 2

151. Which article grantee constitutional safeguard to civil servants?

(A) Article 300 (B) Article 311 (C) Article 327 (D) Article 326

152. Which one of the following bills must be passed by each house of the Indian Parliament separated by special majority?

(A) Constitution Amendment Bill (B) Money Bill

153. Who was elected as the President of the Madras Congress Committee in 1922?

(A) Rajaji (B) Kamaraj (C) E.V.Ramaswamy (D) Sathyamoorthy

154. Which one of the following is not a feature of Federal government?

(A) Written Constitution (B) Independent Judiciary

155. What is the time limit to furnish information under Right to Information, Act?

(A) 7 Days (B) 10 Days (C) 14 Days (D) 30 Days

156. Which of the following article is related to the provision of Financial Emergency?

(A) Article 352 (B) Article 360 (C) Article 357 (D) Article 356

157. District Judges are appointed by

(A) Governor (B) Chief Minister (C) President (D) Prime Minister

158. The distribution of powers between the centre and the states in the Indian constitution is based on

(A) Minto Morley reforms, 1909 (B) Montegu, Chelmsford Act 1919

159. When was the food Corporation of India setup?

(A) January 14th – 1965 (B) April 2nd – 1950

160. The first woman lawyer who became the Judge of the supreme court of India is

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(A) Rosemary (B) Anita Gupta (C) Indu Malhotra (D) Preeti Singh

161. Which part of constitution of India deals with state Government?

(A) Fifth (B) Sixth (C) Fourth (D) Third

162. In a parliamentary system of Government the executive is collectively responsible to the

(A) Prime Minister (B) Judiciary (C) President (D) Parliament

163. The Amendment of the constitution which enumerates the fundamental duties of the citizen?

(A) 42 (B) 45 (C) 48 (D) 52

164. Which country is not a communist country?

(A) Japan (B) China (C) Cuba (D) North Korea

165. Zero-Hour is in practice since

166. In which day Ramnath Govinth took charge in President of India?

(A) May 25, 2017 (B) June 15, 2017 (C) July 15, 2017 (D) July 25, 2017

167. The Forests conservation Act was passed in the year

168. To introduce money bill in parliament, prior permission of ______is needed

(A) Prime Minister (B) President

169. The Governor is appointed by the

(A) Prime Minister (B) Chief Minister (C) President (D) Cabinet

170. Ordinances are passed by

(A) Chief Minister (B) Governor (C) Prime Minister (D) State Legislature

171. In which year the Government of India has declared Tamil as the “First classical language?”

172. Rajya Sabha is also called as the ______house of the parliament

(A) Upper House (B) Lower house (C) Middle house (D) Total house Learning Leads To Ruling Page 21 of 43 Indian Polity Prepared By www.winmeen.com

173. In which year NITI Aayog organization established?

174. According to NITI Aayog report, which state use land water more than the required?

(A) Kerala (B) Tamil Nadu (C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Madhya Pradesh

175. When did the Prime Minister of India inaugurate the country’s longest rail-cum-road-bridge built over the Brahamaputra river Bogibeel near Dibrugarh in Assam?

(A) On November 25, 2018 (B) On December 25, 2018

176. Which of the following statements about the first amendment to the constitution is are true?

I. The first amendment was enacted in 1952

II. The first amendment was enacted before the first general elections.

III. It was enacted by the provisional parliament

(A) I and II are true (B) II and III are true

177. The financial control exercised by the Parliament over the executive through

(A) The comptroller and Auditing General of India (B) The Auditor General

178. The comptroller and Auditor General is appointed by the President of India under Which Article

(A) Article 162 (B) Article 148 (C) Article 153 (D) Article 174

179. Consider the following statements:

1. Article 308 to 314 of the constitution with regard to the All India services

2. Article 308 exclusively apply to the Jammu and Kashmir

3. The Parliament has enacted the All India Services Act in 1952

4. Article 312 empowers the Parliament to create new All India Services

Choose the correct answer:

(A) 1 and 4 (B) 2 only (C) 4 only (D) 4 and 3

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180. Article ______was inserted into the constitution under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment.

(A) 245 B (B) 244 B (C) 243 B (D) 242 B

181. Who among the following was the Cabinet Minister without portfolio?

(A) C. Rajagopalachari (B) T. T. Krishnamachari

182. Which one of the following statement is not with regard to powers of the Parliament?

(A) Parliament can approve three types of emergency provisions

(B) It cannot abolish State Legislative Council

(D) It can establish a common High Court for two or more states

183. Jallikattu, the bull taming sport of Tamil Culture and tradition is protected according to article ______of the constitution of India.

(A) 29 (1) (B) 39 (1) (C) 49 (1) (D) 59 (1)

184. Who headed provincial constitution committee of constituent assembly?

(A) J. B. Kirpalani (B) H. C. Mukherjee (C) A. V. Thakkar (D) Sardar Vallabai Patel

185. Who among the following was not a member of Drafting committee?

(A) K. M. Munshi (B) Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar

186. I. The constitution is a source of, and not an exercise of, legislative power;

II. Constitution springs from a belief in limited Government

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) I only (B) II only (C) Both I and II (D) Neither I nor II

187. Which committee was appointed in 1986 to deal with “Revitalisation of Panchayat Raj institution for democracy and development?”

(A) Ashok Mehta Committee (B) G.V.K. Rao Committee

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188. The sequence in which the given terms are mentioned in the preamble to the constitution of India is:

(A) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic

(B) Socialist, Secular, Sovereign, Democratic, Republic

(D) Sovereign, Democratic, Secular, Socialist, Republic

189. When was Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana Gramin was established?

(A) April 2016 (B) April 2017 (C) April 2018 (D) April 2015

190. Match the following:

Schedule Subject

(a) First Schedule 1. Division of powers between union and states

(b) Eleventh Schedule 2. Languages

(d) Eighth Schedule 4. Panchayats

a b c d

(A) 3 4 1 2

(B) 1 3 4 2

(D) 3 1 4 2

191. Match the following:

Person Eminent field/designation

(a) Abid Hussain 1. Former Attorney General of India

(b) K.Parasaran 2. Former Ambassador of India to the USA

(d) K.Punniya 4. Former Secretary General Lok Sabha

a b c d

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(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 4 2 1 3

(D) 2 1 4 3

192. Consider the following statements, find the “wrong” one

1. Section 377 of the IPC recently reported in the news is associated with Lesbian, Gay, Bisexual, Transgender and Queer (LGBTQ) Rights

2. Joseph shine Vs union of India is the case related to 497 of the IPC.

3. Indian Young Lawyers association Vs state of Kerala is related to women Rights.

4. Yashwant Vs State of Maharashtra is the case associated with Right to education.

(A) 4 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 4 and 3 only (D) 1 only

193. The Prime Minister of India announced the Havelock Island in Andaman and Nicobar renamed as

(A) Netaji Subash Chandra Bose Island (B) Shaheed Dweep Island

194. Which one of the following concept is not Rule of Law?

(A) Natural justice (B) Fair play (C) Equity (D) Judicial equality

195. The Judiciary was separated from the Executive under which article

(A) Article 50 (B) Article 64 (C) Article 60 (D) Article 51

196. The Government of India issued the citizenship (Pondicherry) order in the year

197. The Essence of “Judicial Activism” is an

(A) Active Justice delivery system (B) Active Implementation of Rule of law

198. Balwant Rai Mehta committee in its report suggested

(A) Three Tier System (B) One Tier System

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199. Name the Prime Minister when for the first time the No-Confidence was moved in the Parliament?

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru (B) Lal Bahadur Shastri

200. Which of the following statements regarding the fundamental duties contained in the constitution of India are correct?

I. Fundamental Duties have formed apart of the Constitution of India since its adoption

II. Fundamental Duties are applicable only to the Citizen of India

III. Fundamental Duties have become a part of the Constitution of India in Accordance with the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee

IV. Fundamental duties can be enforced through writ jurisdiction

(A) I, II and III Correct (B) I, II and IV Correct

201. The mandate of the official language commission under Art 344 is/are

1. The progressive use of Hindi language for official purpose of the union

2. Restriction on the use of the English language for the official purpose of the union

Choose the correct statement(s):

(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2

202. The words “Socialist” and “Secular” were added to the preamble of Indian constitution by

(A) The constitution (First Amendment) Act 1950

(B) The Constitution (Sixteenth Amendment) Act 1963

(D) The Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act 1976

203. In which of the Industrial Policy Resolution (IPR) the establishment of socialistic pattern of society was adopted?

(A) Industrial Policy Resolution of 1948 (B) Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956

204. Which of the following group constituted the State Reorganisation Commission?

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(A) Pannikar, Fazil Ali, Katju (B) Fazl Ali, Pannikkar, kunzru

205. Who is the head of the three-members Lokayukta search committee?

(A) Thiru. K. Venkatraman (B) Thiru. K. Chanduru

206. For which country Prime Minister of India announced Rs.4,500 crore for hydropower projects 2018?

(A) Nepal (B) Pakistan (C) Bhutan (D) Sri Lanka

207. Which of the following part of the Constitution deals with the fundamental duties?

(A) IV A (B) XIV A (C) IX A (D) X A

208. Match List I (Fundamental Rights) with List II Articles of Indian constitution:

List I List II

(a) Right to Equality 1. Article 14-18

(b) Right to Freedom 2. Article 25

(d) Right to constitution remedies 4. Article 19

a b c d

(A) 1 3 2 4

(B) 2 4 1 3

(D) 2 3 1 4

209. The Chairman and the members of National Human Rights Commission are appointed by the President and the recommendation of the Committee which consist of ______members

(A) Five Members (B) Six Members (C) Ten Members (D) Eighteen Members

210. NABARD was established on the recommendation of

(A) Public Account Committee (B) Shivaraman Committee

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211. NDC refers to

(A) National Defence Council (B) National Demographic Commission

212. India’s first full time Women Defence Minister, who took the charges on September 2017 is

(A) Ms. Nirmala Sitharaman (B) Ms. Indira Gandhi

213. The first women President of Singapore selected in Sep 2017 is

(A) Ms. Halimah Yacob (B) Ms.Jean Yip

214. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment states that the appointment of the same person as a governor for two or more states?

(A) 7th Constitutional Amendment (B) 12th Constitutional Amendment

215. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment provided Delhi a special status?

(A) 42nd Amendment (B) 54th Amendment

216. In which year the constituent assembly elected its permanent Chairman?

217. Which of the following cases deals with the Fundamental Duties?

(A) Kesavanandha Bharathi Case (B) Ramsharan Case

218. Untouchability has been abolished by the constitution of India under

(A) Article 14 (B) Article 15 (C) Article 16 (D) Article 17

219. Match List I with List II:

List I List II

Councils Members

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(a) National Planning Council 1. Prime Minister, Chief Ministers and Central Ministers

(b) National Development Council 2. Secientist, Engineers, Economist and other Experts

(d) Planning Commission of India 4. Leading Economist and Research Scientist

a b c d (A) 2 1 4 3 (B) 4 3 2 1 (C) 2 3 1 4 (D) 2 1 3 4

220. Which year MTNL was set up by the Government of India? (A) 1985 (B) 1986 (C) 1987 (D) 1988 221. Who was sworn in as Chief Minister of Manipur on March 15, 2017? (A) Nongthombam Biren Singh (B) Raj Kumar Ranbir Singh (C) Okram Ibobi Singh (D) Raj Kumar Jaichandra Singh 222. Which one of the following is not a federal feature? (A) Dual Government (B) Division of Powers

(C) Rigid Constitution (D) Single Citizenship 223. The Minimum support prices in India are recommended by (A) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

(B) Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) (C) NITI AAYOG (D) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) 224. Match the following using codes below:

Name of the commission Ministry (a) Central Information Commission 1. Ministry of women and child development (b) Finance commission 2. Ministry of social justice empowerment (c) National commission for women 3. Ministry of finance

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(d) National commission for SC 4. Ministry of personnel a b c d

(A) 4 3 1 2 (B) 3 4 2 1 (C) 1 2 3 4 (D) 2 1 4 3 225. Assertion (A) : Women who have been married to Indian citizen can acquire Indian citizenship by means of Registration Reason (R): Citizenship Act was enacted in the year 1956 by Indian parliament (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, (R) is false (D) (A) is false, (R) is true 226. Rajya Sabha has the power to create an All India Service through a resolution supported by ______majority (A) ½ (B) 1/3rd (C) 1/4th (D) 2/3rd 227. Which of the following article authorizes parliaments to form a new state? (A) Article 2 (B) Article 3 (C) Article 4 (D) Article 5 228. How many political parties were recognized as the national parties after the first general elections, 1952? (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6 229. The constitution of Jammu and Kashmir came into force on (A) 31 October 1951 (B) 26 January 1952 (C) 26 January 1955 (D) 26 January 1957 230. The parliament passed the administrative tribunals act in (A) 1982 (B) 1983 (C) 1984 (D) 1985 231. Which of the following is correct regarding human rights 1. Universal declaration of human rights proclaimed on 10 December 1948 2. National Human Rights Commission came into existence in 1993 3. The chairman should be a retired chief justice of India

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4. The chairman and members hold office for a term of 5 years or until they attain the age of 70 years (A) 1, 2, and 3 (B) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 3 232. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer: List I (Lok Sabha Elections) List II (Year) (a) Sixth General Elections 1. 1991 (b) Tenth General Elections 2. 1998 (c) Twelfth General Elections 3. 2004 (d) Fourteenth General Elections 4. 1977 a b c d (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 4 1 3 2 (C) 4 1 2 3 (D) 1 4 3 2 233. Which Amendment Act provided for the disqualification of the members of parliament and state legislatures on the ground of defection from one political part to another (A) 52nd Amendment Act (B) 62nd Amendment Act (C) 42nd Amendment Act (D) 73rd Amendment Act 234. Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the parliament to legislate on a matter of the state list in the national interest? (A) Article 246 (B) Article 247 (C) Article 248 (D) Article 249 235. Which of the following committee is not a standing committee of the parliament? (A) Public Accounts Committee (B) Consultative Committee to the Ministry of Finance (C) Estimates Committee (D) Committee on Public undertaking 236. Total number of beneficiaries, acquired ownership rights due to the land reform legislations in India was (A) 29 Lakh (B) 30 Lakh (C) 62 Lakh (D) 32 Lakh

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237. The Government of India constituted a five member Public Sector Disinvestment Commission in August 1996. Chairman of the Commission was (A) C. Rangarajan (B) P. Chidambaram (C) G. V. Ramakrsihna (D) C. P. Chandrasekhar 238. Which of the following pair is wrongly matched? (A) National Development Council - Non Constitutional Body (B) National Human Rights Commission - Non Constitutional Body

(C) Finance Commission - Non Constitutional Body (D) Central Bureau of Investigation - Non Constitutional Body 239. The Niti Aayog is a (A) Constitutional body (B) Statutory Body (C) Executive Body (D) Sovereign Body 240. Which one of the following pair is correctly matched?

(A) Vohra Committee - 1993 (B) Indirajit Gupta Committee - 1992 (C) Law Commission - 1997 (D) Dinesh Goswami Committee - 1994 241. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Panchayat? (A) VIII (B) IX (C) X (D) XI 242. Which act provided for the setting up of permanent Lok Adalat?

(A) Legal services Authorities Act, 1987 (B) 89th Constitutional Amendment Act (C) Nyaya panchayats Act (D) Panchayat Raj Act 243. Which of the following is the largest committee of the Parliament? (A) Public Accounts Committee (B) Estimates Committee (C) Public Undertakings Committee (D) Petitions Committee 244. Match the following:

Committee Section (a) Sachar Committee 1. Amendments in MRTP Act (b) Basel Committee 2. Small Scale Indutries Learning Leads To Ruling Page 32 of 43 Indian Polity Prepared By www.winmeen.com

(A) 1 3 4 2 (B) 2 4 3 1 (C) 1 4 3 2 (D) 2 1 4 3 245. How many Dravindian languages are referred in Eighth Schedule of Indian Constitution? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 246. When does India observe its constitution day? (A) 26th January (B) 26th August (C) 26th November (D) 26th December 247. The constitution of India came into Force (A) 1950 January 26 (B) 1947 January 25 (C) 1949 November 24 (D) 1945 November 26 248. Which part of the Indian Constitution consists of Fundamental Rights? (A) Part IV (B) Part V (C) Part VI (D) Part III 249. Raja Sabha consists of not more than ______members (A) 240 (B) 250 (C) 237 (D) 268 250. The three British Cabinet members of the Cabinet Mission 1946 (A) Pathick Lawrence, Sir Stafford Cripps, A. V. Alexander (B) A. V. Alexander, Sir Staffor Cripps, Mountbatten (C) Mountbatten, Pathick Lawerence, A. V. Alexander (D) Sir Stafford Cripps, Pathick Lawerence, Mountbatten 251. In 2018, Who is appointed a a chairman of Public Accounts Committee (PAC) of parliament? (A) Kuruppassery Varkey Thomas (B) Buta Singh (C) N.Janardhana Reddy (D) Mallikarjun Kharge 252. Match the following: List I (Founded) List II (Year)

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(a) The nature conservancy 1. 1967 (b) Environmental defence 2. 1971 (c) Natural resources defence 3. 1951 (d) Green peace 4. 1970 a b c d (A) 3 1 4 2 (B) 2 3 1 4 (C) 3 4 2 1 (D) 4 3 1 2

253. Who was the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly? (A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (C) Jawaharlal Nehru (D) Gandhiji 254. How many times does the parliament meet in a year normally? (A) 4 Times (B) 2 Times (C) 1 Times (D) 3 Times 255. How many days money bills can be delayed by the Rajya Sabha (A) 11 Days (B) 12 Days (C) 14 Days (D) 13 Days

256. The people of India are given fundamental rights by which of the following (A) Parliament (B) Government (C) Constitution (D) Judiciary 257. The National Human Rights Commission was constitution in (A) 1990 (B) 1993 (C) 1998 (D) 1997 258. India is a ______state (A) Islamic (B) Secular (C) Hindu (D) Christian 259. The ______amendment of the constitution enumerates the fundamental duties of the citizens. (A) III A (B) IV A (C) IV B (D) V A 260. Prime Minister Nehru as chairperson “The National Planning Commission” was established on (A) 15 March 1948 (B) 15 March 1950 (C) 15 August 1948 (D) 15 August 1950 261. Which Amendment also known as the “Nager Palika Act” – provides for setting up three types municipal bodies?

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(A) 73rd Amendment (B) 74th Amendment (C) 75th Amendment (D) 76th Amendment 262. Jammu and Kashmir which has a separates constitution for its Government under Article (A) Article 337 (B) Article 370 (C) Article 356 (D) Article 351 263. The Chairman of the Drafting committee of the Indian Constitution (A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (C) Jawaharlal Nehru (D) Mahatma Gandhi 264. The Balwantrai Mehta Committee was appointed in (A) 1955 (B) 1954 (C) 1951 (D) 1956 265. Article ______of the constitution grants rights to minorities to establish educational institutions.

(A) 40 (B) 30 (C) 50 (D) 60 266. How many Union Territories are in India? (A) 7 (B) 6 (C) 5 (D) 4 267. In which two consecutive years, Subash Chandra Bose was the President of the Indian National Congress? (A) 1938 and 1939 (B) 1939 and 1940 (C) 1940 and 1942 (D) 1937 and 1938 268. Who was the General Secretary of the Congress Socialist Party? (A) E.M.S. Nambudri (B) Rammurti (C) Jai Prakash Narasin (D) S.M.Joshi 269. How many members are nominated by the President of India for Rajya Saba? (A) 2 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 12 270. In which year the Legislative council of Tamil Nadu was abolished?

(A) 1985 (B) 1986 (C) 1987 (D) 1988 271. To define “Poverty Line” in India The Seventh Finance Commission used a concept called (A) The above poverty line (B) The augmented poverty line (C) The below poverty line (D) The family planning 272. Universal Primary Education aimed at achievement of education for all class covering

(A) VI – X (B) I – V (C) XI – XII (D) VI – XII 273. Given below the Prime Ministers who decided to implement the Mandal Commission report?

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(A) V.P. Singh (B) Morarji Desai (C) Rajiv Gandhi (D) Indra Gandhi 274. Who was sworn in Malasia’s Seventh Prime Minister on May 2018? (A) Mr. Najib Razak (B) Mr. Mahathir Mohamad (C) Mr. Justin Trudeau (D) Mr.Lee Hsien Loong 275. A member of a state public Service Commission can be appointed and removed by respectively by (A) Governor, Governor (B) Governor, President (C) President, Governor (D) President, President 276. What is the age qualification for a member of District Panchayat? (A) 21 (B) 25 (C) 30 (D) 35 277. The Panchayat Raj was Inaugurated by (A) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru (B) Rajaji (C) Gandhiji (D) Subash Chandra Bose 278. Who is the Head of the Planning Commission in India? (A) President (B) Vice President (C) Prime Minister (D) Supreme Court Judge 279. The permanent members of the security council in UNO are (A) 10 (B) 15 (C) 12 (D) 5 280. The right to property has been abolished by the amendment of

(A) 41 (B) 42 (C) 43 (D) 44 281. An adult is defined as one in the age group (A) 14-35 (B) 15-35 (C) 16-35 (D) 17-35 282. By which Act the two Indians were appointed to the India council in England? (A) Indian Councils Act of 1861 (B) Indian Councils Act of 1892 (C) Minto-Morley Reforms of 1909 (D) Montague-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 283. The election process in the state level is supervised by (A) Chief Election Commissioner (B) Chief Electoral Officer (C) Supreme Court Judge (D) High Court Judge

284. The Constituent Assembly took the following time in preparing the constitution (A) Two years, eleven months, eighteen days (B) Two years, eight months, eleven days Learning Leads To Ruling Page 36 of 43 Indian Polity Prepared By www.winmeen.com

(C) Two years, eleven months, eight days (D) Two years, eleven months, eleven days 285. Which of the following not included in right to freedom? (A) Speech and expression (B) To adopt any profession on trade (C) Assemble peacefully without arms (D) Practice own religion and conserve own culture 286. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The term of office of the Governor is five years 2. He can remain in office till his successor enters upon the office of the Governor

(A) only 1 (B) only 2 (C) 1, 2 both (D) 1, 2 both are incorrect 287. The tenure of members of legislative council is (A) 5 Years (B) 1 Years (C) 2 Years (D) 6 Years 288. Match the following: (a) The communal G.O 1. 1924 (b) The Staff Selection Board 2. 1922 (c) State Aid to industries Act 3. 1929

(d) Annamalai University Established 4. 1921 a b c d (A) 3 4 1 2 (B) 4 2 3 1 (C) 1 2 3 4 (D) 4 1 2 3 289. Pick out the wrong statement about justice party i. The precursor of the justice party was the Madras United league ii. In 1917 the South Indian Liberal Federation was formed iii. The South Indian Liberal federation published an Tamil newspaper called justice. iv. In 1944 the justice party conference was held in salem. (A) i only (B) ii and iii only (C) i and iv only (D) iii and iv only Learning Leads To Ruling Page 37 of 43 Indian Polity Prepared By www.winmeen.com

290. When was the All India Trade Union Congress established at Bombay? (A) 1929 (B) 1925 (C) 1928 (D) 1939 291. Who has appointed as Rajya Sabha TV Editor-in Chief? (A) Rahul Mahajan (B) Karan Johar (C) Krushna Abhishek (D) Arnab Gowsami 292. Rajya Sabha consists of ______members. (A) 220 (B) 229 (C) 210 (D) 250 293. How many village panchayat in Tamil Nadu? (A) 498 (B) 1104 (C) 385 (D) 12619 294. Whose report is hailed as the ‘Magna Carta’ of the Panchayat Raj System?

(A) Ashok Mehta Committee (B) Gorwala Committee (C) Balwantrai Mehta Committee (D) Tarkunde Committee 295. Indian constitution came into force on (A) 15th August 1947 (B) 30th October 1948 (C) 15th January 1950 (D) 26th January 1950 296. Who appoints the Governor of a State? (A) Prime Minister (B) President (C) Chief Minister (D) High Court 297. Who is the Political head of the Corporation?

(A) Chairman (B) Mayor (C) Commissioner (D) Councillor 298. The branch of Madras High Court was started at Madurai in the year (A) 2001 (B) 2002 (C) 2004 (D) 2003 299. In which year Indian Universities Act was passed (A) 1904 (B) 1903 (C) 1902 (D) 1901 300. Consider statement and reason, choose the correct answer from the codes below: Assertion (A): Federal state is guided by strong desire for national unity. Reason (R) : It is developed out of necessity for union of independent states. (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true 301. According to the citizenship Act of 1955 how many ways have been prescribed for acquiring citizenship? Learning Leads To Ruling Page 38 of 43 Indian Polity Prepared By www.winmeen.com

(A) 4 (four) (B) 5 (five) (C) 6 (six) (D) 7 (seven) 302. Which are the articles come under the Right to freedom of Religion? (A) Articles 19-25 (B) Articles 23-24 (C) Articles 25-28 (D) Articles 29-30 303. The salary and other perks of comptroller and auditor general of India is equated with the salary of (A) The Governor of the State (B) The Secretary of the Union Secretoriate (C) The Judge of the High Court (D) The Judge of the Supreme Court 304. In which way the process are shared between the state government and the central government in Inda? (A) List system (B) Decentralisation (C) Party system (D) Understanding between control and state governments 305. Assertion (A) : Each State is headed by a Governor Reason (R) : The Governor is elected by the Electoral college consisting of the elected members of the State legislative Assembly (A) (A) and (R) are True. (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is True, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true 306. According to the 73rd Amendment Act, Which specifies what amount of population of a state may not constitute Panchayat at intermediate level (Panchayat Samithi) (A) Less than 5 lakh (B) Less than 10 lakh (C) Less than 15 lakh (D) Less than 20 lakh 307. Which of the following is true about the constitution of India? (A) Adopted on November 26, 1949 and enacted on Jan.26, 1950 (B) Adopted on Jan.1949 and enacted in Nov. 26 1950 (C) Adopted an enacted on Jan. 26 1950 (D) Adopted and enacted Nov. 26 1950 308. Who is the Ex-Officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha? (A) President (B) Vice-President (C) Deputy Chairman (D) Speaker 309. Match the List I with List II:

Learning Leads To Ruling Page 39 of 43 Indian Polity Prepared By www.winmeen.com

List I List II (a) Members of Finance Commission 1. Article 324 (b) Members of Finance Commission 2. Article 338 (c) Member of UPSC 3. Article 316 (d) Member of SC/ST Commision 4. Article 280

a b c d

(A) 4 1 2 3

(B) 4 1 3 2

(D) 3 2 4 1

310. Assertion (A) : The president of India is the excepting head of the state.

Reason (R) : He is the Suprem Commander of the defence forces.

(A) (A) and (R) are true (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (D) (A) is true, but (R) is false

311. In case of Lok Sabha, the quorum to constitute a sitting of House is

(A) One-Tenth of the Total membership (B) One-Fifth of the Total membership

312. Which statement is correct for Indian planning commission?

I. It is not defined in Indian constitution

II. Members and Vice-Chairman of it do not have fixed working duration

III. Members do not require any minimum education

IV. Vice-Chairman should be appointed by the Prime Minister

(A) I and II (B) I and III (C) I, II, III and IV (D) I and IV

313. Right to Privacy is a fundamental right, belongs to which of the following article.

(A) Part III of Constitution article from 12 to 35 (B) Article 393

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314. In which one of the following electors participate in government indirectly?

(A) Direct Democracy (B) Monarchy

315. In which year right to property has been abolished?

316. Where is the Internatinal court of the Justice Located?

(A) China (B) America (C) Netherland (D) Finland

317. Dual party system in ____

(A) India (B) America (C) France (D) British and America

318. Who is the finance minister of the India in year 2018

(A) ARUN JAITLEY (B) SUSHMA SWARAJ

319. In which year nutrition export committee of ICMR prescribed calorie requirement for IRM and IRW?

320. Identify the incorrect pair

(A) Secretary of State for India - 1858

(B) Legislative councils established in the provinces - 1892

(D) Introduction of provincial Autonomy - 1935

321. Every state has a chief electoral officer. They are appointed by the

(A) President (B) Chief Election commissioner

322. Which Article of the constitution guarantees seven freedoms for the citizens?

(A) Article 15 (B) Article 16 (C) Article 18 (D) Article 19

323. Under which Article, the Governor can promulgate ordinance when the state legislature is not in session? Learning Leads To Ruling Page 41 of 43 Indian Polity Prepared By www.winmeen.com

(A) Article 356 (B) Article 213 (C) Article 153 (D) Article 163

324. The Panchayat Raj was inaugurated in the year

(A) October 2nd 1956 (B) October 2nd 1959

325. Who was the chairman of the drafting committee of the constituent assembly?

(A) Thiru. C. Rajagopalachari (B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

326. The spirit of laws published in the year

(A) 1948 (B) 1848 (C) 1748 (D) 1648 327. First amendment to the fundamental rights for social reservation policies to the state was brought by (A) V.V.Subramaniya Iyear (B) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

(C) Mahatma Gandhi (D) Dr.Muthulakshmi 328. Who is the External affairs minister of India in 2019? (A) Sushma swaraj (B) Venkaiya (C) Arun Jately (D) Narendra Modi 329. The comptroller and auditor general of India is (A) Venkatesh Mohan (B) Anita Pattanayak (C) Vinod Rai (D) Rajiv Mehrishi 330. The head quarter of UNICEF is (A) New York (B) Vienna (C) Geneva (D) India 331. Which act empowered the constituent Assembly a fully ‘Sovereign body’? (A) Government of India Act of 1919 (B) Indian Independence Act of 1947 (C) Government of India Act of 1935 (D) Indian Councils Act of 1909 332. Which of the following are the federal features of the Indian Constitution? 1. Rigid Constitution 2. Bicameral Legislaure 3. Office of the CAG 4. Collective responsibility Learning Leads To Ruling Page 42 of 43 Indian Polity Prepared By www.winmeen.com

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 4 (C) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 3 333. In 1993 the seventy fourth Amendment Act says Municipalities handled ______subjects (A) 18 (B) 20 (C) 22 (D) 24 334. Which article of the constitution of India deals with the Administrative tribunals? (A) Article 322 (B) Article 323 (C) Article 323-A (D) Article 324-B 335. Which of the following state has a separate constitution of its own? (A) Karnataka (B) Jammu and Kashmir (C) Arunachal Pradesh (D) Sikkim 336. How many recognized political parties were in India during 1952 elections? (A) 4 (B) 12 (C) 14 (D) 16

337. Who is the chairman of NITI Aayog? (A) V.K.Saraswt (B) Narendra Modi (C) Arvind panagariya (D) Bibek Debroy 338. After India’s independence as a part of land reforms the actual abolition of intermediaries started with enactment of legislation in (A) Assam (B) Bengal (C) Gujarat (D) Madras 339. Which court declared “Right to privacy of Fundamental Right”? (A) High court of Allahabad (B) Madras High Court (C) High Court of Jammu and Kashmir (D) Supreme Court of India 340. State Information Commission was created by (A) Right to Information Act, 2005 (B) Information Technology Act, 2000 (C) Whistle Blowers Protection Act, 2011 (D) Sashastra Seema Bal Act, 2007

341. Which one of the following state is not a having bicameral legislature? (A) Madhya Pradesh (B) Uttar Pradesh (C) Bihar (D) Karnataka 342. Comptroller and Auditor General Retirement Age is

(A) 60 (B) 62 (C) 65 (D) 70 343. Which part of the Constitution deals with official languages? (A) Part XVII (B) Part XIV (C) Part XVI (D) Part IV-A 344. The PESA act was enacted in the year (A) 2015 (B) 2016 (C) 1996 (D) 2018

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