BPSCNotes Mock Test-9
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BPSCNotes Mock Test-9
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No negative marking 1. Who is considered as the 'founder of muslim rule' in India? 1 / 1
A) Mohammad Bin Qasim
B) Mahmud Ghaznavi
C) Mohammad Ghori
D) Qutubuddin Aibak
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-C The foundation of Muslim rule in India was laid by Mohammad Ghori towards the close of the 12th century A.D. However, long before that Muslims had started making attempts to enter India.
The Erst such attempt was made in the middle of the 7th century A.D. which however, proved a failure in 711-713 A.D. the Arabs under Muhammad- bin-Qasim, nephew of the Governor of Basra attacked India and conquered Sindh and Multan.
The next attempt to capture India was made by the Turks of Ghazni. Subuktgin and his son Mahmud (995—1030) attacked Punjab which was then ruled by the Shahi dynasty. Subuktgin defeated the Shahi ruler Jaipal and deprived him of his trans Indus territory. The rest of the territories of Jaipal were wrested by his son Mahmud.
The credit for laying Erm foundation of the Muslim rule in India goes to Mohammad Ghori. Ghori seized the throne of Ghazni in 1173.
After the death of Ghori, his Viceroy Kutub- ud-Din Aibak set up Slave dynasty in India. Kutub-ud-Din ruled India for four years and greatly extended the conquests made by Mohammad Ghori with the assistance of Mohammad Bakhtiyar Khilji. He brought the whole of northern India under his control.
Add individual feedback 2. Which of following Sultan of Delhi Sultanate to issue tanka & 1 / 1 jital and to declare Delhi as the capital of his empire?
A) Balban
B) Aram Shah
C) Nasiruddin Mahmud
D) IIitutmish
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-D
Iltutumish was from the Illabari tribe of the Turks. He was the son–in–law of Aibak and succeeded him as the next Sultan of Delhi. He is credited with building the Hauz-i- Shamshi near Mahrauli in Delhi. He also completed the work on Qutub Minaar which was started by his predecessor.
He also introduced the Iqta system in Delhi sultanate which was a practice of tax farming. Under Iqta system, an o[cer was given grant of revenue from a territory in lieu of salary. However, Iqta system wasnot hereditary. The Iqta system connected the farthest part of the Sultanate to the central government.
He is credited with issuing Silver Tanka and Copper Jital. The silver tanka had the weight of 175 grains.
During the reign of Iltutmish, the Mongols had attacked India under Chengez Khan. But they soon left India and moved towards Multan, Sind and Qabacha.
Add individual feedback 3. Who among the following took the title of 'Zil-i-Ilahi'? 1 / 1
A) Masud Shah
B) Ghiyasuddin Balban
C) Alauddin Khilji
D) Iltutmish
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-B
Ghiyasuddin Balban: = His original name was Ulugh Khan. = He called himself as Naib-i- Khudai, i.e Deputy of God. = He was a member of Chalisa. = He demolished the Mewatis (the bandits). = He gave the theory of kingship by introducing the concept of Zil-i-Ilahi, i.e. shadow of God on earth. = He liquidated the Chalisa group. = He started the tradition of Sijda (prostration) and Paibos (kissing of feet). = He introduced Persian festival of Nauroz. = He separated Diwan-i-Wizarat (Ministry of Finance) and created a new ministry called Diwan-i-Arz (military department). During his reign the famous governor of Bengal Tughril Khan revolted. Balban moved in person and brutally suppressed the revolt. = He followed the policy of Blood and Iron. = Amir Khusro and Amir Hasan both started their literary journey from the court of Balban. = Balban was to nominate Kai Khusro as his successor but Kaikubad usurped the throne.
Add individual feedback 4. Who created a new department called Diwan-i-Mustakhraj? 0 / 1
A) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
B) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq
C) Alauddin Khilji
D) Firoz Shah
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
C) Alauddin Khilji
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Ans-c
The Highlights of Alauddin Khilji’s Rule
• He introduced Dagh and Chehra during his rule. Dagh is the system of branding the horses and Chehra was related to the biometric information about soldiers. • He treated his nobles with an iron hand. He forbade them to marry among each other’s families. • Diwan-i-Mustakhraj was introduced by Allauddin Khilji to know and collect the revenue arrears. • He also set up separate markets for food grains and cloths etc. Diwan-i-riyasat and Shahna-i-Mandi were created by him to control the markets. • The espionage system was strengthened. Alauddin was the Erst sultan of Delhi to have a standing army. • The Iqta system introduced by Iltutmish, was abolished by Alauddin and the salary was paid to soldiers in cash.
Alauddin died in 1316 AD amid chaos within the empire. His sons were not capable enough to carry out his legacy. Alauddin was a strong and capable ruler of India.
Add individual feedback 5. The poet who was in the court of more than 7 sultans- 1 / 1
A) ) Amir Khusru
B) Barauni
C) Firadausi
D) Isami
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-A
Amir Khusro: Amir Khusrow was a SuE mystic and a spiritual disciple of Nizamuddin Auliya. He lived for 72 years, out of which 60 years he lived in the courts of as many as ten different rulers of the Delhi Sultanate. He was a poet as well as proliEc musician.
His Khaliq-e-bari, which is known as oldest printed dictionary of the world deals with Hindi and Persian words. He is regarded as the “father of qawwali”. He is also credited with enriching Indian classical music by introducing Persian and Arabic elements in it, and was the originator of the khayal and tarana styles of music.
Add individual feedback 6. Name the Sultan of Delhi Sultanate who established four new 0 / 1 towns, Firuzabad, Fatebabad, Jaunpur and Hissar.
A) Muhammad Shah Tughlaq
B) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
C) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
D) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq II
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
B) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
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Ans-B Firoz Shah Tughlaq(1351-1388 AD)
= He was a cousin of Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq. After his death the nobles and the theologians of the court selected Firoz Shah as the next Sultan. = Established of Diwan-i-Khairat (department for poor and needy people) and Diwan-l-Bundagan (department of slaves) = Making Iqtadari system hereditary. = Construction of canals for irrigation from: >Yamuna to the city of Hissar >From the Sutlej to the Ghaggar >From the Ghaggar to Firuzabad >From Mandvi and Sirmour Hills to Hansi in Haryana.
= Establishment of four new towns, Firuzabad, Fatebabad, Jaunpur and Hissar. = He rebuilt two storeys of QutubMinar which were damaged by lightening in 1368 AD
Add individual feedback 7. Which of the following is not correctly matched? 0 / 1
A) Diwan-i-wizarat : Department of Finance
B) Diwan-i-Ariz : Military Department
C) Diwan-i-Riyasat : Department of Commerce
D) Diwan-i-Kohi : Department of Agriculture
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-E) None All are correctly matched
Add individual feedback 8. Moth Ki Masjid is a heritage building located in Delhi, and 0 / 1 was built in 1505 by ______, Prime Minister of Sikandar Lodhi.
A) Wazir Miya
B) Ziauddin Barani
C) Abu Bakr
D) Malik Kafur
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
A) Wazir Miya
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Ans-A Moth Ki Masjid is a heritage building located in Delhi, and was built in 1505 by Wazir Miya Bhoiya, Prime Minister during the reign of Sikander Lodi of the Lodi dynasty. It was a new type of mosque developed by the Lodis in the fourth city of the medieval Delhi of the Delhi Sultanate. The Moth ki Masjid or the Masjid Moth which literally means Lentil Mosque
Add individual feedback 9. Who built the Brihadeeswarar Temple in Thanjavur which is 1 / 1 one of the largest Hindu temples?
A) Arinjaya Chola
B) Sundara Chola
C) Rajaraja Chola I
D) Gandaraditya Chola
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-C)
The Cholas: The decline of the Pallavas in the 9th century created a political vacuum which was Elled by the Cholas. Vijayalaya Chola (846-907 AD): He was a vassal of the Pallavas. He captured Tanjore from the Pandyas and made it the capital of the Cholas.
Aditya I (871-907 AD): Extended the work of Vijayalaya by occupying the territories from the Pallavas.
Parantaka Chola I (907-955 AD): Was the Erst imperial Chola. He defeated the Pandyans and Shrilankans initially but was later defeated by the Rashtrakuta king Krishna III. This loss undermined the glory of the Cholas and they entered a dark phase of thirty years from 955 AD – 985 AD.
Raja Raja Chola I (907-1014 AD): Orchestrated the resurgence of the Cholas. He defeated the Pandyans and the Cheras. In 993 AD when Cheras sought support from the Sri Lankan rulers, the Cholas captured the northern portion of Sri Lanka and the capital-Anuradhapura was captured and they also raided another capital Polonnaruwa. Northern Sri Lanka was organized in the form of a province. Raja Raja Chola is also said to have captured the Laccadive islands and Maldives Islands. He also captured a few territories in Mysore from the Gangas and from the Chalukyas of Kalyani, although he maintained friendly relations with Chalukyas of Vengi.
Raja Raja I developed the naval strength of the Cholas
He re-organised the administrative system
In 1000 Ad he began the conduction of a land survey
He adopted the practice of inscribing the historical inscriptions
He began the practice of associating Yuvaraja or crown Prince with the administration
Raja Raja I being a patron of Shaivism constructed the great Raja Rajeshwar temple (Also called as the Brihadeeswarar temple) at Tanjore.
Add individual feedback 10. ______is a love affair of a rich merchant with the daughter 1 / 1 of a courtesan.
A) Brahmasidhanta
B) Laghubhaskarya
C) Mrichchakatika
D) Malavikagnimitra
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-c “Mrichchhakatika” an ancient Indian book written by shudraka deals with the love affair of a rich merchant with the daughter of a courtesan.
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11. The silver coins of the Gupta period were known as— 1 / 1
(a) Dinar,
(b) Rupyaka,
(c) Satamana,
(d) Karsharpana
(e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-B) Rupyaka
Add individual feedback 12. Which of the following is not correctly matched? 1 / 1
A) Ritusamhar ; Kalidasa
B) Mudrarakshasa : Visakhadatta
C) Mrichchhakatika : Vishnu Sharma
D) Kamasutra : Vatsyayan
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-C)
Mrichchhakatika is written by Sudraka
Add individual feedback 13. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding 1 / 1 Sangam literature?
A) The Sangam literature describes many kings and dynasties of South India.
B) The Sangam literature describes many kings and dynasties of North India.
C) Poetic compilations by group of poets of different times patronised by many chiefs and kings are, called Sangama.
D) The Sangam literature consists of short and long poems which were composed by a large number of poets in praise of their kings.
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-B
The Sangam literature, describes many kings and dynasties of South India. Poetic compilations by group of poets of different times patronised by many chiefs and kings are, called Sangama. These are, in all, 30,000 lines of poetry arranged in two main groups, Patinenkilkanakku and the Pattupattu. The Sangam literature consists of short and long poems which were composed by a large number of poets in praise of their kings
Add individual feedback 14. On the bank of which river Pulakesin II defeated 1 / 1 Harshavardhana?
A) Tapti
B) Narmada
C) Krishna
D) Godavari
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-B Chalukya king Pulakesin II had defeated Harshavardhan on the banks of River Narmada in 618 AD. Pulakeshin, who ruled from the Chalukyan capitalof Badami, challenged Harsha's conquests. The former had established himself as 'lord paramount' of the south, as Harsha had of the north.
Add individual feedback 15. Who assumed the title of 'Vatapikonda' ? 1 / 1
A) Pulakesin II
B) Mahendravarman I
C) Narshimavarman I
D) Shashanka
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-c
Narasimhavarman I was the son and successor of Mahendravarman I. He had surpassed his father in all respects. His military achievements as well as his contribution to the art and architecture are commendable.
The Pallava-Chalukya conpict had continued during this period Narasimhavarman I had defeated the Chalukyan ruler Pulakesin II at Manimangalam. Then, he marched with his army towards the Chalukyan kingdom. The commander in chief of the Pallava army was Paranjothi. Pulakesin II was defeated and killed in the battle. The Chalukyan capital Vaathapi was set to Ere and destroyed. After this victory, Narasimhavarman I had assumed the title Vaathapi Kondan.
Add individual feedback 16. Who was the founder of Satvahana dynasty? 1 / 1
A) Vasudeva
B) Hala
C) Satakarni I
D) Simuka
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-D
Simuka was the founder of the Satavahana Dynasty and he is believed to have destroyed the Shunga Power. He did so with the aid of the Rathikas and Bhojakas. He reigned for around 23 years and was beheaded by his brother Kanha, who succeeded him.
The coins issued by Satavahanas had Bilingual legends. The name of the Kings was mentioned in Prakrit as well as some south Indian Language.
Satkarni-I or Sri Satkarni was son of Simuka and was a great ruler among the Early Satavahana. Naganika was the name of his queen and he has been described as the Lord of Dakshinpatha.
Satkarni II was the longest ruling king of the Satavahana Dynasty and date of his accession is considered to be 166 BC. He has been mentioned in the Hathigumpha inscription of the kharvela, in which he is depicted as enemy of Kharvela.
Hala was one more great king of the Satavahanas who was 17th King of the Satavahana line. He had compiled the “Gatha saptasati” or Gaha Sattasai which mainly a text on love theme. Gatha saptasati is in Prakrat.
Add individual feedback 17.Who was the chairman of 3rd Buddhist Council? 0 / 1
A) Sabbakami
B) Mogaliputra Tissa
C) Mahakasappa
D) Vasumitra
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
B) Mogaliputra Tissa
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Ans-B Third Buddhist Council (250 BC) Place: Pataliputra (Bihar) King: Ashoka Chairmanship: MoggaliputtaTissa Development: The third Pitak-Abhidhamma pitaka was compiled
Add individual feedback 18. Which of the following ancient treaty that talks about 1 / 1 overthrowing of Nandas by the Chandragupta Maurya?
A) Kathasaritasagara
B) Brihadkatha Manjari
C) Mudrarakshasa
D) Rajatrangini
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-C The Mudrarakshasa is a Sanskrit-language play by Vishakhadatta that narrates the ascent of the king Chandragupta Maurya to power in India. The play is an example of creative writing, but not entirely Ectional. It is dated variously from the late 4th century to the 8th century CE. Author: Vishakhadatta
Add individual feedback 19. In the post-Vedic period which of the following varnas 0 / 1 strongly reacted against the domination of Brahmanas?
A) Shudra
B) Kshatriya
C) Rulers of that time
D) Vaisyas
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
B) Kshatriya
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Ans-B
Naturally, the varna-divided society seems to have generated tensions. We have no means to End out the reactions of the Vaisyas and the Sudras. The kshatriyas, who acted as rulers, however, reacted strongly against the ritualistic domination of the Brahmanas, and seem to have led a kind of protest movement against the importance attached to birth in the varna system. The kshatriya reaction against the domination of the priestly class called Brahmanas, who planned various privileges, was one of the causes of the origin of new religions. Vardhamana
Mahavira, who founded Jainism, and Gautama Buddha, who founded Buddhism, belonged to the kshatriya clan, and both disputed the authority of the brahmans.
Add individual feedback 20. The Indus Valley site not present in India - 1 / 1
A) Lothal
B) Banawali
C) Rakhigarhi
D) Daimabad
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-E) none Lothal- Gujarat Banawali- Haryana Rakhigarhi- Haryana Daimabad- Maharashtra
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21. Who has sworn in as the mrst woman advocate to directly 1 / 1 become a Judge of the Supreme Court?
A) Anita Barnwal
B) Vinita Grover
C) Ranjita Bisht
D) Indu Malhotra
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-D) Indu Malhotra Overall, she became seventh woman judge in SC, since it was established 67 years ago. In 1989, Justice M. Fathima Beevi became Erst woman judge in Supreme Court.
Add individual feedback 22. Union Cabinet has given its approval for declaration of 0 / 1 Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule in which state?
A) Gujarat
B) Rajasthan
C) Odisha
D) Bihar
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
B) Rajasthan
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Ans-B
The Union Cabinet Chaired by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi has given approval to the declaration of Scheduled Areas in respect of Rajasthan under Fifth Schedule to the Constitution of India by rescinding the Constitution Order (C.O.)114 dated 12th February 1981 and promulgation of a new Constitution Order. The promulgation of new C.O. will ensure that the Scheduled Tribes of Rajasthan will get beneEts of protective measures available under the Fifth Schedule to the Constitution of India.
As per paragraph 6(1) of the Fifth Schedule {Article 244(1)} to the Constitution of India, the expression 'Scheduled Areas' means ‘such areas as the President may by order declare to be Scheduled Areas'. In accordance with the provisions of paragraph 6(2) of the Fifth Schedule to the Constitution, the President may at any time by order increase the area of any Scheduled Area in a State after consultation with the Governor of that State; rescind, in relation to any State or States, any order or orders made under this paragraph, and in consultation with the Governor of the State concerned, make fresh orders redeEning the areas which are to be Scheduled Areas.
The Scheduled Areas were Erst notiEed in the year 1950. Subsequently, Constitution Orders specifying the Scheduled Areas were issued for State of Rajasthan in1981. Due to re- organization/creation of new districts and changes in population of Scheduled Tribes as per 2011 Census, the Government of Rajasthan has requested for extension of Scheduled Areas in the State of Rajasthan.
Add individual feedback 23. Which union ministry has launched the 2nd edition of the 1 / 1 Unnat Bharat Abhiyan?
A) Skill Development Ministry
B) HRD Ministry
C) Commerce Ministry
D) Agriculture Ministry
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-B
Under Unnat Bharat Abhiyan (UBA) 2.0-a pagship program of MHRD, GOI 688 institutions are selected on a Challenge Mode (426 technical and 262 non- technical) which are reputed Higher Educational Institutes (both public and private) of the country, which have adopted total no. of 3555 villages for their development through UBA. Also, scope for providing Subject Expert Groups assistance and Regional Coordinating Institutes to handhold and guide the participating institutions have been strengthened. IIT Delhi has been designated to function as the National Coordinating Institute for this program.
Add individual feedback 24. What is the rank of India in the United Nations Human 1 / 1 Development Index 2018?
A)131
B)135
C) 130
D)156
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-c) 130
Add individual feedback 25. Which state government has introduced electric carsfor 0 / 1 oocial use?
B) Jharkhand
C) Bihar
D) Uttar Pradesh
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
B) Jharkhand
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Ans-B
The state government of Jharkhand on September 12, 2018 introduced electric vehicles for o[cial use. The energy department of the state got 20 such cars for its use. The information was shared by the state’s Chief Minister Raghubar Das.
The state’s energy department received 20 cars in the Erst phase. The cars were procured by the Energy E[ciency Services Limited (EESL), which is a joint venture of the PSUs under the Ministry of Power.
Add individual feedback 26. Name the India’s mrst underwater robotic drone which was 0 / 1 launched and handed over to the Naval Physical and Oceanographic Laboratory (NPOL) of DRDO?
A) EyeRovTuna
B) SeaTuna
C) RiverEyeTuna
D) Eye360
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
A) EyeRovTuna
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Ans-A
India’s Erst underwater robotic drone EyeROV TUNA was handed over to Naval Physical and Oceanographic Laboratory (NPOL) of Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). This underwater drone will be used by NPOL for research and development activities which in turn would result in commercial product for defence purposes.
Add individual feedback 27. The Delhi government has signed a “Friendship and 0 / 1 Cooperation Agreement”, with which city, under which the two cities would exchange expertise for betterment in 12 melds?
A) Seoul
B) Berlin
C) Tokyo
D) Kathmandu
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
A) Seoul
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Ans-A
The Delhi government signed a “Friendship and Cooperation Agreement” with the Seoul Metropolitan Government under which the two cities would exchange expertise for betterment in 12 Eelds including environment, transport, tourism, solid waste management and public health.
Add individual feedback 28. World’s mrst hydrogen-powered train was rolled out in which 1 / 1 country?
A) Spain
B) Germany
C) China
D) Russia
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-B Germany launched world's Erst hydrogen-powered passenger train, named Coradia iLint, on September 16, 2018.
Add individual feedback 29. Which state is going to launch mrst-ever 'dial-FIR' scheme? 0 / 1
A) Madhya Pradesh
B) Haryana
C) Gujarat
D) Uttar Pradesh
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
D) Uttar Pradesh
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Ans-D
The Uttar Pradesh Police are set to launch a Erst of its kind dial-FIR scheme in the country where a common man can register regular crimes without going to a police station even as it is preparing an online photographic dossier of criminals that will be provided to policemen on 22,000 new i-pads.
Add individual feedback 30. India’s mrst ‘smart fence’ pilot project was launched at which 0 / 1 border?
A) Bangladesh Border
B) China border
C) Myanmar border
D) Pakistan Border
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
D) Pakistan Border
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Ans-D
India's Erst 'smart fence' pilot project, which entails deploying laser-activated fences and technology- enabled barriers to plug vulnerable gaps along frontiers, will be launched by home minister Rajnath Singh in two 5-km each patches along the India-Pak border.
Add individual feedback 31. India-Bangladesh Friendship Product Pipeline Project will 0 / 1 connect which city of West Bengal with the Parbatipur of Bangladesh ?
A) Haldia
B) Siliguri
C) Asansol
D) Darjeeling
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
B) Siliguri
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Ans-B
The 130-kilometre India-Bangladesh Friendship Pipeline Project will connect Siliguri in West Bengal in India and Parbatipur in Dinajpur district of Bangladesh.
Add individual feedback 32. Union government along with UN body Food and Agriculture 0 / 1 Organization (FAO) has launched an agriculture project which will be implemented in how many states ?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 7
D) 5
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
D) 5
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Ans-D
Madhya Pradesh Mizoram Odisha Rajasthan Uttarakhand
Add individual feedback 33. ISRO’s mrst Space Technology Incubation Centre was 0 / 1 inaugurated in which state?
A) Odisha
B) Karnataka
C) Andhra Pradesh
D) Tripura
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
D) Tripura
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Ans-D ISRO has recently launched its Erst Space Technology Incubation Centre at the National Institute of Technology (NIT) Agartala via remote from Bengaluru.
Add individual feedback 34. The country’s mrst indigenously developed 500-megawatt 1 / 1 (mw) prototype fast breeder reactor was set up at which state?
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Tamil Nadu
C) Karnataka
D) Odisha
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-B India's Erst indigenously developed 500-megawatt (mw) Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) at Kalpakkam in Tamil Nadu is expected to achieve criticality in 2019
Add individual feedback 35. DRDO has successfully test mred the surface-to-surface 0 / 1 short-range tactical ballistic missile Prahaar. What is the strike range of it?
A) 200 Km
B) 150 Km
C) 350 Km
D) 250 Km
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
B) 150 Km
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Ans-B) 150 km
India successfully test-Ered the indigenously developed surface-to-surface short-range ballistic missile Prahaar from the Odisha coast on Thursday.
The sophisticated missile, developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), once inducted, Prahaar, with a strike range of 150km, will Ell the vital gap between multi- barrel Pinaka and medium-range ballistic missile Prithvi. Unlike Prithvi, it can engage multiple targets in different directions.
Add individual feedback 36. Which country is to join as the third strategic partner of the 0 / 1 $50 billion China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC)?
A) Iran
B) Nepal
C) Afghanistan
D) Saudi Arabia
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
D) Saudi Arabia
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Ans-D) Saudi Arabia
Add individual feedback 37. The New Development Bank (NDB) of the BRICS announced 0 / 1 to grant a $525-million loan to which state for infrastructure projects?
A) Uttar Pradesh
B) Rajasthan
C) Jharkhand
D) Madhya Pradesh
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
D) Madhya Pradesh
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Ans-D) Madhya Pradesh
$350-million loan for the Major District Roads Project II of Madhya Pradesh and $175 million for building and upgrading 350 bridges. ADB - USD 375 million loan - Madhya Pradesh - Expanding irrigation networks India signs $210-m loan pact with World Bank for Madhya Pradesh roads World Bank loan around Rs 216 cr for infrastructure development of Rewa and Mandsaur solar power plants
Add individual feedback 38. Who won the Presidential Election In Maldives? 1 / 1
A) Abdullah Yameen
B) Ibrahim Mohammed Solih
C) Mohamed Nasheed
D) Ahmed Adib
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans- B) Ibrahim Mohammed Solih
Ibrahim Mohamed Solih took over as President of the Maldives following a Eerce political discord caused by the autocratic rule of outgoing leader Yameen Abdul Gayoom.
Add individual feedback 39. The Supreme Court has constituted a three member 0 / 1 committee to look into the jail reforms, the committee will be headed by whom?
A) M B Lokur
B) Amitava Roy
C) Arun Kumar Mishra
D) Ashok Bhushan
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
B) Amitava Roy
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Ans-B) Amitava Roy
Add individual feedback 40. Which state has topped the charts among States in terms of 0 / 1 “Ease of Living Index” rankings launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs?
A) Madhya Pradesh
B) Odisha
C) Andhra Pradesh
D) Maharashtra
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
C) Andhra Pradesh
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Ans-C
The state of Andhra Pradesh has topped the ‘Ease of Living Index’ rankings launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. It was followed by Odisha and Madhya Pradesh.
Add individual feedback 41. Which bank has given USD 352 million loan to Bihar state 0 / 1 for the lining project of the Son canal?
A) NDB
B) ADB
C) World Bank
D) IMF
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
B) ADB
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Ans-B
ADB , Power Ministry and Finance Ministry approve lining project of the Son canal in Shahabad – Bhojpur region of Bihar The estimated cost of this project is USD 503 million (Rs 3272.49 crore) out of which USD 352 million is being provided by ADB
Add individual feedback 42. First regional conference of eastern states on Water 1 / 1 Resources held in ______.
A) Odisha
B) Kolkata
C) Bihar
D) Chhattisgarh
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Feedback
Ans-B First regional conference of eastern states on Water Resources held in Kolkata The conference was aimed at addressing outstanding water resources issues, inter-state issues, intra and inter-basin issues among Eve eastern states of Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Odisha, and West Bengal.
https://bpscnotes.com/2018/10/13/important-bihar-ca-part-2/
Add individual feedback 43. The Chairmanship of the BIMSTEC was handed over to 0 / 1 which country ?
A) Bhutan
B) Sri Lanka
C) Thailand
D) India
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
B) Sri Lanka
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Ans-B he Chairmanship of the BIMSTEC was handed over to Sri Lankan President Maithripala Sirisena by Nepal's Prime Minister Sharma Oli.
The Chairmanship of the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) rotates among the Member States.
The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) is a regional organization comprising seven Member States lying in the littoral and adjacent areas of the Bay of Bengal constituting a contiguous regional unity. This sub-regional organization came into being on 6 June 1997 through the Bangkok Declaration. It constitutes seven Member States: Eve deriving from South Asia, including Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and two from Southeast Asia, including Myanmar and Thailand.
Add individual feedback 44. Board of Directors of the Asian Development Bank (ADB) 0 / 1 has approved a mnancing package totaling $245 million to three districts of which state?
A) Rajasthan
B) West Bengal
C) Sikkim
D) Arunachal Pradesh
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
B) West Bengal
Feedback
Ans-B The Asian Development Bank (ADB) board has approved a Enancing package totalling $245 million to provide safe, sustainable, and inclusive drinking water service to about 1.65 million people in three districts of West Bengal state, India, affected by arsenic, puoride, and salinity, according to an o[cial release.
The project will provide continuous potable water through metered connections to about 390,000 individual households in three districts—Bankura, North 24 Parganas, and Purba Medinipur.
Add individual feedback 45. Which country remained the top source of foreign direct 1 / 1 investment into India in 2017-18 ?
A) Singapore
B) Japan
C) Mauritius
D) United Kingdom
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Feedback
Ans-C) Mauritius
Add individual feedback 46. Uttar Pradesh CM has inaugurated the mrst luxury cruise 0 / 1 'Alaknanda' in which city?
A) Lucknow
B) Agra
C) Prayagraj
D) Varanasi
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
D) Varanasi
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Ans-D
Uttar Pradesh Chief Minister Yogi Adityanath launched Alaknanda, a Eve-star luxury cruise, from the Khirkiya ghat in Varanasi.
It is the Erst of its kind luxury boat in Varanasi which is developed at a cost of Rs 1 crore by a Kolkata-based company. The double-decker luxury cruise will be operated by the Nordic Cruise Line. The boat can accommodate a total of 90 passengers. The second deck has a restaurant from where people can enjoy the open view.
The luxury boat, which has a 450 HP engine, will be currently operated between Assighat and Rajghat in the Varanasi.
Add individual feedback 47. Joint army exercise KAZIND conducted between- 1 / 1
A) India-Iran
B) India-Sri Lanka
C) India-UAE
D) India-Kazakhstan
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Feedback
Ans-D
Indian Army and Kazakhstan Army completed the third edition of their joint military Exercise KAZIND 2018 in Otar Military area, Kazakhstan in a signiEcant step towards fostering military and diplomatic ties between the two countries. The two week long exercise had commenced on 10 Sep 2018.
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48. Providing relief to the Lesbian, Gay, Bisexual,Transgender 1 / 1 and Intersex (LGBTI), the SC has decriminalized a portion of which Section of the Indian Penal Code (IPC)?
A) Section 370
B) Section 377
C) Section 375
D) Section 372
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Feedback
Ans-B) Section 377
Add individual feedback 49. SLINEX-2018 is a military exercise between India and which 1 / 1 country?
A) Bhutan
B) Maldives
C) Sri Lanka
D) Thailand
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Feedback
Ans-C Indian Naval Ships Kirch, Sumitra and Cora Divh entered Trincomalee, Sri Lanka to participate in the sixth edition of SLINEX 2018, a bi-lateral Naval Exercise between India and Sri Lanka, from 07 to 13 September 2018.
Add individual feedback 50. Which country will collaborate with India for ISRO's Human 0 / 1 Mission Gaganyaan?
A) Japan
B) Russia
C) France
D) Israel
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
C) France
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Ans-C
India and France have announced a working group for Gaganyaan, ISRO's Erst manned mission announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Independence Day. India is all set to send three persons -- two men and one woman -- into space for seven days on its Erst manned space pight Gaganyaan. The spacecraft will be placed in a low earth orbit of 300-400 km. GSLV Mk III, the three-stage heavy-lift launch vehicle, will be used to launch Gaganyaan as it has the necessary payload capability.
Add individual feedback 51. A system known as “Dyarchy” was introduced in India for 0 / 1 the mrst time by the Government of India Act 1919, which implied that the spheres of the various subjects were divided into___?
A) Central Subjects and Provincial Subjects
B) Reserved Subjects and Transferred Subjects
C) Vested Subjects and Residual Subjects
D) General Subjects and Concurrent Subjects
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
B) Reserved Subjects and Transferred Subjects
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Answer: B [Reserved Subjects and Transferred Subjects]
Add individual feedback 52. Which Act divided legislative powers between the Centre 1 / 1 and Provinces?
A) Government of India Act, 1935
B) Government of India Act, 1919
C) Government of India Act, 1892
D) Government of India Act, 1861
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Feedback
Ans-A)
On August 1935, the Government of India passed longest act i.e. Government of India Act 1935 under the British Act of Parliament. This act also included the Government of Burma Act 1935. According to this act, India would become a federation if 50% of Indian states decided to join it. They would then have a large number of representatives in the two houses of the central legislature. However, the provisions with regards to the federation were not implemented. The act made no reference even to granting dominion status, much less independence, to India. With regard to the provinces, the act of 1935 was an improvement on the existing position. It introduced what is known as provincial autonomy. The ministers of the provincial governments, according to it, were to be responsible to the legislature. The powers of the legislature were increased. However, in certain matters like the Police, the government had the authority. The right to vote also remained limited. Only about 14% of the population got the right to vote. The appointment of the governor-general and governors, of course, remained in the hands of the British government and they were not responsible to the legislatures. The act never came near the objective that the nationalist movement had been struggling for.
Add individual feedback 53. Which Article is for "Protection against arrest and detention 0 / 1 in certain cases"?
(A) Article 24
(B) Article 23
(C) Article 22
(D) Article 21
(E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
(C) Article 22
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Ans-C
Article 22 makes the minimum procedural requirements which must be included in any law enacted by legislature in accordance of which a person is deprived of his personal liberty. Article 22(1) and (2) are also called Rights of an arrested person. However, Article 22(3) says that the mentioned safeguards are not available to the following: > If the person is at the time being an enemy alien. > If the person is arrested under certain law made for the purpose of “Preventive Detention“
Add individual feedback 54. Under the constitution of India who are the ultimate 1 / 1 Sovereign?
(A) Indian People
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) President of India
(D) All elected leaders of India
(E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-(A) Indian People
Add individual feedback 55. The speaker can ask a member of the house to stop 1 / 1 speaking and let another member speak. This is known as?
(A) Crossing the woor
(B) Yielding the woor
(C) Obeying the rule
(D) Rotating the woor
(E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Feedback
Ans-B
Yielding the poor: The speaker of the Lok sabha can ask a member of the house to stop speaking and let another member speak.
Crossing the poor: Passing between the member addressing the House and the Chair which is considered breach of Parliamentary etiquette.
Point of Order: A Member of Parliament may raise a point of order if he feels that the proceedings of' the House do not follow the normal rules. The presiding o[cer decides whether the point of order raised by the member should be allowed.
Calling Attention Motion: With the prior permission of the Speaker, any member of the Parliament may call the attention of a Minister to a matter of urgent public importance. The Minister may make a brief statement about the matter or he may ask for time to make a statement later.
Add individual feedback 56. Which of the following is not a constitutional body? 1 / 1
(A) Election Commission
(B) Finance Commission
(C) National Advisory Council
(D) Inter-State Council
(E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Feedback
Ans-C
National Advisory Council was set up as an advisory body to the Prime Minister of India in 2004, during UPA 1 regime. Therefore there is no mandate from the constitution. It consists of experts and former bureaucrats from various Eelds
Add individual feedback 57. Who is authorised to decide over a dispute regarding 0 / 1 disqualimcation of a member of parliament in all other matters except under 10th schedule?
A) Speaker of lok sabah
B) President
C) Election Commisioner
D) A committee set up by the parliament
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
B) President
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Ans-B
The question whether a member is subject to disqualiEcation in all other matters except under 10th schedule (disqualiEcation) is decided by President. However, President should obtain the opinion of the election commission before taking such decision.
The question of disqualiEcation under Anti-defection / Tenth Schedule is decided by the Chairman in the case of Rajya Sabha {i.e. Vice-President} and Speaker in the case of Lok Sabha. The decision of Chairman / Speaker in this condition is subject to judicial review.
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58. The Indian Constitution has borrowed the ideas of preamble 1 / 1 from the -
A) Italian Constitution
B) Canadian Constitution
C) French Constitution
D) Constitution of USA
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above. Feedback
Ans-D
Britain 1. Parliamentary government 2. Rule of Law 3. Legislative procedure 4. Single citizenship 5. Cabinet system 6. Prerogative writs 7. Parliamentary privileges 8. Bicameralism
Ireland 1. Directive Principles of State Policy 2. Method of Election of the president 3. Members nomination to the Rajya Sabha by the President
Unites States of America
1. Impeachment of the president 2. Functions of president and vice-president 3. Removal of Supreme Court and High court judges 4. Fundamental Rights 5. Judicial review 6. Independence of judiciary 7. Preamble of the constitution
Canada 1. Centrifugal form of federalism where the centre is stronger than the states. 2. Residuary powers vest with the centre 3. Centre appoints the Governors at the states 4. Advisory jurisdiction of the supreme court
Australia 1. Concept of Concurrent list 2. Article 108 i.e. Joint sitting of the two houses 3. Freedom of trade and commerce
USSR (Now Russia) 1. Fundamental duties 2. The ideals of justice (social, economic and political), expressed in the Preamble.
France 1. Concept of “Republic” 2. Ideals of Liberty, Equality and Fraternity(contained in the Preamble)
Germany 1. Fundamental Rights are suspended during Emergency
South Africa 1. Election of members of the Rajya Sabha 2. Amendment of the Constitution
Japan 1. Concept of “procedure established by Law” Add individual feedback
59. India become a Sovereign democratic republic on - 1 / 1
A) Aug 15, 1947
B) Nov 26, 1949
C) Jan 26, 1950
D) Nov 26, 1929
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-C
The Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution of India, drafted by a committee headed by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar, on 26 November 1949. India became a sovereign democratic republic after its constitution came into effect on 26 January 1950.
Add individual feedback 60. Right to Consitutional Remedies comes under - 0 / 1
A) fundamental rights
B) legal rights
C) consitutional rights
D) natural rights
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
A) fundamental rights
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Ans-A
Article 32 of the Indian constitution provides for constitutional remedies against the violation or transgression of fundamental rights. The fundamental rights are of highest importance to the individuals. They are basic conditions for the fullest development of personality. The citizens are given the right to move—the Supreme Court in case of transgression of fundamental rights. The Supreme Court thus is constituted into a protector and guarantor fundamental rights. The right to constitutional remedy is itself a fundamental right.
Add individual feedback 61. The fundamental duties are mentioned in which of the 1 / 1 following?
(a) Part-IV A
(b) Part-IV
(c) Part-III
(d) schedule IV-A
(e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Feedback
Ans-A The Fundamental Duties enshrined in Part IVA of the Indian Constitution (Article 51A) were inserted by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 1976. The addition of the chapter on Fundamental Duties was recommended by the Swaran Singh committee, which had recommended an eight-point code of fundamental duties.
Add individual feedback 62. The Governor of the State can be removed by which one of 0 / 1 the following?
a) Chief Minister
b) Prime Minister
c) Union Home Minister
d) President
e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
d) President
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Ans-D
As per Article 155 and Article 156 of the Constitution, a Governor of a state is appointed by the President, and he or she holds o[ce “during the pleasure of the President” for a term of Eve years. The President, in effect the central government, has the power to remove a Governor at any time without giving him or her any reason, and without granting an opportunity to be heard.
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63. Which one is not true about the Attorney General of India? 1 / 1
(a) He is the legal advisor to the Government of India
(b) His tenure and salary is decided by the President
(c) He has the voting right in the proceeding of the Parliament
(d) He appears before high courts and Supreme Court in cases involving union government.
(e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Feedback Ans-c
Below are the duties and functions of the AG:
(1) He gives advice to the Government of India upon such legal matters, which are referred or assigned to him by the president.
(2) He performs such other duties of a legal character that are referred or assigned to him by the president.
(3) He discharges the functions conferred on him by or under the Constitution or any other law.
In the performance of his o[cial duties,
(1) He appears on behalf of the government of India in all the cases in Supreme Court in which the Government of India is concerned.
(2) He appears on behalf of the government of India in any reference made by the president to the Supreme Court under Article 143 of the constitution.
(3) He appears on behalf of the government of India in any case in a high court in which the Government of India is concerned, if Government of India requires so.
Rights and Limitations
Following are the Rights of the AG:
(1) In the performance of his duties, he has right of audience in all courts in the territory of India.
(2) He has the right to speak or to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament and their joint sittings, but without a right to vote.
(3) He has the right to speak or to take part in the meeting of any committee of the Parliament of which he is named as a member, but without a right to vote.
(4) He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a member of parliament.
Add individual feedback 64. Which of the following Article is related to Panchayati Raj? 1 / 1
(a) Article 243
(b) Article 324
(c) Article 124
(d) Article 73
(e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-a The 73rd Amendment 1992 added a new Part IX to the constitution titled “The Panchayats” covering provisions from Article 243 to 243(O); and a new Eleventh Schedule covering 29 subjects within the functions of the Panchayats.
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65. What is the minimum age for being the member of of the 1 / 1 Panchayat?
A) 18 years
B) 20 years
C) 21 years
D) 25 years
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Feedback
Ans-C) 21 years
Add individual feedback 66. Who does not participate in the election of the Legislative 1 / 1 Council?
(A) Graduates
(B) Members of the municipality
(C) Teachers of secondary schools
(D) District Panchayat members
(E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Feedback
Ans. D
Currently, seven states viz. Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Jammu and Kashmir, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Telangana, and Uttar Pradesh have legislative council.
In legislative Council, there are 5 different categories of representation. > 1/3rd of the total membership is elected by the electorates consisting of the members of the self Governing bodies in the state such as Municipalities, District Boards etc. > 1/3rd members are elected by the members of the Legislative assembly of the State > 1/12th members are elected by an electorate of University Graduates. > 1/12th members are elected by the electorate consisting of the secondary school teachers (3 year experience) > 1/6th members nominated by the Governor on the basis of their special knowledge / practical experience in literature, art, science, cooperative movement or social service.
Add individual feedback 67. Duties levied by the Union but Collected and Appropriated 0 / 1 by the States are:
(a) Succession duty in respect of property other than agriculture land.
(b) Estate duty in respect of property rather than agricultural land
(c) Stamp duty and duties of excise on the medical and toilet preparations
(d) Taxes on railway fares and freights
(e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
(c) Stamp duty and duties of excise on the medical and toilet preparations
Feedback
Ans-C Duties levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by the States.-
(1) Such stamp duties and such duties of excise on medicinal and toilet preparations as are mentioned in the Union List shall be levied by the Government of India but shall be collected-
(a) in the case where such duties are leviable within any Union territory, by the Government of India, and
(b) in other cases, by the States within which such duties are respectively leviable.
(2) The proceeds in any Enancial year of any such duty leviable within any State shall not form part of the Consolidated Fund of India, but shall be assigned to that State.
Read More @ https://Encomindia.nic.in/provisions.htm
Add individual feedback 68. According to the Constitution of India, which of the 0 / 1 following are fundamental for the governance of the country?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties
(e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy
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Ans-c Directive principles of state policy because they guide executive on how to govern.
Add individual feedback 69. The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of 0 / 1 India for implementing international treaties-
A) with the consent of all the States
B) with the consent of the majority of States
C) with the consent of the States concerned
D) without the consent of any State
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
D) without the consent of any State
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Ans-D
Constitution empowers parliament to make laws on any matter in state list under Eve extra ordinary circumstances
Rajya sabha passes resolution national emergency states make a request to implement international agreements during president’s rule.
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70. Which of the following writs can been issued to force a 1 / 1 public authority to perform a public or statutory duty?
(a) Prohibition
(b) Quo warranto
(c) Mandamus
(d) Habeas Corpus
(e) None of the above/ More than one of the above. Feedback
Ans-B Types of Writs There are Eve types of Writs - Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari and Quo warranto.
1. Habeas Corpus "Habeas Corpus" is a Latin term which literally means "you may have the body." The writ is issued to produce a person who has been detained , whether in prison or in private custody, before a court and to release him if such detention is found illegal.
2. Mandamus Mandamus is a Latin word, which means "We Command". Mandamus is an order from the Supreme Court or High Court to a lower court or tribunal or public authority to perform a public or statutory duty. This writ of command is issued by the Supreme Court or High court when any government, court, corporation or any public authority has to do a public duty but fails to do so.
3. Certiorari Literally, Certiorari means to be certiEed. The writ of certiorari can be issued by the Supreme Court or any High Court for quashing the order already passed by an inferior court, tribunal or quasi judicial authority.
There are several conditions necessary for the issue of writ of certiorari .
There should be court, tribunal or an o[cer having legal authority to determine the question with a duty to act judicially. Such a court, tribunal or o[cer must have passed an order acting without jurisdiction or in excess of the judicial authority vested by law in such court, tribunal or o[cer. The order could also be against the principles of natural justice or the order could contain an error of judgment in appreciating the facts of the case. 4. Prohibition The Writ of prohibition means to forbid or to stop and it is popularly known as 'Stay Order'. This writ is issued when a lower court or a body tries to transgress the limits or powers vested in it. The writ of prohibition is issued by any High Court or the Supreme Court to any inferior court, or quasi judicial body prohibiting the latter from continuing the proceedings in a particular case, where it has no jurisdiction to try. After the issue of this writ, proceedings in the lower court etc. come to a stop.
Difference between Prohibition and Certiorari:
While the writ of prohibition is available during the pendency of proceedings, the writ of certiorari can be resorted to only after the order or decision has been announced. Both the writs are issued against legal bodies. 5. The Writ of Quo-Warranto The word Quo-Warranto literally means "by what warrants?" or "what is your authority"? It is a writ issued with a view to restrain a person from holding a public o[ce to which he is not entitled. The writ requires the concerned person to explain to the Court by what authority he holds the o[ce. If a person has usurped a public o[ce, the Court may direct him not to carry out any activities in the o[ce or may announce the o[ce to be vacant. Thus High Court may issue a writ of quo-warranto if a person holds an o[ce beyond his retirement age.
Conditions for issue of Quo-Warranto
The o[ce must be public and it must be created by a statue or by the constitution itself. The o[ce must be a substantive one and not merely the function or employment of a servant at the will and during the pleasure of another. There must have been a contravention of the constitution or a statute or statutory instrument, in appointing such person to that o[ce. Add individual feedback
71. The inner walls of the small intestine have millions of small 0 / 1 mnger like projections called-
a) villi
b) trachea
c) appendix
d) oesophagus
e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
a) villi
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Ans-a) villi
Villi are the multiple, small, Enger-like protrusions of the mucosal layer of the small intestine into its lumen. They give the intestinal surface the texture of velvet. Villi amplify the surface area for better absorption of digested food molecules
Add individual feedback 72. Which of the following gland controls the blood pressure? 1 / 1
A) Thalamus gland
B) Adrenal gland
C) Thyroid gland
D) Pancreas gland
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Feedback
Ans-B Blood pressure is controlled by Adrenal gland. It is a small pea sized gland located over kidney
Add individual feedback 73. Arrange the correct sequence of the steps involved in the 0 / 1 process of Human Digestive System?
a) Digestion, Ingestion, Assimilation, Egestion and Absorption
b) Ingestion, Digestion, Absorption, Assimilation and Egestion
c) Egestion, Absorption, Digestion, Assimilation and Ingestion
d) Assimilation, Absorption, Ingestion, Digestion and Egestion
e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
b) Ingestion, Digestion, Absorption, Assimilation and Egestion
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Ans. b) Ingestion, Digestion, Absorption, Assimilation and Egestion
Add individual feedback 74. In which part of the body digestion of protein begins? 1 / 1
a) Pancreas
b) Stomach
c) Small Intestine
d) Large Intestine
e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Feedback
Ans-b
Protein digestion occurs in the stomach and duodenum in which 3 main enzymes, pepsin secreted by the stomach and trypsin and chymotrypsin secreted by the pancreas, break down food proteins into polypeptides that are then broken down by various exopeptidases and dipeptidases into amino acids.
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75. What is detergent? 1 / 1
A) A liquid surfactant
B) A liquid soluble
C) A liquid sovent
D) A liquid solution
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Feedback
Ans-A) A liquid surfactant
Add individual feedback 76. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas? 0 / 1
A) Carbon Dioxide
B) Methane
C) Carbon monoxide
D) Water vapours
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
C) Carbon monoxide
Feedback
Ans-C) Carbon monoxide
There are four main types of forcing greenhouse gases: carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide and puorinated gases. The main feedback greenhouse gas is water vapor.
Add individual feedback 77. Which of the following is the densest metal? 0 / 1
A) osmium
B) mercury
C) iron
D) nickel
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
A) osmium
Feedback
Ans-a Osmium and iridium are the densest metals in the earth.
Add individual feedback 78. The penetrating power of which of the following invisible 1 / 1 radiations emitting from the nucleus has its maximum value:
A) alpha rays
B) beta rays
C) gamma rays
D) x-rays
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Feedback
Ans-c Gamma rays, which have the shortest wavelengths of all electromagnetic radiation, have even greater penetrating power.
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79. Which of the following is not the isotope of hydrogen? 1 / 1
A Protium
B) Deuterium
C) Iterium
D) Tritium
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-C Hydrogen has three main isotopes; protium, deuterium and tritium . These isotopes form naturally in nature. Hydrogen has no neutron, deuterium has one, and tritium has two neutrons. The isotopes of hydrogen have, respectively, mass numbers of one, two, and three. The atoms of these isotopes have one electron to balance the charge of the one proton.
Add individual feedback 80. The rusting of the iron is the example of: 1 / 1
A) Oxidation
B) Reduction
C) Polymerisation
D) Galvanization
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Feedback
Ans-A) Oxidation
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81. The alloys are: 1 / 1
A) the solution of solid in the solid
B) the solution of solid in the liquid
C) the solution of gas in the liquid
D) the solution of gas in the gas
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-A
The solid solution needs to be distinguished from a mechanical mixture of powdered solids like two salts, sugar and salt, etc. The mechanical mixtures have total or partial miscibility gap in solid state. Examples of solid solutions include crystallized salts from their liquid mixture, metal alloys, moist solids.
Add individual feedback 82. What is the full form of ASLV? 1 / 1
(a) Augmented Satellite Launch Vehicle
(b) Automatic Satellite Launch Vehicle
(c) Aero Space Launch Vehicle
(d) Area Satellite Launch Vehicle
(e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Feedback
Ans-A The Augmented Satellite Launch Vehicle (ASLV) Programme was designed to augment the payload capacity to 150 kg, thrice that of SLV-3, for Low Earth Orbits (LEO).
Add individual feedback 83. Which type of fuel is used by GSLV in its operations? 1 / 1
(a) Only solid fuel
(b) Only liquid fuel
(c) Liquid in mrst stage and solid in second stage
(d) Solid in mrst stage and liquid in second stage
(e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Feedback
Ans-D Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) is a space launch vehicle designed, developed, and operated by the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) to launch satellites and other space objects into Geosynchronous Transfer Orbits. GSLV has the capability to put a heavier payload in the orbit than the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV).
GSLV is a three-stage launcher with strap-on motors.
First Stage: GS1 The Erst stage uses the 138 tonne S139 solid rocket motor with four liquid engine strap-on motors. This stage generates maximum thrust of 4700 kilo Newton.
Second Stage: GS2 The second stage uses a liquid rocket engine which is known as Vikas engine. It generates maximum thrust of 800 kilo Newton.
Third Stage: CUS The third stage uses a Cryogenic engine, which uses liqueEed oxygen and hydrogen as fuel.
Add individual feedback 84. Which of the following is a current-detecting instrument? 1 / 1
A) Voltmeter
B) Ammeter
C) Magnetometer
D) Galvanometer
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-D
A galvanometer is an electromechanical instrument used for detecting and indicating an electric current. A galvanometer works as an actuator, by producing a rotary depection (of a "pointer"), in response to electric current powing through a coil in a constant magnetic Eeld.
Add individual feedback 85. Why impurities are added to a semi-conductor? 0 / 1
A) To increase its life
B) To enables it to withstand higher voltages
C) To increase its electrical conductivity
D) To increase its electrical resistivity
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
C) To increase its electrical conductivity
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Ans: C The conductivity of semiconductors may easily be modiEed by introducing impurities into their crystal lattice. The process of adding controlled impurities to a semiconductor is known as doping. The amount of impurity, or dopant, added to an intrinsic (pure) semiconductor varies its level of conductivity.
Add individual feedback 86. What does the high Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) 1 / 1 indicates?
A) High level of Microbial Pollution
B) Low level of Microbial Pollution
C) Absence of Microbial Pollution
D) Water is fully pure
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-A) High level of Microbial Pollution
Low BOD is an indicator of good quality water, while a high BOD indicates polluted water. Dissolved oxygen (DO) is consumed by bacteria when large amounts of organic matter from sewage or other discharges are present in the water.
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87. Microbes which enter the body through nose most likely 1 / 1 affect?
A) liver
B) heart
C) brain
D) lungs
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-D) lungs
Add individual feedback 88. BCG vaccine is used to develop immunity against- 1 / 1
A) jaundice
B) polio
C) inwuenza
D) tuberculosis
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-D Bacillus Calmette–Guérin vaccine is a vaccine primarily used against tuberculosis
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89. Sound wave of which of the following frequency is an 1 / 1 ultrasonic sound?
A) 30 Hz
B) 300 Hz
C) 3000 Hz
D) 30,000 Hz
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-D The term "ultrasonic" applied to sound refers to anything above the frequencies of audible sound, and nominally includes anything over 20,000 Hz.
Add individual feedback 90. In which sphere of the environment Ozone layer is located? 1 / 1
A) Troposphere
B) Stratosphere
C) Mesosphere
D) Thermosphere
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-B The ozone layer is mainly found in the lower portion of the stratosphere, from approximately 20 to 30 kilometers (12 to 19 mi) above Earth, although its thickness varies seasonally and geographically.
Add individual feedback 91. A train running at the speed of 60 km/hr crosses a pole in 9 1 / 1 seconds. Find the length of the train?
A) 150 meter
B) 145 meter
C) 140 meter
D) 135 meter
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-A
Explanation:
Speed = 60*(5/18) m/sec = 50/3 m/sec
Length of Train(Distance) = Speed * Time
=(50/3)∗9=150meter
Add individual feedback 92. A train is 360 meter long is running at a speed of 45 0 / 1 km/hour. In what time will it pass a bridge of 140 meter length?
A) 20 seconds
B) 30 seconds
C) 40 seconds
D) 50 seconds
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
C) 40 seconds
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Ans-C
Explanation:
Speed = 45 Km/hr = 45*(5/18) m/sec = 25/2 m/sec Total distance = 360+140 = 500 meter
Time = Distance/speed =500∗(2/25)=40seconds
Add individual feedback 93. A boat can travel with a speed of 16 km/hr in still water. If 0 / 1 the rate of stream is 5 km/hr, then mnd the time taken by the boat to cover distance of 84 km downstream?
A) 4 hours
B) 5 hours
C) 6 hours
D) 7 hours
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
A) 4 hours
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Ans-A
Explanation:
It is very important to check, if the boat speed given is in still water or with water or against water. Because if we neglect it we will not reach on right answer. I just mentioned here because mostly mistakes in this chapter are of this kind only.
Lets see the question now. Speed downstream = (16 + 5) = 21 kmph
Time = distance/speed = 84/21 = 4 hours
Add individual feedback 94. A man rows 750 m in 675 seconds against the stream and 0 / 1 returns in 7 and half minutes. His rowing speed in still water is-
A) 4 kmph
B) 5 kmph
C) 6 kmph
D) 7 kmph
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
B) 5 kmph
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Ans-B
Explanation:
Rate upstream = (750/675) = 10/9 m/sec Rate downstream (750/450) m/sec = 5/3 m/sec Rate in still water = (1/2)*[(10/9) + (5/3)] m/sec. = 25/18 m/sec = (25/18)*(18/5) kmph = 5 kmph
Add individual feedback 95. At what rate percent per annum will the simple interest on a 0 / 1 sum of money be 2/5 of the amount in 10 years?
A) 1%
B) 2%
C) 3%
D) 4%
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
D) 4%
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Ans-D
Explanation:
Let sum = x Time = 10 years. S.I = 2x /5, [as per question] Rate =( (100 * 2x) / (x*5*10))% => Rate = 4%
Add individual feedback 96. A sum of money at simple interest amounts to Rs. 2240 in 2 0 / 1 years and to Rs. 2600 in 5 years. What is the principal amount?
A) 1000
B) 1500
C) 2000
D) 2500
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
C) 2000
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Ana-C
Explanation:
SI for 3 year = 2600-2240 = 360 SI for 2 year 360/3 * 2 = 240 principal = 2240 - 240 = 2000
Add individual feedback 97. Find the compound interest on Rs. 7500 at 4% per annum 0 / 1 for 2 years, compounded annually?
A) Rs. 610
B) Rs. 612
C) Rs. 614
D) Rs. 616
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
B) Rs. 612
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Ans-B
Explanation:
Amount=[7500×(1+4/100)^2] =(7500×26/25×26/25) =8112
Add individual feedback 98. A Man travelled a distance of 61 km in 9 hours. He travelled 0 / 1 partly on foot at 4 km/hr and partly on bicycle at 9 km/hr. What is the distance travelled on foot?
A) 16 km
B) 14 km
C) 12 km
D) 10 km
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
A) 16 km
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Ans-A
Explanation:
Let the time in which he travelled on foot = x hour Time for travelling on bicycle = (9 - x) hr
Distance = Speed * Time, and Total distance = 61 km So, 4x + 9(9-x) = 61 => 5x = 20 => x = 4
So distance traveled on foot = 4(4) = 16 km
Add individual feedback 99. 2 trains starting at the same time from 2 stations 200 km 0 / 1 apart and going in opposite direction cross each other at a distance of 110 km from one of the stations. What is the ratio of their speeds ?
A) 11:9
B) 13:9
C) 17:9
D) 21:9
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
A) 11:9
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Ans-A
Explanation:
We know total distance is 200 Km If both trains crossed each other at a distance of 110 km then one train covered 110 km and other 90 km [110+90=200km] So ratio of their speed = 110:90 = 11:9
Add individual feedback 100. A does half as much work as B in three-fourth of the time. 0 / 1 If together they take 18 days to complete the work, how much time shall B take to do it?
A) 40 days
B) 35 days
C) 30 days
D) 25 days
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
C) 30 days
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Ans- C
Explanation:
Suppose B takes x dáys to do the work. As per question A will take 2∗3/4∗x=3x/2days
(A+B)s 1 days work= 1/18 1/x + 2/3x = 1/18 or x = 30 days
Add individual feedback 101. What is the effect of Demcit mnancing? 0 / 1
a) Dewation
b) Recession
c) Inwation
d) Depression
e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
c) Inwation
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ans-c DeEcit Enancing immediately releases monetary resources leading to excessive monetary aggregate demand which creates demand-pull inpation.
Example- When incomes increase as a result of deEcit spending, they tend to increase the demand for food products. If the supply of food does not increase much due to low-level of agricultural productivity, the prices of food articles rise and spread to the entire economy.
Add individual feedback 102. Development expenditure of the Central government does 0 / 1 not include?
a) Expenditure on economic services
b) Defence expenditure
c) Grant to states
d) Expenditure on social and community services
e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
b) Defence expenditure
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Ans-b Development expenditures refers to that expenditures who contribute for the growth of Nation in terms of modernization, infrastructural, market development, economic growth...
But defence expenditures done to make security and safety of the nation...
These can't be measured as development expenditures because they don't give direct beniEt to citizens.
Add individual feedback 103. During which Plan period did agricultural production 1 / 1 register a negative growth?
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Fourth
e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-c
Third Five Year Plan: I. It was made for the duration of 1961 to 1966. II. This plan is called ‘Gadgil Yojna’ also. III. The main target of this plan was to make the economy independent and to reach self active position of take off. IV. Due to china war, this plan could not achieve its growth target of 5.6%, achieved only 2.2%.
Add individual feedback 104. On the basis of recommendations of Raghavan Committee 0 / 1 , the Government of India has enacted The Competition Act in year ?
(A)2002
(B)2003
(C)2004
(D) 2005
(E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
(B)2003
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Ans-B
The Competition Act, 2002 was passed by the Parliament in the year 2002, to which the President accorded assent in January, 2003.
Add individual feedback 105. The largest share in National Income of India belongs to ? 1 / 1
(A)Service Sector
(B)Industry Sector
(C)Trade Sector
(D) Agriculture Sector
(E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-A) service sector
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106. Why is the Inwation described as a regressive form of 0 / 1 taxation?
A. It results into devaluation of currency
B. It affects exports & makes imports attractive
C. It affects the poor & vulnerable sections more
D. It may cause recession
E. None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
C. It affects the poor & vulnerable sections more
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Ans-C) It affects the poor & vulnerable sections more
Add individual feedback 107. Who compute the National Income in India? 1 / 1
A. Central Statistical Organisation
B. Ministry of Finance
C. Planning Commission
D. RBI
E. None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-A
The Erst report of the committee was presented in 1951. According to the Erst report, the National Income of India for 1948-49 was Rs. 8,710 crore and the per capita income was Rs. 225. Since 1955 the national income estimates are being prepared by Central Statistical Organisation.
Add individual feedback 108. Devaluation of a currency means- 0 / 1
A) reduction in the value of a currency vis-a-vis major internationally traded currencies
B) permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
C) mxing the value of the currency in conjunction with the movement in the value of a basket of pre-determined currencies
D) mxing the value of currency in multilateral consultation with the IMF, the World Bank and major trading partners
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
A) reduction in the value of a currency vis-a-vis major internationally traded currencies
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Ans-A
Devaluation is a deliberate downward adjustment of the value of a country's currency relative to another currency, group of currencies or standard. Countries that have a Exed exchange rate or semi- Exed exchange rate use this monetary policy tool.
While devaluing a currency may be an attractive option, it can have negative consequences. Increasing the price of imports protects domestic industries, but they may become less e[cient without the pressure of competition. Higher exports relative to imports can also increase aggregate demand, which can lead to higher gross domestic product and inpation. Inpation can occur because imports are more expensive, aggregate demand causes demand-pull inpation, and manufacturers may have less incentive to cut costs because exports are cheaper, increasing the cost of products and services over time.
Add individual feedback 109. National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO) was 1 / 1 established in?
(A) 1950
(B) 1951
(C) 1952
(D) 1947
(E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-A The National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO), now known as National Sample Survey O[ce, is an organization under the Ministry of Statistics of the Government of India. It is the largest organisation in India conducting regular socio-economic surveys. It was established in 1950.
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110. Which state stands mrst in the Length of State Highways in 1 / 1 the country?
(A) U. P.
(B) M. P.
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Rajasthan
(E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-C 1. Maharashtra 2. Karnataka 3. Gujarat http://niti.gov.in/content/length-state-highways-sq-km
Add individual feedback 111. Which was the only session of Indian National Congress, 1 / 1 presided by Mahatma Gandhi?
A) Allahabad
B) Guwahati
C) Belgaum
D) Kakinada
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-C 1924 Belgaum Mahatma Gandhi was the president of INC
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112. Which of the following pair is NOT correctly matched? 1 / 1 (Centre of 1857 Revolt and Leaders)
A) Delhi : Maulvi Ahmadullah
B) Bihar : Kunwar Singh
C) Lucknow : Begum Hazrat Mahal
D) Jhansi : Laxmibai
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-A Maulavi Ahmadullah declared the revolt as Jihad against English in Faizabad.
Delhi: General Bakht Khan
Add individual feedback 113. Which of the following is not a reformist movement? 0 / 1
A) Brahmo Samaj
B) Prarthana Samaj
C) Aligarh Movement
D) Arya Samaj
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
D) Arya Samaj
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Ans-D Some major reformist movements were Brahmo Samaj; Prarthana Samaj; Satya Sodhak Samaj; Aligarh movement; Young Bengal Movement and Ramakrishna mission. Some major revivalist movements were Arya Samaj; Deoband movement etc
Add individual feedback 114.Who was the founder of the Widow Remarriage Association 0 / 1 in the 1850s?
A) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
B) Jagannath Shankar Seth
C) Bhau Daji
D) Vishnu Shastri Pandit
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
D) Vishnu Shastri Pandit
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Ans-D In 1851, Jotiba Phule and his wife started a girl’s school at Poona and soon many other schools came up. Among the active promoters of these schools were Jagannath Shankar Seth and Bhau Daji. Phule was also a pioneer of the widow remarriage movement in Maharashtra. Vishnu Shastri Pundit founded the Widow Remarriage Association in the 1850s.
Add individual feedback 115. Sarda Act was related to- 0 / 1
(a) women education
(b) widow remarriage
(c) age of consent
(d) women property rights
(e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
(c) age of consent
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Ans-C Child marriage restraint act, 1929 popularly known as Sarda act Exed the minimum age of marriage for girls at 14 and boys at 18 years.
Add individual feedback 116. Who was the author of the book - Precepts of Jesus? 1 / 1
A) J.P. Narayan
B) Ramaswamy Naicker
C) Rammohan Roy
D) Henry Vivian Derozio
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-C) Ram Mohan Roy
Raja Ram Mohan Roy was one of the founders of the Brahmo Sabha, the precursor of the Brahmo Samaj, a socio-religious reform movement in the Indian subcontinent. He was given the title of raja by Akbar II, the mughal emperor.
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117. Who among the following established the Tattvabodhini 1 / 1 Sabha in 1839 at Calcutta ?
A) Keshab Chandra Sen
B) Debendra Nath Tagore
C) Rammohan Roy
D) Sivanatha Sasri
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans: B
Explanation: Debendranath Tagore Established the Tattvabodhini Sabha (1839) at Calcutta to propagate Rammohan Roy’s ideas.
Add individual feedback 118. The Indian Association of Calcutta was founded in the 1 / 1 year-
A) 1853
B) 1876
C) 1885
D) 1851
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-B Indian National Association/ Indian Association of Calcutta was the Erst declared Nationalist Organization founded in British India by Surendranath Banerjee and Anand Mohan Bose in 1876. It was originally established as Bharat Sabha and held its Erst annual conference in Calcutta. It merged in INC in 1885.
Add individual feedback 119. The Imperial Legislative Council was constituted by the- 1 / 1
A) Indian Council Act 1861
B) Act of 1858
C) Indian Council Act 1892
D) Charter Act of 1833
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-A
The imperial legislative Council was a legislature for British India from 1861 to 1947. It was constituted by the Indian Councils Act 1861. It succeeded the council of the governor General of India,and was succeeded by the constituent assembly of India.
=> Provisions of the Indian Councils Act 1861: For the executive functions of the Council, a Efth member was added. Now there were Eve members for home, military, law, revenue and Enance. (A sixth member for public works was added in 1874.) Lord Canning, who was the Governor-General and Viceroy at the time, introduced the portfolio system. In this system, each member was assigned a portfolio of a particular department. For legislative purposes, the Governor-General’s Council was enlarged. Now, there were to be between 6 and 12 additional members (nominated by the Governor-General). There were appointed for a period of 2 years. Out of these, at least half of the additional members were to be non-o[cial (British or Indian). Their functions were conEned to legislative measures. Lord Canning nominated three Indians to the Council in 1862 namely, the Raja of Benares, the Maharaja of Patiala and Sir Dinkar Rao.
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120. "Political freedom is the lifebirth of a nation"- who gave this 0 / 1 statement?
A) Dadabhai Naoroji
B) BG Tilak
C) Lala Lajpat Rai
D) Aurobindo Ghosh
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above. Correct answer
D) Aurobindo Ghosh
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Ans-D Aurobindo Ghosh said that 'political freedom is the life breath of a nation' during Swadeshi Movement.
Lord Curzon was the Viceroy of India from 1899 to 1905. The partition of the Bengal province came into effect during his viceroyalty on 16th October 1905.
Since 1765 (following the Battle of Buxar) the province of Bengal, which included present-day West Bengal, Bihar, Odisha, Bangladesh and Assam was under the British. It was a very large area and the population rose to almost 80 million by the Erst few years of the 20th century. Calcutta was the capital of the province and also of British India. There were di[culties in administering such a large area. The eastern part, especially in rural areas were neglected. That region was lacking in the Eelds of industry, education and employment. Much of the industry was centered on Calcutta. For administrative ease, the partition of the province had been proposed even before Curzon had arrived in India. In 1874, Assam was sliced away from Bengal and put under a Chief Commissioner. Initially, Lord Curzon proposed the partitioning of the province as an administrative measure solely. In 1904, he undertook a tour of eastern Bengal. The idea of using the Bengal partition as a political tool to undermine the growing nationalism in Bengal and other parts of India occurred later. As per Curzon, after the partition the two provinces would be Bengal (including modern West Bengal, Odisha and Bihar) and Eastern Bengal and Assam.
There was widespread political unrest in the province after Curzon announced the partition. Many people in Bengal regarded this partition as an insult to their motherland. There was a huge cry for the unity of Bengal. Rabindranath Tagore composed the famous song ‘Amar sonar Bangla’ which later became the national anthem of Bangladesh. The Indian National Congress protested this move to separate the province on communal lines. Most of the Bengalis in the western part protested against this step which would also make them a linguistic minority in their own province. There would be more Odia and Hindi speaking people than Bengalis. Many Muslims welcomed this move since they thought that most Muslims, who were backward in education and economic status in Bengal compared to Hindus, would beneEt if they were in a majority. Lord Curzon also promised to start a university in Dhaka. This was also seen as an opportunity for the Muslims to develop in education and improve their standard of living. The general protest in the rest of the country was against this partition. The people saw through the ‘divide and rule’ policy of the British authorities.
The partition did succeed in creating a communal rift in the country and even contributed to the birth of the Muslim League in 1906.
Owing to mass political protests, the partition was annulled in 1911. New provinces were created based on linguistic lines rather than religious lines. Bihar and Orissa Province was carved out of Bengal. (Bihar and Orissa became separate provinces in 1936). A separate Assam province was created. The capital of British India was moved to Delhi from Calcutta in 1911. Despite the annulment, the partition did create a communal divide among the Hindus and Muslims of Bengal.
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121. Ramosi Peasant force was organised by- 1 / 1
A) Vasudev Balwant Phadke
B) Sachin Sanyal
C) Ajit Singh
D) Khudiram Bose
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-A Vasudev Balwant Phadke, an educated clerk, raised a Ramosi peasant force of about 50 in Maharashtra during 1879. Vasudev Balwant Phadke, also known as the father of the Indian Armed Rebellion was born on 4th November 1845 in Panvel, Raigad district, Maharashtra.
Add individual feedback 122. Which reforms introduced separate electorate for Hindus 1 / 1 and Muslims?
A) Morley-Minto Reforms
B) Montague Reforms
C) Rowlatt Act
D) Poona Pact
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-A
The Act introduced communal representation in Indian politics. This was intended to stem the growing tide of nationalism in the country by dividing the people on communal lines. The culmination of this step was seen in the partition of the country along religious lines. The effects of differential treatment of different religious groups can be seen to this day. The act did nothing to grant colonial self-government which was the Congress’s demand. The Act did increase Indian participation in the legislative councils especially at the provincial levels.
The legislative councils at the Centre and the provinces increased in size. Central Legislative Council – from 16 to 60 members Legislative Councils of Bengal, Madras, Bombay and United Provinces – 50 members each Legislative Councils of Punjab, Burma and Assam – 30 members each The legislative councils at the centre and the provinces were to have four categories of members as follows: Ex o[cio members: Governor General and members of the executive council. Nominated o[cial members: Government o[cials who were nominated by the Governor-General. Nominated non-o[cial members: nominated by the Governor-General but were not government o[cials. Elected members: elected by different categories of Indians.
Indians were given membership to the Imperial Legislative Council for the Erst time. It introduced separate electorates for the Muslims. Some constituencies were earmarked for Muslims and only Muslims could vote their representatives.
Add individual feedback 123. The magna carta of English education system in India is___ 1 / 1 .
a) The report of the Committee of Public Instruction, 1823
b) The Charter Act of 1833
c) Report of the Hunter Commission, 1862
d) Wood’s Despatch, 1854
e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-d Wood's Despatch on Education in 1854 laid the foundation of Indian educational system and the establishments of Universities in Kolkata, Mumbai and Chennai. The despatch came to be considered as the Magna Carta of English education in India.
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124. Ho and Munda tribesman were from: 1 / 1
A) Chhotanagpur
B) Rajmahal Hills
C) Aravalli
D) Midnapore
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-A) Chhotanagpur
Add individual feedback 125. In which of the following sessions of the Indian National 0 / 1 Congress, did Mohan Das Karamchand Gandhi participate for the mrst time?
A) Calcutta Session 1901
B) Banaras Session 1905
C) Surat Session 1907
D) Lucknow Session 1916
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
A) Calcutta Session 1901
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Ans-A In the Calcutta Session 1901 of the Indian National Congress, Mohan Das Karmachand Gandhi participated for the Erst time. In 1901, Gandhi reached India to attend the Calcutta session of the Indian National Congress and had the satisfaction of seeing his resolution on South Africa pass with acclamation
Add individual feedback 126. Who addressed Gandhiji as the 'Father of the Nation" for 1 / 1 the mrst time?
A) Subhash Chandra Bose
B) Rabindranath Tagore
C) Sardar Vallabhbhi Patel
D) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans- A Subhash Chandra Bose addressed Gandhiji as the "Father of the Nation" for the Erst time. Mahatma Gandhiji is revered in India as the Father of the Nation. It was Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose who Erst adressed him as such in his condolence message to the Mahatma on the demise of Kasturba.
Add individual feedback 127. The Swaraj Party in Bihar was formed in- 1 / 1
A) February 1923
B) August 1924
C) March 1922
D) January 1925
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-A) The Swaraj Party was established as the Congress-Khilafat. It was a political party formed in India in January 1923 after the Gaya annual conference in December 1922 of the National Congress, that sought greater self-government and political freedom for the Indian people from the British Raj. The two most important leaders were Chittaranjan Das, who was its president and Motilal Nehru, who was its secretary. The Swaraj Party in Bihar was formed in Feb 1923. Shri Narayan Das was its Erst President.
Add individual feedback 128. First person in Bihar who started individual Satyagraha- 0 / 1
A) J P Narayan
B) Baldev Sahay
C) Shri Krishna
D) Anugraha Narayan Sinha
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
C) Shri Krishna
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Ans-C Shri Krishna was the First person in Bihar who started individual Satyagraha (on Nov 28, 1940) followed by Anugraha Narayan Sinha.
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129. Who was the leader of Patna uprising in 1857? 1 / 1
A) Jaimangal SIngh
B) Inayat Ali
C) Vilayat Ali
D) Pir Ali
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-D) Pir Ali (on July 3, 1857)
Add individual feedback 130. Santhal uprising was started in the year- 1 / 1
A) 1856
B) 1833
C) 1821
D) 1848
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-a) The Santhal Revolt took place in 1855-56. Santhals are a tribal group concentrated in the state of Jharkhand. This was the Erst peasant revolt that occurred in India. The revolt can be attributed to the introduction of the Permanent Land Settlement of 1793.
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131. Which of the following is a great circle? 1 / 1
(a) Arctic Circle
(b) Equator
(c) Tropic of Cancer
(d) Tropic of Capricorn
(e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-b
A great circle is the largest possible circle that can be drawn around a sphere. Equator is the Great Circle of Earth.
Add individual feedback 132. Which river in India wows in a rift-valley? 1 / 1
(a) Brahmaputra
(b) Narmada
(c) Krishna
(d) Kaveri
(e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-b Narmada is a river in central India and the Efth longest river in the Indian subcontinent. It is also known as "Life Line of Madhya Pradesh" for its huge contribution to the state of Madhya Pradesh in many ways. Narmada rises from Amarkantak Plateau near Anuppur district. It pows through rift valley.
Add individual feedback 133. The Andaman group and Nicobar group of islands are 0 / 1 separated from each other by -
(a) Ten Degree channel
(b) Great channel
(c) Bay of Bengal
(d) Andaman sea
(e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
(a) Ten Degree channel
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Ans-a
The Andaman and Nicobar Islands, one of the seven union territories of India, are a group of islands at the juncture of the Bay of Bengal and Andaman Sea.It is separated from Ten Degree channel.
Add individual feedback 134. The Coriolis force is maximum at ______. 0 / 1
(a) Mountain peaks
(b) Tropics
(c) Equator
(d) Poles
(e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
(d) Poles
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Ans-d The Coriolis effect inpuences the paths of moving objects on Earth and is caused by Earth s rotation. Earth surface rotates at different velocities at different latitudes, objects in motion tend to move right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere. The Coriolis effect is nonexistent at the equator but increases with latitude, reaching a maximum at the poles
Add individual feedback 135. Zojila pass connects - 0 / 1
(a) Nepal and Tibet
(b) Leh and Kargil
(c) Leh and Srinagar
(d) Kashmir and Tibet
(e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
(c) Leh and Srinagar
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Ans-C
Zoji La is a high mountain pass in Jammu and Kashmir, India, located on the Indian National Highway 1D between Srinagar and Leh in the western section of the Himalayan mountain range.
Important Passes in India
• Zoji La (Pass)-It is in the Zaskar range of Jammu & Kashmir. The road route from Srinagar to Leh goes through this pass. It has been created by the Indus River.
• Banihal Pass-It is in Jammu & Kashmir. The National Highway NO.1 A that links Srinagar to Jammu goes through it. It has been created by the Indus River.
• Shipki La (Pass)-It is in Himachal Pradesh. The road from Shimla to Tibet goes through this pass. The Satluj River pows through this pass.
• Bara-Lacha Pass-It is also in Himachal Pradesh. It links Mandi and Leh by road.
• Rohtang Pass-It is also in Himachal Pradesh. It cuts through the Pir Panjal range. It links Manali and Leh by road.
• Mana Pass-It is in Uttarakhand. The land route to the Kailash and the Manasarovar passes through it.
• Niti Pass-It is also in Uttarakhand. The road to the Kailash and the Manasarovar passes through it.
• Nathu La (Pass)-It is in Sikkim. It gives way to Tibet from Darjeeling and Chumbi valley.
• Jalep La (Pass)-It is also in Sikkim and gives way to Bhutan. The Tista River has created this pass.
Add individual feedback 136. In which state is the Maikal range situated? 1 / 1
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Bihar
(d) Chhattisgarh
(e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-D
The Maikal Hills are range of hills in the state of Chhattisgarh India. The Maikal Hills are an eastern part of the Satpuras in Kawardha District of Chhattisgarh, overlooking the scenic town of Kawardha. they have an altitude ranging from 340 m to 941 m above sea level.
Add individual feedback 137. Which one of the following would have occurred if the 0 / 1 earth had not been inclined on its own axis?
(a)All the seasons would have been of same duration
(b)The seasons would not have changed
(c)The summer would have been of longer duration
(d)The winter would have been of longer duration
(e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
(b)The seasons would not have changed
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Ans-B
The seasons are caused as the Earth, tilted on its axis, travels in a loop around the Sun each year. Summer happens in the hemisphere tilted towards the Sun, and winter happens in the hemisphere tilted away from the Sun.
Add individual feedback 138. The most abundant element in the earth’s crust is: 1 / 1
(a) Oxygen
(b)Aluminium
(c)Iron
(d)Magnesium
(e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-a Most abundant element is Oxygen followed by Silicon. Both of these are non-metals. Silicon is followed by Aluminium which is most abundant metal
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139. The largest Lagoon lake of India is: 1 / 1
(a) Dal Lake
(b) Chilka Lake
(c) Pulicat Lake
(d) Mansarover
(e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-b
A lagoon is a shallow body of water separated from a larger body of water by barrier islands or reefs.Chilka lake is the largest coastal lagoon in india and the second largest lagoon in the world,situated on east coast of Odisha separated marginally by thin strip of land from Bay of Bengal.It is the largest wintering ground for migratory birds on the Indian sub-continent.
Add individual feedback 140. The longest river of Peninsular India is: 1 / 1
(a) Ganga
(b) Godavari
(c) Mahanadi
(d) Cauvery
(e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-b
Godavari is the longest river of peninsular India. Godavari, also known as 'Dakshin Ganga' – the South Ganges, the second longest river of India after the Ganges. Its source is in Triambakeshwar, Maharashtra.
Add individual feedback 141. Which from the following rivers does NOT originate in 0 / 1 Indian territory?
(a) Godavari
(b) Jhelum
(c) Ravi
(d) Ghaghara
(e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
Correct answer
(d) Ghaghara
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Ans.(d) It rises in the southern slopes of the Himalayas in Tibet, in the glaciers of Mapchachungo on the Tibetan Plateau near Lake Manasarovar.It cuts through the Himalayas in Nepal and joins the Sharda River at Brahmaghat in India. Together they form the Ghaghara River, a major left bank tributary of the Ganges.Ghaghara river also called Karnali.
Add individual feedback 142. What should be the percentage of forest cover for India to 1 / 1 maintain her ecological balance?
(a) 11.1 percent
(b) 22.2 percent
(c) 33.3 percent
(d) 44.4 percent
(e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans.(c) National forest policy of 1952 had a target of keeping 33% of land area under forest in India because that percentage is regarded as the minimum required for maintaining ecological balance in a country.
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143. Which of the following countries are separated by the 1 / 1 Strait of Gibraltar?
A) Portugal and Morocco
B) Algeria and Spain
C) Morroco and Spain
D) Algeria and Portugal
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Answer: C [Morroco and Spain]
Add individual feedback 144. The only two landlocked countries of South American 1 / 1 continent are :
a) Bolivia and Paraguay
b) Ecuador and Parana
c) Columbia and Paraguay
d) Surinam and Guyana
e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Answer: A [Bolivia and Paraguay]
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145. The Kanha National Park is located at 1 / 1
a) Uttar Pradesh
b) Madhya Pradesh
c) Gujarat
d) Chhattisgarh
e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-b
Kanha National Park, also known as Kanha Tiger Reserve, is a vast expanse of grassland and forest in the central Indian state of Madhya Pradesh.
Add individual feedback 146. Which plateau is known as the mineral heart land of India? 1 / 1
a) Bhander Plateau
d) Tibetan Plateau
e) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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ANSWER: b) Chota Nagpur Plateau
Chota Nagpur plateau is a store house of minerals like mica, bauxite, copper, limestone, iron ore and coal. The Damodar valley is rich in coal and it is considered as the prime centre of coking coal in the country.
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147. Which of the following Indian State is the largest producer 1 / 1 of rubber?
A) Tamil Nadu
B) Andhra Pradesh
C) Karnataka
D) Kerala
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-D India today is the world's 3rd largest producer and 4th largest consumer. Kerala accounts for more than 90 percent of the total rubber production in the country.
Add individual feedback 148. Which of the following districts has the highest literacy 1 / 1 rate?
A) Rohtas
B) Patna
C) Purnia
D) Gaya
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-A 1 Rohtas 73.37 % 2 Patna 70.68 % 3 Bhojpur 70.47 % 4 Munger 70.46 % 5 Aurangabad 70.32 %
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149. Which district has maximum forest area in Bihar? 1 / 1
A) Rohtas
B) Kaimur
C) West Champaran
D) Gaya
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-B) Kaimur (1062 sq. km)
Add individual feedback 150. Which of the following river originates from Rohtas plateau 1 / 1
A) Punpun river
B) Kiul river
C) Phalgu river
D) Karmanasa river
E) None of the above/ More than one of the above.
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Ans-D) Karmanasa river
The Rohtas Plateau (also referred to as Kaimur Plateau) is a plateau that lies in the south-western part of the Indian state of Bihar.
The Karmanasa River (Hindi: कमरनाशा नदी) is a tributary of the Ganges. It originates in Kaimur district of Bihar and pows through the Indian states of Uttar Pradesh and Bihar. Along the boundary between Uttar Pradesh and Bihar it has the districts of Sonbhadra, Chandauli, Varanasi and Ghazipur on its left (UP side); and the districts of Kaimur and Buxar on its right
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Submitted 23/11/2018, 15:52