Answer & Explanation for G.S. Test-7 held on 4th March 2018
1. Consider the following statements about Incremental Capital Output Ratio (ICOR): (1) It is a measurement of efficiency of any economy. (2) Higher value of ICOR indicates a more efficient economy. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a) Exp: ICOR refers to the additional capital required to generate additional output. Thus, it reflects how efficiently capital is being used to generate additional output. For example, if the 10% additional capital is required to push the overall output by a percent, the ICOR will be 10. Annual Investment Capital ICOR = Annual Increase in GDP Lower the ICOR, the better it is. A higher ICOR indicates that the production is inefficient as it requires more capital investment to generate next unit of production.
2. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below: List-I List-II (Winds) (Prevalent in) A. Harmattan 1. North America B. Fohn 2. Northern Alps C. Mistral 3. Western Africa D. Chinook 4. Rhone Valley Codes A B C D (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 4 3 2 (c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 3 4 2 1
Ans: (c) Exp: 1. In West Africa, the North-East Trades, blow off-shore from the Sahara Desert and reach Guinea coast as a dry, dust laden wind called locally the Harmattan meaning ‘the doctor’. It is a dry wind which provides a welcome relief from damp air of the Guinea lands by increasing the rate of evaporation with resultant cooling effects. 2. The Fohn wind is experienced in the valleys of the northern Alps. It is a dry and hot wind. 3. Mistral is a cold wind in the Mediterranean region rushing down the Rhone valley. In winter Mistral is most frequent. 4. The Chinook (meaning ‘the snow-eater’) winds are experienced on the eastern slopes of Rockies in USA and Canada in winter. It is also a hot wind.
3. The joint sitting of the Parliament may be convened by the President under which of the following circumstances?
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(a) To pass a Money Bill when it has been passed by the Lok Sabha and rejected by the Rajya Sabha. (b) To pass an Ordinary Bill when it has been passed by one House and rejected by the other House. (c) To pass a Bill which requires 2/3rd majority of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. (d) To pass a Constitutional Amendment Bill.
Ans: (b) Exp: The President can call joint sessions of the Parliament if a Bill passed by one House is rejected by the other House or if the amendments proposed to a Bill by one House are not acceptable to the other House, does not take any action on a Bill remitted to it for six months. But no joint sitting can be summoned to resolve a deadlock in case of a Money bill or a Constitutional Amendment.
4. In nuclear reactors, nuclear fission is due to which of the following? (a) Absorption of protons (b) Absorption of neutrons (c) Absorption of electrons (d) Emission of neutrons
Ans: (b) Exp: The fission of radioactive element in nuclear reactors is triggered by the absorption of a low energy neutron often termed a “slow neutron” or a “Thermal neutron”.
5. Consider the following leaders: (1) V.V.S Iyer (2) M.N Roy (3) Madam Bhikaji Cama (4) M. Barkatullah Who among the above were prominent revolutionaries operating outside India during the Indian National Movement? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d) Exp: V. V. S. Aiyar, was an Indian revolutionary from Tamil Nadu who fought against the British occupation of India. Aiyar's militant attitude prompted the British Raj in 1910 to issue a warrant for his arrest for his alleged involvement in an anarchist conspiracy in London and Paris. M.N. Roy joined an underground organization, Anushalin Samiti at the age of 14 and became a militant activist and also helped in organizing Jugantar Group under the leadership of Jatin Mukherji. He went to Europe in 1915 to organize an armed revolution against British Imperial rule in India, but he failed. Later, in 1916 he moved to San Francisco.
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Madam Bhikaji Cama was an eminent personality in the Abhinav Bharat society of the Indians residing in Europe. Her headquarters were in Paris and that was the meeting place of young revolutionaries like Hardayal and Shaklatvala. Mohamed Barakatullah fought from outside India, with fiery speeches and revolutionary writings in leading newspapers, for the independence of India. He was one of the founders of the Ghadar Party in 1913 at San Francisco. Later he became the first prime minister of the Provisional Government of India established on 1 December 1915 in Kabul with Raja Mahendra Pratap as its president.
6. Consider the following statements about oceanic pollution: (1) Dead Sea zones in the oceans are areas of excessive salinity where aquatic life cannot sustain. (2) Oceanic acidification is caused by increased levels of carbon dioxide in the oceans. (3) Eutrophication of oceans results in an increase in the primary productivity. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b) Exp: Dead zones are hypoxic (low oxygen) areas in the world’s ocean. These occur near inhabited coastlines where aquatic life is most concentrated. The vast middle portions of the oceans, which naturally have little life, are not considered “Dead Zones.” Ocean acidification is the ongoing decrease in the pH of the oceans, caused by the uptake of carbon dioxide (CO2) from the atmosphere. Eutrophication, is the enrichment of a water body with nutrients, usually with an excess amount of nutrients. This process induces growth of plants and algae (i.e. increases primary productivity) and due to the biomass load, may result in oxygen depletion of the water body.
7. In which of the following States of India crop colonies are being established to attain self- sufficiency in food and vegetable production in drought prone areas? (a) Maharashtra (b) Telangana (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Madhya Pradesh
Ans: (b) Exp: The Telangana government is set to launch the ambitious crop colonies project. There are plans to create 54 crop colony clusters in the State including vegetable crop colonies. A crop colony is meant to grow a particular crop in a given village or a cluster of villages. The idea is to ensure that adequate quantities of various crops including vegetables are grown in the State to meet the demand for food grains and pulses among other commodities.
8. Consider the following statements: (1) Hepatitis A, Hepatitis B, and Hepatitis C are diseases caused by different bacteria. (2) Hepatitis B is a transmissible disease — it spreads the same way as HIV. (3) Hepatitis is primarily the infection of stomach and intestines. Page 3 of 40
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of the above
Ans: (b) Exp: Hepatitis A, Hepatitis B, and Hepatitis C are diseases caused by three different viruses. Hepatitis is primarily the infection of liver. 90% of the cases of Hepatitis B transmit via vertical transmission from mother to child in perinatal period. The remaining cases are transmitted through intravenous drug users, people having multiple sex partners, infected and unscreened blood products, tattoo needles.
9. Which of the following is/are instruments of qualitative credit control in Monetary Policy? (1) Bank Rate (2) Open Market Operations (3) Consumer Credit Regulation (4) Rationing of credit (5) Margin requirements Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 4 and 5 only (d) 3, 4 and 5 only
Ans: (d) Exp: Bank rate and open market operations are instruments of quantitative credit control. The qualitative or selective methods of credit control are adopted by the Central Bank in its pursuit of economic stabilisation and as part of credit management. (i) Margin Requirements: The commercial banks generally advance loans to their customers against some security or securities offered by the borrower and acceptable to banks. Generally, the commercial banks do not lend up to the full amount of the security but lend an amount less than its value. Margin requirement is the minimum amount of money that a client must have on deposit, either in cash or approved securities, to access a loan. The margin requirements against specific securities are determined by the Central Bank. A change in margin requirements will influence the flow of credit. A rise in the margin requirement results in a contraction in the borrowing value of the security and similarly, a fall in the margin requirement results in expansion in the borrowing value of the security. (ii) Credit Rationing: Rationing of credit is a method by which the Central Bank seeks to limit the maximum amount of loans and advances and, also in certain cases, fix ceiling for specific categories of loans and advances. (iii) Regulation of Consumer Credit: Regulation of consumer credit is designed to check the flow of credit for consumer durable goods. This can be done by regulating the total volume of credit that may be extended for purchasing specific durable goods and regulating the number of instalments through which such loan can be spread. Central Bank uses this method to restrict or liberalise loan conditions accordingly to stabilise the economy.
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10. With reference to the Indian freedom struggle, consider the following events: (1) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (2) Hunter Report (3) Rowlatt Act What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events? (a) 3, 1, 2 (b) 2, 1, 3 (c) 3, 2, 1 (d) 1, 2, 3
Ans: (a) Exp: The Jallianwala Bagh massacre, also known as the Amritsar massacre, took place on 13 April 1919 when troops of the British Indian Army under the command of Colonel Reginald Dyer fired rifles into a crowd of Baishakhi pilgrims, who had gathered in Jallianwala Bagh, Amritsar, Punjab. The Jallianwala Bagh massacre was followed by establishment of a enquiry committee headed by Lord William Hunter. Rowlatt Acts, (February 1919), legislation passed by the Imperial Legislative Council, the legislature of British India. The acts allowed certain political cases to be tried without juries and permitted internment of suspects without trial.
11. Consider the following statements about Mitochondria: (1) The Mitochondria are also called as the powerhouse of the cell. (2) Only maternal mitochondria are passed on to the progeny but not paternal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c) Exp: The mitochondria are the double membrane-bound organelle found in almost all eukaryotic organisms. It is one of the most important organelles of the cell and performs various biological processes such as Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP) Synthesis, ion homeostasis calcium storage and regulation of cell death pathways. They are also known to possess their own genome. Mitochondria generate most of the cell’s supply of ATP, used as a source of chemical energy. Therefore, it is also called as the powerhouse of the cell. A prokaryote is a unicellular organism that lacks a membrane-bound nucleus (Karyon), mitochondria, or any other membrane bound organelle. Only maternal mitochondria are passed on to the progeny as researchers have found that the transmission of paternal mitochondria or father’s mitochondria is an evolutionary disadvantage.
12. Which of the following are the methods of weed control in agriculture? (1) Tillage (2) Mulching (3) Integrated Pest Management (4) Dredging Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only Page 5 of 40
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c) Exp: Tillage, Mulching, and Dredging are the methods of weed control in Agriculture. In Integrated Pest Management, all the suitable techniques and methods of pest control are followed in a compatible manner as possible and maintain the pest population below the levels of causing economic injury.
13. In the Constitution of India, the concept of a welfare state is included in which of the following: (a) Fundamental Duties (b) Preamble (c) Fundamental Rights (d) Directive Principles of State Policy
Ans: (d) Exp: Welfare State, i.e., a state which renders social services to the people and promotes their general welfare. This concept of welfare state is expressed in the Directive Principles of State Policy which set out the economic, social and political goals of the Indian Constitutional system.
14. With reference to "Pradhan Mantri Mahila Shakti Kendra" scheme, consider the following statements: (1) The scheme is part of the Umbrella Scheme "SABLA" by the Ministry of Women and Child Development. (2) Student volunteers will play an instrumental role in generating awareness about social issues. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b) Exp: The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs chaired by the Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi has given its approval for expansion of the schemes of Ministry of Women and Child Development under Umbrella Scheme "Mission for Protection and Empowerment for Women" for a period 2017-18 to 2019-20. CCEA has also given approval to the new scheme called ‘Mahila Shakti Kendra', which will empower rural women through community participation to create an environment in which they realize their full potential. Community engagement through Student Volunteers is envisioned in 115 most backward districts as part of the MSK Block level initiatives. Student volunteers will play an instrumental role in awareness generation regarding various important government schemes/ programmes as well as social issues.
15. With reference to the Swaraj Party, consider the following statements:
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(1) The aim of the Swaraj Party was to boycott the foreign goods and adopt Swadeshi goods on a large scale. (2) The party was formed during the anti-Bengal partition movement. (3) B.G. Tilak and C. Rajagopalachari were the founding members of the Swaraj Party. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of the above
Ans: (d) Exp: The Swaraj Party, was a political party formed in India in January 1923 after the Gaya annual conference in December 1922 of the National Congress, that sought greater self-government and political freedom for the Indian people from the British Raj. The two most important leaders were Chittaranjan Das, who was its president and Motilal Nehru, who was its secretary. Aim of Swaraj Party was attaining dominion status, obtaining the right to frame a constitution, establishing control over the bureaucracy, obtaining full provincial autonomy, attaining Swarajya (self-rule), getting people the right to control government machinery, etc.
16. Consider the following pairs: Convention/ Deals with/ Protocol Objective 1. Stockholm : Persistent Convention Organic Pollutants 2. Cartagena : Genetically Protocol Modified Organisms 3. Vienna : Protection Convention of Ozone layer Which of the pairs given above is/are incorrectly matched? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) None of the above
Ans: (d) Exp: Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants is an international environmental treaty, signed in 2001 and effective from May 2004, that aims to eliminate or restrict the production and use of persistent organic pollutants (POPs). The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety to the Convention on Biological Diversity is an international agreement on biosafety as a supplement to the Convention on Biological Diversity effective since 2003. The Biosafety Protocol seeks to protect biological diversity from the potential risks posed by genetically modified organisms resulting from modern biotechnology. The Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer is Multilateral Environmental Agreement. It was agreed upon at the Vienna Conference of 1985 and entered into force in 1988. In terms of universality, it is one of the most successful treaties of all time, having been ratified by 197 states (all United Page 7 of 40
Nations members as well as the Holy See, Niue and the Cook Islands) as well as the European Union. It acts as a framework for the international efforts to protect the ozone layer. However, it does not include legally binding reduction goals for the use of CFCs, the main chemical agents causing ozone depletion. These are laid out in the accompanying Montreal Protocol.
17. In context of the Indian economy the term fiscal drag was in news recently. It refers to: (a) Slowing down of economic growth due to twin balance sheet problem. (b) A situation where inflation pushes income into higher tax bracket. (c) Increased government spending to revive economy during recession. (d) None of the above
Ans: (b) Exp: Fiscal drag in economics is the process by which, during inflation, rising incomes draw people into higher tax brackets, so that their real incomes may fall leading to less consumer spending; this acts as a restraint on the expansion of the economy. In other terms, it refers to a situation where a government's net fiscal position (equal to its spending less any taxation) does not meet the net savings goals of the private economy. This can result in deflationary pressure attributed to either lack of state spending or to excess taxation.
18. Consider the following statements regarding Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD): (1) It is an atmosphere-ocean coupled phenomenon in the tropical Indian Ocean. (2) A positive IOD is associated with warmer eastern tropical Indian Ocean. (3) A negative IOD is associated with warmer western tropical Indian Ocean. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b) Exp: Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) is an irregular oscillation of sea surface temperature, In which western Indian Ocean becomes alternately warmer and cooler than the eastern part. In positive IOD the eastern part becomes cooler while in negative IOD the western part becomes cooler.
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19. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements: (1) The life of Lok Sabha can be extended indefinitely. (2) The Rajya Sabha is dissolved once in six years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d) Exp: The term of the Lok Sabha, unless dissolved, is five years. However, while a proclamation of emergency is in operation, this period may be extended by Parliament by law for a period not exceeding one year at a time and not extending in any case, beyond a period of six months after the proclamation has ceased to operate.Rajya Sabha is a permanent House and is not subject to dissolution. However, one-third Members of Rajya Sabha retire after every second year. A member who is elected for a full term serves for a period of six years.
20. Which of the following text contains the Sanskrit phrase “Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam”? (a) Manusmriti (b) Vishnu Puran (c) Maha Upanishad (d) Bhagavat Puran
Ans: (c) Exp: Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam is derived from the Sanskrit words – Vasudha meaning the Earth and “Iva” means “is” and Kutumbakam means the family. Thus vasudhaiva kutumbakam is a Sanskrit phrase which means that the whole world is one single family. The concept originates in the Vedic scripture Maha Upanishad (Chapter 6, Verse 72).
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21. Consider the following statements related to the World Economic Forum: (1) It is a non-profit organisation under United Nations for improving the state of the world by improving business agendas. (2) It is headquartered at Geneva, Switzerland. (3) It releases the Inclusive Development Index Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b) Exp: The World Economic Forum is an independent international organization committed to improving the state of the world by engaging business, political, academic and other leaders of society to shape global, regional and industry agendas. It is not the aegis of United Nations. It was established in 1971 as a not-for-profit foundation and is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland. It releases Inclusive Development Index. Inclusive Development Index (IDI) measures progress of 103 economies on three individual pillars – growth and development; inclusion; and inter- generational equity. It has been divided into two parts. The first part covers 29 advanced economies and second 74 emerging economies. India ranks 62nd among emerging economies.
22. Consider the following statements about Spot Market: (1) It is an electronic trading platform that facilitates purchase and sale of specified commodities. (2) Agricultural commodities, metals and bullion can be traded on this platform. (3) It helps make profits by betting on the future value of underlying assets. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b) Exp: Spot Market - It is an electronic trading platform which facilitates purchase and sale of specified commodities like agricultural commodities, metals and bullion. It provides spot delivery contracts which are immediate contracts or those in 11 days. Derivatives Market - Derivatives are financial contracts that derive their value from an underlying asset. These could be stocks, indices, commodities, currencies, exchange rates, or the rate of interest. These helps make profits by betting on the future value of the underlying assets.
23. Consider the following statements regarding biomes of the world: (1) Savanna biome has the shortest growing period. (2) Taiga is the largest biome in the world. (3) Temperate forests have the highest species diversity. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only Page 10 of 40
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b) Exp: Tundra biome has the shortest growing season (less than 3 months). Taiga is the largest biome in the world. It is also known as Coniferous forest or Boreal forest. Taiga forest lies between 55 degree north and 70 degree north hemisphere. It forms an almost continuous belt across southern Canada, northern Europe and Russia. Tropical rainforests have the highest species diversity.
24. The Constitution of India provides for a form of federal system of government that is best represented by which of the following features? (a) Article 1 which defines India as a federal State. (b) The presence of 29 States and 7 Union Territories. (c) Dual court system (d) Division of powers between the Centre and the States.
Ans: (d) Exp: Article 1 of the Constitution describes India as a “Union of States.” India is called a federal country because every state and union territories are free to make their own decisions, irrespective of the central government policies. They can do all these because powers are divided between the Centre and the State.
25. With reference to the Indian freedom struggle, consider the following statements: (1) ''Inquilab Zindabad'' was a slogan given by Chandra Shekhar Azad. (2) Jawahar Lal Nehru commented that ''the Cripps Mission was a post dated cheque on a crashing bank." (3) Bal Gangadhar Tilak said that "Swaraj is my birth right and I shall have it." Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of the above
Ans: (b) Exp: The famous slogan Inquilab Zindabad was given by Hasrat Mohani. Shaheed Bhagat Singh the great revolutionary used it first time in 1929 when he shouted it after bombing the Central Assembly in Delhi. Gandhi ji said that Cripps' offer of Dominion Status after the second world war was a "post-dated cheque drawn on a crashing bank". Tilak was the first leader to propound the ideal of ‘sampoorna swarajya’, and his statement, “Swaraj is my birth right and I shall have it”.
26. Consider the following statements regarding Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA): (1) In India EIA has been made mandatory for all projects. (2) In the areas covered under the Panchayats (Extension to the Schedule Areas) Act, 196, Gram Sabha is empowered to undertake EIA – for new projects. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Page 11 of 40
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d) Exp: In India, EIA has not been made mandatory for all projects. There are several projects with significant environmental impacts that are exempted from the notification either because they are not listed in Schedule – 1, or their investments are less than what is provided for in the notification. In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Schedule Areas) Act, 1996, Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas, but it cannot undertake EIA. EIA is conducted by an expert panel.
27. The Centre has sought a report from Central Water Commission on unusual blackening of river Siang. Consider the following statements regarding River Siang: (1) It is the left-bank tributary of river Brahmaputra. (2) It is also known as Dibang river in Arunachal Pradesh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d) Exp: River Brahmaputra before entering Assam is known as Siang in Arunachal Pradesh. So, it is the not the tributary of River Brahmaputra but the other name of River Brahmaputra. It is also known as River Dihang in Arunachal Pradesh. River Dibang is its left-bank tributary. Other tributaries of River Brahmaputra or Tsangpo or Siang (Dihang) are Lohit, Dhansiri, Subansiri, Kameng, Teesta, etc.
28. Which of the following groups will be negatively affected by Rupee depreciation in India? (1) Gold importers (2) Indian students studying in the USA (3) Foreign tourists in India (4) Receivers of remittances in India Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only
Ans: (b) Exp: Rupee depreciation will negatively impact any entity which demands dollars or purchases dollars by spending rupees. With rupee depreciation, one needs more rupees to buy every dollar.
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29. Consider the following statements about climatic conditions of a region: (1) A dry, warm summer with off-shore trades. (2) A concentration of rainfall in winter. (3) The prominence of local winds. The above description corresponds to which climatic zone of the world? (a) The Savanna or Sudan climate (b) The Steppe climate (c) The Mediterranean climate (d) Tropical Marine climate
Ans: (c) Exp: 1. The Savanna or Sudan Climate: The Savanna type of climate is characterized by an alternate hot, rainy season and cool, dry season. 2. The Steppe climate exists in the interiors of grasslands. So, there is little maritime influence. Thus, the climate is continental with extremes of temperature, summers are very warm and winters are very cold. 3. The tropical marine climate is experienced along the eastern coasts of tropical lands, receiving steady rainfall from the trade winds all the time.
30. During the Second World War the Indian National Congress (INC) took a stand that - (a) It will extended its full support to the Indian National Army to oust the British from India. (b) If the British government promised dominion status to India, then INC will cooperate with them. (c) It is in the national interest that India should support the cause of allied powers. (d) It would cooperate with the British if India is granted complete independence
Ans: (d) Exp: British Government dragged India into Second World War without any consultation with the Indian leaders. The Indian National Congress put its conditions for participation in the War. It demanded the establishment of an Indian Government in India responsible to the Central Legislative Assembly and a promise to grant freedom to India as soon as the War was over. Since the British Government refused to agree to these proposals, The Congress Ministries resigned in all the provinces.
31. Despite not being a member, who among the following has the right to speak and participate in the proceedings of either Houses of the Parliament without having the right to vote? (a) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (b) The Comptroller and Auditor General (c) The Chairman of the Finance Commission (d) The Attorney General of India
Ans: (d) Exp: The Attorney General has the right of audience in all Courts in India as well as the right to participate in the proceedings of the Parliament, though not to vote.
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32. Consider the following statements: (1) Global Initiatives for Academic Network (GIAN) programme is aimed at tapping the international talent pool to encourage the engagement of scientists and Entrepreneurs with the Institutes of Higher Education in India. (2) GIAN’s objective is to document and develop new pedagogic methods in emerging topics of national and international interest. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d) Exp: Global Initiative for Academic Network (GIAN) programme approved by Union Cabinet in Higher Education aimed at tapping the talent pool of Scientist and Entrepreneurs internationally to encourage their engagement with the Institutes of Higher Education in India so as to augment the country’s existing academic resources, accelerate the pace of quality reform, and elevate India’s scientific and technological capacity to global excellence. Recently the NITI Aayog launched the first course on Sustainable Urban planning using remote sensing and Geographic Information System (GIS) at IIT Kanpur. This is the first course conducted under Global Initiative on Academic Network (GIAN) Program of Union Ministry of Human Resource Development.
33. Consider the following statements about Public Finance in India: (1) The indirect taxes promote inequality in the distribution of income. (2) Tax expenditure refers to expenditures incurred by the Government in the collection of taxes. (3) Less than 30% of India’s total population pays income tax. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c) Exp: The indirect taxes promote inequality in the distribution of income as poor bear more burden of indirect taxes. Tax expenditure, as the word indicates, does not relate to the expenditures incurred by the Government in the collection of taxes. Rather it refers to the opportunity cost of taxing at concessional rates or the opportunity cost of giving exemptions, deductions, rebates etc. to the tax payers. Tax expenditure is also known as revenue foregone. It is the revenue losses attributable to tax provisions that often result from the use of the tax system to promote social goals without incurring direct expenditures. A statement of the Revenue Foregone is presented to the Parliament at the time of Union Budget by way of a separate budget document. In India only 2.7% of population and only 5.9% of people in the working age-group pay income taxes.
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34. With reference to the spatial distribution of insolation at the Earth’s surface, which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Equator receives comparatively less insolation than the tropics. (2) At the same latitude, insolation is more over the ocean than over the continent. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a) Exp: The fact that the earth’s axis makes an angle of 66½ with the plane of its orbit round the sun has a greater influence on the amount of insolation received at different latitudes. Maximum insolation is received over the subtropical deserts, where cloudiness is the least. The Equator receives comparatively less insolation than the tropics. Generally, at the same latitude insolation is more over the continent than over the ocean. In winter, the middle and higher latitudes receive less radiation than in summer.
35. The objective of 'Red Shirts' during India's freedom struggle was to (a) Promote Trade Union activities. (b) Provide intelligence against revolutionaries to the British Government. (c) Promote Communist organizational activities. (d) Throw out the British from India.
Ans: (d) Exp: Red Shirt movement, by name of Khudai Khitmatgar (“Servants of God”), in support of the Indian National Congress, was an action started by Abdul Ghaffar Khan of the North-West Frontier Province of India in 1930. Ghaffar Khan was a Pashtun who greatly admired Mahatma Gandhi and his nonviolent principles and saw support for the Congress as a way of pressing his grievances against the British frontier regime.
36. Consider the following gases: (1) Carbon Dioxide (CO2) (2) Methane (CH4) (3) Nitrous Oxide (NO2) (4) Sulphur Hexafluoride (SF6) (5) Hydro Fluorocarbons (HFCs) Which of the above-mentioned gases are considered as Green House Gases (GHGs)? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only (c) 2, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans: (d) Exp: A greenhouse gas is a gas in an atmosphere that absorbs and emits radiant energy within the thermal infrared range. This process is the fundamental cause of the greenhouse effect. The primary greenhouse gases in Earth's atmosphere are water vapor, carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, and ozone. Without greenhouse gases, the average temperature of Earth's surface would be about −18°C (0° F), rather than the present average of 15° C (59°F). In the Page 15 of 40
Solar System, the atmospheres of Venus, Mars and Titan also contain gases that cause a greenhouse effect. The Kyoto Protocol targets these Green House Gases (GHGs): Carbon Dioxide (CO2), Methane (CH4), Nitrous Oxide (NO2), Sulphur Hexafluoride (SF6) and also two groups of gases: Hydro fluorocarbons (HFCs) and Per fluorocarbons (PFCs).
37. When is a political party in India, recognized as a national party? (a) It captures power in more than one State. (b) It contests elections in all of the States of the country. (c) It gets at least two percent of the total votes cast in a general election. (d) It is recognized as a political party in four or more States.
Ans: (d) Exp: Conditions for Recognition as a National Party: 1. Secure at least 6% of the valid vote in an Assembly or a Lok Sabha General Election in any four or more states and won at least 4 seats in a Lok Sabha General Election from any State or States. 2. Win at least 2% of the total Lok Sabha seats in a Lok Sabha General Election and these seats have to be won from at least 3 states. 3. The party is recognized as a State Party in at least four States.
38. In the context of Japanese encephalitis, consider the following statements: (1) Japanese encephalitis is a flavivirus that belongs to the same genus as dengue, yellow fever and West Nile viruses. (2) Japanese encephalitis is transmitted from person-to-person. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a) Exp: Japanese encephalitis (JE) is a mosquito-borne flavivirus. It belongs to the same genus as dengue, yellow fever and West Nile viruses. JE primarily affects children. It is transmitted by rice field breeding mosquitoes (primarily Culex tritaeniorhynchus group). It is not transmitted from person-to-person. There is no specific therapy for this.
39. An initiative of the Indian Government- “Mera Gaon Mera Gaurav”, aims to (a) Decentralize administrative powers among PRIs. (b) Enhance the direct interface of scientists with the farmers. (c) Provide skills to the rural women. (d) Digitalize the villages for easy access of services.
Ans: (b) Exp: The “Mera Gaon Mera Gaurav” has been conceptualized in which scientists of ICAR and Agricultural Universities will identify villages in the vicinity of the Institutions for providing advisories and consultations to farmers for increasing farm productivity and production.
40. Consider the following statements: Page 16 of 40
(1) Winston Churchill was the Prime Minister of Great Britain at the time of India's independence. (2) In India, an Interim Government at the Centre after independence was formed after the visit of the Cabinet Mission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b) Exp: Clement Attlee was the Prime minister of Great Britain at the time of India's Independence. Cabinet Mission was composed of three Cabinet Ministers of England Sir Pethick Lawrence, Secretary of State for India. Sir Stafford Cripps, President of the Board of Trade, Alexander, the First Lord of the Admiralty. The Mission arrived on March 24, 1946. The objective of this Mission was to devise a machinery to draw up the constitution of Independent India and make arrangements for an Interim Government. Thus the Mission was like a declaration of India’s independence.
41. The term “Information Utility” is sometimes in the news in the context of: (a) Providing and storing information regarding the debts and defaults of firms. (b) Providing and storing information regarding the GST payments and refunds online (c) Information collected by the NSSO in surveys for use to calculate the GDP figures. (d) The information used to generate the Human Development Reports.
Ans: (a) Exp: Information utility is an information network which would store financial data like borrowings, default and security interests among others of firms. The utility would specialise in procuring, maintaining and providing/supplying financial information to businesses, financial institutions, adjudicating authority, insolvency professionals and other relevant stake holders. National e-Governance Services Ltd (NeSL) became India’s first information utility (IU) for bankruptcy cases under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code 2016. NeSL is owned by State Bank of India and Life Insurance Corporation Ltd., among others. Recently, the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) eased ownership norms for setting up such utilities.
42. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? Crop Geographical/ climatic condition 1. Tea - Warm and moist climate with high altitude 2. Rice - Hot and moist climate with rich soil 3. Millet - Hot and dry climate with relatively less rich soil (a) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Page 17 of 40
Ans: (d) Exp: 1. Tea: India is the leading producer of tea, and it requires a temperature of 24°C to 30°C. Rainfall on an average should be above 200cm. The soil should be deep, fertile and well drained where water does not stagnate. Undulating plains of Brahmaputra and Surma Valleys of Assam are the major areas of production for Indian tea. Tea is one of the major foreign exchange earners of India. 2. Rice: Rice is India’s staple food. Next to China, India is a leading producer of rice in the world. Certain geographical conditions are required like clayey soil, and standing water during growth. Temperature needs to be uniformly high (above 25°C) and rainfall between 100 to 200 cm is needed. It is a kharif crop. Rice cultivation is concentrated mainly in the Northern plains which have alluvial soilsand adequate water supply. West Bengal is the leading producer of rice. 3. Millets: Millets are coarse grains and serve as food for a large number of people in India. They are kharif crops and grow in less rainy areas in the following order – Ragi (damp areas), Jowar (moist areas) and Bajra (dry areas). They require high temperature and less rainfall. They are alternative to rice as rainfall decreases. Ragi is confined to areas which include Karnataka and Tamil Nadu, Jowar in Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra and Bajra in drier parts of Maharashtra, Gujarat, Rajasthan and south west Uttar Pradesh. India leads the world in production of millets.
43. In a State Legislative Assembly, no Money Bill can be introduced without the recommendation of which of the following authority? (a) The President of India (b) The Governor of the State (c) The Speaker of the Assembly (d) The Chief Minister of the State
Ans: (b) Exp: No Money Bill can be introduced without the Governor’s recommendation. Such a bill is a government bill and can be introduced only by a Minister. It can be introduced only in Legislative Assembly.
44. Assumption Island and Agalega Island are located in which of the following Oceans? (a) Pacific Ocean (b) Atlantic Ocean (c) Indian Ocean (d) Arctic Ocean
Ans: (c) Exp: India is building strategic assets in Agalega Island in Mauritius and Assumption Island in Seychelles. Agalega Island, located 1,100 km north of Mauritius, and is closer to India’s southern coast. India has been working towards bagging the rights to develop the island for a few years. Assumption island is located in Seychelles, India inked a pact to develop the infrastructure of Assumption island, Spread over 11 sq km, it is strategically located in the Indian Ocean, north of Madagascar.
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45. One of the major events of the Indian freedom struggle was the Lucknow Congress Session of 1916. With reference to it, consider the following statements: (1) Merger of the Muslim League with the Indian National Congress had taken place in this session. (2) For the first time a Muslim had been elected as the President of the Indian National Congress. (3) The policy of separate electorates for the Muslims had been accepted by the Indian National Congress. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of the above
Ans: (b) Exp: The Lucknow Session 1916 was presided by Ambica Charan Majumdar. This session brought the moderates and extremists in Congress on common platform again after nearly a decade, particularly due to efforts of Annie Besant. Also Congress and All India Muslim League signed the historic Lucknow Pact. Congress and Muslim League negotiated an agreement whose main clauses are as follows: There shall be self-government in India. Muslims should be given one-third representation in the central government. There should be separate electorates for all the communities until a community demanded joint electorates. A system of weightage to minority political representation(giving minorities more representation in the government then is proportional to their share of the population) should be adopted.
46. Consider the following statements about soil health: (1) Soil organic carbon is supposed to be the key nutrient for maintaining good soil health. (2) The rate of decomposition of organic matter in the soil depends on its nitrogen content. (3) The soil health cards provided to farmers will indicate soil fertility as well as soil productivity. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a) Exp: The presence of optimum population of microflora and fauna i.e. the presence of natural habitants of soil such as rodents, millipedes, earthworms, bacteria, fungi, etc is supposed to be responsible for good soil health. The food of micro fauna is the soil organic matter (i.e. soil organic carbon). Therefore statement (1) is correct. The rate of decomposition of organic matter depends on its nitrogen content i.e. C: N ratio. The ideal C: N ratio is 10:1 where the C: N ratio is narrow(less), the decomposition is faster but
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where the C: N ratio is wide (more), the material decomposes very slowly but, to accelerate the rate Nitrogen (N) from the fertilizers can be added. The soil tests indicate soil fertility but it does not indicate soil productivity. Soil productivity is an economic concept and signifies the capability of soil to produce specified plant under well- defined system of management inputs and environmental conditions. Therefore, statement (3) is incorrect.
47. Recently, reverse charge mechanism under GST was in news. Which of the following statement is correct regarding “Reverse Charge Mechanism”? (a) Both supplier and recipient of goods and services are exempted from paying GST. (b) Both supplier and recipient need to pay GST at equal rates. (c) The liability to pay tax is of the supplier of goods and services rather than the recipient. (d) The liability to pay tax is of the recipient of goods and services rather than the supplier.
Ans: (d) Exp: Normally, the supplier of goods or services pays the tax on supply. In the case of Reverse Charge, the receiver becomes liable to pay the tax, i.e., the chargeability gets reversed. If a vendor who is not registered under GST, supplies goods to a person who is registered under GST, then Reverse Charge would apply.
48. Which of the following are land locked country/countries in the South American continent? (1) Bolivia (2) Paraguay (3) Suriname (4) Uruguay Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only
Ans: (a) Exp: Only Bolivia and Paraguay are land locked countries in South America.
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49. The Union Council of Ministers in India is collectively responsible to which of the following? (a) The Prime Minister (b) The President (c) The Lok Sabha (d) The Rajya Sabha
Ans: (c) Exp: Under the prevalent parliamentary dispensation in India and as per the provisions enumerated in the Article 75 (3) of the Constitution of India, the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha
50. In the context of the political ideology of Gandhiji which of the following is/are the important tenets of Gandhian socialism? (1) Provide equality of opportunity to all the sections of the society. (2) Concern for the poor but not hatred for the rich. (3) Nationalization of all means of production and distribution. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b) Exp: Gandhian socialism generally centres on Hind Swaraj or Indian Home Rule authored by Gandhi. Federation of political and economical power and demonstrating a traditionalist reluctance towards the modernisation of technology and large scale industrialisation whilst emphasising self-employment and self-reliance are key features of Gandhian socialism.
51. With reference to the Financial Action Task Force (FATF), which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) It was founded in 2010 on the initiative of the G-20 countries. (2) It is an inter-governmental body to develop policies to combat climate change. (3) The FATF currently comprises all the member countries of the United Nations. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of the above
Ans: (d) Exp: The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an inter-governmental body established in 1989 by the Ministers of its Member jurisdictions. The objectives of the FATF are to set standards and promote effective implementation of legal, regulatory and operational measures for combating money laundering, terrorist financing and other related threats to the integrity of the international financial system. The FATF's decision making body, the FATF Plenary, meets three times per year. The FATF consists of thirty-five member jurisdictions and two regional organisations, the EU and the Gulf Co-operation Council. Page 21 of 40
52. Consider the following statements regarding the National Investment Fund (NIF): (1) NIF is a fund of funds registered with Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) (2) The purpose of the fund is to receive disinvestment proceeds of Central Public- Sector Enterprises and to invest the same to generate earnings without depleting the corpus. (3) The fund is kept outside of the Consolidated Fund of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only
Ans: (c) Exp: The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) on 27th January, 2005 had approved the constitution of a National Investment Fund (NIF). The Purpose of the fund was to receive disinvestment proceeds of central public-sector enterprises and to invest the same to generate earnings without depleting the corpus. The earnings of the Fund were to be used for selected Central social welfare Schemes. This fund was kept outside the consolidated fund of India. It was decided by CCEA that the entire disinvestment proceeds from 01.04.2013 will be credited to the existing ‘Public Account’ under the head NIF and they would remain there until withdrawn/invested for the approved purpose. The allocations out of the NIF will be decided in the annual Government Budget.
53. In which range is the Siachen glacier located? (a) Zanskar Range (b) Karakoram Range (c) Pir Panjal Range (d) Ladakh Range
Ans: (b) Exp: The 75 km long Siachen glacier is located in the eastern Karakoram Range of the Himalayas. Indian troops under operation Meghdoot in 1984 established Indian control over Siachen glacier.
54. With reference to the election of the Vice President of India, which of the following statements is correct? (a) Elected members of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha participate in the election of the Vice President. (b) The members of the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and the State Legislatures participate in the election. (c) All the members of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha participate in the Vice Presidential election. (d) Only Members of the Rajya Sabha have the exclusive right to participate in the Vice Presidential election.
Ans: (c)
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Exp: The Electoral College to elect a person to the office of the Vice-President consists of all members of both Houses of Parliament (both elected and nominated members). The electoral college for electing the President of India comprises of only the elected members of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies.
55. With reference to the important events in the Indian freedom struggle, consider the following statements: (1) In 1912, the capital of India was shifted from Calcutta to Delhi. (2) For the first time Poorna Swaraj day was observed on 26th November 1929. (3) The demand for Pakistan was made by the Muslim League for the first time in 1938. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of the above
Ans: (d) Exp: On 12 December 1911, during the Delhi Durbar, George V, then Emperor of India, along with Queen Mary, his Consort, made the announcement that the capital of the Raj was to be shifted from Calcutta to Delhi. In the Lahore session of December 1929, Congress passed the Poorna Swaraj resolution. Though the congress passed the Poorna Swaraj Resolution in December 1929, it was a month later on January 26, 1930, when a Pledge of Indian Independence also known as Declaration of Independence was taken. The All India Muslim League met in Lahore in March 1940. The League adopted a resolution that has become known as the Lahore Resolution. March 23, the date on which this Resolution was adopted, is celebrated in Pakistan every year.
56. Bio CNG is being promoted as the fuel of the future. Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to this fuel? (a) Organic fraction of Industrial, Municipal and Agricultural wastes can be used to produce Bio CNG (b) It is a purified form of biogas, where all unwanted gases are removed to produce greater than 95% pure methane gas (c) It is a good renewable energy source but its calorific value is lower than conventional CNG (d) It is technically feasible to produce it on commercial scale
Ans: (c) Exp: I. Bio CNG is a purified form of biogas where all the unwanted gases are removed to produce >95% pure methane gas. II. Organic fraction of Agricultural residues, Food waste, Industrial and MunicipalWastes are used as biomass input to produce Bio CNG III. Bio CNG is exactly similar to the conventional CNG (CV: ~52,000 kJ/kg) in its composition and energy potential. IV. Primove Engineering has set up a pilot plant in Pirangut, Pune and is producing Bio CNG under the brand name AgroGas. This plant is India’s first Bio CNG plant. Hence the statement C is incorrect
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57. The World Happiness Report is a measure of happiness published by which of the following organisations? (a) United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation (b) United Nations Sustainable Development Solutions Network (c) United Nations Economic and Social Council (d) World Health Organisation
Ans: (b) Exp: The World Happiness Report is an annual publication of United Nations Sustainable Development Solutions Network that contains rankings of national happiness and analysis of the data from various perspectives. The first World Happiness Report was released on April 1, 2012. The Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN) was commissioned by UN Secretary-General Ban Ki-moon in 2012 to mobilize scientific and technical expertise from academia, civil society, and the private sector to support practical problem solving for sustainable development at local, national, and global scales.
58. Which of the following expenses is/are to be classified as capital expenditure? (1) Implementation of the One Rank One Pension (2) Granting Loans to the States. (3) Allocation of funds under The National Social Assistance Programme Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2 only
Ans: (d) Exp: Granting of Loans to the States is considered as the Capital Expenditure, rest of the options correspond to the Revenue Expenditure.
59. Consider the following rivers: (1) Mahadayi (2) Kalinadi (3) Sharavati Which of the above is/are west flowing rivers? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d) Exp: The Mahadayi river, is described as the lifeline of the Indian state of Goa. It originates from a cluster of 30 springs at Bhimgad in the Western Ghats in the Belagavi district of Karnataka. The sharing of the waters of this river is a cause of dispute between the governments of Karnataka and Goa. The Karnataka government proposes to divert some water from the Mahadayi river to the Malaprabha river basin as part of the Kalasa-Banduri Nala project, as approximately 200 tmc feet of water flows into the Arabian Sea now without being used for anything. The Mahadayi Water Tribunal has to decide on the sharing of this river's waters between Karnataka and Goa. Page 24 of 40
The Kali River or Kalinadi is a river flowing through Karwar, Uttara Kannada district of Karnataka state in India. The river rises near Diggi, a small village in Uttar Kannada district. The river runs 184 kilometers before joining Arabian Sea. Sharavati is a river which originates and flows entirely within the state of Karnataka in India. It is one of the few westward flowing rivers of India and a major part of the river basin lies in the Western Ghats. The famous Jog Falls, located about 24 km from Sagara, are formed by this river. The river itself and the region around it are rich in biodiversity and are home to many rare species of flora and fauna.
60. Consider the following pairs: Editor Newspaper 1. Aurobindo : Yugantar Ghosh 2. C.Y. : Leader Chintamani 3. Annie Besant : Young India Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only
Ans: (a) Exp: The Bande Mataram was an English language newspaper founded in 1905 by Aurobindo Ghosh. It was first published on 6 August 1906. C.Y. Chintamani made history at the age of 18 by becoming the editor of the newspaper Vizag Spectator. He also organized Indian Herald and Standard. He made a great impact as Chief editor of the Allahabad-based, The Leader between 1909 and 1934. There were two papers run by Annie Besant namely: Commonweal and New India (daily), whereas New India (weekly) was founded by Bipin Chandra Pal.
61. Under the Constitution of India, which of the following is NOT a fundamental duty? (a) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals. (b) To respect the freedom of religion and worship of fellow citizens. (c) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence. (d) To uphold and protect the sovereignty and integrity of India.
Ans: (b) Exp: The Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976, upon the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. Fundamental duties are applicable only to citizens and not to the aliens. India borrowed the concept of Fundamental Duties from USSR. Part IVA of Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Duties. As of now there are 11 Fundamental duties.
62. Consider the following Reports: (1) Global Financial Stability Report (2) World Economic Outlook (3) Doing Business Report (4) World Development Report (5) Global Economic Prospects Page 25 of 40
Which among the above reports are published by the International Monetary Fund (IMF)? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only (c) 2, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans: (a) Exp: The reports of Global Economic Prospects, World Development Report and Doing Business report are published by World Bank. Ease of Living Report is also published by the IBRD (World Bank).
63. If there is a consistent decline in birth rate of a country then what would be its likely impact on the country's economy? (a) There will be a decrease in savings. (b) Per capita income of the country will decrease (c) Investments in the country will increase. (d) Per capita income of the country will increase.
Ans: (d) Exp: The inverse relationship between income and fertility has been termed a demographic- economic paradox. Thomas Malthus, in his book An Essay on the Principle of Population, proposed that greater means (higher income) would enable the production of more offspring (a higher fertility rate). However, nations or sub populations with higher GDP per capita are observed to have a lower fertility rate.
64. Consider the following pairs: Passes Location 1. Jelep La : Arunachal Pradesh 2. Shipki La : Himachal Pradesh 3. Bomdi La : Sikkim Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a) Exp: Jelep La or Jelep Pass, elevation 4,267 m or 13,999 ft, is a high mountain pass between East Sikkim District, Sikkim, India and Tibet Autonomous Region, China. It is on a route that connects Lhasa to India. Shipki La is a mountain pass and border post with a dozen buildings of significant size on the India-China border. The river Sutlej, which is called Langqen Zangbo in Tibet, enters India (from Tibet) near this pass. The road is an offshoot of the ancient Silk Road. A spur road on the Indian side rises to an altitude of 4,720 metres (15,490 ft) four km southwest of Shipki La. It is located in Kinnaur district in the state of Himachal Pradesh, India, and Tibet, China Bomdila is the headquarters of West Kameng district in the state of Arunachal Pradesh in India. Bomdila is one of the 60 constituencies of the state of Arunachal Pradesh.
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65. With reference to Indian philosophy, in which age the philosophical systems of Hindus were propounded and properly codified? (a) Vedic age (b) Kanishka's age (c) Mauryan age (d) Gupta age
Ans: (a) Exp: In the Vedic ageHindu philosophythe philosophical systems of Hindus were propounded and properly codified.The mainstream ancient Indian philosophy includes six systems (ṣaḍdarśana) – Sankhya, Yoga, Nyaya, Vaisheshika, Mimamsa and Vedanta..
66. Consider the following statements: (1) Itai-Itai disease is caused by cadmium poisoning associated with softening of bones and kidney failure. (2) Long term exposure to high levels of inorganic lead causes skin lesions and hard patches on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a) Exp: In arsenic poisoning through drinking water, the first changes are usually seen in skin, pigmentation changes and then skin lesions.
67. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Pravasi Bharatiya Divas? (1) The Pravasi Bharatiya Divas is celebrated to mark the contribution of Overseas Indian Community towards the development of India and is celebrated every year on January 9. (2) India is one of the leading countries in the world receiving remittances from its diaspora every year. (3) The 2018 ASEAN-India Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD) Convention took place in Malaysia. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a) Exp: The day was chosen to commemorate the return of Mahatma Gandhi from South Africa to India in 1915. The 2018 ASEAN-India Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD) convention took place in Singapore. The theme of the 2-day PBD Convention is “Ancient Route, New Journey: Diaspora in the Dynamic India-ASEAN Partnership.
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68. Recently the Government of India has approved 2018 as the National Year of Millets. In this context consider the following statements: (1) Millets have a low carbon and water footprint, can withstand high temperatures and grow on poor soils with little or no external inputs. (2) Millets are nutritionally superior to wheat and rice. (3) Anaemia and B-complex vitamin deficiency can be effectively tackled with the intake of Millets. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of the above
Ans: (c) Exp: Government has approved 2018 as National Year of Millets to boost production of the nutrient-rich millets and the sunrise agri industry involved in it. Earlier, India had forwarded proposal to United Nations (UN) for declaring year 2018 as ‘International Year of Millets’. The proposal, if agreed, will raise awareness about millets among consumers, policy makers, industry and R&D sector. Millet is a common term to categorize small-seeded grasses that are often termed nutri-cereals or dryland-cereals. It mainly includes sorghum, ragi, pearl millet, small millet, proso millet, foxtail millet, barnyard millet, kodo millet etc. They are adapted to harsh environment of semi-arid tropics. They require low or no purchased inputs, thus they are backbone for dry land agriculture. Millets are nutritionally superior to wheat and rice owing to their higher levels of protein with more balanced amino acid profile crude fibre and minerals such as Iron, Zinc, and Phosphorous. It provides nutritional security and act as shield against nutritional deficiency, especially among children and women. Pellagra (niacin deficiency), Anaemia (iron deficiency), B- complex vitamin deficiency can be effectively tackled with intake of less expensive but nutritionally rich food grains like millets. It can also help tackle health challenges such as obesity, diabetes and lifestyle problems as they are gluten free and also have low glycemic index and are high in dietary fibre and antioxidants.
69. The terms “Artificial Deadlines” and “Doha Round Negotiations” appear in the news frequently in the context of the affairs of the (a) World Bank (b) International Monetary Fund (c) World Trade Organisation (d) United Nations Environment Programme
Ans: (c) Exp: India has said it will not agree to ‘artificial deadlines’ to conclude the World Trade Organisation (WTO) Doha Round negotiations aimed at liberalizing global trade..
70. In the context of Medieval Indian History, consider the following statements: (1) The Afghans and the Turks were known for the construction of roads and land reforms. (2) Sher Shah Suri was known for the construction of tombs and arches. Page 28 of 40
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d) Exp: Sher Shah Suri was known for the construction of roads and land reforms. Afghans and Turks were known for the construction of tombs and arches.
71. In the context of economy, stagflation is a situation of (a) high inflation with recession (b) constant rate of inflation (c) low inflation with high recession (d) None of the above
Ans: (a) Exp: In economics, stagflation, a portmanteau of stagnation and inflation, is a situation in which the inflation rate is high, the economic growth rate slows, and unemployment remains steadily high.
72. Consider the following statements: (1) Doldrums is a region of diverging winds. (2) A sub-tropical high-pressure belt is a region of calm and light winds. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b) Exp: The doldrums refer to those parts of the Atlantic Ocean and the Pacific Ocean affected by a low-pressure area around the equator where the prevailing winds are calm. The doldrums are also noted for calm periods when the winds disappear altogether, trapping sailing ships for periods of days or weeks. The term appears to have arisen in the eighteenth century, when trans-equator sailing voyages became more common. Since this zone is where two trade winds meet, it is also called the Intertropical Convergence Zone. They roughly lie between latitudes 5 north and south. The subtropical ridge, also known as the subtropical high or horse latitudes, is a significant belt of atmospheric high pressure situated around the latitudes of 30 N in the Northern Hemisphere and 30 S in the Southern Hemisphere. It is the product of the global air circulation cell known as the Hadley Cell. The subtropical ridge is characterized by mostly calm winds, which act to reduce air quality under its axis by causing fog overnight, and haze during daylight hours as a result of the stable atmosphere found near its location.
73. Consider the following statements regarding electoral systems: (1) In the first past-the-post electoral system, the country is divided into multi-member territorial constituencies. (2) In single transferable vote system, there are single member constituencies. (3) In the party list system, the entire country may be treated as a single constituency. Page 29 of 40
Which of the statements given above are NOT correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
Ans: (b) Exp: In first-past-the-post system the country is divided into single member territorial constituencies i.e. from each constituency only one member is elected. In single transferable vote system there are multi-member constituencies i.e. from one constituency more than one member can be elected. In party list system either the entire country is treated as a single constituency or it is divided into a number of large multimember constituencies.
74. In context of which of the following do you sometimes find the term “Tuvalu” in the news? (a) It is a place in equatorial Africa, where snow is found. (b) A potato plant that could grow in high altitude. (c) It is a new innovative technology to meet global warming. (d) A country under threat of submergence due to ice melting and sea level rise.
Ans: (d) Exp: Scientists have long thought the Pacific nation of Tuvalu would disappear. This is because climate change-driven sea level rise would swallow it up. But, new research has found that the atoll has actually grown by about 3%..
75. With reference to the Governors General of British India, consider the following statements: (1) Lord Minto was known as the father of local self-government in India. (2) Doctrine of Lapse was adopted as a measure to annex princely states by Lord Wellesley. (3) Lord Dalhousie was the person behind the conversion of East India Company from a trading company into a regional power. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of the above
Ans: (d) Exp: Lord Ripon is known as Father of Local Self Government in India. The 'doctrine of lapse' was an annexation policy applied by the British East India Company in India before 1858. The policy is most commonly associated with Lord Dalhousie, who was the Governor General of the East India Company in India between 1848 and 1856. Lord Clive was the person behind Conversion of East India Company from a trading company into a regional power..
76. Consider the following statements regarding coral reefs: (1) In coral reefs, corals and zooxanthellae are in symbiotic relationship. (2) Corals produce nutrients through photosynthesis. (3) Though majority of coral reefs are found in tropical and sub-tropical water, there are also deep water corals in colder regions. Page 30 of 40
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c) Exp: Zooxanthellae is microscopic algae which lives on coral. Zooxanthellae assist the coral in nutrient production through its photosynthetic activities. These activities provide the coral with fixed carbon compounds for energy, enhance calcification and mediate elemental nutrient flux. During coral bleaching, the corals commonly lose 60-90% of their zooxanthellae and each zooxanthellae may lose 50-80% of its photo-synthetic pigments.
77. Which of the following is the best description of the term Deficit financing? (a) It is the excess of government's current expenditure over its current revenue. (b) It is the difference of borrowing from external and internal resources. (c) It is an excess of government's total expenditure over its total revenue. (d) It is the capital expenditure on items of public contractions and public borrowings.
Ans: (c) Exp: Deficit financing is the budgetary situation where expenditure is higher than the revenue. It is a practice adopted for financing the excess expenditure with outside resources. The expenditure-revenue gap is financed by either printing of currency or through borrowing. Nowadays most governments, both in the developed and developing world, are having deficit budgets and these deficits are often financed through borrowing. Hence the fiscal deficit is the ideal indicator of deficit financing.
78. Arrange the following countries in decreasing order of uranium production for the year 2016: (1) Canada (2) Kazakhstan (3) Australia (4) Niger Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1-2-3-4 (b) 1-3-2-4 (c) 2-1-3-4 (d) 2-3-1-4
Ans: (c) Exp: Over two-thirds of the world's production of uranium from mines is from Kazakhstan, Canada and Australia. An increasing amount of uranium, now 48%, is produced by in situ leaching. After a decade of falling mine production to 1993, output of uranium has generally risen since then and now meets almost all the demand for power generation. Kazakhstan produces the largest share of uranium from mines (39% of world supply from mines in 2016), followed by Canada (22%) and Australia (10%).
79. Consider the following statements about Estimates Committee: (1) All members of Estimates Committee are from the Lok Sabha only. (2) It is also known as Continuous Economy Committee. Page 31 of 40
(3) The members of the Estimates Committee are nominated by the Speaker of Lok Sabha from among its members every year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only
Ans: (b) Exp: The Estimates Committee has 30 members, all are from Lok Sabha. These members are elected by the Lok Sabha every year from amongst its members according to the principle of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote, though the Chairman of the Committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members. The function of the Committee is to examine the estimates included in the budget and suggest ‘economies’ in public expenditure. Hence, it has been described as a ‘continuous economy committee’.
80. With reference to the difference between Varna and Jati, which of the following statements is/ are correct? (1) Jati is decided by birth whereas varna is decided on the basis of work performed by the individual. (2) Varnas are only four in number whereas jatis are many. (3) Jati system developed due to religious belief whereas varna system developed due to social practices. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b) Exp: While varna relates to your abilities and capabilities and hence your position in the varnasharama, jati relates to your tribal origin. While it’s true that in the course of Hindu History, several jatis have come to be identified with certain varnas, the fact doesn’t change that they’re not the same. While there are only four varnas, there are hundreds and thousands of jatis. Each jati relating to a certain ethnic or tribal origin.
81. With reference to the 'UJALA scheme', which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) It aims to provide seven hours of free power to agricultural sector. (2) The scheme has been implemented by the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d) Exp: Unnat Jyoti by Affordable LEDs for All (UJALA) scheme is LED-based Domestic Efficient Lighting Programme (DELP) that aims to promote efficient lighting, reducing energy Page 32 of 40
consumption and energy savings. LED bulbs have a very long life, almost 50 times more than ordinary bulbs. They are 8-10 times that of CFLs, therefore provide both energy and cost savings in medium term. The International Energy Agency (IAE) is going to partner with India to implement its Unnat Jyoti by Affordable LEDs for All (UJALA) initiative globally for energy savings. The UJALA scheme is implemented by the Energy Efficiency Services Limited (EESL), a joint venture of PSUs under the Union Ministry of Power.
82. “Seechewal model” is associated with (a) Wildlife conservation (b) Canal construction to facilitate irrigation (c) Producing low-cost bio-fertilisers (d) Treating wastewater and waterbody purification
Ans: (d) Exp: Seechewal model is named after Environmental activist and Padmashri awardee Balbir Singh Seechewal, who is credited with cleaning historic river Kali Bein, the 160 km long tributary of Beas, with just a couple of volunteers. Over time many State governments like Bihar, Delhi, etc are adopting this method to clean the rivers and water bodies. Time magazine also hailed him as the hero of the environment.
83. The Chagos Archipelago, sometimes in the news, is located in which of the following oceans? (a) Arctic Ocean (b) Indian Ocean (c) Pacific Ocean (d) Atlantic Ocean
Ans: (b) Exp: The Chagos Archipelago or Chagos Islands (formerly the Bassas de Chagas, and later the Oil Islands) is a group of seven atolls comprising more than 60 individual tropical islands in the Indian Ocean about 500 kilometres (310 mi) south of the Maldives archipelago. This chain of islands is the southernmost archipelago of the Chagos-Laccadive Ridge, a long submarine mountain range in the Indian Ocean. The sovereignty of the Chagos Archipelago is being disputed between the UK and Mauritius. The United Kingdom excised the archipelago from Mauritian territory three years ahead of Mauritius' independence.
84. With reference to ‘Food Fortification programme’, sometimes in the news, consider the following statements: (1) The objective of the programme is to address interventions in combating micro nutrient malnutrition in the country. (2) Department of Agriculture Research and Education has formulated a comprehensive regulation on fortification of foods in the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a) Page 33 of 40
Exp: Food fortification or enrichment is the process of adding micronutrients i.e. essential trace elements and vitamins into the food. It is an integrated approach to prevent micronutrient deficiencies and complements other approaches to improve health and nutrition. Food fortification does not require changes in existing food habits and patterns nor individual compliance. It does not alter characteristics of food and is socio-culturally acceptable. It can be introduced quickly and can produce nutritional benefits and improve health of people in a short period of time. It is also safe and cost effective. The FSSAI has formulated a ‘Food Safety and Standards (Fortification of Foods) Regulations, 2016’, a comprehensive regulation on fortification of foods in the country
85. Recently the Sri Ranganathaswamy Temple has been honoured with UNESCO award for Heritage Conservation. In this context, consider the following statements: (1) It is a temple dedicated to Lord Shiva and is built in the Dravidian style. (2) Its Gopuram is the biggest Gopuram in Asia. (3) The temple was constructed during the Chalukyan period. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only
Ans: (b) Exp: Tamil Nadu’s historic Sri Ranganathaswamy Temple in Srirangam became a national symbol of conserving cultural heritage after bagging an Award of Merit from UNESCO. The Sri Ranganathaswamy Temple is the first temple in Tamil Nadu to have ever received a mighty recognition and award from UNESCO.It is considered as one of the most important of the 108 main Vishnu temples (Divyadesams). It is Vaishnava temple built in Tamil or or Dravidian style of architecture. Its Gopuram also called as “Raja Gopuram is the biggest gopuram in Asia.
86. With reference to the different climate financing initiatives, which of the following statements is incorrect? (a) Global Environment Facility (GEF) was created by UNFCCC in 2011 as an operating entity of financial mechanism of the UNFCCC. (b) Clean Development Mechanism involves investment by developed countries in emission reduction projects in developing countries. (c) Joint implementation enables developed countries to carry out emission reduction projects in other developed countries. (d) Perform Achieve Trade is a market-based trading scheme which involves trading in energy efficiency certificates to offset emissions.
Ans: (a) Exp: GEF is an independently operating financial organization. It was setup as a fund under World Bank in 1991. In 1992, at the Rio Earth Summit, the GEF was restructured and moved out of the World Bank system to become a permanently, separate institution. Since 1994, however, the World Bank has served as the Trustee of the GEF Trust Fund and provided administrative services. Today the GEF is the largest public funder of projects to improve the global environment. It provides grants for projects related to biodiversity, climate change, international waters, land degradation, the ozone layer, and persistent organic pollutants. The GEF also serves as financial mechanism for the following conventions: Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), Page 34 of 40
United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD), Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs), Minamata Convention on Mercury.
87. With reference to the System of Air Quality and Weather Forecasting and Research (SAFAR), which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) SAFAR was introduced by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change to provide location specific information on air quality in near real time. (2) Indian Space Research Organisation in collaboration with India Meteorological Department has developed this system. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d) Exp: SAFAR was introduced by Union Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) for greater metropolitan cities of India to provide location specific information on air quality in near real time. It was developed by Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune along with India Meteorological Department (IMD) and National Centre for Medium Range Weather Forecasting (NCMRWF). The main objective of SAFAR project is to increase awareness among general public regarding the air quality.
88. Which of the following was/were the principal feature(s) of the Charter Act of 1853? (1) It separated, for the first time, the legislative and executive functions of the Governor General’s council. (2) It made the Governor General of Bengal as the Governor General of India. (3) It introduced an open competition system of selection and recruitment of civil servants. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: c Exp: Features of the 1853 Act were – For the first time, it separated the legislative and executive functions of the Governor- General’s council and added six new members called legislative councilors to the council. It also introduced an open competition system of selection and recruitment of civil servants. The covenanted civil service was thus thrown open to the Indians also. The Macaulay Committee (Committee on the Indian Civil Service) was appointed in 1854 for that. It extended the Company’s rule and allowed it to retain the possession of Indian territories on trust for the British Crown. But, it did not specify any specific period, unlike the previous Charters.
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The Charter Act of 1833 made the Governor General of Bengal as the Governor General of India.
89. In the context of 'Marrakesh Treaty', which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The treaty was adopted by the members of World Trade Organization. (2) The treaty facilitates access to Published works by Visually Impaired Persons and Persons with Print Disabilities. (3) India was the first country to ratify the Marrakesh Treaty. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b) Exp: Marrakesh Treaty came into force, after 22 countries ratified the treaty adopted in 2013 by members of World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO). It facilitates Access to Published works by Visually Impaired Persons and Persons with Print Disabilities. It is also called “Books for Blind” treaty. The treaty allows for copyright exceptions to help for the creation, export and import, sharing, translation of the books in any format for accessible versions of copyrighted books and other works for the people with impaired visibility. India was the first country to ratify the Marrakesh Treaty back in July 2014 and has set an example for other countries to follow.
90. The Shadanga i.e. six limbs of Indian art in ancient India are associated with which of the following art form? (a) Painting (b) Sculpture (c) Dance and drama (d) Music
Ans: (a) Exp:
91. Which of the following is/are the individual pillar/pillars used by World Economic Forum (WEF) to measures the Inclusive Development Index (IDI)? (1) Growth and Development (2) Inclusion (3) Inter-Generational Equity Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only
Ans: (c) Exp: India was ranked at 62nd place among emerging economies on Inclusive Development Index (IDI-2018) released by World Economic Forum (WEF). Norway again remained world’s most inclusive advanced economy, while Lithuania again topped list of emerging economies. India’s position is much below China (26th) and Pakistan (47th). Inclusive Development Index Page 36 of 40
(IDI) measures progress of 103 economies on three individual pillars – growth and development; inclusion; and inter-generational equity. It has been divided into two parts. The first part covers 29 advanced economies and second 74 emerging economies. The index takes into account the living standards, environmental sustainability and protection of future generations from further indebtedness.
92. With reference to the “World Sustainable Development Summit”, which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The first edition of World Sustainable Development Summit (WSDS) was held in Paris, France. (2) The Summit was organised by United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d) Exp: The President of India had inaugurated the first edition of World Sustainable Development Summit (WSDS) held in New Delhi. The Summit was organised by the Energy and Resources Institute (TERI).
93. Consider the following statements about the Pacific Ring of Fire: (1) The Ring of Fire is the site of convergent boundaries alone which give rise to subduction zones. (2) The Himalayas lie outside the Pacific Ring of Fire. (3) Most of the active volcanoes on the Ring of Fire are found on its western edge. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d) Exp: The Ring of Fire is the result of plate tectonics. Tectonic plates are huge slabs of the Earth’s crust, which fit together like pieces of a puzzle. The plates are not fixed but are constantly moving atop a layer of solid and molten rock called the mantle. Sometimes these plates collide (convergent boundaries), move apart (divergent boundaries), or slide next to each other (transform boundaries). Most tectonic activity in the Ring of Fire occurs in these geologically active zones. Most of the active volcanoes on the Ring of fire are found on its western edge because the Pacific plate is moving towards west (towards the islands of Japan and south east Asia and New Zealand) every year. The Pacific plate is old, cold, ocean crust, so it’s quite dense and heavy. When it counters other tectonic plates, it has the tendency to sink. It sinks down and melts in the mantle and the product of that melt rise up through the crust, that magma, and they erupt in volcanoes.
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94. Bathukamma is a colourful and vibrant festival celebrated by women, with flowers in which of the following States? (a) Mizoram (b) Odisha (c) Manipur (d) Telangana
Ans: (d) Exp: Bathukamma is floral festival celebrated predominantly by the Hindu women of Telangana. Bathukamma is celebrated for nine days during Durga Navratri. Bathukamma represents cultural spirit of Telangana.
95. With reference to the history of Art and Architecture in India, consider the following statements: (1) The caves and rock cut temples at Ellora have features from Hinduism, Buddhism and Jainism. (2) The Ajanta caves are Buddhist and its paintings depict tales from the Jatakas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c) Exp: Ellora, built by Rashtrakutas is located 29 km North-West of Aurangabad in Maharashtra. It is one of the World Heritage Sites. It is well known for its monumental caves viz. 12 Buddhist (caves 1–12), 17 Hindu Caves (caves 13–29) and 5 Jain Caves (caves 30–34). The Ajanta Caves are about 29 rock-cut Buddhist cave monuments which date from the 2nd century BCE to about 480 CE in Aurangabad district of Maharashtra state of India.
96. Consider the following statements about a recently launched initiative called the Zero Budget Natural Farming Project: (1) This initiative has been launched by the Government of Sikkim to promote organic farming in the state. (2) The objective of the project is to eliminate the use of chemical fertilisers and pesticides as inputs in farming. Which of statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b) Exp: I. Zero Budget Natural Farming (ZBNF) Project was recently launched by Government of Himachal Pradesh. II. ZBNF is a bit different from the Organic farming as it completely eliminates the use of chemical fertilisers and pesticides and promotes bio-fertilisers and bio-pesticides instead. The ultimate aim is to achieve zero cost of inputs like fertilisers and seeds and using natural inputs like Cow dung, Vermicomposting, etc., which are available cost-free. Page 38 of 40
Hence statement 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.
97. “INDOSAN”, an initiative of the Government of India, is envisaged as (a) An annual conference to increase foreign investment in India. (b) A platform to provide single window clearances to new infrastructure projects. (c) An annual national event, that brings together all stakeholders working in the field of sanitation. (d) A platform to discuss boundary dispute between India and China.
Ans: (c) Exp: “INDOSAN”, an initiative of the Government of India, is envisaged as an annual national event that brings together all stakeholders working in the field of sanitation.
98. Consider the following statements regarding the Ordinance making power of the President: (1) The Ordinances issued by the President can remain in force for a maximum period of six months in case of non-approval by the Parliament. (2) The Ordinance making power of the President has been borrowed from the US Constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d) Exp: Ordinances can remain in force for maximum period of 6 months and 6 weeks. The Ordinance making power of the President is only co-extensive to the legislative power of Parliament and is not coordinate i.e. parallel power of legislation. This provision has been borrowed from the Government of India Act, 1935.
99. Which of the following is the best description of ‘MORMUGAO’? (a) It is Indian Navy’s first totally indigenously-designed and built torpedo launch and recovery vessel. (b) It is Indian Navy’s indigenously built most Advanced Guided Missile Stealth Destroyer. (c) It is India's indigenously-designed and built Nuclear-powered aircraft carrier. (d) It is Indian Navy’s first totally indigenously-designed and built amphibious warfare ship.
Ans: (b) Exp: Indian Navy’s indigenously built most Advanced Guided Missile Stealth Destroyer ‘Mormugao’ was launched in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
100. In the context of religious and philosophical history of India, consider the following statements: (1) Sankar was the founder of Advaita philosophy. (2) Lakulisha was the propagator of Pasupata sect. (3) Nagarjuna was the founder of Madhyamika. (4) Basava was the founder of Vir Saivism. Page 39 of 40
Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d) Exp: Although its roots trace back to the 1st millennium BCE, the most prominent exponent of the Advaita Vedanta is considered by the tradition to be 8th century scholar Adi Shankara. Lakulisha was a prominent Shaivite revivalist, reformist and preceptor of the doctrine of the Pashupatas, one of the oldest sects of Shaivism. According to some scholars, Lakulisha is the founder of the Pashupata sect. Nāgārjuna is widely considered one of the most important Mahayana philosophers. Along with his disciple Āryadeva, he is considered to be the founder of the Madhyamaka school of Mahāyāna Buddhism. The terms Lingayatism and Veerashaivism have been used synonymously, and Lingayats also referred to as Veerashaivas. Lingayatism was founded by the 12th-century philosopher and statesman Basava and spread by his followers, called Sharanas.
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