PART-I (Hkkx-I)

BOOKLET SERIES/ iqfLrdk lhjht+ A

DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO tc rd dgk u tk, bl iz'u iqfLrdk dks u [kksysaA

Important: Please refer to your admit card while filling in details in this Question Booklet and in the OMR Answer Sheet. egRoiw.kZ% d`i;k vius izos'k i=k dks ns[kdj iz'u&iqfLrdk vkSj mÙkj i=kd esa fooj.k HkjsaA

The written test structure is as given below: fyf[kr ijh{kk dh lajpuk uhps nh xbZ gS % Paper Test Components Question No. of Questions to be Answers to be isij ijh{k.k ?kVd Nos. Questions attempted marked/ iz'u&la[;k dqy iz'u (Marks) written on dqy iz'u gy mÙkj fdl ij djus gSa (vad) fy[kuk gS Part-I Section-A : Objective Type 30 OMR 1-30 30 Hkkx&I [k.M&A % oLrqfu"B Vkbi (30 marks/vad) mÙkj i=kd Question-cum- Part-II Section-B : Subjective Type 5 Answer booklet 1-7 7 Hkkx&II [k.M&B % vkRefu"B Vkbi (70 marks/vad) iz'u&lg mÙkj iqfLrdk

PLEASE READ INSTRUCTIONS ON THE BACK COVER CAREFULLY. fiNys doj ij fn, x, vuqns'kksa dks è;ku ls if<+,A

Use / Ball Point pen to fill in the following particulars. Ñi;k fuEufyf[kr tkudkfj;ksa dks Hkjus ds fy, uhys@dkys ckWy ikWbaV isu dk iz;ksx djsaA

Name / uke: ……………………………………………………………………………………

Roll No / vuqØekad

Signature/ gLrk{kj:…………………………………………………………………………….

This Question Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet are to be returned on completion of the test. ijh{kk iwjh gksus ij ;g iz'u iqfLrdk rFkk vks- ,e- vkj- mÙkj&i=kd ykSVk nsaA

A/XIX/II 1 [k.M&A % oLrqfu"B Vkbi

1. ^ukxkSjh* ______jkT; esa ik;k tkus okyk ,d fgUnw vkSj eqlyeku leqnk; gSA (1) jktLFkku (2) NÙkhlx<+ (3) rsyaxkuk (4) eè; izns'k

2. iq:"kksa dh fo'o di gkWdh izfr;ksfxrk 2018 fdl ns'k us thrh\ (1) vkWLVªsfy;k (2) ikfdLrku (3) csfYt;e (4) vtsZUVhuk

3. fuEufyf[kr esa ls D;k dkWiQh ds ,d izfrLFkkiu ds :i esa (cnys esa) iz;ksx fd;k tkrk gS\ (1) fgdksjh (2) fpdksjh (3) dksde (4) beyh

4. ^fMt+kbuj cscht* 'kCn dk iz;ksx ______dk o.kZu djus ds fy, fd;k tkrk gSA (1) cPpksa ds fy, dEI;wVj xse (2) cPpksa ds oL=kksa (3) bu&foVªks iQfVZykbts'ku (IVF) (4) ekuo Hkzw.k dh vkuqoaf'kd bathfu;jh

5. izfl¼ vaxzsth ys[kd :M;kMZ fdifyax us Hkkjr esa ______ds :i esa viuh ;qokoLFkk O;rhr dhA (1) bZLV bafM;k daiuh ds ,d lSfud (2) ,d v[kckj ds fjiksVZj (3) viQhe ds ,d O;kikjh (4) vaxzsth ds ,d f'k{kd

6. vtark dh xqiQkvksa dh nhokjksa ij fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdldh dgkfu;ka vafdr gSa\ (1) iapra=k (2) dFkklfjr~lkxj (3) fgrksins'k (4) tkrd dFkk,a

7. MkW- foy;kuwj ,l jkepanzu foKku ds fdl fo"k; ls tqM+s gSa\ (1) varfj{k foKku (2) df.kdk HkkSfrdh (3) xf.kr (4) raf=kdk foKku

8. Hkhecsrdk ______ds fy, izfl¼ gSA (1) fHkfÙk fp=kdkjh (2) iRFkj f'kYidyk (3) izkxSfrgkfld xqiQk isafVax (4) ckS¼ fogkjks

9. fdl o"kZ pkj Hkkjr jRu iqjLdkj iznku fd, x, Fks\ (1) 1990 (2) 1995 (3) 1996 (4) 1999

10. Hkkjr ds igys ukscsy iqjLdkj fotsrk dkSu Fks\ (1) lh oh je.k (2) johUnzukFk VSxksj (3) gjxksfoan [kqjkuk (4) veR;Z lsu

A/XIX/II 2 Section-A : Objective Type

1. The ‘Nagori’ are a Hindu and Muslim community found in the state of (1) Rajasthan. (2) Chhattisgarh. (3) Telangana. (4) Madhya Pradesh.

2. Which team won the 2018 Men's Hockey World Cup? (1) Australia (2) (3) Belgium (4) Argentina

3. Which one of the following is used as a coffee substitute? (1) Hickory (2) Chicory (3) Kokum (4) Tamarind

4. ‘Designer Babies’ is a term used to describe (1) Computer Games for Children. (2) Children's Clothing. (3) In-Vitro Fertilization. (4) Genetic Engineering of human embryos.

5. The famous English writer Rudyard Kipling spent his youth in as a/an (1) soldier of the East India Company. (2) reporter for a newspaper. (3) opium trader. (4) English teacher.

6. Which of these stories is depicted on the walls of the Ajanta Caves? (1) Panchatantra (2) Kathasaritasagar (3) Hitopadesa (4) Jatakas

7. Dr Vilayanur S Ramachandran is associated with which scientific discipline? (1) Space Science (2) Particle Physics (3) Mathematics (4) Neuro Science

8. Bhimbetka is famous for (1) Mural Paintings. (2) Stone Sculptures. (3) Prehistoric cave paintings. (4) Buddhist Viharas.

9. In which year were 4 (four) Bharat Ratna awards given? (1) 1990 (2) 1995 (3) 1996 (4) 1999

10. Who was the India's first Nobel Prize winner? (1) CV Raman (2) Rabindranath Tagore (3) Har Gobind Khorana (4) Amartya Sen

A/XIX/II 3 11. MODEM dk D;k vFkZ gS\ (1) esejh ,.M fMekWUlVªs'ku (2) ekWMqys'ku ,.M fMekWMqys'ku (3) ekWMqys'ku ,.M fMdksfMax (4) ekLVj fMdksMj

12. fdl xSl dks ykfiQax xSl ds :i esa tkuk tkrk gS\ (1) esFkSu (2) gsjkÝywjksbZFksu (3) vkstksu (4) ukbVªl vkWDlkbM

13. rhLrk unh izokfgr gksrh gS % (1) flfDde ls ckaXykns'k dh vksj (2) xqokgkVh ls ckaXykns'k dh vksj (3) xaxks=kh ls ckaXykns'k dh vksj (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

14. ^foaXl vkWiQ iQk;j* ______dh vkRedFkk gSA (1) MkW- , ih ts vCnqy dyke (2) usYlu eaMsyk (3) tkWtZ MCY;w cq'k (4) fiQMsy dkLVªks

15. Hkkjr esa jkT;ksa dh la[;k gS % (1) 29 (2) 28 (3) 25 (4) 24

16. Hkkjr dh igyh lokd~ fiQYe ^vkye vkjk* o"kZ ______esa cuh FkhA (1) 1931 (2) 1915 (3) 1955 (4) 1938

17. vkWLdj iqjLdkj thrus okys igys Hkkjrh; gSa % (1) Hkkuq vFkS;k (2) lR;thr jk; (3) , vkj jgeku (4) jlwy iwdqV~Vh

18. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdldk LØhuIys(iVdFkk) fot; rsanqydj us fy[kk gS\ (1) vadq'k (2) vadqj (3) v/ZlR; (4) dksjl

19. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl fiQYe us loZJs"B ewy LØhuIys(iVdFkk) ds fy, vdkneh iqjLdkj thrk\ (1) 'kksxYlZ (2) iQkxksZ (3) VkbVsfud (4) n xkWMiQknj

20. lR;thr jk; dh fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl fiQYe us loZJs"B iQhpj fiQYe dk jk"Vªh; iqjLdkj ugha thrk gS\ (1) pk:yrk (2) xksih xk,u ck?kk ck,u (3) lhekc¼ (4) 'krjat ds f[kykM+h

A/XIX/II 4 11. What does MODEM stand for? (1) Memory and Demonstration (2) Modulation and Demodulation (3) Modulation and Decoding (4) Master Decoder

12. Which gas is known as Laughing Gas? (1) Methane (2) Herafluoroethane (3) Ozone (4) Nitrous Oxide

13. Teesta River flows from (1) Sikkim to . (2) Guwahati to Bangladesh. (3) Gangotri to Bangladesh. (4) None of these

14. ‘Wings of Fire’ is the autobiography of (1) Dr APJ Abdul Kalam. (2) Nelson Mandela. (3) George W. Bush. (4) Fidel Castro.

15. The number of states in India is ______. (1) 29 (2) 28 (3) 25 (4) 24

16. The first Indian sound film ‘Alam Ara’ was made in the year ______. (1) 1931 (2) 1915 (3) 1955 (4) 1938

17. The first Indian to win an Oscar Award was (1) Bhanu Athaiya. (2) . (3) AR Rahman. (4) Resul Pookutty.

18. Which one of the following screenplays is written by Vijay Tendulkar? (1) Ankush (2) Ankur (3) Ardh Satya (4) Chorus

19. Which of the following films has won the Academy Award for Best Original Screenplay? (1) Showgirls (2) Fargo (3) Titanic (4) The Godfather

20. Which of the following films of Satyajit Ray has not won the National Award for Best Feature Film? (1) (2) (3) (4) Shatranj Ke Khilari

A/XIX/II 5 21. funsZ'kd ds :i esa nknk lkgc iQkYds dh igyh fiQYe Fkh % (1) vkye vkjk (2) jktk gfj'panz (3) lsrq ca/u (4) lar rqdkjke

22. fiQYe ^viwj lalkj* esa vIiw dh Hkwfedk fdlus fuHkkbZ Fkh\ (1) lkSfe=k pVthZ (2) iadt efyd (3) izlUuthr pVthZ (4) mÙke dqekj

23. ^jk'kkseksu* fiQYe ds funsZ'kd gSa % (1) ;klhthjks vkstw (2) vdhjk dqjkslkok (3) ;ks'khrkjksa uksewjk (4) vkax yh

24. ^eht+ka lhu* 'kCn dh mRifÙk ______ls gqbZ gSA (1) flusek (2) Mkal (u`R;) (3) miU;kl (4) jaxeap (fFk,Vj)

25. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlus iQhpj fiQYeksa ds fy, LØhuIys(iVdFkk) fy[ks gSa\ (1) ,y ds vkMok.kh (2) ,e- d:.kkfuf/ (3) bZ ,e ,l uacwfnjhikn (4) ckyk lkgc Bkdjs

26. xq:nÙk dh fiQYe ^I;klk* ds xhrksa ds cksy fdlus fy[ks Fks\ (1) et:g lqYrkuiqjh (2) lkfgj yqf/;kuoh (3) dSi+Qh vkteh (4) vkuan c['kh

27. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl us e`.kky lsu }kjk funsZf'kr fiQYe ^Hkqou 'kkse* esa vfHku; fd;k gS\ (1) 'kckuk vkteh (2) fLerk ikfVy (3) Jhyk etqenkj (4) lqgkfluh ewys

28. fiQYe ^ckgqcyh* ds izksMD'ku fMt+kbuj gSa % (1) rksV~Vk rj.kh (2) lkcw flfjy (3) jke d`".kk vkSj ekSfudk (4) lqjs'k lsYokjktu

29. Hkkjr dh igyh /kjkokfgd ,fues'ku fiQYe gS % (1) ,d] vusd vkSj ,drk (2) xk;c vk;k (3) fdV~Vw (4) eksVw iryw

30. izn'kZu vof/ (le;) dh n`f"V ls Hkkjr esa cuh lcls yach fiQYe gS % (1) Fkkokeh Fkkokfe:/qZ (2) esjk uke tksdj (3) ,y vks lh dkjfxy (4) ikfFkZcu dukow

A/XIX/II 6 21. Dadasaheb Phalke's first film as Director was (1) Alam Ara. (2) Raja Harishchandra. (3) Setu Bandhan. (4) Sant Tukaram.

22. Who played the role of Apu in the film ‘Apur Sansar’? (1) (2) Pankaj Mullick (3) Prosenjit Chatterjee (4) Uttam Kumar

23. Director of the film ‘RASHOMON’ is ______. (1) Yasijiro Ozu (2) Akira Kurosawa (3) Yoshitaro Nomura (4) Ang Lee

24. The origin of the term ‘Mise-en-Scene’ is from (1) Cinema. (2) Dance. (3) Novel. (4) Theater.

25. Who among the following had written screenplays for feature films? (1) L K Advani (2) M Karunanidhi (3) EMS Namboodripad (4) Balasaheb Thackeray

26. The lyrics for the songs in Guru Dutt's film ‘PYAASA’ were written by (1) Majrooh Sultanpuri. (2) Sahir Ludhianvi. (3) Kaifi Azmi. (4) Anand Bakshi.

27. Who amongst the following had acted in the film ‘’ directed by Mrinal Sen? (1) Shabana Azmi (2) Smita Patil (3) Sreela Mazumdar (4) Suhasini Mulay

28. The production designer of the film ‘Bahubali’ is (1) Thotta Tharani. (2) Sabu Cyril. (3) Rama Krishna and Mounika. (4) Suresh Selvarajan.

29. Which is the first serialized animation film in India? (1) Ek, Anek aur Ekta (2) Ghayab Aya (3) Kittu (4) Motu Patlu

30. Which is the longest film ever made in India by running time? (1) Thavami Thavamirurdhu (2) Mera Naam Joker (3) LOC Kargil (4) Parthiban Kanavu

A/XIX/II 7 INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE / ijh{kkFkhZ ds fy, vuqns'k

1. Please do not open this Question Booklet until asked to do so. 2. Fill up the necessary information in the space provided on the cover of Question Booklet and the OMR Answer-Sheet before commencement of the test. 3. The duration of the complete test Part-I (Section-A) & Part-II (Section-B) is 180 minutes. 4. Please check for completeness of the Question Booklet immediately after opening. 5. There are 30 objective type questions in Part-I (Section-A) which are to be attempted. 6. In case of any ambiguity in translation, the English version will be deemed authentic. 7. Each question has four answer options marked (1), (2), (3) and (4). 8. Objective type Answers are to be marked on the OMR Answer-Sheet, which is provided separately. 9. Choose the most appropriate answer option and darken the circle/oval completely, corresponding to (1), (2), (3) or (4) against the relevant question number. 10. Use only Blue/Black Ball Point Pen to darken the circle/oval for answering. 11. Please do not darken more than one circle/oval against any question, as scanner will read such marking as wrong answer. 12. Once a/an circle/oval is darkened as answer to the question, it is final. Answer option once darkened cannot be changed. 13. All objective type questions carry equal marks. There is no negative marking. 14. Rough work, if any, is to be done on the Question Booklet only. No separate sheet will be provided/used for Rough Work. 15. Calculator, Mobile, etc., are not permitted inside the examination hall. 16. Candidates seeking, receiving and/or giving assistance during the test will be disqualified. 17. Appropriate civil/criminal proceedings will be instituted against the candidate taking or attempting to take this Question Booklet or part of it outside the examination hall. 18. The right to exclude any question(s) from final evaluation rests with the testing authority. 19. Do not seek clarification on any item in the question booklet from the test invigilator. Use your best judgment.

1. tc rd dgk u tk;s bl iz'u iqfLrdk dks u [kksysaA 2. ijh{kk 'kq: gksus ls igys iz'u iqfLrdk rFkk vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj&i=kd ds vkoj.k ij fn;s x;s LFkku ij vko';d lwpuk HkjsaA 3. ijh{kk dk dqy le; Hkkx-I ([k.M-A vkSj Hkkx&II ([k.M-B) 180 feuV gSA 4. iz'u&iqfLrdk [kksyus ds rqjUr ckn tkap dj ysa fd iz'u&iqfLrdk iwjh gSA 5. blesa dqy 30 oLrqfu"B Vkbi iz'u Hkkx-I ([k.M-A) gSa ftUgsa gy djuk gSA 6. ;fn vuqokn esa dksbZ vLi"Vrk gks] rks vaxzsth ikB lgh ekuk tk,xkA 7. izR;sd iz'u ds mÙkj ds fy, pkj fodYi gSa ftu ij (1), (2), (3) vkSj (4) vafdr gSaA 8. oLrqfu"B iz'u ds mÙkj vyx ls fn;s x;s vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj&i=kd ij vafdr djsaA 9. lcls mi;qDr fodYi pqusa rFkk lEcfU/r iz'u ds lkeus fn;s x;s rnuq:i fodYi ds fy, (1), (2), (3) ;k (4) ds xksys@vaMkd`fr dks iwjh rjg ls dkyk djsaA 10. mÙkj nsus ds fy, xksys@vaMkd`fr dks dkyk djus ds fy, dsoy uhys@dkys ckWy ikWbaV isu dk iz;ksx djsaA 11. fdlh iz'u ds lkeus ,d ls vf/d xksys@vaMkd`fr dks dkyk u djsa] D;ksafd LdSuj ml fu'kku dks xyr mÙkj i<+sxkA 12. ,d ckj xksys@vaMkd`fr dks iz'u ds mÙkj ds :i esa vafdr dj fn;k x;k rks og vafre gksxkA mÙkj fodYi ,d ckj vafdr djus ds ckn cnyk ugha tk ldrkA 13. lHkh oLrqfu"B Vkbi iz'uksa ds leku vad gSA ½.kkRed vadu ugha gSA 14. ;fn dksbZ dPpk dke djuk gS rks og dsoy iz'u iqfLrdk ij gh djsaA dPps dke ds fy, dksbZ vyx ls 'khV ugha nh tk,xh@iz;ksx esa ugha yk;h tk,xhA 15. dSYdqysVj] eksckby vkfn ijh{kk gkWy ds vUnj ys tkus dh vuqefr ugha gSA 16. vuqfpr lk/uksa dk iz;ksx djus okys ijh{kkFkhZ dks v;ksX; Bgjk fn;k tk,xkA 17. bl iz'u&iqfLrdk ;k blds fdlh Hkkx dks ijh{kk gkWy ls ckgj ys tkus ;k ys tkus dh dksf'k'k djus okys ijh{kkFkhZ dh ijh{kkFkhZ&ik=krk dks jn~n djus ds vykok mlds fo:¼ leqfpr nhokuh@iQkStnkjh dk;Zokgh dh tk,xhA 18. vafre ewY;kadu ls fdlh iz'u dks fudky nsus dk vf/dkj ijh{kk izkf/dkjh ds gkFk esa gSA 19. iz'u iqfLrdk esa fdlh Hkh oLrq ij tkap vUoh{kd ls Li"Vhdj.k u ekaxsA vius foosd dk iz;ksx djsaA

This Question Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet are to be returned on completion of the test. ijh{kk iwjh gksus ij ;g iz'u iqfLrdk rFkk vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj&i=kd ykSVk nsaA

A/XIX/II 8