ATK PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY (CBRT) Name of the post Management Executive (Metal), (GMDC) Class-2 Advertisement No. 34/2020-21 Preliminary Test held on 04-07-2021 Question No. 001 – 300 (General Studies & Concern Subject) Publish Date 06-07-2021 Last Date to Send Suggestion(s) 13-07-2021 THE LINK FOR ONLINE OBJECTION SYSTEM WILL START FROM 07-07-2021; 12:00 PM ONWARDS

Instructions / ૂચના

Candidate must ensure compliance to the instructions mentioned below, else objections shall not be considered: - (1) All the suggestion should be submitted through ONLINE OBJECTION SUBMISSION SYSTEM only. Physical submission of suggestions will not be considered. (2) Question wise suggestion to be submitted in the prescribed format (proforma) published on the website / online objection submission system. (3) All suggestions are to be submitted with reference to the Master Question Paper with provisional answer key (Master Question Paper), published herewith on the website / online objection submission system. Objections should be sent referring to the Question, Question No. & options of the Master Question Paper. (4) Suggestions regarding question nos. and options other than provisional answer key (Master Question Paper) shall not be considered. (5) Objections and answers suggested by the candidate should be in compliance with the responses given by him in his answer sheet. Objections shall not be considered, in case, if responses given in the answer sheet /response sheet and submitted suggestions are differed. (6) Objection for each question should be made on separate sheet. Objection for more than one question in single sheet shall not be considered.

ઉમેદવાર નીચેની ૂચનાઓું પાલન કરવાની તકદાર રાખવી, અયથા વાંધા- ૂચન ગે કરલ રૂઆતો યાને લેવાશે નહ

(1) ઉમેદવાર વાંધાં- ૂચનો ફત ઓનલાઈન ઓશન સબમીશન સીટમ ારા જ સબમીટ કરવાના રહશે. બ અથવા ટપાલ ારા આયોગની કચેરએ મોકલવા આવેલ વાંધા- ૂચનો યાને લેવામા આવશે નહ ની ખાસ નધ લેવી.

(2) ઉમેદવાર વાંધા- ૂચનો રૂ કરવા વેબસાઈટ / ઓનલાઈન ઓશન સબમીશન સીટમ પર િસધ થયેલ િનયત ન ૂનાનો જ ઉપયોગ કરવો.

(3) ઉમેદવાર પોતાને પરામાં મળેલ પુતકામાં છપાયેલ માક ુજબ વાંધા- ૂચનો રૂ ન કરતા તમામ વાંધા- ૂચનો વેબસાઈટ પર િસધ થયેલ ોિવઝનલ આસર ક (માટર પ)ના માંક ુજબ અને તે સંદભમાં રૂ કરવા.

(4) માટર પમાં િનદટ અને િવકપ િસવાયના વાંધા- ૂચનો યાને લેવામાં આવશે નહ.

(5) ઉમેદવાર ના િવકપ પર વાંધો રૂ કરલ છે અને િવકપ પે જવાબ ૂચવેલ છે એ જવાબ ઉમેદવાર પોતાની ઉરવહમાં આપેલ હોવો જોઈએ. ઉમેદવાર ૂચવેલ જવાબ અને ઉરવહનો જવાબ ભ હશે તો ઉમેદવાર રૂ કરલ વાંધા- ૂચનો યાનમા લેવાશે નહ.

(6) એક માટ એક જ વાંધા- ૂચન પક વાપરું. એક જ વાંધા- ૂચનો પકમાં એકથી વધાર ોની રૂઆત કરલ હશે તો તે ગેના વાંધા- ૂચનો યાને લેવાશે નહ.

Website link for online objection submission system : http://150.129.165.5/GPSC_Suggestion/ Lkk MkuLMkMk {wsçk ¼khík{kt MkkiÚke ðÄw ðMíke Ähkðíkk fÞk «Úk{ ºký hkßÞku Au ? 001. 2011 W¥kh «Ëuþ, {nkhk»xÙ,rçknkh {nkhk»xÙ, W¥kh «Ëuþ, hksMÚkkLk (A) (B) rçknkh, {æÞ «Ëuþ, ykurzþk {nkhk»xÙ, rçknkh, W¥kh «Ëuþ (C) (D) Lkk MkuLMkMk {wsçk, ¼khíkLkk fÞk hkßÞ{kt ðMíkeLke ½Lkíkk MkkiÚke ðÄkhu yLku MkkiÚke 002. 2011 (Density of population) ykuAe Au ? rçknkh yLku Lkkøkk÷uLz rçknkh yLku yYýk[÷ «Ëuþ (A) (B) W¥kh «Ëuþ yLku økkuðk {æÞ «Ëuþ yLku A¥keMkøkZ (C) (D) Lke[uLkk ðkõÞku Ãkife fÞk ðkõÞku ÞkuøÞ Au ? 003. økwshkík hkßÞLke MkhnË hksMÚkkLk, {æÞ «Ëuþ, {nkhk»xÙ, Ëeð yLku Ë{ý íkÚkk ËkËhk Lkkøkh nðu÷eLke MkhnËLku 1. MÃkþuo Au. økwshkík hkßÞLke MÚkkÃkLkk {u Lkk hkus ÚkÞu÷ níke. 2. 1 1961 økwshkíkLkku Mkkûkhíkk Ëh Lkk MkuLMkMk {wsçk Au yLku Lkk MkuLMkMk {wsçk MkuõMk huþeÞku Au. 3. (2011 ) 78.03% 2011 919 yLku ðkõÞku ÞkuøÞ Au. yLku ðkõÞku ÞkuøÞ Au. (A) 1 2 (B) 2 3 yLku ðkõÞku ÞkuøÞ Au. yLku çkÄks ðkõÞku ÞkuøÞ Au. (C) 1 3 (D) 1, 2 3 Lke[uLkk ðkõÞku Ãkife fÞk ðkõÞku ÞkuøÞ Au ? 004. hk»xÙeÞ Äkuhe{køko- fu su ðkhkýMkeLku fLÞkfw{kheÚke òuzu Au íku MkkiÚke ÷ktçkku Äkuhe{køko Au. 1. 7, rËÕ÷e, {wtçkE, [uLLkkE yLku fku÷f¥kkLku òuzðk MðŠý{ [íkw¼wos hk»xÙeÞ Äkuhe{køkoLkwt ykÞkusLk Au. 2. {nkí{k økktÄe yuõMk«uMk nkÞðu/LkuþLk÷ yuõMk«uMk nkÞðu- y{ËkðkË-ðzkuËhkLku òuzu Au. 3. 1 yLku yLku (A) 1, 2 3 (B) 1 3 yLku yLku (C) 1 2 (D) 2 3 huÕðuLkk {wÏÞ rð¼køkku yLku íkuLkk {wÏÞ fuLÿLku òuzku. 005. {æÞ hu÷ fku÷f¥kk 1. a. Ãkqðo hu÷ nkSÃkwh 2. b. Ãkqðo {æÞ hu÷ nwçk÷e 3. c. Ërûký Ãkrù{ hu÷ {wtçkE - AºkÃkrík þeðkS {nkhks x{eoLkMk 4. d. (A) 1 - c, 2 - d, 3 - a, 4 - b (B) 1 - b, 2 - c, 3 - d, 4 - a (C) 1 - a, 2 - b, 3 - c, 4 - d (D) 1 - d, 2 - a, 3 - b, 4 - c Lke[uLkk ðkõÞku [fkMkku : 006. EþkLk ¼khíkLkk Ãknkze hkßÞku{kt çkkhu{kMk ÷e÷k hnuíkk støk÷ku ykðu÷ Au. 1. Ãkqðo½kx yLku Ãkrù{ ½kxLkk Zku¤kðk Ãkh ¾hkW støk÷ku ykðu÷ Au. ÃkkLk¾h Éíkw{kt ÃkktËzk ¾he òÞ Au. 2. rn{k÷ÞLkk ô[k Ãknkzku Ãkh øke[ «{ký{kt íkkz, fuðzku, MkwtËhe, [uh suðk ð]ûkku øke[ «{ký{kt Wøku Au. 3. yLku ÞkuøÞ Au. yLku ÞkuøÞ Au. (A) 1 3 (B) 2 3 yLku ÞkuøÞ Au. yLku ÞkuøÞ Au. (C) 1 2 (D) 1, 2 3

ASN - MASTER ] 1 [ P.T.O. Lke[uLkk ðkõÞku Ãkife fÞw ðkõÞ ÞkuøÞ Au ? 007. Mkk{kLÞ yÚkðk ykfkþeÞ ¾uíke{kt swðkh, çkkshe, {fkE suðk Ãkkfku ÚkkÞ Au. 1. ½ôLkk Ãkkf {kxu Mkqfe ¾uíke ÷kÞf s{eLk ½ýe WÃkÞkuøke Au. 2. ®Mk[kELke ¾uíkeÚke þuhze, fÃkkMk, þý, zktøkh suðk ÃkkfkuLkwt WíÃkkËLk ÚkkÞ Au. 3. çkkøkkÞíke ¾uíke{kt [k, fkpVe suðk ÃkkfkuLkku Mk{kðuþ ÚkkÞ Au. 4. yLku yLku (A) 1, 2 3 (B) 1, 2 4 yLku yLku (C) 2, 3 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 4 ¼khíkLkk hkßÞku yLku íkuLke hksÄkLke Lku ÞkuøÞ heíku òuzku. 008. (Capital) yYýk[÷ «Ëuþ ExkLkøkh 1. a. ykMkk{ rËMkÃkwh 2. b. {rýÃkwh #Vk÷ 3. c. {u½k÷Þ rþ÷kUøk 4. d. (A) 1 - b, 2 - c, 3 - d, 4 - a (B) 1 - a, 2 - b, 3 - c, 4 - d (C) 1 - c, 2 - d, 3 - a, 4 - b (D) 1 - d, 2 - a, 3 - b, 4 - c ËuþLkk rfÕ÷kyku yLku MkçktrÄík þnuh/hkßÞkuLke òuzeyku Ãkife fE òuze ÞkuøÞ LkÚke ? 009. (Fort) ÃkLnk¤k Vkuxo – {nkhk»xÙ (A) (Panhala Fort) økku÷fkUzk Vkuxo – niËhkçkkË (B) (Golconda Fort) {unhLkøkZ Vkuxo – hksMÚkkLk (C) (Mehrangarh Fort) fktøkhk Vkuxo – A¥keMkøkZ (D) (Kangra Fort) Lke[uLkk ðkõÞku [fkMkku yLku fÞk ðkõÞku ÞkuøÞ Au ? 010. ¼køkehÚke LkËe Ãkh çkktÄðk{kt ykðu÷ íknuhe zì{ ¼khík{kt ykðu÷ MkkiÚke ô[ku zì{ Au. 1. (Tehri Dam) rnhkfwtz zì{ ykurzþk hkßÞ{kt ykðu÷ Au yLku íku MkkiÚke ÷ktçkku Au. 2. (Hirakund Dam) Ëktíkeðkzk zì{ A¥keMkøkZ{kt ykðu÷ Au yLku íku {nkLkËe WÃkh Au. 3. (Dantiwada Dam) yLku ðkõÞku ÞkuøÞ Au. yLku ðkõÞku ÞkuøÞ Au. (A) 1, 2 3 (B) 1 2 yLku ðkõÞku ÞkuøÞ Au. yLku ðkõÞku ÞkuøÞ Au. (C) 1 3 (D) 2 3 xkÞøkh heÍðo ûkuºk yLku MkçktÄeík hkßÞkuLke òuzeyku Ãkife fE òuze ÞkuøÞ LkÚke ? 011. (Tiger Reserve) Lk{zkVk – yktÄú «Ëuþ Ãkfe – yYýk[÷ «Ëuþ (A) (Namdapha) (B) (Pakke) ykuhktøk – ykMkk{ ELÿkðxe – A¥keMkøkZ (C) (Orang) (D) (Indravati) “MkíÞ{uð sÞíku” ÷¾ký fu su ¼khíkLkk hksr[ö MkkÚku ÷¾ðk{kt ykðu Au íku þk{kÚke ÷uðk{kt 012. (Indian Emblem) ykðu÷ Au ? ÉøkðuË – MkíkÃkÚk çkúBnýk – (A) Rigved (B) Satpath Brahmana {wtzf WÃkLkeþË – hk{kÞý – (C) Mundak Upnishad (D) Ramayana

ASN - MASTER ] 2 [ Contd. ¼khíkLkk «ÏÞkík Lk]íÞ «fkh yLku MkçktÄeík hkßÞkuLku ÞkuøÞ heíku òuzku : 013. fÚkf fkÂ~{h 1. (Kathak) a. fÚÚkf f÷e yktÄú «Ëuþ 2. (Kathakali) b. fw[eÃkwze fuh¤k 3. (Kuchipudi) c. hWV W¥kh «Ëuþ 4. (Rouf) d. (A) 1 - c, 2 - b, 3 - a, 4 - d (B) 1 - d, 2 - c, 3 - b, 4 - a (C) 1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - c (D) 1 - a, 2 - d, 3 - c, 4 - b ðkã yLku ðkËfLke fE òuzeyku ÞkuøÞ Au ? 014. (instrument) Mktíkwh – Ãktzeík þeðfw{kh þ{ko 1. MkhkuË – Lke¾e÷ çkuLkhS 2. çkeLk – yMkË y÷e ¾kLk 3. {uLzku÷eLk – çkúes ¼w»ký fkçkhk 4. yLku yLku (A) 1 2 (B) 1 3 yLku yLku çkÄks ÞkuøÞ Au. (C) 1 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 4 ¼khíkLke y÷øk-y÷øk Mkkzeyku yLku íkuLke MkkÚku òuzkÞu÷ hkßÞLkk òuzfkyku Ãkife fÞk òuzfk ÞkuøÞ Au ? 015. ykþkð÷e økwshkík 1. (Ashavali Saree) – çkk÷w[khe Mkkze W¥kh «Ëuþ 2. (Baluchari Saree) – çkku{fe Mkkze ykuzeþk 3. (Bomkai Saree) – fMkðw Mkkze íkk{e÷Lkkzw 4. ( Saree) – yLku yLku (A) 1 2 (B) 1 3 yLku yLku (C) 1 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 4 ¼khíkLkk «ÏÞkík {trËhku yLku MkçktrÄík hkßÞLke òuzeyku Ãkife fE òuze ÞkuøÞ LkÚke ? 016. çkÿeLkkÚk {trËh – W¥khk¾tz (A) (Badrinath Temple) fkuLkkfo MkwÞo {trË – ykuzeþk (B) hk{uïh{ {trËh – yktÄú «Ëuþ (C) rMkæÄe rðLkkÞf økýuþ {trËh – {nkhk»xÙ (D) (Siddhi Vinayak Temple) rnLËe ¼k»kkLkk ÷u¾fku yLku íku{Lkk ÞkuøkËkLkLku ÞkuøÞ heíku økkuXðku. 017. ík{Mk hk{Äkhe ®Mkn-rËLkfh 1. a. f{kÞLke VýeïhLkkÚk huýwt 2. b. {i÷k ykì[÷ sÞþtfh «MkkË 3. c. hÂ~{hÚk ¼e»{ MknkLke 4. d. (A) 1 - c, 2 - b, 3 - a, 4 - d (B) 1 - d, 2 - c, 3 - b, 4 - a (C) 1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - c (D) 1 - a, 2 - d, 3 - c, 4 - b nk÷{kt çkkiØ Ä{oLkk ÃkwhkíkíðeÞ yðþuþku økwshkík{kt fÞk MÚk¤uÚke {¤u÷ Au ? 018. çkk½ ËuðLke {kuhe (A) (Bagh) (B) (Devnimori) MkkhLkkÚk fÃke÷ ðMíkw (C) (D)

ASN - MASTER ] 3 [ P.T.O. rðsÞ MÚkt¼ “ ” fÞk MÚk¤u ykðu÷ Au ? 019. Vijay Stambha sÞÃkwh WËÞÃkwh (A) (B) [e¥kkuzøkZ ys{uh (C) (D) ‘hk»xÙeÞ ËVíkh ¼tzkh’ ‘ ’ fÞk MÚk¤u ykðu÷ Au ? 020. National Archives Lkðe rËÕne f÷f¥kk (A) (B) ËnuhkËwLk {wtçkE (C) (D) økwshkíke ¼k»kkLkk Ãkkºkku yLku íkuLke h[Lkk fhLkkh ÷u¾fLke òuzeyku økkuXðku. 021. h{Íw þhýkE ðk¤ku ©e Ë÷Ãkíkhk{ 1. a. økku®ðË - hksÃkwh økk{ðk¤ku ©e fLkiÞk÷k÷ {wLkþe 2. b. {wtò÷ ©e økkiheþtfh økkuðÄoLkhk{ òu»ke - Äq{fuíkw 3. c. Sðhk{ ¼è ©e [wLLke÷k÷ {zeÞk 4. d. (A) 1 - d, 2 - c, 3 - b, 4 - a (B) 1 - c, 2 - b, 3 - a, 4 - d (C) 1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - c (D) 1 - a, 2 - d, 3 - c, 4 - b Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞk ðkõÞku ÞkuøÞ Au ? 022. ði»ýðsLk íkku íkuLku fneyu su Ãkez ÃkhkE òýuhu – ÷u¾f Lkh®Mkn {nuíkk. 1. yuf {wh¾Lku yuðe xuð, ÃkÚÚkh yux÷k Ãkqsu Ëuð – ÷u¾f y¾k ¼økík 2. hks {Lku ÷køÞku fMkwtçkeLkku htøk, sLkLkeLkk niÞk{kt ÃkkuZíkk ÃkkuZíkk, ÃkeAku fMkwtçkeLkku htøk – ÷u¾f Íðuh[tË {u½kýe 3. yLku yLku (A) 1 2 (B) 2 3 yLku yLku (C) 1 3 (D) 1, 2 3 økwshkíke ÷u¾fku yLku íkuykuLkk WÃkLkk{Lke òuzeyku Ãkife fE òuze ÞkuøÞ LkÚke ? 023. yççkkMk yçËw÷ y÷e ðkMke – {heÍ {ÄwMkqËLk ðÕ÷¼ËkMk Xkfh – {ÄwhkÞ (A) (B) Íeýk¼kE híkLkS ËuMkkE – MLkunhÂ~{ Mkwh®MknS íkÏík®MknS økkurn÷ – fufkhð (C) (D) Lke[uLkk Ãkife nzÃÃkLk MktMf]ríkLkwt fÞw MÚk¤ fåA{kt ykðu÷ Au ? 024. Ëuþ÷Ãkh çkkçkhfkux (A) (B) hkuÍze htøkÃkwh (C) (D) {n{qË økÍLkeyu Mkku{LkkÚk WÃkh [zkE fhe íÞkhu økwshkíkLkku hkßÞ fkh¼kh fkuý Mkt¼k¤íkku níkku ? 025. fýoËuð Ãknu÷ku ¼e{Ëuð Ãknu÷ku (A) (B) fýoËuð çkeòu ¼e{Ëuð çkeòu (C) (D) Lke[uLke çkkçkík fÞk hksðeLkk Mk{Þ{kt çkLku÷ níke ? 026. ¼]økwfåA (¼Y[) yLku MÚkt¼íkeÚko (¾t¼kík) suðk yøkíÞLkk çktËhku íkuLkk hkßÞ{kt níkk. 1. [eLke Þkºkk¤w VkrnÞkLku hkßÞLke Mk{]æÄeLkk ¾wçk ð¾ký fhu÷ níkk. 2. íkuLkk Mk{Þ{kt rþÕÃk, MÚkkÃkíÞ yLku r[ºkf÷kLkku MkwtËh rðfkMk ÚkÞu÷ níkku. 3. Mk{úkx Mk{wÿøkwÃík Mk{úkx [tÿøkwÃík çkeòu - rð¢{krËíÞ (A) (B) fw{kh økwÃík Ãknu÷ku Mk{úkx yþkuf (C) (D)

ASN - MASTER ] 4 [ Contd. «k[eLk ¼khíkLke rþûký ykÃkíke MktMÚkkyku yLku íkuLkk MÚkkLk ytøkuLkk ðkõÞku Ãkife fÞwt ðkõÞ ÞkuøÞ LkÚke ? 027. nk÷Lkk W¥kh Ãkrù{ ¼khíkLkk økktÄkh ûkuºk ÃkkMku íkûkrþ÷k þiûkrýf MÚkkLk níkwt. (A) nk÷Lkk rçknkh{kt Lkkt÷Ëk rðãkÃkeX ykðu÷ níke. (B) nk÷Lkk økwshkík{kt ykuËkLkeÃkwhe ¿kkLkLke rðãkÃkeX níke. (C) nk÷Lkk çktøkk¤{kt rð¢{rþ÷k rðãkÃkeX yÂMíkíð{kt níke. (D) Ërûký ¼khík{kt, Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞk hkßÞ - Mkk{úkßÞku Lk níkk ? 028. fÕÞkýeLkku [k÷wõÞ ðtþ, [uh ðtþ ÃkÕ÷ð ðtþ, Ãkktzâ ðtþ (A) (B) [ku÷k ðtþ «ríknkh, Ãkk÷ ðtþ (C) (D) Lke[uLkk ðkõÞku [fkMkku : 029. økðoLkh sLkh÷ ðu÷uM÷eLke MknkÞfkhe ÞkusLkk - rðMíkkhðkËLke ÞkusLkkLkk ½ýk hsðkzkyku ¼kuøk çkLku÷ níkk. 1. zu÷ nkWMke îkhk “¾k÷MkkLkerík”Lkku y{÷ þY fhu÷ níkku yLku íkuLkk ¼kuøk çkúBnËuþ, Mkkíkkhk, ÍktMke, LkkøkÃkwh suðk 2. hkßÞku çkLÞk níkk. «Úk{ ðkõÞ ÞkuøÞ Au. çkeòw ðkõÞ ÞkuøÞ Au. (A) (B) «Úk{ yLku çkeòw, çkLLku ðkõÞku ÞkuøÞ Au. «Úk{ yLku çkeòw, çkLLku ðkõÞku ÞkuøÞ LkÚke. (C) (D) Lkk Mktøkúk{ MkçktÄ{k Lke[uLkk ðkõÞku [fkMkku : 030. 1857 ¾uzk SÕ÷k{kt ykýtËLkk {w¾e økhçkzËkMkLke ykøkuðkLke Lke[u Mktøkúk{ Auzâku níkku. 1. [ktzwÃk ([ktÃkz) økk{Lkk ÷kufkuyu LkkÚkkS yLku Þk{kSLke ykøkuðkLke Mðefkhe Mktøkúk{{kt òuzkÞu÷ níkk. 2. W¥kh økwshkík{kt Ãkkxý, ¾uhk÷w, r¼÷kuze, {wzuxe søÞkyu Ãký Mktøkúk{ þY ÚkÞu÷ níkku. 3. yLku ðkõÞku ÞkuøÞ Au. yLku ðkõÞku ÞkuøÞ Au. (A) 1, 2 3 (B) 1 2 yLku ðkõÞku ÞkuøÞ Au. yLku ðkõÞku ÞkuøÞ Au. (C) 2 3 (D) 1 3 ËuþLkk MkíÞkøkúnku yLku Mk{Þ økk¤kLku ÞkuøÞ heíku òuzku : 031. [tÃkkhý MkíÞkøkún 1. a. 1928 ¾uzk MkíÞkøkún 2. b. 1917 yMknfkhLkwt yktËku÷Lk 3. c. 1917-1918 çkkhzku÷e MkíÞkøkún 4. d. 1920-1922 (A) 1 - d, 2 - a, 3 - b, 4 - c (B) 1 - c, 2 - d, 3 - a, 4 - b (C) 1 - b, 2 - c, 3 - d, 4 - a (D) 1 - a, 2 - b, 3 - c, 4 - d Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞk {nkLkw¼kðku rðËuþ{kt ¢kLíkefkhe «ð]r¥k{kt Mkr¢Þ ¢ktríkfkheyku níkk ? 032. ~Þk{S f]»ý ð{ko, {ËLk÷k÷ Īøkhk 1. ðeh Mkkðhfh, ÷k÷k nhËÞk÷, WÄ{®Mkn 2. hkò {nuLÿ «íkkÃk, MkhËkh®Mkn hkýk, h{ý rÃkÕ÷kE 3. {ki÷kLkk yçËwÕ÷k, {ki÷kLkk çkþeh, zkp. {Úkwh®Mkn “¾wËkçkûk” 4. yLku yLku (A) 1, 2 3 (B) 1, 3 4 yLku yLku (C) 1, 2 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 4

ASN - MASTER ] 5 [ P.T.O. økwÃík yLku n»kofk÷eLk MktMf]ík MkkrníÞLke ©ucík{ f]ríkyku, íkuLkk ÷u¾fku yLku f]ríkLkk «fkhLke òuzeyku Ãkife fE òuze ÞkuøÞ 033. LkÚke ? MðÃLkðkMkðË¥k{T ¼kMk Lkkxf fw{kh Mkt¼ð fkr÷ËkMk {nkfkÔÞ (A)   (B)   Ãkt[íktºk rð»ýw þ{ko ðkíkko Mktøkún rþþwÃkk÷ ðÄ ¼khðe ¾tzfkÔÞ (C)   (D)   Mkk{krsf yLku ÄkŠ{f MkwÄkhýkLke [¤ð¤ [÷kðLkkh {nkLkw¼kðku yLku íkuykuLkk MktMÚkkLke òuzeyku, Ãkife fE òuze ÞkuøÞ 034. LkÚke ? hkò hk{ {kunLk hkÞ – çkúBnku Mk{ks (A) ßÞkuríkçkk Vw÷u – MkíÞ þkuÄf Mk{ks (B) Mðk{e ËÞkLktË MkhMðíke – ykÞo Mk{ks (C) fwLË fwrh ðehuMk®÷øk{ – LkkhkÞý {kLkð SðLk ÃkrhÃkk÷Lk Þkuøk{ (D) rðsÞLkøkh Mkk{úkßÞLkk yðþu»k yksu fÞk MÚk¤u {¤e ykðu Au ? 035. çkeòÃkwh – økku÷fkuLzk – (A) Bijapur (B) Golconda nBÃke – ðzkuËhk – (C) Hampi (D) Vadodara £uL[kuLke MkðkuoÃkheíkkLkku ytík íkÚkk ytøkúuòuLke MkðkuoÃkheíkk fÞk ÞwØLku fkhýu MÚkkÃkeík ÚkE ? 036. çktËeðkþLkwt ÞwØ – (A) Wandiwash War çkfMkhLkwt ÞwØ – (B) The battle of Buxar ©e htøkÃkxLk{Lkwt ÞwØ – (C) The battle of Seringapatnam Ã÷kMkeLkwt ÞwØ – (D) The battle of Plascy Lke[uLkk ðkõÞku [fkMkku : 037. ¼khík Ëuþ “çkkMk{íke [ku¾k”Lkku MkkiÚke {kuxku rLkfkMk fhLkkh Ëuþ Au. 1. çkkMk{íke [ku¾kLkwt {wÏÞíðu WíÃkkËLk Ërûký yLku {æÞ ¼khík{kt ÚkkÞ Au. 2. yuÃkezk îkhk çkkMk{íke [ku¾k {kxu òuøkúkuVef÷ ELzefuþLk {u¤ðu÷ Au. 3. (APEDA) Geographical Indication (GI) yLku ðkõÞku ÞkuøÞ Au. yLku ðkõÞku ÞkuøÞ Au. (A) 1 2 (B) 1 3 yLku ðkõÞku ÞkuøÞ Au. yLku ðkõÞku ÞkuøÞ Au. (C) 2 3 (D) 1, 2 3 Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞwt ðkõÞ ÞkuøÞ Au ? 038. hesLk÷ Yh÷ çkuLf Lke h[Lkk MktMkËLkk fkÞËk {wsçk fhðk{kt ykðu÷ Au. 1. (RRB) îkhk rÄhký, «kÞkuhexe ÷uLzªøk{kt yLku økúk{ rðMíkkh{kt fhðwt VhSÞkík Au. 2. RRB 90% Ëuþ{kt ¾uíkeðkze ûkuºkLkwt {n¥k{ rÄhký Mknfkhe çkuLfku {khVík fhðk{kt ykðu Au. 3. yLku {kºk (A) 1, 2 3 (B) 3 {kºk {kºk (C) 2 (D) 1 Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞk ðkõÞku ÞkuøÞ Au ? 039. yuLxe ztÃkªøk zâwxe yu MkthûkýðkËe xurhV Au. suÚke ËuþLkk Wãkuøkku ÃkhËuþe ðMíkwyku MkkÚku 1. (Anti-dumping Duty) ÞkuøÞ nheVkE fhe þfu. fku{Mko yLku ELzMxÙeÍ {tºkk÷Þ ytËh fkÞohík yuLxe 2. DGTR (Director General of Trade Remedies) ztÃkªøk ytøkuLke íkÃkkMk fhu Au. {kºk {kºk (A) 1 (B) 2 yLku çkLLku ðkõÞku ÞkuøÞ Au. yLku çkLLku ðkõÞku ÞkuøÞ LkÚke. (C) 1 2 (D) 1 2

ASN - MASTER ] 6 [ Contd. “xeÍh ÷kuLk” nk÷{kt Mk{k[kh Ãkºkku{kt òuðk {¤u Au, íku þwt Au ? 040. (Teaser Loan) «kÚkr{f íkçk¬k{kt ÔÞksLkku Ëh ykuAku nkuÞ Au yLku ÃkAe ÔÞksLkku Ëh ðÄu Au. (A) Mk{ksLkk økheçk yLku Lkçk¤k ðøkoLku ykuAk ÔÞksLkk Ëhu ykÃkðk{kt ykðíke ÷kuLk. (B) ¾wçks {kuxe hf{Lke, ¾wçks ykuAk Ëhu yLku ÷ktçkk økk¤kLke ÷kuLk. (C) ¾wçks ÄLkðkLk ÔÞÂõíkykuLku ykÃkðk{kt ykðíke ÷kuLk. (D) çkuLf çkkuzo çÞwhku Lkk {wÏÞ fkÞkuo õÞkt Au ? 041. (Bank Board Buerau, BBB) çkuLfkuLke fkÞo ÃkØíke, økðoLkLMk{kt MkwÄkhku fhðku. 1. çkuLfkuLke {wÏÞ søÞkyku ¼hðk {kxuLke fkÞoðkne fhðe yLku Lkk{kuLke MkhfkhLku ¼÷k{ý fhðe. 2. ¾hkçk rÄhký Lke yMkh ½xkzðk ònuh ûkuºkkuLke çkUfkuLku Lkðe {wze ykÃkðe. 3. (Bad Loans) yLku yLku (A) 1 3 (B) 2 3 yLku yLku (C) 1 2 (D) 1, 2 3 òuøkúkVef÷ ELzefuþLk xìøk Mkk{kLÞ heíku fkuLku ykÃkðk{kt ykðu Au ? 042. (Geographical Indication Tag - GI) ¾uík WíÃkkËLkku 1. (Agricultural Product) ¾kã ÃkËkÚkkuo 2. (Food Stuffs) nuLze¢k^x 3. (Handicrafts) ykiãkuøkef ðMíkwyku 4. (Industrial Products) ðkELk yLku MÃkehex Ãkeýkyku 5. (Wine and Spirit Drinks) yLku yLku (A) 1, 2, 3 4 (B) 1, 2, 4 5 yLku yLku (C) 1, 2, 3, 4 5 (D) 2, 3, 4 5 ¼khík{kt Ëh ð»kuo çku ð¾ík VkÞLkkLMkeÞ÷ heÃkkuxo fkuLkk îkhk çknkh Ãkkzðk{kt ykðu Au ? 043. (Financial Report) heÍðo çkuLf ykpV ELzeÞk Lkerík ykÞkuøk (A) (B) Lkkçkkzo Lkkýk {tºkk÷Þ (C) (D) ðeïLkku MkkiÚke {kuxku íkhíkku Mkku÷kh «kusuõx fE LkËe WÃkh fkÞoðtík ÚkLkkh Au ? 044. (World largest floating solar project) øktøkk Lk{oËk (A) (B) çkúBnÃkwºk fkðuhe (C) (D) ykuÃkLk {kfuox Ãkkp÷eMke yu fE «r¢ÞkLkku ¼køk Au ? 045. (Open market policy) ¢uzex Ãkkp÷eMke zuçkex Ãkkp÷eMke (A) (Credit policy) (B) (Debit policy) zeÃkkuÍex Ãkkp÷eMke WÃkhkuõík Ãkife fkuE Ãký Lknª (C) (Deposit policy) (D)

ASN - MASTER ] 7 [ P.T.O. ¼khík{kt Yk. Lke yLku Yk. Lke Lkkux WÃkh fkuLke Mkne nkuÞ Au ? 046. 100 1 {kLk. hk»xÙÃkrík 1. {kLk. ðzk «ÄkLk©e 2. {kLk. ykh.çke.ykÞ. økðoLkh©e 3. {kLk. {tºke©e Lkkýk rð¼køk 4. {kLk. Mkr[ð©e Lkkýk rð¼køk 5. {kLk. [uh{uLk©e Lkerík ykÞkuøk 6. {kLk. hk»xÙÃkrík yLku {kLk. {tºke©e Lkkýk rð¼køk (A) {kLk. {tºke©e Lkkýk rð¼køk yLku {kLk. [uh{uLk©e Lkerík ykÞkuøk (B) {kLk. ykh.çke.ykÞ. økðoLkh©e yLku {k. Mkr[ð©e Lkkýk rð¼køk (C) {kLk. Mkr[ð©e Lkkýk rð¼køk yLku {kLk. [uh{uLk©e Lkerík ykÞkuøk (D) {e© yÚkoíktºk yux÷u ? 047. (Mixed Economy) ¾uíke yLku WãkuøkkuLku, hkßÞ îkhk Mkh¾k «{ký{kt «kuíMkknLk ykÃku Au. (A) ònuh ûkuºk yLku ¾kLkøke ûkuºkLkwt MknyÂMíkíð (B) LkkLkk, {æÞ{ yLku {kuxk WãkuøkkuLku «kuíMkknLk (C) ¾kLkøke ûkuºk yLku ¾uíkeLkk rðfkMkLkku yr¼øk{ (D) hkßÞMk¼kLkk Mk¼kMkËkuLke [qtxýe{kt {íkËkLk fkuý fhu Au ? 048. Mkk{kLÞ {íkËkh ÷kufMk¼kLkk MkÇÞ©eyku (A) (B) hkßÞ rðÄkLk Mk¼kLkk [qtxkÞu÷ MkÇÞ©eyku ÷kufMk¼k, hkßÞ rðÄkLk Mk¼kLkk MkÇÞ©eyku (C) (D) ¼khíkLkkt çktÄkhýLkk yk{w¾{kt “Mk{ksðkËe rçkLk Mkkt«ËkrÞf” þçËkuLkku Mk{kðuþ fÞk çktÄkhýeÞ MkwÄkhkLku fkhýu ÚkÞku. 049. suÚke nðu “yuf Mkðo¼ki{ Mk{ksðkËe, rçkLk Mkkt«ËkrÞf ÷kufíktºkkí{f «òMk¥kkf” íkhe¾u yk{w¾{kt WÕ÷u¾ Au ? MkwÄkhk Lkt. MkwÄkhk Lkt. (A) 41 (B) 42 MkwÄkhk Lkt. MkwÄkhk Lkt. (C) 43 (D) 44 {q¤¼qík n¬ku yLkwåAuË yLkw¢{ LktçkhLku ÞkuøÞ heíku økkuXðku. 050. {w¤¼qík n¬ku yåAuË ðkýe Mðkíktºk ðøkuhu MkçktÄe y{wf n¬kuLkwt hûký 1. a. 21 fkÞËk Mk{ûk Mk{kLkíkk 2. b. 28 SðLk yLku þheh MðkíktºÞLkwt hûký 3. c. 19 ÄkŠ{f WÃkkMkLkk{kt nkshe ytøku Mðíktºkíkk 4. d. 14 (A) 1 - b, 2 - c, 3 - d, 4 - a (B) 1 - a, 2 - b, 3 - c, 4 - d (C) 1 - c, 2 - d, 3 - a, 4 - b (D) 1 - d, 2 - a, 3 - b, 4 - c çktËe-«íÞûkefhý, Ãkh{ ykËuþ, «rík»kuÄ, yrÄfkh Ãk]åAk, Wí«uûk{ suðe rhxLkku WÕ÷u¾ MktrðÄkLkLkk fÞk yLkwåAuË{kt 051. fhðk{kt ykðu÷ Au ?

(A) 29 (B) 30 (C) 31 (D) 32

ASN - MASTER ] 8 [ Contd. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞk ðkõÞku ÞkuøÞ Au ? 052. yLkwåAuË {kt yk ¼køkLke òuøkðkEyku fkuE LÞkÞk÷Þ y{÷ fhkðe þfíke LkÚke Ãkhtíkw fkÞËku ½zíke ð¾íku 1. 37 hkßÞLkeríkLkk {køkoËþof rMkØktíkkuLku ÷køkw Ãkkzðk hkßÞLke Vhs Au. yLkwåAuË {wsçk økúk{Ãkt[kÞíkkuLke h[Lkk, sYhe Mk¥kk yLku yrÄfkh ykÃkðkLke òuøkðkE fhðk{kt ykðu÷ Au. 2. 40 fk{ ytøkuLke LÞkÞe yLku {Lkkuðktr[ík ÃkrhÂMÚkrík rMkØ fhðkLke òuøkðkE yLkwåAuË {kt fhu÷ Au. 3. 44 yLku yLku (A) 1 3 (B) 1 2 yLku yLku (C) 2 3 (D) 1, 2 3 ÞkusLkk (MVqŠík ÞkusLkk) fÞk {tºkk÷Þ îkhk þY fhðk{kt ykðu÷ Au ? 053. “SFURTI” Mkqû{, ÷½w yLku {æÞ{ Wãkuøk {tºkk÷Þ Lkkýk {tºkk÷Þ (A) (B) øk]n {tºkk÷Þ hûkk {tºkk÷Þ (C) (D) Lke[uLkk ðkõÞku [fkMkku. 054. hkßÞ Mk¼kLkwt rðMksoLk ÚkE þfþu Lk®n Ãkhtíkw Lke þõÞ nkuÞ íkux÷e LkSfLke MktÏÞk{kt Ëh çku ð»kuo MkÇÞku rLkð]¥k 1. 1/3 Úkþu. ÷kufMk¼kLke Ãknu÷e çkuXfLke íkkhe¾Úke ð»ko MkwÄe ÷kufMk¼k [k÷w hnuþu. 2. 6 «Úk{ ðkõÞ ÞkuøÞ Au. çkeòw ðkõÞ ÞkuøÞ Au. (A) (B) «Úk{ yLku çkeòw çkLLku ðkõÞku ÞkuøÞ Au. «Úk{ yLku çkeòw çkLLku ðkõÞku ÞkuøÞ LkÚke. (C) (D) Lke[uLkk ðkõÞku [fkMkku : 055. Ëhuf {tºkeLku íkÚkk ¼khíkLkk yuxLkeo sLkh÷Lku çku {ktÚke fkuE Ãký øk]n{kt MktÞwõík çkuXf{kt nkshe ykÃkðkLkku n¬ Au. 1. fkÞoðkne{k ¼køk ÷eÄk çkkË òu {íkËkLk ÚkkÞíkku {íkËkLk{kt ¼køk ÷uðkLkku íkÚkk {ík ykÃkðkLkku n¬ Au. 2. ¼khíkLkk WÃk-hk»xÙÃkrík nkuÆkLke Yyu hkßÞMk¼kLkk Mk¼kÃkrík hnuþu. 3. yLku ÞkuøÞ Au. yLku ÞkuøÞ Au. (A) 1 2 (B) 2 3 yLku ÞkuøÞ Au. yLku çkÄks ÞkuøÞ Au. (C) 1 3 (D) 1, 2 3 Lke[uLkk ðkõÞku [fkMkku. 056. WÃkhk»xÙÃkríkLke [qtxýe{kt çkLLku øk]nLkk çkLku÷k {íkËkhøkýLkk MkÇÞku, {íkËkLk fhu Au yLku [qtxýe «Mktøku økwÃík {íkËkLkÚke 1. ÃkMktËøke ÚkkÞ Au. su ÔÞÂõík hkßÞ Mk¼kLkk MkÇÞ íkhe¾u [qtxkðk ÷kÞf Lk nkuÞ yÚkðk ð»koLke ô{h Ãkqhe fhe Lk nkuÞ íku ÔÞÂõík 2. 35 WÃkhk»xÙÃkrík íkhe¾u [qtxkðk Ãkkºk LkÚke. WÃkhkuõík òuøkðkE fÞk yLkwåAuË{kt fhkÞu÷ Au ?

(A) 64 (B) 65 (C) 66 (D) 67 Lke[uLkk ðkõÞku [fkMkku : 057. hk»xÙÃkrík, ðzk«ÄkLkLku MktçkkuÄeLku ÃkkuíkkLkk MkneÚke ÃkkuíkkLkk nkuÆkLkwt hkSLkk{w ykÃke þfþu. 1. yLkwåAuË {kt òuøkðkE fÞko {wsçk hk»xÙÃkríkLku {nk ykhkuÃk îkhk Ëqh fhe þfkÞ Au. 2. 65 (Impeachment) hk»xÙÃkrík MktMkËLkk fkuE Ãký øk]n yÚkðk hkßÞLke rðÄkLk {tz¤Lkk øk]nLkku MkÇÞ Lk nkuðku òuEyu òu MkÇÞ nkuÞ íkku nkuÆku 3. Mkt¼k¤u íku íkkhe¾Úke íku çkuXf ¾k÷e fhe økýkÞ Au. {kºk ðkõÞ ÞkuøÞ Au. yLku ðkõÞku ÞkuøÞ Au. (A) 3 (B) 1 2 yLku ðkõÞku ÞkuøÞ Au. yLku ðkõÞku ÞkuøÞ Au. (C) 2 3 (D) 1 3

ASN - MASTER ] 9 [ P.T.O. Lke[uLke çkkçkíkku {kxu ÞkuøÞ yLkwåAuË økkuXðku : 058. rðøkík yLkwåAuË hkßÞkuLkk hkßÞÃkk÷ku 1. a. 158 hkßÞÃkk÷Lke rLk{ýqtf 2. b. 156 hkßÞÃkk÷Lkk nkuÆkLke {wËík 3. c. 153 hkßÞÃkk÷Lkk nkuÆkLke þhíkku 4. d. 155 (A) 1 - c, 2 - b, 3 - a, 4 - d (B) 1 - d, 2 - c, 3 - b, 4 - a (C) 1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - c (D) 1 - a, 2 - d, 3 - c, 4 - b Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞw ðkõÞ ÞkuøÞ LkÚke ? 059. ¼khík{kt yuf Wå[ík{ LÞkÞk÷Þ hnuþu yLku ¼khíkLkk {kLk. {wÏÞ LÞkÞ{qŠík WÃkhktík yLÞ {k. LÞkÞ{qŠíkyku (A) fkÞoðtík hnuþu. {k. LÞkÞ{qŠík ð»koLke ô{h MkwÄe ÃkkuíkkLkku nkuÆku Ähkðe þfu Au. (B) 70 {k. LÞkÞ{qŠík ÃkkuíkkLkwt hkSLkk{wt {kLk. hk»xÙÃkríkLku MkkËh fhu Au. (C) fk{ [÷kW {k. {wÏÞ LÞkÞ{qŠíkLke òuøkðkE yLkwåAuË {kt fhðk{kt ykðu÷ Au. (D) 126 Lke[uLkk ðkõÞku [fkMkku. 060. Ãkt[kÞík ytøkuLke òuøkðkEyku {kt MkwÄkhk {wsçk y{÷e çkLku÷ Au. 1. 71 Ãkt[kÞík ytøkuLkk MkwÄkhkyku íkk. Úke y{÷{k ykðu÷ Au. 2. 24-4-93 {æÞðíkeo MíkhLke yÚkðk rsÕ÷k MíkhLke MktMÚkkyku{kt Mkhfkh îkhk yæÞûkLke rLk{ýwtf fhðk{kt ykðu Au. 3. Ãkt[kÞíkLke Mkk{kLÞ Mktòuøkku{kt {wËík Ãkkt[ ð»koLke nkuÞ Au. 4. yLku ðkõÞku ÞkuøÞ LkÚke. yLku ðkõÞku ÞkuøÞ LkÚke. (A) 1 4 (B) 1 2 yLku ðkõÞku ÞkuøÞ LkÚke. yLku ðkõÞku ÞkuøÞ LkÚke. (C) 1 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 4 Lke[uLkk ðkõÞku [fkMkku. 061. fuLÿeÞ Mkíkofíkk ykÞkuøkLku ykpøkMx Lkk hkus “ðiÄkrLkf Ëhßòu” ykÃkðk{kt ykðu÷ níkku. 1. 25- 1988 ykÞkuøk{kt yæÞûk WÃkhktík ºký MkÇÞku nkuÞ Au. 2. ¼úük[kh nkuÆkLkku ËwhWÃkÞkuøk suðe çkkçkíkkuLke íkÃkkMk fheLku ÞkuøÞ íku Ãkøk÷k ¼hðk ykÞkuøk ¼÷k{ý fhu Au. 3. WÃkhkuõík Ãkife fÞk rðÄkLkku ÞkuøÞ Au ? yLku yLku (A) 1 2 (B) 2 3 yLku yLku (C) 1 3 (D) 1, 2 3 Lke[uLkk ðkõÞku [fkMkku. 062. ÷kufÃkk÷ yLku ÷kufkÞwõík fkÞËku - Lku {kLk. hk»xÙÃkríkyu òLÞwykhe Lkk hkus {tòwhe ykÃku÷e níke yLku 1. 2013, 1 2014 òLÞwykhe Úke yk fkÞËku y{÷{kt ykðu÷ níkku. 16 2014 ÷kufÃkk÷{kt yæÞûk©e WÃkhktík {n¥k{ ykX MkÇÞkuLke Lke{ýqtf fhe þfkÞ Au. 2. «Úk{ yLku çkeòw ðkõÞ ÞkuøÞ Au. {kºk «Úk{ ðkõÞ ÞkuøÞ Au. (A) (B) {kºk çkeòw ðkõÞ ÞkuøÞ Au. «Úk{ yLku çkeòw ðkõÞ, çkLLku ÞkuøÞ LkÚke. (C) (D)

ASN - MASTER ] 10 [ Contd. ÷kuf Mkuðk ykÞkuøkLke òuøkðkEyku yLku MkçktrÄík yLkwåAuËLke òuzeyku Ãkife fE òuze ÞkuøÞ LkÚke ? 063. Mkt½Lku yuf ÷kuf Mkuðk ykÞkuøk yLku Ëhuf hkßÞLku yuf ÷kuf Mkuðk ykÞkuøk nþu – yLkwåAuË- (A) 315 MkÇÞkuLke rLk{ýqtfLke òuøkðkE – yLkwåAuË- (B) 317 ÷kuf Mkuðk ykÞkuøkLkk fkÞkuo – yLkwåAuË- (C) 320 ÷kuf Mkuðk ykÞkuøkLkk rhÃkkuxo – yLkwåAuË- (D) 323 Lke[uLkk ðkõÞku [fkMkku. 064. Ãkt[kÞíkkuLke ík{k{ [qtxýeykuLke MktÃkqýo fkÞoðkneLke sðkçkËkhe hkßÞ [qtxýe fr{þLk{kt rLkrník ÚkkÞ Au. yk {kxuLke 1. òuøkðkE yLkwåAuË Ç {kt fhðk{kt ykðu÷e Au. 243 (243 K) ÷kufMk¼k, hkßÞMk¼k yLku rðÄkLkMk¼kLke [qtxýe ytøkuLke sðkçkËkhe yLkwåAuË nuX¤ - E÷uõþLk fr{þLk{kt 2. 324 rLkrník ÚkkÞ Au. «Úk{ ðkõÞ ÞkuøÞ Au. çkeòw ðkõÞ ÞkuøÞ Au. (A) (B) «Úk{ yLku çkeòw çkLLku ðkõÞku ÞkuøÞ Au. «Úk{ yLku çkeòw çkLLku ðkõÞku ÞkuøÞ LkÚke. (C) (D) ¾k÷e søÞk Ãkwhku. 065.

2 6 3 ?

80 24 120 36

(A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 10 ¾k÷e søÞk Ãkwhku. 066.

84 81 88

14 12 18 9 ? 11

(A) 16 (B) 21 (C) 24 (D) 28 ™u yLkw¢{u Úke Lktçkh ykÃku÷ Au. Ãkhtíkw yk Lktçkhku ¢{kLkwMkkh LkÚke. {kxu Lktçkh 067. L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T 1 9 P 4 ykÃku÷ Au. yLku ðå[u LktçkhLkku íkVkðík Au yLku yLku ðå[u Lkku íkVkðík Au. yk Mktòuøkku{kt Lku fÞku Lktçkh P T 5 T N 3 N ykÃku÷ nþu ?

(A) 7 (B) 6 (C) 5 (D) 4 yuf fwxwBçkLkk çkk¤fkuLke Mkhuhkþ ô{h ð»ko Au. òu ËkËkLke økýºke fhðk{kt ykðu íkku Mkhuhkþ ô{h ð»ko ÚkkÞ Au. 068. 12 11 15 ËkËkLke ô{h fux÷e nþu ? ð»ko ð»ko (A) 52 (B) 63 ð»ko ð»ko (C) 68 (D) 72

ASN - MASTER ] 11 [ P.T.O. yuf MktÏÞkLkk ¼køkLkk ¼køk ÚkkÞ Au. íkku íku MktÏÞk fE nþu ? 069. 1/4 2/5 72

(A) 360 (B) 540

(C) 720 (D) 900 yuf xktfeLkku Lk¤ f÷kf{kt xktfe ¼he þfu Au. Ãkhtíkw òu çkeòu Lk¤ ¾ku÷ðk{kt ykðu íkku f÷kf{kt xktfe ¾k÷e ÚkE òÞ 070. 12 18 Au. òu çkLLku Lk¤ ¾ku÷ðk{kt ykðu íkku xktfe fux÷k ð¾ík{kt ¼hkþu ? f÷kf f÷kf (A) 18 (B) 36 f÷kf f÷kf (C) 54 (D) 72 yuf ðuÃkkhe {w¤ ®f{ík WÃkh LkVku W{uheLku ð¤íkh ykÃku Au. yk Mktòuøkku{kt íkuLku fux÷kt xfk LkVku-LkwfMkkLk Úkþu ? 071. 20% 20%

(A) 4% (B) 5% fkuE LkVku fu LkwfMkkLk Úkþu Lknª (C) 8% (D) {exh ÷ktçke økkze, {exh ÷ktçkk Ã÷uxVku{oLku Mkuftz{kt ÃkMkkh fhu Au. íkku økkzeLke ÍzÃk fux÷e nþu ? 072. 70 90 4 rf{e/f÷kf rf{e/f÷kf (A) 60 (B) 72 rf{e/f÷kf rf{e/f÷kf (C) 90 (D) 144 ¾k÷e søÞk Ãkwhku. 073.

29 13 18

33 ? 19

33 27 3

(A) 19 (B) 15

(C) 14 (D) 8 yuf {kuxh MkkÞf÷Lkk ÃkizkLke rºkßÞk Mku.{e. Au. íkku rf{e ytíkh fkÃkðk Ãkizw fux÷k yktxk {khþu ? 074. 35 11 yktxk yktxk (A) 2,500 (B) 3,000 yktxk yktxk (C) 4,000 (D) 5,000 Ãkkt[ [kuhMk {exh fkÃkz{ktÚke Mku.{e.Lkk fux÷k [kuhMk fÃkzkLkk LkuÃkfeLk çkLke þfu ? 075. 50 LkuÃkfeLk LkuÃkfeLk (A) 10 (B) 100 LkuÃkfeLk LkuÃkfeLk (C) 1000 (D) 10,000 Yk. {kt yuf ¾whþe ðu[ðkÚke ¾kux òÞ Au òu LkVku {u¤ððku nkuÞ íkku íku ¾whþe fux÷k{kt ðu[ðe òuEyu ? 076. 720 20% 20% Yk. Yk. (A) 720 (B) 900 Yk. Yk. (C) 1080 (D) 1200

ASN - MASTER ] 12 [ Contd. ¾k÷e søÞk Ãkwhku. 077.

3 370 7

2 224 6

1 730 ?

(A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 9 (D) 11 Lke[uLkk Ãkife fE òuzeyku Ëþkoðíkw ðkõÞ LkÚke ? 078. zkp. xuMke Úkku{Mk – r{MkkE÷ «kusuõx Mkt[k÷Lk fhLkkh «Úk{ {rn÷k (A) zkp. økeíkk ðËoLk – MkkÞçkh rMkõÞwhexe yLku rh{ux Mku®LMkøk WÃkøkúnLke fk{økehe (B) heíkw frhÄ÷ – hkufux ðw{Lk ykpV EÂLzÞk (C) f{÷k hýËeð – «Úk{ {kE¢kuðuð yuÂLsLkeÞh (D) çkkÞku økìMk{kt MkkiÚke ðÄkhu {kºkk þuLke nkuÞ Au ? 079. fkçkoLk zkÞkuõMkkEz - {eÚkuLk - (A) Carbon dioxide (B) Methane nkÞzÙkuÍLk - nkÞzÙkuÍLk MkÕVkEz - (C) Hydrogen (D) Hydrogen Sulphide [kpf yLku ykhMk fu þuLkk «fkh Au ? 080. (Chalk) (Marble) fuÕþeÞ{ nkÞzÙkusLk fkçkkuoLkux - (A) Calcium hydrogen carbonate fuÕþeÞ{ fkçkkuoLkux - (B) Calcium carbonate fuÕþeÞ{ yuMkexux - (C) Calcium acetate MkkuzeÞ{ fkçkkuoLkux - (D) Sodium carbonate ykuLfku÷kpS yu fÞk çkkçkíkLkku yÇÞkMk fhu Au ? 081. (Oncology) Ãkûkeyku fuLMkh (A) (Birds) (B) (Cancer) s{eLk MkMíkLk «kýe (C) (Soil) (D) (Mammals) Äe ELxhLkuþLk÷ Mkku÷kh yu÷kÞLMk Lkwt Mkr[ðk÷Þ fÞk MÚk¤u ykðu÷ Au ? 082. (The International Solar Alliance - ISA) ÃkìheMk Lkðe rËÕne (A) (Paris) (B) (New Delhi) økwYøkúk{ LÞw Þkpfo (C) (Gurugram) (D) (New Yark) ykhfk Mkku{k yLku ykhfk rºk&™k yu þkLke Lkðe òíkku Au ? 083. (Arka Soma) (Arka Trashna) ÿkûk xk{uxk (A) (Grapes) (B) (Tomato) s{Y¾ Mktíkhk (C) (Guava) (D) (Orange) LkuþLk÷ çÞwhku ykpV ykuE÷ Mkðuo yuLz ÷uLz ÞwÍ Ã÷kLkªøk 084. (National Bureau of Soil Survey and Land Use Lkwt {wÏÞ {Úkf fE søÞkyu ykðu÷ Au ? Planning) niËhkçkkË rËÕne (A) (Hyderabad) (B) (Delhi) Ãkqýu LkkøkÃkwh (C) (Pune) (D) (Nagpur) çkkh [wtçkf{kt [wtçkfLke {æÞ{kt [wtçkfíð fux÷wt nkuÞ Au ? 085. (Magnetism) {n¥k{ ÷½w¥k{ (A) (B) þwLÞ çkÄu Mk{kLk nkuÞ Au. (C) (D)

ASN - MASTER ] 13 [ P.T.O. hzkh þkLkk WÃkÞkuøk{kt ÷uðkÞ Au ? 086. (RADAR) ËheÞkLke ytËh hnu÷ Mkçk{heLk þkuÄðk (A) huzeÞku íkhtøkkuLke ûk{íkk {kÃkðk (B) Ãkkýe{kt hnu÷ íkíðkuLkk yÇÞkMk {kxu (C) rð{kLk, yðfkþe MkkÄLkku, Ãkûkeyku ðøkuhuLkk MÚk¤ þkuÄðk {kxu (D) Äe hkýe ÍkMke {heLk LkuþLk÷ Ãkkfo fÞk hkßÞ/fuLÿþkrMkík «Ëuþ{kt ykðu÷ Au ? 087. (RJMNP) Ãkwzw[uhe ykurzþk (A) (B) ytËk{kLk rLkfkuçkkh îeÃkMk{qn fuh¤ (C) (D) ¼khík{kt LkuþLk÷ MkkÞLMk zu Ëh ð»kuo fE íkkhe¾u WsðkÞ Au ? 088. (National Science Day) Vuçkúwykhe Vuçkúwykhe (A) 28 (B) 27 Vuçkúwykhe Vuçkúwykhe (C) 26 (D) 25 ÷kufMk¼k xeðe yLku hkßÞMk¼k xeðeLkwt {so/yufºkefhý fE [uLk÷/MktMÚkk MkkÚku ÚkÞu÷ Au ? 089. yuLkzexeðe Íe xeðe (A) (NDTV) (B) (Zee TV) MktMkË xeðe yks íkf (C) (Sansad TV) (D) ¼khíkLkk ¾u÷kze ykh. rðLkÞ fw{kh îkhk rLkð]¥ke ònuh fhðk{kt ykðu÷ Au. íkuyku fE h{ík MkkÚku 090. (R. Vinay Kumar) Mktf¤kÞu÷ níkk ? çkkuõMkªøk - ðsLk WÃkkzðkLke h{ík - (A) Boxing) (B) (Weight lifting) r¢fux - nkpfe - (C) (Cricket) (D) (Hockey) çkkçkíku Lke[uLkk ðkõÞku [fkMkku : 091. G-20 yk Mk{exLkk MkÇÞku ËwrLkÞkLkk Lkku rnMMkku Ähkðu Au, ðuÃkkh yLku ðMíkeLkk rnMMkku Ähkðu Au. 1. 80% GDP 75% 60% MkLku Úke Ëh ð»kuo Lke çkuXf {¤u Au. 2. 1999 G-20 yLku ykpõxkuçkh Lkk hkus hku{ ¾kíku nðu çkuXf {¤Lkkh Au. 3. 30 31 2021 «Úk{ yLku çkeòw ðkõÞ ÞkuøÞ Au. çkeòw yLku ºkeòw ðkõÞ ÞkuøÞ Au. (A) (B) «Úk{ yLku ºkeòw ðkõÞ ÞkuøÞ Au. «Úk{, çkeòw yLku ºkeòw ðkõÞ ÞkuøÞ Au. (C) (D) h{íkLkk {uËkLkku yLku íkuLkk MÚk¤Lku ÞkuøÞ heíku økkuXðku. 092. LkhuLÿ {kuËe MxuzeÞ{ fku÷f¥kk - 1. a. Kolkatta Eyu{yuMk MxuzeÞ{ ¼wðLkuïh 2. (EMS) b. f÷ªøkk MxuzeÞ{ fkuÍe fkuze - 3. c. Kozhikode ðeðufkLktË Þwðk ¼khíke fehktøkLk y{ËkðkË 4. d. (A) 1 - c, 2 - b, 3 - a, 4 - d (B) 1 - d, 2 - c, 3 - b, 4 - a (C) 1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - c (D) 1 - a, 2 - d, 3 - c, 4 - b økwshkíkLkk h{íkðehku yLku h{íkLkk òuzfk Ãkife fÞwt òuzfw ÞkuøÞ LkÚke ? 093. nuíkw÷ þkn - þíkhts (A) Mkheíkk økkÞfðkz - Ëkuzðeh (B) ÷ßò økkuMðk{e - rLkþkLk çkks Mºke (C) (Marks woman) ytfeíkk hiLkk - r¢fux (D) (Cricket)

ASN - MASTER ] 14 [ Contd. h{íkLke xÙkpVe yLku h{íkLkk òuzfkyku Ãkife fÞk òuzfk ÞkuøÞ Au ? 094. (Trophy) r¢fux - S.ze. çkeh÷k xÙkuVe 1. (G.D. Birla Trophy) çkìz{eLxLk - Lkkhtøk fÃk 2. (Narang Cup) nkpfe - [kh{eLkkh xÙkpVe 3. (Charminar Trophy) Vwçkkp÷ - VuzhuþLk fÃk 4. (Federation Cup) yLku yLku (A) 1, 2 4 (B) 2, 3 4 yLku yLku (C) 1, 3 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 4 økwshkík hkßÞLkwt MkLku Lkk ð»koLkwt çksux rðÄkLkMk¼k{kt õÞkhu hòw fhðk{kt ykðu÷ níkwt ? 095. 2021-2022 Vuçkúwykhe - {k[o - (A) 28 2021 (B) 1 2021 {k[o - {k[o - (C) 2 2021 (D) 3 2021 h{ík yLku íku{kt WÃkÞkuøk{kt ÷uðkíkk þçËkuLke òuzeyku ÞkuøÞ heíku økkuXðku. 096. Vwxçkkp÷ çkìf nuLz 1. - Football a. - Back hand çkúes - ÃkeL[ªøk - 2. Bridge b. Pinching çkuMk çkkp÷ - økpLz M÷u{ - 3. Base ball c. Grand slam çkìz {eLxLk - fef - 4. Bad minton d. Kick (A) 1 - d, 2 - c, 3 - b, 4 - a (B) 1 - c, 2 - b, 3 - a, 4 - d (C) 1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - c (D) 1 - a, 2 - d, 3 - c, 4 - b Mkexe ELLkkuðuþLk yuõMk[Us Ã÷uxVku{o fÞk {tºkk÷Þ îkhk þY fhðk{kt 097. (City Innovation Exchange) (CIX) ykðu÷ Au ? øk]n {tºkk÷Þ (A) - Home Affairs nkWMkªøk yLku yçkoLk yVuMko {tºkk÷Þ (B) - Housing and Urban Affairs E÷uõxÙkurLkõMk yLku ykR.xe. {tºkk÷Þ - (C) Electronics & I.T. rþûký {tºkk÷Þ - (D) Education s÷ þÂõík {tºkk÷Þ îkhk, VuÍ yLðÞu MðåA ykÞfkuLkef Ã÷uMkeMk {kxu Lke[uLkk 098. 4 (Swachh Iconic Places) (SIP) Ãkife fkuLke ÃkMktËøke ÚkÞu÷ LkÚke ? ystíkk økwVk - {nkhk»xÙ ÷k÷ rfÕ÷k - rËÕne (A) (B) fwt¼÷økZ Vkuxo - hksMÚkkLk çkkfu çkenkhe {tËeh - {Úkwhk (C) (D) fkuðez ðuõMkeLk - ytíkøkoík «Úk{ ðuõMkeLk {u¤ðLkkh fÞku Ëuþ Au ? 099. COVAX Scheme MkwËkLk ½kLkk (A) (B) EÚkkuÃkeÞk ESÃík (C) (D) nk÷{kt ykMkk{ MkhfkhLku Lke[uLke Ãkife fE MktMÚkkyu {e÷eÞLk zkp÷h Lke ÷kuLk Ãkkðh Mkuõxh {kxu ykÃku÷ Au ? 100. 304 ($) (A) ADB - Asian Development Bank ðÕzo çkuLf - (B) World Bank yu.ykR.ykR.çke. - (C) (AIIB) The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank LÞw zuð÷Ãk{uLx çkuLf - (D) New Development Bank

ASN - MASTER ] 15 [ P.T.O. 101. F. Y. Taylor in America (1865 – 1915) who is regarded as father of ______. (A) Simplification (B) Standardisation (C) Work study (D) Scientific management 102. Management by objectives emphasizes participatively setting goals that are (A) General in nature (B) Easy to attain (C) Easy to create and develop (D) Tangible, verifiable and measurable 103. “ An organization consists of people who carry out differentiated task which are co-ordinated to contribute to the organisation’s goal”. This definition of organization was given by: (A) Louis A. Allin (B) Haimann (C) G. Dessler (D) O. Sheldom 104. Which organization is suitable for large manufacturing concerns and capable of expansion in future? (A) Line (B) Functional (C) Line and staff (D) None of the above 105. Which of the following is not a process tools for TQM systems (A) process flow analysis (B) histograms (C) plier (D) control charts 106. ______organization is governed by certain laid down, rules, regulation procedures for its proper functioning. (A) Staff (B) Functional (C) Formal (D) Informal 107. Main function of production planning and control (A) Planning, Routing & Scheduling (B) Dispatching, Follow up & inspection (C) All of the above (D) None of the above 108. Product decision committee may have on it executives of (A) Manufacturing and Engineering (B) Marketing (C) Finance (D) All of the above 109. Which of the following analysis mostly used for inventory control (A) Lead time analysis (B) PERT analysis (C) CPM analysis (D) ABC analysis 110. In mine planning, MACRO planning mean a period of (A) 2 years (B) 3 years (C) 1-3 years (D) 5-20 years 111. A person who has not attained the age of ______years and associated with a business is known as a minor partner. (A) 15 (B) 16 (C) 18 (D) 20 112. In Joint Stock Company the Capital is contributed by ______(A) One Person (B) Maximum by Seven persons (C) By large number of persons. (D) None of the above

ATK - MASTER ] 16 [ P.T.O. 113. Cooperation societies can be formed by ______members and should be registered with the registrar of co-operatives. (A) Minimum of 10 (B) Maximum of 10 (C) Minimum of 50 (D) Maximum of 50 114. Any company in which not less than ______% of the share capital is held by the central government is called government company. (A) 90 (B) 75 (C) 60 (D) 51 115. Most large companies consist of four organizational levels: the ______, the division level, the business unit level, and the product level. (A) board of director level (B) major stakeholder level (C) management team level (D) corporate level 116. The right given to superior for directing and guiding the action of his subordinates to extract the work from them is called ______. (A) Delegation of responsibility (B) Power (C) Authority (D) None of the above 117. Public limited Joint Stock company has to have minimum ______directors. (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four 118. “Planning is deciding in advance what is to be done. It involves the selection of objectives, polices, procedures and programmes from among alternatives” The above definition is given by ______(A) M. E. Harley (B) Koontz and O’ Donnell (C) Alfred and Beatty (D) Frank Gilbreth 119. Which of the following permits senior management to grasp the marketing plan’s major thrust? (A) The situation analysis. (B) The marketing strategy. (C) The executive summary and table of contents. (D) Financial projections 120. Which is one the components of planning? (A) Goals and objective (B) Policies and Rules (C) Schedule and Budget (D) All of the above 121. Which is the physical characteristic in an individual fitness for a job? (A) Age (B) Sex (C) Height (D) Place of Birth 122. Which of the following is not a marketing component? (A) The offer (B) The Market (C) Firm (D) System 123. Reference is generally the ______step before the candidate is offered a job in the organization. (A) First (B) Middle (C) Last (D) All of the above

ATK - MASTER ] 17 [ Contd. 124. Which one is the external causes of labour turnover? (A) Poor means of commuting (B) Using exit interviews (C) Stablilsing Production and sharing work (D) Controlling discharge 125. Social and administrative training is needed for ______management. (A) Top (B) Middle (C) Lower (D) All of the above 126. Inclination of a person towards a definite work is determined by ______test. (A) Aptitude (B) Pshychological (C) Trade (D) All of the above 127. Executive training for graduates with high intelligence are selected and generally trained for ______. (A) 3 months (B) 6 months (C) One year (D) Three years 128. The methods of training by demonstration on the job, vestibule and apprentice ship is for ______. (A) Workers (B) Foreman (C) Supervisor (D) Executive 129. The Ratio of trainees : instructor for imparting training under T. W. I. is generally ______. (A) 5 : 1 (B) 10 : 1 (C) 50 : 1 (D) 100 : 1 130. Role playing is widely used for ______in training. (A) analytical thinking (B) problem solving ability (C) human relations and leadership (D) None of the above 131. Forecasting, order writing, production design are under which phase or planning? (A) Action (B) Prior (C) Progress (D) Corrective 132. What information gives the Route sheet? (A) everything about operation (B) about operation time (C) section and machine on which the work is to be done (D) All of the above 133. Assignment of work to the facility with specification of time and the sequence in which the work is to be done is known as ______. (A) Routing (B) Planning (C) Scheduling (D) Controlling 134. Aggregate output/Aggregate Input is known as- (A) Productivity (B) Material Productivity (C) Capital Productivity (D) Total Productivity 135. Basic work content and excess time is called- (A) Work content (B) Total work content (C) Work-time content (D) Total content

ATK - MASTER ] 18 [ P.T.O. 136. Generally, longer planning take anywhere from ______. (A) one month to 06 months (B) one month to 1 year (C) 3 year to 5 years (D) 5 years to 15 years plus 137. Maintaining a balance in activities towards a goal or set of goals evolved during production planning is known as- (A) Planning (B) Planning & scheduling (C) Production control (D) Routing 138. Which of the following is the internal factor affecting productivity. (A) Availability of capital (B) Management techniques (C) Extent of market competition (D) Technical and other training facilities 139. Increased productivity gives benefits like more profit, ensure stability, higher volume of sales and overall prosperity. These benefits to ______. (A) Concern (B) Workers (C) Consumers (D) Nation 140. By doing rationalization, productivity will be ______. (A) decreased (B) raised (C) No effect (D) decreased or raised 141. As per MOEF guide line, the projects with mining lease area ______would be categorized as B2. (A) < 5ha (B) > 5 ha < 25ha (C) > 25ha <50ha (D) >50 ha 142. The mining lease holder shall submit to the competent authority final mine closure plan for approval ______prior to the proposed closure of the mine. (A) 6 months (B) one year (C) 2 years (D) 5 years 143. What is the minimum amount of Financial assurance to be deposited for proper implementation of progressive mine closure plan for category ‘A’ mine? (A) One lakh (B) Two lakh (C) Five lakh (D) Ten lakh 144. The mining lease holder shall submit to IBM before 1st day of ______every year, the extent of protective and rehabilitative work carried out as in approved mine closure plan. (A) January (B) April (C) July (D) October 145. How many copies of EIA / EMP report should be submitted for its clearance to MOEF? (A) 10 (B) 15 (C) 20 (D) 50 146. FMCP shall be prepared by a person qualified in terms of ______. (A) Rule 15 or MCDR, 2018 (B) Rule 15 of MCR, 2016 (C) Rule 15 of MCR, 2018 (D) Rule 15 of MCDR, 2016 147. Validity of ISO Certificate is for ______years (A) 5 (B) 2 (C) 7 (D) 3

ATK - MASTER ] 19 [ Contd. 148. SOP stands for ______. (A) Standard operation procedure (B) Safe operation (C) Simplified (D) None of the above 149. An important Management tool for ensuring optimal use of natural resources is ______. (A) EIA (B) EMP (C) MP (D) Closure Plan 150. EIA has now been made mandatory under the ______. (A) Protection Act, 1986 (B) Protection Act, 1989 (C) Protection Act, 2000 (D) Protection Act, 2006 151. The Forest conservation act was enacted in ______. (A) 1995 (B) 1980 (C) 1985 (D) 1990 152. Which policy/s specifies clauses for monitoring mining activities for protection of the environment? (A) Environment Protection Act (EPS) 1986 with recent amendments Environment Protection (Amendment) Act (EPA 2006) (B) Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above 153. The software portal for applying environment clearance is ______. (A) Vatavaran (B) Pradushan (C) Parivesh (D) Mausam 154. The difference between comprehensive EIA and rapid EIA is in the (A) Time scale of the data supplied (B) Rapid EIA is for slower appraisal process (C) Comprehensive EIA is through collection of one season data only (D) None of the above 155. To measure dust concentration ______is used. (A) Dust extractor (B) Dust trap (C) Dust sampler (D) Dust monitor 156. The normal standard for pH of water is ______. (A) 6.1 to 9.1 (B) 4.5 to 8.5 (C) 4.0 to 8.0 (D) 5.5 to 9.0 157. In Industrial areas the national ambient air quality standards the RPM (size less than 10 µ) should be ______(using 24 hours). (A) 150 µ g/m3 (B) 175 µ g/m3 (C) 200 µ g/m3 (D) 250 µ g/m3 158. A progressive mine closure plan must be submitted by existing mining leases within ______days from date of notification. (A) 120 (B) 150 (C) 180 (D) 200

ATK - MASTER ] 20 [ P.T.O. 159. The permissible ground vibration for a mine to protect industrial building not belonging to owner is ______. (A) 10 mm for a frequency less than 8Hz (B) 20 mm for a frequency less than 8-25 Hz (C) 25mm for a frequency greater than 25 Hz (D) All of the above 160. As per National Ambient Air Quality Standards, suggested method for measurement of Arsenic is/are ______. (A) AAS method (B) ICP method (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above 161. According to MMR 61, no person shall act or continue to act, or be appointed, as manager (I or II Class) of a mine or mines the average employment of which In excess of ______but not exceeding ______in workings below ground, or in excess of 150 but not exceeding 400 in all in the mine. (A) 75, 150 (B) 100, 200 (C) 150, 300 (D) 150, 400 162. A vertical mine section of a mine working, is to be submitted if average dip of vein is more than ______from horizontal. (A) 25° (B) 30° (C) 40° (D) 50° 163. Every, shaft or winze in course of being sunk, which has an inclination ______from horizontal, shall be provided with a ladder way from top to bottom. (A) > 25° (B) > 30° (C) > 35° (D) > 40° 164. Signal code ______is used when MEN is ready to ascend or descend? (A) ONE RAP (B) TWO RAPS (C) THREE RAPS (D) FOUR RAPS 165. No working shall be made within ______m from the railway line. (A) 30 (B) 45 (C) 60 (D) 90 166. A competent person shall, once at least on every ______months, examine every fire-extinguisher so provided, and shall discharge and refill it is as offen as may be necessary to ensure that it is in proper working order. (A) Three (B) Six (C) Nine (D) Twelve 167. Within how many days the notice for opening of mine shall be sent to the authorized officer in Form C of the schedule of the opening? (A) 15 days (B) 30 days (C) 45 days (D) 60 days 168. How much area from mining lease boundary should be covered for preparing environment plan? (A) 50 m (B) 100 m (C) 500 m (D) 1000 m

ATK - MASTER ] 21 [ Contd. 169. MCDR 45 (5) (a) says a daily return which shall be submitted thorough an electronic form through the application developed by the IBM, by ______hours of the third day following the day of reporting. (A) 100 (B) 180 (C) 800 (D) 1800 170. A person holding mining engineering degree with minimum ______years professional experience of working in a supervisory capacity in the field of mining can be employed as mining engineer in fully mechanized category A mine. (A) Two years (B) Five years (C) Seven years (D) Ten years 171. What are the duties of mining Engineer? (A) Plan and conduct mining operation (B) Responsible for preparing plans. (C) Study of associated rock and minerals (D) All of the above 172. In which form application for registration under rule 45 of MCDR for undertaking mining shall be submitted? (A) FORM I (B) FORM J (C) FORM K (D) FORM M 173. The central Government shall constitute a committee for the purpose of Mine Act (12). The number of persons in the committee are ______. (A) 5 (B) 8 (C) 10 (D) 12 174. ‘Drinking water’ point shall be situated minimum ______m from any washing place, urinal or latrine. (A) 6 (B) 10 (C) 15 (D) 20 175. How many hours an adult employed above ground in a mine is allowed to work in a day? (A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 10 176. Every woman employed in a mine above shall be allowed an interval of not less than ______hours between the termination of employment or any one day and the commencement of the next period of employment. (A) 8 (B) 9 (C) 10 (D) 11 177. How many scale of latrine accommodation shall be provided in a surface mine? (A) One seat for every 50 males (B) One seat for every 75 males (C) One seat for every 100 males (D) One seat for every 200 males 178. At every mine employing more than ______persons on any one day of the preceding calendar year, there shall be provided suitable first aid room. (A) 50 (B) 100 (C) 150 (D) 200

ATK - MASTER ] 22 [ P.T.O. 179. The number of elected members for canteen managing committee at mines shall be on a scale of one for every ______persons employed, provided that the number shall not be more than 5 or less than 2. (A) 500 (B) 1000 (C) 1500 (D) 2000 180. The number of persons employed in a mine is 4700. How many welfare officer are needed according of mine Rules (72). (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four 181. Purpose of FORM C [see Rule 48(3) and 78] of Mine Rule 1955 is ______. (A) Register person employed below ground (B) Register person employed above ground (C) Register of compensatory day of first. (D) Register of Leave account. 182. When did the mines rescue rule come into force? (A) 2 Jan 1985 (B) 2 March 1985 (C) 2 April 1985 (D) 2 July 1985 183. At every below ground mine where more than ______persons are employed below ground and there is no rescue station within its radius of 35 KM, Owner shall establish on surface a rescue room. (A) 100 (B) 500 (C) 1000 (D) 5000 184. In case of an accident in a below ground mine arising out of the use of any rescue apparatus, a written report there of shall be sent, within ______hours of such accident, by the manger of mine to CI and RI in Form II appended to mines rules. (A) 12 (B) 24 (C) 48 (D) 60 185. No person shall be selected for training in rescue work unless; he is between ______years of age and holds FAC from TAA (India). (A) 18 and 30 (B) 18 and 40 (C) 21 and 40 (D) 21 and 30 186. When using rescue apparatus, the leader shall carry a watch shall record the pressure of the compressed oxygen at interval of ______or so. (A) 10 min (B) 20 min (C) 30 min (D) 40 min 187. After how much minimum absence from work period, if a person join his duty, he has to undergo refresher training? (A) Three Month (B) 6 Month (C) 9 Month (D) 1 Year 188. No person shall function as a trainer unless he has attended not less than ______lectures on safety in mines, as may be specified for the purpose and approved by C.I. (A) Six (B) Ten (C) Fifteen (D) Twenty One

ATK - MASTER ] 23 [ Contd. 189. How many days training course for surface and open cast worker are given (First schedule’ {Rule 6 (1)}) (A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 12 (D) 15 190. What is the minimum age of a person having diploma in mining to get a I class manger’s certificate’. (A) 25 (B) 30 (C) 35 (D) 40 191. Every plan or section show a scale of the plan at least ______cm long and suitable subdivided. (A) 10 (B) 15 (C) 25 (D) 30 192. Every mining mate shall be appointed under Rule No ______. (A) 113 (B) 114 (C) 115 (D) 116 193. What is the diameter of drum of winding engine with respect to diameter of rope? (A)  80 times (B) > 80 times (C)  100 times (D) > 100 times 194. In which FORM intimation about reconnaissance and prospecting operations shall send to RCM and State Government? (A) Form A (B) Form B (C) Form C (D) Form D 195. Which Form of MCDR is for notice of temporary discontinuance of mine? (A) H (B) G (C) F (D) E 196. Form ______of MCDR is for the monthly return of tungsten mineral.

(A) F1 (B) F2

(C) F3 (D) F4 197. ISO 19296: 2018 (en) is for – (A) Method of under ground working (B) Method of surface working (C) Mobile m/cs working at surface (D) Mobile m/cs working at underground. 198. When did Disaster management act come in force? (A) 2000 (B) 2005 (C) 2010 (D) 2012 199. When using higher voltage conductors greater than ______protect them with a metallic screen, conduit or other semi conductive material. (A) 125 v (B) 325 v (C) 650 v (D) 950 v 200. When 38th meeting of tripartite committee on convention was held? (A) Jan, 2015 (B) Jan, 2016 (C) Jan, 2017 (D) Jan, 2018

ATK - MASTER ] 24 [ P.T.O. 201. Hydraulic action, abrasion, attrition solution, transportation and deposition are the geological work of ______. (A) Wind (B) Oceans and Seas (C) Glaciers (D) Running water 202. What is the range apparent dip if full dip of ore body is 70°. (A) 70° < > 0° (B) 0° < > 70° (C) 70° <  0° (D) 70°  > 0° 203. Which is the example of metallogenetic provinces in India? (A) Lead & Zinc deposit of Zawar Mines (B) Manganese deposits of Madhya Pradesh (C) Quartz deposit of Gujarat (D) Dolomite deposited of Gujarat 204. Magnetic behavior of mineral deposit is which type of guide? (A) Geo Physical (B) Geo Chemical (C) Geological (D) Geo botanical 205. What is seismic velocity in Dolomite medium (speed of propagation of longitudinal waves, m/s)? (A) 2250-4620 (B) 3300-6000 (C) 4320-6420 (D) 4860-6060 206. Up to which depth diamond drill holes can drill? (A) 1000-2000 m (B) 6000-7000 m (C) 7000-9000 m (D) up to 10000 m 207. Prospecting by percussive drilling with compressed air is suitable for ______. (A) Soft rock with shallow depth (B) Soft rock with high depth (C) Hard rock with shallow depth (D) Hard rock with high depth 208. What is the rate of penetration by diamond drilling in Limestone up to 300 m depth (A) 8.7 (B) 7.0 (C) 6.0 (D) 2.8 209. Rolling, Decimating, Splitting are different methods of ______. (A) Prospecting (B) Drilling (C) Sampling (D) Reduction of bulk of Sample. 210. Salting of sample is ______. (A) Mining Method (B) Sampling Method (C) Analysis Method (D) Raising the value of sample 211. When do we mine underground? (A) Deep ore deposit (B) Ore body is steep (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above 212. When a steep ore body has high grade mineral, and extended upto 1 km depth from outcrop, which mining operation is most suitable. (A) Opencast (B) Underground (C) Combination (D) None of the above 213. Room and pillar mining method is suitable for: (A) Hard rock (B) Soft rock (C) Fractured rock (D) None of the above

ATK - MASTER ] 25 [ Contd. 214. Which is the selective mining method? (A) Cut and fill stoping (B) Sublevel caving (C) VCR method (D) Room and pillar mining 215. Which of the following is the unsupported method? (A) Long hole open stoping (B) Stull stoping (C) Shrinkage stoping (D) Square set stoping 216. Which method is more suitable for maximum ore recovery? (A) Supported (B) Unsupported (C) Caving (D) None of the above 217. Top of stope is supported by: (A) Crown Pillar (B) Rib Pillar (C) Sill Pillar (D) Side Pillar 218. Which is the most suitable machinery for working with continuous miner? (A) Mine tub (B) LPDT (C) LHD (D) Shuttle car 219. In which method Inverted open pit is created underground ? (A) Block caving (B) Sub-level stoping (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above 220. Rock displacement zone include: 1. Caving Zone 2. Cracking zone and 3. Fracture zone Which is the right zone. (A) 1 & 2 (B) 1 & 3 (C) only 1 (D) only 3 221. Which machines are not useful for combined action of loading and Hauling ? (A) SDL (B) LHD (C) Scraper (D) Shattle car 222. Grizzly is made of: (A) Iron rods (B) Rail I-sections (C) Wire ropes (D) wires 223. What is the mixture of Shot creating? (A) Rock + Glue (B) Cement + Rock (C) Iron rods + cement (D) Cement + small iron pieces 224. Which is not a type of mine entry? (A) Edit (B) Incline (C) Drift (D) Shaft 225. The factors size, shape, altitude and depth of minerals are used to decide the choice of surface v/s underground mining. These are known as – (A) Spatial characteristics (B) Geologic condition (C) Geotechnical (D) Technological

ATK - MASTER ] 26 [ P.T.O. 226. The maximum allowable stripping ratio (SRmax) is given by – Where Vr = Value of ore; Pc = Production ccost; Sc = stripping cost. (A) (Vr – Pc) / Sc (B) (Vr – Sc) / Pc (C) (Pc – Vr) / Sc (D) (Sc – Vr) / Pc 227. Drilling, blasting, loading and hauling is known as – (A) Rock breakage (B) Materials handing (C) Production cycle (D) Concentration cycle 228. Which mineral is produced by ? (A) Iron (B) Zinc (C) Gold (D) Coal 229. Which of the following is an underground copper mine? (A) Mosabani (B) Mochia (C) Jadugoda (D) Noamandi 230. ______is a vertical or steeply inclined underground passage way for downward movement of ore by gravity, used only in metal mining. (A) Raise (B) Winze (C) Shaft (D) Orepass 231. Point load strength index (I) and Unconfined Compressive Strength (S) is related as (A) S = 24 I (B) S = 36 I (C) S = 12 I (D) S = 30 I 232. Bieniawski’s Geo-mechanics Classification is based on (A) Strength of Rock (B) Ground water Conditions (C) Joint Characteristics (D) All of the above 233. For a cylindrical specimen of cross sectional area A, length L. Young’s modulus E and axial load P, the strain energy stored is (A) P2L/2AE (B) PL2/2AE (C) P2L/AE (D) PL2/AE 234. In a compression test the increase of confining pressure leads to a reduction in the rock (A) Ductility (B) Angle of internal friction (C) Brittleness (D) Ultimate Bearing Load 235. From a core drilling of shale the average number of fractures per meter of core length is found to be 20. The RQD (%) of the rock is (A) 60 (B) 37 (C) 49 (D) 53 236. The uni-axial compressive strength and modulus of elasticity of a rock sample are 90 MPa and 30 GPa respectively. The stored strain energy per unit volume in KN.m/m3 of the sample at the time of failure (A) 1.5 (B) 140 (C) 270 (D) 135

ATK - MASTER ] 27 [ Contd. 237. The number of experimental setups of flat jack to determine 3 dimensional state of stress in a rock mass is (A) 6 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1 238. The maximum shear stress theory for rock failure was proposed by (A) Mohr (B) Griffith (C) Coulomb – Navier (D) Le Comte 239. Relationship between stress and strain gives (A) Young’s Modulus of Elasticity (B) Modulus of Rupture (C) Poission’s Ratio (D) Modulus of deformation 240. According to ISRM 1981 for test specimen slenderness ratio preferable should be ______(A) 0.5 to 1.5 (B) 2 to 3 (C) 1.5 to 2 (D) 1 to 3 241. If P is failure load and d is the distance between tips, the point load strength index (I) is given as (A) I = P/d3 (B) I = Pd2 (C) I = P/d2 (D) I = Pd3 242. Compressive Strength of lime stone may vary as ______MPa (A) 10 - 39 (B) 100 - 350 (C) 227 - 319 (D) 30 - 250 243. To ascertain rock’s resistance to disintegrate ______test is conducted. (A) Slack Durability Test (B) Permeability Test (C) Free Swell Test (D) Void Index test 244. Which of the following is not a mode of failure (A) Toppling failure (B) Slide Failure (C) Wedge Failure (D) Buckling Failure 245. ______is the static water table at which the pore pressure in the soil equals zero. (A) Planer Surface (B) Zero Surface (C) Phreatic Surface (D) Pearched water table 246. With respect to support design the stand up time is ______(A) Time span for which support is required (B) Time span for which no support is required (C) Time taken by the rock to transmit overburden pressure to side walls (D) None of the above 247. CMR 1957 donot permit any mining to be done underneath and within ______M of the building (A) 30 M (B) 50 M (C) 25 M (D) 45 M 248. Angle of fracture is usually ______angle of draw (A) Less (B) Greater (C) Equal to (D) Can’t say

ATK - MASTER ] 28 [ P.T.O. 249. Caving is caused due to ______(A) Elastic or inelastic deformation in the rock (B) Time independent or dependent characteristics of the rock (C) Method of Mining (D) All of the above 250. A strong seismic shock resulting from a failure or a sudden displacement at some point in the rock surrounding an underground opening is called ______(A) Rock burst (B) Bump (C) Ourburst (D) Heaving 251. Penetration rate is ______than drilling rate. (A) Greater (B) Smaller (C) Equal (D) Any one 252. ______drilling is suitable for core recovery (A) Percussive (B) Rotary (C) Rotary percussive (D) Auger 253. ______is similar to jackhammer, but so large that it requires mechanical mounting. (A) Wagon Drill (B) Stop Hammer (C) Churn Drill (D) Drifter 254. In tricone Rock Roller Bit truncated cones placed ______° to each other. (A) 90 degree (B) 180 degree (C) 120 degree (D) 150 degree 255. In air flushing the speed of the air is about ______met/sec (A) 1-10 (B) 11-20 (C) 15-30 (D) 25-45 256. Which of the following affects least the rate of drilling (A) Bit Geometry (B) Drill torque (C) Blow energy (D) Operators skill 257. In rotary drilling thrust P varies ______as the rotational speed n (A) Directly (B) Inversely (C) Exponentially (D) Linearly 258. Which of the following drilling method is best suited to hard rocks (A) Percussive (B) Rotary (C) Rotary Percussive (D) Auger 259. Penetration rate with down the hole drilling in hard Iron Ore (Noamundi) is ______m/h (A) 10-12 (B) 4-6 (C) 7-10 (D) 12-15 260. Air pressure required in Down the hole hammer drilling is ______Atg (A) 3-5 (B) 7-10 (C) 5-7 (D) 10-12

ATK - MASTER ] 29 [ Contd. 261. Low explosive deflagrates at a comparatively slow rate i.e about ______m/s (A) 250 (B) 850 (C) 650 (D) 450 262. Death Density of explosive is density at which explosive (A) Becomes insensitive (B) Freezes and is converted into cake (C) Becomes sensitive to the detonating cord (D) Blasts but doesn’t provide breakage 263. Velocity of Detonation (VOD) of emulsion is usually ______km/sec (A) 3.5 – 4.5 (B) 5.0 – 6.0 (C) 6.0 – 7.0 (D) 2.0 – 3.5 264. Burning rate of Safety fuse is usually ______minutes/meter (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 265. The most effective and oxygen balanced ANFO mixture is with ______% of diesel (by wt.) (A) 7-8 (B) 3-4 (C) 5-6 (D) 4-5 266. In underground ______detonators should be used. (A) Aluminium (B) Copper (C) Zircon (D) Tin 267. A magazine construction has to be approved by ______(A) Director of Explosives (B) Controller of Explosives (C) Superintendent of Explosives (D) Inspector of Explosives 268. In underground which of the following drilling pattern is not recommended for hard ground (A) Fan Cut (B) Burn Cut (C) Coromant Cut (D) Drag Cut 269. Burden is ______than spacing (A) Less Than (B) Greater Than (C) Equal to (D) Not related 270. Which of the following is correct for calculating sub grade drilling J (A) J = 1.3 B (B) J = 0.7 B (C) J = 0.3 B (D) J = 1.7 B 271. In which type aerial ropeway, rope moves bucket as well as carries its load? (A) Monocable (B) Bicable (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above 272. The purpose of exhaust conditioner in diesel locomotive is – (A) Removing CO2 (B) Removing water gas (C) Removing hydrogen gas (D) None of the above 273. A train of 40 T is hauled by a locomotive weighing 10 T at 20 KMPH up an incline of 1 in 100. The running resistance is 6 Kg/T. Find the BHP to be developed by the locomotive with gear efficiency 85%. (A) 58.4 (B) 62.6 (C) 68.8 (D) 72.6

ATK - MASTER ] 30 [ P.T.O. 274. King’s detaching hook consist of ______plates. (A) 3 mild steel (B) 4 mild steel (C) 3 wrought iron (D) 4 wrought iron 275. “15 / 90 working dragline” 90 stands for — (A) Bucket capacity (B) Boom height (C) Boom length (D) Disposal distance 276. ______is a drill for drilling upwards and derives its name from its wide spread use in metal mining. (A) Drifter (B) Stoper (C) Borer (D) Sinker 277. Which is the most commonly pump used in mines for high capacity, high heads and stable head-discharge characteristics? (A) Centrifugal (B) Turbine (C) Dill (D) Mono 278. Maximum permitted electrical input which can be taken to open cast mine in India is ______V (A) 6000 (B) 3300 (C) 11000 (D) 33000 279. The majority of AC winders are designed to operate at ______kV (A) 3.3 (B) 6.6 (C) 11.0 (D) All of the above 280. For open cast mining projects, maximum limit of ______volts is allowed over a condition that the neutral wire shall be properly grounded (A) 110 V (B) 250 V (C) 1100 V (D) 550 V 281. Minimum standard of illumination at work place of HEMM in open cast mines for vertical and horizontal is (A) 15 H 25 V (B) 20 H 35 V (C) 25 H 25 V (D) 10 H 25 V 282. Why East and West points are transposed in miner’s dial? (A) Magnetic needle is moving (B) Dial is moving (C) Dial is moving and needle is fixed (D) Dial is fixed and needle is moving 283. The circle of a theodolite is divided into degrees and 1/3 of a degree. Design a suitable decimal vernier to read upto 20". (A) Take 59 such primary divisions from the main scale and divide it into 60 parts for the vernier. (B) Take 60 such primary divisions from the main scale and divide it into 59 parts for the vernier. (C) Take 49 such primary divisions from the main scale and divide it into 50 parts for the vernier. (D) Take 50 such primary divisions from the main scale and divide it into 49 parts for the vernier.

ATK - MASTER ] 31 [ Contd. 284. In transit vernier theodoloite double vernier is required when the graduation on main scale are marked in both directions from the common zero. Double vernier is needed for measuring ______. (A) Horizontal reading (B) Vertical reading (C) Horizontal and vertical readings (D) Not required 285. The process of turning the telescope in vertical plane through 180° about the trunion axis is known as ______(A) Transiting (B) Swinging the telescope (C) Changing face (D) Telescope Normal 286. What is the sum of deflection angles in a closed traverse? Where n = number of sides of traverse. (A) 180° (B) 360° (C) (2n – 4) right angles (D) (2n + 4) right angles 287. When levelled, a level provides ______line of sight? (A) Level (B) Nearly Levelled (C) Horizontal (D) Nearly Horizontal 288. Axis of telescope is ______line joining the centre of the eyepiece and the optical centre of the object glass. (A) Horizontal (B) Straight (C) Imaginary (D) Vertical 289. ______is the first staff reading taken after the level is set up whereas ______is the last staff reading of the setting. (A) BS and IS (B) IS and BS (C) FS and IS (D) BS and FS 290. Find the combined corrections for curvature and refraction for a distance of 3 KM. (A) 0.7065 KM (B) 0.6057 KM (C) 0.2019 KM (D) 0.2355 KM 291. Two wires A & B at a distance of 5 m are suspended for correlation in a vertical shaft. Instrument station C is 2 m from wire B. A, B & C are approximate in same alignment. When wire A & B are observed by theolite from C, the displacement of A and B is observed 3 cm at B. How much theodolite will be shifted to bring A, B and C in perfect alignment. (A) 4.2 cm (B) 2.2 cm (C) 3.7 cm (D) None of the above 292. Plumb Wire should be freely suspended in a vertical shaft for corelation. It is checked by ______(A) equal to unity (B) less than unity (C) more than unity (D) None of the above 293. In correlation A & B are two wires in a shaft and C is theodolite station near B. All are in the same line. Can we see A wire? (A) No (B) Yes (C) Both can be seen at the same time (D) If wire swing then we can see 294. Where any mine to which MMR 61 regulation 142 applies any part thereof is abandoned over a period of ______months the owner shall submit plan within 30 days to DGMS (A) Two (B) Four (C) Six (D) Eight

ATK - MASTER ] 32 [ P.T.O. 295. The following perpendicular offsets were taken at 10 m intervals from a survey line to an irregular boundary line: 3.25, 5.60, 4.20, 6.65, 8.75, 6.20, 3.25, 4.20, 5.65 Calculate area enclosed between the survey line, the irregular boundary line, and first and last offsets by Simpson’s rule. (A) 424.44 sq. m. (B) 433 sq. m. (C) 439.67 sq. m. (D) None of the above 296. On what R.F. a key plan is prepared according to MCDR? (A) 1 : 2,000 (B) 1 : 5,000 (C) 1 : 10,000 (D) 1 : 50,000 297. Dual scale is used to prepare ______(A) Plans for large area. (B) Transverse section when dip > 30° (C) When two plans are combined. (D) For sections of small thickness and large plan area. 298. In which type of surveying the shape of earth is taken into account? (A) Plane (B) Geodetic (C) Topographical (D) Photographic 299. The length of a line measured with a 20 m chain was found to be 250 m. Calculate the true length of the line if the chain was 10 cm too long. (A) 251.25 m (B) 248.76 m (C) 250.62 m (D) 249.38 m 300. Person holding staff will take the reading, when ______staff is used at a time of leveling. (A) Solid (B) Folding (C) Target (D) Telescopic

ATK - MASTER ] 33