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extracapsular). Mastoid process is produced due to the traction by GENERAL ANATOMY the sternocleidomastoid muscle.

1. ossified at birth: 8. All of the following statements are true for metaphysis of A. Lower end of EXCEPT: B. Calcaneum A. It is the strongest part of bone C. Upper end of B. It is the most vascular part of bone D. All of the above C. Growth activity is maximized here D. It is the region favoring hematogenous spread of infection Key: D, Key: A 2. Endochondral ossification is/are seen in: A. Long bones 9. All of the following statements are true for metaphysis of bone B. Flat bones of EXCEPT: C. A. It is the epiphyseal end of diaphysis D. B. Growth activity is negligible here C. It is highly vascular Key: A, Long bones develop by endochondral ossification, whereas D. Common site of osteomyelitis in children bones of skull; facial skeleton; mandible; clavicle bone develop by membranous ossification. Key: B

3. Nutrient artery runs: 10. Which of the following is TRUE statement: A. Towards metaphysis A. Osteoblasts give rise to osteocytes B. Away from metaphysis B. Growth of bone occurs at diaphysis C. Away from epiphysis C. Epiphysis is present between metaphysis and diaphysis D. None D. Interphalangeal joint is a saddle joint

Key: A, Nutrient artery enters the shaft (diaphysis) of the bone, Key: A divides into ascending and descending branches, which run towards and terminate in the adult metaphysis by anastomosing with the 11. Pisiform is which type of bone? epiphyseal, metaphyseal and periosteal arteries. A. Pneumatic bone B. 4. Which of the following is a traction epiphysis? C. Accessory bone A. Tibial condyles D. Long bone B. Trochanter of femur C. Coracoid process of Key: B, Sesamoid bones develop in certain tendons and reduce D. Head of femur friction on the tendon, thus protecting it from excessive wear. They are commonly found where tendons cross the ends of long bones in Key: B, Trochanter of femur is an example of traction epiphysis the limbs and is extracapsular. Tibial condyles and head of femur are under the pressure epiphysis category and are intracapsular. Coracoid 12. All of the following are pneumatic bones EXCEPT: process of scapula is an example of atavistic epiphysis. A. Frontal B. Ethmoid 5. Which of the following is aberrant epiphysis? C. Mandible A. Coracoid process D. B. Greater of C. Base of 1st metacarpal Key: C, Pneumatic bones have air spaces within them. D. Base of 2nd metacarpal It is generally produced during development by excavation of bone by pneumatic diverticula (air sacs) from an air-filled space such as Key: D, Aberrant epiphyses are deviations from the normal the nasal cavity. anatomy and are not always present. For example, the epiphysis at the head of the and at the bases of other 13. Which of the following bone is/are pneumatic: metacarpals. A. Maxillary B. Temporal 6. Traction epiphysis is/are: C. Frontal A. Head of humerus D. All of the above B. Deltoid tuberosity C. Coracoid process Key: D, Pneumatic bones have air spaces within them and are D. Greater trochanter present around the nasal cavity. They are Maxillary, Temporal, Frontal, Ethmoid, sphenoid Key: D, 14. Knee is which type of joint? 7. Mastoid process is which type of epiphysis? A. Synarthrosis A. Pressure B. Symphysis B. Aberrant C. Amphiarthrosis C. Atavistic D. Diarthrosis D. Traction Key: D, Synarthrosis are immovable joints and include the fibrous Key: D, Traction epiphysis are present at the ends of bones and joints. Amphiarthrosis are slight mobile and include the develop due to traction by the attached muscles (and are therefore

cartilaginous joints. Diarthrosis are freely mobile joints and include Key: C, Pubic symphysis is a secondary cartilaginous joint, which the synovial joint is slightly mobile.

15. Joint between epiphysis and diaphysis of a long bone is a type of: 23. What type of joint is the growth plate A. Plane Synovial joint a. Fibrous B. Fibrous joint b. Primary cartilaginous C. Symphysis c. Secondary cartilaginous D. Synchondrosis d. Plane joint

Key: D Key: B, Growing bones have epiphyseal (growth) plate between the epiphysis and diaphysis, this epphyseo-diaphyseal joint is primary 16. Innervated structures of joints are all EXCEPT: cartilaginous (synchondrosis). a. Synovium b. Capsule 24. Manubriosternal joint is: c. Articular cartilage a. Primary cartilaginous d. Ligaments b. Secondary cartilaginous c. Synovial Key: C, Articular cartilage is devoid of neurovascular bundle d. Ellipsoid

17. articulate with each other through which type of joints? Key: B, Manubriosternal joint is a symphysis (secondary A. Synostosis cartilaginous) joint. B. Synovial C. Synchondrosis Inferior tibio-fibular joint is: D. Syndesmosis a. Synchondrosis b. Syndesmosis Key: B, - joint is a saddle synovial joint and incus - c. Symphysis is ball and socket synovial joint d. Schindylesis

18. Median atlantoaxial joint is: Key: B A. Condylar B. Cartilaginous 25. The type of joint between the and the is a: C. Fibrous A. Symphysis D. Synovial joint B. Synostosis C. Synchondrosis Key: D, Median atlanto-axial joint is a pivot synovial joint. D. Syndesmosis

19. Intracapsular articular disc is present in which joint? Key: A, Sacrococcygeal is a secondary cartilaginous (symphysis) A. Sternoclavicular joint joint. B. Elbow C. Hip joint 26. Which of the following is a compound condylar joint? D. Knee joint A. Knee B. TM joint Key: A, Few synovial joints have articular disc is present between C. Wrist articulating bones, e.g. sternoclavicular joint, temporomandibular D. Elbow joint. Key: A 20. What kind of a joint is syndesmosis? A. Fibrous B. Plain 27. Which of the following is a synovial joint of the condylar variety? C. Pivot A. First carpometacarpal joint D. Cartilaginous B. Metacarpophalangeal joint C. Interphalangeal joint Key: A, Fibrous joints are three types: sutures, syndesmosis, and D. Radiocarpal joint gomphoses. Key: B, Metacarpophalangeal > Radiocarpal joint 21. Ala of and sphenoidal rostrum junction is: A. Syndesmosis 28. Which of the following is the type of joints between malleus and B. Synostosis incus? C. Schindylesis A. Primary cartilaginous D. Gomphosis B. Secondary cartilaginous C. Saddle synovial Key: C, Spheno-vomerine joint is a schindylesis suture at the roof D. Ball & socket synovial of the nasal cavity. Key: C, Malleus and incus have saddle synovial joint. Incus and 22. Pubic symphysis is which type of joint? stapes have ball & socket synovial joint. A. Synovial B. Fibrous 29. Atlanto-occipital joint is of synovial variety: C. Cartilaginous A. Trochoid D. None of the above B. Ellipsoid C. Condylar

D. Saddle A. Anconeus B. Semitendinosus Key: B, Ellipsoid > Condylar C. Semimembranosus » Functionally it is an ellipsoid synovial joint but structurally it is D. Popliteus a condylar synovial joint. » Head flexion and extension occurs at this joint for the nodding Key: D, Popliteus has intracapsular origin from the lateral femoral (yes) movement. epicondyle. It inserts on the posterior surface of the tibia, just proximal to the soleal line. 30. Smallest muscle in the body is: A. Interarytenoid 37. Which of the following is multipennate muscle? B. Stapedius A. FPL C. Corrugator supercilli B. EPL D. Superior oblique C. Deltoid D. FHL Key: B, The smallest skeletal muscle in the body is stapedius. The smallest muscle in the body is arrector pilorum, a smooth muscle in Key: C, Multipennate muscle has the fiber bundles converge to the skin for erection of hair. several tendons.

31. Composite muscles include the following EXCEPT: 38. Longest muscle in the body: A. Pectineus A. Biceps B. Adductor magnus C. Rectus femoris B. Triceps D. Biceps femoris C. Sartorius D. Quadriceps Key: C, Muscles like adductor magnus, pectineus, and biceps femoris are called as composite muscles as they have more than one Key: C, The longest muscle of body is sartorius muscle. set of muscles fibres and more than one motor nerve supply. Rectus femoris is supplied by only one nerve – the femoral nerve and is not 39. Multi-unit smooth muscle present at all EXCEPT: a composite muscle. A. Blood vessels B. Iris 32. All are composite muscles EXCEPT: C. Gut A. Pectineus D. Ductus deferens B. Flexor Carpi ulnaris C. Biceps femoris Key: C, Gut comes under single-unit smooth muscle, where the D. Flexor digitorum profundus whole muscle contracts or the whole muscle relaxes. Examples are uterus, gastro-intestinal tract, and the bladder. Key: C 40. Single unit smooth muscles are seen in: 33. Muscle having double nerve supply: A. Iris A. Digastric muscle B. Ductus deferens B. Trapezius C. Ureter C. Adductor magnus D. All of the above D. Trachea

Key: D, Anterior belly of digastric is supplied by trigeminal nerve Key: C, in single-unit smooth muscle, either the whole muscle and posterior belly by facial nerve. contracts or the whole muscle relaxes. » Spinal accessory nerve give motor fibres to trapezius muscle, whereas ventral rami of C3, 4 are proprioceptive. 41. Muscle with parallel fibres are all EXCEPT: » Adductor magnus ischial part is supplied by tibial part of A. Sartorius sciatic nerve and adductor part by obturator nerve. B. Rectus abdominis C. Sternohyoid 34. Digastric muscles are the following EXCEPT: D. Tibialis anterior A. Occipitofrontalis B. Sternocleidomastoid Key: D C. Omohyoid D. Muscular fibres in the ligament of Treitz 42. NOT true about shunt vessel is: A. It control temperature regulation Key: B, B. It is direct communication between artery and veins C. It is under control of local mediators 35. Most common muscle to be congenitally absent is: D. It is not under autonomic control A. Pectoralis major

B. Teres minor Key: D C. Semimembranosus D. Gastrocnemius 43. Thoracic duct does NOT drain:

A. Right upper part of body Key: A, Pectoralis major and minor are the most common congenitally absent muscles. Agenesis is often partial and may be a B. Left upper part of body part of the syndrome – Poland syndrome. C. Right lower part of body D. Left lower part of body 36. Which among the following is an intra- articular tendon is?

Key: A, Right upper quadrant of the body drains the lymphatics A. Cerebellum into the right lymphatic duct and rest of the body drains into B. Semicircular canals thoracic duct. C. Neck proprioception D. Basal ganglia 44. All are true about thoracic duct EXCEPT: a. Begins as continuation of cisterna chyli Key: B b. Largest lymphatic vessel c. Passes through the esophageal opening 6. Which of the following are involved in two point d. Ends into junction between left subclavian and internal jugular descrimination? vein A. Meissner's corpuscles B. Merkel's disc Key: C, Thoracic duct passes through the aortic hiatus in front of C. muscle spindles the T 12 , lying on the right side of aorta D. Ruffini corpuscles

45. Thoracic duct opens into: 7. Meningocele and meningomyelocele can be distinguished by A. Subclavian vein A. Rupture of lesion B. Internal jugular vein B. Appearance C. Right brachiocephalic vein C. Activity in lower limb D. Left brachiocephalic vein D. Gestational age

Key: D, Thoracic duct opens into the left venous (jugulo- Key: C subclavian) angle, at the beginning of left brachio-cephalic vein 8. Presence of nails at birth indicates that neonate is 46. The thoracic duct receives tributaries from all of the following A. Term EXCEPT: B. Postterm C. Preterm A. Bilateral ascending lumbar trunk D. Any of these B. Bilateral descending thoracic trunk C. Left upper intercostal duct Key: B D. Right bronchomediastinal lymphatic trunk 9. The process by which sperms are changed to spermatozoa is Key: D, Right broncho-mediastinal lymphatic trunk drains into known as right lymphatic duct (not thoracic duct). A. Meiosis B. Mitosis C. Spermatogenesis EMBRYOLOGY D. Spermiogenesis

1. Which of the following doesn’t develop from mesoderm? Key: D A. Muscles of bladder B. Iris muscle 10. the process in which spermatozoa are produced from C. Deltoid muscle spermatogonial stem cells by way of mitosis and meiosis D. Levator Palebrae Superioris A. Spermatogenesis B. Gametogenesis Key: B C. Spermiogenesis D. Oogenesis 2. Which of the following carries oxygenated blood to the fetus? A. Vetelline vein Key: A, Gametogenesis is formation of gamete from primordial B. Left umbilical vein germ cells and involves cell division mitosis and meiosis. The C. Left umbilical artery process by which sperms are changed to spermatozoa is known as D. Right umbilical artery Spermiogenesis

Key: B 11. Implantation occur at which stage of cleavage A. Morula 3. Which structure disappears in the development of umbilicus? B. Blastocyst A. Left umbilical vein C. Gastrula B. Right umbilical vein D. Zygote C. Right umbilical artery D. Left umbilical artery Key: B

Key: B 12. Urachal fistula results from A. Persistent allantosis 4. The tensors of the vocal cord are B. Ectopic ureter A. Lateral cricoarytenoid C. Ectopic urethra B. Internal portion of thyoarytenoid D. Ectopic vesicle C. Thryohyoid D. Cricothyroid Key: A

Key: D 13. Secondary oocyte completed its meoisis A. Just before ovulation 5. What is the site of origin of moros reflex? B. Just after ovulation

C. At the time of fusion Key: A D. After fusion 22. Iris of eye is Key: C A. Endodermal origin B. Ectodermal origin 14. Oogenesis occur C. Mesodermal origin A. At puberty D. None of the above B. Before birth C. Just before ovulation Key: B D. None of the above 23. Primitive uteroplacental circulation begins at Key: B A. At the end of first week B. At the end of second week C. At the end of third week 15. The functional life of corpus luteum is D. At the end of fourth week A. 10 days B. 8 days Key: B C. 14 days D. 21 days 24. Which of the following carries oxygenated blood to the fetus? A. Vetelline vein Key: C B. Left umbilical vein » If ovum not fertilized  14days+/-2 C. Left umbilical artery » If ovum fertilized 3-4 months D. Right umbilical artery

16. Somites develop from …… mesoderm Key: B A. Extraembryonic B. Intermediate 25. Which structure disappears in the development of umbilicus? C. Lateral plate A. Left umbilical vein D. Paraxial B. Right umbilical vein C. Right umbilical artery Key: D D. Left umbilical artery

17. Primary oocyte is at Key: B A. Metaphase of meiosis I B. Prophase of meoisis I 26. At the end of 5th week of gestation, how many number of somites C. Metaphase of Meoisis II can be seen? D. Prophase of meiosis II A. 24 B. 26 Key: B C. 38 D. 44 18. Implantation occur at A. Immedately after fusion of the gamet Key: D B. 2 days after fusion C. 1 week after fusion 27. Embryonic period of development is: D. 2 weeks after fusion A. Up to 16 weeks B. Up to 12 weeks Key: C C. Up to 10 weeks D. Up to 8 weeks 19. Morula is A. 4 cell stage Key: D, Embryonic period extends from beginning of the third B. 8 cell stage week to the end of eighth week of intrauterine life. Some authors C. 16 cell stage consider the embryonic period from fertilization to the end of eight D. 32 cell stage week.

Key: C 28. Identify the CORRECT pair: A. Embryonic period : 9-20 weeks 20. Limb buds appear at B. Fertilization to implantation : 0-4 weeks A. At the end of second week C. Embryonic period : 4-8 weeks B. At the end of third week D. None C. At the end of fourth week D. At the end of fifth week Key: C, Embryonic period extends from beginning of the third week to the end of eighth week of intrauterine life Key: C 29. Meiosis occurs at which of the following transformation? 21. Placenta is formed from A. Primary spermatocyte to intermediate spermatocyte A. Decidua basalis B. Primary spermatocyte to secondary spermatocyte B. Dicidua parietalis C. Secondary spermatocyte to round spermatid C. Decidua capsulairis D. Round spermatid to elongated spermatid D. Decidua menstrualis

Key: B, Meiosis - I converts primary spermatocyte into secondary Key: D, Spermatogenesis is the process in which spermatozoa are spermatocyte. Later, Meiosis - II changes secondary spermatocyte produced from spermatogonial stem cells by way of mitosis and into the spermatid. meiosis and takes 74 days to complete.

30. At birth the ovary contains primary oocyte in which stage of 37. Spermatogenesis is completed in: meiosis? A. 60 days A. Prophase I B. 64 days B. Metaphase C. 70 days C. Anaphase D. 74 days D. Telophase I Key: D, 74 days > 64 days. Spermatogenesis takes 74 days to Key: A, in the ovaries, primary oocytes reach diplotene stage of complete. Earlier editions of standard textbooks used to mention it prophase I (meiosis I), by the fifth month in utero and each remains as 64 days (2 months) at this stage until the period before ovulation (may be as long as up to 50 years). 38. Meiosis occurs at which of the following transformation? A. Primary spermatocyte to intermediate spermatocyte 31. Meiosis occurs in: B. Primary spermatocyte to secondary spermatocyte A. Epididymis C. Secondary spermatocyte to round spermatid B. Seminiferous tubules D. Round spermatid to elongated spermatid C. Vas deferens D. Seminal vesicles Key: B

Key: B, Initial stages of spermatogenesis (meiosis) takes place 39. Independent Assortment of chromosome occurs at which level: within the seminiferous tubules of testes and progress to the A. Primordial germ cells to spermatogonia epididymis where the developing gametes mature, gain progressive B. Spermatogonia to primary spermatocyte motility and are stored until ejaculation. C. Primary spermatocyte to secondary spermatocyte D. Secondary spermatocyte to spermatids 32. In early phase division of spermatogonia by: A. Meiosis Key: C B. Mitosis C. Both Meiosis and Mitosis 40. Primary oocyte is formed after D. Maturation A. First meiotic division B. Second meiotic division Key: B, Mitosis C. Mitotic division D. None of the above 33. TRUE about spermatid: A. Derived from primary spermatocyte Key: C B. Derived from secondary spermatocyte C. Undergoes mitotic division 41. Polar bodies are formed during: D. Undergoes meiotic division A. Spermatogenesis B. Organogenesis Key: B, C. Oogenesis D. Morphogenesis 34. Haploid number of chromosomes is seen in: A. Spermatogonia Key: C, Polar bodies are formed as a result of meiosis in ovaries B. Primary spermatocytes called as oogenesis. The first polar body is released before C. Secondary spermatocyte ovulation and the second polar body forms after fertilization. D. None Spermatogenesis is not associated with polar body formation.

Key: C, Primary spermatocytes are diploid (2n) cells containing 46 42. In a female child at birth, gonads contain: chromosomes. After meiosis I, two secondary spermatocytes are A. Primary oocyte arrested at prophase I formed. Secondary spermatocytes are haploid (n) cells that contain B. Secondary oocyte arrested at metaphase II 23 chromosomes. C. Primordial germ cells D. Oogonia 35. In primary spermatocytes the chromosome status is: A. 23-X Key: A B. 23-Y C. 46-XY 43. First polar body is formed after: D. None A. Mitosis B. First meiosis Key: C, Primary spermatocytes are diploid (2n) cells containing 46 C. Second meiosis chromosomes (46-XY). D. Fertilization

36. Development of spermatozoa (sperm) from spermatogonium takes Key: B, Primary oocyte completes meiosis I to form two daughter how much time: cells: the secondary oocyte (23, 2N) and the first polar body. A. 30-35 days B. 40-45 days 44. Diplotene and zygotene stages are seen in: C. 50-55 day A. Prophase D. 70-75 days B. Metaphase C. Anaphase

D. Telophase C. 24-26 hrs D. 3 days Key: A, Prophase I (of meiosis I) is divided into four stages: Leptotene, Zygotene, Pachytene & Diplotene Key: B

45. After first meiotic division, the primary oocyte remains arrested in: 53. After how many hours of LH surge does ovulation occur? A. Diplotene stage A. 12-24 B. Pachytene stage B. 24-48 C. Metaphase C. 24-36 D. Telophase D. 36-48

Key: A, Primary oocytes enters prophase-I (of meiosis-I) and Key: C remains arrested in prophase (diplotene) of meiosis-I until exposed to LH surge, which starts happening after puberty. 54. Trophoblast differentiates into cyto and syncytiotrophoblast at post 46. One primary oocyte forms how many ovum/ova: fertilization day: A. 1 A. 6-8 B. 2 B. 8-12 C. 3 C. 12-14 D. 4 D. 16-18

Key: A, One primary oocyte forms one ovum and three polar Key: A bodies (which eventually degenerate). One primary spermatocytes forms four spermatids. 55. Fertilized ovum reaches the uterus: A. 3-4 days 47. Cells which surround the oocyte in Graafian follicle are called: B. 6- 8 days A. Discus proligerus C. 10- 12 days B. Cumulus oophorus D. 12-14 days C. Luteal cells D. Villus cells Key: A

Key: B 56. TRUE about morula: A. 4 cells stage 48. Fertilization is complete when: B. 8 cell stage A. 1st polar body is formed C. 16 cells stage B. 2nd polar body is formed D. 24 cells stage C. Primary oocyte is formed D. Secondary oocyte is formed Key: C

Key: B, at fertilization, the secondary oocyte completes meiosis-II 57. Blastocyst comes out of zona pellucida on which day after to form a mature oocyte (23, 1N) and a second polar body. fertilization? A. 4-7 days 49. Fertilization takes place after how much time of ovulation: B. 10-12 days A. 1-2 days C. 12-15 days B. 5-6 days D. 15-20 days C. 8-12 days D. 12 days Key: A

Key: A 58. Conceptus enters uterine cavity in which cell stage: A. 4 cells 50. Secondary oocyte is: B. 8 cells A. Haploid (n) and N C. 16 cells B. Haploid (n) and 2N D. 32 cells C. Diploid (2n) and N D. Diploid (2n) and 2N Key: D, Conceptus enters the uterine cavity at advanced morula stage (more than 16 cells) at day 4. It gets converted into blastocyst Key: B, Secondary oocyte is a haploid cell (n) with two units of same day and later attaches to endometrium on day 6 DNA (2N). (implantation).

51. Sperm remains fertile for how many hours in female genital tract: 59. The outer layer of the blastocyst forms: A. 6-8 hrs A. Primitive streak B. 12-24 hrs B. Yolk sac C. 24-48 hrs C. Embryo proper D. 72-96 hrs D. Trophoblast

Key: C Key: D

52. Average reproductive life span of ovum is: 60. Implantation occurs at: A. 6-12 hrs A. 2-3 days B. 12-24 hrs B. 6-7 days

C. 15-20 days A. Establishes all the three germ layers D. 20-25 days B. Occurs at the caudal end of the embryo prior to its cephalic end Key: B C. Involves the hypoblast cells of inner cells mass D. Usually occurs at 4 weeks 61. Implantation occurs on which menstrual cycle day: A. 5-7 days Key: C B. 20-22 days C. 14-18 days 70. All develop form mesoderm EXCEPT: D. 26-28 days A. Skeletal muscle B. Testes Key: B C. Enamel D. Ureter 62. Umbilical vesicle attains full development at: A. 2 week Key: C B. 4 week C. 6 week 71. Somites develop from: D. 7 week A. Notochord B. Intermediate mesoderm Key: B C. Paraxial mesoderm D. Lateral plate mesoderm 63. Primitive streak initiation and maintenance is due to: A. Brachyury gene Key: C B. BMP-4 C. Nodal gene 72. All are derived from mesoderm EXCEPT D. FGF-E A. Pupillary muscles B. Skeletal muscles Key: C C. Smooth muscle D. Extra ocular muscles 64. True about primitive streak are all EXCEPT: A. 1st sign of gastrulation Key: A B. Derived from epiblast C. Appear at cranial end D. All are true 73. Development of peritoneal cavity is from: A. Mesenchyme Key: C B. Intraembryonic coelom C. Ectoderm 65. Remnant of notochord is: (NUMS-PMDC 2019) D. Endoderm A. Annulus fibrosus B. Nucleus pulposus Key: B C. Ligament flavum D. Intertransverse ligament 74. Which of the following is an intraembryonic coelomic cavity? A. Amniotic Key: B B. Chorionic C. Pericardial 66. First to be developed is: D. None of the above a. Primitive pit b. Primitive groove Key: C, Intraembryonic coelom forms the cavities like pericardial, c. Primitive fold pleural and peritoneal cavities. d. Primitive streak 75. At which level the somites initially form? Key: D A. Thoracic level B. Cervical level 67. Disc with three germ layers are formed at which week of gestation? C. Lumbar level A. 1 week D. Sacral level B. 3 week C. 5 week Key: B D. 10 week 76. Derivatives of neural crest is/are: Key: B A. Para follicular cells of thyroid B. Adrenal medulla 68. Indicator of start of gastrulation is the formation of: C. Dorsal root ganglia A. Neural groove D. All of the above B. Neural pit C. Primitive streak Key: D D. Formation of notochord 77. Sympathetic ganglion develops from: Key: C A. Surface ectoderm B. Mesoderm 69. Which of the following is TRUE regarding gastrulation? C. Neural crest

D. Mesenchymal neuroectoderm A. Mesoderm B. Endoderm Key: C C. Neural crest cells D. Ectoderm 78. Glomus cells are derived from: A. Surface ectoderm Key: D B. Neuroectoderm C. Mesoderm 87. All are endodermal in origin except: D. Endoderm A. Hepatocyte B. Odontoblast Key: B C. Alveolar lining cells D. None 79. Enumerate the derivatives of neural crest cells: A. Tunica media of ascending aorta Key: B, Odontoblasts develop from the neural crest cells and form B. Connective tissue of thymus gland the dentine of teeth C. Choroid and sclera of eye D. All of the above 88. Sphineter and dilator pupillae develop from: A. Surface ectoderm Key: D B. Neuroectoderm C. Mesoderm 80. All are derived from ectoderm EXCEPT: D. Endoderm A. Lens B. Eustachian tube Key: B C. Brain D. Retina 89. Earliest system to be function in fetus is: A. CNS Key: B, Eustachian tube is a derivative of the first pharyngeal B. GIT pouch (endoderm). C. Circulatory D. Genitourinary 81. Which of the following is derived from endoderm: A. Gallbladder Key: C B. Lens C. Spleen 90. All are derived from ectoderm EXCEPT: D. Lymph nodes A. Hair follicle B. Sebaceous gland Key: A C. Arrector pilorum muscle D. Mammary gland 82. Auerbanchs plexus and Meissers ganglion cell are derived from: A. Yolk sac Key: C, Arrector pilorum muscle is derived from the mesenchyme. B. Primordial germ cell C. Neural crest 91. Buccopharyngeal membrane consists of: D. Fetal GIT A. Mesoderm and endoderm B. Ectoderm and mesoderm Key: C C. Ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm D. Endoderm and ectoderm 83. Melanoblasts are derived from: A. Basal epidermal cells Key: D B. Neural crest cells C. Prickle cells of epidermis 92. All of them are derivatives of ectoderm EXCEPT: D. Somatopleuric mesoderm A. Epidermis B. Parotid gland Key: B C. Neurohypophysis D. Arrector pilorum 84. Corneal stroma is derived from: A. Paraxial mesoderm Key: D, Arrector pilorum is a smooth muscle in the skin derived B. Intermediate mesoderm from mesenchyme. C. Lateral plate mesoderm D. Ectoderm 93. Paraxial mesoderm contribution to development of: A. Parietal peritoneum Key: D B. Visceral peritoneum C. Skeletal muscles 85. All are derived from ectoderm except: D. Peritoneal cavity A. Hypophysis B. Retina Key: C C. Spinal cord D. Adrenal cortex 94. Extra embryonic mesoderm is derived from: A. Primary yolk sac Key: D B. Secondary yolk sac C. Epiblast 86. Ameloblasts in teeth are derived from: D. Hypoblast

103. Structures derived from neural crest cells are all EXCEPT: Key: A, Primary yolk sac > Hypoblast > Epiblast A. Ganglia B. Mesenchyme of brain 95. All the following statements are true concerning the early C. Astrocyte and oligodendrocyte embryological development EXCEPT: D. AP septum of heart A. Zona pellucida is a glycoprotein membrane preventing implantation Key: D B. Blastocyst attaches to endometrium on day 6 C. Primordial germ cells are derivative of epiblast 104. Which of the following gives rise to the muscular component of D. The first germ layer to form is ectoderm dorsal aorta: A. Intermediate mesoderm Key: D B. Lateral plate mesoderm C. Axial mesoderm 96. Trophoblast differentiates into cyto and syncytiotrophoblast at day: D. Para-axial mesoderm A. 4 B. 6 Key: D C. 8 D. 10 105. Adrenal cortex develops from: A. Para-axial mesoderm Key: B B. Intermediate mesoderm C. Lateral plate mesoderm 97. Trophoblast differentiates into cyto and syncytiotrophoblast at post D. Neural crest cells fertilization day: A. 6-8 Key: B B. 8-12 C. 12-14 D. 16-18 106. Fetoplacental circulation begins at day: A. 12 Key: A B. 17 C. 22 98. Which of the following system becomes functional earliest? D. 30 A. Nervous B. Respiratory Key: B C. Cardiovascular D. Gastrointestinal 107. Tertiary villi develop by the end of week: A. 1 Key: C B. 2 C. 3 99. Which of the following is present at the beginning of third week? D. 4 A. Notochord B. Primitive streak Key: C C. Mesoderm D. Neural crest cells 108. Placenta develops from: A. Decidua capsularis and Chorion frondosum Key: B B. Decidua capsularis and Decidua basalis C. Decidua basalis and Chorion frondosum 100. Dilator pupillae muscle is derived from: D. Decidua parietalis and Chorion frondosum A. Neural crest cells B. Neural plate ectoderm Key: C C. Surface ectoderm D. Mesoderm 109. Amnion is present on: A. Decidua basalis Key: B B. Fetal surface C. Maternal surface 101. Endoderm gives all EXCEPT: D. All of the above A. Urethra B. Endocardium Key: B C. Lungs D. Vagina 110. Which of the following disappear in umbilical cord? A. Left artery Key: B B. left vein C. Right artery 102. All is true about notochord EXCEPT: D. Right vein A. Endodermal B. Appears at week 3 Key: C C. Becomes nucleus pulposus D. Embryonic notochordal remnant may result in chordoma 111. Which of the following is true regarding vessels in the umbilical cord? Key: A A. Two arteries and two vein B. one arteries and one vein

C. Two arteries and the left vein 120. The commonest variation in the arteries arising from the arch of D. Two vein and the left artery aorta is: A. Absence of brachiocephalic trunk Key: C B. Left vertebral artery arising from the arch C. Left common carotid artery arising from brachiocephalic 112. True about umbilical cord? trunk A. Contains two umbilical veins D. Presence of retroesophageal subclavian artery B. Contains one umbilical artery C. Right umbilical vein disappears Key: C D. Length is 25-30 cm 121. Aberrant subclavian artery formed due to Key: C A. Persistent A B. Persistent B 113. Cytotrophoblasts invades: C. Persistent A and obliterated B A. Decidua parietalis D. Obliterated A and persistent B B. Decidua basalis C. Decidua capularis Key: D D. None

Key: B 122. The most important structure involved in development of inferior vena cava is: 114. Transverse anastomosis of two umbilical arteries is known as A. Supracardinal vein and subcardinal vein A. Funis B. Umbilical vein B. Hoboner C. Anterior cardinal vein C. Hanis D. Posterior cardinal vein D. Hyrtl’s Key: A Key: D 123. All of the following veins are formed from vitelline vein EXCEPT: A. Hepatic vein 115. Which does not take part in formation of right subclavian artery? B. Superior vena cava A. 2nd arch artery C. Inferior vena cava B. 4th arch artery D. Superior mesenteric vein C. 7th arch artery D. All three Key:B

Key: B 124. Derivative of vitelline vein is: A. IVC 116. Artery of 2nd pharyngeal arch is: B. SVC A. Maxillary artery C. Ligamentum venosum B. Stapedial artery D. Ligamentum teres C. Subclavian artery D. Common carotid artery Key: A

Key: B 125. Left sided SVC drains into: A. Right atrium 117. Artery of 3rd arch? B. Left atrium A. Maxillary C. Coronary sinus B. Stapedial D. Pericardial space C. Common carotid D. Pulmonary Key: C

Key: C 126. Double inferior vena cava is formed due to persistence of: A. Sacrocardinal vein 118. Right fourth arch artery gives rise to: B. Supracardinal vein A. Right subclavian artery C. Subcardinal vein B. Common carotid artery D. Posterior cardinal vein C. Internal carotid artery D. External carotid artery Key: B, Supracardinal vein > Sacrocardinal vein > Subcardinal vein > Pericardial space Key: A 127. Double inferior vena cava is formed due to: 119. Double aortic arch occurs due to: A. Persistence of sacrocardinal veins A. Nondevelopment of right 4th aortic arch B. Persistence of supracardinal veins B. Nondevelopment of left 4th aortic arch C. Persistence of subcardinal veins C. Nondivision of truncus arteriosus D. Persistence of both supracardinal and subcardinal veins D. Persistent distal portion of right dorsal aorta Key: B, Persistence of supracardinal veins > persistence of Key: D sacrocardinal veins > Persistence of both supracardinal and subcardinal veins

D. Posterior to diaphragm 128. All of the following pairs for adult derivatives of embryonic structures is correct EXCEPT: Key: B A. Umbilical artery: Lateral umbilical ligament B. Umbilical vein: Ligamentum teres 137. Most common site of Morgagni Hernia is: C. Ductus venosus: Ligamentum venosum A. Left anterior D. Foramen ovale: Fossa ovalis B. Right posterior C. Right anterior Key: A D. Left posterior

129. Anatomical closure of ductus arteriosus occurs at: Key: C A. Birth B. 3-4 days 138. Which of the following structure doesn’t develop in mesentery of C. 10 days stomach? D. 30 days A. Liver B. Kidney Key: D C. Spleen D. Pancreas 130. Anatomical closure of ductus arteriosus occurs at: A. 2 weeks Key: B B. 4 weeks C. 12 weeks 139. Part of colon with no mesentery: D. 16 weeks A. Transverse colon B. Sigmoid colon Key: C C. Ascending colon D. Rectum 131. The umbilical vein carries: A. Oxygenated blood towards the placenta Key: C B. Deoxygenated blood towards the placenta C. Oxygenated blood away from the placenta 140. Gastrosplenic ligament contains: D. Deoxygenated blood away from the placenta A. Splenic vessels B. Tail of pancreas Key: C C. Short gastric artery D. Portal vein 132. Diaphragm does not develop from: A. Body wall Key: C B. Pleuroperitoneal membrane C. Pleuropericardial membrane 141. Ventral mesogastrium derivatives include all EXCEPT: D. Septum transversum A. Falciform ligament B. Coronary ligament Key: C C. Lesser omentum D. Gastrosplenic ligament 133. Diaphragm develops form all EXCEPT: A. Septum transversum Key: D B. Dorsal mesocardium C. Pleuroperitoneal membrane 142. Which one of the following ligaments contains splenic artery? D. Cervical myotomes A. Gastrosplenic ligament B. Splenocolic ligament Key: B C. Splenorenal ligament D. Splenophrenic ligament 134. Myoblasts of diaphragm develops from which somites: A. Cervical 1-3 B. Cervical 2-4 143. Which of the following structure develop in ventral part of ventral C. Cervical 3-5 mesentery of stomach? D. Cervical 5-7 A. Falciform ligament B. Hepatogastric ligament Key: C C. Lesser omentum D. Splenogastric ligament 135. All are derivatives of Septum Transversum EXCEPT: A. Falciform ligament Key: A B. Ligamentum teres C. Coronary ligament 144. Spleen develops from: D. Lesser omentum A. Ventral mesogastrium B. Dorsal mesogastrium Key: B C. Hindgut mesentery D. Midgut mesentery 136. Bochdalek hernia occurs in: A. Anterolateral part of the diaphragm Key: B B. Posterolateral part of diaphragm C. Retrosternal area 145. During development spleen lobulation is related to:

A. Lateral B. Superior 154. TRUE regarding Meckel’s diverticulum is: C. Inferior A. Present in mesenteric border D. None B. All 3 layers of gut wall are present C. Presents commonly with lower abdominal pain Key: B D. Second commonest congenial anomaly of GI tract

146. Physiological hernia reduces at month? Key: B A. 1st month B. 2nd month 155. Rectum develops from: C. 3rd month A. Cloaca D. 4th month B. Hind gut C. Allantoic remnants Key: C D. Urogenital sinus

147. Which is NOT associated with vitello-intestinal duct? Key: A, Cloaca > Hind gut A. Ileal diverticulum B. Umbilical sinus 156. The caecum is found to be placed below the stomach and in C. Enterocystoma midline. Which of the following abnormalities would have taken D. Mesenteric cyst place in the rotation of gut? A. Malrotation Key: D B. Non rotation C. Mixed rotation 148. Meckel’s diverticulum is a remnant of: D. Reverse rotation A. Stenson’s duct B. Wolffian duct Key: C C. Mullerian duct D. Vitellointestinal duct 157. An infant present with an omphalocele at birth. Which of the following applies to this condition? Key: D A. It is also seen in patients with congenital aganglionic megacolon 149. Regarding Meckel’s diverticulum all are true EXCEPT: B. It results from herniation at the site of regression of the right A. At anti-mesenteric border umbilical vein B. Vitello-intestinal duct remnant C. It is caused by a failure of recanalization of the midgut part of C. 3 inches long the duodenum D. Pain at umbilicus D. It is caused by failure of the midgut to return to the abdominal cavity after herniation into the umbilical stalk Key: C Key: D 150. Remnant of omphalomesenteric duct is /are: A. Umbilical fistula 158. Regarding Gastroschisis and omphalocele, which one is FALSE? B. Umbilical sinus A. Intestinal obstruction is common in gastroschisis C. Meckel’s diverticulum B. Liver is the content of omphalocele D. All of the above C. Gastroschisis is associated with multiple anomalies D. Umbilical cord is attached in normal position in gastroschisis Key: D Key: C 151. Hirschsprung’s disease is specifically known as: A. Congenital megacolon 159. Most common site of ectopic pancreatic tissue is: B. Aganglionic megacolon A. Stomach C. Congenital aganglionic megacolon B. Jejunum D. Congenital atretic aganglionic megacolon C. Appendix D. Hilum of spleen Key: C Key: A 152. From which of the following is the duodenum derived? A. Foregut 160. Ventral pancreatic duct give rise to: B. Midgut A. Body C. Foregut and midgut D. Midgut and hindgut B. Tail C. Neck Key: C D. Uncinate process

153. Descending colon is supplied by: Key: D A. Superior mesenteric artery B. Inferior mesenteric artery 161. Most common congenital anomaly of the pancreas is: C. iliolumbar artery A. Pancreas divisum D. Lateral sacral artery B. Pancreatic cysts C. Ectopic pancreas Key: B D. Inversion of pancreatic ducts

Key: A 170. All of them develop in the mesentery of stomach except: A. Liver 162. Pancreas divisum indicates which of the following? B. Spleen A. Duplication of the pancreas C. Kidney B. Failure of fusion of dorsal and ventral pancreatic buds D. Pancreas C. Formation of more than two pancreatic buds D. Formation of only one pancreatic bud Key: C

Key: B 171. Artery of hindgut is: A. Coeliac trunk 163. Derivatives of midgut: B. Superior mesenteric A. Rectum C. Inferior mesenteric B. Appendix D. None C. Liver D. Stomach Key: C

Key: B 172. Before formation of head and tail folds, the most cranial part of embryo: 164. Primitive gut is derivatives of: A. Septum tansversum A. Yolk sac B. Neural plate B. Amniotic cavity C. Notochord C. Allantoic cavity D. Primitive streak D. Coelum Key: A Key: A 173. All are derivatives of septum transversum except: 165. Ventral mesogastrium derivatives include A/E: A. Falciform ligament A. Falciform ligament B. Ligamentum teres B. Coronary ligament C. Coronary ligament C. Lesser omentum D. Mesentary of Lesser sac D. Gastrosplenic ligament Key: B Key: D 174. Ligamentum teres of liver is a remnant of: A. Ductus venosus 166. True about anal membrane B. Umbilical artery A. Perforates at 6 week C. Ductus arteriosus B. Develops from anterior part of cloacal membrane D. Left umbilical vein C. Lies at proximal part of proctodaeum D. Covers urogenital sinus Key: D

Key: C 175. Median umbilical ligament is derived from: A. Proximal part of umbilical artery 167. All develop from endodermal cloaca except: B. Distal part of umbilical artery A. Rectum C. Urachus B. Anal canal D. Umbilical vein C. Sigmoid D. Primitive urogenital sinus Key: C

Key: C 176. Pancreas divisum indicates which of the following? A. Duplication of the pancreas 168. Endodermal cloaca gives rise to all of the following except: B. Failure of fusion of dorsal and ventral pancreatic buds A. Rectum C. Formation of more than two pancreatic buds B. Lower 1/2 of anal canal D. Formation of only one pancreatic bud C. Upper 1/2 of anal canal D. Mucous membrane of bladder Key: B

Key: B 177. If two buds of pancreas do not fuse, the anomaly is: A. Ectopic pancreas 169. Urinary bladder develops from: B. Pancreatic divisum A. Proallantoic hind gut C. Annular pancreas B. Proctodeum D. Accessory pancreas C. Cloaca D. None Key: B

Key: C 178. False about gastroinstestinal development is:

A. Lower respiratory system develops from foregut A. Mesoderm B. Stomach rotates 90° clock wise and its posterior wall grows B. Endoderm faster C. Wall of the yolk sac C. Duodenum rotates to right and is retroperitoneal D. Paramesonephric duct D. Dorsal bud form uncinate process E. Dorsal duct forms santorini duct Key: B

Key: D 187. A child complains of fluid coming out of umbilicus on straining. The diagnosis is: 179. The WRONG statement regarding kidney development is: A. Patent vitellointestinal duct A. Glomerulus develops from metanephros B. Gastroschisis B. Ureter develops from metanephric diverticulum C. Umbilical hernia C. Connecting tubule is a derivative of ureteric bud D. Urachal fistula D. Terminal portion of mesonephric duct forms trigone Key: D Key: C 188. Ascent of horseshoe-shaped kidney is prevented by: 180. The ureter develops from A. Superior mesenteric artery A. Metanephros B. Inferior mesenteric artery B. Mesonephros C. Superior mesenteric vein C. Mesonephric duct D. Inferior mesenteric vein D. Paramesonephric duct Key: B Key: C 189. Collecting tubules of kidney develop from: 181. Most common aberration in renal vessel development: A. Ureteric duct A. Supernumerary arteries B. Mesonephric duct B. Supernumerary renal vein C. Paramesonephric duct C. Double renal vein D. Wolffian duct D. Double renal artery Key: A Key: A 190. Kidney develops from 182. Initially renal arteries are branches of: A. Metanephron A. Internal pudendal artery B. Mesonephron B. External iliac artery C. Blastema C. Common iliac artery D. All of the above D. Aorta Key: D Key: C 191. Ureteric bud arises from: 183. Mesonephric derivatives are all EXCEPT: A. Paramesonephric duct A. Glomerulus B. Mullerian duct B. Para-oophoron C. Mesonephric duct C. Vas deferens D. Mesonephric tubule D. Epididymis Key: C Key: A 192. Epithelium of ureter develops from 184. Derivative(s) of mesonephric duct includes: A. Mesonephros A. Seminal vesicle B. Metanephros B. Vas deferens C. Pronephros C. Common ejaculatory duct D. Paramesonephric duct D. All of the above Key: A Key: D 193. Proximal convoluted tubules develops from: 185. Urinary bladder develops from: A. Mesonephric duct A. Ectoderm B. Metaephric tubules B. Mesoderm C. Mesonephric tubules C. Endoderm D. Ureteric buds D. Neural crest cells Key: B Key: C 194. Uro-rectal septum separates the cloaca into 186. The transitional epithelium lining the urethra and the bladder is A. Rectum and bladder derived from:

B. Anus and urethra A. Endoderm of genital ridge C. Allantois and bladder B. Endoderm of urogenital sinus D. Rectum and unogenital sinus C. Mesoderm of genital ridge D. Mesoderm of urogenital sinus Key: D Key: B, Endoderm of urogenital sinus > Mesoderm of genital ridge 195. Trigone of urinary bladder develops from A. Urogenital sinus 203. Mullerian duct anomaly may include the absence of any of the B. Vesicourethral canal following EXCEPT: C. Mesonephric duct A. Uterus D. Endoderm B. Vagina C. Ovary Key: C D. Uterine tube

Key: C 196. Urachus fistula is A. Patent allantois 204. Clitoris in females is embryologically derived from: B. Patent vitellointestinal tract A. Urogenital sinus C. Meckel’s diverticulum B. Genital swelling D. Umbilical hernia C. Genital tubercle D. Urogenital membrane Key: A Key: C 197. Testis lies at deep inguinal ring upto:\ A. 4 months 205. Organ of Rosenmüller (epoophoron) is derivative of: B. 5 months A. Mullerian duct C. 7 months B. Wolffian duct D. 9 months C. Urogenital sinus D. Paramesonephric duct Key: C Key: B 198. Position of testis at 24-28 weeks of intrauterine life A. Inguinal region 206. Ovarian ligament and Round ligament of uterus are derivatives of: B. Lumbar region A. Peritoneum C. Superficial inguinal ring B. Transversalis fascia D. Deep inguinal ring C. Processus vaginalis D. Gubernaculum Key: A Key: D 199. Gubernaculum is attached to A. Cranial pole of testis 207. External genitalia develop from B. Caudal pole of testis A. Intermediate mesoderm C. Body of testis B. Para-axial mesoderm D. Epididymis C. Somatopleuric lateral plate mesoderm D. Splanchnopleuric lateral plate mesoderm Key: B Key: C 200. Testes completely descend in the scrotum by the age of A. End of 7th month of intrauterine life 208. Which of following is the feature of Y chromosome: B. End of 8 month of intrauterine life A. Acrocentric C. End of 9 month of intrauterine life B. Telocentric D. After birth C. Submetacentric D. Metacentric Key: D, Testis lies at superficial ring at eighth month and enters the scrotum at the beginning of ninth month. It reaches its final position Key: A in the scrotum just before birth (end of ninth month) and after birth (in few babies). 209. Faster sperm is with which sex chromosome: A. X chromosome 201. The upper 3/4th of vagina develops from: B. Y chromosome A. Mullerian duct C. Both same B. Wolffian duct D. None C. Genital ridge D. Genital swelling Key: B

Key: A 210. Regarding genital development, TRUE is A. Y chromosome is associated with ovary development 202. Vaginal epithelium is derived from

B. Genital ridge starts developing at 5th week C. 5 million C. Male genitals develop earlier than female genitals D. 10 million D. External Genital development is complete by 10th week Key: A Key: B 219. Development of labia majora is from: 211. INCORRECT statement about genital system development is: A. Urogenital sinus A. Develop from mesoderm B. Mullerian duct B. Genital ridge forms at week 5 C. Genital ridge C. Testes develops earlier to ovary D. Genital swelling D. External genitalia are fully differentiated at week 10 Key: D Key: D 220. Clitoris develops from: 212. Mullerian duct anomaly may include the absence of any of the A. Urogenital sinus following EXCEPT: B. Labia scrotal swelling A. Uterus C. Genital folds B. Vagina D. Genital tubercle C. Ovary D. Uterine tube Key: D

Key: C 221. Which is derived from wolffian duct: A. Appendix of testis 213. Organ of Rosenmullar is remenant of: B. Uterus A. Endodermal sinus C. Appendix of epididymis B. Mullerian duct D. Hydatid of margagni C. Mesonephric tubule D. Paramesonephric duct Key: C, Appendix of epididymis > Hydatid of margagni

Key: C 222. Which of the following is a derivative of Paramesonephric duct in males: 214. Round ligament of uterus is derived from: A. Trigone of bladder A. Gonadal ridge B. Paraphoron B. Mullerian duct C. Prostatic utricle C. Gubernaculum D. Gartner’s duct D. Genital tubercle Key: C Key: C 223. Vaginal wall is derived froma. 215. Differentiation of genital ridge takes place at: A. Endoderm A. 2 months B. Mesoderm B. 3 months C. Endoderm and mesoderm C. 4 months D. Ectoderm and mesoderm D. 5 months Key: C Key: A 224. Vaginal epithelium develops from 216. Primordial germ cells are derived from: A. Mesoderm of urogenital sinus A. Yolk sac endoderm B. Mesoderm of genital ridge B. Yolk sac medoderm C. Endoderm of urogenital sinus C. Epiblast D. Endoderm of genital ridge D. Gonadal ridge Key: C Key: C, Epiblast > Yolk sac endoderm 225. Which of the following is TRUE about vertebral development: 217. Not true about development of ovary: A. The notochord forms the annulus fibrosus A. Develops in genital ridge B. The sclerotome forms the nucleus pulposus B. Sex cords are derived from coelomic epithelium C. The sclerotome surrounds the notochord only C. Oocytes are mesodermal in origin D. The sclerotome surrounds the notochord and the neural tube D. At birth ovary contains 2 million follicles Key: D Key: C 226. develop from: 218. Number of primodial follicles in ovary at birth are: A. Lateral plate mesoderm A. 2 million B. Sclerotome B. 6 million C. Sternal bars

D. Intermediate mesoderm

Key: B 1. Accessory cervical causes compression of: A. Lateral cord of brachial plexus 227. Lumber hemivertebra results due to the abnormal development of: B. Upper trunk of brachial plexus A. Dorsal sclerotome C. First thoracic nerve B. Intermediate cell mass D. Medial cord of brachial plexus C. Notochord Key: B D. Ventral sclerotome

2. Which of the following is not the branch of subclavian artery:

A. Vertebral artery Key: D B. Thyrocervical trunk

C. Subscapular artery 228. Which of the following gives rise to the muscular component of D. Internal thoracic artery dorsal aorta:

A. Intermediate mesoderm Key: C B. Lateral plate mesoderm C. Axial mesoderm 3. All of the following are the branches of carotid artery except: D. Paraxial mesoderm A. Anterior cerebral artery B. Ophthalmic artery Key: D C. Middle cerebral artery D. Posterior cerebral artery 229. Suprarenal gland develops from: A. Metanephros Key: D B. Ureteric bud C. Neural crest 4. Which of the following is not the branch of internal carotid D. Endoderm artery: A. Superior cerebral artery Key: C B. Ophthalmic artery C. Anterior cerebral artery 230. Merkel cells are derivatives of: D. Anterior choroid artery A. Surface ectoderm Key: A B. Neural crest cell origin

C. Endodermal origin 5. All of the following are branches of the external carotid artery, D. Monocyte/Phagocyte origin except: A. Superior thyroid artery Key: A, Surface ectoderm > Neural crest cell origin B. Anterior ethmoidal artery C. Occipital artery 231. If there is absence of precursor cell of an organ with the subsequent D. Posterior auricular artery non-development of the organ, the condition is called as A. Agenesis Key: C B. Aplasia C. Atresia 6. The only medial branch of external carotid artery is: D. Atrophy A. Ascending pharyngeal B. Superior lingual Key: A C. Superior thyroid D. Maxillary 232. A person showing two cell lines derived from two different zygotes is known as Key: A A. Chimerism B. Mosaicism 7. Somites are derived from……. Mesoderm C. Segregation A. Extraembryonic B. Intermediate D. Pseudo dominance C. Lateral plate

D. Paraxial Key: A

Key: D

8. Stapedius muscle develops from:

A. 1st bronchial arch

B. 2nd bronchial arch

C. 3rd bronchial arch

D. 4th bronchial arch HEAD AND NECK

Key: B

9. Muscle derived from second pharyngeal arch is:

A. Posterior belly of digastric

B. Stylopharyngeus C. Tensor tympani Key: C D. Anterior belly of digastric 18. Ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm are present in: Key: A A. Tympanic membrane B. Heart 10. Which of the following is not derived from second arch: C. Cornea A. Smaller cornu of hyoid D. Meckel’s diverticulum B. Greater cornu of hyoid C. Stylohyoid ligament Key: A D. Facial nerve 19. Which of the following muscle is not supplied by hypoglossal Key: B nerve: A. Styloglossus 11. Glossopharyngeal nerve supplies posterior part of tongue because it B. Thyrohyoid develops from: C. Stylopharyngeus(glossopharangeal) A. Mandibular arch D. Geniohyoid B. Hyoid arch C. Tuberculus impar Key: C D. Hypobranchial eminence 20. Occipital artery is a branch of: Key: D A. Basilar artery B. Cerebral part of ICA 12. Cleft lip occurs due to faulty fusion of: C. External carotid artery A. Median and lateral nasal process D. Cavemous part of ICA B. Median nasal and maxillary process C. Median nasal process Key: C D. Maxillary process 21. Which of the following nerve does not supplies duramater: Key: B A. Posterior ethmoidal B. Anterior ethmoidal 13. Which of the following nerve does not passes through Jugular C. Mandibular foramen: D. Auriculotemporal A. 9th B. 10th Key: D C. 11th D. 12th 22. Which of the following muscle is used for opening the mouth: A. Masseter Key: D B. Lateral pterygoid C. Temporalis 14. Filum terminale is made up of: D. Medial pterygoid A. Dura mater B. Piamater Key: B C. Spinal cord(connective tissue) D. Arachnoid 23. Isthmus of thyroid gland lies opposite to which of the following tracheal ring: Key: A A. 2,3 B. 5,6 15. Infection in dangerous area of face results in C. 6,7 A. Brain abcess D. 8,9 B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Lateral sinus thrombosis Key: A D. Cortical venous thrombosis 24. Which of the following is not a temporomandibular ligament: Key: B A. Lateral temporomandibular ligament B. Pterygomandibular ligament 16. Dangerous area of face is named so because of the connection of C. Stylomandibular ligament facia veins to cavernous sinus through: D. Sphenomandibular ligament A. Ethmoidal vein B. Maxillary vein Key: B C. Superior ophthalmic vein D. Transverse facial vein 25. Foramen of Monro connects: A. Lateral ventricle to the fourth ventricle Key: C B. Third ventricle to fourth ventricle C. Both ventricles 17. Thickest boundary of orbit is: D. Lateral ventricle to third ventricle A. Maxillary B. Floor Key: D C. Lateral D. Medial 26. Subarachnoid space ends at which level:

A. L2 Key: C B. S2 C. L5 35. All of the following muscles are innervated by the facialnerve D. L4 except: A. Occipito-frontalis Key: B B. Anterior belly of digastric C. Risorius 27. In adults, the spinal cord ends at the level of: D. Procerus A. L1-2 B. L3-4 Key: B C. S1-2 D. T10-12 36. Facial nerve supplies all of the following glands except: A. Submandibular Key: A B. Sublingual C. Nasal 28. In infants, the spinal cord ends at the level of: D. Parotid A. L4 B. L1 Key: D C. L3 D. L1 37. The cartilage of epiglottis is: A. Fibrous Key: C B. Elastic C. White fibro-cartilage 29. Fibers passing through genu are: D. Hyaline A. Fibers to cranial nerves B. Fibers from lower limbs Key: B C. Fibers from upper limbs D. Fibers from occipital cortex 38. Which of the following muscle is not supplied by ansa cervicalis: A. Sternohyoid Key: A B. Sternothyroid C. Inferior belly of omohyoid 30. Which of the following is the first branch of facial nerve: D. Thyrohyoid A. Chorda tympani B. Nerve to stapedius Key: D C. Greater petrosal D. Nerve to buccinator 39. Which of the following doesnot passes through foramen magnum: A. Accessory pharygeal artery Key: C B. Spinal acessory nerve C. Apical ligament of dens 31. Which of the following cranial nerve arises from the dorsal aspect D. Vertebral artery of brain stem: A. Third Key: A B. Fourth C. Fifth 40. Foramen magnum transmits all of the following except: D. Sixth A. Sympathetic plexus B. Spinal branch of 10th nerve Key: B C. Vertebral artery D. Lower part of medulla 32. 7th , 9th and 10th cranial nerves end in: A. Long tract of trochlear nerve Key: B B. Dorsal nucleus of vagus C. Nucleus tractus solitarius 41. Middle cerebellar peduncle is formed by ….. Tract D. Nucleus ambiguus A. Ponto cerebellar B. Parolivocerebellar Key: C C. Vestibulocerebellar D. Anterior spinocerebellar 33. The correct position of sixth cranial nerve in cavernous sinus is: A. Lateral to the carotid artery Key: A B. Medial to the carotid artery C. Anterior to the carotid artery 42. Which of the following is not related to cavernous sinus: D. Posterior to the carotid artery A. Abducent nerve B. Optic nerve Key: A C. Ophthalmic nerve D. Trochlear nerve 34. Pes anserinus is the arrangement of: A. Vagus nerve Key: B B. Glossopharyngeal nerve C. Facial nerve 43. Which of the following is true regarding cavernous sinus: D. Trigeminal nerve A. Optic tract lies inferiorly B. Occulomotor nerve on medial wall

C. Lies over greater wing of sphenoid Key: B D. Drains into superior petrosal sinus 52. All these nerves supply the tongue except: Key: D A. glossopharyngeal nerve B. trigeminal nerve 44. Which of the following structure passes through superior C. facial nerve constrictor and the base of skull: D. external laryngeal nerve A. Auditory tube and levator palati muscle B. Stylopharyngeus and glossopharyngeal nerve Key: C C. Internal laryngeal nerve and superior laryngeal vessels D. Recurrent laryngeal nerve and inferior laryngeal vessels. 53. Which of the following separates bulbar and orbital part of lacrimal gland? Key: A A. Lateral palpebral ligament B. Superior oblique 45. The endolymphatic duct drains into ………space. C. Superior rectus A. Sacculus D. Levetor palpebrae superioris B. Subdural C. Extradural Key: D D. Subarachnoid 54. Which of the following is the true statement regarding the ocular Key: A muscles: A. Medial rectus is the longest among extraocular muscles 46. Tympanic membrane is supplied by which of the following nerve: B. The lateral rectus muscle is supplied by the abducent A. Auriculo temporal nerve B. Anterior ethmoidal C. Conjugate gaze center is located in the temporal lobe C. Greater occipital D. The Inferior rectus takes origin from the medial orbital wall D. Lesser occipital Key: B Key: A 55. Ophthalmic artery is a branch of: 47. Which of the following structure is related with auditory pathway: A. Vertebral artery A. Medial lemniscus B. Basilar artery B. Genu of internal capsule C. Internal carotid artery C. Lateral geniculate body D. External carotid artery D. Trapezoid body Key: C Key: D 56. Vein of Galen is formed by: 48. Middle ear cavity is supplied by which of the following nerve: A. Occipital and transverse sinus A. Facial B. Inferior petrosal and occipital sinus B. Trigeminal C. Union of two internal cerebral veins C. Glossopharyngeal D. Inferior sagital sinus and straight sinus D. Vagus Key: C Key: C

49. Supraorbital and Supratrochlear arteries are branches of which of 57. Anterior spinal artery is a branch of which of the following artery: the following: A. Vertebral A. Ophthalmic artery B. Internal carotid B. Maxillary artery C. External carotid C. External carotid artery D. Labyrinthine D. Internal carotid artery Key: A Key: A 58. Labyrinthine artery is a branch of …….. Artery. 50. The glossopharyngeal nerve exits the skull through which A. Anterior inferior cerebellar foramen? B. Posterior cerebellar A. Internal Acoustic Meatus C. Basilar B. Jugular Foramen D. Internal carotid C. Foramen Magnum D. Hypoglossal Canal Key: C

Key: B 59. Which of the following artery supplies blood to visual center: A. Anterior cerebral artery and middle cerebral artery 51. Glossopharyngeal nerve supplies for general sensations for - B. Middle cerebral artery and posterior cerebral artery A. anterior 2/3rd of tongue C. Middle cerebral artery B. posterior 1/3rd of tongue D. posterior cerebral artery C. posterior most part of tongue D. anterior 2/3rd and posterior 1/3rd of tongue Key: D

60. Which of the following artery supplies blood to occipital cortex: C. Lateral pterygoid A. Posterior cerebral artery D. Medial pterygoid B. Superior cerebral artery C. Middle cerebral artery Key: C D. Posterior choroidal artery 69. Which of the following cranial nerve passes through Dorello’s Key: A canal: A. Fifth 61. The lateral medullary syndrome of Wallenberg is characterised by : B. Eighth A. Nucleus of spinal tract of the trigeminal nerve C. Seventh B. Involvement of rubrospinal tract D. Sixth C. Involvement of anterior spinothalamic tract D. Involvement of tectospinal tract Key: D

Key: A 70. Waldeyer’s ring is formed by all except: A. Palatine tonsils 62. Which of the following cranial nerve is not involved in B. Pharyngeal tonsil Wallenberg’s syndrome: C. Lingual tonsil A. Twelfth D. Postauricular nodes B. Tenth C. Ninth Key: D D. Eleventh 71. The nasolacrimal duct opens into : Key: A A. Inferior meatus B. Vestibule of nose 63. Superior cerebellar peduncle contains which of the following C. Superior meatus part structure: D. Anterior part of middle meatus A. Anterior spinocerebellar B. Posterior spinocerebellar Key: A C. Vestibulocerebellar fibers D. Olivocerebellar fibers 72. Which of the following is not found deep in parotid gland: A. Internal carotid artery Key: A B. External carotid artery C. Facial nerve 64. All of the following are parts of the basal ganglia except: D. Retromandibular vein A. Corpus striatum B. Caudate lobe Key: A C. Putamen D. Thalamus 73. Middle meningeal artery passes through ………. Foramen: A. Ovale Key: D B. Lacerum C. Spinosum 65. Which of the following nucleus is involved in ciliary ganglion: D. Magnum A. Preganglionic Edinger-Westphal nucleus B. Superior salivatory Key: C C. Inferior salivatory D. Superior colliculus 74. Which of the following nerve supplies to angle of mandible: A. Maxillary Key: A B. Mandibular C. Lesser occipital 66. Broca’s area is located in: D. Greater auricular A. Frontal lobe B. Temporal lobe Key: D C. Occipital lobe D. Olfactory lobe 75. Which of the following is not a branch of maxillary artery: A. Anterior tympanic artery Key: A B. Posterior ethmoidal artery C. Middle meningeal artery 67. Which of the following structure passes through foramen ovale in D. Infraorbital artery middle cranial fossa: A. Mandibular nerve Key: B B. Middle meningeal artery C. Maxillary nerve 76. Which of the following gland is supplied by inferior salivatory D. Spinal acessory nerve nucleus: A. Sublingual Key: A B. Parotid C. Lacrimal 68. Muscle of mastication which does not elevate the mandible is: D. Submandibular A. Masseter B. Temporalis Key: B

B. Posterior Cricoarytenoids 77. Which of the following is true regarding parotid duct: C. Anterior Cricoarytenoids A. It pierces the masster muscle D. Cricothyroid B. It is lined by tall columnar epithelium C. Opens into vestibule of mouth at the level of upper second Key: B molar D. It joins the submandibular duct before opening into oral cavity 86. Abductor of vocal cord is : A. Thyroaretenoid Key: C B. Cricothyroid C. Lateral arytenoids 78. In which of the following position,the parotid duct can be palpated: D. Posterior cricoarytenoid A. Through buccal mucosa B. Posterior margin of masseter is relaxed Key: D C. Anterior margin of masseter is tensed D. Angle of mandible is depressed 87. In dislocation of the jaw, displacement of the articular disc beyond the articular tubercle of the temporomandibular joint results from Key: C spasm or excessive contration of the following muscle: A. Buccinator 79. Which of the following structure pass through inferior orbital B. Lateral pterygoid fissure: C. Masseter A. Superior ophthalmic vein D. Temporalis B. Ophthalmic artery C. Trochlear nerve Key: B D. Zygomatic nerve 88. The nucleus concerned with accommodation reflex is: Key: D A. Edinger-Westphal nucleus B. Third nerve nucleus 80. The main artery supplying blood to soft palate is: C. Nucleus gracilis A. Ascending palatine artery D. Nucleus cuneatus B. Posterior palatine artery C. Lingual artery Key: B D. Anterior palatine artery 89. Structures passing through superior orbital fissure: Key: A A. 3rd nerve B. 4th nerve 81. The mental foramen is present near the: C. 6th nerve A. Canine tooth D. All of the above B. 1st molar C. 2nd molar Key: D D. premolar 90. Depression of mandible is caused by: Key: D A. Temporalis B. Lateral Ptergoid 82. All of the following muscles are grouped together as muscle of C. Medial Pterygoid mastication except: D. Masseter A. Buccinator B. Masseter Key: B C. Temporalis D. Pterygoids 91. Which of the following structure is not seen in posterior triangle of neck? Key: A A. Accessory nerve B. Posterior belly of omohyoid 83. Membrana tectoria is the continuation of : C. Stylohyoid A. Anterior longitudinal ligament D. Superficial cervical artery B. Posterior longitudinal ligament C. Apical ligament Key: C D. Alar ligament 92. True regarding parathyroids are all of the following except: Key: B A. Superior parathyroid arises from 4th pouch. B. The inferior parathyroids develop from the 3rd pouch along 84. Recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies all the following except: with the thymus A. Cricothyroid C. The main blood supply of the parathyroids is from the thyroid B. Posterior Cricoarytenoids arteries C. Transverse arytenoids D. The superior parathyroid adenomas are found in the D. Anterior Cricoarytenoids thymus glands

Key: A Key: D

85. The abductor of the vocal cords are: 93. Esthesioneuroblastoma is found in: A. Transverse arytenoids A. Optic nerve

B. Trochlear nerve B. Infraorbital margin to center of external acoustic meatus C. Olfactory nerve C. Infraorbital margin to inferior margin of external acoustic D. Trigeminal nerve meatus D. None of the above Key: C Key: B 94. Paralysis of 3rd ,4th,6th nerves with involvement of ophthalmic division of 5th nerve,localizes lesion to: 102. Metopic sutures closes at: A. Cavernous sinus A. 6 months B. Apex of orbit B. 3 years C. Brain stem C. 6 years D. Base of skull D. 60 years

Key: A Key: A

95. The following statement concerning chorda tympani nerve are true, 103. Suture present between parietal and occipital bones is: except that it: A. Lambdoid A. Carries secretomotor fibers to submandibular fossa B. Sagittal B. Joins lingual nerve in infratemporal fossa C. Coronal C. Is a branch of facial nerve D. Metopic D. Contains postganglionic parasympathetic fibers Key: A Key: D, The chorda tympani is a branch of the facial nerve that originates from the taste buds in the front of the tongue, runs 104. Thinnest bone is a part of which bone through the middle ear A. Frontal B. Ethmoid 96. Which of the following nuclei belongs to the general visceral C. Sphenoid efferent column? D. Temporal A. Facial nerve nucleus B. Trigeminal motor nucleus Key: B C. Dorsal nucleus vagus D. Nucleus ambiguous 105. All of the following are pneumatic bones EXCEPT: A. Maxilla Key: C B. Parietal C. Ethmoid 97. Upper border of thyroid cartilage is at: D. Mastoid A. C2 B. C4 Key: B C. C6 D. T1 106. Which of the following cranial nerves present in the posterior fossa: Key: B A. 3rd to 12th B. 4th to 12th 98. Cricoid cartilage lies at which vertebral level: C. 5th to 12th A. C2 D. 6th to 12th B. C4 C. C6 Key: A D. T1 107. Duramater is supplied by all cranial nerves EXCEPT: Key: C A. 12 B. 10 99. Hyoid lies at the level of: C. 5 A. C3 D. 4 B. C5 C. C7 Key: D D. T2 108. CSF rhinorrhea leakage occurs through: Key: A A. Frontal sinus B. Sphenoid sinus 100. Sylvian point is related to which part of : C. Ethmoid sinus A. Squamous part D. Tegmen tympani B. Petrous part C. Tympanic part Key: C D. Mastoid part 109. All structures pass through foramen ovale EXCEPT: Key: A A. Accessory meningeal artery B. Middle meningeal artery 101. Reid’s line extends from: C. Lesser petrosal nerve A. Infraorbital margin to superior margin of external acoustic D. Emissary vein meatus

Key: B A. Interior and medial to foramen rotundum B. Posterior and lateral to foramen rotundum 110. Structure passing through the tendinous ring of Zinn C. Cause of intra-sphenoidal meningocele A. Superior ophthalmic vein D. Can carry infection to sphenoidal sinus B. Trochlear nerve C. Nasociliary nerve Key: B D. Lacrimal nerve 119. Which structure passes through foramen magnum? Key: C A. Vertebral artery B. Internal carotid artery 111. Mass in jugular foramen may result in all EXCEPT: C. Hypoglossal nerve A. Difficulty in swallowing D. Sympathetic chain B. Hoarseness C. Difficulty in turning the neck to opposite side Key: A D. Tongue deviates to same side 120. Maxilla doesn’t articulate with: Key: D A. B. Plate of 112. Lesser petrosal nerve passes through C. A. Foramen rotundum D. B. Foramen ovale C. Canaliculus innominatus Key: B D. Foramen spinosum 121. Turkish saddle is related to which structure: Key: B, Foramen ovale > Canaliculus innominatus A. Hypothalamus B. Hypophysis 113. Incisive foramen transmits: C. Uncus A. Greater palatine artery and greater palatine nerve D. Amygdaloid body B. Greater palatine artery and lesser palatine nerve C. Greater palatine artery and sphenopalatine nerve Key: B D. Greater palatine artery and nasopalatine nerve

Key: D 122. Which of the following structures do not pass through the marked foramen rotundum 114. Choose the incorrect pair regarding the skull foramina and the A. Maxillary nerve structures passing through: B. Sensory branch of mandibular nerve A. Maxillary nerve: Foramen rotundum C. Lesser petrosal nerve B. Vestibulocochlear nerve: Internal acoustic meatus D. Motor root of trigeminal nerve C. Foramen spinosum: Middle meningeal artery D. Superior orbital fissure: Optic nerve Key: A, Remain other passes through foramen ovale – structures passing through it are: Mandibular division of trigeminal nerve, Key: D, Optic nerve passes through the optic canal. Accessory meningeal artery, lesser petrosal nerve, Emissary vein. (Mnemonic: MALE). 115. Structures which passes through the internal auditory meatus are all EXCEPT: A. Nerve of Wrisberg 123. Mental foramen is located near: B. Anterior inferior cerebellar artery A. First premolar of mandible C. Superior vestibular nerve B. Second molar of mandible D. Cochlear nerve C. Canine of mandible D. Canine of maxilla Key: B Key: A 116. Dorello’s canal transmits: A. Middle meningeal artery 124. Which nerve is in close relation with root of the lower third molar: B. Mandibular nerve A. Inferior alveolar nerve C. Superior alveolar branch of maxillary B. Chorda tympani nerve D. Abducent nerve C. Lingual nerve D. Mylohyoid nerve Key: Key: C 117. Cranial nerve related to apex of the petrous temporal bone: A. IX 125. Mobile bone of skull: B. VIII A. Maxilla C. VII B. Mandible D. VI C. Ethmoid D. Sphenoid Key: D, Apex of petrous temporal bone is related to cranial nerve V and VI. Key: B

118. All is true for Sternberg canal EXCEPT: 126. NOT a relation of sphenoid sinus:

A. Optic nerve B. Mandibular nerve 135. Skin over angle of mandible is supplied by: C. Maxillary nerve A. Posterior primary rami of C-2,3 D. Vidian nerve B. Greater auricular nerve C. Maxillary nerve Key: B D. Mandibular nerve

127. Chassaignac tubercle is: Key: B A. Erb’s point B. Carotid tubercle on C6 vertebra 136. Meckel’s cave is related to: C. Found on first rib A. Submandibular ganglion D. Medial condyle of humerus B. Trigeminal ganglion C. Otic ganglion Key: B D. Pterygopalatine ganglion

128. Which is NOT true about mandible: Key: B, Meckel’s cave is a recess of the dura mater present in A. From second pharyngeal arch relation to the attached outer margin of the tentorium cerebelli. B. Body and ramus are its two parts C. Strongest bone of skull 137. Branch of anterior division of mandibular nerve: D. Has 16 sockets for teeth A. Meningeal B. Masseteric Key: A C. Auriculotemporal D. Lingual 129. Nervus spinosus is a branch of which of the following: A. Maxillary nerve Key: B B. Mandibular nerve C. Facial nerve 138. Which of the following is NOT supplied by the anterior division of D. Nerve of pterygoid canal mandibular nerve: A. Temporalis Key: B B. Medial pterygoid C. Lateral pterygoid 130. Post superior alveolar nerve is a branch of: D. Masseter A. Mandibular B. Facial Key: B C. Lingual D. Maxillary 139. Facial nerve has all the following neural columns EXCEPT: A. GVE Key: D B. SVE C. SVA 131. Middle superior alveolar nerve is: D. SSA A. Palatal branch of maxillary nerve B. Nasal branch of maxillary nerve Key: D, SSA (Special somatic afferent) neural column carries C. Branch of mandibular nerve special peripheral sensations like smell, vison, hearing and balance, D. Branch of inferior alveolar nerve by cranial nerves 1, 2 & 8.

Key: A 140. All is true about facial colliculus EXCEPT: A. Raised by axons of facial nerve internal genu 132. Finding of trigeminal nerve injury include: B. Abducent nucleus lies deep to it A. Loss of blinking reflex of eye C. Located at the floor of fourth ventricle B. Loss of jaw reflex D. Present on the dorsal aspect of upper pons C. Weakness of muscle of mastication D. All of the above Key: D

Key: D 141. Lacrimation is lost in lesion of: A. Nasociliary nerve 133. Middle superior alveolar nerve is a branch of: B. Greater petrosal nerve A. Mandibular division of trigeminal nerve C. Anterior ethmoidal nerve B. Palatine division of maxillary nerve D. Supraorbital nerve C. Anterior nasal division of maxillary nerve D. Infraorbital branch of maxillary nerve Key: B

Key: D 142. Following statements concerning chorda tympani nerve are true EXCEPT: 134. All are true for trigeminal nerve EXCEPT: A. Is a branch of facial nerve A. Carries sensation from face B. Carries secretomotor fibres to submandibular gland B. Three sensory nuclei C. Joins lingual nerve in the infratemporal fossa C. Two motor nuclei D. Carries post-ganglionic parasympathetic fibres D. Maxillary nerve is a branch Key: D Key: C

143. A patient with crocodile tears syndrome has spontaneous B. Zygomaticus lacrimation during eating due to misdirection of regenerating C. Auricular muscles autonomic nerve fibers. The lesion is located at: D. All of the above A. Facial nerve proximal to the geniculate ganglion B. Chorda tympani in the infratemporal fossa Key: D C. Facial nerve at the stylomastoid foramen D. Lacrimal nerve 152. A patient presents with hyperacusis, loss of lacrimation and loss of taste sensation in the anterior 2/3rd of the tongue. Inflammation Key: A extends up to which level of facial nerve A. Vertical part 144. Vidian nerve passes through B. Vertical part proximal to nerve to stapedius A. Inferior orbital fissure C. Vertical part and beyond nerve to stapedius B. Foramen lacerum D. Proximal to geniculate ganglion C. Tympano-mastoid fissure D. Pterygoid canal Key: D

Key: D 153. Which of the following is NOT supplied by secretomotor fibre of facial nerve: 145. In the fracture of middle cranial fossa, lacrimation is affected in A. Lacrimal gland injury of B. Parotid gland A. Nasociliary nerve C. Submandibular gland B. Greater petrosal nerve D. Nasal gland C. Lesser petrosal nerve D. Auriculotemporal nerve Key: B

Key: B 154. Facial nerve stimulation during testing of nerve indicated by contraction of muscle: 146. Schirmer’s test evaluates the function of: A. Temporalis A. Greater petrosal nerve B. Masseter B. Lesser petrosal nerve C. Sternocleidomastoid C. Chorda tympani nerve D. Orbicularis oris D. Auriculotemporal nerve Key: D Key: 155. Sensory fibres from the taste buds in the hard and soft palate travel 147. Nerve to pterygoid canal is formed from: along: A. Deep petrosal nerve + greater petrosal nerve A. Trigeminal nerve B. Facial nerve B. Facial nerve C. Lesser superficial petrosal nerve C. Glossopharyngeal nerve D. Lesser petrosal nerve D. Vagus nerve

Key: A Key: B

148. Left sided upper motor neuron lesion of facial nerve paralyzes 156. Nerve of Wrisberg contain: A. Right half of the face A. Sensory fibers B. Left half of the face B. Secretory fibers C. Right upper half of the face C. Parasympathetic fibers D. Right lower half of the face D. All of the above

Key: D Key:

149. Branch of facial nerve in facial canal: 157. Arterial supply of facial nerve is/are: A. Greater petrosal nerve A. Ascending pharyngeal artery B. Chorda tympani B. Middle meningeal artery C. Nerve to stapedius C. Stylomastoid branch of occipital artery D. All of the above D. All of the above

Key: D Key: D

150. All the following muscles are innervated by the facial nerve 158. Galen’s anastomosis is between: EXCEPT: A. Recurrent laryngeal nerve and external laryngeal nerve A. Occipitofrontalis B. Recurrent laryngeal nerve and internal laryngeal nerve B. Anterior belly of digastric C. Internal laryngeal nerve and external laryngeal nerve C. Risorius D. None of the above D. Procerus Key: B Key: B 159. All of the following statements about the vagus nerve are true 151. Facial nerve supplies: EXCEPT: A. Risorius A. Supplies heart and lung

B. Carries postganglionic parasympathetic fibers C. Cricothyroid C. Innervates right two third of transverse colon D. Stylohyoid D. Stimulates peristalsis and relaxes sphincters Key: A Key: B 168. Superior cervical ganglia gives gray rami communicates to: 160. NOT supplied by cranial part of accessory nerve: A. C1-C4 A. Stylopharyngeus B. C5-C6 B. Palatopharyngeus C. C7-C8 C. Cricopharyngeus D. None D. Salpingopharyngeus Key: A Key: A 169. Parasympathetic fibres to eye come via: 161. Choose the INCORRECT statement concerning pharyngeal plexus: A. Ciliary ganglion A. Receives contributions from vagus nerve carrying cranial B. Geniculate ganglion B. accessory nerve component C. Sphenopalatine ganglion C. Supplies all pharyngeal muscles except Stylopharyngeus D. Superior cervical ganglion D. Supplies tensor tympani Key: A Key: C 170. The nerve supplying submandibular gland is: 162. Muscles spared by complete transection of cranial part of accessory A. V nerve: B. IX A. Cricopharyngeus C. VII B. Palatopharyngeus D. XII C. Stylopharyngeus D. Salpingopharyngeus Key: C

Key: C 171. Pterygopalatine ganglion supplies A. Parotid gland 163. Cranial part accessory nerve supplies all palatal muscles EXCEPT: B. Submandibular gland A. Palatoglossus C. Lacrimal gland B. Palatopharyngeus D. Sublingual C. Tensor veli palati D. Levator palati Key: C

Key: C 172. Greater petrosal nerve is formed from: A. Geniculate ganglion 164. Palsy of right genioglossus causes B. Plexus around ICA A. Deviation of tongue to right C. Plexus around middle meningeal artery B. Deviation of tongue to left D. None of the above C. Deviation of soft palate to right D. Deviation of soft palate to left Key: A

Key: A 173. Deep petrosal nerve is formed from: A. Sympathetic plexus around carotid artery 165. In complete unilateral damage to Hypoglossal nerve, all are true B. Facial nerve EXCEPT: C. Glossopharyngeal A. Tongue atrophy on affected side D. Internal carotid plexus B. Deviation of tongue towards the site of lesion C. Deviation of Larynx to the contralateral side during Key: D swallowing D. Loss of tactile sensation on affected side 174. Otic ganglion is anatomically related to: A. Glossopharyngeal nerve B. Mandibular nerve Key: D C. Vagus nerve D. Trochlear nerve

166. All are supplied by ansa cervicalis EXCEPT: Key: B A. Thyrohyoid B. Sternothyroid 175. Sympathetic root of otic ganglion: C. Sternohyoid A. Plexus around internal carotid artery D. Inferior belly of omohyoid B. Plexus around facial artery C. Plexus around ophthalmic artery Key: A D. Plexus around middle meningeal artery

167. Ansa cervicalis supplies: Key: D A. Sternohyoid B. Mylohyoid 176. Lesser petrosal nerve derives preganglionic fibers from:

A. Tympanic nerve C. Glossopharyngeal B. Cochlear nerve D. Abducent C. Nervus intermedius D. Chorda tympani Key: C

Key: A 185. A 52-year-old diabetic male presents with fever, headache and right eyelid pain. Examination reveals vesicles in upper eye lid, forehead 177. Lacrimal gland supplied by: and nose on the right side of face consistent with herpes zoster. A. Greater petrosal nerve Which of the following nerves is likely involved: B. Lesser petrosal nerve A. Supraorbital nerve C. Nasociliary nerve B. Supratrochlear nerve D. Supraorbital nerve C. Lacrimal nerve D. Ophthalmic nerve Key: A Key: D

178. Proprioceptive impulses for masseter reflex are carried to which 186. Which of the following clinical finding is not seen in lesions of nucleus of trigeminal nerve: structures passing through jugular foramen: A. Mesencephalic A. Palatal paralysis B. Sensory B. Difficulty in shrugging of shoulder C. Motor C. Loss of sensation from the floor of mouth D. Spinal D. Loss of taste sensation in posterior 1/3rd of tongue

Key: A Key: C

179. Which of the following reflexes test the integrity of nucleus 187. Skin at the angle of jaw is supplied by: ambiguus: A. Mandibular branch of trigeminal A. Jaw jerk B. Maxillary branch of trigeminal B. Stapedial reflex C. Lesser occipital C. Gag reflex D. Greater auricular D. Corneal reflex Key: D Key: C 188. Deep injury of neck always involves: 180. Afferent component in corneal reflex is mediated by: A. Platysma A. Optic nerve B. Trapezius B. Ophthalmic nerve C. Sternocleidomastoid C. Facial nerve D. Longus colli D. Oculomotor nerve Key: A Key: B 189. FALSE about scalenus anterior muscle: 181. Which is the nucleus of masseteric reflex? A. Covered by prevertebral fascia A. Superior sensory nucleus of trigeminal nerve B. Related anteriorly to phrenic nerve B. Spinal nucleus of trigeminal nerve C. Inserts in inner part of 1st rib C. Mesencephalic nucleus of trigeminal nerve D. Forms floor of posterior triangle D. Dorsal nucleus of vagus nerve Key: D Key: C 190. True statement is: 182. Centre for Stapedial reflex: A. Buccinator is a muscle of mastication A. Superior olivary complex B. Digastric is an elevator of mandible B. Lateral lemniscus C. Omohyoid is a suprahyoid muscle C. Inferior colliculus D. Oral diaphragm is formed by mylohyoid muscle D. Medial geniculate body Key: D Key: A 191. Which of the following is NOT supplied by the anterior division of mandibular nerve: 183. Lacrimation is affected in injury of A. Temporalis A. Nasociliary nerve B. Masseter B. Greater petrosal nerve C. Lateral pterygoid C. Lesser petrosal nerve D. Medial pterygoid D. Auriculotemporal nerve Key: D Key: B 192. Which suprahyoid muscle is supplied by both facial nerve and 184. Which nerve is responsible for referred pain in ear? mandibular nerve? A. Trochlear A. Stylohyoid B. Olfactory B. Thyrohyoid

C. Digastric D. Stylohyoid 201. Which of the following is NOT a branch of first part of maxillary artery: Key: C A. Greater palatine artery B. Middle meningeal artery 193. False about sternocleidomastoid: C. Deep auricular artery A. Arises from and clavicle D. Inferior alveolar artery B. Inserts on mastoid process C. Motor supply by spinal accessory nerve Key: A D. Tilt the head to opposite side 202. Posterior superior alveolar artery is a branch of: Key: D A. Nasal branch of maxillary artery B. Palatal branch of maxillary artery 194. To give inferior alveolar nerve block the nerve is approached lateral C. Mandibular artery to petrygomandibular raphe between the buccinator and: D. Inferior alveolar artery A. Temporalis B. Superior constrictor Key: B C. Middle constrictor D. Medial pterygoid 203. In subclavian steal syndrome there is reversal of blood flow in: A. Ipsilateral vertebral artery Key: B B. Contralateral vertebral artery C. Ipsilateral subclavian artery 195. Thyrocervical trunk is branch of which part of subclavian artery: D. Contralateral subclavian artery A. 1st B. 2nd Key: A C. 3rd D. None 204. First branch of external carotid artery: A. Superior thyroid artery Key: A B. Inferior thyroid artery C. Ascending pharyngeal artery 196. Vertebral artery passes through foramen of transverse processes of: D. Thyroid ima artery A. All B. 2nd to 5th cervical vertebrae Key: A, Superior thyroid artery > Ascending pharyngeal artery C. All except 1st cervical vertebra D. All except 7th cervical vertebra 205. Common carotid artery divides at the level of: A. Key: D B. Cricoid cartilage C. Superior border of thyroid cartilage 197. Vertebral artery traverses all of the following EXCEPT: D. Inferior border of thyroid cartilage A. Foramen magnum B. Subarachnoid space Key: C C. Intervertebral foramen D. Foramen transversarium 206. Middle meningeal artery is direct branch of: A. External carotid artery Key: C B. Internal maxillary artery C. Superficial temporal artery 198. Wrong statement about branches of external carotid artery is: D. Middle cerebral artery A. Anterior ethmoidal artery is a branch B. Maxillary artery is a terminal branch Key: B C. Ascending pharyngeal artery is a medial branch D. Superior thyroid artery is the first branch 207. Most common site of subclavian artery stenosis is in part: A. 1st Key: A B. 2nd C. 3rd 199. Inferior thyroid artery arises from which of these vessels: D. Terminal A. Thyrocervical trunk B. Brachiocephalic trunk Key: A C. Internal carotid artery D. External carotid artery 208. Sternocleidomastoid is NOT supplied by the artery: A. Superior thyroid Key: A B. Thyrocervical trunk C. Occipital 200. Exposure of left subclavian artery by supraclavicular approach does D. Posterior auricular artery not require cutting of: A. Sternocleidomastoid Key: D B. Scalenus anterior C. Scalenus medius 209. Which structure can be felt at the lower part of the medial border of D. Omohyoid sternocleidomastoid? A. Subclavian artery Key: C B. Common carotid artery

C. Internal mammary artery D. Maxillary artery 218. Paralysis of 3rd, 4th, 6th nerves with involvement of ophthalmic division of 5th nerve, localizes the lesion to: Key: B A. Cavernous sinus B. Apex of orbit 210. All of the following are branches of the external carotid artery C. Brainstem EXCEPT: D. Base of skull A. Superior thyroid artery B. Transverse cervical artery Key: A C. Lingual artery D. Ascending pharyngeal artery 219. Two internal cerebral veins unite to form: A. Middle cerebral vein Key: B B. Anterior cerebral vein C. Great cerebral vein 211. Dura is supplied by all cranial nerves EXCEPT: D. Inferior cerebral vein A. 12 B. 10 Key: C C. 5 D. 4 220. Vein of Galen drains into: A. Internal jugular vein Key: D B. External jugular vein C. Straight sinus 212. Middle cranial fossa is supplied by: D. Superior sagittal sinus A. Maxillary nerve B. Mandibular nerve Key: C C. Anterior ethmoidal nerve D. A and B both 221. Deep venous system of brain consists of: A. Internal cerebral vein Key: D B. Great cerebral vein C. Basal veins and Straight sinus 213. True about Falx cerebri: D. All of the above A. Separates cerebellum from occipital lobe B. Contains straight sinus Key: D C. Separates two cerebellar hemisphere D. Contains occipital sinus 222. Superior cerebral veins drains into: A. Great cerebral vein Key: B B. Vein of Galen C. Superior sagittal sinus 214. All are paired venous sinuses EXCEPT: D. Inferior sagittal sinus A. Superior petrosal B. Inferior petrosal Key: C C. Superior sagittal D. Transverse 223. Falx cerebri contains: A. Occipital sinus Key: C B. Straight sinus C. Superior petrosal sinus 215. Which of the following are draining channels of cavernous sinus: D. Transverse sinus A. Inferior petrosal sinus B. Inferior ophthalmic vein Key: B C. Sphenoparietal sinus D. Middle cerebral vein 224. All are true about diploic veins EXCEPT: E. Superior ophthalmic vein A. Lined by single layer endothelium supported by elastic tissue B. Present in cranial bones Key: A, Inferior petrosal sinus > Superior ophthalmic vein C. Valveless D. Develop by 8th week of IUL 216. Tributaries of cavernous sinus are all EXCEPT A. Inferior cerebral vein Key: D B. Central vein of retina C. Sphenoparietal sinus 225. All of the following statements are true regarding cavernous sinus D. Superior cerebral vein thrombosis EXCEPT: A. Loss of jaw jerk Key: D B. Inferior ophthalmic vein can spread infection from dangerous area of face 217. Which of the following is NOT a tributary of the cavernous sinus: C. Ethmoidal sinusitis is the most common cause A. Superficial middle cerebral vein D. Loss of sensation around the eye B. Superior petrosal sinus C. Inferior petrosal sinus Key: A D. Deep middle cerebral vein 226. Which is NOT true about cranial duramater: Key: D A. It has periosteal an meningeal layers

B. It is supplied by 5th cranial nerve A. Cavernous sinus C. It is the outermost meningeal layer B. Superior sagittal sinus D. Dural venous sinuses are present inner to the meningeal layer C. Inferior sagittal sinus D. Central sinus Key: D Key: A 227. All of the following are true about diploic vein EXCEPT: A. Lined by single layer of endothelium supported by elastic 235. NOT true about facial vein is tissue A. Drains in external jugular vein B. Present in cranial bones B. Largest vein of face C. Valveless and thin walled C. Formed from angular vein D. Develop by 8th week of IUL D. Has no valves

Key: D Key: A

228. Among the following, content of cavernous sinus is: 236. Septic emboli in facial vein can cause cavernous sinus thrombosis A. Maxillary division of trigeminal nerve because facial vein makes clinically important connections with the B. Ophthalmic division of trigeminal nerve cavernous sinus. The most commonly involved communicating C. Trochlear nerve vein is: D. Internal carotid artery A. Superior ophthalmic B. Deep facial Key: D C. Inferior ophthalmic D. Pterygoid plexus of veins 229. Which of the following is a direct content of cavernous sinus: A. Oculomotor nerve Key: A B. Trochlear nerve C. Maxillary branch of trigeminal 237. True regarding surface anatomy of internal jugular vein: D. Abducent nerve A. Line passing from ear lobule to midpoint of clavicle B. Line passing from ear lobule to medial end of clavicle Key: D C. Line joining ear lobule to lateral end of clavicle D. Line joining mastoid process to midpoint of clavicle 230. All are features of cavernous sinus thrombosis EXCEPT: A. Papilloedema Key: B B. Proptosis C. Sensory deficit on face due to involvement of three branches of trigeminal nerve 238. Submental lymph node of drainage by all EXCEPT: D. External ophthalmoplegia due to compression of three motor A. Anterior palate nerves to eyeball muscles B. Tip of tongue C. Floor of mouth Key: C D. Lower lip

231. Which of these is NOT a tributary of cavernous sinus: Key: A A. Sphenoparietal sinus B. Superior petrosal sinus 239. Lymphatic drainage of anterior part of nose is to which lymph C. Superficial middle cerebral vein node: D. Inferior ophthalmic vein A. Submandibular LN B. Parotid Key: B C. Pretracheal LN D. Retropharyngeal LN 232. Following are tributaries of cavernous sinus EXCEPT: A. Superior ophthalmic vein Key: A B. Central vein of retina C. Great cerebral vein 240. NOT true about deep cervical lymph nodes: D. Inferior ophthalmic vein A. Lie along external jugular vein B. Tonsil is drained by jugulodigastric nodes Key: C C. Lie deep to sternocleidomastoid D. Tongue drains into juguloomohyoid nodes 233. Which of the following is a tributary as well as drainage channel to cavernous sinus Key: A A. Superior ophthalmic vein B. Inferior ophthalmic vein 241. Waldeyer’s ring consists of all of the following EXCEPT: C. Spheno-parietal sinus A. Palatine tonsils D. Superficial middle meningeal vein B. Pharyngeal tonsils C. Tubal tonsils Key: A D. Postauricular nodes

Key: D

242. A midline cleft lip is due to the failure of fusion between: 234. Angular vein communicates with: A. Maxillary processes

B. Medial nasal processes C. Medial and lateral nasal process 251. Nerve supply of scalp: D. Medial nasal and maxillary process. A. Auriculotemporal nerve B. Zygomatic & Occipital nerve Key: B C. Supratrochlear nerve D. All of the above 243. Facial development takes place between: A. 4–8 week Key: D B. 8–10 week C. 12–14 week 252. The lymphatic drainage in central part of the lip is: D. 18–20 week A. Sub mandibular B. Sub mental nodes Key: A C. Deep cervical nodes D. Jugulodigastric nodes 244. Which of the following is NOT a branch of facial artery: A. Superior labial Key: B B. Inferior labial C. Lateral nasal 253. Structure NOT enclosed by carotid sheath: D. Sublingual A. Internal carotid artery B. Vagus Key: D C. Cervical sympathetic chain D. Internal jugular vein 245. Which artery is palpated at the anterior border of masseter? A. Superficial temporal Key: C B. Occipital C. Facial 254. Fascia around nerve bundle of brachial plexus is derived from: D. External carotid A. Prevertebral fascia B. Deep cervical fascia Key: C C. Clavipectoral fascia D. Pectoral fascia 246. A patient has loss of sensation at angle of jaw and parotid area. Which of the following nerve is most likely to be injured? Key: A A. Mandibular nerve B. Auriculotemporal nerve 255. All is true about cervical fascia EXCEPT: C. Lesser occipital nerve A. Ligament of Berry fixes thyroid gland to cricoid cartilage D. Greater auricular nerve B. Prevertebral fascia forms the roof of posterior triangle C. Ansa cervicalis is embedded in the anterior wall of carotid Key: D sheath D. Carotid sheath is formed by pretracheal and Prevertebral 247. Nerve supply of tip of nose: fascia A. External nasal branch of ophthalmic nerve B. Inferior orbital nerve Key: B C. Buccal branch of mandibular nerve D. Orbital branch of maxillary nerve 256. All are contents of occipital triangle EXCEPT: Key: A A. Great auricular nerve B. Suprascapular nerve 248. All the muscles of the face are supplied by facial nerve EXCEPT C. Lesser occipital nerve A. Levator anguli oris D. Occipital artery B. Corrugator supercilli C. Levator palpebrae superioris Key: B D. Risorius 257. On both sides submental triangle is bounded by: Key: C A. Hyoid bone B. Anterior digastric 249. Tissue expander in scalp is placed between: C. Posterior digastric A. Skin and galea aponeurotica D. Mylohyoid B. Subcutaneous tissue and loose areolar connective tissue C. Aponeurosis and periosteum Key: B D. Areolar tissue and bone 258. Structure superficial to mylohyoid in anterior digastric triangle are Key: C all EXCEPT: A. Deep part of submandibular gland 250. Nerve supply to platysma is B. Hypoglossal nerve A. Ansa cervicalis C. Part of parotid gland B. Cervical branch of facial nerve D. Mylohyoid artery and nerve C. Marginal mandibular branch of facial nerve D. Mandibular nerve Key: D

Key: B 259. All of the following are in the anterior triangle of neck EXCEPT:

A. Digastric D. Odontoid process B. Subclavian C. Muscular Key: A D. Submental E. Carotid 267. All of the following are true about Scalenus anterior muscle A. It is attached to the scalene tubercle of second rib Key: B B. It is anterior to the transverse cervical artery C. It is pierced by the phrenic nerve 260. All is true about digastric triangle EXCEPT: D. It separates the subclavian vein from the subclavian artery A. On either side is anterior belly of digastric muscle B. Floor is formed by mylohyoid muscle Key: A C. Floor is formed by hyoglossus muscle D. Contains mylohyoid nerve and vessels 268. The taste pathway from circumvallate papillae of the tongue goes through: Key: A A. Chorda tympani branch of Facial nerve B. Greater petrosal nerve branch of Facial nerve 261. All the following are contents of sub occipital triangle EXCEPT: C. Superior laryngeal branch of Vagus nerve A. Vertebral artery D. Lingual branch of Glossopharyngeal nerve B. Dorsal ramus of CI nerve C. Sub occipital plexus of vein Key: D D. Occipital artery 269. Protrusion of tongue NOT possible in damage of: Key: D A. Styloglossus B. Hyoglossus 262. If there is a superficial cut in the region of middle part of posterior C. Palatoglossus triangle of neck, patient will experience problem in: D. Genioglossus A. Adduction of B. Protraction of scapula Key: D C. Shrugging of shoulder D. Overhead abduction of arm 270. Taste sensations from anterior 2/3rd of tongue are carried by: A. Glossopharyngeal Key: C, Shrugging of shoulder > Overhead abduction of arm B. Chorda tympani C. Trigeminal 263. A 46-year-old woman came with a large abscess in the middle of D. Greater auricular the right posterior triangle of the neck. The physician incised and drained the abscess. Five days later the patient noticed that she Key: B could not extend her right above her head to brush her hair. Which of the following are the signs and symptoms of additional 271. Tip of tongue drains lymphatics into: harm A. Occipital lymph node A. Damage to scalenus medius B. Submental lymph node B. Injury to suprascapular nerve C. Deep cervical lymph nodes C. Cut to spinal part of accessory nerve D. Tonsiliar lymph nodes D. Spread of infection to shoulder joint Key: B Key: C 272. Anterior 2/3rd of the tongue is demarcated by: 264. After surgery on right side of neck, a person could not raise his arm A. Passavant ridge above head and also could not shrug the shoulder. What is the B. Circumvallate papillae possible cause? C. Sulcus terminalis A. Damage to spinal accessory nerve D. Filiform papillae B. Paralysis of trapezius muscle C. Injury to axillary nerve Key: C D. Paralysis of deltoid muscle 273. Dental papilla give rise in: Key: A A. Enamel B. Dental cuticle 265. After surgery on right side of neck, a person could not raise his arm C. Tooth pulp above head and also could not shrug the shoulder. What is the D. None possible cause? A. Paralysis of trapezius muscle Key: C B. Paralysis of latissimus dorsi C. Paralysis of deltoid muscle 274. Neural crest cells give rise to all the dental structures EXCEPT: D. All of the above A. Odontoblasts B. Dentine Key: A C. Enamel D. Tooth pulp 266. Chassaignac tubercle lies at level of: A. Erb’s point Key: C B. Stellate ganglion C. Atlas 275. Middle superior alveolar nerve is a branch of:

A. Mandibular nerve A. Submandibular gland B. Maxillary nerve B. Lingual gland C. Lingual nerve C. Parotid gland D. Facial nerve D. All three

Key: C Key: B 284. Preganglionic fibres to the submandibular ganglion arise from: 276. Lesser petrosal nerve derives preganglionic fibers from: A. Superior salivatory nucleus A. Tympanic nerve B. Inferior salivatory nucleus B. Cochlear nerve C. Nucleus of tractus solitarius C. Nervus intermedius D. Nucleus ambiguous D. Chorda tympani Key: A Key: A 285. Lobes of submandibular gland are divided by which muscle? 277. Parasympathetic secretomotor fibers to parotid come from all A. Mylohyoid EXCEPT B. Genioglossus A. Otic ganglion C. Stylohyoid B. Greater petrosal nerve D. Styloglossus C. Auriculotemporal nerve D. Tympanic plexus Key: A

Key: B 286. Nerve which loops around submandibular duct? A. Mandibular nerve 278. Incorrect regarding location of otic ganglion is: B. Lingual nerve A. Anterior to middle meningeal artery C. Hypoglossal nerve B. Lateral to tensor veli palatini D. Recurrent laryngeal nerve C. Lateral to mandibular nerve D. Inferior to foramen ovale Key: B

Key: C 287. Structures NOT injured in submandibular gland excision: A. Inferior alveolar nerve 279. After removal of the parotid gland, patient is having sweating on B. Lingual nerve cheeks while eating. Auriculotemporal nerve which contains C. Hypoglossal nerve parasympathetic secretomotor fibers to parotid gland have D. Marginal mandibular branch of facial nerve reinnervated which nerve? A. Facial Key: A B. Glossopharyngeal C. Buccal 288. Which one of the following is the CORRECT statement during D. Greater auricular operation on the submandibular gland? A. The submandibular gland is seen to wrap around the posterior Key: C border of mylohyoid. B. The facial artery and vein are divided as they course through 280. Parotid duct opens: the deep part of the gland. A. Opposite 1st molar C. The hypoglossal nerve is seen to loop under the B. Opposite 2nd molar submandibular duct C. Into the papilla D. Damage to the lingual nerve will cause loss of sensation to the D. Opposite incisor posterior third of the tongue

Key: B Key: A

281. True about parotid gland: 289. All are true about palatine tonsil EXCEPT: A. Enclosed by deep cervical fascia of neck A. Develop from 2nd pharyngeal pouch B. Related to retromandibular vein B. Irritation cause referred pain in ear via auricular branch of C. Related to facial nerve vagus D. Parotid lymph node lies behind the gland C. Mainly supplied by facial artery D. Situated in the lateral wall of the oropharynx Key: A E. Lymphatics pass to jugulo omohyoid node

282. True regarding parotid gland is all EXCEPT Key: B A. Accessory parotid glands is above parotid duct B. Mandible ramus grooves anteromedial surface 290. The palatine tonsil receives its arterial supply from all of the C. Auriculo temporal nerve superiorly and great auricular nerve following EXCEPT: laterally A. Facial D. Pharynx examination is unnecessary B. Ascending palatine C. Sphenopalatine Key: D D. Dorsal lingual

283. Otic ganglion supplies: Key: C

B. C3 291. All are true about adenoids EXCEPT C. C4 A. Physiological growth up to 6 years D. C6 B. Crypta magna present C. Present in nasopharynx Key: D D. Supplied by facial artery 300. Which of the following structures is seen in oropharynx? Key: B A. Pharyngotympanic tube B. Fossa of Rosenmuller 292. Plica triangularis is present in: C. Palatine tonsil A. Antero inferior part of tonsil D. Piriform fossa B. Dorsum of tongue C. Inlet of larynx Key: C D. None 301. Which of the following part is NOT included in hypopharynx? Key: A A. Pyriform sinus B. Post cricoid region 293. Bed of tonsil is formed by: C. Anterior pharyngeal wall A. Superior constrictor D. Posterior pharyngeal wall B. Middle constrictor C. Inferior constrictor Key: C D. Platysma 302. Killian dehiscence is in: Key: A A. Superior constrictor B. Inferior constrictor 294. Sensory supply to tonsil is by which nerve? C. Middle constrictor A. Greater palatine nerve D. None B. Lesser palatine nerve C. Vagus Key: B D. Glossopharyngeal nerve 303. Location of pyriformis fossa: Key: D A. Nasopharynx B. Oropharynx 295. The sensory supply of the palate is through all of the following C. Laryngeal part of pharynx EXCEPT: D. None A. Facial nerve B. Hypoglossal nerve Key: C C. Glossopharyngeal nerve D. Vagus nerve 304. Passavant ridge is formed by: A. Tensor veli palati and superior constrictor Key: B B. Palatopharyngeus and superior constrictor C. Palatopharyngeus and inferior constrictor 296. Sensory fibers from the taste buds in the hard and soft palate travel D. Palatoglossus and superior constrictor along: A. Trigeminal nerve Key: B B. Facial nerve C. Glossopharyngeal nerve 305. Sinus of Morgagni is between: D. Vagus nerve A. Middle constrictor and inferior constrictor B. Middle constrictor and superior constrictor Key: B C. Superior constrictor and skull D. None of the above 297. Soft palate is supplied by: A. Cranial accessory Key: C B. Trigeminal C. Abducent 306. Eustachian tube passes between: D. None A. Superior and middle constrictors B. Above superior constrictor Key: A C. Middle and inferior constrictor D. Below inferior constrictor 298. Which of the following does NOT supply the palate? A. Tonsillar branch of facial artery Key: B B. Ascending palatine artery C. Descending palatine artery 307. Which of the following passes between base of the skull and D. Ascending pharyngeal artery superior constrictor muscle? A. Eustachian tube, levator palatini muscle, ascending palatine Key: A artery B. Maxillary nerve and levator palatine muscle C. Eustachian tube and stylopharyngeus muscle 299. Lower border of pharynx is the level of: D. Ascending palatine artery and glossopharyngeal nerve A. C2

Key: A B. 22.5 cm C. 27.5 cm 308. Rouviere’s nodes are situated in: D. 37.5 cm A. Nasopharynx B. Oral cavity Key: D C. Retropharynx D. Clavicular nodes 317. Larynx extends from: Key: C A. C2-C7 B. C1-C4 309. Eustachian tube opens: C. C5-C6 A. Above superior turbinate D. C3-C6 B. Behind posterior end of inferior turbinate C. Anterior to inferior turbinate Key: D D. Between superior and middle turbinate 318. Function of larynx: Key: B A. Speech B. Protection of airway 310. Gerlach tonsil is: C. Conduit of air A. Palatine tonsil D. All above B. Lingual tonsil C. Tubal tonsil Key: D D. Nasopharyngeal tonsil 319. Anterior posterior diameter of vocal cords in both males and Key: C females is: A. 24 and 36 mm 311. What is present in the retropharyngeal space of Gillette? B. 36 and 48 mm A. Platysma C. 23 and 17 mm B. Loose areolar tissue and lymph nodes D. 48 and 36 mm C. Vertebrae D. Hypoglossal nerve Key: C

Key: B 320. Paired laryngeal cartilage(s) is/are: A. Arytenoid 312. What is the arterial supply of the thoracic esophagus? B. Corniculate A. Inferior thyroid artery C. Cuneiform B. Inferior phrenic artery D. All of the above C. Bronchial artery D. Left gastric artery Key: D

Key: C 321. Which of the following forms complete ring? A. Thyroid cartilage 313. Venous drainage of esophagus: B. Cricoid A. Azygos vein, inferior thyroid vein, right gastric vein C. Cuneiform cartilage B. Azygos vein, inferior thyroid vein, left gastric vein D. Epiglottis C. Azygos vein, right gastric vein, left gastric vein D. Superior thyroid vein, inferior thyroid vein, azygos vein, Key: B hemiazygos vein 322. Which laryngeal cartilage is NOT elastic? Key: B A. Epiglottis B. Corniculate 314. Extent of esophagus is: C. Cuneiform A. C3- C6 D. Thyroid B. C6-T11 C. T10-T12 Key: D D. None 323. All of the following ligaments are components of external laryngeal Key: B membrane EXCEPT: A. Cricothyroid 315. Second constriction in esophagus is seen at the following site B. Thyrohyoid A. Where it crosses left main bronchus C. Cricotracheal B. Crossing of aorta D. Hyoepiglottic C. At pharyngoesophageal junction D. Where it pierces the diaphragm Key: A

Key: B 324. False about larynx: A. 9 cartilages: 3 paired and 3 unpaired cartilages 316. Distance of the lower esophageal sphincter from the upper incisors B. Extends from C3 to C6 vertebrae is: C. External laryngeal nerve supply all larynx muscles except A. 15 cm cricothyroid

D. Cricothyroid is a tensor of vocal cord Key: D Key: C 333. All of the following are true about the larynx EXCEPT 325. Nerve supply of larynx above level of vocal cord: A. All intrinsic muscles are supplied by the recurrent laryngeal A. Superior laryngeal nerve B. Recurrent laryngeal B. Cricothyroid is supplied by the external laryngeal nerve C. Glossopharyngeal C. Posterior cricoarytenoid abduct the vocal cords D. External laryngeal D. Lymphatic drainage of the larynx is to the deep cervical nodes

Key: A Key: A 326. Damage to the external laryngeal nerve during thyroid surgery could result in the inability to: 334. Length of trachea is: A. Relax the vocal cords A. 8-10 cm B. Tense the vocal cords B. 10-12 cm C. Widen the rima glottidis C. 12-15 cm D. Abduct the vocal cords D. 15 cm

Key: B Key: B

327. Wrong pair of matching regarding the muscles working on vocal 335. Tracheal bifurcation is at: cords A. Upper border of T4 A. Thyroarytenoid: Relaxor B. Lower border of T4 B. Lateral cricoarytenoid: Adductor C. Upper border of T5 C. Posterior cricoarytenoid: Abductor D. Lower border of T5 D. Cricothyroid: Tensor Key: C Key: A 336. At what level does the trachea bifurcates? 328. Which of the following doesn’t elevate the larynx? A. Upper border of T4 A. Sternohyoid B. Lower border of T4 B. Thyrohyoid C. 27.5 cm from the incisors C. Mylohyoid D. Lower border of T5 D. None Key: B Key: A 337. In emergency tracheostomy the following structures are damaged 329. Internal laryngeal nerve runs along which border of pharyngeal EXCEPT: muscle: A. Isthmus of the thyroid A. Medial B. Inferior thyroid artery B. Lateral C. Thyroidea ima artery C. Superior D. Inferior thyroid vein D. Inferior Key: B Key: C 338. Auricular hillocks develop from pharyngeal arch: 330. Injury of which of these nerve cause vocal cord paralysis? A. 1 A. Recurrent laryngeal B. 2 B. External laryngeal C. 1 and 2 C. Internal laryngeal D. 2 and 3 D. Superior laryngeal Key: C Key: A 339. plate of stapes derived from: 331. The recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies: A. Meckel’s cartilage A. Vocalis muscle & Posterior cricoarytenoid B. Otic capsule B. Cricothyroid & Omohyoid C. Reichert’s cartilage C. Stylopharyngeus D. Hyoid arch D. All of the above Key: C, Reichert’s cartilage > Otic capsule. Key: A 340. Which of the following part of ear is derived from all three germ 332. During a thyroid operation, a nerve coursing along with the layers: superior thyroid artery is injured. What can be the possible A. External auditory canal consequence(s)? B. Ear ossicles A. Loss of sensation above vocal cord C. Tympanic membrane B. Loss of sensation below vocal cord D. Ear muscles C. Paralysis of lateral cricoarytenoid muscle D. Paralysis of cricothyroid muscle Key: C

A. Roof B. Lateral wall 341. Lobule of ear supplied is by: C. Medial wall A. Greater auricular nerve D. Floor B. Auriculotemporal nerve C. Lesser occipital nerve Key: B D. Auricular branch of vagus 350. Opening of Eustachian tube in middle ear: Key: A A. Medial wall B. Lateral wall 342. Cartilagenous part of external auditory canal is C. Anterior wall A. Medial D. Posterior wall B. Lateral 1/3 C. Medial 2/3 Key: C D. Lateral 2/3 351. Which of the following is related to floor of middle ear: Key: B A. Round window B. Internal carotid artery 343. Greater part of the auricle is supplied by: C. Internal jugular vein A. Auriculotemporal nerve D. Tegmen tympani B. Lesser occipital nerve C. Greater auricular nerve Key: C D. Auricular branch of vagus 352. All of the following are true about the middle ear cavity EXCEPT: Key: C A. Roof is formed by tegmen tympani B. Anterior wall has opening of two canals 344. The angle that tympanic membrane makes with the horizontal plane C. Medial wall is formed by tympanic membrane is: D. Floor has bulb of internal jugular vein A. 15° B. 25° Key: C C. 45° D. 55° 353. Promontory seen in the middle ear is: A. Jugular bulge Key: D B. Basal turn of cochlea C. Semicircular canal D. Head of incus 345. Which of the following is a WRONG statement regarding middle ear cavity: Key: B A. Narrowest part is mesotympanum B. Footplate of stapes lies in epitympanum 354. Stapes foot plate covers: C. Chorda tympani is a content of epitympanum A. Round window D. Toynbee’s muscle is a content B. Oval window C. Inferior sinus tympani Key: B D. Pyramid

346. Muscle entering middle ear from pyramid apex is: Key: B A. Stapedius B. Tensor tympani 355. The distance between tympanic membrane an medial wall of C. Tensor palatine middle ear at the level of center is: D. Auricularis A. 3 mm B. 4 mm Key: A C. 6 mm D. 2 mm 347. Superior wall of middle ear is formed by: A. Tympanic membrane Key: D B. Jugular bulb C. Tegmen tympani 356. Distance of tympanic membrane from promontory is: D. None A. 2 mm B. 5 mm Key: C C. 6 mm D. 7 mm 348. Prussak’s space is related to: A. Mesotymapnum Key: A B. Epitympanum C. Hypotympanum 357. Tympanic branch of the middle ear is derived from: D. Inner ear A. Facial nerve B. Glossopharyngeal nerve Key: B C. Nerve to stapedius D. Chorda tympani 349. Scutum is present in middle ear:

Key: B C. Utricle D. Semicircular canal 358. Mastoid antrum is present in which part of temporal bone: A. Tympanic Key: C B. Petrous C. Squamous 367. Horizontal semicircular canal is: D. Mastoid A. Anterior B. Superior Key: B C. Posterior D. Lateral 359. Lateral wall of mastoid antrum is related to: A. Superficial temporal artery Key: D B. External auditory canal C. Emissary vein 368. TRUE about internal ear anatomy: D. Meningeal artery A. Three semicircular canals here 6 opening into the vestibule B. The angle between anterior and posterior SCC is 180° Key: B C. Vestibule is the central chamber D. Spiral canal makes 2 turns 360. Which of the following is the type of joints between ear ossicles A. Primary cartilaginous Key: C B. Secondary cartilaginous C. Synovial 369. Infection of CNS spreads in inner ear through: D. Fibrous A. Cochlear aqueduct B. Endolymphatic sac Key: C C. Vestibular aqueduct D. Hyrtl’s fissure

361. TRUE about pharyngotympanic tube is/are: Key: A A. 36 mm in length B. Tensor veli palati opens it 370. Endolymphatic duct drains into: C. Narrowest diameter is at the isthmus A. Subdural space D. All of the above B. Subarachnoid space C. Extradural space Key: D D. Epidural space

362. Blood supply of the Eustachian tube is by all EXCEPT: Key: A A. Ascending pharyngeal artery B. Middle meningeal artery 371. Osseocartilaginous junction is present at: C. Artery of pterygoid canal A. Nasion D. Facial artery B. Rhinion C. Radix Key: D D. Columella

363. Eustachian tube is supplied by: A. Tympanic plexus Key: B, Rhinion is the soft-tissue correlate of the osseocartilaginous B. Caroticotympanic nerve junction of the nasal dorsum. C. Glossopharyngeal nerve D. All of the above 372. All is true about the openings in the lateral wall of nasal cavity and nasopharynx EXCEPT: Key: D A. Nasolacrimal duct opens in the inferior meatus B. Posterior ethmoidal sinus opens in the superior meatus 364. TRUE about anatomy of eustachian tube: C. Inferior turbinate is a part of ethmoid bone A. Aerate middle ear D. Eustachian tube opens in nasopharynx behind the inferior B. Open during swallowing turbinate C. More horizontal in infant and children D. All of the above Key: C

Key: D 373. TRUE about anatomy of lateral wall of nose: A. Ethmoid bone forms an important part of the lateral wall 365. Inner ear is present in which bone: B. Middle turbinate is formed by medial process of the ethmoidal A. labyrinth B. Petrous part of temporal bone C. Inferior turbinate is a separate bone C. D. All of the above D. Petrous part of squamous bone Key: D Key: B 374. The roof of the olfactory region is formed by: 366. NOT a part of bony labyrinth: A. A. Cochlea B. Cribriform plate of ethmoid B. Vestibule C. Sphenoid

D. Temporal bone 383. Which of the following sinuses open into middle meatus: A. Frontal sinus Key: B B. Anterior ethmoidal sinus C. Maxillary sinus 375. Olfactory region in nose is: D. All of the above A. Below inferior turbinate B. Above superior turbinate Key: D C. Between middle and inferior turbinate D. None 384. Blood supply of little’s area are: A. Greater palatine artery Key: B B. Septal branch of superior artery C. Anterior ethmoidal artery 376. All the following bones contribute to the formation of Nasal septum D. All of the above EXCEPT: A. Sphenoid Key: D B. Lacrimal C. Palatine 385. Little’s area is: D. Ethmoid A. Anteroinferior lateral wall B. Anteroinferior nasal septum Key: B C. Posteroinferior lateral wall D. Posteroinferior nasal septum 377. Bony nasal septum is formed by all EXCEPT A. Vomer Key: B B. Sphenoid C. Ethmoid 386. Onodi cells and Haller cells of ethmoid labyrinth seen in relation to D. Nasal spine of nasal bone following respectively A. Optic nerve and floor of orbit Key: D B. Optic nerve and Internal carotid artery C. Optic nerve and nasolacrimal duct D. Orbital floor and nasolacrimal duct 378. All are part of ethmoid bone EXCEPT: A. Agger nasi Key: B B. Bulla ethmoidalis C. Uncinate process 387. Lamina papyracea separates nose from: D. Inferior turbinate A. Sphenoid bone B. Orbit Key: D C. Frontal bone D. Maxillary sinus 379. Uncinate process arises from: A. Ethmoid bone Key: B B. C. Nasal bone 388. All of the following bones are a part of the floor of the orbit D. Maxilla bone EXCEPT: A. Ethmoid Key: A B. Maxilla C. Palatine 380. Turbinate that articulates with ethmoid bone is: D. Zygomatic A. Superior B. Middle Key: A C. Inferior D. All of the above 389. Maximum contribution to floor of orbit is by: A. Maxilla Key: C B. Sphenoid C. Palatine 381. One of the following opens in the middle meatus of the nose: D. Zygomatic A. Naso-lacrimal duct B. Eustachian tube Key: A C. Sphenoidal air sinus D. Maxillary air sinus 390. Choose the WRONG statement concerning the wall of the orbit: A. Roof: Frontal bone Key: D B. Roof: Greater wing sphenoid C. Medial wall: Ethmoid bone 382. Ethmoidal sinus opens into which of the following: D. Medial wall: Sphenoid bone A. Hiatus B. Middle meatus Key: B C. Superior meatus D. All of the above 391. TRUE statement about orbital articulation is: A. Medial wall of orbit is formed by maxilla, sphenoid, ethmoid Key: D and the lacrimal bone B. Floor is formed by maxilla, zygomatic and ethmoid

C. Lateral wall of orbit is formed by the frontal bone, , and greater wing of sphenoid Key: C D. Inferior orbital fissure is formed between the medial wall and the floor of orbit 400. Crystalline lens develops from: A. Mesoderm B. Endoderm Key: A C. Surface ectoderm D. Neuroectoderm 392. Corneal stroma is derived from: A. Paraxial mesoderm Key: C B. Intermediate mesoderm C. Lateral plate mesoderm 401. The following ocular structure is NOT derived from surface D. Ectoderm ectoderm: A. Crystalline lens Key: D B. Sclera C. Corneal epithelium 393. Ciliaris muscle is derived from: D. Epithelium of lacrimal glands A. Neural crest cells B. Neural plate ectoderm Key: B C. Surface ectoderm D. Mesoderm 402. Optic cup is derived from: A. Neural ectoderm Key: A, Neural crest cells > Mesoderm B. Surface ectoderm C. Mesoderm 394. Corneal endothelium develop from: D. Neural crest A. Neural crest cells B. Neural plate ectoderm Key: A C. Surface ectoderm D. Mesoderm 403. Optic cup give rise to: A. Lens Key: A B. Retina C. Cornea 395. Optic vesicle is derived from: D. Sclera A. Surface ectoderm B. Neuroectoderm Key: B C. Mesoderm D. Neural crest cells 404. All are derived from neural crest EXCEPT: A. Adrenal medulla Key: B B. Pigment cell in skin C. Corneal stroma 396. Stroma of cornea develops from: D. Retinal pigmented epithelium A. Neural ectoderm B. Surface ectoderm Key: D C. Mesoderm D. Neural crest 405. Thinnest area of sclera: A. Limbus Key: D, Neural crest > Mesoderm B. Behind rectus insertion C. Equator 397. All are derived from neuroectoderm EXCEPT: D. In front of rectus insertion A. Dilator pupillae B. Lens vesicle Key: B C. Optic nerve D. Posterior layers of retina 406. Sclera is thinnest at: A. Limbus Key: B B. Equator C. Anterior to attachment of superior rectus 398. All of the following are mesodermal in origin EXCEPT D. Posterior to attachment of superior rectus A. Dilators of iris B. Iris stroma Key: D C. Ciliary body D. Choroid 407. Ligament of Lockwood is seen at: A. Ear Key: A B. Palate C. TM joint D. Orbit 399. Which of the following is NOT a derivative of neural ectoderm: A. Sphincter pupillae Key: D B. Dilator pupillae C. Ciliary muscle D. Retina 408. Continuation of inner layer of choroid is:

A. Non pigmented layer of retina B. Sclera 417. Which extraocular muscle is supplied by opposite side nucleus: C. Pigmented layer of retina A. Lateral rectus D. None B. Medial rectus C. Superior rectus Key: C D. Inferior rectus

409. Valve of Rosenmuller is located at: Key: C A. Cystic duct B. Opening of nasolacrimal duct 418. A patient is unable to move eye outward beyond midline. The C. Junction of lacrimal sac and canaliculus lesion is in: D. None A. Trochlear nerve B. Occulomotor nerve Key: C C. Abducent nerve D. None 410. NOT a branch of ophthalmic artery: A. Dorsal nasal artery Key: C B. Superficial temporal artery C. Central artery of retina 419. Ptosis is due to lesion of: D. Supratrochlear artery A. Facial nerve B. Somatic fibres of occulomotor nerve Key: B C. Superior cervical ganglion D. Edinger Westphal nucleus 411. Which of the following is WRONG regarding ophthalmic artery: A. Present in dura along with optic nerve Key: B, Somatic fibres of Occulomotor nerve > Superior cervical B. Supplies anterior ethmoidal sinus ganglion C. Artery to retina is end artery D. Leaves orbit through inferior orbital fissure 420. Primary action of superior oblique is: A. Intorsion Key: D B. Depression C. Adduction 412. Which order neuron is bipolar cell in the retina: D. Abduction A. First order B. Second order Key: A C. Third order D. Fourth order 421. Action of inferior oblique: A. Adduction Key: B B. Depression C. Extorsion 413. Optic nerve is which order neuron: D. Intorsion A. First B. Second Key: C C. Third D. Fourth 422. Main action of superior rectus: A. Extorsion Key: C B. Intorsion C. Elevation 414. Cornea is lined by which epithelium: D. Depression A. Ciliated columnar B. Simple columnar Key: C C. Squamous non-keratinized D. Pseudostratified columnar 423. Which of the following is supplied by the third cranial nerve: A. Superior oblique Key: C B. Inferior oblique C. Lateral rectus 415. Which of the following is longest extraocular muscle? D. Dilator papillae A. Superior rectus B. Medial rectus Key: B C. Superior oblique D. Inferior oblique 424. A muscle with radially arranged fibres in iris is supplied by: Key: C A. Oculomotor nerve B. Sympathetic supply from cervical plexus nerve from cervical 416. Which of the following muscles produce intorsion of eye ball: sympathetic chain A. Superior rectus and superior oblique C. Parasympathetic supply B. Inferior rectus and inferior oblique D. None C. Inferior rectus and superior oblique D. Superior rectus and inferior oblique Key: B

Key: A 425. Anterior ethmoidal nerve supplies all EXCEPT

A. Dura mater in anterior cranial fossa 433. Sensory supply of cornea is by: B. Ethmoidal air cells A. Supratrochlear nerve C. Internal nasal cavity B. Infratrochlear nerve D. Maxillary sinus lining C. Supraorbital nerve D. Nasolacrimal nerve Key: D Key: D 426. All are characteristics of 3rd nerve EXCEPT: A. Carries parasympathetic nerve 434. Cornea is supplied by B. Supplies inferior oblique A. Frontal branch of trigeminal nerve C. Enters orbit through the inferior orbital fissure B. Lacrimal branch of trigeminal nerve D. Causes miosis C. Nasociliary branch of ophthalmic nerve D. Trochlear nerve Key: C Key: C 427. Oculomotor nerve palsy causes all of the following EXCEPT: A. Ptosis 435. All is true about Trochlear nerve EXCEPT: B. Mydriasis A. Slender most cranial nerve C. Medial deviation of eyeball B. Has longest intradural course D. Pupillary reflex lost C. Innervates contralateral superior oblique D. Shows internal decussation Key: C Key: B 428. Which of the following statement is /are TRUE about oculomotor nerve: 436. Anterior pituitary develops from: A. Arise from pons A. Infundibulum B. Arise from medulla B. Neuroectoderm C. Passes through interpeduncular fossa C. Rathke’s pouch D. Related to medial wall of cavernous sinus D. None

Key: C Key: C

437. All are derivatives of Rathke’s pouch EXCEPT: 429. All is true about trochlear nerve EXCEPT: A. Pars intermedia A. Longest intracranial course B. Pars tuberalis B. Arise from dorsal aspect C. Neurohypophysis C. Supplies ipsilateral superior oblique D. Pars distalis D. Arises from outside the common tendinous ring Key: C Key: C 438. Herring bodies are seen in: 430. All is true about trochlear nerve EXCEPT: A. Pars tuberalis A. Innervates contralateral superior oblique B. Pars intermedia B. Causes depression of eyeball in adducted position C. Neurohypophysis C. Lies outside the ring of Zinn D. Pars terminalis D. Patient attains ipsilateral head tilt, in lesion Key: C

Key: D 439. Venous drainage from neurohypophysis is routed through all of the following EXCEPT 431. Which of the following is NOT true about the trochlear nerve: A. Portal vessels to adenohypophysis A. Has the longest intracranial course B. Superior hypophyseal veins to ventricular tanycytes B. Supplies the ipsilateral superior oblique muscle C. Inferior hypophyseal veins to dural venous sinuses C. Only cranial nerve that arises from the dorsal aspect of the D. Capillaries to median eminence and hypothalamus brainstem D. Enters orbit through the superior orbital fissure outside the annulus of Zinn Key: B

440. Isthmus of thyroid gland overlies the (PMDC-2019) Key: B A. 1st tracheal cartilage B. 1st and 2nd tracheal cartilage 432. Radially arranged muscle on the iris is supplied by: C. 2nd, 3rd and 4th tracheal cartilage A. Oculomotor nerve D. 3rd and 4th tracheal cartilage B. Sympathetic supply from cervical plexus nerve from cervical sympathetic chain Key: C C. Parasympathetic supply D. Short ciliary nerve 441. Isthmus of thyroid is at the level of tracheal rings A. 1st and 2nd (PMDC-2018) Key: B B. 2nd and 3rd C. 3rd and 4th

D. 5th and 6th 450. A person having difficulty in opening in mouth but not in closing the mouth. Which of the following statement is correct about Key: B concerned muscle: A. Origin from lateral pterygoid plate 442. Isthmus of thyroid gland lies at which level: B. Insertion to anterior margin of articular disc A. C2 C. Supplied by mandibular nerve B. C4 D. All of the above C. C5 D. C7 Key: D

Key: D 451. Following are the TM Joint ligaments EXCEPT: A. Stylomandibular 443. Inferior thyroid artery is related to: B. Temporomandibular A. Superior laryngeal nerve C. Tympanomandibular B. Recurrent laryngeal nerve D. Sphenomandibular C. Glossopharyngeal nerve D. XII nerve Key: C

Key: B 452. Muscle which opens mouth is A. Lateral pterygoid 444. Inferior thyroid artery is a branch of: B. Medial pterygoid A. Thyrocervical trunk C. Masseter B. External carotid artery D. Temporalis C. Internal carotid artery D. None of the above Key: A

Key: A 453. In dislocation of the jaw, displacement of the articular disc beyond the articular tubercle of the temporomandibular joint results from 445. NOT true is: spasm or excessive contraction of the following muscle: A. Superior thyroid artery is branch of external carotid A. Buccinator B. Parathyroid artery is branch of post division of superior B. Lateral pterygoid thyroid artery C. Masseter C. Inferior thyroid artery is branch of thyrocervical trunk D. Temporalis D. Thyroid ima artery is invariably a branch of arch of aorta Key: B Key: B 454. In temporomandibular joint least vascularity is seen in which of the 446. Inferior thyroid vein drains into: following: A. Internal jugular vein A. Articular cartilage B. Superior vena cava B. Anterior part of articular disc C. Brachiocephalic vein C. Posterior part of articular disc D. External jugular vein D. Central part of articular disc

Key: C Key: D

447. Ligament of Berry in thyroid fixes: 455. Which of the following doesn’t have the same neural pathway: A. Hyoid bone A. Accommodation and ciliary nerves B. Cricoid cartilage B. Salivatory nucleus and lacrimation C. Trachea C. Lateral geniculate body and auditory pathway D. Thyroid D. Greater petrosal nerve and gustatory pathway

Key: B Key: C

448. Lymphatic drainage of thyroid gland is mainly: 456. Buccinator muscle is pierced by all EXCEPT: A. Sublingual nodes A. Buccal branch of facial nerve/artery B. Submandibular nodes B. Mucus gland of buccopharyngeal fascia C. Deep cervical nodes C. Parotid duct D. Submental nodes D. Buccal branch of mandibular nerve

Key: C Key: D

449. Inferior parathyroid develops from which arch: 457. The smallest cranial nerve is the: A. 1st A. Olfactory B. 2nd B. Oculomotor C. 3rd C. Trochlear D. 4th D. Accessory

Key: C Key: C

458. Which of the following is a WRONG pair regarding features of Key: C cranial nerves A. Most commonly involved in basal skull fracture: Facial nerve 6. Winging of scapula results due to paralysis of B. Most commonly involved in raised intracranial tension: A. Rhombhoideus Major Abducent nerve B. Leveator scapulae C. Most commonly affected in spinal anesthesia: Abducent nerve C. Serratus anterior D. Most commonly involved in intracranial aneurysm: Optic D. infraspinitus nerve Key: C Key: D 7. The root value of the long thoracic nerve is: 459. Choose the INCORRECT statement about cranial nerves: A. C5. A. Abducent has the longest intracranial course B. C6. & C7. B. Trochlear shows internal decussation C. C5, 6 & 7 C. Olfactory is the shortest D. C5, 6, 7 & 8 D. Vagus has largest distribution Key: C Key: A 8. Following attached to greater tubercle of humerus except A. Supraspinitus B. Infraspinatus C. Teres major D. Teres minor

Upper limb Key: C

9. Paralysis of the deltoid muscle causes: A. Loss of abduction of the arm from zero to 15°. B. Loss of abduction of the arm from 15° – 90° C. Loss of abduction of the arm from zero to 90°. D. Loss of abduction of the arm from 90° – 180°

1. First bone to ossify Key: B A. Tibia B. Ulnar 10. Following muscles are abductors of shoulder except C. A. Serratus anterior D. clavicle B. Supraspinitus C. Deltoid Key: D D. infraspinitus

2. Following is true about sesamoid bone except Key: D A. Developed in tendon of muscles B. No medullary cavity 11. Which of the following muscles is not a medial rotator of C. Have periosteum shoulder joint? D. Responsible for changing the direction of muscle pull A. Pectoralis major B. Teres major Key: C C. Teres minor D. Lattismus dorsi 3. The trapezius muscle is supplied by the: A. Cranial accessory nerve. Key: B. Spinal accessory nerve. C. Long thoracic nerve. 12. Content of radial groove except D. Dorsal scapular nerve. A. Radial nerve B. Axillary nerve Key: B C. Radial collateral artery D. Profounda brachi artery 4. Trapezius is not attached to A. Clavicle Key: B B. First rib C. Occiput 13. The constriction below the greater and lesser tuberosities of the D. Scapula humerus is called: A. Anatomical neck. Key: B B. Surgical neck. C. Humeral shaft. 5. Muscle/s taking origin from the clavicle is/are D. Humeral ring. A. Subclavius. B. Trapezius. Key: B C. Pectoralis major. D. All of the above 14. The inferior surface of the clavicle gives attachment to all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Conoid ligament. B. Trapezoid ligament. Key: B C. Costoclavicular ligament. D. Pectoralis major muscle. 23. Boundary of anatomical snuff box is A. Anteriorly by extensor policis longus and posteriorly by Key: D abductor policis longus B. Anteriorly by abductor policis longus and posteriorly by 15. These muscles are attached to the medial two thirds of the extensor policis longus clavicle EXCEPT: C. Anteriorly by brachioradialis and posteriorly by extensor carpi A. Sternomastoid. radialis brevis and longus B. Deltoid. D. None of the above C. Pectoralis major. D. Subclavius. Key: B

Key: B 24. Which of the following is not true regarding ‘anatomical snuff box’? 16. The back of the medial epicondyle is related to the: A. Posterior wall formed by extensor pollicis longus A. Radial nerve B. Basilic vein begins here B. Axillary nerve C. Radial artery is one of its content. C. Ulnar nerve D. Anterior formed by abductor pollicis longus and extensor D. Median nerve pollicis brevis.

Key: C Key: B

17. The bicipital groove of the humerus lodges (contains) the 25. Superficial cut on the flexor retinaculum of wrist would A. Axillary artery. damage all structures except B. Long head of the biceps. A. Median nerve C. Long head of the triceps. B. Palmar cutaneous branch of median nerve D. Coracobrachialis. C. Palmar cutaneous branch of ulnar nerve D. Ulnar nerve Key: B Key: A 18. The surgical neck of the humerus is related to the A. Radial nerve. 26. The nerve supply of adductor pollicis is B. Axillary nerve. A. Median nerve C. Ulnar nerve. B. Superficial branch of ulnar nerve D. Median nerve. C. Deep branch of ulnar nerve D. Radial nerve Key: B Key: C 19. Which of the following nerves supplies deltoid? A. Median 27. Forment’s sign seen in B. Ulnar A. Ulnar nerve palsy C. Radial B. Radial nerve Palsy D. Axillary C. Axillary nerve D. Median nerve Key: D Key: A 20. Lateral boundary of cubital fossa is formed by A. Biceps brachii 28. Which of the following is the action of dorsal interossei? B. Brachioradialis A. Abduction of fingers C. Brachialis B. Flexion of thumbs D. Pronator teres C. Adduction of fingers D. Extension of metacarpophalangeal joint of fingers Key: B Key: A 21. Most common nerve damaged in supracondylar fracture is A. Median 29. Dequervain’s disease affects: B. Axillary A. Tendons of abductor pollicis longus and abductor pollicis brevis C. Ulnar B. Tendons of abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis D. Radial C. Tendons of extensor carpi radialis longus and extensor carpi radialis brevis Key: A D. Tendons of flexor pollicis longus and flexor pollicis brevis

22. Fracture of humerus at midshaft is likely to cause injury to Key: B which of the following nerves A. Median nerve 30. Hook of Hamate gives attachment to which of the following B. Radial nerve muscles? C. Ulnar nerve A. Extensor digiti minimi D. Musculocutaneous nerve B. Extensor retinaculum

C. Abductor pollicis brevis D. lateral pectoral nerve D. Flexor retinaculum Key: B Key: D » Tip of hook  flexor retinaculum 39. Quadrangular space is bounded by the following structures except » Medial side of hook flexor digiti minimi and oppenens A. Surgical neck of the humerus digiti minimi B. Long head of triceps C. Deltoid 31. Which of the following muscle is not supplied by median nerve? D. Teres major & Teres minor A. Abductor pollicis brevis B. Flexor pollicis brevis Key: C C. Oppenens pollicis D. Adductor pollicis 40. Lesion of the axillary nerve causes: A. Winging of the scapula. Key: D B. Flat shoulder. C. Claw hand. 32. Which of the following muscles are supplied by axillary nerve? D. Ape hand. A. Deltoid and infraspinatus B. Deltoid and supraspinatus Key: B C. Deltoid and teres minor D. Deltoid and teres major 41. Axillary nerve originates from A. Posterior cord of brachial plexus Key: C B. Middle trunk of brachial plexus C. Lateral cord of brachial plexus 33. Skin of nail bed of ring finger is supplied by: D. Lower trunk of brachial plexus A. Lateral half by median , medial half by ulnar E. Medial cord of brachial plexus B. Medial half by median, lateral half by ulnar C. Whole by median Key: A D. Whole by ulnar 42. The axillary nerve supplies the Key: A A. Muscle that abducts the arm from zero to15°. B. Muscle that abducts the arm from 15° – 90°. 34. As a result of injury of the ulnar nerve at the wrist: C. Muscle that forms the rounded contour of the shoulder. A. Marked wasting (atrophy) of the thenar eminence. D. B and C B. The thumb cannot be abducted. C. The thumb cannot be adducted. Key: D D. Loss of sensation over the thumb. 43. In Erb’s paralysis, the deformity is called: Key: B A. Winging of the scapula. B. Claw hand. 35. The deltopectoral groove contains C. Wrist drop. A. Deltoid branch of the lateral thoracic artery. D. Policeman’s tip position. B. Cephalic vein. C. Apical group of axillary lymph nodes. Key: D D. All of the above. E. None of the above. 44. In klumpke’s paralysis, the deformity is called A. Claw hand. Key: B B. Ape hand. C. Wrist drop. 36. The axilla contains all of the following EXCEPT D. Policeman’s tip position. A. Axillary artery. B. Axillary vein. Key: A C. Trunks of the brachial plexus. D. Tail of the breast. 45. The suprascapular nerve is a branch from the A. Upper trunk. Key: C B. Middle trunk. C. Posterior cord. 37. The anterior wall of the axilla is formed by all of the following D. Lateral cord. EXCEPT A. Pectoralis major. Key: A B. Teres major. C. Pectoralis minor. 46. Anastomosis around the scapula connects the subclavian artery D. Clavipectoral fascia. with the A. First part of the axillary artery. Key: B B. Second part of the axillary artery. C. Third part of the axillary artery. 38. Which does not pass through the clavipectoral fascia D. Brachial artery. A. Lymphatics & cephalic vein B. medial pectoral nerve Key: C C. thoracoacromial artery

47. Regimental Badge test is done for A. Trapezius A. Median Nerve B. Rhomboideus major B. Axillary Nerve C. Rhomboideus minor C. Radial Nerve D. Levator scapulae D. Ulnar nerve Key: D Key: B 56. Forment’s sign seen in 48. Muscles not innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve: A. Ulnar nerve palsy A. Brachialis. B. Radial nerve Palsy B. Coracobrachialis. C. Axiallary nerve C. Biceps. D. Median nerve D. Triceps. Key: A Key: D 57. After radical mastectomy there was injury to the long thoracic 49. All are branches of the posterior cord of brachial plexus except nerve. The integrity of the nerve can be tested at the bedside by A. Axillary nerve asking the patient to: B. Radial nerve A. Shrug the shoulders C. Long thoracic nerve B. Raise the arm above the head on the affected side D. Thoracodorsal nerve C. Touch the opposite shoulder D. Lift a heavy object from the ground Key: C Key: B 50. Which muscle may not be paralysed in Erb’s palsy A. triceps 58. Which is not the branch of posterior cord in brachial plexus B. Brachialis A. Lower sub scapular C. Teres minor B. Suprascapular D. Deltoid C. Axillary D. Radial Key: A Key: B 51. Erb's palsy which is not seen A. Adduction of the arm 59. Which of the following structure doesnot pierce the clavipectoral B. Extension at the elbow fascia? C. Pronation at forearm A. Lateral pectoral artery D. External rotation of the arm B. Thoracoacromial artery C. Cephalic vein Key: A D. Lateral pectoral nerve

52. All of the following statements concerning the brachial plexus are Key: A correct except A. The roots C8 and T1 join to form the lower trunk 60. A 30 year old patient comes with a history of injury. On Xray there B. The cords are named according to their position relative to the is fracture of left humerus at midshaft. Which of the following first part of axillary artery( cords are named according to their nerves is most likely to be injured? relative position to the second part of the axillary arteries as it A. Median nerve lies behind pectoralis minor muscle) B. Radial nerve C. The nerve that innervates the levator scapulae is a branch of C. Ulnar nerve the upper trunk(dorsal scapular nerve) D. Sciatic nerve D. The root, trunks and division are not located in the axilla. Key: B Key: B 61. Compression of nerve within the carpal tunnel produces inability to 53. Axillary sheath is derived from A. Abduct the thumb A. Pretracheal fascia B. Adduct the thumb B. Prevertebral fascia C. Flex the distal phalaynx of the thumb C. Investing layer of cervival fascia D. Oppose the thumb D. Pharyngobasilar fascia 62. In trigger finger, the tendon sheath constriction is found at the level Key: B of: A. Middle phalanx 54. Most common nerve damaged in supracondylar fracture is B. Proximal interphalangeal joint A. Median C. Proximal phalanx B. Axillary D. Metacarpophalangeal joint C. Ulnar D. Radial Key: D

Key: A 63. In a vehicular accident, the musculocutaneous nerve was completely severed,but still the person was able to weakly flex the 55. All are retractors of scapula except

elbow joint. All of the following muscles are responsible for this D. Long head of triceps flexion except: A. Brachioradialis Key: A, Teres minor > Long head of triceps B. Flexor carpi radialis C. Ulnar head of pronator teres 71. The following muscles are attached to the coracoid process of the D. Flexor carpi ulnaris scapula EXCEPT: A. Coracobrachialis Key: D B. Short head of biceps C. Pectoralis minor 64. The carpal tunnel contains all of the following structure, except: D. Long head of triceps A. Median nerve B. Flexor pollicis longus Key: D C. Flexor carpi radialis D. Flexor digitorum superficialis 72. Which border of scapula is NOT palpable A. Medial Key: C B. Lateral C. Inferior 65. A young boy who was driving motorcycle at a high speed, collided D. Superior with a tree and was thrown on his right shoulder. Though there was no fracture, his right arm was internally rotated and forearm Key: B, Lateral > Superior pronated. The following facts concerning the patient are correct, except: 73. Which of the following is NOT intracapsular: A. The injury was at Erb’s point A. Coronoid bone B. A lesion of C5 and C6 was present B. Radial fossa C. The median and ulnar nerves were affected. C. Olecranon fossa D. Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subclavius and biceps brachi D. Lateral epicondyle were paralysed. Key: D Key: C 74. Which nerve is NOT related to humerus: A. Axillary 66. Which of the structure muscle is attached to the inferior angle of B. Radial scapula on the dorsal surface? C. Ulnar A. Rhomboids major D. Musculocutaneous B. Serratus anterior C. Teres major Key: D D. Lattismus dorsi 75. Contents of bicipital groove are: Key: D A. Synovial membrane of shoulder joint B. Ascending branch of anterior circumflex artery 67. Which movement of thumb is affected due to radial nerve palsy? C. Ascending branch of posterior circumflex artery A. Flexion D. A & B both B. Extension C. Abduction Key: D D. Adduction 76. Muscle NOT inserted on greater tubercle: Key: B A. Teres minor B. Supra-spinatus 68. The structures most commonly injured in fracture of surgical neck C. Infra-spinatus of humerus are D. Subscapularis A. Musculocutaneous nerve and anterior circumflex artery B. Radial nerve and profunda brachi artery Key: D C. Axillary nerve and posterior circumflex humeral artery D. Ulnar nerve and brachial artery. 77. Which muscle is inserted into the floor of the intertubercular sulcus of the humerus: Key: C A. Latissimus dorsi B. Teres major 69. False about clavicle: C. Pectoralis major A. Ossifies in membrane D. Deltoid B. Horizontal bone C. No medullary cavity Key: A D. Most common site of fracture is the junction of medial 1/3rd with lateral 2/3rd 78. About radius bone TRUE is: Key: D A. Radial groove is present B. Major contributor to wrist joint 70. Attachment on lateral border of scapula is: C. Radial artery lies medial to styloid process of radius A. Teres minor D. Medial bone of forearm B. Infraspinatus C. Subscapularis

Key: B, Major contributor to wrist joint > Radial artery lies medial A. Flexor carpi radialis to styloid process of radius B. Flexor digitorum profundus C. Flexor carpi ulnaris 79. All the pairs about bony attachments around shoulder joint are D. Flexor digitorum superficialis correctly matched EXCEPT A. Latissimus dorsi: Floor of intertubercular sulcus Key: C B. Short head of biceps: Tip of coracoid process C. Subscapularis: Lesser tubercle 88. Abduction of Hand is caused by: D. Teres major: Greater tubercle A. Flexor carpi radialis B. Flexor carpi ulnaris Key: D C. Flexor digitorum profundus D. Flexor digitorum superficialis 80. The structure that lies lateral to distal radial tubercle: A. Extensor pollicis longus Key: A B. Extensor carpi radialis longus C. Brachioradialis 89. The weight of the upper limb is transmitted to the by: D. Extensor carpi ulnaris A. Coracoclavicular ligament B. Coracoacromial ligament Key: B C. Costoclavicular ligament D. Coracohumeral ligament 81. Radial styloid process gives attachment to: A. ECU Key: C B. Brachioradialis C. ECR 90. Weight transmission from upper limb to axial skeleton is done by D. Anconeus all EXCEPT: A. Costoclavicular ligament Key: B B. Coracoacromial ligament C. Coracoclavicular ligament D. Interclavicular ligament 82. Which of following muscle has NO action at shoulder joint? A. Teres major Key: B B. Pectoralis minor C. Subscapularis 91. The weight of the upper limb is transmitted to the axial skeleton by: D. Trapezius A. Coracoclavicular ligament B. Coracoacromial ligament Key: B C. Costoclavicular ligament D. Coracohumeral ligament 83. All the muscles are used to abduct the shoulder EXCEPT: A. Deltoid Key: C B. Supraspinatus C. Serratus anterior 92. Weight transmission from upper limb to axial skeleton is done by D. Pectoralis major all EXCEPT: A. Costoclavicular ligament Key: D B. Coracoacromial ligament C. Coracoclavicular ligament 84. TRUE about abduction at shoulder joint: D. Interclavicular ligament A. Supraspinatus initiates abduction B. Serratus anterior and trapezius also help in abduction Key: B C. Musculotendinous cuff stabilizes shoulder joint D. All of the above 93. Which of the following is a synovial joint of the condylar variety? A. First carpometacarpal joint Key: D B. Metacarpophalangeal joint C. Interphalangeal joint 85. Which are NOT the flexors of forearm? D. Radiocarpal joint A. Pronater teres B. Brachialis Key: B C. Brachioradialis D. Anconeous 94. Which of the following movements DOESN’T happen in abduction of shoulder? Key: D A. Medial rotation of scapula B. Elevation of humerus 86. Wrist is which type of synovial joint: C. Rotation of Clavicle at the sternoclavicular joint A. Condylar D. Rotation at the axis of acromioclavicular joint B. Ellipsoid C. Hinge Key: A D. Trochoid 95. Movements of pronation and supination occurs in all the following Key: B, Ellipsoid > Condylar joints EXCEPT: A. Superior radioulnar joint 87. Adduction of hand at wrist is done by: B. Middle radioulnar joint

C. Inferior radioulnar joint Key: C D. Radiocarpal joint Posterior cord supplies: Key: B A. Teres minor B. Pectoralis minor 96. Which among the following is a branch from the trunk of brachial C. Coracobrachialis plexus? D. Long head of biceps A. Suprascapular nerve B. Long thoracic nerve Key: A C. Anterior thoracic nerve D. Nerve to subclavius 104. Root value of thoracodorsal nerve is: A. C5, 6, 7 Key: D, Nerve to subclavius > Suprascapular nerve B. C8; T1 C. C6, 7, 8 97. Which of the following nerve does NOT have root valve C5, 6, 7? D. T1, 2 A. Lateral pectoral nerve B. Musculocutaneous nerve Key: C C. Lateral root of median nerve D. Ulnar nerve 105. All of the following muscles undergo paralysis after injury to C5 and C6 spinal nerves EXCEPT: Key: D A. Biceps B. Coracobrachialis 98. Which of the following nerves carries fibres from all the roots of C. Brachialis brachial plexus? D. Brachioradialis A. Axillary B. Ulnar Key: B C. Median D. Musculocutaneous 106. Injury to the upper trunk of brachial plexus results in: A. Supination of forearm Key: C B. External rotation of arm C. Decreased sensation on medial side of hand 99. All are true about branchial plexus EXCEPT: D. Paralysis of deltoid muscle A. Lower trunk is formed by root C8 and T1 B. Lateral cord is formed by upper and middle trunk Key: D C. Posterior cord is formed by posterior divisions of all three trunks 107. Injury to the upper trunk of brachial plexus results in: D. C4 root is post fixed to plexus A. Supination of forearm B. External rotation of arm Key: D C. Inability to initiate abduction D. Decreased sensation on medial side of hand 100. Dorsal scapular nerve supplies: A. Levator scapulae and rhomboids Key: C B. Supraspinatus and infraspinatus C. Latissimus dorsi 108. TRUE about the upper trunk of brachial plexus: D. Serratus anterior A. Carries root value C-5, 6, 7 B. Can be blocked medial to scalenus anterior muscle Key: A C. Long thoracic nerve arises from it D. Lesion leads to partial injury of radial nerve 101. Posterior cord of brachial plexus is formed by: A. Ventral division of upper trunk Key: D B. Dorsal division of upper front C. Ventral divisions of upper, middle and lower trunks 109. FALSE regarding Klumpke’s paralysis is: D. Dorsal divisions of upper, middle and lower trunks A. Claw hand deformity B. Intrinsic muscles of hand involved Key: D C. Horner’s syndrome D. Upper trunk of brachial plexus involved 102. All are infraclavicular branches of brachial plexus EXCEPT: A. Ulnar nerve Key: D B. Long thoracic nerve C. Axillary nerve 110. A 19-year-old boy fell from the motorbike on his shoulder. D. Thoracodorsal nerve The doctor diagnosed him a case of Erb’s paralysis. The following signs and symptoms will be observed EXCEPT: Key: B A. Loss of abduction at shoulder joint B. Loss of lateral rotation 103. All are branches of the posterior cord of brachial plexus EXCEPT: C. Loss of pronation at radioulnar joint A. Axillary nerve D. Loss of flexion at elbow joint B. Radial nerve C. Long thoracic nerve Key: C D. Thoracodorsal nerve

111. A young boy who was driving motorcycle at a high speed collided with a tree and was thrown on his right shoulder. 119. Finger drop with no wrist drop is caused by lesion of: Though there was no fracture, his right arm was medially rotated A. Radial nerve in the radial groove and forearm pronated. The following facts concerning this patient B. Posterior interosseous nerve are correct, EXCEPT: C. Anterior interosseous nerve A. The injury was at Erb’s point D. Ulnar nerve behind medial epicondyle B. A lesion of C5 and C6 was present C. The median and ulnar nerves were affected Key: B D. Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subclavius and biceps brachii were paralysed 120. All are affected in low radial nerve palsy EXCEPT: a. Extensor carpi radialis longus Key: C b. Extensor carpi radialis brevis c. Finger extensors 112. Concerning brachial plexus, which of the following facts are true? d. Sensation on dorsum of hand A. Most common site of injury is upper trunk B. Injury may occur during breech delivery Key: A C. Lower trunk injury results in hand deformity D. All of the above 121. Injury to radial nerve in lower part of spiral groove may result in all EXCEPT: Key: D A. Spare nerve supply to extensor carpi radialis longus B. Results in paralysis of anconeus muscle 113. Which of the following is NOT seen with lower radial nerve injury? C. Leaves extension at elbow joint intact A. Weakness of brachioradialis D. Weakens supination movement B. Inability to extend fingers C. Paralysis of extensor carpi radialis brevis Key: A D. Loss of sensations over dorsum of hand 122. Injury to radial nerve at wrist leads to: Key: A A. Wrist drop B. Sensory loss on dorsum of 1st web space C. Paralysis of adductor pollicis 114. All is true about Radial nerve EXCEPT: D. Loss of supination in extended position A. Continuation of lateral cord of brachial plexus B. Root value is C5,6,7,8 and T1 Key: B C. Damaged in fracture shaft of humerus D. Cock up splint is used for its injury in radial groove 123. Damage to the radial nerve in the spiral groove spares which muscle? Key: A A. Lateral head of biceps B. Long head of triceps 115. The following muscles are supplied by radial nerve below the spiral C. Medial head of triceps groove EXCEPT: D. Anconeus A. Brachialis B. Brachioradialis Key: B, Long head of triceps > Medial head of triceps C. Extensor carpi radialis longus D. Anconeus 124. All is true about carpal tunnel syndrome EXCEPT: Key: D A. Most common entrapment mononeuropathy B. Rheumatoid arthritis is a cause 116. TRUE about radial nerve C. Wasting and weakness of adductor pollicis A. Branch of posterior cord & Arise from C5 to 8;T1 D. Numbness in lateral 3½ fingers B. Nerve of extensor compartment of forearm C. Supply skin of extensor compartment Key: C D. All of the above 125. A patient is trying to make a fist, but can only partially flex index Key: D and middle finger. Which nerve is damaged most probably? A. Median 117. Radial nerve passes through the radial groove, the other is: B. Ulnar A. Ulnar nerve C. Radial B. Median nerve D. Anterior interosseous nerve C. Musculocutaneous nerve D. Lower lateral cutaneous nerve of arm Key: A

Key: D 126. Carpal tunnel syndrome caused by all EXCEPT: A. Hypothyroidism 118. Division of radial nerve occurs at which level? B. Addison’s disease A. Anterior part of medial epicondyle C. Diabetes mellitus B. Anterior part of lateral epicondyle D. Amyloidosis C. Posterior part of medial epicondyle D. Posterior part of lateral epicondyle Key: B

Key: B 127. Median nerve supplies all EXCEPT

A. Adductor pollicis B. Abductor pollicis Key: D C. Opponens pollicis D. Flexor pollicis brevis 136. Ulnar paradox means: A. High level injury- less severe claw hand Key: A B. Low level injury -less severe claw hand C. High level injury- more severe claw hand 128. Median nerve injury at wrist, is commonly tested by: D. Low level- more severe claw hand A. Contraction of abductor pollicis brevis B. Contraction flexor pollicis brevis Key: A C. Contraction opponens pollicis D. Loss of sensation on palm 137. Ulnar injury in the arm leads to all EXCEPT A. Sensory loss of the medial 1/3rd of the hand Key: A B. Weakness of the hypothenar muscles C. Claw hand 129. One of the following is supplied by median nerve: D. Adduction of thumb A. 1st and 2nd lumbricals B. Hypothenar muscles Key: D C. Palmar interossei D. Dorsal interossei 138. Superficial branch of ulnar nerve supplies: A. Palmaris brevis Key: A B. Abductor pollicis C. Abductor digiti minimi 130. Median nerve lesion cause paralysis of all of the following D. Opponens pollicis EXCEPT: A. Thenar muscles Key: A B. Adductor pollicis C. Lumbrical index finger 139. TRUE about Guyon’s canal: D. Lumbrical middle finger A. Convey ulnar nerve B. Lies at wrist Key: B C. Lies behind medial epicondyle D. A and B both 131. Which of the following muscle is supplied by median nerve? A. Opponens pollicis Key: D B. Lateral half of the flexor digitorum profundus C. Superficial head of flexor pollicis brevis 140. Anterior axial line reaches till: D. All of the above A. Shoulder B. Elbow Key: D C. Wrist D. Knuckle 132. All are true about ulnar nerve EXCEPT: A. Root value C8; T1 Key: C B. Pass through flexor digitorum superficialis C. Supply flexor carpi ulnaris 141. Dermatome of thumb and index finger is: D. Passes behind medial epicondyle A. C5; C6 B. C6; C6 Key: B C. C6; C7 D. C7; C7 133. All are true about ulnar nerve EXCEPT: A. Root value C8; T1 Key: C B. Supply flexor digitorum superficialis C. Supply flexor carpi ulnaris 142. Base of little finger is supplied by: D. Passes behind medial epicondyle A. C- 6 B. C- 7 Key: B C. C- 8 D. T- 1 134. FALSE regarding ulnar nerve is A. C7 fibers arise from lateral cord Key: C B. Root value: C7,8; T1 C. No branch in arm 143. The nerve supply of nail bed of index finer is: D. Passes between supinator heads A. Superficial branch of radial nerve B. Deep branch of radial nerve C. Median nerve Key: D D. Ulnar nerve

135. Froment test is to check which muscle? Key: C A. Opponens pollicis B. Flexor pollicis brevis 144. Injury at C7 root, leads to sensory loss at: C. Flexor pollicis longus A. Upper medial arm D. Adductor pollicis B. Lower medial arm

C. Posterior arm superficialis tendon is cut. Which of the following actions will no D. Posterior forearm longer be possible? A. Abduction of the second digit Key: D B. Adduction of the second digit C. Flexion at the interphalangeal joint of the thumb 145. There is loss of sensation of lateral 3 and 1/2 finger. The likely D. Opposition of the thumb nerve injured is/are: A. Median nerve plus ulnar nerve only Key: D B. Median nerve plus radial nerve only C. Ulnar and radial nerve only 152. A 16 years old girl failed in her final examination disgusted with D. Median, radial and ulnar nerve life, she cut across the front of wrist at the flexor retinaculum. She was rushed to hospital. The surgeon noticed that cut was Key: D superficial. All the following structures would have been damaged EXCEPT 146. Claw hand is caused by lesion of: A. Ulnar nerve A. Ulnar nerve B. Median nerve B. Median nerve C. Palmar cutaneous branch of median nerve C. Axillary nerve D. Superficial branch of radial artery D. Radial nerve Key: A Key: A, Ulnar nerve > Median nerve 153. Most common nerve damaged in supracondylar fracture is: 147. A person is unable to adduct his thumb. The nerve involved is A. Median characterized by: B. Anterior interosseous A. Having C7,8 T1 root value C. Radial B. Arise from medial cord of brachial plexus D. Ulnar C. Arise from lateral cord of brachial plexus D. Arise from posterior cord of brachial plexus Key: B

Key: A, Having C7,8 T1 root value > Arise from medial cord of 154. A young boy who was driving motorcycle at a high speed collided brachial plexus with a tree & was thrown on his right shoulder. Though there was no fracture, his right arm was medially rotated and forearm 148. Following an incised wound in the front of wrist, the subject is pronated. The following facts concerning this patient are correct, unable to oppose the tips of the little finger and the thumb. The EXCEPT: nerve(s) involved is/are: A. The injury was at Erb’s point A. Ulnar nerve alone B. A lesion of C5 and C6 was present B. Median nerve alone C. The median and ulnar nerves were affected C. Median and ulnar nerves D. Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subclavius & biceps brachii D. Radial and ulnar nerves were paralyzed

Key: C, Incised wounds in front of the wrist damages median nerve Key: C often, but ulnar nerve may also get involved. Opposition of the tips of little finger and thumb requires opponens pollicis (median nerve 155. After radical mastectomy there was injury to the long thoracic and opponens digiti minimi (ulnar nerve as well) nerve. The integrity of the nerve can be tested at the bedside by asking the patient to: 149. A boy presents with injury to medial epicondyle of the humerus. A. Shrug the shoulders Which of the following would NOT be seen? B. Raise the arm above the head on the affected side A. Weakness of the ulnar deviation and flexion C. Touch the opposite shoulder B. Complete paralysis of the 3rd and 4th digits D. Lift a heavy object from the ground C. Atrophy of the hypothenar eminence D. Decreased sensation of the hypothenar eminence Key: B

Key: B 156. During knife fight a person gets injured in the neck region and presents to emergency department with weakness in raising right arm above head. On further examination winging of right scapula is 150. In an accident, the musculocutaneous nerve was completely noted. The injury has damaged: severed, but still the person was able to weakly flex the elbow joint. A. Spinal accessory nerve All of the following muscles are responsible for this flexion B. Long thoracic nerve of Bell EXCEPT: C. Suprascapular nerve A. Brachioradialis D. Dorsal scapular nerve B. Flexor carpi radialis C. Ulnar head of pronator teres Key: A, Spinal accessory nerve > Long thoracic nerve of Bell D. Flexor carpi ulnaris 157. Pronator teres syndrome is due to involvement of which of the Key: C following nerve? A. Radial nerve 151. A patient arrives in the emergency room after having attempted B. Anterior interosseous nerve suicide by lacerating his wrist. No major artery was damaged, but C. Ulnar nerve the nerve that is immediately lateral to the flexor digitorum D. Median nerve

Key: D 165. Wrist drop is caused by lesion of: A. Radial nerve in the radial groove 158. Nerve injury causing hyperextension of metacarpophalangeal and B. Posterior interosseous nerve flexion of interphalangeal joints of ring and little finger: C. Anterior interosseous nerve A. Radial nerve D. Ulnar nerve behind medial epicondyle B. Ulnar nerve C. Anterior interosseus nerve Key: A D. Posterior interosseus nerve 166. Patient exhibits weakness of Pinch grip; other thumb movements Key: B are normal. There is no sensory loss in the hand. The probable cause is damage to: 159. A patient is unable to adduct his thumb. The nerve involved is A. Posterior interosseous nerve characterized by B. Anterior interosseous nerve A. Having C7,8; T1 root value C. Deep branch of ulnar nerve B. Arise from medial cord of brachial plexus D. Median nerve proximal to flexor retinaculum C. Musician’s nerve D. All of the above Key: B

Key: D 167. A lesion involving C8 nerve root will affect A. Extensors of wrist and fingers 160. An Injection was given in the deltoid muscle and has injured a B. Flexors of wrist and fingers nerve. Which of the following statements are TRUE? C. Small muscles of hand A. Loss of rounded contour of shoulder D. None of the above B. Atrophy of deltoid muscle C. Axillary nerve injury Key: B D. All of the above 168. Medial epicondyle fracture leads to: Key: D A. Loss of sensation of thenar eminence B. Atrophy of hypothenar eminence 161. A patient is brought to the emergency with history of trauma to his C. Radial deviation of hand on attempted flexion right upper limb. Extension of metacarpo-phalangeal is lost. There D. Ulnar deviation of hand on attempted flexion is no wrist drop and extension of IP joint is normal. The most likely nerve involved is: Key: B A. Ulnar nerve B. Median nerve 169. Medial epicondyle fracture leads to: C. Radial nerve A. Loss of sensation of thenar eminence D. Posterior interosseous nerve B. Wrist drop C. Radial deviation of hand on attempted flexion Key: D D. Ulnar deviation of hand on attempted flexion

162. Pointing index finger is seen in injury to: Key: C A. Median nerve B. Ulnar nerve 170. Loss of extension of little and ring finger, along with hypothenar C. Radial nerve atrophy is seen in injury of: D. Musculocutaneous nerve A. Radial nerve B. Median nerve Key: A, Ochsner’s clasping test assesses the function of the median C. Posterior interosseus nerve nerve for lesions in the cubital fossa or above, by testing for the D. Ulnar nerve function of long flexors to index finger (flexor digitorum superficialis and profundus). When the patient is asked to clasp Key: D both his . The index finger on the affected side will stand pointing out instead of being flexed. 171. A patient presents with numbness in little and ring fingers along with atrophy of hypothenar eminence. Which of the following is 163. Injury of ulnar nerve at the wrist would cause all EXCEPT: injured: A. Paralysis of 3rd and 4th lumbrical(s) A. Posterior cord of the brachial plexus B. Paralysis of dorsal interossei B. Palmar cutaneous branch of the ulnar nerve C. Adductor pollicis paralysis C. Deep branch of the ulnar nerve D. Flexor pollicis brevis paralysis D. Ulnar nerve before division into superficial and deep branches

Key: D Key: D

164. In a wrist cut injury near flexor retinaculum, nerve commonly 172. A bookshelf falls on a person’s arm laterally. He presents with injured is: inability to extend his wrist. On examination he is unable to make a A. Median strong hand grip and there is loss of sensation on dorsum of the B. Ulnar hand and fingers. Which of the following nerve is injured? C. Musculocutaneous A. Brachial plexus D. Radial B. Radial nerve C. Posterior cord Key: A D. Ulnar nerve

Key: B Key: D 173. A patient woke up from sleep with difficulty in extending fingers. He can make a grip and hold a pen. Wrist extension was possible. 181. All of the following muscles have dual nerve supply, EXCEPT: No sensory disturbance was found, injury could be at: A. Brachialis A. C8, T1 B. Pectineus B. Posterior interosseous nerve C. Flexor digitorum superficialis C. Lower part of brachial plexus D. Flexor digitorum profundus D. Hand area in motor cortex Key: C Key: B 182. All of the following muscles strictly receive nerve supply from 174. A 30-year-old male underwent excision of the right radial head. anterior interosseous nerve EXCEPT: Following surgery, the patient developed in ability to extend the A. Pronator quadrates fingers and thumb of the right hand. He did not have any sensory B. Flexor pollicis longus deficit. Which one of the following is the most likely cause? C. Flexor digitorum profundus of index finger A. Injury to posterior interosseus nerve D. Flexor digitorum profundus of middle finger B. Iatrogenic injury to common extensor origin C. Injury to anterior interosseus nerve Key: D D. High radial nerve palsy 183. Following pairs describe the muscles producing flexion at elbow Key: A joint and their respective nerve. Choose the WRONG pair: A. Biceps brachii: Musculocutaneous nerve 175. Median nerve injury at the wrist leads to all EXCEPT: B. Brachioradialis: Median nerve A. Loss of function of the lumbrical to the index finger C. Flexor carpi ulnaris: Ulnar nerve B. Loss of function of the lumbrical to the middle finger D. Flexor carpi radialis: Median nerve C. Effect on muscles on the thenar eminence D. Loss of adduction of the thumb Key: B

Key: D 184. Erb’s point is at the junction of: A. C5,6 176. All of the following muscles undergo paralysis after injury to the B. C6,7 C5-C6 roots of brachial plexus EXCEPT: C. C7,8 A. Biceps D. C8,T1 B. Coracobrachialis C. Brachialis Key: A D. Brachioradialis 185. Ulnar collateral nerve is: Key: B A. Branch of ulnar nerve B. Branch of radial nerve supplying medial head of triceps 177. A person while skiing catches a tree to stop and suffered a C. Branch of radial nerve supplying long head of triceps hyperabduction injury. The neural involvement is/are: D. Branch of radial nerve supplying lateral head of triceps A. C8;T1 nerve root B. Lower trunk of branchial plexus Key: B C. Ulnar and Median nerve D. All of the above 186. Lower lateral cutaneous nerve of arm is a branch of: A. Radial nerve Key: D B. Axillary nerve C. Median nerve 178. Root value of supinator jerk: D. Musculocutaneous nerve A. C3, 4 B. C4, 5 Key: A C. C5, 6 D. C8; T1 187. Which of the following is also known as the labourer’s nerve? A. Ulnar nerve Key: C B. Median nerve C. Anterior interosseous nerve 179. Largest branch of brachial plexus is: D. Radial nerve A. Ulnar B. Medial Key: B C. Radial D. Axillary 188. Finger by which all three major nerves of the upper limb can be tested: Key: C A. Index B. Ring 180. Axillary nerve is accompanied by which artery C. Thumb A. Axillary D. Middle B. Subscapular C. Anterior circumflex humeral Key: C D. Posterior circumflex humeral

189. All are true about proximal humerus attachment EXCEPT: C. Scapula A. Supraspinatus at lesser tubercle D. Occiput B. Subscapularis at lesser tubercle C. Teres minor at greater tubercle Key: A D. Infraspinatus at greater tubercle 198. True about trapezius are all EXCEPT: Key: A A. Elevates the scapula B. Originates for C7 190. Rotator cuff muscles following considered as forgotten muscle: C. Supplied by cranial part of accessory nerve A. Subscapularis D. Causes overhead abduction B. Supraspinatus C. Infraspinatus Key: C D. Teres minor 199. Short head of biceps attached to: Key: A A. Coracoid process B. Supraglenoid tubercle 191. Deltoid muscle causes all EXCEPT: C. process A. Flexion of shoulder D. Bicipital groove B. Extension of shoulder C. Internal rotation of shoulder Key: A D. Adduction of shoulder 200. Biceps brachii does NOT arise from: Key: D A. Supraglenoid tubercle B. Glenoid labrum C. Coracoid process 192. All of the following muscles causes retraction of scapula EXCEPT: D. Front of humerus A. Trapezius B. Levator scapulae Key: D C. Rhomboideus major D. Rhomboideus minor 201. Intracapsular but extrasynovial is: A. Long head of triceps brachii Key: B B. Long head of biceps brachii C. Short head of biceps brachii 193. After surgery on right side of neck, a person could not raise his arm D. Medial head of biceps brachii above head and also could not shrug the shoulder. What are the possible causes? Key: B A. Damage to spinal accessory nerve B. Injury to axillary nerve 202. Muscle of arm with additional supinator action: C. Paralysis of latissimus dorsi A. Brachialis D. Paralysis of deltoid muscle B. Biceps C. Coracobrachialis Key: A D. Triceps

194. Nerve supply of rhomboideus major: Key: B A. Spinal accessory nerve, cranial nerve B. Spinal accessory nerve, spinal part 203. Muscle NOT supplied by musculocutaneous nerve: C. Dorsal scapular nerve A. Biceps D. Thoracodorsal nerve B. Extensor carpi radialis longus C. Brachialis Key: C D. Coracobrachialis

195. INCORRECT about serratus anterior: Key: B A. Forms medial wall of axilla B. Causes protraction of scapula 204. Coracobrachialis is pierced by which nerve: C. Causes rotation of scapula A. Axillary D. Supplied by thoracodorsal nerve B. Median C. Musculocutaneous Key: D D. Ulnar

196. Which of the following is climber’s muscle? Key: C A. Serratus anterior B. Latissimus dorsi 205. True about anconeus muscle is: C. Rhomboideus major A. Posterior forearm muscle D. Subscapularis B. Helps in screwing movement C. Helps in forearm supination Key: B D. Supplied by ulnar nerve

197. Trapezius is attached to all structures EXCEPT: Key: B A. First rib B. Clavicle

206. The pronator quadratus has the same innervation as of the following 214. When a heavy object in hand is lowered, the extension at the elbow muscle: is brought about by: A. Flexor digitorum superficialis A. Active shortening of the extensors. B. Palmaris longus B. Passive shortening of the extensors C. Flexor pollicis longus C. Active lengthening of the flexors D. Flexor digitorum profundus of middle finger D. Active shortening of the flexors

Key: C Key: C

207. Muscle in extension compartment of forearm which causes flexion 215. While carrying a heavy suitcase the downward dislocation of of elbow? glenohumeral joint is resisted by the following muscles EXCEPT: A. Brachioradialis A. Deltoid B. Abductor pollicis longus B. Coracobrachialis C. Extensor pollicis longus C. Short head of biceps D. Extensor carpi radialis longus D. Latissimus dorsi

Key: A Key: D

208. The nerve supply to pronator muscle of distal radio-ulnar joint is: 216. C8,T1 supplies following muscles EXCEPT: A. Median nerve A. Extensor indicis B. Ulnar nerve B. 3rd and 4th lumbrical(s) C. Anterior interosseous nerve C. Abductor pollicis brevis D. Posterior interosseous nerve D. Palmar interossei

Key: C Key: A

217. ‘Dropped shoulder’ occurs due to paralysis of: 209. Muscles causing supination of forearm: A. Deltoid A. Biceps brachii B. Teres major B. Brachioradialis C. Trapezius C. FDS D. Serratus anterior D. Anconeus Key: C Key: A, Biceps brachii > Brachioradialis 218. Winging of scapula is due to paralysis of: 210. All of the following muscles have dual nerve supply EXCEPT: A. Rhomboids A. Subscapularis B. Trapezius B. Pectoralis major C. Latissimus dorsi C. Pronator teres D. Serratus anterior D. Flexor digitorum profundus Key: D, > Trapezius > Rhomboids Key: C 219. A 50-year-old female has undergone mastectomy for CA Breast. 211. Which of the following muscle has dual nerve supply? After mastectomy, patient is not able to extend, adduct and A. Flexor digitorum profundus internally rotate the arm. Nerve supply to which of the following B. Interossei muscles is damaged? C. Palmaris brevis A. Pectoralis major D. Flexor carpi ulnaris B. Teres minor C. Latissimus dorsi Key: A D. Long head of Triceps

212. Which muscle originates from tendon of other muscle? Key: C A. Palmaris longus B. FCR 220. Teres major muscle is supplied by: C. Lumbricals A. Upper subscapular nerve D. Adductor pollicis B. Lower subscapular nerve C. Dorsal scapular nerve Key: C D. Axillary nerve

213. A person is able to abduct his arm, internally rotate it, place the Key: B back of hand on the lumbosacral joint, but is not able to lift it from back. What is the etiology? 221. The muscle that crosses both shoulder and elbow joint is: A. Subscapularis tendon tear A. Coracobrachialis B. Teres major tendon tear B. Medial head of triceps C. Long head of biceps tendon tear C. Biceps brachii D. Acromioclavicular joint dislocation D. Brachialis

Key: A Key: C

222. Oblique cord is related to:

A. Supinator A. 1st rib B. Long flexors B. Clavicle C. Short flexors C. Pectoralis minor muscle D. Lumbricals D. Teres minor muscle

Key: A Key: C

223. Anatomically a muscle of upper limb, but functionally related to the 231. Branches of brachial artery are all EXCEPT trunk is: A. Profunda brachii A. Rhomboideus major B. Superior ulnar collateral B. Latissimus dorsi C. Inferior ulnar collateral C. Trapezius D. Radial collateral D. Levator scapulae Key: D Key: B 232. Artery forming anastomosis around the surgical neck of humerus is 224. A man cannot do abduction and internal rotation of arm. Which of a branch of: the following muscle is responsible for the both movements? A. 1st part of axillary artery A. Pectoralis major B. 2nd part of axillary artery B. Subscapularis C. 3rd part of axillary artery C. Deltoid D. Subclavian artery D. Supraspinatus Key: C Key: C 233. Interosseous recurrent artery is a branch of: 225. In a subclavian artery block at the outer border of first rib all of the A. Anterior interosseous artery following arteries help in maintaining the circulation to upper limp B. Posterior interosseous artery EXCEPT: C. Common interosseous artery A. Thyrocervical trunk D. Radial artery B. Suprascapular C. Subscapular Key: B D. Superior thoracic 234. Posterior interosseous artery is a branch of: Key: D A. Radial artery B. Ulnar artery 226. Which branch of subclavian contributes to scapular anastomosis? C. Brachial artery A. Vertebral D. Axillary artery B. Internal thoracic C. Thyrocervical truck Key: B D. Dorsal scapular 235. Cephalic vein drains into: Key: D, Dorsal scapular > Thyrocervical truck A. Brachial vein B. Subclavian vein 227. Occlusion occurs at the 2nd part of axillary artery, blood flow is C. Axillary vein maintained by anastomosis between: D. Basilic vein A. Anterior and posterior circumflex humeral artery B. Circumflex scapular and posterior circumflex humeral artery Key: C, Axillary vein > Basilic vein C. Deep branch of transverse cervical artery and subscapular artery 236. All of the following are postaxial veins EXCEPT: D. Anterior circumflex humeral and subscapular artery A. Cephalic vein B. Basilic vein Key: C C. Axillary vein D. Subclavian vein 228. Anastomosis around the shoulder is between branches of: A. 1st part of subclavian and 1st part of axillary artery Key: A, Cephalic vein is a preaxial vein, embryologically, runs B. 1st part of subclavian and 3rd part of axillary artery with the preaxial bone radius. C. 3rd part of subclavian and 2nd part of axillary artery D. 3rd part of subclavian and 3rd part of axillary artery 237. Boundaries of quadrilateral space include all EXCEPT: A. Teres major Key: B > D B. Long head of triceps C. Neck of humerus 229. Interosseous membrane of forearm is pierced by: D. Deltoid A. Brachial artery B. Anterior interosseous artery Key: D C. Posterior interosseous artery D. Ulnar recurrent artery 238. Boundaries of upper triangular space include all EXCEPT: A. Teres minor Key: B B. Teres major C. Subscapularis 230. Axillary artery is divided into three parts by: D. Triceps

247. The cubital fossa is bounded medially by the muscle Key: C A. Brachioradialis B. Pronator teres 239. The accompanying artery with axillary nerve in the quadrangular C. Brachialis space is: D. Supinator A. Anterior circumflex humeral artery B. Posterior circumflex humeral artery Key: B C. Profunda brachii artery D. Circumflex scapular artery 248. All are contents of cubital fossa EXCEPT: A. Median nerve Key: B B. Biceps tendon C. Brachial artery 240. Structure related to deltopectoral groove: D. Ulnar nerve A. Axillary artery B. Cephalic vein Key: D C. Basilic vein D. Radial nerve 249. Bicipital aponeurosis lies over which structure in cubital fossa: A. Median cubital vein Key: B B. Radial nerve C. Brachial artery 241. Muscle forming the medial wall of axilla is: D. Anterior interosseous artery A. Subscapularis B. Teres major Key: C C. Pectoralis minor D. Serratus anterior 250. TRUE about cubital fossa is/are: A. Medial boundary is flexor carpi ulnaris Key: D B. Base is imaginary line connecting humeral epicondyles C. Floor is brachialis muscle 242. All of the following structures pierce the clavipectoral fascia D. Brachial artery is medial to biceps tendon EXCEPT: E. Antecubital vein is a content is a content A. Lateral pectoral nerve B. Lateral thoracic artery Key: B and D C. Cephalic vein D. Axillary lymphatics 251. All is true about mammary gland EXCEPT: A. Is a modified sweat gland Key: B B. Extends from the 2-6 ribs vertically C. Supplied by internal mammary artery 243. Clavipectoral fascia is derived from which ligament: D. Nipple is supplied by sixth intercostal nerve A. Coracoacromial B. Coracoclavicular Key: D C. Costoclavicular D. Costocoracoid 252. How many lactiferous ducts open in nipple: A. 0–10 Key: D B. 15–20 C. 25–50 244. Clavipectoral fascia splits to enclose subclavius and pectoralis D. 50–75 minor, and continues as: A. Axillary sheath Key: B B. Costocoracoid ligament C. Costoclavicular ligament 253. Lymphatic drainage of upper outer quadrant of breast: D. Suspensory ligament A. Anterior axillary B. Posterior axillary Key: D C. Para tracheal D. None of the above 245. WRONG about clavipectoral fascia: A. Situated under clavicular portion of the pectoralis minor Key: A B. Fuses with the deep cervical fascia superiorly C. Continue downward to join the axillary fascia 254. All are true regarding axillary lymph nodes EXCEPT: D. Laterally joins fascia over the short head of the biceps brachii A. Posterior group lies along subscapular vessels B. Lateral group lies along lateral thoracic vessels Key: A C. Apical group lies along axillary vessels D. Apical group is terminal lymph nodes 246. Fascia around nerve bundle of brachial plexus is derived from: A. Prevertebral fascia Key: B B. Clavipectoral fascia C. Deep cervical fascia 255. Peau d’orange appearance orange occurs due to: D. Pectoral fascia A. Haematogenous dissemination B. Adherence of Cooper’s ligament Key: A C. Blockade of sub-dermal lymphatics D. Chest wall fixation

Key: C 264. Which is NOT a carpal bone? A. Navicular 256. The terminal axillary lymph nodes are: B. Cuneate A. Apical C. Cuboid B. Central D. All C. Lateral D. Pectoral Key: D

Key: A 265. TRUE about blood supply of scaphoid: A. Mainly through ulnar artery 257. Mammary gland is supplied by: B. Major supply from ventral surface A. Subscapular artery C. Major supply from dorsal surface B. Internal mammary artery D. Proximal supply in antegrade fashion C. Superior thoracic artery D. All of the above Key: C

Key: D 266. The ossification center of appears at the age of: A. 10–11 years 258. The carpal tunnel contains all of the following important structures B. 12–13 years EXCEPT: C. 14–15 years A. Median Nerve D. 15–16 years B. Flexor pollicis longus C. Flexor carpi radialis Key: A D. Flexor digitorum superficialis 267. Which of the following has epiphysis at head? Key: C A. Distal phalanx B. Middle phalanx 259. First extensor compartment of wrist has which of the following C. Thumb metacarpal structures: D. Third metacarpal A. Extensor pollicis brevis B. Extensor carpi radialis longus Key: D C. Extensor carpi radialis brevis D. Extensor digiti minimi 268. articulates with all EXCEPT: A. Second metacarpal Key: A, First extensor compartment of wrist has two tendons: B. Lunate Abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis C. D. Scaphoid 260. Posterior interosseous nerve runs under which compartment of extensor retinaculum: Key: C A. 1st B. 2nd 269. TRUE statement about lunate bones is: C. 3rd A. Lies in the proximal row of D. 4th B. Ossification centre appears at 9-12 years C. Is a sesamoid bone Key: D D. The largest carpal bone

261. Carpal tunnel contains all EXCEPT: Key: A A. Median nerve B. FDS tendon 270. WRONG about the first metacarpal is: C. FPL tendon A. Epiphysis is at the head D. FCU tendon B. Base is convexo-concave for sellar synovial joint C. Doesn’t articulate with other metacarpals Key: D D. More anterior and medially rotated

262. 3rd extensor compartment of wrist contains tendon of: A. ECRL Key: A B. ECRB C. EPL 271. Metacarpophalangeal joint is: D. EPB A. Condylar B. Ellipsoid Key: C C. Saddle D. Hinge 263. Kanavel’s sign is seen in: A. Tenosynovitis B. Dupuytren’s contracture Key: B, Ellipsoid > Condylar C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Trigger finger 272. Which muscle does NOT take part in dorsal digital expansion? A. Interossei Key: A B. Lumbricals

C. Extensor digitorum C. Causes adduction of thumb D. Adductor pollicis D. Arterial supply is from arteria princeps pollicis

Key: D Key: B

273. ‘Mallet finger’ is a common traumatic lesion resulting in flexion 281. A patient with leprosy presents with ulnar nerve involvement and deformity of distal interphalangeal joint. The basic pathology of clumsiness of hand, due to palsy of which muscle: this condition is: A. Extensor carpi ulnaris A. of middle phalanx B. Abductor pollicis brevis B. Rupture of collateral slips of extensor expansion C. Opponens pollicis C. Rupture of central slip of extensor expansion D. Interosseous muscle D. Dislocation of distal interphalangeal joint Key: D Key: B 282. Function of lumbricals are 274. Pen test in the hand is performed to assess the neuromuscular status A. Flexion at MCP joint & Extension at IP joints of: B. Adduction of the fingers & Abduction of the fingers A. Opponens pollicis C. Flexion at IP joints B. Flexor pollicis brevis D. All C. Abductor pollicis brevis D. 1st palmar interossei Key: A Key: C 283. Palmaris brevis is: 275. Nerve supply to dorsal interossei are by: A. Involuntary muscle A. Radial B. Modification of deep fascia B. Ulnar C. Remnant of panniculus carnosus C. Median D. All of the above D. Ulnar and median Key: C Key: B 284. Small muscles of hand are supplied by: 276. Action of dorsal interossei: A. C4, 5 A. Extension at metacarpophalangeal joint B. C5, 6 B. Adduction at metacarpophalangeal joint C. C8; T1 C. Flexion at metacarpophalangeal joints D. T1, 2 D. Flexion at interphalangeal joints Key: C Key: C 285. Following a deep cut overlying the hypothenar eminence, patient 277. Claw hand is hyperextension at metacarpophalangeal joint and cannot hold a sheet of paper between the 2nd and 3rd digits. Which flexion at the interphalangeal(s). Which muscles have become non- of the following nerves is most likely damaged: functional? A. Deep branch of ulnar nerve A. Lumbricals B. Deep branch of radial nerve B. Lumbricals and palmar interossei C. Superficial branch of ulnar nerve C. Lumbricals and dorsal interossei D. Median nerve D. Lumbricals and all interossei Key: A Key: D 286. Compression of a nerve within the carpal tunnel products inability 278. Flexion of MCP joint and extension of IP joints is the major action to: of: A. Abduct the thumb A. Palmar interossei B. Adduct the thumb B. Dorsal interossei C. Flex the distal phalanx of the thumb C. Lumbricals D. Oppose the thumb D. FDS Key: D Key: C 287. Power grip of hand is due to: 279. Card test is done to check the function of: A. Palmaris A. Lumbricals B. Long flexors B. Palmar interossei C. Short flexors C. Dorsal interossei D. Lumbricals D. Adductor pollicis Key: B, Long flexors > Lumbricals Key: B 288. TRUE about deep palmar arch: 280. FALSE statement regarding adductor pollicis muscle: A. Main contribution is by ulnar artery A. Has 2 heads B. Lie superficial to lumbricals B. Supplied by median nerve C. Gives three perforating branches

D. Gives four palmar metacarpal arteries

Key: C

289. Allen’s test is done for checking: A. Neural disorders LOWER LIMB B. Patency of ulnar artery C. Patency of radial artery D. Blood flow in cephalic vein

Key: B, Patency of ulnar artery > Patency of radial artery 1. Saphenous nerves is a branch of A. Sciatic nerve 290. Content of midpalmar space are all EXCEPT: B. Femoral nerve A. FDP of 4th finger C. Obturator nerve B. FDP of 3rd finger D. Tibial nerve C. 2nd lumbrical D. 1st lumbrical Key: B

Key: D 2. Extension of hip is mediated by A. L2,L3 291. Midpalmar space communicates with all EXCEPT: B. L4,L5 A. Forearm space C. L5, S1 B. Fascial sheath of first lumbrical D. S1,S2 C. Fascial sheath of second lumbrical D. Fascial sheath of third lumbrical Key: C, The main extensor of hip joint, gluteus maximus is supplied by inferior gluteal nerve (L5, S1, and S2) Key: B 3. Peripheral heart is another name for the 292. Infection draining the index finger goes to: A. Gastrocnemius muscle A. Thenar space B. Soleus muscle B. Midpalmar space C. Plantaris muscle C. Ulnar bursa D. Popliteal muscle D. Radial bursa Key: B Key: A 4. The oblique popliteal ligament is a continuation of: 293. Radial bursa is the synovial sheath covering the tendon of: A. Sartorius ligament A. FDS B. Abductor longus ligament B. FDP C. Semimembranosus C. FPL D. semitendonosus D. FCR Key: C Key: C 5. Which of the following nerves innervates at least one muscle that 294. Midpalmar space of hand communicates with all EXCEPT: acts on both hip and knee joints: A. Forearm space A. Ilioinguinal nerve B. Fascial sheath of 1st lumbrical B. Femoral nerve (rectus femoris muscle) C. Fascial sheath of 2nd lumbrical C. Saphenous nerve D. Fascial sheath of 3rd lumbrical D. Common peroneal nerve

Key: B Key: B

295. A cricketer gets injured in his right thumb, while trying to catch a 6. In walking, hip bone of the suspended leg is raised by which of the ball. He presents with pain at the base of his right thumb. He should following muscles acting on the supported side of the body? be examined immediately to rule out which specific damage: A. Gluteus maximus A. Extensor pollicis brevis B. Obturator internus B. Abductor pollicis longus C. Gluteus medius C. Volar plate D. Obturator externus D. Ulnar collateral ligament Key: C Key: D 7. Which of the following muscles dorsiflexes the foot at the 296. In trigger finger the level of tendon sheath constriction is found at joint? the level of: A. Extensor digitorum brevis A. Middle phalanx B. Tibialis posterior B. Proximal interphalangeal joint C. Extensor hallucis brevis C. Proximal phalanx D. Tibialis anterior D. Metacarpophalangeal joint Key: D Key: D

8. Unlocking of the knee joint to permit flexion is caused by the action 16. Which of the following structure doesnot pass through greater of the sciatic notch: A. Vastus medialis muscle A. Piriformis B. Gastrocnemius muscle B. Superior gluteal vessels C. Biceps femoris muscle C. Inferior gluteal vessels D. Popliteus muscle D. Tendon of obturator internus

Key: D Key: D

9. Peroneal artery is the branch of 17. The lateral boundary of femoral canal is bounded by: A. Anterior tibial artery A. Lacunar ligament B. Popliteal artery B. Femoral ligament C. Posterior tibial artery C. Femoral vein D. Arcuate artery D. Femoral nerve

Key: C Key: C

10. Trudelenberg sign is positive in the damage of … nerve: 18. The medial border of femoral canal is formed by: A. Superior gluteal A. Lacunar ligament B. Posterior gluteal B. Pectinate ligament C. Pudendal nerve C. Deltoid ligament D. Inferior gluteal D. Pectineus and its covering fascia

Key: A Key: A

11. Injury to the common peroneal nerve at the lateral aspect of head of 19. Which of the following is true regarding femoral canal: result in all of the following except: A. Upper opening is in femoral ring A. Weakness of ankle dorsiflexion B. 4cm long B. Foot drop C. Lateral compartment of femoral sheath C. Loss of ankle reflex D. Content is femoral vein D. Sensory impairment of lateral aspect of leg extending to the dorsum of foot. Key: A

Key: C 20. The femoral ring is bounded by the following structures, except: A. Femoral vein 12. Nerve supply of gluteus maximus is B. Inguinal ligament A. Obturator nerve C. Femoral artery B. Superior gluteal nerve D. Lacunar ligament C. Inferior gluteal nerve D. Femoral nerve Key: C

Key: C 21. Femoral hernia descends through the femoral canal , and neck of the sac lies 13. Which of the following is not the action of sartorius muscle? A. Below and lateral to pubic tubercle A. Flexion of thigh B. Above and medial to pubic tubercle B. Flexion of leg C. At the saphenous opening C. Extension of leg D. In the obturator canal D. Lateral rotator of thigh E. Lateral to iliacus muscle

Key: C Key: A » Action: flexion of thigh and leg » Abduction of thigh 22. Lymphatic drainage of clitoris is to: » Lateral rotation of thigh A. Glands of cloquet B. Superficial inguinal lymph node 14. Adductor canal (hunter’s canal) has C. Deep inguinal lymph nodes A. Profunda femoral artery D. Obturator nodes B. Profunda femoral vein C. Sapheneous nerve Key: A D. Femoral nerve 23. Ligament of Bigelow is found in: Key: C A. Shoulder joint B. Knee joint 15. Which of the following doesnot pass through sciatic foramen? C. Hip joint A. Internal pudendal vessels D. Ankle joint B. Pudendal nerves C. tendon of obturator internus Key: C D. Nerve to obturator externus 24. Which of the following muscle causes flexion of the hip? Key: D A. Psoas major B. Vastus medialis(extension)

C. Quadriceps femoris (lateral rotation) D. Lattismus dorsi 33. Largest synovial joint of the body is: A. Hip Key: A B. Knee C. Shoulder 25. Extension of hip is mediated by all except: D. Ankle A. Long head of biceps B. Short head of biceps Key: B C. Semimembranosus D. Semitendinosus 34. Which of the following is true regarding popliteus muscle? A. Intracapsular origin Key: B B. Locks the knee joint(unlocks) C. It is supplied by deep peroneal nerve(tibial nerve) 26. False regarding hip joint is: D. It forms the roof of the popliteal fossa(floor) A. Hyperextension is prevented by thickening of capsule B. Medial rotation by gluteus medius and minimus Key: A C. Abduction by gluteus minimus and medius D. Lateral rotation of hip muscle supplied mainly by 35. Which of the following structure is attached to the head of the femoral nerve. fibula A. Lateral meniscus Key: D B. Lateral collateral ligament C. Anterior cruciate ligament 27. Hyperextension of the hip joint is prevented by the D. Posterior cruciate ligament A. Obturator internus tendon B. Ischiofemoral ligament Key: B C. Tensor fascia latae muscle D. Ligamentum teres 36. Which ligament prevents the abduction of tibia at the knee joint? A. Posterior cruciate ligament Key: B B. Anterior cruciate ligament C. Lateral collateral ligament 28. Ward’s triangle is associated with: D. Medial collateral ligament A. Shoulder B. Knee Key: D C. Wrist D. Hip 37. The anterior cruciate ligament prevents A. Posterior dislocation of femur Key: D B. Anterior dislocation of femur C. Anterior dislocation of tibia on femur 29. True regarding the great saphenous vein is all of the following D. Lateral dislocation of femur except: A. The small saphenous vein drains into it Key: C B. It drains into femoral vein C. Superficial epigastric vein drains into it. 38. House maid knee occurs due to D. It arises close to the medial malleolus. A. Enlargement of ligamentum pateller B. Thickening of iliotibial tract Key: A C. Enlargement of infrapateller bursa D. Enlargement of prepateller bursa 30. Saphenous opening is located in: A. Just above pubic tubercle Key: D B. Above and medial to pubic tubercle C. Below and lateral to pubic tubercle. 39. Eversion occurs at: D. Just below the pubic tubercle A. Talonavicular joint B. Subtalar joint Key: C C. Tibiotalar joint D. Forefoot joint 31. Which of the following muscle is attached to lesser trochanter: A. Vastus medialis Key: B B. Piriformis C. Gluteus maximus 40. Inversion /eversion occurs at which of the following joint: D. Psoas major A. Hip B. Talocalcaneonavicular joint Key: D C. Ankle D. Inferior tibiotalor 32. Which is the anteriomost in popliteal fossa A. Popliteal vein Key: B B. Popliteal artery C. Tibial nerve 41. All the following ligaments contribute to the stability of D. Common peroneal nerve ankle(talocrural) joint except: A. Calcaneonavicular (spring) ligament Key: B B. Deltoid ligament

C. Lateral ligament Key: D D. Posterior talofibular ligament 50. Carpometacarpal joint is a type of: Key: A A. Hinge joint B. Saddle joint 42. The deltoid ligament is attached to the following structure except: C. Fibrous joint A. Spring ligament D. Ball and socket joint B. Flexor retinaculum C. Talus Key: B D. 51. The ischial tuberosity provides attachment to: Key: B A. Obturator internus B. Quadratus femoris 43. Deltoid ligament is composed of all of the following parts except: C. Gluteus maximum A. tibio-calcanean D. Adductor magnus B. Tibiotalar C. Tibio-fibular Key: D D. Tibio-navicular 52. TRUE about attachment at ischial tuberosity: Key: C A. Origin of semitendinosus from superolateral area B. Origin of semimembranosus from superolateral area 44. Which of the following passes deep to the flexor retinaculum? C. Origin of long head of biceps from inferolateral area A. Saphenous vein D. Origin of adductor magnus from inferomedial area B. Extensor hallucis longus C. Posterior tibial artery Key: B D. Tibialis anterior 53. All of the following structures pass through lesser sciatic foramen Key: C except: A. Pudendal nerve B. Obturator internus muscle 45. occurs in which of the following muscle: C. Internal pudendal vessels A. Tendon calcaneous D. Nerve to obturator internus B. Gastrocnemius muscle lateral head C. Gastrocnemius muscle medial head Key: B D. Soleus muscle. 54. Structure passing through both greater and lesser sciatic foramen Key: B are all except: A. Pudendal nerve 46. Shenton’s line is formed by B. Internal pudendal vein A. Upper border of obturator foramen and lower border off C. Nerve to obturator internus neck of femur D. Tendon of obturator internus B. Lower border of obturator foramen and lower border off neck of femur Key: D C. Joining ASIS and greater trochanter D. None 55. Structures passing through lesser sciatic foramen: A. Internal pudendal vessels Key: A B. Pudendal nerve C. Nerve to obturator internus 47. Ossification of intrauterine life starts from: D. All of the above A. 4th week B. 5th week Key: D C. 6th week D. 7th week 56. Sacrotuberous ligament is pierced by: A. S1 Nerve Key: B B. L5 Nerve C. Coccygeal nerve 48. Medial longitudinal arch of foot is maintained by D. Non A. Peroneus brevis B. Spring ligament and tendon of tibialis posterior Key: C C. Extensor hallucis longus D. Flexor digitorum longus 57. True about linea aspera: Key: D A. Forms lateral border of femur B. Forms medial border of femur 49. Joint between epiphyses and diaphyses of a long bone is a type of : C. Continues as gluteal tuberosity A. Plane synovial joint D. Present on the posterior surface of femur B. Fibrous joint C. Symphysis Key: C D. Synchondroses 58. Muscle attached to medial lip of linea aspera of femur:

A. Short lead of biceps femoris B. Vastus lateralis Key: C C. Vastus intermedius D. Vastus medial 67. Hip flexion is done by all EXCEPT: A. Ilio-psoas Key: A and D B. Pectineus C. Sartorius 59. Lower end of femur is ossified from how many ossification centers D. Semitendinosus A. 1 B. 2 Key: D C. 3 D. 4 68. Gluteofemoral bursa is in between gluteus maximus and: A. Greater trochanter Key: A B. Lesser trochanter C. Ischial tuberosity 60. Angle of the neck of femur to shaft is: D. Vastus lateralis A. 110° B. 125° Key: D C. 135° D. 100° 69. Pes anserinus includes following three muscles EXCEPT: A. Semitendinosus Key: B B. Semimembranosus C. Gracilis 61. All of the following are true about upper end of tibia except: D. Sartorius A. Ossification centre for the upper end fuses by 18 years B. Meniscal cartilage is attached to the intercondylar area Key: B C. Gives attachment to semimembranosus D. Posterior aspect of articulates with upper end of tibia 70. Clergyman’s knee is an inflammation of: laterally A. Anserine bursa B. Pre-patellar bursa Key: D C. Suprapatellar bursa D. Infrapatellar bursa 62. Nutrient artery to tibia arises from which of the following arteries: A. Popliteal artery Key: D B. Anterior tibial artery C. Posterior tibial artery 71. Anterior cruciate ligament(ACL) originates from D. Peroneal artery A. Posterior part of intercondylar area of tibia B. Anterior part of intercondylar area of tibia Key: C C. Medial part of medial femoral condyle D. Lateral part of lateral femoral condyle 63. Gluteofemoral bursa is in between gluteus maximus and: A. Greater trochanter Key: B B. Lesser trochanter C. Ischial tuberosity 72. Coronary ligament of knee is situated between: D. Vastus lateralis A. Menisci and synovium B. Two posterior horns of menisci Key: D C. Meniscus and tibial condyle D. Meniscus and femoral condyle 64. Regarding hip joint, which of the following statements is true: a. Retinaculum attaches femur to hip bone Key: C b. Inferior gluteal nerve supplies the hip abductors c. Capsule is attached to the intertrochanteric line 73. A healthy young athlete sitting at table with knee at 90-degree d. Ilio-psoas causes hip abduction flexion. What will happen when he fully extends the knee? A. Movement of tibial tuberosity towards medial border of Key: C patella B. Movement of tibial tuberosity towards lateral border of patella 65. Iliofemoral ligament arise from: C. Movement of tibial tuberosity towards centre of patella A. Ischial tuberosity D. No change in relationship B. Anterior superior iliac spine C. Iliopubic rami Key: B D. Anterior inferior iliac spine E. Iliac crest 74. Physiological locking involves: A. Internal rotation of femur over stabilized tibia Key: D B. Internal rotation of tibia over stabilized femur C. External rotation of tibia over stabilized femur 66. Abduction of the thigh is limited by: D. External rotation of femur over stabilized tibia A. Tension in the adductors B. Tension in the adductors and iliofemoral ligament Key: A > C C. Tension in the adductors and pubofemoral ligament D. Tension in the adductors and ischiofemoral ligament

75. About posterior cruciate ligament, TRUE statement is: 83. Oblique popliteal ligament attaches to: A. Prevent posterior displacement of tibia A. Semimembranosus B. Attaches to lateral femoral condyle B. Semitendinosus C. Intrasynovial C. Adductor magnus D. Inserted on medial side of medial femoral condyle D. Sartorius

Key: A Key: A

76. The blood supply of anterior cruciate ligament is primarily derived 84. TRUE statement about posterior cruciate ligament is: from: A. Attached to the lateral femoral condyle A. Superior medial genicular artery B. Intrasynovial B. Descending genicular artery C. Prevents posterior dislocation of tibia C. Middle genicular artery D. Relaxed in full flexion D. Circumflex fibular artery Key: C Key: C 85. Patellar anastomosis is formed by which artery: 77. Oblique popliteal ligament is pierced by: A. Descending genicular A. Anterior branch of popliteal artery B. Anterior tibial recurrent B. Medial inferior genicular branch of popliteal artery C. Posterior tibial recurrent C. Medial superior genicular branch of popliteal artery D. All of the above D. Middle genicular branch of popliteal artery Key: D Key: D 86. TRUE about medial meniscus: 78. Medial rotation of tibia in flexed leg is brought about by: A. Made up of hyaline cartilage A. Popliteus B. Injury of lateral meniscus is more frequent then medial B. Vastus medialis meniscus C. Quadriceps femoris C. C-shaped D. Adductor magnus D. Fixed to medial collateral ligament

Key: C and D Key: A 87. Posterior dislocation of tibia on femur is prevented by A. Posterior cruciate ligament 79. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) prevents: B. Anterior cruciate ligament A. Anterior dislocation of tibia C. Medial meniscus B. Posterior dislocation of tibia D. Lateral meniscus C. Anterior dislocation of femur D. Posterior dislocation of femur Key: B

Key: A > D 88. The stability of the ankle joint is maintained by all of the following except: 80. A boy playing football received a blow to the lateral aspect of the A. Plantar calcaneonavicular (spring) ligament knee and suffered a twisting fall. His medial meniscus is damaged; B. Deltoid ligament which other structure is most likely to be injured? C. Lateral ligament A. Deltoid ligament D. Shape of the superior talar articular surface B. Posterior cruciate ligament C. Anterior cruciate ligament Key: A D. Patellar-ligament 89. Deltoid ligament is not attached to: Key: C A. Medial cuneiform B. Medial malleolus 81. All of the following movements are possible due to contraction of C. Sustentaculum tali tensor fascia lata except: D. Spring ligament A. Medial rotation of hip joint B. Abduction of hip joint Key: A C. Flexion of hip joint D. Extension of hip joint 90. Stability of ankle joint is maintained by all except: A. Collateral ligaments Key: D B. Cruciate ligaments C. Tendons of muscles crossing the joint 82. In polio contracture of the iliotibial tract leads to all EXCEPT: D. Close apposition of articular surfaces of bones A. Hip flexion and abduction B. Lateral rotation of tibia Key: B C. Knee flexion D. Varus deformity at knee 91. Deltoid ligament has all the following components except: A. Anterior tibiotalar Key: D B. Tibionavicular C. Tibiocalcaneal

D. Calcaneonavicular 100. Meralgia paresthesia is due to involvement of: A. Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh Key: D B. Ilio-inguinal nerve C. Genitofemoral nerve 92. Plantar flexion is brought about by which of these muscles D. Saphenous nerve A. Plantaris B. FHL Key: A C. Soleus D. All 101. Root value of medial cutaneous nerve of thigh: A. L1, L2 Key: D B. L2, L3 C. Superficial peroneal nerve 93. All are branches of lumbar plexus except: D. Saphenous nerve A. Iliohypogastric nerve B. Ilioinguinal nerve Key: B C. Obturator nerve D. Subcostal nerve 102. Medial aspect of great toe is supplied by: A. Saphenous nerve Key: D B. Deep peroneal nerve C. Superficial peroneal nerve 94. What is the root value of sciatic nerve: D. Sural nerve A. S1,S2,S3 B. L4,L5; S1,S2,S3 Key: C C. L1,L2,L3 D. L2,L3,L4 103. The skin overlying the region where a venesection is made to access the great saphenous vein is supplied by: Key: B A. Femoral nerve B. Sural nerve 95. Root value of the posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh: C. Tibial nerve A. S1,S2 D. Superficial peroneal nerve B. S2,S3 C. S1,S2,S3 Key: A D. S2,S3,S4 104. Postero-lateral herniation of nucleus pulposus at L5–S1 vertebrae Key: C level will result in pain located along the: A. Anterior aspect of the thigh 96. Nerve root of pudendal nerve is: B. Medial aspect of the thigh A. S1,S2,S3 C. Antero-medial aspect of the leg B. S2,S3,S4 D. Lateral side of the foot C. S3,S4 D. S2,S3 Key: D

Key: B 105. Knowledge of the segmental cutaneous innervation of the skin of the lower extremity is important in determining the level of 97. Dermatomal supply of the perianal skin is: intervertebral disk disease. Thus, S1 nerve root irritation will result A. S1 in pain located along the: B. L2 A. Anterior aspect of the thigh C. L3 B. Medial aspect of the thigh D. S4 C. Anteromedial aspect of the leg D. Lateral side of the foot Key: D Key: D 98. Posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh supplies skin overlying: A. Popliteal fossa & Scrotum 106. Deep peroneal nerve sensory innervation: B. Posterior inferior aspect of buttock A. 1st web space C. Back of thigh B. 5th web space D. All C. Antero lateral dorsum of foot D. Lateral part of leg Key: D Key: A 99. During laparoscopic hernia repair a tack was accidently placed below and lateral to the iliopubic tract. Post-operatively the patient 107. Which nerve does NOT supply gluteal region? complained of pain in the thigh. This is due to the involvement of: A. Superior gluteal nerve A. Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh B. Sciatic nerve B. Ilio-inguinal nerve C. Nerve to quadrates femoris C. Genito-femoral nerve D. Nerve to obturator internus D. Obturator nerve Key: B Key: A 108. Superior gluteal nerve acts at hip joint for:

A. Abduction and lateral rotation C. Compression of anterior tibial nerve at ankle B. Abduction and medial rotation D. Damage of deep peroneal nerve C. Adduction and medial rotation D. Adduction and lateral rotation Key: C & D

Key: B 117. Features seen in common peroneal nerve injury: A. Foot drop 109. Superior gluteal nerve supplies all EXCEPT: B. Loss of extension of great toe A. Gluteus minimus C. Seen in fibular neck fracture B. Gluteus medius D. All of the above C. Tensor fascia lata D. Gluteus maximus Key: D

Key: D 118. Which of the following may occur in common peroneal nerve injury? 110. Obturator nerve enters thigh at A. Loss of dorsiflexion of toe A. Adductor canal B. Eversion of foot affected B. Obturator canal C. High stepping of foot & Foot drop C. Superficial inguinal ring D. All of the above D. Femoral canal Key: D Key: B 119. A person is unable to dorsiflex the foot and there is loss of 111. Obturator nerve innervates all of the following muscles except: sensations on dorsal foot. Possible nerve injury is: A. Adductor longus A. Damage to common peroneal nerve at neck of fibula B. Pectineus B. Damage to common peroneal at medial malleolus C. Obturator internus C. Compression of anterior tibial nerve at ankle D. Obturator externus D. Damage to superficial peroneal nerve

Key: C Key: A

112. A patient present with defective adduction of the hip joint and pains 120. An altered sensation over the area of great saphenous vein in leg is in the hip and knee joint. Which nerve is involved? seen due to injury to which of the following nerve: A. Obturator nerve A. Femoral B. Femoral nerve B. Tibial C. Saphenous nerve C. Sural D. Sciatic nerve D. Peroneal

Key: A Key: A

113. Tibial nerve injury causes: 121. In L5 root involvement, which among the following is NOT A. Dorsiflexion of foot at ankle joint affected: B. Plantar flexion of the foot at ankle joint A. Thigh abduction C. Loss of sensation of dorsum of foot B. Knee flexion D. Paralysis of muscles of anterior compartment of leg C. Knee extension D. Toe extension Key: A Key: C 114. Injury of common peroneal nerve at the lateral aspect of head of fibula result in all of the following EXCEPT: 122. Injury to nerve which passes superior to piriformis and winds A. Weakness of ankle dorsi flexion around greater sciatic notch paralyzes: B. Foot drop A. Gluteus medius C. Loss of ankle reflex B. Gluteus maximus D. Sensory impairment on lateral aspect of leg extending to the C. Obturator internus dorsum of foot D. Piriformis

Key: C Key: A

115. Deep peroneal nerve sensory innervation: 123. Lateral dislocation of patella is prevented by: A. 1st web space A. Rectus femoris B. 5th web space B. Vastus intermedius C. Anterolateral dorsum of foot C. Vastus lateralis D. Lateral part of leg D. Vastus medialis

Key: A Key: D

116. A person is unable to dorsiflex the foot and there is loss of 124. Strongest flexor of the hip joint is: sensations on dorsal foot. Possible nerve injury is: A. Sartorius A. Damage to common peroneal nerve at neck of fibula B. Gluteus maximus B. Damage to common peroneal at medial malleolus C. Iliopsoas

D. Pectineus B. Peroneus tertius C. Extensor hallucis longus Key: C D. Tibialis anterior

125. Rectus femoris is a part of quadriceps femoris causes: Key: A a. Hip flexion and knee extension b. Hip and knee flexion 134. Action of tibialis anterior: c. Hip and knee extension A. Plantar flexion of foot d. Hip extension and knee flexion B. Adduction of foot C. Inversion of foot Key: A D. None of the above

126. Action of sartorius muscles includes all except: Key: C A. Flexion of thigh B. Flexion of leg 135. All are true about anterior compartment of leg EXCEPT: C. Extension of leg A. Tibialis anterior causes dorsiflexion of foot D. Lateral rotator of thigh B. EHL causes extension of MTP joint of big toe C. Peroneus longus causes eversion of foot Key: C D. Nerve supply is through deep peroneal nerve

127. TRUE regarding semitendinosus: Key: C A. Supplied by common peroneal part of sciatic nerve B. Proximal flashy distal thin 136. Violent inversion of the foot will lead to avulsion of tendon of the C. Distal flashy proximal thin following muscle attached to the tuberosity of the 5th metatarsal: D. Proximal and distal thin middle fleshy A. Peroneus brevis B. Peroneus longus Key: B C. Peroneus tertius D. Extensor digitorum brevis 128. Biceps femoris, a hamstring muscle causes: A. Hip flexion and knee extension Key: A B. Hip and knee flexion C. Hip and knee extension 137. Peroneus longus: D. Hip extension and knee flexion A. Invertor of foot B. Supplied by deep peroneal nerve Key: D C. Maintains arches of foot D. Arises from tibia 129. Gluteus maximus is inserted on: A. Lesser trochanter Key: C B. Greater trochanter C. Spiral line 138. Which of the following tendons more likely to rupture during D. Iliotibial tract violent dorsiflexion of the foot A. EHL Key: D B. EDL C. FHL 130. TRUE regarding origin and insertion of piriformis: D. Plantaris A. Origin from sacrum and and insertion on LT B. Origin from sacrum and ilium and insertion on GT Key: D C. Origin from Ischial tuberosity and insertion on LT D. Origin from ischial tuberosity and insertion on GT 139. Muscle acting both at knee and ankle joint is/are: A. Gastrocnemius Key: B B. Plantaris C. Tibialis posterior 131. Muscle attached to lateral surface of greater trochanter: D. Flexor hallucis longus A. Gluteus maximus B. Gluteus medius Key: A & B C. Gluteus minimus D. Piriformis 140. All are true about popliteus EXCEPT: A. Flexes the knee Key: B B. Unlocks the knee C. Inserted on medial meniscus 132. Gluteus medius is supplied by the nerve: D. Is intracapsular A. Superior gluteal B. Inferior gluteal Key: C C. Femoral D. Sciatic 141. Which of the following muscles is included in Triceps surae: A. Gastrocnemius Key: A B. Popliteus 133. Anterior compartment of leg contains all muscle EXCEPT: C. Extensor hallucis longus A. Peroneus brevis

D. Extensor digitorum longus C. Tibial part of sciatic nerve D. Common peroneal nerve

Key: A Key: A

142. Which muscle originates from both tibia and fibula and 150. Hybrid muscles are all EXCEPT interosseous membrane: A. Pectineus A. Popliteus B. Flexor digitorum longus B. Adductor magnus C. Tensor fascia lata C. Flexor hallucis longus D. Biceps femoris D. Tibialis posterior

Key: C Key: D

151. Which of the following muscle is involved in movement from 143. INCORRECT statement regarding popliteus is: sitting to standing position: A. Intracapsular origin A. Gluteus maximus B. Attaches to medial lemniscus B. Obturator internus C. Supplied by tibial nerve C. Gluteus medius D. Causes flexion and medial rotation at knee joint D. Gluteus minimus

Key: B Key: A

144. Tibialis posterior is inserted in all the tarsal bones EXCEPT: 152. Which of the following muscle has intracapsular origin: A. Calcaneus B. Intermediate cuneiform A. Coracobrachialis B. Long head of biceps femoris C. Cuboid C. Popliteus D. Talus D. Peroneus longus

Key: D Key: C

145. In walking, gravity tends to tilt and trunk to the unsupported 153. With foot off the ground and knee flexed, medial rotation of tibia is side, major factor in preventing this unwanted movement is: brought about by: A. Adductor muscles A. Popliteus B. Quadriceps B. Vastus medialis C. Gluteus maximus C. Gastrocnemius D. Gluteus medius and minimus D. Adductor magnus

Key: D Key: A

146. Wrong about Trendelenburg test is: A. Contraction of gluteus maximus is assessed 154. The superficial external pudendal artery is a branch of: A. Femoral artery B. Positive in superior gluteal nerve damage B. External iliac artery C. Right pelvis drops down in left superior gluteal nerve lesion C. Internal iliac artery D. Bilateral damage results in Waddling gait D. Aorta

Key: A Key: A

147. Trendelenburg test is positive due to injury to the nerve: 155. Superficial epigastric artery is a branch of: A. Inferior gluteal A. Internal pudendal artery B. Superior gluteal B. External pudendal artery C. Obturator C. Internal iliac artery D. Tibial D. Femoral artery

Key: B Key: D

148. An 83-year-old man has trouble walking. At his physician›s office, he is asked to stand on his right foot and his left hip drops. Which 156. The blood supply to femoral head is mostly by: A. Lateral epiphyseal artery of the following nerves is most likely damaged, causing his B. Medial epiphyseal artery problem: C. Ligamentum teres artery A. Left inferior gluteal D. Profunda femoris B. Left superior gluteal

C. Right inferior gluteal Key: A D. Right superior gluteal

157. The blood supply to femoral head is Key: D A. Obturator & Femoral artery

B. Lateral circumflex femoral artery 149. Inability to maintain pelvis position while standing on one leg, C. Profunda femoral artery nerve paralysed: D. all of the above A. Superior gluteal nerve

B. Inferior gluteal nerve Key: D

165. All are Valveless EXCEPT: 158. In the following nutrient arteries to bones, choose the WRONG A. Dural venous sinus pair: B. Hepatic veins A. Humerus: Profunda brachii C. Inferior vena cava B. Radius: Anterior interosseous D. Femoral vein C. Fibula: Peroneal D. Tibia: Anterior tibial Key: D

Key: D 166. The direction of the flow of venous blood in conditions of valve incompetence affecting perforating veins of lower limb is: 159. Middle genicular artery is a branch of: A. Along gravity A. Femoral artery B. Superficial to deep B. Popliteal artery C. Along osmotic gradient C. Anterior tibial artery D. Deep to superficial D. Posterior tibial artery Key: D Key: B 167. Inferior epigastric vein drains into: A. Femoral vein 160. Popliteal artery is difficult to palpate because B. External iliac vein A. It is not superficial C. Internal iliac vein B. Does not pass over prominent bony structure D. Internal pudendal vein C. Superficial but does not pass over prominent bony structure D. Not superficial and does not pass over prominent bony Key: B structure 168. TRUE about saphenous opening: Key: D A. Transmits saphenous nerve B. Lies 4 cm lateral and superior to pubic tubercle 161. TRUE regarding saphenous vein C. Covered by cribriform fascia A. Long saphenous vein formed as continuation of medial side D. Opening in cribriform fascia of deep venous arch B. Long saphenous vein— closely related to saphenous nerve Key: C C. Short saphenous vein associated with sural nerve 169. Skin and fascia of great toe drains into: D. All A. Superficial inguinal lymph nodes B. External iliac nodes Key: D C. Internal iliac nodes D. Deep inguinal nodes TRUE statement about great saphenous vein: A. It begins at lateral end of dorsal venous arch Key: A B. It runs anterior to medial malleolus C. It is accompanied by sural nerve 170. Skin and facia covering the ball of the big toe drain the lymphatics D. Terminates into popliteal vein into: A. Vertical group of superficial inguinal lymph nodes Key: B B. Horizontal group of superficial inguinal lymph nodes C. Popliteal lymph nodes 162. All are true about short saphenous vein EXCEPT: D. Deep inguinal lymph nodes A. Runs behind lateral malleolus B. Runs on lateral side of leg Key: A C. Accompanied by sural nerve D. Achilles tendon is medial to vein 171. What is most medial in the femoral triangle? A. Lymphatics Key: B B. Nerve C. Vein 163. A patient was on DVT prophylaxis. All of the following has D. Artery perforators which connect superficial veins to the deep veins EXCEPT: Key: A A. Ankle B. Below inguinal ligament 172. All are contents of femoral triangle EXCEPT: C. Mid-calf A. Femoral artery D. Lower thigh B. Femoral vein C. Superficial inguinal lymph nodes Key: B D. Nerve to pectineus

164. Hunterian perforators are seen in: Key: C A. Upper thigh B. Lower thigh 173. All are contents of femoral sheath EXCEPT C. Calf A. Femoral artery D. Mid-thigh B. Femoral nerve C. Femoral vein Key: D D. Genitofemoral nerve

Key: B 182. Which of the following tendons has attachment on sustentaculum tali 174. All of the following pairs regarding adductor canal are true A. Tibialis Anterior EXCEPT: B. Tibialis posterior A. Roof: Sartorius muscle C. Flexor digitorum longus B. Contents: Femoral nerve D. Flexor hallucis longus C. Floor: Adductor longus and magnus D. Antero-lateral boundary: Vastus medialis Key: B

Key: B 183. Which of the following ligament is NOT attached to talus? A. Talonavicular ligament 175. Which of the following structure(s) pass through adductor magnus? B. Deltoid ligament A. Femoral vessels C. Spring ligament B. Femoral nerve D. Cervical ligament C. Femoral sheath D. Saphenous nerve Key: C

Key: A 184. Medial longitudinal arch of the foot is maintained by all EXCEPT: A. Peroneus longus 176. All of the following pairs for boundaries of popliteal fossa are B. Tibialis posterior correct EXCEPT C. Flexor digitorum longus A. Supero-medial boundary: semimembranosus D. Plantar aponeurosis B. Supero-lateral boundary: Biceps femoris C. Infero-lateral: Gastrocnemius and plantaris Key: A D. Infero-medial: Gastrocnemius and soleus 185. Which is NOT a part of medial longitudinal arch of foot? Key: D A. Third metatarsal B. Cuboid 177. Structure passing deep to flexor retinaculum is: C. Calcaneum A. Post tibial artery D. Talus B. Long saphenous vein C. Tibialis anterior Key: B D. Peroneus tertius 186. Transverse arch of foot is maintained by: Key: A A. Flexor digitorum brevis B. Adductor hallucis 178. All of the following pass under the flexor retinaculum EXCEPT: C. Abductor hallucis brevis A. Tibialis anterior D. Peroneus brevis B. Deep peroneal nerve C. Anterior tibial nerve Key: B D. All 187. First layer of sole has: Key: D A. Abductor hallucis B. Flexor hallucis longus 179. NOT true about inferior extensor retinaculum: C. Flexor hallucis brevis A. Y shaped D. Adductor hallucis B. Superior slip attached to lower end of fibula C. Inferior slip attached to deep fascia of sole Key: A D. Lateral attached to calcaneum 188. 3rd and 4th lumbrical of foot are supplied by: Key: B A. Medial planter nerve B. Lateral plantar nerve 180. Neurovascular bundle of anterior compartment of leg passes C. Peroneal nerve between the tendons of: D. Posterior tibial nerve A. Tibialis anterior and extensor hallucis longus B. Extensor hallucis longus and extensor digitorum longus Key: B C. Extensor hallucis longus and peroneus tertius D. Extensor digitorum longus and peroneus tertius 189. All of the following pairs concerning layers of sole muscles are correct EXCEPT: Key: B A. First layer: Adductor hallucis B. Second layer: Lumbricals 181. Which tendon passes below sustentacula tali? C. Third layer: Flexor hallucis A. Tibialis anterior D. Fourth layer: Interossei B. Tibialis posterior C. Flexor hallucis longus Key: A D. Flexor digitorum longus 190. In posterior compartment syndrome, which passive movement Key: C causes pain: A. Dorsiflexion of foot B. Foot inversion

C. Toe dorsiflexion D. Foot abduction Key: B

Key: A 5. Which of the following is false regarding congenital diaphragmatic hernia? 191. The kinetic energy of the body is least in one of the following A. Most common type of congenital hernia phases of walking cycle: B. Pulmonary hypoplasia is associated with it A. Heel strike C. Mediastinal shift to the opposite side. B. Mid-stance D. Rt. Sided and anteriorly shifted. C. Double support D. Toe-off Key: D

Key: B 6. Which is true regarding parietal pleura: A. Supplied by symphathetic plexus around aorta 192. Muscle used in normal walk during stance and swing: B. Derived from splanchnopleural layer of lateral plate A. Iliopsoas mesoderm B. Tibialis anterior C. It is supplied by vagus C. Popliteus D. Sensitive to pain. D. Gastrocnemius soleus Key: D Key: B 7. Motor supply of diaphragm is derived from which of the following: A. Lower six intercostal nerves B. Phrenic nerves C. Sympathetic nerves D. Lower 6 thoracic nerves

Key: B, Phrenic nerves are sole motor nerves to diaphragm. Phrenic nerves are sensory to central part and lower 6 thoracic nerves are sensory to peripheral part of diaphragm

Thorax 8. Right lung is differentiated by following points from left lung except: A. Long and narrower B. Heavier than left C. It has two fissures and three lobes 1. Tubercles of montgomery( large sebaceous and rudimentary milk D. Anterior border is straight glands) are present in: A. Lung Key: A B. Duodenum C. Liver 9. Number of pulmonary segment in right and left lung is: D. Breast A. 10:10 B. 10:8 Key: D C. 10:9 D. 10:7 2. Which of the following doesnot supply blood to breast: A. Lateral thoracic artery Key: B B. Thoracodorsal branch of Subscapular artery C. Acromiothoracic artery 10. Right hilum is arched by: D. Internal mammary A. Azygous vein B. Vagus nerve Key: B C. Thoracic duct D. Recurrent laryngeal nerve 3. Foramen of Langer is present associated with: A. Heart Key: A B. Pancreas C. Breast 11. Lingula is a part of ….. Lobe of lung D. Skull A. Right Middle B. Left upper Key: B, The superolateral part of breast is prolonged upwards and C. Right upper laterally, pierces deep fascia at the anterior fold of axilla and lies in D. Left lower the axilla at the level of 3rd rib. The process of the gland is known as axillary tail of Spence. The opening in the deep fascia is known Key: B as foramen of Langer 12. Right costophrenic recess extends upto the level of : 4. Hernia of bochdalek arises from: A. 12th rib in midaxillary line A. Posterior part of diaphragm B. 10th rib in midaxillary line B. Posterolateral part of diaphragm C. 6th rib in midaxillary line C. Central part of diaphragm D. 2nd rib in midaxillary line D. Anterolateral part of diaphragm

Key: B D. Coronary sinus

13. Trachea is lined by……… epithelium: Key: A A. Pseudo stratified ciliated B. Simple 22. The blood supply of the SA node is: C. Transitional A. Left coronary artery D. Columnar stratified B. Right coronary artery C. Left circumflex artery Key: A D. Anterior descending artery

14. Clara cells are found in: Key: B A. Trachea B. Bronchioles 23. Right coronary artery doesnot supply: C. Alveoli A. Apex of the heart D. Esophagus B. Posterior part of interventricular septum C. A small portion of the left ventricle adjoining the posterior Key: B interventricular groove D. Right atrium 15. Angle of Luis lies at A. Junction of T1-T2 Key: A B. Junction of T2-T3 C. Junction of T3- T4 24. The right coronary artery supplies all of the following parts of the D. Junction of T4-T5 conducting system in the heart except: A. SA node Key: D B. AV node C. AV bundle 16. Heart lies at D. Right bundle branch A. Superior mediastinum B. Middle mediastinum Key: C C. Inferior medistinum D. none 25. Which of the following structure of the heart is not supplied by left coronary artery: Key: B A. Left atrium B. Left ventricle 17. Which of the following is not a content of Superior mediastinum: C. Posterior part of interventricular septum A. Arch of aorta D. SA node B. Esophagus C. Pulmonary trunk Key: C D. Brachiocephalic trunk 26. True regarding left coronary artery is: Key: C A. It arises from the ascending aorta B. It lies between the pulmonary trunk and the aorta 18. Which of the following forms apex of the heart: C. It is of smaller caliber than the right coronary artery A. Left ventricle D. It rises from the arch of aorta B. Right ventricle C. Left atrium Key: A D. Right atrium 27. Coronary sinus doesnot receive: Key: A A. Great cardiac vein B. Anterior cardiac vein 19. Which of the following forms the right border of the heart: C. Middle cardiac vein A. Left ventricle D. Oblique vein of left atrium. B. Right ventricle C. Right atrium Key: B D. Both right atrium and right ventricle. 28. Great cardiac vein lies in…… groove: Key: C A. Anterior interventricular B. Posterior interventricular 20. The base of heart is related to which of the following structure: C. Anterior atrioventricular A. Central tendon of diaphragm D. Posterior atrioventricular B. Descending aorta C. Tracheal bifurcation Key: A D. Azygos vein 29. The middle cardiac vein is located at: Key: B A. Anterior interventricular sulcus B. Posterior interventricular sulcus 21. Which of the following doesnot opens in right atrium: C. Posterior AV groove A. Middle cardiac vein D. Anterior AV groove B. Anterior cardiac vein C. Superior venacava Key: B

38. Posterior to sternum is: 30. The following statements are true regarding the SA node , except: A. Left atrium A. Is located at the right border of the ascending aorta B. Left ventricle B. It contains specialised nodal cardiac muscle C. Right atrium C. It is supplied by the atrial branches of the right coronary D. Right ventricle artery D. It initiates cardiac conduction. Key: D

Key: A 39. NOT true about superior vena cava: A. Opens into right atrium 31. Which of the following structure doesnot passes through B. Pierces pericardium at 3rd costal cartilage diaphragm: C. Enters the heart of level of 3rd costal cartilage A. Cisterna chyli D. Receives azygos vein behind sternal angle B. Greater Splanchnic nerve C. Esophagus Key: B D. aorta 40. Arch of aorta lies at what vertebral level? Key: A A. T5 B. T4 32. Aorta passes through diaphragm at the level of: C. T6 A. T9 D. T2 B. T10 C. S2 Key: B D. T12 41. At Saint Louis angle what crosses? Key: D A. Arch of aorta B. Azygous vein 33. Which of the following structure doesn’t pass through diaphragm C. Common carotid artery opening: D. Innominate vein A. Splenic vein B. Azygos vein Key: A C. Gastric vein D. Esophagus 42. Attachment to the first rib are all EXCEPT: A. Scalenus anterior Key: A B. Scalenus medius C. Scalenus posterior 34. Accessory cervical rib causes compression of: D. Suprapleural membrane A. Lateral cord of brachial plexus B. Upper trunk of brachial plexus Key: C C. First thoracic nerve D. Medial cord of brachial plexus 43. All of the following lie between the 1st rib and the apex of lung EXCEPT: Key: C A. Superior intercostal artery B. Thoracic duct 35. The most common variation in the arteries arising from the arch of C. First posterior intercostal vein aorta is: D. Sympathetic trunk A. Absence of brachiocephalic trunk B. Left vertebral artery arising from the arch Key: B C. Left common carotid artery arising from brachiocephalic trunk 44. Relationship of neurovascular bundle from above downward in D. Presence of retro-esophageal subclavian artery intercostal space: A. Nerve →Artery → Vein Key: C B. Artery→ Nerve → Vein C. Vein → Nerve → Artery 36. Trachea bifurcates at the vertebra level: D. Vein → Artery → Nerve A. T2 B. T3 Key: D C. T4 D. T5 45. The order of neurovascular bundle in intercostal space from above to below is: vein-artery-nerve. This order is NOT observed in Key: D intercostal space: A. 1 37. Carina is situated at which level: B. 2 A. T3 C. 11 B. T4 D. 12 C. T6 D. T9 Key: A

Key: C 46. False rib is: A. 1st

B. 2nd C. 7th Key: C D. 10th 302. All are true about intercostal nerves EXCEPT: Key: D A. The relationship from above downward is nerve, vein, artery B. T4, T5, T6 are called typical intercostal nerve 47. Scalene tubercle is a feature of: C. Lie between the innermost intercostal and internal intercostal A. 1st rib muscle B. 2nd rib D. T7 to T11 supply the abdominal wall C. 3rd rib D. 4th rib Key: A

Key: A 303. Intercostobrachial nerve is a branch of: A. 1st intercostal nerve 48. The costal cartilages of these ribs do not reach the sternum: B. 2nd intercostal nerve A. 1st and 2nd C. 3rd intercostal nerve B. 6th and 7th D. Upper trunk of brachial plexus C. 8th, 9th and 10th D. 11th and 12th Key: B

Key: A, 8th, 9th and 10th > 11th and 12th 304. TRUE about left phrenic nerve is: A. Arise from dorsal rami of C3,4,5 49. Dislocation of the vertebra is uncommon in thoracic region because B. Descends in the left pleural space in this region: C. Supplies mediastinal and diaphragmatic pleura on left side A. The articular process are interlocked and diaphragmatic peritoneum B. The vertebral body is long D. Passes through the vena caval opening in the diaphragm C. Anterior longitudinal ligament is strong D. Spinous process is long and pointed Key: C

Key: A 305. All of the following are true about phrenic nerve EXCEPT: A. It is a purely motor nerve 297. All the direct articulation of true rib EXCEPT: B. It arise mainly from C4 spinal nerve A. Costovertebral joint C. It is formed at the lateral order of scalenus anterior B. Costochondral joint D. Accessory phrenic nerve is commonly a branch from the C. Costotransverse joint nerve to subclavius D. Costosternal joint Key: A Key: D 306. A female come with complaints of chest pain. On examination she 298. First sterno-costal joint is: is found to have pericarditis with pericardial effusion. The pain is A. Synchondrosis mediated by: B. Synarthrosis A. Deep cardiac plexus C. Synovial joint B. Superficial cardiac plexus D. Syndesmosis joint C. Phrenic nerve D. Subcostal nerve Key: B, Synarthrosis > Synchondrosis Key: C 299. The first costochondral joint is a: A. Fibrous joint 307. All is true about phrenic nerve EXCEPT: B. Synovial joint A. Right is shorter and more vertical C. Syndesmosis B. Sole motor supply to diaphragm D. Synchondrosis C. Passes anterior to scalenus anterior D. Passes posterior to hilum of lung Key: D Key: D 300. 8, 9 and 10th ribs are attached to 7th rib by which joint? A. Fibrous 308. Left phrenic nerve runs: A. Anterior to scalenus anterior B. Synovial B. Posterior to brachial plexus C. 1° cartilaginous C. Posterior to subclavian artery D. Behind the left hilum D. 2° cartilaginous Key: A Key: B 309. Branches of internal thoracic artery are all EXCEPT: 301. Intercostal nerve is a branch of: A. Superior epigastric A. Brachial plexus B. Musculophrenic B. Dorsal rami of thoracic spinal nerves C. Anterior intercostal C. Ventral rami of thoracic spinal nerves D. Posterior intercostal D. Ventral rami of cervical spinal nerves

Key: D A. Superior epigastric and inferior epigastric vein B. Superficial epigastric and iliolumbar vein 310. Superior intercostal artery is a branch of: C. Azygous and ascending lumbar vein A. Costocervical trunk D. Lateral thoracic and prevertebral vein B. Dorsal scapular artery C. Thyrocervical trunk Key: B D. Internal thoracic artery 319. Superior vena cava opens into right atrium at the level of: Key: A A. T1 B. T3 311. Upper two posterior intercostal arteries arise from: C. T4 A. Aorta D. T5 B. Superior intercostal artery C. Internal mammary artery Key: D D. Bronchial artery 320. IVC obstruction presents with: Key: B A. Oesophageal varices B. Haemorrhoids 312. True about anterior intercostal artery C. Para-umbilical dilatation A. Present in 1st to 12th intercostal space D. Thoraco-epigastric dilatation B. Each intercostal space has two anterior intercostal arteries C. Branch of internal thoracic artery Key: D D. Branch of aorta 321. Which of the following veins drains into the brachiocephalic vein? Key: B A. Internal thoracic vein B. Hemiazygos vein 313. Vasa Vasorum of ascending aorta arises from: C. Right superior intercostal vein A. Left coronary artery D. Left superior intercostal vein B. Anterior interventricular artery C. Posterior interventricular artery Key: D D. Left atrium 322. The last tributary of the azygos vein is: Key: A A. Right superior intercostal vein B. Hemi-azygos vein 314. In post ductal coarctation of aorta, which of the following distal C. Right bronchial vein anastomotic artery is NOT involved? D. Accessory azygos vein A. Vertebral arteries B. Axillary arteries Key: C C. Subscapular/suprascapular artery D. Posterior intercostal artery 323. Hemiazygous vein crosses left to right at the level of: A. T8 Key: A B. T10 C. T12 315. In post-ductal Coarctation of the aorta, blood flow to the lower D. T6 limbs in maintained by increased blood flow through: A. Inferior Phrenic and pericardio phrenic artery Key: A B. Intercostal and Superior epigastric artery C. Sub costal and Umbilical artery 324. While doing thoracentesis, it is advisable to introduce needle along: D. Vertebral and anterior spinal artery A. Upper border of the rib B. Lower border of the rib Key: B > D C. In the center of the intercostal space D. In anterior part of intercostal space 316. In post ductal coarctation of aorta, collaterals are formed by all EXCEPT: Key: A A. Vertebral artery B. Suprascapular artery 325. Pleural tapping in the mid axillary line, muscle not pierced is: C. Posterior Intercostal artery A. External intercostal D. Internal Thoracic artery B. Internal intercostal C. Innermost intercostal Key: A D. Transversus thoracis

317. Left superior intercostal vein drains into: Key: D A. Azygous vein B. Hemiazygous vein 326. The opening in central tendon of diaphragm transmits: C. Left brachiocephalic vein A. Aorta D. Innominate vein B. Oesophagus C. Right phrenic nerve branch Key: C D. Left gastric artery branch

318. In IVC obstruction, all of the following collaterals help EXCEPT: Key: C

327. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE about diaphragm: 335. Which of the following do NOT elevate the ribs: A. Left side pushed down by heart A. Serratus posterior superior B. Serratus posterior inferior B. Left side lower than the right C. External intercostals C. Right side pushed up by liver D. Levator costarum

D. All Key: B

Key: D 336. Surface marking of the oblique fissure of lung include all EXCEPT A. T 3 vertebra 328. Oesophagus enters through: B. 5th rib A. Central tendon of diaphragm C. 7th rib D. 6th costal cartilage B. Along aortic opening C. Muscular part of diaphragm Key: D

D. Right Crus 337. Pleural reflection on midaxillary line is in space: A. 5 Key: C B. 6 C. 8 329. Diaphragmatic hernia can occur through all the following EXCEPT D. 10 A. Esophageal opening B. Costovertebral triangle Key: D C. Costal and sternal attachment of diaphragm D. Inferior vena cava opening 338. The right costophrenic line extends up to the level of which rib in the mid-axillary line: Key: D, There is no description of hernia through tendinous A. 6th opening for IVC in literature. B. 8th C. 10th 330. Aortic hiatus contains: D. 12th A. Left gastric vein and thoracic duct B. Thoracic duct and hemiazygos vein Key: C C. Azygos vein and thoracic duct D. Left vagus and thoracic duct 339. Which is NOT a lobe of lung: A. Azygous Key: C B. Superior C. Inferior 331. The structures passing posterior to diaphragm are all EXCEPT D. Lingula A. Aorta B. Azygos vein Key: D C. Thoracic duct D. Greater splanchnic nerve 340. Which is the most superior structure at hilum of left lung? Pulmonary vein Key: D > B Pulmonary artery Bronchus 332. Structure NOT passing through oesophageal hiatus: Bronchial artery A. Left gastric artery branch B. Right vagus nerve Key: B C. Left vagus nerve D. Left phrenic nerve 341. Which of the following are related to the mediastinal part of right lung? Key: D A. Arch of aorta B. SVC 333. All are accessory muscles of inspiration EXCEPT: A. Serratus anterior C. Pulmonary trunk B. Serratus posterior D. Left ventricle C. Latissimus dorsi D. Scalene Key: B

Key: C 342. Inferior most structure of right hilum is:

334. Muscle of expiration: A. Bronchus A. External intercostal B. Inferior pulmonary vein B. Diaphragm C. Internal intercostal C. Pulmonary artery D. Serratus anterior D. Inferior bronchial vein

Key: C Key: B

D. Right apical BPS 343. Hilum of the right lung is arched by: A. Recurrent laryngeal nerve Key: A B. Azygos vein C. Thoracic duct 351. A bed-ridden patient on liquid diet develops aspiration pneumonia. D. Vagus nerve Which of the following is bronchopulmonary segment is most likely affected: Key: B A. Posterior of right upper lobe B. Inferior lingular of left upper lobe 344. The root of the right lung does not lie behind which one of the C. Apical of right lower lobe following D. Posterior of right lower lobe A. Right atrium B. Right vagus Key: C > A C. Superior vena cava D. Phrenic vein 352. Bronchial artery supplies lungs up to A. Tertiary bronchioles Key: B B. Respiratory bronchiole C. Alveolar ducts 345. Bronchopulmonary segments in right and left lungs respectively: D. Terminal bronchiole A. 9,11 B. 11,9 Key: B C. 10,10 D. 8,10 353. Rasmussen’s aneurysm involves: A. Bronchial artery Key: C B. Pulmonary artery C. Intercostal artery 346. Which are segments of upper lobe in the right lung: D. Aorta A. Anterior, posterior, medial B. Apical, anterior posterior Key: B C. Lateral, medial, superior D. Basal, lateral, medial 354. Which bronchopulmonary segment is absent in left lung? A. Superior Key: B B. Medial basal C. Anterior basal 347. Cardiac BPS of right lung is: D. Apical A. Medial B. Lateral Key: B C. Medial basal D. Anterior basal 355. Untrue about visceral pleura: A. Develops from splanchnopleuric mesoderm Key: C B. Has three borders C. Supplied by phrenic nerves 348. All of the following are characteristic of a bronchopulmonary D. Pain insensitive segment EXCEPT: A. It is surgically resectable Key: C B. It is named according to the segmental bronchus supplying it C. It is drained by independent intrasegmental branch of 356. Base of the heart is formed by: pulmonary vein A. Left atrium D. It is the largest subdivision of a lobe B. Right atrium C. Left ventricle Key: C D. Right ventricle

349. An inhaled foreign body is likely to lodge in the right lung due to Key: A, Left atrium > Right atrium all of the following features EXCEPT: A. Right lung is shorter and wider left lung 357. The base of the heart is formed by: B. Right principal bronchus is more vertical than the left A. Left and right ventricle bronchus B. Left atrium and ventricle C. Tracheal bifurcation directs the foreign body to the right lung C. Right atrium and ventricle D. Right inferior lobar bronchus is in continuation with the D. Left and right atrium principal bronchus Key: D Key: A 358. True about atrioventricular groove are all EXCEPT 350. A patient presents with chest pain due to aspiration pneumonitis. A. Contains left anterior descending coronary artery On examination there is dullness on percussion in area medial to B. Also called coronary sulcus the medial border of scapula on elevation of arm. Which part of the C. Contains right coronary artery lung is most likely to be affected? D. Contains circumflex branch of left coronary artery A. Right superior BPS B. Right Posterior BPS Key: A C. Left superior BPS

359. Which of the following is situated in the upper part of crista 367. Surface marking of the mitral valve is: terminalis? A. Behind sternal end of the left 4th costal cartilage A. AV node B. Behind sternal end of the right 4th costal cartilage B. Bundle of His C. Left 4th intercostal space in midclavicular line C. Right bundle branch D. Left 3rd intercostal space in midclavicular line D. SA node Key: A Key: D 368. In PA view CXR, right border of the heart is contributed by: 360. All the following openings in the right atrium are guarded valve A. Pulmonary trunk EXCEPT: B. Ascending aorta A. Superior vena cava C. Right auricle B. Inferior vena cava D. Right ventricle C. Coronary sinus D. Atrioventricular opening Key: B

Key: A 369. Occlusion of the LAD will lead to infarction of which area: a. Posterior part of the interventricular septum 361. Torus aorticus is seen due to: b. Anterior wall of the left ventricle A. Atrium bulging into the aorta c. Lateral part of the heart B. Aortic sinus bulging into left atrium d. Inferior surface of right ventricle C. Aortic sinus bulging into right atrium D. Aortic wall tear Key: B

Key: C 370. Right coronary artery supplies all of the following parts of conducting system in the heart EXCEPT: 362. In Transesophageal echocardiography(TEE), which chamber is A. SA node most commonly evaluated: B. AV node A. Left ventricle C. AV bundle B. Left atrium D. Right bundle branch C. Right atrium D. Right ventricle Key: D

Key: B 371. All of the following arteries are common sites of occlusion by a thrombus EXCEPT: 363. Boundary of Koch’s triangle is NOT formed by: a. Anterior interventricular A. Tricuspid valve b. Posterior interventricular B. Tendon of Todaro c. Circumflex C. Limbus fossa ovalis d. Marginal D. Coronary sinus Key: D Key: C 372. Coronary dominance is determined by: 364. SA node is located in: A. Posterior interventricular artery A. Pericardium B. Anterior interventricular artery B. Epicardium C. Circumflex artery C. Myocardium D. Right coronary artery D. Endocardium Key: A Key: C 373. Posterior interventricular artery is a branch of right coronary artery 365. The following statements are true regarding the SA node EXCEPT: in most of the people (right dominance). In 10% population it arises A. Is located at the right border of the ascending aorta from: B. It contains specialized nodal cardiac muscle a. Circumflex artery C. It is supplied by the atrial branches of the right coronary b. Left coronary artery artery c. Pulmonary artery D. It initiates cardiac conduction d. Right coronary artery

Key: A Key: A

374. If the circumflex artery gives off the posterior interventricular 366. Which of the following represents the surface marking of the aortic artery, then the arterial supply is called: valve: A. Right dominance A. Sternal end of the left 3rd costal cartilage B. Left dominance B. Sternal end of the right 3rd costal cartilage C. Balanced dominance C. Besides the sternum in left 3rd intercostal space D. Co-dominance D. Besides the sternum in right 3rd intercostal space Key: B Key: C

375. Arterial supply of ventral 2/3rd of interventricular septum of heart B. Middle cardiac vein is: C. Small cardiac vein A. Right coronary artery D. Oblique veins of the left atrium B. Left coronary artery C. Posterior interventricular artery Key: B D. Marginal artery 384. Even if thrombosis is present in the coronary sinus, which of the Key: B following cardiac veins might remain normal in diameter: A. Middle cardiac vein 376. TRUE statement about right coronary artery is/are: B. Anterior cardiac vein A. Diameter less than LCA C. Small cardiac vein B. RCA arises from anterior aortic sinus D. Oblique cardiac vein C. RCA supplies major part of right atrium and right ventricle D. All of the above Key: B

Key: D 385. WRONG about venous drainage of heart: A. Coronary sinus is guarded by Thebesian valve 377. Branch of right coronary artery is/are B. Middle cardiac vein lies in posterior atrioventricular groove A. Acute marginal C. Great cardiac vein accompany left anterior descending artery B. Posterior interventricular D. Venae cordis minimi open into all four chambers C. Conus artery D. all of the above Key: B

Key: D 386. Sympathetic innervation of heart is by: A. T1-T3 378. Artery supply to Koch’s triangle is from: B. T1-T5 A. Right coronary artery C. T3-T7 B. Left coronary artery D. L1-L5 C. Left anterior descending artery D. Artery from anterior aortic sinus Key: B

Key: A > B 387. Angina pectoris is carried by: A. Superior cervical cardiac nerve 379. INCORRECT statement about the coronary arteries: B. Middle and inferior cervical cardiac nerve A. They arise from the aortic sinuses C. Thoracic splanchnic nerve B. They don’t nourish the endocardium of the heart D. Vagus C. They are filled mainly during diastole D. Branches of the right and left coronary arteries do no Key: B > C anastomose 388. In angina pectoris, the pain radiating down the left arm is mediated Key: D > B by increased activity in afferent fibers contained in the A. Carotid branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve 380. All opens into coronary sinus EXCEPT: B. Phrenic nerve A. Middle cardiac vein C. Vagus nerve and recurrent laryngeal nerve B. Small cardiac vein D. Thoracic splanchnic nerve C. Anterior cardiac vein D. Great cardiac vein Key: D

Key: C 389. A 59-year-old man complains of recurrent attacks in the region of left shoulder radiating to sternum and the pit of stomach. The 381. The coronary sinus: attacks of pain came at lengthy intervals until the last two days A. Lies in anterior part of the coronary sulcus when it became continuous. The physician diagnosed it as an B. Ends in right atrium angina pectoris. In this case the pain pathway from the heart is C. Has venae cordis minimae as its tributaries carried by: D. Develops from right anterior cardinal vein A. Superior cervical cardiac nerve B. Middle and inferior cervical cardiac nerve Key: B C. Thoracic splanchnic nerve D. Vagus 382. The great cardiac vein lies in which groove: A. Anterior part of right coronary sulcus Key: C B. Posterior part of right coronary sulcus C. Anterior interventricular groove 390. Cardiac ganglion is situated: D. Posterior interventricular groove A. Below arch of aorta B. Above arch of aorta Key: C C. Left side of ligamentum arteriosum D. Posterior to ligamentum arteriosum 383. Bleeding comes from the vein that is accompanied by the posterior interventricular artery. Which of the following veins is most likely Key: A to be ruptured? A. Great cardiac vein 391. True about SA node are all EXCEPT:

A. Supplied by nodal artery B. Primary pacemaker Abdomen, Pelvis and Perineum C. Supplied by left vagus nerve D. Made up of nodal cells and connective tissue

Key: C

392. The following statements are true regarding the SA node EXCEPT 1. Which of the following structure doesnot pass through oesophageal A. Is located at the right border of the ascending aorta hiatus: B. In contains specialized nodal cardiac muscle A. Thoracic duct C. It is supplied by the atrial branched of the right coronary B. Vagus artery C. Left gastric artery D. It initiates cardiac conduction D. Esophagus

Key: A Key: A

393. Purkinje fibres are: 2. Deep inguinal ring is a defect of: A. Modified nerve fibers A. Internal oblique aponeurosis B. Modified smooth muscle B. External oblique aponeurosis C. Modified cardiac muscle C. Transversus abdominis D. Fibrous tissue D. Fascia transversalis

Key: C Key: D

394. Trachea lies in which mediastinum: 3. Which of the following is true regarding deep inguinal ring: A. Superior A. It lies one cm superior to the mid inguinal point B. Anterior B. It lies medial to inferior epigastric artery C. Middle C. Opening in the transversus abdominis muscle D. Posterior D. It is traversed by ilioinguinal nerve

Key: A Key: A

395. Esophagus is present in all EXCEPT 4. Inguinal canal is bounded posteriorly by all except: A. Superior mediastinum A. Lacunar ligament B. Middle mediastinum B. Conjoint tendon C. Anterior mediastinum C. Inguinal ligament D. Posterior mediastinum D. Transversalis fascia

Key: C > B Key: A

396. Structures passing through superior thoracic aperture are all 5. Which of the following is not a constituent of spermatic cord: EXCEPT A. Vas deference A. Right recurrent laryngeal nerve B. Testicular vein B. Left common carotid artery C. Processus vaginalis C. Left sympathetic trunk D. Testicular artery D. Thoracic duct Key: B Key: A 6. Cremasteric muscle is supplied by: 397. Attachment of Sibson’s fascia is at vertebra: A. Ilioinguinal nerve A. C1 B. Genital branch of genito-femoral nerve B. C2 C. Obturator nerve C. C5 D. Popliteal D. C7 Key: B Key: D 7. By the age of eight months, testes descend into: A. Scrotum B. Deep inguinal ring C. Iliac fossa D. Superficial inguinal ring

Key: A

8. Posterior relation of foramen of Winslow is: A. IVC B. Liver C. Duodenum D. Pancreas

Key: A A. The blood supply is through the appendicular artery B. The most common site is retroileal 9. Which of the following is true about Meckel’s diverticulum: C. The root of the appendix is situated at the Mc Burney’s point A. Length is about 10 inches D. The root is identified easily as the taenia coli and ends around B. 2 inches from proximal to the iliocecal valve it. C. 2 feet proximal to the iliocecal valve D. Attached to mesenteric border of the ileum Key: B

Key: C 18. Which of the following is true regarding lower anal canal: A. Supplied by superior mesenteric artery 10. The neck of pancreas is related on its posterior surface to: B. Drained by superficial inguinal lymph node A. Gastroduodenal artery C. Lined by columnar epithelium B. Superior mesenteric vein D. Insensitive to pain C. Inferior venacava D. Bile duct Key: B

Key: B 19. Payer’s patches are present in: A. Jejunum 11. All of the following are relations of the spleen except: B. Ileum A. The left ureter C. Duodenum B. The tail of the pancreas D. Colon C. Fundus of the stomach D. Anterior surface of left kidney Key: B

Key: A 20. Appendix epiploica is seen in: A. Stomach 12. Which of the following artery supplies blood to fundus of B. Appendix stomach: C. Colon A. Short gastric arteries D. Duodenum B. Right gastric artery C. Left gastroepiploic artery Key: C D. Right gastroepiploic artery 21. The most common site of appendix is: Key: A A. Postileal B. Perineal 13. A posteriorly perforating ulcer in the pyloric antrum of the stomach C. Retrocecal is most likely to produce initial localized peritonitis or abscess D. Pelvic formation in the following: A. Omental bursa (lesser sac) Key: C B. Greater sac C. Right subphrenic space 22. False regarding appendix: D. Hepatorenal space (pouch of Morison) A. Inferior to cecum B. Clothed with peritoneum Key: A C. Supplied by appendicular artery D. Most common site is retrocecal 14. Which of the following is not present in the bed of stomach: A. Fourth part of duodenum Key: A B. Transverse mesocolon C. Splenic artery 23. Accessory pancreatic duct is also known as: D. Left suprarenal gland A. Santorini duct B. Hoffman’s duct Key: A C. Wirsung duct D. Henson’s duct 15. The first 2cm of duodenum is not supplied by: A. Hepatic artery Key: A B. Superior pancreaticoduodenal artery C. Right gastro-epiploic artery 24. Blood supply of liver : D. Right gastric artery A. 80% arterial and 20% venous B. 80% venous and 20% arterial Key: A C. 70% venous and 30% arterial D. 60% arterial and 40% venous 16. The nerve commonly damaged during mcburney’s incision is: A. Subcostal Key: B B. Iliohypogastric C. 11th thoracic D. 10th thoracic 25. Which of the following is not a branch of celiac artery: A. Cystic artery Key: B B. Left gastroepiploic artery C. Inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery 17. True regarding the appendix are all of the following except: D. Right gastric artery

B. Hepatic artery Key: C C. Splenic artery D. Cystic artery 26. Splenic artery is a branch of: A. Superior mesenteric artery Key: B B. Inferior mesenteric artery C. Celiac trunk 35. Right gastroepiploic artery is a branch of which of the following: D. Renal artery A. Celiac trunk B. Splenic artery Key: C C. Common hepatic artery D. Gastroduodenal artery 27. Ovarian artery is a branch of: A. Common iliac artery Key: D B. Superior epigastric artery C. Renal artery 36. The inferior mesenteric vein opens into: D. Abdominal aorta A. Portal vein B. Splenic vein Key: D C. Inferior venacava D. Superior mesenteric vein 28. Which of the following artery is the direct branch of coeliac trunk: A. Left gastric Key: B B. Right gastric C. Gastroduodenal 37. All of the following are tributaries of portal vein except: D. Right hepatic A. Superior mesenteric vein B. Splenic vein Key: A C. Inferior mesenteric vein D. Renal vein 29. Which of the following is not the arterial supply of the ureter? A. Renal artery Key: D B. Vesical artery C. Middle rectal artery 38. Portocaval anastomosis is not found in: D. Inferior phrenic artery A. Spleen B. Liver Key: D C. Rectum D. Esophagus 30. Left gastroepiploic artery is a branch of: A. Celiac artery Key: A B. Splenic artery C. Hepatic artery 39. Portocaval anastomosis occurs between: D. Superior mesenteric artery A. Liver portal = vein and renal azygos vein B. Esophagus =left gastric vein and para-umbilical vein Key: B C. Umbilicus =portal vein and accessory hemiazygous vein D. Rectum= superior rectal vein and inferior rectal vein. 31. Suprarenal gland doesnot receive bloodsupply from: A. Superior mesenteric artery Key: D B. Inferior phrenic artery C. Renal artery 40. Splenic artery is a branch of: D. Abdominal aorta A. Superior mesenteric artery B. Inferior mesenteric artery Key: A C. Celiac trunk D. Renal artery 32. Arterial supply of adrenal gland doesnot include: A. Inferior phrenic artery Key: C B. Abdominal aorta C. Renal artery 41. Ovarian artery is a branch of: D. Lumbar artery A. Common iliac artery B. Superior epigastric artery Key: D C. Renal artery D. Abdominal aorta 33. Which of the following is not a branch of superior mesenteric artery: Key: D A. Left colic B. Ileocolic 42. Which of the following artery is the direct branch of coeliac trunk: C. Right colic A. Left gastric D. Middle colic B. Right gastric C. Gastroduodenal Key: A D. Right hepatic

34. The gastroduodenal artery is derived from: Key: A A. Celiac artery

43. Left gastroepiploic artery is a branch of: A. Celiac artery Key: D B. Splenic artery C. Hepatic artery 52. Which of the following muscle is not posterior to right and left D. Superior mesenteric artery kidney: A. Transversus abdominis Key: B B. Quadratus lumborum C. Latissimus dorsi 44. Suprarenal gland doesnot receive bloodsupply from: D. Psoas major A. Superior mesenteric artery B. Inferior phrenic artery Key: C C. Renal artery D. Abdominal aorta 53. Right suprarenal vein drains into: A. Lumbar vein Key: A B. Left renal vein C. Inferior venacava 45. Arterial supply of adrenal gland doesnot include: D. Right renal vein A. Inferior phrenic artery B. Abdominal aorta Key: C, Right suprarenal vein drains into inferior venacava. Left C. Renal artery suprarenal vein drains into left renal vein. D. Lumbar artery 54. Which of the following structure is not related to the medial border Key: D of left suprarenal gland: A. Left celiac ganglion 46. Which of the following is not a branch of superior mesenteric B. Left inferior phrenic artery artery: C. Left gastric artery A. Left colic D. Left splenic artery B. Ileocolic C. Right colic Key: D D. Middle colic 55. Tributaries of left renal vein are all except Key: A A. Left adrenal vein B. Left testicular vein 47. The gastroduodenal artery is derived from: C. Left inferior phrenic vein A. Celiac artery D. Left lumbar vein B. Hepatic artery C. Splenic artery Key: D D. Cystic artery 56. The trigone of urinary bladder develops from: Key: B A. Mesoderm of paramesonepheric duct B. Endoderm of paramesonepheric duct 48. Right gastroepiploic artery is a branch of which of the following: C. Mesoderm of mesonephric duct A. Celiac trunk D. Endoderm of ureteric bud B. Splenic artery C. Common hepatic artery Key: C D. Gastroduodenal artery 57. Not an anterior relation of right kidney: Key: D A. Third part of duodenum B. Hepatic flexure of colon 49. The inferior mesenteric vein opens into: C. Liver A. Portal vein D. Suprarenal gland B. Splenic vein C. Inferior venacava Key: A D. Superior mesenteric vein 58. Structure not lying anterior to the left ureter is: Key: B A. Internal iliac artery B. Gonadal artery 50. All of the following are tributaries of portal vein except: C. Sigmoid colon A. Superior mesenteric vein D. Left colic artery B. Splenic vein C. Inferior mesenteric vein Key: A D. Renal vein 59. Which of the following is not the arterial supply of the ureter? Key: D A. Renal artery B. Vesical artery 51. Portocaval anastomosis occurs between: C. Middle rectal artery A. Liver portal = vein and renal azygos vein D. Inferior phrenic artery B. Esophagus =left gastric vein and para-umbilical vein C. Umbilicus =portal vein and accessory hemiazygous vein Key: D D. Rectum= superior rectal vein and inferior rectal vein.

60. Referred pain from ureteric colic is felt in the groin due to C. Levator ani involvement of the following nerve: D. Bulbospongiosus A. Subcostal B. Iliohypogastric Key: B C. Ilioinguinal D. Genitofemoral (L1,L2) 69. The lymphatic drainage of glans penis is to: A. Internal iliac nodes Key: D B. Obturator nodes C. Deep inguinal lymph nodes 61. Which of the following is the shortest part of male urethra: D. Superficial inguinal lymph nodes A. Membranous B. Bulbar Key: C C. Penile D. Prostatic 70. The cervix is supplied by which of the following nerve: A. S2,3,4 Key: A B. S1 C. L5,S1 62. The prostatic urethra is characterized by all of the following D. None features, except that it: A. Is the widest and most dilatable part Key: A B. Presents a concavity posteriorly C. Lies closer to anterior surface of prostate 71. The testicular vein on the left side drains into: D. Receives prostatic ductules along its posterior wall A. Inferior venacava B. Left renal vein Key: B C. Right renal vein D. Right internal iliac vein 63. In males, the mesonephric duct develops into: A. Vas deferens Key: B B. Appendix testis C. Prostatic urethra 72. The ovarian vein drains on right side into: D. Penile urethra A. Inferior venacava B. Left renal vein Key: A C. Right renal vein D. Right internal iliac vein 64. Left gonadal vein drains into: A. Azygos vein Key: A B. Iliac vein C. Left renal vein 73. All of the following statements regarding vas deferens are true D. Inferior venacava except: A. The terminal part is dilated to form ampulla Key: C B. It crosses ureter in the region of ischial spine C. It passes lateral to inferior epigastric artery at deep inguinal 65. Not a constituent of urogenital diaphragm: ring A. Sphincter urethrae D. It is separated from the base of bladder by the peritoneum B. Right deep transverse perinei C. Left deep transverse perinei Key: D D. Right superior transverse perinei 74. A 50 year old man suffering from carcinoma of prostate showed Key: D areas of sclerosis and collapse of T10 and T11 vertebrae in X-ray. The spread of this cancer to the above vertebrae was most probably 66. Benign prostatic hypertrphy results in obstruction of the urinary through: tract. The specific condition is associated with enlargement of the: A. Sacral canal A. Entire prostate gland B. Lymphatic vessels B. Lateral lobes C. Internal vertebral plexus of veins C. Median lobe D. Superior rectal veins D. Posterior lobes Key: C Key: C 75. In an adult male, on per rectal examination, the following structures 67. Not a content of deep perineal space: can be felt anteriorly, except: A. Ischiocavernous muscle A. Internal iliac lymph nodes B. Bulbourethral glands B. Bulb of penis C. Sphincter urethrae C. Prostate D. Deep transversus perinei D. Seminal vesicle when enlarged

Key: A Key: A

68. The muscular element of perineal body is formed by all except: 76. Which of the following does not form the boundary of ovarian A. External anal sphincter fossa: B. Ischiocavernous A. Obliterated umbilical artery

B. Ureter Key: A, Highest point of iliac crest is situated at the level of C. Internal iliac artery interval between spines of L3 and L4 D. Fallopian tubes

Key: D

77. Ovarian artery is a branch of: A. Common iliac artery B. Superior epigastric artery C. Renal artery D. Abdominal aorta

Key: D

78. Which of the following part is formed by paramesonephric duct: A. Ureter B. Uterus C. Bladder D. penis

Key: B

79. Uterine artery is a branch of: A. Internal iliac artery B. Common iliac artery C. External iliac artery D. Abdominal aorta

Key: A

80. The following group of lymph nodes receives lymphatics from the uterus except: A. External iliac B. Internal iliac C. Superficial inguinal D. Deep inguinal

Key: D

81. Which of the following is false regarding rectus sheath: A. It contains pyramidalis B. Inferior gastric artery pierces posteroinferiorly C. Its wall deficits posteriorly D. Transversalis fascia forms the posterior wall

Key: A

82. At which level the cisterna chyli opens: A. T12 B. T10 C. L3 D. L4

Key: A

83. The blood vessel related to paraduodenal fossa is: A. Gonadal vein B. Superior mesenteric artery C. Portal vein D. Inferior mesenteric vein

Key: D

84. The highest point of iliac crest corresponds at the level of …… spine: A. L4 B. L5 C. L6 D. L7