Model Test Paper 81 General Studies Paper-I

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO TEST BOOKLET GENERAL STUDIES Paper-I B Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 200 ------INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THE TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC, IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. 2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate place in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection. 3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside . DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. 6. All items carry equal marks. 7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate. 8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wrong Answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO Model Test Paper 81 General Studies Paper-I

1. Harappan crafts display an amazing degree of (c) Sthaviravadins standardization. According to Kenoyer, what was the possible reason for such an achievement? (d) Mahasanghikas 5. Consider the following statements about the (a) Availability of raw materials at local level early modern technology in India (b) Centralized market for crafts 1. The Portugese brought European movable metal types to Goa in 1550 (c) Specialized training centres for craftsmen 2. The first Indian script of which types were prepared was Tamil (d) State control 3. The English Company's first experiment with printing press was at Calcutta 2. Consider the following statements about 4. The English Company imported printing press to Ashokan rock edicts India in 1674-75 at the request of Bhimji Parak 1. Major Rock Edict XIII records Ashoka's remorse Which of the statements given above are correct? at the sufferings caused by his Kalinga campaign 2. Major Rock Edict X records Ashoka's visit to (a) 1 and 2 Lumbini 3. Major Rock Edict XII refers to Dhamma (b) 2 and 3 Mahamattas as a new category of officers instituted by Ashoka (c) 3 and 4 4. Major Rock Edict XII speaks about showing tolerance towards all sects (d) 1, 2 and 4 Which of the statements given above are correct? 6. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true for Olympe de Gouges? (a) 1 and 4 1. She was one of the most important politically active woman in revolutionary France (b) 2 and 3 2. She was one of the members of the Committee that drafted the Declaration of Rights of Man and (c) 3 and 4 Citizen 3. She wrote the Declaration of the Rights of (d) 1, 3 and 4 Woman and Citizen 3. Which one of the following is the common Select the correct answer using the code given element among Rajagriha, Vaishali and Patliputra? below (a) 1 only (a) Pali canon of the Sthaviravadins was compiled there (b) 3 only (b) Ashokan Major Rock Edicts were found there (c) 1 and 2 (c) Places where Buddhist Councils were held (d) 1 and 3 (d) Places associated with the compilation of 7. Arrange the following inventions in the field of Buddhists canons of the Mahasanghikas cotton industry in chronological order (starting with the earliest) 4. Which one among the following sects was associated with Gosala Maskariputra? 1. James Hargreave's Spinning Jenny 2. John Kay's Flying Shuttle (a) Vajrayana 3. Samuel Crompton's Mule 4. Richard Arkwright's Water Frame (b) Ajivikas Model Test Paper 81 General Studies Paper-I

Select the correct answer using the code given 1. Right to education below 2. Right to work 3. Right to form associations (a) 1, 3, 4, 2 4. Right to practice any profession (b) 2, 1, 4, 3 select the correct answer using the code given below (c) 4, 1, 3, 2 (d) 2, 4, 1, 3 (a) 1 and 2 8. While opposing the Public Safety Bill, 1928 who (b) 2 and 4 among the following said that it was 'a direct attack on Indian nationalism, on the Indian (c) 2 only National Congress' and as 'the Slavery of India, Bill No. 1'? (d) 1 and 3 12. Mahatma Gandhi's Hind Swaraj is essentially (a) Motilal Nehru (b) Lala Lajpat Rai (a) a critique of Western modernity (c) T Prakasam (b) an outline of his philosophy of Satyagraha (d) Diwan Chaman Lal (c) an invocation to Indians to free themselves from the British 9. Soon after the formation of Indian National Congress, the British became suspicious of (d) a blue print of Gram Swaraj nationalists. Who among the following called Congress representing only the elite- 'a 13. The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of microscopic minority'? India contains

(a) Lord Napier (a) provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas (b) Lord Dufferin (b) the Union List, the State List and the (c) Lord Ripon Concurrent List (d) Lord Lytton (c) a list of recognized languages 10. What is common element among Ram Prasad (d) provisions about the disqualification of Bismil, Roshan Singh and Rajendra Lahiri? Members of Legislatures on grounds of defection 14. Pochampally in Nalgonda district of Telangana (a) They threw a bomb in the Central Legislative became famous in April, 1951 because Assembly on 8 April, 1929 (b) They were the founder members of Swaraj (a) the Bhoodan movement was launched there by Party Vinoba Bhave (c) They were the founders of Hindustan (b) the landless peasants rose up in arms against Republican Association the landlords (d) They were associated with Kakori Conspiracy (c) it witnessed violent anti-Hindi agitation case (d) Silk weavers' cooperative was formed for the 11. Which of the following is/are not fundamental first time in India right(s) under the Constitution of India? Model Test Paper 81 General Studies Paper-I

15. Who among the following was not associated panchayats with the Sarvodaya movement? 3. Election to panchayats under the supervision of the State Election Commissions 4. Introduction of the 11th Schedule to the (a) Jaya Prakash Narayan Constitution (b) Acharya Vinoba Bhave Select the correct answer using the code given below (c) Dhirendra Mazumdar (d) G V Apparao (a) 1, 2 and 3 16. Article 368 of the Constitution of India deals (b) 3 and 4 with (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (a) the powers of the Parliament of India to amend (d) 2 and 4 the Constitution 20. The upper and lower portions in common type (b) financial emergency of bi-focal lenses are respectively (c) reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha (a) concave and convex (d) Official Language of the Union of India (b) convex and concave 17. Which among the following is not a basic (c) both concave of different focal lengths feature of the Constitution of India? (d) both convex of different focal lengths (a) Fundamental rights 21. Tungsten is uded for the construction of filament in electric bulb because of its (b) Independence of judiciary (c) Federalism (a) high specific resistance (d) The unquestioned right of the Parliament to (b) low specific resistance amend any part of the Constitution (c) high light emitting power 18. Which one among the following is not a fundamental duty? (d) high melting point 22. Inactive Nitrogen and Argon gases are usually (a) To abide by the Constitution of India and used in electric bulbs in order to respect the national flag and national anthem (b) To safeguard public property (a) increase the intensity of light emitted (c) To protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity (b) increase the life of the filament of India (c) make the emitted light coloured (d) To render compulsory military service (d) make the production of bulb economical 19. Which of the following are the basic features of the Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act? 23. In the phenomenon of dispersion of light, the light waves of shortest wavelength is 1. Provides for a three-tier structure of panchayats in the village, intermediary and district levels 2. Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and (a) accelerated and refracted the most Scheduled Tribes and women in all the tiers of Model Test Paper 81 General Studies Paper-I

(b) slowed down and refracted the most 27. (c) accelerated and refracted the least (d) slowed down and refracted the least 24. An oscilloscope is an instrument which allows us to see waves produced by

(a) visible light (b) X-rays (c) sound (d) Gamma rays 25. The distribution of electrons into different orbits of an atom, as suggested by Bohr, is The distance-time graph for an object is shown above. Which one of the following statements (a) 2 electrons in the K-orbit, 6 electrons in the L- holds true for this object orbit, 18 electrons in the M-orbit (b) 2 electrons in the K-orbit, 8 electrons in the L- (a) the object is moving with uniform speed orbit, 32 electrons in the M-orbit (b) The object is at rest (c) 2 electrons in the K-orbit, 8 electrons in the L- orbit, 18 electrons in the M-orbit (c) The object is having non-linear motion (d) 2 electrons in the K-orbit, 8 electrons in the L- (d) The object is moving with non-unifrom speed orbit, 16 electrons in the M-orbit 28. For a harmonic oscillator, the graph between 26. Carbon and Graphite rods are used in atomic momentum p and displacement q would come out reactors as moderators for sustained nuclear chain as reaction through nuclear fission process. In this process (a) a straight line

(a) the neutrons are made fast (b) a parabola (b) the protons are made fast (c) a circle (c) the neutrons are made slow (d) an ellipse 29. Which one among the following is the generic (d) the protons are made slow name of the casual organism of Elephantiasis?

(a) Filaria (b) Microfilaria (c) Wuchereria bancrofti (d) Culex pipiens Model Test Paper 81 General Studies Paper-I

30. Which one among the following statements is 34. Which of the following statements is/are not correct? correct? 1. Coronory artery supplies blood to heart muscles (a) Pulses are rich in proteins 2. Plmonory vein supplies blood to lungs 3. Hepatic artery supplies blood to kidneys (b) Milk is a rich source of Vitamin A 4. Renal veins supplies blood to kidneys (c) Cereals are very poor source of carbohydrates Select the correct answer using the code given below (d) Vegetables are rich source of minerals 31. Which of the statements given below are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 1. A person having blood group 'A' can donate (b) 1 and 2 blood to persons having blood group 'A' and blood group 'AB' (c) 2 and 4 2. A person having blood group 'AB' can donate blood to persons having blood groups 'A', 'B', 'AB' (d) 1, 2 and 4 or 'O' 3. A person with blood group 'O' can donate blood 35. Which of the following was the theme of to persons having any blood group World Environment Day 2016? 4. A person with blood group 'O' can receive blood from the person of any of the blood groups (a) Green Economy. Does it include you? Select the correct answer using the code given below (b) Go Wild for Life (c) Many Species. One Planet. One Future (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) Samall Islands and Climate Change (b) 1 and 2 36. Which one of the following types of pesticides (c) 3 and 4 is convenient to control stored grain pests? (d) 1 and 3 (a) Systemic pesticides 32. Which one among the following is the correct pathway for the elimination of urine? (b) Fumigants (c) Contact poisons (a) Kidneys, Ureters, Bladder, Urethra (d) Stomach poisons (b) Kidneys, Urethra, Bladder, Ureters 37. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (c) Urethra, Ureters, Bladder, Kidneys answer using the code given below the Lists (d) Bladder, Ureters, Kidneys, Urethra List-I ----- List-II (Animal) ------(Phyla) 33. Which of the following parts are found in both A. Ascaris ------1. Mammalia plant and animal cells? B. Malarial parasite ------2. Arthropoda C. Housefly ------3. Nematoda D. Cow ------4. Apicomplexa (a) Cell membrane, Chloroplast, Vacuole Code (b) Cell wall, Nucleus, Vacuole (c) Cell membrane, Cytoplasm, Nucleus (a) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1 (d) Cell wall, Chloroplast, Cytoplasm (b) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1 Model Test Paper 81 General Studies Paper-I

(c) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3 43. In Tritiums (T), the number of protons (P) and neutrons (N) respectively are (d) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3 38. Which one among the following pairs is not (a) 1 P and 1 N correctly matched? (b) 1 P and 2 N (a) Sandal wood plant : Partial root parasite (c) 1 P and 3 N (b) Cuscuta : Parasite (d) 2 P and 1 N (c) Nepenthes : Carnivorous 44. When carbon dioxide is passed through lime water, the solution turns milky, but, on prolonged (d) Mushrooms : Autotroph passage, the solution turns clear. This because 39. Which one among the following cattle breed produces highest amount of milk? (a) the calcium carbonate formed initially is converted to soluble calcium bicarbonate on passage of more carbon dioxide (a) Brown Swiss (b) the reaction is reversible and lime water is (b) Holstein regenerated (c) Dutch belted (c) the calcium bicarbonate formed initially is converted to soluble calcium carbonate on (d) Blaarkop passage of more carbon dioxide 40. Bagasse, a by-product of sugar manufacturing (d) the initially formed insoluble compound is industry, is uded for the production of soluble in carbonic acid 45. The form of carbon known as graphite (a) glass (b) paper (a) is harder than diamond (c) rubber (b) contains a higher percentage of carbon than diamond (d) cement (c) is better electrical conductor than diamond 41. The main constituent of Gobar gas is (d) has equal carbon-to-carbon distances in all directions (a) Ethane 46. Which one among the following is an example (b) Methane of chemical change? (c) Propane (a) The melting of an ice cube (d) Acetylene (b) The boiling of gasoline 42. Which of the following is a good lubricant? (c) The frying of an egg (a) Diamond powder (d) Attraction of an iron nail to a magnet (b) Graphite powder 47. Which of the following is not correct about (c) Molten carbon Baking Soda? (d) Alloy of carbon and iron Model Test Paper 81 General Studies Paper-I

(a) It is used in soda-acid fire extinguisher (d) 4 - 1 - 2 - 3 (b) It is added for faster cooking 51. Which of the following statemetns are correct? (c) It is a corrosive base 1. APEC is regional economic forum comprising of 18 member countries (d) It neutralizes excess acid in the stomach 2. India is a member of APEC 48. Chromium oxide in paints makes the colour of paint (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) Green (c) Both 1 and 2 (b) White (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Red 52. The important works of J. M. Keynes included (d) Blue 49. Which of the following are the most important (a) Indian currency and finance reason(s) of flood becoming a destructive natural hazard in the Ganga-Brahmaputra valley? (b) The economic consequences of peace 1. Due to population pressure more and more (c) A treatise on money people are living in flood prone areas 2. Increased frequency and magnitude of landslide (d) All of these and soil erosion in the upper catchments 3. Increase in the amount and intensity of rainfall 53. The new agricultural strategy called Green in the north-western part of India Revolution was initiated in the year Select the correct answer using the code given below (a) 1947 (b) 1951 (a) 1 only (c) 1965 (b) 1 and 2 (d) 1974 (c) 2 and 3 54. Which of the following ministries has launched (d) 1, 2 and 3 an online quiz programme titled – ‘BHARAT KO JANIYE’? 50. Arrange the following states of India on the basis of conferring statehood (starting from the earliest) (a) Ministry of Culture 1. Arunachal Pradesh (b) Ministry of HRD 2. Nagaland 3. Sikkim (c) Ministry of Overseas Indian Affairs 4. Meghalaya (d) Ministry of External Affairs Select the correct answer using the code given below 55. Which of the following statements are correct? (a) 2 - 4 - 3 - 1 1. The Cairns Group (Cairns Group of Fair Trading Nations) is an interest group of 20 agricultural (b) 2 - 1 - 4 - 3 exporting countries 2. Pakistan is a member of the Cairns Group (c) 4 - 1 - 3 - 2 3. India is a member of the Cairns Group Model Test Paper 81 General Studies Paper-I

(a) 1 only 60. When was the 'First Royal Commission on Agriculture' set up? (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 (a) 1914 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1927 56. Which of the following statements are correct (c) 1930 about the green bonds? (d) 1933 1. A green bond is a debt instrument 2. It is a tax free bond 61. China Peak lies in the district of 3. It is used for the development of the brownfield sites (a) Chamoli (a) 1 only (b) Almora (b) 1 and 2 (c) Uttar Kashi (c) 1 and 3 (d) Nainital (d) 1, 2 and 3 62. Which of the following is correctly matched? 57. Which one of these is not a viral disease? (a) Tughlaqnama - Firuz Tughlaq (a) Dengue (b) Prithviraj Raso - Chandbardai (b) Malaria (c) Rajatrangini - Jayadeva (c) Influenza (d) Gitagovinda - Kalhana (d) Swine Flu 63. Which of the following statements are correct? 58. Who was the first 'Satyagrahi' of the individual 1. The National Doctors’ Day is celebrated every Satyagraha launched in 1940? year on July 1 in India 2. It is to honour the legendary physician and the 2nd Chief Minister of West Bengal, Dr Bidhan (a) Mahatma Gandhi Chandra Roy (b) Vallabhbhai Patel (a) Only 1 (c) Vinoba Bhave (b) Only 2 (d) Sarojini Naidu (c) Both 1 and 2 59. Bhallu Bhai Desai was a (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Teacher 64. What is the principle by which a cooling system (Radiator) in a motor car works ? (b) Medical practitioner (a) Conduction only (c) Legal practitioner (b) Convection (d) Political leader (c) Radiation only Model Test Paper 81 General Studies Paper-I

(d) Both conduction and radiation (b) Pakistan (c) Sri Lanka 65. With reference to the treatment of cancerous tumours, a tool called cyberknife has been making (d) the news. In this context, which one of the following statements is not correct ? 70. The Lilavati of Bhaskara is a standard text on (a) It is a robotic image guided system (a) Mathematics (b) It delivers an extremely precise dose of radiation (b) Surgery (c) It has the capability of achieving sub-millimetre (c) Poetics accuracy (d) Linguistics (d) It can map the spread of tumour in the body 71. Who among the following Prime Ministers of 66. Inle Lake, a biosphere reserve is located in India were defeated by vote of No Confidence? 1. Morarji Desai (a) India 2. Viswanath Pratap Singh 3. H. D. Deve Gowda (b) Bhutan 4. Atal Bihari Vajpayee (c) Sri Lanka Select the correct answer using the code given below (d) Myanmar Code: 67. Which of the following in Afghanistan is known as the Afghan-India Friendship Dam? (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (a) (b) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Naghlu Dam (c) 2, 3 and 4 (c) Salma Dam (d) 1 and 4 (d) 72. Which of the following statements regarding 68. Which of the following statements are correct? Rajya Sabha is/are correct? 1. Atal Setu is a newly constructed cable stayed 1. The maximum permissible strength of Rajya bridge Sabha is 250 2. It is located in Punjab 2. In Rajya Sabha, 238 members are elected indirectly from the States and Union Territoreis 3. It shares legislative powers equally with Lok (a) 1 only Sabha in matters such as creation of All India Service (b) 2 only Select the correct answer using the code given (c) Both 1 and 2 below (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Code: 69. Which of the following country's Parliament has one block of Parliament as Atal Block after (a) 1 and 2 former Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee (b) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Bhutan Model Test Paper 81 General Studies Paper-I

(c) 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (d) 1 only (c) 1 only 73. Which of the following statements relating to (d) 3 only the office of the President of India are correct? 76. Which of the following is/are the example(s) of 1. The President has the power to grant pardon to Transfer of Payment(s)? a criminal in special cases 2. The President can promulgate ordinances even 1. Unemployment Allowance when the Parliament is in session 2. Payment of Salary 3. The President can dissolve the Rajya Sabha 3. Social Security Payments during emergency 4. Old age Pension 4. The President has the power to nominate two members in the Lok Sabha from the Anglo Indian Select the correct answer using the code given community below Select the correct answer using the code given Code: below Code: (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 and 2 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4 (d) None of the above (c) 3 and 4 77. Which of the following Articles/Schedules in (d) 1, 3 and 4 the Constitution of India deals with Autonomous District Councils? 74. The followers of Gorakhnath were called (a) Eighth Schedule (a) Yogis (b) Fourth Schedule (b) Nath-Panthis (c) Sixth Schedule (c) Tantriks (d) Article 250 (d) Sanyasis 78. Which of the following statements with regard 75. Which of the statements given below is/are to UID/Aadhar Card are correct? correct? 1. It is a 12 digit unique form of identification for 1. The ideal of a common civil code is set forth in all residents of India Article 44 of the Constitution of India 2. It is an identity number along with the biometric 2. In certain respects, the High Courts in India have information of the individuals been given more extensive powers than the 3. It is a national identity and citizenship card Supreme Court 3. The Supreme Court of India, the first fully Select the correct answer using the code given independent Court for the country, was set up below under the Constitution of India in 1950 Code: Select the correct answer using the code given below (a) 2 and 3 Code: (b) 1 and 2 (a) 1, 2 and 3 Model Test Paper 81 General Studies Paper-I

(c) 1 and 3 82. Which one of the following is correctly matched? (d) 1, 2 and 3 79. Which of the following statements about (a) Rangpur : Rice Husk Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) are correct? (b) Harappa : Horse Remains 1. The CAG will hold office for a period of six years (c) Surkotda : Plough Field from the date he assumes the office. He shall vacate office on attaining the age of 65 years, if (d) Chanhudaro : Citadel earlier than the expiry of the 6 year term 2. The powers of CAG are derived from the 83. The term used to refer to barren land in the Constitution of India Vedic texts is 3. The CAG is a multi-member body appointed by the President of India in consultation with the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers (a) Vraja 4. The CAG may be removed by the President only on an address from both Houses of Parliament, on (b) Kulya the grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity (c) Suyavas Select the correct answer using the code given below (d) Khila code: 84. Project Loon aims to

(a) 1, 2 and 4 (a) provide contraceptive facilities in rural areas (b) 1, 2 and 3 (b) provide sanitation facilities in urban slums (c) 3 and 4 (c) provide immunization in rural areas (d) 1 and 2 (d) providing Internet access to rural and remote areas 80. Which one of the following is site of the Harappan Civilization wherein a Persian gulf seal 85. Yadu and Turvasa referred to the Rig-Veda has been unearthed? were the names of

(a) Harappa (a) Two Generals (b) Mohen-jo-Daro (b) Two Tribes (c) Lothal (c) Two Kings (d) Kalibhangan (d) Two Brothers 81. The crop which does not seem to have been 86. A lay Buddhist is known as known to the people of Harappan Culture is (a) Upasaka (a) Rice (b) Arhat (b) Ragi (c) Bhakta (c) Cotton (d) Bhikkhu (d) Barley Model Test Paper 81 General Studies Paper-I

87. The Aryans first settled in the valley of (b) Indo Pakistan war of 1971 (c) Indo China war of 1962 (a) Indus river (d) Kargil Conflict (b) Ganga river 93. Under the Delhi Sultans Kharaj was (c) Yamuna river (d) Kaveri river (a) Land tax 88. 'Neytal' in sangam literature means (b) Poll tax (c) House tax (a) Barren land (d) Cattle tax (b) Mountainous region 94. Every year 22nd December is observed as (c) Coastal area National Mathematics Day to celebrate birth anniversary of great Indian autodidact (d) Forest Mathematician 89. Who of the following was not a king of the Mauryan dynasty? (a) Aryabhata (b) Brahmagupta (a) Chandragupta (c) Srinivasa Ramanujan (b) Dasaratha (d) P.C. Mahalanobis. (c) Bimbisara 95. Which of the following are correctly matched? (d) Bindusara 1. 24th December: National Consumer Day 90. The city of Agra was founded by 2. 25th December: National Good Governance Day

(a) Daulat Khan Lodi (a) 1 only (b) Bahol Lodi (b) 2 only (c) Sikandar Lodi (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Ibrahim Lodi (d) Neither 1 nor 2 91. Khots and muqaddams were 96. Ghadr-110 ballistic missile belongs to

(a) Village headmen (a) Pakistan (b) Peasants (b) Turkey (c) Village menials (c) Iran (d) Village labourers (d) Iraq

92. Operation Trident is related to (a) Indo Pakistan war of 1965 Model Test Paper 81 General Studies Paper-I

97. Arrow or Hetz is a family of anti-ballistic missiles of

(a) Iran (b) Russia (c) USA (d) Israel 98. Which of the following country has launched Islamic Military Coalition?

(a) Iran (b) Iraq (c) Pakistan (d) Saudi Arabia 99. India is procuring S-400 Trium Air Defence Missile Systems from

(a) Israel (b) USA (c) France (d) Russia 100. Which of the following statements are correct? 1. India is building its first Naval Base on the Assumption Island in the Indian Ocean region (IOR) 2. Assumption Island has been leased to India by the Seychelles government

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Model Test Paper 81 General Studies Paper-I

Answer Sheet