SARTHI-COACHING-PUNE-MPSC-CET-2019 GS PAPER I ANSWER KEY Note: Answer key, along with explanation for the answer is provided below. Objection/s, if any, for the answer of any question, may be sent to [email protected] by 14th July, 2019, with proper explanation/solution along with the extract of relevant reference book. Objection/s received without proper explanation/solution and without the extract of relevant reference book WILL NOT be entertained. Objection/s received after 14th July, 2019, WILL NOT be entertained.
Sr.no. Ans. Sr.no. Ans. Sr.no. Ans. Sr.no. Ans. 1 4 26 4 51 1 76 4
2 4 27 2 52 3 77 2
3 1 28 2 53 3 78 3 4 3 29 2 54 2 79 4
5 3 30 4 55 3 80 1 6 2 31 4 56 4 81 3
7 1 32 3 57 3 82 3 8 2 33 1 58 1 83 3
9 4 34 3 59 1 84 1
10 4 35 2 60 4 85 3 11 3 36 3 61 3 86 1
12 1 37 2 62 1 87 4 13 2 38 4 63 2 88 3
14 4 39 4 64 4 89 1 15 2 40 3 65 4 90 4
16 4 41 1 66 2 91 4
17 3 42 1 67 1 92 1 18 3 43 4 68 3 93 1
19 2 44 3 69 1 94 4 20 2 45 2 70 2 95 3
21 4 46 2 71 1 96 2 22 1 47 1 72 1 97* -
23 1 48 3 73 4 98 2
24 4 49 1 74 4 99 3 25 3 50 1 75 3 100 2
* Q 97- Full marks will be given to all the candidates for Q 97, since correct option was not provided in the question paper. Refer explanation provided below for details.
1. 4
In India, the term First War of Independence was first popularized by Vinayak Damodar Savarkar in his 1909 book The History of the War of Indian Independence, which was originally written in Marathi. Hence option 4 is correct.
2. 4
According to the scriptures of all Buddhist schools, the first Buddhist Council was held soon after the death of the Buddha, dated by the majority of recent scholars around 400 BCE, under the patronage of the king Ajatashatru with the monk Mahakasyapa presiding, at Sattapanni caves Rajgriha (now Rajgir).
The Second Buddhist Council was held at Vaisali (or Vaishali), an ancient city in what is now the state of Bihar in northern India, bordering Nepal under the patronage of King Kalasoka while it was presided by Sabakami. This Council probably was held about a century after the first one, or about 383 BCE.
The Third Buddhist council was convened in about 250 BCE at Asokarama in Pataliputra, supposedly under the patronage of Emperor Ashoka
Another Fourth Buddhist Council was held in the Sarvastivada tradition, said to have been convened by the Kushan emperor Kanishka, in 78 AD at Kundalban in Kashmir. Hence option 4 is correct.
3. 1
The Minor Pillar Edicts are the Schism Edict, warning of punishment for dissent in the Samgha, the Queen's Edict, and the Rummindei Edict as well as the Nigali Sagar Edict which record Ashoka's visits and Buddhist dedications in the area corresponding to today's Nepal.
Minor pillar edict 2 contains the text of his order to his officers to the effect that the heretical monks and nuns should be expelled from the sangha.
Ashoka’s inscriptions also reveal that he was a Buddhist. In the Bhabru and Saranath edicts he makes an open confession of his faith in the trinity— the Buddha, the Dhamma and the Sangha.
Ashoka does not appoint followers of Buddhist religion to high govt. post.
Hence option 1 is correct.
4. 3
Gandhara is noted for the distinctive Gandhara style of Buddhist art, which developed from a merger of Greek, Syrian, Persian, and local artistic influences. This development began during the Parthian Period (50 BC – 75 AD). The Gandhāran style flourished and achieved its peak during the Kushan period, from the 1st to the 5th centuries. It declined and was destroyed after the invasion of the White Huns in the 5th century. Hence option 3 is correct.
5. 3
Alexander’s invasion opened four different routes between India and Greece. These were by land as well as by sea. The Greek merchants and craftsmen used this routes to trade with India. Alexander’s generals, like Seleukos, after his death, founded some small kingdoms on the North- West India. These were the centres of trade between India and Greece.
The Persians and their ruler Darius were defeated by the Greeks. The Indian states under Persian rule became independent. So, when Alexander came to India there were many independent small Indian kingdoms existing in the Northwest frontier of India. Alexander defeated them and brought most of them under one political control. It indirectly helped the Maurya rulers to bring these areas under their Empire. Again, in some traditions it has been mentioned that Chandragupta Maurya, who founded the Maurya dynasty, acquired some knowledge of military generalship and organization from Alexander. Later, he used it against the Nandas of Magadha and was able to establish a new dynasty. Hence option 3 is correct.
6. 2
Ajatashatru, also known as Kunika, was the son of Bimbisara. The ancient inscription in Government Museum, Mathura refers to him as vaidehi putra Ajatashatru Kunika "Ajatashatru Kunika, the son of Vaidehi." The story of Ajatashatru is found in the Tripiṭaka of Buddhism and Jain Agamas.
After the death of his father in about 495 B.C. Ajatshatru came to the throne of Magadha Empire. He ruled for about 32 years, i.e., 495 B.C. to 462 B.C. He was a very ambitious and powerful king. Under him Magadha Empire saw the further extension of its territories in almost all the directions.
His greatest achievement was, however, against a powerful confederacy of 36 kingdoms and Republican States, the chief being the Lichchhavis of Vaisali. It took him about 16 years (484 to 468 B.C.) to complete this work. It was not an easy job to defeat the Lichchhavis because they were not only strong and war-like people but also well-united.
Later on when Buddha died, Ajatshatru is said to have rushed to Kushinagar and asked for his share of Buddha’s relics, and he built a beautiful Stupa on it. The most important work that was done by Ajatshatru for Buddhism was to call the First Buddhist Council at Rajagriha in about 487 B.C. Because of this action Ajatshatru will ever be remembered in the history of Buddhism. Hence option 2 is correct.
7. 1
The following were the main features of the Civil Disobedience movement: a) The people refused to obey unjust laws. Gandhi led the Dandi March and broke the unjust salt tax law as a challenge to the British Government. b) Foreign cloth was boycotted and liquor shops were picketed. Peasants refused to pay revenue and taxes. People also broke the forest laws. c) Schools, colleges and government offices and institutions were boycotted. d) There was large- scale arrest of people and leaders who participated in the Civil Disobedience Movement. Hence option 1 is correct.
8. 2
Alawal was the author of several poems on Vaishnava subjects.
Abdullah Khan, one of the Sayyid brothers celebrated Basant and Holi festivals of the Hindus.
Nawab Mir Jafar in his death bed had requested for the holy Charanamrito (the holy water) of Maa Kiriteswari while suffering from leprosy.
Some of the nobles observed the Holi festival and Daulat Rao Scindia and his officers joined Muharram processions in green dress like Muhammadans. Hence option 2 is correct.
9. 4
Special Calcutta Session, 1920, in which Mahatma Gandhi moved the Noncooperation resolution was presided by Lala Lajpat Rai and it was supported by others. Noncooperation movement was launched for two major issues :
1. The British Government’s attitude towards the Khilafat Movement.
2. Its’ failure to protect the innocent people of the Punjab and punish the officers guilty of barbarous behavious towards them
Gandhi had announced the launching of the Non Cooperation Movement in August 1920. The Indian National Congress met in September at Calcutta to pass the resolution of the Non Cooperation Movement. Hence option 4 is correct.
10. 4
A bicameral legislature was set up with two houses – Legislative Assembly (forerunner of the Lok Sabha) and the Council of State (forerunner of the Rajya Sabha).
There were two lists for administration – central and provincial.
Some Indian women also had the right to vote for the first time.
Dyarchy was introduced, i.e., there were two classes of administrators – Executive councillors and ministers. Hence option 4 is correct.
11. 3
In 1918, Shahu Maharaj cancelled hereditary Kulkarni system and began talathi system.
Shahu Maharaj established Satya Shodhak vidyalaya at Kolhapur in 1913.
Also in 1918, Shahu Maharaj abolished Baluta system. Hence option 3 is correct.
12. 1
Following are most of the tools that were used during the Prehistoric period in India:
Sharpened sticks, Hammer stones, Choppers, Cleavers, Spears , Nets , Scrapers rounded, and pointed, Harpoons, Hand Axes, Animals skin, Bows and arrows, Shaft straighteners, Arrow shaft smoothers, Spear straightener. Hence option 1 is correct. 13. 2 Pantpradhan or Peshwa - Prime Minister, general administration of the Empire. Moropant Trimbak Pingle was the first Peshwa appointed by Shivaji.
Amatya or Mazumdar - Finance Minister, managing accounts of the Empire.[1]In 1662 Nilo Sondeo was appointed as Mazumdar. In 1674, at the Coronation ceremony, the post Mujumdar was renamed as Amatya and the title was solely bestowed Ramchandra Pant Amatya
Shurunavis/Sacheev - Secretary, preparing royal, In 1662 Annaji Datto was appointed as Shurnavis/Sacheev.
Sumant/Dabir - Foreign Minister, to manage relationships with other sovereigns. First Dabir was Sonopant Vishwanath Dabir who was sent by Shahaji to help Shivaji and Jijabai in Pune region. After Sonopant, his son Traymbak Sono Dabir was appointed as Dabir and after him, his son Ramchandra Tyambak Dabir was appointed as Dabir in Chatrapati Shivaji Maharaja's Asth Pradhan Mandal. When Shivaji donated the gold equal to his mother Jijabai's weight, he also donated the gold equal to Sonopant Dabir's weight at Mahabaleshawar. Hence option 2 is correct.
14. 4
During this time, Sarala Devi founded the first woman’s organization in India known as the Bharat Stree Mahamandal in Allahabad. The main goal of the organization was to promote and improve female education in the country which was not well recognized at the time. The organization believed in the advancement of women by bringing together women of every race, class and party in India. Membership was obtained through an entry fee of one rupee and was open for any woman regardless of caste, race, or class. Hence option 4 is correct.
15. 2 Latika Ghosh was the Oxford educated niece of Arubindo Ghosh. She started the Mahila Rashtriya Sangha (MRS) in Chiitagong in 1928 at the behest of Netaji Subash Chandra Bose. Hence option 2 is correct.
16. 4
B.C. Pal elaborated the demand of the new party thus: “It is not reforms, but re-form, which is the new cry in the country. ... Freedom is the life breath of a nation; to attempt social reform, educational reform, industrial expansion, had believed what their rulers had said, either of themselves or of their subjects, as gospel truth. Hence option 4 is correct.
17. 3
Afzal Khan (died 10 November 1659) was a 17th-century general who served the Adil Shahi dynasty of Bijapur in present-day Karnataka, and fought against Shivaji. He was killed at a meeting with Shivaji by Shivaji's lieutenant Sambhaji Kavji, and his army was defeated in the Battle of Pratapgad.
Battle of Surat, also known as the Sack of Surat, was a land battle that took place on January 5, 1664, near the city of Surat, Gujarat, India between Maratha ruler Shivaji and Inayat Khan, a Mughal captain.
In 1666, Aurangzeb invited Shivaji to Agra, along with his nine-year-old son Sambhaji.
Shivaji was crowned king of Maratha Swaraj in a lavish ceremony on 6 June 1674 at Raigad fort. Hence option 3 is correct.
18. 3 Indians in the govt. service: The section 87 of the Charter Act of 1833, declared that, neither native of the British territories in India, nor any natural born subject of his majesty therein, shall by any reason only by his religion, place of birth, descent, color or any of them be disabled from holding any place, office or employment under the company. Thus, the charter act of 1833 was the first act which made provision to freely admit the natives of India to share an administration in the country. The act laid down that court of directors should nominate annually 4 times as many candidates as there were vacancies, from which one should be selected by competitive examination. The charter act of 1833 also provided the Haileybury college of London should make quota to admit the future civil servants. However, this system of an open competition was not effectively operated in near future.
Mitigation of slavery: This act also directed the governor general in council to adopt measures to mitigate the state of slavery, persisting in India since sultanate Era. The governor general in council was also directed to pay attention to laws of marriage, rights and authorities of the heads of the families, while drafting any laws. Hence option 3 is correct.
19. 2
1888 – Allahabad – George Yule 1889 – Bombay – William Wedderburn 1894 – Madras – Alfred Webb 1904 – Bombay – Henry Cotton Hence option 2 is correct.
20. 2 Sabha suggested to the Government to give agricultural education and start banks for the farmer. Then Government made the laws for Deccan farmer. Nearly one crore people affected by famine in Deccan and West Maharashtra in 1876. Sabha offered 17000/- rupees for the affected people. Sabha insisted on appointing a famine committee to solve this problem permanently to the Government. Government appointed a famine committee. Mr Kerd was the president of this committee. Mahadev Aapte defended Vasudev Phadke in High Court. Stri- Vicharvati social institution was established by Saraswati Bai Joshi at Pune. Ganesh Vasudev Joshi opposed the vernacular press act 1878. Hence option 2 is correct.
21. 4 Vireshwar Chhatre started the Dyansindhu weekly in 1842 in Mumbai. On many social issues, opinions of Jambhekar's mirror were followed by the same but this newspaper could not be run for long time. After that he started Mitrodaya. Hence option 4 is correct.
22. 1 The CPI declared unconditional support to the war efforts of the British government. The German Blitzkrieg technique was as devastating in Russia as it had been in the rest of Europe. The scene was set for a war of annihilation waged by the Nazis against the Soviets with no mercy shown by either side. One week into the German invasion, 150,000 Soviet soldiers were either dead or wounded - more than during the five months of the Battle of the Somme. Therefore, Great Britain supported to Russian against the German Invasion. Hence option 1 is correct.
23. 1 The report finds that at 2 degrees Celsius warming, some places will see an increase in heavy rainfall events compared to at 1.5 degrees warming, especially in the Northern Hemisphere high latitudes (Alaska/Western Canada, Eastern Canada/Greenland/Iceland, Northern Europe, Northern Asia); mountainous regions like the Tibetan Plateau; Southeast Asia; and Eastern North America, with higher flooding risks.
More of Earth’s land areas will also be affected by flooding and increased runoff. Heavy rainfall from tropical cyclones is projected to be higher.
Warmer temperatures will also expand the range of many disease-causing pathogens that were once confined to tropical and subtropical areas, killing off plant and animal species that formerly were protected from disease.
Agricultural systems will likely be dealt a crippling blow. Though growing seasons in some areas will expand, the combined impacts of drought, severe weather, lack of accumulated snowmelt, greater number and diversity of pests, lower groundwater tables and a loss of arable land could cause severe crop failures and livestock shortages worldwide. Hence option 1 is correct.
24. 4 Equatorial hot, wet climate is found between 5* – 10* north & south of the equator mostly viz. the Amazon Basin (South America) the Congo Basin (Africa) Malaysia Indonesia Singapore The most outstanding feature of the equatorial climate is its great uniformity of temperature throughout the year with no winters. The average monthly temperatures are about 26 – 28 degrees Celsius, with small annual range of temperature ~ 3*C & fairly greater diurnal range of temperature ~ 12* – 15*C. Cloudiness and heavy precipitation ~ 150 – 250 cm of rainfall or more in a year, helps to moderate the temperature, so that even at the equator, climate is not unbearable. There is no month without the rain & a distinct dry season like that of savanna or tropical monsoon climate is absent. Most of the rainfall is convectional, with thunderstorm & lightening often accompanying the torrential showers. The convection uplift is related to the position of the ITCZ and rainfall totals double when the sun is directly overhead at the spring and autumn equinox, with the least rain falls at June & December solstices. Hot Wet Equatorial Climate
Besides the convectional rainfall, mountainous regions also experience much orographic or relief rainfall In addition, there are some intermittent showers from cyclonic atmospheric disturbances caused by the convergence of air masses at Doldrums. The relative humidity is constantly high ~ over 80 %, making one feel sticky & uncomfortable. Hence option 4 is correct.
25. 3
In India specifically the mountain ranges Satpura and Vindhya found in the central- western part of the Indian sub-continent are block mountains, having formed through cracks in the earth’s crust, these ranges rose while the block of earth known as the Rift Valley depressed. Hence option 3 is correct. 26. 4
Teak trees from which the hard and durable woods of teak is obtained is found in the forests of Madhya Pradesh, Chattisgarh, Assam, Bihar,Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu.
Cedrus deodara, the deodar cedar, Himalayan cedar, ordeodar/devdar/devadar/devadaru, is a species of cedar native to the western Himalayas in Eastern Afghanistan, Northern Pakistan (especially in Khyber Pakhtunkhwa) and India (Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim and, Arunachal Pradesh states and west Bengal.
Naturally grown sandalwood can be easily found in Karnataka, Tamilnadu, Andhra, Kerala, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, U.P., Manipura and in some other states of India
Sundari, 'Beautiful forest', Bengali pronunciation: [ˈʃundorbɔn]) is a mangrove area in the delta formed by the confluence of Ganges, Brahmaputra and Meghna Rivers in the Bay of Bengal. It spans from the Hooghly River in India's state of West Bengal to the Baleswar River in Bangladesh. Hence option 4 is correct.
27. 2 Deccan Traps – Cretaceous Eocene Western Ghats – Late Cenozoic Aravalli – Pre Cambrian Narmada Tapi Alluvial deposits – Pleistocene Hence option 2 is correct.
28. 2 Kanchanjunga – 8586 m Nanga Parbat – 8126 m Nanda Devi – 7816 m Gangotri – 3415 m Badrinath – 3100 m Hence option 2 is correct.
29. 2 The Wochua (singular Achua) was the endonym of a pygmy people of the forests of the Democratic Republic of the Congo, south of the Welle River. Hence option 2 is correct.
30.4 The konkan on the windward side is also endowed with heavy rainfall, declining northwards.
East of the sahyadri (west to east from Kolhapur, Satara, Sangali) the rainfall diminishes to a meager 70 cm. Hence option 4 is correct.
31. 4 Day length- The greater (or shorter) the number of daylight hours, the more (or less) time the Earth is subject to heating. Length of daylight hours is determined by geographic location as well as season.
Cloudiness- Clouds are good at both absorbing and giving off longwave radiation, and at reflecting shortwave radiation (sunlight). On cloudy days, the ground is shielded from incoming solar radiation because this energy is reflected back out into space. Less incoming heat means less -- and a decrease in diurnal temperature variation. On cloudy nights, diurnal range is also decreased, but for opposite reasons -- heat is trapped near the ground, which allows the day's temperatures to remain constant rather than to cool.
Instead, Earth has seasons because our planet's axis of rotation is tilted at an angle of 23.5 degrees relative to our orbital plane – the plane of Earth's orbit around the sun. The tilt in the axis of the Earth is called its obliquity by scientists.
The angle of incoming solar radiation influences seasonal temperatures of locations at different latitudes. Hence option 4 is correct.
32. 3 The Geological Survey of India, founded in 1851, is a Government of India Ministry of Mines organisation, one of the oldest of such organisations in the world and the second oldest survey in India.
Headquarter- Kolkata. Hence option 3 is correct.
33. 1 Samruddhi Mahamarg passes through following district:
Nagpur – Vardha – Amaravati – Washim – Buldhana – Jalna – Aurangabad – Ahmednagar – Nashik – Thane. Hence option 1 is correct.
34. 3 The variability of Mansoon rain is higher in Northwest region of India. Hence option 3 is correct.
35. 2
Bhabar belt –
Bhabar region lies along the foot of the Siwaliks from the Indus to the Tista. But Terai belt lies to the south of Bhabhar and run parallel to it.
The Bhabar is generally narrow about 7–15 km wide.
The Terai belt lies next to the Bhabar region and is composed of newer alluvium. The underground streams reappear in this region. Hence option 2 is correct.
36. 3
As we’ve discussed in the context of metamorphism, Earth’s internal temperature increases with depth. However, rate of increase is not linear. The temperature gradient is around 15° to 30°C/km within the upper 100 km; it then drops off dramatically through the mantle, increases more quickly at the base of the mantle, and then increases slowly through the core. The temperature is around 1000°C at the base of the crust, around 3500°C at the base of the mantle, and around 5,000°C at Earth’s centre. The temperature gradient within the lithosphere (upper 100 km) is quite variable depending on the tectonic setting. Gradients are lowest in the central parts of continents, higher in the vicinity of subduction zones, and higher still at divergent boundaries. Hence option 3 is correct.
37. 2
If the vapor then condenses to a liquid on a surface, then the vapor's latent energy absorbed during evaporation is released as the liquid's sensible heat onto the surface.
So, heat released at the time of condensation is called as Latent heat. Hence option 2 is correct. 38. 4
Red and Yellow soil-
It is formed from igneous and metamorphic rocks.
Red colour is due to the presence of iron in crystalline, igneous and metamorphic rock.
Soils are deficient in phosphoric acid, organic matter and nitrogenous material but are fairly rich in potash. Crops are cultivated with the use of fertilizes. Hence option 4 is correct.
39. 4
Diphu pass that lies around an area where the tri-point borders are a dispute.
These borders include Myanmar, India and China. Hence option 4 is correct.
40. 3
We all know that a minute of arc on the planet Earth is 1 nautical mile. 1 nautical mile is 1852 meters or 1.852 kilometers. To travel around the Earth at the equator, we would have to travel (360 * 60) 21,600 nautical miles, 24,857 miles or 40,003 kilometers.
The question says that the distance between point X and Y is 18520 kilometers , which means that they are 10000 nautical miles apart. So, if 21620=360°, 10000=166.5°. Hence option 3 is correct.
41. 1
An alloy is a mixture of metals, or of metals and other substances. Mixing metals and other elements in alloys can improve their properties.
A pure metal has identical atoms arranged in regular layers. The layers slide over each other easily. Alloys are harder and stronger because the different-sized atoms of the mixed metals make the atomic layers less regular, so they cannot slide as easily.
The resistivity increases means that the conductivity of the material decreases. For metals or conductors, it is said that they have a positive temperature co – efficient. ... For most of the metals, the resistivity increases linearly with increase in temperature for a range of 500K.
So that, resistivity changes less rapidly with changes in temperature. Hence option 1 is correct.
42. 1
Sorensen defined, pH of the solution is depends on hydrogen ion concentration. Hence option 1 is correct.
43. 4
Three end products are produced through aerobic respiration: carbon dioxide, water and the energy molecule called ATP. Hence option 4 is correct.
44. 3
Raman scattering or the Raman Effect is the inelastic scattering of a photon by molecules which are excited to higher energy levels. The effect was discovered in 1928 by C. V. Raman and his student K. S. Krishnan in liquids, and independently by Grigory Landsberg and Leonid Mandelstam in crystals. The effect had been predicted theoretically by Adolf Smekal in 1923. Hence option 3 is correct.
45. 2
An applied force is a force that is applied to an object by a person or another object. If a person is pushing an object across the room, then there is applied force acting upon the object in horizontal direction. The applied force is the force exerted on the object by the person.
The force of gravity acting on an object is called its weight. On the surface of the earth all objects experience the same acceleration due to gravity in the downward direction, regardless of their mass.
The friction force is the force exerted by a surface as an object moves across it or makes an effort to move across it. There are at least two types of friction force - sliding and static friction. Though it is not always the case, the friction force often opposes the motion of an object.
To begin, forces always act in pairs and always act in opposite directions. When you push on an object, the object pushes back with an equal force. This is the reaction force in horizontal surface. Hence option 2 is correct.
46. 2
Mass remains constant and weight is zero.
Mass is the amount of matter enclosed by a body so, it can never change with displacement in a body.
Weight is a force actually force due to gravity taking earth into consideration. Therefore outside earth this force is negligible. So, weight is zero. Hence option 2 is correct.
47. 1
Because of evaporation-
The upper surface of the water gets evaporated continuously taking away the heat and water get becomes cool. Hence option 1 is correct.
48. 3
Herbivores have teeth which are shaped to squash and grind plants. Carnivores have teeth which are shaped to slice and rip the meat they eat.
A carnivores or omnivores small intestine is three to six times the length of its trunk. This is a tool designed for rapid elimination of food that rots quickly. Mans, as well as other herbivores small intestines are 10 to 12 times the length of their body, and winds itself back and forth in random directions. Hence option 3 is correct.
49. 1
Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has developed India's first unmanned tank, which has three variants – surveillance, mine detection and reconnaissance in areas with nuclear and bio threats. ... Muntra-S has been developed forunmanned surveillance missions, whereas Muntra-M is built for detecting mines. Hence option 1 is correct.
50. 1
Depends on both the glass and the type of UV coming through. Glass is transparent to the passage of visible light because the energy of a photon is insufficient to raise the electrons in the glass to a high enough energy level to cause them to interact with the photons. They pass straight through. No reflected light. Hence option 1 is correct.
51. 1
Pain perceived during exercise is considered to result from a combination of factors including acids, ions, proteins, and hormones. Although it is commonly believed that lactic acid is responsible for this pain. Hence option 1 is correct.
52. 3
Dark yellow urine- dehydration
Colourless urine- excess of water
Bloody urine- hematuria
Greenish urine- urinary tract
Hence option 3 is correct.
53. 3
Human body maintains pressure in blood circulation system based on atmospheric condition on earth’s surface. This pressure is slightly more than atmospheric pressure. Atmospheric pressure is low at high altitudes compare to atmospheric pressure on earth surface. Hence if we go high altitudes, we experience high pressure difference between outside atmosphere and pressure maintained by human body. Due to this high pressure difference, speed of blood flow increases and it gives rise to bleeding through nose. Hence option 3 is correct.
54. 2
Conventionally, vessels that carry blood away from the heart are termed arteries while the ones which carry blood towards the heart are termed veins. So as per the conventional definition, pulmonary artery is called an artey as it carries blood away from the heart to the lungs but for purification. While all the arteries carry oxygenated blood from heart to other parts, it is the one carrying deoxygenated blood. Hence option 2 is correct.
55. 3
Butterfly- Arthropoda
Starfish- Chordata
Earthworm- Annelida
Snail- Mollusca
Hence option 3 is correct.
56. 4
Dysentery and chicken pox are infectious diseases and caused by virus.
Typhoid and TB are diseases are caused by bacteria.
Hence option 4 is correct.
57. 3
Egg of a hen is a single cell.
The cell was first discovered and named by Robert Hooke in 1665. He remarked that it looked strangely similar to cellula or small rooms which monks inhabited, thus deriving the name. However what Hooke actually saw was the dead cell walls of plant cells(cork) as it appeared under the microscope. Hence option 3 is correct.
58. 1
Protein catabolism is the process by which proteins are broken down to their amino acids. This is also called proteolysis and can be followed by further amino acid degradation.
During glycolysis, glucose is broken down in ten steps to two molecules of pyruvate, which then enters the mitochondria.
Glycogenesis is the formation of glycogen fromglucose. Glycogen is synthesized depending on the demand for glucose and ATP (energy). If both are present in relatively high amounts, then the excess of insulin promotes the glucose conversion intoglycogen for storage in liver and muscle cells.
The amino acids produced by catabolism may be directly recycled to form new proteins, converted into different amino acids, or can undergo amino acid catabolism to be converted to other compounds via the Krebs cycle. Hence option 1 is correct.
59. 1
Bakelite was the first plastic made from synthetic components. It is a thermosetting phenol formaldehyde resin, formed from a condensation reaction of phenol with formaldehyde. Hence option 1 is correct.
60. 4
Isobars are atoms (nuclides) of different chemical elements that have the same number of nucleons. Correspondingly, isobars differ in atomic number (or number of protons) but have the same mass number.
An isotope is a form of a chemical element whose atomic nucleus contains a specific number of neutron s, in addition to the number of proton s that uniquely defines the element. The nuclei of most atom s contain neutrons as well as protons.
Isotone, any of two or more species of atoms or nuclei that have the same number of neutrons. Thus, chlorine-37 and potassium-39 are isotones, because the nucleus of this species of chlorine consists of 17 protons and 20 neutrons, whereas the nucleus of this species of potassium contains 19 protons and 20 neutrons. Hence option 4 is correct.
61. 3
During eye donation, mostly the whole eye ball is donated. If that the most important part is the cornea (front transparent part of eye). Cornea is the part which is transplanted. In some places, during eye donation only cornea is collected. Hence option 3 is correct.
62. 1 Birds are the living organisms that maintain constant body temperature in changing environmental conditions. Explanation: This ability of maintain constant temperature help birds to explore and get inhabited to different environments. Hence option 1 is correct.
63. 2
Unitary features include strong center; absence of separate constitution of states, right of parliament to amend major portions of constitution, unequal representation in Rajya Sabha, states not given guarantee of territorial integrity, single constitution; single citizenship; flexibility of constitution; integrated judiciary, appointment of state governor by the center, all India services and emergency provisions, single election machinery for state/center govt. election, CAG office which looks into the accounts of both states and union etc. Hence option 2 is correct.
64. 4
National emergency can be declared on the basis of external aggression or armed rebellion in the whole of India or a part of its territory under Article 352. Such an emergency was declared in India in 1962 (China war), 1971 (Pakistan war), and 1975 (declared by Indira Gandhi). The President can declare such an emergency only on the basis of a written request by the Cabinet headed by the Prime Minister. Such a proclamation must be laid before both houses of Parliament, and the state of emergency expires after one month unless approved within that time by both houses sitting and voting separately. However, if the Lok Sabha (the lower house) has been dissolved or dissolution takes place in the state of emergency, and the Rajya Sabha approves of the state of emergency, the deadline for the Lok Sabha is extended until thirty days after that house reconstituted. According to Article 352(6),[2] approval by either house requires a special majority: those in favour of the motion must be two thirds of those present and voting, and amount to a majority of the entire membership of that house. A Parliamentary resolution extends the state of emergency for up to six months, and it can be extended indefinitely by further resolutions in six-monthly increments. Hence option 4 is correct.
65. 4
When the Constitution came into force in 1950, no Fundamental Duties were enshrined in the Constitution of India. By the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution of India in 1976, ten Fundamental Duties have been added to our Constitution. These duties are important and necessary for the vital interest of our country. These Fundamental Duties are covered by Article 51 A incorporated in a new chapter, Part IV-A of the Constitution. Under this Article, it shall be the duty of every citizen of India –
(i) to abide by the Constitution and respect the National Flag and the National Anthem;
(ii) to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom;
(iii) to protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India ;
(iv) to defend the country ;
(v) to promote the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India ;
(vi) to preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture ;
(vii) to protect and improve the natural environment ;
(viii) to develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry ;
(ix) to safeguard public property ;
(x) to strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity
Hence option 4 is correct.
66. 2
Article 153: It says that there shall be Governor for each state. 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956 facilitated appointment of the same person as governor for two or more states.
The term of governor's office is normally 5 years but it can be terminated earlier by: 1. Dismissal by the president (usually on the advice of the prime minister of the country) at whose pleasure the governor holds office. Dismissal of Governors without valid reason is not permitted. However, it is the duty of the President to dismiss a Governor whose acts are upheld by courts as unconstitutional and malafide.
2. Resignation by the governor.
Article 157 and Article 158 of the Constitution of India specify eligibility requirements for the post of governor. They are as follows:
A governor must: be a citizen of India. be at least 35 years of age. not be a member of the either house of the parliament or house of the state legislature. not hold any office of profit.
The Governor of the state by virtue of his office is also the Chancellor of most of the Universities in the State. The dignity and impartiality of the office of the Chancellor puts the Governor in a unique position with regard to protecting the autonomy of the Universities and saving them from undue political interference. The Governor as Chancellor of University also acts as President of the Senate. He has power to direct inspection of every component of the Universities and affiliated colleges, required due action on the result of inquiry. The Chancellor appoints search committee for appointments of Vice Chancellor. He accords consent of warrant of degrees and withdraw degree or distinctions both at the recommendations of the Senate. He approves or disapproves statutes passed by the Senate and appoints teachers of the University based on recommendation of the respective committees. Hence option 2 is correct.
67. 1
If at any time it appears to the President that a question of law or fact has arisen, or is likely to arise, which is of such a nature and of such public importance that it is expedient to obtain the opinion of the Supreme Court upon it, he may refer the question to that Court for consideration and the Court may, after such hearing as it thinks fit, report to the President its opinion thereon.
The opinion of the Supreme Court is only advisory and not binding. The President is free to follow or not to follow. (Keshav Singh’s Case, AIR 1965 SC 745). However, even if the opinion given in the exercise of advisory jurisdiction may not be binding, it carries weight and has great persuasive value.
The Supreme Court is not bound to give its opinion. Rather, the Supreme Court may decline to give its opinion under Article 143 in cases it does not consider proper or not amenable to such exercise. ... The views taken by the Court is not binding on the President and it is not law within Article 141. Hence option 1 is correct.
68. 3
Fourth Schedule -
[Articles 4(1) and 80(2)] Allocation of seats in the Council of States(Rajya Sabha)
Fifth Schedule -
[Article 244(1)] Provisions as to the Administration and Control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes
Sixth Schedule -
[Articles 244(2) and 275(1)] Provisions as to the Administration of Tribal Areas in [the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram]
Tenth Schedule -
[Articles 102(2) and 191(2)] Provisions as to disqualification on ground of defection
Hence option 3 is correct.
69. 1
In 1973, in the Kesavanand Bharati case, the Supreme Court held that Preamble is a part of the Indian Constitution.
Preamble cannot put prohibition on legislative power of Government. Hence option 1 is correct.
70. 2
Whenever there is a Joint Sitting,The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides and in his absence the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha takes charge. In turn, even Deputy Speaker is absent, then Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides over the sitting. Hence option 2 is correct.
71. 1 Andhra Pradesh- 1 October 1953 Maharashtra – 1 May 1960 Manipur – 21 January 1972 Sikkim – 16 May 1975 Hence option 1 is correct.
72. 1 The advent of Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 gave a statutory status to Lok Adalats, pursuant to the constitutional mandate in Article 39-A of the Constitution of India, contains various provisions for settlement of disputes through Lok Adalat.
National Lok Adalat is a provision wherein Lok Adalats are held throughout the country in a single day. The initiative will be organized in all courts – right from the Supreme Court till the Taluka level, so as to resolve the matters brought to it by means of settlement or withdrawal.
The first lok adalat was held in Gujrat in 1982. First time held in Chennai in 1986. Accepts cases pending in regular court under their jurisdiction. The Lok Adalat are presided over by Members of Lok Adalat; they have the role of statutory conciliators only and do not have any judicial role, therefore they can only persuade the parties to come to a settlement Main condition of the Lok Adalat is that both parties in dispute should agree for settlement. There is no court fee and if a matter pending in the court of law is referred to the Lok Adalat and is settled subsequently, the court fee originally paid in the court on the complaints/petition is also refunded back to the parties. The procedural laws and the Evidence Act are not strictly followed while assessing the merits of the claim by the Lok Adalat. The decision of the Lok Adalat is binding on the parties to the dispute and its order is capable of execution through legal process. Hence option 1 is correct.
73. 4 According to Article 200, when a Bill, passed by the Legislature of a State, is presented to the Governor, he has four options: He assents to the Bill. He withholds assent. He reserves the bill for the consideration of the president. He returns the bill to the legislature for reconsideration. Hence option 4 is correct.
74. 4 Kesavananda Bharti Vs. State of Kerala, 1971 - The Parliament can amend any provision, but can't dilute the basic structure.
Minerva Mills Vs. Union of India, 1980 - The concept of basic structure was further developed by adding 'judicial review' and the 'balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles' to the basic features.
Indira Sawhney Vs. Union of India, 1992 - 'Rule of law, was added to the basic features.
S.R Bommai vs Union of India, 1994 - Federal structure, unity and integrity of India, secularism, socialism, social justice and judicial review were reiterated as basic features. Hence option 4 is correct.
75. 3
PMUY This scheme is being implemented by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas. Ujjwala Yojana is aimed at providing 5 Crore LPG connections in the name of women in BPL (Below Poverty Line) households across the country. The government has set a target of 5 Crore LPG connections to be distributed to the BPL households across the country under the scheme. Some of the objectives of the scheme are: Empowering women and protecting their health. Reducing the serious health hazards associated with cooking based on fossil fuel. Reducing the number of deaths in India due to unclean cooking fuel. Preventing young children from significant number of acute respiratory illnesses caused due to indoor air pollution by burning the fossil fuel. Hence option 3 is correct.
76. 4 Parameters of sustainable development refer to the guiding principles that i) help in understanding the concept of sustainable development, ii) point out the problems associated with it and iii) help to take active policy measures based on them. The parameters include carrying capacity, inter and intra-generational equity, gender Disparity and diversity. Hence option 4 is correct.
77. 2 The Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Urban) Programme launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation (MoHUPA), in Mission mode envisions provision of Housing for All by 2022, when the Nation completes 75 years of its Independence. Credit linked subsidy for affordable housing to poor. Preference is given to women, SC, ST, Manual scavengers, PwD and so on. The mission supports construction of the houses up to 30m² carpet areas with basic amenities. However, the states and union territories have freedom to determine the sizes of houses and other facilities. Hence option 2 is correct.
78. 3 It is the global body for promotion and protection of intellectual property rights (IPR). It is one of the 15 specialized agencies of United Nations. It was established in 1967 and is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland. Its mandate is to encourage creative activity, to promote the protection of intellectual property throughout the world. It encourages and provides assistance to all its 188 member countries in formulating national IPR policy however it does not dictate or prescribe any mandatory measures. India is a member of WIPO and party to several treaties administered by WIPO.
The Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) is an international legal agreement between all the member nations of the World Trade Organization (WTO).
Least developed countries ineast developed countries in WTO are not required to apply the provisions of TRIPS agreement for a period of 10 years from the general date of application of the agreement. Hence option 3 is correct.
79. 4
The flight, designated as PSLV-C40, successfully lifted off from the First Launch Pad of Sriharkota space port, near Chennai with the 710 kg Cartosat-2 Series Remote Sensing Satellite along with 30 co-passenger satellites.
The 28 other satellites are from Canada, Finland, France, South Korea, the United Kingdom and the United States. Hence option 4 is correct.
80. 1 President Ram Nath Kovind awarded India’s highest peacetime military decoration Ashok Chakra (31) posthumously to Indian Air Force (IAF) Garud commando Corporal Jyoti Prakash Nirala. He had laid down his life after gunning down two terrorists in Jammu and Kashmir. He is the third Ashok Chakra for the IAF and its first for ground combat. Other two IAF officers are Rakesh Sharma (first and still only Indian citizen to go to space) and Flying Officer Nirmaljit Singh Sekhon posthumously decorated with the Param Vir Chakra in 1972. Hence option 1 is correct.
81. 3 Pratyush and Mihir are the fastest supercomputer in India with a maximum speed of 6.8 PetaFlops at a total cost of INR 438.9 Crore.The system was inaugurated by Dr. Harsh Vardhan, Union Minister for science and technology.
Pratyush and Mihir are two High Performance Computing (HPC) units. They are located at two government institutes, one being 4.0 Peta Flops unit at IITM, Pune and another 2.8 Peta Flops unit at the National Centre for Medium Range Weather Forecasting (NCMRWF), Noida. Both units and provides a combined output of 6.8 Peta Flops. Hence option 3 is correct.
82. 3 Maharashtra Government has approved Nanaji Deshmukh Krishi Sanjivani Yojna, a Rs.4,000 crore project aimed at promoting climate-resilient agriculture. It will be roll out in 2018-19 and continue till 2023-24.
The Scheme has been named after social activist Nanaji Deshmukh who has worked in fields of education, health, and rural self-reliance, and has been honoured with Padma Vibhushan. Hence option 3 is correct.
83. 3 Smart cities in Maharashtra: Nashik, Kalyan, Thane, Pune, Solapur, Pimpri Chinchwad, Nagpur. Hence option 3 is correct.
84. 1 These are 8 international development goals agreed to be achieved by 192 UN Members and 23 International organizations by 2015.They were launched in the Millennium Summit in New York in September 2000. Since then The MDGs have become the most widely- accepted yardstick of development efforts by governments, donors and NGOs. The 8 Goals are as follows:
1. Eradicate Extreme Poverty and Hunger- Today, an estimated 1.2 billion people live on less than $1 a day. The first Goal calls for halving this number, as well as the number of people who suffer from hunger, by 2015.
2. Achieve Universal Primary Education- There are currently 115 million children—60 percent of them girls—not in primary school, the majority living in South Asia and sub-Saharan Africa.
3. Promote Gender Equality and Empower Women- In both rich and poor countries, gender discrimination persists, and its consequences are difficult to ignore. Nowhere is this more apparent than in some developing countries, where traditional beliefs and practices put a high premium on boys’ education, while girls are excluded. Even when girls start school, they are more likely to drop out for these reasons. Without at least a complete primary education, women face limited employment options, discrimination, lower pay, and less control over their health and well-being.
4. Reduce Child Mortality- According to the United Nations Development Programmed (UNDP), on average in developing countries, for every 1,000 children, 100 die before the age of five. Around the world, thousands of children die every year from preventable causes: illnesses caused by contaminated water, inadequate immunization, and injuries from war and civil conflict, high levels of poverty and malnutrition, HIV/AIDS and the high incidence of malaria and tuberculosis.
5. Improve Maternal Health- In 2000, more than half a million women died in childbirth or from pregnancy-related complications. Ninety-nine percent of these deaths, many of them preventable, occur in developing countries. Infections, severe blood loss and unsafe abortions account for the majority of deaths. Goal 5 calls for reducing the rate of maternal mortality by 75% by 2015.
6. Combat HIV/AIDS, Malaria and Other Diseases- The rampant spread of infectious diseases threatens to reverse development progress, reduce life expectancy and cut productivity. With an estimated 40 million people living with HIV/AIDS and 20 million deaths since the disease was first identified, AIDS poses an unprecedented health, economic, and social challenge on a global scale.
7. Ensure Environmental Sustainability- Because the environment provides the raw materials vital to sustaining human development, we must ensure that, in turn, international development policies work to preserve our natural environment.
8. Develop a Global Partnership for Development- The last goal is in some ways the most significant: without key partnerships between rich and poor countries, the previous seven goals may not be achievable. Great opportunities for growth and development exist in today’s fast-changing global economy, but many poor countries have been left behind, lacking access to new technologies as well as the resources to participate in the globalization process. Hence option 1 is correct.
85. 3 India will soon begin constructing a counterpart to the LIGO gravitational-wave observatory in the United States, after the construction site for the project received final approval. The observatory, which will cost 12.6 billion rupees (US$177 million) and is scheduled for completion in 2024, will be built in the Hingoli District of Maharashtra state in western India. Hence option 3 is correct.
86. 1
The Keibul Lamjao National Park is a national park in the Bishnupur district of the state of Manipur in India. Hence option 1 is correct.
87. 4 The yellow-footed green pigeon (Treron phoenicoptera), also known as yellow-legged green pigeon, is a common species of green pigeon found in the Indian subcontinent. It is the state bird of Maharashtra. In Marathi it is called Hariyal. Hence option 4 is correct.
88. 3 The term UMANG stands for Unified Mobile Application for New-age Governance. It was launched to promote Digital India program and to drive mobile e-governance in India. This Umang app is developed by the Ministry of Electronics Information Technology (MeitY) with the cooperation of National e-Governance Division (NeGD). The user can access the Umang app in 12 regional languages with the English which is being default one. The UMANG app offers 162 services from 33 state and central government departments and four states under a one-single platform. Hence option 3 is correct.
89. 1 Shubhangi Swaroop, who hails from Uttar Pradesh, will soon be flying Maritime Reconnaissance aircraft. Hence option 1 is correct.
90. 4 In its NDC, India had promised to reduce its emissions intensity— greenhouse gas emissions per unit of GDP—by 33 to 35 per cent below 2005 levels by the year 2030.
India targeting 40% of power generation from non-fossil fuel by 2030.
The Centre approved a strategy for creating an additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tons of carbon dioxide equivalent through additional forest and tree cover by 2030. Carbon sinks are natural or artificial reservoirs that absorb and store the atmosphere’s carbon dioxide through physical and biological mechanisms. Hence option 4 is correct.
91. 4
Stand-Up India Scheme facilitates bank loans between Rs.10 lakh and Rs.1 Crore to at least one Scheduled Caste (SC) or Scheduled Tribe (ST) borrower and at least one woman borrower per bank branch for setting up a Greenfield enterprise. This enterprise may be in manufacturing, services or the trading sector. Hence option 4 is correct.
92. 1
GST is a destination based tax and levied at a single point at the time of consumption of goods or services by the ultimate consumer. GST will be levied on all goods and services except on goods outside the ѕсоре of GST, exempted goods & services and transactions below threshold limit. Under the GST regime, the tax is levied at every point of sale. In the case of intra-state sales, Central GST and State GST are charged. Inter-state sales are chargeable to Integrated GST. Hence option 1 is correct.
93. 1
The scheme provided: A bank account with no minimum balance; and interests on deposits Debit cards Accidental Insurance Cover of Rs. 1 Lakh; life cover of Rs.30000/- payable on death of beneficiary. Overdraft facility up to Rs.5000/- on satisfactory operation of 6 months. Easy transfer of money across India. Transfer of benefits under DBT in these accounts. Access to pension and insurance products. Hence option 1 is correct.
94. 4
The GDI measures gender gaps in human development achievements by accounting for disparities between women and men in three basic dimensions of human development—health, knowledge and living standards using the same component indicators as in the HDI. The GDI is the ratio of the HDIs calculated separately for females and males using the same methodology as in the HDI. It is a direct measure of gender gap showing the female HDI as a percentage of the male HDI.
In terms of life expectancy, the GDI assumes that women will live an average of five years longer than men. Hence option 4 is correct.
95. 3
DAY-NRLM aims to organize the poor into SHGs and make them capable of self-employment with a special focus on women empowerment including a dedicated component for promoting farm and non-farm based livelihoods for women farmers in rural areas. Hence option 3 is correct.
96. 2
The mission aims to cover 1.04 crore households, provide 2.5 lakh community toilets, 2.6 lakh public toilets, and a solid waste management facility in each town. Under the programme, community toilets will be built in residential areas where it is difficult to construct individual household toilets. Public toilets will also be constructed in designated locations such as tourist places, markets, bus stations, railway stations, etc. The programme will be implemented over a five-year period in 4,401 towns.
The Cabinet's decision would benefit around 1.5 crore rural households eligible for incentives under the Swachh Bharat Mission (Rural) and also gram panchayats for Solid and Liquid Waste Management (SLWM). "...Raising funds up to Rs 15,000 crore as Extra Budgetary Resources (EBR) (Gol Fully Serviced Bonds) for Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin) (SBMG) during the financial year 2018-19 through NABARD," the government said in a statement. Hence option 2 is correct.
97. Full marks is given to all the candidates in Q 97, since correct option was not provided in the question paper.
We mark World Humanitarian Day every year on 19 August, to express solidarity with people affected by humanitarian crises and pay tribute to the humanitarian workers who help them.
98. 2
Indian Railways on July 14 launched first solar-powered DEMU (diesel electrical multiple unit) train from the Safdarjung railway station in Delhi. The train will run from Sarai Rohilla in Delhi to Farukh Nagar in Haryana. Hence option 2 is correct.
99. 3 The 2018 Commonwealth Games, officially known as the XXI Commonwealth Games and commonly known as Gold Coast 2018, were an international multi-sport event for members of the Commonwealth that were held on the Gold Coast, Queensland, Australia, between 4 and 15 April 2018. Hence option 3 is correct.
100. 2 Mobile wallets are- Paytm PayUMoney Mobikwik Momoe Citrus State Bank Buddy ICICI Pockets Citi Master Pass HDFC Chillr LIME Hence option 2 is correct. SARTHI-COACHING-PUNE-MPSC-CET-2019 CSAT PAPER – 2, ANSWER KEY
Sr. no. Ans. Sr. no. Ans. Sr. no. Ans. Sr. no. Ans. 1 1 26 3 51 4 76 3-2.5,2-1.5,1-1,4-0 2 2 27 2 52 4 77 3-2.5,4-1.5,1-1,2-0 3 1 28 4 53 4 78 2-2.5,3-1.5,1-1,4-0 4 4 29 3 54 2 79 2-2.5,4-1.5,3-1,1-0 5 3 30 2 55 2 80 4-2.5,3-1.5,2-1,1-0 6 3 31 4 56 4 7 4 32 4 57 4 8 4 33 1 58 1 9 3 34 4 59 2 10 2 35 4 60 2 11 3 36 1 61 4 12 1 37 3 62 4 13 2 38 3 63 1 14 4 39 1 64 3 15 1 40 1 65 1 16 4 41 3 66 2 17 4 42 3 67 3 18 3 43 3 68 2 19 1 44 4 69 3 20 1 45 4 70 1 21 3 46 3 71 4 22 2 47 1 72 4 23 3 48 2 73 2 24 3 49 1 74 4 25 2 50 3 75 2
1. 1
In passage, the Kautilyas Arthashastra gives detailed information on the way the Mauryan government functioned. But he was not satisfied by giving this information only. He writes of other activities of that time mentioning social customs, warfare, agriculture and Commerce. He mentions several ideas that were used in warfare, especially mechanical/technical devices. These refer to different devices from simple catapults to incendiary devices. Since the use of gunpowder had not yet come to India, incendiary devices were used. it is clear from Kautilya’s writings that agriculture had developed to the point of employing artificial irrigation, canals and reservoirs are mentioned which must have needed great engineering skill to construct. Among useful gadgets of daily use the thing to be noticed was a revolving water spray to cool the air during the summer. Hence option 1 is correct.
2. 2
According to author, it is clear from Kautilya’s writings that agriculture had developed to the point of employing artificial irrigation, canals and reservoirs are mentioned, which must have needed great engineering skill to construct. Hence option 2 is correct.
3. 1
In fact even the English numerals used today, which are commonly called Arabic numerals, actually originated in India. They were used in the edicts of Emperor Ashoka, centuries before there is any record of the Arabs having known of them these numerals and the decimal system were carried by Arab traders from India to the rest of the world. Hence option 1 is correct.
4. 4
In Gupta period, saw the birth of several mathematician of Genius, the most important was Aryabhatta, in whose memory of the first Indian satellite was named. Aryabhatta lived around the fifth century A.D. His work in algebraic formulas is quite remarkable. He gave the value of pi as 3.1416, which is very close to the value assigned it today. He also wrote on other branches of mathematics. He laid down rules for determining square roots and cube roots, areas and volume. He understood the concept of sines in trigonometry first time. In the field of astronomy he described methods by which to calculate the position of planets and knew the reason for the eclipses of the sun and the moon and cloud forecast them accurately. He had discovered that the Earth rotates on its axis and Earth and other planets move around Sun. Hence option 4 is correct.
5. 3
After Panini, Sanskrit as a language did not change radically, although it's vocabulary and literature continued to grow. Panini’s work is remarkable achievement and even in the 19th century, such scientific work on Grammer was not written nowhere in the world. Hence option 3 is correct.
6. 3
Communism says; give up the lust for profit. Think of your country and the world as a family and produce only what you need. Let everybody work according to his capacity. Give him the necessities of life as per his needs. All of this can happen if land or factories will not be individually owned. All the means of production should belong to one big family. Hence option 3 is correct. 7. 4
According to Saifubhai, communism professes:
Give up the lust for profit and means of production should be commonly owned.
Hence option 4 is correct.
8. 4
The last World War evoked a lot of fire. It was fought at the instance of imperialism the last ditch efforts to have a control over the safe markets for capital and finished goods. Germany wanted new colonies but the world was already divided. So, the war was necessary for grabbing the colonies. It was good that Germany lost the war, however a new enemy to the kicking imperialism was born communism awakening imperialism out of its slumber. Hence option 4 is correct.
9. 3
Half a century later, Indian’s learnt to die for their cause. In this pursuit we were greatly helped by the examples of martyrs from Ireland and Russia.
Goods should be produced for the happiness and prosperity of all the mankind, not for profit. Machines are improved, industries proliferate, production increases and a large marked is required for its sale. However, that requires rolling cash in the hands of the consumer. Consumers should be paid their wages adequately. If there is a decrease in cash flow, sale of goods will decrease. Goods will pile up in godowns. There will be a financial depression. Production will have to be reduced. Factories will close down. People will lose jobs. What can they buy without money? How will factories be run? Communism says; give up the lust for profit. Think of your country and the world as a family and produce only what you need. Let everybody work according to his capacity. Give him the necessities of life as per his needs. All of this can happen if land or factories will not be individually owned. All the means of production should belong to one big family. Hence option 3 is correct.
10. 2
The success of any Revolutionary movement is dependent on two things. First how much inspiration it draws from International conditions and examples. Second how much of the most Revolution prone class participates in it. The second source is that of the workers, the farmers, the people only those can fight the Revolutionary battle who have nothing to lose. How can someone who is afraid of being deprived of Sakina’s luscious lips, this bungalow and the hereditary rights over village be a Revolutionary fighter. Therefore, Saifubhai say only the ordinary people can be the vehicle of revolution. Hence option 2 is correct.
11. 3
Both U and V
J O M N L K
W Z U Y V X
Hence option 3 is correct.
12. 1
No one sitting.
Hence option 1 is correct.
13. 2
L sits immediate right of L.
Hence option 2 is correct.
14. 4
N related to X.
Hence option 4 is correct.
15. 1
In paragraph, there are several products of Genetic Engineering now available in the market viz. interferon, human growth hormone and human insulin. Then appropriate title to the paragraph is
Genetic Engineering and Medicines.
Hence option 1 is correct.
16. 4
Before 1982, all insulin which were utilized for diabetics were purified only from bovine of cattle and porcine of pigs pancreas. These insulin were made available as byproducts of meat industry. Hence option 4 is correct.
17. 4
The insulin supply was, thus a function of supply and demand in the meat market. The commercial production of human insulin in recombinan-E coli cells eliminated concerns regarding possible shortage of insulin in the future. This human insulin was of particular importance to some diabetics who were allergic to bovine and porcine insulin. Hence option 4 is correct.
18. 3
E- 6th-Civics
FRIENDS STANDARD SUBJECTS A 5th Maths B 7th Hindi/English C 5th Marathi D 6th Ecnomic E 6th Civics G 7th Hindi/English I 7th History Hence option 3 is correct.
19. 1
I – History
Hence option 1 is correct.
20. 1
B, G and I are studied in 7th standard.
Hence option 1 is correct.
21. 3
C – Marathi
Hence option 3 is correct. 22. 2
G – Hindi / English
Hence option 2 is correct.
23. 3
The most likely purpose of the passage is to specify the relation between cause and effect. Hence option 3 is correct.
24. 3
The thinking of a kind thought or doing kind deed immediate nobility and happiness attend it, the man is better than he was before and number of such deeds would produce a great and blissful soul.
Help and happiness follows the law of cause and effect. Hence option 3 is correct.
25. 2
Following inferences can be inferred –
Man is always seeking the origin of evil.
Hence option 2 is correct.
26. 3
Emerson says Justice is not postponed; a perfect equity adjusts the balance in all parts of life. And there is a profound sense in which cause and effect are simultaneously and form one perfect whole. Hence option 3 is correct.
27. 2
Individual human conducts determine by the faultless law of cause and effects, individual merit or demerit, individual greatness or meanness, individual happiness or wretchedness. What a man thinks that he does, what he does, that he is. If he is perplexed, unhappy or wretched, let him look to himself, for there and nowhere else is the source of all his trouble.
A man thinks, say, a cruel thought or does a cruel deed that same instant he has injured his own mind, he is not the same man he was the previous instant, he is little viler and a little more unhappy and a number of such successive thoughts and deeds produce a cruel and wretched man. Hence option 2 is correct.
28. 4
Dialysis is very slow and is normally accelerated by applying an electric field and making use of the charge carried by many colloids, the technique is called electro dialysis. Hence option 4 is correct.
29. 3
Aerosols are formed when a spray of liquid is torn apart by a jet of gas. The dispersal is aided if a charge is applied to the liquid for then the electrostatic repulsions blast the jet apart into droplets. This procedure may also be used to produce emulsion, for the charged liquid phase may be squirted into another liquid. Hence option 3 is correct.
30. 2
In milk, which is an emulsion of fats in water, the emulsifying agent is casein, a protein containing phosphate groups. That casein is not completely successful in stabilizing milk is apparent from the formation of cream on the surface, the dispersed particles coalesce into only droplets which float to the surface. Hence option 2 is correct.
31. 4
Aerosols are formed when a spray of liquid is torn apart by a jet of gas.
Hence option 4 is correct.
32. 4
In the process of alkaline peptization of clays hydroxyl ions is the active agent.
Hence option 4 is correct.
33. 1
The history needs to maintain the balance between fact and interpretation, between fact and value, it cannot separate them. It may be that, in a static world you are obliged to pronounce a divorce between fact and value. But history is meaningless in a static world. Hence option 1 is correct.
34. 4
The history needs to maintain the balance between fact and interpretation, between fact and value, it cannot separate them. It may be that, in a static world you are obliged to pronounce a divorce between fact and value. But history is meaningless in a static world. History in its essence is change, movement, or if you do not cavil at the old fashioned word progress. Hence option 4 is correct. 35. 4
A clue to this problem of facts and values is provided by our ordinary use of the word- truth, a word which straddles the world of fact and the world of value and is made up of elements of both. Nor is this an idiosyncrasy of the English language. The words for truth in the Latin languages, the German Warhrheit, the Russian Pravda, all possess this dual character. Every language appears to require this word for a truth which is not merely a statement of fact and not merely a value judgment, but embraces both elements. It may be a fact that, I went to London last week. But you would not ordinary call it a truth, it is devoid of any value content on the other hand. When the founding fathers of the United States in the declaration of independence referred to the self- evident truth all men since birth are equal, you may feel that the value content of the statement predominates over the factual content and may on that account challenge its rights to be regarded as a truth. Hence option 4 is correct.
36. 1
When the founding fathers of the United States in the declaration of independence referred to the self-evident truth all men since birth are equal, you may feel that the value content of the statement predominates over the factual content and may on that account challenge its rights to be regarded as a truth. Hence option 1 is correct.
37. 3
Given length l = 12 m breadth b = 9 m and height h = 8 m Longest rod that can be placed in a room is nothing but its diagonal. Length of diagonal of a cuboid = √(l2 + b2 + h2) Length of longest rod = √(122 + 92 + 82) m = √(144 + 81 + 64) m = √289 m = 17 m Thus the length of the longest rod is 17 m.
Hence option 3 is correct.
38. 3
Dictatorship for a short period may be good and a welcome thing even for making democracy safe. Why should not dictatorship liquidate itself after it has done its work, after it has removed all the obstacles and boulders in the way of democracy and has made the path of democracy safe? Did not Asoka set an example? He practiced violence against the Kalinga’s, but thereafter he renounced violence completely.
Hence option 3 is correct. 39. 1
The communist themselves admit that their theory of the state as permanent dictatorship is a weakness in their political philosophy. They take shelter under the plea that the state will ultimately wither away. Hence option 1 is correct.
40. 1
The only thing, which could sustain it after force is withdrawn its religion. But to the communist religion is anathema. Their hatred to religion is so deep seated that they will not even discriminate between religions which are helpful to communism and religions which are not. Hence option 1 is correct.
41. 3
The communist have carried their hatred of Christianity to Buddhism without waiting to examine the difference between the two. The charge against Christianity leveled by the communist was two folds. Their first charge against Christianity was that they made people other worldliness and made them suffer poverty in this world. As can be seen from quotations from Buddhism in the earlier part of this track such a charge cannot be leveled against Buddhism. The second charge leveled by the communists, against Christianity cannot be leveled against Buddhism. This charge is summed up in the statement that religion is the opium of the people. Hence option 3 is correct.
42. 3
Central idea of the passage is Drawbacks of Communists.
Hence option 3 is correct.
43. 3
In continental Europe, conscription and the chronic fear of foreign invasion had created a more general and continuous popular awareness of international problems.
Hence option 3 is correct.
44. 4
From the paragraph we can conclude that the leaders of the working class in Europe were unable to grasp the reality. Hence option 4 is correct.
45. 4
In democratic countries, foreign policy was traditionally regarded as outside the scope of party politics and the representative organs did not feel themselves competent to exercise any close control over the mysterious operations of foreign offices.
Hence option 4 is correct.
46. 3
The more picturesque aspects of diplomacy had a certain news value, but nowhere whether in universities or in wider intellectual circles were there organized study of current international affairs. War was still regarded mainly as the business of soldiers and the corollary of this was that international politics, was the business of diplomats.
Hence option 3 is correct.
47. 1
The paragraph suggests that: In general, European was unwilling to work in the armed forces. And foreign invasions were common in European countries.
Hence option 1 is correct.
48. 2
The ratio between boys and girls are, B: G = 3:5 The total number of boys = 3/8 x 400 = 150 The no.of boys speak only Hindi are, (12/100)× 150 = 18 The no.of boys speak both languages are, 18× 6 =108 :. the no.of boys speak only English are, 24 The total numbers of girls are, 400-150=250 The no.of girls speak only English are, (22/100)×250 = 55 The total numbers of students speak only Hindi is, (24/100) × 400 = 96
So, the no. of boys speak Hindi are, 108+18=126
Hence option 2 is correct. 49. 1
So, total no. of students speak English are, 24+108+55+117= 304
Hence option 1 is correct.
50. 3
108:117 = 12: 13
Hence option 3 is correct.
51. 4
Hence option 4 is correct.
52. 4
First win points = x
Second win points = x + 100
Third win points = 2(x+100) x+x+100+2x+200 = 700 or 4x + 300 = 700
Hence x = 100
Hence option 4 is correct.
53. 4
Train A speed= 60km/h, B speed = 75km/h
A start = 8:30, B start = 9:00
A cross = 60*1/2h
A cross distance = 60*1/2h = 30 km
(B–A) speed = (75–60) = 15km/h B takes time to meet train A = 30/15 = 2 hours
Distance from Jaipur = 75*2 = 150 km
Hence option 4 is correct.
54. 2
Hence option 2 is correct.
55. 2
So we get the below days for the marriage anniversary:
1978: Monday
1979: Tuesday
1980: Thursday
1981: Friday
1982: Saturday
1983: Sunday
1984: Tuesday
1985: Wednesday
1986: Thursday
1987: Friday
1988: Sunday
1989: Monday
1990: Tuesday
1991: Wednesday 1992: Friday
So, two marriage anniversaries fall on a Sunday - 18.09.1983 and 18.09.1988.
Hence option 2 is correct.
56. 4
P = 10/10X100 = 100
Q = 5/20X100 = 25
R = -7/15X100 = - 46.66 and we know that profit percentage cannot be negative.
So, it cannot be determined.
Hence option 4 is correct.
57. 4
Since overall profit percentage is 50% total expenses: = 50 ÷ 100 × 800
= Rs.400 crore
Expenses of company: R= 22 ÷ 100 × 400
= Rs.88 crore
Hence option 4 is correct.
58. 1
Let x be the side opposite the angle.
By cosine rule, x2 = 62 + 72 – 2 X 6 X 7 X cos60 x2 = 36+49-42 x2 = 36+7 x2 = 43
X = √43
Hence option 1 is correct.
59. 2
M T P A H B N W L F C R O K E U Z S V Q
PZH, WOB, ?, SWC
Hence option 2 is correct.
60. 2
Hence option 2 is correct.
61. 4
P X Q ÷ R – T + S
Hence option 4 is correct.
62. 4
Analysis with Venn diagram: S has some area in common with T. So, I follows. Since D lies entirely within S, II follows. Since E has some area in common with T, III also follows. Since D does not lie entirely within T, IV does not follow.
Hence option 4 is correct.
63. 1 If, CED – 248 FEIH – 4316 BEGI – 5419 CAAJ – 0877 DHEBF – 96432 Then, C – 8 E – 4 D – 2 G – 5 So, DECG – 2485 Hence option 1 is correct.
64. 3
K and J have two sons (M and R). M is widower (wife dead), so W is wife of R. Now, If W is daughter in law, and then J will be wife of K. And, D is the son of R and W. So, M is the paternal uncle of D. So, D is nephew of M.
Hence option 3 is correct.
65. 1
Ratio of water to milk = 20/80 = 1:4
(1/4) x 100 = 25 litres.
Part sold (water) = (1/5) x 25 = 5 litres
Part sold (milk) = 20 litres
He now adds 25 litres of water to replenish the quantity.
Now, out of 100 litres of the mixture there is (15+25) litres of water = 40 litres of water.
Hence, milk is 60 litres. water : milk = 40/60 = 2:3
Hence option 1 is correct.
66. 2
Here, x = 620, r = 10%, t = 3 years
x x (100)3 Sum = r2(300 + r)
620 x (100)3 = 102 (300 + 10)
= Rs. 20,000
Hence option 2 is correct.
67. 3
Total Alphabets = 26
Total Vowels = 5
There are 21 letters which are not vowels.
So Probability = 21/26
Hence option 3 is correct.
68. 2
Total number of votes = 7500 Given that 20% of Percentage votes were invalid => Valid votes = 80% 80 Total valid votes = 7500 × 100
1st candidate got 55% of the total valid votes. Hence the 2nd candidate should have got 45% of the total valid votes.
45 => Valid votes that 2nd candidate got = total valid votes × 100
80 45 4 = 7500 × x = 75 × × 45 = 75 × 4 × 9 = 300 × 9 = 2700 100 100 5
Hence option 2 is correct.
69. 3
(A + B)'s 1 day's work = 1 10
C's 1 day's work = 1 50
(A + B + C)'s 1 day's work = 1 + 1 = 6 = 3 . .... (i) 10 50 50 25
A's 1 day's work = (B + C)'s 1 day's work .... (ii)
From (i) and (ii), we get: 2 x (A's 1 day's work) = 3 25
3 A's 1 day's work = 50
1 3 2 1 B's 1 day's work = - = = 10 50 50 25
So, B alone could do the work in 25 days.
Hence option 3 is correct.
70. 1
Speed of the boat in still water = 10 mph Let speed of the stream be x mph Then, speed downstream = (10+x) mph Speed upstream = (10-x) mph 90 Time taken to travel 36 miles upstream - Time taken to travel 36 miles downstream = hours 60 36 36 3 => − = 10−푥 10+푥 2
12 12 1 => − = 10−푥 10+푥 2
=> 24(10 + x) − 24(10 − x) = (10 + x) (10 − x) => 240 + 24x − 240 + 24x = (100 − 푥2) 2 => 48x = 100 − 푥 2 => 푥 + 48x − 100 = 0 => (x + 50) (x − 2) = 0 => x = -50 or 2
Since x cannot be negative, x = 2 mph
Hence option 1 is correct.
71. 4
The average age of 35 students is 16 years.
The total age of 35 students is = 35 x 16 = 560 years
The average age of 21 students is 14 years.
The total age of 21 students is = 21 x 14 = 294 years
Total age of remaining 14 students is = 560 – 294 = 266 years
266 Therefore, the average age of remaining 14 students is = = 19 years. 14
Hence option 4 is correct. 72. 4
Total marked Price of article = 25 x 45 = Rs.1125
90 Selling Price (Giving 10% discount) = of 1125 = 1012.5 100
Let cost price = x
Profit% = 50
Therefore, now the selling price is = Rs.1125
Then profit = 1125 - 675 = 450
450 2 % profit = x 100 = 66 % 675 3
Hence option 4 is correct.
73. 2
K ≥ G > H ≤ F
1. F ≥ K (NOT TRUE)
2. H < K (TRUE)
3. F < G (NOT TRUE)
4. K ≥ H (NOT TRUE)
Hence option 2 is correct.
74. 4
Hence option 4 is correct. 75. 2
Hence option 2 is correct.
76. 3214
According to farmers, they will be organize all those farmers to whom injustice is done and bring forward the injustices through media.
Hence option 3 is correct.
77. 3412
Sequence of Soldiers response will be – d. Soldier wills cognize the senior officers. b. Soldier will deny food and go for hunger strike. c. Soldier will inform media. a. Soldier will make a video depicting corruption in army and food provided to Soldiers and uploads it on social media.
Hence option 3 is correct.
78. 2314
As an Administrative in-charge, he/she will call both the communal heads together and try to approach a peace deal.
Hence option 2 is correct.
79. 2431
As a citizen, behave as if you have not understood the feelers and persist with your application.
Hence option 2 is correct.
80. 4321
As a lay person, they will start assisting people in general to become aware of health problems related to noise and air pollution through virtual and real events.
Hence option 4 is correct.