In infant development, which comes first: ______precedes unilaterality in infant bilaterality or unilaterality? development

Hand dominance begins to develop at 3 to 6 years, When does hand dominance begin to develop? and is not fully defined until 6 years

Individuals with this disorder cannot comprehend Can someone with receptive participate in spoken or written words or symbols. Individuals sensory testing? cannot understand verbal directions or respond to sensory stimuli.

Agnosia is a category of defecits where the patient lacks recognition of familiar object as perceived What is agnosia? by the senses. This could involve all the senses and manifests with problems in body scheme, such as somatognosia and anosognosia.

What is somatognosia? Lack of awareness of one's body parts. Anosognosia: Transient, severe form of neglect. What is anosognosia? Patient does not recognize the presence or severity of his paralysis.

Face blindness. Inability to identify an individual What is prosopagnosia? by their face.

Affects perception of spatial relationship between What is visual-spacial agnosia? objects, or between objects and self.

Inability to recognize sounds, words and What is auditory agnosia? non-words.

Lack of ability to recognize common objects and What is visual agnosia? demonstrate their use in an activity. Loss of the ability to execute or carry out learned What is ? (familiar) movements, despite having the desire and the physical ability to perform the movements

Inability to imitate gestures or perform a purposeful motor task on command, even though What is ? the patient is able to fully understand the idea or concept of a task. This is often associated with left hemisphere damage.

The disability of carrying out complex sequential motor acts. Caused by a disruption of the What is ? conception, rather than execution. (Loss of tool function knowledge)

Unable to produce designs in 2 or three What is constructional apraxia? dimensions by copying, drawing, or constructing.

Difficulty in forming and organizing intelligable words, though the musculature required to do so is What is oral apraxia? in tact. Differs from disarthria because no muscles are affected and speech is not slurred. A ______is an unorganized mass of nerve fibers resulting from a laceration (either surgical or What is a neuroma? accidental) or amputation in which the nerve regrows in unorganized bundles. Results in sharp, radiating pain.

By what age does an infant sit erect and By 8 to 9 months, an infant can sit erect and unsupported for several minutes? unsupported.

______is caused by trauma, post-surgical inflammation, infection, or laceration to an What is reflex sympathetic dystrophy? extremity. Characterized by pain, edema, shiny skin, blotchy skin, and excessive sweating or dryness.

What is another name for reflex sympathetic Complex regional pain syndrome. dystrophy?

When an infant's neck is extended, the elbows What is a symmetric tonic neck reflex? extend and the hips flex. When the head is lowered, the elbows flex and the hips extend. A bunny hop pattern is a result of symmetric tonic What is a bunny hop pattern? neck reflex utilization in order to elicit movement at the hips and elbows for mobility.

A complication of nerve structure or amputation. A traumatic ______is an unorganized mass of What is a neuroma? nerve fibers resulting from accidental or surgical cutting of the nerve. Results in sharp, radiating pain.

What sensory region does the radial nerve Radial Nerve innervate on the hand?

What sensory region does the ulnar nerve See image. innervate in the hand?

What sensory region in the hand is innervated by Median Nerve the median nerve? What stage is initiated by looking at and reaching The oral preparatory phase. for food?

Children with autism often are unpredictable, both What behavior would a child with poor craving and avoiding sensory stimuli at various modulation of tactile input display? times.

After swallowing a pureed substance, you notice Possible aspiration. A videoflouroscopy is often the individual has a wet, gurgling voice. What times needed to determine is this is the case. might this indicate?

In an acute care psychiatric setting, which group Directive group treatment: a highly structured treatment is the most appropriate for individuals approach used in acute care for minimally with disorganized psychosis? functional individuals.

What type of group structure would be most A task group is appropriate for substance abuse appropriate for individuals with substance abuse? disorders. What group format is most appropriate for eating Psychoeducation groups and adjustment disorders?

Laissez-Faire is a "hands off" approach. Goals are not stated, the purpose is not clear, members are What is a Laissez-Faire leadership style? not discouraged or encouraged. This is for a high-functioning group.

What is the optimum number of members for a Five to six. therapy group?

What is the optimum number of members for a No more than eight members. counseling group?

What would you do if you had ten people assigned Divide them into two subgroups. to your group? What is autocratic leadership? The leader exerts complete control.

This style can be a problem-solving style. What is democratic leadership? Group members feel safe to express views, thoughts, and feelings.

According to the OT code of ethics, what is Concern for the safety and well-being of the defined as beneficence? recipients of OT services.

According to the OT code of ethics, what is Ensure recipient’s safety and do no harm. defined as nonmaleficence?

According to the OT code of ethics, what is Respect patient rights, including confidentiality. defined as autonomy? According to the OT code of ethics, what is Comply with laws defined as procedural justice?

According to the OT code of ethics, what is Providing accurate information when representing defined as veracity? the profession (don't lie)

According to the OT code of ethics, what is Maintain credentials and continually learn craft defined as duty?

According to the OT code of ethics, what is Treat colleagues and other professionals with defined as fidelity? respect, fairness, and integrity.

What are the normal ROM limits of cervical 0-45 degrees flexion, extension, and lateral flexion? What are the normal ROM limits of cervical 0-60 degrees rotation?

What are the normal ROM limits of thoracic and 0-80 degrees lumbar spine flexion?

What are the normal ROM limits of thoracic and 0-30 degrees lumbar spine extension?

What are the normal ROM limits of lateral flexion 0-40 degrees of the spine?

What are the normal ROM limits of rotation of the 0-45 degrees spine? What are the normal ROM limits of shoulder 0-170 degrees flexion?

What are the normal ROM limits of shoulder 0-60 degrees extension?

What are the normal ROM limits of shoulder 0-170 degrees abduction?

What are the normal ROM limits of shoulder 0 degrees adduction?

What are the normal ROM limits of horizontal 0-130 degrees adduction? What are the normal ROM limits of horizontal 0-40 degrees abduction?

What are the normal ROM limits of shoulder 0-70 degrees in shd abduction internal rotation? 0-60 degrees in shd adduction

What are the normal ROM limits of shoulder 0-90 degrees in shd abduction external rotation? 0-80 degrees in shd adduction

What are the normal ROM limits of elbow 0-140 degrees flexion?

What are the normal ROM limits of elbow 0 degrees extension? What are the normal ROM limits for pronation and 0-80/90 degrees supination?

Power tools and sharp instruments should be What are precautions of neuroleptic medications? avoided, and sun exposure should be limited.

Extrapyramidal syndrome is a neurological side effect of anti-psychotic medication that mimics the effects of Parkinson's disease. This can cause What is extrapyramidal syndrome? rigidity, bradykinesia, cogwheel and leadpipe rigidity, loss of postural mechanisms, and a resting, pill-rolling tremor.

Tardive dyskinesia is a neurological syndrome caused by the long-term use of neuroleptic drugs. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by repetitive, involuntary, purposeless movements. Features of What is tardive dyskinesia? the disorder may include grimacing, tongue protrusion, lip smacking, puckering and pursing, and rapid eye blinking. Involuntary movements of the fingers may appear as though the individual is playing an invisible guitar or piano.

______describes a lack of coordination while What is ataxia? performing voluntary movements. It may appear as clumsiness, inaccuracy, or instability. What is bradykinesia? Bradykinesia means "slow movement."

______is a movement of intermediate speed, fluctuating between the quick, flitting What is choreoathetosis? movements of chorea and the slower, writhing movements of athetosis.

______is a neurologic movement disorder characterized by sustained muscle contractions, What is dystonia? usually producing twisting and repetitive movements or abnormal postures or positions.

The classic signs of HD include the development of chorea–or involuntary, rapid, irregular, jerky movements that may affect the face, arms, legs, or What is Huntington's Disease? trunk–as well as the gradual loss of thought processing and acquired intellectual abilities ().

The inability to perform rapid alternating What is adiadochokinesis? movements such as pronation/supination. Dysmetria is the inability to estimate the ROM What is dysmetria? necessary to meet the target. Evident when the individual tries to touch the nose.

Involuntary movement of the eyeballs in an What is nystagmus? up/down, back/forth motion. Interferes with head control.

Explosive or slurred speech caused by What is dysarthria? incoordination of muscles involved in speech. Classified as a neuromotor problem.

Rare symptom that is produced by continuous, What is ballism? abrupt contractions of the axial and proximal musculature of the extremity.

Occurs during voluntary movement. Intensified at What are intention tremors? the termination of the movement and often associated with MS. Occurs at rest and subsides when voluntary What are resting tremors? movement is attempted. Seen in Parkinson's disease.

Adjunctive methods. These are preliminary to the use of purposeful activities and may include exercise, facilitation and inhibition techniques, What is the first level of OT intervention? positioning, sensory stim, PAMs, and splints. -OTs evaluate performance components (innate abilities)

Enabling activities. May not yet be considered purposeful activities, but are steps toward What is the second stage of OT intervention? performance of purposeful activities. -Performance components and areas (Dressing using adaptive equipment)

Purposeful activities: Evaulate performance areas. Have inherent, autonomous goals and are relevant and meaningful to the patient, such as ADLs, What is stage three of OT intervention? IADLs, etc. Used to evaluate, facilitate, restore or maintain a person's ability to function in life roles. Can the person cook or work in a clinical setting?

Occupations. The highest stage of treatment continuum engages the patient in natural What is stage four of OT treatment? occupations in their living environment and the community. Not all patients can achieve this stage. The rehabilitation model goal is to help the patient What is the rehabilitation model? learn to work arond or compensate for physical, cognitive, or perceptual limitations.

What is a FIM level of "Total Assistance," or level The person puts forth less than 25% of the effort 1? necessary to do a task.

What is a FIM level of "Maximal Assistance," or The person puts forth less than 50% of the effort level 2? necessary to do a task, but at least 25%

The person puts forth between 50% and 75% of What is a FIM level of "Moderate Assistance," or the effort necessary to do a task, and requires no level 3? more than helping or touching.

The person puts forth 75% or more of the effort What is a FIM level of "Minimal Contact necessary to do a task, and requires no more help Assistance," or level 4? than touching. The person only needs someone to standby and What is a FIM level of "Supervision or setup," or cue or coax him/her (without physical contact) so level 5? that he/she can do a task.

No helper is needed and the person needs an assistive device. This score can also be obtained What is a FIM level of "Modified Independence," when no help is needed but the person takes or level 6? considerable time to do a task or may complete the task in an unsafe manner.

No helper is needed and the person performs the What is a FIM level of "Total independence," or task safely, within a reasonable amount of time, level 7? and without assistive devices, aids, or changes.

A score of "5" or "Supervision or setup" can be What FIMS score would be given to a person who obtained if a helper is needed to set up items or needs a helper to set up items or assistive devices? assistive devices for the person.

How tall should a door threshold be for wheelchair 1/2" and should be bevelled-- should be removed accessibility? if possible. 18". Toilets are typically 15" and should be raised What is the standard height of a wheelchair seat? to accommodate transfers.

What is the minimum doorway width for a 32" wheelchair?

Provides support groups open to clients & families What is the National Alliance for the Mentally Ill? with a focus on education and support for mental illness.

Which sensations return FIRST following a nerve Pain and temperature injury?

Ability to carry out ADLs. Evaluation looks at What is occupational performance? activity demands, client factors and environment. What food consistency is most difficult to Foods that have liquid and solid consistencies are swallow? hardest to chew and swallow.

In mental health, planning for discharge involves Occupational performance evaluating what?

Accredidation Council for Services for Mentally What is AC MRDD? Retarded and Developmentally Disabled

Transient physiological reaction to depression of the cord below the SCI level. Associated loss of What is spinal shock? sensorimotor function and flaccid paralysis. Flaccid paralysis symptoms last several days.

Focuses on mastery of a specific task. Requires client to repeatedly practice the substeps of a task What is functional skill training? with the # of cues for each task gradually faded out. Often associated with a lesion causing variable loss of What is anterior cord syndrome? motor and sensation function. Proprioception preserved.

When should continuous reinforcement be When teaching new skills. utilized?

When should intermittant reinforcement be When maintaining a behavior. utilized?

Central injury to cervical spinal cord What is central cord syndrome? resulting in greater weakness in UEs than in LEs.

Assoc. with injury to the sacral cord and lumbar nerve roots. Patients present with areflexic What is conus medullaris syndrome? bladder, bowel, and lower limbs. Sacral segments sometimes show preserved reflexes. Due to injury of lumbosacral nerve roots in spinal canal. What is cauda equina syndrome? Leads to areflexic bladder, bowel, and lower limbs.

A hemisection lesion of the cord resulting in ipsilateral motor What is Brown-Sequard syndrome? loss and contralateral loss of sensitivity to pain and temp.

Sensation of tingling, itching, numbness or What is parasthesia? burning caused by sustained nerve pressure or reduced blood flow.

Supraspinatus Infraspinatus What are the muscles of the rotator cuff? Subscapularis Teres Minor

Should you pass a Level II fieldwork student if Students functioning below entry level should be they are functioning below the minimal entry failed. level? Close supervision is defined as "daily, direct What is "close supervision" defined as? contact at the site of work"

A program evaluation is the compilation of the What is a program evaluation? intervention results for a population of individuals.

Items that can withstand repeated use, such as a What is Durable Medical Equipment (DME)? wheelchair, medical bed, and walkers.

Adaptive equipment is not covered under Is a shower chair considered a DME? Medicare as a DME. Items not included are shower chairs, reachers, hand-held showers.

To return the individual to work. Focus on pain What are the main goals of work hardening? management and proper body mechanics is key. Allen Cognitive Scale See (External link) http://www.flashcardexchange.com/flashcards/list/362121

Group Development http://www.flashcardexchange.com/flashcards/list/362658 (External Link)

Developmental Levels of Grasping http://www.flashcardexchange.com/flashcards/view/362966 (External Link)

Human Development and Aging http://www.flashcardexchange.com/flashcards/view/361913 (External Link)

Human Development Part 2 http://www.flashcardexchange.com/flashcards/view/361728 (External Link) In Hand Manipulation Skills http://www.flashcardexchange.com/flashcards/view/362983 (External Link)

Medicare Guidelines http://www.flashcardexchange.com/flashcards/view/363383 (External Link)

Rancho Los Amigos Cognitive Scale http://www.flashcardexchange.com/flashcards/view/362940 (External Link)

Spinal Cord Injury http://www.flashcardexchange.com/flashcards/view/362128 (External Link)

Splints http://www.flashcardexchange.com/flashcards/view/362646 (External Link) Teaching Methods Occupational Therapy http://www.flashcardexchange.com/flashcards/view/362651 (External Link)

Types of Groups and Appropriate Clients http://www.flashcardexchange.com/flashcards/view/362952 (External Link)

-Individuals required to use a respirator -Individuals might have limited head and neck What functionality does a person with C1-C3 SCI movement have? -Able to use "sip and puff" wheelchair -Completely dependendent in ADLs and transfers

-Person has full mobility of the head and neck -Able to breathe independently with low stamina What functionality does a person with C4 SCI -Complete body paralysis below neck have? -Possibility of autonomic dysreflexia -"Sip and puff" wheelchair required -Completely dependent in ADLs and transfers

-Good elbow flexion in order to self feed (with a mobile arm support) -Supination available What functionality does a person with C5 SCI -No finger or wrist movement have? -Breathes independently with low stamina -Electric wheelchair may be used with hand control -Complete paralysis of legs and torso. -Able to extend wrist and flex the elbow. -Independent in transfers from toilet to wheelchair. -Able to reach forward. What functionality does a person with C6 SCI -Benefits from splint to promote wrist tenodesis. have? -Able to do some ADLs, such as shaving and dressing upper body. -Assistance may be required to dress lower body. -Needs assistance to transfer from bed to wheelchair. -Elbow extension available -Wrist flexion available -Finger extension available What functionality does a person with C7 SCI -Mod I feeding have? -Dress Mod I to min assist -Bathing & Grooming Mod I -Toileting Mod I -Transfers Independent

An autoimmune disease in which the peripheral nerves become inflammed. Results in numbness What is Guillain-Barre syndrome? and paralysis in the legs, upper body, and face. Level of independence depends on extent of paralysis.

By examing a job analysis. A job analysis is a What is the best way to obtain detailed information detailed description of the physical, sensory, and about an individual's job requirements? psych demands of a job.

What postural stability must an individual demonstrate before being able to use a mobile arm Lateral trunk stability support? A type of in-hand manipulation that is displayed What is rotation? when an individual turns a nut on a bolt.

-Full UE control, including fine coordination and What functionality does a person with C8-T1 SCI grasp have? -ADLs, mobility and communication are Mod I

-Increased endurance -Larger respiratory reserve What functionality does a person with T6 SCI -Pectoral girdle stabilized for heavy lifting have? -ADLs Independent (No assistive devices) -Uses braces with great difficulty for ambulation

-Improved endurance and trunk control. -ADLs and IADLs and independent What functionality does a person with T12 SCI -Mobility: Ambulates with long leg braces and have? crutches -Uses wheelchair for energy conservation

-Hip flexion and knee extension What functionality does a person with L4 SCI -Independent in all activities plus ambulation have? -Bowel and bladder control is not voluntary Pes Valgus (Pronated What is Pes Valgus? Foot)

Club foot (Supinated What is pes varus? foot)

NO RESPONSE What is Ranchos Los Amigos Cognitive Scale Person does not respond to sounds, sights, touch or Level I? movement.

GENERALIZED RESPONSE -Begins to respond to sounds, sights, touch or movement What is Ranchos Los Amigos Cognitive Scale -May open eyes, but does not focus on anything in Level II? paricular -Respond slowly, inconsistently, or after a delay -Responses may include chewing, sweating, breathing faster, increased BP, etc.

LOCALIZED RESPONSE -Patients begin to move their eyes and look at What is Ranchos Los Amigos Cognitive Scale specific people and objects Level III? -Turn heads in the direction of loud voices of noise -Can follow simple commands, such as "Squeeze my hand" CONFUSED AND AGITATED -Patient is confused and agitated about where they What is Ranchos Los Amigos Coma Scale Level are and what is hapening in the surrounding IV? -At the slightest provocation, patient may become restless, agressive, or verbally abusive

CONFUSED AND INAPPROPRIATE -Patient is confused and does not make sense in conversations, but may be able to follow simple What is Ranchos Los Amigos Cognitive Scale directions Level V? -May get upset when stressed, but agitation is no longer a major problem -Frustration as elements of memory may return

CONFUSED BUT APPROPRIATE -Speech makes sense What is Ranchos Los Amigos Cognitive Scale -Able to perform self care Level VI? -Poor initiation and termination in activities -Learning difficult

AUTOMATIC APPROPRIATE -Patients are usually coherent -ADLs independent What is Ranchos Los Amigos Cognitive Scale -Difficulty remembering recent events and Level VII? discussions -Difficulty with calculations, problem solving, judgment -Aware of deficits

PURPOSEFUL AND APPROPRIATE -Patients are independent and can process new What is Ranchos Los Amigos Cognitive Scale information Level VIII? -Able to remember distant and recent events, and can figure out complex and simple problems At what Ranchos Los Amigos level do individuals Level III begin to recognize family and friends?

At what Ranchos Los Amigos level do individuals begin to follow simple directions like "Squeeze my Level III hand?" or "Look at me"?

At what Ranchos Los Amigos level do individuals begin to engage in simple, routine activities such Level IV as self feeding and dressing?

At what Ranchos Los Amigos level do individuals Level V. At this level, patients also confabulate in begin to begin to remember events before the order to fill in gaps in memory accident better than their daily routine?

An individual needs step-by-step instruction to Level V perform self care. What Ranchos level are they at? At what Ranchos level can a patient follow a schedule, but get confused by changes in the Level VI routine?

You have a patient who is unable to step off of a curb or watch for cars. What Ranchos level are Level VI they at?

At what Ranchos level can a patient pay attention Level VI for up to 30 minutes?

At what Ranchos level are patients aware of the Level VI month and year?

At what Ranchos level can an individual perform Level VI self care with minimal assist? At what Ranchos level is a patient independent in self care, but continues to need supervision Level VII because of safety awareness and judgment?

At what Ranchos level is an individual ready for Level VIII vocational and/or driving training?

Inability to remember events that occurred before What is retrograde amnesia? the incidence of trauma or the onset of the disease that caused the amnesia

Inability to remember ongoing events after the incidence of trauma or the onset of the disease that What is anterograde amnesia? caused the amnesia, but able to remember incidents that happened before the incident

What is the post-traumatic amnesia classification A classification tool used by clinicians to assess tool? the severity of injury. -A brain injury severity scale that assesses depth and duration of impaired consciousness and coma. -Used by clinicians to gauge deterioration or What is the Glasgow Coma Scale? improvement at the emergent and acute stages of brain damage or lesions. -Predicts ultimate functional outcome.

-Eye opening (E) -Best Motor Response (M) -Best Verbal Response (V) What are the subtests of the Glasgow Coma Scale? -Minimum score of 1 in each subtest = 3 -Maximum score is 15

E+M+V=3-15

3-8: Severe injury (In a coma) How is the Glasgow Coma Scale interpreted? 9-12: Moderate injury 13-15: Mild or no injury

Temporal lobes contain auditory reception and visual processing areas. Damage to temporal lobes may affect: What are the brain behavioral characteristics of -Sound discrimination temporal lobe damage? -Voice Recognition -Language and Comprehension -Auditory and visual memory storage -Wernicke's Aphasia

Occipital lobe contains visual reception areas. What are the brain behavioral characteristics of Damage can result in: occipital lobe damage? -Anopsia/quadrantanopsia -Object recognition and visual scanning deficits Contains reception areas for touch and body position. Damage includes deficits in: What are the brain behavioral characteristics of -Sense of touch, proproception, temperature and damage to the ? pain -Disorganization -Distorted self perception

The frontal lobes order information and sort out stimuli. Damage to the frontal lobe affects: -Concentration and attention What are the brain behavioral characteristics of -Abstract thinking damage to the frontal lobe? -Concept formation -Foresight -Problem solving -Broca's Aphasia

-Characterized by frontal lobe damage resulting in speech apraxia and agrammaticism What is Broca's Aphasia? -The individual has good auditory comprehension, but reading and writing are severely affected

-Characterized by temporal lobe damage resulting in impaired auditory comprehension and feedback What is Wernicke's Aphasia? -Have fluent, well-articulated paraphasic speech (word substitution errors)

-Communications relay station for all sensory What are the behavioral charcteristics of damage information to the thalamus? -Damage can alter states of arousal, memory defect, speech deficits, apathy, and disorientation The hypothalamus regulates bodily functions such as thirst, hunger, body temperature, emotion, and What are the behavioral characteristics of damage circadian rhythm. Damage can result in: to the hypothalamus? -Uncontrolled eating or drinking -Mood alteration -Sleep disorder

The regulates balance, and posture. What are the behavioral charcteristics of damage Damage can cause problems with: to the cerebellum? -Fine motor control -Coordination

The reticular formation is in the core of the brainstem. Contains fibers en route to and from the What are the behavioral characteristics of damage brain. Damage to the reticular activitating system to the reticular formation? results in: -Sleeping longer periods at a time

Plays integral part in the expression of emotion. What are the behavioral characteristics of damage Damage can affect: to the limbic system? -Emotional behavior

Of Broca's and Wernicke's, which is expressive -Broca's: Expressive Aphasia and which is receptive aphasia? -Wernicke's: Receptive Aphasia Mild retardation: What can someone with an IQ range of 55-69 -Social/verbal skills to 6th grade level accomplish? What classification of MR is this? -Able to take care of self

Moderate MR: 40-54: -Can communicate & get vocational training -Can only do unskilled or semi-skilled work in What can someone with an IQ range of 40-54 sheltered workshops accomplish? What classification of MR is this? -Can handle routine daily functions -Can only learn up to a second-grade level -Require supervised living or group home

Severe Retardation: -Learns to communicate through gestures and What can someone with an IQ range of 25-39 some words accomplish? What classification of MR is this? -Trained in basic health habits -Require supervised living or group home

Profound Retardation: What can someone with an IQ range below 25 -Need caregiver assistance for basic survival skills accomplish? What classification of MR is this? -Often have neuromuscular, orthopedic, or behavioral deficits

-Autism -Asperger's Syndrome What falls under the umbrella of Pervasive -Rett's Syndrome Development Disorders (PDD)? -PDD, not otherwise specified (Usually when autism is suspected, but not proven) Symptoms include: -Impairments of social interaction, social communication, social behavior -Inability to relate to others What is autism? -Echolalia -Flat affect and poor eye contact -Aversion to physical contact -Ritualistic and repetitve behaviors -Intolerance to changes in routine

Has similar characteristics to autism. Sometimes What is Asperger's Syndrome? referred to as high functioning autism.

A permanent impairment affecting automatic What is cerebral palsy? postural control and movement as a result of a non-progressive brain disorder

-Spastic CP -Athetoid CP What are the different types of cerebral palsy? -Flaccid CP -Ataxic CP

Characterized by: -Severe increased tone What characterizes severe spastic CP? -Flexion and extension cocontraction -High tone always -More proximal than distal -Near normal tone at rest -Tone increases with excitement, movement, What characterizes moderate spastic CP? emotion, and speech -More distal than proximal

-Has normal tone at rest What characterizes mild spastic CP? -Tone increases with effort and movement

-Tone fluctuates from low to normal What characterizes pure athetoid CP? -No or little spasticity -No coactivation

-Tone fluctuates from normal to high -Proximal stability What characterizes athetoid CP with spasticity? -Proximal spasticity -Distal athetosis (slow, writhing, continuous, and involuntary mvmt of the extremities)

-Unpredictable tone What characterizes athetoid CP with tonic spasms? -Changes from low to very high -All flexion or all extension Irregular, purposeless, involuntary, quick, jerky, What is chorea? and dysrhythmic movements of variable distribution.

-Constant fluctuation from low to high tone -No cocontraction What characterizes choreoathetosis CP? -Jerky, involuntary movement -More proximal than distal

-Tardive dyskinesia What are the two types of chorea? -Huntington's disease

-Markedly low tone What characterizes flaccid CP? -Seen at birth or toddler -Later classified as spastic, athetoid, or ataxic

-Ranges from near normal to normal -Increased tone usually involves lower extremity What is ataxic CP? flexion -Most functional form of CP - common injury in children under five years What is pulled elbow syndrome? - dislocation of the elbow by a sudden jerk upwards of the arm

- valgus overload or overstress injury to the medial What is Valgus Stress Symdrome? elbow - occurs as a result of repetitive throwing motions

- Types are Traumautic and Obstetric - Traumatic (Road Traffic Injuries/falling a motorcycle) Brachial Plexus injury? - signs * a weakness in the arm * diminished reflexes * corresponding sensory deficits

C5: Shoulder abduction, extension, and external What muscles does C5 innervate? rotation; some elbow flexion and supination

C6: Forearm pronation and supination, some wrist What muscles does C6 innervate? extension C7: Consistently supplies the latissimus dorsi. What muscles does C7 innervate? Elbow extension, wrist flexion, finger extension

C8: Finger extensors, finger flexors, hand What muscles does C8 innervate? intrinsics

What muscles does T1 innervate? T1: Hand intrinsics

- numbness in median nerve distribution - entrapment (compression or pinching) of the median nerve at or about the level of the elbow - Symptoms: median nerve compressed at or just What is pronator teres syndrome? above the elbow results in weakness of the pronator teres muscle - Median nerve entrapment at the elbow is a rare, more commonly seen in children

-AKA Golfer's Elbow What is medial epicondylitis? -Caused by forceful and repeated flexion of the wrist and fingers -Acute, painful condition affecting the supraspinatus and sometimes infraspinatus tendons What is rotator cuff tendonitis? -Pain with external rotation and mid-range abduction

-Often requires surgical repair -Tear to the supraspinatus tendon What is a rotator cuff tear? -Surgery not usually performed unless more than 50% of the muscle is torn

What is bursitis and tendonitis of the shoulder -Affects the shoulder when the bursa and synovial complex? sheaths become inflammed from overuse

-AKA Frozen shoulder -Painful condition caused by immobility and What is adhesive capsulitis? disuse -Condition lends itself to formation of fibrous tissue inside joint capsule

-Compression or entrapment of the ulnar nerve as it courses around the medial epicondyle of the elbow What is cubital tunnel syndrome? -Cubital is behind the "funny bone" -Numbness and tingling in the ring and small fingers -When the olecrenon bursa of the elbow becomes What is olecranon bursitis? inflammed due to contact pressure or overuse

-AKA Tennis Elbow -Insertion point of the extensor carpi radialis What is lateral epicondylitis? brevis becomes inflammed -If left untreated, can tear requiring surgical repair

-Tendonitis of the first dorsal compartment near the anatomical snuffbox What is De Quervain's Syndrome? -Caused by overuse of the thumb -Tested with finklestein's

-Caused by inflammation of the median nerve at the wrist What is carpal tunnel syndrome? -Causes numbness, tingling, and pain in thumb, index, and middle fingers -May result in thenar atrophy

-Similar to CTS What is the Tunnel of Guyon? -Ulnar nerve becomes entrapped between the hook of the hamate, and the pisiform bones -Caused by a nodule or thickening of the flexor tendons of the finger or thumb as they pass What is trigger finger? through the digital pulleys -Hinders gliding motion, resulting in catching or "triggering" during flx/ext

Always check uninvolved joint first to establish a Which joint do you assess first? baseline.

If active ROM is less that passive ROM, what does Muscle weakness that indicate?

-Cardiac patients -Burns When should isometric exercises be avoided? -Rheumatoid arthritis -Casts

-Receptive aphasia When should sensory testing be avoided? -Atrophic (aptropy) skin -Tapping skin over damaged peripheral nerve to What is Tinel's sign? elicit tingling or pins and needles

What is the Phalen's test? Phalen's Test

What are the methods used to treat -Desensitization hypersensitivity, such as burns, amputations, PNS -Compensation (Such as testing hot water with injuries, etc? other hand)

-Sensory retraining What are the methods used to treat -Compensation (Such as testing hot water with the hyposensitivity? other hand, padding objects)

-Anesthesia is complete loss off sensation How do you treat anesthesia? -Precautionary techniques -Compensatory techniques -Pressure relief equipment How do you treat spinal cord patients with -Changing position throughout the day using timer anesthesia? -Inspect skin with mirrors

-Person -Behavior What are the components of a goal? -Condition -Criterion -Function

What is the first component of a goal? Person: The person who will do the behavior

Behavior: What the individual is expected to perform. What is the second component of a goal? -Must be observable, measurable and functional behavior

Condition: The environmental situation in which the behavior is performed (when, where, what, in What is the third component of a goal? what manner) -Focus on what most affects function (ie - if a child cannot sit, "in sitting" would be the condition Criterion: Standard the client must meet. -How well they must perform in order to achieve goal/objective. What is the fourth component of a goal? -Has to be quatifiable (number or responses, degree of ROM, length of time, amount of assistance provided, etc.)

Function: Similar to behavior, but justifies the What is the fifth component of a goal? reason for treatment. (ie - to open a door, use a computer, etc)

-What is the activity? -Positioning -Precautions -Steps What are components of a biomechanical activity -Repetition analysis? -ROM required -Minimal muscle strength required -Type of contraction -Appropriate for short term or long term goal

-Subjective -Objective What are SOAP notes? -Assessment -Plan

-What a patient or significant other states -What the patient or significant other states about their medical history, emotions, lifestyle, home What is the Subjective component of a SOAP situation, note? -Patient-stated goals "I want to work again" -Complaints -Patient's assessment of treatment -Result of the therapist's objective measurements or observations What is the Objective component of a SOAP note? -IE: ROM, MMT, FIMs, evaluate speed of transfers and the movement of each body part and assistance required

-Involves professional judgment -Provides opportunity for OT to draw conlcusions from S and O -Inconsistencies between patient's complaints and What is the Assessment component of a SOAP the objective findings can be discussed note? -Comments can be made regarding patient's progress in therapy (ie - Pt. refused to participate in tx.) -Reasoning for information not obtained can be listed (ie - too much pain to complete session)

- The Plan states the frequency of treatment (per day or week) - Tx plan LTG & STG What is the Plan component of a SOAP note? - Discharge plan - Referral to other disciplines - DME & AE needed to order - Plans for further assessment

Orthosis are permanent devices that replace or What are orthosis? substitude for loss of muscle function

- Comfort - Function - Cosmesis What are the general considerations of splinting? - Patient acceptance and compliance - Patient education - Tratment plan integration The main purporse of splinting is to help the individual perfom ADLs through: - positioning and maintaining alignment What are the objectives of static splinting? - protecting or supporting or immobilizing - inhibiting tone by positioning the extremity in a reflex inhibiting position

Supportive splints are static splints used to: - relieve pain What are supportive splints? - position and maintain join alignment - prevent adaptive shortening of soft tissues

Corrective splints are static splints used to: What are corrective splints? - maintain improvement obtained through therapy - correct soft tissue contractures

Protective splints are static splints used to: What are protective splints? - immobilize a joint or limb following trauma are fracture and some post-surgical conditions

- prevent progressive deforming changes as a result of muscle imbalance What are the objectives of dynamics splints? - substitute for or assist lost or weakened muscles - increase ROM - minimize formation of adhesions Static progressive splints apply low-load prolonged stress at the end range to soft tissue What are static progressive splints? through static positioning to increase ROM and correct contractures

Serial static splints hold the tissue in end range What are seral static splints? until it adaps to its new length to increase ROM and maintain improvement obtained

-Wrist: 30 degrees in extension What is the functional position of the hand? -Phalanges: Slight flexion -Thumb: Opposed to index finger

Characterized by: -All the MPs in flexion What is intrinsic plus grasp? -DIPs and PIPs, full extension -Thumb in opposition to MF & RF (ie-holding a plate)

-Use figure eight or dynamic flexion splint What splint is used to subtitute for loss of intrinsic -Loss of intrinsic plus is associated with median plus grasp? and ulnar nerve dysfunction -For individuals with burns and traumatic hand When is the intrinsic plus splinting position used? injuries

-Preexisting skin problems -Bony prominences What are the common splinting precautions? -Friction -Pressure spots

-Swelling in one or more joints -Early AM stiffness lasting more than one hour What are the warning signs of inflammatory -Recurring pain or tenderness in any joint arthritis? -Inability to move the joint -Redness and warmth in the joint -Unexplained weight loss, fever, or weakness

-Non-inflammatory -Cartilage destruction What is osteoarthritis? -Progressive -Usually occurs due to old age

What is a Heberden's node? Osteophyte formation in the DIP What is a Bouchard's node? Osteophyte formation on the PIP

-RA is an inflammatory, systemic, autoimmune What is the difference between rheumatoid and disorder osteoarthritis? -OA is regionalized to specific joints and can be caused by trauma, overuse, and old age

-Rheumatoid: Morning stiffness lasts longer than When does stiffness occur in rheumatoid and one hour osteoarthritis? -Osteo: Morning stiffness lasts less than one hour, but stiffness returns after overuse at end of day

-Swan neck What are the deformaties related to rheumatoid -Boutonniere Deformity arthritis? -Zig-Zag Deformity

-MCP flexion contractures What characterizes a Swan-Neck deformity? -PIP hyperextension -DIP flexon -PIP flexion -DIP hyperextension What characterizes a Boutonniere's deformity? (Memory hint-Push your finger into the table in order to replicate this)

-Address patient's pain and inflammation -Splinting -Increase functional (not optimal) ROM What are the treatment goals for osteoarthritis? -Increase functional mobility and independence in ADLs -Education on joint protection techniques

-Diffused pain -In cases of advanced OA, pain may be severe enough to wake individual -Synovial inflammation What are the classic signs and symptoms of -Capsular distention places pressure on nerve osteoarthritis? endings -Muscle spasms around affected joint -Pain and tenderness in peri-articular structures -Mild to mod joint stiffness

-Pain management (heat, cryotherapy, TENS, How is adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder) myofascial release) treated? -PROM, stretching -Strengthening exercises/activities

-No weight bearing -Toe touch (10% on the affected and 90% on the What are the weight-bearing restrictions for hip unaffected) arthroplasty? -Partial weight bearing (50%) -Weight bearing as tolerated -Full weight bearing -No hip extension What are the hip precautions for an anterolateral -No hip external rotation hip arthroplasty? -No hip adduction (No crossing legs or feet)

-No hip flexion more than 90 What are hip precautions for posterolateral hip -No hip internal rotation arthroplasty? -No hip adduction (No crossing legs or feet)

-No internal or external rotation of the knee (via What are the precautions for total knee twisting the foot) replacements? -No forced flexion -Prevent flexion contractures by extending

Which side should a person with a recent hip On the operated side to prevent accidental crossing replacement sleep on? of leg (adduction)

How does a patient with a recent total knee Patient should on unoperated, unaffected side replacement sleep? -First gather up shirt from top back with unafected hand How does a person with hemiplegia doff a -Lean forward, duck head, and pull gathered back pullover shirt? fabric over head -Remove first from normal arm, then affected arm

-Lay shirt on lap -With normal hand, roll up bottom edge of shirt until you reach sleeve of affected arm -Position sleeve opening as large as possible, and How does a person with hemiplegia donn a use normal hand to place affected hand into sleeve pullover shirt? opening -Pull shirt past elbow and insert normal arm into sleeve -Complete putting on shirt -Put shirt on lap with inside up and collar towards the chest (upside down) -Position sleeve opening on affected side -With normal hand, place involved hand into How does a person with hemiplegia donn a sleeve button-up shirt? -Put normal arm into other sleeve, and bring arm out to 180 degrees of abduction -With normal hand, pull shirt over head, and it will be positioned correctly in order to button

What are the clinical signs of a high radial nerve -Wrist drop injury? -Thumb in palmar abduction

-Wrist extension is normal -Sensation is normal What are the clinical signs of a low level (posterior -Posterior interosseus branch of radial nerve interosseus/deep branch of radial nerve)injury? innervates only muscles, not sensory -Loss of finger and thumb extension -Occurs at or below level of wrist What are the clinical signs of a low (distal) radial -Incomplete extension of fingers and thumb MCP nerve injury? -PIP and DIP can be extended

-Dynamic dorsal splint for wrist extension, MCP What is the splint for radial nerve palsy? extension, and thumb extension

-Loss of wrist flexion What are the clinical signs of a high-level median -Loss of thumb flexion, palmar abduction, and nerve injury? opposition -Loss of active pronation

-Flattened thenar eminence What are the clinical signs of a low-level median -Loss of thumb flexion, palmar abduction, and nerve injury? opposition

Splint to position the thumb in palmar abduction What splint is used for median nerve palsy? and opposition -Hyperextension of the MCP, ring and small finger What are the clinical signs of a high-level ulnar (Bishop's hand) nerve lesion? -Absent hypothenar and interossei -Wrist flexion abnormal

-Clawing of the MCP, ring and small finger What are the clinical signs of a low-level ulnar (Bishop's hand) nerve lesion? -Flexion of the PIP and DIP of the small finger -Wrist flexion normal

Splint to prevent MCP hyperextension of the ring How is ulnar nerve palsy splinted? and small finger

Early post-injury/surgery phase focuses on: -Healing and prevention -Immobilization What should an OT do during the acute phase of Post-immobilization focuses on: therapeutic management in a nerve injury? -Increasing ROM -Enhancing function through splints and assistive devices -Patient education

This defines the period of reinnervation. Focus is on: What should an OT do during the recovery phase -Motor retraining of therapeutic management in a nerve injury? -Sensory reeducation -Desensitization -No further reinnervation What should an OT do during the chronic phase of -Patient has significant deficits therapeutic management in a nerve injury? -Focus is on compensatory skills

-The spine is immobilized with a halo brace of body jacket -No flexion, extension, or rotary movements of the spine and neck -Positioning What should an OT do during the acute phase of a -Hand splinting spinal cord injury? -Active and active-assisted exercises -PROM of joints -Neuromuscular reeducation for wrist and elbows, if indicated -Increase upright-Begin tolerance discharge (Teach planning pressure relief methods) -AROM/PROM -Contracture prevention -Promote tenodesis What should an OT do during the active -ADL/Equipment needs rehabilitation phase of a spinal cord injury? -Strengthening/graded activities -Bowel/bladder training -Assess need for DMEs -Caregiver education -Home evaluation

-Driving -Leisure activities What should an OT do during the extended -Prevocational assessment rehabilitation phase of a spinal cord injury? -Home modifications -Community reentry -Technology use

-Engage triceps in activity to prevent flexion What elbow exercises are needed for an individual contractures with spinal cord injury? -Elbow extension is needed for transfers and weight shifting Focus on promoting proximal stability by engaged: What shoulder exercises are needed for an -Shoulder depressors (lower traps, latissimus dorsi, individual with spinal cord injury? and pectoralis minor) -Work shoulder flexors, abductors, and extensors

-Wrist extension What wrist exercises are needed for an individual -Focus on maximizing tenodesis with ROM of with spinal cord injury? finger flexion with wrist extension and ROM of finger extension with wrist flexion

-Edema What are the signs of a Deep Venous Thrombosis -Increased venous pattern (DVT)? -Pain and tendernous -Low-grade, idiopathic fever

-Common in T6 and above injuries -Light headedness, dizziness, and/or fainting when What is a postural or orthostatic hypotension? moving from reclined to upright position -Patient must recline quickly

-Sudden shortness of breath (SOB) What are the signs of a pulmonary embolism? -Hyperventilation -Cardiac Arrhythmias -Abnormal deposition of osseous material in the hip, knee, elbow, and shoulder -Symptoms include: heat, pain, swelling, What is heterotrophic ossification? decreased ROM, and fever -Usually appears 1-4 months post traumatic injury, such as TVA -Sometimes requires joint replacement surgery

-Fixation or fusion of a joint, often in an abnormal position What is ankylosis? -Usually results from destruction of articular cartilage, as in RA

-A chronic inflammatory disease of ideopathic origin What ankylosing spondylitis? -First affects the spine in adjacent structures and commonly progresses to eventual fusion (ankylosis) of involved joints

-Used to maintain webspace What is a C-bar splint used for? -No joint stabilization

-Superficial burn involving the epidermis What is a first-degree burn? -Caused by sunburn and minor flash injuries -No edema, no blisters -Second degree burn -Involves epidermis and papillary dermis -Skin is moist, weepy, and blistered What is a superficial partial-thickness burn? -Edema is present -Very painful type of burn -No scarring

-Deep second degree burn -Involves epidermis and the dermis -Mottled areas of red and white eschar (dead tissue What is a deep partial-thickness burn? that sloughs off of healthy skin) -May be painful -Hypertrophic scarring and contractures -May need skin grafting

-Third-degree burn -Destruction of epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous tissues What is a full-thickness burn? -Adipose tissue may be exposed -Skin appears dry and leathery -No pain -Require skin grafting

-Across the widest point of the hips of thighs How is a wheelchair seat measured? -Add half an inch to one inch on each side

-From the bottom of the buttocks to the top of the shoulder -Subtract four to three inches, depending on trunk How is wheelchair back height measured? control and UE strength -Head rest may be required if no trunk control present How do you measure a wheelchair armrest? From the buttocks to the bent elbow, add one inch

From the buttocks to the popliteal fossa (behind How do you measure seat depth? the knee), subtract one to two inches

-From the bottom of the heel to the popliteal fossa How do you measure footrest height? when individual is in 90 degrees of knee flexion -Subtract two inches for floor clearance

-Don't push and pull with UEs -Don't lift weights What are common cardiac precautions? -Perform transfers using mostly LE strength -Don't lean below level of the heart -Don't raise both arms at same time

What splint is used for median nerve compression Dorsal, volar, or ulnar gutter splint (CTS)? What splint is used for a carpal tunnel release Volar splint with the wrist in a neutral, or slightly surgery? extended wrist position

What immobilizing splint is used for radial nerve Volar or dorsal, 15-30 degrees of wrist extension palsy?

What immobilizing splint is used for Volar or dorsal, 20-30 degrees of wrist extension tendinitis/tenosynovitis?

-Volar in extension up to 30 degrees, based on the What immobilizing splint is used for rheumatoid person's comfort level arthritis? -Ulnar drift close to neutral during early stages

What immobilizing splint is used for wrist -Volar, dorsal, or circumferential. fracture? -Maximum passive extension up to 30 degrees. -Volar in extension, as tolerated What immobilizing splint is used for reflex -Circumferential wrist might be used to avoid sympathetic dystrophy (CRPS)? edema

-RA, Burns, Dupuyten's, and RSD -Supports the hand and wrist joint so that they heal What is a resting hand splint used for? without contracting and so that a deformity does not develop

-DeQuervain's Tenosynovitis -Rheumatoid arthritis When are thumb immobilization splints used? -Osteoarthritis -Traumatic injuries of the thumb

-Immobilizes the thumb while allowing other digits freedom to move -A long thumb spica splint also immobilizes the When is a thumb spica used? wrist -Immobilizes 1st CMC and sometimes 1st MP and IP -Hand based (short opponens splint)

Dysarthria is a neuromotor disorder affecting the What is the difference between oral apraxia and muscles of the face, whereas oral apraxia (such as dysarthria? Broca's aphasia )is purely neurological. What is the main goal during the acute phase in Stabilization mental health?

What is the main goal during the subacute phase in -Enabling activities mental health? -Performance components

What is the main goal during the rehab phase of -Functional activities mental health? -Performance components

What is the main goal during the chronic phase of -Focus on compensatory techniques and mental health? environmental adaptations

What is the diagnostic criteria for major depressive Must present with either depressed mood or loss of disorder? interest or pleasure. Can be a single episode. What is the diagnostic criteria for dysthymic More than two years depressed for most of the disorder? day.

What are the characteristics of bipolar disorder -Full manic episodes type I? -Promiscuity

-Hypomanic What are the characteristics of bipolar disorder -Depressed type II? -Symptoms not severe

-Patient is cooperative, but frustrated -Onset is insidious What characterizes dementia? -Cognition is prominently impaired -Symptoms worsen as day progresses

-Undue hardship in relation to company's assets What is a reasonable accomodation? -Applies to companies with 15+ employees Is a person who is considered a risk to themselves No. The person must be able to perform the job or others eligible for ADA protection? task safely without risk of harming patients.

-Prepare clients for disclosure -Identify qualifications What is the role of OT in the ADA? -Focus treatment to identify limitations -Educate client -Advocate and educate employer/public

-Job analysis What are the steps in determining reasonable -Disability-related limitations accomodation? -Identify potential accomodations -Select and implement

What can an individual accomplish at Allen's Automatic actions Cognitive Level 1?

What can an individual accomplish at Allen's Aware of large objects an can accomplish very Cognitive Level 2? simpl tasks What can an individual accomplish at Allen's -Patients use hands for simple, repetitive tasks Cognitive Level 3? -Unlkely to produce consistent end product

-Patients are able to copy demonstrated directions (ie - visual and verbal cues) presented one step at a What can an individual accomplish at Allen's time Cognitive Level 4? -Individuals can copy a sample plan to follow directions

-Patients perform tasks involving three familiar What can an individual accomplish at Allen's steps and one new one Cognitive Level 5? -New learning occurs at this level

-Patients can anticipate errors and plan ways to What can an individual accomplish at Allen's avoid them Cognitive Level 6? -Can follow written directions -Operate at normal capacity

-Using memories from pictures and music to What is the remotivation approach? remotivate patients What is reality orientation? Awareness of date and time

Making excuses for behaviors that are considered What is rationalization? unacceptable

What is identification? Taking on the character of another person

What is projection? Blaming others for one's behaviors

Very simple What is level one of meal preparation? Example: Pouring glass of OJ Preparing simple step meals What is level two of meal preparation? Example: Peanut butter jelly and instant pudding

What is level three of meal preparation? Soups, frozen dinners, hot beverages

Hot, one dish meals What is level four of meal preparation? Example: Macaroni and cheese

Two hot meals What is level five of meal preparation? Example: Chicken and mashed potatoes

Maximum slope of 1 foot of ramp per every inch How much should a ramp be graded? of rise in height What is alexia? Inability to understand written language

Process of analyzing the provision of services to What is a utilization review? promote the most economical delivery service

What is close OT supervision? Reporting once per day

What is routine OT supervision? Reporting every two weeks

What is general OT supervision? Once a month? What is minimal OT supervision? As needed

Addresses reasonable accomodation and What is Title 1 of the ADA? employment discrimination

Addresses public services, constructed buildings, What is Title 2 of the ADA? state and local gov't business

-Public accomodations What is Title 3 of the ADA? -Accessible design

Telecommunications for hearing and speech What does Title 4 of the ADA address? impaired What is underlying premise of Rood technique? Facilitory/inhibitory

What is underlying premise of Bobath (NDT) -Normal movement (ie - weight bearing) technique?

Uses functional patterns of stretching in order to What is the underlying premise of PNF technique? elicit proprioceptive awareness of one's body parts

-Has a directive leader -Focuses on task completion What is a parallel group? -No interaction -Indiv's are low level -Work on trust, awareness, comfort

-Has a directive leader -Focus is on group interaction What is a developmental project group? -Individuals work on initiation, sharing, short-term tasks (ie - collage) and working with two people -Facilitative leadership -Focuses on acquiring skill What is an egocentric-cooperative group? -Not focus on task completion -Long-term tasks (ie-mosaics)

-Facilitative leadership -Goal is to acquire skills What is a cooperative group? -Not focused on completing task -Feeling expression encouraged -Therapist acts as advisor

-Therapist acts as equal group member -Advisory type of leadership What is a mature group? -Goal is for members to self direct -Requires end product and time limit

-Purpose is to assess skills and limitations regarding group interaction What is an evalutation group? -For indiv's who lack group interaction skills (Type of activity group) -The therapist does not participate or intervene (only acts as observer)

-Purpose is to acquire knowledge and skills to perform a specific activity -For indiv's who have minimal interaction skills What is a thematic group? -Therapist selects, structures, and grades activities (Type of activity group) -Therapist acts as advisor -Activities directly relate to skills (ie-cooking group, parallel group) -Purpose is to discuss activities engaged outside of group -For individuals who share similar problems in What is a topical group? functioning (ie-egocentric cooperative level) (Type of activity group) -Therapist acts as a role model and shares leadership -Activities include verbal discussion and roleplay

-The purpose is to increase awareness of needs, values, ideas, feelings, behaviors -Intended for indiv's with disfunction in cognition What is a task-oriented group? and social-emotional areas (psych or physical (Type of activity group) trauma) -Used for substance abuse -Therapist is initially active and provides structure -Activities create an end product

-Purpose is to develop interaction skills for What is a developmental group? parallel, project, egocentric cooperative, (Type of activity group) cooperative, mature groups

-Purpose is to help functioning at highest level and meet mental health needs What is an instrumental group? -Intended for individuals who have an ability to (Type of activity group) change or progress -Therapist acts as supporter and is unconditional -Activities focus on maintaining function

What is Axis I in the DSM-IV? Clinical disorders/psych diagnoses What is Axis II in the DSM-IV? MR & personality disorders

What is Axis III in the DSM-IV? General medical conditions

What is Axis IV in the DSM-IV? Psychosocial & environmental problems

What is Axis V in the DSM-IV? GAF Score

The Global Assessment of Functioning (GAF) scale is a numeric scale (0 through 100) used in What is the GAF scale? mental health to rate the social, occupational and psychological functioning of adults. (DSM-IV) 0: Not enough information available to provide What is a GAF scale of 0? GAF.

91-100: Superior functioning in a wide range of What is a GAF scale of 91 - 100? activities, life's problems never seem to get out of hand. No symptoms.

Paranoid, schizoid, schizotpal (odd/peculiar What are cluster A personality disorders? behavior)

Antisocial, borderline, histrionic, narcissistic What are cluster B personality disorders? (dramatic/implusive)

Avoidant, dependent, obsessive compulsive What are cluster C personality disorders? (anxiety/fear) -Feelings of being threatened or persecuted What are the characteristics of paranoid -Indiv is withdrawn, suspicious personality disorder? -Have dillusions/hallucinations

-During hallucinations, indiv's sense (see, hear, etc) a non-existent external stimulus and with a What is the difference between a hallucination and compelling sense of their reality a dillusion? -Dillusions are misinterpretations of external stimuli

-Characteristics are limited emotional range -Absense or indifference to social activity What is schizoid personality disorder? -Withdrawn -Self absorbed

-Same features as schizophrenia, but to lesser degree What is schizotypal disorder? -Cognitive impairment, primarily in working memory, verbal learning, and sustained attention

-Must be at least 18 years or older -Engage in illegal activity What is antisocial personality disorder? -Unemployed, aggressive, impulsive, irresponsible -Lack of remorse -Impulsive -Mood instability -Inappropriate affect What is borderline personality disorder? -Suicidal ideations -Self mutilation -Fear of abandonment

-Theatrical -Center of attention -Extreme emotionality What is histrionic personality disorder? -Approval seeking -Low frustration tolerance -Unable to delay gratification

-Grandiosity -Attention seeking What is narcissistic personality disorder? -Lack of empathy -Egomaniac with inferiority complex

-Social discomfort -Avoidance of interpersonal relationships is What is avoidance personality disorder? common -Fear of disapproval

-Most common personality disorder -Individuals believe they can not survive without relationships What is dependent personality disorder? -Desire to win approval and avoid abandonment -Submissive -Difficulty making decisions -Fear of being alone -Potentially most disabling What is obsessive-compulsive personality -Perfectionistic disorder? -Rigid -Ritualistic behavior

What is the comprehensive occupational therapy Evaluates general, interpersonal, and task evaluation (COTE)? behaviors pertenent to OT

-Impairment of consciousness with global cognitive impairments What is delirium? -Lability -Hallucinations

-Commonly seen in Alzheimer's, head trauma, Parkinson's and Huntington's What is dementia? -Multiple cognitive deficit including memory loss and impaired consciousness

What psychiatric symptoms can be present in Psychotic Features Huntington's What psychiatric symptoms are present in -Psychosis (hallucinations) epilepsy? -Fear and anxiety

-Hallucinations What psychiatric symptoms are present in brain -Depression tumors? -Psychosis -Personality changes

-Psychosis What are the psychiatric symptoms of head -Disturbances of mood trauma? -Personality changes -Agitated/withdrawn

What is the Kohlman Evaluation of Living Skills? Assesses basic living skills using interview and (KELS) test

-Traditional What are the four types of mental health service -Partnership delivery? -Supportive -Seperatist What is the "traditional" type of mental health -Professionals provide the service service delivery? -Clients receive the service

-Clients are informed that they are partners in the What is the "partnership" type of mental health service service delivery? -The distinction between professionals and clients remain clearly defined

What is the "supportive" type of mental health Professionals are excluded, except in external roles service delivery?

-Ex-patients provide the support and run the What is the "separist" type of mental health service service delivery? -Non-patients and professionals are excluded

What is dyspraxia? Difficulty in planning new motor tasks What is dysgraphia? Inability to print or write

Conduct disorders often involve aggression toward What is a conduct disorder? people or animals and property destruction

A fracture of the distal end of the humerus that What is a Volkmann's contracture? interferes with blood supply of the forearm

What muscle is affected in an axillary nerve The serratus anterior muscle injury?

1) Performance Areas 2) Performance Skills What domains are included in the Practice 3) Performance Patterns Framework? 4) Context 5) Activty demands 6) Client Factors -ADLs -IADLs -Education What is included in the Performance Areas of -Work Occupation (Practice Framework)? -Play -Leisure -Social Participation

-Motor Skills What is included in Performance Skills (Practice -Process Skills Framework)? -Communication/Interaction Skills

-energy -knowledge What are Process Skills (Practice Framework)? -temporal organization (time) -organizing space & objects

-Habits What is included in the Performance Patterns -Routines (Practice Framework)? -Roles

-Cultural -Physical (Environment) -Social What is included in the Context of the Practice -Personal(socioeconomic, age) Framework? -Spiritual -Temporal -Virtual -Objects used and their properties -Space Demands -Social Demands What is included in the Activity Demands of the -Sequencing and Timing Practice Framework? -Required Actions -Required Body Functions -Required Body Structures

What is included in the Client Factors of the -Body Function Practice Framework? -Body Structure

Activities that are oriented toward interacting What are IADLs? w/the environment and that are generally optional

-Care of pets -Care of others -Child rearing Give examples of IADLs? -Communication devices -Financial management -Meal preparation and cleanup

1) Break down componens of activity What are the steps in an activity analysis? 2) Determine performance components 3) Assess therapeutic value of activity 1) Specify exact activity 2) Idenitify procedures, materials and tools What methods are used to analyze an activity? 3) Analyze standard performance of activity 4) Use AOTA uniform terminology 5) Select frame of reference

The therapist's conscious, planned interaction with What is defined as therapeutic use of self? the individual, family members, significant others, and/or caregivers

1)Origin phase 2)Orientation phase 3)Intermediate phase What are the stages of group development? 4)Conflict phase 5)Cohesion phase 6)Maturation phase 7)Termination phase

-Directive What are the styles of group leadership? -Facilitative -Advisory

-Therapist is responsible for planning and structuring -Members have limited cognitive, social, and What is a directive leadership style (groups)? verbal skills -Used in parallel and project group levels -Goal: Task accomplishment -Therapist shares responsibility with the members -Members' skill level is moderate What is a facilitative leadership style (groups)? -Used in egocentric cooperative or cooperative groups -Goal: Skill acquisition through experience

-Therapist functions as a resource -Members set the agenda and structure -Members have a high skill level What is a advisory leadership style (groups)? -Used in mature groups -Goal: Have members understand and self-direct the process

-Evaluation group -Thematic group According to Mosey, what are the major types of -Topical group activity groups? -Task-oriented group -Developmental group -Instrumental group

-Assess client's skills, assets, and limitations What is the purpose of an evaluation group? regarding group interaction

-Assist members in acquiring the knowledge, skills, and/or attitudes needed to perform a specific What is the purpose/focus of a therapeutic group? activity -Members must have interaction skills equal to a parallel group skill level -Discuss activities outside of group -Members must be at an egocentric-cooperative What is the purpose/focus of a topical group? group skill level -Therapist shares leadership and acts as role model

-To increase clients' awareness of their needs, values, ideas, feelings, and behaviors as they What is the purpose/focus of a task-oriented engage in a group task group? -Members' primary dysfunction is cognitive and socioemotional due to psychological or physical trauma

A continuum of groups consisting of parallel, What is a developmental group? project, egocentric cooperative, cooperative, and mature

-To enable members to perform individual What is the purpose/focus of a (developmental) activities in the presence of others parallel group? -Leadership: directive -Members' cognitive level: low

-To develop the ability to perform a shared, short-term activity in a cooperative manner What is the purpose/focus of a (developmental) -Members' cognitive level: low project group? -Leadership: directive -Goal: group interaction -Enables members to select and implete a long-range activity (i.e.: grout with tiles drying) What is the purpose/focus of a (developmental) -Requires group interaction egocentric-cooperative group? -Members' cognitive level: Medium -Leadership style: facilitative Goal: acquire skills

-Enables members to engage in group activity to facilitate expression What is the purpose/focus of a (developmental) -Members' cognitive level: Medium cooperative group? -Leadership style: facilitative Goal: acquire skills

-Enable members to assume all functional, socio-emotional and task roles within a group What is the purpose/focus of a (developmental) -Members' cognitive level: high mature group? -Leadership: advisory -Goal: help members self-direct

-To help members function at their highest possible level What is an instrumental group? Goal: prevent regression, maintain function, and meet mental health needs Type of member: high functioning

What is conceptual age of a fetus? Age of fetus or newborn in weeks since conception Age of fetus or newborn in weeks from first day of What is gestational age of a fetus? mother's last normal menstrual period

What is the development of sensorimotor 1) responds to tactile stimuli integration in the prenatal period? 2) reflex development

-Tactile, proprioceptive and vestibular input needed for body scheme What is the development of sensorimotor -Vestibular defines arousal level integration in the neonatal period? -Visual system develops as infant responds to faces and items placed 10" from face

-Infant movement patters progress from reflexive to voluntary and goal directed What is the development of sensorimotor -Vestibular, proprioceptive, and visual integrate integration in the first six months? for postural control -Visual and tactile systems become integrated to lay foundation for eye-hand coordination

-Fine motor and motor planning develop due to What is the development of sensorimotor refinement of tactile and proprioceptive senses integration in the six to twelve month period? -Midline skills and crossing midline -Primitive self-feeding -Crossing midline -Laterality -Bilateral integration What are the components of motor development? -Fine coordination and dexterity -Visual-motor integration -Oral-motor control

-0 to 2 years What is exploratory play? -play experience develops body scheme -child explores properties and effects of actions

-2 to 4 years What is symbolic play? -Play helps to formulate, test, classify, and refine ideas

-4 - 7 years What is creative play? -Child participates in cooperative peer groups

- 7-12 years What are games? -Rules, competition -Friends become important for validation -Cooperates with dressing What are the dressing skill milestones at 1 year? -Pulls off shoes and socks

What are the dressing skill milestones at 2 year? -Helps pull down pants

What are the dressing skill milestones at 2 1/2 -Unbuttons large buttons years? -Assists in putting on socks

-Puts on shirt w/ Min A -Zips and unzips What are the dressing skill milestones at 3 years? -Pulls down pants I -Buttons large buttons

What are the dressing skill milestones at 3 1/2 -Works snaps or hooks in front years? -Removes pullover I What are the dressing skill milestones at 4 year? -Laces shoes -Identifies front and back

-Ties and unties knots What are the dressing skill milestones at 5 years? -Dresses I

At what age is a child I in toileting? 4 to 5 years

Call the State Regulatory Board (SRB). NBCOT What should you do if you have questions about and AOTA should be contacted if offender falls potential ethical violations that could cause harm? under their licensing jurisdiction

Who should you report client/patient abuse to? Immediate supervisor Standards and Ethics Commission: a component of What is the SEC? AOTA responsible for the code of ethics and standards of practice of the profession

Can OT Assistants be activities directors in skilled Yes and they can also supervise OT aids nursing facilities?

-65 years or older -Permanent kidney failure What persons are eligible for medicare coverage? -Black lung disease -Persons on SS program for 24 months

-Pays for hospital, inpatient SNF, home health, and hospice care What does Medicare Part A cover? -Requires annual deductible fees -Automatically provided by all cover in Social Security system that meet criteria

-Covers hospital outpatient physician and other professional services including OT What is cover under Medicare Part B? -Consider supplemental -Must be purchased as a monthly premium -Inpatient Part A requires service for a minimum What is the difference between Medicare Part A of 5 days per week and B? -Part B covers 3 days of outpatient

-Needs assessment What are the 4 basic steps of program -Program planning development? -Program implementation -Program evaluation

-Describes community factors and populations at risk What is a Needs Assessment? -Target population, demographics, functional levels, disorders

-Defines focus for a program based on needs What is Program Planning? assessment results

-Initiates program according to time table and steps set forth in the program plan What is Program Implementation? -Promote program to ensure it reaches target population -Systematic review and analysis of care provided What is Program Evaluation? to determine if care is at an acceptable level of quality

-Continuous quality improvement (CQI): limitations and problems used to improve quality -Utilization review: reviews use of resources in What are the types of approaches used in program facility evaluation? -Peer review -Professional review organization -Risk management

Protrusion of a sac through the spine, containing What is spina bifida with myelomeningocele? CSF and spinal cord/nerve roots

Protrusion of a sac through the spine, containing What is spina bifida with meningocele? CSF and meninges; does NOT include spinal cord

SB with a myelomeningocele results in sensory What type of spina bifida presents with the most and motor deficits below the level of the lesion symptoms? and may result in paralysis -Cerebellum and medulla oblongata slip through What is Arnold-Chiari Syndrome? foramen magnum of skull -Typically results from spina bifida

-Progressive disorder in which weakness occurs in all voluntary muscles, including the heart -With Duchenne's, individuals rarely survive What is Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy? beyond early 20s -Focus on energy conservation, breathing techniques, I in ADLs, maintaining/increasing ROM

Characterized by choreiform movements and What is Huntington's Chorea? progressive intellectual deterioration

A disoriented reaction with restlessness and What is delirium? confusion that may be associated with fear and hallucinations

What is affect? The observable component of emotion -Paranoid type -Disorganized type What are the subtypes of schizophrenia? -Catatonic type -Undifferentiated type -Residual type

Used to classify individuals who do not fit clearly What is undifferentiated type schizophrenia? into another subcategory of schizophrenia

What is disorganized type schizophrenia? Primitive, disinhibited, and disorganized behavior

At what SCI level can a person use a universal C6 cuff?

Occurs in the late afternoon and at night in older What is sundowning? individuals. Characterized by drowsiness, confusion, ataxia, and falling. The meaningless imitation of another person's What is echopraxia? movements

What is astereognosis? The inability to identify objects through touch

A numeric scale from 0 to 100 that rates the social, What is the global assessment of functioning scale occupational and psychological functioning of (GAF)? adults. This is axis five of the DSM-IV

What is the diagnostic criteria for a major A two-week period of depressed mood or loss of depressive episode? interest or pleasure

Intervention should focus on developing skills for a substance-free lifestyle. This includes What should a typical substance abuse OT interpersonal relationships, socialization, and intervention focus on? vocation. Assistance with practical services, such as obtaining Social Security, housing, and food stamps should also be a focus OT interventions with anxiety disorders such as panic disorder, OCD, and PTSD should utilize What should a typical anxiety disorder OT skills training and cognitive behavioral approaches intervention focus on? as well as teaching relaxation and stress management skills

Individuals who display a lifelong pattern of social withdrawal. Marked by this cover with human What is schizoid personality disorder? interaction in conversion and bland constricted affect. Often seen by others as eccentric, isolated, or lonely

Characterized by colorful, dramatic, extroverted behavior in excitable, emotional persons. Inability What is histrionic personality disorder? to maintain deep, long-lasting attachments with accompanying flamboyant presentation is often characteristic

Negativistic, hostile, and defined behaviors that What is oppositional defiant disorder? result in functional impairment

A disregard for the rights of others leading to aggression towards people and animals, What is conduct disorder? destruction of property, deceitfulness, theft, or serious violation of rules OT intervention focuses on development and How are oppositional defiant disorder and conduct improvement of self-esteem/self-efficacy. A focus disorder treated? is placed on developing the skills needed for ADL's, social, leisure, and school behaviors

Activities to promote a reality based body image, education and management of nutrition, and How are eating disorders treated? activities to improve communication skills and self-expression

Characterized by repetitive movements of licking, What are symptoms of Rett's syndrome? biting, and slapping of one's hands

Treatment may involve adaptations to maintain the integrity of the skin such as dynamic elbow splints How is Rett's syndrome treated? that inhibit a hand to mouth pattern by limiting full elbow flexion

Determines if the tool measures what it is intended What is validity? to measure What is reliability? Establishes the consistency of the evaluation

-May be short or long -Supports the thumb in a position of abduction and What is an opponens splint? opposition -Used during functional activities

This splint supports the user's wrist in 10° to 20° of extension to prevent contracture, but allows What is a cock up splint? digits to function, such as in a case involving a flaccid wrist

Zero (Z): No muscle contraction can be seen or What does a manual muscle test of (0) indicate? felt

Trace (T): Contraction can be felt or seen What does a manual muscle test of (1) indicate? underneath the skin, but there is no motion Poor Minus (P-): Individual is only able to move What does a manual muscle test of (2-) indicate? joint through incomplete range of motion with gravity eliminated

Poor (P): Part moves through complete range of What does a manual muscle test of (2) indicate? motion with gravity eliminated

Poor Plus (P+): -Part moves through incomplete range of motion What does a manual muscle test of (2+) indicate? (less than 50%) against gravity -OR through complete range of motion with gravity decreased against slight resistance

Fair minus (F-): Part moves through incomplete What does a manual muscle test of (3-) indicate? range of motion (more than 50%) against gravity

Fair (F): Part moves through complete range of What does a manual muscle test of (3) indicate? motion against gravity Fair plus (F+): Part moves through complete range What does a manual muscle test of (3+) indicate? of motion against gravity and slight resistance

Good (G): Part moves through complete range of What does a manual muscle test of (4) indicate? motion against gravity and moderate resistance

Normal (N): Part moves through complete range What does a manual muscle test of (5) indicate? of motion against gravity and full resistance

-Tested proximal to distal How should sensation testing be conducted in a -Vision occluded spinal cord injury? -Test uninvolved side first

-Tested distal to proximal How should sensation testing be conducted in a -Vision occluded peripheral nerve injury? -Test uninvolved side first -Begin in warm water for 10 minutes -Move hand to cold water for 1 minute, then back to warm for four minutes What is the protocol for a contrast bath? -Continue for 15 to 30 minutes and end in warm water -In severe case of edema, end in cold water for 1 minute

How are cold packs most effectively placed? In an elevated position

What type of split would be crafted for a brachial A flail arm splint plexus injury?

What type of split would be crafted for a median An opponens splint or C-Bar splint nerve injury?

What type of split would be crafted for an ulnar A dynamic/static splint to position MPs in flexion nerve injury? What type of split would be crafted for a combined A figure of eight splint or dynamic MCP flexion median/ulnar nerve injury? splint

What type of splint would be crafted for someone A tenodesis splint with a C6-C7 spinal cord injury?

What type of split would be crafted for someone A hand-based thumb splint with the skiers thumb injury?

What type of split would be crafted for someone A hand-based thumb splint with CMC arthritis?

What type of split would be crafted for someone Kleinert or Duran dorsal protection splint with a flexor tendon injury? What type of splint would be crafted for someone Silver rings or buttonhole splint with swan neck?

What type of split would be crafted for someone Silver rings or dynamic PIP extension splints with a Boutenniere deformity?

What type of split would be crafted for someone A functional splint or safe splints, depending on with arthritis? stage

What type of split would be crafted for someone A resting splint with flaccidity?

What type of split would be crafted for someone A spasticity splint or a cone splint with spasticity? -Wrist flexion -MCP hyperextension What is the position of deformity? -IP joints flexed -Thumbs adducted

-Wrist 20 to 30° of extension -MCPs 45° flexion What is the functional position of the hand? -IPs 20 to 30° of flexion -Thumb in palmar abduction

What is (a.k.a. dysgraphia)? The inability to write

What is an intervention strategy for Provide hand over hand tactile-kinesthetic input, motor/ideomotor apraxia? and utilize visual cues

What is a blocking splint used for? Used to isolate tendon and joint range of motion What is an appropriate approach to take with a Provide enjoyable activities in a safe and accepting child with behavioral problems? environment

What are intervention strategies for ideational Provide step-by-step instructions and hand over apraxia? hand guiding

Bring the perseveration to a conscious level and What are intervention strategies for perseveration? train the person to inhibit the behavior

-Provide graded scanning activities What are intervention strategies for spatial -Use external cues such as colored markers and neglect? written directions

Provide bilateral activities, guide the affected side What are intervention strategies for body neglect? through the activity, and increase sensory stimulation to the affected side -Decrease external auditory stimuli -Give individual increase response time What are intervention strategies for aphasia? -Use concise sentences -Use visual cues and gestures

-Use external cues such as written directions and What are intervention strategies for sequencing daily planners and organization deficits? -Use graded tasks that increase in complexity in terms of number of steps required

-Grade stimulus from soft to hard to rough -Grade force of application from touch to: rub->tap->prolonged Ex: -rub: pet cat, fingerpaint, sandcastles How is desensitization done? -tap: juggle cotton balls, ping pong balls, or tennis balls -prolonged: flour, rice, beans, macaroni

-Compensation- Ex: padding objects -Sensory Retraining- learn the meaning of new sensation

1. vigorous, generalized cutaneous stimulation How is sensory retraining done? (Ex: rub affected area briskly with terrycloth) 2. cognitive cueing (Ex: OT & pt. discuss stimuli) 3. feedback (Ex: visual feedback)

-Compensatory Techniques: visual, thermometers

What is a Colles' fracture? Fracture to the distal radius What splint is used for a 5-year old child with A neoprene hand-based splint w/thumbs in spastic quad CP how shows bilateral thum-in-palm opposition deformities?

A 15 year-old with arthrogryposis undergoes serial casting of the right wrist, with weekly cast changes. After four weeks, upon cast removal, the -refer the individual to the physician to dx the therapist notes both a small open area 1/4cm. by finding 1/4cm. and a red rash over the ulnar styloid. The therapist's best response is to?

Arthrogryposis, or arthrogryposis multiplex congenita, comprises nonprogressive conditions What is Arthrogryposis? characterized by multiple joint contractures found throughout the body at birth

An individual diagnosed with bipolar disorder of A structured project, w/ easily-completed steps to the manic type, begins an OT activity group. For increase self-esteem (i.e.: making a leather wrist the first experience in the group setting, the band w/client's name) therapist should suggest:

What are the charateristics of individuals with Impulse contral, attention span, and short-term oppositional defiant disorder? memory Several adolescents with behavior problems attend an after-school program in a mental health outpatient program. They work at an Focus on the group tasks rather than the feelings of egocentric-cooperative level in a group dealing the participants. with issues related to peer pressure. The participants would be most likely to:

A five year-old with moderate spastic cerebral palsy works on ambulation with a walker in -donning and doffing shoes and socks in bench physical therapy. The OT evaluation reveals sitting with one leg externally rotated and placed problems in lower extremity dressing, transitional on the opposite knee: encourages dynamic trunk skills, self-feeding, and grasp and release skills. To balance, LE external rotation, and dissociation facilitate the child's goal of ambulation, the occupational therapist elects to work on:

Ten members of the community resource group are not working well together and show decreased Verbally reinforce the goals and purposes of the levels of trust. The COTA's goal is to enhance the group. level of cohesiveness in the group. The best choice for the COTA is to:

In a mature group level, what is the role of the To act as a member of the group therapist?

In a cooperative level, what is the role of the -The therapist intervenes to promote cohesiveness therapist? and group problem-solving An individual functions at level five according to -Carry out a task with three familiar steps and one the Allen Cognitive Test. The highest level task new step that the individual can perform is to:

An individual with schizophrenia continues to experience periods of hallucinations after two -Redirect attention back to the project, and changes in medications. During the OT project reinforce all misinterpretations of enviromental group, the individual begins to actively noises and events, use a calm tone, focus on reality hallucinate. The COTA should:

What functional activity can a person at Allen's Poor imitation of posture Cognitive Level II do?

What functional activity can a person at Allen's Sand wood Cognitive Level III do?

What functional activity can a person at Allen's Matching colors of clothing Cognitive Level IV do? What functional activity can a person at Allen's Understand cause and effect Cognitive Level V do?

On an inpatient unit, activities should be structred, In an activity group of an inpatient unit, how easily completed in one session, and provide a should activities be done? concrete result to reinforce reality