Elementary Analysis in Qp
Hannah Hutter, May Szedl´ak,Philipp Wirth November 17, 2011
This report follows very closely the book of Svetlana Katok1.
In this section we will see some properties of sequences and series in Qp. Recall from the first presentation that Qp is a complete metric space. Hence every Cauchy sequence converges and therefore the set of the convergent sequences is the set of the Cauchy sequences. We will also see that we have some much better properties in Qp, than we are used to in the real case. The first example is the characterization of the Cauchy sequences.
Theorem 1. A sequence {an} in Qp is a Cauchy sequence (i.e. converges), if and only if lim |an+1 − an|p = 0. n→∞ Pn 1 Remark. This is obviously not true in R. For example take an = k=1 k 1 the n-th harmonic number. Then limn→∞ |an+1 −an|p = limn→∞ n+1 = 0 but as we know the an is not Cauchy.
Proof. Remember that if {an} is a Cauchy sequence, then
lim |am − an|p = 0. m,n→∞
The first direction follows immediately for m = n + 1. Note that this is true for Cauchy sequences in any metric space.
1Katok, Svetlana; p-adic Analysis Compared with Real, American Mathematical Soci- ety, 2007
1 For the converse assume limn→∞ |an+1 − an|p = 0. This means that for any > 0 there exists N ∈ N s.t. for n > N
|an+1 − an|p < . Then for any m > n > N, using the strong triangle inequality, we get
|am − an|p = |am − am−1 + am−1 − am−2 + · · · − an|p
≤ max(|am − am−1|p,..., |an+1 − an|p) < , which completes the proof. P∞ Definition 1. Let the series n=1 an be in Qp. The sum converges if the sequence of its partial sums converges in Qp, i.e. PN if limN→∞ |SN+1 − SN |p = 0 where SN = n=1 an. P∞ The sum converges absolutely if n=1 |an|p converges in R. Example. We have ∞ X n2 · (n + 1)! = 2 n=1 in Qp, for any p. By induction we will show that for the N partial sum one has
N X n2 · (n + 1)! = 2 + (N − 1) · (N + 2)!. n=1 Then ∞ X 2 n · (n + 1)! − 2 = lim |2 + (N − 1) · (N + 2)! − 2|p = 0 p N→∞ n=1 since |(N + 2)!|p → 0 for N → ∞. The proof by induction is simple calculus: Case N = 1: 1 X n2 · (n + 1)! = 1 · 2 = 2 = 2 + (1 − 1) · (1 + 2)!, n=1 hence the induction base holds. For N → N + 1: N+1 N X X n2 · (n + 1)! = n2 · (n + 1)! + (N + 1)2 · (N + 2)! n=1 n=1 =2 + (N − 1) · (N + 2)! + (N + 1)2 · (N + 2)! =2 + (N + 2)! · (N − 1 + N 2 + 2N + 1) =2 + N · (N + 3)!.
2 As we are used to in R, convergence follows from absolute convergence by the triangle inequality. P∞ Proposition 1. If the series i=1 |ai|p converges absolutely (in R), then P∞ i=1 ai converges in Qp. P∞ Proof. Suppose that i=1 |ai|p converges. Then the sequence of its partial sums is Cauchy i.e. for any > 0 there exists N ∈ N s.t. for all m > n > N, Pm we have i=n+1 |ai|p < . By the usual triangle inequality we get
m m X X |Sm − Sn|p = ai ≤ |ai|p < . p i=n+1 i=n+1 P∞ Therefore {Sn} is a Cauchy sequence and by definition i=1 ai converges in Qp.
We however can get a much better result in Qp as seen in the next proposition. P∞ Proposition 2. A series i=1 ai in Qp converges in Qp if and only if limi→∞ ai = 0 and in this case
∞ X ai ≤ max |ai|p. p n i=1 Remark. The last property can be considered as the strongest wins property for converging series. Remark. We again know that this proposition is not true in R. By taking 1 ai = i , we can see that limi→∞ ai = 0 but again the corresponding series does not converge. P∞ Proof. We know by definition that i=1 ai converges if and only if the se- P∞ quence of partial sums Sn = i=1 ai converges. Since an = Sn − Sn−1 the series converges if and only if an goes to 0. For the second part we assume P∞ P∞ that i=1 ai converges. In the case where i=1 ai = 0 the proof is trivial. P∞ Now suppose i=1 ai 6= 0. Then by the strong triangle inequality for any partial sum we have n X ai ≤ max |ai|p. p 1≤i≤n i=1
Since ai → 0 for n → ∞ for large enough N we have
max |ai|p = max |an|p. 1≤i≤N n
3 Pn P∞ Since the partial sum i=1 ai converges to i=1 ai 6= 0 and the p-adic norm can only take a discrete amount of values, for m large enough we have
Pm P∞ i=1 ai = i=1 ai . The claim follows by taking the maximum of m p p and n. P∞ Definition 2. A series n=0 an converges unconditionally if for any re- 0 P∞ 0 ordering of the terms an → an the series n=0 an also converges. P∞ Theorem 2. If n=0 an converges, it converges unconditionally and the sum does not depend on the reordering.
Remark. This is not true in R. We can even prove that for any convergent P∞ but not absolutely convergent series n=0 an we have that for every x ∈ R 0 P∞ 0 there exists a reordering of the summands an → an such that n=0 an = x.
Proof. Let > 0 and let N ∈ N s.t. for any n > N we have that |an|p < , 0 |an| < and ∞ N X X an − an < . p n=1 n=1
We know that we can find such an N since by Proposition 2 the terms an PN 0 PN 0 tend to zero. Let S = n=1 an and S = n=1 an and define by S1 and 0 S1, respectively, the sum of all terms in S for which |an|p ≥ and the sum 0 0 of all terms of S for which |an|p ≥ . By construction it is clear that S1 0 0 and S1 contain the same terms and therefore S1 = S1. The sum S differs 0 0 from S1 only by the terms an satisfying |an|p < and similarly S from S1 0 0 by the terms an satisfying |an|p < . Hence by applying the strong triangle 0 0 0 inequality we get |S − S1|p < and |S − S1|p < and therefore |S − S |p < . Hence we have
∞ N ∞ N N N X X 0 X X X X 0 an − an = an − an + an − an < . p p n=1 n=1 n=1 n=1 n=1 n=1
P∞ 0 Now for → 0 we see that the series n=1 an converges and
∞ ∞ X X 0 an = an n=1 n=1 as desired.
4 Remark. As in R, convergence does not imply absolute convergence. Con- sider the following series: 1; p repeated p times; p2 repeated p2 times; . . . . Since the terms converge to 0 the series converges but
∞ X −1 2 −2 |an|p = 1 + p · p + p · p + ··· = ∞, i=1 and hence the series does not converge absolutely. Conclusion. Summing up the previous theorems and remarks we can con- clude the following properties. In Qp one has the follwing implications: absolute convergence ⇒ convergence ⇔ unconditional convergence. On the other hand in R one has: absolute convergence ⇒ unconditional convergence ⇒ convergence. Note that different from Qp in R: convergence ; unconditional convergence. In both cases one has: convergence, unconditional convergence ; absolute convergence.
The next proposition is pretty subtle in the real case and stated here because it will be used later.
Theorem 3. Let bij ∈ Qp, i, j = 1, 2,... , such that for any > 0 there exists N ∈ N such that
max(i, j) ≥ N ⇒ |bij|p < i.e. |bij|p tends to zero if either i or j goes to infinity. Then the two series
∞ ∞ ∞ ∞ X X X X bij and bij i=1 j=1 j=1 i=1 converge, and their sums are equal. P∞ Proof. We know from Proposition 2 that j=1 bij converges for all i and P∞ i=1 bij converges for all j. By the same proposition we know that for all i ≥ N ∞ X bij ≤ max |bij|p < p j j=1 and for all j ≥ N ∞ X bij ≤ max |bij|p < . p i i=1
5 This implies that both double series converge, again by Proposition 2. It is therefore left to show that both sums are equal. We know that
∞ ∞ N N X X X X bij − bij p i=1 j=1 i=1 j=1 N ∞ ∞ ∞ X X X X = bij + bij p i=1 j=N+1 i=N+1 j=1 N ∞ ∞ ∞ n X X X X o ≤ max bij , bij < , p p i=1 j=N+1 i=N+1 j=1 where the last inequality follows from Proposition 2. Since this is true for any , the series must be equal.
2 p-adic Power Series
Definition 3. As in the real case a formal power series is of the form ∞ X n f(X) = anX , n=0 where the coefficients an are in Qp and X is the indeterminate. The set of all power series in X with coefficients in Qp are denoted by Qp[[X]] and the set of all polynomials by Qp[X].
Let x ∈ Qp and f ∈ Qp[[·]]. Then the corresponding power series f(x) is P∞ n n=0 anx . From Proposition 2 we know that f(x) converges if and only if n n |anx |p → 0. Therefore if for a 0 ≤ r ∈ R we have that |an|pr → 0, our P∞ n series n=0 anx converges for any x ∈ Qp s.t. |x|p ≤ r. P∞ n Definition 4. For a power series f(X) = n=0 anX with an ∈ Qp the radius of convergence is defined as the extended real number 0 ≤ rf ≤ ∞ s.t.
n rf = sup{r ≥ 0 : |an|pr → 0}.
The extended real numbers are defined as R ∪ {∞}. The convergence radius can be computed as in the Archimedian case. P∞ n Proposition 3. For a power series f(X) = n=0 anX the radius of con- vergence is 1 rf = 1 . n lim supn |an|p
6 Proof. The proof works as in the real case. Suppose that |x|p > rf (in the case where rf < ∞). We have
1 1 k k 1 lim sup |x|p|ak|p = |x|p lim sup |ak|p = |x|p · > 1. rf k k Therefore for infinitely many values k we have that |ak|p|x|p > 0 i.e. akx does not converge to 0 and hence the series diverges. Now suppose that |x|p < rf (in the case where rf > 0). Then we can choose r ∈ R such that |x|p < r < rf . Then
1 1 k k r lim sup r|ak|p = r lim sup |ak|p = < 1. rf
Hence there exists an N ∈ N such that
1 k sup r|ak|p < 1. k≥N
k Therefore for k > N we have |ak|pr < 1 and
|x| k |x|k |a xk| = |a | rk p < p → 0 for k → ∞. k p k p r rk
Since the terms of the series go to 0 it follows that the series converges. The natural question that arises is, whether the series converges on the boundary or not.
Proposition 4. The domain of convergence of a p-adic power series f(X) ∈ k Qp[[X]] is a ball D = {|x|p ≤ R} where R ∈ {p , k ∈ Z} ∪ {0} ∪ {∞}, and the series converges uniformly in D.
Remark. We know that in the Archemedian case we can not make a state- ment about the convergence on the boundary. Take for example the power P∞ n+1 n series of ln. We know that ln(1 + x) = n=1(−1) x /n. One can find the the radius of convergence is 1, but for x = −1 the series diverges and for x = 1 the series converges.
Proof. Suppose the radius of convergence of f(X) is rf . As seen before the series converges on the open ball D = {|x|p < R}. We know that on the n boundary i.e. where |x|p = rf , f(X) converges if and only if |anx |p → 0. We can observe that this depends only on the norm of x and not the specific value of x, hence either for all points with |x|p = rf the series converges or it does for none. If the series converges for all points with |x|p = rf then we
7 have R = rf . If the series diverges for all points with |x|p = rf , then we have −1 R = p rf . Finally for any |x|p ≤ R we have
n n |anx |p ≤ |anR |p → 0 and therefore the uniform convergence on D follows.
3 p-adic Logarithm and Exponential
Definition 5. Similar as in the real setting, we define the p-adic logarithm by the series ∞ n X n+1 (x − 1) ln (x) := (−1) . p n n=1 n o This series converges for all x ∈ B := x ∈ Zp| |x − 1|p < 1 = 1 + pZp. Note that the p-adic logarithm corresponds to the formal power series
∞ n X n+1 X log (1 + X) = (−1) ∈ [[X]] . n Q n=1 Theorem 4. The p-adic logarithm satisfies the fundamental property
lnp (xy) = lnp (x) + lnp (y) for all x, y ∈ B such that xy is in B as well. Proof. Consider the following identity of formal power series:
log (1 + X) + log (1 + Y ) − log (1 + X + Y + XY ) = 0.
Clearly, this holds for the real logarithmic function, i.e. the left hand side of the above identity vanishes for all real numbers x, y ∈ (−1, 1). We also know that all the series converge absolutely, which means that we can rearrange P i j the terms such that the left side is of the form ci,jx y with ci,j = 0 for all i, j ∈ N. Now we choose any α, β ∈ pZp. Clearly, α + β + αβ ∈ pZp and by applying Theorem 3, the expression
lnp (1 + α) + lnp (1 + β) − lnp ((1 + α) (1 + β))
P i j can be written in the form ci,jα β where all ci,j = 0. This implies the theorem.
8 Definition 6. Consider the formal power series
∞ X Xn exp (X) = n! n=0 the corresponding power series in Qp is called the p-adic exponential and is denoted by expp (x). Unfortunately, the radius of convergence of the p-adic exponential is not as obvious as the one of the p-adic logarithm. To find this, we need the following
Lemma 1. For any positive integer n ∈ N, let
k X i n = aip i=0 be its expansion in base p. We then have n − S ord (n!) = n , p p − 1 where Sn = a0 + a1 + ... + ak.
n−Sn Proof. If p > n, we have Sn = n and therefore p−1 = 0. Of course this is true since p - n! and therefore ordp (n!) = 0. Now let us assume p ≤ n and Pk i let n = i=0 aip be the expansion of n in base p. For any 1 ≤ i ≤ k there are exactly j n k j n k − pi pi+1 numbers between 1 and n such that pi is the is the greatest power of p dividing each. So we get
k k X j n k j n k X j n k ord (n!) = i − = . p pi pi+1 pi i=1 i=1 Here the last equation holds because for i ≥ 2, each term appears twice in the sum, once with coefficient i and once with coefficient −(i + 1). Further, j n k pk+1 = 0 by the definition of k.
9 On the other hand we have n − S a + a p + ... + a pk − (a + a + ... + a ) n = 0 1 k 0 1 k p − 1 p − 1 a (p − 1) + a (p2 − 1) + ... + a pk − 1 = 1 2 k p − 1 k k−1 ! X X j X j = ai p = aip i=1 j=0 1≤j