Anatomic Sciences Cranial nerves with parasympathetic function CN III (occulomotor) CN VII (Facial) CN IX (glossopharyngeal) CN X (vagus) Cranial nerves (Sensory, motor, or both) Mnemonic: Some Say Money Matters But My Brother Says Big Boobs Matter More Retroperitoneal organs Suprarenal glands Aorta Duodenum Pancreas (except tail) Ureter Colon (ascending and descending) Kidneys Esophagus Rectum Union of superficial temporal vein and maxillary Retromandibular vein vein (pterygoid plexus drains to the maxillary vein) Originates on lateral surface of skull and passes Temporalis muscle medial to zygomatic arch and inserts into coronoid process of Cell bodies of primary sensory neurons of Mesencephalic nucleus of V (Trigeminal) proprioreception and mechanoreceptors in periodontal ligament found in? Jaw-jerk reflex Mesencephalic nucleus Primary sensory neurons nucleus of termination Spinal nucleus of V (Trigeminal) involved in pain from maxillary second molar is? appearing on mucous membrane of Aberrant sebaceous glands cheek results from the presence of? Acidophils (alpha cells) of anterior hypophysis Growth hormone secrete? Pars distalis (alpha and beta cells) is located? Anterior Pituitary Pars nervosa (unmyelinated nerve fibers) is located? Posterior Pituitary Development of upward growth of Rathke’s pouch? Anterior pituitary Development of downward growth of diencephalon Posterior Pituitary and 3rd ventricle? Pituicytes are located in? Posterior Pituitary (pars nervosa) Serotonin thought to be produced by? Enteroendocrine (argentaffin) cells What is found between basal lamina and secretory Basket (myoepithelial) cells cell membrane? Flat bones, without cartilage formation Intramembranous ossification Mandible (not condyle) With hyaline cartilage formation (provides region Endochondrial ossification where bone can grow in length) Condyle of mandible Long bones Interstitial growth Inner growth Increase in diameter or thickness Appositional growth Outer surface growth Difference between hyaline cartilage and bone? Hyaline cartilage can grow interstitially Maxillary nerve of Trigeminal (V2) leaves skull Foramen rotundum through? Motor division (Mandibular nerve of Trigeminal Foramen ovale V3) of V & Accessory meningeal artery leaves skull

through? Middle meningeal artery leaves skull through? Foramen spinosum Facial nerve exits? Stylomastoid foramen Unpaired vessels contributing to circle of willis are? Anterior communicating and basilar arteries What forms posterior boundary of oral cavity and palatoglossus anterior boundary of fauces? Pillars of fauces formed by? Palatoglossus and palatopharyngeus Muscle that seal off oropharynx from nasopharynx Palatopharyngeus that result in fold in posterior wall of pharynx? Muscles that prevent food from entering Tensor veli palatine and levator veli palatine nasopharynx? Muscle who’s tendon loops around pterygoid Tensor veli palatini hamulus (of medial pterygoid plate)? Clogged ears may be restricted function of? Tensor veli palatini Tensor veli palatini innervated by? V3 (Mandibular nerve of Trigeminal) Levator veli palatine innervated by? X (Vagus) Only palatal muscle innervated by Trigeminal Tensor veli palatine (everything else is X (Vagus)) Nerve (V3 Mandibular nerve)? Only palatal muscle NOT supplied by pharyngeal Tensor veli palatine plexus? Ethmoid sinus drains into? Anterior group drains into middle meatus Posterior group drains into superior meatus Communication between maxillary sinus and nasal Middle nasal meatus, at the semilunar hiatus cavity? Nasolacrimal duct drains into? Inferior meatus Meatus and Conchae Superior meatus: between superior and middle conchae Middle meatus: between middle and inferior conchae Inferior meatus: under inerior conchae Conchae and bone Superior conchae: ethmoid bone Middle conchae: ethmoid bone Inferior conchae: separate bone Innervation to infrahyoid muscles (omohyoid, Ansa cervicalis (branch of cervical plexus) sternohyoid, sternothyroid, thyrohyoid) receive motor innervation from? Innervation to geniohyoid Hypoglossal nerve (XII) Insertion to articular disc of TMJ (upper head) and Lateral pterygoid muscle mandibular condyle (lower head) Insertion to medial of angle of mandible? Medial pterygoid muscle Originates on tuberosity of maxilla and pyramidal Medial pterygoid muscle process of palatine bone (medial surface of medial pterygoid plate)? Insertion to lateral of angle of mandible? Masseter Thyroid hormones are synthesized from which Tyrosine amino acid? Derived from neural crest, produces epinephrine, Adrenal Medulla, spinal autonomic ganglia norepinephrine, and dopamine from tyrosine Adrenal Cortex Zona glomerulosa: mineralcorticoids (aldosterone) Zona fasciculate: glucocorticoics (cortisol) Zona reticularis: androgens Mammary gland drains its lymph to the? Axillary lymph node Coronary Circulation Right coronary artery: Small cardiac vein Posterior nterventricular Artery: Middle cardiac vein

Left (anterior interventricular) coronary artery: Great cardiac vein Circumflex artery: Coronary sinus Nerve that runs between medial and lateral Lingual nerve pterygoid? Pharyngeal pouches 1st: tympanic membrane 2nd: middle ear, tonsils 3rd: inferior parathyroid glands 4th: superior parathyroid glands & parafollicular cells of thyroid gland Brachial arches 1st: Muscles: muscles of mastication, anterior digastric, mylohyoid, tensor veli palatine, lateral lingual swelling, tuberculum impar Skeletal: maxilla, mandible, incus and malleus of middle ear Nerve & Artery: V2 (Maxillary of Trigeminal), V3 (Mandibular of Trigeminal), maxillary artery

2nd: Muscles: muscles of facial expression, buccinators, platysma, stapedius, stylohyoid, posterior digastric Skeletal: Reichert’s cartilage forms the stapes, styloid process, and hyoid (lesser horn) Nerve & Artery: VII (Facial)

3rd: Muscles: stylopharyngeus Skeletal: Hyoid (greater horn) Nerve & Artery: IX (Glossopharyngeal), Common caroid/Internal carotid artery

4th & 6th: Muscles: intrinsic muscles of larynx, pharynx, levator Skeletal: thyroid cartilage, cricoid cartilage, arytenoid cartilage Nerve & Artery: X (Vagus) Splanchnic nerves Greater: T5-T9 (foregut, celiac ganglia, enteric nervous system)

Lesser: T9-T12 (midgut, celiac ganglia, enteric nervous system) Least: T12-L2 (renal ganglia) Thoracic splanchnic nerves to celiac ganglion Preganglionic visceral efferents contain? Supplies parasympathetic fibers to ascending colon Vagus and right ! of transverse colon? Supplies parasympathetic fibers to left " transverse Splanchnic nerves colon and rest of GI tract? Brachial arches in development of tongue? 1st, 2nd, 3rd Folding of embryo during 4th week is result of? Prominent growth of neural tissue Crista terminalis is the line of junction between Sinus venosus and auricle primitive? Roots of brachial plexus derived from ventral rami Spinal nerves C5 – T1

of? What passes between middle and anterior scalene Brachial plexus and subclavian artery muscles? What passes anterior to anterior scalene muscle and Subclavian vein first rib? Epithelium of Pharyngeal tonisil? Surrounded partly by ciliated pseudostratified epithelium and partly by connective tissue; no crypts; has no lymph sinuses Epithelium of the rest of the tonsils (palatine and Non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium, has lingual)? crypts Vessels supplying blood to walls of large arteries Vasa Vasorum are known as? Tunica media is thickest, more elastic tissue Large artery (aorta) Tunica adventitia (outer layer) is thickest, more Large vein (vena cava) smooth muscle Keratinized papilla? Filiform papilla Papilla with taste receptors? Circumvallate and fungiform Loss of taste in tongue is called? Ageusia/Dygeusia V shape goove dividing anterior 2/3 and posterior Sulcus terminalis 1/3 of tongue is? Innervation of tongue Motor: XII (Hypoglossal)

Posterior 1/3 Taste & Sensory: IX (Glossopharyngeal) Anterior 2/3 Sensory: Lingual nerve (branch of V3) Anterior 2/3 Taste: Chorda Tympani (branch of VII (Facial)) Artery supplying to anterior 1/3 tongue is? Deep lingual Cell bodies of taste fibers from anterior 2/3 tongue Geniculate ganglion are located in which ganglia? Postganglionic sympathetic fibers to submandibular Superior cervical ganglion gland, dilator pupillae (and to the rest of the head) are from what ganglion? Lingual nerve is associated with which ganglion? Submandibular ganglion Lesser petrosal nerve carries preganglionic Otic ganglion parasympathetic fibers to? Greater petrosal nerve carries preganglionic Pterygopalatine ganglion parasympathetic fibers to? Postganglionic parasympathetic cell bodies to Otic ganglion parotid gland are found? Location of cell bodies of pain fibers in Superior ganglion of IX (glossopharyngeal) glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)? Cell bodies of preganglionic parasympathetic fibers Edinger-Westphal nucleus to sphincter of pupil are located in? Cell bodies of preganglionic parasympathetic fibers Dorsal motor nucleus of the vagus nerve (X) to duodenum are located in? Cell bodies of preganglionic parasympathetic fibers Spinal cord at sacral levels 2, 3, 4 to urinary bladder are located in? Cell bodies of preganglionic parasympathetic fibers Nuclei of certain cranial nerves and in the of autonomic nervous system are located in? anterolateral cell column of grey substance of 2nd, 3r, 4th sacral segmants Meckel’s cartilage is responsible for growth of? Mandibular arch; dissolution with minor contribution to ossification What vein connects venous sinuses of dura mater Emissary veins with extracranial veins?

Border of pterygomandibular raphe Posterior: Superior pharyngeal constrictor Anterior: Buccinator Pharyngeal constrictor muscle Origins Superior constrictor: Pterygomandibular raphe Middle constrictor: Hyoid bone Inferior constrictor: Cricoid & Thyroid cartilage Nerve that enters pharynx in gap between superior Glossopharyngeal (IX) and middle constrictors? Forms septum between primitive mouth and Buccopharyngeal membrane pharynx, contains only stomodeum ectoderm and foregut endoderm (no mesoderm)? Infection spreading via lymphatics from lower Brachiocephalic vein would first enter bloodstream through? Superficial to deep Masseter, Buccinator, Lateral Pterygoid (horizontal), Medial Pterygoid (vertical) Motor distribution of V3 Muscles of mastication, anterior belly of digastric (posterior = facial nerve), tensor tympani, tensor veli palatine, mylohyoid Part of cerebral cortex that is involved in highly Precentral gyrus (anterior to postcentral) skilled, discrete motor activity? Part of cerebral cortex that recognize pain from Postcentral gyrus (posterior to precentral) teeth? Submandibular gland arterial supply? Facial branch of external carotid artery Duct of submandibular gland runs anteriorly from Mylohyoid gland immediately deep to which muscle? Sublingual gland located? Superior to mylohyoid muscle Parotid duct pierces? Buccinator muscle opposite the maxillary second molar; crosses over masseter muscle Submandibular duct opens into? Sublingual caruncle (papilla) Incision of mucous membrane from molar to Sublingual gland, lingual nerves, and sublingual caruncle (papilla) exposes what? submandibular duct Structure of major salivary glands? Compound tubuloalveolar gland Muscle order superficial to deep Anterior digastric, mylohyoid, hyoglossus, genioglossus Lingula of mandible to spine of sphenoid attaches Sphenomandibular ligament what ligament? Angle of mandible to styloid process attaches what Stylomandibular ligament ligament? What structures are within the parotid gland? Facial nerve, auriculotemporal nerve, external carotid artery, superficial temporal artery Distinguish between stomach and duodenum Submucosal glands in duodenum histologically? Where is submucosa not found? Gallbladder The lamina propria of what attaches directly to bone Hard palate and gingival without an intervening submucosa? Submucosa area of hard palate covered by adipose Anterolateral tissue is located? Salivary glands of hard palate located? Posterolateral During active tooth formation, bone formation at Horizontal trabeculae base of socket is? Nerve to masseter passes? Deep to medial pterygoid muscle Zona pellucida is associated with? Oocyte in mature follicle. It is a glycoprotein membrane that surrounds plasma membrane of oocyte Structures found in the space between medial Lingual nerve, inferior alveolar nerve and artery pterygoid muscle and ramus of mandible are? NOT lingual artery

Structures found between hyoglossus and Lingual nerve, sublingual gland, submandibular mylohyoid are? duct, hypoglossal nerve NOT lingual artery Artery supplies to upper ? Facial artery Bones form pterygopalatine fossa? Sphenoid, palatine, maxillary Structures in pterygopalatine fossa? Pterygopalatine ganglion, maxillary artery, nerve of pterygoid canal Opens to the pterygopalatine fossa? Pterygoid canal, pharyngeal canal, sphenopalatine foramen, pterygomaxillary fissure Nerve of pterygoid canal contains? Parasympathetic and sympathetic Bones that form infratemporal fossa? Maxilla, temporal, sphenoid, lateral pterygoid plate Structures in infratemporal fossa? Muscles: temporalis (lower), medial and lateral pterygoid Vessels: middle meningial artery, inferior alveolar artery, deep temporal artery, buccal artery Nerves: V2, V3, chorda tympani of VII (Facial) Gag reflex Afferent: IX (Glossopharyngeal) Efferent: X (Vagus) TMJ joint capsule supplied by what nerves? Auriculotemporal (branch of V3) and masseteric Muscle of mastication not innervated by mandibular Buccinator muscle (innervated by VII (Facial)) nerve (V3)? Found in collagen and reticular fibers? Tropocollagen Basic framework or stroma of lymphoid tissue Reticular fibers (primarily) and collagen except thymus consists of? Alveolar bone proper (cribiform plate) consists of? Bundle bone and lamellar bone Sucular epithelium, small spaces between cells in Small amount of tissue fluid stratum spinosum (prickle cell layer) are normally filled with? Prickle cells are found in? Stratified squamous epithelium Free gingival can be distinguished from epithelial Epithelial attachment does not contain rete pegs attachment because of? Found in oral mucous membrane? Basal lamina, lamina propria, stratified squamous epithelium, keratohyaline granules NOT muscularis mucosa Epithelial layers Stratum Corneum, Lucidum, Granulosum, Spinosum, Basale (Germinativum), Papillary, Reticular Which layer lacks in thin skin? Statum lucidum Which layer contain keratohyalin granules? Stratum granulosum Which layer is least cytodifferentiated? Basale (Germinativum) Which layer forms epithelial root sheath of hair Basale (Germinativum) follicle? Difference between papillary and reticular layer? Papillary layer more finely constructed whereas reticular layer contains coarser collagenous fibers Located between greater and lesser wing of Superior orbital fissure sphenoid? Moving head on vertical axis (saying “no”) is on Atlantoaxial joint what joint? Moving head on horizontal axis (saying “yes”) is on Atlanto-occipital joint what joint? Muscles of mastication receive their major blood Pterygoid (second) part supply from which branch of maxillary artery? In salivary glands, folds of basal portion of cell Cells of the striated ducts membrane containing mitochondria are characteristic of the?

Spleen Red pulp: sinusoids filled with blood, splenic cords of reticular fibers

White pulp: nodules, lyphoid follicles with B- lymphocytes, periarteriolar lymphoid sheaths with T-lymphocytes Greater omentum joins? Transverse colon to stomach Lesser omentum joins? Liver to lesser curvature of stomach and duodenum Joins greater and lesser omentum? Epiploic foramen Iniguinal ligament runs between? Anterior superior iliac spine and the pupic tubercle Supplies latissimus dorsi muscle? Thoracodorsal branch of axillary artery Permits oxygenated blood flow from umbilical vein Ductus venosus to inferior vena cava? Permits blood flow from pulmonary artery to aortic Ductus arteriosus arch? Permits blood flow from right to left atrium? Foramen ovale What characterizes lymph node? Medullary cord Efferent lymph channel differs from afferent lymph Efferent is located in hilus region where afferent channel how? enters gland elsewhere Which muscle help maintain a wide airway through Posterior cricoarytenoid larynx after exertion? What muscle abduct vocal folds? Posterior cricoarytenoid Recurrent laryngeal nerve innervates which intrinsic Aryepiglottic, Transverse arytenoid, Lateral muscle of larynx? cricoarytenoid, Posterior cricoarytenoid Which intrinsic muscle of larynx is innervated by Cricothyroid external laryngeal branch of vagus nerve (X)? Emergency airway can be established by opening? Cricothyroid ligament What nerve pierces thyroid membrane? Internal branch of superior laryngeal Superior laryngeal artery pierces thyrohyoid Internal laryngeal nerve membrane in company of what nerve? Apical cytoplasm of active serous glandular cells Abundance of zymogen granules filled with? Cilia and Flagellum core consists of? 9x2 arrangement of microtubules (9 double circumferential and 2 single central) Microvillus consists of? 9 triplets of microtubules Cores of intestinal villi consists of? Lamina propria that contain blood vessels, nerves, and lacteals Structures passing through superior orbital fissue CN 3, 4, 5, 6: Oculomotor nerve (III), Trochlear nerve (IV), ophthalmic nerve (V1), abducens nerve (VI), superior ophthalmic vein Not bound by membrane? Nucleolus Produces rRNA? Nucleolus Develops from outpocketing of gut tube? Lung, liver, gallbladder, pancreas Common hepatic artery is branch of? Celiac artery Large ascending bundle of fibers in medulla Medial lemniscus composed of second order neuron fibers conveying proprioception and discriminatory touch to conscious levels is? Thyroid gland’s point of origin is? Foramen cecum of tongue Thyroid gland receives blood from branches of? External carotid & thyrocervical trunks Wood-testis barrier maintained by? Sertoli cells Spermatogenesis occurs where? Sertoli cells Secrete hormones (testosterone, LH) androgens? Leydig cells (Interstitial cells) Meiosis occurs? Seminiferous tubules

Veins located within bones of calvarium (skull)? Diploic veins Ossicles (malleus, incus, stapes) are located? Middle ear Angular acceleration is detected by? Semicircular canals Linear acceleration is detected by? Utricle and saccule What travels posterior to arch of azygos vein? Right vagus nerve (X) What runs parallel with median nerve in arm? Brachial artery Pyramids contain? Upper motor neurons Prochordal plate consists of? Endoderm of roof of yolk sac and embryonic ectoderm What connective tissue found in fetus but not adult? Mesenchyme Small bronchus differs from bronchiole by? Bronchus has pseudostratified columnar epithelium and cartilage Which muscles contain centrally placed nuclei? Cardiac and smooth Which muscles contain only one nuclei? Cardiac and smooth (skeletal is multinucleated) Ependymal cells constitute the tissue that? Lines the ventricles of brain Osteon is cylinder of compact bone composed of? Concentric lamellae Primary source of cranial connective tissue is? Ectomesenchyme Artery most commonly involved in stroke? Lenticulostriate Pain Gate Theory’s controller system Substantia gelatinosa Lymph from lungs, bronchi, and trachea drains Mediastinal lymph nodes into? Common bile duct and pancreatic duct joins at? Hepatopancreatic ampulla (of Vater) Slightly movable articulations in which contiguous Amphiarthroses bony surfaces are connected by flattened disks of fibrocartilage or interosseous ligaments are? Cerebral cortex is characterized by what cells? Purkinje cells Lingual frenum has what muscle? Genioglossus What extrinsic muscle retracts the tongue? styloglossus What has the greatest amount of smooth muscle? Arterioles Constriction of what is a major factor in increasing Constriction of systemic arterioles blood pressure (especially when standing)? Tidal volume x respiratory rate = Respiratory minute volume Steroid hormones Progesterone Aldosterone Testosterone Estradiol Cortisol

Biochemistry/Physiology Normal blood pressure 120/80 (systolic/diastolic) First step in fatty acid synthesis catalyzed by Acetyl CoA carboxylase allosteric enzyme and regulator of pathway? Active confirmation of trimeric G-protein is? Alpha-subunit bind GTP Coupled respiration requires? ADP, oxygen, electron donor, phosphate NOT carbon dioxide Major route of calcium excretion Feces Linkages in glycogen? Alpha-1,6 Lowers the “rest and digest” activity of muscles and Atropine glands from parasympathetic system by preventing Acetylcholine on secreting cells Liver secretes and is stimulated by increased GH in IGF-1 blood? Found in liver and kidney, but not in muscle or Glucose-6-phosphatase (last step in brain? gluconeogenesis: G-6-P to glucose) Liver has precedence over other tissues in taking up Glucokinase (1st step in glycolysis: phophorylates glucose because of the presence of? glucose to G-6-P Glucose reabsorption in nephron? Proximal tubules Composition of collagen? Glycine, praline, hydroxyproline Smooth muscle contains? Actin, myosin, tropomyosin NOT troponin What coenzyme is required for synthesis of Folic acid pyrimidines (cytosine, thymine, uracil)? DNA Bonds Adenine-Thymine (2 H bonds) Cytosine-Guanine (3 H bonds) Blocks sodium channels in nerve-axon membranes? Tetrodotoxin Bile salts are sodium salts of bile acid that are Taurine and glycine conjugated with? Chemoreceptors that detect decreased partial Carotid body pressures of oxygen and increased carbon dioxide, decreased pH and temperature Baroreceptors that detect changes in blood pressure; Carotid sinus associated with glossopharyngeal nerve (IX) Urea synthesis is catalyzed by? Arginase Uric acid breakdown to form purines is catalyzed Xanthine oxidase by? Bacterial aggregation and elimination from oral Secretory IgA cavity is due to which protein? Excessive ketone bodies (ketosis) in blood and urine Diabetes mellitus and mucomycosis (massive necrotizing lesions of palate) are caused by? What can reverse ketosis in non-diabetic patient? Glucose Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex (convertes NAD, CoA, lipoic acid, and thyiamine pyruvate into acetyl-CoA) are composed of? pyrophosphate What is the precursor to niacin? Tryptophan Part of coenzyme FAD? Riboflavin Right-Shift High: Temperature, DPG, pCO2 Low: pCO, pH Blood flow to left coronary artery the greatest in Late diastole resting individual? Anti-coagulant of blood? Plasminogen > plasmin (activated by tissue plasminogen activator tPA, also streptokinase (bacterial exotoxin))

Heparin (Vitamin K antagonist) Functions of Vitamin K? Carboxylation of glutamate residues Formation of prothrombin (blood clotting) What artery supplies blood to Parathyroid gland? Inferior thyroid Oxyphil cells are present in? Parathyroid gland PTH functions? Stimulation of 1-alpha-hydroxylase (catalyzes the formation of 1, 25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (active form of Vit. D) Stimulation of osteoclasts Stimulation of calcium reabsorption by kidney Inhibition of phosphate reabsorption by kidney Stimulation of calcium reabsorption by intestines 25-hydroxycholecalciferol Active form of vitamin D, absobs calcium Derived from 7-dehydro-cholesterol Lamina papyracea is on what? Ethmoid bone Enterocytes absorb? Glucose in small and large intestine Disaccharides Sucrose: glucose-fructose Lactose: glucose-galactose Maltose: glucose-glucose Alpha-ketoglutarate, oxygen, and ascorbic acid are Hydroxylation of proline essential for? Transports fatty acids? Albumin Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) are? Long unbranched polysaccharides of repeating disaccharide units, part of extracellular matrix Chondroitin sulfate, dermatan sulfate, keratin sulfate, heparin sulfate, heparin, hyaluronic acid Hyaluronate is? Glycosaminoglycan (non-sulfated), polyanion, highly polar, extracellular matrix component Essential amino acids Methionine, tryptophan, isoleusine Increases as follicle grows, triggers the surge? Estradiol Stimulates LH receptors in Graffian follicle prior to Estradiol & FSH ovulation? Trigger for LH surge that initiates ovulation? Estrogen Ovulation is triggered by increase of? LH (surpasses FSH prior to ovulation) Secreted in luteal phase after ovulation? Progesterone Major pathway for metabolism of excessive Deamination by monoamine oxidase (MAO) intraneuronal free norepinephrine? Preganglionic sympathetic fibers contain? Acetyl choline Postganglionic sympathetic fibers contain? Norepinephrine Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers contain? Acetyl choline Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers contain? Acetyl choline Binding osteoblasts to bone matrix (and fibroblasts Fibronectin and collagen) High affinity for binding calcium and collagen in Osteonectin calcifying matrix and is important in mineralization of bone? Decreases osteoclastic activity, inhibits bone Calcitonin resorption Parafollicular cells of thyroid gland secrete? Calcitonin Inhibited by acetylcholine (parasympathetic) Cardiac muscle Stimulated by acetylcholine Skeletal muscle Contraction of smooth muscle (anti-inflammatory) Adenosine in response to?

ADH receptors located? Distal tubule, collecting duct Most fluid reabsorption occurs? Proximal tubule Sound Frequency: pitch Amplitude: intensity Area of brain Thalamus: relay center Cerebellum: maintenance of equilibrium Hypothalamus: integrates autonomic nervous system, endocrine, somatic functions Limbic system: emotions Water in body fluid compartments Intracellular (30 L):

Extracellular (15 L): Interstitial fluid (11 L) Plasma (3 L) Trancellular fluids (1 L) What compartment carries the most amount of Systemic veins (reservoir for blood) blood? Muscle fibers Type I: slow-twitch More mitochondria More capillaries Lower myosin ATPase activity Less extensive sarcoplasmic reticulum Lower concentration of glycolytic enzyme

Type II: fast-twitch [opposite of slow-twitch] Parietal cells of stomach secrete? Gastric acid and intrinsic factor Chief cells of stomach secrete? Pepsinogen Released by stomach, activated by HCl Pepsinogen > Pepsin (protein digestion) Enteroendocrine cells of duodenum produce? Gastrin Activates pyloric pump, relaxation of pylorus, Gastrin contraction of lower esophageal sphincter Produced by duodenum, regulate pH by stimulating Secretin bicarbonate from pancreas, liver, and brunner’s glands Released by pancreatic acini, activated by Trypsinogen > Trypsin (protein digestion) enterokinase Chymotrypsinogen > Chymotrypsin (protein digestion) Amylase (starch digestion into simple sugars) Lipase (hydrolysis of lipids) Clearance rate is equal to? Renal plasma flow Deficiency of ADH, excretion of large amounts of Diabetes insipidus diluted urine is what? Fluoride is regulated by? Skeletal uptake and renal excretion Immediate source of methyl group? S-Adenosyl methionine (SAM) Decrease motility of stomach Enterogastric reflex

Microbiology/Pathology Enzyme participate in bacterial aggregation on tooth Glycosyltransferase surface? Phenols mechanism? Protein denaturation Chlorhexidine mechanism? Membrane disruption Ethylene oxide mechanism? Antimicrobial agent that primarily inactivates DNA 70% isopropyl alcohol mechanism? Lipid solvent and protein denaturation Alkaline glutaraldehyde mechanism? Alkylation Penicillin’s antibacterial action (also cycloserine, Cell wall synthesis; prevents synthesis of bacitracin, and vancomycin) peptidoglycans (best against growing G+) Tetracycline mechanism? Prevents protein synthesis Polymyxin mechanism? Membrane disruption Erythromycin mechanism? Prevents protein synthesis Ethambutol mechanism? Interferes with synthesis of arabinogalactan of cell wall of mycobacterium. Treatment for TB Rifampicin mechanism? Binds and inactivates RNA polymerase Ciprofloxacin mechanism? Inhibits DNA gyrase with broad spectrum of activity Injection of penicillin into penicillin-sensitized Constriction of bronchioli and drop in blood person may lead to death due to? pressure Do not treat patient with penicillin and erythromycin Penicillin is only effective against growing cells. because? Patient with heart valve abnormality should use this Penicillin antibiotic? Spherical body produced by action of penicillin or Protoplast (organized body of a species) lysozyme is? If patient with heart valve is allergic to penicillin, Erythromycin what should be given? Prolonged administration of streptomycin may Auditory nerve damage? What can qualitatively and quantitatively affect oral Corticosteroid therapy microflora? Treatment of disease caused by fungus? Amphotericin B Elevated serum amylase Acute pancreatitis Myelin degeneration of axis cylinders of peripheral Lead poisoning nerves Calcium dipicolinate present in? Spores Interleukins IL-1 (Macrophages, also make TNF) IL-2 (TH1) differentiation of T cells and B cells, Natural killer (NK) cells activated IL-3 (T cells) stimulates bone marrow stem cells IL-4 (TH2) proliferation of B cells, allergic response (IgE) IL-5 (TH2) differentiation of B cells Phagocytic cells are? Monocyte, histiocyte (tissue), neutrophil, macrophage (Lymphocyte is NOT phagocytic) Most radiosensitive cell? Lymphocyte What happens in the development of neutrophils in Nucleus becomes more hyperchromatic bone marrow? Interstitial pulmonary inflammation is most Viral pneumonia characteristic of? Protection against Hep B? Anti-HBsAg (Hep B Surface Antigen) Normal anaerobic flora of gingival sulcus? Fusobacterium

Prevotella Actinobacillus Porphyromonas Oral streptococci Alpha-hemolytic Infective endocarditis associates with? Alpha-hemolytic streptococci Blood in stool is called? Melena Lack of clotting Factor VIII (von willebrand) and is Hemophilia A x-linked recessive? Normal prothrombin time & prolonged partial Factor VIII deficiency thromboplastin time? Form of histiocytosis X (excessive histiocytes- Hand-Schuller-Christian disease macrophages) that cuases lipids to accumulate in body? Lipids accumulate in spleen, liver, lungs, bone Niemann-Pick disease marrow, brain is this disease? Prostate cancer metastasizes to? Usually bones (vertebral columns), lymph nodes, lungs Acid phosphatase is increased in? Metastatic carcinoma of prostate Human papillomavirus 16 & 18 are associated with? Cervical cancer Benign neoplasm of myometrium of uterus is? Leiomyoma Teichoic acids, lots of peptidoglycan present in? G+ (gram negative) Lipopolysaccharide, endotoxin, porins, few layers G- (gram negative) peptidoglycan present in? Role in due to its ability to incite Endotoxin inflammatory response? Composed of Lipoprotein-polysaccharide Endotoxin complexes? Toxic, not secreted by bacteria are (but contained Endotoxin inside the bacteria and released when it dies)? Soluble protein secreted by bacteria are? Exotoxin Bacterial exotoxin that converts plasminogen to Streptokinase plasmin? Pseudomonas aeruginosa’s exotoxin A does? Inhibit protein synthesis Chronic adrenal disorder, anorexia, hypoglycemia, Addison’s disease (hypocortisolism) hypotension, hypovolemia is? Oral manifestation of Addison’s disease is? Melanosis (dark pigmentation) Chemical mediator of acute inflammation generated Bradykinin from activation of Hageman factor? Most numerous organism in oral cavity? Facultative streptococci (viridans strep: includes s. sanguis, s. mitis, s. gordonii, s. oralis, s. angiosus, s. mutans) Cariogenic property of Streptococcus mutans is? Production of glucosyltransferase (sucrose into water-soluble glucans – cause of caries) and synthesis of insoluble dextran Tests to distinguish Streptococcus mutans from other Fermentation of mannitol and sorbitol oral streptococci? Production of intracellular polysaccharide Colonial morphology on mitis-salivarius agar Production of adherent extracellular polysaccharide NOT gram stain Spreading factor of Streptococci? Hyaluronidase (hydrolysis of hyalurnic acid, constituent of interstitial barrier, causing tissue permeability) Found on dorsum of tongue? Streptococcus salivarius Chlamydia exhibits? Asymptomatic, extracellular, co-infection with gonorrhea, likelihood that younger women will

acquire salpingitis RSV differs from influenza how? RSV affects infants What produces aflatoxins? Aspergillus (fungus) Rickettsiae and chlamydiae are common how? They multiply in bacterial cells What causes meningitis? Neisseria meningitides & Streptococcus pneumoniae Distinguish between Streptococcus pneumoniae and Streptococcus pneumonia has antiphagocytic Cryptococcus neoformans? polysaccharide capsules Host responses against encapsulated Streptococcus Opsonins pneumonias are mediated by? Capsule of Streptococcus mutans does? Enhances oral accumulation Self-limiting, benign disease, soil-borne, fungus? Histoplasma capsulatum Fungus that cause systemic disease, most commonly Histoplasma capsulatum of lungs, and produces tuberculate chlamydospores is? What is most likely involved in bacillary dysentery Shigella (blood and pus in stool)? Cause of gastroenteritis and serious diarrhea in Rotavirus young children? Acute, diffuse inflammation of soft tissues cellulitis (connective tissues), not circumscribed and not confined to one area is? Increases antibody response? Adjuvant What would you use to culture root canal specimens? Thioglycollate broth Root surface caries is related to? Actinomyces and Odontomyces Greatest incidence of rubella occurs when? 1st trimester in utero Rubella (virus) and toxoplasmosis (parasite) are Both are potentially teratogenic (causing similar in? malformation in fetus) Hypersensitivity Type I hypersensitivity (immediate, anaphylactic, atopic) IgE Asthma, urticaria (hives), anaphylaxis

Type II hypersensitivity (Ab dependent) Self antigen Goodpasture’s, erythroblastosis fetalis, , pernicious anemia, hashimoto’s thyroiditis, rheumatic fever

Type III hypersensitivity (immune complex) IgG and IgM, complement activation Serum sickness, rheumatoid arthritis

Type IV hypersensitivity (Delayed-type) Mediated by T cells & macrophages Contact dermatitis, TB Complement system can be activated by/ C1 and C3 Chemotactic accumulation of mononuclear cells C3, C5a where immune complexes are deposited are result of? Oral lesions of differs from hand-foot- Intraoral locations and-mouth disease by? Both are caused by coxsackievirus Herpangina: fever, soar throat, lesions around soft palate, faucial pillars, tonsils

HFM disease: fever, malaise, lymphadenopathy, sore mouth, lesions begin as vesicles rupture and become ulcers and can occur anywhere in mouth Viremia is? Virus entering bloodstream – susceptible to Ab Juvenile periodontitis is associated with? Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans Function of SIgA? Prevent ingress of antigen through mucosa Immunoglobulin most abundant in saliva? IgA Histamine released from mast cells require? IgE attached to mast cells and reacting with antigen Adult periodontitis have what antibodies? IgG (IgM initially, but IgG predominates) What would occur when T-lymphocyte from patient Production of macrophage inhibition factor (MIF) with are cultured with dental plaque antigen? Predominant immunoglobin in memory response IgG Synthesis of J chain occurs in? IgM producing plasma cells What is first detected after primary immunization? IgM Anaerobic bacteria lacking catalase are? Sensitive to H2O2 Catalase converts H2O2 to H2O and O2 Koplik’s spots (white spots) on adjacent Measles (rubeola) to 1st molar with bluish-red ring, eyes are red and runny, blotchy reddish rash behind ears and face. Sterilization Steam Autoclave: 121 oC (250 oF) 20 min, 15 lbs pressure time varies Corrosion Chemical (formaldehyde and alcohol): 134 oC (273 oF) for 20 minutes No corrosion Dry heat oven: 160 oC (320 oF) for 1-2 hours No corrosion Dry heat destroys by? Coagulation of proteins Immersian sterilant that is recommended for Glutaraldehyde disinfecting dental units and handpieces? Most reliable gaseous sterilizing agent is? Ethylene oxide (inactivates DNA) Heat sensitive materials may be sterilized without Ethylene oxide destruction by? Spores are destroyed by? Autoclaving: 121 degrees C for 20 min Mutations Transitions: purine replaced by purine

Transversions: purine replaced by pyrimidine Secondary invader of carious lesions Lactobacillus casei (lactic acid produced by streptococcus allows Lactobacillus to grow) Exaggerated IgE response causing hay fever and Atopy asthma Wheal and flare reaction which is a manifestation of Prausnitz-Kuster IgE mediated allergy, common response to allergy shots or insect bites. Deposition of immune complex in local tissues cause Arthus reaction local inflammatory response known as? (Horse serum injected into rabbit and again into skin) In order for RNA oncogenic viruses to be integrated RNA-dependent DNA polymerase into host genome, they must possess? Unique to RNA tumor viruses? Reverse transcriptase Streptococcus pyogenes, group A, is subdivided into M protein specific antigenic types principally on the basis of immunologic differences in? Majority causes of pharyngitis is? Viruses (cause 70%)

Bacterial pharyngitis include: streptococcus pyogenes Not found in oral cavity? Streptococcus pyogenes Resistant to penicillin? Staphylococcus (has enzyme that attacks penicillin) Abscess formation is associated with? Staphylococcus Acute osteomyelitis (infection of bone marrow), Staphylococcus brain abscess, cavernous sinus thrombosis, tissue abscesses are caused by? Coats Staphylococcus aureus with polysaccharide Coagulase (reacts with prothrombin to convert capsule to resist phagocytosis? fibrinogen to fibrin) What component of Staphylococcus is Protein A antiphagocytic (by binding to Fc), elicits hypersensitivity, and causes platlet injury? Impetigo caused by? Streptococci and staphylococci Gram negative (G-) sepsis (whole-body Escherichia coli inflammation) caused by? Collagenase (exotoxin, destroys extracellular Bacteroides structures) producing, associated with periodontal disease is? Higher concentrations in gingival crevice than on Bacteroides melaninogenicus tongue or plaque? Drainage of swelling elicits foul-smelling, purulent Bacteroides & Peptostreptococcus material, what organisms are involved? Cell wall of Mycobacteriaceae responsible for acid- Lipids and waxes fastness are? Immunological resistance to extracellular pathogens Humoral: mediated by Ab is? Immunological resistance to intracellular pathogens Cellular: mediated by lymphocytes and is? macrophages. Such as in skin graft rejection Malignant epithelial cells have increased number and Laminin (helps to attach to basement membrane) wider distribution of which receptors? Chronic passive congestion of lung is characterized Thickening of alveolar walls and hemosiderosis by? (bleeding from alveolar capillaries) Squamous metaplasia of bronchial epithelium that Chronic bronchitis predisposes to lung cancer is? Blood in sputum is not characteristic of? Emphysema (dry cough) Squamous metaplasia not common in? Emphysema Cigarette-smoking patient, labored breathing with Emphysema (loss of elasticity) prolonged, expiratory effort has? Chronic passive congestion of lungs is secondary to? Atherosclerotic heart disease Chief complication of (viral disease of Orchitis (testicular inflammation) salivary glands) in adult male? Glomerulonephritis Viral infection, inflammation of glomeruli Nephritic syndrome Collection of signs with disorders affecting kidneys (glomerular disorders) Nephrotic syndrome Leak of protein into urine Prostacyclin and thromboxane are products of? Cyclooxygenase (breaks down arachidonic acid) Leukotrienes are producs of? Lipoxygenase (breaks down arachidonic acid) Cirrhosis Ascites formation Production of inflammatory edema is? Increased capillary permeability Edema may result from? Increased sodium retention Increased venule blood pressure Decreased plasma osmotic pressure Right heart failure (RHF) Venous congestion, splenomegaly, peripheral

edema of ankles (dependent edema) Postmordem indicator of left heart failure (LHF) Pulmonary edema and vascular congestion Complications of left heart failure (LHF) Orthopnea (dyspnea when lying flat) Pleural effusion Bacterial pneumonia Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea Cause of palpable breast in woman? Fibrocystic disease What chemical substance is secreted by Catecholamines pheochromocytomas (malignant neoplasm of adrenal medulla)? Sudden arrest of heart function? Cardiac tamponade (hemorrhage into pericardial space) Cerebral embolism occurring as a consequence of Mural thrombosis (Thrombus formation in myocardial infarction is indicative of what? endocardial lining of heart) Lesions of uvula, anterior pillars, posterior pharynx? Coxsackievirus Identifying morphologic characteristic of Candida Chlamydospore and yeast cells albicans is? This type of candidiasis produces firmly adherent Chornic hyperplastic white plaque on oral mucosa? Cultured from chronic, bilateral ulcerations at Candida corners of mouth? Endogenous fungus causing opportunistic infections? Candida Prolonged antibacterial antibiotic therapy may Candida albicans predispose to disease caused by what? Deficiency in what can predispose to candidiasis T lymphocytes (deficient in AIDS, causes common (yeast infection)? opportunistic infections such as candidiasis) Opportunistic infections associated with HIV? Candidiasis Hairy leukopolakia (caused by EBV) Cryptosporidium enterocolitis (diarrhea) Pneumocystic carinii pneumonia Treatment for candidiasis? Nystatin Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) is associated with? Burkitt’s lymphoma Nasopharyngeal carcinoma Infectious mononucleosis caused by? Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) Abcess in oral cavity (usually over angle of Actinomycosis mandible) with central necrosis extruding pus containing sulfur granules (colonies of infecting organisms) and is characterized by swelling and draining fistulas, caused by G+, microaerophilic, filamentous microorganism is? Intoxication is characterized by? Botulism During necrosis, reduction in size of nucleus and Pyknosis condensation of nuclear material is known as? During necrosis, destructive fragmentation of Karyorrhexis nucleus During necrosis, cell death irreversible cell damage, Karyolysis dissolution of nucleus Order: pyknosis, karyorrhexis, karyolysis Myasthenia gravis, autoantibodies are directed Acetylcholine receptor against? Cause of pyelonephritis (UTI) Infection from urinary reflux Copper in lever cells, degenerative changes in brain, Wilson’s disease greenish-brown ring on cornea is? Genetic disorder where gangliosides (lipids) Tay-Sachs accumulate in brain Facial erythema, fever, Raynaud’s phenomenon Systemic

(discoloration of fingers, toes), joint pain, photophobia has? Blood smear Fe-deficiency anemia: hypochromic-microcytic Drug-induced bone marrow suppression: normochromic-normocytic Hemorrhagic tendency is seen in? Scurvy Acute leukemia Hepatic insufficiency (deficient in vitamin K and clotting factors) Thrombocytopenia (decreased platelets) Neoplasm affects children (most common)? Neuroblastoma (malignancy of nerves in adrenal medulla or sympathetic chain) Cancer of plasma cells, bone pain, osteolytic lesions, Multiple myeloma plasma cell infiltration of marrow, synthesis of abnormal immunoglobulins Megaloblasts in bone marrow, hyperchromic, Inability of stomach to form intrinsic factor macrocytic anemia, atrophic in oral is what? AKA “megaloblastic anemia” (lack of intrinsic factor or folic acid) Reduction in acid secretion by stomach, increased Pernicious enemia tendency to gastric carcinoma, atrophic glossitis, myelin degeneration in spinal cord show? Vitamin B12 deficiency is? Pernicious anemia (a form of megaloblastic anemia) Vitamin B12, Folic acid deficiency is? Megaloblastic anemia Deficient purine metabolism where uric acid (sodium Gout urate) found in joints is? Noncaseating granulomas, inflammation, bowel Crohn’s disease disease Least likely complication of nodular prostatic Development of carcinoma hyperplasia (urinary obstruction)? Hormonally dependent? Prostate Neoplasms of loose connective tissue filled with Myxomas mucus, tumor of heart Common Verruca vulgaris Most common primary malignant neoplasm of lung? Squamous cell carcinoma Most common skin cancer, appears on upper face Basal cell carcinoma (has good prognosis) and around eyes (inner canthus) What would be seen in bacterial infections? Neutrophils What would be seen in viral infections? Lymophcytes What would be seen in fungal infections? Lymphocytes & macrophages What would be seen in parasitic infections? Eosinophils Biopsy of tongue shows small, coiled, encysted Trichinae larvae of nematode worms, these would be? Benign & malignant neoplasms Benign: Encapsulation Rapid growth No metastasize Differentiation

Malignant: [opposite of benign] Histologic feature of malignant growth? Anaplasia (“backward growth”, less differentiated) Pleomorphism (“changed growth”) Hyperchromatism (‘increased color”) Abnormal mitosis 66 y/o man complains of ill-fitting denture. Osteitis deformans (Paget’s disease) Radiographs show diffuse “cotton-wool” opacity. Elevated serum alkaline phosphatase, normal calcium and phosphorus, large skull, increased incidence of osteogenic sarcoma (osteosarcoma) Osteosarcoma is increased by? Osteitis deformans (“Paget’s disease”) Benign neoplasm of bone that doesn’t become Osteoblastoma malignant unless radiation? Radiolucent bone lesions, anemia, Thalassemia (abnormal hemoglobin) hypergammaglobulinemia, bone tumors containing plasma cells? Greatest capacity for regeneration? Liver Amyloidosis, the amyloid (insoluble fibrous protein) Stromal connective tissue is deposited where? Transplant Autograft: same person Isograft: genitically identical donor, same species (twins) Allograft: genitically non-identical, same species Xenograft: another species

Large wounds heal by? Secondary intention Which hormone has greatest effect on granulation Cortisone tissue in healing wounds? Secondary cardiac disorder from infective Tetralogy of Fallot endocarditis? Congenital aortic stenosis Patent ductus arteriosus Ventricular septal defect Oral ulcerations that involve oral, ocular, and genital Behcet’s Syndrome (disturbance in immune system) lesions? Oral lesion that may appear as an ulcer, nodule, or histoplasmosis vegetative process and is often mistaken for squamous cell carcinoma is? Decubital (bedsore) ulcer is an example of tissue Ischemia destruction caused by? Inflammation of urinary bladder? Cystitis (not associated with urinary outflow obstruction) Intestinal malabsorption syndrome is characterized Steatorrhea (pale feces) by? Production of bone in scar tissue occurs by? Metaplasia Tertiary syphilis is characterized by? Gumma (tissue nodule) Toxoids are? Antigenic and nontoxic Esophageal varices are common complication of? Portal hypertension Renal ischemic infarct shows? Coagulation necrosis Exudate Proteins, inflammation Transudate Less proteins, not inflammation but caused by disturbances of colloid osmotic pressure Dental Anatomy/Occlusion Deciduous Temoporary “primary” Which primary teeth shows prominent cervical Maxillary centrals (E, F) ridge on facial and lingual? (Mandibular 1st molars only show on facial) Primary canine differs from permanent canine how? Primary canines have sharper and longer cusps Primary canines have mesial cusp ridge longer than distal Mesial surface of crown of primary maxillary 1st Larger than distal surface molar is? Primary maxillary molar has facial groove located True distally, lingual does not How many pulp horns are in primary mandibular 1st 4 molar? Primary molars lack an identifiable? Root trunk Most frequently contain single root canal? Maxillary incisors Least likely to have bifurcation of tooth? Maxillary centrals According to root morphology, what tooth lends Maxillary centrals themselves to rotation during extraction? Shortest mandibular root? Central incisor Maxillary lateral is equal or larger than maxillary Root length (cervicoapically) central in what dimension? Marginal ridges more prominent on? Maxillary laterals Most concave in lingual? Maxillary laterals Anterior teeth that most frequently possess a Mandibular Canine bifurcated root Occlusal view of maxillary canine shows? Distofacial concavity Longest root Maxillary canine Largest incisal/occlusal embrasure? Maxillary lateral and canine Distolingual groove? Maxillary laterals Mesial marginal developmental groove? Maxillary 1st premolar Mesiolingual groove? Mandibular 1st premolar Which premolar frequently has only one pulp horn Mandibular 1st premolar Which premolar has facial cusp with triangular Mandibular 1st premolar ridge so prominent that it separates its mesial pit from distal pit? Distinguish between maxillary 1st premolar and 1st premolar has 2 roots maxillary 2nd premolar Cresent-shape central developmental groove? Mandibular 2nd premolar Differences between mandibular 1st premolar and Mandibular 2nd premolar has rounded shape mandibular 2nd premolar (occlusal view) Masticatory function of mandibular 1st premolar is Mandibular 2nd premolar most similar to? Premolar with mesial cusp ridge longer than distal Maxillary 1st, mesial cusp may be concave cusp ridge when viewed facially Maxillary Premolars have how many ridges 6 (4 cusp ridges, 2 marginal ridges) occlusally? Concavities on maxillary teeth Mesial 1st premolar (complicates root planing) Distal 1st molar Mesial 2nd molar Proximal view: Molars Mandibular: Rhomboidal (Inclined lingually) Maxillary: Trapezoid Molar cusps order (largest to smallest) Maxillary: mesiolingual, mesiofacial, distofacial, distolingual

Mandibular: mesiofacial, mesiolingual, distolingual, distofacial, distal Concavity on roots on either or both facial and Lingual root of maxillary 1st molar lingual surfaces Fissure groove cavity preparations most frequently Maxillary molars needs to extend from occlusal surfaces to lingual of? Which molar has most difficulty removing calculus Distal of mandibular 2nd molar from root trunk? When is apex of permanent teeth fully developed? 24-36 months after eruption Accessory teeth between centrals are called? Mesiodens Most commonly accepted theory for pain receptors Odontoblastic processes serve as only receptors for in dental pulp is? pain Enamel spindles formed by? Odontoblasts Derived from ectomesenchyme Odontoblasts Development of PDL, osteoblasts for alveolar bone, Dental Sac (ectomesenchyme) cementoblasts Pulp formation Dental Papilla After the 12th year, 3rd molar formation is initiated, Dental lamina (by 12th year, we do not need it) what is not needed? Intramembranous ossification Flat bones, without cartilage formation (transformation of osteoblasts to osteocytes) Mandible (not condyle) Endochondral ossification With hyaline cartilage formation (provides region where bone can grow in length) Condyle of mandible Hypomineralized structures which extend form DEJ Enamel lamellae to surface of enamel are? (Enamel spindles and tufts are only around the DEJ) Junctional epithelium contains? Hemidesmosomes and gap junctions Epethilial cells attach to enamel or by? Hemidesmosomes Cells of sulcular epithelium are joined by? Desmosomes What are present in the development and growth of Osteoblasts, osteoclasts, osteoid alveolar process? Primary cementum posses? Lamellae Calcified body on PDL is? Cementicle Denticles are characterized by? Containing dentinal tubules Excessive calcified tissue formation on root apices is known as? Temporomandibular ligament found where? Lateral surface of TMJ What ligament restricts rotational opening and Temporomandibular ligament initiates translation? What ligament restricts excessive protrusive Stylomandibular movement of mandible? What ligament restricts movement of disc away Discal (collateral) ligament from condyle and divides TMJ into superior and inferior joint cavities? What ligament surrounds and encompasses entire Capsular ligament TMJ and helps retain synovial fluid. Resists medial, lateral, inferior forces that tend to dislocate articular surfaces? Vascular portion of TMJ Retrodiscal tissue (Bilaminar zone) on periphery of TMJ Thickest section of articular disc? Posterior border Stability of TMJ is maintained by what type of Elevators muscles? Articulating surface of TMJ of older person covered Fibrous connective tissue containing chondrocytes by? Nonarticular surfaces of TMJ are covered with? Periosteum Rotational movement of TMJ? Inferior compartment Translational movement of TMJ? Superior compartment Difference between cementum and enamel? Cementum has collagen and cellular component in mature tissue Difference between and cementum Cementum: produced by cells of PDL Dentin: produced by pulp cells Difference between intertubular dentin and Peritubular dentin has higher content of inorganic peritubular dentin? salts Stimulus of forming enamel matrix? Presence of predentin Once enamel matrix is formed, what happens? Nuclei of ameloblasts move to non-secreting end Secretory phases of enamel matrix of ameloblast Tomes granular layer contain? Dentin from root differs from crown dentin by? Tomes granular layer Structure first formed by tooth bud that remains in DEJ formed tooth is? Number of roots are determined by? Number of medial ingrowths of cervical loop and unequal proliferation of epithelial diaphragm Hertwig’s epithelilal root sheath is essential to Molds shape of root and stimulates differentiation development of the root of tooth because? of odontoblasts Accessory root canals formed by? Break in Hertwig’s epithelial sheath during dentin formation Dead tracts & Sclerotic dentin Dead tracts = Dark Sclerotic dentin = translucent Free gingival groove related to? Arrangement of supraalveolar fibers Line of demarcation of free and attached gingiva? Free gingival groove Para-keratinized oral mucosa is found? Attached gingiva Area where bone had once been removed by Reversal line osteoclasts forming a Howship’s lacuna, now filled by new bone? Sudden reorientation of tubule Resting line direction/appositional growth? Junction between primary and secondary dentin is? Sharp change in direction of dentinal tubules Long axis of mandibular condyle are what Posteriomedial direction? Development of tongue involves? Copula, tuberculum impar, 1st, 2nd, 3rd brachial arch During eruption, permanent teeth erupt? Occlusally and buccally Sharpey’s fibers and principal fibers of PDL Collagenous fibers contain? NOT elastic fibers or reticular fibers What surface would root reabsorption be on primary Lingual surface incisor? Tetracycline occurs only on? Teeth who’s enamel has not yet been completed Laterotrusive (working) condyle movement rotates? Vertical axis and translates laterally Acute abcess on max. left lateral, no decay or Dens in dente (presence of tooth-like structure restoration. What would be seen radiographically? within pulp chamber of another tooth) Dental pulp in the space within crown of tooth? Pulp chamber Dental pulp in the space within root of tooth? Pulp canal Healthy mouth, thinnest alveolar process? Facial mandibular central incisor Apices of mandibular 2nd molar located? Inferiorly to the mylohyoid muscle insertion Hypoplasia of primary teeth on incial thirds of teeth Metabolic disturbance during prenatal period suggest? Height of contours Anterior teeth: Facial & Lingual = cervical 1/3 Posterior teeth: Facial = cervical 1/3 Lingual = middle 1/3 Matrix protein of enamel? Amelogenin Mature dentin is filled with? Type I collagen (Most abundant) Articular cartilage and hyaline cartilage is made of? Type II collagen Dentin formation requires? Inner enamel epithelium Greatest protection for lips, cheeks, and tongue? Horizontal overlap () 25 y/o person, what’s seen in pulp tissue? Loose areolar tissue Lines in enamel and dentin Enamel: Lines of Retzius, Neonatal line Dentin: Line of Von Ebner, Line of Owen