(3.17 points each) Multiple Choice. Read each question thoroughly before answering. From the choices available, choose the answer that is the most correct. Place all answers on the accompanying answer sheet.

1. This spinal reflex withdraws a foot from a painful stimulus and prepares muscles in the opposite leg to compensate for the shift in body weight. a. stretch-contraction b. stretch relaxation c. withdrawal with reciprocal innervation d. withdrawal with crossed extensor

2. A muscarinic receptor will cause excitatory signal in an autonomic effector by a. opening ligand-gated K+ channels. b. opening ligand-gated Cl- channels. c. activating a G protein.

3. An afferent neuron in the peripheral nervous system is a a. somatic motor neuron. b. sensory neuron. c. autonomic motor neuron. d. voluntary motor neuron.

4. In general, when an organ is innervated by both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous divisions a. the stimuli oppose each other. b. the stimuli sum leading to action potential. c. the stimuli cancel each other out.

5. The structural classification of efferent neuron in the peripheral nervous system is most likely a. unipolar neuron. b. multipolar neuron. c. bipolar neuron. d. microglia

6. Parasympathetic and sympathetic stimulation can alter digestive function. What does the enteric nervous system do? a. Utilize the sympathetic chain to activate multiple systems in preparation for exercise. b. Control digestive secretions and movements in response to local conditions. c. Detect chemical substances and stretch on the walls of the stomach and intestines. d. none of these choices. e. b, and c are correct.

7. The tight junctions of these cells along with the basement membrane of the capillary endothelium and the tight junctions between the endothelial cells create the blood-cerebrospinal fluid barrier of the CNS. a. oligodendrocytes b. astrocytes c. ependymal cells d. Schwann cells e. microglia

8. Which of the neuroglia creates the myelin sheath in the central nervous system? a. oligodendrocytes b. astrocytes c. ependymal cells d. Schwann cells e. microglia

9. Which of these best describes the function of the medulla oblongata? a. involved in learning motor skills b. major sensory relay center c. center for important autonomic reflexes d. location of conscious perception e. none of these is correct

10. Parasympathetic impulses directing the defecation and urination reflexes is accomplished by a. spinal nerves above L2. b. the vagus nerve. c. glossopharyngeal and hypoglossal nerves. d. sacral nerves.

11. The cilia of these neuroglia help to circulate CSF through the spaces of the CNS. a. oligodendrocytes b. astrocytes c. ependymal cells d. Schwann cells e. microglia

12. The distance between the nodes of Ranvier in myelinated axons is the a. white commissure. b. endoneurium. c. telodendrion. d. internode. 13. Saltatory conduction of an action potential means that a. once one action potential is generated, it moves down the axon very slowly. b. the whole axon depolarizes at the same time. c. the movement of Na+ and K+ occurs along the axon only at the nodes of Ranvier. d. action potential in sensory neurons can communicate whether the food in your mouth is well seasoned.

14. Which of these best describes the function of the thalamus? a. involved in learning motor skills b. major sensory relay center c. center for important autonomic control d. location of conscious perception e. none of these is correct

15. Which of these best describes the function of the cerebrum? a. secretes hormones that regulate glands b. major sensory relay center c. center for important autonomic control d. location of conscious perception e. none of these is correct

16. Autonomic nerves that carry autonomic signals to abdominopelvic effectors are called a. white ramus communicans. b. splanchnic nerves. c. dorsal ramus. d. gray ramus.

17. Membrane action potential is a. its ability to achieve, if given enough encouragement and praise. b. the electrical charge difference across it resulting from the distribution of intracellular and extracellular ions. c. approximately -70 mV in a typical neuron. d. an area of low electrical resistance created when gap junctions exist between two cells. e. a temporary change in polarity across the membrane that serves as a signal in the nervous system.

18. Which of the following is a somatic effector? a. smooth muscle. b. skeletal muscle. c. cardiac muscle. d. adrenal glands.

19. Gamma motor neurons in a reflex arc a. innervate the muscle spindle to control its sensitivity to stretch. b. innervate the effector leading to muscle contraction or muscle relaxation. c. detect stretch in muscles and tendons initiating the response. d. link the sensation of stretch with the appropriate anterior horn motor neuron.

20. Due to the origin of the nerves that it uses to control muscles, organs and glands, the parasympathetic nervous division is also called a. enteric. b. craniosacral. c. thoracolumbar. d. somatic motor.

21. Which of the following statements concerning the brainstem is true? a. The brainstem consists of the medulla, pons, and cerebellum. b. All twelve cranial nerves enter or exit the brainstem. c. Damage to the brainstem is often fatal. d. The brainstem is responsible for decisionmaking and motivation.

22. The ______of a spinal nerve is continuous with the dura mater of the menniges of the spinal cord. a. endoneurium b. perineurium c. epineurium d. neurilemma e. axolemma

23. In addition to the menniges and CSF, the spinal cord is protected within the vertebral foramen by a. epidural adipose tissue. b. commissural fibers. c. lateral ventricles. d. crossed extensors.

24. What is responsible for increasing the speed of action potential conduction in myelinated axons? a. myelinated axons are short and AP reaches their terminals quickly b. electrical synapses facilitate AP across cell junctions c. lipid insulation causes positive charge to jump from node to node d. the lateral funiculi possess special fusilli which is improved by ditalini and gnocchi

25. Connected to the pituitary gland by the stalk-like infundibulum, this structure secretes hormones that control pituitary secretions. a. thalamus b. hypothalamus c. epithalamus d. basal nuclei e. reticular formation

26. T/F. Neurotransmitters are released from axon terminals.

27. The Roman numerals assigned to each cranial nerve reflect a. the order of their discovery. b. the sequence from anterior to posterior in which they emerge from the brain. c. their importance, with highest numbers being the most important. d. the complexity of each nerve, with complex nerves having higher numbers. e. the sequence from posterior to anterior in which they emerge from the brain.

28. Synaptic delay a. results when the transmission of action potential is slowed by neurotransmitter release and diffusion at chemical synapses. b. occurs at electrical synapses because of the resistance to ion flow. c. allows time for the neuron to decide whether action potential is going to occur or not. d. occurs only in the peripheral nervous system. e. has been fixed by a new app for the iPhone 5.

29. The limbic system a. plays a role in movement and keeping the cerebrum in a wakeful state. b. is a network of nuclei and nerve tracts located in the brainstem. c. aids the cerebrum in controlling movement and is the center for learned skilled movements. d. is the location of basic survival functions including memory and fear.

30. The parietal lobe of the cerebrum is the location of a. reception and evaluation of smell and hearing. b. voluntary motor function. c. reception of cutaneous sensory information d. reception and integration of visual input.

31. When neurotransmitter release at a synapse causes local depolarization in the postsynaptic membrane, the communication is considered a. excitatory postsynaptic potential b. inhibitory postsynaptic potential

32. Axoaxonic synapses result in neuromodulation via a. the control of neurotransmitter release from the presynaptic terminal of the modulated neuron. b. destruction of the released neurotransmitter in the synaptic cleft. c. hyperpolarizing graded potentials occurring at the dendrite of the post synaptic neuron.

33. A divergent neuronal pathway occurs when a. a single presynaptic neuron synapses with many post synaptic neurons. b. many presynaptic neurons synapse with a single post synaptic neuron. c. a post synaptic neuron sends feedback action potentials to the presynaptic neuron. 34. Which nerves contain the axons that conduct action potential fastest? a. motor neurons supplying skeletal muscles b. gray matter interneurons c. postganglionic motor neurons of the autonomic nervous system

35. The longest portion of the spinal cord is the a. lumbar segment. b. thoracic segment. c. sacral segment. d. cervical segment.

36. CSF is present in which of the following spaces surrounding the spinal cord? a. subdural b. epidural c. subpial d. superarachnoid e. subarachnoid

37. T/F. The spinal cord terminates inferiorly at the filum terminale.

38. In spinal cord white matter a. myelinated axons dominate. b. nerve cell bodies and interneurons dominate

39. Spinal cord funiculi or columns are a. aggregations of nerve cell bodies. b. organized into ascending and descending nerve tracts. c. the location of the choroid plexuses d. the location of ANS nerve cell bodies.

40. Sensory impulses from PNS enter the spinal cord via the a. dorsal root. b. ventral root. c. conus medullaris. d. denticulate ligaments.

41. Local potentials a. are summed temporally and/or spatially. b. always cause action potential in the postsynaptic membrane. c. will result in action potential if they depolarize the membrane to threshold. d. may depolarize or hyperpolarize the membrane. e. a, c, and d are correct f. b, c, and d are correct

42. Mixed nerves consist of both motor and sensory axons organized into bundles. Which nerves are always mixed? a. spinal nerves b. cranial nerves c. ūgattalota nerves

43. Somatic reflexes involving spinal nerves and the spinal cord are classified as polysynaptic a. if the sensory neuron synapses directly with the appropriate motor neurons. b. only if they involve the autonomic reflexes of the brainstem. c. when result in fast, protective movements that limit damage to the body. d. if they involve an interneuron in spinal cord grey matter.

44. During relative refraction, a neuron will reach action potential only when a greater than threshold stimulus is applied. Which of the following results in relative refraction? a. closed voltage-gated Na+ activation and inactivation gates. b. decreased action potential frequency. c. closed voltage-gated K+ channels. d. less than threshold graded potentials. e. hyperpolarization resulting from open voltage-gated K+ channels.

45. Somatic motor neuron cell bodies are located in the ______of the spinal cord. a. posterior horn b. lateral horn c. anterior horn 46. Which of these best describes the function of the cerebellum? a. involved in learning motor skills b. major sensory relay center c. center for important autonomic reflexes d. controls conscious perception e. none of these is correct

47. The gyri of the cerebrum a. consist of projection fibers linking the corpus callosum to the spinal cord. b. maximize the surface area for the gray matter of the cerebral cortex. c. consist of the lateral, third, and fourth ventricles. d. are the location of the basal nuclei. e. none of these choices is correct

48. Due to the presence of both gated and ungated protein channels, the axolemma is permeable to several ions. During resting membrane potential, the membrane is most permeable to which of the following ions? a. Na+ b. K+ c. Pr- d. Ca+2 e. Mg+2

49. In the example depicted in lecture, stimulation of the Golgi tendon organ a. results in relaxation of the effector muscle. b. results in contraction of the effector muscle.

50. All postganglionic parasympathetic motor neurons release _____ at their synapses with effectors. a. nicotine b. norepinephrine c. acetylcholine d. dopamine e. serotonin

51. Which of following best describes the function of the hypothalamus? a. involved in learning motor skills b. major sensory relay center c. center for important autonomic control d. location of conscious perception e. none of these is correct

52. These glial cells respond to inflammation within the CNS and are capable of phagocytizing damaged and infected tissue. a. oligodendrocytes b. astrocytes c. ependymal cells d. Schwann cells e. microglia

53. The cerebrum consists of ______hemispheres and ______lobes. a. 2; 3 b. 3; 2 c. 5; 2 d. 2; 5 e. 4; 2

54. Cranial nerve I, the olfactory nerve, is classified as a. motor. b. sensory. c. mixed.

55. Which of the following cranial nerves most likely carries impulses stimulating salivation? a. abducens b. trochlear c. oculomotor d. accessory e. none of these is correct

56. Which of the following cranial nerves is most likely involved with the sense of balance and body position? a. vagus b. vestibulocochlear c. oculomotor d. accessory e. none of these is correct

57. Which of the following cranial nerves serves as a pathway for autonomic control of the thoracic and abdominopelvic organs? a. vagus b. vestibulocochlear c. glossopharyngeal d. trigeminal e. none of these is correct

58. Which one of the following best describes the function of the cerebral peduncles of the midbrain? a. involved in visual reflexes b. location of descending voluntary motor nerve tracts

59. Along with nuclei of the medulla oblongata, the _____ controls involuntary respiratory movements. a. cerebellum b. diencephalon c. cerebrum d. pons

60. The pineal gland is located in the epithalamus of the a. cerebellum. b. diencephalon. c. cerebrum. d. brainstem.

(10 points each) Written Answer. Prepare a written answer to the following questions. Write your answers on the answer sheet provided or separate sheets of paper as necessary. Place your name on all separate sheets. DO NOT WRITE YOUR ANSWERS TO THESE QUESTIONS ON THIS PAGE!

61. Describe the location and concentration of K+ and Cl- during resting membrane potential. How do K+ and Cl- concentration and membrane permeability cause hyperpolarization of the neuron’s membrane. Now, describe the role of hyperpolarization in neurophysiology.

62. What are the benefits of the blood-brain barrier? What complications does it pose when trying to treat illnesses of the brain using drugs?

63. Do spinal reflexes involve the brain? Given the protective function of spinal reflexes, explain the involvement or lack of involvement of the brain.

64. Describe the steps involved in action potential at the membrane of the axon. Be sure to include the ions moving, the opening and closing of protein gates, and changes in membrane potential.

65. Which division of the autonomic nervous system innervates effectors possessing adrenergic receptors? Explain the relationship between this division and the adrenal medulla.

66. The facial nerve (CN VII) is a mixed nerve possessing somatic motor, proprioceptive, sensory (touch and taste), and parasympathetic functions. Explain each of these functions of the facial nerve.