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ÒèÎF ÑF]Põ¶F=+F ¶FÙF ¶F=+ ÎF &FXáFWk ¡FÙF ¶F=+ EFÑF=+X GõF=W+ PáFÜFW PÎF¼WaPèF¶F ÎF P=+ÜFF ¡FFÜFW — DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO. ÒèÎF ÑF·F / QUESTION PAPER Engagement of Trade Apprentices 55th batch in Ordnance Factories
EX - ITI Group Code : 4 Q.P. Series : A ROLL NO. Sr. No......
PÎFÞU‡F=+ =W+ ùõ¶FF‡FÞ / Signature of the Invigilator...... P¼ÎFFk=+ / Date:- ______EæFPÍF / Duration : 3 fFk©W / 3 Hours õFÛFÜF / Time:- 10:00 AM to 1:00 PM EPÍF=+¶FÛF Ek=+ : 150 / Max. Marks : 150 SUBJECT No. of Questions ENGLISH 15 GENERAL KNOWLEDGE 15 PART - I MATHEMATICS 15 APTITUDE / REASONING 15 PART - II RELEVANT TRADE 90 TOTAL QUESTIONS 150 PÎF¼WaèF:- H¸FÞ ¼WÎFW õFW ÑFùáFW =_+ÑFÜFF PÎFÛÎFPáFP&F¶F PÎF¼WaèFXk =+X ÍÜFFÎFÑF[æFa=+ ÑF³sWk — Instructions:- Please read the following Instructions carefully before writing your answer. 1. õFÚFU ÒèÎF EPÎFæFFÜFa ùYk— All questions are compulsory. 2. Ò¶ÜFW=+ ÒèÎF 1 Ek=+ =+F ùY— ;FáF¶F H¸FÞ =W+ PáFJ =+XGa Ek=+ ÎFùUk =+F©F ¡FFJ;FF— Each question carries 1 mark. There is no negative marking for wrong answer. 3. Ò¶ÜFW=+ ÒèÎF =W+ 4 õFkÚFFPæF¶F H¸FÞ PáF&FW ùYk (A),(B),(C),(D) P¡FÎFÛFWk õFW J=+ H¸FÞ õFùU ùY— EÑFÎFW H¸FÞ =+X EX.JÛF.EFÞ. H¸FÞ ÑF]Põ¶F=+F ÑFÞ ;FXáFF ÚFÞ=+Þ EkP=+¶F =+ÞWk— There are four options-(A),(B),(C),(D) given against each question, out of which only one is correct. Mark your answer by filling bubble on the OMR answer sheet. 4. EÚÜFF»FUa EÑFÎFW H¸FÞ =+X =W+æFáF EáF;F õFW ¼U ;FGa EX.JÛF.EFÞ. H¸FÞ ÑF]Põ¶F=+F ÑFÞ ùU EkP=+¶F =+ÞWk— Candidate has to mark all his responses only on the separate OMR sheet provided. 5. =W+æFáF ÎFUáFW ÜFF =+FáFW ÙFFáF ÑæFFGk© ÑFWÎF =+F ùU HÑFÜFX;F =+ÞWk— ÑFWPÎõFáF =W+ HÑFÜFX;F =+U EÎF]ÛFP¶F ÎFùUk ùY— Use only blue or black ball point pen. Use of pencil is not allowed. 6. EX.JÛF.EFÞ. H¸FÞ ÑF]Põ¶F=+F ÛFWk H¸FÞ EkP=+¶F =+ÞÎFW õFW ÑFùáFW, EÑFÎFW ÒæFWèF ÑF·F =W+ EÎF]õFFÞ P¼ÜFW ;FJ EX.JÛF.EFÞ. H¸FÞ ÑF]Põ¶F=+F ÛFWk PæFæFÞµF õFFæFÍFFÎFUÑF[æFa=+ ÚFÞWk— EX.JÛF.EFÞ. ÛFWk ;FáF¶F / EÍF[ÞF PæFæFÞµF ÚFÞÎFW ÑFÞ ÛF[áÜFFk=+ÎF ÎFùUk P=+ÜFF ¡FFJ;FF— ÜFP¼ EX.JÛF.EFÞ. EÚÜFF»FUa / PÎFÞU‡F=+ ÂFÞF ùõ¶FF‡FÞ ÎFùU P=+ÜFF CEF ùY ¶FX ÛF[áÜFFk=+ÎF ÎFùUk P=+ÜFF ¡FFJ;FF— Before you proceed to mark your response in OMR answer sheet, you have to fill in same particulars carefully in the OMR answer sheet as per your admit card. The OMR shall not be evaluated if incorrect/incomplete details are filled. OMR not signed by the Candidate/Invigilator shall not be evaluated. 7. ÒèÎF ÑF]Põ¶F=+F ÛFWk õFW =+XGa ÑFÎÎFF EáF;F ÎF =+ÞWk— No sheet from the question paper should be detached. 8. Þ×+ =+FÜFa =+ÞÎFW =W+ PáFÜFW ÒèÎF ÑF·F =W+ Ek¶F ÛFWk èFU© Ò¼FÎF =+U ;FÜFU ùY— Sheet for rough work is appended in the question paper at the end. 9. ÜFP¼ EÚÜFF»FUa J=+ õFW EPÍF=+ H¸FÞ ¼W¶FF ùY ¶FX HõFW ;FáF¶F ÛFFÎFF ¡FFJ;FF ˜FFùW HÎFÛFWk õFW =+XGa ÚFU J=+ H¸FÞ õFùU ùX— If candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong answer even if one of given answer happens to be correct. 10. ÑFÞU‡FF õFÛFFѶF ùXÎFW =W+ ÙFF¼ EÑFÎFF EX.JÛF.EFÞ. H¸FÞ ÑF]Põ¶F=+F PÎFÞU‡F=+ =+X õFZÑFWkW— EÚÜFF»FUa =+X EÑFÎFW õFF»F ÒèÎF ÑF·F áFW ¡FFÎFW =+U EÎF]ÛFP¶F ¼U ¡FFJ;FU— After completion of examination, you have to hand over your OMR answer sheet to Invigilator. Candidate shall be allowed to take the question paper along with him.
PæFæFF¼ =+U Põ»FP¶F ÛFWk Ek;FeW¡FU õFkõ=+ÞµF ÛFFÎÜF ùX;FF. In case of dispute, English version will prevail. TML
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ENGLISH Questions : 15
Direction for questions 1 – 3 : Choose the word which is nearest in meaning to the bold typed word. Questions :
1. The officer was divested of all power. (A) Bared (B) Denuded (C) Dispossessed (D) Disrobed
2. He is liked by all for his candid behaviour. (A) Social (B) Simple (C) Frank (D) Sociable
3. In his old age the man turned a fatalist. (A) Disbeliever in God (B) Believer in God (C) Believer in fate (D) Non-believer in destiny
Direction for questions 4 – 6 : Choose the best word or expression to complete the sentences. Questions :
4. He lives in the world of ______. (A) allusions (B) illusions (C) conclusions (D) delusions
5. The husband was taken aback when his wife ______to him that she ______him for his money. (A) revealed …. had married (B) declared …. married (C) revealed …. married (D) confirmed …. has married
6. He informed ______me to the police. (A) about (B) against (C) for (D) with
Direction for questions 7 – 9 : Choose the OPPOSITE meaning of the given word. Questions :
7. Transparent (A) Obvious (B) Distinct (C) Opaque (D) Consistent 8. Immense (A) Insignificant (B) Significant (C) Huge (D) Gigantic
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9. Modest (A) Lenient (B) Reserved (C) Humble (D) Arrogant Direction for questions 10 – 12 : In each of the following questions various words are given, one of which is wrongly spelt. Find out the WRONGLY SPELT word. Questions :
10. (A) Broch (B) Bleak (C) Bouquet (D) Baneful
11. (A) Delusion (B) Dovetail (C) Divercity (D) Diffident
12. (A) Doubtfull (B) Awkward (C) Ponderous (D) Distinct
Direction for questions 13 – 15 : Below several disarranged words are given in each question. Arrange them in proper order so that it makes a sense and indicate the index (A or B or C or D) of the word you have chosen to put LAST. Questions :
13. in of I money am need __ (A) __ (B) (C) (D) 14. acts care she with (A) (B) (C) (D) 15. me your pleased has news (A) (B) (C) __ (D)
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GENERAL KNOWLEDGE Questions – 15
16. The 2017 Island tourism Festival has started in which state / union territory? (A) Andaman and Nicobar (B) Gujarat (C) Rajasthan (D) Lakshadweep
17. The gas usually filled in the electric bulb is (A) Nitrogen (B) Hydrogen (C) Carbon dioxide (D) Oxygen
18. The Chardham highway project will come up in which state of India? (A) Jharkhand (B) Sikkim (C) Bihar (D) Uttarakhand
19. The largest river of all the west flowing rivers of the peninsular India is (A) Tapti (B) Kaveri (C) Krishna (D) Narmada
20. Which bollywood personality has been conferred honorary doctorate by the Maulana Azad National Urdu University? (A) Aamir Khan (B) Nawazuddin Siddiqui (C) Shahrukh Khan (D) Salman Khan
21. Rajiv Gandhi Environment Award is given for outstanding contribution (A) to health (B) to tourism (C) to agriculture (D) in the development of Neat technology
22. Which of the following islands in India was once named “New Denmark”? (A) Salsatte Island (B) Elephanta Island (C) Lakshadweep (D) Andaman & Nicobar Island
23. Veteran actor Om Puri, who passed away recently, was belonged to which state? (A) Punjab (B) Haryana (C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Madhya Pradesh
24. Which become the first cricket venue in India to have a roof top solar power plant ? (A) Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium (B) Chinnaswamy Stadium (C) Salt Lake Stadium (D) Eden Gardens
25. Which country, on the map of world, appears as "Long Shoe"? (A) Portugal (B) Italy (C) Greece (D) Hungary
26. Which state government will launch e-wallet “Tokapoisa.in” for cashless transaction in local language? (A) Odisha (B) Assam (C) Manipur (D) Kerala
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27. Which of the following atmospheric layers reflects radio waves that are transmitted from the earth and again back to the earth? (A) Ionosphere (B) Stratosphere (C) Mesosphere (D) Troposphere
28. Who has won the 2016 Best FIFA Men’s player award? (A) Cristiano Ronaldo (B) Lionel Messi (C) Carli Lloyd (D) Antonie Griezmann
29. The partition of Bengal was sought to be brought about by (A) Lord Curzon (B) Warren Hastings (C) Alfred Lyall (D) Lord Cornwallis
30. The 2017 Vibrant Gujarat Global Investors Summit has started in which city? (A) Ahmedabad (B) Rajkot (C) Surat (D) Gandhinagar
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MATHEMATICS Questions – 15
31. (43% of 2750) – (38% of 2990) = ? (A) 43.6 (B) 46.3 (C) 44.7 (D) 49.3
32. A man sells his typewriter at 5% loss. If he sells it for Rs. 80 more, he gains 5%. The cost price of the typewriter is (A) Rs. 1600 (B) Rs. 1200 (C) Rs. 1000 (D) Rs. 800
33. The sum of the ages of a father and his son is 100 years now. Five years ago, their ages were in the ratio of 2 : 1. The ratio of the ages of father and son after 10 years will be (A) 4 : 3 (B) 5 : 3 (C) 3 : 5 (D) 10 : 7
34. Which of the following is the value of 3 0. 000064 ? (A) 0.004 (B) 0.02 (C) 0.04 (D) 0.2
35. A carpenter constructed a rectangular sandbox with a capacity of 10 cubic feet. If the carpenter were to make a similar sandbox twice as long, twice as wide, and twice as high as the first sandbox, what would be the capacity, in cubic feet, of the second sandbox? (A) 20 (B) 40 (C) 60 (D) 80
36. Rabin has 10 pairs of matched socks. If he loses 7 individual socks, what is the greatest number of pairs of matched socks he can have left? (A) 7 (B) 6 (C) 5 (D) 4
37. If y is an integer, then the least possible value of |23 – 5y| is (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
38. There are 4 more women than men on Centerville’s board of education. If there are 10 members on the board, how many are women? (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 7
(.0 0036 )(.) 2 8 39. = ? (.004 )(.)(. 01 0003 ) (A) 840.0 (B) 84.0 (C) 8.4 (D) 0.84
40. Machine A produces bolts at a uniform rate of 120 every 40 seconds, and Machine B produces bolts at a uniform rate of 100 every 20 seconds. If the two machines run simultaneously, how many seconds will it take for them to produce a total of 200 bolts? (A) 22 (B) 25 (C) 28 (D) 32
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41. In an increasing sequence of 10 consecutive integers, the sum of the first 5 integers is 560. What is the sum of the last 5 integers in the sequence? (A) 585 (B) 580 (C) 575 (D) 570
42. If Mahim loses 8 pounds, he will weigh twice as much as his sister. Together they now weigh 278 pounds. What is Mahim’s present weight, in pounds? (A) 131 (B) 139 (C) 147 (D) 188
43. The water from one outlet, flowing at a constant rate, can fill a swimming pool in 9 hours. The water from a second outlet, flowing at a constant rate, can fill the same pool in 5 hours. If both outlets are used at the same time, approximately what is the number of hours required to fill the pool? (A) 0.22 (B) 2.50 (C) 3.21 (D) 4.56
44. If x + 5 > 2 and x – 3 < 7, the value of x must be between which of the following pairs of numbers? (A) -3 and 10 (B) -3 and 4 (C) 2 and 7 (D) 3 and 4
45. Car A is 20 miles behind Car B, which is traveling in the same direction along the same route as Car A. Car A is traveling at a constant speed of 58 miles per hour and Car B is traveling at a constant speed of 50 miles per hour. How many hours will it take for Car A to accelerate and drive 8 miles ahead of Car B? (A) 2.0 (B) 2.5 (C) 3.0 (D) 3.5
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APTITUDE / REASONING Questions – 15
46. Pointing to a boy in a photograph Akhil says, “He is the son of my mother’s only son’s son”. How is Akhil related to that boy? (A) Uncle (B) Brother (C) Father (D) Grandfather
Direction for questions 47 – 49 : Read the following information to answer the questions : Symbolise the given number and symbol :
Number : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Symbol : × * ? ÷ $ • + ! Δ i) If any number begins by odd number then the odd number symbolized as @. ii) If any number ends by even number then the even number symbolized as ©. Questions :
47. Which of the following will be the symbol of 673258? (A) • + ? * $ ! (B) @ + ? * $ ! (C) @ ? + $ * ! (D) • + ? * $ ©
48. Which of the following will be the symbol of 846721? (A) © ÷ • + * × (B) ! ÷ • + * @ (C) ! ÷ • + * × (D) © ÷ • + * ×
49. Which of the following will be the symbol of 178524? (A) @ + ! $ * © (B) × + ! $ © (C) @ + ! $ * ÷ (D) None of these
50. If NAXALITE is written in a certain code as LYVYJGRC, how will INTEGRATE be written in the same code? (A) LGRECYPRC (B) GLRCEPYRC (C) RYWMNOPQR (D) BLACKHOLE
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Direction for questions 51 – 54 : In each of the following questions, some words are given which are related in some way. The same relationship obtains among the words in one of the four alternatives given under it. Find the correct alternative. Questions :
51. Lizard : Reptile : Insects (A) Fox : Wolf : Forest (B) Fly : Insect : Bee (C) Man : Omnivorous : Meat (D) Tiger : Mammal : Deer
52. Magazine : Story : Article (A) Tea : Milk : Sugar (B) Television : Newspaper : Entertainment (C) Bed : Quilt : Pillow (D) Novel : Drama : Literature
53. Dog : Squirrel : Tail (A) Cottage : Hut : Palace (B) Fish : Crocodile : Water (C) Horse : Ox : Horn (D) Truck : Scooter : Gear
54. Smile : Laugh : Cry (A) Sit : Sleep : Play (B) Frown : Anger : Temper (C) Morning : Night : Day (D) Touch : Catch : Release
55. A man travels 3 kms to the West, turns left and goes 3 kms, turns right and goes 1 km, again turns right and goes 3 kms. How far is he from the starting point? (A) 7 kms (B) 6 kms (C) 5 kms (D) 4 kms
Direction for questions 56 – 59 : Read the information given below and answer the following questions on the basis of the information provided. i) There is a family of 5 persons A, B, C, D and E. ii) They are working as a doctor, a teacher, a trader, a lawyer and a farmer. iii) B, an unmarried teacher, is the daughter of A. iv) E, a lawyer, is the brother of C. v) C is the husband of the only married couple in the family. vi) A, a farmer, is a father of two sons and an unmarried daughter. vii) Daughter-in-law of A is a doctor.
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Questions :
56. Which of the following is a group of female members in the family? (A) B and D (B) D and E (C) A, C and E (D) B and C
57. Who is the trader in the family? (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
58. Which of the following is the married couple? (A) A and B (B) C and D (C) A and D (D) B and D
59. Who is the doctor in the family? (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
60. Which pair of English letters should be the next in the series of pairs of letters of English alphabet given below? BE GK MR TZ BI (A) JR (B) KS (C) JS (D) KR
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GROUP - 4 Questions : 90
61. A closed vessel made of steel and used for the generation of steam is called (A) steam boiler (B) steam turbine (C) steam condenser (D) steam injector
62. The selection of type and size of a steam boiler depends upon (A) the power required and working pressure (B) the geographical position of the power house (C) the fuel and water available (D) All of these
63. Which of the following is a fire tube boiler ? (A) Lancashire boiler (B) Babcock and Wilcox boiler (C) Yarrow boiler (D) None of these
64. Fire tube boilers are limited to a maximum working pressure of (A) 0.17 MN/m2 (B) 1.7 MN/m2 (C) 17 MN/m2 (D) 170 MN/m2
65. Which of the following is a water tube boiler ? (A) Lancashire boiler (B) Babcock and Wilcox boiler (C) Locomotive boiler (D) Cochran boiler
66. In fire tube boilers (A) water passes through the tubes which are surrounded by flames and hot gases (B) the flames and hot gases pass through the tubes which are surrounded by water (C) forced circulation takes place (D) None of these
67. In water tube boilers (A) water passes through the tubes which are surrounded by flames and hot gases (B) the flames and hot gases pass through the tubes which are surrounded by water (C) forced circulation takes place (D) None of these
68. When the circulation of water, in a boiler, is by convection currents which are set up during the heating of water, then the boiler is known as (A) internally fired boiler (B) externally fired boiler (C) natural circulation boiler (D) forced circulation boiler
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69. When the circulation of water, in a boiler, is by a centrifugal pump, then the boiler is known as (A) internally fired boiler (B) externally fired boiler (C) natural circulation boiler (D) forced circulation boiler
70. Fire tube boilers are (A) internally fired (B) externally fired (C) internally as well as externally fired (D) None of these
71. Water tube boilers are (A) internally fired (B) externally fired (C) internally as well as externally fired (D) None of these
72. In forced circulation steam boilers, the force is applied to (A) draw water (B) circulate water (C) drain of the water (D) All of these
73. The fire tubes in a Cochran boiler usually have ______diameter. (A) 6.25 mm (B) 62.5 mm (C) 72.5 mm (D) 92.5 mm
74. The number of fire tubes in a Cochran boiler are (A) 75 (B) 115 (C) 165 (D) 225
75. The shell of the Cochran boiler is made hemispherical (A) to give maximum space and strength (B) to withstand the pressure of steam inside the boiler (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
76. The diameter of a cylindrical shell of a scotch marine boiler varies from (A) 1.5 to 2 m (B) 2.5 to 3.5 m (C) 3.5 to 4.5 m (D) None of these
77. Lancashire boiler is (A) stationary fire tube boiler (B) internally fired boiler (C) horizontal boiler (D) All of these
78. Lancashire boiler is used where working pressure and power required are (A) low (B) moderate (C) high (D) None of these
79. The cylindrical shell of a Lancashire boiler has diameter from (A) 1 to 2 m (B) 1.25 to 2.25 m (C) 1.5 to 2.5 m (D) 1.75 to 2.75 m
80. The length of Lancashire boiler varies from (A) 5 to 6 m (B) 6 to 7 m (C) 7.25 to 9 m (D) 9 to 10 m
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81. Lancashire boiler has ______internal flue tube(s). (A) one (B) two (C) three (D) four
82. The diameter of the internal flue tubes of a Lancashire boiler is about ______that of its shell. (A) one-fourth (B) one- third (C) two-fifth (D) one-half
83. The diameter of the Cornish boiler varies from (A) 0.5 to 1 m (B) 1 to 2 m (C) 1.25 to 2.5 m (D) 2 to 3 m
84. The length of Cornish boiler varies from (A) 2 to 4.5 m (B) 3 to 5 m (C) 5 to 7.5 m (D) 7 to 9 m
85. The diameter of flue tube in a Cornish boiler is ______that of its shell. (A) one-fourth (B) one-third (C) two-fifth (D) three-fifth
86. The shell diameter of a locomotive boiler is (A) 1m (B) 1.5 m (C) 2 m (D) 2.5 m
87. The length of shell of a locomotive boiler is (A) 1m (B) 2 m (C) 3 m (D) 4m
88. The locomotive boiler has (A) 137 fire tubes and 44 superheated tubes (B) 147 fire tubes and 34 superheated tubes (C) 157 fire tubes and 24 superheated tubes (D) 167 fire tubes and 14 superheated tubes
89. The maximum steam pressure in a locomotive boiler is limited to (A) 0.18 MN/m2 (B) 1.8 MN/m2 (C) 18 MN/m2 (D) 180 MN/m2
90. The fire tubes in a locomotive boiler has ______diameter. (A) 4.75 mm (B) 5.47 mm (C) 7.45 mm (D) 47.5 mm
91. The diameter of a superheated tubes in a locomotive boiler is (A) 13 mm (B) 31 mm (C) 130 mm (D) 230 mm
92. Which of the following boiler works on a forced circulation of water ? (A) La-Mont boiler (B) Benson boiler (C) Loffler boiler (D) All of these
93. The forced circulation of water does take place in (A) La-Mont boiler (B) Lancashire boiler (C) Velox boiler (D) Benson boiler
94. The working pressure range for a La-Mont boiler is (A) 0.5 to 10 MN/m2 (B) 1 to 15 MN/m2 (C) 2.5 to 15 MN/m2 (D) 3.5 to 20 MN/m2
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95. Benson boiler requires ______drum(s). (A) no (B) one (C) two (D) three
96. The average operating pressure of Benson boiler is (A) 100 bar (B) 150 bar (C) 200 bar (D) 250 bar
97. The rate of steam produced in Benson boiler is (A) 100 tonnes/h (B) 135 tonnes/h (C) 175 tonnes/h (D) 250 tonnes/h
98. Which of the following boiler is best suited to meet the fluctuating demand of steam ? (A) Locomotive boiler (B) Lancashire boiler (C) Cornish boiler (D) Babcock and Wilcox boiler
99. The fittings mounted on the boiler for its proper and safe functioning is a (A) water level indicator (B) pressure gauge (C) safety valve (D) All of these
100. Which of the following is NOT a boiler mounting ? (A) Blow off cock (B) Feed check valve (C) Economiser (D) Fusible plug
101. The number of water level indicators in a boiler are generally ______in number. (A) one (B) two (C) three (D) four
102. In a glass tube type water indicator for a boiler, one end of the tube is connected to water space and the other end is connected to (A) water space also (B) chimney (C) steam space (D) super heater
103. A safety valve which is usually employed with stationary boilers is (A) lever safety valve (B) dead weight safety valve (C) high steam and low water safety valve (D) All of these
104. A safety valve, mainly used with locomotive and marine boilers, is (A) lever safety valve (B) dead weight safety valve (C) high steam and low water safety valve (D) spring loaded safety valve
105. The high steam and low water safety valve is NOT used in (A) Cochran boiler (B) Cornish boiler (C) Lancashire boiler (D) locomotive boiler
106. A valve installed between the boiler and the feed pump is (A) Blow off cock (B) feed check valve (C) steam stop valve (D) None of these
107. A device used to put off fire in the furnace of the boiler when the level of water in the boiler falls to an unsafe limit, is called (A) blow off valve (B) stop valve (C) super heater (D) None of these
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108. A device used to increase the temperature of saturated steam without raising its pressure, is called (A) blow off cock (B) fusible plug (C) super heater (D) stop valve
109. Which of the following are boiler accessories ? (A) Economiser (B) Super heater (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
110. An economiser is generally placed between (A) last super heater or repeater and air preheater (B) induced draft fan and forced draft fan (C) air preheater and chimney (D) None of these
111. The pressure of feed water has to be raised before its entry into the boiler. The pressure is raised by a device known as (A) feed pump (B) injector (C) feed check valve (D) pressure gauge
112. An air pre-heater (A) increases evaporative capacity of the boiler (B) increases the efficiency of the boiler (C) enables low grade fuel to be burnt (D) All of these
113. An economiser is installed in a boiler primarily to (A) superheat the steam (B) reduce fuel consumption (C) increase steam pressure (D) All of these
114. An air pre-heater is installed (A) before the economiser (B) before the super heater (C) between the economiser and chimney (D) None of these
115. A device in which some portion of waste heat of flue gases is recovered to heat the air before it passes to the furnace for combustion purpose, is known as (A) super heater (B) air pre-heater (C) economiser (D) injector
116. The performance of a boiler is measured by the (A) amount of water evaporated per hour (B) steam produced in kg/h (C) steam produced in kg/kg of fuel burnt (D) All of these
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117. In order to compare the capacity of boilers, the feed water temperature and working pressure are taken as (A) 50°C and normal atmospheric pressure (B) 50°C and 1.1 bar pressure (C) 100°C and normal atmospheric pressure (D) 100°C and 1.1 bar pressure
118. The ratio of heat actually used in producing the steam to the heat liberated in the furnace, is known as (A) equivalent evaporation (B) factor of evaporation (C) boiler efficiency (D) power of a boiler
119. The amount of water evaporated from feed water at ______into dry and saturated steam at 100°C at NTP is called equivalent evaporation from and at 100ºC. (A) 0ºC (B) 40ºC (C) 60ºC (D) 100ºC
120. The amount of water evaporated in kg per kg of fuel burnt is called (A) evaporative capacity of a boiler (B) equivalent evaporation from and at 100°C (C) boiler efficiency (D) None of these
121. The factor of evaporation for all boilers is always (A) equal to unity (B) less than unity (C) greater than unity (D) None of these
122. The main object of a boiler trial is to (A) determine the generating capacity of the boiler (B) determine the thermal efficiency of the boiler when working at a definite pressure (C) prepare heat balance sheet for the boiler (D) All of these
123. In a boiler, the heat is lost (A) to dry flue gases (B) in moisture present in the fuel (C) to steam formed by combustion of hydrogen per kg of fuel (D) All of these
124. The maximum heat loss in a boiler occurs due to (A) moisture in fuel (B) dry flue gases (C) steam formation (D) unborn carbon
125. The draught is the ______pressures above and below the fire grate. (A) sum of (B) difference of (C) atmospheric (D) vacuum of
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126. The air pressure at the fuel bed is reduced below that of atmosphere by means of a fan placed at or near the bottom of the chimney to produce a draught, is called (A) natural draught (B) induced draught (C) forced draught (D) balanced draught
127. The draught may be produced by a (A) mechanical fan (B) chimney (C) steam jet (D) All of these
128. The natural draught is produced by (A) steam jet (B) centrifugal fan (C) chimney (D) Both (A) & (B)
129. The chimney draught varies with (A) climatic conditions (B) temperature of furnace gases (C) height of chimney (D) All of these
130. The efficiency of the plant ______with the mechanical draught. (A) increases (B) decreases (C) remains constant (D) None of these
131. A high pressure boiler is one which produces steam at a pressure (A) more than 10 bar (B) more than 30 bar (C) more than 50 bar (D) 75-80 bar
132. Why the crown of the fire box is made hemispherical ? (A) To withstand pressure inside the boiler. (B) To give maximum space. (C) To resist intense heat in the fire box. (D) To give maximum strength.
133. In a boiler the basic purpose of a drum is to (A) separate steam from water (B) remove salts from water (C) serve as storage of steam (D) All of these
134. Compared to controlled circulation boilers the diameter of tubes for natural circulation boiler is (A) less (B) more (C) same (D) None of these
135. ______boiler is best suited to meet fluctuating demands. (A) Cornish (B) Locomotive (C) Cochran (D) Lancashire
136. What is the number of drums in Benson steam generator? (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) No drum
137. Why is the fusible plug fitted in small boilers ? (A) To control steam temperature. (B) To remove molten ash. (C) To avoid explosion. (D) To extinguish fire if water level in the boiler falls below alarming limit.
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138. Where is the fusible plug in small boilers located? (A) Above the steam dome. (B) At the inlet of chimney. (C) Over the combustion chamber. (D) In the drum.
139. A fusible plug is made of fusible metal containing (A) tin, lead & iron (B) tin, lead & bismuth (C) tin, lead & nickel (D) tin, lead & copper
140. ______coal has the highest calorific value. (A) Bituminous (B) Lignite (C) Peat (D) None of these
141. In bituminous coal the percentage of carbon is of the order of (A) 10-20% (B) 20-30% (C) 40-60% (D) 65-80%
142. In a locomotive boiler maximum steam pressure is (A) 4 bar (B) 8 bar (C) 18 bar (D) 28 bar
143. For a fire tube locomotive boiler which aspect is NOT valid ? (A) Multi-tubular (B) Externally fired (C) Mobile unit (D) None of these
144. ______boiler is a once through boiler. (A) Benson (B) Babcock-Wilcox (C) Lancashire (D) Cornish
145. ______is fitted on a boiler to improve the efficiency. (A) Steam trap (B) Safety valve (C) Economiser (D) None of these
146. A supercritical boiler has a pressure range of (A) 30-70 bar (B) 80-120 bar (C) 225-250 bar (D) 333-450 bar
147. What is the efficiency of a well maintained boiler? (A) 30% (B) 50% (C) 70% (D) 90%
148. ______type of boiler can meet rapid change of load. (A) Forced circulation (B) Fire tube (C) Water tube (D) None of these
149. By which of the following is the size of boiler tubes specified? (A) Outside & inside diameter (B) Outside diameter & thickness (C) Mean diameter & thickness (D) Inside diameter & thickness
150. Which of the following mediums will leak if a safety valve in a locomotive boiler starts leaking? (A) Wet steam (B) Dry steam (C) Superheated steam (D) Supersaturated steam
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