www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC280B* SLR-PC – 280 B
Seat Set No. A T.E. Information Technology (Part – II) Examination, 2015 Self Learning HSS NETWORK SETUP AND MANAGEMENT (New) Day and Date : Tuesday, 26-5-2015 Max. Marks : 50 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5. 00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 15 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 15 Minutes Marks :10
1. Choose the correct answer (10×1=10) 1) ______are usually used to extend a connection to a remote host. A) Repeater B) Router C) Firewall D) None of these 2) A ______creates a collision domain on each port. A) Ethernet Switch B) Hub C) Router D) none of the choices are correct 3) ______are virtual separation within switch that provide distinct logical LANs that each behave as if they were configured on a separate physical switch. A) Router B) VPN C) VLAN D) none of the choices are correct 4) If the address of destination is not on a local network, the packet must be forwarded to ______A) Switch B) Hub C) Gateway D) none of the choices are correct
P.T.O.
www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 280 B -2- *SLRPC280B*
5) OSPF is used for ______A) Routing of packets B) Shortest path routing of packets C) Simulation of packets D) None of the choices are correct
6) ______running as an application on a server may share the server with other functions such as DNS or mail, though generally and restrict its activities to security-related tasks. A) Router B) Modem C) A Firewall D) None
7) ______commonly called a DMZ, stands for Demilitarized Zone A) Router B) Access point c) Both above d) Firewall
8) ______is a broad-band wire-less system that has been developed for use as broad-band wireless access for fixed and mobile stations and can provide a wireless alternative for last mile broad-band access in the 2 GHz to 66 GHz frequency range. A) WIMAX (Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access) B) Bluetooth C) Both D) None
9) The ______is wireless gateway software. A) WAN B) WAP C) Both D) None
10) Which of the following is not a feature of any cast addressing in IPv6 ? A) Same IPv6 address assigned to multiple nodes B) Routing protocol makes the nearest determination C) Supports many future potential applications D) Provides an any-to-many communication model
______Set A
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*SLRPC280B* -3- SLR-PC – 280 B
Seat No.
T.E. Information Technology (Part – II) Examination, 2015 HSS NETWORK SETUP AND MANAGEMENT (New)
Day and Date : Tuesday, 26-5-2015 Marks :50 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
2. Answer any four from the following questions each carries 5 marks. (5×4 = 20) 1) Discuss what type of planning is needed for a Chassis -Based Switch Installation. 2) What are the different types of routes used by routing table ? 3) What is significance of VLAN and how to configure it using CatOS. 4) Differentiate between a Hub and Switch. 5) Explain OSPF.
3. Answer the following any two. (5×2=10) 1) What is firewall ? 2) Explain The WAP 3) Give difference of IPV6 and IPV4
4. Write short notes any four : (5×2=10) 1) RFID 2) BGP.
______
Set A
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Set A
www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com
*SLRPC280D* SLR-PC 280 D
S e a t
5 A J
)
N o . T.E. (Information Technology) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015 SELF LEARNING MODULE II : HSS/TECHNICAL : COMPILER DEVELOPMENT TOOLS Day and Date : Tuesday, 26-05-2015 Max. Marks : 50 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 3) Assume suitable data where necessary. 4) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 10
1. Choose the correct alternatives : 10 1) Function yywrap is called by ______when input is exhausted. a) Lex b) YACC c) COMP d) PPNN 2) Lex compiler generates ? a) Lex object code b) Transition tables c) C Tokens d) None of above 3) The lexical analyzer takes ______as input and produces a stream of ______as output. a) Source program, tokens b) Token, source program c) Either A and B d) None of the above P.T.O.
www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 280 D -2- *SLRPC280D*
4) Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens ? a) Parser b) Code optimization c) Code generator d) Lexical analyser 5) The ______section of LEX file defines macros and imports header files written in C. a) Pass b) Definition c) Parse d) Pattern 6) YACC is a ______parser generator, generating a parser. a) LL b) LL(0) c) LALR d) LR(1) 7) yytext is a pointer to the matched string (NULL-terminated) and ______is the length of the matched string. a) Yyleng b) Yylex c) Yywrap d) Yypop 8) Input of Lex is a) Set to regular expression b) Statement c) Numeric data d) ASCII data 9) Yacc semantic action is a sequence of a) Tokens b) Expression c) C Statement d) Rules 10) Which of the following software tool is parser generator ? a) Lex b) Yacc c) Both a and b d) None of these
______
Set A
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*SLRPC280D* -3- SLR-PC 280 D
S e a t
N o .
T.E. (Information Technology) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015 SELF LEARNING MODULE II : HSS/TECHNICAL : COMPILER DEVELOPMENT TOOLS
Day and Date : 26-05-2015, Tuesday Marks : 40 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 3) Assume suitable data where necessary.
2. Answer the following : a) What are the sections of a LEX specification file ? How is a C code file generated by a LEX tool ? 10 b) Define the following terms : Tokens, Declarations, Operators, Conflicts and Actions. 10
3. Answer the following : a) How is error reporting and recovery carried out using LEX and YACC ? 10 b) Develop a parser to recognize a C language statement using YACC. 10
______
Set A
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Set A
www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC280A* SLR-PC – 280 A
Seat No. Set A T.E. (Information Technology) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 Self Learning Module – II (Technical) TOOLS FOR COMPUTER ARCHITECTURE (New) Day and Date : Tuesday, 26-5-2015 Max. Marks : 50 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 15 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 15 Minutes Marks : 10
1. Choose the correct alternatives : (10×1=10) 1) SPARC (Scalable Processor Architecture) is based on ______a) RISC b) CISC c) SAS d) None of these 2) SPARC uses a special instruction for a) Processor interrupts b) Memory faults c) Load/Store d) Multiply and add 3) SPARC Processor that was developed at ______in the mid 1980’s. a) Intel b) Sun micro system c) AT and T Labs d) None of these 4) Which of the following are mnemonic of ARC instruction set. a) Id b) st c) andcc d) All of these 5) The process of translating as assembly language program into a machine language program is referred to as the a) Assembly process b) Compiler c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these 6) DLL stands for ______in linking and loading of ARC processor. a) Data link libraries b) Data path line libraries c) Dynamic link libraries d) None of these 7) Which of the following are main simulator controls ? a) Step b) Edit c) Load d) All of the above
P.T.O.
www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 280 A -2- *SLRPC280A* 8) Which of the following instructions are not recognized by ARC Tools. a) Idsh b) Idub c) Iduh d) Idmh 9) ARC assembly language file is saved as ______in ARC Tools simulator. a) File.asm b) File.sim c) File.tasm d) File.msm 10) What is the meaning of sethi Mnemonic ? a) Load the 21 most significant bits of a register b) Load the 22 most significant bits of a register c) Load the 23 most significant bits of a register d) Load the 24 most significant bits of a register
______
Set A
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*SLRPC280A* -3- SLR-PC – 280 A
Seat No.
T.E. (Information Technology) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 Self Learning Module – II (Technical) TOOLS FOR COMPUTER ARCHITECTURE (New) Day and Date : Tuesday, 26-5-2015 Max. Marks : 50 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
SECTION – I
2. Attempt any four : (4×10=40) 1) Explain different ARC instruction and its meaning with example.
2) i) Explain concept of Linking in ARC Processor. ii) Write an ARC assembly language program that adds two integers.
3) Write an ARC subroutine that performs a swap operation on the 32 bit operands x = 22 and y = 46, which are stored in memory. 4) i) Explain the ARC simulator main controls. ii) Draw and explain carry look ahead adder design. 5) i) Write an Instruction formats and PSR format for the ARC processor. ii) Explain concept of Assembly and Symbol table.
6) Explain Associate mapping and direct mapping scheme for Cache memory with a neat diagram.
______
Set A
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Set A
www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLR-PC-280C* SLR-PC – 280C
Seat Set No. A T.E. (Information Technology) (Part – II) (New) Examination, 2015 NETWORK SETUP AND MANAGEMENT Self Learning Module – II (HSS/Technical)
Day and Date : Tuesday, 26-5-2015 Max. Marks : 50 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Question No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 15 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Write any 5 questions from Q. No. 2-8. 3) Draw figures wherever is necessary. 4) Assume suitable data if necessary. 5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 15 Minutes Marks : 10
1. Multiple Choice Questions : (1×10=10) 1) A network that needs human beings to manually route signals is called ______A) Fiber Optic Network B) Bus Network C) T-switched Network D) Ring Network 2) When a new trunk link is configured on an IOS-based switch, which VLANs are allowed over the link ? A) By default, all VLANs are allowed on the trunk B) No VLAN’s are allowed, you must configure each VLAN by hand C) Only configured VLAN’s are allowed on the link D) Only extended VLAN’s are allowed by default 3) Which of the following modes are valid when a switch port is used as a VLAN trunk ? 1) Blocking 2) Dynamic auto 3) Dynamic desirable 4) non-negotiable 5) Access 6) Learning A) 1, 2 and 6 B) 2, 3 and 4 C) 4, 5 and 6 D) 2, 4, and 5
P.T.O.
www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 280C -2- *SLR-PC-280C*
4) Which of the following applications allows a user to access and change remote files without actual transfer ? A) DNS B) FTP C) NFS D) Telnet 5) You want to improve network performance by increasing the bandwidth available to hosts and limit the size of the broadcast domains. Which of the following options will achieve this goal ? A) Managed hubs B) Bridges C) Switches D) Switches configured with VLANs 6) Which of the following is an example of Exterior Gateway Protocol ? A) Open Short Path First (OSPF) B) Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) C) Routing Information Protocol (RIP) D) All of the above 7) A one-to-all communication between one source and all hosts on a network is classified as a ______A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) point to point 8) Devices on one network can communicate with devices on another network via a ______A) File Server B) Utility Server C) Printer Server D) Gateway 9) A robust routing protocol provides the ability to ______build and manage the information in the IP routing table. A) Dynamically B) Statically C) Hierarchically D) All of the above 10) State True or False for definition of an Autonomous System (AS). i) An AS is defined as a physical portion of a larger IP network. ii) An AS is normally comprised of an internetwork within an organization. A) i) True, ii) True B) i) True, ii) False C) i) False, ii) True D) i) False, ii) False
______
Set A
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*SLR-PC-280C* -3- SLR-PC – 280C
Seat No.
T.E. (Information Technology) (Part – II) (New) Examination, 2015 NETWORK SETUP AND MANAGEMENT Self Learning Module – II (HSS/Technical) Day and Date : Tuesday, 26-5-2015 Marks : 40 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Write any 5 questions from Q. No. 2-8. 2) Draw figures wherever is necessary. 3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
2. What is the function of repeater ? Explain with figures how we can use repeater to form a network. 8
3. State and explain the steps that you need to think about when planning a Chassis- based Switch installation. 8
4. Explain with figure how two switches connected with a trunk and routing between multiple VLANs. 8
5. State and explain the different types of routes contains in routing tables. 8
6. Write short note on : 8 a) Bay Face Layouts b) Tips for network diagrams.
7. Explain in details corporate network. 8
8. What is NAT ? Explain the steps for the implementation of NAT. 8
______
Set A
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Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com
*SLRPC281* SLR-PC 281
S e a t
5 A J
N o . )
B.E. (Information Technology) (Part I) Examination, 2015 ADVANCED COMPUTER ARCHITECTURE
Day and Date : Tuesday, 5-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Write the correct answer from the options given below : 1) Pipelining yields a reduction in the average execution time per instruction. The reduction can be viewed as decreasing the number of 1 a) Clock cycles per instruction (CPI) b) Machine cycles per clock cycle c) Bothd) None 2) ______which is maximum delay between when the clock arrives at any two registers, also contributes to the lower limit on the clock cycle. 1 a) Clock skew b) Latency c) Both d) None 3) Consider the unpipelined processor in the previous section. Assume that it has a 1 ns clock cycle and that it uses 4 cycles for ALU operations and branches and 5 cycles for memory operations. Assume that the relative frequencies of these operations are 40%, 20% and 40% respectively. Suppose that due to clock skew and setup, pipelining the processor adds 0.2 ns of overhead to the clock. Ignoring any latency impact, how much speedup in the instruction execution rate will we gain from a pipeline ? 2 a) 3.7 times b) 3.8 times c) 4 times d) None 4) ______arise from the pipelining of branches and other instructions that change the PC 1 a) Data hazards b) Structural hazards c) Control hazards d) None 5) Pipeline branch hazards can be handled by 1 a) Forwarding branchb) Delayed branchc) Both d) None 6) The MIPS pipeline with the appropriate registers, called pipeline registers or pipeline latches, between each. 1 a) Pipeline stage b) Pipeline instructions c) Clock cycles d) None 7) Software pipelining 1 a) Replicating loop by compiler b) Rearranging loops by compiler c) Bothd) None
P.T.O.
www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 281 -2- *SLRPC281*
8) Vector processor includes 1 a) Vector register b) Vector function unit c) Vector load and store d) All of the above 9) Register renaming can eliminate hazard based on 1 a) WAR b) WAW c) Bothd) None 10) Tightly coupled multiprocessor are efficient when 1 a) Interaction between task are minimal b) Interaction between task are maximum c) Bothd) None 11) Multiprocessor execute on different computer module communicate by exchanging message by 1 a) Processor b) MTS c) TCS d) None 12) Tightly coupled multiprocessor encounter ______conflict. 1 a) Processor b) Memory c) I/O d) None 13) In tightly coupled PMIN is used for 1 a) Resolve conflict between processors b) Broadcasting data c) Bothd) None
14) is called as 1
a) Merger b) Decider c) Operator d) None 15) Snooping cache protocol, write-back caches : What is an immediate effect of writing to shared data in the cache of one processor ? 1 a) Updating main memory b) Updating copies in the caches of other processors Updating copies in the caches of other processors c) Marking copies in the caches of other processors as modified d) Invalidating copies in the caches of other processors 16) Deterministic schedules are usually displayed with timing diagrams called 1 a) Pie charts b) Flow charts c) Cartogram charts d) Gantt charts 17) Data flow computing contains 1 a) Data flow b) Data tokens c) Bothd) None 18) Value algorithmic Language is used for 1 a) Multi tasking b) Multi programming c) Data flow d) Micro programming 19) Tamasulo scheme operates on 1 a) Renaming b) Reservation Stations c) Common data bus d) All of the above ______Set A
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*SLRPC281* -3- SLR-PC 281
S e a t
N o .
B.E. (Information Technology) (Part I) Examination, 2015 ADVANCED COMPUTER ARCHITECTURE
Day and Date : Tuesday, 5-5-2015 Max. Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION I
2. Answer any two of the following : 14 a) Explain advantage of loop unrolling with example. b) Explain forward method. c) What is instruction level parallism ?
3. Answer any two of the following : 14 a) Explain VLIW with loop unrolling example. b) What is software pipelining ? c) Explain one bit prediction in dynamic branching.
4. Write short note : 12 a) Vector length and stride b) Vector architecture.
SECTION II
5. Answer any two of the following : 14 a) Compare loosely coupled and tightly coupled multiprocessors. b) What are different type of dynamic priority bus in interconnection network ? c) Explain crossbar switch in detail.
Set A
www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 281 -4- *SLRPC281*
6. Write short note on any two : 14 a) Distributed shared memory. b) Model of memory consistency. c) Explain given data flow graph.
7. Answer the following : 12 a) Draw and explain centralised shared memory multiprocessor architecture. b) Explain synchronisation is achieved in multiprocessors. Explain.
______
Set A
www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLR-PC-282* SLR-PC – 282
Seat Set No. A B.E. (Information Technology) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 MANAGEMENT INFORMATION SYSTEM Day and Date : Wednesday, 6-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 3) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20
1. Choose the correct alternative : 20 1) A ______is one in which nearly all of the organizations significant business relationships with customers, suppliers and employees are digitally enabled. a) Digital firm b) Digital organization c) Digitization d) None of the above 2) ______supports non-routine decision making for middle management. a) DSS b) ESS c) OSS d) TPS 3) ______can be defined technically as a set of interrelated components that collect, process store and distribute information. a) Information system b) Database c) DBMS d) Digital data 4) ______refers to a set of logically related tasks and behaviors that organizations develop overtime to produce specific business results. a) Business task b) Business process c) Marketing d) Business integration 5) BPR stands for ______a) Business Product Restructure b) Business Process Reengineering c) Business Process Revaluation d) None of the above 6) “If something someone else has created is useful to you, it has value” is ______principle/rule. a) Utilitarian b) Ethical “no free lunch” c) Golden d) Risk Aversion 7) ______is a computerized system that performs and records the daily routine transactions necessary to conduct business. a) DSS b) MIS c) TPS d) ESS P.T.O.
www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 282 -2- *SLR-PC-282* 8) ______consists of activities for detecting and correcting data in a database that are incorrect, incomplete, improperly formatted, or redundant. a) Data quality audit b) Data cleansing c) Data Governance d) None of these 9) ______measures the number of customers who stop using or purchasing products or services from a company. a) Customer Lifetime Value b) Legacy Systems c) Churn Rate d) None of these 10) The removal of organizations or business process layers for intermediatry steps in a value chain is called as ______a) Disintermediation b) Price Discrimination c) Market Segmentation d) Switching Cost 11) ______tools collect data on customer activities at websites and store them in log. a) Cookies b) Clickstream tracking c) Collaborative filtering d) All of these 12) ______enable consumers to make instant online payments to merchants and other individuals based on value stored in an online digital account. a) Micropayment b) Electronic billing c) Online stored value payment d) Digital checking 13) ______refers to firms off-loading peak demand for computing power to remote, large scale data processing center. a) On-demand computing b) Grid computing c) Cloud computing d) Edge computing 14) ______involves setting up fake websites on sending e-mails that look like those of legitimate business to ask user for confidential personal data. a) Phishing b) Spoofing c) Sniffing d) Identify theft 15) A software vendor created small pieces of software called ______to repair the flows without disturbing the proper operation of the software. a) Virus b) Worm c) Operating system d) Patches 16) A ______is one that is stored in more than one physical location. a) Distribution database b) Parallel database c) Data mart d) None of these 17) SSL stands for a) Secure Sockets Layer b) Secure Sockets Link c) Secure Soft Link d) None of these 18) An/A ______is a box consisting of a radio receiver/transmitter and antennas that links to a wired network, router, or hub. a) Ariel b) Access Point c) Backbone d) Hotspot 19) ______uses online analytical processing and data mining to analyze large pools of data. a) DSS b) ESS c) OSS d) FSS 20) CVS stands for ______a) Computer Vision Syndrome b) Computer Video Schedule c) Computer Visual System d) None of the above ______Set A
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*SLR-PC-282* -3- SLR-PC – 282
Seat No.
B.E. (Information Technology) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 MANAGEMENT INFORMATION SYSTEM Day and Date : Wednesday, 6-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. p.m. Instruction : All questions are compulsory.
SECTION – I
2. Attempt any four of the following : (6×4=24) a) What is Management Information system ? Discuss the significance of MIS. b) Describe any two types of Business Information systems. c) Explain the organizational and behavioral impacts. d) Explain the data warehouse and data mart. e) Discuss system quality in terms of data quality and system errors.
3. Attempt any two of the following : (8×2=16) a) Discuss the Porter’s competitive forces model. b) Explain the candidate ethical principles. c) Write a short note on Grid computing and Cloud computing.
SECTION – II
4. Attempt any four of the following : (6×4=24) a) What are advantages of E-Commerce ? b) Explain Customer Relationship Management with neat diagram. c) Describe role of ESS in the firm. d) Explain the important dimensions of knowledge. e) What are the objectives of project management ?
5. Attempt any two of the following : (8×2=16) a) What are the ethical and social issues in IS ? b) Explain the systems development process with neat diagram. c) Write a short note on any two intelligent techniques.
______Set A
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Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC283* SLR-PC – 283
Seat Set No. A B.E. (Information Technology) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 ADVANCED DATABASE SYSTEMS Day and Date : Thursday, 7-5-2015 Total Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1) All questions are compulsory. 2) Figures to right indicate marks to question. 3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20
1. Choose the correct alternative : 1) A heterogeneous distributed database is which of the following ? a) The same DBMS is used at each location and data are not distributed across all nodes b) The same DBMS is used at each location and data are distributed across all nodes c) A different DBMS is used at each location and data are not distributed across all nodes d) A different DBMS is used at each location and data are distributed across all nodes 2) For reading entire relation, ______partitioning technique is more suitable. a) Round Robin b) Hash c) Range d) None of the above 3) Machines with fine-granularity parallelism have a) Few no. of processors b) Large no. of processors c) Single task, single processor d) All of the above 4) Different queries execute in parallel with one another is a) Interquery parallelism b) Intraquery parallelism c) Interoperation parallelism d) Intraoperation parallelism 5) The operation from finer granularity data to a coarser granularity is called a) rollup b) drilldown c) slicing d) dicing 6) If the relation is vertically partitioned then original relation is constructed using ______operation. a) Join b) Intersection c) Union d) Projection 7) Transaction server process consists of a) Server Processes b) Lock manager processes c) Database writer processes d) All P.T.O.
www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 283 -2- *SLRPC283* 8) With n relations, there are ______different join orderings. a) n b) n2 c) 2*(n – 1) ! / n! d) 2*(n – 1) ! / (n – 1) ! 9) Which of the following is true equivalence ?
a)σθ1 (σθ2 (E)) = σθ2 (σθ1 (E )) b) E1 Xθ E2 = E2 Xθ E1
c) L1()L2 (...( Ln ()E .. = L1()E d) All of the above 10) The ______benchmark was designed to test the core performance of database system, along with operating system on which system runs. a) TCP-A b) TCP-B c) TCP-C d) TCP-D 11) Which of the following organization is the part of formal standards ? a) ANSI b) ISO c) IEEE d) ALL 12) Decision support system is used in making a) Transaction decisions b) Query decisions c) Business decisions d) Table decisions 13) Workflow is an activity in which multiple tasks are executed in a coordinated way by different a) Processing clients b) Processing entities c) Processing serves d) Processing coordinators 14) Which of the following concurrency control algorithms is used in DDBMSs ? a) Quorum consensus algorithms b) Timestamp-based algorithms c) Biased protocol d) All of these 15) The process of selecting most efficient query evaluation plan from many strategies is called a) Query processing b) Query transformation c) Query translation d) Query optimization 16) The features of E-R model are a) Multivalued attributes b) Composite attributes c) ISA hierarchies d) All 17) OMG stands for a) Operational Management Group b) Objective Management Group c) Object Management Group d) Operational Manipulation Group 18) 4NF is the a) Composition of relations b) Decomposition of relations c) Fragmentation of tuples d) Composition of tuples 19) Tables containing multidimensional data are called a) Dimension tables b) Star tables c) Fact tables d) Pivot table 20) ______objects vanish after program termination. a) Transient b) Persistent c) Both d) None of the above ______Set A
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*SLRPC283* -3- SLR-PC – 283
Seat No.
B.E. (Information Technology) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 ADVANCED DATABASE SYSTEMS Day and Date : Thursday, 7-5-2015 Total Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Figures to right indicate marks to question.
SECTION – I
2. Attempt any four : 20 1) Explain the issues arise in data server architecture. 2) Explain transaction server architecture with neat diagram. 3) How the evaluation of selection, projection and aggregation parallelized ? 4) Compare data partitioning techniques. 5) Explain the methods of generating timestamps. 6) Explain Arrays and Multiset in SQL.
3. Attempt any one : 10 1) State differences in persistent programming languages and languages with embedded SQL. 2) How 2PC protocol responds to various types of failures ?
4. Explain w.r.t. parallel database : 10 1) Range-partitioning sort 2) Parallel external sort.
SECTION – II
5. Attempt any four : 20 1) Explain terms : 1) Fact table 2) Dimension tables 3) Star schema 4) Snowflake schema. Set A
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2) Explain in detail how database administrator tunes database at schema level. 3) Give the different geometric constructs which can be represented in a database. 4) Explain quad trees. 5) Write a short note on TCP benchmarks. 6) Explain long duration transactions. 6. Attempt any one : 10 1) List and explain equivalence rules for query optimization. 2) Explain TP monitor architectures. 7. Consider the below table and find result using rollup, cube operator and cross tabulation by item_id and color. 10
Item_id Color Size Quantity Skrit dark Small 2 Skrit dark Medium 5 Skrit dark Large 1 Skrit Pastel Small 11 Skrit Pastel Medium 9 Skrit Pastel Large 15 Skrit White Small 2 Skrit White Medium 5 Skrit White Large 3 Dress dark Small 2 Dress dark Medium 6 Dress dark Large 12 Dress Pastel Small 4 Dress Pastel Medium 3 Dress Pastel Large 3 Dress White Small 2 Dress White Medium 0 Dress White Large 2 Shirt dark Small 6 Shirt dark Medium 6 Shirt dark Large 4 Shirt Pastel Small 1 Shirt Pastel Medium 2 Shirt Pastel Large 17 Shirt White Small 1 Shirt White Medium 10 Shirt White Large 14 Set A ______
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*SLRPC284* SLR-PC 284
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N o . B.E. (I.T.) (Part I) Examination, 2015 OBJECT ORIENTED MODELLING AND DESIGN (Elective I)
Day and Date : Friday, 8-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Figures drawn by pencil, ruler only indicate full marks. 3) Do not use pen to draw and label the diagrams. 4) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : 20 1) Which of the following statement is true concerning objects and/or classes ? a) An object is an instance of a class b) A class is an instance of an object c) An object includes encapsulates only data d) A class includes encapsulates only data 2) What is the relationship between these two use cases ? Submit License Submit Driving Application License Application
a) Include b) Extension c) Generalization d) Association 3) In an activity diagram, when an activity state is completed, processing moves to another State ______are used to mark this movement. a) Dashed Arrow b) Links c) Transition d) All of the above 4) An abstract class is which of the following ? a) A class that has direct instances, but whose descendants may have direct instances b) A class that has no direct instances, but whose descendants may have direct instances c) A class that has direct instances, but whose descendants may not have direct instances d) A class that has no direct instances, but whose descendants may not have direct instances 5) An interface is a) A set of classes used on a collaboration b) A set of operations used to specify a service of a class or component c) A set of attributes used on an operation d) A set of objects used to provide a specific behaviour 6) The Unified Modelling Language a) Is a notation useful for graphically depicting an object-oriented analysis or design model b) Allows one to capture design decisions of a system c) Promotes communication among key personnel involved in development d) All of the above P.T.O.
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7) A state chart diagram describes a) Attributes of objects b) Nodes of the system c) Operations executed on a thread d) Events triggered by an object 8) A diagram that shows the static structure of an object-oriented model is called a) Structure diagram b) Class diagram c) Entity diagram d) None of the above 9) Composition is a stronger form of which of the following ? a) Aggregation b) Encapsulation c) Inheritance d) All of the above 10) ______indicates how many objects participate in a given relationship. a) Bound b) Multiplicity c) Role d) Relationship 11) A dynamic model is a collection of ______diagrams that interact with each other via shared events. a) Sequence b) State c) Use case d) Activity 12) Unified Process is a software development methodology which is a) Component-driven b) Iterative and incremental c) Related to Extreme Programming d) Done in only one iteration 13) A data store is a ______object within a data flow diagram that stores data for later access. a) Active b) Dynamic c) Passive d) All of the above 14) ______diagrams show the physical configurations of software and hardware. a) Component b) Deployment c) Collaboration d) None 15) The deployment diagram shows a) Objects of a system b) Distribution of components on the nodes in a system c) Functions of a system d) Distribution of nodes 16) An object can have which of the following multiplicities ? a) Zero b) One c) More than one d) All of the above 17) Sequence diagrams document the ______between classes. a) Communication b) Interaction c) Relation d) Both a) and c) 18) In order to model the relationship a course is composed of 5 to 20 students and one or more instructors, you could use a) Aggregation b) Association c) Composition d) Realization 19) Use Cases are used in the ______phase of software development to articulate the high-level requirements of the system. a) Analysis b) Design c) Documentation d) Development 20) The activity diagram a) Models the interaction between objects b) Models the external events stimulating one object c) Focuses on the transitions between states of a particular object d) Focuses on flows driven by internal processing
______
Set A
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*SLRPC284* -3- SLR-PC 284
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N o .
B.E. (I.T.) (Part I) Examination, 2015 OBJECT ORIENTED MODELLING AND DESIGN (Elective I)
Day and Date : Friday, 8-5-2015 Max. Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Figures drawn by pencil, ruler only indicate full marks. 3) Do not use pen to draw and label the diagrams.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four : (4×5=20)
a) Draw an Event trace diagram for a phone call.
b) Explain the three views of modelling systems.
c) Explain features of object oriented languages.
d) Draw one-shot state diagram for chess game.
e) Explain concurrency with respect to dynamic modelling.
3. Draw any one : 10
Prepare a class diagram for building using below mentioned classes showing at least 10 relationships among the following classes. Include association, aggregation and generalization. Use qualified associations and show multiplicity balls in your diagrams. Use association names where needed. As you prepare the diagrams you may add additional classes : (building, sink, freezer, refrigerator, table, light, switch, window, smoke, alarm, burglar, cabinet, bread, cheese, ice, door, kitchen).
OR Draw a functional model of Flight Simulator.
4. State and explain following with graphical notation : 10
a) Association
b) Association End
c) N-ary Association
d) Generalization
e) Dependency. Set A
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SECTION II
5. Attempt any four : (4×5=20) a) Explain aggregation and composition with example. b) Give UML notations for the elements of Deployment Diagram. i) Node ii) Node Instance iii) Node Stereotypes iv) Artifact. c) Draw class diagram for software written to control a coffee vending machine. d) What is package ? Explain importing and exporting concepts with notations. e) Short note : Extension Mechanism in UML.
6. Draw any one : 10 Draw use case for application taking advantage of full UML notation for a car rental application. The rental agency has multiple offices/locations where customers can test drive and then select a car for rental (local or outstation). The period of rental, terms and conditions for rental are flexible. Software has to take responsibilities for loaning cars, keeping track of availability of cars, returns of cars, billing, maintenance activities for car, keeping track of drivers availability and assignment in case of chauffeur driven car rental. OR Draw a collaboration diagram for a typical scenario Admission of a student to an elective course.
7. Explain Sequence diagram with its graphical notations. Also draw a labelled sequence diagram for Hotel reservation and confirmation. 10
______
Set A
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Seat Set No. A B.E. (Information Technology) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 INFORMATION RETRIEVAL Day and Date : Wednesday, 13-5-2015 Total Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. 3) All questions are compulsory. 4) Figures to the right indicate marks to a question.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20
1. A) Choose correct alternative(s) : 10 1) Which of the following model is algebraic model ? a) Boolean b) Vector c) Probabilistic d) All 2) One needs to determine what are the features which better describe the objects in the set. Set of features provides quantification of ______a) Intracluster similarity b) Intercluster dissimilarity c) Intercluster similarity d) None of the above 3) If relevant set of documents with respect to query q has 10 documents and answer set to query has retrieved 15 documents. If the fifth document in answer set is relevant then we have precision is ______%. a) 10% b) 9% c) 100% d) 20% 4) Hytime is ______architecture. a) XML b) HTML c) SGML d) HTP 5) In automation of approximate string matching algorithm, horizontal arrow represents ______of a character. a) Match b) Insertion c) Deletion d) Replacement
P.T.O.
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6) ______provides security and can respond to repository access protocol in digital library. a) Digital objects b) Handles c) Repositories d) None of the above 7) IMAGE data type to store images is supported by ______a) ORACLE b) ACCESS c) Sybase SQL d) SQL3 8) In ______retrieval, single erroneous object among thousands, mean total failure. a) Multimedia b) Information c) Data d) All 9) ______predicates can be answered by using same form of metadata and database schema. a) Attribute b) Structural c) Semantic d) All 10) GEMINI approach to solve cross-talk problem in two dimensional color images is ______a) Distance between Histograms b) Single Average of RGB values c) Average color vector d) Differences of averages of RGB values B) Match correctly : 5
1) Harmonic Mean a) | Ra | / | R | 2) E Measure b) |Rk| / |U| 3) Coverage c) 2/(1/r(j) + 1/ p(j)) 4) Novelty d) 1 – [(1 + b2)/(b2/r(j) + 1/p(j))]
5) Recall e) | Ru| / (|Ru| + |Rk|) C) State whether the following statement is True or False : 5 1) GIF is associated with video game boards. 2) Browsing and searching are the same tasks. 3) Index term weights are binary in probabilistic model. 4) A pattern is a set of semantic features that must occur in a text segment. 5) Signature files are word oriented index structures based on hashing.
______
Set A
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*SLRPC285* -3- SLR-PC – 285
Seat No.
B.E. (Information Technology) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 INFORMATION RETRIEVAL
Day and Date : Wednesday, 13-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Figures to the right indicate marks to a question.
SECTION – I
2. Attempt any four : 20 1) State Zipf’s law, Heap’s law with applications. 2) What is ranking ? Define Ranking function of Boolean model, vector model and probabilistic model. 3) How to find edit distance ? Find the edit distance between the words ‘zeil’ and ‘trial’. 4) How to search on an inverted index ? 5) How to get the logical view of the document ? 6) Explain in detail hierarchical model : PAT Expressions.
3. Attempt any one : 10 1) Explain the construction of suffix arrays for large text. 2) Construct NFA for the pattern ‘retrieval’ with maximum allowed errors 2. Using automata find whether the word ‘retrieves’ will be accepted or not. Justify your answer.
4. Find distance between two strings ‘invention’ and ‘intent’ using dynamic programming. 10
Set A
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SECTION – II
5. Attempt any four : 20 1) What are metasearchers ? What are their advantages and disadvantages ? 2) Explain Crawler-index architecture with disadvantages. 3) Explain different techniques of crawling web. 4) State the differences in traditional IR system and multimedia IR system. 5) Explain different aspects required to consider in designing a multimedia query language. 6) Write GEMINI approach.
6. Attempt any one : 10 1) Explain MULTOS model with suitable example. 2) Explain architectural issues in digital library.
7. Explain how to search a collection of time series to find the ones that are similar to desirable series using GEMINI approach. 10
______
Set A
www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC286* SLR-PC – 286
Seat No. Set A B.E. Information Technology (Part – II) Examination, 2015 MOBILE COMPUTING Day and Date : Friday, 15-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20
1. Write the correct answer from the options given below (objective). (20×1=20) 1) Wireless signal parameter/s is/are a) Amplitude b) Frequency c) Phase d) All of above 2) ______is not antenna type used in wireless radiation. a) Omni direction b) Sectorized c) Smart d) Shadowing 3) In signal propagation following is not true a) within certain radius tramission is possible b) transmission signal can mix up with noise in detection range c) interference range is larger than detection range d) none 4) Radio wave can exhibit fundamental propagation depend on frequencies a) Ground wave b) Sky wave c) Line of sight d) All of above 5) Radio channel impairment is called ______propagation. a) Multipath b) Dealy c) Both d) None 6) ______is not multiplexing type. a) Space b) Time c) Frequency d) Phase 7) Disadvantage of cellular system a) Infrastructure b) Handover c) Frequency planning c) All of above P.T.O.
www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 286 -2- *SLRPC286* 8) ______spread spectrum performs XOR with user bits. a) Direct sequence b) Frequency hopping c) Both d) None 9) ______maintains radio connection to MS. a) BSS b) BTS c) BSC d) None 10) ______interface contains mechanism for wireless like TDMA, CDMA etc. a) Um b) Abis c) Both d) None 11) ______defines current location of mobile node. a) COA b) Foreign again c) Home network d) None 12) ______segment has two segments of fixed part and wireless part. a) Indirect TCP b) Snooping TCP c) Both d) None 13) The two binary values 1 and 0 are represented by two different amplitudes in case of a) PSK b) TDM c) ASK d) FSK 14) MAC frame in wireless LAN not contain a) Checksum b) Sequence control c) Data d) IP 15) Handover latency is more in a) Indirect TCP b) Snooping TCP c) Both d) None 16) Time out freezing TCP is ______dependent. a) MAC b) Split c) Both d) None 17) ______is standard security mechanism of 802.11. a) WEP b) WAP c) Both d) None 18) One of the following is not true about Infrared transmission a) simple and cheap b) penetrate wall c) reflects wall d) none 19) Indirect TCP has problem of a) security b) latency c) handover d) all of the above 20) IP in mobile network layer is type of a) routing b) encapsulation c) tunneling d) none ______Set A
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*SLRPC286* -3- SLR-PC – 286
Seat No.
B.E. Information Technology (Part – II) Examination, 2015 MOBILE COMPUTING Day and Date : Friday, 15-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instruction : Figures to right indicate full marks.
SECTION – I
2. Answer any two of the following. 14 a) Explain in wireless transmission different frequencies for radio transmission. b) Explain in wireless transmission role of antenna. c) Explain in wireless transmission in frequency Multiplexing. 3. Answer any two of the following. 14 a) Explain in detail the PRMA packet reservation multiple access protocols used in wireless systems. b) Describe the concept of frequency reuse and explain why the cells having hexagonal pattern. c) Compare FDMA, TDMA, CDMA and SDMA. 4. Write short note on following. 12 a) Localization and calling in GSM. b) Handover.
SECTION – II 5. Answer any two of the following. 14 a) Explain Bluetooth piconet with diagram. b) What are the advantages and disadvantage of wireless LAN ? c) Compare Wireless LAN and Wired LAN in detail.
Set A
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6. Attempt any two of the following. 14 a) Define and explain role of different entities of network layer.
b) Explain the concept of mobile IP. c) How IP in IP encapsulation functions ? 7. Compare the following. 12
a) Indirect TCP and MTCP. b) Snooping TCP and Transaction oriented TCP.
______
Set A
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*SLRPC287* SLR-PC 287
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o . N A B.E. (I.T.) (Part II) Examination, 2015 NETWORK SECURITY Day and Date : Monday, 18-5-2015 Total Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20
1. Choose the correct alternative : (20×1=20) 1) ECB and CBC are what type of ciphers ? a) Block b) Stream c) Field d) None of the above 2) ______means that a sender must not be able to deny sending a message that he sent. a) Confidentiality b) Integrity c) Authentication d) Non repudiation 3) Digital signature provides a) Authentication b) Non-repudiation c) Both (a) and (b) d) Neither (a) nor (b) 4) A ______is a trusted third party that assigns a symmetric key to two parties. a) KDC b) CA c) KDD d) None of the above 5) Masquerade in communication systems means a) This attack may have a specific target b) Takes place when one entity pretends to be different entity c) The message are delayed d) Others 6) ______provides privacy, integrity and authentication in e-mail. a) IPSec b) SSL c) PGP d) None of the above 7) Mechanism to protect private networks from outside attack is a) Firewall b) Antivirus c) Digital signature d) Formatting 8) Substitution ciphers a) The order of plaintext letters is rearranged during encryption b) Letters of the plaintext messages are replaced with other letters during the encryption c) (a) and (b) d) None of the above P.T.O.
www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 287 -2- *SLRPC287* 9) Release of message contents means a) Obtain information that is being transmitted b) Telephone conversation, email message and transferred files c) Attack that have a specific target d) Others 10) Cryptanalysis is used a) to find some insecurity in a cryptographic scheme b) to increase the speed c) to encrypt the data d) none of the mentioned 11) What is Data Encryption Standard (DES) ? a) Block cipher b) Stream cipher c) Bit cipher d) None of the mentioned 12) Which one of the following algorithm is not used in asymmetric-key cryptography ? a) RSA algorithm b) Diffie-hellman algorithm c) Electronic code book algorithm d) None of the mentioned 13) In asymmetric key cryptography, the private key is kept by a) sender b) receiver c) sender and receiver d) all the connected devices to the network 14) Kerberos is an encryption-based system that uses a) Secret key encryption b) Public key encryption c) Data key encryptio d) None of the above 15) An attempt to slow down or stop a computer system or network by flooding the system with requests for information is called a a) Virus b) Worm c) Denial-of-service attack d) Trojan horse 16) A ______can help to avoid loss of information and data and protect computer systems from access by unauthorized persons. a) firewall b) password c) disaster recovery plan d) backup files 17) The round cipher based on the Rijindael algorithm that uses a 128-bit block of data. a) AEE b) AED c) AER d) AES 18) People who gain unauthorized access to computers for the purpose of doing damage are called a) employees b) hackers c) members of organized crime d) intruders 19) DES has an initial and final permutation block and ______rounds. a) 14 b) 15 c) 16 d) 32 20) Hashed message is signed by a sender using a) his public key b) his private key c) receivers public key d) receivers private key ______Set A
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*SLRPC287* -3- SLR-PC 287
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N o .
B.E. (I.T.) (Part II) Examination, 2015 NETWORK SECURITY Day and Date : Monday, 18-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION I
2. Write short notes on (any four) : 20 a) Digital Signature. b) Security Services (X.800). c) Feistel Cipher Structure. d) Differentiate Substitution Technique and Transposition Technique. e) Public Key Cryptosystem. f) Stenography.
3. List and explain in different types of Security Attacks in detail with diagram. 10 OR Describe RSA algorithm with example.
4. Describe the following with diagram : 10 i) ECB ii) CBC iii) CFB iv) OFB v) CTR
Set A
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SECTION II
5. Write short notes on (any four) : 20 a) Intrusion Detection Techniques. b) Virus and its types. c) X.509 Authentication Procedure. d) S/MIME Certificate Processing. e) PGP Services. f) IP Security Services and Associations.
6. What is Firewall ? Explain types of firewall with diagram. 10 OR What is SET ? Explain SET participants with diagram in detail.
7. Explain in detail with diagram : 10 i) SSL Architecture ii) SSL Record Protocol and its Operation.
______
Set A
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Seat Set No. A B.E. (Information Technology) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 SOFTWARE TESTING AND QUALITY ASSURANCE (Elective – II) Day and Date : Wednesday, 20-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q. P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. 3) All questions are compulsory. 4) Figure to the right indicates full marks. 5) Assume suitable data if necessary. 6) Figure must be draw wherever necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20
1. Solve multiple choice questions : (20×1=20) 1) ______test determines whether the distribution of some sequence of events has changed in some way. a) Change-point b) One-sample run c) Two-groups d) Binomial 2) ______complexity measures the effort required to understand the software. a) Problem b) Algorithm c) Structural d) Cognitive 3) The nature of presentation depends on the ______a) Style b) Method c) Notation used d) All of the above 4) ______are intended to measure the amount of functionality in a system. a) Function points b) DeMarco’s specification weight c) Reuse d) None of these 5) The ______measure based on the number of entities in the entity relationships model. a) Complexity b) Data bang c) Function bang d) None of these 6) A ______is one in which there are no repeated edges. a) In degree b) Out degree c) Path d) Simple path 7) The ______addresses the sequence in which instructions are executed in a program. a) Control flow b) Data flow c) Data structure d) None of these
P.T.O.
www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 288 -2- *SLRPC288* 8) ______flow graphs are cannot be decomposed nontrivially by sequencing or nesting. a) Prime b) Generalized c) Structured d) None of these 9) Performance evaluation is generally concerned with meaning ______, a product attribute. a) Efficiency b) Quality c) Data d) None of these 10) ______are collection of software related activities. a) Resources b) Products c) Processes d) None of these 11) Which of the following is not used in measuring the size of the software ? a) KLOC b) Function points c) Size of module d) None of these 12) Which of the following is non-functional testing ? a) Black box testing b) Performance testing c) Unit testing d) None of the mentioned 13) Testing done without planning and Documentation is called a) Unit testing b) Regression testing c) Adhoc testing d) None of the mentioned 14) Acceptance testing is also known as a) Grey box testing b) White box testing c) Alpha testing d) Beta testing 15) How many product quality factors are proposed in McCall quality model ? a) 2 b) 3 c) 11 d) 8 16) Suitability, Accuracy, Interpolability and security are what type quality attribute of ISO 9126 ? a) Reliability b) Efficiency c) Functionality d) Usability 17) Which granularity level of testing checks the behaviour of module cooperation ? a) Unit testing b) Integration testing c) Acceptance testing d) Regression testing 18) A set of inputs, execution preconditions and expected outcomes is known as a a) Test plan b) Test case c) Test document d) Test Suite 19) When does the testing process stops ? a) When resources (time and budget) are over b) When some coverage is reached c) When quality criterion is reached d) Testing never ends 20) Which of the following is black box testing strategy ? a) All Statements Coverage b) Control Structure Coverage c) Cause-Effect Graphs d) All paths Coverage ______Set A
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*SLRPC288* -3- SLR-PC – 288
Seat No.
B.E. (Information Technology) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 SOFTWARE TESTING AND QUALITY ASSURANCE (Elective – II)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 20-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Figure to the right indicates full marks. 3) Assume suitable data if necessary. 4) Figure must be draw wherever necessary.
SECTION – I
2. Solve any four : (4×5=20) a) Explain with example modularity and information flow attributes. b) Explain COCOMO2.0 and DeMarco’s approach with example. c) State and explain the aspects of software size. d) Explain all statistical tests used to analyze data. e) Explain the software quality with verification and validation.
3. Explain the following w.r.t. software measurement data with example. 10 a) Sampling, population and data distribution. b) Linear regression and robust regression. c) Multivariate data analysis and principal component analysis.
4. Write short note (any two) : (2×5=10) 1) Software measurement validation 2) Reuse and functionality 3) Sequencing and nesting.
Set A
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SECTION – II
5. Attempt any four : (4×5=20) a) Explain the ISO 9000 : 2000 (Requirements) document for quality assurance. b) Explain the selection of Acceptance testing.
c) Explain factors influencing software reliability. d) Define and list McCall’s quality factors. e) What are the limitations of control flow based testing ?
6. Write short note (any two) : (2×6=12) 1) Unit testing 2) Goal estimates
3) Team building.
7. Explain the ON and OFF points and test selection criteria for domain testing. 8
______
Set A
www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC289* SLR-PC – 289
Seat No. Set A B.E. (I.T.) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 Elective – II : MOBILE APPLICATION DEVELOPMENT Day and Date : Wednesday, 20-5-2015 Total Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. 2) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 3) Assume data if necessary. 4) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Objective type questions. Choose the correct option. (20×1=20) 1) Android system uses intents to A) broadcast system intents B) broadcast custom intents C) to invoke other applications from your application D) all of the above 2) Should always first check availability of audio effects by calling the following method on the corresponding audio effect class. A) ischeckable () B) isavailable () C) isvaluable () D) isview () 3) Applications that require filtering based on screen size can use the attributes. A) www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 289 -2- *SLRPC289* 8) What is the driving force behind an Android application and that ultimately gets converted into a Dalvik executable ? | Android A) Java source code B) R-file C) The emulator D) The SDK 9) While developing Android applications, developers can test their apps on A) Emulator included in Android SDK B) Physical Android phone C) Third-party Emulators (Youwave, etc.) D) All three options will work 10) How can I check if an activity is already running before starting it ? A) New_TASK_LAUNCH in the startActivity() method call B) FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK in the startActivity() method call C) FLAG_ACTIVITY_SINGLE_TOP in the startActivity() method call D) BY using www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC289* -3- SLR-PC – 289 Seat No. B.E. (I.T.) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 Elective – II : MOBILE APPLICATION DEVELOPMENT Day and Date : Wednesday, 20-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions from Section I and II are compulsory. 2) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 3) Assume data if necessary. SECTION – I 2. Attempt any four of the following : (5×4=20) a) Draw Android platform architecture. Show the layers in the software stack. b) Demonstrate activity life-cycle states and methods. c) What is layout ? Explain types of layout with examples. d) Draw and explain Service States and Life-Cycle Methods. e) Define Broadcast Receiver. Explain TelephonyManager API and its usage. 3. a) Define notification mechanism with example. State the advantage of using notification. Write a java code to create a notification. 10 OR b) Explain Mobility Landscape and Ecosystem in Mobile Application. 4. Describe the following aspects of intent with respect to activities. 10 1) Navigation between activities 2) Exchanging data. SECTION – II 5. Attempt any four of the following : (5×4=20) a) Explain the intent object that is used to capture a video using the built-in app mechanism. b) Define MediaRecorder API. List MediaRecorder object’s life cycle methods and states. c) Define the types of animations supported by Android. d) Write a note on RELATIONAL DATA. e) What is the use of Android JUnit framework ? Draw and explain a test project hierarchy. 6. How to use the MediaRecorder and camera objects to capture a video ? Write java code for the above. 10 7. Explain the purpose of Motion, Position and Environment sensors with one real-life use case in each. 10 ————————— Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC29* SLR-PC – 29 Seat No. Set A T.E. (Civil) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 DESIGN OF STEEL STRUCTURES (New) Day and Date : Tuesday, 5-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. 1) Minimum edge distance of bolted joint for machine cut edge is not less than 1 a) 2.5 times diameter of bolt b) 1.5 times diameter of bolt c) 1.7 times diameter of bolt d) 1.5 times diameter of bolt hole 2) High Strength Friction Grip Bolts (HSFG) are designed for 1 a) Tension b) Friction c) Compression d) Shear 3) Which of the following is not limit state of serviceability ? 1 a) Deflection b) Vibration c) Brittle failure d) Fire 4) The square root of the ratio of moment of inertia of cross section to its cross sectional area is called 1 a) Second moment of area b) Section modulus c) Radius of gyration d) Slenderness ratio 5) Design tensile strength of tension member is given by 1 a) Rupture at critical section b) Yielding of gross section c) Block shear of end region d) Lesser of above three 6) The effective length of the member which is restrained against translation at one end and free agaisnt rotation at both ends is 1 a) 1.0 L b) 0.65 L c) 0.85 L d) 0.80 L 7) The design shear strength of a fillet weld is 1 γ γ γ a) y 3/f mw b) y 3/f c) y 3/f mo d) y 3/f mb 8) The best tension member section is 1 a) Dobule angle section on same side of gusset plate with outstanding legs are tack bolted or welded b) Double angle section on same side of gusset plate without outstanding legs are tack bolted or welded c) Double angle section on opposite sides of gusset plate with tack bolted or welded d) Double angle section on opposite sides of gusset plate without tack bolted or welded P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 29 -2- *SLRPC29* 9) A built up column is connected by lacing system and subjected to service load of 1000 kN. The lacing should be desinged to resist a transverse shear of 2 a) 25 kN b) 50 kN c) 37.5 kN d) 75 kN 10) The imposed load on flat sloping or curved roof with slopes upto 10°. When access is provieded is 1 a) 1500 N/m2 b) 1000 N/m2 c) 750 N/m2 d) 1225 N/m2 11) If the degree of permeability is low or normal permeability (upto 5% of wall area) the internal pressure coefficient cpi is 1 a) ± 0.2 b) ± 0.5 c) ± 0.7 d) ± 0.6 12) The depth of angle purlin (normal to roof convering) should not be less than 1 L L L L a) b) c) d) 45 60 50 65 13) The maximum slenderness ratio of the component member C/ry of the column between the consecutive lacing connections 1 a) Should not be greater than 0.7 times the most unfavourable slenderness ratio of the member as a whole b) Should not be greater than 50 c) Both a) and b) d) None of the above 14) The thinckness of the flat lacing bars between inner end bolts in case of signle lacing should not be less than –––––––––– of its effective length of single lacing. 1 1 1 1 1 a) b) c) d) 40 45 60 50 15) Allowable deflection in case of laterally supported beams is 1 L L L L a) b) c) d) 300 250 325 400 16) The thickness of base plate in slab base is given by 1 2.5ω(a2 − 0.3b2 ) γmo 2.5 ω2 (a − 0.3b) γ mo a) ts = b) ts = fy fy 2.5ω (a2 − 0.3b2 )γmo 2.5ω2 (a − 0.3b)γmo c) ts = d) ts= fy fy 17) The shape factor of reactangular section is 1 a) 1.0 b) 1.5 c) 1.17 d) 1.14 18) Purlin is a type of ______member. 1 a) tension b) compression c) flexure d) all of the above 19) The dead load of the truss is estimated from equation 1 ⎛ L ⎞ ⎛ L ⎞ a) w = ⎜ + 5⎟ × 10 b) w = ⎜ + 5⎟ × 10 ⎝ 3 ⎠ ⎝ 4 ⎠ ⎛ ⎞ L + c) w = ⎜ 10⎟ × 5 d) None of the above ⎝ 3 ⎠ Set A ______ www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC29* -3- SLR-PC – 29 Seat No. T.E. (Civil) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 DESIGN OF STEEL STRUCTURES (New) Day and Date : Tuesday, 5-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from Section I and II. 2) Assume suitable data if required and mention in clearly. 3) Figures to right indicate full marks. 4) Use of IS ; 800 – 2007, IS 875 Part III and steel table is permitted in examination. SECTION – I 1. a) Define pitch, edge distance and end distance. 3 2 b) An ISA 100 × 100 × 6 mm (fy = 250 N/mm ) is used as a strut in a truss. The length of the strut between intersections at each end is 3 m. Calculate the strength of strut if it is connected by two bolts at each end and the ends are fixed. Use Fe 410. 10 2. a) Define : 2 i) Plastic moment and ii) Plastic hinge. b) Design a tie of a roof truss subjected to factored design tensile force 250 kN using unequal angle section. Centre to centre length of intersection is 2.5 m. Also design welded connection 2 and draw the design details. Use fy = 250 N/mm , Fe 410. 12 3. Design a tension member using double unequal angle sections back to back on opposite sides of gusset plate of 10 mm thick which carries an axial factored load of 400 kN using 2 20 mm black bolt. Assume Fe 410 grade of steel and fy = 250 N/mm and also show design details. 13 4. Design a single angle discontinuous strut to carry a factored axial compressive load of 70kN. The length of strut is 3 m between intersections. It is connected by 12 mm thick 2 gusset plate by 20 mm diameter 4.6 grade bolts. Use steel of grade Fe410 and fy = 250 N/mm . Assume the ends to be fixed. 13 SECTION – II 5. A simply supported beam 5 m span carries uniformly distributed load of 40 kN/m. In addition, the beam carries a central point load of 50 kN. The beam is laterally supported. Design the section for shear and deflection. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 29 -4- *SLRPC29* Use the beam sections as below : 13 Sr. No. Designation Zp (mm3) 1 ISMB 400 1176.18 × 103 2 ISMB 450 1533.36 × 103 3 ISWB 400 1290.19 × 103 4 ISWB 450 1760.59 × 103 6. Check suitability of angle purlin ISA 100 × 75 × 8 mm with following details i) Dead load = 1.2 kN/m ii) Live load = 0.75kN/m iii) Wind load = 2.0 kN/m iv Spacing of truss = 4 mc/c. 13 7. Design built up column consisting of two channels placed facing each other and carrying a factored axial load of 1800 kN. The length of column is 8 m. It is effectively held in position at both ends and restrained against rotation at one end. Use steel Fe410 with fy 250 Mpa. Also design the lacing system. 14 8. Design the slab base for a built up column consisting of two channels ISLC 350 back to back separated by a distance of 220 mm and carrying a factored load 1800 kN concrete grade M10 and steel Fe410 bearing capacity of soil 350 kN/m2. 13 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC290* SLR-PC – 290 Seat No. Set A S.E. Electrical (Part – I) Examination, 2015 ENGG. MATHEMATICS – III Day and Date : Tuesday, 5-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct alternative : (20×1=20) 1) The complete solution of (D4 + 6D2 + 9) y = 0 is x –x a) y = (c1 + c2x)e + (c3 + c4x)e –x x b) y = (c1 + c2)e + (c3 + c4x)e c) y = (c + c x) + + 1 2 cos 3x (c3 c4x) sin 3x x x d) y = (c1 + c2 cosx)e + (c3 + c4 sinx)e 1 2) cos 3x = D2 + 9 x x − x x a) cos 3x b) sinax c) sin3x d) sin 3x 3 3 6 6 3) The P.I. of (D + 1)3 y = e–x is 3 3 −x 3 x − x − e x − a) e x b) e x c) d) e x 6 3 8 8 4) The P.I. of (x2D2 + xD + 1) y = 2 sin (log x) is a) – x cos x b) log x. sin logx c) log x. cos log x d) – log x. cos log x 5) The solution of p2 – q2 = 1 is a) z = ax + a2 − 1y + c b) z = ax + a2 + 1y + c c) z = ax + (a2 − 1)y + c d)z = ax + (a2 + 1)y + c 6) The solution of px2 + qy2 = z2 is ⎛ 1 1 1 1 ⎞ a)φ(x + y + z, x − y − z) = 0 b) φ⎜ − , − ⎟ = 0 ⎝ x y y z ⎠ c) φ()x2 + y2 + z2, xyz = 0 d) none of these 7) z{}1 = 1 z 1 z a) b) c) d) z − 1 z − 1 z + 1 z + 1 P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 290 -2- *SLRPC290* 8) If z {f (k)} = F(z) then z {f (k + n)} = a) z–n F(z) b) kF (z) c) zn F(z) d) nF (z) − ⎧ z ⎫ 9) z 1⎨ ⎬ = , for k ≥ 0, | z | > 3 ⎩z − 3⎭ a) (– 3)k b) –3k c) 3k d) 3 10) L{}e2t sin t = 1 1 1 1 a) b) c) d) s2 − 4 s2 − 1 s2 + 4s + 1 s2 − 4s + 5 − ⎧ 1 ⎫ 11) L 1⎨ ⎬ = ⎩(s + 2)2 ⎭ e−2t 1 a) e–2t.t b) c) e2t.t d) t t 4 12) L{}f′(t) = 1 a) f(0) – s L {f (t)} b) – f(0) + L {f (t)} c) L {}f(t) d) – f(0) + s L {f (t)} s 13) L−1{}φ(s + a) = a) eat L−1 {}φ(s) b) e−at L−1 {}φ(s) c) − t L−1{}φ(s) d) t L−1 {}φ(s) 14) Fourier expansion of an even function f(x) in (−π, π ) has only ______terms. a) sine b) cosine c) both sine and cosine d) none of these 15) The period of sin 9x is 2π a) 9 π b) 2 π c) 18π d) 9 16) The conditions for expansion of a function in a Fourier series are known as a) Harmonic b) Riemann conditions c) Periodic d) Dirichlets conditions 17) If r = xi + yj + zk and a is a constant vector then ∇(a ⋅r) = a) 2 a b) a c) r d) 2r 18) A vector F is solenoidal if a) ∇ ×F = 0 b) ∇. F = 0 c) ∇2 F = 0 d) ∇ × (∇. F) = 0 19) If φ = xy + yz + zx then at (1, 1, 1) grad φ = a) i + j + k b) 2i + 2j + 2k c) 2i – 2j + 2k d) i – j + k 20) The unit tangent vector to the curve x = t, y = t2, z = t3 at t = 1 is 1 1 1 1 a) (i + 2j + 3k) b) (i − 2j + 3k) c) (i + j + k) d) (i − j − k) 14 14 3 3 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC290* -3- SLR-PC – 290 Seat No. S.E. Electrical (Part – I) Examination, 2015 ENGG. MATHEMATICS – III Day and Date : Tuesday, 5-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Attempt any three questions from each Section. 2) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 3) Use of calculator is allowed. SECTION – I 2. a) Solve (D3 – 7D – 6) y = e2x (x + 1). 5 d2y dy b) Solve + = x2 + 4. 4 dx2 dx d2y dy []sin log x + 1 c) Solve x2 − 3x + y = . 5 dx2 dx x OR c) An e.m.f. E sinpt is applied at t = 0 to a circuit containing a condenser C and inductance L in series. The current x satisfies the equation 5 dx 1 − dq 1 L + ∫ x dt = E sinpt where x = . If p2 = and initially the current x and charge dt C dt LC q are zero, find the current in the circuit at time t. 3. a) Solve p = q (z – p). 4 b) Solve (x2 – yz) p + (y2 – zx) q = z2 – xy. 5 c) Solve the following differential equations by the method of separation of variables, ∂u ∂u − y = 0 . 4 ∂x ∂y ⎧ 1 ⎫ 4. a) Find z ⎨ ⎬ for all k. 5 ⎩4 k ⎭ z + 2 b) Find the inverse z-transform of F(z) = , z > 1. 4 z2 − 2z + 1 z 1 1 c) Find the inverse z-transform of F(z) = , < z < . 4 ⎡ 1⎤ ⎡ 1⎤ 5 4 ⎢z − ⎥ ⎢z − ⎥ ⎣ 4 ⎦ ⎣ 5⎦ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 290 -4- *SLRPC290* d2y dy 5. a) Solve (3x + 1)2 − 3(3x + 1) −12y = 9x . 4 dx2 dx b) Solve xzp + y2q2 = z2. 5 c) Find z {}2k cos (3k + 2) , k ≥ 0 . 4 SECTION – II 6. a) Find half range sine series for x sin x in (0, π ) and hence deduce that π2 1 1 1 1 1 1 = − + − + − + ... 7 8 2 12 32 52 72 92 112 ⎧ x , −1< x < 0 b) Expand f(x) = ⎨ in a Fourier series of period 2. 6 ⎩x + 2 , 0 < x < 1 2 2 − ⎧1 ⎛ s + a ⎞⎫ 7. a) Find L 1⎨ log ⎜ ⎟⎬ . 4 ⎩s ⎝ s2 + b2 ⎠⎭ b) Find Laplace transform of (1 + te–t)3. 4 c) Using Laplace transform solve (D2 + D – 2) x = 2 (1 + t – t2) given that x = 0, Dx = 3, for t = 0. 5 8. a) Find the angle between the normals to the surfaces x2y + 2xz = 4 at (2, – 2, 3) and to x3 + y3 + 3xyz = 3 at (1, 2, – 1). 5 2 ⎛ b ⎞ b) Prove that ∇ ⎜a + ⎟ = 0 ; a, b are constants. 4 ⎝ r ⎠ c) Prove that F = 2xy z2i + (x2z2 + z cos yz) j + (2x2yz + y cosyz) k is irrotational field and find its scalar potential. 5 s + 29 9. a) Find the inverse Laplace transform of 2 . 4 (s + 4) (s + 9) ⎛ a ×r ⎞ b) Prove that ∇ ⎜ ⎟ = 0 , where a = 5i − 6j − 8k and r = xi + yj + zk . 5 ⎝ r ⎠ π2 x2 c) Obtain Fourier series for f(x) = − in (−π, π). 4 12 4 OR − ⎧ s ⎫ c) Using convolution theorem find L.1 ⎨ ⎬ 4 ⎩(s2 + 1)2 ⎭ ————————— Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC291* SLR-PC 291 S e a t 5 A J ) N o . S.E. (Electrical Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015 ELECTRICAL MACHINES I Day and Date : Wednesday, 6-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Solve all the questions. 2) Assume suitable assumptions if any. 3) Q. No. I is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 I. Choose the correct answer : (1×20=20) 1) The basic requirement of DC armature winding is that it must be a a) A closed one b) A lap winding c) A wave winding d) Either b) or c) 2) A wave winding must go atleast ______around the armature befor it closes back where it started. a) Once b) Twice c) Thrice d) Four times 3) The DC armature winding in which coil sides are a pole pitch apart is called ______winding. a) Multiplex b) Fractional pitch c) Full pitch d) Pole pitch 4) For making coil span equal to a pole pitch in the armature winding of a dc generator the back pitch of the winding must equal the number of a) Commutator bars/pole b) Winding elements c) Armature conductors/path d) Armature parallel paths 5) In dc generators armature reaction is produced actually by a) Its field current b) Armature conductors c) Field pole winding d) Load current in armature 6) In dc generator the effect of armature reaction on the main pole flux is to a) Reduce it b) Distort it c) Reverse it d) Both a) and b) 7) The main disadvantages of Hopkinsons test for finding efficiency of shunt dc motors is that it a) Requires full load power b) Ignores any change in iron loss c) Needs one motor and one generator d) Requires two identical shunt machines 8) Retardation test on dc shunt motor is used for finding ______losses. a) Stray b) Copper c) Friction d) Iron P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 291 -2- *SLRPC291* 9) The Eb/V ratio of a dc motor is an indication of its a) Efficiency b) Speed regulation c) Starting torque d) Running torque 10) The mechanical power developed by the armature of dc motor is equal to a) Armature current multiplied by back emf b) Power input minus losses c) Power output multiplied by efficiency d) Power output plus iron losses 11) A transformer transforms a) Frequency b) Voltage c) Current d) Voltage and current 12) Which of the following is not a basic element of a transformer ? a) Core b) Primary winding c) Secondary winding d) Mutual flux 13) The main purpose of using core in a transformer is to a) Decrease iron losses b) Prevent eddy current losses c) Eliminate magnetic hysteresis d) Decrease reluctance of the common magnetic circuit 14) A transformer having 1000 primary turns is connected to a 250 V Ac supply for a secondary voltage of 400 V the number of secondary turns should be a) 1600 b) 250 c) 400 d) 1250 15) The primary and secondary induced Emf E1 and E2 in a two winding transformer are always a) Equal in magnitude b) Antiphase with each other c) In phase with each other d) Determined by load on transformer secondary 16) The primary and secondary winding of an ordinary 2-winding transformer always have a) Different number of turns b) Same size of copper wire c) A common magnetic circuit d) Separate magnetic circuits 17) In a transformer the leakage flux of each winding is proportional to the current in that winding because a) Ohms law applies to magnetic circuits b) Leakage paths donot saturate c) The two windings are electrically isolated d) Mutual flux is confined to the core 18) Which of the following connections is best suited for 3- , 4-wire service ? a) - b) Y-Y c) -Y d) Y- 19) In a 3- Y-Y transformer connection neutral is fundamental to the a) Suppression of harmonics b) Passage of unbalanced currents due to unbalanced loads c) Provision of dual electric service d) Balancing of phase voltages w.r.t. line voltages 20) As compared to - bank the capacity of V-V bank of transformer is ______percent. a) 5Y.Y b) 66.Y c) 50 d) 86.6 ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC291* -3- SLR-PC 291 S e a t N o . S.E. (Electrical Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015 ELECTRICAL MACHINES I Day and Date : Wednesday, 6-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Solve all the questions. 2) Assume suitable assumptions if any. SECTION I II. Answer any four questions : (4×5=20) 1) With a neat sketch explain the working principle of DC generator. 2) A separately excited generator when running at 1000 rpm supplied 200 A at 125 V. What will be the load current when the speed drops to 800 rpm ? If field current is unchanged. Given that the armature resistance is 0.04 and Brush drop is 2 V. 3) What do you mean by Back emf ? What is the significance of Back emf ? 4) A 4 pole, 240 V wave connected shunt motor gives 1119 kW. When running at 1000 rpm and drawing armature and field currents of 50 A and 1 A respectively. It has 540 conductors its resistance is 0.1 . Assuming a drop of 1V/Brush. Find a) Total torque b) Useful torque c) Useful flux/pole d) Rotational losses e) Efficiency 5) With a neat diagram explain the Swinburnes test for finding efficiency of the DC machine as a motor and as a generator. III. Answer any two questions : (10×2=20) 1) With a neat diagram explain the retardation test for finding losses. 2) The Hopkinsons test on two similar shunt machines gave the following full load data : Line voltage = 110 V, Line current = 48 A, Motor armature current = 230 A, Field currents 3 A and 3.5 A, Armature resistance of each is 0.035 . Calculate the efficiency of each machine assuming a brush drop of 1V/Brush. 3) A 200 V dc series motor takes 40 A when running at 700 rpm. Calculate the speed at which the motor will run and the current taken from the supply if the field is shunted by a resistance equal to the field resistance and the load torque is increased by 50%. Given that the armature and field resistances is 0.15 and 0.1 if may be assumed that flux/ pole is proportional to saturation. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 291 -4- *SLRPC291* SECTION II IV. Answer any four questions : (4×5=20) 1) With a neat sketch explain the working principle of a transformer. 2) A 30 KVA, 2400/120 V, 50 Hz, transformer has a HV winding resistance of 0.1 and a leakage reactance is 0.022 . The LV winding resistance is 0.035 and the leakage reactance is 0.012 . Find the equivalent winding resistance, reactance and impedances referred to the i) HV side ii) LV side. 3) How the mutual flux in the core of the transformer is constant for any desired load ? 4) The full load copper loss on the HV side of a 100 KVA 11000/317 V 1- transformer is 0.62 kW and on the LV side is 0.48 kW. Calculate i) R1, R2 and R3 in ohms ii) The total reactance is 4% find X1, X2 and X3 in ohms if the reactance is divided in the same proportion as resistances. 5) A 3- 6600/415 V, 200 KVA transformer has a P.V. resistance of 0.02 and a P.V. leakage reactance of 0.1 calculate the copper loss and regulation at full load 0.8 p.f. lagging. V. Answer any two questions : (10×2=20) 1) With a neat vector diagram explain the working of practical transformer connected with R and L load. 2) Derive an expression for saving of copper in auto transformer. 3) A 4 KVA, 200/400 V, 1- transformer has equivalent resistance and reactance referred to LV side equal to 0.5 and 1.5 respectively find the terminal voltage on the HV side th when it supplies ! full load at p.f. of 0.8 the supply voltage being 220 V. Hence find the " output of the transformer and its efficiency if the core losses are 100 w. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC292* SLR-PC – 292 Seat Set No. A S.E. (Electrical) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 ELECTRONICS DEVICES AND CIRCUITS Day and Date : Thursday, 7-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. N. B. : 1) Assume suitable data if any. 2) Use of data sheets are allowed. 3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q. P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct option : (20×1=20) 1) BJT act as amplifier if Q point is located a) towards saturation b) towards cut off c) centre of load line d) none 2) At low frequency, following capacitor will affect an frequency response of RC coupled CE amplifier. a) Ce (emitter by pass capacitor) b) Cc (coupling capacitor) c) Junction capacitor d) a) and b) 3) A BJT in CE configuration has IC = 10 mA and Ib = 100 μA find current gain a) 100 b) 10 c) 0.1 d) 0.001 4) A transistor is said to be in quiescent state when a) it is unbiased b) no signal is applied to it c) no current is flowing in it d) none 5) Loading effect seen in a) RC coupled amplifier b) Transformer coupled amplifier c) Class B d) Class A 6) Following transfer characteristics is for a) p channel E-MOSFET b) n channel E-MOSFET c) P channel D-MOSFET d) n channel D-MOSFET P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 292 -2- *SLRPC292* 7) Value of stability factor for fixed biasing is a) 1+ β b) 1− β c) less than 1 d) greater than β 8) The process of self destruction of transistor is called a) Biasing b) Thermal runway c) Early effect d) Compensation 9) A JFET always operates with a) gate to source reverse biased b) gate to source forward biased c) drain connected to ground d) gate connected to source 10) hre stands for a) voltage gain b) current gain c) input resistance d) none 11) In Hartley oscillator feedback circuit consists of a) Tank circuit b) Diode c) Bridge d) Potential divider network 12) In class A amplifier collector current flows for angle of θ a) θ = 180° b) θ = 360° c) θ > 180° d) 180° < θ < 360° 13) In voltage shunt feedback amplifier input resistance a) increases b) decreases c) remains constant d) none 14) If bypass capacitor is removed in CE amplifier the circuit has ______feedback. a) current series b) voltage series c) current shunt d) voltage shunt 15) Large signal amplifiers are also called as a) voltage amplifier b) power amplifier c) gain amplifier d) feedback amplifier 16) Feedback in amplifier helps to a) stabilize gain b) increase its gain c) decrease its input impedance d) none 17) An oscillator is a) alternator b) amplifier c) amplifier with positive feedback d) ac to dc convertor 18) The ripple frequency in FWR is a) Double the input frequency b) Equal to the input frequency c) Half the input frequency d) Zero frequency 19) Increase in load current for shunt capacitor filter a) Decreases ripple b) Increase in ripple c) Does not change ripple d) None 20) The constant current area of JFET lies between a) Cutoff and saturation b) Cutoff and pinch off c) 0 and IDSS d) Pinch-off and breakdown ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC292* -3- SLR-PC – 292 Seat No. S.E. (Electrical) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 ELECTRONICS DEVICES AND CIRCUITS Day and Date : Thursday, 7-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. N. B. : 1) Assume suitable data if any. 2) Use of data sheets are allowed. SECTION – I 2. Solve any four : (4×5=20) 1) State how transistor affects the high frequency response characteristics of an amplifier. 2) Calculate the value of emitter current in the voltage divider bias with Vcc = 20 V, R1 = 100 K Ω , R2 = 10 K Ω , Rc = 6.8 K Ω , Re = 600 Ω , β = 100. 3) Explain need of Bleeder resistor in power supply. 4) Explain crossover distortion in power amplifier. 5) Compare C, L, LC, CLC filter. 3. Solve any two : (2×10=20) 1) Explain different biasing techniques and derive the expression for stability factor for any two techniques. 2) Design single stage RC coupled amplifier for the given requirement Voltage gain = 100, Ω Current gain = 250, Input resistance = 1.5 K , VBE = 0.6 V, Stability factor = 5, Supply voltage = 12 V, DC collector current = 6 mA. 3) Draw and explain transfer characteristics of n channel JFET with its small signal parameters. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 292 -4- *SLRPC292* SECTION – II 4. Solve any four : (4×5=20) 1) Explain and draw block diagram of feedback amplifier which has input resistance high and output resistance low. 2) Compare types of negative feedback used in amplifier. 3) How to overcome crossover distortion in power amplifier ? 4) Explain UJT relaxation oscillator. 5) Draw and explain power amplifier in which current conduction is for 360°. 5. Solve any two : (2×10=20) 1) Design power supply to supply 250 mA current at 100 Ω load resistor with minimum ripple 13% use centre tapped full wave rectifier with capacitor filter. 2) Explain types of negative feedback with block diagrams. 3) Show that efficiency of class B power amplifier is 79% and explain push pull class B power amplifier. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC293* SLR-PC – 293 Seat No. Set A S.E. (Electrical Engg.) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 ELECTRICAL MEASUREMENT AND INSTRUMENTATION Day and Date : Friday, 8-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : (20×1=20) 1) An 0-10 A ammeter has a guaranteed accuracy of 1 percent of full scale deflection. The limiting error while reading 2.5 A is a) 1% b) 2% c) 4% d) None of above 2) A wattmeter has a full scale range of 2500 W. It has an error ± 1% of true value. What would be range of reading if true power is 1250 W ? a) 1225 W – 1275 W b) 1245 W – 1255 W c) 1200 W – 1300 W d) 1237.5 W – 1262.5 W 3) Two resistances 100 Ω ± 5 Ω and 150 Ω ± 15 Ω are connected is series. If the deviations are standard deviations, the resultant resistance can be expressed as a) 250 Ω ± 20 Ω b) 250 Ω ± 10 Ω c) 250 Ω ± 15.8 Ω d) 250 Ω ± 10.6 Ω 4) A voltmeter has a resistance of 2000 Ω . When it is connected across d.c. circuit its power consumption is 2 mW. Suppose this voltmeter is replaced by a voltmeter of 4000 resistance, the power consumption will be a) 4 mW b) 1 mW c) 2 mW d) None of above 5) The reading of a polar type a.c. potentiometer when measuring the reactance of a coil are I = 12 < 13.8°, V = 27.8 < 29.7° is a) 2.317 Ω b) 0.634 Ω c) 2.22 Ω d) – 2.22 Ω 6) Frequency can be measured by using a) Maxwells Bridge b) Schering Bridge c) Heaviside Bridge d) Weins Bridge 7) The controlling Torque in a single phase power factor meter is provided by a) Spring control b) Gravity control c) Stiffness of suspension d) None of above 8) A phase sequence indicator rotates clockwise for phase sequence of RYB. If the phase sequence is changed to BRY it will rotate a) anticlockwise b) clockwise c) anticlockwise or clockwise d) none of above P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 293 -2- *SLRPC293* 9) An amplifier has an input signal voltage of 25 V and a noise voltage 2.5 V. The signal to noise ratio is a) 10 b) 100 c) 10 db d) none of the above 10) The condition for a resistor to have the same value of resistance at medium frequencies as with d.c. is a) CR2 = L b) CR2 = 2L c) CR2 = wL d) CR2 = 2wL 11) The input resistance of a cathode ray oscilloscope is the order of a) Tens of ohm b) Mega ohm c) Kilo ohm d) Fraction of an ohm 12) The source of emission of electrons in CRT is a) PN junction diode b) A barium and strontium oxide coated cathode c) Accelerating anodes d) Post accelerating anodes 13) The burden of current transformer is expressed in terms of a) Secondary winding current b) VA rating of transformer c) Voltage, current and power factor of secondary winding circuit d) None of the above 14) An aquadag is used in CRO to collect a) Primary electrons b) Secondary emission electrons c) Both primary and secondary emission electrons d) None of the above 15) A thin aluminum film is usually deposited on the non-viewing side of the phosphor because a) It act as a heat sink and prevent phosphor burn b) The light scattered from phosphor is reduced c) It does not allow the screen to be negatively charged d) All of the above 16) The main difference between the electronic and electrical instruments is that an electronic instrument contains a) An electronic device b) A transducer c) A digital read out d) Electrons 17) In a 31/2 digital volumeter, the largest number that can read is a) 0999 b) 1999 c) 4999 d) 9999 18) X-Y recorders a) Records one quantity with respect to another quantity b) Records one quantity on X-axis with respect to time on Y-axis c) Records one quantity on Y-axis with respect to time on X-axis d) None of the above 19) Time division multiplexing requires a) Constant data transmission b) Transmission of data samples c) Transmission of data at random d) Transmission of data of only one measured 20) The ratio and phase angle errors in potential transformer may be reduced by a) Increasing the exciting current b) Increasing the resistance and leakage reactance in the transformer c) Not employing turns compensation d) None of the above Set A ______ www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC293* -3- SLR-PC – 293 Seat No. S.E. (Electrical Engg.) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 ELECTRICAL MEASUREMENT AND INSTRUMENTATION Day and Date : Friday, 8-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Solve all questions. 2) Figures to right indicate full marks. 3) Make suitable assumptions if required. SECTION – I 2. Attempt any four questions : (4×5=20) a) Explain neat diagram, working of Electrodynamometer type instruments. b) Define : i) Linearity ii) Reproducibility iii) Deadzone iv) Drift v) Calibration c) A milli ammeter of 2.5 Ω resistance reads upto 100 mA. Calculate the resistance which is necessary to enable it to be used as. i) A voltmeter reading upto 10 V ii) An ammeter reading upto 10 A. d) The power input to a 3- Φ induction motor is read by two wattmeter. The readings are 920 W and 300 W. Calculate the power factor of the motor, and power drawn by the motor. e) Explain Schering Bridge. f) Explain Maximum demand indicator. 3. a) The inductance of moving iron with a full scale deflection of 90° at 1.5 A is given by L=+θ−θ−θ (180 40 423 )μ H, 10 Where θ is deflection in radian from zero position. Find : i) Spring Constant ii) Deflection for current of 1 A. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 293 -4- *SLRPC293* b) Schering Bridge has the following constants Arm AB- Capacitor of 0.4 μF in parallel with 1.5 K Ω resistance. Arm BC- Resistance of 3 K Ω Arm CD- Unknown capacitor Cx and Rx in series. Arm DA- Capacitance of 0.4 μF . Frequency = 1 KHz Determine Rx and Cx. 10 OR b) Explain in detail, the working of moving iron power factor meter. 10 SECTION – II 4. Solve any four : (4×5=20) 1) Describe with neat circuit diagram the working of Q-meter. 2) Explain with neat diagram working of integrating type DVM. 3) Show the internal structure of CRT and explain working. 4) Explain frequency division multiplexing. 5) Draw the block diagram of CRO and explain working. 6) Define the following terms as used for instrument transformer a) Transformation ratio b) Nominal ratio c) Turn ratio d) Ratio correction factor e) Burden. 5. Solve any two : (10×2=20) 1) Draw the typical phasor diagram of potential transformer. Derive equation for actual Transformation ratio. 2) Explain with neat block diagram working of digital multimeters. 3) Explain with the help of diagram, the working of basic strip chart recorder. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC294* SLR-PC 294 e a t S Set A N o . S.E. (Electrical Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015 POWER PLANT ENGINEERING Day and Date : Saturday, 9-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/d) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the corrct answer : 20 1) Solar thermal power generation can be had by using a) Solar ponds b) Flat plate collector c) Concentrating collectors d) None of these 2) Reflecting mirrors used for exploiting solar energy are called a) Diffusers b) Ponds c) Heliostats d) Mantle 3) In hydrothermal source of geothermal energy a) Hot water or steam is available b) Hot gases are available c) Molten lava is available d) None of the above 4) The disadvantage of renewable sources of energy is a) Lack of decidability b) Availability in low energy densities c) Intermittency d) All of the above 5) In Geothermal power plant waste water is a) Evaporated in ponds b) Discharged into sea c) Discharged back to earth d) Recirculated after cooling 6) In hydro power plants a) Initial cost is high and operating cost is low b) Initial cost as well as operating costs are high c) Initial cost is low and operating cost is high d) Initial cost as well as operating cost is low 7) Run way speed of a pelton wheel turbine is a) Full load speed b) Speed at no load c) 80% greater than normal speed d) No load speed when governor fails 8) Pelton wheels are installed on a) Run of river plants with pondage b) Run of river plants without pondage c) Base load plant d) High head plants P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 294 -2- *SLRPC294* 9) The air standard efficiency of a diesel engine depends on a) Compression ratio b) Speed c) Torque d) All of the above 10) Which of the following is generally not a constituent of coal ? a) Sulphur b) Moisture c) Chromium d) Hydrogen 11) In which part of the steam power plant the pressure of steam is less than the atmospheric pressure ? a) Condenser b) Boiler c) Turbine d) Super beater 12) In ideal diesel cycle the working substance is a) Air b) Diesel c) Mixture of air and diesel d) Any combustible gas 13) Which of the following is not an accessory for a boiler ? a) Feed water pump b) Condenser c) Economizer d) Air pre-heater 14) In a super-heater a) Pressure rises, temperature drops b) Pressure rises, temperature remains constant c) Pressure remains constant and temperature rises d) Both pressure and temperature remains constant 15) Which power plant cannot have single units of 100 MW capacity ? a) Steam power plant b) Nuclear power plant c) Hydroelectric power plant d) Diesel engine power plant 16) Supercharging of a diesel engine means a) Overloading the engine for peak load b) Operating the engine with age c) Operating engine at higher altitudes d) Supplying pressurized air during suction 17) Which of the following is not a part of diesel engine power plant ? a) Cooling tower b) Penstock c) Oil pump d) Strainer 18) An air filter is used in a) Nuclear power plants b) Steam power plants c) Diesel engine power plants d) Hydro-power plants 19) A regenerator in a gas turbine a) Reduces heat loss in exhaust b) Permits use of higher compression ratio c) Improves thermal efficiency d) Permits use of fuels of inferior quality 20) Which of the following will not assist in getting high power output from a compression ignition engine ? a) High compression ratio b) Fine atomization of fuel c) High charge density d) Large quantity of excess air ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC294* -3- SLR-PC 294 S e a t N o . S.E. (Electrical Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015 POWER PLANT ENGINEERING Day and Date : Saturday, 9-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. SECTION I 2. Solve any four (5 marks each) : (4×5=20) A) Discuss briefly about : i) Boilers ii) Super heater iii) Air preheater. B) Give the advantages and disadvantages of hydro power station. C) What are the types of fuels used in thermal power plants ? Explain in detail. D) A consumer has an annual consumption of 2,50,000 kwh. The charge is Rs. 100/- per kw of maximum demand plus 15 paise per kwh. Find the annual bill, if the load factor is 40%. E) Briefly explain how Two part tariff is most justified. F) Explain with neat sketch coal handling plant. 3. Solve any two (10 marks each) : (2×10=20) A) With the help of block diagram explain ash handling plant. B) Briefly discuss the classification of Hydro Power Plants and mention their merits and demerits. C) What is a Nuclear Reactor ? What are the main parts of a reactor ? Explain the function of each component with neat sketch. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 294 -4- *SLRPC294* SECTION II 4. Solve any four (5 marks each) : (4×5=20) A) Explain with neat sketch central receiver solar power plant. B) Explain with neat sketch the working of Francis turbine. C) Discuss concentrating collector system with neat sketch. D) Describe the desirable characteristics of a Tariff. E) Write a short note on (a) half life period (b) mass energy (c) binding energy. F) Write a short note on diesel engine. 5. Solve any two (10 marks each) : (2×10=20) A) Explain : (i) Horizontal axis wind mills. (ii) Vertical axis wind mills. With neat sketches. B) Explain with neat sketch closed cycle gas turbine power plant. Also explain function of supercharger and reheater. C) Explain with neat sketches different types of condensers in thermal power plant. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC295* SLR-PC – 295 Seat No. Set A S.E. (Electrical) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 NUMERICAL METHODS AND COMPUTER PROGRAMMING Day and Date : Wednesday, 13-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. 3) Attempt any three questions from each Section. 4) Use of calculator is allowed. 5) Use suitable data if required and state them clearly. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : (20×1=20) 1) Using Newton’s Raphson formula, the first approximation to the root of the equation 4 x – x – 10 = 0 near to x0 = 2 is a) 1.871 b) 1.671 c) 2.071 d) 2.271 2) In case of bisection method, the convergence is a) Linear b) Quadratic c) Very slow d) Very fast 3) The Newton-Raphson method fails when a) f′(x) is negative b) f′(x) is too large c) f′(x) is zero d) Never fails 4) The positive real root of the equation x3 – x – 11 = 0 lies between a) 0 and 1 b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 2 d) 3 and 4 5) Gauss-Seidal method converges only, if the co-efficient matrix is a) A singular matrix b) Non-singular matrix c) Upper triangular matrix d) Diagonally dominant 6) When Gauss Elimination method is used to solve set of equation AX = B, matrix A is transformed to ______matrix. a) Diagonal b) Upper triangular c) Identity d) None of these 7) Identify the method of solving simultaneous linear equations in which the coefficient matrix is expressed as the product of a lower and upper triangular matrix. a) Gauss-Jacobi’s b) Gauss Jordan c) LU factorization d) Gauss Seidel 1 8) If f(x) = , then the value of first divided difference of the argument 1 and 2 is equal to x2 3 − 4 4 − 3 a) b) c) d) 4 3 3 4 2 3 9) To fit a polynomial a0 + a1x + a2x + a3x to the given data of n observations, we require ______number of normal equations. a) 3 b) 2 c) 4 d) n P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 295 -2- *SLRPC295* 10) Newton’s divided difference formula is used to find polynomial, if given values of x are a) Equally spaced b) Odd numbers c) Unequally spaced d) Even numbers 11) In application of principle of least squares in fitting of a linear curve y = ax + b if yi = observed value of y at x = xi and Yi = calculated value of y at x = xi then n n ∑ − ∑ − 2 a) (y Yi ) is minimised b) (y Yi ) is minimised i = 1 i i = 1 i 2 ⎡ n ⎤ c) ⎢ ∑ (y − Y )⎥ is minimised d) None of these i i ⎣i = 1 ⎦ 12) If K1 = 0.1, K2 = 0.1150, K3 = 0.1171, K4 = 0.1359 and y(0) = 1 then by Runge Kutta method y(0.1) = ? a) 1.11668 b) 0.11668 c) 1.16186 d) 0.16186 13) The partial diff. equation Uxx – Uyy = 0 is a) Elliptic b) Parabolic c) Hyperbolic d) None of these 14) For the partial diff. equation Uxx + Uxy + Uyy = 0, which of the following statement is true ? a) it is elliptic for all values of x and y b) it is parabolic when x = 0 c) it is hyperbolic when x > 0 d) it is elliptic when x < 0 ⎛ 3 ⎞ 15) Error in Simpson’s ⎜ ⎟ rule is of the order ⎝ 8 ⎠ a) h2 b) h4 c) h5 d) h7 16) Romberg’s method is used to solve a) Ordinary differential equation b) Partial differential equation c) Integration d) Above all rd 17) In case of Simpson’s 1 rule, the interval is divided into 3 a) Equal even number b) Equal odd number c) Equal even or odd d) None of the above 18) Following is not a Newton Cotes method a) Simpson’s 1 rule b) Simpson’s 3 rule 3 8 c) Trapezoidal rule d) Crank Nicolson method 19) Euler’s approximation formula is given by a) yn+1 = yn + h f (xn–1, yn–1)b)yn+1 = yn + h f (xn, yn) c) yn+1 = yn + f (xn–1, yn–1)d)yn+1 = y0 + h f (xn, yn) 20) Romberg’s method is systematic refinement of a) Trapezoidal rule b) Simpson’s (3 ) rule 8 c) Simpson’s ( 1 ) rule d) None of above 3 ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC295* -3- SLR-PC – 295 Seat No. S.E. (Electrical) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 NUMERICAL METHODS AND COMPUTER PROGRAMMING Day and Date : Wednesday, 13-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Attempt any three questions from each Section. 2) Use of calculator is allowed. 3) Use suitable data if required and state them clearly. SECTION – I 2. a) Using bisection method, find a real root of the equation f(x) = 3x – 1+ sin x = 0 (up to four iterations). 5 b) Find a real root of the equation x2 – log x – 12 = 0 using Regula False method. 5 c) Use Newton Raphson method to find a root of the equation x3 – 3x – 5 = 0. 4 3. a) Solve the following system of equation by Gauss elimination method. 4 4x + y + 3z = 11 3x + 4y + 2z = 11 2x + 3y + z = 7 b) Use L. U. factorization method to solve 6 x + y – z = 1 3x + y + z = 1 4x + 3y + 2z = – 1. c) Solve the system by Jacobi’s method, in 5 iteration process. 3 10x + y + z = 12 2x + 10y + z = 13 2x + 2y + 10z = 14. 4. a) Fit a curve to the following data of the form y = aebx : 6 x: 2 4 6 8 10 y: 4.077 11.084 30.128 81.897 222.62 b) Find the function for the following data by Lagrange’s method. 7 x: 3 2 1 –1 y: 3 1215–21 Hence find y (4). 3 5. a) Obtained complex roots of the equation z + 1 = 0 (x0, y0) ≡ (0.25, 0.25) perform three iterations. 7 b) Fit a parabola to the following data of the form y = a + bx + cx2 6 x: 1234 5 6 7 89 y: 2678101111109 OR Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 295 -4- *SLRPC295* b) Solve the equations by Gauss-Jordan method. 6 x + 2y – 12z + 8w = 27 5x + 4y + 7z – 2w = 4 6x – 12y – 8z + 3w = 49 3x – 7y – 9z – 5w = – 11. SECTION – II 6. a) Solve ∇2u = −10(x2 + y2 + 10) over the square mesh with sides x = 0, x = 3, y = 0, y = 3 with u = 0 on the boundary and mesh length 1 unit. 6 dy 2 2 b) Using modified Euler method find y(0.2) given = x + y with y(0) = 1 by taking h = 0.1. 7 dx 7. a) Obtained by power method, numerically dominant eigen value and eigen vector of the matrix ⎡ 15 − 4 − 3⎤ A = ⎢− 10 12 − 6⎥ ⎢ ⎥ perform five iterations. 7 ⎣− 20 4 − 2⎦ b) Using Jacobi method, find all eigen values and the eigen vectors of the matrix. ⎡5 0 1⎤ A.= ⎢0 − 2 0⎥ 7 ⎢ ⎥ ⎣1 0 5⎦ rd 1 0.6 − 2 8. a) Use Simpson’s rule to find ∫ e x dx by taking seven ordinates. 4 3 0 1 dx ∫ b) Evaluate + correct to three decimal places using Romber’s method. 5 01 x c) Find first and second derivative for the following data : 4 x: 0 300 600 900 1200 1500 1800 y: 135 149 157 183 201 205 193 at x = 900. 6 dx 9. a) Compute ∫ by using Trapezoidal rule. 3 0 1+ x2 b) Solve Numerically 4Uxx = Utt with the boundary conditions u(0, t) = 0, u (4, t) = 0 and the initial conditions Ut (x, 0) = 0 and u(x, 0) = x (4 – x), taking h = 1 (for 4 times steps). 6 OR b) Apply Runge Kutta Method to find approximate value of y for x = 0.2 in steps of 0.1, if dy 2 = x + y given that y = 1 where x = 0. 6 dx c) Using inverse power method find the smallest eigen value of the matrix, perform 2 iterations. ⎡ 1 − 2⎤ A = . 4 ⎣⎢− 5 4⎦⎥ ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC296* SLR-PC – 296 Seat Set No. A S.E. (Electrical) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 ELECTRICAL MACHINES – II Day and Date : Friday, 15-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 I. All questions are compulsory, each carry 1 mark. (20×1=20) 1) The starting torque of a 3-phase squirrel cage induction motor is a) twice the full load torque b) 1.5 times the full load torque c) equal to full load torque d) None 2) 3ph Induction Motor runs at a) Syn.speed b) Greater than syn.speed c) Less than syn.speed d) None 3) The torque characteristics of 3-ph IM is similar to that of a) DC series motor b) DC shunt motor c) DC differentially compound motor d) DC cumulative compound motor 4) A 6-pole, 3-ph IM is connected to a 25 Hz supply and at full load rotor emf makes 105 complete cycles in 2 minutes. The full load % slip is a) 3.5 % b) 7.5 % c) 1.5 % d) 2.5 % 5) The frequency of rotor current in a 6 pole, 50 Hz, 3 ph IM running at 950 rpm is a) 2.5 Hz b) 1.5 Hz c) 5 Hz d) 0.05 Hz 6) The shape of the torque/slip curve of induction motor is a) parabola b) hyperbola c) rectangular parabol d) straight line 7) The power factor of an induction motor under no-load conditions will be closer to a) 0.2 lagging b) 0.2 leading c) 0.5 leading d) unity 8) Irrespective of the supply frequency, the torque developed by a SCIM is the same whenever ______is the same. a) supply voltage b) external load c) rotor resistance d) slip speed P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 296 -2- *SLRPC296* 9) In a SCIM, torque with autostarter is ______times the torque with direct- switching a) K2 b) K c) 1/K2 d) 1/K where K is the transformation ratio of the auto starter. 10) The starting torque of a 3-ph IM has max.value. The rotor pf is then a) 0.8 lag b) 0.5 lag c) 0.707 kg d) none 11) The starting winding of a single-phase motor is placed in the a) rotor b) stator c) armature d) field 12) In single phase IM capacitor is connected is series with a) Main wdg b) teaser wdg c) Damper wdg d) auxiliary wdg 13) The circle diagram of induction motor does not provide accurate results because it is a) a graphical method b) uses approximate equivalent circuit c) assume leakage reactaces to be constant d) all of above 14) In a blocked rotor test on an induction motor, the mechanical output of the motor is a) zero b) maximum c) quite large d) none of the above 15) The resistance split phase induction motor ha ______starting torque. a) high b) moderate c) very low d) none of the above 16) The least expensive fractional horse power motor is ______motor. a) shaded pole b) capacitor start c) split phase d) a c series 17) Magnetising current drawn by induction motor is the cause of their _____ power factor. a) Zero b) Unity c) Lagging d) Leading 18) Which motor develops large starting torque ? a) d.c. shunt motor b) slip ring induction motor c) squirrel cage IM d) none 19) The power scale of circle diagram of an induction motor can be found from a) stator resistance test b) no-load test only c) short-circuit test only d) none of the above 20) The starting torque of a three phase induction motor can be increased by a) increasing slip b) increasing current c) both a) and b) d) none of the above ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC296* -3- SLR-PC – 296 Seat No. S.E. (Electrical) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 ELECTRICAL MACHINES – II Day and Date : Friday, 15-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. II. Attempt any four : (4×5=20) 1) Derive the condition for maximum torque in case of 3 phase induction motor. 2) Explain the terms cogging and crawling effect of induction motor. 3) Find the ratio of max.torque to full load torque of a 4-pole, 50 Hz 3-ph IM : the other data of the motor is as follows : Rotor impedance/phase = (0.3 + j 1.2) ohm at standstill and full load slip 4 %. 4) Explain rotor resistance starter with neat circuit diagram. 5) Determine approximately the starting torque of an induction motor in terms of full-load torque when started by means of (a) a star-delta switch (b) an auto- transformer with 70.7 % tapping. Ignore magnetising current. The short-circuit current of the motor at normal voltage is 6 times the full-load current and the full-load slips is 4 percent. III. Attempt any two : (2×10=20) 1) Give the constructional details of 3 phase induction motor with suitable sketches. 2) The input power to a 6 pole, 3 ph, 50 Hz induction motor is 42 kw. The speed is 970 rpm. the stator losses are 1.2 kw and the friction and windage losses 1.8 kw. Find : i) the rotor cu loss and ii) efficiency of motor iii) BHP. 3) Explain construction and working of double cage induction motor and draw the equivalent circuit of double cage induction motor. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 296 -4- *SLRPC296* IV. Attempt any four : (4×5=20) 1) How O.C. (No load test) S.C. (Blocked rotor tests) data is used to evaluate equivalent circuit parameters of 3 ph IM. 2) Explain speed control of induction motor by pole changing method. 3) Explain rotor resistance speed control of 3 phase slip ring I.M. 4) Explain capacitor start capacitor run induction motor. 5) Explain about split phase induction motor. V. Attempt any two : (2×10=20) 1) Draw the circle diagram for a 3.73 kW, 200-V, 50- Hz, 4-pole, 3- ϕ star-connected induction motor from the following test data ; No-load : Line voltage 200 V, line current 5 A; total input 350 W Blocked rotor : Line voltage 100 V, line current 26 A; total input 1700 W Estimate from the diagram for full-load condition, the line current, power factor and also the maximum torque in terms of the full-load torque. The rotor Cu loss at stand still is half the total Cu loss. 2) A 2-pole, 240V, 50Hz, single phase induction motor has the following constants referred to the stator : ′ ′ R1 = 2.2 ohm; X1 = 3 ohm R2 = 3.8 ohm; X2 = 2.1 ohm; Xm = 86 ohm Find the stator current and input power when the motor is operating at a full load speed of 2820 rpm. 3) Why single phase induction motor is not self starting, how to made single phase induction motor self starting and explain cross field theory ? ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC297* SLR-PC 297 e a t S Set A N o . S.E. (Electrical) Part II Examination, 2015 ELEMENTS OF POWER SYSTEM Day and Date : Monday, 18-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. I is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 I. Choose the correct option. (20×1=20) 1) The material used for the manufacture of ground wire is a) Aluminium b) Galvanized steel c) Cast iron d) Stainless steel 2) The volume of copper required for an ac transmission line is inversely proportional to a) Current b) Voltage c) Power factor d) Both (b) and (c) 3) The highest transmission voltage used in India is a) 400 kV b) 220 kV c) 132 kV d) 765 kV 4) ACSR conductors have a) All conductors made of AL b) Outer conductor made of AL c) Inner conductor made of AL d) No conductor made of AL 5) The no. of discs in a string of insulators for 400 kV ac overhead transmission line lies in the range of a) 32 to 33 b) 22 to 23 c) 15 to 16 d) 9 to 10 6) The effect of corona is a) Increased energy loss b) Increased reactance c) Increased inductance d) none 7) The sag of transmission line is least affected owing to a) Weight of conductor b) Current through the conductor c) Temperature d) Ice deposited on the conductor 8) The inductance of transmission line is minimum when a) GMD is high b) GMR is high c) Both GMD and GMR are high d) GMD is low and GMR is high 9) The values of ABCD constants of short transmission line a) Z, 0, 1 and 1 b) 0, 1, 1 and Z c) 1, Z, 0 and 1 d) 1, 1, Z and 0 P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 297 -2- *SLRPC297* 10) Bundled conductors are used to a) Reduce inductance of line b) Reduce both inductance and capacitance c) Reduce corona loss d) Reduce both corona loss and line inductance 11) Bundled conductor reduces a) Surface dielectric stress of condr. b) Increase to line reactance c) Decrease the line capacitance d) All of the above 12) Suspension insulators are used for voltage beyond a) 33 kV b) 11 kV c) 400 V d) 66 kV 13) The maximum permissible value of fair weather corona loss for an HV line is a) 0.6 kW/3ph km b) 1.2 kW/3ph km c) 0.3 kW/3ph km d) 2.4 kW/3ph km 14) Under no load condition the current in a transmission line is because of a) Capacitance effect b) Corona effect c) Proximity effect d) Back flow from earth 15) Bedding on cable consists of a) Jute strands b) Hassian tape c) Paper tape comp. with a fibrous material d) Any one of the above 16) Breakdown of cable insulation occurs due to a) Thermal stability b) Puncture c) Tracking d) Any one of the above 17) Transposition of a transmission line is done to a) Reduce line loss b) Reduce skin effect c) Balance the line voltage drop d) Reduce corona 18) If the frequency of transmission system is changed from 50 Hz to 100 Hz the string efficiency a) will increase b) will decrease c) remain unchanged d) may increase 19) Which of the following is usually not the generating voltage ? a) 6.6 kV b) 9.9 kV c) 11 kV d) 13.2 kV 20) Ferranti effect happens in transmission line when the line is a) Short and loaded b) Long and loaded c) Long and unloaded d) None of these ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC297* -3- SLR-PC 297 S e a t N o . S.E. (Electrical) Part II Examination, 2015 ELEMENTS OF POWER SYSTEM Day and Date : Monday, 18-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. II. Attempt any four : (4×5=20) 1) Derive equation for conductor material required in single phase 2-wire AC with one conductor earthed compare with 2 wire DC system. 2) Explain phenomenon of corona. Write advantages and disadvantages. 3) Define string efficiency. Explain methods of improving string efficiency. 4) A 2 conductor cable 1 km long is required to supply a const. current of 200 A throughout the year. The cost of cable including installation is Rs. (20 a + 20) per metre where a is area of X-section in cm2. The cost of energy is 5 paise per KWh and interest and depreciation charges 10%. Calculate economical conductor size. Assume resistivity of conductor material to be 1.73 cm. 5) What are the properties of insulating material used in underground cable ? Describe any three insulating materials. III. Attempt any two : (2×10=20) 1) What is meant by sag ? Derive an expression for sag in a transmission line having equal level of supports and unequal level of supports ? 2) Each line of 3 ph system is suspended by a string of three identical insulators of self capacitance C farad. The shunt capacitance of connecting metal work of each insulator is 0.2 C to earth and 0.1 C to line. Calculate the string efficiency of the system if a guard ring increases capacitance to line of metal work of lowest insulator to 0.3 C. 3) Draw and explain the dielectric strength in a single core underground cable with the ratio of max. and min. value of potential gradient. IV. Attempt any four : (4×5=20) 1) Derive an expression for voltage regulation and efficiency of medium transmission line. Consider end condenser along with the equivalent circuit and phasor diagram. 2) Derive the generalized circuit constants for medium line using nominal T-method. 3) What are the properties of insulating material used in underground cable ? Describe any three insulating materials. 4) Explain the concept of self GMD and Mutual GMD. 5) Draw and describe the uniformly loaded distributor fed at one end in DC system with a point of minimum potential, maximum and minimum voltage drops. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 297 -4- *SLRPC297* V. Attempt any two : (2×10=20) 1) Derive an expression for voltage regulation and efficiency of Medium transmission line. Consider nominal method along with the equivalent circuit and phasor diagram. 2) Derive the expression for inductance of 3-ph single circuit overhead triangular configuration of transmission line for symmetrical spacing. 3) A 3-phase, 50-Hz overhead transmission line 100 km long has the following constants : Resistance/km/phase = 0.1 Inductive reactance/km/phase = 0.2 Capacitive susceptance/km/phase = 0.04×104 siemen Determine : i) The sending end current ii) Sending end voltage iii) Sending end power factor and iv) Transmission efficiency when supplying a balanced load of 10,000 kW at 66 kV, p.f. 0.8 lagging. Use nominal T method. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC298* SLR-PC – 298 Seat Set No. A S.E. (Electrical Engineering) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 ANALOG AND DIGITAL INTEGRATED CIRCUIT Day and Date : Wednesday, 20-5-2015 Total Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicates full marks. 2) All questions are compulsory. 3) Assume suitable data if necessary. 4) Use of calculator is allowed. 5) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 6) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Select the appropriate option : 20 1) A differentiator circuit is a simple RC circuit with output taken across a) R b) C c) Both R and C d) None 2) How many select lines are required in a multiplexer with 1024 inputs and one output ? a) 512 b) 258 c) 64 d) 10 3) Open loop gain is a function of frequency. a) False b) True c) Can’t say d) None 4) UGB stands for a) Union Great Bais b) Unity Gain Bais c) Unity Gain Band width d) Unity Grounded Base 5) The following is the property of op-amp a) Infinite gain b) Infinite SR c) Zero R0 d) All 6) Gain of non-inv. Amplifier is always greater than 1. a) True b) False c) Neither true nor false d) Parallely true 7) Voltage follower is an application of a) Inverting mode b) Non inverting mode c) Both d) None P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 298 -2- *SLRPC298* 8) Which amplifier offers best immunity to induced noise ? a) Differential b) Inverting c) Non-inverting d) Common mode 9) The slew rate and SVRR of ideal OPAMP respectively are ______a) Zero, Infinite b) Infinite, Zero c) Infinite, Infinite d) Zero, Zero 10) Typical value of CMRR for IC 741 is a) 90 b) 120 c) –20 d) 20 11) Which of the following logic circuit accepts two binary digits on input and produces two binary digits, a sum bit and a carry bit on its output ? a) Full-adder b) Half-adder c) Serial adder d) Parallel adder 12) The logic family which has complementary output is a) TTL b) ECL c) CMOS d) MOS 13) Race around condition occurs in J-k f/f when X and Y inputs are a) X = 0, Y = 0 b) X = 1, Y = 0 c) X = 0, Y = 1 d) X = 1, Y = 1 14) The Q output of J-K f/f is one. The output does not change when a clock pulse is applied. The inputs J and K will be respectively. a) 0 and X b) X and 0 c) 1 and 0 d) 0 and 1 15) Which of the following transmission is fast ? a) serial b) parallel c) both d) none 16) A ring counter consisting of five Flip-Flops will have a) 5 states b) 10 states c) 32 states d) Infinite states 17) How many Flip-Flops are required for mod-16 counter ? a) 5 b) 6 c) 3 d) 4 18) Which of the following is the fastest logic ? a) ECL b) TTL c) CMOS d) LSI 19) What is the function of the following circuit ? a) Four bit ripple counter b) Four bit memory register c) Four bit shift register d) None of these 20) In synchronous counters the clock input of each of the bistables are connected together so that each changes state at the same time. a) True b) False c) Can not say d) None of these ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC298* -3- SLR-PC – 298 Seat No. S.E. (Electrical Engineering) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 ANALOG AND DIGITAL INTEGRATED CIRCUIT Day and Date : Wednesday, 20-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicates full marks. 2) All questions are compulsory. 3) Assume suitable data if necessary. 4) Use of calculator is allowed. SECTION – I 2. Solve any four : (5×4=20) 1) Explain the voltage follower using OPAMP and its frequency response. 2) Derive slew rate equation of an OPAMP. 3) Design a circuit for the equation V0 = –(Va + Vb + Vc). 4) List the ideal characteristics of op-amp. 5) Derive voltage gain equation in AC analysis of differential amplifier (DIBO). 3. Solve any two : (10×2=20) 1) Explain voltage to current converter with floating and grounded load in detail. 2) Derive the equation for gain, I/p resistance, o/p resistance, BW for inverting amplifier in closed loop configuration. 3) The 741 op amp having following parameters is connected in non inverting Ω Ω amplifier with R1 = 1k and RF = 10K : A = 200,00, Ri = 2 M Ω , Ro = 75 Ω , fo = 5 MHz, Supply voltage = ± 15 V Maximum output voltage swing = ± 13 V Compute the closed loop parameters AF, RiF, RoF, FF and VOOT Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 298 -4- *SLRPC298* SECTION – II 4. Solve any four : (5×4=20) 1) Design 16 : 1 mux. using 8 : 1 mux. and OR gate. 2) Implement full adder using truth table and gates. 3) Implement the following function with mux. F(a, b, c) = ∑ m(1, 3, 5, 6). Choose a, b as select lines. 4) Explain various types of shift registers. 5) Explain four bit twisted ring counter with waveform. 5. Solve any two : (10×2=20) 1) Explain JK flip flop. What is race around condition ? How it can be removed ? 2) Design Mod-6 counter using T flip flop. 3) Implement the logic function given below by using K-map. Also realize it by 8 : 1 mux. F = ∑∏()0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 10, 11, 14, 15 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC299* SLR-PC – 299 Seat No. Set A S.E. (Electrical Engineering) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 NETWORK ANALYSIS Day and Date : Friday, 22-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : (1×20=20) ⎡0.9 0.2⎤ 1) The Z-matrix of a two port network is given by ⎢ ⎥ . What is the value of ⎣0.2 0.6⎦ Y22 ? a) 1.8 b) 0.27 c) 0.9 d) 3.6 2) The Laplace transform of integral function f(t) is 1 a) F(s) b) sF(s)− f(0) c) F(s) − f(0) d) f′(0) s 3) Voltage across short circuited terminals of network is a) Maximum b) Zero c) Minimum d) None of these 4) Ohm’s law is valid only when temperature is a) Variable b) Constant c) Varies with constant rate d) None of these 5) Current between two open terminals is a) Maximum b) Zero c) Minimum d) None of these 6) KVL and KCL are valid for a) Only DC b) Only AC c) Both AC & DC d) None of these 7) Two nodes are said to form supernode if a) There is no circuit element between them b) There is only current source between them c) There is only voltage source between them d) None of above P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 299 -2- *SLRPC299* 8) Laplace transform of a unit ramp function is a) 1 b) s c) 1/s d) 1/s2 9) Three equal resistances of 3 Ω are connected in star. What is the resistance in one of the arms in an equivalent delta circuit ? a) 10 Ω b) 3 Ω c) 9 Ω d) 27 Ω 10) Nortan’s equivalent circuit consists of a) Voltage source in parallel with resistance b) Voltage source in series with resistance c) Current source in series with resistance d) Current source in parallel with resistance 11) Superposition theorem is valid for a) Linear system b) Non-linear system c) Both a and b d) None of these 12) A capacitor does not allow sudden change in a) current b) voltage c) both a and b d) none of these 13) For a two port network to be reciprocal a) Z11 = Z22 b) Y12 = Y21 c) h22 = h12 + h21 d) AD – BC = 0 14) An RC circuit has R = 2 Ω and C = 4F. The time constant is a) 0.5 s b) 2s c) 8 s d) 1.5 s 15) In an electric circuit dual of inductance is a) Conductance b) Resistance c) Capacitance d) Susceptance 16) The reciprocity theorem is applicable to a) linear networks only b) bilateral networks only c) linear or bilateral networks d) none of these 17) A passive element in a circuit is one which a) Supplies energy b) Receives energy c) Both supplies and receives energy d) None of these 18) The graph of a network has six branches with three tree branches. The minimum number of equations required for the solution of the network is a) 3 b) 4 c) 12 d) 5 19) In electric circuits transient currents are associated with a) Resistors b) Inductors c) Capacitors d) Both b and c 20) In transient circuit analysis the particular solution gives ______response. a) Transient b) Steady state c) Neither d) Both a and b ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC299* -3- SLR-PC – 299 Seat No. S.E. (Electrical Engineering) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 NETWORK ANALYSIS Day and Date : Friday, 22-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instruction : All questions are compulsory. SECTION – I 2. Solve any four : (5×4=20) a) Find the current through 10 Ω resistor using Norton’s Theorem. 6 Ω 2 Ω Ω 3 Ω 10V 1 10 Ω 20V b) Determine current through 24 Ω resistor using Thevenin’s Theorem. 20 Ω 30 Ω 24 Ω 220V 50 Ω 5 Ω c) Find an equivalent resistance between A and B. 10 Ω 10 Ω 10 Ω 10 Ω A B 10 Ω Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 299 -4- *SLRPC299* d) Find current in the 3 Ω resistor using Supermesh Analysis Technique. Ω 1 2 Ω 7V 7A 3 Ω 1 Ω 2 Ω e) Draw dual for the network shown below. 5H 5F + 10V 2 Ω 1 Ω – 3. Solve any two : (10×2=20) a) Find current supplied by the battery in the network shown below. Ω 3 Ω 1 Ω 2 4V 5 Ω 4 Ω 6 Ω b) Find an equivalent resistance between A and B. 6 Ω A 4 Ω 3 Ω 5 Ω Ω 4 Ω 5 8 Ω Set A B www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC299* -5- SLR-PC – 299 20 c) Find current through the 6 Ω resistor using Superposition Theorem. Ω 10V 2 6 Ω 4A 16 Ω 5 Ω 3A SECTION – II 4. Solve any four : (5×4=20) a) Derive an expression for i(t) for following circuit. R V C i(t) b) In the network shown below, the switch is closed at t = 0. Assuming all initial 2 di d i + conditions as zero, find i, and at t = 0 . dt dt2 10 Ω 1H μ 10V 10 F i(t) Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 299 -6- *SLRPC299* c) Obtain ABCD parameters for the network shown below. I1 1 Ω 1 Ω I2 + + Ω V1 2 2 Ω V2 – – d) Determine hybrid parameters for the network below. Ω Ω I I1 1 2 2 + + Ω 4 Ω V V1 2 2 – – e) In the network shown below, the switch is opened at t = 0. Find i(t) using Laplace Transform. 10 Ω 3 Ω 6 Ω 36V 0.1H i(t) 5. Solve any two : (10×2=20) + + a) In the network shown below, assuming all initial conditions as zero, find i1(0 ), i2(0 ). 2 2 di + di + d i + d i + 1 (0 ), 2 (0 ), 1 (0 ) and 2 (0 ) . dt dt dt2 dt2 R R1 2 V L C i (t) 1 i (t) 2 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC299* -7- SLR-PC – 299 b) Find Y and Z parameters for the network shown below. I Ω 2V 1 1 1 I2 + + V Ω 2V 1 1 2 V 2 Ω 2 – – c) In the network shown below, switch is closed at t = 0, the steady state being reached before t = 0. Determine current through inductor of 3 H using Laplace Transform. 2H 2 Ω 1V 2 Ω 3H i2(t) i1(t) ——————— Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC3* SLR-PC 3 S e a t 5 A J ) N o . F.E. (Part I) (CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2015 BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING Day and Date : Thursday, 7-5-2015 Max. Marks : 70 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. I is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 14 I. Choose the correct answer. 14 1) A 12 volt source will an internal resistance of 1.2 ohms is connected across a wire-would resistor. Maximum power will be dissipated in the resistor when its resistance is equal to a) Zero b) 1.2 ohm c) 12 ohm d) Infinity 2) Which of the following statements is true ? For the circuit shown in Figure. a) E1 + E2 + E3 = Ir1 + Ir2 + I3r3 b) E2 + E3 E1 I(r1 + r2 + r3) = 0 c) I(r1 + r2 + r3) = E1 E2 E3 d) E2 + E3 E1 = Ir1 + Ir2 + Ir3 3) 1 KWH is equal to ______Kcal. a) 860 Kcal b) 4186 Kcal c) 4.186 Kcal d) 36 × 105 Kcal P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 3 -2- *SLRPC3* 4) The rating of electric lamp is 220 V, 100 W. If it is operated at 110 V, the power consumed by it will be a) 50 W b) 75 W c) 90 W d) 25 W 5) While comparing magnetic and electrical circuits, the permeance of magnetic circuit is compared with which parameter of electrical circuit ? a) Resistance b) Conductance c) Conductivity d) Resistivity 6) Form factor for sinusoidal alternating current is a) /2Ö2 b) 1 c) 1.11 d) 0.634 7) An alternating current is given by i = 14.14 sin 377t. Its rms value a) 14.14 A b) 10 A c) 377 A d) 9 A 8) Power factor is defined as a) Cosine of angle between voltage and current b) Ratio of true power to apparent power c) Both a) and b) d) R/C 9) Admittance is reciprocal of a) Resistance b) Impedance c) Reactance d) Voltage 10) Three identical resistances connected in star consume 4000 W. If these three resistances are connected in delta across the same supply, the power consumed will be a) 4000 W b) 6000 W c) 8000 W d) 12000 W 11) For a balanced three phase system the total power consumed is given by a) Ö 3VphIphcosØ b) VphIphcosØ c) Ö 3VLILcosØ d) 3VLILcosØ 12) A 2000/200 V, 20 KVA ideal transformer has 66 turns in the secondary. The number of primary turns is a) 440 b) 660 c) 550 d) 330 13) The best suitable magnetic material for construction for transformer core is a) Silicon steel since it has smaller hysteresis loop area b) Hard steel since it has smaller hysteresis loop area c) Silicon steel since it has larger hysteresis loop area d) Rough iron since it has larger hysteresis loop area 14) When the load is removed the motor that will run at the highest speed is the a) Shunt b) Series c) Cumulative compound d) Differentially compound ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC3* -3- SLR-PC 3 S e a t N o . F.E. (Part I) (CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2015 BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING Day and Date : Thursday, 7-5-2015 Marks : 56 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Assume suitabel data if necessary and mention it clearly. 3) Figures to the right indicate full marks. SECTION I II. Attempt any four : (4×4=16) a) State and prove maximum power transfer theorem. b) 2 wires A and B are connected in series at 0° C and resistance of B is 3.5 times that of A. The resistance temperature coefficient of A is 0.4% and that of combination is 0.1%. Find resistance temperature coefficient of B. c) The electrical load in a small workshop consists of 14 lamps each rated at 240 V, 60 W and 3 electric fires each rated 240 V, 1 kW. What is the total current taken by load and effective resistance of load ? d) Compare electric circuit and magnetic circuit with their similarities and dissimilarities. e) Derive an expression for average value of an AC quantity. f) Find RAB in the circuit, given in fig. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 3 -4- *SLRPC3* III. Attempt any two : (6×2=12) a) Derive the equation for converting delta resistances into equivalent star resistances. b) A coil of 500 turns and resistance of 20 ohms is wound uniformly on an iron ring of mean circumstance 50 cm and cross sectional area 4 cm2. It is connected to 24 V DC supply. Relative permeability of material is 800. Find i) MMF ii) Magnetic field strength iii) Total flux iv) Reluctance c) An alternating voltage is represented by the following expression : V = 25 sin (200 t). Calculate the following : (1) Amplitude (2) Time Period (3) Frequency (4) Angular Velocity (5) Form Factor (6) Crest Factor. SECTION II IV. Attempt any four : (4×4=16) a) Derive an expression for average power of R-L series circuit. reactance is connected in parallel with a coil of 70.7 b) A capacitor of 100 resistance 70.7 inductive reactance to 250 V ac supply. Determine supply current and overall power factor. c) Explain the principle of 3 phase EMF generation with its waveforms. d) Classify the types of transformer (i) According to construction (ii) According to secondary winding (iii) According to supply system (iv) According to purpose e) A single phase transformer has 350 primary and 1050 secondary turns. The primary is connected to 400 V, 50 Hz supply. If net cross sectional area of core is 50 cm2. Find i) Maximum value of flux density in core ii) Voltage induced in secondary winding. f) Explain working principle of 3 phase squirrel cage induction motor with its application. V. Attempt any two : (6×2=12) a) The load to a 3 phase supply consists of 3 similar coils connected in star. The line currents are 25 A and KVA and kW inputs are 20 and 11 respectively. Find (i) Phase and line voltages (ii) KVAR input (iii) Resistance and reactance of each coil. b) A 10 resistor and 400 F capacitor are connected in series to 60 V supply. The circuit current is 5 A. Calculate supply frequency and phase angle between current and voltage. c) Discuss the different types of DC motor with suitable circuit diagram, voltage equation and applications. Set A ______ www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC30* SLR-PC – 30 Seat No. Set A T.E. (Civil) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 GEOTECHNICAL ENGINEERING – I (New) Day and Date : Wednesday, 6-5-2015 Max. Marks : 20+80=100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Solve any three question from Section – I. 2) In Section – II, Q. No. 6 is compulsory. Solve any two from remaining questions. 3) Assume additional data, if required and state it clearly. 4) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 5) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. 6) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Give the correct option of following MCQ. Sr. No. 1 to 10 carries 1 marks each and Sr. No. 11 to 15 carries 2 marks each : 1) The unit weight of soil at zero air voids depends on a) Specific gravity b) Water content c) Unit weight of water d) All of the above 2) The soil having particles of nearly same size is said to be a) Well graded b) Uniformly graded c) Poorly graded d) Gap graded 3) The seepage quantity from the flow net is inversely proportional to a) Number of potential drops b) Total head loss c) Number of flow nets d) None of the above 4) The toughness index of clayey soil is given by a) Plasticity index/flow index b) Liquid limit/plastic limit c) Liquidity index/plastic limit d) Plastic limit/liquidity index 5) Cell pressure in triaxial cell is known as a) Uniform pressure b) Confining pressure c) Hoop pressure d) Pore water pressure P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 30 -2- *SLRPC30* 6) Piping in soil occurs when a) The soil is highly porous b) Sudden change in permeability occurs c) Effective pressure becomes zero d) The soil is highly stratified 7) The process of consolidation will be a) Quicker in fine grained soil b) Quicker in a coarse grained soil c) The same in both coarse-grained and fine-grained soil d) None of these 8) During seepage though an earth mass, the direction of seepage is a) Parallel to the equipotential line b) Perpendicular to the steam line c) Perpendicular to the equipotential line d) Along the direction of gravity 9) The active lateral earth pressure at a particular depth is one of the following in relation to the vertical pressure at that depth. a) Greater b) Less c) Equal d) Sometimes less than sometimes greater 10) When the degree of consolidation is 50%, Time factor will be a) 0.1963 b) 0.382 c) 4 d) 1 11) Soil has a bulk density of 1.8 gm/cc at water content of 5%. If the voids ratio remains constant, then its bulk density for the water content of 10% will be a) 1.98 gm/cc b) 1.88 gm/cc c) 1.80 gm/cc d) 1.70 gm/cc 12) A sand deposit has a porosity of 0.375 and a specific gravity of 2.6, the critical hydraulic gradient for the sand deposit is a) 2.975 b) 2.225 c) 1 d) 0.75 13) The soil sample in its natural state has mass of 2,290 kg and has a volume of –3 3 1.15 × 10 m . After being oven dried, the mass of the sample is 2.035 kg. Gs for soil is 2.68. The voids ratio of the natural soil is a) 0.4 b) 0.45 c) 0.55 d) 0.51 14) A soil has a liquid limit of 60% and lies above the A line when plotted on the plasticity chart. The group symbol of soil as per soil classification is ______a) CH b) CI c) CL d) MI 15) A rigid retaining wall 5 high supports a backfill of cohesionless soil with φ = 30°, what will be the coefficient of passive earth pressure. a) 1/3 b) 3 c) 1/2 d) 2 ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC30* -3- SLR-PC – 30 Seat No. T.E. (Civil) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 GEOTECHNICAL ENGINEERING – I (New) Day and Date : Wednesday, 6-5-2015 Max. Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Solve any three question from Section – I. 2) In Section – II, Q. No. 6 is compulsory. Solve any two from remaining questions. 3) Assume additional data, if required and state it clearly. 4) Figures to the right indicate full marks. SECTION – I 2. A) Distinguish between : a) Water content and air content b) Saturated unit weight and submerged unit weight. 6 B) The following result refer to a liquid limit test : No. of blows 33 23 18 11 Water content (%) 41.5 49.5 51.5 55.6 The plastic limit is 23.5%. Determine the plasticity index and the toughness index for the soil. 8 3. A) Explain the salient features of IS plasticity chart. 5 B) What do you mean by isobar ? Construct the isobar for 0.1 P, if the concentrated load of P is acting at a point. Use Boussinesq’s equation. 8 4. A) Briefly discuss the Electrical Analogy method of construction of flow net. 5 B) A falling head permeability test is to be performed on a soil sample whose permeability is 4 × 10–5 cm/s. What diameter of stand pipe should be used if the head is to drop from 30 cm to 20.0 cm is 3 minutes. The C.S. area and length of sample are 50 cm2 and 8.5 cm respectively. How much time will it take for the head to drop from 37.5 to 35 cm for the same soil. 8 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 30 -4- *SLRPC30* 5. A) Write short notes on any three : 9 a) Usefulness of plasticity chart. b) GSD curve. c) Vane shear test d) Pressure bulb. B) Write a brief on Methods of construction of flow net. 4 SECTION – II 6. Write short note on the following (any four) : (4×4=16) a) Assumptions in the Rankine’s earth pressure theory. b) Drainage conditions of shear strength test. c) Compaction properties of soil. d) Compression index. e) e- log p curve f) Types of rollers for compaction. 7. A) Give Terzaghi’s equation governing 1-D consolidation. State assumption associated with the equation. 4 B) In a laboratory 2 cm thick soil sample takes 25 minutes to reach 30% degree of consolidation. Find the time taken for a 5 m thick clay layer in field to reach 40% consolidation. Assume double drainage in both cases. 8 8. A) Discuss the effect of increased compaction effort on the properties of soil. 4 B) In a standard proctor test the mould of 1 litre capacity is used. Successive trials gave the following results : Mass wet soil (N) 18 19.4 20.0 20.5 20.3 19.8 Moisture content (%) 8.5 12.2 13.75 15.5 18.2 20.2 Plot the compaction curve. Find OMC and MDD. Find the voids ratio at OMC. Also plot 80% saturation line. Take G = 2.7. 8 9. A) What is earth pressure at rest ? Derive the equation for its earth pressure coefficient. 4 B) A cantilever retaining wall having vertical back face retains soil backfill. Height of backfill is 6 m. Backfill has following properties, Dry unit weight of soil – 17.5 kN/m3, C = 15 kN/m2, φ = 30°, water content = 12%. Draw active earth pressure diagram and determine total active force on retaining wall. 8 Set A ______ www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC300* SLR-PC 300 e a t S Set o . N A T.E. (Part I) (Old) Electrical Engineering Examination, 2015 POWER SYSTEM I Day and Date : Tuesday, 5-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Figure to right indicates full marks. 3) Assume suitable data if necessary. 4) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : (1×20=20) 1) A string efficiency of 100% implies that A) shunt capacitance is 1 MF B) potential across each disc is same C) potential across each disc is zero D) one of the insulator disc is shorted 2) In order to improve the steady state stability of an overhead transmission lines, which of the following methods can be adopted ? A) Reducing impedance between the stations B) Adopting quick response excitation systems C) Using series capacitors to make X = (3 R) D) None of the above 3) Guy wire is used to A) Support the pole B) Provide protection against surges C) Provide emergency earth route D) Protect conductors against short circuiting 4) System grounding is A) so that the floating potential on the lower voltage winding for a transformer is brought down to an insignificant value B) so that arcing faults to earth would not set up dangerously high voltage on healthy phases C) so that inductive interference between power and communication circuits can be controlled D) for all above reasons 5) The fact that a conductor carries more current on the surface as compared to core, is known as A) skin effect B) corona C) permeability D) unsymmetrical fault 6) For 66 kV lines the number of insulator discs used are A) 3 B) 5 C) 8 D) 12 P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 300 -2- *SLRPC300* 7) The disadvantage of constant voltage transmission is A) short circuit current of the system is increased B) load power factor in heavy loads C) large conductor area is required for same power transmission D) all of the above 8) Strain type insulator arc used where the conductors arc A) dead ended B) at intermediate anchor towers C) both A) and B) D) none of the above 9) The current drawn by the line due to corona losses is A) sinusoidal B) square C) non-sinusoidal D) none of the above 10) If K is the volume of cable conductor material required to transmit power, then for the transmission of the same power, the volume of cable conductor required for single phase 2 wire AC system is 2 2 A) 2k B) k cos C) k/cos D) 2k/cos p 11) The surge resistance of transmission lines is about A) 50 Ohms B) 100 Ohms C) 250 Ohms D) 500 Ohms 12) For a distortion-less transmission line (G = shunt conductance between two wires) A) R/L = G/C B) RL = GC C) RG = LC D) RLGC = 0 13) Shunt capacitance is usually neglected in the analysis of A) Short transmission lines B) Medium transmission lines C) Long transmission lines D) Medium as well as long transmission lines 14) For the same resistance of line the ratio, weight of copper conductor/weight of aluminium conductor, is A) 0.50 B) 0.75 C) 1.50 D) 2.0 15) Minimum horizontal clearance of a low voltage transmission line from residential buildings must be A) 11/2 feet B) 3 feet C) 4 feet D) 8 feet 16) For 11 kV line the capacitance per km per phase will be of the order of A) 1 Farad B) 0.1 Farad C) 0.01 Farad D) 0.01 microF 17) For a 66 kV line having span of 200 meters between towers the approximate sag will be A) 0.02 m B) 0.2 m C) 2 m D) 20 m 18) Step-up substations are associated with A) distributors B) consumer location C) concentrated load D) generating stations 19) Out of the following systems of distribution, which system offers the best economy ? A) Direct current system B) AC single phase system C) AC 3 phase 3 wire system D) AC 3 phase 4 wire system 20) Which is the most expensive bus bar scheme ? A) Single bus bar scheme B) Ring bus bar scheme C) Double bus bar double breaker D) Main and transfer scheme ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC300* -3- SLR-PC 300 S e a t N o . T.E. (Part I) (Old) Electrical Engineering Examination, 2015 POWER SYSTEM I Day and Date : Tuesday, 5-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Figure to right indicates full marks. 3) Assume suitable data if necessary. SECTION I 2. Solve any four of the following : (5×4=20) a) Describe the methods of improving string efficiency. b) Define corona and its voltages and power loss with equations. c) What are the types of insulators ? Describe any three types with drawing. d) Derive an expression of single phase 2 wire line inductance. e) Explain the merits and demerits of underground and overhead transmission system. 3. a) A string of six insulators is to be graded to obtain uniform distribution of voltages across the string. If the capacitance of the top unit is 10 times the capacitance to ground of earth unit determine the capacitance to ground of each unit, determine the capacitance of the remaining five units. (2×10=20) b) Derive an expression for the inductance for the inductance per phase for a 3 phase overhead transmission line when conductors are symmetrically placed. OR b) What should be the desirable characteristics of insulating material used in cables ? State some commonly used insulating materials used in cables. SECTION II 4. Solve any four of the following : (4×5=20) a) Explain the different types of AC and DC distribution systems. b) Expression for economical consideration of power factor with diagram. c) Draw and explain a long distributor fed at both ends having concentrated loading with equal voltage along with point of minimum potential. d) Draw and describe the belted type of underground cable. e) Explain tariff and its types. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 300 -4- *SLRPC300* 5. Solve any two of the following : (10×2=20) a) A 3 phase transmission line 50 km long consists of 3 hard drawn copper conductors in a 1.2 m delta. Load conditions at receiving end 33000 Volts, 50 Hz. Line is designed so that transmission loss is approximately 10%. Find : i) the sending end voltage and power factor ii) efficiency and iii) regulation b) A 50 Hz 3 phase transmission line 30 km long has a total series impedance of 40 + j125 ohms and shunt admittance of 1 mili mho. The load is 50 MW at 220 KV with 220 KV with 0.8 lagging pf. Find the sending end voltage, current and power factor. (Use nominal pie method) c) Explain the methods of obtaining 3 wire system with schematic diagram. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC301* SLR-PC 301 S e a t 5 A J ) N o . T.E. (Electrical Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015 LINEAR INTEGRATED CIRCUITS (Old) Day and Date : Wednesday, 6-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : (20×1=20) 1) dV0/dt is called as a) Voltage ratio b) Voltage rate c) Slew rate d) Transient response 2) Ideal value of CMRR should be a) 1M b) 1000 c) zero d) infinite 3) A summing amplifier can have a) only one input b) more than two inputs c) no. of inputs d) none 4) For non inverting amplifier if Rf = 100 k and Ri = 1k then closed loop gain is a) 100000 b) 1000 c) 101 d) 100 5) IC 741 is ______pin IC. a)6 b)12 c)8 d)10 6) Network formed by components for modifying rate of change of gain and phase is known as ______network. a) Feedback b) Compensating c) Frequency d) None 7) Voltage follower ckt is obtained from ______amplifier. a) Non-inverting b) Inverting c) Differential d) None 8) With zero volts on both inputs, an opamp ideally should have an output equal to a) the positive supply voltage b) the negative supply voltage c) zero d) the CMRR 9) When negative feedback is used, the gain bandwidth product of an op-amp a) increases b) decreases c) stays the same d) fluctuates 10) For a step input, the output of integrator is a) a pulse b) a triangular waveform c) a spike d) a ramp P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 301 -2- *SLRPC301* 11) Calculate the cutoff frequency of a first-order low-pass filter for R1 = 2.5 k and C1 = 0.05 F. a) 1.273 KHz b) 12.73 KHz c) 127.3 KHz d) 127.3 Hz 12) The frequency response of a filter circuit is best described as a) a graphical representation of output levels for a specific set of frequencies b) the speed at which a filter responds c) how well a filter suppresses one frequency d) how well a filtering circuit amplifies a given set of frequencies 13) A two-stage amplifier composed of an active high-pass filter and an active low-pass filter forms a) an active band-stop filter b) an active band-pass filter c) a high-gain amplifier with no net filtration d) both a) and b) 14) What is the gain required to start and sustain oscillations for a feedback oscillator ? a) greater than 1 b) less than 1 c) greater than 25 d) less than 25 15) Wien bridge oscillator can typically generate frequencies in the range of a) 1 KHz 1 MHz b) 1 MHz 10 MHz c) 10 MHz 100 MHz d) 100 MHz 150 MHz 16) How can the 555 timer be modified for duty cycles of less than 50% ? a) decreasing the value of the capacitance by 50% of the original value b) adjusting the ratio of the resistance accordingly c) connecting a diode across the resistor that is connected to the discharge and threshold/trigger connections d) changing the voltage level of the control input 17) A pass transistor is used to a) increase the output voltage of a regulator b) buffer the input voltage to an IC regulator c) make voltage regulation more accurate d) increase the current capacity of an IC voltage regulator 18) The pulses peak output voltage of a V/F converter a) increases with increases in input voltage b) remains the same with increases in input voltage c) varies with input frequency d) both b) and c) 19) VCO is designed so that at zero voltage it is oscillating at some initial frequency W0 called a) cut-off frequency b) free-cycle frequency c) free-running frequency d) none of the above 20) Drifting output voltage from an IC regulator could possibly be caused by a) thermal overload b) open load c) inadequate heat-sinking d) both b) and c) ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC301* -3- SLR-PC 301 S e a t N o . T.E. (Electrical Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015 LINEAR INTEGRATED CIRCUITS (Old) Day and Date : Wednesday, 6-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. SECTION I 2. Solve any four : (4×5=20) a) Explain differential amplifier with neat block diagram. b) Explain compensation techniques for op-amp. c) Explain input offset voltage, input offset current. d) Draw and explain peak detector with positive and negative amplitudes. e) Draw and explain precision full wave rectifier. 3. a) Derive the expression for gain of instrumentation amplifier while stating prerequisites of IA. (1×10=10) b) Explain differentiator with frequency response and practical circuit. Draw the waveforms for output with various inputs. OR b) Explain how summing amplifier can be used as averaging and scaling amplifier. 10 SECTION II 4. Solve any four : 20 a) Explain ON-OFF controller in detail with graph. b) Calculate the minimum and maximum output voltage for adjustable voltage regulator K " using IC LM 337 for R = R = 5 (Pot) ladj = 50 A. 1 2 c) Design Second order low pass filter for cutoff frequency 1 KHz and passband gain of 1.5 ? d) Explain internal diagram of IC 555 in a stable mode. e) Explain any two application of PLL. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 301 -4- *SLRPC301* 5. Solve any two : 20 a) Draw and explain Wein bridge oscillator. Derive the expression for feedback factor of Wein bridge oscillator also derive oscillation frequency. b) Design a narrow bandpass filter for following specification fc = 2 KHz Avf = 10, Q = 4 ? Also calculate new component value if center frequency change to 1KHz keeping Avf and BW constant. c) What is Power Booster ? Explain power amplifier using LM 308. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC302* SLR-PC – 302 Seat No. Set A T.E. (Electrical Engg.) (Part – I) (Old) Examination, 2015 ELECTROMAGNETIC ENGINEERING Day and Date : Thursday, 7-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. MCQs. (20×1=20) 1) The value of ax.ax is a) zero b) 1 c) –1 d) 2 2) d v = dxdydz is the differential volume in a) Cylindrical co-ordinate system b) Spherical co-ordinate system c) Cartesian co-ordinate system d) None of the above 3) ∫ Hd. ll= is c a) Gauss’s law b) Coulomb’s law c) Faraday’s law d) Ampere’s circuital law 4) The unit of magnetic field intensity is Volts Coulomb a) Ampere/meter b) Coulomb/meter c) d) meter m2 5) Unit of potential difference is Coulomb Joules a) Coulomb b) Joules c) d) Joules Coulomb 6) Relation between potential V and Electric field E is a) E = – ∇ V b) V = – ∇ Ec)E = ∇ Vd)∇ V = ∇ E = ()− + ˆ + ˆ = ( + + ) 7) Vectors C 3ax 2a0 1a0 and D 5ar 6aˆ θ 3aˆ φ are a) Parallel b) Perpendicular c) At an angle 35° d) None of all 8) A Gaussian surface within spherical shell of inner and outer radii R1 and R2 contains charge Q placed at the center. The normal components of D at the Gaussian surface will be ()π 2 ()π 2 []π()− 2 a) Zero b) Q / 4 R1 c) Q / 4 R2 d) Q / 4 R1 R2 P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 302 -2- *SLRPC302* 9) Electric dipole moment is given by a) P = Qd2 b) P = ψ d 3 c) P = Qd d) None of above 10) Relation between electric field intensity and permitivity is given by E ∈ a) D = ∈ Eb)E = D∈ c) D = d) E = ∈ D 11) If flux density is 10 wb/m 2 and the area of the coil is 2m 2, the flux is a) 10 wb b) 20 wb c) 5 wb d) 40 wb 12) ∫ ()∇ ×H . ds is a) Zero b) Ienc c) J d) ∫H .ds 13) The force produce by B = 2 wb/m2 on a current element of 2A – m is a) 4 N b) 1 N c) 2 N d) 0.5 N 14) The magnetic field in an ideal conductor is a) Zero b) Infinite c) Finite d) The same as its outside field 15) Scalar magnetic potential exists where J is present a) Yes b) No c) Can’t determine d) None of these 16) The unit of magnetic susceptibility is a) Nil b) Amp c) H/m d) Wb 17) ∇ × A is a) H b) B c) J d) 0 18) If a charge, 1c is moving with a velocity 2ax in a magnetic field of B = 1ay , the force on the charge is a) 2az b) 1ay c) 2ax d) 1ax 19) Lorentz force equation is a) F = Q × [E + V × B] b) F = Q [E + V × B] c) F = Q [V + E × B] d) F = Q [B + V × E] 20) Energy shared in a magnetostatic field is 1 1 a) μH2 b) μH 4 4 1 c) μH2 d) None of these 2 —————————— Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC302* -3- SLR-PC – 302 Seat No. T.E. (Electrical Engg.) (Part – I) (Old) Examination, 2015 ELECTROMAGNETIC ENGINEERING Day and Date : Thursday, 7-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. SECTION – 1 2. Solve any four. (5×4=20) a) Prove that E = −∇V . b) Transform the vector field W = 10ax − 8ay + 6az to cylindrical coordinate system at point P (10, – 8, 6). c) In the free space let Q1 = 20 nc at P1 (0, – 3, 0) and Q2 = 15 nc at P2 (0, 0, 2) where should 35 nc charge be located so that E = 0 at the origin. d) Obtain an expression for an electric field due to charged circular ring of radius h placed in XY plane, at a point P (0, 0, z), having uniform line charge density of ρ1 c/m. e) Uniform line charge density 25 nc/m lies on the line x = – 3 and z = 4 in the free space. Find the expression for E in Cartesian coordinate at origin. 3. Solve any two. (10×2= 20) a) It is required to hold four equal point charges each in equilibrium at the corners of a square. Find the point charge which will do this, if placed at the centroid of the square. b) A line charge density ρ 1 is uniformly distributed over a length of 2a with centre as origin along x axis, find E at a point P which is on Z axis at a distance d. c) Derive the expression for the electric field due to infinite sheet of charge in XY plane, having surface charge density ρs c/m square. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 302 -4- *SLRPC302* SECTION – 2 4. Solve any four. (5×4=20) a) State and explain continuity equation of current in point form and integral form. b) Derive the expression of magnetic field strengh H due to straight conductor of finite length. c) Given the general vector, A = (sin 2φ) aφ in cylindrical coordinates, find the curl of A at (2, π /4, 0). d) Prove that divergence of a curl of a vector is zero using stokes theorem. e) Derive and explain magnetic boundary conditions. 5. Solve any two. (10×2= 20) a) Evaluate the both sides of stokes theorem for the field H = 6xy ax − 3y2 ay A/m and the rectangular path around the region, 2 ≤ x ≤ 5, − 1≤ y ≤ 1, z = 0 . b) A circular loop conductor lies in plane z = 0 and has a radius of 0.1 m and resistance of 5 ohm. given B = 0.2 sin 103 t az J, determine the current in the loop. c) Write a short note on : i) equation of continuity ii) displacement current. ———————— Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC303* SLR-PC – 303 Seat No. Set A T.E. (Electrical) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 CONTROL SYSTEM – I (Old) Day and Date : Friday, 8-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : i) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. ii) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : (20×1=20) 1) The transfer function of the system is used to determine a) The output for a given input b) The type of the system c) The input for a given output d) The steady state gain 2) The impulse function is a derivative of ______function. a) Parabolic b) Step c) Ramp d) Linear 3) ______gives indication how fast the system tends to attain the final value. a) Delay time b) Rise time c) Time constant d) Settling time 4) Which of the following is not true for an ac servo motor ? a) Has low inertia rotor b) Is a single phase motor c) Has slip torque characteristics as straight line with negative slope d) Reference voltage frequency is high compared to signal frequency 5) In a control system the comparator compares the output response and reference input and actuates the a) Transducer b) Signal conditioner c) Control element d) Primary sensing element 6) Introduction of the feedback reduces the effects of a) Noise signal b) Disturbances c) Error signals d) Error and noise signals e) Noise signal & disturbances 7) An automatic toaster is a ______loop control system. a) Open b) Closed c) Partially closed d) None of the above 8) A simple feedback system may have a) Process and Controller b) Reference and output sensors c) Process and Actuator d) All of the above P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 303 -2- *SLRPC303* 9) The initial response when the output is not equal to the input is termed ______response. a) dynamic b) transient c) error d) none of these 10) Which of the following is a closed loop system ? a) electric switch b) car starter c) dc generator d) auto-pilot for an aircraft 11) For a stable system a) All the close loop poles must be in the LHP b) Any one close loop pole must be in the LHP c) More than 50% close loop poles must be in the LHP d) None of the close loop poles must be in the LHP 12) In time domain, the settling time is the time it takes a) The system transients to diverge b) The system transients to decay c) The system to reach the vicinity of its new set point d) The systems to reach the maxovershoot point 13) A root locus is a) A graph of equation 1+KT(s) = 0 b) A graph of feedback system parameters c) A graph of the values of s that are solutions to the equation 1+KT(s) = 0 d) A graph of feedback system results 14) The system response of a system can be best tested with a) unit impulse input signal b) ramp input signal c) sinusoidal input signal d) exponentially decaying input signal 15) The damping ratio of a system having the characteristic equation s2 + 2s + 8 = 0 is a) 0.353 b) 0.330 c) 0.300 d) 0.250 16) Which of the following is the time domain method of determining stability of a control system ? a) Bode plot b) Nyquist plot c) Nicholos chart d) Root locus technique 17) As a root moves further away from imaginary axis the stability a) increases b) decreases c) not affected d) none of these 18) The break away point of root loci are a) Open loop poles b) Closed loop poles c) Open loop zeros d) Closed loop zeros 19) The frequency at which the phase angle is 180° is called the ______frequency. a) Cut off b) Break c) Phase cross over d) Critical 20) Settling time for 2% tolerance is ξω ξω ξω ξω a) 4/ n b) 3/ n c) 2/ n d) 1/ n ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC303* -3- SLR-PC – 303 Seat No. T.E. (Electrical) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 CONTROL SYSTEM – I (Old) Day and Date : Friday, 8-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions :i)All questions are compulsory. ii) Assume suitable data, if necessary. iii) Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed. SECTION – I 2. Solve any four. 20 a) Explain the effect of feedback on parameter variation. b) Obtain C(s)/R(s) using block diagram reduction rules. c) Find C(s)/R(s) using Masson’s gain formula. K(s + 6) d) The TF of a system is given by T(s) = . Determine (a) Poles s(s + 2) (s2 + 7s + 16) (b) Zeros (c) Characteristic equation (d) Pole Zero Plot in s-plane. e) For the network shown find the transfer function I2(s) / V(s). Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 303 -4- *SLRPC303* 3. Solve any two : a) Construct an equivalent Signal Flow Graph for the block diagram and evaluate the transfer function. 10 b) Reduce the block diagram and obtain C(s) / R(s). 10 c) Obtain the transfer function X1(s) / F(s) of the mechanical system shown. 10 SECTION – II 4. Solve any four. 20 a) Derive the expression for peak overshoot and settling time of a second order underdamped system with unit step input. K(s+ 2) b) For a unity feedback system having OLTF as G(s) = determine s(s22++ 7s12) (i) Type number of the system (ii) Error constants (iii) Steady state error for parabolic input. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC303* -5- SLR-PC – 303 c) Determine the value of K so that the system is marginally stable and find the frequency of sustained oscillations for the system s3 + 3Ks2 + (K + 2)s + 4 = 0. d) Explain Phase Margin and Gain Margin for frequency response analysis of control system. e) Derive the relationship between damping ratio and phase margin. 5. Solve any two. 20 a) Draw the Root Locus for a unity feedback system with OLTF K G(s) = and comment on stability of the system. s(s+++ 3)(s2 3s 3) 242(s+ 5) b) For a particular unity feedback system, G(s) = . Sketch the s(s+++ 1)(s2 5s 121) ω ω Bode Plot. Find gc, pc , GM, PM and comment on stability. c) Derive the steady state error coefficients and steady state error for different standard inputs and for type 0, 1 and 2 systems. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC304* SLR-PC – 304 Seat No. Set A T.E. (Electrical) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 INSTRUMENTATION TECHNIQUES (Old) Day and Date : Saturday, 9-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the right answer : 20 1) LVDT is a a) capacitive transducer b) resistive transducer c) inductive transducer d) none of them 2) Piezoelectric crystals are used for the measurement of a) temperature b) velocity c) sound d) none of the above 3) The resistive transducer is basically a a) active transducer b) passive transducer c) potentiometer d) none of the above 4) LVDT can be used for a) vibration measurement b) angular velocity measurement c) force measurement in beam d) load measurement on a column 5) The closed loop gain of an op-amp is dependent upon whether the op-amp is used a) In inverting mode b) In non-inverting mode c) Is independent of the connection of I/P d) Is dependent upon the connection of I/P 6) A buffer amplifier has a gain of a) Infinity b) Zero c) Unity d) Dependent on the circuit parameter 7) The properties of ideal op-amp are a) it should have zero input impedance b) it should have infinite output impedance c) it should have zero open loop gain d) none of these 8) Excitation of amplification systems are needed a) for active transducers only b) for passive transducers only c) for both passive and output transducers d) none of the above 9) The Q-meter works on the principle of a) Self inductance b) Mutual inductance c) Series resonance d) Parallel resonance P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 304 -2- *SLRPC304* 10) Which of the following properties are measured by a Q-meter ? a) Electrical properties of the coils only b) Mechanical properties of the coils only c) Electrical properties of the capacitors only d) Both (a) and (c) 11) In frequency multiplexing system, if the subcarrier frequency deviations are proportional to the centre frequency the scheme is referred to having a) a proportional bandwidth format b) a constant bandwidth format c) a variable bandwidth format d) a consistent bandwidth format 12) X-Y recorders a) record one quantity with respect to another quantity b) record one quantity on x-axis with respect to time on y-axis c) record one quantity on y-axis w.r.t. time on x-axis d) none of the above 13) Which of the following is the visual display unit ? a) Cathode ray oscilloscope b) U.V. recorder c) Storage oscilloscope d) Moving coil oscilloscope 14) The time bases of an oscilloscope are generated by a) Horizontal amplifier b) Vertical amplifier c) Sweep generator d) Storage oscilloscope 15) In CRT focusing anode is located a) between preaccelerating and accelerating anodes b) after accelerating anodes c) before preaccelerating anode d) none of the above 16) The source of emission of electrons in a CRT is a) PN junction diode b) A barium and strontium oxide coated cathode c) Accelerating anodes d) Post-accelerating anodes 17) An aquadag is used in a CRO to collect a) primary electrons b) secondary emission electrons c) both primary and secondary electrons d) none of the above 18) Modem is an acronym of a) Modulation b) Demodulation c) Modulation and demodulation d) All above 19) Unit of deflection sensitivity of CRO is a) v/mm b) meter per volt c) mm per mv d) mm/v 20) A vertical amplifier for a CRO can be designed for a) only a high gain b) only a broad bandwidth c) a constant gain times bandwidth product d) all above ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC304* -3- SLR-PC – 304 Seat No. T.E. (Electrical) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 INSTRUMENTATION TECHNIQUES (Old) Day and Date : Saturday, 9-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Make suitable assumptions wherever necessary. 3) Draw neat sketch whenever necessary. SECTION – I 2. Solve any four : (4×5=20) a) Explain with neat block diagram and an example, a generalised instrumentation system. b) Explain the instrumentation amplifier. c) Classify the transducers based on the principle of working. Discuss the factors which influence the selection of transducer. d) Explain with neat sketch diagram frequency to voltage converter using op-amp. e) Write a note on Q-meter. 3. Solve the following : (2×10=20) a) Classify various inductive transducers. Explain any one in detail. b) Explain the use of multiplexing in data acquisition system. OR b) From the first principle, for a strain gauge made of circular wire, derive the expression for gauge factor. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 304 -4- *SLRPC304* SECTION – II 4. Solve any four : (4×5=20) a) Write short note on installation of PLC’S. b) Explain modulator in detail. c) Explain in detail the block diagram of telemetry system. d) Write short note on strip chart recorder. e) Explain the ladder network operation of PLC system. 5. Solve any two : (2×10=20) a) Describe the different parts of a CRT. Also describe how the following measurements can be made with the help of a CRO : i) frequency, ii) phase angle. b) What is meant by multiplexing ? Explain frequency division and time division multiplexing. c) What is modulation ? Classify different modulation and explain frequency modulation system. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC306* SLR-PC 306 S e a t 5 A J ) N o . T.E. (Electrical) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015 POWER SYSTEM ANALYSIS Day and Date : Tuesday, 5-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. I is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 I. Choose the correct answer : (20×1=20) 1) When line to ground fault occurs, the current in faulted phase is 100 A. The zero sequence current in this case will be a) Zero b) 33.3 A c) 66.66 d) 100 A 2) Load flow study involve solving simultaneous a) Linear algebraic equations b) Non-linear algebraic equations c) Linear differential equations d) Non-linear differential equations 3) Primitive Y matrix is ______matrix. a) Singular b) Null c) Diagonal d) Sparse 4) An acceleration factor is used in load flow studies using G-S method to a) To increase the number of iterations b) To increase the speed of calculations c) Both a) and b) d) None of above 5) At slack bus ______are specified. a) |V|, b) P, Q c) P, |V| d) Q, |V| 6) In Gauss Seidel method of power flow problem, the number of iterations may be reduced if correction in voltage at each bus is multiplied by a) Gauss constant b) Acceleration constant c) Blocking factor d) Deceleration constant 7) The per unit value of a 2 Ohm resistor at 100 MVA base and 10 KV base voltage is a) 4pu b) 2pu c) 0.5pu d) 0.2pu P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 306 -2- *SLRPC306* 8) Which of the following results in a symmetrical fault ? a) Single line to earth b) Phase to phase c) All the three phases to earth d) Two phases to earth 9) Normally Zbus Matrix is a) Null Matrix b) Sparse Matrix c) Full Matrix d) Unity Matrix 10) For accurate load flow solution on large power system, the best method is a) NR b) GS c) Fast Decoupled d) None of the above 11) In power system maximum no. of buses are a) PV b) Slack c) PQ d) None of the above 12) For the stable operation, the normal value of normally lies between a) b) c) d) 0 t o 3 0 0 t o 9 0 0 t o 6 0 0 t o 1 8 0 13) Negative sequence reactance of a transformer is a) Equal to the positive sequence reactance b) Larger than the positive sequence reactance c) Smaller than positive sequence reactance d) None of the above 14) For a fault in a power system, critical clearing time is related to a) Reactive power limit b) Transient stability limit c) Short circuit current limit d) Steady state stability limit 15) The value of the expression 1 + a + a2 is a) Zero b) 2 c) 1 d) 1 16) Load flow study is carried for a) Load frequency control b) Study of stability of the system c) Fault calculations d) Planning of power system 17) Fault level means a) Voltage at fault point b) Fault current c) Fault power factor d) Fault MVA 18) The symmetrical components are used in the fault analysis because a) Number equations become smaller b) The sequence network do not have mutual couplings c) The results are required in terms of symmetrical components d) None of above 19) The positive sequence current of the transmission line is a) Always zero b) 1/3 of negative sequence current c) Equal to the negative sequence current d) Three time negative sequence current 20) For limiting short circuits we use a) Reactors b) Resistors c) Capacitors d) None of these ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC306* -3- SLR-PC 306 S e a t N o . T.E. (Electrical) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015 POWER SYSTEM ANALYSIS Day and Date : Tuesday, 5-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. SECTION I II. Attempt any four : (4×5=20) 1) What is per unit system ? How the base quantities are selected ? 2) Write a short note on primitive network. 3) Determine Ybus for simple four bus system shown in fig. Neglect shunt capacitance of the line. 2 i n e I m p e d a n c e ( p . u . ) L Z Z 23 12 1 - 2 0 . 2 5 + j 1 . 0 - 3 0 . 2 0 + j 0 . 8 1 Z 13 3 - 4 0 . 3 0 + j 1 . 2 1 1 2 - 3 0 . 2 0 + j 0 . 8 Z Z 34 - 4 0 . 1 5 + j 0 . 6 3 14 4 4) Explain the transients on transmission line. 5) Describe the various types of buses and their significance in detail. III. Attempt any two : (10×2=20) 1) Write computational algorithm of Gauss Seidel method for load flow analysis. 2) For the sample system generators are connected to all the three buses, while load are at bus 2 and 3. Values of reactive and real powers are listed in table. All the buses other than slack are PQ. Assuming flat voltage start, find voltage and bus angle at three buses at the end of first GS iteration. B u s P i , p u Q i , p u V i , p u R e m a r k 1 1 . 0 4 a t 0 S l a c k b u s 2 0 . 5 P Q b u s 0 . 2 3 0 . 5 P Q b u s 1 . 0 4 0 . 3 P Q b u s 0 . 1 The calculated Ybus for above sample system is 3 j 9 2 j 6 1 3 j 0 2 j 6 3 . 6 6 6 j 1 1 0 . 6 6 6 j 2 1 j 3 1 j 3 0 . 6 6 6 j 2 3 . 6 6 6 j 1 1 2 j 6 0 1 j 3 2 j 6 3 j 9 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 306 -4- *SLRPC306* 3) 100 MVA, 33 KV, 3 phase generator has sub-transient reactance of 15%. The generator is connected to motor through a transmission line and transformer. The motor have rated input of 30 MVA, 20 MVA and 50 MVA at 30 KV with 20% sub transient reactance. 3 phase transformers are rated at 110 MVA, 32/110 KV with leakage reactance of 8%. The line has reactance of 50 Ohm. Selecting the generator rating as the base quantities in the other parts of the system and evaluate the corresponding pu values. X 0 . 2 30 MVA M 100 MVA 110 MVA 110 MVA 1 30 KV 33 KV 20 MVA G M 2 30 KV 110/32 KV : # 32/110 KV X = 0.08 X = 0.08 M 50 MVA 3 30 KV SECTION II IV. Attempt any four : (4×5=20) 1) Explain the short circuit of synchronous machine on no load. 2) Explain the overvoltages due to lightening. 3) The phase voltages across a certain unbalanced load are given as Er = 176 j132, Ey = 128 j96, Eb = 160 + j100. Find symmetrical components. 4) Derive the necessary equations to convert phase quantities into symmetrical components and symmetrical components into phase quantities. 5) Explain open conductor faults in power system. V. Attempt any two : (10×2=20) 1) Draw a diagram showing interconnection of sequence network for a double line to ground fault. Derive equation for sequence currents. 2) Explain equal area criteria with critical clearing angle and critical clearing time. 3) A delta connected balanced resistive load is connected across a unbalanced three phase supply as shown in fig. With current in line A and B specified, find the symmetrical component of line currents. Also find the symmetrical component of delta currents. Do you notice any relationship between symmetrical components of line and delta currents ? Comment. ! A R R R # $ B C ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC307* SLR-PC 307 e a t S Set A N o . T.E. (Electrical) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015 ENGINEERING ECONOMICS AND INDUSTRIAL MANAGEMENT Day and Date : Wednesday, 6-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All the questions are compulsory. 2) Figure to the right indicate full marks. 3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answers from the choices given below : 20 1) Which source in India gives maximum energy a) Nuclear energy b) Hydroelectricity c) Thermal power d) Tidal power 2) Microeconomics studies a) Individual income b) Total industry income c) Total national income d) None of the above 3) Macroeconomics is a) Study of unit b) Aggregate study c) Partial study d) None of the above 4) Pay-back period means a) Period of completion of project b) Period of recovery of variable cost c) Period of recovery of total cost d) None of the above 5) Value engineering aims to a) Analyse the cost b) Analyse procedure of working c) Both above d) None of the above 6) Make or buy decision depends upon a) Time available b) Degree of necessity c) Cost of production d) All the above 7) Proprietorship organizations are generally controlled by a) One individual b) Group of individuals c) Both above d) None of the above 8) Cost control does not necessarily mean cost reduction a) The statement is perfectly wrong b) The statement is right c) The statement is neither right nor wrong d) Control and reduction have no relation P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 307 -2- *SLRPC307* 9) Public sector undertakings are owned by Govt. a) The statement is right b) The statement is wrong c) Govt. does not control any undertaking d) Only 5% shares are owned by Govt. 10) Partnership firm has one of the following characteristics a) It has perpetual succession b) It would come to an end with death of one or all partners c) It is remain in existence even after death of all partners d) The liability of partners remains after death 11) Agriculture is a) Purchaser of electrical equipments for farm b) Provider of raw material to industries c) Both statements are true d) Either one or two is true but not both 12) One of the following is not a function of management. Pick up the one from following a) Planning b) Directing c) Controlling d) Entertaining 13) PERT and CPM are a) Methods of project formulation b) Methods of project implementation c) No way related with the project d) Increasing the cost of production, if used 14) MIS is necessary for a) Upward flow of information b) Downward flow of information c) Horizontal flow of information d) Total flow of information in the organization 15) The cost incurrent on land and building is a) Total cost b) Partial and securing cost c) Fixed cost d) Floating cost 16) Factory Act make provisions of a) Safety measures b) Welfare measures c) Both above d) None of the above 17) Factory Act does not make any compulsion of having separate toilet for women employees a) if there is only one women employee b) if there are 10 women employees c) no such provision d) provision of separate toilet even if one women employee Which one is appropriate of above ? 18) SSI is always defined on its size a) statement is true b) statement is wrong c) no definition of SSI d) defined on distance basis 19) The need of electricity generation is a) constantly increasing b) constantly decreasing c) increasing by 10% every year d) none of above 20) Reduction of project cost can be achieved by a) Reduction in capital investment b) Reduction in labour cost c) Reduction on cost of raw material d) Best utilization of all the factors Set A ______ www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC307* -3- SLR-PC 307 S e a t N o . T.E. (Electrical) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015 ENGINEERING ECONOMICS AND INDUSTRIAL MANAGEMENT Day and Date : Wednesday, 6-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instruction : 1)All the questions are compulsory. 2) Figure to the right indicate full marks. SECTION I 2. What do you mean by payback period ? How would you ascertain payback period of a project ? 10 3. Define trade cycle. Explain different phases of trade cycle. 10 OR Explain the concepts proprietorship and partnership and state distinction thereof. 10 4. Write short notes on any four : 20 1) Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) 2) Value engineering 3) Cost control and cost reduction 4) Public limited company 5) Line and staff organisations 6) Technological development. SECTION II 5. Explain the flow and importance of Management Information System (MIS). 10 6. Define small scale industry and explain the role played by SSIs in economic development of India. 10 OR Explain the growth of entrepreneurship and the facilities provided by govt. for the same. 10 7. Write short notes on any four : 20 1) Functions of management 2) Project cost reduction 3) Industrial policy 4) Safety Provisions and Factory Act 5) Objectives of Indian Electricity Act 2003 6) Avenues of self employment for engineers. ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC308* SLR-PC – 308 Seat No. Set A T.E. (Part – I) Electrical Engineering (New) Examination, 2015 ELECTROMAGNETIC ENGINEERING Day and Date : Thursday, 7-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Solve all of the following. (20×1=20) 1) ax . ay = ______a) az b) ax c) ay d) Zero 2) The Curl of vector A is represented by a) ∇.A b) ∇ × A c) ∇A d) ∇.∇A 3) dv = r2 sin θ dr dθ dφ is differential volume in a) Cartesian co-ordinate b) Cylindrical co-ordinate c) Spherical co-ordinate d) None of these 4) Density is ______quantity. a) Vector b) Scalar c) Unit Vector d) None 5) ψ = Q is a) Ampere’s law b) Faraday’s law c) Gauss’s law d) Ohm’s law 6) ∇V = −E is a) Ohm’s law b) Faraday’s law c) Poisson’s equation d) None of these 7) The electric field in free space ε μ ε σ μ a) D / 0 b) D / 0 c) 0D d) / 0 8) If the flux density is 10 Wb/m2 and the area of the coil is 2m2 then flux is a) 10 Wb b) 20 Wb c) 5 Wb d) 40 Wb P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 308 -2- *SLRPC308* 9) The flux density D is related to polarisation (P) and electric field intensity E as = ε + = ε + a) D 0E P b) D = E+ P c) D = E – P d) D 0P E 10) Continuity equation of current is based on the principle of a) Conservation of energy b) Newton’s third law c) Conservation of charge d) Newton’s second law 11) For static field following equation is correct a) ∇ ×B = J b) ∇ ×H = J + D c) ∇ ×H = J d) None of these 12) Magnetisation, M is defined as X B Bμ a) XmHb)XmBc)mμ0 d) 0 13) If two conductors carry current in opposite direction there will be a) Force of attraction between them b) Force of repulsion between them c) No forces between them d) None of above 14) Energy stored in an inductor is 1 1 1 a) LI2 b) L2I c) LI2 d) None of these 2 2 4 15) The magnetic field in an ideal conductor is a) Zero b) Infinite c) Finite d) The same as its outside field 16) Current flowing through capacitor is known as a) Conduction current b) Convection current c) Displacement current d) None of above 17) Stokes theorem relates in line integral with a) Volume integral b) Surface integral c) Line integral d) None of the above 18) Absolute permeability of free space is − − a) 4π ×10 7 A / m b) 4π ×10 7H/ m − − c) 4π ×10 7F / m d) 4π ×10 7H/ m2 19) A field can exist if it satisfies a) Faraday’s law b) Ampere’s law c) Gauss’s law d) All Maxwell’s equations 20) The magnetic lines end at a) End at Infinity b) They can end anywhere c) End on themselves d) None of these ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC308* -3- SLR-PC – 308 Seat No. T.E. (Part – I) Electrical Engineering (New) Examination, 2015 ELECTROMAGNETIC ENGINEERING Day and Date : Thursday, 7-5-2015 Marks :80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. SECTION – I 2. Solve any four from the following. (5×4=20) 1) Prove that E = − ∇V. 2) Transform the vector field W = 10ax– 8ay + 6az to cylindrical coordinate system at point P(10,– 8, 6). 3) In the free space let Q1 = 20 nc at P1 (0, – 3, 0) and Q2 = 15 nc at P2 (0, 0, 2) where should 35 nc charge be located so that E = 0 at the origin. 4) Obtain an expression for an electric field due to charged circular ring of radius h placed in XY plane, at a point P (0, 0, z), having uniform line charge ρ density of 1 c / m . 5) Find the electric field intensity at P (1, 1, 1) produced by four equal point charges of 3 nc located at A(1,1, 0), B(–1, 1, 0), C(– 1, – 1, 0) and D(1, – 1, 0). 3. Solve any two from the following. (10×2=20) 1) It is required to hold four equal point charges each in equilibrium at the corners of a square. Find the point charge which will do this, if placed at the centroid of the square. 2) Derive the expression for the electric field due to infinite sheet of charge in ρ XY plane, having surface charge density s c/m square. 3) Derive the boundary conditions for E and D at the interface between two dielectrics. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 308 -4- *SLRPC308* SECTION – II 4. Solve any four from the following. (5×4=20) 1) Derive the Maxwell’s equation in point and integral form from Faraday’s law for static field. 2) State and prove Ampere’s circuital law. 3) Derive the Lorentz force equation for moving charge which consist both electric and magnetic field. 4) An infinite long straight filament is placed along Z axis through which current of 1 A is passing. Find out magnetic field intensity at point at P (3,– 2, 6). 5) Derive the expression for Energy density in magnetic field. 5. Solve any two from the following. (10×2=20) 1) Evaluate both sides of Stroke’s theorem for the field 2 2 2 2 H = (y z/x)ax + (0.5y z /x )az. Also find current in the ay direction crossing the square surface in the plane y = 2 bounded by x = z = 1 and x = z = 2. 2) Let the permeability be 5 μH/ min region A where x < 0 and 20 μH / m in the region B where x > 0. If there is surface current density is 150 ax – 400 ay + 500az A/m, at x = 0 and if HA = 300 ax – 400 ay + 500 az A/m. Find i) 1 HtA1 ii) 1 HnA1 iii) 1HtB1 iv) 1 HnB1 3) Derive the Maxwell’s equation in point and integral form Gauss’s Law for time varying electric and magnetic field. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC309* SLR-PC – 309 Seat No. Set A T.E. (Electrical Engineering) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 CONTROL SYSTEMS – I (New) Day and Date : Friday, 8-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 I. Multiple Choice Questions : (1×20=20) 1) A controller, essentially is a a) sensor b) clipper c) comparator d) amplifier 2) The capacitance, in force-current analogy, is analogous to a) momentum b) velocity c) displacement d) mass 3) A control system in which the control action is somehow dependent on the output is known as a) Closed loop system b) Semiclosed loop system c) Open system d) None of the above 4) If the gain of the critical damped system is increased it will behave as a) oscillatory b) critically damped c) overdamped d) underdamped 5) ______signal will become zero when the feedback signal and reference signals are equal. a) Input b) Actuating c) Feedback d) Reference 6) The transfer function is applicable to which of the following ? a) Linear and time-in variant systems b) Linear and time-variant systems c) Linear systems d) Non-linear systems 7) Which of the following is an open loop control system ? a) Field controlled D.C. motor b) Ward leonard control c) Metadyne d) Stroboscope 8) In a control system the output of the controller is given to a) final control element b) amplifier c) comparator d) sensor P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 309 -2- *SLRPC309* 9) In force-voltage analogy, velocity is analogous to a) current b) charge c) inductance d) capacitance 10) By which of the following the system response can be tested better ? a) Ramp input signal b) Sinusoidal input signal c) Unit impulse input signal d) Exponentially decaying signal 11) The type 1 system has ______at the origin. a) no pole b) net pole c) simple pole d) two poles 12) The position and velocity errors of a type-2 system are a) constant, constant b) constant, infinity c) zero, constant d) zero, zero 13) Which of the following is the best method for determining the stability and transient response ? a) Root locus b) Bode plot c) Nyquist plot d) None of the above 14) The transient response, with feedback system a) rises slowly b) rises quickly c) decays slowly d) decays quickly 15) A conditionally stable system exhibits poor stability at a) low frequencies b) reduced values of open loop gain c) increased values of open loop gain d) none of the above 16) ______technique gives quick transient and stability response a) Root locus b) Bode c) Nyquist d) Nichols 17) Mass in mechanical system is analogous to ______in electrical system. a) Resistance b) Inductance c) Capacitance d) Conductance 18) Phase margin of a system is used to specify which of the following ? a) Frequency response b) Absolute stability c) Relative stability d) Time response 19) An increase in gain, most systems, leads to a) smaller damping ratio b) larger damping ratio c) constant damping ratio d) none of the above 20) Velocity error constant of a system is measured when the input to the system is unit ______function. a) parabolic b) ramp c) impulse d) step ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC309* -3- SLR-PC – 309 Seat No. T.E. (Electrical Engineering) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 CONTROL SYSTEMS – I (New) Day and Date : Friday, 8-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Assume suitable data wherever necessary. 3) Figures to the right indicate marks. SECTION – I II. Solve any four : (4×5=20) a) Explain F-I analogy with suitable electrical network. b) Find the transfer function of the network below. c) Find the transfer function of system below d) Explain the open loop and closed loop control system. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 309 -4- *SLRPC309* e) Find the T/F of block diagram below. III. a) A closed loop control system is subjected to a disturbance D(s) as shown. Determine the output of the system. 10 b) Find transfer function y5 y1 for SFG below. OR b) Discuss the effect of feedback on system Parameter Variation. What do you mean by sensitivity of system ? 10 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC309* -5- SLR-PC – 309 SECTION – II IV. Solve any four : (4×5=20) 1) Write the correlation between time domain and frequency domain. 2) Construct Routh array and determine the stability of the system whose characteristic equation is s6 + 2s5 + 8s4 + 12s3 + 20s2 + 16s + 16 = 0. Also determine the number of roots lying on right half of s-plane, left half of s-plane and on imaginary axis. 3) The unity feedback system is characterized by an open loop transfer function k G(s) = . Determine the gain K, so that the system will have a damping s(s + 10) ratio of 0.5 for this value of K. Determine settling time, peak overshoot and time at peak overshoot for a unit step input. 4) Explain the time-domain specifications in detail. 5) Explain the gain margin and phase margin for frequency response. V. Solve any two : (2×10=20) 1) A unity feedback control system has an open loop transfer function, k G(s) = . Sketch the root locus. s(s2 + 4s + 13) 2) Sketch the Bode plot for the following transfer function and determine phase margin and gain margin. 75(1+ 0.2s) G(s) = s(s2 + 16s + 100) 3) Derive an expression for the time response of an under damped second order system when subjected to unit step input. ——————— Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC31* SLR-PC 31 e a t S Set A N o . T.E. (Civil) Part I Examination, 2015 BUILDING PLANNING AND DESIGN (New) Day and Date : Thursday, 7-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Figures to right indicate full marks. 2) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and mention it clearly. 3) Retain all projection/construction lines on drawing sheet. 4) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. 1. State whether following statements are correct or incorrect : 1) Rainwater harvesting is strictly prohibited in green building. 2) In Banks, height of public counters shall be about 0.5 m. 3) ICU in hospital means Illness Cure Unit. 4) In architecture, light, shade and shadow of masses also create contrast. 5) In auto CAD, revision of drawing is very fast. 6) Unit of fire load is Kcal/sq.m. 7) For school building minimum width of stair should be 1m. 8) FSI in case of public buildings is always less than one. 9) For cinema theatres, optimum reverberation time is 1.3 seconds. 10) For acoustics, reverberation time of 0.5 to 1.5 seconds is considered as excellent. 2. Select the most appropriate alternative for the multiple choice questions : 10 11) The minimum distance between the first row of student and the black board is a) 2.1 m b) 1.5 m c) 4.2 m d) 7.4 m 12) Desirable head room for a school in a tropical country is a) 3 m b) 4 m c) 3.6 m d) 4.5 m P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 31 -2- *SLRPC31* 13) The minimum clearance required between two adjoining desks arranged side by side is a) 150 mm b) 1000 mm c) 450 mm d) 1500 mm 14) The height of the stage of the assembly room in school building is a) 1.5 m b) 2.1 m c) 2.4 m d) 1.1 m 15) In Hostel, Dining hall is designed at the rate of a) 1.2 sq.m per resident b) 1 sq.m per resident c) 1 sq.m per every 2 or 3 residents d) 1.2 sq.m per every 2 or 3 residents 16) The desirable sound intensity inside a hotel room is less than a) 60 dB b) 45 dB c) 75 dB d) 100 dB 17) For bus station, parking area is to be planned at the rate of a) 5 sq.m per bus b) 10 sq.m per bus c) 15 sq.m per bus d) 20 sq.m per bus 18) In library, clear spacing between the shelves is a) 2 m b) 3 m c) 1 m d) 1.5 m 19) In library, desirable length of a table is a) 2.4 to 4 m b) 1 to 2 m c) 2 to 5 m d) 3 to 6 m 20) The minimum intensity of light required in a class room is a) 150 lux b) 100 lux c) 70 lux d) 80 lux ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC31* -3- SLR-PC 31 S e a t N o . T.E. (Civil) Part I Examination, 2015 BUILDING PLANNING AND DESIGN (New) Day and Date : Thursday, 7-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Section I to be drawn on full imperial drawing sheet. Use both sides of the sheet. 3) Section II to be written in answer book. 4) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 5) Retain all projection/construction lines on drawing sheet. 6) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and mention it clearly. SECTION I 2. It is proposed to construct school for mentally retarded students at primary level of capacity 250 students. The proposed building should be capable to cater basic requirements and demands of students as well as administration. The building is RCC framed structure with single storey. Assume additional data if required. Draw : 1) Detailed plan showing all the essential units (scale 1 : 100). 12 2) Front elevation of building (scale 1 : 100). 10 3) Site plan to suitable scale and mention it on drawing. 8 Note : The plot admeasures 100 m × 150 m and it faces 12 m wide road. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 31 -4- *SLRPC31* 3. Draw the two point perspective view of the object shown in fig. to suitable scale taking S.P. at a distance 3 m along the central visual ray. Assume eye level is at 1.5 m above the G.L. The base block of pillar makes an angle of 30° with the P.P. and touches the same of A. 10 Note : Figure not to scale. All Dimensions in mm. SECTION II 4. Attempt any four questions : 40 A) Explain salient features of Green Building and its future scope. B) Explain various acoustic defects which require due consideration for improving the acoustical conditions. C) What are the advantages of using CAD system to the design engineer ? Also discuss applications of Auto CAD in building planning and design. D) State various principles of architectural composition and design. Explain in brief any 2 of them in detail. E) Explain need for rain water harvesting. F) Explain in detail different types of fire hazards. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC310* SLR-PC – 310 Seat Set No. A T.E. (Electrical Engineering) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 ELECTRICAL MACHINES – III (New) Day and Date : Saturday, 9-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : (1×20=20) 1) At leading loads armature reaction in an alternators a) Cross magnetising b) Demagnetising c) Non effective d) Magnetising 2) In alternator electrical power is given to ______winding. a) Armature b) Field c) Damper d) Compensation 3) A leading PF load on an alternator implies that its voltage regulation shall be a) Positive b) Negative c) Zero d) Any of the above 4) When the speed of the alternator is changed from 2400 RPM to 1200 RPM the generated EMF become a) One half b) Twice c) One fourth d) Four times 5) For the same power rating, an alternator operating at lower voltage will be a) Less noisy b) Costlier c) Larger in size d) More efficient 6) A 3ph alternator has 3 slots per pole. The distribution factor of the winding is a) 0.866 b) 0.5 c) 1 d) None of the above 7) For a machine on infinite bus active power can be varied by a) Changing field excitation b) Changing of prime mover speed c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of the above 8) The maximum current that can be supplied by an alternator depends on a) Speed of the exciter b) Number of poles c) Exciter current d) Strength of the magnetic field P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 310 -2- *SLRPC310* 9) The potier triangle separates a) Stator and rotor losses b) Fixed and variable losses c) Armature voltage and field voltage d) Armature leakage reactance and armature reaction MMF 10) The synchronous reactance of an alternator is generally ______armature resistance. a) 5 times smaller than b) 5 times greater than c) 10 to 100 times greater than d) 10 times smaller than 11) In synchronous motor the magnitude of stator back emf depends on a) Speed of motor b) Load on motor c) Both speed and rotor flux d) DC excitation only 12) V curves of synchronous motor are drawn between a) Ia and V b) Ia and If c) Ia and PF d) Ia and Eb 13) Synchronous motor is working on overexcited condition, then machine acts as a) Capacitor b) Inductor c) Resistor d) None 14) When the synchronous motor is on no load the load angle δ is about a) 45° electrical b) 90° electrical c) 30° electrical d) 0° electrical 15) The synchronous motor are generally of a) Induction type machines b) Cylindrical type machines c) Salient pole type machines d) Hysteresis type machines 16) In a synchronous motor hunting can be minimized a) By using damper bars b) By using flywheels c) By designing the motor for adequate synchronizing power d) By any of the above methods 17) Which synchronous motor will be smallest in size a) 5HP, 500 rpm b) 5HP, 375 rpm c) 10Hp, 500 rpm d) 10Hp, 375 rpm 18) A stepping motor is a ______device. a) Mechanical b) Electrical c) Analogue d) Incremental 19) The stepping angle for a 3ph, 24 pole PM stepper motor is a) 5°/step b) 10°/step c) 15°/step d) 2.5°/step 20) A two phase ac servomotor has a) Wound rotor b) Cage rotor c) Wound or Cage rotor d) A rotor similar to that in dc motors ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC310* -3- SLR-PC – 310 Seat No. T.E. (Electrical Engineering) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 ELECTRICAL MACHINES – III (New) Day and Date : Saturday, 9-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. 2. Solve any four : (5×4=20) a) Derive EMF equation of alternator with short pitched coils and distributed windings. b) Derive power equation of smooth cylindrical rotor alternator. c) Define synchronising current, power, torque and write down the equations for that ? d) What are necessary conditions for parallel operation ? How these conditions are achieved ? e) 4 pole, 36 slots, 3 phase alternator coil are short pitched by 2 slots. Find the pitch factor Kp and distribution factor Kd. 3. Solve any two : (10×2=20) a) Explain the procedure how regulation is determined by using zero power factor method. b) A 230 V, 3ph, star connected alternator given on open circuit EMF of 230V for a field current of 0.38A. The same field current causes an armature current of 12.5A on short circuit. The armature resistance per phase is 0.9 ohm. Find the regulation of an alternator for armature current of 10A at : i) 0.8 lag ii) 0.8 lead. c) Explain the concept of direct axis reactance Xd and quadrature axis reactance Xq in case of salient pole synchronous alternator and explain how to determine the Xd and Xq by slip test. 4. Solve any four : (5×4=20) a) Explain construction and working of permanent magnet synchronous motor. b) Explain construction and working of permanent magnet DC motor. c) Explain construction and working of Universal motor ? d) Why the synchronous motor is not self-starting ? How to start this motor ? e) Explain synchronous motor with synchronous condenser. Draw neat phasor diagram. 5. Solve any two : (10×2=20) a) A 400V, 10HP, 3 phase star connected synchronous motor has negligible armature resistance and has synchronous reactance of 10 ohm/ph. Find the minimum current and the corresponding EMF induced for full load conditions. Assume efficiency of 85%. b) Explain the operation of synchronous motor with constant load and following different excitation with phasor diagram : i) Normal excitation ii) Under excitation iii) Over excitation. c) Explain construction and working of permanent magnet and VR stepper motor. ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC312* SLR-PC – 312 Seat No. Set A T.E. (Electrical) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 POWER SYSTEM – II (Old) Day and Date : Thursday, 14-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1) All questions are compulsory. 2) Assume suitable data if necessary. 3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : (20×1=20) 1) The magnitude of fault current depends upon a) Total impedance up to faults b) Voltage at the fault point c) Load current being supplied before occurrence of fault d) Both a) and b) 2) For a given base voltage and base volt-ampere, the per-unit impedance value of an element is x. What will be the per unit impedance value of this element when the voltages and volt-ampere bases are both doubled ? a) 0.5 x b) 2 x c) 4 x d) x 3) An isolated synchronous generator with transient reactance equal to 0.1 pu on a 100 MVA base is connected to the high voltages bus through a step-up transformer of reactance 0.1 pu on a 100 MVA base. The faults level at the bus is a) 1,000 MVA b) 500 MVA c) 50 MVA d) 10 MVA 4) The value of the expression 1 + α + α 2 is a) 0 b) 1 c) –1 d) 2 5) A balanced 3-phase system consist of a) Zero-sequence currents only b) Positive-sequence currents only c) Negative and zero sequence currents d) Zero negative and positive sequence currents 6) In case of an unbalanced star – connected load supplied from an unbalanced 3-phase, 3-wire system, load currents will consists of a) Positive-sequence components b) Negative-sequence components c) Zero-sequence components d) Only a) and b) 7) Negative-sequence reactance of transformer is a) Equal to the positive-sequence reactance b) Larger than the positive-sequence reactance c) Smaller than the positive-sequence reactance d) None of the above 8) The zero-sequence fault current are absent when the fault is a) Single line to ground b) Line to line c) Double line to ground d) None of the above 9) A star-connected 3-phase 11 kv, 25 MVA alternator with its neutral grounded through a 0.033 pu reactance (based on the alternator rating) has positive, – negative and zero sequence reactance of 0.2 pu, 0.1 pu and 0.1 pu respectively. A single line to ground fault on one of its terminals would result in a fault MVA of a) 150 MVA b) 125 MVA c) 100 MVA d) 50 MVA P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 312 -2- *SLRPC312* 10) The stability of the power system is not affected a) Generator reactance b) Line reactance c) Line losses d) Excitation of generators 11) If a generator of 250 MVA rating has an inertia constant of 6 MJ/MVA, its inertia constant on a 100 MVA base is a) 15 MJ/MVA b) 10.5 MJ/MVA c) 6 MJ/MVA d) 2.4 MJ/MVA 12) Equal area criterion gives the information regarding a) Stability region b) Absolute stability c) Relative stability d) Swing curve 13) For a load-flow solution the quantities normally specified at a voltages controlled bus are a) P and Q b) P and | V | c) Q and |V| d) P and δ 14) In power system, the maximum numbers of buses are a) Generators buses b) Load buses c) Slack buses d) P-V buses 15) The bus admittance matrix of the network shown in the given figure, for which the marked parameters are per unit impedance, is ⎡ 0.3 0.2⎤ ⎡0.3 0.2⎤ ⎡ 0.3 − 0.2⎤ ⎡15 − 5⎤ a) ⎢ ⎥ b) ⎢ ⎥ c) ⎢ ⎥ d) ⎢ ⎥ ⎣− 0.2 0.2⎦ ⎣0.2 0.2⎦ ⎣− 0.2 0.2 ⎦ ⎣− 5 5 ⎦ 16) For accurate load-flow calculation on large power systems ______method is best one. a) G-S b) N R c) De-coupled d) None 17) In a load-flow study a PV bus is treated as PQ bus when a) Voltages limit is violated b) Active power limit is violated c) Phase angle is high d) Reactive power limit is violated 18) Compared to Gauss-Seidal method, Newton-Raphon method takes a) Less number of iterations and more time per iteration b) Less number of iteration and less time per iteration c) More number of iteration and more time per iteration d) More number of iteration and less time per iteration 19) The following figure shows the single line diagram of a power system with all reactance marked in per unit (pu) on the same base The system is on no load when a 3-phase fault occur at F on the high voltage side of the transformer T2. The fault current will be a) –j 0.8187 pu b) +j 0.8187 pu c) –j 8.1871 pu d) +j 8.1871 pu 20) Zero sequences currents flow in a transmission line when there is a) Double line to ground faults b) An overvoltage in the line caused by charged loads c) A line to line fault d) A faults across all the three line ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC312* -3- SLR-PC – 312 Seat No. T.E. (Electrical) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 POWER SYSTEM – II (Old) Day and Date : Thursday, 14-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Assume suitable data if necessary. SECTION – I 2. Solve any four : (4×6=24) 1) Why the per unit system is used in the power system analysis ? 2) Redraw the power system shown in figure showing the pu values of each components on a common base of 100 MVA, 11 kv, at generator bus. All impedance are given in their own base. 3) Discuss the various types of buses used in the load flow studies. 4) Explain the formation of admittance matrix by suitable example of power system. 5) What is the necessity of designing one of the buses as a slack bus ? 6) Explain different types of stability incase of system. 3. 1) Draw the flow chart for load flow solution by the Gauss-Saidal iterative method and explain. 8 2) Explain the Newton-Raphon method of load flow analysis. 8 OR 2) A 2 bus system is shown in figure Y11=Y22=1.6<–80 pv and Y12=Y21=1.9<100 pv. Determine thevoltage at bus 2 by Gauss-Saidal method after two iteration ? 8 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 312 -4- *SLRPC312* SECTION – II 4. Solve any four : (4×6=24) 1) Explain the following terms related to the three phase alternator running under no-load : 1) Symmetric short circuit current 2) Dc off set current 3) Doubling effect. 2) A three phase transmission line operating at 33 kv and having a resistance and reactance of 5 Ω and 20 Ω respectively is connected to a generating station bus bar through a 15 MVA step up transformer which has a reactance of 0.06 per unit 0.1 pu connected to the bus bars are two generators, one 10 MVA having 0.1 pu reactance and another 0.075 per unit reactance. Calculate the short circuit MVA and the fault current when a three phase short circuit occurs at the load end of the transmission line. 3) Explain how an balanced set of three phase voltages can be represented by three sets of symmetrical components. 4) A double line to ground fault occurs on phase b and c of a transmission line with impedance Zf between the fault and ground. Show the sequence networks connection at the fault point, and determine the point and fault current. 5) In a three phase four wire system the currents in the lines a, b and c under abnormal condition of loading were as follows : Ia = 100 < 30 A, Ib = 50 < 300 A, Ic = 30 < 180 A. Calculate the zero, positive and negative phase sequence in line a. 6) Draw the zero sequence networks for the power system shown below : 5. Solve any two : (8×2=16) 1) Determine the complex power representation by a) Symmetrical components. b) Unbalanced three phase components. 2) Determine the three sequence impedances of the transmission line. 3) A three phase star connected supplies a star connects inductive load through the transmission line. The star point of the load is grounded and the generator neutral is ungrounded. The load reactance is j 0.5 pu/ph and line reactance is j 0.1 pu/pn. The positive, negative and zero sequence reactances of the generator are j 0.5, j 0.5 and j 0.05 pu respectively. An L-G fault takes place in phase ‘A’ half way down the line, pre fault voltage is 1 < 0 pu. Calculate the fault current. ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC313* SLR-PC 313 S e a t o . N Set A T.E. (Electrical) (Part II) Examination, 2015 CONTROL SYSTEM II (Old) Day and Date : Saturday, 16-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 2) Assume suitable data if necessary. 3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 15 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : (1×20=20) 1) Addition of zeros in the transfer function causes which of the following ? a) Lead compensation b) Lag compensation c) Lead-lag compensation d) None of the above 2) ______signal will become zero when the feedback signal and reference signs are equal. a) Input b) Actuating c) Feedback d) Reference 3) The term backlash is associated with a) Servomotors b) Induction relays c) Gear trains d) None of the above 4) With feedback ______increases. a) system stability b) sensitivity c) gain d) effects of disturbing signals 5) The frequency and time domain are related through which of the following ? a) Laplace Transform and Fourier Integral b) Laplace Transform c) Fourier Integral d) Either (b) or (c) 6) A conditionally stable system exhibits poor stability at a) low frequencies b) reduced values of open loop gain c) increased values of open loop gain d) none of the above 7) The type 0 system has ______at the origin. a) no pole b) net pole c) simple pole d) two poles 8) The position and velocity errors of a type-2 system are a) constant, constant b) constant, infinity c) zero, constant d) zero, zero 9) Which of the following is the best method for determining the stability and transient response ? a) Root locus b) Bode plot c) Nyquist plot d) None of the above P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 313 -2- *SLRPC339* 10) Which of the following is the non-linear system ? a) Temperature controlled smelting furnaceb) Servomotor working in saturation c) Automatic voltage stabilizers d) All of the above 11) ______technique is not applicable to nonlinear system ? a) Nyquist Criterion b) Quasi linearization c) Functional analysis d) Phase-plane representation 12) The phase lag produced by transportation relays a) is independent of frequency b) is inverseh proportional to frequency c) increases linearly with frequency d) decreases linearly with frequency 13) In non-linear control system limit cycle is self sustained oscillations of a) fixed frequency b) variable frequency c) variable amplitude d) fixed frequency and amplitude 14) Which of the following is the non-linearity caused by servomotor ? a) Static friction b) Backlash c) Saturation d) None of the above 15) If the gain of the critical damped system is increased it will behave as a) oscillatory b) critically damped c) overdamped d) underdamped 16) In a control system integral error compensation ______steady state error. a) increases b) minimizes c) does not have any effect on d) None of the above 17) A phase lag lead network introduces in the output a) lag at all frequencies b) lag at high frequencies and lead at low frequencies c) lag at low frequencies and lead at high frequencies d) none of the above 18) Which of the following is exhibited by root locus diagrams ? a) The poles of the transfer function for a set of parameter values b) The bandwidth of the system c) The response of a system to a step input d) The frequency response of a system 19) The steady state error of a control system can be reduced by increasing a) gain constant of the system b) time constant of the system c) both gain and time constant of system d) none of these 1 0 . 5 20) The transfer function is s it represents a 1 s a) Lead network b) Lag network c) Lag-lead network d) Proportional controller ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC313* -3- SLR-PC 313 S e a t N o . T.E. (Electrical) (Part II) Examination, 2015 CONTROL SYSTEM II (Old) Day and Date : Saturday, 16-5-2015 Max. Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 3) Assume suitable data if necessary. SECTION I 2. Solve any four : (4×5=20) a) Write steps to design lag compensator using root locus. b) Derive the realization of leading network. c) The state equations of system are as below N N N K N N Check controllability. d) The system is described by the matrices. > ? A = ! Find transfer function. e) Find eigen values of ) ! % $ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 313 -4- *SLRPC339* 3. a) Design a suitable phase lag compensation network for k G ( s ) to meet the following specifications. 10 s ( 1 0 . 1 s ) ( 1 0 . 2 s ) i) Kv = 30 per second ii) Phase margin 40° b) The open loop T/F of Type - 2 system with unity feedback is given by k G ( s ) . Design a lead compensator to meet the following specifications. s ( 1 0 . 2 5 s ) i) Ka = 10 ii) Phase Margin = 35° OR b) Obtain the transfer function of the given state equation. N N N N " N N ! ! N O N . N ! SECTION II 4. Solve any four : (4×5=20) a) Explain limit cycle. b) Explain in short sample and hold device. c) Explain different types of non-linearities. d) Explain mapping between s-plane and Z-plane. e) Explain block diagram of discrete time control system. 5. Solve any two : (2×10=20) a) Explain the steady state analysis of discrete control system. b) Explain the stability analysis by Juris stability test. c) Explain in short construction of phase trajectories by the isocline method. ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC314* SLR-PC 314 e a t S Set A N o . T.E. (Electrical) (Part II) Examination, 2015 MICROPROCESSOR AND ITS APPLICATIONS (Old) Day and Date : Tuesday, 19-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Assume suitable data if necessary. 2) Figures to right indicate full marks. 3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct alternative : 20 1) Which is low order register of psw ? a) Flag b) Reg A c) Reg B d) Reg D 2) What is the width of program counter in 8085 ? a) 64 K b) 32 K c) 14 K d) 16 K 3) Suppose A = 23H and register B = 88 H and instruction ORB is executed, then what are the contents of A ? a) OOH b) FFH c) BA d) AB 4) The instructions used for data transfer in I/O mapped I/O are a) In, OUT b) LDA addr c) STA addr d) LDA addr, STA addr 5) What happens when HLT instruction is executed in MP ? a) Microprocessor enters into wait state b) Microprocessor enters into halt state and buses are tristated c) Microprocessor restart its execution by making PC = 0000 d) Microprocessor performs NOP 6) Clock frequency of 8085 microprocessor is a) 1 MH2 b) 2 MH2 c) 3 MH2 d) 12 MH2 7) Vector address of RST 6.5 is a) 0024H b) 003CH c) 0034H d) 002CH P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 314 -2- *SLRPC314* 8) To draw the timing diagram of opcode fetch cycle, how many T-states required ? a) 4T states b) 5T states c) 3T states d) 8T states 9) LDA 3000H has following addressing mode a) Immediate addressing b) Register addressing c) Direct addressing d) Implied addressing 10) TRAP is ______where as RST 5.5, RST 6.5, RST 7.5 are a) maskable, non maskable b) maskable, maskable c) non maskable, non maskable d) non maskable, maskable 11) Which IC is used for USART ? a) 8279 b) 8255 c) 8251 d) 8051 12) What is the Mode 1 of 8255 PPI ? a) Basic I/O b) Strobed I/O c) Bi-directional I/O d) None of above 13) How many ports are there in 8255 PPI ? a) two ports b) four ports c) three ports d) no ports 14) Mode 0 of 8253 is a) Interrupt on terminal count b) Programmable one shot c) Rate generator d) Square wave generator 15) 8259 is a a) Programmable periferal interface b) Programmable interval timer c) Programmable interrupt controller d) USART 16) When S1 = 1, S0 = 0 then following operation is done in microprocessor a) opcode fetch b) memory read c) memory write d) interrupt acknowledgment 17) A = 37, B = 3F and cy i.e. borrow flog is set and SBB is executed, what will be the value of A ? a) 40 b) 30 c) F7 d) F8 18) For BCD addition which instruction is used ? a) RAL b) ANI c) DAA d) None of the above 19) JN2 8000 is how many byte instruction ? a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1 20) How many counters are there in 8253 ? a) one b) two c) four d) three ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC314* -3- SLR-PC 314 S e a t N o . T.E. (Electrical) (Part II) Examination, 2015 MICROPROCESSOR AND ITS APPLICATIONS (Old) Day and Date : Tuesday, 19-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. SECTION I 2. Answer any four : (4×5=20) 1) Explain any five instructions of data transfer instructions. 2) Explain following terms with example : a) Instruction cycle b) Machine cycle. 3) Draw a logic schematic to generate , , and . M E M R M E M W I O R I O W 4) Write a subroutine for 8085 to generate a delay of 10 s if clock period of system is 320 ns. 5) Explain different addressing modes of 8085. 3. a) Draw pin diagram of 8085 and explain different signals. 10 b) Write an assembly program to add 10 data bytes stored at memory location starting from 4000H. 10 OR c) Write an assembly program to arrange an array of 10 bytes in descending order. 10 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 314 -4- *SLRPC314* SECTION II 4. Answer any four : (4×5=20) 1) Explain control word of 8255 with example. 2) Draw block diagram of 8259. 3) Explain in detail DAC weighted resistor. 4) List the features of 8251 USART. 5) Explain RS-232C connections DTE to DCE. 5. 1) Interface A push button keyboard and seven segment display to 8085 using 8255. 10 2) Explain mode 0 and mode 1 operation of 8253. 10 OR 3) Design a temperature controller using 8085 microprocessor. Assume suitable data. 10 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC315* SLR-PC – 315 Seat No. Set A T.E. (Electrical) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 POWER ELECTRONICS (Old) Day and Date : Thursday, 21-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Solve all questions : (20×1=20) 1) Class F commutation of SCR means a) Impulse commutation b) Resonant pulse commutation c) Complimentary commutation d) Natural commutation 2) A chopper has Vs as source voltage, R as load resistance and α as duty cycle, the r.m.s. value of the output voltage is Vs α α − a) Vs b) Vs c) α d) 1 Vs Vs 3) In DC chopper, output voltage can be controlled in time ratio control by changing a) Toff b) Ton c) T d) None of the above 4) In step-up chopper output voltage is given by Vs 1 a) Vo = α Vs b) c) Vs d) (1 – α ) Vs α 1− α 5) Power electronics controls a) Mechanical power b) Heat Power c) Magnetic power d) Electrical power 6) ______is used to protect SCR against di/dt. a) Snubber circuit b) Thyrector c) Inductor d) Fuse 7) A four quadrant operation require a) Two full converters in series b) Two full converters connected back to back c) Two full converters connected in parallel d) Two semi conductors connected back to back 8) In a circulating-current type of dual converter, the nature of the voltage across the reactor is a) Alternating b) Pulsating c) Direct d) Triangular P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 315 -2- *SLRPC315* 9) For half controlled rectifier with RL load, average o/p voltage is given by Vm Vm 2Vm Vm a) (1+ cosα) b) (1+ cosα) c) cosα d) cos α π 2π π 2π 10) Fully controlled bridge rectifier with purely resistive load provides ______operation. a) Two quadrant b) One quadrant c) Inverter d) None of the above 11) A single-phase full bridge inverter can operate in load-commutation mode in case load consists of a) RL load b) RLC under damped c) RLC damped d) RLC critically damped 12) In thyristor, holding current is a) more than the latching current b) less than the latching current c) equal to latching current d) none of the above 13) Chopper control for DC motor provides variation in a) Input voltage b) Frequency c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of the above 14) In dc choppers, if T is the chopping period then the o/p voltage can be controlled by F.M by varying a) T, keeping Ton Constant b) Ton, keeping T Constant c) T, keeping Toff Constant d) Toff, keeping T Constant vg 15) The voltage gain G(s) = for buck boost regulator is given by vs 1 K − K − 1 a) b) c) d) 1− K 1− K 1− K 1− K 16) When anode is possible with respect to cathode, in SCR the No. of blocked PN Junctions are a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 17) In a thyristor anode current is made up of a) Electrons only b) Electron and holes c) Electrons or holes d) Holes only 18) Power MOSFET is a) Bipolar device b) Unipolar device c) Voltage controlled device d) Both (b) and (c) 19) In a GTO, anode current begins to fall when gate current a) Is negative peaks at time t = 0 b) Is negative peak at t = storage period ts c) Just begins to become negative and t = 0 d) None of these 20) A PWM switching scheme is used with a three phase inverter to a) Reduce the total distortion with modest filtering b) Minimize the load on DC side c) Increase the life of the batteries d) Reduce Low order harmonics and increase high order harmonics ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC315* -3- SLR-PC – 315 Seat No. T.E. (Electrical) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 POWER ELECTRONICS (Old) Day and Date : Thursday, 21-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. SECTION – I 2. Solve any four : (4×5=20) a) Draw a single-phase controlled bridge rectifier and corresponding waveforms. Derive the equation for average o/p voltage. b) Draw the dynamic characteristics of SCR with neat diagram. c) Draw the construction of IGBT and explain switching characteristics. d) A single phase semi converter is operated from 120 V, 50 Hz ac supply. The load resistance is 10 Ω . If the average output voltage is 25% of the maximum possible average output voltage. Calculate. i) Delay angle ii) RMS and Average output currents iii) Average and rms thyristor currents. e) Draw the equivalent circuit of GTO and explain its characteristics. 3. Solve any two : (2×10=20) a) Draw and explain the characteristics of DIAC and TRIAC. b) Draw the circuit for two transistor analogy of SCR and find expression for anode current IA. c) i) Derive the performance factors of line commutated converters. ii) A single phase semi converter is operated from 120 V, 50 Hz ac supply. The load current with an average value Idc is continuous and ripple free firing angle π α = . Determine : 6 a) Displacement factor b) Harmonic factor of i/p current c) i/p P.F Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 315 -4- *SLRPC315* SECTION – II 4. Solve any four : (4×5=20) a) Explain the buck converter with neat diagram and wave form. b) What is PWM ? List the various PWM techniques. How do these differ from each other ? c) Write the comparison between CSI and VSI. d) Draw the single-phase bridge inverter circuit with RL load and explain its operation with output voltage and current wave forms. e) A Chopper circuit is operating on TRC at a frequency of 2 kHz on a 460 V supply. If the load voltage is 350 volts, calculate the conduction period of the thyristor in each cycle. 5. Solve any two : (2×10=20) a) Discuss the principle of working of 3-phase inverter with appropriate waveform and circuit diagram on assumption that each thyristor conduct for 120 degree and resistive load is star connected. b) A dc chopper in figure has a resistive load of R = 10 Ω and input voltage of V = 200 V. When chopper is ON, its voltage drop is 2 V and the chopping frequency is 1 kHz. If the duty cycle is 60%, determine : i) Average output voltage ii) RMS value of output voltage iii) Chopper efficiency. c) The single phase half bridge inverter using transistors has a resistive load of 20 Ω . The DC supply is 24 V. Calculate : a) RMS output voltage at fundamental frequency. b) Output power. c) Average and peak current. d) Peak reverses blocking voltage of each transistor. ——————— Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC316* SLR-PC – 316 Seat No. Set A T.E. (Electrical) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 ENGINEERING ECONOMICS AND INDUSTRIAL MANAGEMENT (Old) Day and Date : Saturday, 23-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. N.B. :1)Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : 20 1) The applicant’s job skills as well as potential of acquiring them is measured by a) Intelligent test b) Aptitude test c) Personality test d) Interest test 2) Extension in demand is due to a) Extension in price b) Extension in supply c) Fall in price of commodity d) Increase in the income of customer 3) Semi variable cost is one which is a) Fixed cost b) variable cost c) Partly fixed and partly variable cost d) Direct cost 4) Manufacturing a number of identical articles in lots to meet specific order or to meet continuous demand is know as a) Job production b) Batch production c) Continuous production d) Flow production 5) In thermal power plants coal from the coal handling plant is moved to the boiler bunkers through a a) Belt conveyor b) Bucket conveyor c) Fork-lift truck d) Over head crane 6) The type of organisation preferred for an automobile industry is a) line organisation b) functional organisation c) line and staff organisation d) line staff and functional organisation P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 316 -2- *SLRPC316* 7) Standing orders which are statutory are applicable to a) all industries b) all process industries c) only major industries d) industries employing more than 100 workers 8) Strategic management is primarily carried out by a) Top management b) Middle management c) Knowledge management d) Operational management 9) The objectives of plant layout are a) Optimum utilization of resources b) Better inventory control c) Economics of material handling d) All of the above 10) In order to avoid excessive multiplication of the facilities, the layout preferred is a) Product layout b) Group layout c) Static layout d) Process layout 11) In value engineering important consideration is given to a) Cost control b) Customer satisfaction c) Function concept d) Profit maximisation 12) A manager who acts as crises manager is playing which of the role ? a) Resource allocator b) Disturbance handler c) Entrepreneur d) Negotiator 13) The father of scientific management is a) Frank Gilbreth b) Henry Feyol c) F.Y. Taylor d) H. Emerson 14) In Joint Stock Companies the management is a) Efficient b) Non efficient c) Smooth d) Both a) and c) 15) The Indian Electricity Act was first made in a) 1903 b) 1920 c) 1902 d) 1917 16) Short-term planning means a) Period upto one year b) More than two years c) Three years d) Three to five years 17) Long-term planning means a) period of 5 to 15 years b) One to five years c) up to one year d) period at 15 to 25 years 18) Function of staffing includes a) Placement b) Development of personnel c) Compensation d) All of the above 19) Products are manufactured by transformation of a) Finished material b) Raw material c) Semi finished material d) None of the above 20) Value is equal to a) Utility b) Cost c) Utility/cost d) Cost/utility ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC316* -3- SLR-PC – 316 Seat No. T.E. (Electrical) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 ENGINEERING ECONOMICS AND INDUSTRIAL MANAGEMENT (Old) Day and Date : Saturday, 23-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. N.B. :1) All the questions are compulsory. 3) Figures to the right indicate full marks. SECTION – I 2. Describe main features of engineering economics. 10 3. Define value engineering. How it is useful from engineering economics point of view ? 10 OR Explain the term break-even point and the graphical method for evaluation of break-even point. 4. Write short notes on any four : 20 1) Rate of return 2) Economic order quantity 3) Make or buy 4) Five years plan of Indian Economy 5) Line organisation 6) Batch type production. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 316 -4- *SLRPC316* SECTION – II 5. How you will carry out project planning ? Explain various steps in brief. 10 6. Explain in detail functions of management. 10 OR Explain the procedure for starting a small scale industry. 7. Write short notes on any four : 20 1) Industrial safety 2) Management information system 3) Indian Factory Act 4) Types of Small Scale Industry 5) Methods of project implementation 6) Methods of reducing project cost. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC317* SLR-PC 317 S e a t 5 A J o . N A T.E. (Electrical) (Part II) Examination, 2015 UTILIZATION OF ELECTRICAL ENERGY AND ENERGY CONSERVATION (Old) Day and Date : Tuesday, 26-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) All questions are compulsory. 3) Figures to right indicate full marks. 4) Assume suitable data if necessary. 5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : (1×20=20) 1) A locomotive exerts a tractive effort of 30,000 Newtons in pulling a train at 50 km per hour on the level hack. It is to haul the same train at the same speed on a gradient and the tractive effort required is 45000 Nw. The horse power delivered by the motor will be more if it is driven by A) dc series motors B) induction motor C) same in both cases 2) A composite system consists of A) a combination of diesel engine and dc series motor B) a combination of diesel engine and ac single phase motor C) single phase power received is converted into dc or three phase power ac system D) use of combination of dc and ac motors on the same locomotive 3) Horse power of steam locomotives is A) Up to 1500 B) 1500 to 2500 C) 2500 to 4000 D) more than 4000 4) Horse power of diesel locomotives is A) 1000 to 1500 B) 1500 to 2500 C) 2500 to 5000 D) 5000 to 10,000 5) Locomotives with manometer bogie have A) lot of skidding B) low coefficient of adhesion C) uneven distribution of tractive effect D) suitability for passenger as well as freight service 6) Which of the following lamp has last capacity to sustain voltage fluctuations ? A) sodium vapor lamp B) fluorescent lamp C) incandescent lamp D) mercury vapor lamp P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 317 -2- *SLRPC317* 7) In neon signs argon gas is used for A) yellow color B) blue color C) red color D) green color 8) In neon signs, helium is used for A) yellow color B) blue color C) red color D) blue color 9) In neon signs, neon with a mixture of mercury gives A) green color B) blue color C) red color D) yellow color 10) The electrodes of neon tubes work at A) very low temperatures B) ordinary voltages C) 400 to 440 volts D) 2000 to 6000 volts Questions 11-12 refer to the data given below : A train runs at an average speed of 45 kmph between stations 2.5 km apart. The train accelerates at 2 kmph and retards at 3 kmph speed-time curve may be assumed to be trapezoidal. 11) The maximum speed attained will be nearly A) 80 kmphB)60 kmphC) 50 kmphD) 1.535 kmph 12) The distance traveled before the brakes are applied is A) 2.383 km B) 2.103 km C) 1.887 km D) 35 kmph 13) The main difference between speed-time curves of mainline service as compared to suburban services lies in A) longer free running periods B) longer coasting periods C) shorter acceleration gand braking periods D) all of the above 14) Energy consumption in propelling the train is required for A) acceleration B) work against gravity while moving up the gradient C) work against the resistance to motion D) all of the above 15) Quadrilateral speed-time curve is the closer approximation for A) main line service B) suburban service C) urban service D) urban and suburban service 16) The ignition voltage for sodium lamps is A) 100 to 150 volts B) 200 to 220 volts C) 400 to 440 volts D) 400 to 600 volts 17) A leak transformer is provided with A) frosted GLS lamps B) high wattage GLS lamps C) fluorescent lamps D) sodium lamps 18) Leak transformer in sodium lamps initially provides A) low voltage B) high current C) high voltage D) none of the above 19) The color of sodium lamp is A) blue B) yellow C) red D) white 20) Sodium lamps are used for A) reading rooms B) street lights C) auditoria D) libraries ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC317* -3- SLR-PC 317 S e a t N o . T.E. (Electrical) (Part II) Examination, 2015 UTILIZATION OF ELECTRICAL ENERGY AND ENERGY CONSERVATION (Old) Day and Date : Tuesday, 26-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Figures to right indicate full marks. 3) Assume suitable data if necessary. SECTION I 2. Solve any four : (5×4=20) 1) Explain regenerative braking with DC series motor. 2) Explain speed torque characteristic of typical different types of machines and mechanism. 3) Explain Laws of Illumination. 4) A 15 kw, 220 V, single phase resistance oven employs nickel-chrome wire for its heating elements. If the wire temperature is not to exceed 1000°C and the temperature of the charge is to be 600°C. Calculate the diameter and length of the wire. Assume radiating efficiency to be 0.6 and emissivity as 0.9, for nickel chrome 6 resistivity is 1.016 × 10 m. 5) Write short note on integrating sphere. 3. Solve : (10×2=20) a) Explain types of lighting schemes. What are the objectives of lighting scheme ? Explain the factors to be considered while designing the lighting schemes. b) Explain modern welding techniques. 10 OR b) What is discharge Lamp ? Explain sodium vapour lamp. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 317 -4- *SLRPC317* SECTION II 4. Solve any four : (5×4=20) 1) Define crest speed, schedule speed of train and discuss the factor affecting schedule speed of train. 2) Explain various system of traction. 3) An electric train is to have a braking retardation of 3.2 km/h/s. If the ratio of maximum speed to average speed is 1.3 the time for stop is 26 seconds and acceleration is 0.8 km/h/s, find its schedule speed for a run of 1.5 km. Assume trapezoidal speed time curve. 4) How can energy conservation be done in power plant ? 5) What is specific energy consumption of a train ? Discuss various factors affecting it. 5. Solve any two : (10×2=20) 1) Define adhesive weight, dead weight and tractive effort. Derive an expression for simplified quadrilateral speed time curve. 2) Explain mechanics of train movement. 3) A 200 tonne motor coach having 4 motors each developing 6000 Nm torque during acceleration starts from rest. If the gradient is 30 in 1000; gear ratio is 4, gear transmission efficiency 90%, wheel radius 45 cm, train resistance 50 Nm/tonne; addition of rotational inertia 10%, calculate the time taken to attain a speed of 50 kmph. If the line voltage is 3000 V dc and efficiency of motors 85%, find the current during notching period. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC318* SLR-PC – 318 Seat Set No. A T.E. (Electrical) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 ELECTRICAL MACHINE DESIGN (New) Day and Date : Thursday, 14-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Multiple Choice Questions : (20×1=20) 1) In dc machines the number of poles is generally decided by A) Frequency of flux reversals B) Weight of iron parts C) Weight of copper D) All of the above 2) In dc machines by increasing the number of poles, all of the following reduce except : A) Weight of copper B) Weight of iron parts C) Frequency of flux reversals D) Overall size of the machine 3) Which component of the no load current of the transformer is opposite in phase to the induced emf ? A) Magnetizing component B) Core loss component C) Both (A) and (B) above D) None of the above 4) In transformers, the cylindrical winding with rectangular conductors is generally used for A) low voltage winding B) high voltage winding C) tertiary voltage winding D) any of the above 5) Cylindrical winding on transformers is generally not used beyond A) 6 kV B) 30 kV C) 66 kV D) 132 kV 6) The stacking factor will be least for A) Square core B) Cruciform core C) Three stepped core D) Four stepped core 7) In static transformers mechanical forces are produced due to A) vibrations B) gap between laminations C) interaction of current flowing in the conductor and leakage flux around it D) none of the above P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 318 -2- *SLRPC318* 8) The thickness of laminations of the core of a power transformer usually A) 0.003 to 0.05 mm B) 0.03 to 0.05 mm C) 0.03 to 0.5 mm D) 3 to 5 mm 9) The dimensions of a dc machine primarily depend on A) kW output B) work done per revolution C) exposed surface D) none of the above 10) In case of air natural cooling, the cooling surface increases as the ______of the size. A) inverse B) inverse square C) square D) cube 11) In I.M ______magnetizing current will lead to ______power factor. A) Large, poor B) large, good C) small poor D) none of the above 12) In the design of I.M to incorporate the design feature of good efficiency what should be ⎛ L ⎞ the ratio of core length to pole pitch ⎜ ⎟ . ⎝ τ ⎠ A) 1.5 to 2.0 B) 1.0 C) 1.5 D) 1.5 to 2. 13) Alternator usually rated in. A) KVA B) KW C) KW & KVA D) KVA & KVAR 14) The air gap of a poly phase induction motor is kept small to. A) Reduce the possibility of crawling B) Reduce noise C) Reduce magnetizing current D) Obtain high starting torque 15) Large value of air gap flux density is taken while designing induction motor of A) Higher voltages B) Lower voltages C) Higher speeds D) Both (B) & (C) 16) When a synchronous generator is design with lower value of SCR it A) Will give higher stability limit B) Will have lower SC current C) Will give better voltage regulation D) Will have higher synchronizing power 17) A turbo machine is usually running at a speed of A) 15000 rpm B) 1500 rpm C) 5000 rpm D) 3000 rpm 18) The speed of synchronous machine A) Increase with increase in load B) Decrease with increase in load C) Always remain constant D) Varies with power factor 19) Turbo generator has. A) Large dia. And large core length B) Large dia. And small core length C) Small dia. And small core length D) Small dia. And large core length 20) The rotor of turbo machine is usually made of A) Cast iron B) Forged steel C) CRGO laminations D) Dynamo grade steel Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC318* -3- SLR-PC – 318 T.E. (Electrical) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 ELECTRICAL MACHINE DESIGN (New) Day and Date : Thursday, 14-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. 2. Solve the following questions (Any 4) 20 1) Explain cooling methods of transformer. 2) Explain the principles of design of electromagnetic machines. 3) Explain the different types of windings used in a transformer. 4) Explain the difference between core type and shell type transformer. 5) Derive an output equation for three phase core type transformer. 3. Solve the following questions. 20 1) For a 150 kW, 230 V, 500 rpm 6 pole dc shunt motor find the main dimensions and the air gap length. Assume the average gap density as 0.85 Wb/m2 and ampere conductors as 29000ac/m. The efficiency is 91%. The mmf required for air gap is 55% of armature mmf and gap contraction factor is 1.15. 2) Find the main dimensions of a 200 kW 250 V 6 pole 1000 rpm generator. The maximum value of flux density in the gap is 0.87 Wb/m2 and efficiency is 91 percent. Assume the ratio of length of core to pole pitch is 0.75. OR 3) Calculate the overall dimensions for a 200 kVA, 6600/440V, 50 Hz three phase core type transformer. Use the following details. Emf per turn is 10 V, maximum flux density is 1.3 Wb/m2, current density is 2.5A/mm2 Window space factor is 0.3, overall height = overall width, stacking factor = 0.9. Use a three stepped core. 4. Solve any four. 20 1) Derive the output equation of single phase induction motor. 2) Discuss the choice of specific electric loading and specific magnetic loading of synchronous motor. 3) Find the main dimensions of a 100 MVA, 11 KV, 50 Hz, 40 pole salient pole generator assuming air gap flux density as 0.65 Wb/m2 and ampere conductor as 40000 per motor. The peripheral speed should not exceed 60 m/sec. 4) Find the main dimension of a 15 kW, 3-ph, 400 V, 50 Hz, 2810 rpm. Squirrel cage induction motor having an efficiency of 0.88 and full load p.f of 0.9. Assume specific magnetic loading = 0.5 Wb/m2; specific electric loading = 25000 A/m. taking rotor peripheral speed as approximately 20 m/s at synchronous speed. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC–318 -4- *SLRPC318* 5) Find the current in bars and end rings of cage rotor of 3 ϕ induction motor, 6-poles, 72 stator slots with 15 conductors in each slot. If the stator current per phase is 20 A and rotor slots are 55. 5. Solve any two. 20 1) Determine the main dimensions of 3000 KVA, 6.6 KV, 50 Hz, 187.5 rpm, 3 phases, and L 2 star connected alternator. Assuming average gap density = 0.58 Wb/m , Take τ = 1.5. Ampere conductor per meter = 35000. 2) For 2500 KVA, 3.3 KV, 32 poles 50 Hz find 1) Diameter 2) Core length 3) Peripheral speed. Sp. Electric loading = 30,000 specific magnetic loading = 0.68 web/m2. Ratio of pole arc to pole pitch for circular pole is 0.65. If the runaway speed is to be limited to twice the normal speed. What type of pole construction would you suggest ? 3) Determine the main dimensions of 12 MVA, 13.8 kV, 50 Hz, 1500 rpm, 3-ph, star connected alternator. The following particulars are provided. Ave. gap density = 0.60 tesla Ampere conductors per meter = 42000 Peripheral speed = 80 m/sec. Find also the maximum flux, the no. of stator slots if one conductor per slot is used, the no. of turns per phase. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC319* SLR-PC – 319 Seat No. Set A T.E. Electrical (New) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 CONTROL SYSTEM – II Day and Date : Saturday, 16-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Objective Type Question : (20×1=20) 1) A lead compensator in frequency response form is given by the following. 1+ aTs 1+ Ts a) C(s) = [a > 1] b) C(s) = [a > 1] a + Ts 1+ aTs − 1− Ts 1 aTs C(s) = [a > 1] c) C(s) = [a > 1] d) − 1+ Ts 1 aTs 2) Pole zero configuration for lag network is a) b) c) d) 3) Observable matrix is given by ⎡ ⎤ ⎡ B ⎤ A ⎡ C ⎤ ⎡ D ⎤ ⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥ BA AC CA ⎢ ⎥ a) ⎢ ⎥ b) ⎢ ⎥ c) ⎢ ⎥ d) DA ⎢ : ⎥ ⎢ : ⎥ ⎢ : ⎥ ⎢ ⎥ ⎢ − ⎥ ⎢ n−1⎥ ⎢ − ⎥ ⎢ n−1⎥ ⎣BAn 1⎦ ⎣AC ⎦ ⎣CAn 1⎦ ⎣DA ⎦ ⎡ 0 1⎤ ⎡0⎤ 4) For the system X = × + u(t) and y = []1 1 X then the ⎣⎢ − 1 − 2⎦⎥ ⎣⎢1⎦⎥ a) System is controllable but unstable b) System is un controllable but un stable c) System is controllable but stable d) System is un controllable but stable 5) The compensation design can be done by a) Nyquist method b) bode plot method c) polar plot d) Hurwitz method 1+ aTs 6) The equation which determines the maximum phase lead is C(s) = 1+ Ts a −1 a + 1 a a + 1 a) sinφ = b) sinφ = c) sinφ = d) sinφ = a + 1 a −1 a + 1 a −1 P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 319 -2- *SLRPC319* ⎡0 1 0 0⎤ ⎢ ⎥ 0 0 1 0 7) For given matrix → X = ⎢ ⎥ X the eigen values are ⎢0 0 0 1⎥ ⎢ ⎥ ⎣0 0 0 1⎦ a) 0, 0, 0, 0 b) 1, 1, 1, 1 c) 0, 0, 0, – 1 d) 0, 0, 0, 1 8) Nichols chart is a plot of a) magnitude in decibels vs Log ω b) magnitude in decibels vs phase shift on rectangular coordinates c) magnitude vs phase angle in the polar coordinates d) none of above 4 ⎡1 2⎤ ⎡0⎤ 9) If X = ⎢ ⎥X + ⎢ ⎥ And Y = []b 0 X . Where is unknown constant, the system is ⎣0 1⎦ ⎣1⎦ a) observable for all values of b) b) unobservable for all values of b) c) observable for all nonzero values of b) d) unobservable for all non zeros values of b) 10) For compensation ______circuit is connected in series with uncompensated system a) RLC b) RL c) LC d) RC 11) Phase ______compensator increases the bandwidth most. a) lag b) lead c) lag – lead d) none of these 12) Adding of poles in a transfer function causes ______compensation a) lag b) lead c) lag – lead d) none of these 13) Lag compensation improves appreciably the a) steady state accuracy b) transient response c) both a) and b) d) none of the above 14) In order to increase the damping of a badly underdamped system which of following compensators may be used ? a) phase-lead b) phase-lag c) both a) and b) d) either a) and b) 15) Non-linearities can be a) incidental b) intentional c) either incidental or intentional d) linearized 16) In phase plane a) X1 is represented in x-axis, and X2 in y-axis b) X2 is represented in x-axis, and X1 in y-axis c) any one of above d) none of the above 17) Which of the following can be measured by the use of a tacho-generator ? a) acceleration b) speed c) speed and acceleration d) displacement 18) A phase lag lead network introduces ______in the output. a) lag at all frequencies b) lag at high frequencies and lead at low frequencies c) lag at low frequencies and lead at high frequencies d) none of the above 19) Which of the following is the non-linearity caused by servomotor ? a) static friction b) backlash c) saturation d) none of the above 20) The information contained in a signal is preserved in the sampled version a) Wm = Ws b) Ws = 0.1 Wm c) Ws = 0.5 Wm d) Ws = 2 Wm ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC319* -3- SLR-PC – 319 Seat No. T.E. Electrical (New) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 CONTROL SYSTEM – II Day and Date : Saturday, 16-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. SECTION – I 2. Solve any four : (4×5=20) a) Write down the steps to design a lead compensator using root locus ? b) For the system shown in fig. Obtain the state equation. 1 u(t) Ω 1Ω y(t) 3 1 1 ± F Ω 14 2 2 c) Comment on controllability of the system described by ⎡− 1 − 4 − 1⎤ ⎡0⎤ ⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥ X = − 1 − 6 − 2 x + 0 u ⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥ . ⎣⎢− 1 − 2 − 3⎦⎥ ⎣⎢1⎦⎥ d) The system is characterized by the following state space equation. Find the transfer function ? ⎡− 1 − 4 − 1⎤ ⎡0⎤ = ⎢− − − ⎥ + ⎢ ⎥ X ⎢ 1 6 2⎥ x ⎢0⎥ u ⎣⎢− 1 − 2 − 3⎦⎥ ⎣⎢1⎦⎥ e) State and explain the properties of state transition matrix. 3. Solve any two : (2×10=20) a) Design a suitable compensator for system whose open loop transfer function is G(s). = 16/s(s+4), –1 so that static velocity error constant Kv is 20 sec without appreciably changing the location of poles ? b) The open loop transfer function of the uncompensated system is G(s) = 5/s(s+2). Design a suitable lag compensator for the system so that the static velocity error constant K 20 sec–1, the phase margin is at least 55° and gain margin is at least 12 db ? c) Find out the state transition matrix for following system matrix. ⎡ ⎤ ⎡− ⎤ ⎡ ⎤ ⎡ ⎤ x1 = 2 0 x1 + 0 ⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥ u ⎣x2 ⎦ ⎣ 1 −1⎦ ⎣x2 ⎦ ⎣1⎦ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 319 -4- *SLRPC319* SECTION – II 4. Solve any four : (4×5=20) a) Explain in short jump resonance. b) Determine the kind of singularity for the following differential equation y + 3y + 2y = 0 . c) Derive pulse transfer function of cascaded elements. d) Explain common physical nonlinearities. e) Explain any one method of determining state feedback gain matrix K. 5. Solve any two : (2×10=20) a) Explain in short mapping between s-plane and z-plane. b) Examine the stability of the system given by equation. p(z) = z4 – 0.9z3 + 0.14z2 + 0.216z + 0.032 = 0. c) It is desired to place the closed loop poles of following system at S = – 3 and S = – 4 by a state flb controller with the control u = – kx. Determine the state feedback gain matrix K and the control signal. ⎡ 0 1 ⎤ ⎡0⎤ x = x + u ⎣⎢− 1 − 3⎦⎥ ⎣⎢2⎦⎥ y = [1 0] x. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC32* SLR-PC – 32 Seat No. Set A T.E. (Civil) (Part – I) (New) Examination, 2015 ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING – I Day and Date : Friday, 8-5-2015 Total Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from Section – I i.e. Question no. 2 to Question no. 5. Question no. 6 is compulsory in Section – II and solve any two questions from the remaining. 2) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and mention it clearly. 4) Use of non programmable calculator is allowed. 5) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 6) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : (20×1=20) 1) As per IS-1172-1957, for cooking ______lit/cap/day of water is required. a) 50 b) 100 c) 1 d) 5 2) National board of fire under writers formula for estimating fire demand Q = 4637 √ P (1 + 0.01P) where P indicates ______a) Population b) Population in thousands c) Population in hundreds d) Population lakh 3) In DO test, titrant used is ______a) Sodium Thiosulphate b) Starch c) Buffer solution d) NaCl 4) ______water is chemical compounds (H2O). a) Pure b) Potable c) Palatable d) Wholesome 5) Aerator removes ______a) Silt b) Taste and odour c) Sand d) Flocs 6) Stokes law is applicable for Reynolds number when Re ______a) More than 5 b) Greater than one c) Equal to ten d) Less than one 7) Settling tank efficiency is reduced by ______a) Eddy currents b) Surface currents c) Vertical convection d) All of above P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 32 -2- *SLRPC32* 8) Chlorine demand of water is equal to ______a) Applied chlorine b) Residual chlorine c) a – b d) a + b 9) Wash water troughs are provided in ______a) Rapid sand filter b) Flocculator c) Aerator d) Sedimentation tank 10) Cleaning of slow sand filter is done by ______a) Scrapping and removal of sand b) Back washing c) Any of above d) None of these 11) For a city developed haphazardly, the layout of distribution pipes preferred to, is ______a) Radial system b) Ring system c) Dead end system d) Iron grid 12) Water losses in water supply, is assumed as ______a) Test pressure b) Working pressure c) Pipe pressure d) Design pressure 13) ______is defined as hourly water rate demand which is more during morning and evening and less during other parts of the day. a) Uniform curve method b) Equalization method c) Mass curve method d) Hydrograph method 14) ______pipes are more suitable to resist external loads and loads due to backfilling. a) Concrete pipes b) GI pipes c) Steel pipes d) PVC pipes 15) In distribution pipes, air valves are provided at a) Junction points b) Higher points c) Lower points d) Any where 16) Pipes are laid parallel ______a) To increase the capacity of the water supply b) To provide a means of repairing without closing water supply c) To meet the requirement of excessive supply d) All of given 17) ______is a flexible connection between water main and service pipe. a) Ferrule b) Goose neck c) Union joint d) Stop cock 18) ______ensures minimum wastage of water and less risk of contamination. a) Pipe network b) Stop valve c) Flushing d) Water-tightness 19) ______is the pipe connecting to storage tank to various fixtures and taps. a) Distributing pipe b) Supply pipe c) Antisiphonage pipe d) Service pipe 20) ______can follow direct routes and require shorter length of conduits. a) Gravity conduits b) Aqueducts c) Pressure conduits d) Tunnels ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC32* -3- SLR-PC – 32 Seat No. T.E. (Civil) (Part – I) (New) Examination, 2015 ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING – I Day and Date : Friday, 8-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from Section – I i.e. Question no. 2 to Question no. 5. Question no. 6 is compulsory in Section – II and solve any two questions from the remaining. 2) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and mention it clearly. 4) Use of non programmable calculator is allowed. SECTION – I 2. a) Find the population in 2021 by incremental increase method. 7 Year 1951 1961 1971 1981 1991 2001 2011 Population in thousand 40 60 75 90 100 125 160 b) What are the objectives of aeration ? Explain any one method of aeration in detail. 6 3. a) Find settling velocity of particle with diameter 1 mm and density 2.6 gm/cm3 at 20°C. Take μ = 0.002 × 10–3 N./s/m2. 5 b) Explain with neat sketch working of rapid sand filter. 8 4. a) Enlist different types of coagulants. Explain use of alum as a coagulant. 5 b) Design slow sand filter to treat a flow of 7 mld. Assume suitable data. Show arrangement of units. 8 5. Write short notes on following : 1) Tube settler. 5 2) Electrodialysis. 5 3) Stokes law. 4 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 32 -4- *SLRPC32* SECTION – II 6. a) Explain with neat sketch various layouts of distribution system. 8 b) Enumerate various corrosion control methods. 4 7. a) Give drawbacks of intermittent system of water supply. 7 b) Draw a neat sketch of gravity, pumped and combined water distribution system, explain working of each. 9 8. a) Explain Hardy cross method of analysis of pipe network distribution system. 8 b) Calculate discharge through various pipes using Hardy cross method if the k values in the expression for loss of head hf = kQ2 and AB, BC, AC, AD, DC are 3, 1, 4, 2 and 2 respectively, find discharge through each pipe and indicate direction of flow. Take two trials. 8 9. Write short note (any three) : 12 i) Service connection. ii) Thrust block. iii) Fire demand. iv) Water hammer. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC320* SLR-PC 320 e a t S Set A N o . T.E. (Electrical Engg.) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015 MICROPROCESSOR AND MICROCONTROLLER Day and Date : Tuesday, 19-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Figure to the right indicates full marks. 3) Assume suitable data if required. 4) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose correct option : 20 1) The contents of internal registers of 8085 when system is rested are a) Random b) Zeros c) Ones d) None 2) Stack memory of 8085 is of the type a) LILO b) FIFO c) LIFO d) None 3) Microprocessor will enter into wait state when a) Reset = 0 b) Ready = 0 c) Ready = 1 d) Reset = 1 4) The PC and IR of registers of 8085 are a) Both 8-bits b) Both 16-bits c) PC=8-bits, IR=16-bits d) PC=16-bits, SP=8-bits 5) Stack pointer in the 8051 is a) 8 bit b) 16 bit c) 32 bit d) 128 bit 6) The 8051 contains a) three 8 bit parallel port b) four 8 bit parallel port c) two 8 bit parallel port d) none of the above 7) The 8051 internally operates with ______minimum clock frequency. a) 1 MHz b) 2 MHz c) 3 MHz d) 4 MHz P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 320 -2- *SLRPC320* 8) ______pin is used to demultiplex address and data bus. a) EA b) ALE c) PSEN d) none of these 9) 8051 devices have ______on chip program memory. a) 1 K b) 2 K c) 3 K d) 4 K 10) An instructions CJNE will affect the flags a) C, AC, OV b) Only AC c) Only Cd) Not affect any flag 11) Highest priority interrupt in 8051 is a) INT1 b) TF0 c) INT0 d) TF1 12) Write control signal function is for a) P3.8 b) P3.3 c) P3.6 d) P3.1 13) Which bits are set to generate serial port interrupt ? a) IE b) RI, IE c) IP, TI d) RI, TI 14) When 8051 is resetted, all the ports are configured as ? a) inputs b) outputs c) inputs or outputs d) inputs and outputs 15) How many timers are available in 8051 ? a) two 8 bit b) two 16 bit c) one 8 bit and one 16 bit d) one 16 bit 16) To change the triggering level of the interrupt, SFR used a) IE and TCON b) TCON only c) TMOD d) All of the above 17) If an 8051 based system is controlled 18 MHz crystal frequency, then timer clock frequency and period respectively are a) 1 MHz, 1 s b) 921.6 KHz, 1.08 s c) 1.5 MHz, 0.667 s d) 2 MHz, 0.5 s 18) While interfacing 8051 with LCD, ______line will instruct the LCD that 8051 is sending the data. a) DBO b) RW c) EN d) RS 19) ______address lines are required for accessing the data if memory capacity is 512 bytes. a)9 b)10 c)8 d)11 20) Number of steps to rotate the stepper motor for 360° at a step angle of 1.8 degree is a) 200 b) 1.8 c) 3 d) 1.1 ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC320* -3- SLR-PC 320 S e a t N o . T.E. (Electrical Engg.) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015 MICROPROCESSOR AND MICROCONTROLLER Day and Date : Tuesday, 19-5-2015 Max. Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Figure to the right indicates full marks. 2) Assume suitable data if required. 2. Solve any four : (4×5=20) a) Explain with suitable diagrams architecture of 8085. b) Explain the circuit diagram for generating different control signals required to access memory of IOs. c) Explain functional pin configuration of 8051. d) With suitable examples explain the addressing modes of 8051. e) What are SFRs, explain with examples. 3. a) Explain with suitable diagram architecture and features of 8051. Give the comparison with 8085. 10 b) Write an ALP using 8051 instructions to find a number of its location from a series of numbers. Given number is available once in an array. 10 OR b) Draw functional pin diagram of 8085. Explain each pin of 8085 in detail. 10 4. Solve any four : 20 a) Write an ALP to generate sine wave using DAC 0808. b) Explain in detail interfacing of MCS-51 with ADC 0809. c) Draw the interfacing diagram of relay with 8051. Write a program to toggle the relay after every 20 ms. d) Explain the operation of port 0 structure of 8051 in detail. e) Draw the interfacing diagram of dc motor with 8051. Write an ALP to rotate it in clockwise direction. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 320 -4- *SLRPC320* 5. Solve the following : a) Interface matrix type keyboard with 8051. Write an ALP to read the keycode. 10 b) Draw the interfacing diagram of 8051 with LCD. Write an ALP to display INDIA on LCD. 10 OR b) Write an ALP to generate rectangular wave of 1 KHz and 60% duty cycle on P1.3 using timer 1 in mode 1. 10 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC321* SLR-PC 321 e a t S Set o . N A T.E. (Electrical) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015 POWER ELECTRONICS Day and Date : Thursday, 21-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : (20×1=20) 1) The function of Snubber circuit connected across the SCR is to a) Suppress dv/dt b) Increase dv/dt c) Decrease dv/dt d) Decrease di/dt 2) In thyristor, holding current is a) More than the latching current b) Less than the latching current c) Equal to latching current d) None of the above 3) When a thyristor turn on, the gate drive a) Can be turned down but thyristor remains in on position b) Cannot be turned down as thyristor will be turned off c) Gate drive has no impact on starting and turning off the thyristor d) None of the above 4) During forward blocking state, a thyristor is associated with a) Large current and low voltage b) Low current and large voltage c) Medium current and large voltage d) None of the above 5) Power MOSFET has a) Fast switching b) Low on resistance drop c) High input resistance d) All of the above 6) The uncontrolled electronic switch employed in power-electronic converters is a) SCR b) BJT c) Diode d) MOSFET 7) Which semiconductor power device out of the following is not a current triggered device ? a) SCR b) GTO c) TRIAC d) MOSFET 8) In step-down chopper output voltage is given by 8 I I a) Vo = Vs b) c) 8 d) (1 )Vs = P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 321 -2- *SLRPC321* 9) In the chopper frequency is 200 Hz and ton time is 2 ms, the duty cycle is a) 0.4 b) 0.8 c) 0.6 d) None of the above 10) Thyristor may be termed as a) D.C. switch b) A.C. switch c) A.C. and D.C. switch d) Square wave switch 11) For continuous conduction, in single phase full converter each pair of SCR conduct for a) b) c) d) + 12) For discontinuous load current and extinction angle B > in 1 full converter each SCR conduct for a) b) c) d) + 13) In 3 full converter, output voltage pulsates at a frequency equal to a) Supply frequency f b) 2f c) 3f d) 6f 14) Fully controlled bridge rectifier with purely resistive load provides _____ operation. a) Two Quadrant b) One Quadrant c) Three Quadrant d) None of these 15) A 1- brid VSI has inductor L as the load. For a constant source voltage the current through inductor is a) Square wave b) Triangular wave c) Sine wave d) Pulsed wave 16) A step-up chopper is fed from a 220 V d.c., source to deliver a load voltage of 660 V. If a non-conduction time of the thyristor is 100 s, the required pulse width would be a) 100 s b) 200 s c) 220 s d) 660 s 17) For eliminating third harmonic from output voltage of inverter using series connection of inverters, the required phase difference between output voltages of two inverters is a) 60° b) 45° c) 90° d) 180° t o n 18) If step down chopper is fed with d.c. supply then V is T a) rms output voltage b) Average output voltage c) Average or RMS d) None of the above 19) Half bridge inverter require a) 3 wire d.c. b) may use 2 wire or 3 wire d.c. c) has higher output voltage if fed from 3 wire d.c. d) has higher efficiency if fed from 3 wire d.c. 20) A single phase half bridge inverter required to feed R-L loads needs a) 2 thyristors b) 4 thyristors c) 2 thyristors 2 diodes d) 4 thyristors and 4 diodes ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC321* -3- SLR-PC 321 S e a t N o . T.E. (Electrical) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015 POWER ELECTRONICS Day and Date : Thursday, 21-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. SECTION I 2. Solve any four : (4×5=20) a) Draw gate characteristics of SCR and explain. b) 230 V, 50 Hz, 1 pulse SCR is triggered at a firing angle = 40° and the load current extinguishes at an angle of 210°. Find the circuit turnoff time, average output voltage and average load current for R = 5 , L = 2 mH. c) Define the term : i) Holding current ii) Latching current L iii) @ protection @ J d) A mid-point converter is supplying a d.c. load. The firing angle of SCR is 45° and the average load voltage is 75 V. Determine the secondary voltage of the transformer. e) Draw the equivalent circuit of n-channel MOSFET and explain. 3. Solve any two : (2×10=20) a) Full wave controlled rectifier is operated from 230 V, 50 Hz supply to deliver power to load of 10 resistance at firing angle of 30°. Calculate a) Average load voltage b) RMS load voltage c) Average current through each SCR d) PIV ratings of SCRS. b) Draw circuit for fully controlled rectifier with highly inductive load. Draw waveforms for load voltage and derive expression for average and RMS load voltage. c) Draw the circuit for two transistor analogy of SCR and find expression for anode current IA. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 321 -4- *SLRPC321* SECTION II 4. Solve any four : (4×4=16) a) Explain various harmonic reduction techniques in inverter. b) Discuss the buck boost regulator. c) Explain the principle of ON OFF AC voltage controllers. d) Explain the application of power electronics with respect to speed control of DC motor. e) Draw and explain two quadrant chopper in detail. 5. Solve any three : (3×8=24) a) Explain in detail three phase inverter in 120° mode with waveforms. b) The step-up dc-dc converter shown below is operated at a switching frequency of fs = 20 kHz. a) For R = 20 find the duty ratio k so that the average power supplied to the load is Pav = 500 W. b) For k = 0.7 find the maximum value of the load resistance R so that the source current is continuous. c) Explain single phase bidirectional AC voltage controller circuit with RL load in detail. d) Explain the role of power electronics converter in integration of renewable energy sources into grid. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC322* SLR-PC – 322 Seat No. Set A T.E. (Electrical Engineering) (Part – II) (New) Examination, 2015 SIGNALS AND SYSTEMS Day and Date : Saturday, 23-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : (20×1=20) ⎛ π π ⎞ 1) The signal x (t) = 3 cos ⎜ t + ⎟ has fundamental time period T ⎝ 2 4 ⎠ 0 π a) 2 b) c) 4 d) π 2 2 2) A signal which is antisymmetric about the origin and is zero at t = 0 is a) Causal b) Odd c) Periodic d) Even 3) A LTI system is said to be causal if a) h [n] = 0 for n < 0 b) h [n] = 0 for n > 0 c) α[n] = n for all n d) α[n] = 0 for n > 0 4) Following is the unit delay block for LTI system realization a) b) c) d) 5) The ______signals act as eigen function for the CT LTI system. a) impulse b) sinusoidal c) cosine d) complex exponential 6) A system whose output depends on future input is a ______system. a) Static b) Dynamic c) Causal d) Non causal 7) The multiplication in time domain is ______in F domain. a) scaled multiplication b) addition c) convolution d) none of these P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 322 -2- *SLRPC322* 8) The impulse response of y (t) = x (t) + x (t – t1) is a) h(t)=δ (t) +δ (t + t1) b) h(t)=δ (t) +δ (t − t1) c) h(t)=δ (t) −δ (t + t1) d) None of these 9) If x (t) ↔ X (f) then X (f – fc) forms a Fourier pair with π − π a) ej2 fct x(t) b) e j2 fct x(t) c) x(t − td) x(t) d) x(αt) 10) The Fourier transform of unit step signal is 1 1 1 a) b) c) πδ ω d) + πδ(ω) jw + 1 2j ( ) jw z (3z − 4) 11) What about the stability of system for H(z) = ? (z − 0.4) (z − 2) a) stable b) unstable c) stable at 0.4 d) can’t say 12) If f (t) = 1, F(jω) = a) 2π b) π c) 2πδ(ω) d) πδ(ω) 13) If f(t) ↔ F(jω) then f(−t) ↔ a) −F(jω) b) F(−jω) c) F(jω) d) 0.5 F(jω) 14) If X (z) is Z transform of sequence XK, the Z transform of sequence K.XK is d d d d a) ZX(z)⋅ b) −ZX(z) c) X(z) d) − X(z) dz dz dz dz z 15) The system described with the transfer function H(z) = is z − 1 a) uncausal b) causal c) causal at some specific point d) none of these 16) The ROC of sequence X (n) = 0.8n u (n) + 0.4n u (n) is a) z > 0.8 b) z > 0.4 c) 0.4 < z < 0.8 d) z < 0.8 17) The Z-transform of sequence x (n) = {2, 4, 3, 2} is − − − a) 2z 2 + 4z 1 + 3 + 2z1 b) 2z 1 + 3 + 4z1 + 2z2 − − − − − − c) 2z1 + 3z 1 + 4z 2 + 2z 3 d) 3 + 2z 1 + 4z 2 + 2z 1 18) In N-point DFT of L point sequence, the value of N to avoid aliasing in frequency spectrum is a) N ≠ L b) N ≤ L c) N ≥ L d) N = L 19) The phase factors are multiplied before add and subtract operations in a) DIT radix 2 FFT b) DIF radix 2 FFT c) Inverse DFT d) Both a and c 20) In an N-point sequence, if N = 16 total number of complex multiplications using radix – 2 FFT are a) 80 b) 64 c) 32 d) 12 ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC322* -3- SLR-PC – 322 Seat No. T.E. (Electrical Engineering) (Part – II) (New) Examination, 2015 SIGNALS AND SYSTEMS Day and Date : Saturday, 23-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : All questions are compulsory. SECTION – I 2. Attempt any four : (4×5=20) a) Sketch and label the following signals : i) X [n] = u [n] – u [n – 5] + δ [n – 2] ii) x (t) = r (– 0.5 t + 2) b) Determine the even and odd component of following signal : i) x (t) = u (t) ii) x [n] = δ [n] c) Obtain the Fourier transform of a rectangular pulse of duration T, centered about origin and has amplitude A. d) State the prove time shifting and time scaling properties of Fourier transform. e) Write the steps to check the linearity and time invariance for a general system. 3. Attempt any two : (2×10=20) a) Find the convolution of following signals : x (t) h (t) 1 1 t 0 1 2 – 1 t 0 1 3 sin πt b) Find the exponential Fourier series of a periodic signal x (t) and sketch its magnitude spectrum. x (t) = 1 + t ; – 1 ≤ t ≤ 0 = 1 – t ; 0 ≤ t ≤ 1 Given T0 = 2 sec c) Check the properties for the system given below : y (t) = ex (t). Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 322 -4- *SLRPC322* SECTION – II 4. Attempt any four : (5×4=20) 1) Prove the frequency shifting property of discrete time Fourier transform. 1 2) Find DTFT if x (n) = for 0 ≤ n ≤ 2 3 = 0 elsewhere ++−−12 = 32zz 3) Find inverse Z-transform of X(z) −− using partial fraction expansion 13z−+12 2z method. = 1 4) Find initial and final value of X(z) − − . 1+ 2z 1 − 3z 2 5) Find Z-transform of x (n) = sinωn. 5. Attempt any two : (10×2=20) 1) Compute 8 point DFT of the sequence x (n) = {1, 1, 1, 1, 0, 0, 0, 0} using DIT FFT algorithm. 2) Find : i) DFT of sequence x (n) = {0, 2, 4, 6} ii) IDFT of sequence x (k) = {50, 2 – j2, – 2, 2 + j2} 3) Find transfer function and impulse response of the system described by difference equation y (n) – 2y (n – 1) + y (n – 2) = x (n) + 3x (n – 3) ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC323A* SLR-PC 323A S e a t 5 A J ) N o . T.E. (Electrical) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015 SELF LEARNING MODULE II (Safety Engineering and Disaster Management) Day and Date : Tuesday, 26-5-2015 Max. Marks : 50 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 15 minutes in Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 15 Minutes Marks : 10 1. Choose the correct answer : (1×10=10) 1) All of the following are TRUE about disasters EXCEPT a) A disaster may be domestic or international b) A disaster may be caused by nature or have human origins c) A disaster always receives widespread media coverage d) A disaster may have a known and gradual onset 2) Disasters frequently result in all of the following EXCEPT a) Damage to the ecological environment b) Displacement of populations c) Destruction of a populations homeland d) Sustained public attention during the recovery phase 3) There are nine tasks in the of disaster management. All of the following are tasks of this model EXCEPT a) Assess secondary social problems such as health epidemics, displaced persons b) Counsel those who have suffered trauma and bereavement c) Control rumors, provide accurate information d) Provide security; prevent looting, protect person and property P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 323A -2- *SLRPC323A* 4) Which one of the following theories of disaster management informs organizational readiness and response in a disaster ? a) Hobfolls theory of conservation of Resources b) The problem-solving task model c) Structure-functional theory d) Theory of traumatogenic forces 5) Ensuring the safety, health and welfare of the employees is the primary purpose of the a) Factories Act, 1948 b) Payment of Wages Act, 1936 c) Equal Remuneration Act, 1976 d) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 6) A workplace emergency evacuation plan is the responsibility of a) Company management b) The government c) The Health and Safety committee d) Individual employees 7) Which is the most effective method of reducing contamination to workers ? a) PPE b) Administration controls c) Fans d) Engineering controls 8) Which of the following is a major contribution to workplace stress ? a) Low pay b) Poor working conditions c) Reasonable work pressures d) Social isolation 9) The workplace hazard excessive noise may be controlled by a) Air conditioning b) Ventilation c) Shift work d) PPE 10) An emergency that could arise and cause a risk to H and S could include a) Fire b) Explosion c) Chemical spill d) All of the above ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC323A* -3- SLR-PC 323A S e a t N o . T.E. (Electrical) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015 SELF LEARNING MODULE II (Safety Engineering and Disaster Management) Day and Date : Tuesday, 26-5-2015 Marks : 40 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m. 2. Solve any four : (4×5=20) a) Discuss in detail about Hazards, their nature. b) Discuss various hazard analysis techniques. Also discuss hazard prevention strategies. c) What are various types of fires ? What are the strategies to be adopted for fire prevention ? d) As an engineer how would you describe safety as an essential parameter in designing industrial production system ? e) Discuss safety engineering analysis. 3. Solve any two : (2×10=20) a) What are the impacts of most damaging hazards occurring in the country, on communities, infrastructure, environment etc. b) List all of governmental organisations related to disaster management. c) Discuss organization structure of safety department along with role and responsibilities of each position. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC323B* SLR-PC – 323B Seat Set No. A T.E. (Electrical Engg.) (Part – II) (New) Examination, 2015 SELF LEARNING MODULE/STRESS AND COPING Day and Date : Tuesday, 26-5-2015 Max. Marks : 50 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 15 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 15 Minutes Marks : 10 1. A) Choose among the right alternative : 5 1) Which of the following is an example of a physical and emotional reaction initiated by the body in response to a stressor ? a) Decreased heart rate b) Increased digestive action c) Decreased blood flow d) Increased sweating 2) Hans Selye identified a general set of changes the body goes through in response to a stressor known as the a) General Adaptation Syndrome b) Trans theoretical Model c) Homeostatic Response d) Allostatic Load 3) What are some positive effects of stress ? a) It forces you to slow down b) It causes sleep loss, which gives you more waking hours to get things done c) It causes changes in appetite, resulting in weight loss d) It improves performance and efficiency P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 323B -2- *SLRPC323B* 4) Which is true about depression ? a) Depression never leads to suicide b) Depression is a sign of weakness c) Everyone experiences depression and its not serious d) Depression is a whole body illness that affects one’s body, moods and thoughts 5) Identify which of the following is not an effective coping mechanism for handling stress a) Meditating b) Increased Alcohol consumption c) Extra sleep d) Exercise B) Match the pairs. (Replacing negative self-talk with positive self-talk) 5 Set – A Set – B 1) I’m never going to finish this 1) There are things I like about my job 2) I hate my job 2) My boss must think I am really good at what I do 3) I have so many bills to pay 3) Step by step, I will finish what I need to do 4) My boss is so unfair. I have more 4) I bet there are lots of people that need responsibility than anyone else help Where could I volunteer my time ? 5) I am so lonely. No one ever 5) I have a lot of bills to pay. How calls me can I reduce my expenses to pay for the things I need ? ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC323B* -3- SLR-PC – 323B Seat No. T.E. (Electrical Engg.) (Part – II) (New) Examination, 2015 SELF LEARNING MODULE/STRESS AND COPING Day and Date : Tuesday, 26-5-2015 Marks : 40 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m. Solve any four : 40 2. Write short note on nature of the stress response. 10 3. Define stress and explain historical status of stress. 10 4. What do you mean by stress ? 10 5. What is the stress management techniques ? 10 6. What are the consequences of stress ? 10 7. Highlight the role of social support in minimizing the effect of stress. 10 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC323C* SLR-PC 323 C S e a t 5 A J ) N o . T.E. (Part II) Electrical Engg. (New) Examination, 2015 SELF LEARNING MODULE / VALUE ENGINEERING Day and Date : Tuesday, 26-5-2015 Max. Marks : 50 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 15 minutes in Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 15 Minutes Marks : 10 1. Choose the correct answer : (10×1=10) 1) The lowest cost to the reliably provide the required functions or service at the desired time and place and with essential quality is called A) Function B) Value C) WorthD) Value gap 2) LCC stands for A) Life cycle cost B) Low cost cycle C) Life cost cycle D) Low cycle cost 3) The term value in value engineering refers to A) Total cost of product B) Selling price of product C) Utility of product D) Depreciation value 4) Value engineering aim at finding out the A) Depreciation value of product B) Resale value of product C) Major function of items and accomplishing the same at least cost without change in quality D) Selling price of an item P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 323 C -2- *SLRPC323C* 5) The value engineering technique in which experts of the same rank assemble for product development is called A) Direct expert comparison B) Brain storming C) Delphi D) Morphological analysis 6) The technique employed in the job plan is A) Use good human relation B) Inspire team work C) Determine the cost D) All of above 7) The core of value engg. Is substitution by equivalents at A) Lower costs B) Higher costs C) Same costs D) None of these 8) The same items may have different values to the same person depending on the A) Time B) Place C) Demand and supply position D) All of above 9) Major consideration for determining value is A) Performance B) Cost C) BothD) None of these 10) Basic kind of value is A) Use value B) Esteem value C) Exchange value D) All of above. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC323C* SLR-PC 323 C S e a t N o . T.E. (Part II) Electrical Engg. (New) Examination, 2015 SELF LEARNING MODULE / VALUE ENGINEERING Day and Date : Tuesday, 26-5-2015 Marks : 40 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m. Solve any four : (4×10=40) 2. What is value ? Explain four basic kind of value. How to add value ? 10 3. Explain different techniques employed in value engineering. 10 4. Explain different phases used in value engineering in brief. 10 5. What is term value ? What is the reason for poor value ? 10 6. Explain origin and history of engineering technology. What are the benefits of engineering ? 10 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC324* SLR-PC – 324 Seat No. Set A B.E. (Electrical) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 INDUSTRIAL DRIVES AND CONTROL Day and Date : Tuesday, 5-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Marks are shown to the right of question. 2) Missing data suitably assumed. 3) Solve all five questions. 4) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Solve all 20 questions. (1×20=20) 1) Moment of inertia is used in equation of motion for a) Linear motion b) Vibrator motion c) Rotatory motion d) a and b 2) Series motor never be started on no load because a) It draws heavy current b) Speed is very high c) Efficiency is very low d) Make lot of noise 3) Back emf in d.c. motor opposes applied voltage according to a) Faraday’s law b) Joule’s law c) Lenz’s law d) Ohm’s law 4) D.C. motor changes a) Electrical power to mechanical power b) Mechanical power to electrical power c) Thermal power to mechanical d) None of these 5) Among the following D.C. motor this motor gives constant speed. a) series motor b) shunt motor c) long shunt compound motor d) short shunt compound motor 6) Universal motor works on the supply a) D.C. b) A.C. c) Both A.C. and D.C. d) None of these 7) Electric plugging means a) Passing current in opposite direction b) Passing current in normal direction c) Applying voltage in normal polarity d) Applying voltage in reverse direction P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 324 -2- *SLRPC324* 8) In case of permanent magnet motors speed can be controlled a) Above base speed b) Below base speed c) At base speed d) None of these 9) Speed control of D.C. Shunt motor can be done a) By changing supply voltage b) By changing armature resistance c) By changing field flux d) By all these 10) Speed of d-c-motor can be controlled by a) Choppers b) Rectifiers c) Inverters d) Both a and b 11) Inverter circuit changes a) A.C. to D.C. b) D.C. to A.C. c) D.C. to variable frequency A.C. d) None of these 12) Cycloconver changes a) constant frequency A.C. to variable frequency A.C. b) fixed frequency A.C. to D.C. c) variable frequency A.C. to fixed frequency A.C. d) D.C. to variable frequency A.C. 13) Slip power recovery scheme of speed control is also known as a) Static Kramer’s drive b) Scherbius drive c) Ward-Leonard drive d) Both a and b 14) Maximum torque occurs in 3 φ I.M. when = 1 a) R2 b) R2= X2 c) R2 = SX2 d) R2 < X2 X2 15) Torque slip characteristic of 3 φIM can be modified by a) By changing X2 b) By changing R2 c) By changing S d) None of these 16) Single phase induction motor has a) wound rotor b) slipring rotor c) none of these d) squirrel cage construction rotor 17) In slip power recovery scheme of speed control slip S is given by n n m m a) s = − cos α b) s = cos α c) s = cos α d) s = − cos α m m n n 18) In 120° scheme of conduction at a time thyristors conducting in inverter. a)3 b)2 c)4 d)1 19) 180° conduction scheme of Inverter, at a time conducting devices are a)2 b)4 c)1 d)3 20) Synchronous motor is a) Self starting b) Auxiliary starting c) Induction starting d) None of these Set A ______ www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC324* -3- SLR-PC – 324 Seat No. B.E. (Electrical) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 INDUSTRIAL DRIVES AND CONTROL Day and Date : Tuesday, 5-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.. SECTION – I 2. Solve any four questions. (4×5=20) a) Explain how moment of Inertia of drive system is determined. b) Explain with the help of speed-load characteristic that series d.c. motor never be started without load on it. c) 3 phase, 400 V a.c. supply feeds a seperately excited d.c. motor through two-3 phase full converters one for armature another for field. The firing angle of field converter is zero. Ra = 0.3 Ω Rf = 250 Ω armature current is 50A motor voltage constant is 1.3V/A-rad/sec. The speed is 1200 RPM. Find firing angle of converter in the armature circuit. d) Three phase fully controlled rectifier is feeding separately excited d.c. motor. Draw the circuit diagram and out put voltage and current curves with firing schedule. e) Speed of d.c. series motor coupled to fan load is controlled by variation of armature voltage armature voltage is 400 V motor takes 20 A. and fan speed is 250 RPM combined armat. and field resistance is 1 Ω calculate motor voltage for the fan speed of 350 RPM. 3. Solve any two questions. (2×10 = 20) a) Explain 4 quadrant operation of d.c. motor with the help of Dual converter circuit . b) A separately excited d.c. motor is fed from 500 V d.c. source through chopper Ra = 0.1 Ω and armature current is 200 A voltage and torque constants are 4V/A and 1.4 Nm/A2 the field current is 2A. The duty cycle of chopper is 0.5 Find i) input ii) speed iii) torque Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 324 -4- *SLRPC324* c) 3 phase bridge thyristor with 400 V, 3 phase 50 Hz supply is feeding separately excited d.c. motor. The motor parameters are rated current 50 A resistance of armature is 0.1 Ω back emf constant 0.3V/rpm. Calculate a) no load speed if no load current is 5A and firing angle is 30° b) find the firing angle to obtain the speed of 1600 RPM at rated current. SECTION – II 4. Solve any four questions : (4×5=20) a) Explain current regulated VSI control of drive system with necessary wave forms. b) Explain brush less D.C. motor drives. c) Find the torque equation of reluctance motor. d) A 440 V, 50 Hz 6 pole y connected wound rotor induction motor has following parameters referred to stator Ω ′ = Ω = ′ = Ω = Ω Rs = 0.5 Rr 0.4 Xs x r 1.2 xm 50 calculate the stator current. e) Explain stator frequency control method of varying speed of 3 phase induction motor by using cycloconver. 5. Solve any two questions. (2×10=20) a) With neat circuit diagram and torque speed curves explain scherbius drive n system and also derive s = cos α . m b) 3 phase 400 V 6 pole 50 Hz delta connected slipring induction motor has rotor resistance of 0.2 Ω leakage reactance of 1 Ω per phase referred to stator when driving fan load it runs at 4% slip. What resistance should be connected in series with rotor to obtain the speed of 850 RPM neglect magnetising branch stator impedance stator to rotor turns ratio is 2.2. c) Explain solar and battery operated drive system in details. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC325* SLR-PC – 325 Seat No. Set A B.E. (Part – I) (Electrical Engg.) Examination, 2015 MICROCONTROLLER AND APPLICATIONS Day and Date : Wednesday, 6-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Select the appropriate option. 1) The 8051 family has ______pins for I/0. a)8 b)16 c)32 d)64 2) Which register is not bit addressable ? a) PCON b) TCON c) IP d) IE 3) D7 bit of PCON register is a) PT2 b) TMOD c) TCON d) SMOD 4) For indirect addressing the only registers used are a) Ro, R1 b) R2, R1 c) Ra, R1 d) R6,R7 5) In mode 2. the counter rolls over when counter goes upto ______H. a) FFFF b) FF c) 00 d) 7F 6) PUSH instruction of 8051 ______SP by 1. a) increments b) decrements c) data incorrect d) none 7) Upon reset interrupts has highest priority. a) INT0 b) TF0 c) RI+TI d) INT1 8) Which bit of from IP register is to be made high to assign highest priority to TF1 ? a) D5 b) D6 c) D3 d) D2 P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 325 -2- *SLRPC325* 9) MOV A, # 36 H RRA the contents of A after RR A instruction is ? a) 1B b) 1C c) 18 d) 1E 10) The SFR space of 8051 is ______a) 80-FF b) 00-1F c) 20-2F d) 30-7F 11) SP is ______bit register. a) 32 b) 16 c) 64 d) 8 12) The address of DPH and DPL are ______H and ______H. a) 83,82 b) 16,17 c) 84,85 d) 64,65 13) In ACALL instruction the target address of subroutine must be within ______KB. a)0 b)1 c)2 d)3 14) MOVA,#56H SWAP A then contents of A after SWAP A instruction is ? a) 52 b) 54 c) 33 d) 65 15) If XTAL = 11.0592 MHz, then ______MHz frequency is used by timer to set the band rate. a) 1 b) 1.333 c) 921.6 d) None 16) To access the data from on chip ROM the instruction used is ______a) MOV b) MOVX c) MOVC d) None 17) 8051 timers are ______bit wide. a)8 b)16 c)32 d)64 18) 8051 has ______interrupts. a)5 b)00 c)7 d)8 19) RST is active ______pin. a) high b) low c) both d) None 20) Using the ‘JNB P2.5, Here’, assumes that bit P2.5 is an ______a) I/O b) Input c) Output d) None ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC325* -3- SLR-PC – 325 Seat No. B.E. (Part – I) (Electrical Engg.) Examination, 2015 MICROCONTROLLER AND APPLICATIONS Day and Date : Wednesday, 6-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. SECTION – I 2. Solve any four. (4×5=20) a) Write a comparison between microprocessor and microcontroller. b) Explain the importance of TI flag in serial communication. c) Write the differences features of 8051 microcontroller. d) What is interrupt priority on reset ? Modify IP register to give high priority to INT0 interrupt. e) Write assembly language program to rotate 1.8 degree step angle stepper motor through 360° antic lockwise. 3. a) Explain internal RAM structure of 8051 microcontroller. 10 b) Interface the DAC 0808 to 8051 and write a program to generate a square waveform. 10 OR b) Explain stack of 8051 and its operation using PUSH and POP instructions. 10 SECTION – II 4. Solve any four : (4×5=20) a) Write the different features of PIC 16F877. b) Explain the function of IE register in detail. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 325 -4- *SLRPC325* c) Write short note on SFR’s of 8051 and explain any one in details. d) Interface a switch, a buzzer and a LED to PIC 16F877 and write a program to start the buzzer and LED when key is pressed. e) Explain addressing modes of PIC 16F877. 5. Solve any two : (2×10=20) a) Interface an LCD to 8051 and write a program to display ‘INDIA’ on it. b) Explain TMOD register and explain timer mode 0, mode 1 and mode 2 operation. c) Explain PIC 16F877 program memory and data memory. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC326* SLR-PC – 326 Seat Set No. A B.E. (Electrical) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 ELECTRICAL MACHINE DESIGN Day and Date : Thursday, 7-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. N.B. :1)Marks are indicated at the right of each question. 2) Unprogrammable calculator is allowed. 3) Missing data may be suitably assumed. 4) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Solve all 20 questions : (1×20=20) 1) Air gap of induction motor is kept large. a) It increases power factor b) Decreases power c) Power factor remains constant d) None of the above 2) Induction motor core is made up of a) Mild steel b) iron c) Cast iron d) Silicon steel 3) In squirrel cage induction motor it is possible to a) Vary rotor resistance b) It is not possible to vary rotor resistance c) Rotor resistance is fixed d) Both b) and c) 4) 3 phase induction motor is a) Self starting b) Auxiliary starting c) Not possible to start d) None of these 5) The following motor will develop more starting torque a) Single phase induction motor b) 3 φ squirrel case induction motor c) 3 φ slip ring induction motor d) Synchronous motor 6) Synchronous motor is a) Self starting b) Auxiliary starting c) Induction starting d) a) and c) P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 326 -2- *SLRPC326* 7) If the excitation of synchronous motor is changed to higher value then armature current a) Decreases b) Increases c) Remains unchanged d) None of the above 8) If the excitation of synchronous motor is kept normal power factor of motor is a) Less than 1 b) More than 1 c) Equal to 1 d) Power factor has no effect on excitation 9) In 3 phase alternator Kp is given by α α a) Kp = cosα b) Kp = sinα c) Kp = cos d) Kp = sin 2 2 10) In 3φ alternator Kd value is approximately a) Kd = 0.55 b) Kd = 0.85 c) Kd = 0.25 d) Kd = 0.95 11) Transformer core is built up with silicon steel to reduce a) Hysteresis loss b) Eddy current loss c) Copper loss d) Stray losses 12) Transformer core is not built up solid but laminated because to reduce. a) Hysteresis loss b) Eddy current loss c) Stray losses d) Copper loss 13) In the core of a transformer the value of max. flux tensity kept is of the order of a) 0.8 web/m2 b) 2.5 web/m2 c) 1.2 web/m2 d) 5 web/m2 14) Shell type core is adopted to build a) Distribution transformer b) Booster transformer c) Power transformer d) Laboratory transformer 15) Power transformers are used at a) Load centres b) Generating stations c) In the middle of transmission lines d) None of the above 16) KVA rating of transformer can be increased by adopting a) Heating methods b) Cooling methods c) Galvanising methods d) None of the above 17) In transformer, LV winding is kept on core to a) Reduce insulation cost b) To provide tap changer on HV winding c) To reduce manufacturing cost d) None of the above 18) Transformer works on the principle of a) Biot and Savart law b) Mutual induction c) Ampere’s law d) Joules law 19) Transformer is used to a) Step up voltage b) Step down voltage c) Step up power d) None of these 20) Maximum efficiency of transformer occurs when a) Wi = x2Wc b) Wi = x3Wc c) Wi = Wc d) Wi = x4Wc ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC326* -3- SLR-PC – 326 Seat No. B.E. (Electrical) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 ELECTRICAL MACHINE DESIGN Day and Date : Thursday, 7-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. N.B. :1)Marks are indicated at the right of each question. 2) Unprogrammable calculator is allowed. 3) Missing data may be suitably assumed. SECTION – I 2. Solve any four questions : (4×5=20) a) Distinguish between distribution transformer and power transformer. b) Find the expression for overload capacity of 3 φ IM in terms of dispersion co-efficient. c) Find the expression for KVA rating of single phase shell type transformer. d) 3 ph 50 Hz core type transformer has following dimensions distance between core centres 0.2 m, Bm = 1.25 web/m2 height of window = 0.24 m dia of circumscribing circle = 0.14 m δ= 2.5 A/mm2 window space factor = 0.2 core is 2 stepped width of window = 0.06 m. Core area factor = 0.56 find the KVA rating of transformer. e) Calculate the diameter and length of core of 3 phase induction motor for 3 phase 120 kW, 250 RPM, Bav = 0.48 web/m2, ac = 26000 ac/m η = 92% p.f. = 0.88, L = 1.25 C kW = 0.955. 3. Solve any two questions : (2×10=20) a) Calculate no load current of 400 V, 50 Hz 1 phase core type transformer with following particulars. Length of mean magnetic path = 200 cm. Cross core section = 100 cm2 Joints equivalent = 0.1 mm, Bm = 0.7 web/m2 Specific core loss = 0.5 watts/kg AT = 2.2 per cm. Stacking factor = 0.9 b) Find the condition for maximum torque and find the value of maximum torque, find the ratio of maximum torque to full load tor. c) What are the different methods of cooling in transformer ? Explain any one method. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 326 -4- *SLRPC326* SECTION – II 4. Solve any four questions : (4×5=20) a) Discuss the effect of air gap in 3 phase induction motor on the following factors. a) Power factor b) Overload capacity. b) Derive EMF equation of single phase induction motor. c) Draw torque slip characteristics of single phase induction motor on the basis of double revolving field theory and explain. d) Explain how synchronous motor is a synchronous condenser. e) 1250 KVA 3 phase 50 Hz 3300 V, 300 rpm star connected synchronous generator has following data : Sp. magnetic loading = 0.58 web/m2 Sp. electric loading = 33000 Find the core length and diameter of core. 5. Solve any two questions : (2×10=20) a) Draw the vector diagram of salient pole alternator and find power equation. b) Explain how you estimate equivalent circuit parameters by conducting O.C. and S.C. test on single phase induction motor. c) Calculate the diameter and core length, Nos. of conductors of stator size of conductors Nos. of stator slots of a 30 MVA, 11 KV, 3000 RPM, 50 Hz star connected turbo alternator. Assume the following data Bav = 0.55 web/m2 ac = 55000 A/m. kW = 0.955 peripheral speed = 160 m/s. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC327* SLR-PC – 327 Seat Set No. A B.E. (Electrical) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 POWER PLANT ENGINEERING Day and Date : Friday, 8-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Assume suitable data if necessary. 3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Attempt all : 20 1) Major share of power production in India is through a) Diesel power plant b) Hydro electric power plant c) Thermal power plant d) Nuclear power plant 2) Which of the following power plant normally operates at high speeds ? a) Hydro electric b) Steam turbine c) Petrol engine d) Diesel engine 3) Rankine cycle efficiency of steam power plant is in the range of a) 20 – 30% b) 30 – 45% c) 45 – 60% d) 60 – 80% 4) Which of the following power plant has instant starting ? a) Nuclear power plant b) Hydro electric power plant c) Diesel power plant d) None of these 5) ______power plant is expected to have the longest life ? a) Steam power plant b) Diesel power plant c) Hydro electric power plant d) Any of the above 6) Which of the following is hydro electric power plant ? a) Bhakra b) Panki (Kanpur) c) Singrauli d) Badarpur 7) In hydro electric power plant a) Operating cost is low and initial cost is high b) Operating cost is high and initial cost is low c) Both operating cost and initial cost are high d) Both operating cost and initial cost are low 8) Koyna dam is located in a) Maharashtra b) Madhya Pradesh c) Karnataka d) Gujarat P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 327 -2- *SLRPC327* 9) Location of a surge tank, in an hydro-electric power station, is near a) Turbine b) Tail race c) Reservior d) Dam 10) Gross head of an hydro-electric power station is a) The difference of water level between the level in the storage and tail race b) The height of water level in the river where the tail race is provided c) The height of water level in the river where the storage is provided d) All of the above 11) The flow-duration curve at a given head of a hydro-electric plant is used to determine a) Total power available at the site b) Total units of energy available c) Load-factor at the plant d) Diversity factor for the plant 12) The expected useful life of an hydro-electric power station is a) 15 years b) 30 years c) 60 years d) 100 years 13) The first nuclear power plant installed in India is a) Kota (Rajasthan) b) Tarapur (Maharashtra) c) Kalpakkam (TN) d) Narora (U.P.) 14) An hydrograph indicates a) The discharge at any time during the period under consideration b) The maximum and minimum run off during the period c) The average run off during the period d) All of the above 15) Thermal shielding is provided to a) Absorb the fast neutrons b) Protect the operating personnel from exposure to radiations c) Prevent the reactor wall from getting heated d) All of the above 16) Tidal energy utilizes a) Kinetic energy of water b) Potential energy of water c) Both potential as well as kinetic energy of water d) None of the above 17) For a nuclear power plant, the useful life is expected to be about a) 10 years b) 30 years c) 60 years d) 80 years 18) Demand factor on a power system is a) Always greater than unity b) Normally greater than unity c) Always lesser than unity d) Normally lesser than unity 19) Which of the following materials cannot be used as a moderator ? a) Deuterium b) Graphite c) Heavy water d) Baryllium 20) Which of the following component, in a steam power plant needs maximum maintenance attention ? a) Steam turbine b) Condenser c) Water treatment plant d) Boiler ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC327* -3- SLR-PC – 327 Seat No. B.E. (Electrical) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 POWER PLANT ENGINEERING Day and Date : Friday, 8-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Assume suitable data if necessary. SECTION – I 2. Solve any four : (5×4=20) 1) Explain different types of tariffs. 2) What is circulation ratio ? Mention the range in which the circulation ratio should vary ? 3) Explain different types of wind power plant. 4) What is geothermal energy ? How can it be used for power generation ? 5) Explain economizer in boiler. 3. Solve the following (any two) : (10×2=20) 1) Classify different types of steam generators. Explain water tube boiler with their advantages and disadvantages. 2) Explain electrostatic precipitator. 3) A steam power station has an installed capacity of 120 MW and a maximum demand of 100 MW. The coal consumption is 0.4 kg per kWh and cost of coal is Rs. 80 per tonne. The annual expenses on salary bill of staff and other overhead charges excluding cost of coal are Rs. 50 × 105. The power station works at a load factor of 0.5 and the capital cost of the power station is Rs. 4 × 105. If the rate of interest and depreciation is 10% determine the cost of generating per kWh. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 327 -4- *SLRPC327* SECTION – II 4. Solve any four : (5×4=20) a) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages and fields of application of diesel power plant. b) Explain the different factors affecting to pollution. c) Explain nuclear reactor in detail. d) Why Ash handling plant is necessary in thermal power plant ? e) Explain briefly the operation of governor and speed regulation. 5. Solve any two : (10×2=20) a) What method are used for disposal of nuclear waste materials ? What can be social and economic impacts of power plant ? b) Explain with neat layout thermal power plant. c) Explain types of turbine used in hydro power plant. Explain briefly anyone with their advantages and disadvantages. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC328* SLR-PC 328 S e a t 5 A J ) N o . B.E. (Electrical) (Part I) Examination, 2015 EXTRA HIGH VOLTAGE AC TRANSMISSION (Elective I) Day and Date : Saturday, 9-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct alternative : 20 1) The high voltage recognized in India as per a) IS 2022 b) IS 2024 c) IS 2026d) IS 2028 2) The conductor used in EHV transmission in recent development is a) ACSR b) ACAR c) AAAC d) All of the above 3) The effect of resistance in EHV lines is a) 12 R loss b) Reduced current carrying capacity of conductor in high ambient temperature region c) Affects the attenuation of travelling waves d) All of the above 4) The spark discharges from chipped or broken insulators and loose guy wires interfere the TV reception at range. a) 40-60 MHz b) 80-120 MHz c) 60-80 MHz d) 80-100 MHz 5) The conductivity of moist soil is a) 100 b) 101 c) 102 d) 103 6) In the formation of pulse train how many pulse occurs during positive half cycle in fair weather ? a) 3 pulses b) 2 pulses c) 1 pulse d) 6 pulses 7) The velocity of travelling wave through a cable of relative permittivity is a) 9 × 108 b) 3 ×108 c) 108 d) None of these P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 328 -2- *SLRPC328* 8) The crest time of pulse properties for positive cycle is a) 20 ns b) 30 ns c) 40 ns d) 50 ns 9) Using uniform field spark gaps, the break down voltage for 10 mm gap length is a) 34.25 KV b) 30.30 KV c) 36.25 KV d) 32.73 KV 10) The noise level are controlled by following standards a) IS 6842 b) IS 6840 c) IS 6846 d) IS 6848 11) Diameter of long slender rod is a) 3-7 cm b) 2-5 cm c) 3-7 mm d) 2-5 mm 12) The impulse ratio of rod gap is a) Unity b) Between 1.2-1.5 c) Between 2-2.5 d) None of these 13) The resistivity of moist soil is a) 100 b) 101 c) 102 d) 103 14) Length of buried horizontal wires in soil is a) 50-70 m b) 50-100 m c) 50-150 m d) 50-200 m 15) Counterpoise are also called as a) Long slender rod b) Buried horizontal wires c) Both a) and b) d) None of these 16) The mechanism responsible for dielectric loss in a dielectric are a) Conduction b) Polarization c) Ionization d) Both b) and c) 17) The effect of high voltage gradient on bundled conductors are evaluated all over the world by a) Drums b) Solid cylinders c) Cages d) None of these 18) By increasing line voltage to double of its original value the same power can be dispatched keeping the line loss a) Equal to original value b) Half of original value c) One fourth of original value d) Double the original value 19) The function of steel wire in an ACSR conductor is to a) Compensate for skin effect b) Take care of surges c) Provide additional mechanical strength d) Reduce inductance 20) In lossless transmission line theoretically have a) r = 1 = 0 b) l = g = 0 c) g = c = 0 d) r = g = 0 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC328* -3- SLR-PC 328 S e a t N o . B.E. (Electrical) (Part I) Examination, 2015 EXTRA HIGH VOLTAGE AC TRANSMISSION (Elective I) Day and Date : Saturday, 9-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. SECTION I 2. Write a short notes on any 4 questions : (5 marks each) a) Explain attenuation of travelling waves due to corona loss. b) Explain temperature rise of conductor and its current carrying capacity. c) Effect of bundled conductors on its inductance. d) Explain gap type Sic arrester. e) Explain Horn gap type arrester. f) Explain travelling wave at the power frequency. 3. Solve any two : (10 marks each) 1) Derive the expression for resistance and inductance of ground return. 2) Explain corona pulses generation and its properties. 1 2 2 P K C ( V 3) Derive the expression of V for the energy loss from charge c m 0 voltage diagram. 2 SECTION II 4. Write short notes on any four : (5 marks each) a) Expression for generalised constants. b) Sub-synchronous resonance in series capacitors compensated lines. c) The gap less metal oxide arrester. d) Brief the sinusoidal excitation-lumped parameter circuits. e) Explain in detail tower footing resistance. f) Ferro resonance voltages. 5. Solve any two : (10 marks each) a) What are the factors under steady state in design of EHV lines ? b) Power circle diagram and its use. c) Reduction of switch surge over voltages. ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC329* SLR-PC 329 e a t S Set A N o . B.E. (Electrical) (Part I) Examination, 2015 HIGH VOLTAGE ENGINEERING (Elective I) Day and Date : Saturday, 9-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Figures to right indicate full marks. 3) Assume suitable data if necessary. 4) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Solve the following : (20×1=20) 1) Ionization coefficients , are functions of a) applied voltage b) pressure and temperature c) electric field d) ratio of electric field to pressure 2) Minimum sparking potential of air is about a) 100 V b) 4.4 kV c) 40 V d) 325 V 3) SF6 has the following property which is not favorable for use in electrical apparatus a) high dielectric strength b) high arc quenching ability c) it is not environmental friendly and causes global warming d) none of the above 4) Which of the following gases is a electronegative gas ? a) air b) O2 c) SF6 d) both O2 and SF6 5) The breakdown voltage of gas or air with increase in pressure under uniform field has ______relation with pressure. a) almost linear b) square c) non linear d) reciprocal 6) Transformer oil is a) Askeral b) Silicone oil c) Polyester d) Mineral oil 7) Maximum dielectric strength obtained with pure liquids is about a) 100 kV/mm b) 10 kV/mm c) 1 MV/mm d) 50 kV/mm 8) Stressed oil volume theory is applicable when a) Small volume of liquid is involved b) Large volume of liquid is involved c) Large gap distance is involved d) Pure liquids are involved 9) The intrinsic breakdown strength of solid dielectrics is about a) 50 to 100 kV/mm b) 500 to 1000 kV/mm c) 5 to 10 kV/mm d) 1 to 5 kV/mm P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 329 -2- *SLRPC329* 10) Paper insulation is mainly used in a) cables and capacitors b) transformers c) rotating machines d) circuit breakers 11) Epoxy resins are used as insulation when a) composite insulation is required b) cast in insulation mould is required c) very high temperature applications are needed d) filter materials are required 12) Peak to peak ripple is defined as a) The difference between average dc voltage and peak value b) The difference between maximum and minimum dc voltage c) The difference between maximum ac and average dc voltage d) The difference between ac (rms) and average dc voltages 13) Parallel resonant transformer test system is used when a) Large test voltages are needed b) Stable output voltage with high rate of rise of voltage is needed c) Large current is needed d) High frequency test voltage is needed 14) A trigetron gap is used with a) cascade transformer units b) impulse current generator c) impulse voltage generator d) dc voltage double units 15) Electrostatic voltmeters can measure a) Only dc voltage b) Both dc and ac voltage up to high frequency c) Impulse voltages d) ac, dc and impulse voltages 16) The main factors that affect the sparkover voltage of sphere gaps are a) Humidity and waveform b) Nearby earthed objects and atmospheric conditions c) Diameter of the sphere d) Gap spacing, diameter and waveform 17) Sphere gap measurement of peak voltage have an error of a) < + 1% b) 5 to 10 % c) 3 to 5% d) < 3% 18) Fifty percent flashover voltage is defined as a) the voltage at which flashover probability is 0.5 b) the voltage at which corona discharge appears before flashover c) the voltage at which the flashover occurs alternatively when applied several times d) the average value of withstand voltage and flashover voltage 19) Most important tests conducted on isolators and circuit breakers are a) voltage withstand tests b) short circuit tests c) high current tests d) temperature rise tests 20) In an impulse testing of transformers fault location is usually done by a) Neutral current oscillogram b) Chopped wave oscillogram c) Observing for noise or smoke d) Scanning method ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC329* -3- SLR-PC 329 S e a t N o . B.E. (Electrical) (Part I) Examination, 2015 HIGH VOLTAGE ENGINEERING (Elective I) Day and Date : Saturday, 9-5-2015 Max. Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Figures to right indicate full marks. 3) Assume suitable data if necessary. SECTION I 2. Attempt any four : (4×5=20) a) Explain the term Electron attachment. Why are electrons attaching gases useful for practical use as insulants, when compared to non-attaching gases ? b) What are commercial liquid dielectrics and how are they different from pure liquid dielectric ? c) State and explain Paschens Law. d) Write short note on setup for the measurement of and coefficients. e) Giving specific examples state and explain the factors which decide the selection of a gas as suitable insulating medium. 3. Q. (a) is compulsory, attempt Q. (b) Or Q. (c). (2×10=20) a) Explain the phenomena of electrical conduction in liquids. Also explain various theories that explain breakdown in commercial liquid dielectrics. b) State and explain the different mechanisms by which breakdown occurs in solid dielectrics. State the applications of solid dielectrics materials. OR c) Explain the following ionization processes in gaseous dielectric medium : i) Ionization by electron collision ii) Photo-ionization ; and iii) Ionization by interaction of metastable with gas molecules. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 329 -4- *SLRPC329* SECTION II 4. Attempt any four : (4×5=20) a) Define the front and tail times of an impulse wave. What are the tolerances allowed as per the specifications ? b) What is surge diverter ? Explain its function as a shunt protective device. c) Explain the different schemes for cascade connection of transformers for producing high ac voltages. d) Explain the pollution test for HV insulators. e) Write short note on testing of cables. 5. Attempt any two : (2×10=20) a) State the various methods for the measurement of high a.c. voltages. Describe any three methods. b) With the help of a circuit diagram explain the method of producing impulse wave and derive the expression. c) Explain the construction and operation of the following : i) Electrostatic generator. ii) Van de Graff generator. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC33* SLR-PC-33 Seat No. Set A TE (Civil) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 ENGINEERING MANAGEMENT – I (New) Day and Date : Saturday, 9-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer. (20×1=20) 1) F.W. Taylor introduced a system of organisation known as a) line organisation b) functional organisation c) line and staff organisation d) line, staff and functional organisation 2) Maximization problem is LLP will involve a) Slack variable b) Surplus variable c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ d) None of these 3) In ABC analysis A class requires a) Low monitoring and control b) Medium monitoring and control c) High monitoring and control d) All of these 4) In dynamic programming state is defined as a) Point where decision is made b) Information describing problem at each stage c) Decision making rule d) Optimal policy 5) Transportation problem can be solved if a) No. of rows = no. of columns b) No. of rows – no. of column c) No. of rows < no. of columns d) All of these 6) Folding Back method is used for problems of a) Transportation b) Games c) Assignment d) Decision tree 7) Monte Carlo simulation method is the category a) Decision making under certainty b) Decision making under uncertainty c) Decision making under risk d) None of these P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC-33 -2- *SLRPC33* 8) Mixed strategies is used in between player when the is a) Game is of 2 × 2 type b) Game is of 2 × N type c) Game is of N × 2 type d) Game has no saddle point 9) The Penalty method is also called as a) North West Method b) Least Cost Method c) Vogel’s Approximation Method d) None 10) Materials in material management consists of a) Procurement process b) Finishing process c) Work in progress materials d) All of these 11) If possible outcomes of alternate course of action and probability of possible outcome is not known, then the problem is of decision under a) Certainty b) Risk c) Uncertainty d) None 12) Storekeeper is not responsible for a) Accounting b) Security c) Recording d) Coding 13) Average Chart and Range Chart is used for a) Attributes b) Variables c) Both (a) and (b) d) None 14) ‘p’ chart and ‘c’ chart are for a) Attributes b) Variables c) Both (a) and (b) d) None 15) The Break Even Point is a point at which a) Loose point b) Profit point c) Both (a) and (b) d) No profit, no loose 16) Linear programming model can be applied to line balancing problem and transportation problem. a) True b) False 17) A-B-C analysis is used in a) CPM b) PERT c) Inventory control d) All of these 18) Simplex method is the method used for a) value analysis b) network analysis c) linear programming d) queuing theory 19) The main disadvantage of line organisation, is a) rigid structure b) extraordinary delay in communications c) top level executions over work d) all the above 20) The disaster managers reponsibility is a) Only in post-disaster activites b) Only in per-disaster activites c) Only during the disaster event d) A, and C but not B e) A, B and C ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC33* -3- SLR-PC-33 Seat No. TE (Civil) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 ENGINEERING MANAGEMENT – I (New) Day and Date : Saturday, 9-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. SECTION – I 2. Solve any three (10 Marks each) a) A small manufacturer employs 5 skilled men and 10 semi skilled men and makes an article in two qualities-a delux model and an ordinary model. The making of a delux model requires two hours work by a skilled man and two hours by a semi skilled men. The ordinary model requires one hour work by skilled and three hours work by semi skilled men. By union rules no man can work more than 08 hours per day. The manufacturers clear profit for delux model is Rs. 10/- and for ordinary model it is Rs. 8/- Formulate LPP and solve it graphically. b) A departmental head has four sub-ordinates and four tasks to be performed. The sub- ordinates differ in efficiency and the task differ in their intrinsic difficulty. His estimates of the time each man would take to perform each task is given below in matrix Men Tasks 1234 A 18261711 B 13281426 C 38191815 D 19262410 How should the tasks to be allocated one to man so as to minimize the total man hours ? Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC-33 -4- *SLRPC33* c) Find the value of the game. B′s strategy b1 b2 a 8 −7 A′s strategy 1 − a2 64 d) Suggest the level of supplies for the hotel manager for the matrix indicating consumer categories and supply level use 1) Laplace criterion 2) Wald criterion Customer Category ABCD I 5 101825 Supply Level II 87823 III 21 18 12 21 IV 30 22 19 15 e) Determine an Initial Basic Feasible solution to the following transportation model using NWC method. Available 641 5 14 892 7 16 436 2 05 Required 610154 3. Write short notes any two : (5 Marks each) a) Simulation b) ANN c) Taylor and Gilbreth d) Dynamic Programming Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC33* -5- SLR-PC-33 SECTION – II 4. Solve any five : (8 Marks each) a) Classify the following items in ABC categories using graphical method. Annual Annual Unit price Unit Price Item Consumption Item Consumption Rs. Rs. units units A - 11 1,200 25 A - 17 400 25 A - 12 900 35 A - 18 5,000 10 A - 13 1,400 15 A - 19 250 15 A - 14 400 55 A - 20 220 25 A - 15 300 35 A - 21 215 25 A - 16 700 10 A - 22 215 25 b) Explain principles of purchasing. c) What is EOQ ? Derive the formula for the same and explain terms in it. d) Discuss with suitable example BEA. e) Write notes on 1) TQM 2) Quality Circle f) Discuss “preparing disaster preparedness plan” in Disaster Management. g) Explain role of Mitigation in Disaster Management with a example of recent flood in Kashmir. h) Draw X & R chart from the following data and state whether process is in control or not. graph is must Sample Bottle Vol in lit Number ABCD 1 15.85 16.02 15.83 15.93 2 16.12 16 15.85 16.01 3 16 15.91 15.94 15.83 4 16.2 15.85 15.74 15.93 5 15.74 15.86 16.21 16.10 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC330* SLR-PC – 330 Seat No. Set A B.E. (Part – II) (Electrical Engineering) Examination, 2015 FLEXIBLE AC TRANSMISSION SYSTEMS (FACTS) Day and Date : Wednesday, 13-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions :i)All questions are compulsory. ii) Figures to right indicate full marks. iii) Assume suitable data if necessary. iv) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. v) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Solve the following. 1) The losses produced by compensator is very less in a) TCSC b) SSSC c) TSSC d) GCSC 2) The power flow increased with increased in a) α b) X (transmission line reactance) c) δ d) All the above 3) In tap changing transformers, the tappings are provided on a) Secondary winding b) Primary winding c) Tertiary winding d) High voltage winding 4) Induction regulators are employed for voltage control in a) Distribution systems b) Transmission lines c) Alternators d) Anywhere in the line 5) Shunt compensation in an EHV line is used to a) Improve stability b) Reduce fault level c) Improve voltage profile d) Substitute for synchronous phase modifier 6) ______are used to provide compensation at the receiving end of a transmission line so as to improve its voltage profile. a) Condenser b) Resistor c) Reactors d) Condenser, Resistor or Reactors 7) Series capacitor is used in a transmission line to a) Compensate the voltage drop b) Reduce line losses c) Improve load power factor d) None P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 330 -2- *SLRPC330* 8) The best location for use of a booster transformer in a transmission line is a) At the sending end b) At the receiving end c) At the intermediate point d) Anywhere in the line 9) The concept of suing synchronous voltage source of series compensation is based on ______characteristics. a) Z vs F b) F vs Z c) I vs Z d) δ vs Z 10) The function of the series capacitor is simply to produce on appropriate at fundamental ac system frequency in with the transition the can a) Phase b) Same angle c) Quadrature d) None 11) ______is operated without an external electric energy source. a) SSSC b) TCBR c) SVS d) IPFC 12) In power oscillating damping the Var output is controlled in a a) Linear manner b) Non-Linear manner c) Bang Bang manner d) None 13) Following controller is used for power transmission management in a multi-machine substation. a) IPFC b) UPFC c) SVC d) TCSC 14) In 3 φ full converter, individual harmonic voltage is given by a) Vn = underoot 6/ π Vd b) Vd = 0.78 vd c) Vd = V1/n d) Vd = V2/V1 15) Midpoint voltage regulation for line segmentations used for a a) Series compensation b) Shunt compensation c) Series-series compensation d) None of above 16) Equal area criteria to illustrate the transient stability margin for a 2m/c system without compensation is 2 2 a) P = V /XL Sin delta b) P = 2V /XL Sin delta/2 c) 20 max d) None of above 17) The admittance of TCR and TSR is ω π π π π a) BL= 1/ L(1-2/ alfa –1/ sin2alfa) b) BL= (1-2/ alfa –1/ sin2alfa) π π c) BL= 2/ (1 – –1/ sin2alfa) d) None of above 18) In FC-TCR, to decrease the capacitive o/p, the current in the reactor is increased by a) Increasing delta angle b) Decreasing delta angle c) Comparing delta angle d) None of above 19) IPFC provides capability of directly Xer ______power between compensated line. a) Active and phase angle b) Reactive and phase angle c) Active and reactive power d) None of the above 20) Reactive power a capacitive compensation is a a) Q = 2V2/X (1 – cos delta) b) Q = v2/X sin delta/2 2 c) Q = E1 E2/X sin delta d) Q = 2v x/XL (1-sin delta/2) ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC330* -3- SLR-PC – 330 Seat No. B.E. (Part – II) (Electrical Engineering) Examination, 2015 FLEXIBLE AC TRANSMISSION SYSTEMS (FACTS) Day and Date : Wednesday, 13-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. SECTION – I 2. Solve any four of the following.. (5×4=20) a) Explain the functional control scheme for TSC-TCR type of static VAR generator with proper block diagram. b) State and explain the objectives of shunt compensation. c) Briefly classify the FACTS controllers. d) Explain equal area criteria of for increase marginable area without and with compensation. e) Explain the limits of loading capability of transmission line. 3. a) Draw and explain the losses versus VAR output characteristics of a FC-TCR. 20 b) Compare HVDC technology with FACTS technology. OR b) Explain how power handling capability of transmission line is doubled with midpoint voltage regulations. SECTION – II 4. Solve any four of the following. (5×4= 20) a) Explain the objectives of series compensation. b) Explain the basic principle of phase angle regulation system in power system. c) Explain the Hybrid VAR generators. Explain any one in details. d) Explain the use of IPFC in power system. e) Compare FC-TCR and STATCOM. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 330 -4- *SLRPC330* 5. Solve any 2 : (10×2=20) a) Explain the SSSC with block diagram, characteristic, merits and demerits. b) Explain basic UPFC control scheme. Explain each block briefly. c) Draw loss vs VAR characteristics of : i) STATCOM ii) STATCOM + TSC iii) TSC and iv) TSC + FC ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLR-PC-331* SLR-PC – 331 Seat Set No. A B.E. Part – II (Electrical) Examination, 2015 SWITCHGEAR AND PROTECTION Day and Date : Friday, 15-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Figure to the right indicate full mark. 3) Assume suitable data if necessary. 4) Draw vector diagrams, circuit diagrams wherever necessary. 5) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 6) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Objective questions : (1×20=20) 1) A circuit breaker is essentially a) an arc extinguisher b) a current interrupting device c) a power factor correcting device d) a device for neutralising the effect of transients 2) When fault occurs in a high voltage transmission line, first the a) Circuit breaker-operates then the relay b) Relay operates then the circuit breaker c) Relay operates then isolator and then circuit breaker operates 3) The contact resistance of circuit breaker is about a) 20 Ω b) 2 Ω c) 20 m Ω d) 20 μΩ 4) The fluids used in circuit breakers should be of a) high dielectric strength and thermal stability b) non-inflammable c) arc extinguishing ability d) all of above 5) In a circuit breaker ionization is facilitated by a) increase in field strength b) increase of mean free length c) high temperatures of surrounding medium d) all of the above P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 331 -2- *SLR-PC-331* 6) The RRRV depends upon the a) Type of C. B. b) Capacitance of system only c) Inductance of system only d) Inductance and capacitance of system 7) The maximum value of restriking voltage in a circuit breaker in terms of system voltage will always be a) 2 times the normal peak b) 2.5 times normal peak c) 2 times voltage at current zero d) 1.5 times normal peak 8) Main purpose of oil in OCB is to a) Provide insulation b) Provide cooling of contacts c) Quenching arc d) None of above 9) SF6 circuit breakers have the drawbacks of a) sealing problems of gas b) ingress of moisture in the gas system dangerous c) deterioration of SF-6 with time d) both a) and b) 10) Insulation resistance of high voltage circuit breakers is more than a) 0.5 M Ω b) 1.0 M Ω c) 10 M Ω d) none of above 11) Which of the following circuit breakers has high reliability and negligible maintenance ? a) Air-blast b) SF6 c) Oil d) Vacuum 12) The making capacity of a 3-phase circuit breaker is given as a) Average value b) r.m.s value c) Peak value d) none of this 13) An efficient and a well designed protective relaying in operation should be a) reliable b) sensitive c) selective d) quick in action e) all of above 14) The most efficient torque producing actuating structure for induction type relays is a) shadedpole structure b) watt-hour meter structure c) Induction-cup structure d) single induction loop structure 15) A Buchholz relay is a a) current actuated relay b) gas actuated relay c) neither of the above 16) Directional over-current relays have two exciting coils connected across a) C.T secondaries of two different phases b) VT secondaries of two different phases c) CT and PT secondaries of some phase d) CT and PT secondaries of two different phases. 17) Reactance relay is normally prepared for protection against a) earth fault only b) phase fault only c) both earth and phase faults d) none of above 18) For ground faults we prefer a) plain impedance relay b) directional relay c) reactance relay d) over-current relay 19) For differential protection of power transformer (delta-delta) the current transformer will have a) Δ – Δ connection b) λ – Δ connection c) λ – λ connection d) Δ – λ connection 20) Magnetising in-rush current in a transformer in rich is a) 3rd harmonic component b) 5th harmonic component c) 2ndharmonic component ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLR-PC-331* -3- SLR-PC – 331 Seat No. B.E. Part – II (Electrical) Examination, 2015 SWITCHGEAR AND PROTECTION Day and Date : Friday, 15-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions :I)All questions are compulsory. II) Figure to the right indicates full marks. III) Assume data if necessary. IV) Draw vector diagrams, circuit diagrams wherever necessary. SECTION – I 2. Answer any four : (4×5=20) 1) Two methods of the Arc Interruptions of circuit breaker 2) With neat diagram explain phenomenon of current chopping. 3) With neat diagram describe principle, operation, application of both types of Air-blast circuit breakers. 4) Define and describe breaking capacity and making capacity of circuit breaker showing short circuit current waveform. 5) Draw neat diagram and describe principle, operation, application of Vacuum circuit breaker. 3. Answer any two questions : (2×10=20) 1) What is resistance switching ? Derive an expression for critical resistance R in terms of system inductance, capacitance with three transient conditions. 2) Draw neat figure of SF6 gas circuit breaker, explaining its construction, working, application alongwith its advantages and disadvantages. 3) Describe with neat diagram : i) Metaloxide surge arrester i.e. (MOA) ii) HRC i.e. High rupturing capacity fuses. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 331 -4- *SLR-PC-331* SECTION – II 4. Answer any four questions (4×5=20) 1) Explain main basic requirement of protection system. 2) Draw figure and explain theory of Induction disc type relay with equation. 3) Explain with neat diagram induction cup type over current relay for its construction, operation and application. 4) The current rating of relay of 5.0 amps has TMS = 0.4 C.T. ratio 400/5A and fault current is 6000. Calculate actual time of operation of relay at TMS = 1 table. Operating time are as follows : i) PSM 2 4 5 8 10 20 ii) Operating time in sec. 10 5 4 3 2.8 2.4. 5) Draw and explain the function of static directional over current relay with help of block diagram. 5. Answer the questions (any two) : (2×10=20) 1) Derive a general mathematical method of distance relay for Mho, off-set Mho and impedance on microprocessor based relay. 2) On the basis of microprocessor, draw schematic interface block diagram of reactance relay with wave form, equation for condition to operate, flow-chart for realisation its characteristics. 3) From the microprocessor based relay draw schematic interface block diagram of Mho relay with characteristic digm, equation and principle, alongwith flow-chart for realising its characteristic. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC332* SLR-PC – 332 Seat Set No. A B.E. (Electrical) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 DIGITAL SIGNAL PROCESSING Day and Date : Monday, 18-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : (1×20=20) 1) The complex valued phase factor WN can be represented as − π − π − π a) e( j2 N) b) e( j2 / N) c) e(−j2π) d) e( j2 kN) 2) If the sequence x[n] is right handed sequence then the ROC is entire Z plane except a) Z = 0 b) Z = ∞ c) Z = 0 and / or Z = ∞ d) None of the above 3) When recovered samples overlap due to aliasing, which of the following operation takes place ? a) Subtraction of overlapping samples b) Multiplication of overlapping samples c) Addition of overlapping samples d) None of above 4) When a sequence is circularly shifted in time by 4 units, the phase changes per frequency unit by a) 2 × π × 4/N radians b) 2 × π × 2/N radians c) 2 × π/N radians d) 2 × π × 8/N radians 5) When a sequence is circularly shifted in time by 5 units, the magnitude response a) Increases by 5 b) Remains unchanged c) Remains constant d) Shifts by 5 units 6) The magnitude response of DFT exhibits complex conjugate property if the time sequence is a) A real sequence b) A complex sequence c) An imaginary sequence d) Not a real sequence 7) Goertzel algorithm evaluates the a) DTFT coefficient b) DFT coefficient c) Z transform coefficient d) FT coefficient 8) Overlap and save algorithm uses overlap for a) Output sequences b) Input sequences c) Both input and output sequences d) Adds the overlapped output P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 332 -2- *SLRPC332* 9) It is termed as Chirp Z transform, when the frequency of the complex exponential a) Increases exponentially with time b) Increases linearly with time c) Decreases exponentially with time d) Decreases linearly with time 10) The ideal filter has an impulse response a) Of finite duration b) Of infinite duration between 0 and ∞ c) Of infinite duration between – ∞ and + ∞ d) Of infinite duration between –Q and +Q 11) Kaiser window has an adjustable parameter that controls a) The stop band width b) Main lobe width c) Stop band attenuation d) Stop band width 12) Convolution of ideal filter response and sync function results in a) Side lobe oscillations b) Main lobe oscillations c) Sharpening of a transition width d) Decrease in main lobe width 13) When analog Butterworth filter is converted to DT filter using IIT then a) Aliasing can be eliminated b) Aliasing is always present c) Aliasing can be reduced by reducing T d) Aliasing cannot be reduced by reducing T 14) Finite word length effects gives a) Improvement in the performance of filter b) Degradation in the performance of filter c) Increased accuracy d) None of the above 15) The 4 digit number 0.048 after rounding to 3 digit will be a) 0.04 b) 0.05 c) 0.55 d) None of the above 16) IIR filter design is based on a) Analog b) Digital c) Discrete time d) None of these 17) Impulse invariant technique uses transformation ε ω a) Z = e–st b) Z = est c) Z = e t d) Z = ej t 18) Advantage of FIR filter is a) They are always stable b) Less storage requirement c) Errors due to round off are less d) None of these 19) To avoid the overflow of adders, scaling is added a) At the output of the adder b) At the input of the first adder c) At the input of the second adder d) At the output of the second adder 20) Zero input limit cycle oscillations are due to a) Quantization of the output b) Quantization of the product c) Quantization of the coefficient/input samples d) Quantization of the scaling added ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC332* -3- SLR-PC – 332 Seat No. B.E. (Electrical) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 DIGITAL SIGNAL PROCESSING Day and Date : Monday, 18-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. SECTION – I 2. Solve any four : (4×5=20) n a) The 4 point DFT of Real sequence x(n) is X(k) = (1, j, 1, –j). Find DFT of x1(n) = (–1) x(n) using DFT properties. b) If x(n) = (1, 2, 0, 3, –2, 4, 7, 5) evaluate energy. c) Compute convolution of using Frequency domain approach x(n) = (1, 1, 1) and y(n) = (1, –2, 2). d) Compute the sequence x(n) if X(k) = (4, –j2, 0, j2). e) From given expression realize the system in direct form I y(z) – 1.25z–1y(z) + .75z–2y(z) – .12z–3y(z) = 8x(z) – 4z–1x(z) + 11z–2x(z) – 2z–3x(z). 3. Solve any two : (2×10=20) a) Find IDFT of sequence X(K) = (20, –5.82 – j 2.414, 0, –.172 – j .414, 0, –.172 + j .414, 0, –5.82 + j 2.414) Using DIT FFT algorithm. b) Find 8 point DFT of a real sequence x(n) = (1, 1, 1, 1, –1, –1, –1, –1) using Decimation in frequency FFT algorithm. c) If H(z) = 8z3 – 4z2 + 11z – 2 / (z – 1/4) (z2 – z + 1/2) realize the system in direct form II. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 332 -4- *SLRPC332* SECTION – II 4. Solve any four : (4×5=20) a) A third order Butterworth low pass filter has transfer function H(s) = 1/(s + 1) (s2 + s + 1) design H(z) using impulse invariant technique. b) Explain following terms VLIW, SIMD, HPI, BSP, MAC with reference to DSP processor. c) Explain application of DSP in Power System. d) Compare FIR and IIR filter. e) Write note on fixed and floating point DSP processor. 5. Solve any two : (2×10=20) a) Draw and explain in detail the Architectural Functional Block diagram of TMS320C54X DSP processor. b) Design a low pass filter such that cut off frequency is 200 Hz (1 db acceptable ripple) and at 400 Hz, the attenuation is 20 db, with monotonic shape past 200 Hz, Take T = 1/2000 sec. c) Explain in detail design procedure adopted in linear phase filter. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC333* SLR-PC 333 S e a t 5 A J ) N o . B.E. (Electrical Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015 HVDC TRANSMISSION (Elective II) Day and Date : Wednesday, 20-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 p.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Figures to right indicate full marks. 3) Assume suitable data if necessary. 4) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 6) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Select the correct answers : (1×20=20) 1) For desirable operation of a DC link without ground return, ______link are most commonly used. a) Monopolar b) Bipolar c) Homopolar d) All of the above 2) In AC transmission, the existence of ground currents cannot be permitted in steady-state due to a) high magnitude of ground impedance b) low magnitude of ground impedance c) zero magnitude of ground impedance d) none of the above 3) The break even distance can vary from ______in overhead lines. a) 300 to 500 km b) 500 to 800 km c) 100 to 300 km d) all of the above 4) Bipolar link has two conductors a) one positive and other negative b) one positive and other positive c) one negative and other negative d) Both are negative 5) The AC system is said to week if SCR is a) Equal to 3 b) Less than 3 c) greater than 3 d) none of the above 6) CCC stands for a) Capacitor compressed converter b) Capacitor commutator converter c) Capacitor commutated converter d) None of the above P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 333 -2- *SLRPC333* 7) UHV DC transmission is being considered more than a) 500 KV b) 800 KV c) 800 MV d) 800 V 8) Individual operation of firing pulses for each valve is the feature of a) IPC b) EPC c) CCC d) VGC 9) The main advantage of inverse cosine control scheme is that a) avg. dc voltage across bridge varies linearly with the control voltage b) avg.dc voltage across bridge becomes equal to the control voltage c) the delay angle is nominally proportional to the inverse cosine of the control voltage d) (b) and (c) only 10) Pulse phase control (PFC) is the variations of a) IPC b) EPC c) CCC d) VGC 11) For damped filter, the quality factor (Q) is N N x 0 a) b) c) d) 4 / : N z 12) During switching in, the filter currents can have magnitudes ranging ______times the harmonics current in normal operation a) 10 to 20 b) 20 to 40 c) 20 to 100 d) 20 to 1000 13) For slow variation in the load, ______provide control. a) Switched capacitors b) Inverters c) TCR d) All of the above 14) In HVDC converter stations, the provision of SVC mainly helps to overcome a) Voltage instability b) Under voltages c) Resonance frequency d) Harmonics 15) SVC is a ______device. a) variable reactance b) variable impedance c) only reactive d) all of the above 16) One of the system is more reliable a) Radialb) M esh c) Series System d) All of the above 17) In MTDC system, series connection is appropriate for taps of rating a) more than 20% b) equal to 20% c) less than 20% d) all of the above 18) High speed reversal of power is possible in a) Parallel system b) Radial system c) Mesh system d) Series system 19) The correct rating of valve is given by a) b) c) d) I 2 I / r q I I / r 2 q I I / q r I I / r q L @ H L L L L @ 20) Insulation co-ordination is problem in ______system as voltage variss along the line a) Parallel type b) Radial type c) Mesh type d) Series system Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC333* -3- SLR-PC 333 S e a t N o . B.E. (Electrical Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015 HVDC TRANSMISSION (Elective II) Day and Date : Wednesday, 20-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 p.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Figures to right indicate full marks. 3) Assume suitable data if necessary. SECTION I 2. Solve any four : (5×4=20) a) Give classification of HVDC links. b) State basic principle of control and control implementation in HVDC system. c) Explain pulse frequency control and pulse phase control. d) What is necessity of valve blocking and bypassing. e) Explain planning for HVDC transmission system. 3. a) Comparation of AC and DC transmission with respect to technical performance and reliability. (10×2=20) b) Why HVDC control is necessary and explains various portions of HVDC control characteristics. OR b) Draw the Graetz circuit and analysis this circuit without overlap angle condition. SECTION II 4. Solve any four : (5×4=20) a) Enlist the various types of faults and explain misfire operation as one of the fault. b) Explain i) Current margin method ii) two ACR method c) Explain the basic principle of overvoltage protection. d) What is the purpose of filters in HVDC systems. e) Write short note on HVDC circuit breaker. 5. Solve any two : (10×2=20) a) What is meant by individual Phase control and What are the drawbacks of this control and explain how these drawbacks can be eliminated. b) Explain the following faults : i) Commutation failure ii) Short circuit in bridge iii) arc through and iv) arc back. c) Explain types of MTDC system in detail. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC334* SLR-PC 334 S e a t 5 A J N o . ) A S.E. (Bio-Medical Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015 ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS III Day and Date : Tuesday, 5-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) All questions carry equal marks. 3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct alternatives : 20 1) The Laplace transform of tsint is I I I a) I b) c) d) I I I I 2) The Laplace transform of (sint + cost)2 is I a) b) c) d) I I I I " I " I I I 3) The Laplace transform of f(t) = 4, 0 < t < 5 and f(t) = 0, t > 5 is J # J J # J " A " A A A a) b) c) d) I I I " 1 4) L ! = I ! J J J J J J J J A A A a) b) A c) d) ! # ! I " 1 5) L = I " # a) e4tsin5t b) e4tsin5t c) e4tcos5t d) e4tcos5t 6) If f(t) is periodic function of period a, then L{f(t)} = ? = = = I J I J I J A B J J A B J @ J A B J @ J a) @ b) c) d) None of these = I = I = I A A A P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 334 -2- *SLRPC334* ! J 7) The value of A t sint dt is ! " a) b) c) d) # # # # # # 8) The function w = z2 is analytic a) Everywhere b) Nowhere c) Only at (0, 0) d) None of these 9) The mapping w = z + c preserves a) The shape but not the size b) The size but not the shape c) Both the size and the shape d) Neither the size nor the shape 10) In the mapping w = 4z, the region x = 0, y = 0, x + y = 1 is transformed into a) a square b) a line c) a circle d) a triangle z 11) The value of d where c is |z| = 10 is z 4 a) 0? b) c) d) None of these E E 1 12) The value of 2 is ______along y = 0. z d z z 0 a) 0 b) 1 c) d) ! i 13) Cauchy-Riemann equations for f(rc ) to be analytic are a) ur = vr, u = v b) ur = vr, u = v c) u = rvr, v = rur d) u = rur, u = rv 14) Which of the following functions cannot be expanded in Fourier series in the interval ( , ) ? a) |x| b) x2 c) ex d) cosecx x , 2 x 0 15) Fourier expansion of f(x) = in the interval [2, 2] has x , 0 x 2 a) No cosine term b) No sine term c) Both sine and cosine terms d) None of these 1 2 2 2 x s i n x 1 c o s x c o s 2 x c o s 3 x c o s 4 x 16) In the interval ( , ) if ... 2 3 8 1 5 1 1 1 1 . . . then 1 . 3 3 . 5 5 . 7 7 . 9 ! a) b) c) d) " " " 17) In the cosine series expansion of sinx in (0, ) the constant terms = a) b) c) d) 18) Fourier expansion of f(x) = x + x2 in (1, 1) has a) Sine terms only b) Cosine terms only c) Both sine and cosine terms d) None of these 19) A point at which is called as ____ of the transformation w = f(z). f ( z ) 0 a) Singular point b) Critical point c) Non-singular point d) All of these 20) The Fourier series expansion of f(x) = sin2x is a) sinx + cosx b) 1 cos2x c) sin2x + cos2x d) (1 cos2x) ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC334* -3- SLR-PC 334 S e a t N o . S.E. (Bio-Medical Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015 ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS III Day and Date : Tuesday, 5-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Attempt any three questions from each Section. 2) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 3) Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed. SECTION I c o s h 2 t s i n 2 t L 2. a) Find . 5 t J e s i n t t b) Evaluate d using Laplace transform. 4 t c) Find . 4 L t 1 s i n t 1 I 3. a) Find L . 5 I ' I " 1 b) Find L using convolution theorem. 4 I I 2 c) Solve (D D 2) y = 20 sin2t with y(0) = 1 and (0) = 2. 5 O 4. a) Construct an analytic function whose real part is x4 6x2y2 + y4. 4 b) Determine whether the following function is analytic and if so find its derivative f(z) = sinhz. 5 c) Prove that ex. cosy is harmonic. Determine the harmonic conjugate. 4 k y 5. a) Determine k such that f(z) = log (x2 + y2) + i tan1 is an analytic function. 4 x b) Find the Laplace transform of t[H(t 4)] + t2 (t 4). 5 I ! 1 c) Find L . 4 I ' Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 334 -4- *SLRPC334* SECTION II N 6. a) Obtain the Fourier expansion of f(x) = in the interval (0, 2 ). 7 0 , 5 x 0 b) Find the Fourier series of f(x) = period 10. 7 3 , 0 x 5 1 1 Hence deduce that, 1 1 . . . . . 3 5 7 " a 1 , 0 x 2 7. a) Find half range cosine series for f(x) = a . 5 1 , x a 2 b) Expand f(x) = x x2 as a sine series for 0 x l. 4 c) Obtain the Fourier expansion of x2 from x = l to x = l. 4 8. a) Find the image of |z 2i| = 2 under the transformation w = 1 . 7 z b) Find the bilinear transformation which maps the points z = 0, i, 1 onto the points w = i, 1, 0. 6 E z z 9. a) Evaluate d i) along the line x = 2y ii) along the parabola x = 2y2. 7 2 z 3 z z b) Evaluate d where c is the circle |z| = 4. 6 ( z 2 ) ( z 3 ) ? ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC335* SLR-PC – 335 Seat Set No. A S.E. (Biomedical Engineering) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 HUMAN ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY Day and Date : Wednesday, 6-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct option. 1) Retina constitutes ______a) rods b) neurons c) optic nerves d) none of above 2) ______group is called universal acceptor. a) A b) O c) AB d) B 3) Blood constitutes ______% of plasma. a) 55 b) 52 c) 50 d) 45 4) The ______organ is supposed to be regenerative organ in the body a) kidney b) liver c) brain d) stomach 5) ______secretes dark pigments called as melanin. a) sebum b) mucus c) melanin d) none of above 6) Digestive and respiratory systems constitutes one common organ called a) mouth b) pharynx c) nose d) stomach 7) Epidermis is layer of ______a) mouth b) heart c) intestines d) skin 8) Pelvic cavity supports a) lungs b) brain c) stapes d) uterus P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 335 -2- *SLRPC335* 9) The kidney is made up of a) nephron b) neuron c) zygote d) cell 10) ______responds to change in PO2 and CO2 in blood and CSF. a) insulin b) chemoreceptor c) oxyhaemoglobin d) vagus nerve 11) ______lowers the raised glucose level. a) insulin b) glucagon c) α -cells d) β-cells 12) S. A. Node is called as ______pacemaker. a) secondary b) primary c) natural d) none of above 13) Excited cell potential of nerve muscle is given by ______mv. a) +90 b) 75 c) –80 d) + 25 14) The human body develops from a single cell called as ______a) ovum b) zygote c) nucleus d) dendrites 15) The “T” wave represents the relaxation of the ______muscle. a) atrial b) ventricular c) chambers d) walls 16) Standard pulse rate range is given as ______beats/min. a) 80 b) 72 c) 60 d) 55 17) ______works as bile reservoir. a) liver b) stomach c) gall bladder d) mucus 18) Left part of heart constitutes ______blood. a) deoxygenated b) oxygenated c) pure d) filtered 19) Oxytocin promotes contraction of ______muscles. a) cardiac b) nerve c) uterine d) peritonium 20) The cochlea resembles a snail’s shell of a) eye b) nose c) tongue d) ear ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC335* -3- SLR-PC – 335 Seat No. S.E. (Biomedical Engineering) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 HUMAN ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY Day and Date : Wednesday, 6-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. SECTION – I 2. Solve any four. 20 1) Draw and explain the process of exchange of gases in respiratory system. 2) What is Einthoven’s triangle ? Explain different leads of ECG in detail. 3) Explain the function of skin in detail. 4) Draw and explain different lung volume and capacities. 5) Draw a labeled diagram of a typical human cell and explain function of any 4 important organs. 6) Define a cell, tissue and organ with one example of each. 3. Solve any two. 20 1) Mention the composition of blood and classify different blood groups. 2) Explain the cardiac cycle. Define stroke volume and cardiac output. 3) Draw and describe the structure of stomach and small intestine. SECTION – II 4. Solve any four questions. 20 1) Explain the process of formation of image on the retina with necessary diagram. 2) Explain in detail the various actions carried out by Androgens and Progesterone. 3) Explain different phases of nerve action potential with neat diagram. 4) Differentiate between axon and dendrites of nervous system. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 335 -4- *SLRPC335* 5) What is reflex action ? Explain the role of sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system. 6) Draw and explain structure and function of a nephron with neat diagram. 5. a) Draw a labeled diagram of middle ear and inner ear and explain mechanism of hearing. b) Solve any one. 10 1) Describe the structure and function of the Testis. 2) Discuss the anatomy of kidney and explain the process of glomerular filtration in detail. 10 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC336* SLR-PC – 336 Seat Set No. A S.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 BIOMATERIALS Day and Date : Thursday, 7-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 2) Assume suitable data wherever required. 3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct option : (20×1=20) 1) Cobalt materials is NOT used to build the ______of the hip joint. a) ball section b) hip section c) joint section d) none of above 2) ______property below would you NOT associated with the metals used to make the ball section of the hip joint. a) Wear resistance b) High ductility c) High tensile strength d) Sturdiness 3) ______material coating helps the body to accept titanium implants. a) Hydrogenated fat b) Hydrochloric acid c) Hydroxyapatite d) Hydranged 4) ______property of polymeric sutures helps them keep the wound closed. a) Low coff. of friction b) High tensile strength c) Low melting point d) High thermoplasticity 5) An alloy is a a) pure metal b) mixture of a metal and another element (metal or non-metal) c) mixture of a metal and another metal only d) mixture of a metal and non-metal only 6) Interstitial defects a) come from impurity atoms on lattice sites b) are usually associated with vacant lattice sites c) are found between lattice sites d) none of these P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 336 -2- *SLRPC336* 7) The directional atomic bonds include a) ionic bonds b) covalent bonds c) metallic bonds d) all of them 8) ______is the Atomic Packing Fraction (APF) for a Hexagonal Close-Packed (HCP) structure. a) 0.63 b) 0.74 c) 0.96 d) 1.00 9) Titanium metal offers ______bio-compatibility properties. a) very good b) good c) poor d) none of above 10) Full form of PMMA is a) Polymethane Methacrylate b) Polymethyle Methacrylate c) Polymethyle Methane Acrylate d) Polymethane Methane Acrylate 11) ______ceramics mainly used in patients suffering from anaemia and similar disease. a) FECAP b) ZCAP c) ZSCAP d) ALCAP 12) Long lasting is not a property of a) steel b) copper c) bioceramics d) metals 13) ______is used as tear substitutes. a) Dimethyl silicone b) Dimethyl siloxane c) Methyl cellulose d) Poly vinyl alcohol 14) To prevent infection is the purpose of the ______attracting coating inside an artificial artery. a) Blood cell b) CSF c) Neuron d) Stem cell 15) Durability is a primary advantage of using biological heart valve over ______one. a) mechanical b) chemical c) physical d) none of above 16) Teflon is used as coating on mechanical heart values a) to prevent wear resistant b) for very low friction c) increased strength d) enhanced rigidity 17) The internal diameter of ______is measured using ultrasonic or radiographic techniques. a) aorta b) bone c) skin d) brain 18) The most important requirement for the ______interfacing implants is bloodcells. a) CSF b) blood c) blood compatibility d) erythrocytes 19) The second group of vascular prostheses involves the synthetic grafts made of a) Dacron and Teflon b) Teflon c) Dacron d) Cellophane 20) Examples of medical uses for ______are pacemakers. a) bioceramics b) metal c) aluminum d) all the above ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC336* -3- SLR-PC – 336 Seat No. S.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 BIOMATERIALS Day and Date : Thursday, 7-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 2) Assume suitable data wherever required. SECTION – I 2. Write a short note on (any four) : (4×5=20) 1) Structure and applications of bioglass. 2) Applications of composites. 3) Structure and applications Stainless steel. 4) Structure and applications Silicon rubber. 5) Structure and applications Polypropylene. 3. Attempt any two : (2×10=20) 1) Explain properties of hydrogel and mention its Biomedical applications. 2) Explain the different devices used to assist healing of broken bones. 3) Explain properties of Co-Cr and its alloy and give Biomedical applications. SECTION – II 4. Attempt any 4 : (4×5=20) 1) Describe Biomaterials corrosion and wear 2) Degradable biomaterials 3) Types of leathers 4) Dental implant 5) Biomaterials corrosion and wear. 5. Attempt any two : (2×10=20) 1) Explain different biological testing procedures of biomaterials. 2) Explain properties and application of biomaterials used for soft tissue replacement. 3) List any three surface properties of a biomaterial and explain any two in detail. ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC337* SLR-PC – 337 Seat Set No. A S.E. (Bio-medical Engg.) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 ELECTRONIC CIRCUIT ANALYSIS AND DESIGN – I Day and Date : Friday, 8-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. N.B. : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. 3) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 4) Use of datasheet and calculator is allowed. 5) Use suitable data wherever necessary. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct option : (1×20=20) 1) When used in a circuit, the zener diode is always a) Forward biased b) Connected in series c) Troubled by overheating d) Reverse biased 2) Voltage gain of common collector amplifier is a) Greater than 100 b) Less than 1 c) 1 + β d) Equal to 1 3) Average voltage at the output of bridge rectifier connected across 0-9v transformer is 9vm a) 9 2 b) 8.1V c) d) None of these TC 4) Each diode in a centre tapped full wave rectifier is ______biased and conducts for ______of the input. a) Forward, 90° b) Reverse, 180° c) Forward, 180° d) Reverse 90° 5) What is the voltage across C4 capacitor present in voltage multiplier circuit ? a) 2Vm b) 4Vm c) Vm d) none of these 6) DC load line can be thought of as a) A line which decides IC and VCE of a transistor b) A line which consists of all possible Q-points of the transistor in the given circuit c) Both a) and b) d) A line which has DC load P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 337 -2- *SLRPC337* 7) Change in output voltage w.r.t. change in input voltage is known as a) Line regulation b) Load regulation c) Voltage regulator d) Regulated power supply 8) Stability factor of fixed bids circuit is a) β b) 1 + β c) Infinity d) Zero 9) Reference voltage across LM 317 is______and across 7805 IC is a) 1.25V, 5V b) 1.15V, 7V c) 1.25V, OV d) 1.25V, ∞ 10) An open circuit can have any voltage across its terminals but the current is always a) 5A b) 0A c) 1A d) ∞ 11) The h parameters of BJT are called as a) Large signal parameters b) Small signal parameters c) T-parameters d) Z-parameters 12) In driver circuits BJT act as a) Switch b) Current amplifier c) Voltage amplifier d) None of these 13) IDSS is a) Drain current with source short circuited b) Drain current at cut off c) Maximum possible drain current d) Midpoint drain current 14) At cut off the JFET channel is a) At its widest point b) Completely closed by the depletion region c) Extremely narrow d) Reverse biased 15) An n channel D-MOSFET with a positive VGS is operating in a) Depletion mode b) Enhancement mode c) Cutoff d) Saturation 16) An SCR can be turned off by a) Forced commutation b) Negative pulse on the gate c) Anode current interruption d) Both a) and c) 17) An IGBT is generally used in a) Low power application b) RF application c) High voltage application d) Low current application 18) In monostable multivibrator quasi stable state duration is a) Rc b) 0.7 RC c) 1.4 RC d) None 19) The Pin no. 5 of IC 555 is a) Discharge b) Threshold c) Supply d) Control voltage 20) IC 555 is used as a) Flip flop b) Oscillator c) Pulse generation circuit d) All of these ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC337* -3- SLR-PC – 337 Seat No. S.E. (Bio-medical Engg.) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 ELECTRONIC CIRCUIT ANALYSIS AND DESIGN – I Day and Date : Friday, 8-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. N.B. :1) All the questions are compulsory. 2) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 3) Use of datasheet and calculator is allowed. 4) Use suitable data wherever necessary. SECTION – I 2. Solve any four : (4×5=20) 1) Describe zener diode as a voltage regulator. 2) Derive the expression for ripple factor of capacitor filter. 3) Explain and draw the transfer function, input and output waveform of the following circuit. 4) Describe input and output characteristics of common base configuration. 5) Compare half wave rectifier and centre tapped rectifier. 3. Answer any two : (2×10=20) 1) Explain the frequency response of single stage CE amplifier. 2) Describe thermal shutdown protection and short circuit protection. Also mention advantages of IC regulators along with its performance measures. 3) Design an unregulated power supply using capacitor filter to provide output voltage of 25V and IL = 100MA and RF = 0.1. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 337 -4- *SLRPC337* SECTION – II 4. Solve any four : (4×5=20) 1) Draw h parameter equivalent circuit for CE amplifier. 2) Draw and explain VI characteristics of n channel JFET. 3) Explain working of DIAC. 4) Design a pulse generator to provide a pulse of 11 sec after giving trigger. 5) Draw and explain transfer characteristics of p channel E-MOSFET. 5. Solve any two : (2×10=20) 1) Design a driver circuit to drive a system with DC operating condition (5V, 1mA). Systems operating frequency range is 50 Hz to 12 KHz. 2) Design a pulse generator to give frequency of 2KHz, Duty cycle 60%, output voltage 5V, output current 400 mA. 3) Explain in detail construction and working of D-MOSFET. Draw transfer characteristics of n channel and p channel D-MOSFET. 4) Write short note on : a) GTO b) SCR. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com **SLRPC338 SLR-PC – 338 Seat Set No. A S.E. (Biomedical Engineering) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 LINEAR CIRCUITS ANALYSIS Day and Date : Saturday, 9-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Figures to right indicate full marks. 2) Assume suitable data if necessary. 3) Q. No. I is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 I. Choose the correct answer : 1) If a 100 V is applied across a 200 V, 100 W bulb, the power consume will be ______a) 10 W b) 50 W c) 25 W d) 12.5 W 2) The validity of ohms law requires that a) The voltage should remain constant b) The current should remain constant c) The resistance should remain constant d) None of the above 3) To find Thevenin’s equivalent voltage Vth in the circuit. a) All the voltage and current sources are short circuited b) All the voltage and current sources are open circuited c) All the independent voltage are open circuited and independent current sources are short circuited d) All the independent voltage are short circuited and independent current sources are open circuited 4) In an active network the maximum power transfer to the load (ZL) takes place when the load impedance is ______of an equivalent impedance of the network as viewed from the load. a) Complex conjugate b) Similar to ZL c) Purely imaginary d) Purely real 5) For a AC voltage v = 80 sin 100t, then the time period of the signal is given by ______a) 125.70ms b) 62.85ms c) 188.55ms d) none 6) Mark the incorrect answer for V and I relationship a) Both V and I are in phase in RL networks b) Both V and I are in phase in resistive networks c) I lags behind V in inductive networks d) I leads V the capacitive networks 7) The time constant RC series circuit is given by a) RC b) R/C c) RC2 d) C/R 8) The transient behavior of inductor element at t → ∞ (i.e. steady state) a) Open circuit b) Short circuit c) Undefined d) None P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 338 -2- **SLRPC338 9) The condition for series resonance is ______ a) The XL equals R of the network get added up b) Both XL and XC at resonance frequency are not equal get added up c) Both XL and XC at resonance frequency are equal and get cancels d) None 10) In series RLC resonance circuit, when L is decreased then the resonant frequency fo, ______a) Increases b) Decreases c) No change d) None 11) The h-parameter h11 and h12 are obtained a) By shorting the output terminal b) By opening the input terminal c) By shorting the input terminals d) By opening the output terminals Ω Ω Ω Ω 12) If Z11 = 2 , Z12 = 1 , Z21 = 1 , Z22 = 3 what is the determinant of the admittance matrix ? a) 5 b) 1/5 c) 1 d) 3 13) What is the driving point impedance at a port 1 with port 2 open circuit for the network shown in the figure ? a) 2 Ω b) 3 Ω c) 4 Ω d) 5 Ω 14) The propagation constant of symmetrical T section and π sections of filter are the same a) False b) True c) Invalid d) None π 15) The characteristic impedance Zo of type filter network is ______ a) Z = Z Z b) Z = Z Z c) Z = Z Z d) Z = Z Z o OC SC o OC SC o SC OC o OC SC 16) The R2 of T-pad attenuator which gives an attenuation of 60 dB (N = 1000) and to work in line with 500 Ω impedance. a) 50 Ω b) 500 Ω c) 1 Ω d) 499 Ω 17) The attenuator in a two port network is used to ______the signal level by given amount. a) Increases b) Decreases c) No change d) Equals 18) The transfer impedance is defined as a) The ratio of transform voltage to transform current at the same port b) The ratio of transform voltage at one port to the current transform at the other port c) Both a) and b) d) None of the above 19) The function is said to be having simple poles and zeros only if a) The poles are not repeated b) The zeros are not repeated c) The poles and zeros are not repeated d) None of the above 20) An inductor in s domain consist of a) A current source in series with an inductor b) A voltage source in parallel with an inductor c) A current source Io/s in series with an inductor d) A voltage source of LIo in series with an inductor ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com **SLRPC338 -3- SLR-PC – 338 Seat No. S.E. (Biomedical Engineering) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 LINEAR CIRCUITS ANALYSIS Day and Date : Saturday, 9-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 2) Assume suitable data if necessary. SECTION – I II. Solve any four : (5×4=20) 1) Determine the current through 10 Ω resistance of the network shown in the figure using superposition therom. 2) Using Laplace transform determine the current in the circuit shown below, when the switch is closed at t = 0 assume zero initial condition. 3) Find the equivalent impedance for the circuit shown below. 4) A coil of inductance 0.1H and resistance of 10 Ω is connected in series with a capacitor of 0.1μ F. Find the frequency of resonance of the circuit. And also find quality factor Qo of the circuit at the resonance. Also draw the circuit diagram. 5) Derive the expression of series resonance circuit with diagram. III. Answer any two : (10×2=20) 1) Replace the network at terminals AB with Nortons’s and Thevenin’s equivalent circuits. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 338 -4- *SLRPC338* 2) Find : i) Current in 15 Ω resistor ii) Voltage across 18 Ω resistor and iii) Power dissipated in 7 Ω resistor Using mesh analysis 3) a) Derive and explain the AC response of RC circuit with necessary phaser diagrams showing voltage current and power waveforms. b) For the given oriented graph write complete matrix. Also write reduced incidence matrix. Determine number of possible trees for given oriented graph. SECTION – II IV. Answer any four : (5×4=20) 1) Define filters. Derive the Zo (characteristic impedance) for the T-type low pass filter. 2) What is attenuator ? Explain T-type attenuator. 3) Design K-type high pass filter (both T and π type) having cutoff frequency of 1 kHz with load resistance of 600 Ω . 4) List the properties of transfer functions of a system. 5) Define stability. What are the necessary conditions for system to be stable ? V. Answer any two : (10×2=20) Ω Ω Ω 1) The Z parameters of a two-port network are Z11 = 10 ; Z22 = 15 ; Z12 = Z21 = 5 . Find the equivalent T network and ABCD parameters. 2) a) Design L-type attenuator to operate into load resist of 600 Ω with an attenuation of 20 dB. b) For the given denominator polynomial of a network function verify the stability of the network using Routh’s criteria. Q(s) = S3 + S2 + 3S + 8 γ 3) a) Explain the pass band filter and give Zo and expression with necessary diagrams. b) Write a note on lattice attenuator. ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC339* SLR-PC 339 S e a t 5 A J ) N o . S.E. (Biomedical Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015 TRANSDUCERS IN BIOMEDICAL INSTRUMENTATION Day and Date : Wednesday, 13-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 2) Assume suitable data if necessary. 3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Answer the following questions. (20×1=20) 1) Resolution is a measure of the ______of measurements. a) Consistency b) Precision c) Accuracy d) Sensitivity 2) ______is the degree to which an instrument indicates the changes in the measured variable without dynamic error. a) Speed of Response b) Fidelity c) Lag d) Error 3) Active transducer generates an electrical signal directly in response to the ____ parameter and does not require an external power source for its operation. a) chemical b) conductive c) physical d) electrical 4) There is a change in the value of the resistance of the conductor when subjected to strain, a property called the a) Thermoelectric effect b) Seebeck effect c) Piezo resistive effect d) Thomson effect 5) Linear Variable differential ______is a passive inductive detector. a) Temperature b) Transducer c) Transformer d) Tachometer 6) LVDT works on the principle of mutual a) conductance b) resistance c) inductance d) capacitance P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 339 -2- *SLRPC339* 7) Platinum ______temperature detector has 100 ohm resistance at 0°C. a) resistance b) capacitance c) inductance d) none of above 8) Iron Constantan thermocouple is also known as ______type thermocouple. a) J b) E c) T d) K 9) Capacitive ______are used for measuring dynamic displacement changes. a) sensor b) electrode c) transducer d) inductance 10) ______sensors are used to measure physiological displacement and record heart sound. a) Piezoelectric sensor b) Capacitor c) LVDT d) RTD 11) Thermistors are semiconductors made of ceramic material with a high a) capacitance b) resistance c) PTC d) NTC 12) Potential difference across the ______can be measured by microelectrode. a) CSF b) Cell membrane c) Skin d) Microelectrode 13) Ag/AgCl electrode is a practical electrode that approaches perfectly nonpolarizable ______electrode. a) pH b) Ag/AgCl c) potential d) biopotential 14) ______technology offers a convenient, affordable, safe and effective approach for the delivery and collection of light to and from the tissue region of interest. a) optical fiber b) optical tube c) optics d) none of above 15) ______is the output of a thermocouple. a) AC b) DC c) AC voltage d) DC voltage 16) Diaphragm is the ______part of a LVDT. a) primary winding b) moving c) stable d) rotating 17) ______is a type of pressure sensing element. a) Bourdon tube b) Resistor c) RTD d) Orifice plate 18) Bourdon tube with ______is an example of Primary Secondary transducer. a) RTD b) Capacitor c) LVDT d) Resistive transducer 19) ______Micropipette microelectrodes are fabricated from glass capillaries. a) Glass b) Metal c) Ceramic d) Copper 20) The ______circuit is ideal for measuring small changes in resistance. a) amplifier b) wheatstone-bridge c) oscillator d) buffer ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC339* -3- SLR-PC 339 S e a t N o . S.E. (Biomedical Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015 TRANSDUCERS IN BIOMEDICAL INSTRUMENTATION Day and Date : Wednesday, 13-5-2015 Max. Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 2) Assume suitable data if necessary. SECTION I 2. Attempt any our : (4×5=20) 1) Explain the concept of electrode electrolyte interface with relevant diagram. 2) Draw and explain bonded and unbonded strain gages. 3) Describe first and second order characteristics of transducer. 4) Differentiate linear and nonlinear characteristic ? Explain thermistor linearization. 5) Define and explain gauge factor ? Derive an expression for the same. 3. Attempt any two : (2×10=20) 1) Explain construction and working principle of LVDT. Mention its any two biomedical applications. 2) Define thermocouples. State the laws governing the working of the same. 3) List and explain various factors that should be taken into consideration for selecting a transducer for biomedical applications. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 339 -4- *SLRPC339* SECTION II 4. Attempt any four : (4×5=20) 1) Describe the equivalent circuit model for electrode skin interface. 2) What is the nature of enzyme electrode ? State its applications. 3) Explain the working principle of ISFET with necessary diagram. 4) Draw and explain radiation sensors that are used to detect temperature ? 5) Explain the construction and working principle of pCO2 electrode. 5. Attempt any two : (2×10=20) 1) Define Immunosensor. Explain the working of any one immunosensor with relevant diagram. 2) Explain working principle of pO2 electrode and Fiber optic temperature sensor in detail. 3) Explain the significance of pH of a solution ? Explain with the constructional details working of combinational glass electrode with its reactions. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC34* SLR-PC 34 e a t S Set A N o . T.E. (Civil) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015 TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING I Day and Date : Monday, 11-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose correct alternative (one mark each) : (20×1=20) 1) If the terrain is classified as Mountainous terrain the cross slope of land is between ______%. a) 0 to 10 b) 10 to 25 c) 25 to 60 d) 60 to 80 2) Length of culvert is between a) 1 to 6 m b) 6 to 10 m c) 10 to 20 m d) 20 to 30 m 3) The ideal shape of transition curve is a) cubic parabola b) cubic spiral c) cycloid d) none 4) Maximum super elevation provided in highways constructed in Hilly area is ______%. a)8 b)7 c)10 d)12 5) If design speed is 100 kmph, e = .07 and f = .15 then, radius of horizontal curve will be ______metre. a) 250 b) 360 c) 36 d) 300 6) A ______bridge is to be avoided. a) right turn b) left turn c) Skew d) none 7) SSD consist of a) lag distance b) break dist. c) both a and b d) none P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 34 -2- *SLRPC34* 8) On which of the point from below alignment should not pass a) Grave yard b) Marshy land c) Both a and b d) None 9) Service life expectancy of bridge super structure is ______years. a) 50 b) 60 c) 70 d) 80 10) If V = 80 kmph, R = 400 m and traffic is mixed type, super elevation will be a) .05 b) .06 c) .07 d) .08 11) Length of a vehicle affects a) lane width b) width of shoulder c) parking facilities d) none 12) With increase in speed of the traffic stream, the maximum capacity of the lane a) increases b) decreases c) will be same d) none 13) The vertical cutting of river bed is called as a) Afflux b) Scour c) Waterway d) None 14) On right angle road intersection with two way traffic, the total number of conflict points are a)6 b)11 c)18 d)24 15) Which of the following shape is suitable for sewer ? a) D type b) Rectangular c) Horseshoe d) Circular 16) Suspension bridge, arch bridge, cable suspended bridge => all these are types of bridges which are classified on the basis of a) material b) function c) traffic type d) none 17) Heading and benching method of tunneling is used in a) soft soil b) hard rock c) both a and b d) all the above 18) In tunneling mucking means a) Blasting b) Drilling c) Removal of derbis d) None 19) Formula to find the economical span length is a) b) c)l= Ö p × a d) None l a p l p a 20) Which of the following material is difficult to use for tunnel lining ? a) concrete b) lime mortar c) bitumen d) all the above ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC34* -3- SLR-PC 34 S e a t N o . T.E. (Civil) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015 TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING I Day and Date : Monday, 11-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instruction : All questions are Compulsory. SECTION I 2. Attempt any five (8 marks each) : (8×5=40) a) A two lane road with design speed 80 kmph has horizontal curve of radius 480m. Design rate of super elevation for traffic. By how much amount the outer edges of pavement be raised with respect to centre line. If pavement is rotated with respect to centre line and width of pavement at horizontal curve is 7.5 m. b) Discuss Bombay plan and Nagpur plan. c) What is alignment ? Explain different factors affecting alignment. d) Define SSD. Explain importance of PIEV theory wrt SSD. e) What is widening of pavement on horizontal curve ? Why it is required ? Derive the expression for the same. f) Discuss : a) Marking studies. b) Origin and destination studies. g) Define rotary intersection. Describe different rotary intersections. h) Explain the use of geosynthestics in road construction. SECTION II 3. Solve any five (8 marks each) : (8×5=40) a) A subgrade soil was analysed and following observations were made : 1) Soil portion passing through .074 mm seive = 50% 2) Liquid limit = 40% 3) Plastic limit = 20% Calculate G.I. of soil. Explain the procedure of pavement design using G.I. method. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 34 -4- *SLRPC34* b) Write downs westergaard stress equations used for calculating stresses at interior [Si], edge [Se] and Corner [Sc]. Discuss in short diff. terms. c) What is the role of axle wheel load and tyre pressure for design of rigid pavements. d) Describe different factors affecting site selection of a bridge. e) How mucking is carried out in tunnelling ? f) Explain lighting and ventilation of tunnel. g) While estimating the cost of a bridge for various spans, the following calculations were made. S p a n i n ' m ' 1 0 1 5 2 0 2 5 C o s t o f s u p e r s t r u c t u r e p e r s p a n i n R s . 5 , 0 0 0 8 , 5 0 0 1 6 , 7 0 0 2 9 , 5 0 0 . 1 6 , 0 0 0 1 7 , 7 0 0 1 8 , 3 0 0 2 0 , 0 0 0 C o s t o f o n e p i e r i n R s Determine the most economic span length for bridge site. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC340* SLR-PC – 340 Seat Set No. A S.E. (Part – II) (Biomedical) Examination, 2015 BIOMEDICAL PROSTHETIC AND ORTHOTICS Day and Date : Friday, 15-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. 3) Figures to the right indicates full marks. 4) Assume data wherever necessary. 5) Use legible handwriting, use blue/black only. MCQ/Objective Type Question Paper Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : (1×20=20) 1) Force is a ______quantity. a) Scalar b) Vector c) Scalar and vector d) None 2) SI unit of force is ______a) Newton b) Joule c) Watt d) None 3) Elbow joint consists of ______separate articulations. a) One b) Two c) Three d) None 4) Structure of shoulder is divided into two units. a) Yes b) No c) May be d) None 5) Force activity on a material is called ______a) Stress b) Shear strain c) Tensile stress d) None 6) Deformation caused by stress is called ______a) Shear stress b) Strain c) Shear modulus d) None 7) Human locomotion is called ______a) Gait b) Gait cycle and swing phase c) Stance phase d) None 8) During one Gait cycle, each extremity passes through ______phases. a) One b) Two c) Three d) None 9) ______can be made from two layers of metal mesh separated by a thin sheet of plastic foam with a hole in it. a) Interrupted light photography b) Instrumented walkway c) Footswitch d) None P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 340 -2- *SLRPC340* 10) ______has a series of switches that are mounted transversely along a walkway and covered by a protective mat. a) Film/Video b) Instrumented walkway c) Goniometry d) None 11) ______is to achieve joint stability by providing a point of pressure above, below, at or near axis of rotation. a) Three-point pressure control b) Two-point pressure control c) Four-point pressure control d) None 12) ______is the amount of weight a patient puts on the leg on which survey has been performed. a) Weight-bearing b) Non-Weight bearing c) Partial-Weight bearing d) None 13) In ______leg must not touch the floor and is not permitted to support any weight at all. a) Weight-bearing b) Partial-Weight bearing c) Non-Weight bearing d) None 14) Superior refers to ______a) Closer to the head b) Farther away from the head c) Toward the front of the body d) None 15) Inferior refers to ______a) Toward the front of the body b) Farther away from the head c) Toward the back of the body d) None 16) Anterior refers to ______a) Toward the back of the body b) Farther away from the head c) Toward the front of the body d) None 17) Ortho means ______a) Straighten b) Addition c) Attachment d) None 18) Orthotic practitioners are called ______a) Prosthetist b) Orthotist c) Prosthetist and Orthotist d) None 19) Orthosis that spans knee, ankle and foot is called ______a) Hip knee ankle foot orthosis b) Knee orthosis c) Knee ankle foot orthosis d) None 20) Basic prosthetic feet is ______a) Unmoving b) Moving c) Storing and returning energy d) None ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC340* -3- SLR-PC – 340 Seat No. S.E. (Part – II) (Biomedical) Examination, 2015 BIOMEDICAL PROSTHETIC AND ORTHOTICS Day and Date : Friday, 15-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicates full marks. 2) Assume data wherever necessary. 3) Draw diagrams/sketches wherever necessary. 3) Use legible handwriting, use blue/black only. SECTION – I 2. Attempt any four : (4×5=20) 1) Explain in brief non coplaner and non concurrent forces. 2) Explain in brief rise modeling. 3) Explain in brief stress strain curve. 4) Write short notes on stance phase and its subphases. 5) Write short notes on Footswitches. 3. Attempt any two : (2×10=20) 1) Explain in detail equilibrium of force system. 2) Explain in detail Biomechanical characterization of Bone. 3) Explain in detail instrumentation for Gait analysis. SECTION – II 4. Attempt any four : (4×5=20) 1) Explain in brief three point pressure control. 2) Explain in brief total contact. 3) Explain in brief Sagittal plane movements. 4) Explain in brief SPLINTS. 5) Explain in brief Milwaukee Brace. 5. Attempt any two : (2×10=20) 1) Explain in detail application of three point pressure system. 2) Explain in detail lower extremity orthoses. 3) Explain in detail : i) Cervical orthoses ii) Shoulder orthoses. Set A ______ www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC341* SLR-PC 341 S e a t 5 A J ) N o . S.E. (Bio-Medical) (Part II) Examination, 2015 ELECTRONIC INSTRUMENTATION Day and Date : Monday, 18-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Assume suitable data if necessary. 3) Figure to right indicate full marks. 4) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Select the correct answer : SECTION I 1) A null type of instrument as compared to a deflection type instrument has a) Higher accuracy b) Lower ensitivity c) Faster response d) All of the above 2) In a series type of ohmmeter the zero adjustment should be done a) By changing the value of series resistance b) By changing the value of shunt resistance connected across the meter movement c) By changing both series resistance and shunt resistance d) By changing the battery voltage 3) A megger is used for measurement of a) Low valued resistance b) Medium valued resistance c) High valued resistance-insulation resistance d) All of the above 4) A moving iron instrument can be used for current and voltage measurements a) In a.c. circuits only b) In d.c. circuits only c) In a.c. circuits and in d.c. circuits for any value of frequency d) In a.c. circuits and in d.c. circuits for any value of frequencies upto about 125 Hz 5) In spring controlled moving iron instruments, the scale is a) Uniform b) Ramped c) Non uniform d) None of these 6) A moving iron instrument can be used as a) For calibration b) Transfer type instruments c) Indicator type instruments d) None of these 7) The frequency range of moving iron instrument is a) 20 Hz to 20 kHz b) 10 Hz to 30 kHz c) 30 Hz to 300 kHz d) 0 to 125 Hz P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 341 -2- *SLRPC341* 8) Purely mechanical instruments cannot be used for dynamic measurements because they have a) High inertia b) Large time constant c) Higher response time d) All of the above 9) Which meter has the highest accuracy in the prescribed limit of frequency range ? a) PMMC b) Moving iron c) Electrodynamometer d) Rectifier 10) Which instrument is cheapest disregarding the accuracy ? a) PMMC b) Moving iron c) Electrodynamometer d) Rectifier SECTION II 11) P1 phosphor material is needed is used for display in CRTs for a) Photographic application b) General purpose application c) Television application d) All of the above 12) An aquadag is used in a CRO to collect a) Primary electron b) Secondary emission electron c) Both a) and b) d) None 13) A thin aluminium film is usually deposited on the non viewing side of the phosphor because a) It acts as a heatsink and prevents phosphor burn b) The light scatter from the phosphor is reduced c) It does not allow the screen to be negatively charged d) All the above 14) During the retrace time the electron forming the horizontal beam a) Move from left to right on the screen b) Move from right to left on the screen c) Move from bottom to top of screen d) Move from top to bottom of screen 15) The Bandwidth of a CRO is from 0-20 MHz. The fastest rise time a sine wave can have to be accurately. a) 35 ns b) 35 s c) 17.5 ns d) 0.175 s 16) An astable multivibrator a) Gives one output pulse for evenly two input pulses b) Gives a timed output pulse for a trigger input c) Gives a train of output pulses for a trigger input d) Gives four output pulses for a single input pulses 17) An astable multivibrator uses a resistance of 100 K and capacitance 0.01 F. The frequency of square waves generated by it is a) 924 Hz b) 593 Hz c) 693 Hz d) 110 Hz 18) A triangular waveshape is obtained a) By integrating a square wave b) By differentiating a in wave c) By differentiating a square wave d) By integrating a sine wave 19) A random noise generator produces a signal a) Whose amplitude varies randomly b) Which has no periodic frequency c) Has an unpredictable power spectrum d) All of the above 20) A voltage controlled oscillator (Vco) is an instrument a) Whose frequency is dependent upon the amplitude of input signal b) Whose frequency is independent of the amplitude of the input signal c) Whose frequency is dependent upon the frequency of input signal d) None of the above ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC341* -3- SLR-PC 341 S e a t N o . S.E. (Bio-Medical) (Part II) Examination, 2015 ELECTRONIC INSTRUMENTATION Day and Date : Monday, 18-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. SECTION I 2. Solve any four : (4×5=20) a) Differentiate between analog and digital phase meter. b) Explain principle of operation 1) voltmeter 2) multimeter. c) Explain the advantages of digital meter over conventional analog voltmeters. d) Explain analog frequency meter. e) Explain dead time elements. What is use of dead time elements in the systems ? 3. Solve any two : (2×10=20) a) Explain digital frequency meter with its principle, circuit and block diagram. b) Explain a generalized measurement system and illustrate with example. c) Explain the principle of working of ramp type A to D converter. SECTION II 4. Answer any four questions : (4×5=20) 1) What are the major components of a CRT ? Explain with neat sketch. 2) Explain the requirements of time base in CRO. 3) How does a computer based DAS aid the operator ? 4) What are the advantages of LCD display over Nixie tube and LED display ? 5) Explain briefly about the oscilloscopes used for biomedical signals. 5. Answer any two questions : (2×10=20) 1) What are the Lissajous pattern ? How Lissajous pattern are used to measure frequency and phase ? 2) Draw the block diagram of a function generator and explain the method for sine wave. 3) Explain about the laser optics and instrumentation type recorder. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC342* SLR-PC – 342 Seat No. Set A S.E. (Bio-Medical Engineering) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 DIGITAL DESIGN Day and Date : Wednesday, 20-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Assume suitable data if necessary. 3) Figure to right indicates full marks. 4) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer. (20×1=20) 1) Which of the following TTL sub-family is faster ? a) Standard TTL b) High speed TTL c) Schottky TTL d) Low speed TTL 2) If two adjacent 1s are detected in the input, the output is set to high, input combinations will be a) 0011 b) 0101 c) 1100 d) 1010 3) The 4-variable Karnaugh Map (K-Map) has ______rows and ______columns. a) 2, 2 b) 4, 4 c) 4, 2 d) 2, 4 4) Which of the following combinations of logic gates can decode binary 1101 ? a) One 4-input AND gate b) One 4-input AND gate, one OR gate c) One 4-input NAND gate, one inverter d) One 4-input AND gate, one inverter 5) An OR gate can be imagined as a) Switches connected in series b) Switches connected in parallel c) MOS transisters connected in series d) MOS transisters connected in parallel 6) Which of the following statements is wrong ? a) Propagation delay is the time required for a gate to change its state b) Operating speed is the maximum frequency at which digital data can be applied to a gate c) Fan-in of a gate is always equal to fan-out of the same gate d) Noise immunity is the amount of noise which can be applied to the input of a gate without causing the gate to change state 7) On the fifth clock pulse, a 4-bit Johnson sequence is Q0 = 0, Q1 = 1, Q2 = 1 and Q3 = 1. On the sixth clock pulse, the sequence is a) Q0 = 1, Q1 = 0, Q2 = 0, Q3 = 0 b) Q0 = 1, Q1 = 1, Q2 = 1, Q3 = 0 c) Q0 = 0, Q1 = 0, Q2 = 1, Q3 = 1 d) Q0 = 0, Q1 = 0, Q2 = 0, Q3 = 1 P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 342 -2- *SLRPC342* 8) A MOD-12 and a MOD-10 counter are cascaded. Determine the output frequency if the input clock frequency is 60 MHz. a) 500 KHz b) 1,500 KHz c) 6 MHz d) 5 MHz 9) How many inputs will a decimal-to-BCD encoder have ? a) 4 b) 8 c) 10 d) 16 10) Which of the following logic expressions represents the logic diagram shown ? a) X = AB + AB b) X = AB + AB c) X = AB+ AB d) X = AB + AB 11) Which of the following memories uses a MOSFET and a capacitor as its memory cell ? a) SRAM b) DRAM c) ROM d) DROM 12) The A/D converter whose conversion time is independent of the number of bits is a) Dual slope b) Counter type c) Parallel conversion d) Successive approximation 13) Suppose that a certain semiconductor memory chip has a capacity of 8K×8. How many bytes could be stored in this device ? a) 8,000 b) 64,000 c) 65,536 d) 8,192 14) A nonvolatile type of memory that can be programmed and erased in sectors, rather than one byte at a time is a) flash memory b) EPROM c) EEPROM d) MPROM 15) What is the binary equivalent of the decimal number 368 a) 111100000 b) 110110000 c) 111010000 d) 101110000 16) What is the resolution, in percent, of a 12-bit DAC ? a) 8.33 b) 0.049 c) 0.000488 d) 0.083 17) What is the maximum conversion time for an 8-bit successive-approximation ADC with a clock frequency of 20 kHz ? a) 12.8 ms b) 6.4 ms c) 0.05 ms d) 0.4 ms 18) The correction to be applied in decimal adder to the generated sum is a) 00101 b) 01101 c) 00110 d) 01010 19) An analog signal has a range from 0 V to 5 V. What is the total number of analog possibilities within this range ? a) 5 b) 50 c) 250 d) infinite 20) The decimal (–8) is equal to signed binary number a) 10000000 b) 00001000 c) 10001000 d) 11000000 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC342* -3- SLR-PC – 342 Seat No. S.E. (Bio-Medical Engineering) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 DIGITAL DESIGN Day and Date : Wednesday, 20-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. SECTION – I 2. Solve any four. (4×4=16) 1) Explain 2-bit asynchronous counter with waveform. 2) What is universal gates ? Implement EXOR and EXNOR gates using universal gates. 3) What is Tri-state logic and explain Tri-state logic inverter with the help of a circuit diagram. Give its Truth Table. 4) What is a Demultiplexer ? Explain the difference between MUX and DEMUX. 5) Express the function F(A, B, C) = A + BC in a) Canonical SOP and its Minterms b) Canonical POS form and its Maxterms. 3. Solve any three. (3×8=24) 1) Explain following terms associated with TTL gate. i) Noise margin ii) Fan-out iii) Current sinking capability iv) Speed power product. 2) Design a mod 12 synchronous counter using D-flipflops. 3) What is an encoder ? Draw the logic circuit of Decimal to BCD encoder and explain its working. 4) Using D-Flip flops and waveforms explain the working of a 4-bit SISO shift register. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 342 -4- *SLRPC342* SECTION – II 4. Solve any four. (4×4=16) 1) Compare the memory devices RAM and ROM. 2) Solve the following : i) Subtract – 27 from 68 using 2’s complements ii) Divide (101110)2 by (101)2. 3) A 6-bit R-2R ladder D/A converter has a reference voltage of 6.5 V. It meets standard linearity. Find : i) The Resolution in Percent ii) The output voltage for the word 011100. 4) Simplify the expressions using Boolean postulates i) X.Y + X.Y.Z + X(Y + X.Y) ii) X.Y + X.Z + X.Y.Z(X.Y + Z). 5) Explain Arithmetic and Logic Unit (ALU) in detail. 5. Solve any three. (3×8=24) 1) Draw and explain the function of dual slope analogue to digital converter. Derive the equations used. 2) Draw the logic diagram of a full subtractor using half subtractors and explain its working with the help of a truth table. 3) With the help of a neat diagram, explain the working of a successive approximation A/D converter. 4) Draw and explain in detail the read and write cycles of RAM. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC343* SLR-PC – 343 Seat No. Set A S.E. (Bio-Medical Engg.) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 ELECTRONIC CIRCUIT ANALYSIS AND DESIGN – II Day and Date : Friday, 22-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All the questions are compulsory. 2) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 3) Use of datasheet and calculator is allowed. 4) Assume suitable data if necessary. 5) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 6) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : (20×1=20) 1) Two stages each having gain of 90 and 20 are cascaded. The overall voltage gain is a) 1800 b) 110 c) 4.5 d) none of these 2) ______amplifiers can be used for a wide range of frequencies. a) dc amplifiers b) RC coupled amplifiers c) LC coupled amplifiers d) transformer coupled amplifiers 3) The outstanding characteristic of a direct coupled amplifier is its a) utmost economy b) temperature stability c) avoidance of frequency sensitive components d) ability to amplify direct current and low frequency signals 4) The maximum collector efficiency of class A amplifier with transformer coupled load is a) 25% b) 50% c) 78.6% d) 95.4% 5) Class A power amplifiers, as compared to class B amplifiers a) have more efficiency b) have less distortion c) are not susceptible to power supply loss d) none of the above 6) The frequency of oscillation for Hartley oscillator is 1 1 1 a) b) c) d) none of these 2πLC 2π LC 2π Leq. + C 7) The phase shift oscillator can produce a) rectangular wave b) sine wave c) dc voltage d) none of these 8) Weinbridge oscillator uses a) negative and positive feedback b) negative feedback c) positive feedback d) none of these P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 343 -2- *SLRPC343* 9) Bypass capacitor is used for a) aviod degenerative effect b) avoid regenerative effect c) both a and b d) none of these 10) In voltage series feedback amplifier, feedback factor is RF RF k = 1 k = − 1 a) RF + RF b) − 1 2 RF1 RF2 c) k = RF1.(RF1 + RF2) d) k = – RF1(RF1 + RF2) 11) An ideal op-amp has a) infinite gain b) infinite Ri c) zero Ro d) all of these 12) For an ideal difference amplifier the common mode rejection ratio should be a) as high as possible b) as low as possible c) constant d) unity 13) In an op-amp circuit if open loop gain is 10∧6 and output voltage is 10V, the differential voltage should be a) 10μ V b) 0.1V c) 100 μ Vd)1μ V 14) When a differential amplifier is operated single-ended, a) the output is grounded b) one input is grounded and signal is applied to the other c) both inputs are connected together d) the output is not inverted 15) The feedback path in op-amp differentiator consists of a) A resistor b) A capacitor c) A resistor and capacitor in series d) A resistor and capacitor in parallel 16) For the high pass circuit to act as differentiator the time constant must be a) small b) very small in comparison to the time period of input signal c) very high in comparison to the time period of input signal d) moderate value 17) With zero volts on both inputs, an op-amp ideally should have an output a) Equal to the positive supply voltage b) Equal to the negative supply voltage c) Equal to zero d) Equal to the CMRR 18) The common-mode voltage gain is a) Smaller than differential voltage gain b) Equal to differential voltage gain c) Greater than differential voltage gain d) None of the above 19) A certain OP-amp has bias currents of 50μ A and 49.3 μ A. The input offset current is a) 700 nA b) 99.3 μ A c) 49.7μ A d) none of these 20) The input offset current equals the a) difference between two base currents b) average of two base currents c) collector current divided by current gain d) none of these ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC343* -3- SLR-PC – 343 Seat No. S.E. (Bio-Medical Engg.) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 ELECTRONIC CIRCUIT ANALYSIS AND DESIGN – II Day and Date : Friday, 22-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All the questions are compulsory. 2) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 3) Use of datasheet and calculator is allowed. 4) Assume suitable data if necessary. SECTION – I 2. Answer any four : (4×5=20) 1) Explain Hartley oscillator and derive expression for frequency of oscillations. 2) Explain complementary symmetry power amplifier. 3) Derive input resistance and output resistance for voltage series feedback amplifier. 4) Explain the effect of cascading multiple stages of amplifiers on voltage gain, current gain and bandwidth. 5) “An unbypassed RE reduces gain of amplifier”. Justify the statement. 3. Answer any two : (2×10=20) 1) Find Ri, Ro, Av for the following circuit. Also draw h-equivalent circuit. Assume hie = 1 k Ω and hfc = 100 +Vce 68K 5.6K 68K 5.6K Vo 22K 22K 1K 1K Ri 2) Design RC phase shift oscillator to provide sustained oscillations of 9KHz frequency and supply voltage of 12v. 3) What are the advantages of negative feedback ? Justify your answer with proper derivations and expressions. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 343 -4- *SLRPC343* SECTION – II 4. Solve any four : (4×5=20) 1) Explain working of non inverting buffer. 2) Explain in brief thermal drift. 3) Explain common mode configuration of op-Amp. 4) Explain working of window detector. 5) Draw and explain equivalent circuit of Op-amp. 5. Solve any two : (2×10=20) 1) The 741 op-amp having following parameter is connected as a non inverting amplifier with R1 = 1K Ω and Rf = 10KΩ , A = 200000, Ri = 2M Ω , Ro = 75 Ω , fo = 5KHz, Supply voltage is + – 15V, Output voltage swing = + – 13V. Compute the Af, Rif, Rof, Ff, Voot. 2) Explain working of basic and practical differentiator with frequency response. 3) What is instrumentation amplifier ? How it can be used in biomedical applications. ———————— Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC344* SLR-PC – 344 Seat Set No. A T.E. (Part – I) (Biomedical) (Old) Examination, 2015 BIOMEDICAL INSTRUMENTATION – I Day and Date : Tuesday, 5-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 I. Choose the right answer from the following : (1×20=20) 1) A major portion of the energy emitted by tungsten lamp is in the ______range. a) UV b) IR c) Visible d) Radio 2) For work in ______region, a hydrogen or deuterium discharge lamp is used. a) UV b) IR c) Visible d) Radio 3) The absorption type optical filters consists of colour media like a) Colour glasses b) Coloured films c) Solutions of the coloured substances d) All 4) When the pressure in the patient breathing circuit and alveoli are equal. This period of no flow is known as a) Expiratory pause time b) Inhalation dead time c) Inspiratory pause time d) Expiration dead time 5) Inspiratory flow is positive flow a) Above zero line b) Below zero line c) On zero line d) Not related with zero line 6) Lung compliance is expressed as a) liters/cm H20 b) cm/liter H20 c) H20/liter cm d) m/liter H20 7) He Ne laser operates at a) 660 nm b) 540 nm c) 940 nm d) 632.8 nm 8) Stroke volume of blood pumped from the heart with each beat at rest varies among adults between a) 17 – 100 ml b) 25 – 150 ml c) 90 – 250 ml d) 350 – 550 ml 9) Cardiac output (Q) is given as a) Q = M/ (avg. conc. of indicator/ltr blood) ∗ (curve duration) b) Q = M ∗ (avg. conc. of indicator/ltr blood) ∗ (curve duration) c) Q = M∗ (avg. conc. of indicator/ltr blood) / (curve duration) d) Q = M∗ (curve duration) / (avg. conc. of indicator/ltr blood) Where M = Quantity of the injected indicator is mg. P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 344 -2- *SLRPC344* 10) Symbol of saturated oxygen is a) SO2 b) pO2 c) sat O2 d) R 11) Electromagnetic BFM is based on a) Strokes theorem b) Faradays law c) Beer Lamberts law d) Parsevel’s theorem 12) For BFM, if the electrode is in contact with the blood then such flow meter is known as a) Cannulated flow meter b) Both of them c) Cuff flow meter d) None of them 13) Lung compliance (C1) is a) It is the change in pressure resulting from unit change in volume (cmH2O/I) b) It is the change in volume resulting from unit change in pressure (I/cmH2O) c) It is the change in transpulmonary pressure (PL) resulting from unit change in lung volume d) It is the change in lung volume from unit change in transpulmonary pressure (PL) 14) FEV stands for a) Forced extraordinary volume b) Forced exchanged volume c) Forced excited volume d) Forced expiratory volume 15) Pick the correct one a) T = Log (A) b) A = Log (T) c) A = – Log (T) d) T = – Log (A) Where A = absorbance and T = transmittance. 16) The expression relating the wave length of the radiation and the Angle ( θ) at which it is reflected is given by a) mλ = 2dsin θ b) λ = 2dsin θ c) m = 2dsin θ d) mλ = dsin θ 17) Reflection oximetry is based on the scattering of light by the a) Bones b) Platelets c) Leukocytes d) Erythrocytes 18) Ear oximetry is based on a) Transmission principle b) Both the principles c) Reflection principle d) None of them 19) A colorimetric method in its simplest form involves the comparison of the colour of the solution by a) Analytical means b) Computational means c) Visual means d) None 20) In colorimetric method, sample concentration = reference reading ∗ a) Standard concentration sample reading sample reading ∗ b) Standard concentration reference reading s tandard concentration ∗ c) Reference reading sample reading d) None ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC344* -3- SLR-PC – 344 Seat No. T.E. (Part – I) (Biomedical) (Old) Examination, 2015 BIOMEDICAL INSTRUMENTATION – I Day and Date : Tuesday, 5-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. SECTION – I II. Answer any four of the following : (4×5=20) 1) Explain the following : a) PDW b) RDW c) MPV d) MCHC e) MCH. 2) Explain the significance of pH measurement. 3) Explain the EIISA reader and WASH. 4) Give the block diagram of the microprocessor based spectrophotometer and explain. 5) Explain the automatic optical method of blood cell counting. III. Answer any 2 of the following : (2×10=20) 1) Give the construction of pCO2 Electrode, and explain what is the significance of the measurement of CO2 in the blood. 2) a) Give the block diagram of Doppler shift blood flow meter and explain. b) Give the block diagram of range gated pulsed Doppler flow meter and explain. 3) Explain the thermal dilution techniques with a neat figure and block diagram. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 344 -4- *SLRPC344* SECTION – II IV. Answer any four of the following : (4×5=20) 1) Give the block diagram of pulmonary function analyzer and explain in brief. 2) Explain the ultra sonic spirometer and derive for the flow velocity. 3) What do you mean by In vitro oximetry and in vivo oximetry ? 4) Give the block diagram of the evoked response audio meter, and explain in brief. 5) Explain impedance pneumograph. V. Answer any 2 of the following : (2×10=20) 1) Explain the block diagram of microprocessor controlled ventilator. 2) Give the schematic diagram of anaesthesia machine and patient breathing circuit. 3) a) Explain the working principle of film oxygenator. b) Explain the blood pumps of the heart lung machine. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLR-PC-345* SLR-PC – 345 Seat Set No. A T.E. (Part – I) (Biomedical) (Old) Examination, 2015 BIOLOGICAL MODELING AND SIMULATION Day and Date : Wednesday, 6-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 3) Assume data wherever necessary. 4) Use legible handwriting, use blue/black only. 5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Attempt all : (1×20=20) 1) The modeling which can be represented with the help of mathematical equation is called as ______a) Mathematical Modeling b) Pictorial Modeling c) Graphical Modeling d) None 2) The modeling which can represent lumped model is known as ______a) Compartmental modeling b) Lumped parameter modeling c) Distributed parameter modeling d) None 3) In ______, system is reduced from many compartments to few compartments. a) Parallel model b) Circulatory model c) Reducible model d) None 4) Lumped parameter is used in ______a) Low frequency b) High frequency c) Both low frequency and High frequency d) None 5) Example of Lumped parameter is ______a) Transmission line b) Rigid bodies c) Both Transmission line and Rigid bodies d) None 6) ______states that diffusion takes place down the concentration gradient and is everywhere directly proportional to the magnitude of that gradient. a) Fick’s law b) Ohm’s law c) Einstein relationship d) None 7) If some ions moves from lower concentration to higher concentration by using energy. This phenomenon is known as ______a) Donnan Equilibrium b) Active transport c) Action potential d) None P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 345 -2- *SLR-PC-345* 8) ______states that the number of positive ionic charges in a given volume is equal to the number of negative ionic charges. a) Donnan Equilibrium b) Nernst equation c) Space charge neutrality d) None D KT 9) The formula = show ______μ q a) Einstein relationship b) Space charge neutrality c) Nernst equation d) None 10) ______states that number of positive ionic charges in a given value is equal to the number of negative ionic charges. a) Donnan Equilibrium b) Space charge neutrality c) Action potential d) None 11) ______is checked by the physicians when they tap the knee with a rubber hammer. a) Stretch reflex b) Golgi tendon organ c) Parkinson’s syndrome d) None 12) Neuromuscular system contains sensory organ called ______a) Parkinson’s syndrome b) Golgi tendon organ c) Stretch reflex d) None 13) ______moves the fovea of the eyes to facilitate efficient information processing. a) Saccadic eye movement b) Vestibular ocular movements c) Vergence eye movements d) None 14) ______are used to maintain fixation during head movements. a) Saccadic eye movements b) Vestibular Ocular movements c) Vergence eye movements d) None 15) Upper temperature limit for survival of animal is about ______a) 45°C b) 0°C c) 32°F d) None 16) Lower temperature limit for survival of animal is slightly below ______a) 45°C b) 0°C c) 113°F d) None 17) Microbes are also called as ______a) Antigen b) Antibody c) Both Antigen and Antibody d) None 18) Cells of human body are called ______a) Both self cells and non self cells b) Self cells c) Non self cells d) None 19) Pharmacokinetic deals with variation of ______concentration with respect to time. a) Drug b) Blood c) Both Drug and Blood d) None 20) Types of routes are ______a) External b) Both external and parental c) Parental d) None ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLR-PC-345* -3- SLR-PC – 345 Seat No. T.E. (Part – I) (Biomedical) (Old) Examination, 2015 BIOLOGICAL MODELING AND SIMULAITON Day and Date : Wednesday, 6-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 2) Assume data wherever necessary. 3) Draw diagrams/sketches wherever necessary. 4) Use legible handwriting, use blue/black only. SECTION – I 2. Attempt any four : (4×5=20) 1) Explain in brief Mathematical modeling, graphical modeling and pictorial modeling. 2) Explain in brief Mathematical modeling of Idealised segment of artery. 3) Explain in brief diffusion of uncharged particles in aqueous solutions. 4) Derive Nernst equation. 5) Explain in brief action potential and resting potential. 3. Attempt any two : (2×10=20) 1) Explain in detail functional modeling of Heart. 2) Explain in detail Hodgkin-Huxley conductance equation. 3) Explain in detail cable equation. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 345 -4- *SLR-PC-345* SECTION – II 4. Attempt any four : (4×5=20) 1) Explain in brief Parkinson’s syndrome. 2) List the four basic eye movement and define them in short. 3) Explain in brief linearized model of the immune response. 4) Draw block diagram of human thermoregulatory system and explain. 5) Explain in brief Pharmacokinetics Drug Delivery. 5. Attempt any two : (2×10=20) 1) Explain in detail two way neuro muscular control system with neat block diagram. 2) Explain and derive an expression for quantitative eye movement model using second order system. 3) Explain in detail i) Controller model ii) Model validation. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC346* SLR-PC 346 S e a t 5 A J ) N o . T.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015 MICROPROCESSORS AND PERIPHERALS Day and Date : Thursday, 7-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. I is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 I. Choose the correct answer : (1×20=20) 1) The stack pointer is ______bit register. a)8 b)16 c)4 d)32 2) Among these which register of 8085 is not a 16 bit register. a) SP b) PC c) M d) HL 3) The ______is the status signal present in the microprocessor 8085. a) IO/ b) c) d) M 4 , I O W 9 4 4) To perform the rotation/move each bit in the accumulator to the left position, the instruction is a) RAL b) RLC c) RAR d) RRC 5) Which is not a three byte instruction ? a) LXIb) JMC c) ORId) CALL 6) Which is the non maskable and highest priority interrupt in 8085 ? a) TRAP b) c) RST 6.5 d) RST 7.5 I N T A 7) In 8253 has ______identical 16-bit counter. a) 5 b) 7 c) 3 d) 9 8) RAM is ______type of memory. a) Volatile b) Non volatile c) Permanent d) Both (a) and (c) P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 346 -2- *SLRPC346* 9) The ______byte of address bus of 8085 is multiplexed with data bus. a) Lower b) Upper c) Both (a) and (b) d) None 10) The p 8085 is ______no. of 16 bit registers. a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 3 11) The 8253 is packaged with ______no. of pins and require ______volts. a) 24 pin, + 5 V b) 24 pin, + 12 V c) 12 pin, + 5 V d) None of these 12) USART stands for a) Universal Synchronous/Asynchronous Receivers/Transmitter b) Universal Serial Asynchronous Receiver/Transmitter c) Universal Synchronous/Asynchronous Receiver/Transfer d) None 13) The number of signal changes/sec a) Baud rate b) Bit rate/minute c) Both (a) and (b) d) None 14) After the execution of following the result is MVI A, 20 ADI, 30 END a) 55 H b) 60 H c) 50 H d) 65 H 15) The successive approximation A/D converter includes the three elements SAR, comparator a) Integration b) Differentiation c) DAC d) Comparator 16) The ______handshaking signal is used for interfacing with p. a) STB b) ACK c) CLK d) Both (a) and (b) 17) The 8254 can operates in ______mode. a) 8 b) 6 c) 4 d) 2 18) The address bus of 8085 microprocess is a) 8 bit b) 32 bit c) 64 bit d) 16 bit 19) The 8253 has ______no. of modes. a)8 b)12 c)4 d)6 20) The IC 8251 is used for ______type of communication data. a) Parallel b) Serial c) Both (a) and (b) d) None ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC346* -3- SLR-PC 346 S e a t N o . T.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015 MICROPROCESSORS AND PERIPHERALS Day and Date : Thursday, 7-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. SECTION I II. Answer any four : (5×4=20) 1) Explain with neat sketch the memory organisation. 2) Write short on programming model of 8085. 3) Explain the direct and indirect addressing modes with example. 4) Draw the timing diagram of MVIA, 55 H. 5) What are the interrupts, explain vectored and nonvectored interrupts. III. Answer any two : (10×2=20) 1) Explain with neat sketch the interrupt structure of 8085. 2) Explain the architecture of 8085 with neat diagram ? Explain the different function blocks. 3) Draw and explain demultiplexing of address and data bus. SECTION II IV. Answer any four : (5×4=20) 1) Explain the BSR mode of 8255. 2) Compare memory mapped I/O and peripheral mapped I/O. 3) Explain the block diagram of IC 8253. 4) Draw the interfacing diagram of 8255 in peripheral mapped I/O. 5) List important features of 8251. V. Answer any two : (10×2=20) 1) Explain in detail the mode 2 of 8255. 2) Interface DAC 0808 to p 8085, write a programe to generates a RAMP wave. 3) Interface stepper motor to 8085 microprocessor, write a program to rotate motor in clockwise direction in full stepping mode. ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC347* SLR-PC 347 S e a t 5 A J ) N o . T.E. (Bio-medical Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015 PRINCIPLES OF COMMUNICATION (Old) Day and Date : Friday, 8-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : 20 n x ( t ) X s i n 1) The expression c (2 t n) is known as 2 n a) Sampling b) Quantisation c) % Modulation d) Interpolation formula 2) The term _____ refers to the signal from an adjacent channel spilling over into a desired time slot a) Cross talk b) Nyquist rate c) SNR d) Aliasing effect 3) Nyquist interval is given by 1 a) 1 b) c) d) Ts = Fm(sec) T s ( s e c ) 6 I I A ? T s F m . I 2 F m 4) Quantisation noise occurs in a) TDM b) FDM c) PCM d) PWM 5) Companding is used to overcome a) Quantisation noise in PCM b) PCM Txr to allow amplitude limiting c) Protect small signals from quantisation distortion d) PCM Pxr to overcome impulse noise 6) Which of the following is analog in pulse modulation system ? a) PCM b) DPCM c) PWM d) Delta modn P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 347 -2- *SLRPC347* 7) In a delta modulation system the granular noise occurs when the a) Modulating signal increases rapidly b) Pulse rate decreases c) Modulating signal remains constant d) Pulse amplitude increases 8) Indicate the false statement modulation is used to a) Separate differencing TXm b) Reduce the BW used c) Allow use of practicable antenna d) Ensure the interface may be TXd over long distance 9) The highest modulating frequency used in AM broadcast system is a) 10 KHz b) 15 KHz c) 5 KHz d) 2 MHz 10) Major problem associated with base band Txm is a) ISI b) Crosstalk c) Distortion d) Noise 11) The communication medium cause the signal to be a) Amplified b) Modulated c) Attenuated d) Interfered with 12) Apreature effect in flat top pulse is reduced by using an a) Predictor b) Integrat c) Equalizer d) Comparator 13) In PCM regenerator repeaters improves a) Noise performance b) Crosstalk c) ILI d) Thermal noise 14) PCM is not used for ______broadcasting. a) Radio b) TV c) Mobile d) Both a) and b) 15) Granular noise occurs when a) Step size is too large b) Step size is too small c) Step size is moderate d) Both a) and b) 16) In PCM signal and noise are separable a) True b) False c) Cant say d) None of the above 17) Which multiplexing technique transmits analog signal ? a) FDM b) TDM c) WDM d) Both a) and b) 18) In TDM, the TXm rate of multiplexed path is usually ______of the sum of TXm rates. a) Greater than b) Less than c) Equal to d) Less than 1 19) A line code in which voltage or current turns of zero at the end of each bit period is known as a) RZ b) NRZ c) + ve logic d) ve logic 20) Guard bands increases the Bandwidth for a) FDM b) TDM c) a) and b) d) None of the above ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC347* -3- SLR-PC 347 S e a t N o . T.E. (Bio-medical Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015 PRINCIPLES OF COMMUNICATION (Old) Day and Date : Friday, 8-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. SECTION I 2. Solve any four : (4×5=20) 1) Explain necessity of modulation and its types. 2) Explain block diagram of high and law level DSBFC. 3) Explain frequency and phase modulation. 4) Draw block schematic of communication system. 5) How the FM and PM are generated, explain in detail. 3. Solve any two : (2×10=20) 1) Explain in detail ground, space and sky wave propagation. 2) Explain phase shift and third method Vestigial Side Band (VSB). 3) Explain with the help of noise triangle pre-emphasis and de-emphasis in F.M. SECTION II 4. Solve any four : (4×5=20) a) Explain the generation of PTM signals. b) Explain natural and flat top sampling. c) Compare ASK, FSK and PSK. d) Explain uniform and non-uniform quantization. e) Compare FDM and TDM. 5. Write a note on (Solve any four) : (4×5=20) a) QAM b) PCM c) DM d) PWM e) DPSK ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC348* SLR-PC – 348 Seat Set No. A T.E. (Part – I) (Biomedical Engg.) Examination, 2015 SIGNALS AND SYSTEMS (Old) Day and Date : Saturday, 9-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. N.B. : 1) Q. No. I is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 I. Choose the correct answer : (1×20=20) 1) Nyquist sampling rate for x(j ω ) = sin c(x) is a) 120 Hz b) 200 Hz c) 100 Hz d) 50 Hz 2) A signal having period of 4 seconds will be having angulated frequency π π π π a) b) 2 c) 2 d) 4 3) The condition for Nyquist rate ≥ ≤ > = a) Fs 2Fm b) Fs 2Fm c) Fs 2Fm d) Fs 2Fm 4) The term ‘an’ in Fourier series expansion gives amplitude of a) sine component b) cosine component c) D.C. component d) none 5) x(n) = {2, 9, 5, 4, 2} then ROC of X(z) is ↑ a) Entire z-plane b) Entire Z-plane except at z = 0 and z = ∞ c) Entire z-plane except at z = 0 d) Entire z-palne except at z = ∞ 6) The inverse z-transform of α (z) is 1 n −1 1 a) x(n) = ∫ x(z) z dz b) x(n) = ∫ x(z) zn dz 2π π C 2 J C 0 1 n − 1 x(n) = ∫ x(z) z dz 1 n c) π d) x(n) = ∫ x(z) z dz 2 J C π 2 C α = n 1 7) If Z-transform of (n) au(n) is x(z) = ROC |z| > |a| then Z-transform of 1− az−1 x(n) = an –1 u (n – 1) is −1 −1 z < z > a) − ROC | z | | a | b) − ROC | z | | a | 1− az 1 1− az 1 z ROC | z | > | a | c) − d) None 1 az P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 348 -2- *SLRPC348* ∞ n 8) If | α | < 1 then the value of ∑nα is equal to n= 0 α α2 α α3 a) b) c) d) 1− α (1− α)2 (1− α)2 (1− α)3 9) Aliasing is due to the effect of a) over sampling b) under sampling c) Finite sequence d) Unsampling 10) The conversion of time domain signal to z-plane or domain is a) Laplace transform b) Fourier transform c) Z-transform d) All of above 11) If a system is giving bounded output for bounded input the system will be a) causal b) stable c) non causal d) periodic 12) The z-transfrom of an arbitrary signal X(n) is = Σ0 −n = Σ∞ −n a) x(z) n = −∞x(n)z b) x(z) n = −∞x(n)z = Σ0 n = Σ∞ − n c) x(z) n = ∞x(n)z d) x(z) n =0 x(n)z 13) A periodic signal x(t) is having even symmetry then Fourier expansion contains a) cosine b) sine c) DC and sine d) DC and cosine 14) A sinusoidal signal is given by = ω + φ = ω = −at a) x(t) A cos( o ) b)x(t) A sin t c) x(t) Ae d) none 15) A continuous time signal x(t) is said to be even signal if it satisfied the condition a) x(t) = x( – t) b) x(– t) = – x (– t) c) x(t) = x( – t) d) x(– t) = – x(t) 16) A continuous time signal x(t) is said to be periodic if it satisfied the condition a) x(t) = x (t + T) for all t b) x(t) = x(t – T) for all t c) x(t) = x( – t) d) x(t) = – x (– t) 17) The signal which exists only at t = 0 whose area is unity is referred as a) u(t) b)∂(t ) c) r(t) d) Rectangular function 18) Fourier transform of x(t) can be given as ∞ ∞ ω ω j ot j ot a) x(jω) = ∫ x(t) e b) x(jω) = ∫ x(t) e ∞ −∞ ∞ − ω ω = j ot c) x(j ) ∫x(t) e d) none ∞ 19) The conversion or transformation of signal from time domain in to frequency domain is a) Fourier transform b) Z transform c) Laplace transform d) Inverse Z transform 20) The signal x(t) recovered from sampled signal xP(t) is closely related to its original signal x(t) if the method of signal reconstruction is a) zero order hold b) sampling c) linear interpolation d) Nyquist rate ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC348* -3- SLR-PC – 348 Seat No. T.E. (Part – I) (Biomedical Engg.) Examination, 2015 SIGNALS AND SYSTEMS (Old) Day and Date : Saturday, 9-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. SECTION – I II. Answer any 4 questions : (5×4=20) 1) Compare the following terms energy and power. 2) State and explain sampling theorem in frequency domain. 3) Sketch the following signals : a) u(t) – u(t – 2) b) r(t) = 2r (t – 1) + r(t – 2). 4) State and prove the condition for stability of discrete time LTI system. 5) State and explain sampling theorem in frequency domain. III. Answer any 2 questions : (10×2=20) 1) The analog signal m(t) is given below m(t) = 4cos (50 π t) + 8 sin (300 π t) – cos(100 π t). Calculate Nyquist sampling rate. 2) Explain with block diagram and details the discrete time processing of continuous time signal and explain antialiasing of filter and bandwidth of sampled signal. 3) An analog signal m(t) = 2sin 480 π t + 3 sin 720 π t in sampled at 600 samples /sec. Calculate sampling rate what are the maximum resulting frequency of o/p DT signal. SECTION – II IV. Answer any four questions : (5×4=20) 1) Obtain Z-transform and state ROC if x(n) = δ(n) + δ(n + 1) . ≤ ≤ 2) Find fundamental frequency wo and amplitude of DC component for m(t) = t1 for 0 t 1 second. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 348 -4- *SLRPC348* 1 3) Determine inverse z-transform of x(z) = using power series method. 1− az−1 4) Find the Fourier transformation x(t) = cosωφ t . 5) Define unilateral and bilateral z-transform. Explain the region of convergence (ROC) with its properties. V. Answer any 2 questions : (10×2=20) 1) Prove that convolution of two sequence in time domain in equivalent to multiplication of same sequence in transformed z-domain. = 2) x1(n) {1, 2, 3, 4} ↑ = x2(n) {1, 2, 0, 2, 1} ↑ Find linear convolution by using Z-transform. 3) Evaluate the Discrete time Fourier series for the signal ⎛ 4π ⎞ ⎛ 10π ⎞ x(n) = sin ⎜ n⎟ + cos⎜ n⎟ + 1 ⎝ 21 ⎠ ⎝ 21 ⎠ Sketch the magnitude and phase spectra. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC349* SLR-PC – 349 Seat Set No. A T.E. (Part – I) (Biomedical Engg.) Examination, 2015 BIOMEDICAL INSTRUMENTATION – I (New) Day and Date : Tuesday, 5-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Draw the diagram wherever necessary. 2) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 3) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 I. Multiple choice questions. (20×1=20) 1) Bear Lambert Law is given as –Keb a) I = I0 b) I = I0 log kcb –Kcb c) I0 = I d) None of the above 2) The average blood flow velocity in arteries a) 30-35 cm/sec. b) 20-25 cm/sec. c) 15-20 cm/sec. d) None 3) In electromagnetic BFM induced voltage is given as a) e = 2d cos θ b) e = CHVd c) e = Area × Diameter d) None 4) The NMR measurement will be pulsatile in nature because a) Arterial flow is pulsatile in nature b) Of the nuclear effect of H+ ions c) Pulsed magnetization d) None of the above 5) Cardiac output (Q) is given as a) Q = M (Average concn. of indicator/Ltr. of blood) * (curve duration) b) Q = M (Avg. Concn. of indicator) * curve duration c) Q * M d) None 6) Detector used in pulsed oximeter is a) PIN diode b) Strain gauge c) Mercury manometer d) None P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 349 -2- *SLRPC349* 7) When the pressure in the patient breathing circuit and alveoli are equal this period of no flow is known as a) Expiratory pause time b) Inhalation dead time c) Inspiration pause time d) None 8) Total lung capacity in Adult male is a) 3.6 to 9.4 Ltr. b) 2.4 to 8.6 Ltr. c) 9.4 to 13.4 Ltr. d) None 9) Gas for Anesthesia machine a) Helium b) Argen c) Diethyl ether d) None 10) Photo multiplier cover the range of a) 185 to 650 nm b) 400 to 360 nm c) 200 to 300 nm d) None 11) Fox and Wood suggested ______Dye substance used for Dye delusion method. a) Indo cyanine green b) Indo cyanine blue c) Indo cyanine red d) Indo cyanine yellow 12) The output across differential manometer is measured using ______law. a) Ohms law b) Poiseuille law c) Beer-Lambert law d) None 13) In Infrared gas analyser the chopper rotates at speed of ______rpm. a) 500 b) 1000 c) 2000 d) 3000 14) At 805 nm wavelength the molecular extinction coefficient for HbO2 and Hb are a) Equal b) Greater value c) Not equal d) None 15) A ______m long flexible fiber is used for ear oximeter. a) 1 m b) 1.5 m c) 2 m d) 2.5 m 16) The maximum pressure present at gas cylinder of anesthesia machine is a) 200 Kpa b) 275 Kpa c) 375 Kpa d) 300 Kpa 17) The inspiratory flow is represent in graphas a) Positive flow b) Negative flow c) Both positive and negative flow d) None 18) Using Heart lung machine without hyperthermia, a person time is limit of operation is upto ______minutes. a) 1 min. b) 5 min. c) 10 min. d) 15 min. 19) The heart pumps about ______liters of blood per minute. a) 2 lit. b) 3 lit. c) 4 lit. d) 5 lit. 20) The audio response recorded using audiometer is drawn on ______graph. a) Normal graph b) Semi log graph c) Both d) None Set A ______ www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC349* SLR-PC – 349 Seat No. T.E. (Part – I) (Biomedical Engg.) Examination, 2015 BIOMEDICAL INSTRUMENTATION – I (New) Day and Date : Tuesday, 5-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instruction : Draw the diagram wherever necessary. II. Attempt any four questions : (5×4=20) 1) Explain basic principle and working for colorimeter. 2) Explain basic principle and working of electrolyte analyser. 3) Explain the working for man spectroscopy. 4) With a neat diagram explain about centrifuge. 5) Explain the working of Doppler shift blood flow meter. III. Solve any two questions : (10×2=20) 1) With a neat diagram explain the construction of PO2 and PCO2 electrode. 2) Draw block diagram for coulter blood cell counter and explain it in brief. 3) Describe ultrasonic Doppler shift flow velocity method for blood flow measurement through artery along with necessary equation. IV. Solve any four : (4×5=20) 1) Define a) Tidal volume (TV) b) Vital Capacity (VC) c) Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV) d) Total Lung Capacity (TLC) e) Minute volume (MV) Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 349 -4- *SLRPC349* 2) Classify Pneumotachometers ? Briefly explain Fleish Pneumotachometer. 3) List types of Respiratory Gas Analyzers ? Briefly explain Infrared Gas Analyzers. 4) Write a short note on mechanical functions of heart. 5) List differences between pure tone and speech audiometer. V. Solve any two : (2×10=20) 1) Briefly explain Pulse oximeter with the help of neat labelled diagram. 2) Briefly explain classification of ventilators. 3) Explain the principle and working of heart lung machine with neat figure. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC350* SLR-PC 350 e a t S Set A N o . T.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015 BIOLOGICAL MODELING AND SIMULATION Day and Date : Wednesday, 6-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. 1 is compulsory. 2) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 3) Assume suitable data wherever required. 4) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Fill in the blanks : (20×1=20) 1) ______are representation of objects and systems. a) Error b) Models c) Diagrams d) Figures 2) ______equation is called as one ion equilibrium equation. a) Nernst b) Donnan c) Ohms d) Ficks 3) Goldman equation is referred as constant ______a) period b) voltage c) current d) field 4) Na-K pumps are ______mechanisms in cell membrane. a) nonactive b) passive c) active d) none of above 5) ______model is used to explain neuronal voltage spikes. a) Hodgkin-Huxley b) Iron Wire c) Goldman d) Compartmental 6) Investigating the trust worthiness of a mathematical representation is called as model ______a) comparting b) representation c) validation d) none of above 7) ______starts from nerve spindle through afferent fibers to synapse. a) Stretch reflex b) Action potential c) Conduction d) Convention 8) Saccadic eye movement is a ______movement. a) rapid fast b) rapid jerky c) slow d) medium P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 350 -2- *SLRPC350* 9) Smooth pursuit movement is a ______movement following moving objects. a) slow b) fast c) jerky d) tracking 10) Vestibular movement of the eye is used to maintain ______fixation. a) stable b) variable c) visual d) constant 11) Medial and lateral rectus muscle of eyes contract to move the eyes ______a) side to side b) upper c) lower d) median 12) ______model provides realistic records of velocity and duration as a function of time. a) Validation b) Reciprocal innervations c) Compartmental d) None of above 13) Resting muscle is ______in nature. a) non elastic b) passive c) elastic d) active 14) ______period is defined as the period of time during which an excitable cell cant generate another action potential. a) Refractory b) Resting c) Absolute d) Relative 15) Spindle receptor is called as ______physiological transducer. a) joint b) conductive c) passive d) active 16) ______is one of the substance used by cells to transmit impulses in basal ganglia. a) Dopamine b) CSF c) Gray matter d) White matter 17) Muscles are more efficient at higher ______a) level b) viscosity c) pressure d) temperature 18) Ficks law stated law of ______a) current b) drift c) diffusion d) none of above 19) The ice cream example represents ______model of abrupt change in trunk core temperature. a) Thermoregulatory b) Neuromuscular c) Compartmental d) Reflex 20) Relationship between the diffusion and drift process is called as ______relationship. a) Space charge b) Seebeck c) Ficks d) Einstine ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC350* -3- SLR-PC 350 S e a t N o . T.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015 BIOLOGICAL MODELING AND SIMULATION Day and Date : Wednesday, 6-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 2) Assume suitable data wherever required. SECTION I 2. Attempt any four : (4×5=20) 1) Define and differentiate between physiological modeling and compartmental modeling. 2) Explain the significance of Na-K pumps. 3) Mention the assumptions made for Goldmans equation concept. 4) Draw and explain electrode electrolyte model. 5) Draw and explain micro electrode model in detail. 3. Attempt any two : (2×10=20) 1) Derive the expression for Nernst and Donnan equation of a potassium and sodium ion. 2) With the neat diagram explain voltage clamp experiment. What were the assumptions made for voltage clamp experiment ? Discuss results of the experiments. 3) State and explain biophysics tools for modeling with their mathematical expression. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 350 -4- *SLRPC350* SECTION II 4. Attempt any four : (4×5=20) 1) Draw and explain the significance of Golgi tendon and Spindle receptor in neuromuscular system. 2) Explain different types of eye movements with each example. 3) Write a note on Parkinsons syndrome in detail. 4) Mention any 4 applications of thermoregulatory system and explain any one of it in detail. 5) Explain different physiological mechanisms of temperature control. 5. Attempt any two : (2×10=20) 1) Explain using suitable diagram of plant model of thermoregulatory system. 2) Draw and explain model of drug delivery system. 3) Differentiate between open loop and closed loop stretch reflex. Explain closed loop neuromuscular control system showing anatomical connections between physiological components that participate in stretch reflex. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC351* SLR-PC – 351 Seat Set No. A T.E. (Part – I) (Biomedical) Examination, 2015 MICROPROCESSOR AND MICROCONTROLLER (New) Day and Date : Thursday, 7-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions :1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 I. Choose the correct answer : 1) 8085 has ______bits of ALU. a) 4 bits b) 8 bits c) 16 bits d) 32 bits 2) Which is not a bus of 8085 ? a) Address bus b) Data bus c) Control bus d) Converter bus 3) Which is the non-maskable interrupt ? a) INTR b) RST 7.5 c) TRAP d) RST 7 4) What type of memory is the stack ? a) LIFO b) FIFO c) Random d) None 5) Which of the following is an illegal instruction ? a) MOV A, B b) ADD A, 05H c) INR C d) LXI H, C000H 6) How many transistor required to store a bit in DRAM ? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 7) What are software interrupts ? a) RST 0-7 b) RST 5.5-7.5 c) INTR, TRAP d) None 8) Which is the nonvolatile memory ? a) RAM b) ROM c) SRAM d) None 9) The 8085 processor can address up to ______bytes of memory. a) 64 K b) 32 K c) 256 K d) 128 K 10) The ALE pin stands for ______a) Address Latch Enable b) Address Low Edge c) Address Line Edge d) None P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 351 -2- *SLRPC351* 11) The contents of accumulator after the execution of following instructions will be MVI A, 07H ORA A RAL RAR a) 00H b) 03H c) 04H d) 07H 12) Which are level triggering interrupts ? a) RST 6.5 and RST 5.5 b) RST 7.5 and RST 6.5 c) RST 5.5 and RST 7.5 d) INTR and RST 7.5 13) The instruction MOV A, 80H Uses ______addressing mode. a) Register b) Direct c) Indirect d) Immediate 14) Which of the following register is not bit* addressable ? a) A b) B c) SBUF d) PSW 15) Which of the 8051 I/O port does not need pull-up register ? a) Port 0 b) Port 1 c) Port 3 d) Port 2 16) For 8051 based system if crystal frequency is 16 MHz then period of the machine cycle in microsecond will be a) 0.65 b) 0.75 c) 0.85 d) 0.95 17) In timer mode-2 counters rolls over when it goes from a) 1FFF to 0000 b) 1F to 00 c) FF to 00 d) FFFF to 0000 18) When LCD interface with the microcontroller, which line will instruct the LCD that microcontroller sending command or data ? a) DB0 b) RS c) EN d) RW 19) What is the address for TCON, SCON, SBUF and PCON ? a) 98H, 99H, 87H, 88H b) 88H, 98H, 99H, 87H c) 99H, 98H, 88H, 87H d) 87H, 88H, 98H, 99H 20) Which bit of TMOD will exactly configure timer/counter as a timer or counter ? i) TMOD.6 of C/T for Timer1 ii) TMOD.6 of C/T for Timer0 iii) TMOD.2 of C/T for Timer0 iv) TMOD.2 of C/T for Timer1 a) i, ii b) ii, iv c) i, iii d) iii, iv ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC351* -3- SLR-PC – 351 Seat No. T.E. (Part – I) (Biomedical) Examination, 2015 MICROPROCESSOR AND MICROCONTROLLER (New) Day and Date : Thursday, 7-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. SECTION – I II. Attempt any four : (4×5=20) 1) Explain the following : i) RAM ii) ROM iii) SRAM iv) DRAM v) EEPROM. 2) Explain different addressing modes in 8085. 3) Explain demultiplexing of address and data bus. 4) Compare hardware and software interrupts. 5) Write an assembly level language program to generate Fibonacci series. III. Attempt any two : (2×10=20) 1) Draw the architecture of 8085 and explain its various functional blocks. 2) Draw and explain 8085 interrupt structure. 3) Draw transition state diagram of HOLD. SECTION – II IV. Attempt any four : (4×5=20) 1) Compare microcontroller and microprocessor. 2) Explain timing diagram of IN instruction of 8085. 3) Mention different timer mode of operations and explain with diagram timer mode 2 operation. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 351 -4- *SLRPC351* 4) Explain following instructions : i) Mov Rr, #n ii) mov @Rp, A iii) RR iv) SWAP A v) MUL AB 5) Explain Timer Control (TCON) special function registers. V. Attempt any two : (2×10=20) 1) Explain in detail block diagram of 8051. 2) Explain the concepts for I/O port and Compare memory mapped I/O and I/O mapped I/O. 3) Explain in brief about LCD display and their pin configuration. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC353* SLR-PC – 353 Seat Set No. A T.E. (Bio-Medical) (Part – I) (New) Examination, 2015 SIGNAL AND SYSTEMS Day and Date : Saturday, 9-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions :1) All questions are compulsory. 2) Figures to right indicate full marks. 3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. 5) Assume suitable data if mecessary. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer. 1) The signal X(n) = cos 2 n is a) Periodic with period π b) Periodic with period 2 c) Periodic with period 4 π d) A periodic 2) The odd and even component of signal u(t) are a) Cost, Sint b) Sint, – Cost c) Cost, jsint d) Cost, –j sint 3) Consider the following signal x(t) and y(t). The relation between x(t) and y(t) is Figure (A) a) x(t + 1) b) x(2t + 2) c) x(t – 1) d) x(2t –1) 4) Which are of the following system is non linear a) y(t) = 2x(t – 1) – 3x (t – 2) + x(t – 3) b) y(t) = 5x(t) c) y(t) = 2x(t – 1) – x(t – 2) –x(t – 4) d) y(t) = 2x(t) + 3.6 t 5) If x(t) is the input and y(t) is zero state response to y(t) then the system y(t)= ∫ t x(λλ )d is a) causal, static b) causal, dynamic −∞ c) non causal dynamic d) non causal, static 6) Which of the following system are time invariant ? a) y(t) = x(2t) b) y(t) = x(t) + x(t − 1) ⎛ t ⎞ c) y(t) = x⎜ ⎟ d) y(t) = x(–t) ⎝ 2 ⎠ S1+ 7) Which one of the following is the response y(t) of a causal. LTI system described H(S) = S2S12 ++ for a given input x(t) = e–tu(t) ? a) y(t) = e–t sint u(t) b) y(t) = e–(t–1) sin(t – 1) u(t – 1) c) y(t) = sin(t – 1) u(t – 1) d) y(t) = e–t cost u(t) P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 353 -2- *SLRPC353* 8) Which of the following pair is in correct ? dy dy a) Unstable system − − 0.1 y(t) = x(t) b) Non linear system − + 2t2y(t) = x(t) dt dt c) Non causal system – y(t) = x(t + 2) d) Non dynamic system – y(t) = 3x2(t) 9) Flat top sampling of low pass signals a) Give rise to aperature effect b) Implies over sampling c) Leads to aliasing d) Introduces delay distortion 10) The Nyquist sampling rate for signal g(t) = 10 cos (50 π t) cos2 (150 π t) where t is in second is a) 150 samples/sec. b) 200 samples/sec. c) 300 samples/sec. d) 350 samples/sec. Ω Ω th 11) One period (0, T) each of two periodic wave form 1 and 2 are shown in figure. The magnitude of n Ω Ω ≥ Fourier coefficient of 1 and 2 for n 1, n odd are respective proportional to .. (as shown in figure B) Figure (B) 1 1 1 1 1 1 and and and a) 2 b) 2 3 c) 3 4 d) None of above n n n n n n 12) The trigonometric fourier series of an even function of time does not have the a) DC term b) Cosine term c) Sine term d) Odd Harmonic term 13) If a periodic signal has an even symmetry, the fourier series contains a) Only sine terms b) Only cosine terms c) Constant & Cosine terms d) Both sine and cosine term 14) If x(t) be a periodic signal with fundamental period T with fourier series coefficients Cn. Then fourier 2 d x(t) series coefficients of are d(t) C 2 Cn n a) j Ω C b) (j Ω ) C c) d) 2 n n jΩ (jΩ) 15) Which of the following can not be the fourier series expansion of a periodic signal a) x(t) = 2 cost + 3 cos 3t b) x(t) = 2 cos π t + 7cost c) x(t) = cost + 0.5 d) x(t) = 2cos 3.5 π t + sin 3.5 π t 16) The fourier transform for a signal x(t) exists when ∞ ∞ ∞ ∞ <∞ =∞ >∞ a) ∫ f(t) dt =∞ b) ∫ f(t) dt c) ∫ f(t) d) ∫ f(t) dt −∞ −∞ −∞ −∞ 17) The fourier transform of a continous time a periodic signal is a) Continous and a periodic b) Discrete and a periodic c) Continous and periodic d) Discrete and periodic 2 18) The Fourier transform of even part of the signal x(t) = is 1+ t 2 1 −Ω a) − Ω b) e c) π − Ω d) Ω − Ω e 2π 2 e e n n ⎛ 5 ⎞ ⎛ 6 ⎞ 19) The Region of convergence of z transform of the sequence ⎜ ⎟ u(n) − ⎜ ⎟ u(−n −1) must be ⎝ 6 ⎠ ⎝ 5 ⎠ 5 6 5 6 6 a) z < b) z > c) < z < d) < z < ∞ 6 5 6 5 5 20) The Region of convergence of the z-transform of a unit stop function is a) z < 1 b) z > 1 c) (Real part of z)>0 d) (Real part of z)< 0 ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC353* -3- SLR-PC – 353 Seat No. T.E. (Bio-Medical) (Part – I) (New) Examination, 2015 SIGNAL AND SYSTEM Day and Date : Saturday, 9-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Figure to right indicate full marks. 2) Assume suitable data if necessary. SECTION – I 2. Attempt any four. (4×5=20) a) Determine the power and energy of the signal x(t) = e–2tu(t). b) Find even and odd component of the following signal x(n)=−{ 2, 1, 2, − 1, 3}. ↑ c) For each of the following system determine whether or not the system is time in varient. i) y(n) = x(n) + nx(n – 1) ii) y(t) = ex(t). d) Define ‘Aliasing Error’ ? Explain how it is avoided. e) Determine the Nyquist sampling rate and Nyquist sampling interval for the following signal. sinc(200 πt) + 3 sinc2 (120 πt) 3. Attempt any two. (2×10=20) a) Check whether the following system are i) Static or dynamic ii) Linear or non linear iii) Causal or non causal iv) Time in varient or time varient dy(t)2 dy(t) a) y(t)=+ 3t += y(t) x(t) dt2 dt b) y(n) = x(n) u(n). b) A system has impulse response of DT-LTI system is given below. (2×10=20) h[n] = (0.99)n u[n + 3] i) Determine whether the system is stable or not ii) Justify whether the system is causal or anticipatory. c) i) The impulse response of a CT-LTI system is given below h(t) = e−3t u(t − 1) Determine whether the given system is causal or not. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 353 -4- *SLRPC353* ii) Find the impulse response and sketch it for following LTI system. (Figure c) Figure (C) SECTION – II 4. Attempt any four. (4×5=20) a) State and prove convolution propertie of fourier transform. b) Find the z-transform and ROC for the signal x(n) = an u(n). c) Compute the Exponential series of the following signal shown in figure D. Figure (D) d) State the properties of Region of convergence (ROC) for z tansform. e) Find the fourier transform of signal p(t) given by equation using time shifting propertie. p(t) = m(t – t0) + m (t + t0). 5. Attempt any two. (2×10=20) a) List all the propertie of continous time fourier series and explain any two propertie in detail. b) Determine the trigonometric fourier series of the given signal in figure E Figure (E) c) i) Find the Fourier transform of x(t) = eat u(t) ii) Using z transform find convolution between two sequence x1(n) = {1, 2, –1, 0, 3} x2(n) = {1, 2, –1}. ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC355* SLR-PC 355 S e a t A J 5 A N o . T.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015 BIOMEDICAL INSTRUMENTATION II (Old) Day and Date : Thursday, 14-5-2015 Total Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 3) Assume suitable data wherever required. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Answer the following questions. (20×1=20) 1) Nerve action potentials depolarization occurs due to ______ions. a) Calcium b) Sodium c) Potassium d) Chlorine 2) ECG signal represents activity of ______a) Lungs b) Brain c) Heart d) CNS 3) Heart rate is the measurement of ______per minute. a) pulse b) systole c) diastole d) beats 4) Mean pressure is normally ______mmHg. a) 40 b) 120 c) 80 d) 125 5) Pulse rate count is taken by unit pulses per ______a) Second b) Beat c) Minute d) mmHg 6) Standard dry skins resistance always counts ______than wet skin resistance. a) more b) less c) moderate d) equal 7) Phonocardiography measures ______a) heart sounds b) heart rate c) pulse rate d) ECG P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 355 -2- *SLRPC355* 8) ______causes due to electrical wiring failures. a) Gross shock b) Mild shock c) Micro shock d) Macro shock 9) EEGs potential counts in ______a) milivolt b) volt c) microvolt d) watt 10) EMGs points count in ______a) milivolt b) volt c) microvolt d) watt 11) Increased heart rate is called ______arrhythmias. a) tachycardia b) stroke c) brady d) none of above 12) The resulting tracing of voltage difference at any two sites due to electrical activity of the heart is called as ______a) electrode b) lead c) augmented lead d) none of above 13) Leakage current is ______in equipments. a) more b) less c) excess d) unavoidable 14) Infant warmer is used to maintain infants ______a) blood pressure b) temperature c) humidity d) perspiration 15) ______systems are based on multi media computing. a) Central nursing b) B. P. monitoring c) Telemedicine d) None of above 16) Baby incubator equipment is part of ______in hospital. a) ICU b) ICCU c) PICU d) NICU 17) In mobile communication the capacity of transmission link is generally ______a) 10-100 kbps b) 20-2000 kbps c) 65-200 kbps d) 12-16 kbps 18) List safety limits of current are ______a) 5 mA b) 100 mA c) 16 mA d) 6 A 19) Leakage current is measured from the equipment case to ______a) neutral b) ground c) line d) fuse 20) Cardiotograph measures foetals ______a) pulse rate b) PO2 c) heart rate d) none of above ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC355* -3- SLR-PC 355 S e a t N o . T.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015 BIOMEDICAL INSTRUMENTATION II (Old) Day and Date : Thursday, 14-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 2) Assume suitable data wherever required. SECTION I 2. Attempt any four : (4×5=20) 1) Explain the generation of nerve action potential with suitable diagram. 2) Explain high frequency and low frequency noise in ECG recording. 3) Explain the generation of EMG signal. 4) Explain instrumentation amplifier designing for ECG and EMG recording techniques. 5) Define blood pressure. Explain systolic and diastolic blood pressure with their normal values. 3. Attempt any two : (2×10=20) 1) Explain 10-20 system with the help of neat diagram and also explain the frequency components of EEG. 2) Explain average heart rate monitoring system in detail. 3) Explain the technique used for measurement of skin resistance with suitable diagram. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 355 -4- *SLRPC355* SECTION II 4. Attempt any four : (4×5=20) 1) Explain Doppler shift principle with necessary diagram. 2) Define micro shock and macro shock and state their limiting values. 3) List the application of telemedicine. 4) Explain cardiotograph in detail. 5) Explain the significance and working of baby incubator. 5. Attempt any two : (2×10=20) 1) Explain various patient isolation techniques with necessary diagram. 2) What is biofeedback system ? Explain the clinical significance of EMG biofeedback. 3) Explain using block diagram of ultrasonic Doppler shift based fetal heart rate measuring system. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC356* SLR-PC 356 S e a t 5 A J ) N o . T.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015 MEDICAL IMAGING I (Old) Day and Date : Saturday, 16-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 2) Assume suitable data wherever required. 3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : 20 1) In X-ray tube ______moves from cathode to anode. a) Photons b) Positrons c) Electrons d) Neutrons 2) Heat quantity in ______machine is measured in Joules. a) Thermograpgy b) X-ray c) Image intensifier d) CT 3) Clinical application frequency of ultrasound machine lies in the range of ______a) 1-15 MHz b) 1-15 KHz c) 1-15 Hz d) 100 MHz 4) X-ray ______rating are done in ampere. a) Tube b) Gantry c) Cathode d) None of above 5) ______anode is used for heat dissipation. a) Stationary b) Rotating c) Platinum d) Copper 6) KVp is a measurement of ______in X-ray. a) Current b) Induction c) Capacitance d) Voltage 7) The ______effect is a change in the perceived frequency. a) Doppler b) Peltier c) Seebek d) Snels P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 356 -2- *SLRPC356* 8) Piezoelectric transducer is a part of ______a) Fluroscopy b) Image intensifier c) Ultrasound d) X-ray 9) In X-ray ______works as filters. a) Grids b) Collimators c) Table d) Oil 10) Quartz is a material in ______a) Piezo electric b) Nal c) Collimators d) Grids 11) Heating is not a part of ______steps. a) Image intensifying b) Thermographic c) Filtering d) Film processing 12) Ultrasound Doppler works on the principle of ______a) Doppler shift b) Reciprocal innervation c) Conduction d) None of above 13) Ultrasound waves need following medium to travel ______a) Air b) Water c) Solvent d) Gas 14) In rectifier circuit ______type of semiconductor is used. a) Z b) P c) N d) Q 15) Ultrasound Doppler uses ______transducer. a) Piezocrystal b) Sodium c) Na-I d) Active 16) Endoscope consists of ______a) Lasers b) Piezocrystal c) Nal d) None of above 17) KVp stands for ______a) Kilo Volts Peak b) Kilo Volt Pressure c) Kinetic Voltage Peak d) Kilo Volts 18) Complete the following equation, E = ______ a) b) D D c) d) None of above D 19) ______is used to lower the temperature of X-ray tube. a) Oil b) Water c) Platinum d) Copper 20) Ultrasound Doppler measures ______a) Heart sound b) Heart rate c) ECG d) Pulse rate ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC356* -3- SLR-PC 356 S e a t N o . T.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015 MEDICAL IMAGING I (Old) Day and Date : Saturday, 16-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 2) Assume suitable data wherever required. SECTION I 2. Attempt any four : (4×5=20) 1) Define and explain Doppler shift principle in detail. 2) Explain any 2 applications of image intensifier. 3) Differentiate between stationary anode and rotating anode in X-ray machine. 4) Mention any 5 front panel controls of ultrasound machine. 5) Draw detailed constructional diagram of ultrasound transducer. 3. Attempt any two : (2×10=20) 1) Write a short note on : X-ray tube, collimators, X-ray tube, grids. 2) Explain any two specifications and characteristics of ultrasound machine. 3) Define : Q factor, Doppler shift in the ultrasound machine. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 356 -4- *SLRPC356* SECTION II 4. Attempt any four : (4×5=20) 1) Mentions parts of mammography and explain any two with necessary diagram. 2) Mention any five applications of thermography. 3) Explain the term angiography with its application. 4) Draw construction of fluoroscopy with proper naming. 5) Dfferentiate between analog and digital radiography with example of each. 5. Attempt any two : (2×10=20) 1) Define and explain endoscopy procedure with any one example in detail. 2) Explain how tumor/cancer can be detected using thermography with necessary diagram. 3) What is the significance if radiation protection ? How it is achieved ? ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC357* SLR-PC – 357 Seat Set No. A T.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part – II) (Old) Examination, 2015 BIOSTATISTICS Day and Date : Tuesday, 19-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 3) Assume suitable data wherever required. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Fill in the blanks : (20×1=20) 1) A regression is a statistical analysis assessing the association between ______variables. a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 10 2) The values which divide the given data into 4 equal parts are known as ______a) mean b) mode c) quartile d) median 3) Mode is the value of the variate which the frequency is ______a) minimum b) medium c) maximum d) zero 4) ______is the difference between two extreme observations. a) Frequency b) Quartile c) Mean deviation d) Range 5) The square of ______is called as variances. a) SD b) Mean c) Mode d) Variate 6) ______is a mathematical measure of average relationship between 2 or more correlated variables. a) SD b) Regression c) Correlation d) None of above 7) The correlation coefficient γ (X, Y) is ______of change of origin and scale. a) property b) square c) dependent d) independent 8) The square of standard normal variate is known as ______a) chi square variate b) normal distribution c) probability d) regression 9) The sign test is focused on the ______rather than the mean as a central tendency. a) distribution b) variance c) median d) mode P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 357 -2- *SLRPC357* 10) The ______test gets its name from the fact that plus and minuses rather than numerical values. a) Corrective b) Wilcoxon c) Chi square d) Sign 11) Wilcoxon signed rank test is called ______test. a) parametric b) nonparametric c) independent d) variable 12) The values which divides the series into a number of equal parts is called the ______values. a) partition b) mean c) average d) correct MD 13) Coefficient of mean deviation about Mean = ? a) MODE b) MEAN c) SD d) Median MD 14) Coefficient of mean deviation about Median = ? a) MODE b) MEAN c) SD d) Median 15) ______is independent of change of origin but not of scale. a) Variance b) Regression c) SD d) Sign test 16) If X1, X2, X3, ..., Xn are n observations then CV of these n observations is given by, ? CV = × 100 X a) SD b) σ c) ∑N d) γ Σ? 17) x = n a) x b) SD c) MEAN d) MODE 18) The general problem of finding equations of approximate curves which fit given set of data is called ______fitting. a) probability b) curve c) regression d) none of above 19) Least square method constitutes ∑ y = na + b ∑ ? a) x b) n c) SD d) Q 20) Karl Pearson Coefficient gives between two variables a) SD b) MODE c) Correlation d) Median ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC357* -3- SLR-PC – 357 Seat No. T.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part – II) (Old) Examination, 2015 BIOSTATISTICS Day and Date : Tuesday, 19-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 3) Assume suitable data wherever required. SECTION – I 2. Attempt any two : 10 1) Define arithmetic mean, mode and median with relative expression and calculate the mean of the following distributions by following methods : a) Direct method b) Step deviation method. Marks 0 – 10 10 – 20 20 – 30 30 – 40 40 – 50 50 – 60 60 – 70 No. of Students 65 8157 6 3 2) a) Find the missing value of the variate for the following distribution whose mean is 31.87 given below : 5 X 12 20 27 33 ? 54 F 8164890308 b) Calculate the first and third quartiles for the following data : 5 X 012345678 f 1 9 26 59 72 52 29 7 1 3) Find the mean, mode and median of the following data : 10 Class 93 – 97 98 – 102 103 – 107 108 – 112 113 – 117 118 – 122 123 – 127 128 – 132 Interval Frequency 3 5 12 17 14 16 3 1 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 357 -4- *SLRPC357* 3. Attempt any two : (2×10=20) 1) a) Fit the curve y = axb to the following data : X 5 101520253035 Y 2.76 3.17 3.44 3.64 3.81 3.95 4.07 b) Fit second degree parabola for the following data : X 12 34 5 Y 1090 1220 1390 1625 1915 2) In a certain community, on a given evening, someone is at home in 85% the households. A health research team conducting a telephone survey selects random samples of a 12 households. Find the probability that the team will find someone at home. a) Exactly 7 households b) Fewer than 5 households c) More than equal to 8 households. σ2 − σ2 3) If u = x – y, v = x + y and if x and y are uncorrelated then prove that γ = x y . uv σ2 − σ2 x y SECTION – II 4. Attempt any two : 10 2 1) Define Chi Square χ distribution with its expression and test of homogeneity in detail. 2 Using χ test find whether these support the hypothesis that skilled father have intelligent boys ? Boy → Intelligent Boy Unintelligent Boy Total Fathers ↓ Skilled Father 24 12 36 Unskilled Father 32 32 64 Total 56 44 100 2) a) Define parametric and non-parametric test with each of example. (5×2=10) b) Define and explain the significance of the sign test in detail. 3) Define and explain the concept of the median test. Explain the procedure of performing median test with one example. 10 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC357* -5- SLR-PC – 357 5. Attempt any two : (2×10=20) 1) Cardiac output (liters/min) was measured by thermo dilution in a simple random sample of 15 post cardiac surgical patients in the left lateral position. The results were as follows : 4.91 4.10 6.74 7.27 7.42 7.50 6.56 4.64 5.98 3.14 3.23 6.17 5.80 5.39 5.77 We wish to know if we can conclude on the basis of these data that the population means is different from 5.05. Given Ttab = T15(0.0240) = 25. 2) The general appearance score of 10 mentally retarded girls are given as follows : Girl Score Girl Score 14 6 6 25 7 10 38 8 7 48 9 6 59106 We wish to know if we may conclude that the median score of the population from which we assume this sample to have been drawn is different from 5 by LOS 5% using Sign test ? 3) Equation of two lines of regression for a bivariate distribution is 9X + 10Y – 67 = 0 and X + 2Y – 23 = 0, find the following : a) The mean values of X and Y b) Regression coefficients c) Correlation Coefficient. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC358* SLR-PC 358 e a t S Set A N o . T.E. (Biomedical Engg.) Part II Examination, 2015 DIGITAL SIGNAL PROCESSING (Old) Day and Date : Thursday, 21-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 2) Assume suitable data wherever required. 3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : (20×1=20) 1) DFT of unit impulse (n) is a) 1 b) 0 c) d) 2 2) x(K + N) = X(K) is ______property a) Linearity b) Periodicity c) Circular d) None of these 3) The multiplication of two DFTS is equivalent to ______Convolution of their sequences in time domain a) Linear b) Circular c) Both linear and circular d) None of these 4) Z Transform of u(n) is ! z 1 z a) b) z c) d) z 1 z 1 z 1 z 1 5) FIR filters are inherently a) Stable b) Unstable c) Both a and b d) None of these 6) Z Transform of u(n 3) is a) Z3 U (Z) b) U(Z) c) Z3 U (Z) d) Z1 7) Discrete time sinusoid signals are identical and frequencies are separated by integer multiple of a) 2 b) 4 c) 3 d) 7 1 Z 8) S is T a) Eulers approximation b) IIM approximation c) BLT approximation d) None of these 9) FIR filters can have exactly ______phase response. a) Linear b) Non linear c) both a and b d) None of these P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 358 -2- *SLRPC358* 10) Z transform of anu (n) is 1 1 1 a) Z b) c) d) K z a Z a Z a Z 11) x (n-l) X(K) j 2 k j 2 l k j l k a) l b) c) d) None of these N N N A A A 12) Direct form II requires ______number of delay elements than direct form I a) Fewer b) Larger c) Zero d) None of these 13) A resonator is a narrow ______filter. a) band pass b) band reject c) low pass d) high pass 14) The relationship between analog frequency and digital frequency in bilinear < transformation is 2 t a n a) NIL b) c) d) 6 6 T 2 15) The relationship between analog frequency and digital frequency is impulse < invariant transformation is 2 t a n a) NIL b) c) d) 6 6 T 2 16) A signal of continuous amplitude time is known as a) analog signal b) digital signal c) discrete signal d) none of these 17) x (n) = cos (3 n) fundamental period is a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8 - 18) The energy of discrete time signal is given by n a) b) c) x (n) d) x (-n) x ( n ) x ( n ) 19) The signal which can be described by mathematical equation is a) Deterministic signal b) Random signal c) Both a) and b) d) None of these 20) The system which satisfies superposition theorem is a) Linear system b) Non linear system c) Causal system d) Non causal system ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC358* -3- SLR-PC 358 S e a t N o . T.E. (Biomedical Engg.) Part II Examination, 2015 DIGITAL SIGNAL PROCESSING (Old) Day and Date : Thursday, 21-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 2) Assume suitable data wherever required. SECTION I 2. Answer the following (any 4) : (4×5=20) 1) x(n) = {1 2 3 4}. Find DFT X (K). 2) State and prove linearity property in DFT. 3) Explain the relationship between DFT and Z Transform. 4) Find IDFT of x(K) = {10, 2 + 2j, 2, 2, 2j}. Using IDFT FFT. 5) x(n) = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8} h(n) = {1, 2} perform linear convolution and solve it by overlap save method. 3. Answer the following (any 2) : (10×2=20) 1) Find DFT of following using DITFFT x(n) = {1, 2, 1, 2, 0, 2, 1, 2} 2) By means of DFT-IDFT or FFT-IFFT technique compute circular convolution x1 (n) = {1, 2, 3, 4} x2 (n) = {5, 6, 7, 8} 3) Show DF-I, DF-II, cascade and parallel realization 1 1 Z 2 H ( Z ) 3 Z 1 Z 1 6 SECTION II 4. Answer the following (any 4) : (5×4=20) 1) Use impusle invariance to obtain H(Z) given 0 I I I Sampling time T = 0.2 sec 2) Write short note on LMS algorithm Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 358 -4- *SLRPC358* 3) A low pass filter has following specifications j H ( e ) 0 . 2 f o r 0 . 6 Find filter order and use bilinear transformation technique 4) Compare IIR and FIR filters. 5) Convert analog filter with system specification s 0 . 1 H a ( S ) ( s 0 . 1 ) 1 6 Into digital IIR filter by means of bilinear transformation. The digital filter should have resonant frequency H 5. Answer the following (any 2) : (10×2=20) 1) A low pass filter is to be designed with desired frequency response j j 2 " 0 A A d " = 0 " Determine filter coefficients hd(n) if window function is defined as ( n ) 1 0 n 4 0 o t h e r w i s e Also determine frequency response j of designed filter. 0 A 2) The desired response of low pass filter j 3 j ! ! 0 A A d " " ! = 0 " Determine j for M =7 using Hamming window. 0 A 3) A low pass filter has desired response as j 3 j 0 @ A A = 0 Determine filter coefficients h(n) for M = 7 using type-I frequency sampling technique. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC359* SLR-PC – 359 Seat No. Set A T.E. (Part – II) (Bio-Medical) Examination, 2015 EMBEDDED SYSTEM (Old) Day and Date : Saturday, 23-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 I. Choose the right answer from the following. (20×1=20) 1) DMA transfers the data in a) multi bytes b) byte c) bit d) none 2) The interval between the occurrence of an interrupt and start of execution of the ISR is called a) dead line b) latency c) rest d) none 3) Pick the odd one a) 12 C b) PCI c) CAN d) SPI 4) 12C master can communicate to maximum ______slaves. a) 25 b) 127 c) 150 d) none 5) Can bus is terminated with ______ohm resistors. a) 120 b) 90 c) 30 d) none 6) The MSB is saved in lowest address and other bytes are written in decreasing order of significance. a) Big-endian system b) Small-endian system c) Little-endian system d) None 7) The 8051 can handle ______interrupt sources. a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6 P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 359 -2- *SLRPC359* 8) The 8051 has ______16-bit counter/timers. a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 9) The internal RAM memory of the 8051 is ______bytes. a) 32 b) 64 c) 128 d) 256 10) Data transfer from I/O to external data memory can only be done with the MOVX command. a) True b) False 11) MOV A, @ R1 will a) copy R1 to the accumulator b) copy the accumulator to R1 c) copy the contents of memory whose address is in R1 to the accumulator d) copy the accumulator to the contents of memory whose address is in R1 12) One direction data communication is called a) Half duplex b) Full duplex c) a) and b) d) None 13) The I/O ports that are used as address and data for external memory are a) ports 1 and 2 b) ports 1 and 3 c) ports 0 and 2 d) ports 0 and 3 14) Microcontrollers often have a) CPU b) RAM c) ROM d) All 15) The 8051 has ______parallel I/O ports. a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 16) The total external data memory that can be interfaced to the 8051 is a) 32 K b) 64 K c) 256 K d) 128 K 17) The 8-bit address bus allows access to an address range of a) 0000 to FFFFH b) 000 to FFFH c) 00 to FFH d) 0 to FH 18) The start-conversion on the ADC0809 is done by using the a) CS line b) INTR line c) Vref/2 line d) SC line 19) Which of the following commands will move the value at port 3 to register 2 ? a) MOV P2, R3 b) MOV R3, P2 c) MOV 3P, R2 d) MOV R2, P3 20) The designs of a centigrade thermometer and a PWM speed-control circuit can be implemented by the 8051. a) True b) False ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC359* -3- SLR-PC – 359 Seat No. T.E. (Part – II) (Bio-Medical) Examination, 2015 EMBEDDED SYSTEM (Old) Day and Date : Saturday, 23-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. SECTION – I II. Answer any 4 of the following. (4×5=20) 1) Compare microprocessor and microcontroller. 2) Explain with diagram for Auto reload Timer mode (mode-2). 3) Explain how stack memory is accessed in 8051. 4) Explain about the switches for interfacing of devices with MCS-51. 5) Explain the following SFR. i) TCON ii) SCON III. Answer any 2 of the following. (10×2=20) 1) Explain the interfacing of ADC0809 to 8051 and write a program to take analog input and display equivalent digital value. 2) Explain the architecture and features of 8051. 3) Explain about the multiprocessor communication in MCS-51. SECTION – II IV. Answer any 4 of the following. (4×5=20) 1) Explain with block diagram components of embedded system hardware. 2) Explain the process of converting a C program into embedded system executable file. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 359 -4- *SLRPC359* 3) Explain about the memory devices for embedded system. 4) Explain DMA in embedded system with its advantages. 5) Explain about the PCI and PCI-X buses. V. Answer any 2 of the following. (2×10=20) 1) Explain about the processor and memory organization structure units in a processor. 2) Explain about the memories and I/O devices. 3) Draw a diagram and explain about CAN in serial communition. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC36* SLR-PC 36 S e a t 5 A J ) N o . T.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015 STRUCTURAL MECHANICS III (Old) Day and Date : Thursday, 14-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer book Page No. 3. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : (20×1=20) 1) Kinematic indeterminency for the given frame as shown in Fig. 1 is 1 a) 1 b) 2 c) 6d) 4 2) Flexibility coefficient for the beam shown in Fig. 2 is 1 a) L3/2EI b) L3/4EI c) L3/3EI d) L3/48EI 3) A beam of length 6 m carries a point load of 95 KN at its center. The beam is fixed at both ends. The fixed end moment is 1 a) 61.25 KNm b) 71.25 KNm c) 65.75 KNm d) 56.75 KNm 4) According to Castiglianos second theorem work done due to redundant is always 1 a) b) Minimum c) Maximum d) One 5) For the analysis by the force method the following condition is required 1 a) Equilibrium equation b) Compatibility condition c) Displacements d) None of these 6) Maxwell reciprocal theorem in structural analysis can be applied in 1 a) Plastic structures b) All elastic structures c) Symmetric structures d) Prismatic element structures P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 36 -2- *SLRPC36* 7) A two hinged semicircular arch of radius R carries a concentrated load W at the crown the horizontal thrust is 1 a) W/3 b) W/ c) W/4 d) 8W/ 8) Conjugate beam method belongs to the category of 1 a) Force method b) Stiffness method c) Displacement method d) None of these 9) The principle of superposition is applicable when 1 a) The action of applied forces will be affected by small deformation of the structure b) Material obeys hooks law c) Deflections are linear functions of applied force d) All of the above 10) The maximum central deflection of a fixed beam loaded with udl w KN/m is 1 a) wl3/3EI b) wl4/384EI c) 5wl4/384EI d) wl3/484EI 11) In slope deflection method, sinking of support causing clockwise rotation is considered 1 a) Positive b) Negative c) Either a) or b) d) None of these 12) The fixed end moment of beam subjected to UDL of w throughout its span is 1 a) wL/2 b) wL2/12 c) wL2/2 d) wL 13) The shear caused by sinking of one of the support by of simply supported beam is 1 1 2 I 3 E I 6 E I a) E b) c) d) Zero ! ! ! L L L 14) Which of the following steps is not correct in the application of moment distribution method ? 1 a) The distribution factors are first computed b) All supports are assumed fixed or locked and fixed end moments are computed for each span c) Each support is not unlocked and the unbalanced moment is distributed to each adjacent span d) After distributing the unbalanced moment to each adjacent span, one half of this moment, with opposite sign is carried over to the other end of respective span 15) The stiffness coefficient kij indicates 1 a) Force at i due to a unit deformation at j b) Deformation at j due to a unit force at i c) Deformation at i due to a unit force at j d) Force at j due to a unit deformation at i 16) Number of unknowns to be determined in the stiffness method is equal to 1 a) Static indeterminacy b) Kinematic indeterminacy c) Sum of static and kinematic indeterminacy d) None of the above 17) The degree of kinematic indeterminacy of the beam as shown in below is (if axial deformation is neglected). 2 a) 5 b) 2 c) 3 d) 1 18) The fixed end moment of a beam subjected to couple M at the center is 2 a) Zero b) M/4 c) M/2 d) M/8 ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC36* -3- SLR-PC 36 S e a t N o . T.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015 STRUCTURAL MECHANICS III (Old) Day and Date : Thursday, 14-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) In Section I, solve any three questions. 2) In Section II, Question No. 5 is compulsory, solve any two from remaining. 3) Assume suitable data if required and mention it clearly. 4) Figures to the right indicate full marks. SECTION I 2. Solve any three : (4×3=12) a) Explain Castiglianos second theorem with its application. b) Determine the static and kinematic indeterminacy for the following structures as shown in fig. 1(a) and (b). Figure 1 (a) (Question 1(b)) Figure 1 (b) (Question 1(b)) c) Write a note on force method. d) Derive expression for horizontal thrust of a parabolic arch subjected to udl through out span. 3. Draw BMD for a frame shown in fig. 2. Use energy method. 13 Figure 2 (Question 2) Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 36 -4- *SLRPC36* 4. Solve the following beam as shown in fig. 3. Draw BMD using consistent deformation method. 14 Figure 3 (Question 3) 5. Develop flexibility matrix for the beam as shown in fig. 4. 13 Figure 4 (Question 4) SECTION II 6. Solve any three of the following : (3×4=12) a) Differentiate between force method and displacement method. b) Define : i) Distribution factor ii) Carry over moment. c) Derive the slope deflection equation. d) Write a general stiffness equation and explain meaning of each term. 7. Analyze continuous beam loaded as shown in Figure 5 by the slope deflection method sketch the BMD. Support B sinks down 10 mm. Take E = 2 × 105 N/mm2 and I = 16 × 107 mm4. 14 Figure 5 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC36* -5- SLR-PC 36 8. Analyze the portal frame loaded as shown in Figure 6 below by the moment distribution method and sketch the BMD. 14 Figure 6 9. Analyze the frame as shown in Figure 7 by stiffness method. Draw BMD. 14 Figure 7 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLR-PC-360* SLR-PC – 360 Seat Set No. A T.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 BIOMEDICAL INSTRUMENTATION – II (New) Day and Date : Thursday, 14-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time :3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 I. MCQ/Objective : 1) The Electro Retinography is a method of monitoring ______a) Muscle activity b) Eye ball movement c) Retinal activity d) None 2) The ______lions are free permeable across cell membrane. a) Na+ & CI– b) K+ & CI– c) Na+ & K+ d) None 3) In ventricular demand inhibited VVI ______chamber is paced. a) Ventricle b) Atrium c) Dual (Both Chamber) d) None 4) The auxiliary circuits of ECG machines produces ______a) 1 V b) 0.1 V c) 0.01 V d) 1 mV 5) Electronic version of stethoscope is known as ______a) Audiography b) Phonocardiography c) ECG d) EEG 6) The average activity of the sweat glands is known as ______a) BSR b) GSR c) EMG d) Heart Rate Monitoring 7) The range of atrial blood pressure is ______a) 5 – 15 mmHg b) 6 – 25 mmHg c) 30 – 300 mmHg d) above 300 mmHg 8) The apnoea occurs in premature babies during the ______weeks of life. a) First b) Second c) Third d) Fourth 9) The bedside monitoring instrument includes the monitoring of ______a) ECG waveform b) Heart Rate c) Respiration Rate d) All P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 360 -2- *SLR-PC-360* 10) In automatic BP measuring apparatus the cuff inflated at ______mmHg/s rate. a) 3-5 mmHg/s b) 30 mmHg/s c) 20 mmHg/s d) None 11) The disturbance in the heart’s normal rhythmic contraction is called ______a) Arrhythmia b) Apneoa c) Hyperthermia d) All 12) FHR means a) Frequency of heart rate b) Foetal Heart Rate c) Final Heart Rate d) Fewer Heart Rate 13) The ambulatory monitoring of ______is known as Holter Cardiography. a) EMG b) EEG c) ECG d) EOG 14) ______is the application of telecommunication and computer tech. to deliver health care from one location to another. a) Telemedicine b) Plethysmography c) ECG d) None of above 15) In biotelemetry FDM refers to a) Fourier Domain Modulation b) Frequency Division Modulation c) Frequency Division Multiplexing d) Far Distance Modulation 16) ______is the current of extremely small magnitude direct, localized electrical path exists to the heart. a) Local current b) Alternative current c) Direct current d) Leakage current 17) ______shock experienced by subject by an accidental contact with electrical wiring. a) Micro shock b) Gross shock c) Electrical shock d) None 18) What is band width of a normal ECG signal ? a) 100 Hz b) <10 Hz c) > 10 Hz d) None of the above 19) AZTEC stands for a) American Zone Time Epoch Coding b) All Indian Zone Time Epoch Coding c) Amplitude Zone Time Epoch Coding d) None 20) The process of Transmission of Radiological images is known as ______a) Telepathology b) Telecardiology c) Tele-Education d) Teleradiology ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLR-PC-360* -3- SLR-PC – 360 Seat No. T.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 BIOMEDICAL INSTRUMENTATION – II (New) Day and Date : Thursday, 14-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. SECTION – I II. Solve any four : (4×5=20) 1) Write a short note on classification codes for pacemakers. 2) Explain electroneurogram with necessary diagram. 3) Write a short note on general consideration for signal conditioners. 4) With labeled diagram explain Electromyography (EMG). 5) Explain the direct blood pressure measurement. III. Solve any two : (2×10=20) 1) With help of neat block diagram explain the working of Electroencephalography (EEG). 2) Draw and explain the ultrasonic blood pressure measurement technique with necessary equation. 3) Draw and explain the block diagram of bedside monitoring systems. SECTION – II IV. Solve any four : (4×5=20) 1) Draw circuit diagram of frequency modulation used in biomedical telemetry. 2) With the help of neat block diagram explain the working of labour activity monitor. 3) Write a short note on cardiac arrhythmias. 4) Explain electric shock hazards in detail. 5) Draw and label the block diagram of the recording unit for ambulatory monitoring instruments. V. Solve any two : (2×10=20) 1) List QRS detection techniques. Explain any one in detail. 2) Explain Abdominal Foetal Electrocardiogram (AFECG) with block diagram. 3) Draw and explain each block of ECG telemetry system. ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC361* SLR-PC 361 S e a t A J 5 A ) N o . T.E. (Biomedical Engineering) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015 MEDICAL IMAGING I Day and Date : Saturday, 16-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 2) Assume data wherever necessary. 3) Use legible handwriting, use blue/black only. 4) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Attempt all : (1×20=20) 1) In angiography contrast material is an ______compound which is injected through a catheter. a) Sodium b) Lead c) Phosphorous d) Iodine 2) ______and ______have been used to record angiographic procedures and associated images. a) Digital streamer tape cassette and digital optical disk b) Magnetic tape recorder and galvanic recorder c) Ink jet recorder and optical disk d) Pen driver and optical disk 3) ______is used as image converter layer. a) Sodium b) Cesium c) Iodine d) Phosphorous 4) The appropriate value of acoustic impedance for most of the biological materials or organs is ______g/cm2 sec. a) 1.7 × 106 b) 1.6 × 105 c) 2 × 107 d) 1.1 × 108 5) The Doppler frequency is given by v c o s v c o s f d x f d x f a) f b) c 2 c 2 v s i n 2 v c o s f d x f d x f c) f d) c c P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 361 -2- *SLRPC361* 6) The relationship between velocity and wavelength is given by V 8 a) n b) c) d) V 2 n V n 2 7) In X-ray tube ______block contains filament usually made from nickel or stainless steel. a) Cathode b) Anode c) Both a) and b) d) None of these 8) The oldest and simplest types of pulse echo system uses a) A-mode scanner b) B-mode scanner c) C-mode scanner d) M-mode scanner 9) The tungsten represents the anode has a beveled edge that may vary from a) b) c) d) # # % # 10) Which type of light used in optical system of image intensifier ? a) Red b) Green c) Yellow d) White 11) Which type of film is used in X-ray image intensifier for certain cardiovascular examination ? a) Cine film b) Radiographic film c) Fluoroscopic film d) Tomographic film 12) Which type of technique is used in X-ray image intensifier ? a) Fluoroscopy b) Radiography c) Radioscopy d) Tomography 13) The range of diameter output screen in image intensifier a) 20 30 mm b) 15 30 mm c) 40 50 mm d) 10 20 mm 14) KVP stands for a) Killo Volt Pressure b) Killo Volt Point c) Killo Volt Peak d) None of these 15) The intensity of returning echoes is greatest when the beam is ______to a reflecting surface. a) Parallel b) Perpendicular c) Both a) and b) d) None of these 16) The images of the blood vessels is called an a) ECG b) EEG c) Angiogram d) EMG 17) Neuro-Vascular angiography used to visualize the arterial and venous supply to the a) Heart b) Liver c) Brain d) Lung 18) The atomic number of tangent a) 74 b) 60 c) 65 d) 80 19) The radiographic grid consists of a series of ______foil strips separated by X-ray transport spacers. a) Lead b) Aluminum c) Silicon d) Zinc 20) ______is the material used in ultrasound transducers. a) Diamond crystal b) Magnetic crystal c) Piezoelectric crystal d) Electronic crystal ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC361* -3- SLR-PC 361 S e a t N o . T.E. (Biomedical Engineering) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015 MEDICAL IMAGING I Day and Date : Saturday, 16-5-2015 Max. Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 2) Assume data wherever necessary. 3) Draw diagrams/sketches wherever necessary. 4) Use legible handwriting, use blue/black only. SECTION I 2. Answer any four of the following questions : (4×5=20) 1) With the help of block diagram explain B-mode display system in ultrasounds. 2) Mention ultrasound contrast agents and explain any one in detail and write their applications. 3) Explain the production of X-rays with a help of neat diagram in detail. 4) Explain any two interaction techniques of X-rays with matter. 5) With the help of neat diagram explain construction of ultrasound transducer. 3. Answer any two of the following questions : (2×10=20) 1) State the clinical application of Doppler shift method and explain any one Doppler system used in blood flow measurement. 2) Explain X-ray generators in details and also explain in details about X-ray film development technique. 3) Write a short notes on : a) Application of X-rays b) X-ray image and beam limiting devices Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 361 -4- *SLRPC361* SECTION II 4. Answer any four of the following questions : (4×5=20) 1) Explain the Angiography techniques with example and its application. 2) Mention the dye that is used in mammography and explain principle of digital Mammography in detail. 3) Compare between digital radiography and computed radiography. 4) Write a short note on endoscopy. 5) Explain X-ray image intensifier in detail with neat diagram. 5. Answer any two of the following questions : (2×10=20) 1) Explain in detail thermographic equipment and their applications with example. 2) Explain the endoscopic equipment and imaging technique in detail. 3) Explain the function of digital mammography system with a neat block diagram. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC362* SLR-PC – 362 Seat No. Set A T.E. (Part – II) (New) (Bio-Medical Engg.) Examination, 2015 CONTROL SYSTEM Day and Date : Tuesday, 19-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. N. B. : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 2) Assume data, if necessary. 3) All questions are compulsory. 4) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : 20 1) In critically damped system, the damping factor is ______a) Zero b) Less than unity c) Unity d) Greater than unity 2) The transfer function of a system is defined as the ratio of output to input in ______a) Z-transform b) Fourier transform c) Laplace transform d) Fourier series 3) The Routh array criterion tells us the number of roots lying ______a) In left hand half of s-plane b) In the right half s-plane c) On the origin of s-plane d) None of these 4) In second order system, the damped frequency of oscillation is given by ______ω = ω − δ2 ω = ω − δ2 ω = ω − δ2 a) d r 1 b) d n 1 2 c) d n 1 d) None of these 5) If the roots of system are (1 + j2) (1 – j2) (s – 3) ( s + 3) then the system becomes ______a) Unstable b) Marginally stable c) Absolutely stable d) Can’t say 6) The transfer function for the given block diagram is ______ a) G1 + G2 + G3 b) – G1 + G2 – G3 c) G1 – G2 + G3 d) – G1G2G3 7) The peak time for 1st undershoot is given by ______π 2π 2π − β π − β a) T = b) T = c) T = d) T = p p ω p p ω ω d ω d d d P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 362 -2- *SLRPC362* 8) Satelling time for 2% tolerance is given by ______= 4 3 a) Ts b) T = c) T = 0 d) T = 1 δω s δω s s n n 10 9) For unity feedback system the open loop transfer function is G(s) = . This (s + 1) (s + 4) system is ______a) Stable b) Unstable c) Marginally stable d) None of these 10) When damping factor δ = 1, then system is ______a) Over damped b) Critically damped c) Under damped d) None of these 11) The phase shift of the second order system with transfer function 1/S2 is ______a) 180° b) –180° c) 0° d) 90° 12) Bode plot of the constant is a ______a) Line with a slope of –20 dB/decade b) Line with a slope of –6 dB/decade c) Line with a slope of –40 dB/decade d) Straight line parallel to frequency axis 13) The transfer function when the Bode diagram is plotted should be of the form ______1 s + 1 1 a) b) c) ST + 1 d) s + 1 1 sT+1 14) The addition of zero in the transfer function causes ______a) Phase lead compensation b) Phase lag compensation c) Lag-lead compensation d) None of these 15) The addition of POLE in the transfer function causes ______a) Phase lead compensation b) Phase lag compensation c) Lag-lead compensation d) None of these 16) The most suitable method for determining the stability and response of system is ______a) Bode plot b) Root locus c) Nyquist criterion d) Routh Harwitz criterion 17) Starting point of Root Locus are ______a) Open loop poles b) Close loop poles c) Open loop zeros d) Close loop zeros 18) The Routh array of a characteristic equation is given below. The number of roots lying on the left hand side of s-plane is ______s4 8 s3 7 s2 –3 s1 2 s0 1 a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 19) Polar plot for positive and negative frequencies ______a) Are always symmetrical b) Can never be symmetrical c) May or may not be symmetrical d) None of these 20) Inductor is not used to lag networks because of ______a) Large size b) High cost c) High reactance d) Time delay and hysteresis losses ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC362* -3- SLR-PC – 362 Seat No. T.E. (Part – II) (New) (Bio-Medical Engg.) Examination, 2015 CONTROL SYSTEM Day and Date : Tuesday, 19-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. N. B. : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 2) Assume data, if necessary. 3) All questions are compulsory. SECTION – I 2. Solve any four : 24 a) Write short note on PID controller. b) Derive transfer function of R-L-C series circuit. c) Explain mechanical system using mass, spring and damper. Obtain mathematical eqn. for the same. d) Explain absolute and relative stability and characteristics equation of system. e) Define the terms : Transient response, Steady state response, Steady state error. 3. a) Explain the rules for block diagram reduction. 8 b) Solve any one : 8 i) Derive rise time and satelling time of II order system. ii) Comment on stability using Routh array criteria. s6 + 2s5 + 2s4 + 12s3 + 20s2 + 16s + 16 = 0. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 362 -4- *SLRPC362* SECTION – II 4. Attempt any four : (4×5=20) a) Explain the correlation between time domain and frequency domain specifications. b) Define the terms for Root locus – Asymptotic, Centroid of root locus, Angle of departure, Angle of arrival, Breakaway point. c) Explain phase lead compensating network. d) For Bode plot define the terms – Phase margin, Gain Margin, Phase cross over frequency, Gain cross over frequency. e) Explain Nyquist Criterion. f) Explain the state model for simple RLC electrical network. 5. Attempt any two : (2×10=20) 80 a) A unity feedback control system has G(S)= . Draw Asymptotic Bode plot s(s + 2) (s + 20) and comment on stability. K b) A forward path transfer function of a unity feedback system is G(S) = . s(s + 4) (s + 5) Sketch the Root locus for different values of K. c) Sketch the Nyquist plot and determine the stability of a unity feedback system K G(s) = + + . (T1 s 1) (T2s 1) ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLR-PC-363* SLR-PC 363 e a t S Set A N o . T.E. (Biomedical Engineering) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015 DIGITAL SIGNAL PROCESSING Day and Date : Thursday, 21-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are Compulsory. 2) Assume suitable data if necessary. 3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Multiple choice questions : (20×1=20) 1) The direct evaluation DFT requires ______complex multiplications. N ( N 1 a) N(N 1) b) N2 c) N(N + 1) d) ) 2 2) DFT is a) Discrete Fourier Series b) Discrete Fourier Transform c) Discrete time Fourier Transform d) Discrete time Fourier Series 3) The fast Fourier transform is an algorithm used to compute the a) DFT b) FT c) Convolution d) Circular Convolution 4) Circular convolution of the sequences x(n) = {1, 2, 1} and h(n) = {1, 2, 2} is a) {1, 2, 1} b) {3, 2, 1} c) {3, 2, 1} d) {3, 2, 2} 5) The methods of calculate filtering of long duration sequences is a) Overlap save b) Overlap add c) FIR and IIR d) Both a) and b) 6) When the system has poles inside the unit circle in Z-domain ? a) The system is stable and its impulse response is a decaying function b) Time domain behaviour will be exponentially rising signal c) The system is unstable d) The impulse response is marginally constant P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 363 -2- *SLR-PC-363* 7) If X(k) is N-point DFT of finite duration sequence x(n), then a) x(n + N) = x(n) b) x(n N) = x(n) c) x(n + N) = x(n) d) None of the above 8) The Direct form II realization requires ______no. of multiplications. a) M N + 1 b) M + N + 1 c) M + N d) M N 9) Fourier transform of x(t) can be given as j t j n t x ( j ) x ( t ) e d t x ( j ) x ( t ) e d t a) b) 0 j t x ( j ) x ( t ) e d t c) d) None 10) Main disadvantage of direct form II realization a) Quantization error b) Requires more memory c) Sensitive to error d) All above 11) IIR filter design is based on ______filter design. a) Analog b) Digital c) DT d) None of above 12) Aliasing is present in which filter technique ? a) Impulse invariant technique b) Bilinear transformation c) Approximation of derivatives d) The matched Z-transform 13) IIR filters are ______type. a) Non Recursive b) Recursive c) Causald) None 14) Using impulse invariant technique which type of filters are designed ? a) Only high pass filters b) Only LPF c) Only BPF d) Both LPF and BPF 15) The mapping for BLT method is a) One to one b) Many to one c) Many to many d) None of above 16) Memory requirement and execution time required for FIR filter is a) High b) Low c) Very high d) Very low 17) FIR filters are always a) Unstable b) Quasi stable c) Stable d) None of above 18) FIR filters have constant a) Group delay b) Phase delay c) Both a) and b) d) None 19) FIR filter has a a) Non linear phase response b) Quasi phase response c) Linear phase response d) All above 20) The main lobe width of hanging window is ______that of the rectangular window. a) Twice b) Thrice c) Four times d) Five times ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLR-PC-363* -3- SLR-PC 363 S e a t N o . T.E. (Biomedical Engineering) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015 DIGITAL SIGNAL PROCESSING Day and Date : Thursday, 21-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Assume suitable data if necessary. SECTION I 2. Attempt any four : (4×5=20) 1) Perform circular convolution using concentric circle method for x1(n) = {1, 1, 2, 1} and x2(n) = {1, 2, 3, 4} 2) Differentiate between linear convolution and circular convolution. 3) What is zero padding ? What are its uses ? 4) Compute four point DFT of a sequence x(n) = {0, 1, 2, 3} using DIT FFT algorithm. 5) Find DFT of x(n) = an. 3. Attempt any two : (2×10=20) 1) Find the DFT of a sequence x(n) = {1, 2, 3, 4, 4, 3, 2, 1} using DIT algorithm. 2) Find the output value of a filter whose impulse response is h(n) = {1, 1, 1} and input signal is x(n) = {3, 1, 0, 1, 3, 2, 0, 1, 2, 1} using a) overlap save method and b) overlap add method. 3) Obtain the cascade realization with minimum number of multipliers 1 1 1 1 z z H(z) = (1+ z ) . 2 4 2 SECTION II 4. Attempt any four : (4×5=20) 1) Explain VLIW architecture. j H e 1 f o r d 2 2) Design an ideal LPF with a frequency response 2 0 f o r 2 Find values of h(n) for N = 4 using rectangular window. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 363 -4- *SLR-PC-363* 3) Explain adaptive noise cancellation. 4) By impulse invariance method obtain the digital filter transfer function of analog filter . 0 I I 5) Explain in detail LMS filter and prove how it is adaptive filter. 5. Attempt any two : (2×10=20) 1) Explain in detail floating point digital signal processor TMS320C54XX. 2) Apply impulse invariant method and find H(z) for H(s) = with T I I = 1 sec. 3 j H e 1 f o r 3) Design an ideal BPF with a frequency response d 4 4 0 f o r o t h e r w i s e Find values of h(n) for N = 11 plot frequency response. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC364* SLR-PC – 364 Seat No. Set A T.E. (Bio-Medical Engineering) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 EMBEDDED SYSTEMS (New) Day and Date : Saturday, 23-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : (20×1=20) 1) Which operating system is used in mobile phones ? μ A) OSEX B) Symbion C) cos II D) Vxworks 2) USB provides a fast up to ______mbps as low speed up to ______mbps. A) 400, 100 B) 12, 1.5 C) 100, 400 D) 1.5, 12 3) R14 register of ARM is ______A) PC B) SP C) Link registers D) CPSR 4) ARM is ______bit architecture. A) 8 bit B) 16 bit C) 32 bit D) 64 bit 5) Which operating system is not multi user operating system ? A) Linux B) Unix C) DOS D) RTLinux 6) The memory which is similar to EEPROMed erased and programmed in blocks instead of one byte at a time is called as ______A) PROM B) Flash memory C) ROM D) RAM 7) The total number of available ADC inputs for LPC 2148 are A) 06 B) 08 C) 14 D) 10 8) In which architecture has one memory chip which stores both instruction and data A) Von Neuman architecture B) Harvard architecture C) Super Harvard architecture D) Super Von Neuman architecture P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 364 -2- *SLRPC364* 9) In I2C, if each device has 7 bit unique address then how many devices can be connected A) 32 B) 64 C) 7 D) 128 10) Out of which operating system supports 64 tasks out of which eight are system tasks A) QNX neutrino B) Micr C/os II C) vxworks D) RTLinux 11) RTC is designed to provide a set of counters to measure a time when A) User mode is selected B) Normal mode is selected C) Protected mode is selected D) Cannot say 12) A binary semaphore ______A) Has values one or zero B) Is essential to binary computers C) Is used for synchronization D) Is only used for mutual exclusion 13) Which is the MicroC function responsible for initialising the different OS kernel data structure ? A) OSInit() B) OSStart () C) OSIdle () D) None of these 14) Which is the following is not an IPC mechanism under MicroC-osII kernal ? A) Message Queue B) Mailbox C) Pipes D) None of these 15) Which is the function call used by an ISR to indicate the occurrence of an interrupt to the MicroC-OSII kernal ? A) Interrupt B) OSIntEnter C) OSIntexit D) OSInt Nesting 16) Which of the example of RTOS ? A) QNX neutrino B) Windows XP C) Windows 2000 D) DOS 17) Which of the different types multi tasking present in operating system ? A) Co-operative B) Preemptive C) Non-preemptive D) All of these 18) The fundamental service provided by Kernal is ______A) Memory management B) Context switching C) Inter process communication D) None of the above 19) Which of the following techniques is used for sharing data used for processes ? A) Semaphores B) Shared memory C) Messages D) B) and C) 20) Which is not the task state ? A) Running B) Stopped C) Blocked D) Ready to run ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC364* -3- SLR-PC – 364 Seat No. T.E. (Bio-Medical Engineering) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 EMBEDDED SYSTEMS (New) Day and Date : Saturday, 23-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. SECTION – I 2. Attempt any four of the following : (5×4=20) a) What are the challenges in embedded system design and how to meet these challenges ? b) Explain the concept of WDT in LPC 2148 in detail. c) Explain the following communication protocol SPI in details. d) What are the recent trends in embedded system ? Explain each in detail. e) Explain the concept of Interrupt controller for LPC2148. 3. Attempt any two : (2×10=20) a) With the suitable diagram explain ARM core architecture in detail. b) Describe operating with examples of following ARM instructions : a) TEQ b) MLA c) BLX d) LDRB e) STM. c) Explain in detail memory devices and memory selection for an embedded system. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 364 -4- *SLRPC364* SECTION – II 4. Attempt any four of the following : (5×4=20) a) Explain with neat block diagram interfacing of displays such as graphic LCD (320*240) to the ARM. b) What is the difference between semaphores and mutex ? c) Explain basic task states in RTOS. d) Explain the concept of events. Give comparisons of methods for intertask communication. e) Explain application of RTOS. 5. Attempt any two : (2×10=20) a) Explain the concept of Semaphore in IPC. What are the functions associated of semaphore in Micro/os-II ? Explain in detail with Associated Diagram. b) What is the need of interfacing and explain different interfacing techniques in embedded systems ? c) Explain Intertask communication in μ cos II using : I) Message mailboxes II) Message Queues III) Pipes. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC366* SLR-PC – 366 Seat No. Set A B.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 NUCLEAR MEDICINE Day and Date : Tuesday, 5-5-2015 Total Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 2) Assume suitable data wherever required. 3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer. (20×1=20) 1) Radioactive chemicals are called as ______a) tracers b) radioisotopes c) radioactive d) transmitters 2) A nuclide in a metastable state decays to a stable atom through a process called ______a) ionization b) radiation c) isometric transition d) none of above 3) Gamma particles constitute ______radiation. a) isometric b) isobaric c) ionization d) electromagnetic 1 − − − 4) t 2 = λ a) 0.693 b) 0.6 c) 0.678 d) 0.345 5) The unit of radioactivity is ______a) zeta b) curie c) ml d) mmHg 6) A scintillator is a ______substances that produces minute flashes of light. a) Crystalline b) Solid c) Liquid d) None of above P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 366 -2- *SLRPC366* 7) The gamma camera is a ______imaging device. a) Rotatory b) Stationary c) Vertical d) Horizontal 8) A rectilinear scanner is a ______imaging device. a) Rotatory b) Stationary c) Vertical d) Horizontal 9) ______detects only radionuclides that produces a cascaded emission of single photons. a) PET b) ECT c) SPECT d) RIA 10) ______is used to obtain in vivo cross sectional images. a) PET b) ECT c) SPECT d) RIA 11) Alpha emissions are ______penetrating power. a) less b) more c) moderate d) least 12) ______crystals are having high density. a) KI b) CaI c) NaI d) None of above 13) N = – – – e−μx a) No b) N c) NAI d) α 14) RIA techniques is used for the detection of ______a) Brain tumor b) Blood cancer c) HIV d) None of above 15) The ______is the principle type of accelerator used in radionuclide production. a) Cyclotron b) Reactors c) Radionuclide d) Radiotracers 16) Collimators are made up of ______a) lead b) platinum c) aluminum d) tungsten 17) ______is the power of the system to differentiate two points on the plane. a) Error b) Linearity c) Resolution d) Sensitivity 18) The purpose of ______is to exclude scattered radiation. a) gamma ray b) rectilinear scanner c) collimator d) pulse height analyzer 19) Positrons emission in PET modality produces two ______KeV. a) 511 b) 512 c) 513 d) 541 20) ______is a unit of energy deposition that is not restricted to air. a) Rontgen b) Rad c) Rem d) Curie ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC366* -3- SLR-PC – 366 Seat No. B.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 NUCLEAR MEDICINE Day and Date : Tuesday, 5-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 2) Assume suitable data wherever required. SECTION – I 2. Attempt any four : (4×5=20) 1) Explain alpha, beta and gamma decay process in detail. 2) List ideal characteristics of a radiopharmaceutical. 3) Define half life of a radionuclide and derive its expression. 4) Explain the working of pulse height analyzer with neat diagram. 5) Mention the types of detectors and explain any one of it in detail. 3. Attempt any two : (2×10=20) 1) Explain using suitable block diagram working of Gamma Camera system in detail. 2) Explain in detail principle and working of rectilinear scanner. 3) Discuss various quality control tests to be carried out to assess the performance of Gamma camera. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 366 -4- *SLRPC366* SECTION – II 4. Attempt any four : (4×5=20) 1) What are the various biological effects of radiation exposure ? 2) What are the applications of RIA system ? 3) Discuss various positrons emitting radionuclide. 4) Differentiate between PET and SPECT systems. 5) Discuss radiotracers used in RIA along with their advantages and disadvantages. 5. Attempt any two : (2×10=20) 1) Mention various reconstruction techniques and explain back projection image construction technique in SPECT. 2) With the help of detailed block diagram explain principle and working of Liquid scintillation counting system. 3) What is the principle of radiation safety ? How it is achieved ? ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC367* SLR-PC 367 e a t S Set A N o . B.E. Part I (Biomedical) Examination, 2015 MEDICAL INFORMATICS Day and Date : Wednesday, 6-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Programmable calculator is not allowed. 2) Solve five full questions including MCQ. 3) Marks are indicated to the right of question. 4) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the right answer : (20×1=20) 1) CAME helps to manage a) Information b) Patient care decision c) Treatment d) All 2) TFT stands for a) Tele Functional Technology b) Thyroid Function Test c) Trans Functional Telemetry d) a and b 3) Which one of the following is not a content of blood bank module ? a) Inventory b) Donors c) Blood status d) None 4) The medical MLC register module is comprising of a) Consciousness b) Unconsciousness c) Vital parameters d) All 5) Systemised nomenclature of pathology is maintained by a) College of American pathologists b) CAP c) HL7 d) ASP 6) ASC X12N is widely used for a) front office b) insurance payment c) remittance messages d) both b and c 7) The prospects of medical informatics include a) Medical informatics education b) Introduction to health care informatics c) Introduction to digital knowledge system d) All P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 367 -2- *SLRPC367* 8) The ideal information system should have a) quality b) timeliness c) relevance d) all 9) ______refers to a failure or disruption in the application system/hardware/network that can cause severe consequences to the hospital. a) disaster b) break off c) disintegrity d) miscommunication 10) The US Supreme court has ruled that computerization of medical records should not violate a) hospital laws b) patient confidentiality c) right to privacy d) b and c 11) Which one of the following is a content of procedure module ? a) Available procedure number list b) Registration number c) S/O, D/O, W/O d) All 12) MCH stands for a) Municipal Corporation of Chandigarh b) Maternal and Child Health c) Mega City Hubs d) None 13) The commonly used development tool for CPR a) Visual basic b) C++ c) Delphi d) All 14) The benefits of voice recognition and medical transcription are a) facilitate more through clinical encounter notes b) reduces the GUI on the windows based system c) a and b d) none 15) The knowledge of ______is useful in authoring the web page. a) HTML b) Programming c) Data base management d) All 16) The technologies of networking are a) Ethernet family based on frame switching b) ATM based on cell switching c) a and b d) None 17) RIS and PACS are the two techniques used in a) Cardiology b) Radiology c) Hematology d) Pulmonology 18) CMD stands for a) Computer Mass Development b) Computer Assisted Medical Decision Making c) Common Medical Data d) Conceptual Machine Decoding 19) The Expert System and Knowledge based system are the branches of a) Cardiology b) Integrated science c) Information technology d) Material science 20) POE stands for a) Patient Oral Examination b) Physician Order Entry c) Public Order Enhancement d) Practical Oral Examination ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC367* -3- SLR-PC 367 S e a t N o . B.E. Part I (Biomedical) Examination, 2015 MEDICAL INFORMATICS Day and Date : Wednesday, 6-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 2) Assume suitable data wherever necessary. SECTION I 2. Solve any four from the following : (4×5=20) 1) What is HMIS ? Explain the need. 2) Define medical informatics. And explain it covering some of its basic field. 3) What do you mean by Online learning ? 4) Give the drawbacks of conventional surgery and explain the need of surgical simulation. 5) Give the application of medical informatics. 3. Solve any two from the following : (2×10=20) 1) Explain the steps involved in the development of HMIS. 2) a) Give the pre-requisites for HMIS. b) Explain the OPD/Consultant clinic/poly clinic module. 3) Explain the following : a) AWG b) ASTM c) EDI d) DICOM e) HL-7 SECTION II 4. Solve any four from the following : (4×5=20) 1) What is health informatics ? Explain. 2) Explain the architecture of computer based medical diagnosis. 3) Give the application of surgical simulation. 4) Explain how the human resources are used in surgical simulation. 5) What is artificial Intelligence ? What is the role of AI in expert system. 5. Solve any two from the following : (2×10=20) 1) Give the prospect of medical informatics. 2) Explain the operation theater module and radiology module. 3) Explain about the patient counselling softwares. ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC368* SLR-PC – 368 Seat No. Set A B.E. (Part – I) (Biomedical Engg.) Examination, 2015 BIOMEDICAL INSTRUMENTATION – III Day and Date : Thursday, 7-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 I. Multiple Choice Question. (1×20=20) 1) ______node is also known as natural pace maker. a) AV node b) SA node c) Purkinjee fibre d) None of the above 2) What do you mean by ICHD ? a) International society for Heart Disease b) Indian society commission for Heart Diseases c) Inter-society commission for Heart Disease Resource d) None of the above 3) The approximately voltage supplied by D.C. Defibrillator is a) 2500 V b) 3500 V c) 4000 V d) 6000 V 4) Endocardiac electrode a) Connected to inner side of the heart chamber b) Connected to outerside of the heart chamber c) Both a) and b) d) None 5) What do you mean by AED’s ? a) Advance External Device b) Automatic External Device c) Both a) and b) d) None 6) Cardiac Arrest patients suffer from ______which generally develop into ventricular fibrillation. a) Tachyarrhythmias b) Bradyarrhythmias c) Both a) and b) d) None P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 368 -2- *SLRPC368* T 7) In Defibrillator Analysers E = ∫ e(t) i(t) d(t), e(t) Indicates 0 a) Current as a function of time b) Voltage as a function of time c) Time duration of pulse d) None of the above 8) The frequency of current used in surgical diathermy unit is in the range of ______MHz. a) 1 – 2 MHz b) 1 – 5 MHz c) 1 – 3 MHz d) 2 – 10 MHz 9) The ______KHz signal is used for cutting is given to power stage output. a) 1 KHz b) 500 KHz c) 250 KHz d) 2 KHz 10) The tone signal are devised from the at 1KHz for coagulates is ______Hz. a) 250 Hz b) 500 Hz c) 500 KHz d) 1 KHz 11) According to Quantum’s theory of energy E = hv where ‘h’ represents a) Frequency of Emission b) Stimulating photon’s c) Planck’s constant d) All the above 12) Argon has a wave length of ______μ m. a) 0.63 μ m b) 0.49 μ m c) 0.35 μ m d) 1.06 μ m 13) Ruby has a wavelength of _____ μ m. a) 0.49 μ m. b) 0.63 μ m. c) 0.69 μ m d) 10.6 μ m 14) CO2 has which type of Beam ? a) Pulsed b) Continuous c) Q-switched d) Tunable 15) Krypton type of laser can be seen in the range of a) visible b) infrared c) ultraviolet d) all the above 16) The term diathermy means a) through heating b) stimulating c) both a) and b) d) none 17) The pads are placed so that the portion of the body to be treated is sandwiched between them is termed as a) Condenser method b) Inductive method c) Both a) and b) d) None 18) The kidney consists of about a millien individual units called as a) Cellular body b) Nephron c) Neuron d) None 19) The total amount of glomerular filtrate is about ______liters per day. a) 150 liters/day b) 180 liters/day c) 120 liters/day d) None of the above 20) The perforation in the dialysis membrane have an average diameter of ______A° a) 30 A° b) 50 A° c) 70 A° d) None of the above ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC368* -3- SLR-PC – 368 Seat No. B.E. (Part – I) (Biomedical Engg.) Examination, 2015 BIOMEDICAL INSTRUMENTATION – III Day and Date : Thursday, 7-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. II. Answer any four questions : (5×4=20) 1) Write a short note on infrared and UV lamps 2) Explain different types of electro surgery techniques and electrodes used in diathermy 3) What is ICHD Code ? Classify the various types of implantable pacemaker. 4) With a neat diagram explain about the ventricular synchronous pacemaker. 5) Explain the safety aspects in Electro-surgical unit. III. Answer any two question : (2×10=20) 1) Define different currents used in stimulators and explain in detail for nerve muscle stimulator. 2) Explain using circuit diagram and working principle for shortwave diathermy. 3) Explain power sources for implantable pacemaker and types of leads and electrodes. IV. Answer any four question : (4×5=20) 1) With a neat diagram explain about the working principle of Ruby Laser. 2) Define Heart Rate measurement with different types for Heart Rate meter. 3) Write a short note on portable type haemodialysis unit. 4) With a neat diagram explain about the automatic external defibrillator. 5) Write a short note on Helium-Neon Laser. V. Answer any two question : (2×10=20) 1) Define defibrillator with a neat diagram explain about D.C. defibrillator. 2) Define Dialyzer with a neat diagram explain about the haemodialysis machine. 3) With a neat diagram explain about the CO2 laser and its applications. ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC369* SLR-PC – 369 Seat Set No. A B.E. (Part – I) (Biomedical) Examination, 2015 PRINCIPLES OF IMAGE PROCESSING Day and Date : Friday, 8-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 I. Choose the correct alternative : (1×20=20) 1) Image enhancement can be done in _____ a) Spatial domain and frequency domain b) Spatial domain c) Frequency domain d) None 2) Digital negative is an example of ______a) Neighbourhood processing b) Point processing c) Smoothing d) None 3) 45° mask would refond to line at an angle of ______a) 54° b) +45° c) – 45° d) None 4) ______is obtained using the thumb rule. a) Slave transform b) Hoar transform c) Walsh transform d) None 5) DFT has a) Magnitude b) Magnitude and phase c) Phase d) None 6) ______is used in image averaging to reduce noise. a) Addition b) Subtraction c) Multiplication d) None 7) Digital Subtraction Angiography is an example of a) Multiplication b) Subtraction c) Division d) None P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 369 -2- *SLRPC369* 8) LZW uses a code table which has ______entries. a) 6904 b) 4090 c) 4096 d) None 9) _____ is a loss less statical method. a) Huffman coding b) Dictionary based coding c) Run length coding d) None 10) ______is reversible. a) Loss less compression b) Lossy compressor c) Both a) and b) d) None 11) Fourier series is used for ______a) Aperiodic signal b) Periodic signal c) Both a) and b) d) None 12) Image obtained through a camera are ______a) 1-dimensional b) 2- dimensional c) 3- dimensional d) None 13) ______is a vaccum tube used for image acquisition. a) Vidicon b) Photovoltaic c) Area array CCD d) None 14) ______are solid state arrays composed of discrete imaging element known as photosites. a) Vidicon b) Photo conductive c) Photovoltaic d) None 15) ______consists of one dimensional array of photosites. a) Line array b) Area array c) Photo conductive d) None 16) Each retina has about ______million cones and ______million rods. a) 12,160 b) 12,06 c) 6,120 d) None 17) ______are important for black and white vision in dim light. a) Cones b) Rods c) Retina d) None 18) ______is the difference in perceived brightness. a) Contrast b) Brightness c) Intensity d) None 19) Digitizing the amplitude value is called ______a) Quantization b) Digitization c) Sampling d) None 20) Digitizing the coordinate value is called a) Quantization b) Digitization c) Sampling d) None ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC369* SLR-PC – 369 Seat No. B.E. (Part – I) (Biomedical) Examination, 2015 PRINCIPLES OF IMAGE PROCESSING Day and Date : Friday, 8-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. SECTION – I II. Answer any four questions : (5×4=20) 1) Explain the important processing steps in digital image processing. 2) What is 2D-point processing ? 3) Explain 2D-DFT with suitable example. 4) What is spatial domain processing ? 5) Explain in detail about DST. III. Answer any two questions : (10×2=20) 1) Name the basic elements of an image processing system ? Explain image acquisition. 2) Explain the region based segmentation. 3) Develope a procedure for computing a median of one N×N neighbourhood. SECTION – II IV. Answer any four questions : (5×4=20) 1) Draw and explain block diagram of fundamental image compression model. 2) Explain in brief for Erosion and Dilation with suitable example. 3) Explain in detail Hoar transform. 4) State and explain LZW coding. 5) Write short note on Boundary Extraction. V. Answer any two questions : (10×2=20) 1) What is meant by morphological image processing ? 2) Explain feature extraction with suitable example. 3) How predictive coding is more compacting ? Explain in detail process of predictive coding. Set A ______ www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC37* SLR-PC – 37 Seat No. Set A T.E. (Civil) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 GEOTECHNICAL ENGINEERING – II (Old) Day and Date : Saturday, 16-5-2015 Max. Marks : 20+80=100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Give the correct option for following MCQ. Sr. No. 1 to 10 carries 1 marks each and Sr. No. 11 to 15 carries 2 marks each. Choose the correct answer. 1) Connection between pile and superstructure is called a) pile shaft b) pile tip c) pile cap d) none 2) Load resisted by pile along its shaft is called a) bearing load b) skin friction c) negative skin friction d) uplift 3) In friction circle method ratio of radius of friction circle to radius of slip circle is a) Sec ϕ b) tan ϕ c) [cosec ϕ ]–1 d) none 4) Select the incorrect statement. a) Bearing capacity of a soil depends upon the amount and direction of load b) Bearing capacity of a soil depends on the type of soil c) Bearing capacity of a soil depends upon shape and size of footing d) Bearing capacity of a soil is independent of rate of loading 5) Allowable bearing pressure for a foundation depends upon a) allowable settlement only b) ultimate bearing capacity of soil only c) both allowable settlement and ultimate bearing capacity d) none of above P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 37 -2- *SLRPC37* 6) Which one of the following is the correct Terzaghi general bearing capacity equation ? γ γ γ γ γ γ a) qu = C Nc + D Nq + 0.5 B N b) qu = C Nc – D Nq + 0.5 B N γ γ γ c) qu = C Nc + 0.5 D Nq + B N d) None of the above 7) In a plate-load test, the load is applied in one of the following increments of load a) 1/30th b) 1/20th c) 1/10th d) 1/5th 8) In approximate analysis of cantilever sheet pile wall the point of rotation is about a) The dredge level b) Top of the wall c) Bottom of wall d) Not a fixed point 9) Site investigation is necessary for a) foundation design b) ground water studies c) construction planning d) all of these 10) In SPT, we terminate the test for no. of blows which are obtained to drive the required 30 cm a) 70 blows b) 80 blows c) 90 blows d) 100 blows 11) Surface area of pile having square cross section of size 0.5 m and 10 m embedded in soil is a) 10 sq.m. b) 50 sq.m. c) 20 sq.m. d) 25 sq.m. 12) If the radius of slip circle is 10 m and it subtends an angle of 90 degree at the centre of rotation, then the surface area on which resistance develops for 1 m length of slope is a) 4 π b) 8 π c) 2 π d) none 13) If mean diameter of the particle is 4 mm, then Lacey’s silt factor is a) 3.67 b) 3.52 c) 6.17 d) none 14) For infinite slope having slope angle of 30° in sandy soil having angle of internal friction of 36° factor of safety is a) 1.5 b) 1.35 c) 1.26 d) none 15) In shallow foundation if Rw = 1 & Rw′ = 0.5 than where the water table lies a) At base of footing b) Below the footing c) At the ground level d) Any where at the mid ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC37* -3- SLR-PC – 37 Seat No. T.E. (Civil) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 GEOTECHNICAL ENGINEERING – II (Old) Day and Date : Saturday, 16-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Solve any three question from each Section. 2) Assume additional data, if required and state it clearly. 3) Figures to the right indicate full marks. SECTION – I 2. A) What do you understand by site investigation ? What are the different purposes for which the site investigation is done ? 4 B) Square footing is carrying a load of 300 kN. Using a factor of safety of 3, determine the size of the footing. Take unit weight of soil = 18.5 kN/m3, soil friction angle = 35°, and cohesion = 0. Take Nc = 57.75, Nq = 41.44, Nγ = 45.41, Use Terzaghi’s method. 6 C) What do you mean by expansive soil ? What care shall be taken while doing the construction in the expansive soil ? 4 3. A) Explain in detail the Standard Penetration Test with neat sketch. What is its usefulness ? 6 B) A plate load test was performed on a uniform deposit of sand and the following observations were recorded. Load 55 110 165 220 280 335 (KN/m2) Settlement 1.86 3.62 7.66 18.86 48.10 140.06 (mm) The size of the plate was 30 cm × 30 cm. Plot the load settlement curve and determine the load footing 1.5 m × 1.5 m can safety carry if the settlement is not to exceed 40 mm. 7 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 37 -4- *SLRPC37* 4. A) What is area ratio ? What is its significance ? Compute the area ratio of a sampler with inside diameter 70 mm and thickness of 2 mm. Comment. 6 B) What is bore log ? Write about Core Recovery also write about RQD. 7 5. A) Write a note on different types of Geotextiles with their functions. 5 B) Write a note on : i) Precompression ii) Corrosive soil. 8 SECTION – II 6. A) Explain with a neat sketch procedure for design of raft foundation by rigid method. 8 B) Indicate the circumstances under which combined footings are provided. 6 7. A) A hexagonal concrete pile of side 0.5 m and length 12 m is driven into the two layer clayey soil, top layer is of 8 m thickness having cohesion 30 kPa and next layer is of 12 m having cohesion of 48 kPa. Assume adhesion coefficient for top layer as 0.8 and that for next layer is 0.56. What will be the ultimate capacity of this pile neglect self weight of pile. 8 B) Draw sectional elevation of well foundation. Explain function of each part. 6 8. A) What is cofferdam ? What are its ideal requirements ? List different types of cofferdam. 7 B) Draw pressure distribution diagram for : a) Cantilever sheetpile wall with granular soil above dredge level and cohesive soil below dredge. b) Anchored sheetpile wall with granular soil above and below dredge level (free earth support method). c) Anchored sheetpile wall with granular soil above dredge level and cohesive soil below dredge level (free earth support method). 6 9. A) What is slope ? Why slopes are provided ? How slopes are classified. 6 B) Investigate the stability of infinite slope of thickness 6 m having following properties slope angle 28° cohesion 15 kPa, angle of internal friction 26° and unit weight of soil 20 kN/m3. What is the critical height for this slope. 7 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC371* SLR-PC – 371 Seat No. Set A B.E. (Part – II) (Biomedical) Examination, 2015 MEDICAL IMAGING – II Day and Date : Wednesday, 13-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. 3) Figures to the right indicates full marks. 4) Assume data wherever necessary. MCQ/Objective Type Question Paper Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Attempt all : (1×20=20) 1) The combination of a ______crystal and the light detector is called a scintillation detector. a) zink b) copper c) lead d) scintillation 2) The Z-gradient coil used for ______a) Phase encoding b) Frequency encoding c) Slice selection d) None of these 3) The frequency of the RF pule selects the ______of slice. a) thickness b) location c) both a) and b) d) none of these 4) The TE time is the time form the middle of the ______RF pulse to the peak of the detected echo. a) 90 degree b) 180 degree c) 60 degree d) 30 degree 5) In MSCT ______rows of detectors are used. a) one b) two c) three d) many 6) Protons aligned in the parallel orientation are said to be in a ______a) high energy state b) low energy state c) both a) and b) d) none of these 7) The multi-detector computer tomography is similar to ______generation. a) first b) second c) third d) fourth 8) The superconducting magnet made using ______material. a) lead b) copper c) silver d) niobium tantalum alloy P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 371 -2- *SLRPC371* 9) T2 is closely related to the ______a) FID b) Larmor frequency c) MDM d) RF field 10) The larmor frA equency depends on the magnetic field and ______a) Gyro magnetic ratio b) MDM c) T1 d) T2 11) In first generation scanner ______x-ray beam used. a) fan b) pencil c) cone d) all of above 12) When X-ray beam move horizontally toward patient body then ______ray sum generated. a) vertical b) horizontal c) diagonal d) all of above 13) In computer tomography, picture is viewed by ______passing through patient. a) Magnetic resonance b) Ultraviolet rays c) Visible rays d) X-rays 14) ______magnets are very heavy. a) bar b) superconducting c) permanent d) resistive 15) The ______device produces H1 field in MRI technique. a) RF coil b) T1 c) T2 d) FID 16) ______vector precesses it follows beehive path. a) X b) Y c) Z d) M 17) An image reconstructor receives sampled and digitized X-ray data from ______a) DAS b) slip ring c) detector d) filter 18) The filters are made of ______a) copper b) aluminum\Teflon c) silicon d) sulphide 19) An RF pulse width of 4.258 KHz will select ______cm wide slice. a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 20) A long ______means long time to acquire an image. a) TR b) TE c) T1 d) T2 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC371* -3- SLR-PC – 371 Seat No. B.E. (Part – II) (Biomedical) Examination, 2015 MEDICAL IMAGING – II Day and Date : Wednesday, 13-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicates full marks. 2) Assume data wherever necessary. 3) Draw diagrams/sketches wherever necessary. SECTION – I 2. Attempt any four : (4×5=20) 1) Explain first generation of CT scan. 2) Explain working of xenon gas detector. 3) Explain working of spiral CT scan. 4) Write short note on CT number. 5) Which factors affecting signal to noise ratio. 3. Attempt any two : (2×10=20) 1) Explain working of back projection technique in detail. 2) Draw and explain working of CT scanner gantry in detail. 3) What is PRESS and STEAM ? Explain working with the help of diagram. SECTION – II 4. Attempt any four : (4×5=20) 1) Explain working principle of CT-angiography. 2) What is FID ? Explain with the help of diagram. 3) Explain basic principle of MRI. 4) What is MDCT ? Explain its working. 5) Write short note on electrical impedance tomography. 5. Attempt any two : (2×10=20) 1) Explain working of Z-gradient coil with the help of diagram. 2) Explain PET-CT hybrid imaging modality in detail. 3) Explain working of spin echo pulse sequence with the help of diagram. ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC372* SLR-PC 372 S e a t 5 A J ) o . N A B.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015 INSTALLATION MAINTENANCE AND SERVICING Day and Date : Friday, 15-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 2) Assume suitable data wherever required. 3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. 1) AKD stands for (2×10=20) a) Artificial Kidney Dialysis b) Artificial Kirchoffs Design c) Artificial Kidney Department d) None 2) Extracellular fluids pH lies in the range of ______to ______a) 7.35 to 7.45 b) 7.35 to 8.0 c) 7.35 to 7.5 d) None of the above 3) Aspirators are included in ventilator to remove ______from airway passage. a) Mucus b) CSF c) Saliva d) Cytoplasm 4) ______is used to measure lung capacity and volume. a) Spirometer b) Ventilator c) Centrifuge d) Assistor 5) ______systems are essential for clean and stable supply during maintenance. a) Battery b) UPS c) DC supply d) None 6) Electronic equipments must be maintained at a constant temperature around ______°C. a) 20 b) 37 c) 35 d) 25 7) ______skin presents a very high resistance of several hundred thousand ohms. a) Wet b) Oily c) Dry d) Damp 8) ______maintenance is carried out to reduce the failure to absolute minimum. a) Absolute b) Preventive c) Corrective d) None P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 372 -2- *SLRPC372* 9) Maintenance record should be maintained for each equipment to indicate entire ______of maintenance of the equipment. a) servicing b) installing c) repairing d) history 10) ______is the examination of certain equipments or their parts to find their state or condition. a) Inspection b) Calibration c) Maintenance d) None 11) In the ventilator the ______flows through bacteria filter. a) Air b) Gas c) Oxygen d) Liquid 12) ______measures analysis in clinical chemistry. a) Spirometer b) Centrifuge c) Spectrophotometer d) None 13) ______ratings are done in current. a) X ray tube b) Cathode c) Anode d) Gantry 14) Voltages in X rays is measured in a) Milliamp b) Millivolt c) kVp d) Kv 15) Negative transformer is not used in ______modality. a) CT b) PET c) X ray d) SPET 16) In blood flow measurement flow rate Q = VA where V stands for a) Velocity b) Voltage c) Viscosity d) None 17) ______is a mode of synchrony ventilator. a) CT b) Automatic c) CPAP d) None 18) The ______inlet in the ventilator is used for moderate pressure gas. a) Lower b) Upper c) Middle d) Down 19) QCI stands for a) Quality Council Integrity b) Quality Control and Implementation c) Quantity Council in India d) Quality Control and Imaging 20) Cardioverter works at ______wave. a) QRS b) P c) T d) O ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC372* -3- SLR-PC 372 S e a t N o . B.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015 INSTALLATION MAINTENANCE AND SERVICING Day and Date : Friday, 15-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 2) Assume suitable data wherever required. SECTION I 2. Attempt any four : (4×5=20) 1) Define and explain preventive maintenance of biomedical equipment with one example. 2) What are the roles of a Biomedical Engineer in OT while emergency operations ? 3) List different gases used in hospital and explain their significance in detail. 4) Explain the rules of installation that has been applied while installing radiology equipment in radiology department. 5) Draw a labelled figure of a ventilator with all its specifications. 3. Attempt any two : (2×10=20) 1) Explain the role of Biomedical Engineer in hospital and in R and D field. 2) Explain importance of a location, space requirement and design of OT. 3) Explain following modes of operation of a ventilator in detail. a) TIMED MODE b) S/T MODE c) CPAP MODE d) PC MODE Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 372 -4- *SLRPC372* SECTION II 4. Attempt any four : (4×5=20) 1) Explain the significance of ISO and NABH certification. 2) Explain calibration procedure of pH meter. 3) Explain installation techniques of pathological equipments with any one example. 4) Draw various front panel controls of a standard ventilator. 5) Explain safety precautions that has to be taken while operating and handling ESU. 5. Attempt any two : (2×10=20) 1) Explain various trouble shooting methods of ICU equipments with any two examples. 2) Explain the function of baby incubator and differentiate between baby incubator and baby warmer. 3) Explain calibration steps and maintenance techniques applied for ECG and defibrillor. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC373* SLR-PC 373 e a t S Set A N o . B.E. (Part II) (Biomedical Engg.) Examination, 2015 BIOMEDICAL MICROSYSTEMS Day and Date : Monday, 18-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 2) Assume suitable data wherever necessary. 3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 I. Choose the correct answer : (20×1=20) 1) The Youngs modulus of the piezoelectric crystal is E = B @ a) b) c) d) fd B @ @ B 2) The conductive polymers are used as a) packaging material b) insulator c) substrate d) none 3) The material used as positive photoresistor is a) Kodak KTFR b) Xylene c) Azide-Sensitized-poly-isotroprene rubber d) Tetra Methyl Ammonium Hydroxides (TMAH) 4) In CVD the reactant used to deposit silicon dioxide films on silicon substrate is a) SiCl4 b) NH3 c) O2 d) No 5) The extension of a single crystal substrate by growing a film of the same single crystal material is a) Chemical vapour deposition b) Physical vapour deposition c) Epitaxy d) None 6) In the following statement, which of characteristic of microelectronics is false ? a) It has stationary structures b) It is primarily 2-D structures c) The industrial standards are available d) Packaging technology is at infant stage P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 373 -2- *SLRPC373* 7) The Micro-Electro-Mechanical-System (MEMS) contains components of ______sizes. a) 1 cm to 1m b) 1 mm to 1 cm c) 1 cm to 1 mm d) none of the above 8) The electrical resistivity of the semiconductors is in the range of 8 3 8 cm b) 10 cm < < 10 cm a) > 10 3 c) < 10 cm d) None of the above 9) SiC + SiO 2 a) Si + CO + SiO b) Si2 + CO2 c) 2Si + CO2 d) None of the above 10) The popular method of designating crystal planes and orientation is a) Czochralski b) Miller indices c) Etching d) LIGA 11) LPCVD is a) Low Pressure Chemical Vapor Deposition b) Large Pressure Chemical Vapor Deposition c) Less Parameter Chemical Vapor Deposition d) None 12) To sense Ammonia (NH3) and Nitrogen Dioxide (NO2) gases copper and ______polymer are used. a) Conductivine polymer b) Pathalocyanine c) Polyphenylacetylene (PPA) d) None 13) The optical sensors is based on ______principle. a) Quantum efficiency b) Piezoelectric effect c) Both a) and b) d) None 14) To identify urinary tract pathogens ______technique is used. a) ELISA b) Oxidoreductases c) In vivo diagnostics d) Microbial culture 15) The drug delivery system used to deliver ______drug for Type-A diabetes patients. a) Platelets b) Glucose c) Insulin d) All of the above 16) Bulk micromachining means a) Removal of material from bulk substrate b) Adding material layer on substrate c) Both a) and b) d) None of the above 17) ______have higher etching rate in hydrofluoric (HF). a) SiO2 b) Phosphosilicate glass (PSG) c) Both a) and b) d) None of the above 18) The metals and metallic compounds that used for electroplating in LIGA is a) Cu b) Au c) NiFe d) All of the above 19) In TAS pH ISFET has dimension; (M, N) = a) (1, )b)(, 1) c) (1, 1) d) ( , ) 20) ______type of valve is formed by freezing and melting of a part of a fluid passage. a) Type A b) Type B c) Type Cd) Type D ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC373* -3- SLR-PC 373 S e a t N o . B.E. (Part II) (Biomedical Engg.) Examination, 2015 BIOMEDICAL MICROSYSTEMS Day and Date : Monday, 18-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 2) Assume suitable data wherever necessary. SECTION I II. Solve any four : (4×5=20) 1) Draw and explain Czochralski method of growing single crystal silicon. 2) Explain chemical reaction in chemical vapor deposition. 3) With the help of neat diagram explain the components of biomedical microsystems. 4) List the application of polymer for MEMS and microsystems. 5) Explain the major fabrication Steps in LIGA Process. III. Solve any two : (2×10=20) 1) Write a short note on : i) Quartz ii) Piezo electric crystals. 2) Explain the surface micromachining in general. 3) Explain the photolithography and materials used as photoresistors ? SECTION II IV. Solve any four : (4×5=20) 1) Explain working principle of pressure sensor. 2) Draw and explain electrostatic micropumps. 3) Explain cantilever based biosensor with diagram. 4) Write a short note on injection molding. 5) Draw and explain the elements of Micro Total Analysis System. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 373 -4- *SLRPC373* V. Solve any two : (2×10=20) 1) Explain biosensors classified based on biological signaling mechanism. 2) Explain fabrication of microstructure on a processed Si wafer using compression molding technique. 3) Classify micro valves, used in TAS and explain each. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC374* SLR-PC 374 S e a t 5 A J ) A N o . B.E. (Part II) (Bio-Medical) Examination, 2015 TISSUE ENGG. Day and Date : Wednesday, 20-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 I. Choose the correct answer from the following : (20×1=20) 1) What do you mean by stromal cells ? a) Architecture b) Structure c) Framework d) None 2) The term haematopoiesis means a) Blood clotting b) Blood forming c) Blood transfusion d) Blood coagulation 3) RBCs and neutrophils have a life span of a) 120 days 8 minutes b) 120 days 8 hrs. c) 120 days 13 minutes d) 120 days 13 hrs. 4) Life of most mammals begins as a single totipotent stem cell as a) Adult cell b) Aging cell c) Zygote d) None 5) Tissue Engg. is categorized as a) Invitro and Invivo b) Hemodynamic and heterodynamic c) Autologus and Allogenic d) Modern biological studies 6) ______is a system containing a large number of cells that transforms an input of reactant into an output of product. a) Connective tissue b) Epithelial tissue c) Bioreactor d) Invitro 7) Hollow fibers system of a shell traversed by a large number of small diameter a) Beads b) Tubes c) Heterotypic d) b) and c) 8) Micro carries are small ______with surface treated to support cell attachment. a) Tubes b) Beads c) Heterotypic d) None P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 374 -2- *SLRPC374* 9) Cells of the vascular system are constantly exposed to ______force due to the flow of blood. a) Haemodynamic b) Hydrodynamic c) Stress effect d) All 10) What do you mean by GAGs ? a) Glyco Amino Glycon b) Glycose And Glucose c) Glyco Anti Glycon d) None 11) The tail end of DNA is called as a) Telomeres b) Telemeters c) Telepathic d) Telophasic 12) The human body consumes a Straggering of ______billions of mature cells every day. a) 600 b) 500 c) 400 d) 300 13) Hepatocyte Transplantation system consist of a) Myeloid and Lymphoid b) Injection Module and polymer Matrices c) RBCs and Thrombocytes d) All 14) CSFU stands for a) Colony Stimulating Factor Unit b) Cells Stimulating Factor Unit c) Colony Stimulating Forming Unit d) None 15) What do you mean by ECM ? a) Extra Cellular Matter b) Extra Cellular Matrix c) Extra Cellular Mass d) All 16) In which Tissue type, the cells are specialized to transmit electrical impulses from one body region to another a) Muscle b) Nervous c) Connective d) Epithelial 17) Which type of Tissue facilitates movement of skeleton ? a) Muscular b) Nervous c) Connective d) Epithelial 18) The blood cell population is divided into two major groups. a) Myeloid and Lymphoid b) Osteoblasts and Osteoclasts c) Connective and Epithelial d) None 19) Cartilage is an Avascular Tissue that contain only one cell types termed as a) Collagen b) Chondrocyte c) Thrombocytes d) Leucocytes 20) Contraction is defined as the activation of Muscle fibers with a tendency to a) Elongate b) Shorten c) Relax d) All ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC374* -3- SLR-PC 374 S e a t N o . B.E. (Part II) (Bio-Medical) Examination, 2015 TISSUE ENGG. Day and Date : Wednesday, 20-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. SECTION I II. Answer any four of the following : (5×4=20) 1) Define Tissue Engineering, and explain the basic principles and considerations used in tissue Engineering. 2) Explain the reconstruction of epithelial surfaces. 3) Explain about the shear stress mediated endothelium interaction. 4) Explain about gene Therapy and tissue engineering in vascular Biology. 5) Give a detail about cell mortality and tissue architecture. III. Answer any two of the following : (10×2=20) 1) Explain about the methodology used in INVITRO Experiments. 2) Give a detailed explanation of adult stem cells. 3) Explain about the tissue composition of Stromal cells. SECTION II IV. Answer any four of the following : (5×4=20) 1) Discuss the challenges for scale-up. 2) Explain the Hepatocyte Transplantation system. 3) Explain the delivery of neuroactive molecules to the nervous system. 4) What is cell polymer Bioreactor system ? 5) What is tissue Engineering of Kidney ? Give its clinical and economical applications. V. Answer any two of the following : (10×2=20) 1) Explain myoblast transfer and gene therapy. 2) Explain cell based approaches to cartilage tissue engineering. 3) Give the application of reconstituted ex-vivo hematopoiesis. ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC375* SLR-PC – 375 Seat Set No. A S.E. (Part – I) (Electrical and Electronics) Examination, 2015 ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS – III Day and Date : Tuesday, 5-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3 . 00 p.m. to 6 . 00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is multiple choice question . It should be solved in first 30 minutes. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct alternative : (20×1=20) 1) The complementary function for the differential equation (D3 – D2 – 6D) y = x2 is 2 x –2x 3x a) (C1 + C2x + C3 x ) x b) e C1 + C2 e + C3 e –2x 3x 5x x c) C1 + C2 e + C3 e d) C1 + C2 e + C3 e 1 2) cos x = ? D + 2 2 cos x + sin x cos x 2 sin x + cos x a) b) cos x c) d) 5 3 5 2 dy x 3) The complete solution for the differential equation 2 − 3y = e3 is dx 2 2 2 2 x 5 x x 3 x = 3 − 3 = 3 + 3 a) y C1 e e b) y C1 e e 3 5 2 2 2 2 x x x x 3 3 3 3 c) y = C e 3 − e 3 d) y = C e − e 1 5 1 5 2 2 d y dy −1 x − 2 x + 2 y = x 4) The particular Integral for the differential equation 2 is dx dx −x 1 e a) b) 6x c) d) e–x 6 x 6 2 2 d y dy 5) The solution for (1 + x) + (1 + x) + y = 0 is 2 dx dx a) y = c1 cos x + c2 sin x b) y = c1 cos log (1+x) + c2 sin log (1+x) c) y = c1 log (1+x) + c2 log (1+x) d) None 6) The solution of 2p + 3q = 1 is a) φ (3x + 2y, y + 3z) = 0 b) φ (3x + 2y, y – 3z) = 0 c) φ (3x – 2y, y – 3z) = 0 d) φ (3x + 2y, y + 3z ) = 0 7) The solution of p3 – q3 = 0 is a) z = a3x + b3y + c b) z = ax + a3y + c c) z = ax – ay + c d) z = ax + ay + c 8) If z { f (k) } = f (z), then z {k f(k) } = d − d F (z ) d d a) f(z ) b) c) z F (z ) d) − z F (z ) dz dz z dz dz P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 375 -2- *SLRPC375* 9) Z {ak} = ? for k ≥ 0 1 1 z z a) b) c) d) 2 z − a a − z (z − a) (z − a) k a a = z 10) The Z-transform of x k , k ≥ 0 is e . The ROC of the Z-transform is k! a) |Z| > a b) Z - plane c) |Z| < a d) |Z| = 1 2 11) If F = x y i − 2xzj + 2yz k , then div F at ( – 1, 1, 1) is a)0 b)– 2 c)2 d)4 − 12) L { e t sin 4t} = ? 4 s + 1 4 4 a) b) c) d) 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 s + 17 (s + 1) + 4 (s + 1) + 4 (s − 1) + 4 − 1 13) L {φ′(s) } = ? − 1 L {φ (s) } − 1 − 1 − 1 a) − b) − t . L { φ (s)} c) − L {φ (s)} d) − s L {φ(s)} t 14) The conditions for expansion of a function in a Fourier series are known as a) Harmonic b) Riemann conditions c) Periodic d) Dirichlet’s conditions 15) Which of the following functions cannot be expanded in Fourier series in the interval (– π , π ) ? a) ex b) |x| c) cosec x d) x2 ⎧ ⎫ − 1 1 16) L ⎨ ⎬ = ? 2 ⎩(s + 2) ⎭ − 2t − 2t e 2t a)e . t b) c)e . t d) None of these t 17) A vector function F is called irrotational if 2 a) curl F = 0 b) div F = 0 c) grad F = 0 d) ∇ F = 0 ⎧1, 0 ≤ x < 1 18) The Fourier Cosine transform of f (x) = ⎨ is ⎩0 , x > 1, 2 2 2 sin s 2 cos s a) s b) sin s c) d) π π π s π s λ 19) If Fc ( ) is the Cosine transform of f(x), then f (x) = ? ∞ 2 1 ∞ ∫ F (λ) cos λx dλ ∫ λ λ λ a) −∞ c b) F ( ) cos x d π 2π 0 c 2 ∞ c) ∫ F (λ) cos λx dλ d) None of these π 0 c 20) The unit tangent vector to the curve x = t, y = t2, z = t3 at the point (1, – 1, 1) is 1 1 1 1 a) (i + 2j + 3k) b) (i + j + k) c) (i − j + k) d) (i − 2j + 3k) 14 3 3 14 ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC375* -3- SLR-PC – 375 Seat No. S.E. (Part – I) (Electrical and Electronics) Examination, 2015 ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS – III Day and Date : Tuesday, 5-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3 . 00 p.m. to 6 . 00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Attempt any three questions from each Section. 2) Figures to right indicate full marks. 3) Use of calculator is allowed. SECTION – I 3 d y dy 2 2. a) Solve − 2 + 4y = 3x − 5x + 2 . 5 3 dx dx b) Solve (D2 – D + 1) y = cos 2x. 4 c) Solve (D2 + 3D + 2) y = sin ex. 5 OR d) Solve (D2 – 1) y = (1 + e–x)2. 5 3 2 3 d y 2 d y dy 3 3. a) Solve x − x + 2x − 2y = x + 3x . 6 3 2 dx dx dx b) An uncharged condenser of capacity C is charged by appying an emf of value E sinpt through the leads of an inductance L and negligible resistance. The charge Q on the plate of the condenser satisfies the differential equation. 2 d Q Q E + = sinnt . 2 dt LC L 2 1 Find the charge at any time t given n = . 7 LC 4. a) Solve xzp + yzq = xy. 4 b) Solve p2 – q2 = x – y. 3 ∂u ∂u c) Solve = 4 . Using method of separation of variables. 6 ∂x ∂y ⎧ K K ⎫ ⎪2 3 ⎪ 5. a) Find Z ⎨ + ⎬, K ≥ 0 . 4 ⎩⎪ K K ⎭⎪ ⎡ ⎤ −1 1 b) Find Z ⎢ ⎥, Z > 2 . 5 2 ⎣⎢Z − 3Z + 2 ⎦⎥ c) Find Z [cos h α k] k ≥ 0, α is real. 4 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 375 -4- *SLRPC375* SECTION – II t ∫ − u 6. a) Find Laplace transform of u e sinu du. 5 0 ⎧ 2 ⎫ − 1 ⎪ s ⎪ b) Find L ⎨ ⎬ . 4 2 2 ⎩⎪(s + 9) (s + 4)⎭⎪ − 1 ⎧ ⎛ s + a ⎞⎫ c) Find L ⎨log ⎜ ⎟⎬ . 4 ⎩ ⎝ s + b ⎠⎭ − aλ e 1 7. a) If F (λ) = , then find f (x). Hence obtain the inverse sine transform of . 6 s λ λ b) Find Fourier sine integral representation of the function f(x) = sin x , 0 ≤ x ≤ π = 0 , x > π 4 ⎧1 , | x | < k = c) Find the Fourier transform of f(x) ⎨ . 3 ⎩0 , | x |> k 2 2 3x − 6πx + 2π 8. a) Find the Fourier series of f(x) = in the interval (0, 2 π ). 6 12 OR ⎧ π ⎪ x, 0 < x ≤ a) Find half range sine series for f(x), where f(x) = ⎨ 2 . Hence, deduce that π ⎪π − x, < x < π 2 ⎩ 2 π 1 1 1 = + + + ... . 6 2 2 2 8 1 3 5 ⎧π x, 0 < x < 1 b) Find Fourier series expansion for f(x) = ⎨ . 7 ⎩ 0, 1 < x < 2 9. a) Show that the vector F = (y + z) i + (z + x) j + (x + y)k is irrotational and hence, find its scalar potential φ such that, F = ∇φ . 5 b) Find the directional derivative of φ = x4 + y4 + z4 at point A (1, –2, 1) in the direction of AB where B is (2, 6, –1). 5 c) If a is a constant vector and r = xi + yj + zk. Prove that, div ( a × r ) = 0. 4 ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC376* SLR-PC – 376 Seat Set No. A S.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 DC MACHINES AND TRANSFORMER Day and Date : Wednesday, 6-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : (1×20=20) 1) D.C. generators are normally designed for maximum efficiency around a) full-load b) rated r.p.m. c) rated voltage d) all of the above 2) Which of the following loss in a D.C. generator is dissipated in the form of heat ? a) Mechanical loss b) Core loss c) Copper loss d) All of the above 3) The main disadvantage of the Ward-Leonard control method is a) high initial cost b) high maintenance cost c) low efficiency at loads d) all of the above 4) The armature voltage control of D.C. motor provides a) constant torque drive b) constant voltage drive c) constant current drive d) none of the above 5) Buses, trains, trolleys, hoists, cranes require high starting torque and therefore make use of a) D.C. series motor b) D.C. shunt motor c) Induction motor d) All of above motors 6) The resistance of armature winding depends on a) length of conductor b) cross-sectional area of the conductor c) number of conductors d) all of the above 7) In D.C. generators, lap winding is used for a) high voltage, high current b) low voltage, high current c) high voltage, low current d) low voltage, low current 8) Fleming’s right-hand rule regarding direction of induced e.m.f., correlates a) magnetic flux, direction of current flow and resultant force b) magnetic flux, direction of motion and the direction of e.m.f. induced c) magnetic field strength, induced voltage and current d) magnetic flux, direction of force and direction of motion of conductor 9) The essential condition for parallel operation of two D.C. generators is that they have a) same kW rating b) the same operation r.p.m. c) the same drooping voltage characteristics d) same percentage regulation P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 376 -2- *SLRPC376* 10) A universal motor operates on a) constant speed and varying load b) constant load and varying speed c) approximately constant speed and load d) synchronous speed with varying load 11) In a transformer a) All turns are equally insulated b) The end turns are more strongly insulated c) The end turns are closely wound d) None of the above 12) The path of a magnetic flux in a transformer should have a) high resistance b) high reluctance c) low resistance d) low reluctance 13) Sumpner’s test is conducted on transformers to determine a) temperature b) stray losses c) all-day efficiency d) none of the above 14) A transformer cannot raise or lower the voltage of a D.C. supply because a) There is no need to change the D.C. voltage b) A D.C. circuit has more losses c) Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction are not valid since the rate of change of flux is zero d) None of the above 15) In a given transformer for given applied voltage, losses which remain constant irrespective of load changes are a) friction and windage losses b) copper losses c) hysteresis and eddy current losses d) none of the above 16) Delta/star transformer works satisfactorily when a) load is balanced only b) load is unbalanced only c) on balanced as well as unbalanced loads d) none of the above 17) Which of the following is not a routine test on transformers ? a) Core insulation voltage test b) Impedance test c) Radio interference test d) Polarity test 18) Which of the following 3-phase connection of a transformer causes interference with the neighboring communication lines ? a) Delta-star b) Star-delta c) Star-star d) None of the above 19) Part of the transformer which is most subject to damage from overheating is a) iron core b) copper winding c) winding insulation d) frame or case 20) Which of the following acts as a protection against high voltage surges due to lightning and switching ? a) Horn gaps b) Thermal overload relays c) Breather d) Conservator ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC376* -3- SLR-PC – 376 Seat No. S.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 DC MACHINES AND TRANSFORMER Day and Date : Wednesday, 6-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1) All questions are compulsory. 2) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 3) Assume suitable data if necessary. SECTION – I 2. Attempt any four questions : (5×4=20) a) Derive the equation for emf generated in dc generator and hence deduce the equation for same when the machine is lap wound and wave wound. b) A 4 pole lap wound, long shunt dc compound generator has useful flux per pole is 0.07 wb. The armature winding has 220 coils with two sides and resistance per turn is 0.004 ohms. Calculate terminal voltage if the resistance of shunt and series field are 100 ohms and 0.02 ohms respectively. The generator is running at 900 rpm and delivering armature current of 50 A. Calculate power output in KW. c) Explain various power losses in a dc generator/motor and the factor on which they depend ? How hysteresis and Eddy current losses are minimized ? Give power diagram. d) Explain with diagram Demagnetizing and cross magnetizing conduction. Derive the expression for demagnetizing and cross magnetizing Amp turns per pole. e) Explain with graph/plots and relevant equations the various characteristics of dc shunt motors and hence state its applications. f) Explain with neat diagram the Ward Leonard system of speed control and state its application and advantages. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 376 -4- *SLRPC376* 3. Solve the following : (10×2=20) a) What are the advantages of electric breaking ? Explain with neat diagram the regenerative breaking method. 10 b) What are the various methods of speed control of dc motor ? Explain with neat diagram the method of speed control of dc motor by varying armature circuit resistance/armature voltage control. What are its disadvantages and applications ? 10 OR b) Define with the help of plots critical field resistance and critical load resistance of dc shunt generator. A 100 KW, 200 V long shunt compound generator has equivalent armature resistance of 0.03 Ω , series field resistance of 0.004 Ω . There are 1200 shunt field turns per pole and 5 series turns per pole. The data of magnetization curve at armature speed of 1000 rpm is given below. 'I ' equiv. field f 0 1 2.2 3.3 4.2 5.3 7.1 current in Amps 'Eo' induced emf 11 33 100 167 200 215 222 in Volts Calculate the terminal voltage at rated current output for shunt current ‘Ish’ = 5A and speed of 950 rpm. 10 SECTION – II 4. Attempt any four questions : (5×4=20) a) Derive the emf equation for single phase transformer and hence show that vNl 221===K vNl112 b) Explain in brief the working principle of “ON LOAD” tap changer. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC376* -5- SLR-PC – 376 c) Distinguish between power transformer and distribution transformer. State the one important criterion of the two types of transformer. d) A single phase transformer has 400 primary and 1000 secondary turns, net cross sectional area of the core is 60 cm2. If the primary winding is connected to 520 V, 50 Hz. Calculate i) Peak value of flux density in the core ii) Voltage induced in the secondary winding. e) Draw the equivalent circuit of a transformer related to primary side and explain each parameter give the values for equivalent resistance, reactance and impedance of the transformer as referred to primary side. f) Explain all day efficiency. Why all day efficiency is required in distribution transformer ? Derive the condition for maximum efficiency of a transformer. 5. Solve any two : (10×2=20) a) Draw a neat circuit diagram for Scott connection to convert 3 phase power to 2 phase. Draw the phasor diagram for unity power factor. Show that when primary side 3 phase supply is balanced the system is balanced. b) A 2000 KVA, 6600/400 V, 3 phase transformer, delta connected on high voltage side and star connected on low voltage side. Determine its percentage resistance, percentage reactance and percentage impedance drop and percentage efficiency and percentage regulation on full load at 0.8 pf leading given the following data. SC Test : HV Side : 400 V, 175 A, 17 KW OC Test : LV Side : 400 V, 150 A, 15 KW c) With neat circuit diagram explain sumpner test or back to back test conducted on two single phase transformer. How efficiency of transformer is determined ? ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC377* SLR-PC – 377 Seat Set No. A S.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 ELECTRICAL NETWORK Day and Date : Thursday, 7-5-2015 Total Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. 3) Assume the suitable data whenever necessary. 4) Attempt any two questions from each Section. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Solve the following : (20×1=20) 1) Kirchhoff’s voltage law is related to a) Junction currents b) Battery E.M.F.’s c) IR drops d) None of the above 2) Two resistances R1 and R2 give combined resistance of 4.5 ohms when in series and 1 ohm when in parallel. The resistances are a) 3 ohms and 6 ohms b) 3 ohms and 9 ohms c) 1.5 ohms and 3 ohms d) 1.5 ohms and 0.5 ohms 3) The concept on which Superposition theorem is based is a) Reciprocity b) Duality c) Non-linearity d) Linearity 4) To determine the polarity of the voltage drop across a resistor, it is necessary to know a) Value of current through the resistor b) Direction of current through the resistor c) Value of resistor d) None of the above 5) Which of the following is non-linear circuit parameter ? a) Inductance b) Condenser c) Wire wound resistor d) Transistor 6) In a series parallel circuit, any two resistances in the same current path must be in a) Series with each other b) Parallel with each other c) Series with the voltage source d) Parallel with the voltage source 7) Millman’s theorem yields a) Equivalent resistance b) Equivalent impedance c) Equivalent voltage source d) Equivalent voltage or current source 8) The number of independent equations to solve a network is equal to a) The number of loops b) The number of branches c) Sum of the number of branches and chords d) Sum of number of branches, chords and nodes P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 377 -2- *SLRPC377* 9) At t = 0+ with zero initial condition, which of the following acts as open circuit ? a) Inductor b) Capacitor c) Resistor d) All of the above 10) Time constant of an inductive circuit a) Increases with increase of inductance and decrease of resistance b) Increases with the increase of inductance and the increase of resistance c) Increases with decrease of inductance and decrease of resistance d) Increases with decrease of inductance and increase of resistance 11) The transient currents are associated with the a) Changes in the stored energy in the inductors and capacitors b) Impedance of the circuit c) Applied voltage to the circuit d) Resistance of the circuit 12) Time constant of a circuit is the time in seconds taken after application of voltage to each a) 25% of maximum value b) 50% of maximum value c) 63% of maximum value d) 90% of the maximum value 13) Magnitude of current at resonance in R-L-C circuit a) Depends upon the magnitude of R b) Depends upon the magnitude of L c) Depends upon the magnitude of C d) Depends upon the magnitude of R, L and C 14) In R-L-C series resonant circuit magnitude of resonance frequency can be changed by changing the value of a) R, L or C b) L only c) C only d) L or C 15) Resistance across A and B in the circuit shown below is a)R b)3 R c)4 R d)5 R 16) In series resonance reactance below resonant frequency is a) capacitive b) resistive c) inductive d) none of the above 17) In series RLC circuit which phaser’s are in phase opposition a) VL, VC b) VL, VR c) VC, VR d) none of the above 18) Second order circuit is over damped when a) LC > 4R2C2 b) LC = 4R2C2 c) LC < 4R2C2 d) none of the above 19) Laplace transform of e–atsinwt is a) (s + a) / [(s + a)2 + w2] b) a / [(s + a)2 + w2] c) w / [(s + a)2 + w2] d) none of the above 20) The power at half power frequencies is ______time power at resonance. a) same b) half c) 0.637 d) 0.707 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC377* -3- SLR-PC – 377 Seat No. S.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 ELECTRICAL NETWORK Day and Date : Thursday, 7-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)Assume the suitable data whenever necessary. 2) Attempt any two questions from each Section. SECTION – I 2. Solve any four : 20 1) State and explain the Kirchhoff’s laws with example. 2) Draw the dual of the network. 3) State and explain Norton’s theorem. 4) In the circuit shown, find the voltage Vx and verify reciprocity theorem. 50∠90°A Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 377 -4- *SLRPC377* 5) Draw the oriented graph of the network and write cutest matrix. 6) Obtain the Thevenins equivalent network between A and B. 3. Solve any two : 20 1) Find the load impedance ZL for maximum power can transfer to it. Also find maximum power for the circuit shown. 5∠0° Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC377* -5- SLR-PC – 377 2) What is the concept of super node and super mesh ? Find the node voltages as shown in fig. 3) Find the Vc for the circuit shown using superposition principle. 100∠90°V 50∠0°V SECTION – II 4. Solve any four : 20 1) A series RLC circuit has following parameters. R = 10 Ω, L = 0.01H, C = 100 μ F. Calculate Resonant frequency, Q-factor, Bandwidth, Half power frequencies. 2) Derive an expression for response given by RC circuit. 3) Explain the following terms in detail with reference to series resonance. Q-factor, Bandwidth, Selectivity. 4) Find I1(t) at t > 0 in the circuit shown, when the switch is closed at t = 0. 5) Find the response given by RL circuit for the following inputs by Laplace transform : i) Unit step function ii) Impulse function. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 377 -6- *SLRPC377* 6) Find the transmission parameter for the two port network shown. 5. Solve any two : 20 1) Derive the following : a) Z-parameter in terms of Y, H and transmission parameters. b) Y-parameter in terms of Z, H and transmission parameters. 2) Find IL(t) for t > 0 for the circuit shown. 3) Determine the expression for VL(t) in the network by Laplace transform, when δ –t A) Vs(t) = (t) B) Vs(t) = e . ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC378* SLR-PC 378 S e a t 5 A J o . N A S.E. (Electrical and Electronics) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015 ANALOG ELECTRONICS Day and Date : Friday, 8-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) All questions are compulsory. 3) Assume suitable data if required. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : 1) Input voltage of 10 180° is given to common collector and common base configuration then its approximate output voltage is a) 10 180° b) 10 360° c) 10 0° d) All above 2) The Emitter of transistor is generally doped the heaviest because it a) has to dissipate maximum power b) has to supply charge carriers c) is the first region of transistor d) must posses low resistance 3) In class A operation the operating point is generally located ______a) at the middle of load line b) in saturation region c) below cutoff d) none of above 4) The average value of a half wave rectified voltage with peak value of 200 V is a) 63.66 V b) 127.3 V c) 141 V d) 200 V 5) In full wave rectifier, voltage across full secondary winding is 18 V, Then PIV for each diode is a) 9V b) 18/1.414 c) 18 d) 36 6) FETs are having faster on and off times due to ______a) absence of barrier potential b) presence of threshold voltage c) large inter electrode capacitances d) absence of storage charges as they are unipolar 7) The types of amplifier which exhibits cross over distortion in its output is a) Class A b) Class B c) Class C d) Class AB 8) For voltage amplification MOSFET is operated in ______region. a) ohmic b) saturation c) pinch-off d) both b) and c) P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 378 -2- *SLRPC378* 9) The values of Cbe, Cbc and Cce affect ______response. a) low frequency b) mid frequency c) high frequency d) both b) and c) 10) The purpose of impedance matching between output of previous stage and input of next stage in cascaded amplifier is ______a) To achieve reduced noice b) To achieve maximum power transfer c) To achieve reduced distortion d) All above 11) The Schmitt trigger is a two-state device that is used for a) pulse shaping b) converts irregular waveform in to pulse waveform c) both a) and b) d) input noise rejection 12) An op-amp has common mode gain of 0.01 and differential mode gain of 105. Its CMRR would be a) 107 b) 103 c) 107 d) 103 13) The purpose of comparator is a) to compare input signals and distinguish which is stronger b) to produce a change in output when an input voltage equal to reference voltage c) maintain a constant output when dc input voltage changes d) both a) and b) 14) Negative feedback in an amplifier a) Reduces gain b) Input resistance increases c) Output resistance decreases d) All above 15) An ideal op-amp has a) off set voltage is zero b) infinite frequency bandwidth c) both a) and b) d) zero input resistance 16) The purpose of offset nulling is to a) reduce the gain b) equalize i/p signal c) zero the o/p error voltage d) both a) and b) 17) In IC 741 pin numbers used for output offset voltage null are a) pin 2 and pin 3 b) pin 1, pin 4 and pin 5 c) pin 7 and pin 4 d) none of above 18) In ______, frequency is determined by charging and discharging time constants during exchange of energy. a) Relaxation Oscillator b) Astable Multivibrator c) Monostable Multivibrator d) Both a) and b) 19) It is required to stretch a 5 sec pulse to duration of 5 msec. An appropriate circuit is used for a) Astable Multivibrator b) Monostable Multivibrator c) Schmit Trigger d) Bistable Multivibrator 20) From sine wave one can obtain square wave by using a) Schmit Trigger circuit b) Zero crossing detector c) Non-Inverting comparator circuit d) All above ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC378* -3- SLR-PC 378 S e a t N o . S.E. (Electrical and Electronics) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015 ANALOG ELECTRONICS Day and Date : Friday, 8-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time :3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Assume suitable data if required. SECTION I 2. Solve any four : (4×5) a) Explain concept of DC load line and operating point for PN junction. b) Explain the operation of combinational clipper. c) What is the current mirror ? Explain operation of current mirror circuit. d) Explain working of class C power amplifier. e) Determine the dc bias voltage VCE and the current IC for the voltage-divider configuration as above 3. Solve any two : (2×10) a) Explain working of full wave rectifier. Derive an expression for Irms Idc, Rectification efficiency, Ripple Factor, TUF. b) Explain the operation of class B power amplifier. Derive an expression for its maximum efficiency and power dissipitation. c) Explain construction, working and drain characteristics for N channel Enhancement type MOSFET. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 378 -4- *SLRPC378* SECTION II 4. Solve any four : (4×5) a) What is slew rate ? Explain effect of slew rate with respect to suitable application. b) Explain the operation of Schmitt trigger with associated waveforms. c) Explain working of precision full wave rectifier circuit. d) Explain working of peak detector with suitable circuit diagram. e) Explain working of closed loop inverting amplifier and derive an expression for voltage gain. 5. Solve any two : (2×10) a) Explain working of monostable multivibrator using IC555 with internal circuitry. Derive an expression for output pulse width. Draw associated waveforms. b) What is an instrumentation amplifier ? Explain its operation with circuit diagram. List different applications of instrumentation amplifier. c) What are specifications of Ideal op-amp ? Explain following terms in an op-amp. i) CMRR ii) Virtual ground iii) Power supply rejection ratio. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC379* SLR-PC 379 S e a t 5 A J ) o . N A S.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015 ELECTRICAL POWER GENERATION Day and Date : Saturday, 9-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Figure to the right indicates maximum marks. 3) Assume the suitable data whenever necessary. 4) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct options : (20×1=20) 1)In pumped storage a)Power is produced by means of pumps b) Water is stored by pumping to high pressures c) Downstream water is pumped up-stream during off load periods d)Water is re circulated through turbine 2) The chronological load curve indicates a)Variation in a demand factor during 24 hours b) Variation in a demand from instant to instant during 24 hours c) Total energy consumed up to different times of the day d) The total number of hours for which a particular load lasts during the day 3)In francis turbine the number of blades is usually of the order of a) 16-24b)8-10 c) 6-8 d) 3-6 4) Low grade fuels have a)Low moisture content b) Low ash content c) Low calorific value d)Low carbon content 5)As steam expands in turbine a)Its pressure increases b) Its specific volume increases c) Its boiling point increases d)Its temperature increases 6)Particles having the same atomic number but different mass numbers arc called a)Positrons b) Beta particles c) Isotopes d) Decayed panicles 7) Which of the following material can be used as a moderator ? a)Graphite b) Heavy water c) Beryllium d)None of these 8) Fly ash generally results from a)Gas turbines b) Diesel engines c) Pulverized coal boiler d)Fluidized bed boilers P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 379 -2- *SLRPC379* 9)For the same plant size, initial cost of which plant is highest ? a) Steam power plant b) Diesel engine plant c) Nuclear power plant d)Gas turbine plant 10)Pelton turbine works under a)Low head and low quantity of water b) Large head and low quantity of water c) Large head and large quantity of water d) All of the above 11)Reciprocating motion of piston is converted into rotary motion by a)Crank shaft b) Connecting rod c) Gudgeon pin d)Gear box 12) Most of the heat generated in internal combustion engine is lost in a)Cooling water b) Exhaust gases c) Lubricating oil d)Radiation 13) The ratio maximum demand of the installation to the sum of individual maximum demands is known as a) Demand factor b) Plant use factor c) Diversity factor d)Plant capacity factor 14) The turbine normally employed in tidal power plant is a) Simple impulse turbine b) Propeller turbine c) Reaction turbine d)Reversible turbine 15) Tidal energy mainly makes use of a)Kinetic energy of water b) Potential energy of water c) Both kinetic as well as potential energy of water d)None of the above 16)Geothermal energy is a)A renewable energy resource b) Alternative energy source c) Inexhaustible energy sourced)None of these 17) In a fuel cell positive electrode is a)Oxygen b) Ammonia c) Hydrogen d)Carbon monoxide 18) Biogas consist of a)Only methane b) Methane and carbon dioxide with some impurities c) Only ethane d)A special organic gas 19)In a 2 stroke engine there is one power stroke in a) 90c of crank rotation b) 180c of crank rotation c) 360c of crank rotation d)720c of crank rotation 20)Out of the following which one is not a non-conventional source of energy ? a) Tidal power b) Geothermal energy c) Nuclear energyd)Wind power Set A ______ www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC379* -3- SLR-PC 379 S e a t N o . S.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015 ELECTRICAL POWER GENERATION Day and Date : Saturday, 9-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Figure to the right indicates maximum marks. 3) Assume the suitable data whenever necessary. SECTION I 2. Solve any four : (4×5=20) 1)Write a short note on stream flow and run-off. 2)Explain boiling water reactor with neat diagram. 3)Explain pumped storage plant with neat diagram. 4) Discuss factors to be considered for selection of site for thermal power plant. 5)Explain the process of nuclear fission. 6)Write a short note on present energy scenario. 3.Solve any two : (2×10=20) 1)Explain single line diagram of typical AC power system. 2) Draw typical layout of thermal power plant and explain it briefly. 3) Draw typical layout of hydroelectric power plant and explain it briefly. SECTION II 4.Solve any four : (4×5=20) 1) Discuss the factors which should be considered for wind power plant. 2)Explain construction and working of solar photovoltaic cell. 3)Explain geo-thermal power plant with neat diagram also state its application. 4) Define bio-gas and bio-mass energy. 5)Explain load duration curve with example. 6) The load on a power plant on a typical day is as under Time 12-5 a.m. 5-9 a.m. 9-6 p.m. 6 p.m.-10 p.m. 10 p.m.-12 p.m. Load (MW) 20 40 80 100 20 Plot the chronological load curve and load duration curve find the load factor of the plant and energy supplied in 24 hrs. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 379 -4- *SLRPC379* 5. Solve any two : (2×10=20) 1)With a neat diagram explain tidal power plant with its advantages and limitations. 2)Explain the working of four stroke diesel engine with neat diagram. 3)A group of 2 consumers has the following electricity demand pattern on a typical winter day. Consumer A: connected load 2.5 kW Load from 12 midnight to 5 a.m. 100 W From 5 a.m. to 6 a.m. 1.1 kW From 6 a.m. to 8 a.m. 200 W From 8 a.m. to 5 p.m. Nil From 5 p.m. to 12 midnight 500 W Consumer B : connected load 3 kW Load from 11 p.m. to 7 a.m. Nil From 7 a.m. to 8 a.m. 300 W From 8 a.m. to 10 a.m. 1 kW From 10 a.m. to 6 a.m. 200 W From 6 p.m. to 11 p.m. 600 W a)Calculate the demand factor of both the consumers. b) Plot the variations in demand v/s time of the day for each consumer and group. c) Find the group diversity factor. d)Find energy consumed by each consumer in 24 hours. e)Find the maximum energy which each consumer would consume in 24 hours if his load were constant and equal to his maximum demand. f) Find the ratio of actual energy to maximum energy for each. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC38* SLR-PC 38 S e a t 5 A J N o . ) T.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015 ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING II (Old) Day and Date : Tuesday, 19-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 2) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and mention it clearly. 3) Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed. 4) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct option : 20 1) The appropriate percentage of water in sewage is a) 100 b) 99 c) 99.99 d) 95 2) BOD5 represents 5 day BOD at a temperature of ______°C. a) 37 b) 27 c) 15 d) 20 3) Between BOD and COD, greater value of two is a) COD b) BOD c) Both are equal d) None of these 4) HMD of server running full is ______(If D is diameter of sewer). a) D b) D/4 c) D/2 d) All of above 5) ______rate trickling filters require large area. a) High b) Low c) Falling head d) Constant head 6) Rotating biological contractor is ______process. a) Suspended growth b) Attached growth c) Dual growth d) None of these 7) In BOD test ______is used as indicator. a) Starch b) Sodium thiosulphate c) Sulphuric acid d) None of these P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 38 -2- *SLRPC38* 8) Various treatment operations exist in a sewage treatment plant. These would include 1) Grit chamber 2) Screen chamber 3) Aeration tank 4) PST and 5) SST. The correct sequence of operation is a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 b) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1 c) 2, 1, 3, 4, 5 d) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5 9) ______gas can be recovered from anaerobic digesters. a) H2S b)CO c)CH4 d) SO2 10) Organic loading adopted for high rate trickling filter is ______g/d/m3. a) 80 to 320 b) 800 to 3200 c) 500 to 1000 d) 5000 to 10000 11) Pick our add one ______ a) SO2 b) NO c) CO d) PBN 12) DO level in the stream may be zero in the zone of a) Clear water b) Degradation c) Active decomposition d) Recovery 13) DO saturation values of water at 20°C is ______mg/lit. a) 10.20 b) 9.17 c) 8.22 d) 25.0 14) Which of the following is not a combustible waste ? a) Paper b) Wood c) Glass d) Clothes 15) Developing countries have ______per capita daily solid waste generation rate than developed countries. a) Lesser b) Greater c) Same d) None of these 16) Abandoned vehicles are ______type of solid waste. a) Combustible b) Biodegradable c) Bulky d) All of above 17) The layer of atmosphere closest to earth surface is a) Mesosphere b) Troposphere c) Ionosphere d) None of these 18) Unstable atmosphere is ______for dispersion of air pollutants. a) Favourable b) Un-favourable c) Both a) and b) d) None of these 19) Larger sized particulates from flue gas can be removed by using a) Gravity settling chamber b) Cyclone separator c) Scrubber d) ESP 20) O3 layer is found in a) Troposphere b) Ionosphere c) Mesosphere d) Stratosphere ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC38* -3- SLR-PC 38 S e a t N o . T.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015 ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING II (Old) Day and Date : Tuesday, 19-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : Solve any three questions from Section I, i.e. Question No. 2 to Question No. 5, Question No. 6 is Compulsory in Section II and solve any two questions from the remaining. SECTION I 2. a) Describe necessity of domestic wastewater treatment. Draw a flow chart for treatment of domestic wastewater consisting of activated sludge process as secondary biological unit. 7 b) Explain necessity of sewage pumping. Draw neat sketch of sewage pumping station. 6 3. a) Explain procedure for BOD test in detail. 6 b) Explain biological process of tricking filter with neat sketch. 7 4. a) Define HRT of aeration tank. Also, differentiate between ASP and trickling filter. 6 b) Give all design equations used in design of ASP. 7 5. Write short notes on following (any three) : 14 1) Rotating biological contractor 2) Design of grit chamber 3) Stabilization ponds 4) Water carriage system. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 38 -4- *SLRPC38* SECTION II 6. a) Draw structure of atmosphere and describe various layers highlighting its constituents. 6 b) Classify solid wastes with appropriate examples based on sources. 6 7. a) Explain working of gravity settler with neat sketch. What are advantages and disadvantages of it ? 7 b) Explain greenhouse effect with respect to following points definition, causes, diagram, effects and remedies. 7 8. a) What are different stability conditions ? Explain each of them in detail. 7 b) Explain procedure for finding out density of solid waste. Give ranges of density values for four types of solid wastes. 7 9. Write short notes on following (any three) : 14 1) Indore method of composting 2) Streeter-Phelps equation. 3) Self-purification of stream. 4) Major effects of air pollution on human health. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC380* SLR-PC 380 e a t S Set o . N A S.E. (Elect. & Electronics) (Part II) Examination, 2015 LINEAR ALGEBRA Day and Date : Wednesday, 13-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Question No. 1 is compulsory. 2) Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed. 3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct alternative : (20×1=20) 1) Given a scalar r, the transformation T : R2 R2 defined by T(x) = rx when r > 1 is called a) Dialation b) Translation c) Contraction d) Linear ! ) 2) The product of the eigen values of a matrix ! a) 3 b) 3 c) 0 d) None 3) If a vector space V has a basis of n vectors then every basis of V must consists a) less than n vectors b) 2n vectors c) exactly n vectors d) greater than n vector 4) Which of the following is true ? a) rank A + dim column = m b) rank A + dim Null A = m c) rank A + dim column = n d) rank A + dim Null A = n # $ ) 5) Given, 1 is an eigen value of the other two eigen values are a) 2, 3 b) 2, 3 c) 0, 3 d) 2, 0 6) Given that 0 is an eigen value of . Then the corresponding eigen vectors are 2 t t t 2 t , t R , t , t R , t 0 , t R , t 0 , t R , t 0 a) 0 b) c) d) t 2 t 2 t t 7) Let A be an n × n matrix. If A is an invertible matrix then which of the following is false ? a) Rank = n b) dim Null A = 0 c) ColA = Rn d) the columns of A form a basis of Rm ! 1 2 2 : B , 8) Given a basis and coordinate vector is suppose x R then x is * 1 1 % ! a) b) c) d) % P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 380 -2- *SLRPC380* 9) What are all solutions to the x + 5y = 7 and 2x 7y = 5 ? a) x = 8, y = 3 b) x = 3, y = 8 c) y can be arbitrary and x = 2 3y d) no solution 10) Which matrix is the Argumented matrix of the system 3x + y + z t = 2 x + y = 1 y 2t = 7 in the variables x, y, z, t ? ! ! ! ! a) b) c) d) % % % % 11) A function which satisfies Laplace equation is called a) Analytic b) Holomorphic c) Harmonic d) Non-harmonic 2 12) If f(z) = 2x + ixy , then B (z) is a) 2 + iy2 b) x + iy2 c) 2x + 2iy2 d) Does not exist a z b 13) The Mobius transformation W is called normalised if c z d a) ad bc = 0 b) ab cd = 1 c) ad bc = 1 d) ab cd = 0 14) If f(z) is analytic within and on closed curve C and a is any point within C, then B (z) is equal to 1 f ( z ) 1 f ( z ) 1 f ( z ) d z d z d z n a) b) c) d) None of the above 2 i ( z a ) z a z 2 i 2 i ( z a ) + + 6 : ) : N " N N ! 15) If N , then A is ! a) b) c) d) ! ! ! 16) A quadratic form is positive definite if a) b) c) d) None of the above ( n ) 0 , n 0 ( n ) 0 , n 0 ( n ) 0 , x " K L # 17) If and , then u and v are ! $ a) Orthonormal to each other b) Orthogonal to each other c) Not orthogonal to each other d) None of the above 18) The equation of line of regression of x on y is a) b) )c) d) N N > N O O O N N > O N O O O O > N O N N O O > O N N N 19) If the mean of x is 90, the mean of y is 50, the coefficient of regression of x on y is 0.9, then the equation of the line of regression of x on y is a) y = 0.9x + 0.45 b) x = 0.8y + 0.65 c) y = 0.8x + 0.65 d) x = 0.9y + 0.45 20) If the points in the scatter diagram lie on a falling line then a) r = 0 b) r = 1 c) r = 1 d) r = 2 ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC380* -3- SLR-PC 380 S e a t N o . S.E. (Elect. & Electronics) (Part II) Examination, 2015 LINEAR ALGEBRA Day and Date : Wednesday, 13-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Attempt any three questions from each Section. 2) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 3) Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed. SECTION I 2. a) Solve the set of linear equations 2x1 5x2 + 8x3 = 0 2x1 7x2 + x3 = 0 4x1 + 2x2 + 7x3 = 0 4 b) Given T : ! be a linear transformation such that T(x , x ) = (x 2x , x + 3x , 3x 2x ). Find 4 4 1 2 1 2 1 2 1 2 standard matrix and also find X such that T(X) = (1, 4, 9). 4 c) Compute the transfer matrix of a ladder network in the following figure. Design a ladder network whose " ! transfer matrix is ) . 6 ! " # & % ! # # 3. a) Find the bases for the row space, column space and the null space for the matrix . 8 ) ! ' % % ! # ! " 1 5 3 O ! b) For what value of h will y be in span {V , V , V } if and . 5 V 1 , V 4 , V 1 1 2 3 ! D 2 7 0 1 3 3 2 2 3 3 5 , u , b 4. a) Given A = 2 and defined a linear transformation T : R R by T(X) = AX 1 1 7 5 2 i) Find T(u) ii) Find X R 4 ' # " ' # " ! % $ # ! b) Find bases of CoIA, NullA, row space where ~ * . 5 ) $ " ' ' " ! 5 7 2 0 4 ) P , D c) For given compute A where . 4 2 3 0 1 % " $ 5. a) Diagonalize the matrix if possible . 7 # & # = > b) For . Find the eigen values and a basis for each eigen space in C2. 6 ) > = Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 380 -4- *SLRPC380* SECTION II 6. a) Calculate coefficient of correlation from the following data : 7 x : 28 45 40 38 35 33 40 32 36 33 y : 23 34 33 34 30 26 28 31 36 35 b) In a partially destroyed laboratory record of analysis of correlation data, the following results were legible. Variance of x is 9. Regression equations 4x 5y + 33 = 0, 20x 9y 107 = 0. Find i) the mean values of x and y ii) the correlation coefficient between x and y. iii) the standard deviation of y. 6 7. a) Given : Mean of x = 50.07 Mean of y = 9.98 S. D. of x = 5.26, S. D. of y = 2.59 and r = 0.898. 4 Find the equations of lines of regression. 2 z e z b) Evaluate d where C is the circle | Z | = 2. 5 ( z 1 ) 4 + # ! ) c) Compute the quadratic form XTAX, when . 4 ! N $ : : a) b) N " 1 / 1 0 3 / 1 0 0 3 u 3 / 2 0 , u 1 / 2 0 , u 1 / 2 1 8. a) Show that {u , u , u } is an orthonormal basis of 4 where . ! 1 2 3 3 / 2 0 1 / 2 0 1 / 2 6 % " O b) If and . Find the orthogonal projection of y onto u. 4 K $ 6 3 1 4 x 2 , w 1 , u , v c) If 2 6 3 5 x . w u . v v Find : i) x ii) 4 x . x v . v 9. a) Using the Cauchy-Riemann equations, show that f(z) = z3 is analytic in the entire z-plane. 5 b) Find an analytic function whose real part is u = x3 3xy2 + 3x2 3y2 + 1. 4 c) Find the bilinear transformation which maps the points 0, i, 2i, of z-plane onto the points 4i, , 0 respectively of w-plane. 4 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC381* SLR-PC – 381 Seat No. Set A S.E. (Electrical & Electronics Engg.) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 A.C. MACHINES Day and Date : Friday, 15-5-2015 Total Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 a.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Assume the suitable data whenever necessary. 3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Solve the following. (1×20=20) 1) In an induction motor air gap is increased a) speed will reduce b) efficiency will improve c) power factor will be lowered d) breakdown torque will reduce 2) Line joining tangent and Torque line in a circle diagram gives a) Copper loss b) Stator loss c) Maximum output d) Maximum Torque 3) Under which of the following starting methods an induction motor draws high starting current a) Star-delta starter b) Auto transformer starter c) Direct on line starter d) Reduced voltage starter 4) The rotor of a 3 phase induction motor rotates in the same direction of that of the stator rotating Field. This can be explained by a) Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction b) Lenz’s law c) Flemings left hand law d) Flemings right hand law 5) The rotor slots in 3 phase induction motor are kept inclined. This phenomenon is known as a) skewing b) crawling c) cogging d) none of the above 6) The relative speed between stator and rotor fluxes is equal to a) Synchronous speed Ns b) Rotor speed N c) Zero d) Ns-N 7) The power factor of a 3-phase induction motor at no load is approximately a) 0.2 b) 0.7 c) 0.85 d) 1 8) The maximum torque in a 3-phase induction motor occurs at a slip a) R2/X2 b) X2/R2 c) R2=X2 d) None of the above P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 381 -2- *SLRPC381* 9) In a single phase capacitor motor the direction of rotation will be in the opposite direction to the Original when a) Electrolytic capacitor is replaced by paper capacitor b) Two capacitors of equal value are used c) Capacitor is replaced by a resistance d) Capacitor is replaced by an inductor 10) The torque developed by a split phase motor is proportional to a) Sine of angle between 1m and 1s b) Cosine of angle between 1m and Is c) Main winding current Im d) Auxiliary winding current Is 11) In a shaded pole motor, shading coils are used to a) Reduce windage losses b) Reduce friction losses c) Produce rotating magnetic field d) To protect against sparking 12) A phase, 50 Hz, 6600 V, alternator is rated at 6600 kW at 0.8 power factor and a full load Efficiency of 90%. KVA is rating of the alternator is a) 7000 kVA b) 7500 kVA c) 7750 kVA d) 8000 kVA 13) A 50 Hz alternator will run at the greatest speed, if it is wound for ______poles. a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8 14) The effect of cross magnetization in an alternator field is to make the output. a) True sinusoidal b) Non-sinusoidal c) Harmonic free d) None of the above 15) The advantage of salient poles in an alternator is a) Reduce noise b) Reduced windage loss c) Adoptability to low and medium speed operation d) Reduce bearing loads and noise 16) Two alternators A and B are sharing an inductive load equally. If the excitation of alternator A is Increased, a) Alternator B will deliver more current and alternator A will deliver less current b) Alternator B will deliver less current and alternator A will deliver more current c) Both will continue to share load equally d) Both will deliver more current 17) The armature current of a synchronous motor has large values for a) Low excitation only b) High excitation only c) Both low and high excitation d) Depends on other factors 18) The back emf in the stator of a synchronous motor depends on a) Speed of rotor b) Rotor excitation c) Number of poles d) Flux density 19) V curves for a synchronous motor represent relation between a) Field current and speed b) Field current and power factor c) Power factor and speed d) Armature current and field current 20) In a three phase synchronous motor, the magnitude of field flux a) Varies with speed b) Varies with load c) Remains constant at all loads d) Varies with power factor ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC381* -3- SLR-PC – 381 Seat No. S.E. (Electrical & Electronics Engg.) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 A.C. MACHINES Day and Date : Friday, 15-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 a.m. to 6.00 p.m. SECTION – I 2. Solve any four : (4×5=20) a) Find the condition for maximum starting torque of 3 φ induction motor. b) Differentiate between Squirrel cage and wound rotor induction motor. c) With neat diagram explain Auto transformer starter of 3 φ induction motor. d) A 4 pole main induction motor and 6 pole auxiliary induction motor are connected in cumulative cascade. The frequency in secondary circuit of 6 pole is 1 Hz. Determine the combined speed of set and slip in each machine. Take a supply frequency of 50 Hz. e) Explain the construction and working of universal motor. State its advantages. f) A 50 Hz, split phase induction motor has resistance of 5 Ω and inductive reactance of 20 Ω in main winding as well as starting winding. Determine the value of resistance and capacitance to be added in series with starting winding to send same current in each winding with phase difference of 90°. 3. Solve any two : (2×10=20) a) Why 1 φ induction motor is not self starting ? How to make it self start ? Explain cross field theory. b) Explain the principle of operation of 3 φ induction motor. With the help of phasor diagram explain how rotating magnetic field is produced. c) A 3 phase, 400 V, 14.9 KW Induction motor gave the following test data. N.L. Test – 400 V, 9 A, 1250 W. S.C. Test – 150 V, 38 A, 4K W. Draw the circle diagram. Find full load current and P.F. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 381 -4- *SLRPC381* SECTION – II 4. Solve any four : (4×5=20) a) Derive an expression for EMF equation of alternator. b) Explain Ampere-turn method of voltage regulation. c) A 12 pole, 3 φ , star connected alternator has 72 slots. Flux/pole is 0.0988 wb. calculate, 1) Speed if frequency of generated EMF is 50 Hz. 2) Terminal EMF for full-pitched coils and 8 conductor/slot. 3) The terminal EMF if the coil span is reduced to 2/3 of pole pitch. d) Explain synchronous condenser with phaser diagram. State its advantages and disadvantages. e) A 1500 KVA, 6.6 KV, 3 phase, star connected alternator has armature resistance and synchronous Reactance per phase are 0.5 Ω and 5 Ω respectively. Find the change in voltage when rated output at 0.8 PF lagging and 0.8 PF leading is switched off. f) Explain the 3 lamp method of synchronization of alternators. 5. Solve any two : (2×10=20) a) Two 3 φ star connected alternators 1 and 2 supply a load of 3000 KW at 0.8 PF lagging and share loads equally. The excitation of machine 2 is so adjusted that it supplies 150 A at lagging PF. The per phase synchronous impedance of machine 1 & 2 are (0.4 + j 12) Ω and (0.5 + j10)Ω respectively. Find current, PF, induced EMF and load angle each machine. The terminal voltage is 6.6 KV. b) A factory load consists of the following. Induction motor of 37.3 KW with 0.8 PF and efficiency of 0.85. Synchronous motor of 18.65 KW with 0.9 PF leading and efficiency of 0.9. Lighting load of 10 KW at unity PF. Find annual electricity bill if the tariff is Rs. 60/KVA of Maximum demand per annum plus 5 paise/KWh. Assume the load to be steady for 2000 hours in a year. c) With neat vector diagram explain V and inverted V curves of synchronous motor. Draw both the curve. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC382* SLR-PC – 382 Seat No. Set A S.E. ( Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONICS MEASUREMENT Day and Date : Monday, 18-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6. 00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : (20×1=20) 1) In an Anderson bridge, the unknown inductance is measured in terms of known a) Resistance b) Capacitance c) Inductance and resistance d) Resistance and capacitance 2) The sensitivity of a Wheatstone bride depends upon a) Galvanometer current sensitivity b) Galvanometer resistance c) Bridge supply voltage d) All of the above 3) Electrodynamometer type of instrument can be used to measure a) AC only b) DC only c) Both AC and DC d) None of these 4) The dimensions of magnetizing force in C.G.S.E.M. system are − − − − a) []μ 1/ 2M1/ 2L3 / 2T 1 b) []μ 1/ 2M1L3 / 2T 1 − − − − − c) []μ 1/ 2M1/ 2L 1/ 2T 1 d) []μ1/ 2M1/ 2L 1T 1 5) A moving instrument has a resistance of 0.6 Ω and a full-scale deflection current of 0.1 A. To convert it into an ammeter 0-15 A range, the resistance of shunt should be a) 0.6 Ω b) 0.06 Ω c) 0.1 Ω d) 0.004 Ω 6) Which of the following statement associated with purely resistive circuits is correct ? a) PF is unity b) power consumed is zero c) heat produced is zero d) PF is zero 7) The power in a 3-phase 4-wire circuit can be measured by using a) 2 wattmeter b) 3 wattmeter c) 4 wattmeter d) 1 wattmeter 8) The base unit in SI system are a) Meter, kilogram, second b) Meter, kilogram, second, ampere c) Meter, kilogram, second, ampere, kelvin, candela, mole d) Meter, kilogram, second, ampere, kelvin, candela 9) In order that A.C bridge is balanced when a) I1 = I3 and I2 = I4 b) Z1Z4 = Z2Z3 ∠θ + ∠θ = ∠θ + ∠θ c) i 4 2 3 d) All of the above P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 382 -2- *SLRPC382* 10) When measuring power with an electrodynamometer wattmeter in a circuit where load current is large a) The current coil should be connected on the load side b) The pressure coil should be connected on the load side c) The pressure coil should be connected on the supply side d) It is immaterial whether the current or pressure coil is on load side 11) Q-meter is based on principle of a) Series resonance b) Parallel resonance c) Mutual inductance d) None of these 12) The source of emission of electrons in a CRT is a) PN junction diode b) A barium and strontium oxide coated cathode c) Accelerating anode d) Post accelerating anode 13) While selecting transducer for particular application a) Only the input characteristics should be considered b) Only the output characteristics should be considered c) Only the transfer characteristics should be considered d) Input, output and transfer characteristics should be considered 14) Which of the following A/D converter is used in DSO ? a) Ramp type b) Successive approximation type c) Dual slope type d) Parallet type 15) A LVDT having a) Has linearity of 0.05% b) Exhibits linear characteristics up to displacement of 5 mm c) Has infinite resolution and high sensitivity which is of order 40 v/mm d) All 16) The switching time of LED is of the order of a) 1 s b) 1 ms c) 10 μ sd)1 ns 17) Thermocouple are a) Active transducers b) Passive transducers c) Both active and passive transducer d) Output transducers 18) An acqadag is used in a CRO to collect a) Primary electrons b) Secondary emission electrons c) Both primary electrons and secondary emission electrons d) None of the above 19) X-Y recorders a) Records one quantity with respect to another quantity b) Record one quantity on X-axis with respect to time on Y-axis c) Record one quantity on Y-axis with respect to time on X-axis d) None of the above 20) Which of the following optical transducer is an active transducer ? a) Photo emissive cell b) Photo diode c) Photo transistor d) Photovoltaic cell ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC382* -3- SLR-PC – 382 Seat No. S.E. ( Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONICS MEASUREMENT Day and Date : Monday, 18-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6. 00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Figure to the right indicates maximum marks. 3) Assume the suitable data whenever necessary. SECTION – I 2. Solve any four. (5×4=20) 1) Explain construction and operation of attraction type MI instrument. 2) Explain Hay’s bridge for the measurement of unknown inductance and also draw its phasor diagram. 3) Explain construction and working of electrodynamometer type wattmeter with neat diagram. 4) Explain the following terms related to instrument transformer a) Transformation ratio b) Nominal ratio c) Turns ratio d) Ratio correction factor 5) An inductive load takes current of 2.5 A; a non-inductive resistor is connected in prarallel takes 2.4 A, when connected across 250 V supply. The total current taken from supply is 4.5 A. Calculate a) Power absorbed by load b) Load impedance c) Power factor of the load 3. Solve any two : (10×2=20) 1) Explain real power measurements in 3 φ circuit by using two wattmeter methods for a) Star connected load b) Delta connected load also find its power factor. 2) Explain different types of damping methods used in instruments. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 382 -4- *SLRPC382* 3) Derive the dimensions of a) E.M.F. b) Magnetic flux density c) Electric flux density d) Current density e) Permeability f) Permittivity g) Resistivity h) Conductivity In L.M, T, I system of dimensions. SECTION – II 4. Solve any four : (5×4=20) 1) Explain construction and operation 1 φ electrodynamometer power factor meter. 2) Explain front panel control details of dual trace oscilloscope 3) Explain working of true rms reading voltmeter with neat diagram. 4) Explain electrical pressure transducer with neat diagram. 5) Explain with neat sketch X-Y recorder also state its advantages and disadvantages. 5. Solve any two : (10×2=20) 1) Explain construction and working of LVDT also state its advantages and disadvantages. 2) Describe the measurement of phase and frequency by using Lissaious pattern in detail. 3) Explain working of function generator with neat diagram. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC383* SLR-PC – 383 Seat Set No. A S.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 SIGNALS AND SYSTEMS Day and Date : Wednesday, 20-5-2015 Total Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. 3) Assume suitable data if necessary. MCQ/Objective Type Question Paper Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Objective Type Questions : Select the correct alternative : 1) The system is linear if a) It is a homogeneous b) It is additive c) It is a homogeneous or additive d) It is a homogeneous and additive 2) Convolution of x(t + 5) with δ (t – 7) is equal to a) x ( t – 12) b) x (t + 12) c) x (t – 2) d) x (t + 2) 3) Mathematically unit impulse is a derivative of a) Unit step b) Unit ramp c) Unit parabola d) None 4) If f (t) signal has energy E then energy of the signal f (2t) is equal to a) E b) E/2 c) 2E d) 4E 5) The system y(t) = x(3t – 6) is a) linear, time variant b) Linear, time invariant c) Non-linear, time invariant d) None 6) Laplace transform analysis gives a) Time domain response b) Frequency domain response c) Both a) and b) d) None 7) If x(t) is finite duration and is absolutely integrable, then ROC is a) Entire s plane b) Single strip c) Entire right hand region d) Entire left hand region 50 8) The final value of is s(s2 + 10s + 5) a) 01 b) 05 c) 10 d) 50 P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 383 -2- *SLRPC383* 9) The time period of signal x(t) = cos2 π t + sin5π t is a) 2 sec b) 5 sec c) 10 sec d) 2.5 sec 10) The system with impulse response h(t) = e–6|t| is a) Non causal, stable b) Non causal, unstable c) Causal, unstable d) Causal, Stable 11) The direct evaluation DFT requires ______complex multiplications. N (N − 1) a) N(N – 1) b) N2 c) N(N+1) d) 2 12) The periodic signal said to be have half-symmetry when a) x(t) = x(t + T/2) b) x(t) = x(t – T/2) c) x(t) = x(t ± T/2) d) x(t) = – x(t ± T/2) 13) The Fourier transform of u(t) is 1 1 1 a) b) c) jω d) πδ (ω) + jω 1+ jω jω 14) The ROC of the Z-transform of a unit step function is a) /z/ > 1 b) /z/ < 1 c) (real part of z) > 0 d) (real part of z) < 0 15) For x(n) = – u (– n –1); then ROC is a) /z/ > 1 b) /z/ < 1 c) /z/ > 0 d) /z/ < 0 16) When the system has poles inside the unit circle in Z-domain a) The system is stable and its impulse response is a decaying function b) Time domain behaviour will be exponentially rising signal c) The system is unstable d) The impulse response is marginally constant 17) For a signal x(t) = 1 + cos 10 π t + cos 40 π t then nyquist rate is a) 10 Hz b) 20 Hz c) 25 Hz d) 40 Hz 18) If x(n) – u(n) – u(n – 3) then ROC is a) Entire Z-plane, except z= 0 b) Entire Z-plane, except z = ∞ c) Entire Z-plane d) Entire Z-plane, except z = 0 and z = ∞ 19) Fourier transform of x(t) can be given as ∞ ∞ −jωt jnωt a) x(jω) = ∫ x(t)e dt b) x(jω) = ∫ x(t)e dt −∞ −∞ 0 −jωt c) x(jω) = ∫ x(t)e dt d) None −∞ 20) Aliasing occurs when a signal of band width W is sampled with sampling frequency F a) Greater than W b) Less than W c) Greater than 2W d) Less than 2W Set A ______ www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC383* -3- SLR-PC – 383 Seat No. S.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 SIGNALS AND SYSTEMS Day and Date : Wednesday, 20-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Assume suitable data if necessary. SECTION – I 2. Solve any four of the following : (4×5=20) 1) Explain the transformations on independent variables with examples. 2) Find even and odd component of the following signal. X(t) = (1 + t3) cos3 10t 3) Write a short note on singularity function. 4) Estimate the Laplace of the function x(t) = e–b|t|. Draw the corresponding pole zero plot and indicate the ROC. 5) Determine the convolution of two functions x1(t) = ae–at x2(t) = u(t). 3. Solve any two of the following : (2×10=20) 1) Check whether the following systems are static or dynamic, linear or non- linear, causal or non-causal and time invariant or time variant. a) y(n) = x(n) x (n – 1) b) y(n) = sgn [x(n)] c) y(n) = cos[x(n)] 2) Find the transfer function of the following a) An ideal differentiator b) An ideal integrator c) An ideal delay of T seconds 3) State and prove Time Convolution and Frequency convolution theorem. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 383 -4- *SLRPC383* SECTION – II 4. Attempt any four : (4×5=20) 1) Explain in detail reconstruction of signal from its samples. 2) Define Aliaising error. Explain how it can be avoided. z 3) Find inverse Z transform of X(z) = where ROC /z/ > 1. 2z2 − 3z + 1 4) Find Fourier transform of x(t) = coswot.u(t). 5) Find DFT of x(n) = an. 5. Attempt any two : (2×10=20) 1) Find the DFT of a sequence x(n) = {1, 2, 3, 4, 4, 3, 2, 1} using DIT algorithm. 2) Consider the analog signal x(t) = 3cos 2000 π t + 4sin 6000 π t, + 10 cos10000 π t. a) What is sampling rate ? b) For this signal assuming that the signal is sampled using fs = 5000 Hz what is DT signal ? 3) Obtain the convolution of following using convolution property of Fourier transform x(t) = e–bt. u(t) where b > 0 and x(t) = e–at.u(t) where a > 0. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC384* SLR-PC – 384 Seat Set No. A S.E. (E&E) Part – II Examination, 2015 DIGITAL TECHNIQUES Day and Date : Friday, 22-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Figures to the right indicates full marks. 3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary. 4) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : (20×1=20) 1) De-multiplexer is represented by a) 1 × 2n b) 2n × 1 c) 2n× n d) n × 2n 2) A circuit that transforms decimal to binary code is a) De-multiplexer b) Encoder c) Multiplexer d) Decoder 3) The logic expression Z = WXY + XY + WY is known as a) Standard SOP form b) POS form c) Standard POS form d) SOP form 4) The logic expression : Y = Σ m (0, 1, 3, 5) is equivalent to a) Y = Σ m (1, 2, 6, 7) b) Y = Π M(2, 4, 6, 7) c) Y = Π M (0, 1, 3, 5) d) Y = Π m (0, 4, 6, 7) 5) The NAND-NAND realization is equivalent to ______a) AND-OR realization b) OR-AND realization c) AND-OR-NOT realization d) AND-AND realization 6) The code used for marking the cells of K-map is a) Hexadecimal b) Gray c) Excess 3 d) Octal 7) The given gray number is 1100, its equivalent binary number is a) 1000 b) 1001 c) 1010 d) 0111 8) A MUX is ______implementation. a) OR-AND b) AND-NOR c) AND-OR d) NAND-OR P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 384 -2- *SLRPC384* 9) ______code is an examples of weighted codes. a) BCD b) Excess 3 c) Gray d) ASCII 10) The statement x* (y + z) = x*y) + (x*z) represent______a) Associative law b) Commutative law c) Distributive law d) DeMorgan’s theorems 11) How many flip-flops are required to build a binary counter circuit to count from 0 to 127 ? a) 1 b) 2 c) 7 d) 8 12) The characteristic equation of D flip-flop is ______a) Q+ = D b) Q+ = DQ c) Q+ = DQ’ + D’Q d) Q+ = DQ’ 13) Which one of the following is used as latch ? a) JK flip-flop b) T flip-flop c) SR flip-flop d) D flip-flop 14) In a T flip-flop output frequency is a) Same as the input clock frequency b) One half its input clock frequency c) Double the input clock frequency d) None of the above 15) A negative edge-triggered flip-flop changes state on the ______of the clock pulse. a) High to low transition b) Low to high transition c) Negative level d) None of the above 16) A mod-10 synchronous counter is designed by J-K flip-flop, the number of counts skipped by it is a) 6 b) 5 c) 3 d) 2 17) The output frequency of a mod-5 counter, clocked by 10 KHz clock signal is a) 2.5 KHz b) 625 Hz c) 2 KHz d) 5.25 KHz 18) In the Melay machine output depends a) Only on current state b) Only on input c) Current state and input d) None of the above 19) A Johnson’s counter is made by using a single D-FF. The resulting circuit is a) JK flip-flop b) SR flip-flop c) T flip-flop d) D flip-flop 20) When a flip-flop is set, its outputs will a) Q = 1, Q’ = 0 b) Q = 0, Q’ = 0 c) Q = 0, Q’ = 1 d) Q = 1, Q’ = 1 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC384* -3- SLR-PC – 384 Seat No. S.E. (E&E) Part – II Examination, 2015 DIGITALS TECHNIQUES Day and Date : Friday, 22-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Figures to the right indicates full marks. 3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary. SECTION – I 2. Solve any four : (4×4=16) 1) Design and explain full adder. 2) Explain : i) SOP ii) POS 3) Simplify using k-map F = π M(0,1, 3, 4,7) 4) Define i) Fan-in ii) Fan out 5) Implement following gates using NAND gate : i) AND ii) OR 3. Solve any three : (8×3=24) 1) Explain the operation of MUX and DEMUX. 2) Plot the k-map for EX-OR and EX-NOR functions of 2, 3 and 4 variables. 3) Explain following terms for logic family i) Noise margin ii) Voltage and current parameter iii) Power dissipation iv) Transfer characteristics 4) Explain binary to gray code conversion. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 384 -4- *SLRPC384* SECTION – II 4. Attempt any four : (4×4=16) 1) Draw and explain 4 bit up down synchronous counter. 2) State different types of shift register and explain any one. 3) Convert SR FF to T FF. 4) Design Mod 8 asynchronous counter. 5) Draw logic diagram of D flip-flop and state excitation table and characteristic table of D flip-flop. 5. Solve any three : (8×3=24) 1) Draw master slave J-K flip-flop and explain how race around conditions is eliminated in case of J-K flip-flop. 2) Draw a logic diagram, truth table and output waveform for 4-bit ripple counter. 3) Draw the waveform to shift the data 1010 to left in serial in parallel out shift register. 4) Draw and explain bidirectional shift register. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC385* SLR-PC 385 e a t S Set A N o . T.E. (Electrical and Electronics) (Part I) Examination, 2015 ELECTROMAGNETIC ENGINEERING (Old) Day and Date : Tuesday, 5-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : i) Programmable calculator is allowed. ii) Marks for each question is written to the right of each question. iii) Missing data suitable assumed. iv) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. v) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : (1×20=20) 1) In case of vector sum a) Vector sum > Arithmetic sum b) Vector sum < Arithmetic sum c) Vector sum = Arithmetic sum d) None of the above 2) Curl of any vector A is defined as A . d l ( A ) . d s . A l i m l i m i m a) b) c) l d) None of the above I I L I s s s ? ( . A ) d v ( A ) . d s 3) is known as I a)L Stoke theorem b) Divergence theorem c) Maxwells theorem d) Joules theorem 4) J = E is a) Gausss law b) Faradays law c) Ohms law d) Amperes law 5) is known as a) Permeability b) Permittivity c) Susceptibility d) None of the above 6) = Q is Gausss law. It can also be stated as a) b) × D = J c) × D = d) .D = , L L L 7) E due to charge uniformly distributed over an infinite plane with is a) b) c) d) P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 385 -2- *SLRPC385* 8) In electric field find correct equation - a) E = Db)D = Ec), d) None of the above 9) The relation between relative permittivity and permittivity of medium is given by a) b) c) d) None of the above 10) In case of charge electric flux lines are directed a) Towards the charge b) Away from charge c) They are closed paths d) None of the above 11) In magnetic field flux lines a) Start at north pole end at south pole b) Start at south pole and end at north pole c) They are closed paths d) None of these 12) Unit of H is m p e r e a) Volts b) Watts c) Watt sec. d) A m e t e r 13) Capacitance C is given by a) b) c) d) 14) Unit of inductance is a) Farad b) Volts c) Coulomb d) Henry H . d l I 15) is a ? a) Gausss law b) Biot-Savart law c) Joules law d) Amperes law 16) Intrinsic impedance has got unit of a) Ohm b) Farad c) Henry d) Coulomb 17) is the expression for intrinsic impedance for the medium a) Free space b) Perfect dielectric c) Loss dielectric d) General conducting medium 18) Wave length is given by a) b) c) d) D . 19) J is the continuity condition for a) Statict field b) Universal field c) Time varying field d) Space varying field D H J 20) is t a) Faradays law b) Ohms law c) Maxwells law d) Gausss law ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC385* -3- SLR-PC 385 S e a t N o . T.E. (Electrical and Electronics) (Part I) Examination, 2015 ELECTRO MAGNETIC ENGINEERING (Old) Day and Date : Tuesday, 5-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Programmable calculator is not allowed. 2) Solve five full questions including MCQ. 3) Marks are indicated to the right of question. SECTION I 2. Solve any four : (4×5=20) a) Prove Laplaces and Poissons equations. b) Define capacitance and find expression for capacitance in terms of dimensions of parallel plate capacitor. c) Derive expression for energy stored in electro static field. d) Find the charge in the volume defined by 1 r 2 in spherical co-ordinate 5 c o s ! c / system if m . L " r e) 40 × 109 coulomb of charge is uniformly distributed around a circular ring of radius of 2m. Find the potential at apt. on the axis 5 m from the plane of the ring. 3. Solve any two questions : (2×10=20) a) A disk of radius R meter is uniformly charged with surface charge density of c/m2 and is kept in xy plane. Find the electric field intensity at point P which is Z meters vertically above the centre of the disk. And also find if the plane is infinite. b) State and prove Stokes theorem. c) i) A = 4ax 2ay az and B = ax + 4ay 4az are perpendicular to each other. ii) Given A = 2ax + 4ay and B = 6ay 4az find smaller angle between them using dot product as well as cross product. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 385 -4- *SLRPC385* SECTION II 4. Solve any four : (4×5=20) a) State and prove Amperes circuital law or work law. b) A solid conductor of radius R is carrying current of I amperes, calculate H inside the conductor and outside the conductor sketch the curve H against distance curve. c) By making use of result in b show that amperes law is × H = J. d) Write 4 nos of Maxwells equations in point form and integral form. $ 2 . 3 9 1 0 e) Radial field H cos ar A/m exists in free space. Find the magnetic , 0 z 1 flux crossing the surface defined by m . 4 4 5. Solve any 2 questions : 20 a) Find the continuity condition for static and time varying magnetic field. Test amperes law show that it is valid only for static field. To apply H J this to time varying field, suggest suitable modification. ( x a y a z a ) x y b) Show that curl of vector z is zero. 3 2 2 2 2 ( x y z ) c) Find the values of and for general conducting medium. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC386* SLR-PC 386 e a t S Set o . N A T.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015 ELECTRIC POWER GENERATION AND UTILIZATION (Old) Day and Date : Wednesday, 6-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Figure to right indicate full marks. 3) Assume suitable data if necessary. 4) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer. (1×20=20) 1) Power output (in kW) of a hydro-power station is equal to (Q = discharge in m 3/s, = overall efficiency of the plant, h = head in, w = density of water) a) 75/0.736 Qwh/ b) 0.736/75 Qwh c) 750/0.736 Qw /h d) 0.736/750 Qh /w 2) A mass curve can be plotted from a) Load duration curve b) Chronological load curve c) Energy load curve d) Both load duration curve and chronological load curve 3) In Francis turbine runner, the number of blades is usually of the order of a) 16-24 b) 8-10 c) 6-8 d) 3-6 4) Water is supplied to the boiler at a) Atmospheric pressure b) More than steam pressure in the boiler c) Slightly more than atmospheric pressure d) Any pressure 5) Hydrograph is a similar to a) Load duration curve b) Mass curve c) Energy load curve d) Chronological load curve 6) For the same power, the size of a turbine a) Increases with speed b) Remains with speed c) Decrease with speed d) None of the above P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 386 -2- *SLRPC386* 7) Storage requirement can be determined from a) Hydrograph b) Flow-duration curve c) Mass curve d) Either by hydrograph or by mass curve 8) An impulse turbine a) Is most suited for low head and high discharge power plant b) Operates by initial complete conversion to kinetic energy c) Makes use of drafts tube d) Always operates submerged 9) Nuclear reaction usually employ a) Fission b) Fusion c) Both Fission and Fusion d) None of the above 10) Which of the following materials cannot be used as a moderator ? a) Deuterium b) Graphite c) Heavy water d) Beryllium 11) It is desirable to the operate the arc furnace at a P.F. of a) zero b) unity c) 0.707 lagging d) 0.707 leading 12) The main application of indirect arc furnace is to melt a) iron b) steel c) non ferrous material d) none of the above 13) A graphical representation between discharge and time is known as a) monograph b) hectograph c) topograph d) hydrograph 14) For heating of plywood the frequency should be a) 100 Hz b) 10 to 25 KHz c) 1 KHz d) 1-2 MHz 15) The tips of the electrodes, for spot welding are made of a) Carbon b) Copper alloy or pure copper c) Mica d) Porcelein 16) A zero watt lamp consumes power of a) zero watt b) 5-10 watt c) about 15 watt d) about 25 watt 17) Which motor is used in tramways ? a) AC single phase capacitor start motor b) AC three phase motor c) DC series motor d) DC shunt motor 18) The coefficient of adhesion for wet or greasy rails is a) 0.35 b) 0.25 c) 0.08 d) 0 19) The air resistance to the movement of the train is proportional to a) 1/speed b) speed c) speed*speed d) 1/(speed*speed) 20) A locomotive with a mass of 50,000 kg on a track whose coefficient of adhesion is 20 percent will produce a tractive effort of a) 1 KN b) 100 KN c) 25 KN d) 250 KN ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC386* -3- SLR-PC 386 S e a t N o . T.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015 ELECTRIC POWER GENERATION AND UTILIZATION (Old) Day and Date : Wednesday, 6-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 3) Assume suitable data if necessary. SECTION I 2. Answer any four questions : (4×5=20) 1) With a neat sketch explain the pumped storage hydroelectric power plant. 2) Explain the process of nuclear fission and nuclear fusion. 3) With a neat sketch explain Heavy water cooled and moderator reactor. 4) Explain the Terms a) Plant load factor b) Demand factor 5) The load curve of an electrical system is linear with the following values at different times of the Time : 0-6 6-10 10-12 12-16 16-20 20-24 Load (mw) : 40 50 60 50 70 40 Draw the load curve and find 1) maximum demand 2) units generated per day 3) average load 4) load factor 3. Answer any two questions : (10×2=20) 1) Explain the different types of water turbines with diagram. 2) What are the different types of load on system ? Explain chronological load curve for different types of load. 3) Compare wind power plant, tidal power plant, and geothermal power plant, solar power plant on the basis of installation cost, running cost, reliability and environment effect. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 386 -4- *SLRPC386* SECTION II 4. Solve any four : (4×5=20) 1) Write a short note on induction core type furnace. 2) Explain with neat diagram ring main system . 3) Draw a neat sketch of spot welding machine and explain its working. 4) Write a short note on dielectric heating. 5) Derive the expression for quadrilateral speed time curve. 5. Solve any two : (2×10=20) 1) A train is required to run between two stations 1.6 Km apart at an avg. speed of 40 Kmph. The run is to be made to a simplified quadrilateral speed time curve. If the maximum speed is to be limited to 64 Kmph, acceleration to 2 Kmphs and costing and braking retardation to 0.16 Kmphps respectively. Determine the duration of acceleration, costing and braking periods. 2) What are the desirable properties of material for heating element should have and explain design procedure of heating element of heating when power and volt of the oven are known ? 3) Determine specific energy output using simplified speed time curve and factors affecting specific energy consumption. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC387* SLR-PC – 387 Seat Set No. A T.E. (Electrical and Electronics) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 MICROPROCESSOR (Old) Day and Date : Thursday, 7-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a. m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : i) Figures to the right indicate full marks. ii) Assume suitable data wherever required. iii) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. iv) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Objective questions : (20×1= 20) 1) 8085 has ______software interrupts and ______hardware interrupts. a) 10,5 b) 8, 4 c) 8, 5 d) 6, 6 2) What is the addressing mode used in the instruction “MVI A, 074” ? a) Direct b) Indirect c) Indexed d) Immediate 3) In the TRAP, RST 7.5, RST 6.5, RST 5.5, Which is having low priority ? a) TRAP b) RST 7.5 c) RST 6.5 d) RST 5.5 4) Vector location of TRAP interrupt is a) 0024 h b) 002C h c) 0034 h d) 003C h 5) Number of address lines required to access 4 KB of memory are a) 10 b) 11 c) 12 d) 13 6) Memory addressing capacity of 8085 is a) 8 k b) 16 k c) 64 k d) none of above 7) The group of four binary bit is called a) Byte b) Word c) Nibble d) Logic 8) First machine cycle for the instruction “Call XXXX” is a) memory read b) opcode fetch c) memory write d) I/O read 9) The instruction “LDA 2000” requires ______T – states. a) 13 b) 7 c) 10 d) 18 P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 387 -2- *SLRPC387* 10) The unit that supervises each instruction in the microprocessor 8085 is a) ALU b) Control unit c) Accumulator d) Instruction decoder 11) 8255 has ______I/O modes. a) 3 b) 4 c) 1 d) 6 12) Mode 3 of 8253 is a) Programmable one shot b) Rate generator c) Square wave generator d) Software triggered strobe 13) Start Bit and stop bit for each character is present which forms a frame is present in a) Synchronous data transfer b) Asynchronous data transfer c) Both d) None of these 14) SOD is a serial output data, it uses ______instruction to transmit serial data bit on SOD line a) RIM b) SIM c) Both d) None of these 15) SIM means a) Simple Interrupt Mask b) Set Interrupt Mask c) Serial Interrupt Mask d) Set Internal Mask 16) How many ports are there in 8255 ? a) Two ports b) Four ports c) Three ports d) No ports 17) In memory mapped I/O address with is a) 64 bit b) 8 bit c) 16 bit d) 32 bit 18) Following IC is used as USART. a) 8259 b) 8255 c) 8053 d) 8251 19) Output of DAC 0808 is a) Voltage b) Current c) Power d) None of these 20) 8253, a programmable interval timer consists of a) Three, 8 bit counters b) Two, 16 bit counters c) Three, 16 bit counters d) Two, 8 bit counters ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC387* -3- SLR-PC – 387 Seat No. T.E. (Electrical and Electronics) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 MICROPROCESSOR (Old) Day and Date : Thursday, 7-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a. m. to 1.00 p. m. SECTION – I 2. Solve any four : (5×4=20) a) Draw timing diagram of instruction “ADI 02 h” stored at 4000 h. b) Write a program to find count of positive and negative numbers from the array of ten elements. c) Explain addressing modes in 8085 with suitable example. d) Write a program to find largest number from a given array of 10 elements. e) Explain the function of READY, ALE and TRAP pins of 8085. 3. Solve any two : (10×2=20) a) Interface 6k x 8 memory to 8085 using 2k x 8 memory chips. Select starting address 6000 h. b) Describe memory mapped I/O and I/O mapped I/O techniques in detail. c) Write a program to implement the function (a x b) + (c x d) and store the result in 9100 h and 9101h. Multiplication must be performed by using subroutine. Assume a, b, c, d are stored in 9000 h onwards. SECTION – II 4. Solve any four : (5×4=20) 1) With the help of neat schematic describe frequency measurement by using 8085. 2) Explain serial data transmission using SID Pin. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 387 -4- *SLRPC387* 3) Write an assembly language program to generate triangular wave at the output of 0808 DAC. Draw the interfacing diagram. 4) Draw the functional block diagram of 8259 PIC. 5) Explain BSR modes of 8255 with neat diagram. 5. Solve any two : (10×2=20) 1) Draw the functional block diagram of 8253 PIT. Explain mode 0 and mode 1 of 8253 with neat timing diagram. 2) Draw and explain the working of R – 2R ladder DAC and dual slope ADC. 3) Draw and Explain the working of 8251 USART. Compare synchronous and asynchronous serial data transmission. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLR-PC-389* SLR-PC – 389 Seat Set No. A T.E. (Electrical and Electronics) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 FEEDBACK CONTROL SYSTEM (Old) Day and Date : Saturday, 9-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions :i)All questions are compulsory. ii) Assume suitable data if necessary. iii) Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed. iv) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. v) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : 20 1) There is a ______between two nodes of signal flow graph. a) link b) branch c) tree d) none of the above 2) A signal flow graph is a a) Special type of graph for analyzing the modern control system b) Pictorial representation of the simultaneous equations describing a system c) Polar graph d) Log log graph 3) The transfer function of the system is used to determine a) The output for a given input b) The type of the system c) The input for a given output d) The steady state gain 4) With feedback ______increases. a) System stability b) Sensitivity c) Gain d) Effects of disturbing signals 5) The impulse function is a derivative of ______function. a) Step b) Ramp c) Linear d) Parabolic 6) ______gives indication how fast the system tends to attain the final value. a) Delay time b) Rise time c) Time constant d) Settling time 7) Velocity error constant of the system is a measured when the input of the system is unit ______function. a) Ramp b) Impulse c) Step d) Parabolic P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 389 -2- *SLR-PC-389* 8) If the gain of the critical damped system is increased it will behave as a) Oscillatory b) Critically damped c) Overdamped d) Underdamped 9) The input to a controller is always a/an ______a) Error b) Servo c) Amplifier d) Sensor 10) The type I system has ______at the origin. a) no pole b) net pole c) simple pole d) two poles 11) Slope of asymptote in bode plot of 2nd order system is ______per octave. a) 18 dB b) 12 dB c) 6 dB d) 3 dB 12) The term reset control refers to a) Proportional b) Integral c) Derivative d) None of the above 13) When derivative action is included in a proportional controller, the proportional band ? a) increases b) Reduces c) Remains unchanged d) None of the above 14) For an nth order system the state equations will be of the order of a) n b) 1 c) n/2 d) (n+1)/2 15) In a control system integral error compensation ______steady state error. a) increases b) minimizes c) does not have any effect on d) any of the above 16) The first order control system, which is well designed, has a a) small bandwidth b) negative time constant c) large negative transfer function pole d) none of the above 17) In order to increase the damping of a badly underdamped system which of following compensators may be used ? a) Phase-lead b) Phase-lag c) Both a) and b) d) Either a) and b) 18) Which of the following is the best method for determining the stability and transient response ? a) Root locus b) Bode plot c) Nyquist plot d) None of the above ⎡ 0 1⎤ 19) The system matrix of a discrete system is given by A = ⎢ ⎥ . The ⎣− 3 − 5⎦ characteristic equation is given by a) s2 + 5s + 3 = 0 b) s2 – 3s – 5 = 0 c) s2 + 3s + 5 = 0 d) s2+ s + 2 = 0 20) The eigen values of a linear system are the locations of a) finite poles b) poles of the system c) zeros of the system d) none of the above ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLR-PC-389* -3- SLR-PC – 389 Seat No. T.E. (Electrical and Electronics) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 FEEDBACK CONTROL SYSTEM (Old) Day and Date : Saturday, 9-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions :i)All questions are compulsory. ii) Figures to the right indicate full marks. iii) Assume suitable data wherever necessary. iv) Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed. SECTION – I 2. Solve any four : (5×4=20) a) What is open loop and closed loop control systems ? Compare the open loop and closed loop control system. b) A second order system is given by C(s)/R(s) =25/s2 + 6s + 25. Find its rise time, peak time, peak overshoot and damping ratio. c) Derive the static error coefficients and steady state error for unit ramp input. d) Explain terminologies used in signal flow graph. e) Explain the linearizing effect of feedback. 3. Solve any two : (10×2=20) a) Sketch the root locus for the system having G(s)*H(s) = k/s(s + 1)(s + 2)(s + 3). b) Draw the equivalent mechanical system of the given system. Obtain the transfer function and draw its F-V and F-I analogous system. c) Explain the transient response specification with diagram and derive the expression for peak time. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 389 -4- *SLR-PC-389* SECTION – II 4. Solve any four : (5×4=20) a) Compare phase lead and phase lag compensator in detail. b) Explain correlation between time and frequency domain. c) Explain PID controller with diagram. d) Draw the polar plot for the system with G(s) = 1/s(s + 1). e) What is state transition matrix ? State the properties of state transition matrix. 5. Solve any two : (10×2=20) a) Sketch the Bode Plot for the system with TF given by 10 G(s) = and hence determine the gain margin and the s(1+ 0.01s)(1+ 0.1s) phase margin of the system. − − ⎡x1 ⎤ ⎡ 2 3⎤ ⎡x1 ⎤ ⎡3⎤ b) Consider a system having state model ⎢ ⎥ = ⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥ + ⎢ ⎥ + u(t): ⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥ ⎣x2 ⎦ ⎣ 4 2 ⎦ ⎣x2 ⎦ ⎣5⎦ ⎡x1 ⎤ Y = []1 1 ⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥ with D = 0. Obtain the Transfer Function. ⎣x2 ⎦ c) Explain and derive the Lag-Lead compensator. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC39* SLR-PC – 39 Seat Set No. A T.E. (Civil) (Part – II) (Old) Examination, 2015 ENGINEERING MANAGEMENT – II Day and Date : Thursday, 21-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) In Section I, Q. No. 2 is compulsory. Solve any two out of remaining three questions. 3) Section II consists of Q. No. 6 to Q. No. 9. Solve any three out of these four questions. 4) Use of nonprogrammable of Q. No. 6 to Q. No. 9. Solve any three out of these four questions. 5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : 1) A milestone chart is a) Same as the bar chart b) An improvement over the bar chart c) Inferior to the bar chart d) None of these 2) There is no need for updating if a) All the activities are not progressing according to schedule b) All the activities are partially progressing according to schedule c) All the activities are progressing well according to schedule d) All of these 3) The method, usually adopted in arriving at the duration of the project is a) Graphical Evaluation and Review Technique (GERT) b) Critical Path Method (CPM) c) Programme Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) d) Decision networks 4) A PERT network is a) Activity oriented b) Event oriented c) Both activity as well as event oriented d) Neither activity nor event oriented 5) The information needed to update the project plan is a) Original network b) Progress report c) Calculated charts d) All of these P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 39 -2- *SLRPC39* 6) In construction management, if cost control, is neglected it will result in a) Profit to the owner of the project b) Increase in the profit margins to the contractor c) Reduce in the profit margins to the contractor d) None of these 7) Resource smoothening means a) Optimization and economical utilization of resources b) Complete revamping of resources to suit the requirements c) Gradual increase in resources d) Adjustment of resources to have the least variations 8) Construction costs mainly consists of expenditure on a) Labour and materials b) Plants and equipments c) Overheads d) All of these 9) The nature of decision neworks is a) Probabilistic b) Deterministic c) Both a) and b) d) None of these 10) Precedence networks are more commonly used when a) Repetitive tasks are involved b) Overlapping of activities occur c) Interdependencies exist d) All of these 11) In PW method if the life of alternatives is different, then it is necessary to convert the life of each alternative to ______a) LCM b) MCM c) Average life d) None 12) X-chart used for quality control is also called as ______a) Average chart b) Range chart c) Proportion chart d) Count chart 13) 15% rate per month compounded monthly is ______type of interest rate a) Nominal b) Effective c) Simple d) None of these 14) The uniform amount to be invested at the end of each period in order to produce a fixed amount can be calculated using factor ______a) U S C A F b) U S C R F c) U S P W F d) U S S F F 15) The method which has basis to calculate rate of return as the result of dividing the annual net profit by the capital invested is ______a) Yield method b) Payback method c) PW method d) EUAC method 16) X-chart and R-chart are used for ______a) Variables b) Attributes c) Both d) None of the above 17) Control chart for number of defect per unit is ______chart. a) P b) X c) C d) R 18) Annuity means ______a) All payments of equal amount b) A series of payment c) Payment at equal time interval d) All of these 19) In quality circle people comes ______a) Forcefully b) Voluntarily c) By election d) None 20) The value of machinery obtained when it becomes absolutely useless except for sale as junk is ______a) Bank value b) Salvage value c) Scrap value d) Distress value ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC39* -3- SLR-PC – 39 Seat No. T.E. (Civil) (Part – II) (Old) Examination, 2015 ENGINEERING MANAGEMENT – II Day and Date : Thursday, 21-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) In Section I, Q. No. 2 is compulsory. Solve any two out of remaining three questions. 2) Section II consists of Q. No. 6 to Q. No. 9. Solve any three out of these four questions. 3) Use of nonprogrammable of Q. No. 6 to Q. No. 9. Solve any three out of these four questions. SECTION – I 2. a) Draw a bar chart for the following project data : Table - 1 Immediate Activity Duration (days) predecessors A– 12 BA 8 CA 4 DB, C12 EB. C4 FE 4 GF 4 Determine the project completion time. 5 b) Draw CPM network and indicate critical path for the project data indicated in the Table-1. Determine project completion time. 9 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 39 -4- *SLRPC39* 3. a) Draw the PERT network for following data of a project. 5 Table - 2 Immediate Duration (days) Activity predecessors Optimistic Most likely Pessimistic A– 4 6 8 B– 14.55 CA 3 3 3 DA 4 5 6 E A 0.5 1 1.5 FB,C3 4 5 GB,C1 1.55 HE, F5 6 7 IE, F2 5 8 J D, H 2.5 2.75 4.5 KG, I3 5 7 b) Calculate variance and expected time for each of the activities in PERT network as per Table - 2. Calculate slack for each of the activities. Calculate variance of the critical path. 8 4. a) Determine cost slopes for crashing the activities in Table-1 extended as follows : 5 Activity Normal cost Crash time Crash cost A 3,000 7 5,000 B 2,000 5 3,500 C 4,000 3 7,000 D 50,000 9 71,000 E 500 1 1,100 F 500 1 1,100 G 1,500 3 22,000 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC39* -5- SLR-PC – 39 b) Write note on : a) Resource levelling. 4 b) PERT. 4 5. a) Explain precedence network with suitable sketch. 5 b) Explain method study. 8 SECTION – II Instruction : Attempt any three questions out of Q. No. 6 to Q. No. 9. 6. a) Given an interest rate of 5% per year what sum to be accumulated after 6 years. If Rs. 200/- are invested at the end of each year for 6 years. 8 b) Compute nominal and effective interest rate for an investment of Rs. 18,000, which will turn into Rs. 25,500 if continuous compounding is made. 6 7. a) Explain with example cash flow diagram. 4 b) Derive the formula for SFF and CRF. 6 c) What is time value of money ? 3 8. a) Enlist discounting methods of economic comparison ? Explain any one method in detail. 10 b) What is Total Quality Management (TQM). 3 9. Write a note on : a) Break Even Analysis. 4 b) Variable and attribute sampling. 4 c) Payback period method of economic comparison. 5 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC3902* SLR-PC – 390 Seat No. Set A T.E. (Part – I) (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) Examination, 2015 ELECTROMAGNETIC ENGG. (New) Day and Date : Tuesday, 5-5-2015 Total Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. 3) Assume the suitable data whenever necessary. 4) Q. 1 is compulsory. 5) Attempt any two questions from each Section. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : 1) The co-ordinate system for spherical co-ordinate system are a) (r, θ, o/ ) b) (r, b, z) c) (r, z, o/ ) d) (x, y, z) 2) The divergence of a vector is a scalar, while the curl of a vector is another a) scalar b) vector c) unit vector d) none of the above 3) The unit of magnetic flux density is a) farad/metre b) ohm/metre c) tesla d) ampere/metre 4) Divergence of curl A is a) ∇ ⋅(∇ × A) = 1 b) ∇ ⋅(∇ × A) = 0 c) ∇ ⋅(∇ × A) = ∇ d) ∇ ⋅(∇ × A) = −∞ 5) The unit of displacement density is a) volt/metre b) ampere/metre2 c) coulombs/metre d) coulombs/metre2 6) The unit of ∇ is 1 1 c) 1 d) 1 a) m b) sec Joule m sec 7) Which of the following relations is valid ? a) ∇ × ∇ × A = ∇(∇ ⋅ A) − ∇2A b) ∇ × ∇ × A = ∇(∇ × A) − ∇2A c) ∇ × ∇ × A = ∇2A − (∇A) d) none of the above 8) ∇2V = −ρ /E is known as ______equation. a) Poisson equation b) Fourier equation c) Laplace equation d) Maxwell equation P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 390 -2- *SLRPC3902* 9) The boundary conditions at the interface between two dielectrics in an electric field are given by a) Dnormal = 0, Enormal = 0 b) Dtangential = 0, Enormal = 0 c) Dnormal = 0, Etangential = 0 d) None of the above 10) “The surface integral of the normal component of the electric displacement D over any closed surface equals the charge enclosed by the surface”. The above statement is associated with a) Gauss’s law b) Kirchhoffs law c) Faraday’s law d) Lenz’s law 11) The absolute permittivity of free space is given by a) 8.854 × 1 (T9 F/m) b) 8.854 × 1 (T10 F/m) c) 8.854 × KT11 F/m d) 8.854 × 10′′12 F/m 12) The relative permittivity of free space is given by a) 1 b) 10 c) 100 d) 1000 13) Electric field intensity is a quantity a) scalar b) vector c) both a) and b) d) none of the above 14) A conductor of length L has current I passing through it, when it is placed parallel to a magnetic field. The force experienced by the conductor will be a) zero b) BLI c) B2LI d) BLI2 15) Absolute permeability (μ ) is given by ______henry/metre. a) 4 π × 10–12 b) 4 π × 10–7 c) 8.854 × 10–12 d) 8.854 × 10–7 16) Lorentz force equation is a) F = Q x [(E + V) × B] b) F = Q [(E + V) × B] c) F = Q × [(V + E) × B] d) F = Q [(B + V) × B] 17) Select the correct relation a) ∇(AB) = A∇B + B∇A b) ∇ ⋅(AB) = ∇A ⋅B + A∇B c) ∇ × (AB) = ∇A ×B + A∇B d) All of the above 18) The electric intensity for free space is given by ε σ ε σ ⋅ ε ε a) 0d b) / 0 c) 0 d) d / 0 19) Which one of the following is not a correct Maxwell equation ? ∂D ∂H a) ∇ ×H = + j b) ∇ ×E = c) ∇ ×D = f d) ∇ ⋅ = ∂t ∂t B 0 20) Which of the following is unit of inductance ? a) Ohm b) Henry c) Ampere turns d) Webers/metre ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC390* -3- SLR-PC – 390 Seat No. T.E. (Part – I) (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) Examination, 2015 ELECTROMAGNETIC ENGG. (New) Day and Date : Tuesday, 5-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions :1)Assume the suitable data whenever necessary. 2) Attempt any two questions from each Section. SECTION – I 2. Solve any four : (5×4=20) a) Explain the streamline and sketches of fields. b) There vectors are A = 2ax – 2ay – ay ; B = ax + ay + ay; C = ax + 2ay – 2ay Find : i) A × (B × C) ; ii) (A × B) × C. c) Derive the concept of integral form of Maxwell’s equation. d) Derive the continuity equation for current in integral form and point form. e) Derive the differential relation of E = −∇V . 3. Solve any two : (10×2=20) a) Derive the point form of Gauss’s law. b) Explain the concept of boundary condition for electric field. c) A point charge of 6μ C is located at the origin, a uniform line charge density of 180nC/m lies along the x-axis and a uniform sheet charge equal to 25 nC/m2 lies in the z = 0 plane. i) Find D at A (0, 0, 4); ii) Find D at B(1, 2, 4); Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 390 -4- *SLRPC3902* SECTION – II 4. Solve any four : (5×4=20) a) Explain in details of Biot-Savart law. b) Write short note on self and mutual induction. c) Find a current distribution that produces a magnetic field of the form H = k sin x ay, where k is constant. d) State the equations of Maxwell’s equations, for good conductor in time varying fields in integral and point form. e) Electric field intensity of uniform plane wave in air has a magnitude of 800 and is in x direction. If the wave is propagating in az direction and has a wavelength of 2m. Find frequency and the value of β if the field is expressed in the form of A Cos(ωt − βx) . 5. Solve any two : (10×2=20) a) Derive the expression for magnetic field intensity due to finite long straight filament. b) Explain in details of boundary condition for perfect dielectric – dielectric media in magnetic fields. ε = 6 c) A certain material has σ = 0 and r 1, if H = 4 Sin (10 t – 0.01 z) ay (A/m). μ Using Maxwell’s equation find r . ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC391* SLR-PC 391 e a t S Set o . N A T.E. (Part I) (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) Examination, 2015 INSTRUMENTATION TECHNIQUES (New) Day and Date : Wednesday, 6-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Make suitable assumptions if necessary. 3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : (20×1=20) 1) Thermocouples are a) Passive transducers b) Active transducers c) Both active and passive transducers d) Output transducers 2) In an LVDT the two secondary windings are connected in differential to obtain a) Higher output voltage b) An output voltage which is phase sensitive i.e. the output voltage has a phase which can lead us to conclusion whether the displacement of the core tool place from right to left or from left to right c) In order to establish the null or the reference point for the displacement of the core d) Both b) and c) 3) The dynamic characteristics of capacitive transducers are similar to those of a) Low pass filter b) High pass filter c) Notch filter d) Band stop filters 4) Quartz and Rochelle salt belong to a) Nature group of piezo electric material b) Synthetic group of piezo-electric material c) Can belong to nature or synthetic group of piezo-electric material provided properly polarized d) All of these 5) Piezo-electric transducers are a) Passive transducers b) Active transducers c) Inverse transducers d) b) and c) 6) The properties of an ideal OPAMP are a) It should have zero input impedance b) It should have an infinite output impedance c) If should have a zero open loop gain d) None of these 7) A buffer amplifier has gain of a) Infinity b) Zero c) Unity d) Dependent upon the circuit parameters 8) The gain of 741 OPAMP falls at low frequency of a) 10 KHz b) 10 Hz c) 100 Hz d) 1000 Hz 9) The input resistant of a CRO is of order of a) Tens of b) Mega c) K d) Fraction of P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 391 -2- *SLRPC391* 10) The FM telemetry as compared with AM telemetry requires a channel that is a) Equal to that of AM telemetry b) Smaller than what is required for AM telemetry c) 100 times of that required for AM telemetry d) 10 times of that required for AM telemetry 11) Period measurement is done in frequency meters for achieving high accuracy in the case of a) High frequencies b) Medium frequencies c) DCd) Low frequencies 12) A digital voltmeter uses an A/D converter which needs a start pulse, uses an analog comparator and has a relatively fixed conversion time independent of the applied voltage. The A/D converter is a) Successive approximation converter b) Digital ramp converter c) Digital slope converter d) All of these 13) X-Y recorders a) Record one quantity with respect to another quantity b) Record one quantity on X axis with respect to time on Y axis c) Record one quantity on Y axis with respect to time on X axis d) None of these 14) The advantages of FM magnetic tape recording are a) It can record from dc to several KHz b) It is free from dropout effects c) It is independent of amplitude variations and accurately reproduces the waveform of input signal d) All of these 15) When measuring strain, ballast circuits use a capacitor to act as high pass filter. This is done when, a) Static strains are being measured b) Dynamic strains are being measured c) Both static and dynamic strains are being measured d) None of these 16) Two stain gauges are used to measure strain in cantilever. One gauge is mounted on top of the cantilever and the other is placed at the bottom. The two strain gauges form two arms of a voltage sensitive Wheatstones bridge. This bridge configuration is called a) A gaurter bridge b) A half bridge c) A full bridge d) A null bridge 17) Dummy strain gauges are used for a) Compensation of temperature changes b) Increasing the sensitivity of bridge in which they are included c) Compensating for different expansion d) Calibration of strain gauges 18) Strain gauge rosettes are used a) When the direction of principal stress is known b) When the direction of principal stress is unknown c) When the direction of hoop stress is not known d) When the direction of longitudinal stress is not known 19) Piezoelectric accelerometers meter a) Should not be used for high frequencies above 100 Hz b) Should be used for low frequencies c) Should use a monitoring source of low input impedance d) Have a low natural frequency 20) A thermocouple a) Has a low time constant when it is bare b) Has a low time constant if it is provided with a sheath c) Has the same time constant whether it is bare or is provided with sheath d) None of these Set A ______ www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC391* -3- SLR-PC 391 S e a t N o . T.E. (Part I) (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) Examination, 2015 INSTRUMENTATION TECHNIQUES (New) Day and Date : Wednesday, 6-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Make suitable assumptions if necessary. SECTION I 2. Solve any four : (5×4=20) a) What are the types of transducer ? Classify based on the principle of working. b) List the errors occurring in the instrumentation system and discuss the methods to minimise them. c) Explain the need of isolation amplifier and its operation. d) With neat diagram explain programmable gain amplifier. Also derive the expression for gain. e) Write a short note on R-2R ADC. f) How frequency is converted into voltage ? Explain with diagram. 3. Solve any two : (10×2=20) a) Explain instrumentation system with neat block diagram. Give a practical example of it with explanation. b) Explain binary weighted resistor type D and A converter. c) What is meant by active filters and derive the frequency response of 1st and 2nd order filter. SECTION II 4. Solve any four : (5×4=20) a) Explain segment displays. b) Compare analog verses digital displays. c) Write short note on installation of PLC. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 391 -4- *SLRPC391* d) What is modulation ? Explain frequency modulation in detail. e) To record one quantity with respect to another which recorder is used ? Explain with neat diagram. f) Explain the various elements used for input and output for PLC. 5. Solve any two : (10×2=20) a) Draw and explain architecture of PLC. State the types if PLC. b) Explain the working of strip chart recorder. c) What is telemetry ? Explain landline and position telemetry system. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC392* SLR-PC 392 S e a t 5 A J ) A N o . T.E. (Electrical & Electronics Engineering) (Part I) New Examination, 2015 MICROPROCESSOR AND ITS APPLICATIONS Day and Date : Thursday, 7-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Figures to the right indicates full marks. 3) Assume suitable data if necessary. 4) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Select suitable option : (20×1=20) 1) If the memory chip size is 1024 × 4-bits how many chips are required to make 4 K bytes of memory ? a) 2 b) 4 c) 8 d) 16 2) ______interrupt has highest priority. a) RST 7.5 b) RST 6.5 c) RST 5.5 d) Trap 3) Which of below can be used for clock source of 8085 ? a) LC b) RC c) Crystal d) All of these 4) The synchronization between microprocessor and memory is done by _____ signal. a) ALE b) HOLD c) READY d) None of these 5) The address to which a software or hardware restart branches is known as a) Vector b) Interrupt c) Relocator d) Monitor program location 6) Largest positive number represented using 8 bit signed representation is a) FFH b) 7FH c) 00H d) FEH 7) MVI D, FFH will take ______clock cycles to execute. a) 4 b) 7 c) 10 d) 12 8) In RIM instruction format, bit D3 is a) SID b) IE c) M 7.5 d) M 6.5 P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 392 -2- *SLRPC392* 9) Which of below block is not present in 8254 ? a) data bus buffer b) control word register c) cascade control d) counter 2 10) Which of below signal is used for DMA ? a) TRAP b) S1 c) HOLD d) ALE 11) Any 8085 microprocessor based system should have atleast one EPROM at the a) beginning of the memory address space b) end of the memory address space c) middle of the memory address space d) none of the above 12) The program that allow to set break points is a) Assembler b) Linker c) Breaker d) Debugger 13) Take odd man out SID, SOD, TRAP, RIM a) SID b) SOD c) TRAP d) RIM 14) Output of DAC 0808 is a) Voltage b) Current c) Power d) None of these 15) Content of accumulator after execution of instruction XRA A are a) 00H b) FFH c) 44 H d) Insufficient data-I must know initial content of accumulator 16) Instruction to call a subroutine if sign flag set is a) CC b) CNC c) CM d) CP 17) Control word necessary only in cascade mode of 8259 is a) ICW1 b) ICW2 c) ICW3 d) ICW4 18) Addressing mode of instruction DAA is a) Register b) Implied c) Direct d) Immediate 19) If memory map of a memory IC is 2000 H to 3 FFFH, then memory size is a) 2 K b) 4 K c) 8 K d) 16 K 20) Which of below is true for stack ? a) It is located in RAM b) It is LIFO c) It is accessed for 16 bit data d) All of these ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC392* -3- SLR-PC 392 S e a t N o . T.E. (Electrical & Electronics Engineering) (Part I) New Examination, 2015 MICROPROCESSOR AND ITS APPLICATIONS Day and Date : Thursday, 7-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Figures to the right indicates full marks. 3) Assume suitable data if necessary. SECTION I 2. Solve any three : (3×8=24) a) Draw and explain an instruction cycle for MVI M, data. Assume suitable addresses and data. b) Interface 4 K byte RAM using 2 K byte ICs and starting from address 2000 H. c) Write a program to separate the even and odd numbers from the given array of 10 elements into two arrays. d) With suitable diagram explain demultiplexing of address and data bus. 3. Solve any four : (4×4=16) a) With suitable example explain use of a stack for instruction PUSH. b) What are the two types of memory address decoding ? Explain the advantages and the disadvantages of each type. c) Discuss various addressing modes of 8085 with suitable examples. d) Write a program to multiply two BCD numbers. e) Explain the control and status signals of 8085. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 392 -4- *SLRPC392* SECTION II 4. Solve any three : (3×8=24) a) With suitable hardware and program explain power factor measurement using 8085. b) Draw and explain internal block diagram of 8259. c) Draw and explain interfacing of 8251 with 8085. Assume suitable addresses. d) Draw interfacing of ADC 0808 with 8085. Assume suitable addresses. For this hardware, write a program to read 8 bit data from ADC. 5. Solve any four : (4×4=16) a) With suitable timing diagram explain Mode 1 of 8254. b) Explain dual slope ADC. c) What is cascade mode of 8259 ? Justify its use. d) With suitable example explain BSR mode of 8255. e) Explain serial data communication using SIM and RIM instructions. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC394* SLR-PC – 394 Seat No. Set A T.E. (E&E) (Part – I) (New) Examination, 2015 CONTROL SYSTEM – I Day and Date : Saturday, 9-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Programmable calculator is not allowed. 2) Solve five full questions including MCQ. 3) Marks are indicated to the right of question. 4) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Multiple Choice Questions : (1×20=20) 1) A control system in which the control action is somehow dependent on the output is known as a) Closed loop system b) Semiclosed loop system c) Open system d) None of the above 2) In closed loop control system, with positive value of feedback gain the overall gain of the system will a) decrease b) increase c) be unaffected d) any of the above 3) Which of the following statements is not necessarily correct for open control system ? a) Input command is the sole factor responsible for providing the control action b) Presence of non-linearities causes malfunctioning c) Less expensive d) Generally free from problems of non-linearities 4) In open loop system a) the control action depends on the size of the system b) the control action depends on system variables c) the control action depends on the input signal d) the control action is independent of the output 5) The initial response when the output is not equal to input is called a) Transient response b) Error response c) Dynamic response d) Either of the above 6) ______is a part of the human temperature control system. a) Digestive system b) Perspiration system c) Ear d) Leg movement P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 394 -2- *SLRPC394* 7) ______is an open loop control system. a) Ward Leonard control b) Field controlled D.C. motor c) Stroboscope d) Metadyne 8) Transfer function of a system is used to calculate which of the following ? a) The order of the system b) The time constant c) The output for any given input d) The steady state gain 9) On which of the following factors does the sensitivity of a closed loop system to gain changes and load disturbances depend ? a) Frequency b) Loop gain c) Forward gain d) All of the above 10) The second derivative input signals modify which of the following ? a) The time constant of the system b) Damping of the system c) The gain of the system d) The time constant and suppress the oscillations 11) Which of the following statements is correct for a system with gain margin close to unity or a phase margin close to zero ? a) The system is relatively stable b) The system is highly stable c) The system is highly oscillatory d) None of the above 12) Due to which of the following reasons excessive bond width in control systems should be avoided ? a) It leads to slow speed of response b) It leads to low relative stability c) Noise is proportional to band width d) None of the above 13) A controller, essentially, is a a) sensor b) clipper c) comparator d) amplifier 14) The viscous friction co-efficient, in force-voltage analogy, is analogous to a) charge b) resistance c) reciprocal of inductance d) reciprocal of conductance 15) The transient response of a system is mainly due to a) inertia forces b) internal forces c) stored energy d) friction 16) From which of the following transfer function can be obtained ? a) Signal flow graph b) Analogous table c) Output-input ratio d) Standard block system 17) By which of the following the system response can be tested better ? a) Ramp input signal b) Sinusoidal input signal c) Unit impulse input signal d) Exponentially decaying signal 18) The frequency and time domain are related through which of the following ? a) Laplace Transform and Fourier Integral b) Laplace Transform c) Fourier Integral d) Either (b) or (c) 19) The type 2 system has ______at the origin. a) no net pole b) net pole c) simple pole d) two poles 20) Addition of zeros in transfer function causes which of the following ? a) Lead compensation b) Lag-compensation c) Lead-lag compensation d) None of the above ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC394* -3- SLR-PC – 394 Seat No. T.E. (E&E) (Part – I) (New) Examination, 2015 CONTROL SYSTEM – I Day and Date : Saturday, 9-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Programmable calculator is not allowed. 2) Solve five full questions including MCQ. 3) Marks are indicated to the right of question. SECTION – I 2. Solve any four : (4×5=20) a) Explain Mason’s Gain Formula. b) Draw mechanical model and write differential equations for fig. (a). Fig. a c) For system below fig. b find wn and wd and tp. Fig. b C(s) 2s + 5 d) Determine stability of system whose overall T/F is = . R(s) s5 + 1.5s4 + 2s3 + 4s2 + 5s + 10 How many roots with positive real part ? e) Obtain unit step response of a unity feedback system whose open loop T/F is 4 G(s) = . s(s + 5) Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 394 -4- *SLRPC394* 3. a) Draw the signal flow graph for a system whose block diagram is as shown in fig. c and find CIR. (2×10=20) Fig. c b) Derive time response of a 2nd order CLCS subjected to unit step i/p. OR b) Sketch the root locus for the open loop T/F of a unity feedback control system given k below G(s) = s(s + 1) (s + 3) SECTION – II 4. Solve any four : (4×5=20) a) Explain phase lead, phase lag compensation. b) Explain PI, PD controller. c) Check observability of system below x1 = x2 x2 = − 2x1 − 3x2 + 4 and y = x1 + x2 d) Explain GM and PM. ⎡ 0 1 ⎤ e) Consider the vector matrix differential equation as x = ⎢ ⎥ x obtain state transition matrix. ⎣− 2 − 3 ⎦ 5. Solve any two : (2×10=20) a) For n/w below determine state model. 4 b) Construct Bode plot for system having open loop T/F G(s) H(s) = . s(1+ 0.5s) (1+ 0.08s) Find : i) GM ii) PM iii) Closed loop stability. c) Explain procedure to sketch polar plot. ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC396* SLR-PC – 396 Seat No. Set A T.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 POWER ELECTRONICS (Old) Day and Date : Thursday, 14-5-2015 Total Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1) All questions are compulsory. 2) Assume the suitable data wherever necessary. 3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : (1×20=20) 1) In a thyristor, anode current is made up of a) electrons only b) electrons or holes c) electron and holes d) none of these 2) In a thyristor, ratio of latching current to holding current is a) 0.4 b) 1.0 c) 2.5 d) None of these 3) A SCR is a ______switch. a) Two directional b) unidirectional c) Three-directional d) Four-directional 4) The uncontrolled electronic switch employed in power-electronic converters is a) Thyristor b) Bipolar junction transistor c) Diode d) MOSFET 5) Which semiconductor power device out of the following is not a current triggered device ? a) Thyristor b) GTO c) Triac d) MOSFET 6) The MOSFET switch in its on-state may be considered equivalent to a) Resistor b) Inductor c) Capacitor d) Battery 7) The major disadvantages of switch – mode power supplies. a) Greater weight b) Large size c) Poor efficiency d) None of these 8) In a three-phase full converter, the six SCR’s are fired at intervals of a) 30° b) 60° c) 90° d) 120° 9) In a single-phase full-wave SCR circuit with R, L load a) Power is delivered to the source for delay angles of less than 90° b) The SCR changes from inverter to converter at a = 90° c) The negative dc voltage is maximum at a = 10° d) To turn-off the thyristor, the maximum delay angle must be less than 10° P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 396 -2- *SLRPC396* 10) In a thyristor dc chopper, which type of commutation results in best performance ? a) Voltage commutation b) Current commutation c) Load commutation d) Supply commutation 11) In dc chopper, the load voltage is governed by a) Number of thyristors used in the circuit b) Duty cycle of the circuit c) DC voltage applied to circuit d) None of these 12) In dc choppers, for periodic time T, the output voltage can be controlled by FM by varying a) T keeping Ton constant b) Ton keeping T constant c) Toff keeping T constant d) T keeping Toff constant 13) In PWM method of controlling the average output voltage in a chopper the on- time is varied but the chopping frequency is a) Varied b) Kept constant c) Either of these d) None 14) A single phase voltage-source-square wave inverter feeds pure inductive load. The waveform of the load current will be a) Sinusoidal b) Rectangular c) Trapezoidal d) Triangular 15) In voltage source inverters a) Load voltage waveform V0 depends on load impedance Z, whereas load current waveform i0 does not depend on Z b) Both V0 and i0 depend on Z c) V0 does not depend on Z whereas i0 depends on Z d) None of these 16) In resonant pulse inverters a) dc output voltage variation is wide b) the frequency is low c) output voltage is never sinusoidal d) dc saturation of transformer core is minimized 17) The cycloconverter require natural or forced commutation as under a) Natural commutation in both step-up and step down cycloconverter b) Forced commutation in both step-up and step-down cycloconverter c) Forced commutation in step-up cycloconverter d) Forced commutation in step-down cycloconverter 18) Three-phase to three-phase cycloconverter employing 18 SCRs and 36 SCRs have the same voltage and current ratings for their component thyristors. The ratio of VA rating of 36 SCR device to that of 18 SCR device is a) 1/2 b) 1 c) 2 d) 4 19) The number of SCRs required for single phase to single phase cycloconverter of the midpoint type and for three phase to three phase type cycloconverter are respectively a) 4, 6 b) 8, 18 c) 4, 18 d) 4, 36 20) A dc chopper has per unit ripple maximum when duty cycle is a) 0.0 b) 0.2 c) 0.5 d) 0.9 ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC396* -3- SLR-PC – 396 Seat No. T.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 POWER ELECTRONICS (Old) Day and Date : Thursday, 14-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Assume suitable data wherever required. SECTION – I 2. Attempt any four of following : (5×4=20) 1) What is auxiliary commutation of SCR ? Explain it. 2) Explain the need of UPS, also state main applications of UPS. 3) With the help of circuit diagram explain the working of buck converter. 4) With the help of neat circuit diagram and waveform explain the working of midpoint type single phase, full wave controlled rectifier with R load. 5) Explain the various performance parameters of phase controlled rectifiers. 3. Attempt any two of following : (10×2=20) 1) What are power diodes ? Explain how the power diodes are distinguished by ordinary diodes ? Also state their ratings. 2) Explain the construction and working of SCR with the help of its V-I characteristics. 3) A single phase fully controlled bridge rectifier is connected to 230 V, 50 Hz ac supply and delivering a load current of 5 A. the delay angle is 30°. Calculate : a) Average output power b) active and reactive power c) Ripple factor of output voltage d) input power factor e) r.m.s. value of the fundamental component of input current. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 396 -4- *SLRPC396* SECTION – II 4. Attempt any four of following : (5×4=20) 1) Explain the in- phase and phase shifted operation of multiphase chopper in detail. 2) What are the various voltage control methods of chopper ? Explain. 3) With neat diagram explain the working of single phase to single phase midpoint type, step up cycloconverter with R load. 4) Draw and explain series inverter in detail. 5) A step down chopper has a resistive load of R = 10 ohm and input voltage = 200 V. When he chopper remains on, its voltage drop is 2 V. The chopper frequency is 1 KHz. If the duty cycle is 50%, determine a) average output voltage b) RMS output voltage and c) Chopper efficiency. 5. Attempt any two of following : (10×2=20) 1) Discuss the principle of working of 3 phase bridge inverter with appropriate waveform and circuit diagram for 120 degree conduction mode. 2) With neat diagram explain the working of three phase to three phase, cycloconverter. 3) A single phase bridge inverter has a resistance of 2.5 ohm and DC input voltage is 50 V. Determine : a) The RMS output voltage at the fundamental frequency, b) output power, c) THD, d) PIV. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC397* SLR-PC – 397 Seat No. Set A T.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 ELECTRONIC COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING (Old) Day and Date : Saturday, 16-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. 3) All questions are compulsory. 4) Use of datasheets are allowed. 5) If necessary, assume suitable data. 6) Figure to right indicates full marks. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct option : 1) Image frequency in superheterodyne receiver A superheterodyne radio receiver with an intermediate frequency of 455 KHz is tuned to a station operating at 1200 KHz. The associated image frequency is ______KHz. a) 1200 b) 2110 c) 1100 d) 455 2) For attenuation of high frequencies we should use a) shunt capacitance b) series capacitance c) inductance d) resistance 3) In FM signal with a modulation index mf is passed through a frequency tripler. The wave in the output of the tripler will have a modulation index of a) mf b) 3mf c) mf /3 d) mf /9 4) A 400 W carrier is amplitude modulated with m = 0.75. The total power in AM is a) 400W b) 512W c) 588W d) 650W 5) Which of the following is the indirect way of FM generation ? a) Reactance bipolar transistor modulator b) Reactance FM modulator c) Varactor diode modulator d) Armstrong modulator 6) Video signals are transmitted through a) amplitude modulation b) frequency modulation c) either amplitude or frequency modulation d) neither amplitude nor frequency modulation 7) Amplitude modulation is a ______process. a) Multiplication b) Division c) Sum d) Difference 8) The minimum sampling rate is called ______a) Data rate b) Nyquist rate c) Symbol rate d) None of the above P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 397 -2- *SLRPC397* 9) The pulse code modulation PCM is a technique which transforms an analogue telephone circuit into a digital signal, and involves three consecutive processes. a) sampling encoding and justification b) sampling, quantization and encoding c) quantization encoding and justification d) sampling quantization and justification 10) The failure density function, f(t) is used to give the probability of failure during an interval of time. It is known as ______a) Probability density distribution b) Cumulative density distribution c) Cumulative probability distribution d) Failure probability distribution 11) Small step-size in Delta modulation may lead to a) granular noise b) slope overload c) poor compression ratio d) high compression ratio 12) Which multiplexing technique transmits analog signals ? a) FDM b) TDM c) WDM d) a) and c) 13) If the Hamming distance between a data word and the corresponding codeword is three, there are ______bits in error. a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) none of above 14) Checksums use ______arithmetic. a) wo’s complement arithmetic. This is the correct answer b) one’s complement arithmetic c) either a) or b) d) none of the above 15) What is the basis of term codec ? a) contraction of coder-decoder b) core digital encryption c) cooperative decryption d) none 16) Communication is a process of a) transfer of information b) transfer of energy c) transfer of channel d) none of these 17) Analog signal varies with a) sampling time b) time continuously c) sampling frequency d) none of these 18) Modulating signal has a) low frequency b) low modulation c) high frequency d) none of these 19) fc + fm is a) upper band frequency b) lower band frequency c) mid band frequency d) none of these 20) Frequency modulation has a) one carrier b) one carrier with two side band frequencies c) one carrier with infinite frequencies d) none of these ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC397* -3- SLR-PC – 397 Seat No. T.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 ELECTRONIC COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING (Old) Day and Date : Saturday, 16-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Use of datasheets are allowed. 3) If necessary, assume suitable data. 4) Figure to right indicates full marks. SECTION – I 2. Attempt any four : (4×5=20) a) Define signal. Explain the different operations done on the signals. b) What are different types of SSB generation ? Explain any one in detail. c) What are types of AM receiver ? Explain any one in detail. d) Explain Armstrong FM generation model in detail. e) Explain electronic communication system. Also state the applications of communication system. 3. Attempt any two : (2×10=20) a) With noise triangle show that frequency modulation is more immune to noise than AM and PM. b) Explain the Pre-emphasis and De-emphasis in detail. c) Define Amplitude modulation with modulated waveform. Derive mathematical expression for AM in time domain. Also draw amplitude waveform for following conditions : 1) M > 1 2) M = 1 3) M < 1. SECTION – II 4. Attempt any four : (4×5=20) a) A bit word 1011 is to be transmitted. Construct the even parity seven bit Hamming code for this data. b) Define probability. A family has two children. What is the probability that both of them are boys ? Given that at least one of them is a boy. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 397 -4- *SLRPC397* c) Explain the following : 1) Slope overload distortion 2) Granular noise. d) Explain Adaptive delta modulation in detail. e) Describe M-ary communication in detail. 5. Attempt any two : (2×10=20) a) Write a short note on : 1) Power spectral density 2) Stationary process 3) Slope overload distortion 4) Autocorrelation. b) Define multiplexing. What is the necessity of multiplexing ? Explain TDM in detail. c) Define sampling theorem with its waveform. When aliasing effect occur on signal and how to minimize it ? ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC398* SLR-PC 398 e a t S Set A N o . T.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015 POWER SYSTEM I Day and Date : Tuesday, 19-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Figure to the right indicates maximum marks. 3) Assumes the suitable data wherever necessary. 4) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : (20×1=20) 1) For improving life, steel poles are galvanized. Galvanizing is the process of applying a layer of a) Paint b) Varnish c) Tar coal d) Zinc 2) Which of the following is reduced due to the use of bundled conductors ? a) Capacitance of the circuit b) Inductance of the circuit c) Power loss due to corona d) All of the above 3) Feeders are designed mainly from the point of view of a) Current carrying capacity b) Voltage drop in it c) Operating voltage d) Operating frequency 4) The advantage of corona is that a) Improves voltage regulation b) Works as safety valves for surges c) Improves power factor in the system d) No advantage 5) A wire is placed on the top of a transmission line acts as a) acts as a phase wire b) acts as neutral c) acts as a transmission wire d) acts as ground wire 6) The bundling of conductors is done primarily to a) Reduce reactance b) Increase reactance c) Increase ratio interference d) Reduce radio interference 7) Which material is used for manufacturing of ground wire ? a) Aluminium b) Steel wire c) Cast iron d) Galvanized steel 8) The effective resistance of a conductor will be the same as ohmic resistance when a) Current is in true sine wave form b) Voltage is low c) Power factor is unity d) Current is uniformly distributed in the conductor cross-section P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 398 -2- *SLRPC398* 9) When alternating current passes through a conductor a) It remains uniformly distributed throughout the section of conductor b) Portion of conductor near the surface carries more current as compared to the core c) Portion of conductor neat the surface carries less current as compared to the core d) Entire current passes through the core of the conductor 10) Skin effect depends on a) Size of the conductor b) Frequency of the current c) Resistivity of the conductor material d) All of the above 11) The power transmitted will be maximum when a) Sending end voltage is more b) Receiving end voltage is more c) Reactance is high d) Corona losses are least 12) In case the height of transmission tower is increased a) The line capacitance and inductance will not change b) The line capacitance will decrease but line inductance will decrease c) The line capacitance will decrease and line inductance will increase d) The line capacitance will decrease but line inductance will remain unaltered 13) A relay used on short transmission lines is a) Reactance relay b) Mhos relay c) Impedance relay d) None of the above 14) Electrical Corona is a phenomenon in which a) Partial breakdown of air takes place between the conductors b) Complete breakdown of air takes place between the conductors c) Sparking between the light d) Large noise produced 15) The disadvantage of constant voltage transmission is a) Short circuit current of the system is increased b) Load power factor in heavy loads c) Large conductor area is required for same power transmission d) All of the above 16) When the power factor in the transmission line is leading, which device is employed at substation to reduce the power factor a) Capacitor b) Reactor c) Synchronous condenser d) None of the above 17) Corona usually occurs when the electrostatic stress in the air around the conductor succeeds a) 30 kV (Maximum value)/cm b) 22 kV (maximum value)/cm c) 11 kV (rms value)/cm d) 6.6 kv (rms value)/cm 18) A cable carrying alternating current has a) Hysteresis losses only b) Hysteresis and leakage losses only c) Hysteresis, leakage and copper losses only d) Hysteresis, leakage and copper and friction losses 19) In order to improve the power factor which device should be connected to the power system a) Series capacitor b) Shunt capacitor c) Series inductor d) Shunt inductor 20) In single core cables armouring is not done to a) Avoid excessive sheath losses b) Make it flexible c) Either of the above d) None of the above ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC398* -3- SLR-PC 398 S e a t N o . T.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015 POWER SYSTEM I Day and Date : Tuesday, 19-5-2015 Max. Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1) All question are compulsory. 2) Figure to the right indicates maximum marks. 3) Assume the suitable data wherever necessary. SECTION I 2. Solve any four : (5×4=20) 1) Explain comparisons between DC and AC system. 2) Explain the concept of mutual GMD. 3) Explain spacing and span length in transmission line. 4) State the desirable properties of line supports. 5) A 3-phase, 50 Hz, 132 KV overhead line has conductors is placed in a horizontal plane 4m apart. Conductor diameter is 2 cm. If the line length is 100 km, calculate the charging current per phase assuming complete transposition. 3. Solve any two : (10×2=20) 1) Explain briefly : a) Choice of working voltage for transmission line. b) Economic size of line conductor. 2) An overhead transmission line conductor having a parabolic configuration weights 1.925 kg per meter of length. The area of cross-section of the conductor is 2.2 cm2 and ultimate strength is 8000 kg/cm2. The supports are 600 m apart having 15 m difference of level. Calculate the sag of from the taller of the two supports which must be allowed so that the factor of safety shall be 5. Assume that ice load is 1 kg per meter run and there is no wind pressure. 3) Explain inductance of 3-phase overhead line in following cases. i) Symmetrical spacing. ii) Unsymmetrical spacing. SECTION II 4. Solve any four : (5×4=20) 1) What is corona ? Explain the factors affecting corona. 2) With neat diagram explain belted type underground cable. 3) Determine the generalised constants for medium transmission line using nominal method. 4) Explain dielectric stress in a single core cable. 5) Discuss the disadvantages of low power factor. 5. Solve any two : (10×2=20) 1) Explain various types of insulators with neat diagram. 2) A 3-phase, 50 Hz 150 km line has a resistance, inductive reactance and capacitive shunt 6 admittance of 0.1 , 0.5 and 3 × 10 Siemen per km per phase. If the line delivers 50 MW at 110 KV and 0.8 power factor lagging, determine the sending end voltage and current. Assume a nominal circuit for the line. 3) Explain the various insulating material used for construction of cables. Set A ______ www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC399* SLR-PC 399 e a t S Set A N o . T.E. (Electrical and Electronics) (Part II) Examination, 2015 NON-LINEAR AND DIGITAL CONTROL SYSTEM (Old) Day and Date : Thursday, 21-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Assume suitable data, if necessary. 3) Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed. 4) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : (20×1=20) 1) The steady state error of a control system can be reduced by increasing a) gain constant of the system b) time constant of the system c) both gain and time constant of system d) none of these 2) Usually a lag network for compensation consist of a) R element b) R and L elements c) R and C elements d) R, L and C elements 3) Which of the following is used to increase the band width of a control system ? a) Phase lag compensator b) Phase lead compensator c) Phase lag-lead compensator d) All of these 1 0 . 5 4) The transfer function is s . It represents a 1 s a) lead network b) lag network c) lag-lead network d) proportional controller 5) A phase lag-lead network introduces in the output a) lag at all frequencies b) lag at high frequencies and lead at low frequencies c) lag at low frequencies and lead at high frequencies d) none of the above 6) In a control system integral error compensation ______steady state error. a) increase b) minimizes c) does not have any effect d) none of the above 7) Addition of zero a) has no effect on speed of response b) speeds up the response c) slows down the response d) none of the above 8) With the knowledge of state space representation the transfer function of the system a) can be determined partly b) can be determined completely c) cannot be determined d) none of the above P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 399 -2- *SLRPC399* 9) The state variable description of a linear autonomous system is, = AX, where X is the two : ) dimensional state vector and A is the system matrix given by . The poles of the system are located at a) j2 and +j2 b) +2 and +2 c) 2 and +2 d) 2 and 2 10) The state variable approach can be applied to ______systems(s). a) time variant b) non-linear c) linear and time-invariant d) all of the above 11) Which of the following is the nonlinear system ? a) temperature controlled smelting furnace b) servomotor working in saturation c) Automatic voltage stabilizers d) all of the above 12) In nonlinear control system limit cycle is self-sustained oscillations of a) fixed frequency b) variable frequency c) variable amplitude d) fixed frequency and amplitude 13) For which of the following reasons nonlinearities are introduced ? a) To simplify the system b) to achieve special characteristics c) both a and b d) none of the above 14) A network has a pole at s = 1 and a zero at s = 2. If this network is excited by sinusoidal input the output a) leads the input b) lags the input c) is in phase with input d) decays exponentially to zero 15) The information contained in a signal is preserved in the sampled version if 0 . 5 0 . 1 a) b) c) d) s m s m s m s m 16) The characteristic polynomial of a discrete time system is given by z2 + z + a. For what value of a is the system stable ? a) 2 b) 0.5 c) 1.5 d) 0.5 17) For a unity feedback system, the origin of the s-plane is mapped in the z-plane by transformation z = esT to which one of the following ? a) origin b) 1 + j0 c) 1 + j0 d) 0 + j1 18) Leading compensation network is a) equalizer b) high pass filter c) low pass filter d) none of these 19) The term backlash is associated with a) Servomotors b) Induction relays c) Gear trains d) None of these 20) Isocline method is used for which one of the following ? a) Design of nonlinear system b) Construction of root loci of nonlinear system c) Construction of phase trajectories of NL systems d) Stability analysis of NL systems ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC399* -3- SLR-PC 399 S e a t N o . T.E. (Electrical and Electronics) (Part II) Examination, 2015 NON-LINEAR AND DIGITAL CONTROL SYSTEM (Old) Day and Date : Thursday, 21-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Assume suitable data, if necessary. 3) Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed. SECTION I 2. Solve any four : (5×4=20) a) Derive the realization of lag compensator circuit. b) Explain the procedure to design lead compensator using root locus technique. c) Write the design procedure for the design of lead compensator using Bode plot. d) Find the eigen values . ) $ $ N N K J + e) Find the output response of the system given by and N ! N to unit step input with x(0) = [1 1]. K G ( s 3. a) The controlled plant of a unity feedback control system is ) . It is specified that s ( s 1 0 ) velocity error constant of the system be equal to 20, while the damping ratio of the dominant roots be 0.707. Design a suitable lag compensator to meet the specifications. 10 K G ( s b) Design a lead compensator for a unity feedback system with OLTF ) to satisfy s ( s 1 ) ( s 5 ) the following specifications (a) Kv 50 (b) Phase Margin 20°. 10 OR b) Find the State transition matrix (t) using Laplace Transform method. N N . 10 N ! N Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 399 -4- *SLRPC399* SECTION II 4. Solve any four : (5×4=20) a) Explain the jump resonance phenomenon in nonlinear control system. b) Explain phase plane method for construction of phase trajectories. c) Derive the pulse transfer function of a closed loop system. z 0 . 4 F ( Z ) d) Determine the inverse z-transform of z-domain function . z z 2 z 4 F ( Z ) e) Determine the inverse z-transform of z-domain function . ( z 1 ) ( z 2 ) 5. Solve any two : (10×2=20) a) Construct a phase trajectory by delta method for a nonlinear system represented by the differential x 4 | x | x 4 x . Choose the initial conditions as x(0) = 1.0 and (0) = 0. equation, 0 b) Explain the steady state error analysis for discrete time control systems. c) What is stability criterion for sampled data control system ? Explain any one method for stability in detail. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC4* SLR-PC – 4 Seat Set No. A F.E. (Part – I) (CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2015 APPLIED MECHANICS Day and Date : Friday, 8-5-2015 Max. Marks : 70 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) In Section I, Q. 2 is compulsory, solve any two questions out of remaining questions. 2) In Section II Q. 6 is compulsory. Solve any two questions. 3) Use of non programmable calculator is allowed. 4) Assume suitable data if required. 5) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer book Page No. 3. 6) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 14 1. Multiple choice questions : 1) If two forces F1 and F2 are acting on a particle and if θ = 180°, then the resultant of the two forces is given by 1 2 2 ()2 + ( )2 a) F1 + F2 b) F1 – F2 c) (F1) + (F2) d) F1 F2 2) A moment is a 1 a) Free vector b) Fixed vector 3) In case of fixed support number of reaction components are 1 a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 4) The frictional force depend upon 1 a) Area of contact between two surface b) Roughness of surface c) Both a) and b) 5) A beam 10 m long carries uniformly distributed load of 8 kN/m and supported at its two ends reaction at each end is 2 a) 8 kN b) 80 kN c) 40 kN d) 4 kN 6) A framed structure is imperfect, if the number of members are ______2j – 3. 1 a) equal to b) less than c) greater than d) either b) or c) P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 4 -2- *SLRPC4* 7) Which of the following is a scalar quantity ? 1 a) force b) speed c) velocity d) acceleration 8) The particle is moving along a curved path is called as 1 a) rectilinear motion b) curvilinear motion c) both a) and b) 9) The velocity of a particle in projectile motion at the top point of its path is 1 a) zero b) equal to initial velocity of projection c) equal to vertical component of velocity of projection d) equal to horizontal component of initial velocity of projection 10) A force can not do any work in a direction at ______to itself. 1 a) parallel b) perpendicular c) both a) and b) c) none 11) Unit of impulse of force is ______1 a) N b) Nm c) N/s d) Ns 12) The potential energy of mass(m) raised through a height(h) meters is 1 mh2 mg a) mgh b) mh c) d) 2 h 13) The force by which the body is attracted towards the centre of the earth is called 1 a) impulsive force b) mass c) weight d) momentum ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC4* -3- SLR-PC – 4 Seat No. F.E. (Part – I) (CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2015 APPLIED MECHANICS Day and Date : Friday, 8-5-2015 Marks : 56 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) In Section I, Q. 2 is compulsory, solve any two questions out of remaining questions. 2) In Section II Q. 6 is compulsory. Solve any two questions. 3) Use of non programmable calculator is allowed. 4) Assume suitable data if required. SECTION – I 2. a) An equilateral triangle of 1m side is acted upon by forces as shown in Fig. 2. Find magnitude, direction and position of resultant about the vertex of triangle. 7 Fig. 2 b) State characteristics of couple. 3 3. a) State limitations of Lami’s theorem. 2 b) Determine the reactions at A, C and D due to the forces acting on the beam as show in Fig. 3. 7 Fig. 3 4. a) State assumptions in the truss analysis. 2 b) Determine the forces in all members in a truss shown in Fig. 4. 7 Fig. 4 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 4 -4- *SLRPC4* 5. a) Define : i) Centroid ii) Moment of inertia. 2 b) Fig. 5 Determine the moment of inertia about the centroidal horizontal axis for the shown Fig. 5. 7 SECTION – II 6. a) A ball is dropped from a top of a tower 30 m high. At the same instant a second ball is thrown upward from the ground with an initial velocity of 15m/sec. when and where do they pass and with what velocity ? 8 b) Define : i) Horizontal range ii) Trajectory. 2 7. a) The rotation of a fly wheel is governed by the equation w = 3t2 – 2t + 2 where ‘w’ is radian per second and ‘t’ is in second. After one second from start the angular displacement was 4 rad. Determine the angular displacement, angular velocity, and angular acceleration when t = 3 sec. 7 b) Distinguish between rectilinear motion and curvilinear motion. 2 8. a) Determine the tension in the string and acceleration of block A and B weighing 1500 N and 500 N connected by an inextensible string as shown in Fig. 8. Assume pulleys as frictionless and weightless. 7 Fig. 8 b) State work energy principle. 2 9. a) A block weighing 2500 N rest. on a level horizontal plane for which coefficient of friction is 0.20. This block is pulled by a force of 1000 N acting at an angle of 30° to the horizontal. Find the velocity of the block after it moves 30 m starting from rest. If the force of 1000 N is then removed, how much further will it move ? 7 b) Define : i) Coefficient of restitution. 2 Fig. 9 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC40* SLR-PC – 40 Seat No. Set A T.E. (Civil) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING – II (Old) Day and Date : Saturday, 23-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct alternative : (20×1=20) 1) Maximum permissible speed on broad guage is a) 100 kmph b) 75 kmph c) 65 kmph d) 85 kmph 2) Which of the following is not rolling stock ? a) Locomotives b) Coaches c) Wagons d) Rails 3) Guage of the railway track is a) Clear inner distance between the top flanges of rails b) C/c distance between two rails c) Distance between outer face of the top flange of two rails d) None of the above 4) Wear of rails on top or head of rail is a) Burrs b) Corrosion c) Battered d) None of the above 5) The wear of rails on sharp curve is considerably reduced by introducing a a) Check rail b) Roaring rail c) Both a and b d) None of the above 6) The prescribed permissible limit of wear of rail in India is a) 1% of weight of rail b) 2% of weight of rail c) 3% of weight of rail d) 5% of weight of rail 7) The longitudinal movement of rails in track is termed as a) Creep b) Roaring rails c) Cutting of rails d) Tilting of rails 8) Factors affecting super elevation a) Frictional resistance b) Coning of wheels and body of vehicle c) Weighted average d) All of the above P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 40 -2- *SLRPC40* 9) Last stage in packing operation of ballast is called as a) boxing b) racked c) dumping d) pushing 10) Expansion gap between the rails is calculated by formula a) αt b) Lαt c) Eαt d) Eαt2 11) Adjacent to the ends of runway the portion of paved area is provided called as a) Exit runway b) Loading appron c) Holding appron d) None of these 12) Fender is the cushion provided between the a) Ship and dock wall b) Jetties and ship c) Wharf and ship d) None of the above 13) Bea fort number for calm wind is a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3 14) Which of the following is not the wave formed due to major force as gravity force ? a) Deep sea waves b) Shallow water waves c) Translatory waves d) Ripples 15) When winds rotates round a centre of minimum barametric pressure is a) Cyclones b) Ripples c) Both a and b d) None of the above 16) A ship designed to carry containers is a) Lo-Loships b) Ro-Ro Cargo carriers c) DWT d) None of the above 17) ______harbour is protected on sides by head lands and requires man made protection only to the entrance. a) Natural harbour b) Semi-natural harbour c) Artificial harbour d) None of the above 18) The portion lying between the harbour entrance and harbour basin is called a) approach channel b) inner channel c) both a and b d) none of the above 19) ______is structure located at the entrance of a locked basin or along side a wharf or a pier. a) Dolphin b) Breakwater c) Drift d) None of the above 20) The logical approach of the improvement of existing air port can be carried out by a) Capacity of existing port and traffic forecast b) Improving existing capacity c) Traffic forecast d) All of the above ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC40* -3- SLR-PC – 40 Seat No. T.E. (Civil) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING – II (Old) Day and Date : Saturday, 23-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instruction : All questions are compulsory. 2. Answer any three (8 marks each) : a) Explain wear of rails. b) A six degree curve branches off from a 3° main curve in an opposite direction in the layout of a B-G yard. If the speed on the branch line is restricted to 35 kmph, determine speed on main line. Assume permissible deficiency in cant as 075 mm. 1 c) Calculate various leads for a B-G. turnout of crossing number 1 in 8 with 2 heel divergence as 114.30 mm. d) Explain track stresses. e) Discuss the factors that will be considered for fixing up a site for railway station. 3. Answer any three (8 marks each) : A) An airport is proposed at an elevation of 400 m above MSL. The mean of maximum and mean of average daily temperatures of hottest month are 44.8°C and 26.2°C resp. The maximum elevation difference along the proposed profile of runway is 6.3 m. If the basic length of runway is 1260 m determine actual length of runway to be provided. B) Write in short the factors influencing location of an airport. C) Comment on use of “Wind Rose diagram”. D) Discuss the 3 factors that affects size of an apron. E) Explain flight and physical characteristics of a helicopter. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 40 -4- *SLRPC40* 4. Answer any three (8 marks each) : a) Explain littoral Drift. b) Explain : 1) DWT 2) GRT 3) NRT 4) DT c) Explain with sketch Rubble Bound Breakwater. d) Explain 3 principal components of floating mooring. e) Write a detail note on slip way. 5. Answer any one (8 marks) : a) Write down design consideration for pipelines used for transporting hydro-carbons. b) Discuss “Ballastless track” for railway. ———————— Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC400* SLR-PC – 400 Seat No. Set A T.E. (Part – II) (Electrical & Electronics Engg.) Examination, 2015 MICROCONTROLLER AND ITS APPLICATIONS (Old) Day and Date : Saturday, 23-5-2015 Total Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Attempt all MCQs. (20×1=20) 1) For direct addressing the only registers used are a) R0, R1 b) R2, R1 c) R3, R1 d) R6, R7 2) The SFR space of 8051 is ______H. a) 80-FF b) 00-1F c) 20-2F d) 30-7F 3) Which pin of port 3 is has an alternative function as write control signal for external data memory ? a) P3.8 b) P3.3 c) P3.6 d) P3.1 4) 8051 timer are ______bit wide. a)8 b)16 c)32 d)64 5) The 8051 can handle ______interrupt sources. a) 05 b) 03 c) 04 d) 06 6) MOV A, @R1 will a) copy R1 to the accumulator b) copy the accumulator to R1 c) copy the contents of memory whose address is in R1 to the accumulator d) copy accumulator to the contents of memory whose address is in R1 7) How many address lines are required to interface 2K memory ? a) 4 b) 8 c) 10 d) 11 8) The instruction ‘ADDC A, source’ places the sum in a) Source b) Carry c) Accumulator d) DPTR P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 400 -2- *SLRPC400* 9) The I/O ports that are used as address and data buses for external memory are a) Port 1 and 2 b) Port 1 and 3 c) Port 0 and 2 d) Port 0 and 3 10) In I2C ______and ______bus lines are required. a) Serial Data Line (SDL), Serial Address Line (SAL) b) Serial Address Line (SAL), Serial Clock Line (SCL) c) Serial Data Line (SDL), Serial Clock Line (SCL) d) Serial Data Address (SDA), Serial Power Line (SPL) 11) The contents of accumulator after this operation MOV A,#0BH ANL A,#2CH Will be a) 11010111 b) 11011010 c) 00001000 d) 00101000 12) In mode 2, the timer/counter rolls over when counter goes up to ______H. a) FFFF b) FF c) 00 d) 7F 13) DAC 0808 uses ______method of conversion. a) Binary weighted b) R/2R ladder c) Both a and b d) None of this 14) For expanding I/O Ports ______IC is used. a) 8253 b) 0808 c) 8255 d) 8031 15) To use multiprocessor mode ______SFR is used. a) SMOD b) SCON c) IE d) None of this 16) To latch information presented to LCD’s data pin is a) H-L pulse to R/W b) L-H pulse to R/W c) H-L pulse to E d) L-H pulse to E 17) In ACALL instruction the target address of subroutine must be within _____ KB. a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3 18) SPI uses ______topology. a) master, slave b) tree c) star d) mesh 19) Amongst the following ______bit ADC has better resolution. a) 4 b) 8 c) 12 d) 16 20) DAC 0808 is ______bit D/A convertor. a) 16 b) 32 c) 64 d) none of this ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC400* -3- SLR-PC – 400 Seat No. T.E. (Part – II) (Electrical & Electronics Engg.) Examination, 2015 MICROCONTROLLER AND ITS APPLICATIONS (Old) Day and Date : Saturday, 23-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Assume the suitable data whenever necessary. 2) Attempt any two questions from each Section. SECTION – I 2. Solve any four. (4×5=20) 1) Draw the 8-bit formats of TCON and TMOD registers and explain any one. 2) With suitable examples, explain various addressing modes of 8051. 3) Explain the structure of register banks in 8051 with diagram. 4) Describe the following instructions : a) MOV A,@DPTR + A b) CJNE A, 60H, rel c) ACALL, addr11 d) INC DPTR 5) Draw and explain the pin configuration of 8051. 3. Solve any two. (2×10=20) 1) Assuming XTAL = 11.0592MHZ, write a program to generate square wave of 50 HZ frequency on pin P2.4 of 8051. Select timer0 in mode1. 2) Draw and explain the architecture of 8051. 3) WAP to transfer a letter ‘Y’ serially at 9600 baud rate continuously and also to send a letter ‘N’ through port 0, which is connected to display device. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 400 -4- *SLRPC400* SECTION – II 4. Solve any four. (4×5=20) 1) Draw interfacing diagram of 8255 with 8051 and explain it. 2) Draw and explain SCON register of 8051. 3) Draw block diagram of LCD and explain the function of each pin. 4) Write an assembly language program to move 10 data bytes from source to destination. 5) Write about SPI and I 2C interfacing with 8051. 5. Solve any two. (2×10=20) 1) a) Mention RS232 standards and also explain RS232 handshaking signals of DB-9 pin configuration. b) Explain in detail asynchronous serial communication and data framing. 2) Interface DAC 0808 to 8051. Explain interfacing circuit and write a program to Generate i) Sine wave ii) Sawtooth. 3) Explain with block diagram application of microcontroller 8051 as temp. indicator and control. Explain software part using flow chart. ——————— Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC401* SLR-PC 401 e a t S Set A N o . T.E. (Electrical and Electronics) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015 POWER ELECTRONICS Day and Date : Thursday, 14-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Attempt all questions : (1×20=20) 1) A relaxation oscillator uses a) Tunnel diode b) UJT c) PIN diode d) Both tunnel diode and UJT 2) The number of leads in an SCR are a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 3) A triac is equivalent to a) two SCRs in series b) two SCRs in parallel c) one SCR and one diode d) one SCR and one transistor 4) A single phase fully controlled converter with RL load can operate in a) 4 quadrants b) 3 quadrants c) 2 quadrants d) 1 quadrant 5) The minimum gate current which can turn on SCR is called a) Trigger current b) Holding current c) Junction current d) Break over current 6) As base width of npn and pnp transistors reduce, the current gain increases and anode current of SCR a) increases b) decreases c) remains same d) none of the above 7) The angle at which SCR turns off is called a) On angle b) Conduction angle c) Firing angle d) Extinction angle 8) Which one is greater of the following ? a) Leaking current b) Holding current c) Latching current d) None P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 401 -2- *SLRPC401* 9) TRIAC and DIAC are a) bi-directional devices b) unidirectional devices c) none of these d) cant decide 10) IGBT is ______device. a) current controlled b) voltage controlled c) not controlled d) none 11) When UJT is used for triggering SCR, the wave shape of the voltage obtained from UJT is a a) sine wave b) saw tooth wave c) square wave d) triangular wave 12) Class F commutation of SCR means a) impulse commutation b) resonant pulse commutation c) complementary commutation d) natural commutation 13) The semi-conductor device which has bi-directional capability is a) RCT b) GTO c) IGBT d) None of these L C / I 14) The voltage gain for buck-boost regulator is given by L I k k 1 a) 1 b) c) d) 1 k 1 k 1 k 1 k 15) Semi-converter works in discontinuous mode when a) b) c) d) none $ $ $ 16) A chopper has Vs as source voltage, R as load resistance and as duty cycle, the r.m.s. value of the output voltage is I a) Vs b) c) 8 d) None of the above 8 I 17) In DC choppers, output voltage can be controlled in time-ratio control by changing a) Toff b) Ton c) T d) None of the above 18) A.C. voltage regulator changes a) Fixed A.C. into variable D.C. b) Fixed A.C. into variable A.C. c) Fixed D.C. into variable A.C. d) Fixed D.C. into variable D.C. 19) The line to line voltage output of a 120 degrees conduction of inverter having a) Step wave b) Square wave c) Quasi square d) Wave in 6 steps 20) The phase voltage output of a 180 degrees conduction of inverter having a) Step wave b) Square wave c) Quasi square d) Wave in 6 steps ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC401* -3- SLR-PC 401 S e a t N o . T.E. (Electrical and Electronics) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015 POWER ELECTRONICS Day and Date : Thursday, 14-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. SECTION I 2. Attempt any four questions : (4×5=20) a) Explain the working principle of enhancement n-channel MOSFET with V-I and transfer characteristics. b) A 1-phase half controlled bridge converter is to supply dc power to 20 ohms load. Converter is supplied by 230 V, 1-phase 50 Hz ac supply. If output voltage across load is to be 40% of maximum average output voltage then what will be the value of to be maintained ? c) How a TRIAC can be used as a bidirectional switch ? Explain it with V-I characteristics. d) Explain the operation of BJT with common emitter mode. e) Compare the 1-phase controlled bridge rectifier and 3-phase controlled bridge rectifier. 3. Attempt any two questions : (2×10=20) a) Draw and explain the 1-phase fully controlled bridge rectifier with RL load and freewheeling diode. Derive the load voltage, RMS output voltage, load current and RMS output current equations. b) Draw and explain the 3-phase half controlled bridge rectifier with RL load. Derive the load voltage and current equations. c) A single-phase full-converter, connected to 230 V, 50 Hz, is feeding a load R = 10 in series with a large inductance that makes the load current ripple free. For a firing angle of 45°, calculate i) average load voltage (VL) ii) average load current iii) RMS output voltage, RMS output current iv) FF, RF v) output DC power (PDC), Output AC Power (PAC). Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 401 -4- *SLRPC401* SECTION II 4. Attempt any four questions : (4×5=20) a) Draw and explain the operation of 1-phase half bridge inverter with RL load. Derive the RMS output voltage and fundamental frequency output voltage expressions. b) What are different types of choppers ? Explain Step up chopper with output voltage expression. c) Explain the control of voltage within the inverter using PWM techniques. d) Explain the control strategies of chopper to control the output voltage. e) The DC step down chopper has a resistive load of R = 10 ohms and the input DC voltage V = 200 V. When the chopper switch remains ON, its voltage drop is 2V and the chopping frequency is 1KHz. If the duty cycle is 30% determine : i) the average load voltage ii) RMS load voltage iii) FF iv) RF. 5. Attempt any two questions : (2×10=20) a) Draw a neat sketch and explain the 120 degrees conduction mode of 3-phase inverter and derive the line-line voltage and phase voltage expressions. b) Draw the neat wave form and explain the operation of Buck-Boost converter and derive the expression for peak to peak load voltage and load current. c) A single-phase half bridge inverter has a resistive load of R = 3 ohms and the DC input voltage V = 24 V. Determine (i) RMS output voltage at the fundamental frequency (ii) The output power (iii) The average and peak currents of each transistor (iv) The peak reverse blocking voltage of each transistor (v) The total harmonic distortion (vi) Distortion factor (vii) The harmonic factor and distortion factor at the lowest order harmonic. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC402* SLR-PC – 402 Seat No. Set A T.E. (Electrical & Electronics Engineering) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 ELECTRONICS COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING (New) Day and Date : Saturday, 16-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer. (20×1=20) 1) Modulating signal has a) low frequency b) low modulation c) high frequency d) none of these 2) Modulation index is a) Vm/Vc b) Vc/Vm c) Vm/Ic d) None of these 3) fc + fm is a) upper band frequency b) lower band frequency c) mid band frequency d) none of these 4) If the Hamming distance between a data word and the corresponding codeword is three, there are ______bits in error. a) 4 b) 3 c) 5 d) none of above 5) Which one of the following is the type of ‘superheterodyning’ ? a) Radio transmitter b) TV c) Radio receiver d) Radar 6) Optical detector is a) Diode b) PIN photo diode c) Transistor d) None of these 7) TRF is nothing but a) TV radio frequency b) Tuned radio frequency c) Tube radio frequency d) None of these 8) The maximum power in AM, when modulation index is a) 0 b) 0.5 c) 0.7 d) 1 P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 402 -2- *SLRPC402* 9) AFC is nothing but a) Audio frequency control b) Automatic frequency control c) Amplitude frequency control d) None of these 10) Image frequency in superheterodyne receiver A superheterodyne radio receiver with an intermediate frequency of 455 kHz is tuned to a station operating at 1200 KHz. The associated image frequency is ______kHz. a) 1200 b) 2110 c) 1100 d) 455 11) For attenuation of high frequencies we should use a) Shunt capacitance b) Series capacitance c) Inductance d) Resistance 12) In FM signal with a modulation index mf is passed through a frequency tripler. The wave in the output of the tripler will have a modulation index of a) mf b) 3 mf c) mf/3 d) mf/9 13) A 400 W carrier is amplitude modulated with m = 0.75. The total power in AM is a) 400 W b) 512 W c) 588 W d) 650 W 14) Which of the following is the indirect way of FM generation ? a) Reactance bipolar transistor modulator b) Armstrong modulator c) Varactor diode modulator d) Reactance FM modulator 15) Discrete signal is represented by a) coding b) modulation c) demodulation d) sequence of samples 16) Carrier signal has a) constant magnitude b) constant frequency c) variable frequency d) variable time 17) Sound signals in TV are a) amplitude modulated b) dc modulated c) frequency modulated d) a and c 18) Video signals in TV are a) amplitude modulated b) de modulated c) frequency modulated d) none of these 19) In optical communication, carrier is a) electromagnetic waves in optical frequency b) electromagnetic waves in maximum frequency c) electromagnetic waves in minimum frequency d) none of these 20) Which multiplexing technique transmits analog signals ? a) FDM b) TDM c) WDM d) a and c ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC402* -3- SLR-PC – 402 Seat No. T.E. (Electrical & Electronics Engineering) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 ELECTRONICS COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING (New) Day and Date : Saturday, 16-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) If necessary, assume suitable data. 3) Figure to right indicates full marks. 4) Use of datasheets are allowed. SECTION – I 2. Attempt any four : (4×5=20) a) Explain tuned radio frequency receiver in detail. b) A 400 watt (400-W) carrier is modulated to a depth of 75 percent. Calculate the total power in the modulation wave. c) Define amplitude modulation with modulated waveform. Derive mathematical expression for AM in time domain. d) Define signal. Explain the classification of signals. e) Explain electronic communication system. Also state the applications of communication system. 3. Attempt any two : (2×10=20) a) Define frequency modulation with modulated waveform. Also explain Armstrong FM generation method. b) A 50 MHz carrier signal having amplitude of 30 V is modulated by a 2KHz audio signal having an amplitude 15 V. Determine the modulation index and percent modulation. 1) Sketch the audio signal. 2) Sketch the carrier signal. 3) Construct the modulated wave. 4) What frequency would be there in a spectrum analysis of the modulated wave ? c) What are the characteristics of AM receiver ? Draw and explain super heterodyne receiver. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 402 -4- *SLRPC402* SECTION – II 4. Attempt any four : (4×5=20) a) Explain the following. 1) Slope overload distortion 2) Granular noise. b) Describe basic digital communication system. c) Define probability. A family has two children. What is the probability that both of them are boys ? Give that at least one of them is a boy. d) Explain the PCM transmitter in detail. e) Define multiplexing. Explain FDM in detail. 5. Attempt any two : (2×10=20) a) Define delta modulation. What is the need of delta modulation ? Explain DM transmitter with its limitations. b) Explain the following 1) Linear block code 2) Probability 3) Sampling theorem 4) Codeword. c) Define sampling theorem with its waveform. When aliasing effect occur on signal and how to minimize it ? ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC403* SLR-PC – 403 Seat No. Set A T.E. (E&E) (Part – II) (New) Examination, 2015 POWER SYSTEM ANALYSIS Day and Date : Tuesday, 19-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. MCQs. (20×1=20) 1) In a power system, each bus is associated with four quantities, namely 1) Real Power 2) Reactive Power 3) Bus Voltage 4) Phase Angle. For load flow solutions, among these four the number of quantities to be specified is a) any one b) any two c) any three d) all four 2) Zero sequence currents flows in the transmission line when there is a) double line to ground fault b) an over voltage in the line caused by charged loads c) a line to line fault d) a fault across all the three lines 3) The value of the expression 1 + α + α 2 is a) 0 b) 1 c) –1 d) 2 4) The magnitude of the fault current depends upon a) total impedance upto fault b) voltage at the fault point c) load current being supplied before occurrence of the fault d) both a) and b) 5) The stability of the power system is not affected by a) generator reactance b) line reactance c) line losses d) excitation of generator 6) For limiting short circuits we use a) reactors b) resistors c) capacitors d) any of these 7) Transient disturbances are caused by a) sudden load changes b) switching operations c) faults in the power systems d) all of the above 8) Base impedance of a power system is given as 2 Base MVA 2 (Base kV) Base kV (Base MVA) a) b) c) 2 d) (Base MVA) Base MVA (Base kV) Base kV P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 403 -2- *SLRPC403* 9) EMF source is present in ______sequence N/W. a) positive b) zero c) negative d) all of the above 10) An acceleration factor is used in load flow studies using G – S method to a) to increase the number of iterations b) to increase the speed of calculations c) both a) and b) d) none of above 11) The impedance per phase of 3-phase transmission line on a base of 100 MVA, 100 kV is 2 pu, the value of this impedance on a base of 400 MVA and 400 kV would be a) 1.5 pu b) 1.0 pu c) 0.5 pu d) 0.25 pu 12) Primitive Y matrix is a) singular b) diagonal c) sparse d) null 13) Load flow study is carried for a) load frequency control b) planning of power system c) fault calculations d) study of stability of the system 14) If a new line is added between the buses 2 and 3 in a system, the elements of Y Bus affected by addition of this line are a) Y22, Y33 b) Y22, Y23, Y32, Y33 c) Y23, Y32 d) None of the above 15) At PQ bus we assume ______and ______a) P and Q b) V and del c) P and del d) Q and del 16) The bus admittance matrix of the N/W show in the given figure, for which the marked parameters are per unit impedance is ⎡ 0.3 0.2⎤ ⎡0.3 0.2⎤ ⎡ 0.3 − 0.2⎤ ⎡15 − 5⎤ a) ⎣⎢− 0.2 0.2⎦⎥ b) ⎣⎢0.2 0.2⎦⎥ c) ⎣⎢− 0.2 0.2⎦⎥ d) ⎣⎢− 5 5⎦⎥ 17) The positive sequence current of the transmission line is a) always zero b) 1/3 of negative sequence current c) equal to the negative sequence current d) three time negative sequence current 18) The positive sequence component of voltage at the point of fault becomes zero when it is a a) 3 ph fault b) LL fault c) LLG fault d) LG fault 19) For a turbo alternator of 100 mva, inertia constant is 5. The value of H of alternator of 50 mva is a)8 b)12 c)10 d)15 20) For a stable operation the normal value of δ lies between a) 0 – 30 b) 0 – 90 c) 0 – 60 d) 0 – 180 ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC403* -3- SLR-PC – 403 Seat No. T.E. (E&E) (Part – II) (New) Examination, 2015 POWER SYSTEM ANALYSIS Day and Date : Tuesday, 19-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. SECTION – I 2. Attempt any 4 questions : (5 Marks Each) 1) Discuss various types of buses and their significance in detail. 2) Discuss step by step method of formation of Y bus. 3) A single phase transformer is rated 25 KVA, 1100/440 V, 50 Hz have leakage impedance of 0.06<78° referred to low voltage side. Using the transformer rating as base values determine per unit leakage impedance referred to high and low voltage side. 4) For the sample three bus system as shown in fig. build Z bus. 5) Describe various methods of improving stability. 3. Attempt the questions : (10 Marks Each) 1) Give an algorithm for a load flow study on a power system having only P-Q buses using G-S method. How does the algorithm get modified to account for PV buses ? OR For the network shown in fig. obtain the complex bus voltage at bus 2 at the end of first iteration. Use GS method. Line impedances shown in fig. are in pu. Given : bus 1 is slack bus with V1 = 1<0, P2 + jQ2 = –5.96 + j1.46, V3 = 1.02 and assume 0 = 1.02<0, 0 = 1<0. V3 V2 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 403 -4- *SLRPC403* 2) Draw the pu impedance diagram for the power system shown in fig. neglect resistance and use a base of 100 MVA, 220 KV in 50 ohm line. The rating of generator, motor and transformers are Generator : 40 MVA, 25 KV, X" = 20% Motor : 50 MVA, 11 KV, X" = 30% YY Transformer : 40 MVA, 33/220 KV, X" = 15% Y Δ Transformer : 30 MVA, 11/220 KV, X" = 15% 4. Attempt any 4 questions : (5 Marks Each) 1) The phase voltages across a certain unbalanced load are given as Er = 176 – j132, Ey = –128 – j96, Eb = –160 + j100. Determine positive negative and zero sequence components for above voltages. 2) A transmission line of inductance of 0.1 H and resistance 5 ohm is suddenly short circuited at the far end as shown in fig. write the expression for the short circuit current and also find the value of maximum momentary current. 3) Derive the necessary equation to determine the fault current for single line to ground fault. Draw a diagram showing the interconnections of sequence networks. 4) For the power system shown below draw zero sequence network. 5) Derive the sequence impedances of 3 phase transmission line having self impedances ‘Zs’ per phase and mutual impedances ‘Zm’ between the phases. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC403* -5- SLR-PC – 403 5. Attempt any 2 questions : (10 Marks Each) 1) Two 11 KV, 20 MVA 3 ph star connected generators operate in parallel as shown in fig. the positive negative and zero sequence reactance of each being respectively j0.18, j0.15, j0.1 pu.a single line to ground fault occurs at the terminals of one of the generators. Estimate a) fault currents b) current in grounding resistances c) voltage across grounding resistance. 2) A delta connected resistive load is connected across a balanced 3 ph supply of 400 V as shown in fig., find the symmetrical components of line current and delta currents. 3) Explain the short circuit of synchronous machine on 1) no load 2) load. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC404* SLR-PC – 404 Seat Set No. A T.E. (E & E) (Part – II) (New) Examination, 2015 CONTROL SYSTEM – II Day and Date : Thursday, 21-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : (1×20=20) 1) ______technique is not applicable to nonlinear system. a) Nyquist Criterion b) Quasi linearization c) Functional analysis d) Phase-plane representation 2) In order to increase the damping of a badly underdamped system which of following compensators may be used ? a) Phase-lead b) Phase-lag c) Both a) and b) d) Either a) and b) 3) ______increases the steady state accuracy. a) Integrator b) Differentiator c) Phase lead compensator d) Phase lag compensator 4) A control system with excessive noise, is likely to suffer from a) Saturation in amplifying stages b) Loss of gain c) Vibrations d) Oscillations 5) Which of the following statements is correct for a system with gain margin close to unity or a phase margin close to zero ? a) The system is relatively stable b) The system is highly stable c) The system is highly oscillatory d) None of the above 6) In a stable control system backlash can cause which of the following ? a) Underdamping b) Overdamping c) Poor stability at reduced values of open loop gain d) Low-level oscillations 7) The on-off controller is a ______system. a) Digital b) Linear c) Non-linear d) Discontinuous P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 404 -2- *SLRPC404* 8) The term backlash is associated with a) Servomotors b) Induction relays c) Gear trains d) Any of the above 9) Phase margin of a system is used to specify which of the following ? a) Frequency response b) Absolute stability c) Relative stability d) Time response 10) In a stable control system saturation can cause which of the following ? a) Low-level oscillations b) High-level oscillations c) Conditional stability d) Overdamping 11) Which of the following is the non-linearity caused by servomotor ? a) Static friction b) Backlash c) Saturation d) None of the above 12) ______can be extended to systems which are time-varying ? a) Bode-Nyquist stability methods b) Transfer functions c) Root locus design d) State model representatives 13) A differentiator is usually not a part of a control system because it a) Reduces damping b) Reduces the gain margin c) Increases input noise d) Increases error 14) If the gain of the critical damped system is increased it will behave as a) Oscillatory b) Critically damped c) Overdamped d) Underdamped 15) The state model of a nth order system with m-inputs and p-outputs is X(t) = AX(t) + BU(t) and Y(t) = CX(t) + DU(t) where B is a) System matrix b) Output matrix c) Control matrix d) State vector 16) The state model of a linear time invariant system is given by X(t) = AX(t) + BU(t) and Y(t) = CX(t) + DU(t) The expression for transfer function of the system is a) C(sI – A)–1 BU(s) + D b) (sI – A)–1 BU(s) + D c) (sI – A)–1 BU(s) d) C(sI – A)–1 B 17) The necessary and sufficient condition to be satisfied for arbitrary pole placement is that the system should be completely a) State controllable b) State observable c) State controllable and state observable d) Any of the above 18) In phase plane a) X1 is represented in x-axis, and x2 in y-axis b) X2 is represented in x-axis, and x1 in y-axis c) Any one of above d) None of the above 19) For an nth order system state equations will be of the order of n n + 1 a) n b) 1 c) d) 2 2 + α′ + β 20) The transfer function of a passive network is given by s 1 / s 1. Which of the following conditions is necessary such that the network acts as a phase lead controller ? α = β α > β α = α < β a) 1 1 b) 1 1 c) 1 0 d) 1 1 ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC404* -3- SLR-PC – 404 Seat No. T.E. (E & E) (Part – II) (New) Examination, 2015 CONTROL SYSTEM – II Day and Date : Thursday, 21-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. SECTION – I 2. Solve any four : (4×5=20) a) Give steps to design lead compensator using Root-locus method. b) Determine the system represented by following state variable model is controllable or not. − ⎡x1 ⎤ ⎡ 1 0 ⎤ ⎡x1⎤ ⎡0⎤ ⎡x1 ⎤ ⎢ ⎥ = ⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥ + ⎢ ⎥ u y(t) = []1 2 ⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥ ⎢ − ⎥ ⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥ ⎣x2 ⎦ ⎣ 0 2⎦ ⎣x2 ⎦ ⎣1⎦ ⎣x2 ⎦ c) Draw the electrical equivalent of lag compensator and obtain its T/F. d) Derive the realization of lead lag compensating network. e) Give steps to design lead compensator using root locus method. 3. a) A linear time invariant system is characterized by the state equation (2×10=20) ⎡x1 ⎤ ⎡1 0⎤ ⎡x1⎤ ⎡0⎤ ⎢ ⎥ = ⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥ + ⎢ ⎥ u ⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥ ⎣x2 ⎦ ⎣1 1⎦ ⎣x2 ⎦ ⎣1⎦ Where u is a unit step function, the initial condition is x1(0) = 1, x2 (0) = 0, using inverse Laplace transform method obtain the solution of the state equation. b) Design a lag lead compensator for a system with open loop T/F k G(s) = to satisfy the following specifications s(s + 0.5) i) Damping ratio of z= 0.5 ii) Natural frequency Wn = 5 rad/sec. –1 iii) Velocity error constant Kv = 80 sec . OR b) Explain procedure to design lag compensator by using Bode plot. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 404 -4- *SLRPC404* SECTION – II 4. Solve any four : (4×5=20) a) Explain in short about limit cycle. b) Explain singular points in nonlinear control system. c) Explain jump resonance phenomenon. d) Explain stability of non linear system. e) Derive T/F of zero order hold. 5. Solve any two : (2×10=20) a) Derive pulse T/F of a closed loop system. b) Explain construction of phase trajectories by delta method. c) Explain block diagram of discrete time control system. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC405* SLR-PC 405 S e a t A J 5 A ) N o . T.E. (E & E) (Part II) Examination, 2015 MICROCONTROLLERS AND ITS APPLICATIONC (New) Day and Date : Saturday, 23-5-2015 Total Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)Assume suitable data if necessary. 2) Figures to the right indicates full marks 3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : (1×20=20) 1) MOVX instruction will fetch the data from ______memory. a) External program b) Internal program c) Internal Data d) External Data 2) For short jumps, relative address range is ______bytes. a) 127 to + 127 b) 128 to + 128 c) 128 to + 127 d) 127 to + 128 3) On Reset, SP will be set to a) 07 h b) 08 h c) 09 h d) 0A h 4) The total external data memory that can be interfaced to the 8051 is a) 32 K bytes b) 64 K bytes c) 128 K bytes d) 256 K bytes 5) If A = 05 H and B = 64 H, then after MUL AB the SFRs at F0H and E0H a) Do not change b) Equal 01 H and F4 H c) Equal F4 H and 01 H d) None of these equal F4 H 6) RSO and RSI a) Are not in the PSW as these are not the flags b) Are in the register sets (banks) c) Are the bits-4 and 5, respectively, for selecting the register bank in the PSW d) Are the bits-3 and 4, respectively, for selecting the register bank in the PSW. Note : Bit 7 is C (carry or borrow) flag 7) Bit address 0 × 00 and byte address 0 × 00 are for the a) Bit 0 at 0 × 20 and the byte at 0 × 00 in the internal RAM (R0 in Bank 0) b) Bit 0 at 0 × 00 and the byte at 0 × 00 in the internal RAM c) Bit = 0 in a SFR and the byte = 0 × 00 d) Bit 0 at 0 × 20 and byte at 0 × 80 in SFR, respectively P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 405 -2- *SLRPC405* 8) TH1, TL1, TH0 and TL0 SFRs are at the addresses a) 0 × 8 D, 0 × 8 C, 0 × 8 B and 0 × 8 A b) 0 × A D, 0 × AB, 0 × A C and 0 × AA c) 0 × 8 D, 0 × 8 B, 0 × 8 C and 0 × 8 A d) Not between 0 × 80 and 0 × FF as these are not the SFRs 9) In DIV AB instruction, register ______is divided by Resister ___ and Flag ___ is cleared always. Also, ___ Flag is set, if division by Zero occurs. a) A, B, Ov, Carry b) A, B, Carry, Ov c) B, A, Ov, Carry d) B, A, Carry, Ov 10) In Mov A, 32 h, contents at 32 h which is from ______memory. a) Intrnl Prog b) Extrnl Prog c) Intrnl Data d) Intrnl Prog 11) DS 1307 is IC of ______and is supports ______serial communication. a) ADC, SPI b) DAC, SPI c) RTC, 12 C d) RTC, USART 12) The contents of the accumulator after this operation MOV A, # 0 BH, ANL A, # 2 CH will be a) 11010111 b) 11011010 c) 00001000 d) 00101000 13) The SUBB instruction subtracts an 8-bit value from another 8-bit value produces a third 8-bit value. The MUL instruction will multiply two a) 8-bit values and produce a 16-bit value b) 8-bit values and produce a 8-bit value c) 16-bit values and produce a 16-bit value d) 16-bit values and produce a 08-bit value 14) The maximum pulse rate that can be counted on pin T1 if the oscillator frequency is 6 MHz is a) 6 MHz b) 500 Khz c) 1 Khaz d) 250 Khz 15) Set the SP register to 07 h and PUSH the SP register on Stack; What number is PUSHed to address 08 h a) 07 H b) 08 H c) 6 H d) None 16) The 8051 can handle ______interrupt sources. a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6 17) The I/O ports that are used as address and data for external memory are a) ports 1 and 2 b) ports 1 and 3 c) ports 0 and 2 d) ports 0 and 3 18) The contents of the accumulator after this operation MOV A, # 2BH ORL A, # 00H Will be : a) 1B H b) 2B H c) 3B H d) 4B H 19) When the call instruction is executed the top most element of stack comes out to be ? a) The address where stack pointer starts b) The address next to the call instruction c) Address of the call instruction d) Next address of the stack pointer 20) Which of the following instruction is wrong. a) INC DPTR b) MOV @ DPTR, A c) MOV A, @ A + DPTR d) DEC DPTR ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC405* -3- SLR-PC 405 S e a t N o . T.E. (E & E) (Part II) Examination, 2015 MICROCONTROLLERS AND ITS APPLICATION (New) Day and Date : Saturday, 23-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Assume suitable data if necessary. 3) Figures to the right indicates full marks. SECTION I 2. Solve any four questions : (5×4=20) 1) Discuss Port 3 Pins alternate Functions of 8051. 2) Explain Port 1 structure. 3) Explain following instructions : a) MUL AB b) DIV AB c) JNB 80h, relative address d) XCHD e) SWAP A 4) Write a program to count no of ones in a given no. 5) Draw and explain power on Reset circuit and give reset status of various registers. 6) Differentiate between memory mapped I/O and I/O mapped I/O. 3. Solve any two questions : (10×2=20) 1) Draw and explain Architecture of 8051. 2) WALP to generate 1 hz frequency with timer 0, model in 8051. Assume, Microcontrollers frequency is 12 MHz. 3) Design 8051 based system with interfacing 16 KB of ROM as external program memory and 32 KB of RAM as external data memory. Both should have different addresses. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 405 -4- *SLRPC405* SECTION II 4. Solve any four questions : (5×4=20) 1) Draw interfacing of DAC 0808 to 8051 and write a program to generate rising ramp signal. 2) WALP to display continuously countdown from 0 to F on common Anode seven segment display. 3) Explain SPI communication Protocol. 4) Explain mode 3 of UART for 8051. 5) Draw Internal Data memory map of RTC 1307. 6) How serial EEPROM can be interfaced with 8051. 5. Solve any two questions : (10×2=20) 1) Interface 8255 to 8051. Assume designer has decided a port addresses as follows : Port A (8255) : 6000h Port B : 6001h Port C : 6003h CWR : 6003h Write a program to get data from porta and send it to port C continuously. 10 2) Discuss in detail 12C Communication Protocol. 3) Explain design of Microcontroller based Temperature control system. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC406* SLR-PC 406 S e a t A J 5 A N o . T.E. (Part II) (E & E) Examination, 2015 SELF LEARNING (Technical) (New) Industrial Management Day and Date : Tuesday, 26-5-2015 Max. Marks : 50 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m. N. B. : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. 3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 4) Solve any four questions from Question No. 2 to Question no. 6. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 15 Minutes Marks : 10 1. Conventional MCQ : (1×10=10) 1) ______is the process by which goods and services are created. a) Marketing b) Production c) Advertising d) Selling. 2) To earn more profit the capital should be ______a) Maximised b) Minimised c) Same d) Cannt say 3) ______is defined as Filling and Keeping. a) Planning b) Staffing c) Leading d) Controlling 4) ______are constructed to discover, interests, existing skills and potential for acquiring skills. a) Proficiency and aptitude tests b) Intelligence tests c) Vocational tests d) Personality tests P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 406 -2- *SLRPC406* 5) ______involves the introduction of new employees to the enterprise, its function tasks and people. a) Presentation b) Recruitment c) Induction d) Training 6) In ______concept product enjoys the supreme importance. a) Selling b) Marketing c) Advertising d) Distribution 7) The Financial needs which are required upto one year are treated as ______a) Long Term Funds b) Short Term Funds c) Middle Term Funds d) End Term Funds 8) The money invested in the business in order to yield an income is known as ______a) Funds b) Capital c) Loan d) None of above 9) Monetary Policy is governed and controlled by ______a) Reserve Bank of India b) Government of India c) Finance Minister d) State Government 10) ______leader uses his or her power very little if at all giving subordinates a high degree of independence in their operations. a) Autocratic b) The Free rein c) Democratic d) Ideal ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC406* -3- SLR-PC 406 S e a t N o . T.E. (Part II) (E & E) Examination, 2015 SELF LEARNING (Technical) (New) Industrial Management Day and Date : Tuesday, 26-5-2015 Marks : 40 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m. N. B. : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 2) Solve any four questions from Question No. 2 to Question no. 6. 2. a) Explain the concept of modern management. 5 b) Explain need and want concept in marketing. 5 3. a) Explain the term capital and its importance. 5 b) Explain various types of plant layouts. 5 4. Explain process of product design in detail. 10 5. a) Explain induction and placement in Human Resource. 5 b) Explain process of recruitment. 5 6. Write short notes on (any two) : (5×2=10) a) Price in marketing b) Taxation principles c) Training in H. R. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC407* SLR – PC - 407 Seat No. Set A B.E. Electrical and Electronics Engineering (Part – I) Examination, 2015 INDUSTRIAL DRIVES AND CONTROL Day and Date : Tuesday, 5-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. 3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary. 4) Non-programmable calculators are permitted. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer. (1×20=20) 1) What is meant by drive ? a) Motion control b) Power control c) Voltage control d) None of above 2) The efficiency by using rotor resistance control in I.M. is a) High b) Low c) Very high d) Very low 3) Effect of friction torque is more pronounced a) When drive is running on full load b) When drive is being started c) When drive is being stopped d) When drive is running at the rated speed 4) How many thyristors are required to construct a load commutated inverter for a synchronous motor drive ? a) 3 b) 6 c) 12 d) 24 5) Multi motor control system is possible from a) Open loop b) Closed loop c) Open or closed loop d) None of these 6) It is required to drive a DC shunt motor at different speeds in both direction and also to brake it in both direction. Which one of the following would you use ? a) A half controlled thyristor bridge b) A full controlled thyristor bridge c) A dual converter d) A diode bridge 7) The frequency of ripple in the output voltage of 3 phase half controlled bridge rectifier depends on a) Firing angle b) Load inductance c) Load Resistance d) Supply frequency P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR – PC - 407 -2- *SLRPC407* 8) A DC source of 100 V supplies a purely inductive load 0.1 H the controller is a thyristor in series with source and load. The latching current specified is 100 mA. The minimum width of the gating pulse to ensure thyristor turn ON is a) 100 microseconds b) 100 seconds c) 1 microsecond d) 50 microseconds 9) In a three phase half wave rectifier, if per phase input voltage is 200 V then average d.c. output voltage is a) 233.91 V b) 116.95 V c) 202.56 V d) 201.2 V 10) A single phase diode bridge rectifier supplies highly inductive load. The load current can be assumed to be ripple free. The AC supply side current waveform will be a) Sinusoidal b) Constant DC c) Square d) Triangular 11) Consideration involved in the selection of drive for particular application depends on a) Speed control range and its nature b) Starting torque c) Environmental conditions d) All of above 12) Which of the following is preferred for automatic drive ? a) Synchronous motor b) Squirrel cage IM c) Ward Leonard controlled dc motors d) All of above 13) A wound rotor IM is preferred over squirrel cage IM when the major consideration involved is a) High starting torque b) Low starting current c) Speed control over limited range d) All of above 14) When smooth and precise speed control over the wide range is desired, the motor preferred is a) Synchronous motor b) Squirrel cage IM c) Wound rotor IM d) DC motor 15) When quick speed reversal consideration, the motor preferred is a) Synchronous motor b) DC motor c) Wound rotor IM d) Squirrel cage IM 16) Stator voltage control for speed control of IM is suitable for a) Fan and pump drives b) Drive of crane c) Running it as generator d) Constant load drive 17) The selection of control gear for a particular application is based on the consideration of a) Duty b) Starting torque c) Limitations on starting current d) All of above 18) A synchronous motor is found to be more economical when the load is above a) 100 KW b) 10 KW c) 20 KW d) 1 KW 19) The advantage of a synchronous motor in addition to its constant speed is a) High power factor b) Better efficiency c) Lower cost d) All of above 20) In motor circuit, static frequency changers are used for a) Power factor improvement b) Improved cooling c) Reversal of direction d) Speed regulation ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC407* -3- SLR – PC - 407 Seat No. B.E. Electrical and Electronics Engineering (Part – I) Examination, 2015 INDUSTRIAL DRIVES AND CONTROL Day and Date : Tuesday, 5-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. SECTION – I 2. Solve any four : (5×4=20) a) Discuss the advantages of electrical drives. b) Give criteria for selection of electrical drive. c) Explain nature and classification of load torque. d) Short note on chopper controlled dc motor drive. e) A drive has following parameters : 2 J = 10 kg – m , T = 100 – 0.1 N, Nm, passive load torque T1 = 0.05 N, Nm where N is speed in rpm. Initially, the drive is operating in steady state. Now, it is to be reversed. For this, motor characteristics is changed to T= – 100 – 0.1 N, Nm. Calculate the time of reversal. 3. Solve any two : (10×2=20) a) Explain multi quadrant operation of dc separately excited dc motor fed from fully controlled converter. b) A 220 v, 1500 rpm, 50 A separately excited dc motor with armature resistance of 0.5 Ohm is fed from circulating current dual converter with ac source voltage (line) = 165 v. Determine converter firing angles for 1) Motoring operation at rated motor torque and 700 rpm. 2) Braking operation at rated motor torque and 700 rpm. 3) Motoring operation at rated motor torque and ( – 700) rpm. 4) Braking operation at rated motor torque and (–700) rpm. c) A 220 v, 1000 rpm, 75 A dc separately excited motor has an armature resistance of 0.05 Ohm. It is braked by plugging from an initial speed of 1200 rpm. Calculate : i) Resistance to be placed in armature circuit to twice full load torque. ii) Braking torque. iii) Torque when speed has fallen to zero. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR – PC - 407 -4- *SLRPC407* SECTION – II 4. Solve any four : (5×4=20) a) Explain stator voltage control of 3 φ IM by ac regulator. b) Difference between CSI and VSI. c) Explain static krammer drive with block diagram and waveforms. d) Explain current regulated voltage source inverter control with block diagram. e) Calculate motor breakdown torque for inverter fed IM drive for a frequency of 60 hz as ratio of 50 hz. Given – 400 v, 50 hz, 4 pole, 1370 rpm, Rs = 2 Ω , Rr’ = 3 Ω , Xs = Xr’ = 3.5 Ω . 5. Solve any two : (2×10=20) a) Explain variable frequency control of an IM with graph and block diagram. b) A 440 V, 50 Hz, 6 pole Y – connected wound rotor motor has following parameters- RS = 0. 5 Ω , Rr’ = 0.4 Ω , Xs = Xr’ = 1.2 Ω , Xm = 50 Ω . Stator to rotor turn ratio is 3.5. Motor is controlled by static rotor resistance control. External resistance is chosen such that break down torque is produced at standstill for duty ratio of zero. Calculate value of external resistance. How duty ratio varied with speed so that motor acceleration at maximum torque ? c) A 3φ , 400 v, 6 pole, 50 hz, delta connected, slip ring IM has rotor resistance of 0.2 Ω and leakage reactance of 1 Ω per phase referred to stator. When driving a fan load it runs at full load at 4% slip. What resistance must be inserted in rotor circuit to obtain speed of 850 rpm ? Neglect stator impedance and magnetizing branch. Stator to rotor turn ratio 2.2. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLR-PC-408* SLR-PC – 408 Seat Set No. A B.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 ENGINEERING ECONOMICS AND INDUSTRIAL MANAGEMENT Day and Date : Wednesday, 6-5-2015 Total Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Figures to right indicate full marks. 3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : 20 1) In ______more lines of products, more types and sizes are added to satisfy the needs of large number of consumers. a) Product diversification b) Variety Reduction c) Product improvement d) Product development 2) A person responsible for setting up a business or an enterprise is called as ______a) Businessman b) Industrialist c) Entrepreneur d) Director 3) The final decision whether to accept and implement the recommendation of the staff executive remain in the hands of ______a) Chief executive b) Line executive c) Manager d) Director 4) The partner who does not take any active part in the conduct of business is called as ______a) Active partner b) Inactive partner c) Sleeping partner d) Share holders 5) The art of getting work done through people is called as ______a) Business b) Management c) Industry d) Ownership 6) In ______function of management the actual performance of subordinates is guided towards common goal. a) Staffing b) Controlling c) Leadership d) Directing 7) The control of the enterprise is effected through ______a) Planning b) Directing c) Administration d) Controlling P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 408 -2- *SLR-PC-408* 8) Medium scale industries does not exceed investment of ______a) Rs. 1 crore b) Rs. 50 lacks c) Rs. 5 crore d) Rs.10 crore 9) Planning is ______a) measurement and correction of the performance of subordinates b) selection from among alternative of future courses of action c) what is to be done within a time frame d) getting things done through others 10) An individual who bears the risk of operating a business is called as ______a) Entrepreneur b) Businessman c) Industrialist d) Manager 11) Make and buy decisions depend upon a) Cost b) Quantity c) Urgency d) Variety 12) Salient features of the industrial policies is earlier revised in ______a) 1956 b) 1991 c) 1990 d) 1948 13) In ______type ownership, the owner is liable for all obligations and debts of the business. a) Single b) Partnership c) Joint stock companies d) Public Sector 14) The investment of small scale industries is around a) Rs. 300 lakhs b) Rs. 200 lakhs c) Rs. 400 lakhs d) Rs. 100 lakhs 15) The group of people, small or large working under an executive leadership is known as ______a) Organisation b) Industry c) Company d) Institute 16) ______serves as a linking process by which parts of an organisation are tied together. a) Delegation b) Communication c) Standard Practice d) Training 17) Objectives should always be set by ______a) The board of directors b) Middle management c) Lower management d) Level authorised to initiate and approve a program 18) Horizontal line region in break-even chart is called as ______a) Variable cost b) Total cost c) Fixed cost d) Purchasing cost 19) The number of shareholders should not be less than ______, but there is no limit to their maximum number. a) five b) seven c) ten d) twelve 20) Public sector companies are owned by ______a) Single owner b) Government c) Partners d) Shareholders ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLR-PC-408* -3- SLR-PC – 408 Seat No. B.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 ENGINEERING ECONOMICS AND INDUSTRIAL MANAGEMENT Day and Date :Wednesday, 6-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Figures to right indicate full marks. SECTION – I 2. a) Explain Economical lot batch size. 5 b) Explain line and staff organization. 5 3. Explain in detail economics applied to industries. 10 OR Explain tools of engineering economics. 10 4. Write short notes on any four : 20 1) Single ownership 2) Public sector companies 3) Value engineering 4) Cost control and cost ratio 5) Make and buy decision 6) Duties of partners. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 408 -4- *SLR-PC-408* SECTION – II 5. Explain definition, types, functions and qualities of entrepreneur. 10 6. Explain functions of management in detail. 10 OR Explain steps and procedures for setting small scale industries. 10 7. Write short notes on any four : 20 1) Facilities to small scale industries 2) Project proposal process 3) Indian Electricity Act, 2003 4) Management information system 5) Cottage industry 6) Phases in industrial project. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC409* SLR-PC 409 e a t S Set o . N A B.E. (Electrical and Electronics) (Part 1) Examination, 2015 INSTRUMENTATION TECHNIQUES Day and Date : Thursday, 7-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) There is no negative marking. 3) Multiple answers carry no mark. 4) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Select one right answer : (1×20=20) 1) The output of current to voltage converter is given by a) IF.RF b) Vo/Rin c) RF/R1 d) 1 + (RF/R1) 2) Sensitivity of LVDT is due to a) Magnetic shielding of core b) Permeability of core c) Exact cancellation of secondary voltage d) Insulation used in wiring 3) Resolution of potentiometric transducer is depend on a) Diameter of wire b) Length of wire c) Material of wire d) Excitation voltage 4) Bourdon tube are made of a) Copper b) Aluminium c) Metal Alloys d) Phosphorous 5) Continuous recording of a signal is not possible in a) Magnetic tape recorder b) X-Y recorder c) Strip chart recorder d) Galvanometric recorder 6) The position telemetering system using synchrony is a) A pulse telemetering system b) An RF telemetering system c) A DC telemetering system d) An AC telemetering system 7) Butterworth filters are also known as a) Ripple filter b) Ripple stop band c) Flat flat filter d) Spike filter P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 409 -2- *SLRPC409* 8) Telemetry processes the information from remote by means of a) Mechanical means b) Electrical means c) CRO d) All of the above 9) Instrumentation amplifier is primarily used in a) High noise environment b) Medical equipment c) Test instrument d) Filter circuits 10) For separating channels in TDM, one has to use a) Differentiator b) Integrator c) Band pass filter d) AND gates 11) Difference between analog and digital input output module is ______in PLC. a) Opto isolator circuit b) Filter c) Rectifier d) None of these 12) IN AM modulated systems, the modulated output voltage has Emin = 15 V, the modulation index is a) 2 b) 1.5 c) 1 d) 0.5 13) X-Y recorders record a) one quantity with respect to other quantity b) one quantity on x axis with respect to time on Y axis c) one quantity on y axis with respect to time on X axis d) record both quantity on both axis 14) Radiation pyrometer is used in for temperature range of a) 0-500° C b) 500-1000° C c) 250-500° C d) 1200-2500° C 15) A photo conductive cell is useful for a) high frequency application b) medium frequency application c) low frequency application d) all of them 16) For good linear output of RTD following material is used a) nickel b) platinum c) iron d) silver 17) A force digital transducer measures the pressure of the range of 0-500 N with the resolution of 0.01% of full scale. The smallest charge it can measures is a) 0.05 N b) 0.04 N c) 0.5 N d) 0.100 N 18) Inverse feature of thermocouple is given by following effect a) Seebeck effect b) Peltier effect c) Boltzman effect d) None of these 19) In Pt-100 RTD 100 means a) can measure upto 100° C b) has 100 ohm resistance at 100° C c) has 0 ohm resistance at 100° C d) has 100 ohm resistance at 0° C 20) A 12 bit A/D converter has 0-10 V. What is the approximate resolution of the converter ? a) 1 mv b) 2.5 mv c) 2.5 uv d) 12 mv ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC409* -3- SLR-PC 409 S e a t N o . B.E. (Electrical and Electronics) (Part 1) Examination, 2015 INSTRUMENTATION TECHNIQUES Day and Date : Thursday, 7-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Figure to right indicate full marks. 3) Make suitable assumptions if necessary. SECTION I 2. Solve any four : (5×4=20) 1) Explain various types of transducer. Explain active and passive transducer with example based on working principle. 2) What is current telemetry ? Explain in brief. 3) EMFM has output 4-20 mA. To obtain standard output form in voltage, explain the required circuit for that. 4) To generate PWM explain required circuitry. 5) To measure the weight which transducer can used ? Explain in detail. 6) Explain Chopper stabilized amplifier. 3. Solve any two : (10×2=20) 1) What are the different types of static and dynamic characteristics of measuring devices ? How can they affect the measuring devices ? 2) Explain various types of modulation. 3) Explain active filters. Derive the frequency equation of 1st order high pass and low pass filter. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 409 -4- *SLRPC409* SECTION II 4. Solve any four : (5×4=20) 1) Explain the various types of DAC. 2) Explain ultraviolet recorders in brief. 3) Explain the architecture of PLC with neat diagram. 4) Enlist different types of digital and analog input, output devices. 5) Explain in short about sample and hold circuit. 6) Explain LCD, LED and differentiate between them. 5. Solve any two : (10×2=20) 1) Explain the instrumentation set up required for pressure measurement. 2) Explain data acquisition system. Why multiplexer and demultiplexer is used in that ? 3) Explain magnetic strip chart recorder in detail. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal *SLRPC41* www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 41 S e a t 5 A J ) N o . T.E. (Civil) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015 STRUCTURAL MECHANICS III Day and Date : Thursday, 14-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Assume additional data if required and mention it clearly. 2) Figure to right indicates full marks. 3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer book Page No. 3. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : 1) Maxwell reciprocal theorem in structural analysis can be applied in 1 a) plastic structures b) all elastic structures c) symmetric structures d) prismatic element structures 2) Degree of static indeterminacy of frame shown below is 1 a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 3) The principle of superposition is applicable when 1 a) Material Obeys Hooks law b) Member is nonprismatic c) Action of applied forces will be affected by small deformations d) None of these 4) A cantilever subjected to a load P at free end its flexibility will be 1 ! " ! & " # a) b) c) d) " & - 1 ! & " - 1 ! & " - 1 - 1 5) The fixed end moment for beam at A is shown in fig. is 1 M M a) 0 b) M c) d) 2 4 8 6) In the force method of structural analysis the basic unknowns are 1 a) Displacement and forces b) Displacements c) Forces d) None of these 7) The moment required to rotate the near end of prismatic bar through unit angle, with translation the far end being fixed is 1 3 E I I 2 E I 4 E I a) E b) c) d) L L L L P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal SLR-PC 41 www.downloadmela.com-2- *SLRPC41* 8) The equation of ILD of indeterminate structure is ______1 a) linear b) non linear c) constant d) none of above 9) Stiffness matrix is ______1 a) unsymmetric about major diagonal axis b) rectangular matrix c) symmetric about major diagonal axis d) all of above 10) The strain energy of a structure due to bending is given by 1 M 2 M M M x d x d x d x a) d b) c) d) E I E I 2 E I 4 E I 11) Distribution factor for member OA in following frame is 2 a) 0.5 b) 3 c) 1.33 d) 0.33 12) A beam of length 4m carries udl of 10 kN/m. The beam is fixed at both ends. The fixing moment at end is ______2 a) 13.33 b) 13.93 c) 16.67 d) 17.79 13) The degree of kinematic indeterminacy of following beam is ______2 a) 3 b) 1 c) 4 d) 0 14) In the following beam stiffness coefficient S22 is 2 3 E I 4 I 2 E I 6 E I a) E b) c) d) L L L L 15) The shear equation for the frame as shown in fig. below 2 ` M A B M B A M C D D C a) M b) M A B M B A M B C M C B P 0 P 0 L L L c) d) None of above L M B C M C B M C D M D C P 0 L L ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC41* -3- SLR-PC 41 S e a t N o . T.E. (Civil) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015 STRUCTURAL MECHANICS III Day and Date : Thursday, 14-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) In Section I Q. 1 is compulsory and solve any two from remaining. 2) In Section II Solve any three questions. 3) Assume additional data if required and mention it clearly. 4) Figure to right indicates full marks. SECTION I 2. Solve any three : (4×3=12) a) Derive formula for horizontal force for parabolic two hinged arch subjected to point load at centre. b) State and explain static and kinematic indeterminacy with example. c) Explain difference between flexibility and stiffness matrix method. d) Explain strain energy approach to solve the beam problem. 3. Draw BMD using consistent deformation method. 14 4. Draw BMD using energy method. 14 EI = constant 5. Find reactions and moments of frame given below using flexibility method. 14 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 41 -4- *SLRPC41* SECTION II 6. Analyse the beam shown below by Moment Distribution Method. Draw BMD. 14 7. Analyse the following fixed beam by stiffness method. Support B sinks down by 10 mm. Take EI = 6000 kN/m2. 13 8. Analyse following frame by stiffness method. Draw BMD. 13 9. Draw ILD for RB and MA of following beam. Compute ILD ordinates at 1.5 m interval. 13 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC410* SLR-PC – 410 Seat Set No. A B.E. Electrical and Electronics Engineering (Paper – I) Examination, 2015 POWER SYSTEM – II Day and Date : Friday, 8-5-2015 Total Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. 3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary. 4) Non-programmable calculators are permitted. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Objective questions : (1×20=20) 1) Transient stability limit is a) equal to steady state stability limit b) less than steady state stability limit c) more than steady state stability limit d) none of the above 2) For a transmission line the positive sequence reactance is a) greater than negative sequence reactance b) smaller than negative sequence reactance c) equal to the negative sequence reactance d) none of the above 3) In delta connection, zero sequence component of current a) circulates through delta branches b) does not circulate through delta branches c) circulates out of delta branches d) none of the above 4) In case of single line to ground fault, the fault current is equal to 3Eg 3Eg a) b) zero c) d) none of the above Z0 + Z1+ Z2 Z0 5) The subtransient reactance X′′ and transient reactance X′ are related to its steady state reactance value Xa as a) X′′ > X′ > Xa b) Xa > X′′ > X′ c) X′ > Xa > X′′ d) Xa > X′ > X′′ 6) A 11 kV, 10 MVA alternator has p.u. impedance of 0.1 when referred to its ratings as bases. The new value for base as 110 kV, 20 MVA, will be a) 0.1 p.u. b) 0.2 p.u. c) 0.02 p.u. d) 0.002 p.u. P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 410 -2- *SLRPC410* 7) Figure below shows zero sequence network of x y a) star – star b) star – delta c) delta – delta d) delta – star 8) The incremental costs of two units are Unit 1 = (0.16 P1 + 6) Rs/MWh Unit 2 = (0.2 P2 + 4) Rs/MWh To share a load of 100 MW optimally, a) P1 = 60 MW, P2 = 40 MW b) P1 = 40 MW, P2 = 60 MW c) P1 = P2 = 50 MW d) P1 66.7 MW, P2 = 33.3 MW 9) Transient stability limit can be improved by the use of a) high inertia machine b) high speed governors c) fast acting voltage regulating system d) all the above 10) A 100 MVA machine has an inertia constant H = 2 p.u. Its value for 200 MVA in p.u. will be a) 0.5 b) 1.0 c) 2.0 d) 4.0 11) A 10 MVA, 33 kV, 50 Hz, 2 pole turbo alternator has an inertia constant H = 2 KWS/KVA. At synchronous speed the kinetic energy stored in the rotor will be a) 10 MJ b) 20 MJ c) 30 MJ d) 40 MJ 12) For limiting short circuiting currents, we use a) resistors b) capacitors c) reactors d) none of the above 13) Magnitude of the fault current depends on a) total impedance up to fault b) voltage at the fault point c) load current at the time of fault d) both (a) and (b) 14) Base impedance of a power system is given as (Base kV)2 Base kV Base MVA (Base MVA)2 a) b) c) 2 d) (Base MVA) Base MVA (Base kV) Base kV 15) EMF source is present in a) Zero sequence network b) Positive sequence network c) Negative sequence network d) All of the above 16) A zero phase sequence is one in which all the phasors have a) equal magnitude b) equal angle c) both (a) and (b) d) None of the above 17) In a star connected system without neutral grounding, zero sequence currents are a) zero b) phasor sum of phase currents c) same as rms value of phase currents d) none of the above 18) The sequence networks are connected in series for a) three phase to ground fault b) line to line fault c) line to ground fault d) double line to ground fault 19) When a number of plants are interconnected, the change in output of one plant ? a) will affect generating cost of that plant only b) will affect generating costs of all plants c) will not have any effect on the generating cost of any plant d) none of the above 20) The excitation system time constant is a) larger than the turbine system time constant b) equal to the turbine system time constant c) smaller than turbine system time constant d) none of the above ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC410* -3- SLR-PC – 410 Seat No. B.E. Electrical and Electronics Engineering (Paper – I) Examination, 2015 POWER SYSTEM – II Day and Date : Friday, 8-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Assume suitable data wherever necessary. 2) Non-programmable calculators are permitted. SECTION – I 2. Solve any four : (5×4=20) a) What is per unit system ? How the base quantities are selected ? b) A generator is rated at 500 MVA, 11 kV. Its reactance is 0.5 p.u. Find the p.u. reactance on 100 MVA, 22 kV base. c) Differentiate clearly between symmetrical and unsymmetrical faults. d) Explain different types of stability in case of power system. e) State and derive equal area criterion of stability. f) A two pole, 50 Hz, 11 kV turbo generator has a rating of 60 MW and power factor 0.85 lagging. Its rotor has a moment of inertia of 8800 Kg-m2. Find its inertia constant in MJ/MVA and momentum in MJs/elect. deg. 3. Solve any two : (10×2=20) a) Analyze a single line to ground fault. Show the sequence network connections and give expression for the fault current. b) A three phase 37.5 MVA, 33 kV alternator having X1 = 0.18 p.u. X2 = 0.12 p.u. and X0 = 0.10 p.u. Ω Ω based on its rating, is connected to a 33 kV overhead line having X1 = 6.3 , X2 = 6.3 and Ω X0 = 12.6 per phase. A single line to ground fault occurs at the remote end of the line. The alternator neutral is solidly grounded. Calculate the fault current. c) Draw zero sequence diagram of the power system shown below. All the reactances are in p.u. to the same base. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 410 -4- *SLRPC410* SECTION – II 4. Solve any four : (5×4=20) a) Describe various methods of improving stability. b) The line currents in a three phase system are Ia = 5 < 60° A, Ib = 5 < – 60° and Ic = 0 A. Find the symmetrical components. c) Explain sequence impedances of transmission lines. d) Draw the zero sequence network for delta/delta and transformer star/star connected transformer with star point connected to ground. e) Derive swing equation for a synchronous machine. f) A 100 MVA synchronous generator operates on full load at 50 Hz. The load is suddenly reduced to 50 MW. Due to time lag in governor system, the steam valve begins to close after 0.4 sec. Determine the change in frequency during this time. H = 5 KW - sec/KVA of generator capacity. 5. Solve any two : (10×2=20) a) With a schematic diagram explain automatic voltage control. b) The fuel inputs to two plants per hour are given by 2 F1 = 0.25 P1 + 40 P1 + 120 Rs/hr 2 F2 = 0.3 P2 + 30 P2 + 150 Rs/hr Determine the economic operating schedule and corresponding cost of generation if maximum and minimum loading of each unit is 100 MW and 20 MW. The demand is 195 MW. Determine the saving obtained by loading the units equally and by equal incremental cost method. c) Explain by using equal area criterion what happens when mechanical power input to the turbine is suddenly changed. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC411* SLR-PC – 411 Seat No. Set A B.E. Electrical and Electronics Engineering (Part – I) Examination, 2015 (Elective – I) : RENEWABLE ENERGY SOURCES Day and Date :Saturday, 9-5-2015 Total Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Objective questions (1×20=20) 1) The amount of energy stored as a Kinetic energy in waves may be of the order a) 1018Jb)1020J c) 1025Jd)1031J 2) Which of the following gas has fixed composition ? a) Coke oven gas b) Acetylene c) Producer gas d) All of these 3) Which of the following is a commercial energy source ? a) Gas b) Animal dung c) Agricultural wastes d) All of these 4) Which of the following is not used for making metallic flat absorber plate ? a) Copper b) Steel c) Nickel d) Aluminium 5) Increase in wind speed with height is due to a) Temperature gradient b) Height of tower c) Type of blades d) All of above 6) Axial force acts in the ______as that of flowing wind. a) Same direction b) Opposite direction c) Perpendicular direction d) All of the above P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 411 -2- *SLRPC411* 7) HDR is a) Heavy Depth Rock b) Hot Dry Rock c) Hard Dry Rock d) High Density Rock 8) Lift/drag ratio of good airfoil is a) Medium b) High c) Low d) None of these 9) A PV hybrid system is installed with a back-up system of a) Steam generator b) Petrol generator c) Diesel generator d) All of the above 10) The capacity of battery is expressed in a) volts-amperes b) ampere-hours c) ampere-minutes d) volt-hours 11) The retention period ranges from a) 5 days to 10 days b) 20 days to 40 days c) 30 days to 50 days d) 10 days to 20 days 12) Biogas plants converts wet biomass into biogas by the process of a) Anaerobic fermentation b) Aerobic fermentation c) Digestion d) All of these 13) The digestion period of movable drum type biogas plant is a) 30 – 60 days b) 50 – 60 days c) 40 – 60 days d) None of these 14) The approximate heat content of Methanol is a) 21 GJ/te b) 25 GJ/te c) 30 GJ/te d) 35 GJ/te 15) The octane rating of biogas without CO2 is a) 110 b) 120 c) 130 d) 140 16) The energy required to produce hydrogen is a) 4.5 Kwh/m3 b) 2.5 Kwh/m3 c) 3.5 Kwh/m3 d) 1.5 Kwh/m3 17) The temperature of the rock at a depth of 5 km is about a) 100°C b) 200°C c) 300°C d) All of the above 18) The most economical in cost and which requires the least parasitic power is ______cycle. a) Ammonia cycle b) Steam cycle c) Hybrid cycle d) None of above 19) The open cycle is also known as a) Anderson b) Carnot cycle c) Rankine cycle d) Claude cycle 20) The heat energy in earth’s interior is due to a) Gravitational forces b) Magnetism c) Radioactivity d) None of the above ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC411* -3- SLR-PC – 411 Seat No. B.E. Electrical and Electronics Engineering (Part – I) Examination, 2015 (Elective – I) : RENEWABLE ENERGY SOURCES Day and Date :Saturday, 9-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1) Assume suitable data wherever necessary. 2) Non-programmable calculators are permitted. SECTION – I 2. Solve any four : (5×4) a) Explain solar distillation. b) Distinguish between Renewable and Non Renewable energy sources. c) Explain wind energy system with the help of neat block diagram. d) Write a short note on ‘Solar Pond’. e) What is Photovoltaic effect ? Explain efficiency of solar cell. f) What are the prospects of renewable energy source ? 3. Solve any two : (10×2) a) Give classification of concentrating collectors and explain compound parabolic collectors with plain receiver in detail. b) Explain Solar water Heaters and their types in detail. c) i) Explain Solar photovoltaic system in detail. ii) A solar cell (0. 9 cm2) receives solar radiation with photons of 1.8 eV energy having an intensity of 0.9 mW/cm2. Measurements show open-circuit voltage of 0.6V/cm2, short-circuit current of 10mA/cm2, and the maximum current is 50% of the short circuit current. The efficiency of cell is 25%. Calculate the maximum voltage that the cell can give and find the ‘Fill Factor’. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 411 -4- *SLRPC411* SECTION – II 4. Solve any four : (5×4) a) Draw and explain vapor dominated system in detail with neat sketch. b) Explain digester design considerations for Biogas plant. c) Explain ‘Open cycle’ for OTEC. d) What are the advantages and disadvantages of geothermal energy sources ? e) Explain double stage process for Biogas plant. f) Write short note on Hot Dry Rock (HDR) resources. 5. Solve any two : (2×10) a) Explain closed cycle for OTEC and also explain the advantages and disadvantages of Tidal power. b) Give classification of wave energy conversion machines and explain float-wave power machine with neat diagram. c) Derive an expression for energy and power from waves. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC412* SLR-PC – 412 Seat No. Set A B.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 SWITCHGEAR AND PROTECTION Day and Date : Wednesday, 13-5-2015 Total Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. 3) All questions are compulsory. 4) Assume the suitable data whenever necessary. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Write the correct choice : (1×20=20) 1) Electro-magnetic relays may be operated by a) electro-magnetic attraction b) electro-magnetic induction c) thermal effect d) any of the above 2) The rated current for HV side fuse should be a) 13.1 A b) 23.0 A c) 48 A d) 55.5 A 3) Which of the following protective devices can be used against lightning surges ? a) Horn gap b) Surge diverters c) Lightning arresters d) Any of the above 4) If a circuit breaker does not operate on electrical compound, the probable reason could be a) spring defective b) trip circuit open c) trip latch defective d) any of the above 5) The contact resistance is least affected by a) Shape of the contact faces b) Ambient temperature c) Mechanical forces applied d) Amount of surface commutation 6) The protection against over-voltage due to lightening is provided by a) use of surge diverters b) low tower footing resistance c) use of overhead ground wires d) any of the above 7) Thermal relays are used for the protection of motors against over-current owing to a) short circuit b) heavy loads c) earth fault d) all the above 8) Which of the following statement about SF6 gas is incorrect ? a) it is non-toxic gas b) it is non-inflammable c) it has density 5 times that of air at 20°C d) it has dark yellow color P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 412 -2- *SLRPC412* 9) Which of the following is not a part of the circuit breaker ? a) explosion pot b) fixed and moving contacts c) conservator d) operating mechanism 10) MHO relay is used for a) rectifiers b) circuit breakers c) transmission lines d) feeders 11) Main bus bar protection scheme is /are a) differential protection b) both fault bus and differential protection c) fault bus protection d) none of these 12) The function of protective relay in a circuit breaker is a) to each any stray voltages b) to close the contacts when the actuating quantity reaches a certain predetermined value c) to limit arcing current during the operation of circuit breaker d) to provide additional safety in the operation of circuit breaker 13) The fault clearing time of a circuit breaker is usually a) few minutes b) few seconds c) one second d) few cycles of supply voltage 14) Which of the following is not a type of the contactor for circuit breakers ? a) electro-magnetic b) electro-pneumatic c) pneumatic d) vacuum 15) Interrupting medium in a contactor may be a) air b) oil c) SF6 gas d) any of the above 16) In a HRC fuse the time between cut-off and final current zero, is known as a) total operating time b) arcing time c) pre-arcing time d) any of the above 17) The most efficient torque-producing actuating structure for induction type relays is a) shaded pole structure b) watt-hour meter structure c) induction cup structure d) single induction cup structure 18) Fusing factor for a HRC fuse is a) Minimum fusing current/Current rating b) Minimum fusing current/ Minimum rupturing time c) Maximum fusing current / Minimum fusing current d) Minimum fusing current/ Prospective current of circuit 19) SF6 gas a) is lighter than hydrogen b) is lighter than air c) has density 2-times as compared to that of air d) has density 3-5 limes as compared to that of air 20) The normal frequency rms voltage that appears across the breaker poles after final arc extinction has occurred, is a) recovery voltage b) re striking voltage c) supply voltage d) peak voltage ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC412* -3- SLR-PC – 412 Seat No. B.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 SWITCHGEAR AND PROTECTION Day and Date : Wednesday, 13-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Assume the suitable data whenever necessary. SECTION – I 2. Solve any four : (5×4=20) 1) What is a fuse ? What are its duties ? 2) Explain the difference between AC and DC Circuit Breaking. 3) What are the different properties of SF6 Gas. 4) Define isolator and explain its requirements. 5) What is mean by Arc Extinction and explain their types. 3. Solve any two : (10×2=20) 1) What are the different methods of testing of circuit breakers ? Discuss their merits and demerits. 2) Explain terms : i) Restriking voltage ii) Recovery voltage iii) RRRV iv) Derive expressions for restriking voltage and RRRV. 3) Explain the construction and working of Air Blast Circuit Breaker (ABCB) ? SECTION – II 4. Solve any four : (5×4=20) 1) What is mean by carrier protection ? 2) Classify the different protective relays. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 412 -4- *SLRPC412* 3) Define : i) Selectivity ii) Speed iii) Sensitivity and iv) Reliability with respect to protective relays. 4) Write a short note on : i) Inverse over current relay ii) IDMT. 5) What protective measures are taken against lightning over voltages ? 5. Solve any two : (10×2=20) 1) a) Explain with neat circuit diagram the Inter turn fault protection for alternators. b) State and explain following faults with respect to alternator : i) Excitation failure ii) Over speed. 2) Explain the Merz price protection schemes for transformer. 3) What is the principle of distance relaying ? Explain each type of distance relay with neat diagram. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC413* SLR-PC 413 S e a t 5 A J ) N o . B.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015 ELECTRICAL MACHINE DESIGN Day and Date : Friday, 15-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Assume suitable data whenever necessary. 3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Solve the following : 20 1) Magnetostriction a) Grain oriented magnetic properties b) Represents the upper limit to which magnetic properties can be induced c) Change in dimensions resulting from magnetization of ferromagnetic materials d) None of the above 2) In an oil filled transformer, oil is provided for a) Cooling b) Insulation c) Lubricating d) Both cooling and insulation 3) The thickness of laminations of the core of a power transformer usually a) 0.003 to 0.05 mm b) 0.03 to 0.05 mm c) 0.03 to 0.5 mm d) 3 to 5 mm 4) Transformer action requires a a) Short circuiting b) Increasing resistivity c) Reducing resistivity d) All of the above 5) In static transformers mechanical forces are produced due to a) Vibrations b) Gap between laminations c) Interaction of current flowing in the conductor and leakage flux around it d) None of the above 6) The percentage of silicon in transformer stampings is usually limited to a) 0.4% b) 1.4% c) 4% d) 14% 7) The stacking factor will be least for a) Square core b) Cruciform core c) Three stepped core d) Four stepped core 8) For transformer laminations a) Hot rolled silicon steel is preferred b) Cold rolled silicon steel is preferred c) Grain oriented silicon steel is preferred d) None of the above P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 413 -2- *SLRPC413* 9) The disadvantage of cylindrical winding is a) Increased eddy current loss b) High copper loss c) Low mechanical strength d) All of the above 10) Which component of the no load current of the transformer is opposite in phase to the induced EMF ? a) Magnetizing component b) Core loss component c) Both a) and b) above d) None of the above 11) Transformer action requires a a) Constant magnetic flux b) Increasing magnetic flux c) Alternating magnetic flux d) Alternating electric flux 12) The effect of harmonics in rotating machines can be minimized by a) Use of longer air gap b) Skewing the poles c) Use of distributed winding d) All of the above 13) The shaft of electric motors is generally supported in a) Magnetic bearings b) Bush bearings c) Ball or roller bearings d) Cast iron bearings 14) The shaft of electric motors is generally made of a) Mild steel b) Cast iron c) Copper d) Aluminum alloy 15) Iron losses of a machine are a) Directly proportional to flux density b) Directly proportional to the square of flux density c) Inversely proportional to flux density d) Inversely proportional to the square of flux density 16) Turbo-alternators of rating ______and above are normally hydrogen cooled. a) 10 MW b) 20 MW c) 25 MW d) 50 MW 17) Open circuit test on a transformer is conducted to obtain a) The leakage impedances b) The ohmic loss c) Hysteresis loss only d) Core loss only 18) Pitch factor is the ratio of the EMFs of a) Short pitch coil to full pitch coil b) Full pitch winding to concentrated winding c) Full pitch winding to short pitch winding d) Distributed winding to full pitch winding 19) Which of the following can be worked with higher flux densities ? a) Mild steel b) Silicon iron c) Cold rolled silicon steel d) Hot rolled silicon steel 20) Which is non-magnetic material ? a) Nickelb) Cobaltc) Aluminumd) Gadolinium ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC413* -3- SLR-PC 413 S e a t N o . B.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015 ELECTRICAL MACHINE DESIGN Day and Date : Friday, 15-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions :1) All questions are compulsory. 2) Assume suitable data whenever necessary. SECTION I 2. Solve any four : (5×4=20) a) Discuss different factors to be considered while making choice of specific loading for three phase induction motor. b) Derive the output equation of three phase transformer. State assumptions made. c) Derive an expression for winding resistance of three phase induction motor. d) An 11 kW, 3-phase, 6-pole, 50 Hz, 220 V, star connected induction motor has 54 stator slots, each containing a 9 conductors. Calculate the value of bar and end ring current. The number of rotor bars is 64. The machine has the efficiency of 0.86 and power factor of 0.82. The rotor mmf = 85% stator mmf. Also find the bar and end ring section if current density is 5A/mm2. e) Explain the choice of flux density and choice of current density for transformer. f) Explain the design of cooling tubes for the transformer. 3. Solve any two : (10×2=20) a) Determine the main dimensions, number of ventilating ducts, number of stator slots, number of turns per phase of 3.7 kW, 3 phases, 4 poles, 50 Hz, Squirrel cage induction motor to be started by star delta starter. Assume average flux density in the air gap = 0.45 web/m2, ampere conductors per meter = 23000, efficiency = 0.85, stacking factor = 0.9, winding factor = 0.955 and power factor = 0.84. b) Derive the expression for leakage reactance for transformer. State assumption made. c) Estimate the main dimensions of core, number of turns and cross-sectional area of conductor for a 5 KVA, 11 KV/400 V, 50 Hz, single phase distribution transformer. The net copper area in the window is 0.6 times the net cross-section of iron in the core. Assume a square cross-section for core, a flux density of 1 web/sq.m., current density of 1.4 A/sq.mm, window space factor of 0.2 and ratio of window height to width is 3. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 413 -4- *SLRPC413* SECTION II 4. Solve any four : (5×4=20) a) Derive an expression for estimation of air gap length in an alternator. b) Explain types and construction details of synchronous machines. c) A 1250 KVA, 3 phase, 20 poles, 50 Hz, 6600 V salient pole alternator has the following data : Air gap diameter = 1.6 m, length of core = 0.45 m specific electric loading = 28000 ac/m, pole arc/pole pitch = 0.68, stator slot pitch = 28 mm, current density in damper bar = 3A/mm2. Design suitable damper winding for the machine. d) Explain the design procedure for rotor of single phase induction motor. e) For the same H.P. output compare the relative sizes of a 3-phase induction motor to 1-phase induction motor. f) Find the main dimensions of a 100 MVA, 11 KV, 50 Hz, 150 rpm and 3-phase water wheel generator. The average gap density is 0.65 web/m2 and ampere conductor per meter are 40000. The peripheral speed should not exceed 65 m/sec. at normal running speed in order to limit the run-away peripheral speed. Take winding factor 0.955. 5. Solve any two : (10×2=20) a) A 15 MVA, 50 Hz, 11 KV, 2 pole star connected turbo generator with 60° phase spread has the following data : Specific magnetic loading = 0.55 web/m2, specific electric loading = 36000 ac/m, current density = 5 A/mm2, peripheral speed = 160 m/sec. Find the core length, bore diameter, size No. of stator slots, No. of conductors. b) State and explain different leakage reactance in case of single phase induction motor. c) Explain the design procedure damper winding in synchronous machines. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC414* SLR-PC – 414 Seat Set No. A B.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 FLEXIBLE AC TRANSMISSION SYSTEM Day and Date : Monday, 18-5-2015 Total Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Assume the suitable data whenever necessary. 3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Solve the following : (1×20=20) 1) Transmission interconnections are necessary to a) To maximize power generation capacity b) To minimize fuel cost c) To improve power factor d) To reduce losses 2) If generation is less than load a) The system voltage drops b) The system frequency drops c) Both a) and b) d) System stability improved 3) The loading capability of transmission line is limited by a) Thermal capability b) Dielectric strength c) Stability of the system d) All of above 4) For the application of submarine cables FACTS technology is used a) Up to 10 km b) Up to 100 km c) Up to 1000 km d) Up to 10000 km 5) GTO in the gate current pulse required for turn on may be a) 1 – 2% b) 2 – 5% c) 3 – 5% d) None 6) In CSC in which DC current always has a a) Similar polarity b) Dissimilar polarity c) One polarity d) None of above 7) In which a DC voltage always has one polarity ? a) CSC b) Both CSC and VSC c) VSC d) None of above 8) In single phase full converter device 1 and 2 on 3 and 4 off gives a) +ve voltage, –ve current b) +ve voltage, +ve current c) –ve voltage, +ve current d) –ve current P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 414 -2- *SLRPC414* 9) Midpoint voltage regulation for line segmentation used for a a) Series compensation b) Shunt compensation c) Series series compensation d) None of these 10) In midpoint compensation VSM and VST are a) Same b) Different c) Utility d) None of above 11) In SVC the ISM and ISR are a) Same b) Different c) Unity d) None 12) In case of ______any minor disturbance can cause the machine angle to oscillate around its steady state of natural frequency. a) Overdamped power system b) Underdamped power system c) Excited power system d) None 13) A line voltage regulator is to be used in single phase 200 V, 5 kVA system to keep voltage constant for voltage variation within ± 10%. The rating (in KVA) of voltage regulator a) 0.05 b) 0.5 c) 5 d) 50 14) Shunt compensation in EHV line is used to a) Improve stability b) Reduce fault level c) Improve voltage profile d) Substitute for synchronous phase modifier 15) Series capacitor is used in transmission line to a) Compensate the voltage drop b) Reduce line losses c) Improve load factor d) Improve load power factor 16) Shunt compensation in EHV line is used to improve a) Stability and fault level b) Fault level and voltage profile c) Voltage profile and stability d) Stability fault level and voltage profile 17) ______are used to provide compensation at the receiving end of transmission line so as to improved its voltage profile. a) Condenser b) Resistor c) Reactor d) Condenser resistor and reactor 18) Transient stability can be increased by increasing a) De-accelerating b) Accelerating energy c) Both a) and b) d) None 19) Steady stability can be obtained by monitoring a) Frequency b) Voltage and frequency c) Voltage d) Phase angle 20) STATCOM operates whose capacitive of inductive output can’t be controlled independent of a) AC system current b) AC system voltage c) AC system power d) AC system power factor ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC414* -3- SLR-PC – 414 Seat No. B.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 FLEXIBLE AC TRANSMISSION SYSTEM Day and Date : Monday, 18-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Assume the suitable data whenever necessary. SECTION – I 2. Solve any four : (5×4=20) a) Explain the need of transmission interconnections. b) Discuss the opportunities for FACTS in transmission system. c) Explain the objectives of shunt compensation. d) With the help of neat diagram and waveforms explain TCR. e) With the help of neat diagram and waveforms explain TSC. f) With the help of circuit diagram and V-I characteristics explain GCSC. 3. Solve any two : (10×2=20) a) Compare HVDC and FACTS. b) With the help of neat diagram and waveforms explain FC-TCR type Var generator. c) With the help of circuit diagram and V-I characteristics explain TSSC. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 414 -4- *SLRPC414* SECTION – II 4. Solve any four : (5×4=20) a) With the help of circuit diagram and V-I characteristics explain TCSC. b) With the help of circuit diagram and V-I characteristics explain SSSC in detail. c) State the objective of voltage and phase angle regulators. d) Explain the power flow control by phase angle regulators. e) Explain the working principle of Unified Power Flow controller. f) Compare UPFC with series compensator. 5. Solve any two : (10×2=20) a) With the help of neat block diagrams explain internal control scheme for SSSC employing an indirectly controlled converter. b) Explain with neat diagram hybrid phase angle regulators. c) Write short note on harmonics generated by FACTS and mitigation methods. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC415* SLR-PC 415 S e a t o . N Set A B.E. Electrical and Electronics Engineering (Part II) Examination, 2015 Elective II : HIGH VOLTAGE DC TRANSMISSION Day and Date : Wednesday, 20-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 p.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Assume suitable data wherever necessary. 2) Non-programmable calculators are permitted. 3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct alternative : (20×1=20) 1) The break-even distance is the distance beyond which a) DC transmission is economical b) AC transmission is economical c) Cost of both systems are the same d) Both b) and c) 2) In a bipolar system a) Both conductors are positive b) Both conductors are negative c) One conductor is positive and the other negative d) One conductor is positive or negative and other is at ground potential 3) During commutation in a converter a) Voltage is exchanged b) Current is transformed from one valve to the other c) DC voltage is blocked d) None of the above 4) Control of power in DC link is necessary because a) Current order setting needs to be done b) Power can be reversed c) Current sensitive to voltage changes and may damage the converters d) All of the above 5) The common control done in the converters is a) rectifier as both voltage and current controller b) Inverter as both voltage and current controller c) Inverter as current controller d) rectifier as voltage controller and inverter as current controller 6) Harmonic filter are protected by a) Over current relays b) Lightning arresters c) Spark gaps d) None of the above 7) Fault current level is highest in the following types of faults a) Converter internal fault b) DC line fault c) Commutation failure d) Lightning stroke on line P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 415 -2- *SLRPC415* 8) A surge diverter is used across the DC CB to a) Limit recovery voltage b) Limit fault current c) Adsorb the arc energy d) All of the above 9) Converter transformer core saturation will lead to a) Harmonic oscillations b) Ferro resonance c) Sub harmonic oscillations (0-5 Hz) d) Torsional oscillations in turbine-generator unit 10) Normal time of operation for paralleling or disconnection of a converter or pole is a) 0.3 s b) 3 s c) Less than 20 ms d) 1 minute 11) MTDC systems are controlled through a) Voltage control b) Current order control c) Firing angle control d) All of above 12) In a 2nd order or 3rd order filter which of the components R, L or C are to be rated to full AC power frequency voltage a) Inductor b) Capacitors c) Resistors d) Both inductor and capacitors 13) Modern HVDC system are all a) 3-pulse converters b) 6-pulse converters c) 24-pulse converters d) 12-pulse converters 14) The main advantages of HVDC-VSC schemes is a) Both active or reactive power can be controlled b) Does not require DC filters c) Can be used for high power more than 1500 MW d) All of the above 15) Power transmitted through the DC system depend on a) Rectifier end voltage b) Inverter end voltage c) Rectifier end current d) Rectifier end voltage and current 16) The maximum value of the harmonic current depend on a) Firing angle b) Overlap angle c) DC current d) Both firing angle and overlap angle 17) In HVDC-VSC schemes filters are used a) Only on the AC side b) Only on the DC side c) Both AC and DC side d) No filter is needed 18) HVDC systems are mainly used with large power rating for a) Interconnection of two systems with different frequencies b) Bulk power transmission over long distances c) Underwater or submarine cable transmissions d) For connecting nonconventional power sources like wind power etc. to the grid 19) A thyristor valve conducts when a) Anode is positive b) Anode is negative c) Anode is positive with positive gate pulse d) Anode is positive with negative gate pulse 20) Pulse number means a) Number of valves b) Number of pulse in the output voltage per cycle c) Number of DC poles d) Both a) and b) ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC415* -3- SLR-PC 415 S e a t N o . B.E. Electrical and Electronics Engineering (Part II) Examination, 2015 Elective II : HIGH VOLTAGE DC TRANSMISSION Day and Date : Wednesday, 20-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 p.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Assume suitable data wherever necessary. 2) Non-programmable calculators are permitted. SECTION I 2. Solve any four : (5×4=20) 1) Explain : a) Valve utilization factor b) Transformer utilization factor. 2) Draw and explain different types of DC links. 3) Explain the phenomenon of Arc Through in case of converter. 4) Explain the requirements of firing angle scheme and explain IPC scheme. 5) What are the modern trends in HVDC transmission ? Explain. 6) What are the various types of over voltages in a converter station. 3. Solve any two : (10×2=20) 1) Draw and explain the typical HVDC converter station in detail. 2) Explain in detail the analysis of Graetz circuit with overlap. 3) Which are the faults occurring in converter ? Explain commutation failure in detail. SECTION II 4. Solve any four : (5×4=20) 1) Explain Parallel MTDC system with diagram. 2) Explain AC Filters. 3) Write a short note on various sources of reactive power. 4) Explain TCR in detail with V-I characteristics. 5) Explain the current margin method for protection of MTDC system. 6) Explain FC-TCR. 5. Solve any two : (10×2=20) 1) Distinguish between series and parallel MTDC system in detail. 2) Define : i) Harmonic distortion ii) Telephone influence factor iii) IT factor. 3) Explain the various potential applications of MTDC systems. ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC416* SLR-PC – 416 Seat Set No. A B.E. (Mech.) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 MATERIAL HANDLING SYSTEMS (Elective – II) Day and Date : Wednesday, 20-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Objective questions (1 mark each) : 20 1) To transport ferrous material vertically ______conveyor is used. a) wheel b) chain c) magnetic d) chute 2) Flat belt conveyor are characterized by a) Bulk + On-Floor + No Accumulation b) Unit + Overhead + Accumulation c) Unit + On-Floor + No Accumulation d) Bulk + Overhead + No Accumulation 3) ______is used to move the material between two specific point. a) cranes b) conveyors c) bin d) trolley 4) ______conveyors vibrates at a lower frequency and larger amplitude in order to convey larger objects. a) screw b) magnetic c) oscillating d) none of these 5) OSHA stands for a) Occupational Safety and Human Administration b) Occupational Safety and Health Administration c) Occupational Safety and House Administration d) None of these 6) In AGV system path on the floor used for guidance is ______a) fixed b) variable c) physical guide d) none of these 7) Hand truck are characterized by a) Non-Pallet + Walk + No Stack + Manual b) Pallet + Walk + No Stack + Manual c) Non-Pallet + Walk + Stack + Powered d) Pallet + Walk + No Stack + Powered 8) Interlock is available in controls of ______so that worker can safely service the area. a) electric safety b) robotics safety c) chemical safety d) radiation safety P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 416 -2- *SLRPC416* 9) Conveyors and industrial trucks are the ______equipment. a) Transport b) Positioning c) Storage d) Identification and control equipment 10) Storage equipment used for ______material over a period of time. a) catching or stocking b) holding or buffering c) storing or hanging d) all of these 11) ______cranes enables three dimensional handling. a) gantry b) jib c) stacker d) bridge 12) Symbol represents for a) operation b) store c) inspection d) transport 13) Symbol represents for a) operation and inspection b) store and operation c) inspection and transport d) transport and store 14) Flow process chart gives a) to reduce the distance travelled by men and material b) assembly line c) relationship between product d) none of these 15) A diagram showing the path followed by men and materials while performing a task is known as a) string diagram b) flow process chart c) travel chart d) flow diagram 16) Equipment evaluation sheet consist of equipment characteristics, utilization and ______a) safety b) vendor characteristics c) flexibility d) unit load 17) For single storey building when the flat floor area is available then ______system is used. a) horizontal flow b) vertical c) zig-zag d) inclined 18) From to chart shows ______a) relative location of activities b) operation in the product c) inspection stages d) none of these 19) Symbol represents for a) operation b) store c) inspection d) movement 20) Instead of a hoist, ______crane uses a mast with forks or a platform to handle unit loads. a) Jib crane b) Bridge crane c) Gantry crane d) Stacker crane ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC416* -3- SLR-PC – 416 Seat No. B.E. (Mech.) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 MATERIAL HANDLING SYSTEMS (Elective – II) Day and Date : Wednesday, 20-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 2) Draw neat diagram where necessary. SECTION – I Solve any two questions : 2. a) Explain the objectives, benefits and scope of material handling system. 7 b) What is meant by material handling system ? Explain its principles. 7 c) Define and explain the Hoist with neat sketch. 6 3. a) What is meant by Automated Guided Vehicles ? 7 b) Explain the concept of Plant layout and Material handling. 7 c) Classify and explain the positioning equipments. 6 4. Write a short notes (any three) : 20 a) Cranes. 7 b) CIMS. 7 c) Conveyors. 6 d) Decking and order picking. 6 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 416 -4- *SLRPC416* SECTION – II Solve any two questions : 5. a) Explain the selection of material handling equipment in foundry. 7 b) Explain the factors and criteria for selection of material handling equipment. 7 c) Explain the general procedure for selection of material handling equipment. 6 6. a) Explain with figure assembly chart. 7 b) Describe with fig. material handling equation. 7 c) What is Equipment evaluation sheet ? Explain with one industrial example. 6 7. Write a short notes (any three) : 20 a) Material flow pattern. 7 b) Material handling safety and training. 7 c) Basic Analytic techniques in material handling. 6 d) Choices of material handling equipments. 6 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC417* SLR-PC – 417 Seat Set No. A S.E. (Electrical) (Part – I) (Old) Examination, 2015 DATA STRUCTURE Day and Date : Wednesday, 27-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : 20 1) What function will read a specified number of elements from a file ? a) fileread() b) getline() c) fread() d) gets() 2) Which operation uses insert first algorithm and adds unused to front of list ? a) deletenode() b) getnode() c) freenode() d) both a) and b) 3) The 5 items A, B, C, D and E are pushed in a stack, one after another starting from A. The stack is popped 4 times and each element inserted in a queue. Then 2 elements are deleted from queue. The 2 elements are deleted from queue and push back on stack. Now 1 item is popped from stack. The pop item is a) A b) B c) C d) D 4) Which data structure used in recursion ? a) Queue b) Tree c) Priority Queue d) Stack 5) Which sort is based on the idea of inserting records into the existing sorted file ? a) Selection sort b) Insertion sort c) Bubble sort d) Merge sort 6) Divide the list into two roughly same sized list and sort them separately we will save work, the sort is a) Quick sort b) Insertion sort c) Bubble sort d) Merge sort 7) How many fields are contained in each item or node in double linked list ? a) Atleast two b) Exact two c) Three d) None P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 417 -2- *SLRPC417* 8) Average number of key comparison done by sequential search for successful search is given by ______and for unsuccessful is ______a) (n + 1)/2 & n b) n/2 & n c) n & (n + 1) d) n – 1 & n/2 9) Different keys that hash to the same value is rehashed to the same value again. This is called ______a) Random probing b) Secondary clustering c) Double hashing d) Quadratic rehash 10) Stack is an ordered collection of items forming list that is a) FIFO b) LIFO c) LILO d) None 11) Postfix expression evaluation for (A*B)*(C+D) is a) ABCD**+ b) AB*CD+* c) AB*CD*+ d) None 12) In which of the following list, it is not possible to delete a node given only pointer to the node. a) Doudly linked list b) Circular list c) Singly linked that d) All above 13) Which sort gives good result when array is in the random order ? a) Bubble sort b) Insertion sort c) Merge sort d) None of these 14) If data is circular array of CAPACITY elements and last is an index into that array, what is the formula for the index after last ? a) (last % 1) + CAPACITY b) last % (1+CAPACITY) c) (last + 1) % CAPACITY d) last + (1% CAPACITY) 15) I have implemented the queue with a linked list, keeping track of a front pointer and a rear pointer. Which of these pointers will change during an insertion into a NONEMPTY queue ? a) Neither changes b) Only front_ptr changes c) Only rear_ptr changes d) Both changes 16) Which of the following are tokens in C ? a) Keyword b) Variables c) Constant d) All above 17) An ampersand before the variable denote a) Actual value b) Variable name c) Address d) Datatype 18) Which of the following is invalid ? a) ‘ ‘ b) “ “ c) ‘a’ d) ‘abc’ 19) Which header file is essential for using strcmp() function ? a) string.h b) strings.h c) stdio.h d) strcmp.h 20) Malloc () is used in dynamic allocation is available in which header file. a) stdio.h b) stdlib.h c) conio.h d) alloc.h ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC417* -3- SLR-PC – 417 Seat No. S.E. (Electrical) (Part – I) (Old) Examination, 2015 DATA STRUCTURE Day and Date : Wednesday, 27-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. SECTION – I 2. Solve any four : 20 1) Define the Data structure ? What is ADT ? 2) Explain the concept of abstract data type with example. 3) Write a note on function and type of function. 4) Difference between Structure and Union. 5) Write a note on Data Structure and C ? 3. Explain with e.g. conversation of infix to prefix. 10 OR List different operations on file. Explain the use with suitable e.g. 4. Write a short note (any 2) : 10 1) C function PUSH and POP in Stack 2) Pointer to structure 3) Type_casting. SECTION – II 5. Solve any four : 20 1) Explain efficiency of recursion. 2) Write a note on queue as a data structure. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 417 -4- *SLRPC417* 3) Write the functions in ‘C’ language to implement queue using array to perform following operations. 1) Enqueue 2) Dequeue. 4) Explain the procedure for inserting and deleting node in the doubly linked list ? 5) What is binary search and explain with example ? 6. Solve : 10 Explain Hashing function along with example in detail. OR Explain collision resolution methods in detail. 7. Solve any one : 10 1) Write a program to represent singly linked list using dynamic variables ? 2) Write a note on any one : a) Quick Sort b) Merge Sort with algorithm. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC418* SLR-PC – 418 Seat Set No. A S.E. (Electrical) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 SIGNALS AND SYSTEMS (Old) Day and Date : Thursday, 28-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : 20 1) The convolution of two DT sequence x[n] = {1, 1, 1} and h[n] = {1, 0, 1} a) {1, 1, 2, 1, 1} b) {1, 0, 1, 1, 1} c) {2, 0, 1, 2, 1} d) {0, 1, 1, 1, 1} 2) The system y(n) = x(–n) is a) Time-variant b) Time-invariant c) Both a) and b) d) None of above 3) If y[n] = x2[n] system is a) linear b) non-linear c) both a) and b) d) none of above 1 4) The given system F()s = is ()()s + 2 s + 3 a) Marginally stable b) Unstable c) Stable d) None of above π 5) The fundamental frequency of x()n = ej6 n is π π π π a) w0 = 2 b) w0 = 3 c) w0 = –2 d) w0 = 6 1 6) The inverse Laplace transform of F()s = is s + 2 − − a) e 2t u()t b) e2t u()t c) e t u()t d) et u()t 7) The energy and power of signal x(n) = e2n u(n) is a) E = 0 ; P = 0 b) E = 0 ; P = ∞ c) E = ∞ ; P = 0 d) E = ∞ ; P = ∞ 8) The signal which exists only at t = 0, whose area is referred as continuous time unit a) Impulse b) Time c) Series d) Level P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 418 -2- *SLRPC418* 9) For a sinusoidal signal the value of cos ωt is equal to ω − ω ω − ω jωt −jωt jωt −jωt e j t + e j t e j t − e j t e − e e + e a) b) c) d) 2 2 2j 2j 10) Mathematically discrete time impulse signal can be obtained as a) δ[]n = u []n b) δ[]n = u []n − u [n − 1 ] c) δ[]n = u []n + u [n + 1 ] d) δ[]n = u []n − u [n − 2 ] 11) Convolution of two sequences x1[n] and x2[n] a) X1(z) * X2(z) b) X1(z) X2(z) c) X1(z) + X2(z) d) X1(z)/X2(z) 12) If the unit impulse response of an LTI system and the input signal are both rectangular pulses, then the response will be a a) Ramp function b) Parabola c) Triangular pulses d) Rectangular pulse 13) The z-transform of f(z) of the function f(nT) = anT is z z 1 1 a) b) c) d) z − aT z + a T z − aT z + a T 14) The direct evaluation DFT requires ______complex multiplications. N()N − 1 a) N(N – 1) b) N2 c) N(N – 1) d) 2 15) The discrete Fourier transform of x*(n) is a) X*(k) b) X*(–k) c) X(N – k) d) X*(N – k) 16) Convergence of discrete Fourier series a) Always guaranteed b) Conditional convergence c) Is not an issue d) Nonconvergent 17) If x[n] is real and even, then its discrete Fourier series coefficient ck will be a) real b) odd c) both a) and b) d) imaginary 18) Flat top sampling of low pass signals a) Give rise to aperture effect b) Implies oversampling c) Leads aliasing d) Introduces delay distortion 19) Fourier transform of a DC signal with unity strength is a) Zero b) 1 c) 2πδ()c d) 2π 20) For distortion less transmission through an LTI system amplitude of H()ω is a) constant b) one c) zero d) linearity dependent on ω ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC418* -3- SLR-PC – 418 Seat No. S.E. (Electrical) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 SIGNALS AND SYSTEMS (Old) Day and Date : Thursday, 28-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. SECTION – I 2. Attempt any four : (4×5=20) 1) Find fundamental period of ⎛ Π ⎞ ⎛ Π ⎞ a) x()t = cos ⎜ ⎟ t + sin ⎜ ⎟ t ⎝ 3 ⎠ ⎝ 4 ⎠ ⎛ Π ⎞ b) x()t = cos ⎜2t + ⎟ ⎝ 3 ⎠ 2) Check following systems are time variant or time invariant. a) y(t) = ex(t) b) y(t) = t.x(t). 3) Compute signal energy for x(t) = e–4t u(t). 2.s 4) Find inverse Laplace transform of F()s = . ()()s + 1 s + 2 5) Sketch the following signals : 1) –2r(t) 2) 3r(t – 1). ()()s + 1 s + 3 3. a) Plot the poles and zeros for F()s = 4 and comment on stability. 10 ()()s + 2 s + 4 b) Find even and odd part of system. 10 OR b) Obtain state space representation for system y()t + 8y ()t + 11y ()t + 6y ()t = u ()t . 10 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 418 -4- *SLRPC418* SECTION – II 4. Solve any four : (4×5=20) 1) Find Z transform of given sequence X(n) = {1, 2, 0, –4, 3, 2, 1, 6, 5) ↑ 2) Explain properties of region of convergence. 3) Find Fourier transform of 2 ⎛ 1⎞ x()n = ⎜ ⎟ u()n − 1 ⎝ 2 ⎠ 4) Explain what is aliasing and its effect. − 5) Find Fourier transform of x()t = e 3t []u ()()t + 2 − u t − 3 . 5. Solve any two : (2×10=20) n ⎛ 1⎞ 1) Find convolution of given signals using Fourier transform x ()n = ⎜ ⎟ u()n and 1 ⎝ 2 ⎠ n ⎛ 1⎞ x ()n = ⎜ ⎟ u()n . 2 ⎝ 3 ⎠ 2) Write in detail about time shifting and convolution properties of DTFT. 3) Find Fourier series for the periodic signal x()t = t 0 ≤ t ≤ 1 and repeats at every 1 sec. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLR-PC-419* SLR-PC – 419 Seat Set No. A S.E. (Electrical Engg.) (Part – II) (Old) Examination, 2015 COMPUTER PROGRAMMING C++ Day and Date : Friday, 29-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Figure to the right indicates full marks. 3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose correct alternative : 20 1) Which of the following operator cannot be overloaded ? a)= b): : c)+ d)– 2) The field in class of a C++ program are by default ______a) Private b) Protected c) Public d) None of these 3) The operator && is called as ______a) The logical AND operator b) Bitwise AND Operator c) Both a) and b) d) None of these 4) In C++, destructors are used to a) Construct the data members b) Manipulate the data members c) Destroy the memory space for unused objects d) None of the above 5) ______are the basic run time entities in an object-oriented system. a) Objects b) Classes c) Keywords d) Variables 6) The wrapping up of data and functions into a single unit is known as ______a) Inheritance b) Virtual functions c) Encapsulations d) Polymorphism 7) The operator << is called the ______a) Insertion operator b) Put to operator c) Both a) and b) d) None of these P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 419 -2- *SLR-PC-419* 8) A ______function has no body in the base class. a) Virtual b) Pure virtual c) Full virtual d) Only virtual 9) The do-while is an ______loop. a) Exit-controlled loop b) Entry controlled loop c) Entry enrolled loop d) None of these 10) An ______function is a function that is expanded in line when it is invoked. a) Friend b) Inline c) Member d) All the above 11) The main advantage of inheritance is ______a) Reusability b) Reliability c) Efficiency d) All 12) When a protected member is inherited in public mode, it becomes ______in the derived class. a) Private b) Public c) Protected d) Can’t say 13) C++ was originally developed by ______a) Ken Thompson b) Bjarne Stroustrup c) Dennis Ritchie d) None of above 14) In C++, the program execution always starts from ______a) The class b) Main function c) The member function d) From any point in program 15) The function contained within a class is called as ______a) Member function b) A constructor c) A method d) A destructor 16) In C++ cout is used to ______a) Display the output of variable or a string b) To represent the data type name c) Input the values of variable from keyboard d) None of above 17) The array element is accessible using ______a) dot operator b) member name c) index number d) fifo approach 18) What is reference ? a) An operator b) An alias for an object c) Used to rename object d) None of above 19) The break statement causes an exit ______a) Only from innermost loop b) Only from the innermost switch c) From all loops and switches d) From innermost loop or switch 20) The return statement is used to return ______a) A single value b) Multiple value c) Constant d) Function ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLR-PC-419* -3- SLR-PC – 419 Seat No. S.E. (Electrical Engg.) (Part – II) (Old) Examination, 2015 COMPUTER PROGRAMMING C++ Day and Date : Friday, 29-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All question are compulsory. 2) Figure to the right indicates full marks. SECTION – I 2. Attempt the following questions (any four) : 20 A) What is object oriented programming ? State difference between object oriented programming and procedure oriented programming. B) Explain different benefits of OOP. C) What is constructor ? List the different types of constructor. D) Define friend function with example. E) Explain function overloading. F) Explain different types of operator used in C++. 3. Attempt the following (any one) : 10 A) Write a program to demonstrate concept of copy constructor in C++. B) Write a program to demonstrate function overloading in C++. 4. Attempt the following (any one) : 10 A) Explain the following terms in detail. i) inline function ii) call by reference iii) memory allocation objects. B) Explain class and object in detail with example. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 419 -4- *SLR-PC-419* SECTION – II 5. Attempt the following (any four) : 20 A) Write a note on array of objects. B) Write a program to overload a unary operator. C) Explain rules of operator overloading. D) Differentiate between public and private inheritance. E) Explain concept of this pointer. F) What is dynamic memory allocation ? 6. Attempt the following (any one) : 10 A) What is inheritance ? Explain single, multiple, multilevel and hierarchical inheritance with suitable example. Discuss advantages of inheritance. B) Explain polymorphism in terms of virtual functions. 7. Attempt the following (any one) : 10 A) Write a program to demonstrate concept of friend function. B) Write a program to demonstrate concept of pure virtual function. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLR-PC-42* SLR-PC – 42 Seat Set No. A T.E. (Civil) (Part – II) (New) Examination, 2015 GEOTECHNICAL ENGINEERING – II Day and Date : Saturday, 16-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) MCQ is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. 2) Assume additional data if required and mention it clearly. 3) Figures to the right indicates full marks. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : 1) For an undisturbed sample the area ratio of the sampler should be ______1 a) Zero b) 10% or less c) 10 – 20% d) More than 20 % 2) The efficiency of pile group depends on 1 a) Soil type b) Method of pile installation c) Pile spacing d) All of these 3) Soil investigation is necessary for ______1 a) Foundation design b) Ground water studies c) Cost estimate d) All of these 4) In a plate load test, the load is applied in one of the following increment of load. 1 1 th 1 th 1 th 1 th a) 30 b) 20 c) 10 d) 5 5) Sand drains are provided 1 a) to accelerate the consolidation process b) to increase the rate of gain of shear strength c) in saturated clays d) for all of these 6) Find the correct statement from following 1 a) Terzaghi’s theory is applicable when the base of the forting is rough b) A foundation is considered shallow if its depth is less than 1 m c) The presumptive bearing capacity is the same as allowable bearing capacity d) None of above P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 42 -2- *SLR-PC-42* 7) For a purely cohesive soil, the bearing capacity at ground surface for a circular footing as per Terzaghi’s analysis is ______1 a) qu = 6.2 c b) qu = 5.14 c c) qu = 4.c d) None of these 8) A slope in considered infinite when 1 a) its length in the third dimension is infinite b) the slant height is very large c) the base of the embankment is very large d) all of these 9) The Terzaghi’s general bearing capacity equation the quantities Nc, Nq and Np are 1 a) Dimensionless factor b) Bearing capacity factor c) Both d) Neither 10) Taylor’s stability charts are based on the total stresses using the 1 a) Friction circle method b) Method of slices c) φ = 0 analysis d) None of the above 11) Two footings one circular and other square are founded on a surface of a purely cohesionless soil. The diameter of circular footing is same as that of the side of square footing. The rate of their ultimate bearing capacity is 2 a) 3/4 b) 4/3 c) 1 d) 1.3 12) A group of 16 circular piles are to be arranged to wave 100% group efficiency. Neglecting end bearing and taking adhesion factor α = 0.7, spacing of piles will be ______2 a) 3.5 d b) 3 d c) 2.5 d d) 2.2 d 13) A cutting is to be made in a clay for which the cohesion is 35 kN/m2, φ = 0, γ = 20, kN/m3. If Sn = 0.17 and side slope of cutting is 1.5 :1. Find the maximum depth of cutting with FOS = 1.5. 2 a) 4.5 b) 5.8 c) 6.86 d) 7.2 14) A soil sampler has external dia 7 cm. and wall thickness of 2.5 mm. Its area ratio will be 2 a) 17.75 b) 16.88 c) 12.22 d) None of these 15) What are the values for soil parameter used by Terzaghi for his local shear failure analysis ? 2 2 2 2 3 a) φm = tan φ, cm = cb)φm = tan φ, c = c 3 3 3 4 1 1 c) φm = tan φ, c = c d) None of these 2 2 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLR-PC-42* -3- SLR-PC – 42 Seat No. T.E. (Civil) (Part – II) (New) Examination, 2015 GEOTECHNICAL ENGINEERING – II Day and Date : Saturday, 16-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions for each Section. 2) Assume additional data if required and mention it clearly. 3) Figures to the right indicates full marks. SECTION – I 2. A) How the effect of water table on bearing capacity is considered in I. S. code method ? Explain. 6 B) The following are the results of a load-settlement test carried out on a 30 cm × 30 cm plate inside a pit 3.5 m × 3.5 m × 1.2 m in sandy soil : load (kN) Settlement (mm) 4 – 1.5 10 – 3.8 15 – 5.1 20 – 7.4 25 – 11.3 30 – 14.2 Design a spread footing for a column 450 mm × 450 mm in size carrying a vertical load of 1200 kN. 8 3. A) Explain the procedure of Standard Penetration Test (SPT) with neat sketch. 5 B) Write a note on : 8 1) Immediate elastic settlement 2) Consolidation settlement. 4. A) With the help of neat sketch explain wash boring. 5 B) Write a note on 1) RQD 2) Area ratio. 8 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 42 -4- *SLR-PC-42* 5. A) What do you mean by collapsible soil ? What care is to be taken during the construction of footing in this soil ? 5 B) Write a note on vibroflotation method of ground improvement. 4 C) Explain different functions of geotextile with suitable example. 4 SECTION – II 6. A) What is group efficiency of pile ? How it is calculated ? Explain with the help of example. 6 B) A cast in situ RCC pile 45 cm dia and 10 m length is constructed in the deep stratum of dry loose sand. The water table is at 4 m below G.L. Dry density of sand above WT is 16.2 kN/m3 and saturated density above W.T. is 21 kN/m3. Assume that the effective overburden pressure remains constant below 15X dia of pile. Estimate safe load that can be carried by pile. Take fos = 25, c = 0, φ = 25°, Nq = 25 k = 0.7, 8 = 3/4 φ. 8 7. A) Explain various causes of failure of earth slope. 5 B) Design a combined footing for two columns 30 cm × 30 cm size. Centre to centre distance between column is 5 m. The column adjacent to property line carries a load of 400 kN and other column carries a load of 300 kN. Allowable bearing pressure is 100 kN/m2. 8 8. A) What is stability number ? What its utility in the analysis of stability of slopes ? 5 B) It is proposed to construct a 10 m high highway embankment with the following soil properties C = 18.8 kN/m2, p = 17 kN/m3, φ = 10°. What is the inclination required for the embankment if the design fc = 1.5, f φ = 1 ? Take Sn = 0.0737. 8 9. A) With a neat sketch, explain the function of various components parts of pneumatic caisson. 5 B) Determine depth of embedment of cantilever sheet pile with following conditions. i) Unsupported Height H = 6m ii) Soil retained and soil below dredge line is clay ( φ = 0) with conconfined compressive strength of 70 kN/m2 and unit weight of 17 kN/m3. 8 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC420* SLR-PC – 420 Seat No. Set A S.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 DATA STRUCTURES (Old) Day and Date : Wednesday, 27-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the most correct alternative (MCQ): (1×20=20) 1) ()(A + B) (C * D) is written as ______in prefix. a) /+AB*CD b) +AB/*CD c) /+ABCD* d) + AB*CD/ 2) Which of the data structure is used in recursion ? a) Queue b) Tree c) Stack d) List 3) Hashing is an ______a) Searching technique b) Sorting technique c) Both a) and b) d) None of these 4) NULL char is represented by a) \n b) \0 c) \N d) \e 5) malloc( ) function is used in dynamic memory allocation is available in which header file ? a) Stdio.h b) conio.h c) stdlib.h d) mem.h 6) Following sequence of operations are performed on stack. Push(10),push(20),pop, push(10),push(20),pop, pop, pop, push(20),pop The Sequence of values popped out is a) 20,10,20,10,20 b) 20,20,10,10,20 c) 10,20,20,10,20 d) 20,20,10,20,10 7) One of the following is not a logical operator a)& b)&& c)|| d)! P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 420 -2- *SLRPC420* 8) For the following declaration how many bytes of memory will be allocated ? Struck Stud { int roll; float percent; }; a) Six b) Four c) Two d) None of these 9) ______storage class is having lifetime throughput the program. a) auto b) extern c) static d) none 10) Queue can be implemented using Linked list. a) True b) False 11) Overflow of stack is due to ______operation a) POP b) PUSH c) ENQ d) None 12) Array is a ______data structure. a) Primitive b) Non Primitive c) User defined d) None of these 13) A Queue is called as ______a) LIFO b) FIFO c) FILO d) None of these 14) The complexity of Bubble Sort algorithm is a) O (n) b) O (log n) c) O(n2) d) O (n log n) 15) For PUSH operation of Stack, to push a particular element at location a) rear – 1 b) top – 1 c) rear + 1 d) top + 1 16) Quick Sort is implemented using a) Recursion b) Traversal c) Heaps d) Queues 17) To create a Linked List we can allocate space and make something point to it, by writing struct-name *ptr_var;Which of the following will correctly allocate the space. a) ptr_var=malloc(sizeof(*struct-name)); b) ptr_var=malloc(sizeof(struct struct-name)); c) ptr_var=malloc((sizeof struct-name)); d) ptr_var=malloc sizeof struct(struct-name); 18) Recursion means the process which calls a) Itself b) Other Process c) Both a) and b) d) None 19) The FILE structure is defined in which of the following files. a) io.h b) string.h c) stdio.h d) Fi.h 20) In ______searching records must be in sorted order. a) Linear Search b) Hashing c) Binary Search d) Chaining ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC420* -3- SLR-PC – 420 Seat No. S.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 DATA STRUCTURES (Old) Day and Date : Wednesday, 27-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. SECTION – I 2. Answer the following questions (any four) : (4×5=20) 1) Explain multidimensional arrays with example. 2) Explain abstract data type in detail. 3) Write a note on C preprocessor. 4) Write a function to make cube of a number entered by user. Write main() and call the function from main(). 5) Write a C program to add two 2×2 matrices. 3. Solve any two of the following : (2×10=20) 1) Write a note on File Opening modes in C. 2) Write a note on bitwise operator and Logical Operators in detail. 3) Write a menu driven C program to write a record in the text file and read and display the record from text file. The structure should contain roll number, name and city. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 420 -4- *SLRPC420* SECTION – II 4. Solve any four : (4×5=20) a) What is recursion ? Describe different properties of recursive definition b) Write a note on Priority Queue. c) Describe circular singly linked list. d) Explain Hashing. What is Hash Function ? e) Write a program for Bubble sort. 5. Solve any two of the following : (2×10=20) 1) What is recursion ? Write a recursive program for calculating factorial of a number. 2) What is doubly Linked List ? Describe following operations with diagrams and C program code : a) Insert at Beginning b) Delete End c) Display. 3) Sort elements 10, 05, 50, 12, 08, 07, 25, 42 using following sorting methods : i) Insertion Sort ii) Merge Sort. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC421* SLR-PC – 421 Seat Set No. A S.E. (Part – I) (Biomedical Engg.) Examination, 2015 ELECTRICAL NETWORK ANALYSIS AND SYNTHESIS (Old) Day and Date : Wednesday, 27-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. 3) Figures to right indicate full marks. 4) Assume suitable data if necessary. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : (20×1=20) 1) Thevenins equivalent resistance of N/W is a) 2 Ω b) 0 Ω c) 1Ω d) ∞ 2) Norton’s equivalent circuit consists of a) current source with impedance in parallel b) voltage source with impedance in series c) only voltage source d) only current source 3) To neglect a voltage source, the terminals across the source are a) open circuited b) short circuited c) replaced by current d) none 4) Superposition theorem requires as many circuits to be solved as there are a) nodes b) meshes c) sources d) none of these 5) The value of resistance which should be connected between terminals A and B for max. power to be transferred from source to load is equal to a) source resistance b) load resistance c) either a) or b) d) none of these 6) For the circuit shown equivalent resistance across terminals a – b will be a) 5 K b) 10 K c) 15 K d) None 7) The equivalent Thevenins voltage source for given network is a) 20 V b) 40 V c) –10 V d) +10 V P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 421 -2- *SLRPC421* 8) The tieset schedule gives the relation between a) branch current and link current b) branch voltage and link current c) branch current and link voltage d) none 9) For mesh analysis which of the following is correct ? a) no. of unknown in equation are equal to no. of meshes b) use of KVL c) both a) and b) d) either a) or b) 10) The value of currents I1 and I2 in circuit are respectively a) 6 A, 4 A b) 6 A, 6 A c) 6 A, 3 A d) 4 A, 6 A 11) In an two port network open circuit impedance parameters are expressed as a) V1 V2 in terms of I1, I2 b) I1 I2 in terms of V1, V2 c) either a) or b) d) both a) and b) 12) The time constant of a series R-L circuit is a) L ⋅ R b) L/R c) R/L d) e– R/L 13) The two port network is symmetrical if a) Z11 = Z22 b) Z12 = Z21 c) AD – BC = 1 d) h12 = – h22 14) Inductor does not allow sudden change in a) current b) voltage c) either a) or b) d) none of these 15) A polynomial q(s) is Hurwitz if a) q(s) is real when ‘s’ is real b) q(s) is real and have real root which are zero or –ve c) it has conjugate pair of complex roots d) both b) and c) 16) The steady state value of current in given circuit is a) 4 A b) 2 A c) 1 A d) None 17) In the given inductive circuit the following equation represents ckt correctly a) V = L di b) V = IR c) V = IR + L di d) V = IR + 1 di dt dt L dt 18) A minimum reactance function is one which has a) no zeros at origin b) no poles at origin c) no zero on imaginary axis d) no poles on imaginary axis 19) Two two-port networks are connected in parallel it is convenient to use a) open circuit impedance parameter b) short circuit admittance parameter c) transmission parameters d) inverse h-parameters 20) A capacitor c at time t = 0+ with zero initial charge will acts as a) short circuit b) open circuit c) current source d) voltage source ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC421* -3- SLR-PC – 421 Seat No. S.E. (Part – I) (Biomedical Engg.) Examination, 2015 ELECTRICAL NETWORK ANALYSIS AND SYNTHESIS (Old) Day and Date : Wednesday, 27-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Figures to right indicate full marks. 2) Assume suitable data if necessary. SECTION – I 2. Attempt any four : (4×5=20) a) What is the difference of potential between X and Y for the network shown below b) State and explain KVL and KCL with their sign conventions. c) Find the direction and magnitude of current (I) flowing through 5 Ω resistor by using node analysis. d) Calculate the effective resistance between the terminals A and B for the network shown below. (All resistors are in ohms) e) Find the current flowing through load resistance by using mesh analysis (all resistors are in ohms). 3. Solve any two : (2×10=20) a) Draw the Thevenins equivalent ckt and Nortons equivalent ckt of the network shown Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 421 -4- *SLRPC421* b) i) Find the current flowing through 5 Ω resistor by using super position theorem. ii) Find the value of RL which will absorb max. power from network. Also find the value of max. power c) Explain current and voltage transformation techniques. By using this technique replace the network with one voltage source and series resistance (all resistors are in ohms). SECTION – II 4. Solve any four : (4×5=20) a) Derive the expression for series connection of two port network. b) Derive and explain response of R-L circuit when sinusoidal signal is applied across the series RL ckt. c) Explain condition for driving point function. d) Explain the terms : i) transient state and transient response ii) steady state and steady state response iii) transient time. e) Test whether the following polynomial is Hurwitz. P(s) = s4 + s3 + 3s2 + 3s + 12 5. Solve any two : (2×10=20) a) What is positive real function ? Give its properties. And check the positive realness of the function below 2 s + 2s + 25 z()s = . s + 4 b) Two identical sections of network shown in fig. are to be connected in series obtain z-parameters of the combination. c) Explain the properties of Hurwitz polynomials. ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLR-PC-422* SLR-PC – 422 Seat Set No. A S.E. (Computer Science and Engg.) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 DATA STRUCTURE – I (Old) Day and Date : Wednesday, 27-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct alternative : 20 1) If n is number of disks, the number of disk movements in Towers of Hanoi are a) 2n–1 b) 2n – 1 c) n2 – 1 d) none of above 2) A pointer to float accesses following bytes of memory. a) 1 b) 2 c) 4 d) 10 3) Number of parameters in calloc( ) function is/are a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 0 4) The function free ( ) is used to a) To unlink first and last node b) To separate the node from link list c) To attach a node to other link list d) To release the memory of node 5) The fseek( ) function is used to a) Set the position to desired point in the file b) Give current position in the file c) Set the position to the beginning of the file d) None of these 6) While initializing a string variable during its declaration a) We must include a null character b) Not required to include the null character c) It is optional to include null character d) String cannot be initialized during declaration 7) Which of the following data structure is used in recursion ? a) Queue b) Stack c) Link list d) Tree 8) Which of the following is “value at address” operator ? a) ∧ b) & c) * d) @ P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 422 -2- *SLR-PC-422* 9) The recursion function would result in infinite recursion if following is left out a) Recursive call b) Base condition c) Parameter in function d) Subtraction 10) Which of the following is essential for converting an infix expression to the postfix form efficiently ? a) A parse tree b) Operand and operator stack c) Operator stack d) Operand stack 11) The operation of processing each element in the list is known as a) Sorting b) Merging c) Inserting d) Traversal 12) Which of the following name does not relate to stacks ? a) FIFO lists b) LIFO list c) Piles d) Push-down lists 13) Linked lists are best suited a) for relatively permanent collections of data b) for relatively variable size of data c) for storing the data at contiguous location d) for none of above situation 14) In a circular queue FRONT = REAR indicates a) Queue is full b) Queue is empty c) Queue contains only one element d) Queue contain some element 15) The elements of linked list are stored in a) Successive memory location b) Random memory location c) Alternate memory location d) Not stored any where 16) Infix form of the expression (e + (c *d)) – (a + b) is a) – + * e c d + ab b) – + e * c d + a b c) + – + * e c d a b d) + e * c d – + a b 17) The situation when PTR->NEXT = START in a circular linked list, means a) PTR is at the first node in the linked list b) PTR is at the last but one node in the linked list c) PTR is at the last node in the linked list d) PTR is at the middle node in the linked list 18) In the declaration : char *argv[ ] ; argv is a) array of strings b) array of pointers to strings c) pointer to an array of strings d) pointer to a string 19) In circular queue, the empty spaces are filled using formula a) (rear + front) / size b) (rear – front) % size c) (rear – 1) % size d) (rear + 1) % size 20) Mode of the fopen( ) function specifies a) Which file is to open b) Purpose of opening the file c) The number of times file opened d) Where the file is saved ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLR-PC-422* -3- SLR-PC – 422 Seat No. S.E. (Computer Science and Engg.) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 DATA STRUCTURE – I (Old) Day and Date : Wednesday, 27-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. SECTION – I 2. Attempt any four : 20 a) Explain the concept of dynamic memory allocation. b) Explain with example the concept of array of pointers. c) Write a recursive function for finding 6th Fibonacci number in a Fibonacci series. State how many times the function is called. d) Write a programme to copy one string into other string without using library function. e) Explain the functions used to open, read and write the file using examples. 3. Write a recursive program for Towers of Hanoi and draw a tree structure of recursive calls for 3 disks. 10 OR Write a program to copy the content of one file into other file. Display the content of both the files. 4. Explain in detail any 4 library functions for string processing with example. 10 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 422 -4- *SLR-PC-422* SECTION – II 5. Attempt any four : 20 a) What is stack ? Explain its different operations. b) What is a drawback of linear queue ? How it is overcome in circular queue ? c) Write a function to create a doubly linked list. d) Write a function to insert a node in the beginning of singly linked list. e) Explain the procedure for evaluation of postfix expression using stack with example. 6. Write a program for addition of two polynomials using singly linked list. 10 OR Write an algorithm for converting infix expression into postfix. Elaborate using example. 7. Write a program to implement linear queue and perform the operations. 10 1) Insert 2) Delete 3) Display. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC423* SLR-PC – 423 Seat Set No. A S.E. (CSE) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 SWITCHING THEORY AND LOGIC DESIGN (Old) Day and Date : Thursday, 28-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct alternatives : (20×1=20) 1) The output of an exclusive – NOR gate is 1. Which input combination is correct ? a) A = 1, B = 0 b) A = 0, B = 1 c) A = 0, B = 0 d) None of the above 2) Which statement below best describes the function of a decoder ? a) A decoder will convert a decimal number into the proper binary equivalent b) A decoder will convert a binary number into a specific output representing a particular character or digit c) Decoders are used to prevent improper operation of digital systems d) Decoders are special ICs that are used to make it possible for one brand of computer to talk to another 3) How is a J-K flip-flop made to toggle ? a) J = 0, K = 0 b) J = 1, K = 0 c) J = 0, K = 1 d) J = 1, K = 1 4) Convert the binary number (1001.0010)2 to decimal. a) 9.062 b) 9.125 c) 9.800 d) 9.400 5) How many different states does a 3-bit asynchronous counter have ? a) 2 b) 4 c) 8 d) 16 6) Which of the following is a type of shift register counter ? a) Decade b) Binary c) Ring d) BCD 7) The storage element for a static RAM is the ______a) Diode b) Resistor c) Capacitor d) Flip-flop 8) Select the statement that best describes Read-Only Memory (ROM). a) Nonvolatile, used to store information that changes during system operation b) Nonvolatile, used to store information that does not change during system operation c) Volatile, used to store information that changes during system operation d) Volatile, used to store information that does not change during system operation P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 423 -2- *SLRPC423* 9) What kind of logic device or circuit is used to store information ? a) Counter b) Buffer c) Inverter d) Register 10) A ______shift register can be used as SISO, SIPO, PISO, PIPO shift register. a) Bi-directional b) Universal c) Unidirectional d) None of these 11) For the device shown here, assume the D input is LOW, both S inputs are HIGH and the EN input is HIGH. What is the status of the Y outputs ? a) All are high b) All are low c) All but Y 0 is LOW d) All but Y 0 is HIGH 12) A decoder can be used as a demultiplexer by ______a) Tying all enable pins LOW b) Tying all data-select lines LOW c) Tying all data select lines HIGH d) Using the input lines for data selection and an enable line for data input 13) MUX is ______implementation. a) AND-OR b) OR-AND c) NAND-OR d) NOR-AND 14) A dynamic RAM is fabricated using ______technology. a) MOS b) Bipolar c) SRAM d) Sliver plates 15) Gate level is also called as a) RTL b) Logic Level c) Architecture Level d) Processor Level 16) Which of the following level is concern of the hardware designer ? a) Processor level b) Gate level c) Register level d) None of these 17) The size of memory chip is specified by two numbers as M/N bits, where ‘N’ stands for a) No. of words b) No. of bits c) No. of locations d) None 18) How many total bits are stored in 16K*4 memory device ? a) 4096 b) 1024 c) 65536 d) 10368 19) For conserving power in multiplexed display in IC 7447 following pin is used a) RBI b) BI c) LT d) RBO 20) A PLA can be used a) As a microprocessor b) As a dynamic memory c) To realize a sequential logic d) To realize a combinational logic ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC423* -3- SLR-PC – 423 Seat No. S.E. (CSE) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 SWITCHING THEORY AND LOGIC DESIGN (Old) Day and Date : Thursday, 28-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. SECTION – I 2. Solve any four : (4×5=20) a) Perform the following arithmetic operation (2.9 – 5.3)10. b) Implement Boolean Expression using NAND gate. f = [(A +B)C]D c) Explain don’t care condition and simplify following expression f(a, b, c, d) = Σ m(3, 7) + d (5, 6). d) Define : 1) SOP 2) POS 3) Boolean Laws 4) XOR 5) ALU e) Design and explain a MOD-8 counter. 3. Design 2 bit comparator using k-map and implement it using logic gates. 10 4. a) Explain 4 bit ripple counter with the help of waveform. 10 OR b) Minimize the four variable logic function F = AB + A C′+ C + AD + AB′C+ABC+B′ using k-map and realize using NAND gates only. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 423 -4- *SLRPC423* SECTION – II 5. Attempt any four questions : (4×5=20) a) What is Data Selector ? Implement the equation F (A, B, C, D) = Σ m (0, 2, 6, 8, 9, 12, 14) using single 8:1 multiplexer. b) Give the classification of memory in detail. c) Design a full adder using 8:1 multiplexer. d) Explain the timing characteristics for read cycle with diagram. e) Explain static RAM and dynamic RAM. 6. Attempt any two questions : (2×10=20) a) Design a 2048*8 memory using 256*8 memory chips. b) What are the major components of processor level design ? Explain the processor level design with examples in detail. c) What is decoder ? Explain decoder for 7 segment display using IC 7447. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC424* SLR-PC – 424 Seat Set No. A S.E. (Computer Science and Engineering) (Part – II) (Old) Examination, 2015 DATA STRUCTURE – II Day and Date : Wednesday, 27-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time :10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : (20×1=20) 1) The time factor when determining the efficiency of algorithm is measured by ______a) Counting microseconds b) Counting the number of key operations c) Counting the number of processor cycles d) Counting the kilobytes of algorithm 2) Two main measures of the efficiency of an algorithm are a) Processor and memory b) Data and time c) Complexity and capacity d) Space and time 3) Binary search algorithm cannot be applied to a) Pointer array b) Sorted binary trees c) Sorted linked list d) Sorted linear array 4) For sorting the elements with partition exchange sort, which method is used ? a) Bubble sort b) Quick sort c) Merge sort d) All of the above 5) If we have the array 12, 15, 11, 17, 19, 22, 31, 18 after first partitioning of quick sort, which of the following statement is correct ? a) The pivot could be either 17 or 19 b) The pivot could be 17, but it is not 19 c) The pivot is not 17, but it is 19 d) Neither 17 nor 19 is the pivot 6) The worst case analysis of heap sort is ______a) O(n2) b) O (log n) c) O (n log n) d) O(n) 7) Rehashing can be used in ______a) Quadratic probing b) Linear probing c) Separate chaining d) All of the above P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 424 -2- *SLRPC424* 8) The hash function H(key) = key % 100 will produce the following range of values. a) 0 – 99 b) 0 – 100 c) 1 – 99 d) 1 – 100 9) Which of the following suffers from the clustering problem ? a) Linear probing b) Quadratic probing c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these 10) A BST is traversed in the following order recursively: right, root, left. The output sequence will be in ______a) Descending order b) In-order c) Ascending order d) Post-order 11) How many distinct BST can be formed which contains the integers 8, 9, 7 ? a) 6 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 12) In ______tree, all the null pointers are replaced by their corresponding threads that point back to their in-order successor in the binary tree. a) B-Tree b) Binary Tree c) Binary Threaded Tree d) B+ – Tree 13) For an AVL tree, the balance factor is calculated as ______a) BF = Height of right subtree-Height of left subtree b) BF = Height of left subtree-Height of right subtree c) BF = Height of tree d) None of these 14) In AVL tree which is valid balance factor ? a) 0, – 1, 1 b) 0, 2, – 1 c) – 1, – 2, 2 d) None of these 15) In B-tree of order m, internal nodes contain at the most ______keys. a) m/2 b) m – 1 c) m d) m + 1/2 16) A complete binary tree with height h can contain exactly ______codes. a) 2h – 1 b) 2h–1 c) 2h d) None of these 17) A graph in which all nodes are of equal degree is known as ______a) Multi graph b) Isomorphic graph c) Regular graph d) Complete graph 18) Topological sort can be applied to only ______a) Acyclic graph b) Cyclic graph c) All types of graph d) None of above 19) The DFS traversal is analogous to ______a) In order traversal of tree b) Pre-order traversal of tree c) Post-order traversal of tree d) None of these 20) Graph is a ______data structure. a) Linear b) Static c) Non-linear d) None of the above ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC424* -3- SLR-PC – 424 Seat No. S.E. (Computer Science and Engineering) (Part – II) (Old) Examination, 2015 DATA STRUCTURE – II Day and Date : Wednesday, 27-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time :10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. SECTION – I 2. Solve any four : (5×4=20) 1) Explain the concept of Big O and Omega notations. 2) Explain collision resolution techniques in hashing. 3) What is linear probing ? Inset numbers 37, 38, 72, 48, 98, 11,56 into table of size 7 using linear probing. Hash function f(k) key mod table size. 4) Write an algorithm of insertion sort technique. 5) Write a program in C for linear search of a given character from string and display all index at which the character appears. 6) Use quick sort technique to sort the following elements from array : 24, 56, 47, 35, 10, 90, 82 3. Write a C program for implementing Merge sort technique. 10 4. What is binary search tree ? Write a C program to implement insertion, deletion and traversal in binary search tree. 10 OR Write an algorithm for Heap Sort and sort the following numbers using Heap Sort 98, 55, 21, 7, 9, 87, 34, 66, 76 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 424 -4- *SLRPC424* SECTION – II 5. Solve any four : (5×4=20) 1) Explain insertion operation in multi-way search tree. 2) Define the Graph and explain any one in-memory representation of graph. 3) Give the definition of B+tree and explain it’s advantages and usage. 4) Give any one traversal algorithm for graph. Also explain with example. 5) Explain the left-higher (double rotation) rotation case of AVL Tree with example. 6) List the applications of tree and graph data structures. 6. Explain finding shortest path in a given graph using Dijikstra’s algorithm. 10 7. Explain with algorithm right balance of an AVL Tree. 10 OR 7. Write a C function to implement DFS and BFS for graph traversal. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC425* SLR-PC – 425 Seat Set No. A S.E. (CSE) (Part – II) (Old) Examination, 2015 FORMAL SYSTEMS AND AUTOMATA Day and Date : Friday, 29-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : (20×1=20) 1) Which string can be generated by S → aS/bA, A→ d/ccA ? a) aabccd b) adabcca c) abcca d) abababd 2) The regular expression have all strings of 0’s and 1’s with no two consecutive 0’s is a) (0+1)+ b) (0+1)* c) (0+∈) (1+10)* d) (0+1)*011 3) Which of the following String can be obtained by the language L = {aib2i/i>=1} ? a) aaabbbbbb b) aabbb c) abbabbba d) aaaabbbabb 4) Let R1 and R2 be regular sets defined over alphabet Σ then a) R1 UNION R2 is regular b) R1 INTERSECTION R2 is regular c) Σ INTERSECTION R2 IS NOT REGULAR d) R2* IS NOT REGULAR 5) The intersection of CFL and regular languages a) Is always regular b) Is always context-free c) Both option 1 and option 2 above d) Need not be regular 6) R1 and R2 are regular sets. Which of the following is not true ? a) R1 R2 neet not be regular b) Σ * – R1 is regular c) R1 R2 is regular d) Is regular 7) A language L is accepted by a FSA if it is a) CFL b) CSL c) Recursive d) Regular P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 425 -2- *SLRPC425* 8) Which of the following regular expression identity is true ? a) r(*) = r* b)(r*s*)*=(r+s)* c) (r+s)* = r*+s* d) r*s* = r* + s* 9) The regular expression have all strings in which any number of 0’s is followed by any number of 1’s followed by any number of 2’s is a) (0+1+2)* b) 0*1*2* c) 0*+1+2 d) (0+1)*2* 10) baa*c denotes the set a) {bnamcp|n, m, p≥ 1} b) {banc|n ≥ 0} c) {banc|n ≥ 1} d) {w|w is a string of a, b, c} 11) The basic difference between PDA and TM is in ______a) Acceptance of regular language b) Acceptance of CFL c) Computation of function d) None of these 12) If q0 is the initial state and x is a string to be accepted by the TM, then the initial configuration of TM is represented by ______()Δ ()Δ () a) q0, x b) q0, x c) x, q0 d) none of these 13) PDA makes the use of ______a) Linked list b) LIFO c) FIFO d) tree 14) Turing machine has ______a) Finite and read only memory b) Infinite and read only memory c) Infinite and read-write memory d) Finite and read-write memory 15) In the Universal TM, the nonblank tape symbols of a TM T1 are encoded as ______i+1 i+2 i i+2 a) s(qi)=0 b) e(qi)=0 c) s(qi)=0 d) s(qi)=0 16) The TM can have strong computing power because its R/W head on the input tape can ______a) Move in forward direction b) Move in backward direction c) Remain stationary d) All of these 17) In the parse tree, the interior nodes corresponds to the ______a) Variables that appears in the derivation b) Terminals that appears in the derivation c) Start symbol of the CFG d) None of these 18) The language L = {anbncndn where n, k > 0} is a ______a) Context sensitive language b) Context free language c) Regular language d) Recursively enumerable language 19) The intersection of a CFL and a regular language ______a) Need not be regular b) Need not be context free c) Is always regular d) Is always CFL 20) UTM influenced the concept of ______a) Stored program computers b) Interpretive implementation of programming language c) Computability d) All of these ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC425* -3- SLR-PC – 425 Seat No. S.E. (CSE) (Part – II) (Old) Examination, 2015 FORMAL SYSTEMS AND AUTOMATA Day and Date : Friday, 29-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. SECTION – I 2. Answer any four questions : 20 a) Find regular expression for i) Only two 0 and 1 in any order ii) String doesn’t end with 11. b) Give recursive definition for 1) Set of all strings in {0, 1}* containing substring 00. 2) Set containing numbers divisible by 2 and 4. c) Show that for any integer n > 2, there is a prime p that must satisfy n < p < n! d) List and define types of grammar. e) 1) Give English descriptions of the languages of the regular expression (0*1*)*000 (0 + 1)*. 2) Give English descriptions of the languages of the regular expression (0 + 10)*1*. 3. Answer any one question : 10 1) Construct an NFA equivalent to the regular expression ((0+1) (00+11) (0+1))* 2) Find the left most and right most derivation corresponding to the tree. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 425 -4- *SLRPC425* 4. Explain the Chomsky Normal Form. Convert the CFG with following productions to CNF : 10 S→AACD A →aAb| ∧ C→aC|a D →aDa|bDb| ∧ SECTION – II 5. Attempt any four : (4×5=20) A) Define PDA. Explain with example the configuration of PDA. B) State and explain the pumping lemma for CFL. C) Explain the types of acceptance by PDA. D) Design Turing Machine for L = {0n1n2n | n> = 0} E) Draw Schematic diagram of TM and explain what ID of Turing Machine is with example. F) Explain the shift-reduce parser with example. 6. Attempt any one : 10 A) Explain in detail the variations of Turing machines. B) Draw and explain the NPDA to recognize the language of all palindrome strings over {a, b}. 7. Explain in detail the Universal Turing machine and encoding function of Turing Machine. 10 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLR-PC-426* SLR-PC – 426 Seat Set No. A S.E. (CSE) (Part – II) (Old) Examination, 2015 COMPUTER NETWORKS – I Day and Date : Saturday, 30-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct alternative : (20×1=20) 1) Framing is the function of ______layer. a) DLL b) Physical c) Network d) Transport 2) Which of the following is not a collision-free protocol ? a) A Bit Map b) Binary Countdown c) Both a) and b) d) CSMA 3) Interaction between two layers of same machine is called ______a) Protocol b) Interface c) Peer entities d) Physical medium 4) The physical layer concern with the transmission of ______over the physical medium. a) Program b) Dialogs c) Protocols d) Bits 5) Which protocol is known as Utopia ? a) A simplex stop and wait protocol b) A simplex protocol with noisy channel c) An unrestricted simplex protocol d) A one bit protocol 6) Flooding is ______type of algorithm. a) Dynamic b) Adaptive c) Static d) Both a) and b) 7) In IEEE 802.4 LAN Std. stations logically operates in ______topology. a) Star b) Bus c) Ring d) Mesh 8) Preamble field of IEEE Std. 802.3 contains a bit pattern ______. a) 1101100 b) 10101010 c) 11110000 d) 00001111 P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 426 -2- *SLR-PC-426* 9) The maximum value or strength of the signal over a time is known as ______a) Peak Amplitude b) Frequency c) Periodic Signal d) None of above 10) Presentation layer of OSI Reference Model concern with ______a) Token Management b) Synchronization c) Dialog Control d) Syntax and Semantics of data transmission 11) IPv4 address 192.168.1.2 belongs to which class ? a) Class A b) Class B c) Class C d) Class D 12) A bit map protocol is known as ______a) Limited contention protocol b) Binary countdown protocol c) Reservation protocol d) Both a) and b) 13) RARP stands for a) Reservation address reveres protocol b) Reveres address resolution protocol c) Resolution address reveres protocol d) None of above 14) Interior Gateway routing protocol is known as ______a) OSPF b) BGP c) BOOTP d) DHCP 15) Hierarchical Routing is ______Routing algorithm. a) Adaptive b) Non-Adaptive c) Simple d) Static 16) In ______operation, both stations may transmit, but only one at a time. a) Simplex b) Full Duplex c) Half Duplex d) Multiplex 17) Which technique is use to avoid the problem of breaks in Token Ring n/w. a) Transmit mode b) Listen mode c) Wire center d) Ring Interface 18) ______method is use to detect as well as correct the error. a) CRC b) Parity check c) Two dimensional parity check d) Hamming code 19) How many bytes are reserves for data field of IEEE 802.3 std. ? a) 0-1500 bytes b) 0-8182 bytes c) Unlimited bytes d) None of above 20) In which mode of OFC data transmission provide superior performance ? a) Step-index mode b) Single mode c) Graded index multimode d) Simple mode ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLR-PC-426* -3- SLR-PC – 426 Seat No. S.E. (CSE) (Part – II) (Old) Examination, 2015 COMPUTER NETWORKS – I Day and Date : Saturday, 30-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. SECTION – I 2. Attempt any four : (4×5=20) a) Explain business uses of computer network. b) What are the different Transmission Impairment ? c) Explain Physical description, applications and transmission characteristics of twisted pair cable. d) What are the different service primitives for implementing a simplex connection oriented service ? e) Which are the various services offered by DLL to N/W layer ? f) What is framing method ? Explain Bit Stuffing Framing method. 3. Attempt any one : 1) Explain ATM reference model in detail. 10 OR 2) Explain Hamming Code in detail. 10 4. Write a short note on : (2×5=10) a) Protocol Hierarchy b) Unrestricted Simplex Protocol Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 426 -4- *SLR-PC-426* SECTION – II 5. Attempt any four : (4×5=20) a) Explain A Bit Map Protocol. b) Explain ALOHA in detail. c) Explain link state routing algorithm. d) Explain classful IP addresses in detail. e) Write a short note on Wire Center. f) What is Firewall ? 6. Explain Leaky Bucket Algorithm in detail. 10 OR Explain Shortest Path Routing Algorithm in detail. 10 7. Explain address resolution protocol with neat diagram. 10 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC427* SLR-PC – 427 Seat Set No. A S.E. (I.T.) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 DATA STRUCTURES – I (Old) Day and Date : Wednesday, 27-5-2015 Total Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions from Section – I and II are compulsory. 2) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 3) Assume data if necessary. 4) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct option : (20×1=20) 1) Which data structure is needed to convert infix notation to postfix notation ? A) Branch B) Queue C) Tree D) Stack 2) A linear collection of data elements where the linear node is given by means of pointer is called as A) Linked list B) Node list C) Primitive list D) None of these 3) A queue is a A) FIFO B) LIFO C) Ordered array D) Linear tree 4) Function malloc returns a pointer of type void * to the memory it allocates and If it is unable to allocate memory, it returns a NULL pointer A) True B) False P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 427 -2- *SLRPC427* 5) Which of the following traversal techniques lists the nodes of a binary search tree in ascending order ? A) Post-order B) In-order C) Pre-order D) None of the above 6) Which of the following name is related to stacks ? A) FIFO lists B) LIFO list C) Pipes D) Push-down lists 7) Finding the location of the element with a given value is A) Traversal B) Search C) Sort D) None of above 8) The term “push” and “pop” is related to the A) Array B) Lists C) Stacks D) All of above 9) Which is/are the application(s) of stack ? A) Function calls B) Evaluation of arithmetic expressions C) Large number arithmetic D) All of the above 10) Which of the following data structure store the homogeneous data elements ? A) Array B) Records C) Pointers D) None of above State true or false : 11) Towers of hanoi is an example of recursion. 12) int*p means p is a pointer to an integer type. 13) Dynamic memory allocation allocates memory during run time. 14) Insertion does not happen in a linked list. 15) Circular linked list allocates deletes one element at a time. 16) Arrays are linear data structure. 17) fseek( ) is a file searching method. 18) Recursion is an application of stack. 19) getch( ) is a string library function. 20) By default file pointer takes first position in a file. Set A ______ www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC427* -3- SLR-PC – 427 Seat No. S.E. (I.T.) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 DATA STRUCTURES – I (Old) Day and Date : Wednesday, 27-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions from Section – I and II are compulsory. 2) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 3) Assume data if necessary. SECTION – I 2. Attempt any four : (5×4=20) 1) Define Queue and explain its operations. 2) Explain declaration and initialization of string. 3) Define and explain recursion with example. 4) Define and explain dynamic memory allocation. 5) Explain at least five file operations. 3. Attempt the following : (5×2=10) A) Explain pointer to functions with the help of an example. B) Explain string operations. 4. Define towers of hanoi. Explain its representation and implementation. 10 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 427 -4- *SLRPC427* SECTION – II 5. Answer the following questions (Any four) : 20 A) Explain priority queue. B) Define stack and its applications. C) Describe two methods to represent circular queue. D) Define and explain singly linked list. E) Define and explain doubly linked list. 6. Explain stack using linked list in detail. 10 7. Write short notes on : 10 a) Queue using linked list b) Applications of queue. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC428* SLR-PC – 428 Seat Set No. A S.E. (Information Technology) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 SWITCHING THEORY AND LOGIC DESIGN (Old) Day and Date : Thursday, 28-5-2015 Total Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : 1) Which of the following combinations of gates does not allow the implementation of an arbitrary Boolean function ? a) OR gates and inverters only b) NAND gates only c) OR gates and exclusive – OR gates only d) OR gates and NAND gates 2) An OR gate has 5 inputs. How many input words are there in its truth table ? a)6 b)36 c)32 d)64 3) What is the form of the Boolean expression Z = ()P + Q ()P + R ? a) Product of sums b) Sum of products c) Karnaugh map d) Matrix 4) In a positive edge triggered JK flip-flop, a low J and a low K produce the ______state A high J and a high K mean that the output will ______on the rising edge of the clock. a) active, race b) inactive, toggle c) inactive, dead d) active, constant 5) The terminal count of a 3 bit binary counter in the down mode is ______a) 000 b) 111 c) 101 d) 010 6) The logic expression for Y(P, Q, R) = ∑ m (1, 6, 7) is equivalent to ______a) ∑ m(0, 2, 5, 6) b) ∑ m (0, 2, 3, 4, 5) c) Π M (0, 2, 3, 4, 5) d) None of these 7) A logic circuit used to compare binary number is a) Analog comparator b) Binary compare circuit c) Digital comparator d) Digital technique 8) A carry look ahead adder is frequently used for addition because it ______a) is faster b) is more accurate c) uses fewer gates d) costs less 9) How many flip-flops are required to make a MOD-32 binary counter ? a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6 P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 428 -2- *SLRPC428* 10) When two counters are cascaded, the overall MOD number is equal to the ______of their individual MOD numbers. a) product b) sum c) log d) reciprocal 11) Which of the following are not a standard multiplexer ICs ? a) 74151 b) 74152 c) 74153 d) 74155 12) IC 74153 is a multiplexer having a) Dual 1 : 8 lines b) 1 : 4 lines c) Dual 4 : 1 lines d) 16 : 1 lines 13) A memory (2k × n), there are k address lines, which can specify one of 2k addresses. Each address contains an n-bit word. a) True b) False 14) Can we combine smaller chips to make wider memories, for example a (64K × 16) RAM, created from two (64 K × 8) chips. The left chip contains the most significant 8 bits of the data. The right chip contains the lower 8 bits of the data. a) True b) False 15) A PAL is comprised of programmable ______gates. a) NAND b) NOR c) OR d) AND 16) MUX implements which of the following logic ? a) NAND-XOR b) AND-OR c) OR-AND d) XOR-NOT 17) There are following levels in design methodology i) Gate level ii) Register transfer level iii) Processor level a) i, ii only b) i, iii only c) i, ii, iii d) ii, iii only 18) A memory whose data need to be refreshed periodically is called ______a) Static memory b) Dynamic memory c) Content addressable memory d) RAM 19) What is the meaning of RAM, and what is its primary role ? a) Readily available memory, it is the first level of memory used by the computer in all of its operations b) Random access memory; it is memory that can be reached by any sub-system within a computer, and at any time c) Random access memory; it is the memory used for short-term temporary data storage within the computer d) Resettable automatic memory; it is memory that can be used and then automatically reset, or cleared, after being read from or written to 20) Multiplexing of digital signals is usually required when a) Moving data internally within a microprocessor b) Moving data between memory and storage registers in a microprocessor c) Moving data over long distance transmission lines d) Moving data internally within a microprocessor or between memory and storage registers ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC428* -3- SLR-PC – 428 Seat No. S.E. (Information Technology) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 SWITCHING THEORY AND LOGIC DESIGN (Old) Day and Date : Thursday, 28-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. SECTION – I 2. Solve any four : (4×5=20) a) Convert the following expression in to Standard POS form : y = AB + AC . b) Minimize the following expressions using K-maps and realize using basic gates Π f1(A, B, C, D) = M(1, 2, 3, 5, 10, 11, 13, 14, 15) c) Design 1 bit comparator using K-map and implement it using universal gates. d) Design Up-down counter with neat circuit diagram. e) Explain bi-directional shift register. 3. Solve any two : (2×10=20) a) What is flip-flop ? Explain different types of flip-flop with truth table and excitation table. b) Design full adder using NAND gates. c) Draw and explain operation of carry look ahead adder. SECTION – II 4. Solve any four : (4×5=20) a) Implement the following combinational circuit using a decoder ∑ f1 = m (8, 10, 13, 15) ∑ f2 = m (3, 5, 9, 13) ∑ f3 = m (1, 4). b) Implement full sub tractor using multiplexer. c) Define the terms : twc (write cycle time) and access cycle time (ta). d) Explain the different types of memories in details. e) Explain the 3-level design methodology. 5. Solve any two : (2×10=20) a) Design a 8-line to 256-line decoder using 4-line to 16-line decoder. b) Write a short note on following : i) PLA ii) ROM. c) Explain expansion of word size with example. ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC429* SLR-PC 429 S e a t 5 A J ) N o . S.E. (I.T) (Part II) Examination, 2015 DATA STRUCTURE II (Old) Day and Date : Wednesday, 27-5-2015 Total Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 2) Assume data if necessary. 3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct option : (20×1=20) 1) A binary tree can easily be converted into q 2-tree a) by replacing each empty sub tree by a new internal node b) by inserting an internal nodes for non-empty node c) by inserting an external nodes for non-empty node d) by replacing each empty sub tree by a new external node 2) A binary tree in which if all its levels except possibly the last, have the maximum number of nodes and all the nodes at the last level appear as far left as possible, is known as a) full binary tree b) AVL tree c) threaded tree d) complete binary tree 3) A binary tree of depth d is an almost complete binary tree if a) Each leaf in the tree is either at level d or at level d-1 b) For any node n in the tree with a right descendant at level d all the left descendants of n that are leaves, are also at level d c) Both a) and b) d) None of the above 4) A binary tree whose every node has either zero or two children is called a) Complete binary tree b) Binary search tree c) Extended binary tree d) None of above 5) A full binary tree with 2n+1 nodes contain a) n leaf nodes b) n non-leaf nodes c) n-1 leaf nodes d) n-1 non-leaf nodes 6) A full Binary tree with n leaves contains a) n nodes b) 2n-1 nodes c) log n nodes d) nodes 2 n P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 429 -2- *SLRPC429* 7) If a node having two children is deleted from a binary tree, it is replaced by its a) Inorder predecessor b) Inorder successor c) Preorder predecessor d) None of the above 8) In a binary tree, certain null entries are replaced by special pointers which point to nodes higher in the tree for efficiency. These special pointers are called a) Leaf b) Branch c) Path d) Thread 9) One can convert a binary tree into its mirror image by traversing it in a) Inorder b) Preorder c) Postorder d) Any order 10) The depth of a complete binary tree is given by a) Dn = n log2n b) Dn = n log2n+1 c) Dn = log2n d) Dn = log2n+1 11) The number of leaf nodes in a complete binary tree of depth d is a) b) @ @ c) d) @ @ 12) To arrange a binary tree in ascending order we need a) Post order traversal b) In order traversal c) Pre order traversal d) None of the above 13) When converting binary tree into extended binary tree, all the original nodes in binary tree are a) Internal nodes on extended tree b) External nodes on extended tree c) Vanished on extended tree d) None of above 14) If a node in a BST has two children, then its inorder predecessor has a) No left child b) No right child c) Two children d) No child 15) A BST is traversed in the following order recursively : Right, root, left the output sequence will be in a) Ascending order b) Bitomic sequence c) Descending order d) No specific order 16) Queue can be used to implement a) Radix sort b) Quck sort c) Recursion d) Depth of first 17) Two dimensional arrays are also called a) tables arrays b) matrix arrays c) both of above 18) A variable P is called pointer if a) P contains the address of an element in DATA b) P points to the address of first element in DATA c) P can store only memory addresses d) P contain the DATA and the address of DATA 19) The complexity of linear search algorithm is a) O(n) b) O(log n) c) O(n2) d) O(n log n) 20) The complexity of Binary search algorithm is a) O(n) b) O(log n) c) O(n2) d) O(n log n) ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC429* -3- SLR-PC 429 S e a t N o . S.E. (I.T) (Part II) Examination, 2015 DATA STRUCTURE II (Old) Day and Date : Wednesday, 27-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 3) Assume data if necessary. SECTION I 2. Attempt any four of the following : (5×4=20) a) What is a big-O notation ? Explain its significance. b) Write a short on complexity of algorithm. c) What are the factors to be considered during the selection of a sorting technique ? d) What is the time complexity of the quick sort algorithm to sort a list of n equal elements ? Explain. e) What is hashing ? What are the different methods used for calculating hash functions ? Explain with suitable example. 3. Explain the algorithm of the following collision resolution techniques. 10 1) Closed hashing (also called linear probing). 2) Open hashing (also called chaining). 4. Arrange the following elements in the sorted order using insertion sort : 30, 20, 35, 14, 90, 25, 32 Show the step by step process. Explain its Best case time complexity and worst case time complexity. 10 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 429 -4- *SLRPC429* SECTION II 5. Attempt any four of the following : (5×4=20) a) Write a C function to delete a node from a binary search tree. b) Explain the difference between depth-first search and breadth-first search traversing technique of a graph. c) Define and explain strictly binary tree and completely binary tree. d) Write a C function to count the number of leaf nodes in a binary tree. e) Explain in detail shortest path using Dijkstras algorithm. 6. Draw the AVL tree resulting from the insertion of the following integer keys : 10 50, 72, 96, 94, 107, 26, 12, 11, 9, 2 7. Construct the tree if preorder and inorder traversal of a binary tree is given : 10 Preorder : G B Q A C K F P D E R H Inorder : Q B K C F A G P E D H R. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC43* SLR-PC – 43 Seat Set No. A T.E. (Civil) (Part – II) (New) Examination, 2015 ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING – II Day and Date : Tuesday, 19-5-2015 Total Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. 3) Solve any three questions from Section – I i.e. Question No. 2 to Question No. 5. Question No. 6 is compulsory in Section – II and solve any two questions from the remaining. 4) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 5) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and mention it clearly. 6) Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : 20 1) For circular sewer running fill the value of H.M.D. is ______a) D/4 b) D c) D/8 d) None of these 2) ______is the flow in sewers available in non-rainy periods. a) WWF b) DWF c) SWF d) MWF 3) ______is used to measure settlable solids in the sewage. a) Whitman’s filter paper b) Muffle furnace c) Crucible d) Imhoff cone 4) The term Sludge Volume index is associated with sewage sample from ______a) Aeration tank b) Primary Sedimentation tank c) Trickling filter d) Grit chamber 5) Unit of ______is ml/gm. a) HRT b) Sludge age c) SVI d) Qr 6) Purpose of sludge drying beds is to ______a) Remove large suspended Solids b) Prevent the pipes from clogging c) Protect the pumps from clogging d) Remove excess water from sludge coming out from PST and SST or digesters 7) Velocity control devices are needed in ______a) Screen chamber b) Grit chamber c) PST d) SST 8) ______is settling cum digestion tank. a) Septic tank b) PST c) Aeration tank d) None of these P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 43 -2- *SLRPC43* 9) Bacteria-algal symbiosis is observed in aerobic oxidation ponds. a) Aerated lagoon b) Oxidation ditch c) Aerobic oxidation ponds d) Anaerobic lagoon 10) Example/s of suspended growth treatment unit/s is/are ______a) ASP b) Trickling filter c) Rotating biological contactor d) All of above 11) The ratio of quantity of receiving water or effluent discharge is called ______a) Reduction factor b) Recirculation factor c) Dilution factor d) Self-purification 12) ______occurs in the stream due to hydrolysis of organic matter. a) Reduction b) Oxidation c) Dilution d) Temperature 13) The variation of oxygen deficit with the distance along stream is depicted by the ______a) Saturation b) Oxygen sag curve c) Self-purification d) Temperature 14) ______is method in which organic matter is digested anaerobically and converted into stable compounds. a) Incineration b) Pulverization c) Biogas d) Composting 15) ______involves using all techniques and equipments to improve the efficiency to recover solid wastes. a) Waste generation b) Processing c) Onsite storage d) Transport and transfer 16) In ______system the wastewater collection networks are shorter in length and smaller in diameter, quantity of wastewater to be treated at the end of network is relatively small. a) Partially separate b) Centralized c) Combined d) Decentralized 17) The depletion of ozone in the outer atmosphere may result in increased ______a) Heart attack cases b) Skin cancer cases c) Asthma cases d) None of these 18) Electrostatic precipitators are used as pollution control device for the separation of ______a) SO2 b) NO2 c) Particulate matter d) Hydrocarbons 19) Most widespread air pollutants are ______a) Sox b) NOx c) CO d) Ozone 20) The acid rains are caused by the pollutants a) SO2 and O3 b) SO2 and NOx c) NOx and O3 d) CO and SO2 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC43* -3- SLR-PC – 43 Seat No. T.E. (Civil) (Part – II) (New) Examination, 2015 ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING – II Day and Date : Tuesday, 19-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from Section – I i.e. Question No. 2 to Question No. 5. Question No. 6 is compulsory in Section – II and solve any two questions from the remaining. 2) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and mention it clearly. 4) Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed. SECTION – I 2. a) Give classification of screen chamber. Draw plan and section of screen chamber. 7 b) Determine BOD7 at 30°C of a sewage sample having BOD5 value of 200 mg//Lit at 20°C. Take k 20 = 0.23/day (base e). 6 3. a) Discuss steps involved in design of septic tank by Rational Method. 5 b) Design the activated sludge aeration unit for following data : 8 i) Population = 1,50,000 ii) Sewage flow = 150 lpcd iii) Peak factor = 3 iv) Raw sewage BOD5 = 300 mg/Lit v) Effluent BOD5 = 15 mg/Lit vi) F/M = 0.2 vii) MLSS = 3000 mg/Lit viii) SVI = 100 gm/Lit. 4. a) Explain NRC equation for two stage filter. 5 b) Explain stages in anaerobic digestion process. Draw sketch of stratification in anaerobic digester. 8 5. Write short notes on following (any three) : 14 1) Design criteria for grit chamber 2) Algal bacterial symbiosis 3) Oxidation ditch 4) Sludge drying beds. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 43 -4- *SLRPC43* SECTION – II 6. a) Explain zones of pollution of streams. 6 b) Explain with neat sketch ‘structure of atmosphere’. 6 7. a) Write the advantages of Decentralized wastewater treatment system. 6 b) Using following data find out critical point and its location. 8 Sewage Stream Flow (m3/s) 50 800 DO (mg/I) 0 9.17 BOD5 at 20°C (mg/I) 225 0 Assume deoxygenation coefficient K as 0.12 and coefficient of self purification (fs) as 3.5. The velocity of stream downstream is 0.16 m/s. Given saturation Do of mixture is 9.17 mg/I. 8. a) Explain two methods for mechanical composting adopted in India. 8 b) Explain the functional element of municipal solid waste management with flow diagram. 6 9. Write short note on : a) Effects of air pollutants on human health 4 b) Trenching 5 c) Cyclone separator. 5 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC430* SLR-PC – 430 Seat Set No. A S.E. (IT) (Part – II) (Old) Examination, 2015 FORMAL SYSTEM AND AUTOMATA Day and Date : Friday, 29-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : (20×1=20) 1) Ambiguous grammar produces a) More parse tree b) No parse tree c) Graph d) None 2) DFA have ______memory. a) Finite b) Infinite c) Undetermined d) None 3) (a + b)* + (a + b)* gives a) Odd length string b) Even length string c) String contains a and b d) String containing at least one a or b 4) The procedure to convert CFG to CNF consist of Eliminating a) Null production b) Unit production c) Useless production d) All of the above 5) CFG S-->aSa| bSb|a|b is a) Even palindrome b) Odd palindrome c) String contain equal no of a and b d) None 6) Consider regular language L = {111+11111}* for this ______is minimum states in DFA. a) 3 b) 5 c) 8 d) 9 7) Which of the following regular expression all possible combinations over alphabets {a,b} ? a) a*b* b) (ab)* c) (a + b)* d) (a + b*) P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 430 -2- *SLRPC430* 8) For which of following application regular expression cannot used a) Lexical analysis b) Finding pattern in text c) Both d) None 9) The grammar S => aSb / ∧ generates a) {anbn : n>=1} b) {anbn : n>=0} c) {ambn : m> 1, n>=0} d) None 10) CFG can be recognized by a) PDA b) Finite automata c) NFA d) None 11) Turing is the machine format of a) Type 0 language b) Type 1 language c) Type 2 language d) Type 3 language 12) Which is true for mechanical diagram of PDA ? a) PDA contains a stack b) The head reads as well as writes c) The head moves from left to right d) Input string is surrounded by infinite number of blank in both side 13) The difference between finite automata and PDA is in a) Reading Head b) Input tape c) Finite Control d) Stack 14) Pumping lemma is generally used for proving that a) Given grammar is regular b) Given grammar is not regular c) Two given expression are equivalent or not d) None 15) CFL are closed under a) Star b) Union c) Concatenation d) All above 16) L = (anbncn where n ≥ 1) can be recognise by a) TM b) PDA c) Both d) None 17) L = (ap where p is prime) is a) CFL b) Non CFL c) DFA d) None 18) We can equivalence between CFG and PDA a) True b) False 19) CFL not closed under a) Complement b) Union c) Intersection d) None of the above 20) Turing machine ______simulate RAM. a) May b) Maynot c) Can d) Cannot ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC430* -3- SLR-PC – 430 Seat No. S.E. (IT) (Part – II) (Old) Examination, 2015 FORMAL SYSTEM AND AUTOMATA Day and Date : Friday, 29-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. SECTION – I 2. Solve any four : (4×5=20) 1) Write Context Free Grammar generating the language L = {ai bj c k| j = i + k}. 2) Draw finite automata for even a’s in string. 3) What is regular expression ? Explain with example. 4) For the following regular expression draw an NFA _ ∧ with the help of Kleen’s theorem (0 + 1) (01)*(011)*. 5) Give the application of finite automata. 6) Draw Finite Automata that accepts string ending with “101”. 7) Prove every finite language is regular. 3. Answer any one : 10 1) Convert the following NFA _ ∧ into FA. 2) Prove that for class of regular language closed under operation of union concatenation and *. 4. Show that the grammar : 10 S --> A|B A --> aAb | an B --> abB |∧ is ambiguous. Find the CFG with unambiguous grammar. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 430 -4- *SLRPC430* SECTION – II 5. Solve any four : (4×5=20) 1) What is PDA ? Explain with example. 2) State and explain pumping lemma for regular language. 3) Explain the concept of basic Turing Machine Model. 4) Obtain a TM to accept the language containing string of 0’s and 1’s and ending with 011. 5) Explain deterministic pushdown automata with example. 6. Solve any one : 10 1) Design a Turing Machine to accept the language L = {anbn, where n ≥ 1}. Show an ID for the string ‘aaabbb’ with tape symbols. 2) Construct a PDA to accept a given language L by empty stack and final state both where L = (anbn, where n ≥ 1) with transition and string “aaabbb”. 7. Obtain a TM to accept a palindrome consisting of a’s and b’s for odd and even length. 10 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC431* SLR-PC – 431 Seat Set No. A S.E. (Information Tech.) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 COMPUTER NETWORKS – I (Old) Day and Date : Saturday, 30-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. 3) All questions are compulsory. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose correct alternatives : 20 1) The strength of a signal falls off with distance is a) Delay distortion b) Noise c) Attenuation d) None 2) Which device is used for converting analog signal into digital signals. a) Telephone b) Codec c) Modem d) Transceiver 3) Guided medium is ______if it provides a direct link between two devices. a) Point-to-point b) Multi-point c) Multi-grading d) All 4) The ______rate is the rate at which signal elements are generated. a) Data b) Modulation c) Speed d) All 5) Which of the following is scrambling technique. a) B82S b) Bipolar, AMI c) HDB3 d) Both a) and c) 6) ______are privately-owned networks within a campus. a) LAN b) MAN c) WAN d) Both a) and c) 7) In OSI, ______layer is a true end-to-end layer. a) Network b) DLL c) Transport d) Session 8) In ATM reference model, ______layer deals with cells and cells transport. a) Physical b) AAL c) ATM d) All P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 431 -2- *SLRPC431* 9) A simple method of error-detecting code is ______a) Hamming code b) Parity bit c) Hamming distance d) All 10) The technique of temporarily delaying outgoing acknowledgement so that they can be hooked onto the next outgoing data frame is known as a) Acknowledgement b) Feedback c) Piggybacking d) Transmission 11) ARP resolves ______a) Physical to IP b) IP to Physical c) IP address to subnet address d) None 12) Flooding is most ______routing algorithm. a) Efficient b) Inefficient c) Effective d) None 13) Mask is ______bit No. a)8 b)16 c)32 d)128 14) ______is inter domain routing protocol. a) OSPF b) BGP c) IP d) All 15) Preamble in frame is used for ______a) To indicate start of frame b) To control congestion c) To indicate length of data d) To synchronize receivers clock with senders clock 16) Subnetting devides ______a) Larger network to smaller network b) Larger classfull address space to small range c) Both a) and b) d) None 17) Which following algorithm is used to control congestion ? a) Leaky bucket b) Flooding c) Shortest path d) Distance vector routing 18) Highest efficiency is achieved in ______a) Collision free protocols b) Collision protocols c) Both a) and b) d) None 19) Bridge connects ______a) Two networks b) Two LAN’s c) Both a) and b) d) None 20) IP datagram has ______bytes fixed header. a)4 b)16 c)8 d)20 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC431* -3- SLR-PC – 431 Seat No. S.E. (Information Tech.) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 COMPUTER NETWORKS – I (Old) Day and Date : Saturday, 30-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. 6.00 p.m. Instruction : All questions are compulsory. SECTION – I 2. Solve any four (each carries 5 marks) : (4×5=20) A) Describe NRZ-L and NRZI encoding. B) List and explain advantage of optical fiber. C) Describe need of protocol hierarchies. D) Explain TCP/IP protocol. E) Explain unrestricted simplex protocol. F) Describe Hamming code with example. 3. Describe Co-axial cable with the help of its physical description, transmission characteristics and applications. 10 OR What is computer network ? List and explain uses of computer network. 10 4. List and explain all design issues of Data Link Layer. 10 SECTION – II 5. Attempt any four : (4×5=20) 1) Explain Ethernet 802.3 LAN standard. 2) Discuss network layer design issues. 3) What is routing ? Explain flooding in detail. 4) Discuss RARP in detail. 5) Write a note on subnetting and supernetting. 6. a) Explain pure ALOHA, slotted ALOHA, CSMA, CSMA/CD in detail. 10 OR a) Compare 802.3, 802.4 and 802.5 in detail. 7. Write short note on (any two) : 10 1) OSPF 2) BGP 3) Leaky bucket algorithm. ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC44* SLR-PC 44 S e a t 5 A J A) N o . T.E. (Civil) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015 ENGINEERING MANAGEMENT II Day and Date : Thursday, 21-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct alternative (one mark each) : 20 1) The main function of project management is a) planning b) organising c) directing d) All the above 2) Uniform series of either receipt or payment is called as a) Economics b) Engg. Economics c) DCF d) None 3) Factor deposits Rs. 5000/- per month for a period of 15 years to be used for his daughters marriage taking into consideration ______factor. a) USCAF b) USSFF c) USCRF d) USPWF 4) Bar chart is suitable for a) Large project b) Major work c) Minor work d) All above 5) A draw back of bar chart is that a) all the activities are independent of each other b) it is difficult to judge whether an activity is started or not. c) The sequence of the activities is not clearly defined. d) None 6) Mile stone chart is improvement over a) PERT b) CPM c) Both a & b d) None 7) The earlier method used for planning of project was a) CPM b) PERT c) Barchart d) Milestone chart 8) In network compression which of the following cost is important ? a) Direct cost b) Indirect cost c) Total cost d) All above P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 44 -2- *SLRPC44* 9) PERT involves ______curve. a) b) c) d) All the above 10) The difference between total float and free flight is called as a) TF b) FF c) Ind-f. d) None 11) A dummy activity in a network a) Is shown by dotted line b) Is an artificial activity c) Does not consume any resource d) All the above 12) When large number of activities overlap each other ______network is best suited. a) CPM b) PERT c) Precedence d) GERT 13) In engineering economics ______interest is useful a) simple b) compound c) both a) and b) d) none 14) Value Engineering is useful for a) Cutting down unnecessary cost b) Improving quantity c) Both a) and b) d) None 15) When interest rate is compound ______, the investor will get more money. a) Monthly b) Quarterly c) Biannually d) Annually 16) The system which supports managerial decision making by supplying information is a) DBMS b) Expert system c) MIS d) None 17) MIS utilizes a) Hardware b) Software c) Data base d) All the above 18) The software package used for development of network is a) Primivera b) Success planned software c) HTPM d) All the above 19) For finding how much additional capital expenditure is necessary at repesent time to achieve future cost benefits over the life of facility is a) Value Engineering b) Sensitivity Analysis c) Life cycle costing d) None 20) BOT is used for a) Building operate and transfer system b) Constructing a masonry wall c) Government project d) None ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC44* -3- SLR-PC 44 S e a t N o . T.E. (Civil) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015 ENGINEERING MANAGEMENT II Day and Date : Thursday, 21-5-2015 Max. Marks : 80 Time :3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 3) In Section I, Q. No. 5 is compulsory, solve any two questions from Q. 2 to 4. 4) In Section II, Q. No. 9 is compulsory, solve any two questions from Q. 6 to Q. 8. SECTION I Answer any two questions from Q. 2 to Q. 4 Q. 5 is compulsory. 2. a) Write in short about MIS. 4 b) For the following PERT project find out the probability of completing the project 3 days earlier than the expected time. 10 E x p e c t e d t i m e ( d a y s ) I m m e d i a t e l y A c t i v i t y p r e c e d i n g A c t i v i t y O p t i m i s t i c M o s t l i k e l y P e s s i m i s s t i c A 6 9 1 2 B A 1 4 1 7 2 0 C B 1 3 1 8 2 5 D 4 7 8 E A 3 5 9 A 7 1 0 1 3 F G C , F 1 2 1 5 1 8 H D , E 9 1 1 1 2 I F 1 0 1 4 1 6 J G , H , I 1 7 2 0 2 5 [For z = 1 probability = 15.87% For z = 2 probability = 2.28%] Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 44 -4- *SLRPC44* 3. a) Differentiate between CPM and PERT. 4 b) Find out optimum cost and optimum time if indirect cost is Rs. 1100/- week. 10 N o r m a l C r a s h A c t i v i t y D u r - w e e k s C o s t ( R s . ) D u r - w e e k s C o s t ( R s . ) 1 - 2 7 4 , 0 0 0 5 6 , 0 0 0 1 - 3 1 1 5 , 0 0 0 1 1 5 , 0 0 0 9 , 0 0 0 1 - 4 1 9 7 , 5 0 0 1 6 2 - 3 6 6 , 0 0 0 5 8 , 5 0 0 3 - 5 1 4 4 , 5 0 0 1 2 6 , 0 0 0 4 - 5 1 3 1 0 , 0 0 0 9 1 5 , 0 0 0 4. a) State different types of floats and their importance. 4 b) A project consist of following data : 1 - 2 1 - 3 1 - 4 2 - 5 3 - 6 4 - 5 4 - 6 4 - 7 5 - 7 6 - 7 ) ? J E L E J O 6 3 4 0 4 1 2 1 0 8 8 5 - 6 , K H @ = O I 1) Draw the network, find out CP & P.D. 2) Following conditions exists at the end of 10 days. a) Activity 1-2, 1-3, 1-4, having completed as per schedule. b) Activity 4-5, 4-6, 3-6 are in progress and will require 6, 6 and 01 more day for its completion. c) Other activities have not started and their project duration holds good except for activity 5-7 which will require only 3 days instead of 5 days planned originally update the Network. 10 5. Write short notes on : (4 marks each) a) MSP and Primi-viera b) WBS c) Bar chart Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC44* -5- SLR-PC 44 SECTION II Solve any two questions from Q. 6 to Q. 8, Q. No. 9 is compulsory. 6. a) Discuss in short about life cycle costing. 4 b) A programme for replacement of production equipment has been developed which calls for an expenditure of Rs. two lakhs five years from now, Rs. one lakh fifty thousand eight years from now and Rs. two lakh seventy five thousand twelve years from now. What single sum would have to be invested now at interest rate of 12% compound annually to provide these expenditures ? 10 7. a) A sum of money is accumulated by depositing Rs. 1200/- per annum for 10 years with i = 10% per year. What amount will be accumulated at the end of the year ? 4 b) In order to access to a factory, a site engineer is faced with problem of crossing a main railway line. The estimated costs and lives concerning with two alternatives are as follows : 10 Alternative Bridge Under Pass 1) Initial Cost of the structure 30,000 25,000 < < 2) Initial cost of associated earthwork 20,000 15,000 < < 3) Maintenance peryeir 200 500 < < 4) Cost of pumping surface water drainage Nil 750 < 5) Life of structure 60 yrs. 60 yrs. 6) Life of associated earthwork perpetual perpetual Which alternative is to be selected on the basis of EUAC method with i = 8%. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 44 -6- *SLRPC44* 8. a) State the types of values associated with value engineering. 4 b) A civil engineer is trying to decide between two construction machines detailed below : 10 Machine A Machine B First cost 11 lakhs 18 lakhs < < Annual operating cost 3.5 lakhs 3.10 lakhs < < Salve value 1,00,000 2 lakhs < < Life in years 06 09 Determine which machine should be selected on the basis of PWM with i = 15%. 9. Write short notes on : (4 marks each) a) BOT b) Value analysis c) Different phases in value engg. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC441* SLR-PC 441 e a t S Set A N o . S.E. (Part I) (Chemical Engineering) Examination, 2015 PHYSICAL AND INORGANIC CHEMISTRY Day and Date : Thursday, 18-6-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 11.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : (20×1=20) 1) For one mole of an ideal gas the equation of state is given as a) PV = RT b) PV = nRT c) V = RT/P d) P = RT/V 2) ______equations express the compressibility factor of a gas. a) Virial b) Van-der Waals c) Redlich-Kwong d) Benedict Webb-Rubin 3) Velocity of chemical reaction increases with _____ temperature. a) decrease in b) increase in c) constant d) moderate 4) The dimension of K for first order reaction is a) sec1 b) dm3 mol1 sec1 c) dm3 mol1 d) mol1dm3 5) The surface area of an adsorbent can be determined by ______equation. a) Langmuir adsorption b) BET c) Clapeyron d) Friendluich 6) The accumulation of gaseous substance on the surface of solid is called as a) adsorption b) absorption c) desorption d) chemisorption 7) A catalyst functions by a) increasing the forward reaction rate b) increasing the concentration of the products c) changing the equilibrium constants d) reducing the activation energy P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 441 -2- *SLRPC441* 8) Time for half chang in second order reaction is related to velocity constant as 0 . 6 9 3 1 1 3 t t t a) t b) c) d) K K a K 2 K a 9) Decomposition of N2O5 is an example of ______reaction. a) First order b) Second order c) Third order d) Zero order = 2 L > 4 6 10) In Van der Waals equation , a & b are called ______ constants. L a) Critical b) Ven der Waals c) Gas d) Reaction 11) Chlorophyll consist of a) calcium b) magnesium c) porphyrin d) both b) and c) 12) Co gas is a) Colourless b) Odourless c) Poisonous d) All of these 13) In case of open system a) Matter is lost b) Energy is lost c) Both a) and b) d) None of the above 14) In [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl complex, the oxidation state of Cobalt is a) +1 b) +3c) +2 d) 0 15) Water gas is an equimolar mixture of a) CO + H2 b) NO2 + H2 c) CO + NO2 d) None of these 16) If the temperature remains same throughout the system, an equilibrium is known as a) Thermal equilibrium b) Mechanical equilibrium c) Chemical equilibrium d) None of these 17) The only transition metal is a) Ca b) O2 c) He d) Sc Y e a s t 18) C6H12O6 2C2H5OH + ) the product A is A n a e r o b i c C o n d i t i o n a) 2H2O b) 2CO2 c) O2 d) H2O2 19) Spontaneous process takes place a) by both the directions b) in only one direction c) both a) and b) d) none of these 20) In case of SP2 hybridization, the observed geometry is a) Linear b) Trigonal c) Tetrahedral d) Square planar ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC441* -3- SLR-PC 441 S e a t N o . S.E. (Part I) (Chemical Engineering) Examination, 2015 PHYSICAL AND INORGANIC CHEMISTRY Day and Date : Thursday, 18-6-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 11.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Question No. 2 and 6 are compulsory. Solve any two questions from Q. No. 3 to 5 and Q. No. 7 to 9. 2) Use of nonprogrammable calculators are permitted. 3) Figures to the right indicate full marks. SECTION I 2. a) Give an account of CFT w.r.t. octahedral complex. 5 b) Give the mechanism and kinetics of enzyme catalysed reaction. 5 c) What are diffusion controlled reactions ? Estimate the diffusion controlled rate constant for the combination of molecules A and B in water at 25°C. The coefficient of viscosity of water at this temperature is 103 Kg m1s1. 6 3. a) Explain the formation of an octahedral complexes according to crystal field theory. 6 b) What are the factors influencing adsorption ? 6 4. a) Derive Langmuirs adsorption isotherm. Show how the isotherm may be tested graphically. 6 st J b) Write a note on pseudounimolecular reactions. For 1 order reaction is 100 sec. What is the rate constant of the reaction ? 6 5. a) What is Myoglobin ? Explain the structure and working of myoglobin. 4 b) Explain mechanism of thermal decomposition of N2O5. 4 c) Write a note on general properties of colloidal solutions. 4 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 441 -4- *SLRPC441* SECTION II 6. a) What is equation of state ? What are the limiting conditions to be satisfied by such equations ? 7 b) A Carnot engine operating between two heat reservoirs at 500 K and 300 K, absorbs 4180 J from 500 K reservoir per cycle. How much heat is discharged into 300 K reservoir and how much work is done per cycle ? What is the efficiency of the engine ? 5 c) What are the special properties of Helium ? 4 7. a) Explain in detail the third law of thermodynamics. 6 b) Explain the Ostwalls process of preparation of Nitric acid. 6 8. a) How do you explain the physical significance of virial coefficients ? 6 b) Enlist the different uses of oxygen and carbon dioxide. 6 9. Write a short notes on (any 3) : 12 a) Polytropic process b) Helmholtzs free energy c) Peng-Robinson equation d) Properties of SO2. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLR-PC-442* SLR-PC – 442 Seat No. S.E. (Chemical Engg.) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 CHEMICAL PROCESS CALCULATIONS Day and Date : Saturday, 20-6-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 11.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m. Note : i) Answer three quesitons from Section – I and three questions from Section – II. ii) Answers to the two Sections should be written in separate answer-books. iii) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary. iv) Figures to the right indicate full marks. v) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket calculator and steam tables is allowed. vi) Assume suitable data, if necessary. SECTION – I 1. a) The flow rate of sodium chloride solution through a pipe is reported as 150 kg/sec. the density of solution is 1.150 gm/cm3, calculate the volumetric flow in cubic feet per minute. 8 b) Carburetted water gas has the following composition by volume : H2 – 35.2%, CH4 – 14.8%, C2H4 – 12.8%, CO2 – 1.5%, CO – 33.9% and N2 – 1.8%. The gas is available at 101.3 kN/m2 and 300 K. Express the composition by wt% and determine the average molecular weight and density of the gas. 10 2. a) An aqueous solution of H2SO4 contains 18% H2SO4. The density of solution is 1152 kg/m3. Find i) Mole % of H2SO4 in the solution ii) Molarity iii) Molality iv) Normality of the solution. 8 b) A Portland cement sample contained 20.7% SiO2 by weight derived from two silicate compounds, SiO2.2CaO and SiO2.3CaO that are present in the cement in the mole ratio 3 :4. Determine the present weight of each silicate compound in the cement. 8 P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 442 -2- *SLR-PC-442* 3. 1500 kg of mixed acid of composition 40% H2SO4, 45% HNO3 and 15% H2O is to be produced by strengthening waste acid of composition 30% H2SO4, 36% HNO3 and 34% of H2O by weight. Concentrated sulphuric acid of strength 95% and concentrated nitric acid Containing 80% are available for this purpose. How many kilograms of waste acid and concentrated acid are to be mixed together ? 16 4. a) A mixture of CuSO4. 5H2O and FeSO4.7H2O weighs 100g. is heated in an oven at 378 K to evaporate water of hydration. The mass of mixture after removal of water is 59.78 g. Calculate the mass ratio of CuSO4 to FeSO4 in the mixture. 8 b) Crystals of MgCl2.6H2O have solubility of 190 g per 100 g ethanol at 298.15 K. It is desired to make 1000 kg of saturated solution. Calculate the quantities of the crystals and ethanol required to make the above solution. Also find the composition of saturated solution by mass. 8 5. a) Acetone is recovered from acetone air mixture containing 25% acetone by volume by scrubbing with water. Assume that air is insoluble in water; determine the % of acetone that is absorbed in water if the gas mixture leaving the scrubber analyses 5% acetone. 6 b) The average molar mass of a flue gas sample is calculated by two different engineers. One engineer use the correct molar mass of 28 of N2 and determines the average molar mass to be 30.08, the other engineer, using an incorrect value of 14, calculate the average molar mass to be 18.74 : i) Calculate the volume % of N2 in the flue gases. ii) If the remaining components of the flue gases are CO2 and O2, calculate the volume percentage of each of them. 10 SECTION – II 6. A 1 : 3 nitrogen mixture is fed to a converter resulting in 20% conversion to ammonia. After the complete separation of Ammonia unconverted gases are recycled to the converter. The initial reaction mixture contains 0.2% arogan by volume. If the limit argon in the reactor is 5% by volume of N2-H2 mixture in the reactor. Estimate the following : i) The fraction of recycle that is purged ii) The moles of ammonia produced per 100 moles of feed iii) The overall conversion of ammonia. 18 www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLR-PC-442* -3- SLR-PC – 442 7. A gas mixture consisting of 65% N2, 35% SO3 by volume is admitted to an absorption column at a rate of 4500 kg/hr. It is contacted with a stream of 50% H2SO4 flowing counter-current to the gas stream at the rate of 5000 kg/hr. The gases leave at 101.3 kPa. Water lost with the exit gases exerts a partial pressure of 25 kPa. If the concentrated acid leaving the bottom of the column contained 75% H2SO4, what % of entering SO3 is absorbed and converted to acid ? 16 8. a) Heat capacity of gaseous SO2 is given by, 8 − − KJ C0 = 43.458 + 10.634 ×10 3 − 5.945 ×105 T 2 mp kmol. k Calculate the heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg pure SO2 from to 1000 K. b) Write short notes on : 8 i) Heat of Reaction ii) Heat of Formation. 9. A coal sample from Godavari colliery has the following proximate and ultimate analyses : Proximate Analysis Mass (%) Ultimate Analysis Mass (%) Moisture 7.0 Carbon 54.0 Voltatile matter 26.0 Hydrogen 3.0 Fixed carbon 46.0 Sulphur 0.4 Ash 21.0 Nitrogen 2.0 Ash 21.0 Oxygen (by diff) 19.4 The gross calorific value = 23392 kJ/kg at 298.15 K. 16 Calculate : i) The net hydrogen in the coal ii) The combined water in the coal iii) NCV of the coal. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 442 -4- *SLR-PC-442* 10. a) Pure methane is heated from 30°C to 250°C at atmospheric pressure. Calculate heat added per kg of methane. 4 kJ C =19.249 + (52.113 × 10–3) T + (11.973 × 106 T2) P kmol . k b) Define : 6 i) Heat of Reaction ii) Heat of formation iii) Adiabatic reaction temperature. c) Calculate the energy required to dissociate one kilogram of sodium bicarbonate. 2NaHCO3(s) = NaCO3(s) + CO2(g) + H2O(g). Data for standard heat of formation at 298 K. 6 Δ Component Hf kJ/kg Na2CO3 (s) 10666.68 NaHCO3 (s) 11319.81 H2O (g) 13424.82 CO2 (g) 8943.51 ______ www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC443* SLR-PC – 443 Seat No. S.E. (Chemical Engg.) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 FLUID FLOW OPERATIONS Day and Date : Tuesday, 23-6-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 11.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Answers to the two Sections should be written in separate answer books. 2) Answer any three questions from each Section. 3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary. 4) Figures to the right side indicate full marks. 5) Use of Calculator is allowed. 6) Assume suitable data if necessary. SECTION – A 1. a) What are Newtonian and Non-Newtonian fluids ? Give examples of each. 6 b) Define the following properties and state their units. 6 i) Density ii) Surface Tension iii) Elasticity iv) Viscosity c) Find the kinematic viscosity of oil having density 982 kg/m3 the Shear stress at a point in oil is 0.2552 N/m2 and velocity gradient at the point is 0.3 per second. 6 2. a) Define the following terms : 6 i) Gauge Pressure ii) Absolute Pressure iii) Vacuum Pressure. b) An inverted U-tube manometer is connected to two horizontal pipes A and B through which water is flowing. The vertical distance between the axes of these pipes is 30 cm. When an oil of sp. gravity 0.8 is used as a gauge fluid, the vertical heights of water columns in the two limbs of the inverted manometer (when measured from the respective centre lines of the pipes) are found to be same and equal to 35 cm. Determine the difference of pressure between the pipes. 10 P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 443 *SLRPC443* 3. a) Derive Hagen-Poiseuille equation for steady laminar flow in pipe . 8 b) A fluid of viscosity 0.1 NS/m2 is flowing through a pipe of diameter 0.15 m at the rate of 0.01m3/s density of fluid is 900 kg/m3. The length of the pipe is 1500 m. Determine the power required to maintain the flow. 8 4. Write short note on : 16 i) Friction factor chart ii) Simple and differential manometer iii) Minor losses in pipes iv) Hydrostatic Equilibrium. SECTION – B 5. a) What is a Venturimeter ? Draw a neat sketch indicating different parts of venturimeter. 6 b) Explain the principle of Pitot tube. 6 c) An orifice meter with orifice diameter 15 cm is inserted in a pipe of 30 cm diameter. The pressure difference measured by a mercury oil differential manometer on the two sides of the orifice meter gives a reading of 50 cm of mercury. Find the rate of flow of oil of specific gravity 0.9 when the coefficient of discharge of the meter is 0.64. 6 6. a) Explain phenomenon of cavitation in pumps. How can it be prevented ? Explain meaning of the term NPSH. 6 b) What is priming ? Why it is necessary ? 4 c) What are different types of valves ? Explain any one in detail. 6 7. a) Define Buckingham’s π -theorem. What are the criteria for selection of repeating variables ? 8 b) The pressure difference Δ P in a pipe of diameter D and length 1 due to turbulent flow depends on the velocity v, viscosity μ density ρ , roughness k. Obtain an expression for Δ P. 8 8. Write short note on : 16 i) Equivalent pipe ii) Continuity equation iii) adiabatic and isothermal flow iv) models and prototypes. ______ www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC444* SLR-PC – 444 Seat No. Set A S.E. (Chemical Engg.) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 STRENGTH OF MATERIAL Day and Date : Thursday, 25-6-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 11.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. 2) Figure on right indicates full marks. 3) Assume suitable data wherever needed and mention it. 4) Non programmable calculator is permitted. 5) It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 6) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct alternative. (20×1=20) 1) The tensile longitudinal stress produces ______lateral strains. a) Tensile b) Compressive c) Shear d) Torsional 2) Pascal is equal to a) 1 N/m2 b) 1 N/mm2 c) 1 KN/m2 d) 1 KN/mm2 3) Factor of safety is the ratio of a) stress to strain b) permissible stress to Ultimate stress c) ultimate stress to permissible stress d) strain to stress 4) Modulus of rigidity is known as a) Modulus of elasticity b) Shear modulus c) Bulk modulus d) Polar modulus 5) The strain energy stored in the body is known as a) Proof resilience b) Modulus of resilience c) Resilience d) None 6) The maximum stress induced in a body due to suddenly applied load is ______the stress induced when the same load is applied gradually. a) Twice b) Half c) Same as d) Three fold 7) In a loaded beam, rate of change of bending moment is equal to a) rate of loading b) shear force c) bending moment d) none 8) Bending moment at the free end of a cantilever is a) maximum b) average c) zero d) any of the above P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 444 -2- *SLRPC444* 9) Bending moment is at point of contra flexure. a) zero b) maximum c) average d) any of the above 10) Choose the correct statement : a) Bending stress is maximum at neutral axis and shear stress is maximum at extreme fibres b) Shear stress is maximum at neutral axis and bending stress is maximum at extreme fibres c) Both bending stress and shear stress are maximum at neutral axis d) Both bending stress and shear stress are maximum at extreme fibres 11) Circumferential stress is the longitudinal stress for a thin cylinder a) half b) two times c) three times d) same as 12) If thickness of the wall of the cylindrical vessel is less than if its internal diameter, it is known as a thin cylinder. a) 1/5 b) 1/10 c) 1/20 d) all above 13) In a shaft subjected to torque, shear stress is at the neutral axis. a) maximum b) zero c) average d) none 14) Strength of a shaft means its a) Tensile strength b) Compressive strength c) Capacity to transmit torque d) Shear strength 15) For a solid shaft, strain energy stored due to torsion is τ2 4C τ τ a) × V b) × V c) × V d) × C 4C τ2 C V 16) Planes carrying only normal stress are called as a) Principal planes b) Planes of equal shear c) Planes of unequal shear d) None of these 17) Limit within which Hooke’s law holds good is known as a) Elastic limit b) Yield point c) Proportional limit d) Plastic limit 18) A mild steel beam develops a bending stress of 100 N/mm2 at a distance of 0.1 m from the neutral axis. If E = 200 GPa, the radius of curvature is a) 400 m b) 200 m c) 100 m d) 50 m 19) A compressive member always tends to buckle in the direction of a) axis of load b) minimum cross section c) least radius of gyration d) perpendicular to the axis of load 20) Planes carrying maximum shear stress are a) perpendicular to each other b) co-linear to each other c) both a and b d) none of these ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC444* -3- SLR-PC – 444 Seat No. S.E. (Chemical Engg.) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 STRENGTH OF MATERIAL Day and Date : Thursday, 25-6-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 11.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m. Instructions :1) Figure on right indicates full marks. 2) Assume suitable data wherever needed and mention it. 3) Non programmable calculator is permitted. 4) Solve any 3 questions from Section I and any 3 questions from Section II. SECTION – I 2. a) Explain stress-strain curve for Mild steel with all significant point. 3 b) A hollow cast iron cylinder 4 m long, 300 mm diameter and thickness of metal 50 mm is subjected to a central load on the top when standing straight. The stress produced is 75000 KN/m2. Assume Young’s modulus for cast iron as 1.5×108 KN/m2 and find i) Magnitude of the load ii) Longitudinal stress produced iii) Total decrease in length. 10 3. a) Draw SFD of given beam 4 b) Draw SFD and BMD of following beam as shown in fig. 10 4. a) Explain how the condition of simple bending is satisfied in a beam subjected to varying bending moment and shear force. 3 b) A C.I. cantilever of length 1.5 m fails when a point load of w is applied at the free end. If the section of the beam is 40 mm × 60 mm and the bending stress at the 2 failure is 120 N/mm . Find the point load applied. 10 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 444 -4- *SLRPC444* 5. a) Draw shear stress distribution curves for following sections showing important values : i) Rectangular ii) Circular. 3 b) A beam of I section as shown in fig. is subjected to shear force of 40 kN. The moment of inertia about N.A. is 6.45 × 108 mm4. Calculate the maximum shear stress. Also sketch the shear stress distribution across the section. 10 SECTION – II 6. a) A propeller shaft of 240 mm external diameter and 180 mm internal diameter has to transmit 1100 KW at 100 rpm. It is additionally subjected to a bending moment of 10 KNm and an end thrust of 200 KN. Determine. i) Principal stresses and their planes. ii) Maximum shear stress. 10 b) Define strain energy stored due to sudden application of loading on a body. 4 7. a) An unknown weight falls through a height of 10 mm on to a collar rigidly attached to the lower end of vertical bar, 4 m long and 30 mm in diameter. If the maximum instantaneous extension is known to be 4 mm. What is the corresponding stress and the value of the unknown weight. take E = 2.05 × 105 N/mm2. 10 b) Explain effective lengths of different end conditions of column. 3 8. a) Calculate deflection of cantilever beam concentrated load at free end by double integration method. 10 b) Explain moment area method. 3 9. a) A hollow C.I. column whose outside diameter is 200 mm has a thickness of 20 mm. It is 4.5 m long and is fixed at both ends. Calculate the safe load by Rankine’s formula using factor of safety of 4. 10 b) Define equivalent torque and equivalent moment. 3 ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC445* SLR-PC 445 S e a t N o . S.E. (Chemical Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015 HEAT TRANSFER I Day and Date : Wednesday, 17-6-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 11.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Answers to the two Sections should be written in separate answer books. 2) Answer any three questions from each Section. 3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary. 4) Figures to the right side indicate full marks. 5) Use of calculator is allowed. 6) Assume suitable data if necessary. SECTION A 1. a) Derive the relation for steady state heat conduction through composite (concentric) spheres bounded by fluids at different temperatures. 8 b) A 300 mm O.D. pipe is covered with two layers of insulation (k1 = 0.105 W/m.k and k2 = 0.07 W/m.k). The better insulating material is on the outside and is 40 mm thick. The other insulating material is of 50 mm thickness. The inner and outer surface temperatures of the insulation are 623 K and 323 K. Estimate heat loss per meter length and temperature of the surface between the two layers of insulation. 10 2. a) Define an effectiveness of a fin. Derive an expression for it in case of rectangular fin if end of the fin is properly insulated. 8 b) Pin fins are provided to increase the heat transfer rate from hot surface. Two arrangements are available : i) 6 fins of 100 mm length and ii) 10 fins of 60 mm length. By calculation, show that which of these arrangements is more effective ? Data : k for fin material = 300 W/mk, h = 20 W/m2.K, cross-sectional area of fin = 2 cm2, perimeter of fin = 5 cm, Temperature of hot surface to which fins are attached is 503 K, surrounding air temperature is 303 K. 8 P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 445 -2- *SLRPC445* 3. a) Draw a neat sketch and explain different boiling regimes in poll boiling. 8 b) A surface condenser was designed for a condensation rate of 50 Kg vapor/hr. It contained 100 tubers of 10 mm O.D. and 1 m length arranged in a 10 × 10 array. The condenser was by mistake installed in the vertical position instead of in the horizontal position for which position it was designed. What is the condenser rate in the vertical position ? For horizontal position, mass flow rate of condensate is 50 Kg./hr. 8 4. Write short notes on : i) Thermal Contact Resistance ii) Dimensional Analysis iii) Thermal boundary layer iv) Film wise and drop wise condensation. 16 SECTION B 5. a) What are the different laws of Radiation ? Explain any two laws. 8 b) A 50 mm internal diameter iron pipe at 423° K passes through a room in which the surroundings are at temperature of 300°K. If the emissivity of the pipe metal is 0.8, what is the net interchange of radiation energy per meter length of pipe ? The outside diameter of pipe is 60 mm. 8 6. a) What are heat exchangers ? Give the detailed classification. 8 b) Derive the NTU-effectiveness correlation for parallel flow heat exchanger. 10 7. a) Give the physical significance of the following : 8 i) Reynolds Number ii) Prandtl Number iii) Nusselt Number iv) Grashoff number. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC445* -3- SLR-PC 445 b) A single effect evaporator is to concentrate 20,000 kg/hr of a solution having a concentration of 5% salt to a concentration of 20% salt by weight. Stream is fed to the evaporator at a pressure corresponding to the saturation temperature of 399 K. The evaporator is operating at atmospheric pressure and boiling point rise is 7 K. Calculate the heat load and steam economy. Data : Feed temperature = 298 K Specific heat of feed = 4 kJ/kg K Latent heat of condensation of steam at 399 K = 2185 kJ/kg Latent heat of vaporisation of water at 373 K = 2257 kJ/kg. 8 8. Write short notes on : 16 i) Multiple effect evaporators ii) LMTD iii) Capacity and economy of evaporator iv) Radiation shields. ______ www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC446* SLR-PC 446 Seat No. SE (Chemical Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015 CHEMICAL ENGINEERING THERMODYNAMICS Day and Date : Friday, 19-6-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 11.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m. Instruction : 1) Question No. 4 and Q. 6 are compulsory. 2) Solve any two questions from remaining ques. from each Section. SECTION I 1. a) Derive the mathematical statement of first law of thermodynamics to steady state flow process. 8 b) A steel casting weighing 2 kg of water has initial temperature of 773 K and 40 kg of water initially at 298 K is contained in a perfectly insulated steel tank weighing 5 kg. The casting is immersed in the water and the system is allowed to come to equilibrium. What is its final temperature ? Ignore any effect of expansion or contraction and assume constant specific heats of 4.18 KJ/kg.K for water and 0.5 kJ/kg.K for steel. 8 2. a) Calculate the compressibility factor and molar volume for methanol vapour at 500 K and 10 bar by using, 8 i) Turncated form of virial equation ii) Redlich-K wong equation Experimental values of viral coefficient are : B = 2.19 × 104 m3/mol, C = 1.73 × 104 m6/mol2. The critical temperature and pressure of methanol are 512.6 K and 81 bar. b) Derive the expression for work done and heat transferred for a polytropic process. 8 3. a) Two perfectly insulated tanks each of capacity 1 m3 are connected by means of a small pipeline fitted with a valve. The first tank contains an ideal gas at 300 K and 200 kPa and the second one is completely evacuated. The valve is opened and the pressure and the temperature are equalized. Determine the change in total entropy. 8 b) Explain the concept of entropy and prove that entropy is a state function. 8 P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 446 *SLRPC446* 4. a) 9 b) A copper block having a mass of 10 Kg at a temperature of 800 K is placed in a well insulated vessel containing 100 Kg water initially at 290 K, calculate the entropy change for the block the water and the total process. The heat capacities are 4.185 KJ/Kg.K for water and 0.398 KJ/Kg.K for copper. 9 SECTION II 5. a) Derive Clausius-Clapeyron equation. 8 b) State the defining equations for U, H, G and A. Using principles of 1st and 2nd law of thermodynamics derive the following property relations : i) dU = TdS PdV ii) dH = TdS + VdP iii) dG = VdP SdT iv) dA = PdV SdT 8 6. a) Calculate the fugacity of a gas at 50 bar and 400 bar, if the following data are applicable at 273 K. 10 P , 2 5 5 0 1 0 0 2 0 0 4 0 0 8 0 0 1 0 0 0 b a r Z 0 . 9 8 9 0 0 . 9 7 9 2 0 . 9 7 4 1 1 . 0 1 9 6 1 . 2 4 8 2 1 . 8 0 5 7 2 . 0 8 1 9 b) Explain the concept of ideal solution and derive equations for Gid, Sid, Vid and Hid. 8 7. The excess Gibbs energy of a binary mixture at T and P is given by GE/RT = ( 2.6x 1.8x ) x x . 1 2 1 2 and ln at T and P. i) Find expressions for ln 1 2 E and ln for various values of x . 16 ii) Tabulate the values of G /RT, ln 1 2 1 8. a) Derive Maxwell relations. 8 b) What is the physical significance of chemical potential ? Explain the effects of temperature and pressure on chemical potential. 8 www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC447* SLR-PC – 447 Seat Set No. A S.E. (Part – II) (Chemical Engg.) Examination, 2015 ORGANIC CHEMISTRY Day and Date : Monday, 22-6-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 11.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m. Instructions : i) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. ii) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. MCQ. (20×1=20) i) Which of the following will have planar structure ? • ⊕ a) b) c) d) None of these CH3 CH3 CH3 ii) Which one of these is not true for benzene ? a) Heat of hydrogenation of benzene is less than theoretical value b) There are three C – C single bonds and two C – C double bonds c) It forms only one type of mono substituted product d) The bond angle between C – C bond is 120° iii) Which of the following is not a nueleophiles ? ⊕ a) CH NH b) RO– c) d) NH – 3 2 CH3 2 iv) Delocalisation of electrons leads to a) Increase in potential energy of molecule d) Decrease in potential energy of molecule c) No change in potential energy of molecule d) None of above P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 447 -2- *SLRPC447* v) Resonance hybrid a) is less stable than canonical structure b) is unstable c) is not comparable with canonical structures d) is more stable than canonical structures vi) Which of the following species does not exert a resonance effect ? a) C6H5NH2 b) C6H5N + H3 c) C6H5OH d) C6H5Cl vii) More acidic than ethanol is a) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3 b) CH3CO2CH2CH3 c) CH3COCH2COCH3 d) CH3COCH3 viii) Order of stability of carbocations is a) 2° > 3° > 1° b) 3° > 2° > 1° c) 1° > 2° > 3° d) All are equally stable ix) Pyridine is a) a weak base b) a strong base c) a strong acid d) is neutral + x) H3O is an a) electrophile b) nucleophile c) neither electrophile nor nucleophile d) both electrophile as well as nucleophile xi) Aniline is a) weaker base than aliphatic amines b) stronger base than aliphatic amines c) has same basic strength as aliphatic amines d) none of them xii) Presence of NO2 group as a substituent makes the ring a) activating b) deactivating c) both d) none of these xiii) How electron releasing group effect the acidic character of phenol ? a) decreases b) both c) constant d) increases Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC447* -3- SLR-PC – 447 xiv) The order of stability among a) b) c) d) is ___ a) a > b > d > c b) c > d > b > a c) d > c > a > b d) d > c > b > a SO3 /Pyridine xv) ⎯⎯→⎯⎯ ⎯⎯ ? O 100 C COCH a) 3 b) SO3H O O c) NO2 d) CHO O O CHCl3 +KOH xvi) ⎯⎯→⎯⎯⎯⎯ ? N | H a) CHO b) COCH3 N N | | H H c) Cl d) Cl N N | | H OH NaNH 2 xvii) ⎯⎯→⎯⎯ ? 110 C N NH2 a) b) NH N N 2 H2N c) d) None of them N Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 447 -4- *SLRPC447* Br2 xviii) ⎯⎯→⎯ ? 300 C N Br a) ⊕ b) N N | Br c) d) None of them N Br xix) Hyperconjugation a) involves sigma and pi bond orbitals b) involves sigma bond orbitals c) involves pi bond orbitals d) none of above xx) Which is more stable as per hyper conjugation ? a) 1-butene b) 2-butene c) both are equally stable d) stability cannot be explained by hyperconjugation ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC447* -5- SLR-PC – 447 Seat No. S.E. (Part – II) (Chemical Engg.) Examination, 2015 ORGANIC CHEMISTRY Day and Date : Monday, 22-6-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 11.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m. Instructions :i)All questions are compulsory. ii) Each question carries equal marks. iii) Figures to the right indicate full marks. SECTION – I 2. Solve any four. 20 i) Explain synthesis, properties and uses of furan. ii) Explain properties and uses of Benzene. iii) Write the properties and uses of Acetoacetic acid. iv) Write mechanism for synthesis of pyrole. v) Write properties and uses of anthracene. 3. A) Write a note on : 8 i) Pyrogallol ii) Cetyl alcohols. B) Solve any two : 12 i) Write industrial uses and structural determination of sucrose. ii) Explain properties and uses of naphthalein. iii) Explain diazo reaction in amines. SECTION – II 4. Solve any four. 20 i) Write the properties and synthesis of polyvinyl chloride. ii) Write the mechanism of sulphonation of naphthalein. iii) Explain mechanism of chloronitrobenzene. iv) Write the uses of polystyrene of epoxy resin. v) Explain mechanism of benzene sulphonic acid. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 447 -6- *SLRPC447* 5. A) Write a note on : 8 i) Polyvinyl acetate. ii) Nitronaphthalein. B) Solve any two : 12 i) Explain preparation of nitroacetanilide. ii) Explain synthesis and application of nitrobenzene. iii) Write uses of polystyrene and caprolactume. ———————— Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC448* SLR-PC – 448 Seat No. S.E. (Chemical Engg.) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 MECHANICAL OPERATIONS Day and Date : Wednesday, 24-6-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 11.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Answer three questions from Section – I and three questions from Section – II. 2) Answers to the two Sections should be written in separate books. 3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary. 4) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 5) Assume suitable data wherever required. SECTION – I 1. a) Calculate the energy required to crush 100 tonnes per hour of limestone if 80% of the feed passes through a screen 3.75 cm aperture and 80% of the product passes through a screen with 0.03 cm aperture. The work index for limestone is 12.74, when the capacity is expressed in tonnes per minute energy required in HP and the size of feed and product in feet. 10 b) Explain the importance of screening operation in a process industry. 4 c) Explain the factors influencing the size of the product in the ball mill. 4 2. a) Explain capacity and effectiveness of screen. 4 b) Describe with neat sketches operation of Batch centrifuge and Continuous centrifuge. 8 c) Explain Jigging separation technique with neat diagram. 6 3. a) State advantages and limitations of pneumatic conveyor. 6 b) Why is it necessary to clean the belt ? 2 c) Describe with a sketch the working of belt conveyor and list advantages and disadvantages with typical applications. 8 4. a) A material is crushed in jaw crusher and the average size of particle reduced from 50 mm to 10 mm with consumption of energy of 13 kW/(kg/s). What will be the consumption of energy needed to crush the same material of average size 75 mm to an average size of 25 mm ? 8 i) Assuming Kick’s law ii) Assuming Rittinger law. P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 448 *SLRPC448* b) Differentiate between crushing and grinding. 6 c) What are the various advantages of wet grinding ? 2 5. a) Explain open circuit and close circuit grinding with its flowsheet. 6 b) Explain different factors influence on the size of the production Ball mill. 6 c) Explain the importance of screening operation in chemical industry. 4 SECTION – II 6. a) What are the various factors which affects the rate of filtration ? Derive an expression to calculate the rate of filtration. 8 b) A sludge is filtered in a plate and frame press filtered with 25 mm frames. For the first 600 sec. the slurry pump runs at maximum capacity. During this period the pressure rises to 415 kN/m2 and 25% of the total filtrate is obtained. The filtration takes a further 3600 sec to complete at constant pressure and 900 sec is required for emptying and resetting the press. It is found that if the cloths are precoated with filter aid to a depth of 1.6 mm, the cloth resistance is reduced to 25% of its former value. What will be the increase in the overall through-put of the press if the precoat can be applied in 180 sec ? 10 7. a) Write short notes on : 8 i) Mixing index ii) Sigma mixer b) With the help of neat sketch distinguish between radial flow and axial flow impellers. 8 8. a) Describe with neat sketches the aggregate and particulate fluidization. Give typical examples of both. 8 b) Describe with neat sketch the sedimentation operation. Also sketch typical commercial equipment. 8 9. a) Explain spouted bed. 4 b) Define fluidization. State the application of fluidization technique. 8 c) Distinguish between Free settling and Hindered settling. 4 10. Write short notes on : 16 a) Batch sedimentation b) Kynch theory of sedimentation c) Fluidization technique and its applications d) Particulate and Aggregate fluidization. ______ www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC449* SLR-PC 449 S e a t N o . S.E. (Chemical Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015 MATERIAL TECHNOLOGY Day and Date : Friday, 26-6-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 11.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Answer three questions from each Section. 2) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary. 3) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 4) Assume suitable data, if necessary. 5) Answers to the two Sections should be written in separate answer books. SECTION I 1. a) Write down the classification of engineering materials. 8 b) Define factor of safety and discuss its significance. 4 c) A steel rod 2 m long and 30 × 30 mm in cross-section is subjected to a tensile force of 40 KN. Determine the elongation of the rod, if modulus of elasticity for the rod material is 200 GPa. 4 2. a) What are the advantages of non-destructive testing of materials over destructive testing and explain in brief any two destructive testing ? 8 b) Define and explain the following terms : i) Space lattice ii) Lattice points iii) Unit cell iv) Atomic packing factor. 8 3. a) Explain Iron-Iron Carbide equilibrium diagram and show all the phases and write all reactions. 8 b) What are stainless steels ? Give typical composition and two uses of the various types of stainless steels. 6 c) List different types of brasses along with applications. 4 P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 449 *SLRPC449* 4. a) Define and explain the following terms : 4 i) Ductility ii) Malleability iii) Toughness iv) Strain hardening. b) Write short notes on (any four) : 12 i) Mild steel ii) Heat treatment of steels iii) Insulation and refectories iv) Radiographic testing v) Eddy current testing. SECTION II 5. a) Explain the different types of nanomaterials along with their physical properties and applications. 8 b) Explain in short how nanomaterials are synthesized and their applications. 8 6. a) Write short notes on characterization techniques based on electron microscopy. 8 b) Explain in detail X-ray diffraction technique for material characterization. 8 7. a) Explain the following terms : 8 1) Glass 2) Application of Silicon Carbide and Boron nitride 3) Refractories 4) Mechanical properties of Ceramics. b) Explain crystalline and non-crystalline ceramics with examples and state their applications. 8 8. Write short notes on (any four) : 18 i) Carbon based nanomaterials ii) Vitrification Process iii) Partially Stabilized Zirconia (PSZ) iv) Scanning Electron Microscopy v) Atomic Force Microscopy vi) Properties and applications silver nanoparticles. ______ www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC45* SLR-PC – 45 Seat No. Set A T.E. (Civil Engineering) (Part – II) (New) Examination, 2015 TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING – II Day and Date : Saturday, 23-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Assume suitable data wherever needed and mention it. 2) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. 3) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer. 1) For a B.G. line the minimum space for the packing between two sleepers, is a) 25 – 30 cm b) 30 – 35 cm c) 30 – 40 cm d) 40 – 45 cm 2) Yards in which locomotives are kept, repaired and where the maintenance and servicing are done is a) Locomotive yards b) Marshalling yard c) Signaling yard d) Shunting yard 3) The first railway line between Bombay and Thane was opened in 1853 having distance a) 20 km b) 33 km c) 40 km d) 38 km 4) Length of transition curve is worked out by a) L = 7.20 e b) L = 0.073 D × Vmax c) L = 0.073 e × Vmax d) All of above 5) The maximum permissible speed on M.G. is a) 100 kmph b) 75 kmph c) 90 kmph d) none 6) Throw of switch will be ______for B.G.line. a) 90 mm b) 95 mm c) 92 mm d) 89 mm 7) The Shift of transition curve can be calculated by L2 L2 L3 L3 a) S = b) S = c) S = d) S = 24R 12R 12R 24R 8) The signal used for warning is called as a) Starter Signal b) Warner signal c) Stop signal d) None of above 9) Length of crossover is calculated by a) L = B + 4GN b) L = B + 2GN c) L = B + 6GN d) L = B + 8GN P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 45 -2- *SLRPC45* 10) The length of straight switches for M.G. is a) 5480 mm b) 5485 mm c) 5800 mm d) 5400 mm 11) The purpose of providing turning zone in runway is a) For landing b) For takeoff c) Both a) and b) d) To take a turn during emergency conditions 12) A defined area on a land aerodrome intended to accommodate of loading or unloading passengers is called a) Apron b) Hangers c) Approach Surface d) Terminal Area 13) Calm period is the percentage of time during which wind intensity is less than a) 4.8 kmph b) 6.4 kmph c) 8.0 kmph d) 9.6 kmph 14) Pick up the correct statement from the following : a) The basic length of a runway is increased at a rate of 7% per 300 m of elevation of M.S.L. b) The standard temperature at the site is obtained by reducing the standard sea level temperature of 15°C at the rate of 6.5°C per 1000 m rise in elevation c) The aerodrome reference temperature is the monthly mean of the mean daily temperature for the hottest month of the year d) All the above 15) The permissible cross wind component does not exceed. a) 35 kmph b) 25 kmph c) 20 kmph d) 40 kmph 16) The best direction of a runway is along the direction of a) longest line on wind rose diagram b) shortest line on the wind rose diagram Approach Surface c) line clear of wind rose diagram d) none of these 17) In the night approximate location of the airfield is shown by a) Rotating Beacon b) Taxiway lighting c) Approach lighting d) none of these 18) ______is a structure constructed at the tip of a breakwater near the harbour entrance. a) Dolphin b) Wharf c) Pierheads d) Jetties 19) Slip is the space of water area between two a) Adjacent fenders b) Adjacent piers c) Adjacent jetties d) Adjacent dolphins 20) Basic runway length needs to be corrected for a) Elevation, gradient and temperature b) Gradient and temperature c) Elevation, gradient and pressure d) Temperature, pressure and gradient ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC45* -3- SLR-PC – 45 Seat No. T.E. (Civil Engineering) (Part – II) (New) Examination, 2015 TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING – II Day and Date : Saturday, 23-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instruction : Assume suitable data wherever needed and mention it. SECTION – I 2. Answer any three questions (each carry 8 marks). a) Define super-elevation and show how it is worked out. Also discuss the factors affecting super-elevation. 8 b) Why is uniformity in gauge in a country desirable ? How is this problem tackled in India ? 8 c) If a 8° curve track diverges from a main curve of 5° in an opposite direction in the layout of B.G. Yard, calculate the super elevation and the speed on the branch line, if the maximum speed permitted on the main line is 45 kmph. Assume any data required suitably. 8 d) A transition curve is to be used to join the ends of a 3.94° circular curve with the straight. The length of the transition curve is 120 m. Work out the shift and offsets at every 30 m interval. How will you set this transition curve ? 8 3. Answer any two questions (each carry 8 marks) a) Define interlocking and state its principles. Illustrate your answer by taking a simple case, consisting of one main line, one loop line and a siding. 8 b) What is meant by a crossing number and a crossing angle ? How is crossing angle determined ? Explain methods for the same. 8 c) Work out an expression for finding out total of cross-over. 8 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 45 -4- *SLRPC45* SECTION – II 4. Answer any two questions (8 marks each). (2×8) a) Write a short note on wind rose diagram with neat sketch. b) Calculate the actual length of the runway from the following data : Airport elevation : R. L. 100 Airport reference temperature : 28°C Basic length of runway : 600 m Highest point along the length : R. L. 98.2 Lowest point along the length : R.L. 95.2. Check the total correction for elevation plus temperature as per ICAO. c) Describe in details with sketches approach zone, clear zone and turning zone. 5. Answer any two questions (8 marks each). (2×8) a) Define breakwater and list the different types of breakwater. Explain any one with sketch. b) With neat sketches discuss about the fenders. c) Discuss types of gravity wharves. 6. Answer any one (8 marks each). (1×8) a) Write a brief about cant deficiency and negative super elevation. b) What are the factors to be considered while selecting a site for an airport ? ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC450* SLR-PC – 450 Seat No. Engineering Examination, 2015 ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES Day and Date : Saturday, 27-6-2015 Max. Marks : 50 Time : 11.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 1. Multiple choice questions : 10 I) Earth day is celebrated on ______A) 22nd March B) 22nd April C) 22nd June D) 22nd July II) Hot spot concept was first introduced by ______A) John Mayer B) King Mayer C) G. Mayer D) Norman Mayer III) The animal which depend on fully vegetation for their food is known as ______A) Primary B) Secondary C) Quarterly D) Tertiary IV) Need for public awareness is important for the ______A) Malaria B) AIDS C) Filariasis D) Elephantiasis V) The percentage of nitrogen in the atmosphere gases is ______%. A) 0.03 B) 20.94 C) 21.94 D) 78.09 VI) CFCs gas is responsible for ______depletion. A) CO2 B) O2 C) Ozone D) SO2 VII) ______is renewable natural resources. A) Water B) Coal C) Iron-ore D) Natural oil VIII) Marine life is indanger due to ______pollution. A) Land B) Water C) Air D) Noise IX) ‘Sawana’ is an example of ______ecosystem. A) Pond B) Grass land C) Marine D) Forest X) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act come into exist ______A) 1971 B) 1981 C) 1991 D) 2001 P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 450 *SLRPC450* 2. Write short answer (any four out of six) : 8 a) Scope of environmental studies. b) Problem of dams. c) Man induced landslides. d) Ecological pyramids. e) Thermal pollution. f) In-situ conservation of biodiversity. 3. Write short notes (any four out of six) : 12 a) Causes of acid rain. b) Effects of noise pollution. c) Biodiversity for sustainance of mankind. d) Resource limitations. e) Causes of global warming. f) Wildlife (Protection) Act. 4. a) What is climate change ? Explain its causes and effects. 10 OR b) What is ecosystem ? Describe the components of ecosystem. 5. Explain the challenges for sustainable development. 10 ———————— www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC46A* SLR-PC – 46A Seat No. T.E. (Civil) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 EARTHQUAKE RESISTANT NON ENGINEERED CONSTRUCTION (New) (Self Learning Technical Course) Day and Date : Tuesday, 26-5-2015 Marks : 50 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m. Instructions :1) Solve any five questions. 2) Figures to right indicate full marks. 3) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly. 1. Write detailed note on internal structure of earth. 10 2. Which are the seismic waves generated after earthquake ? 10 3. Explain the significance of RC bands in masonry construction. 10 4. Which are the planning aspects in Earthquake resistant design ? 10 5. What are the causes of damages due to earthquake in the masonry construction ? 10 6. What is meant by Restoration of strength ? What are techniques for restoration ? 10 ——————— www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC46B* SLR-PC 46B S e a t N o . T.E. (Civil) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015 SELF LEARNING TECHNICAL COURSE Geosynthetics and Reinforced Soil Structures Day and Date : Tuesday, 26-5-2015 Max. Marks : 50 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Solve any five questions. 2) Assume additional data if required and mention it clearly. 3) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 1. Write a note on : 10 1)Geogrid 2) Geocell 3)Geocomposite. 2. Explain following tests on geosynthetic 1)Cross plane permeability test. 2)Permeability test. 10 3. Explain the procedure of construction of steep slopes with reinforcement layers with sketch. 10 4. Write in detail about Binquet and Lees approach for analysis of foundation with reinforcement layers. 10 5. Discuss use of geosynthetics for a)Heavy container yard b)Railway lines. 10 6. Write note on any two : (2×5=10) 1)Criteria for selection of geotextiles for filtration. 2)Construction methods for reinforced soil retaining wall. 3)Circular slip method of slope stability analysis. ______ www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC46C* SLR-PC 46C S e a t 5 A J o . N A T.E. (Civil Engineering) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015 PAVEMENT ANALYSIS AND DESIGN (Self Learning Technical Course) Day and Date : Tuesday, 26-5-2015 Max. Marks : 50 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 15 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 3) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 15 Minutes Marks : 10 1. Choose correct option. (1×10=10) 1) The main object of prime coat is a) To plug the capillary voids of the porous surface b) To bond the loose material particles on the existing surface c) Both a) and b) d) To increase the strength of the pavement 2) The application of Tack coat is carried over the a) Existing bituminous surface b) Over the WBM road c) Over the earth road d) Over the gravel road 3) Dowel bars are places at a) Longitudinal joints b) Transverse joints c) Both a) and b) d) None of these P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 46C -2- *SLRPC46C* 4) Soil stabilization means a) Improving the bearing power of the soil b) Improving the stability of the soil c) Both a) and b) d) Replacing the soil with new soil 5) In concrete road, mud pumping means a) Ejecting out of mud with water through the spaces in pavement joints b) Ejecting out of mud and aggregate materials through the pavement joints c) Ejecting out of mud and cement material through the pavement joints d) Ejecting of water only through the pavement joints 6) The Los Angeles abrasion value for aggregates used in concrete roads should be a) Less than 30% b) Less than 40% c) More than 30% d) More than 40% 7) In ESWL concept, the stresses due to wheel load at any depth greater than 2S, is considered to be equivalent to a single wheel load of magnitude a) 4P b) 3P c) 6P d) 2P 8) The modulus of subgrade reaction (K) is determined from a) CBR Test b) Plate Bearing Test c) Shear Test d) Triaxial Test 9) CSA means a) Cumulative Standard Axles b) Compressive Strength of Aggregate c) Compressive Strength of Asphalt d) None of these 10) Critical loading positions in cement concrete pavements are a) Interior, edge and middle b) Interior, edge and diagonal c) Interior, edge and straight d) Interior, edge and corner ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC46C* -3- SLR-PC 46C S e a t N o . T.E. (Civil Engineering) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015 PAVEMENT ANALYSIS AND DESIGN (Self Learning Technical Course) Day and Date : Tuesday, 26-5-2015 Marks : 40 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 2) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and mention it clearly. 2. Answer any five questions (8 marks each) : (5×8=40) a) What are the various factors to be considered in pavement design ? Discuss the significance of each. b) Draw a neat sketch of Expansion joints and contraction joints in rigid pavements and discuss the objects of both joints. c) Discuss the principles and scope of soil cement stabilization. d) Enumerate the construction steps of Bituminous Concrete roads. e) Explain the various types of failures in cement concrete pavements and their causes. f) Explain the test procedure of measuring the deflection using Benkelman Beam Deflection equipment. g) Benkelman Beam deflection studies were carried out on 15 selected points on a stretch of flexible pavement during summer season using a dual wheel load of 4085 kg, 5.6 kg/cm2 pressure. The deflection values obtained in mm after making the necessary leg corrections are given below. If the present Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 46C -4- *SLRPC46C* traffic consists of 750 commercial vehicles per day, determine the thickness of bituminous overlay required, if the pavement temperature during the test was 39°C and the correction factor for subsequent increase in subgrade moisture content is 1.3. Assume annual rate of growth of traffic is 7.5%. Adopt IRC guidelines. Assume allowable deflection Da = 1.0 mm and equivalency factor 2.0 for bituminous concrete. h) The traffic studies and axle load distribution studies carried out during project preparation indicated that there are : i) 5600 commercial vehicles per day with rear axle loads in the range of 2500 to 3500 kg and growth rate of 6.5% p.a. and ii) 1900 heavy commercial vehicles with rear axle loads in the range of 11,000 to 13,000 kg and growth rate of 4.5% p.a.The road pavement is expected to be constructed in a period of 3.0 years after this study and the flexible pavement structure is to be designed for a design life of 15 years. Determine the CSA for design. Assume standard axle load as 8160 kg. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC47* SLR-PC – 47 Seat Set No. A B.E. (Civil) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 DESIGN OF CONCRETE STRUCTURES – I Day and Date : Tuesday, 5-5-2015 Total Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Q. No. I is MCQ on a separate sheet, which shall be collected after 30 minutes. IS 456-2000 shall not be allowed to refer while solving MCQ. 3) Use of non programmable calculator is allowed. 4) Use of IS 456-2000 is allowed while solving Q. No. II to VII. 5) Assume suitable data if necessary and state it clearly. 6) Draw neat sketches wherever necessary. 7) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. 8) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 I. Write suitable option in the bracket against the question. 1) When depth of beam exceed 750 mm the side face reinforcement shall be provided along the two faces. The total area of such reinforcement shall not be less than ______% of the area. 1 a) 0.15 b) 0.25 c) 0.1 d) 0.2 2) An R.C beam has cross section 300 × 550 mm and is subjected to the shear force – 95 kN-m and torsional moment – 40 kN-m. Determine the equivalent bending moment. 1 a) 295.63 kN b) 310.60 kN c) 308.33 kN d) 320.53 kN 3) Design bond stress in limit state method for plain bars in compression for M 25 grade concrete is ______N/mm2. 1 a) 1.2 b) 1.75 c) 1.5 d) 1.3 4) The load from the column can be transferred to the foundation by 1 a) Column bars b) Dowel bars c) Both a and b d) None of these 5) An R.C beam has cross section 400 × 600 mm and is subjected to the BM – 115 kN-m and torsional moment – 45 kN-m. Determine the equivalent bending moment 1 a) 194.41 kN-m b) 199.70 kN-m c) 196.78 kN-m d) 198.50 kN-m 6) The unit weights of various materials used for building construction are given in 1 a) IS 456-2000 b) IS 875 (part – 1)-1987 c) IS 12119-1987 d) IS 5816-1999 P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 47 -2- *SLRPC47* 7) If standard deviation is 4 N/mm2, what should be the mean strength of concrete, if desired characteristic strength is 20 N/mm2 2 a) 26.4 N/mm2 b) 30.87 N/mm2 c) 20.18 N/mm2 d) 17.53 N/mm2 8) Tensile strength of concrete 1 2 a) 0.3 √ Fck N/mm b) 0.5 √ Fck N/mm c) 0.7 √ Fck N/mm d) 0.6 √ Fck N/mm 9) Slenderness limit for beam to ensure lateral stability for simply supported or continuous beams shall be so proportional that the clear difference for the lateral restraining does not exceed ______b or b2/d whichever is less. 2 a) 30, 90 b) 60, 250 c) 25, 100 d) 50, 50 10) The diameter of the polygonal links or lateral ties shall not be less than 1 a) 6 mm b) max of a and d c) least of a and d d) 1/4 diameter of larger longitudinal bar 11) For member subjected to bending and torsion two legged closed hoops enclosing the corner longitudinal bars shall have an area of cross-section Asv given by, 1 a) Asv = [(Tu.Sv/b1d1 (0.47 fy)] + [Vu.Su/2.5 d1 (0.47 fy)] b) Asv = (Tu.Sv/b1d1 (0.87 fy) + Vu Tu) c) Asv (Tu.Sv/b1d1 (0.85 fy) d) Asv = [(Tu.Sv/b1d1 (0.87 fy)] + [Vu.Su/2.5 d1(0.87 fy)] 12) The neutral axis lies in the flange, a T-beam can be treated as a rectangular beam of ______1 a) bw × d b) df × d c) bf × d d) none 13) Design a square footing for a short axially loaded column of size 230 × 300 mm carrying 500 kN load. Use M 20 concrete and Fe 415 steel. SBC of soil is 180 kN/m2 2 a) 2 m × 2 m b) 2.5 m × 2.5 m c) 3 m × 3 m d) 1 m × 1 m 14) In two way reinforced square footing, the reinforcement extending in each direction is distributed ______across the full width of footing. 1 a) alternatively b) uniformly c) unevenly d) none of these 15) Effective width of flange for T beam is 1 10 10 a) ++bw 6 Df b) ++bw 3 Df 6 12 10 10 c) ++bw 6 Df d) ++6bw Df 12 6 16) The stability of structure as a whole against overturning shall be assumed so that the restoring moment shall not be less than sum of ______times maximum overturning D.L. and ______times maximum overturning L.L. 2 a) 1.5, 1.2 b) 1.2, 1.5 c) 1.2, 1.4 d) 1.4, 1.2 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC47* -3- SLR-PC – 47 Seat No. B.E. (Civil) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 DESIGN OF CONCRETE STRUCTURES – I Day and Date : Tuesday, 5-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Use of non programmable calculator is allowed. 3) Use of IS 456-2000 is allowed while solving Q. No. II to VII. 4) Assume suitable data if necessary and state it clearly. 5) Draw neat sketches wherever necessary. SECTION – I II. A rectangular beam 250 mm width. The clear span of the beam is 6 m. The beam is to have support width 300 mm. The characteristic super imposed load is 10 kN/m. Using M20 concrete and Fe500 steel design the beam. 13 OR Design the rectangular beam of section 300 mm × 600 mm of effective span 6.3 m. Effective cover for reinforcement should be kept ad 50 mm. Imposed load on the beam is 42 kN/m. Use M20 concrete and Fe500 steel. For fsc refer table below Q. IV. III. The portico of a guest house building consist of cantilever beams of effective span 2.5 m, spaced at 2.3 m centre. The beams support 125 mm thick slab. Live load on slab is 2 1.5 kN/m . Using concrete mix M20 and steel Fe415, design an intermediate beam, if slab is flush with top of beams. 14 OR The portico of a guest house building consist of cantilever beams of effective span 2.5 m, spaced at 2.3 m centre. The beams support 125 mm thick slab. Live load on slab is 2 1.5 kN/m . Using concrete mix M20 and steel Fe415, design an intermediate beam, if slab is flush with bottom of beams. 14 IV. A singly reinforced concrete beam has a width of 300 mm and a overall depth 650 mm with a clear cover of 40 mm is reinforced with 4 bars of 25 mm. Find the flexural strength and hence a safe udl on the simply supported beam of span 7 m. Use M20 concrete and Fe500 steel. 13 OR Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 47 -4- *SLRPC47* A doubly reinforced beam 400 mm × 550 mm overall reinforced with 4 bars of 25 mm diameter on tension side and 2 bars of 20 mm diameter on compression side with an effective cover of 35 mm. Determine the safe udl the beam can carry over a simply supported span of 4 m. Use M20 concrete and Fe500 steel. For fsc refer table below. 13 Stress Level 0.8 fy 0.9 fy fy = 500 N/mm2 Stress in N/mm2 347.8 391.3 434.8 SECTION – II V. Design a square footing for a short axially loaded column of size 400 mm × 400 mm 2 carrying 620 kN load. Use M20 concrete and Fe500 steel. SBC of soil is 180 kN/m . Sketch the details of reinforcement. 13 OR Design a footing for a column of size 450 × 450 mm which carries a load of 850 kN. 2 SBC of soil is 200 kN/m . Use M20 concrete and Fe415 steel. One side of footing is to be restricted to 1.5 m. 13 VI. Design a rectangular beam section subjected to a working shear force of 83 kN, torsional moment of 44 kN-m. and moment of 81 kN-m. Use M25 concrete and Fe415 steel. 14 OR Design a reinforced concrete combined rectangular slab footing for two columns located at 4.5 m apart. The overall size of the columns are 400 mm × 400 mm and 600 mm × 600 mm and they are transferring 620 kN and 1020 kN respectively. The SBC of soil 175 kN/m2. Use M20 concrete and Fe415 steel. Sketch the reinforcement details. 14 VII. Design a circular column with helical reinforcement subjected to a working load of 2100 kN. The column has unsupported length of 4 m and in effectively held in position and direction at both ends. Use M25 and Fe415 steel. 13 OR a) Explain interaction diagram to be used for designing column subjected to axial load and uniaxial bending. 3 b) Design a column 3.2 m long restrained in position and direction at both ends to carry an axial load of 1500 kN. Use M20 concrete and Fe 415 steel. 10 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLR-PC-48* SLR-PC – 48 Seat Set No. A B.E. (Civil) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 QUANTITY SURVEYING AND VALUATION Day and Date : Wednesday, 6-5-2015 Total Marks : 100 Time : 3 .00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. 2 and Q. 9 are compulsory. Attempt any two out of Q. 3 to Q.5 and any two out of Q. No. 6 to Q. 8. 2) Assume suitable data if necessary but mention it clearly. 3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Answer the following MCQ/Objective type question paper. 20 1) Pick up the excavation where measurements are made in square meters for payment. A) Ordinary cuttings up to 1m B) Surface dressing up to 15 cm depths C) Surface excavation up to 30 cm depths D) Both b) and c) E) Both a) and b) 2) The expected out turn of 2.5 cm cement concrete floor per manson per day. A) 2.5 sqm B) 5.0 sqm C) 7.5 sqm D) 10 sqm 3) A portion of an embankment having a uniform up-gradient 1 in 500 is circular with radius 1000 m of the centre line. It subtends 180° at the centre. If the height of the bank is 1 m at the lower end, and side slopes 2 : 1, the earth work involved. A) 26,000 m3 B) 26,500 m3 C) 27,000 m3 D) 27,500 m3 4) The correct prismoidal formula for volume is A) D[first area + last area + ∑ Even area + 2 ∑ odd areas] D B) [first area + last area + 4 ∑ Even area + 2 ∑ odd areas] 3 D C) [first area + last area + 2 ∑ Even area + 4 ∑ odd areas] 3 D D) [first area + last area + 2 ∑ Even area + 4 ∑ odd areas] 6 5) The order of booking dimensions is A) Length, breadth, height B) Breadth, length, height C) Height, breadth, length D) None of these 6) As per Indian Standard Specifications, the peak discharge for domestic purposes per capita per minute, is taken A) 1.80 litres for 5 to 10 users B) 1.20 litres for 15 users C) 1.35 for 20 users D) All the above 7) Pick up the item of work not included in the plinth area estimate A) Wall thickness B) Room area C) Verandah area D) W.C. area E) Courtyard area 8) Pick up the correct statement from the following. A) The bent up bars at a support resist the negative bending moment B) The bent up bars at a support resist the sharing force C) The bending of bars near supports is generally at 45° D) All the above 9) The brick work is measured in sq. metre, in case of A) Honey comb brick work B) Brick flat soling C) Half brick walls or the partition D) All the above P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 48 -2- *SLR-PC-48* 10) Brick walls are measured in sq.m if the thickness of the wall is A) 10 cm B) 15 cm C) 20 cm D) None of these 11) Pick up the correct statement in case of water supply. A) Pipes laid in trenches and pipes fixed to walls are measured separately B) Cutting through walls and floors are included with the item C) Pipes are classified according to their sizes and quality D) In laying pipes, the method of jointing and fixing is specifically specified E) All the above 12) In case of laying gullies, siphons, intercepting traps, the cost includes A) Setting and laying B) Bed concreting C) Connection to drains D) All of these 13) In long and short wall method of estimation, the length of long wall is the centre to centre distance between the walls and A) Breadth of the wall B) Half breadth of wall on each side C) One fourth breadth of wall on each side D) None of these 14) The height of the sink of wash basin above floor level is kept A) 60 cm B) 70 cm C) 75 cm to 80 cm D) 80 cm 15) While preparing a detailed estimate A) Dimension should be measured correct to 0.01 m B) Area should be measured correct to 0.01 sqm C) Volume should be measured correct to 0.01cum D) All the above 16) Pick up the incorrect statement regarding a master trap from the following. A) It is provided in between the lower end of the house drain and the street sewer B) It is provided a cleaning eye at the top of the trap C) The height of fresh air inlet pipe fixed vertically with wall is 3m D) The mica flap valve which opens inwards only, is fitted at the top of the inlet pipe E) The water seal is less than that of ordinary traps 17) The concrete work for the following part of the building of specified thickness is measured in square metres A) Root slabs B) Floors C) D.P.C. D) Wall panels E) All the above 18) Pick up the correct statement from the following. A) The estimated value of the work excluding the amount for contingencies, work charged establishment, tool and plants, is called work value B) The actual expenditure involved to complete a work including incidental, establishments and travelling charges, is called actual cost C) The formal acceptances by the administrative department for incurring an expenditure on the work, is called administrative approval D) The order of a competent authority sanctioning a properly detailed estimate of the cost of a work of construction or repair is called technical sanction E) All the above 19) The expected out turn of cement concrete 1 : 2 : 4 per mason per day is A) 1.5 m3 B) 2.5 m3 C) 3.5 m3 D) 5.0 m3 20) The area of the cross- section of a road fully in banking shown in the given figure, is sb2 + r2 (2bd + sd)2 sb2 + r2 (2bd + sd)2 sb2 + r2 (2bd + sd)2 A) B) C) D) None of these r2 − s2 r2 − s5 r − s ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLR-PC-48* -3- SLR-PC – 48 Seat No. B.E. (Civil) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 QUANTITY SURVEYING AND VALUATION Day and Date : Wednesday, 6-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3 .00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. 2 and Q. 9 are compulsory. Attempt any two out of Q. 3 to Q.5 and any two out of Q. No. 6 to Q. 8. 2) Assume suitable data if necessary but mention it clearly. 2. Work out the quantities of following items of a septic tank with plan and section as shown in Drawing No. 13-5 : 14 1) Excavation work 2) (1 : 3 : 6) cement concrete flooring 3) 1st class brick masonry work in c.m. (1 : 6) 4) R.C.C. slab in proportion (1 : 2 : 4) 5) If 1% steel is used for top R.C.C. slab, find out weight of steel used for slab. Also, prepare abstract for the above items. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 48 -4- *SLR-PC-48* 3. a) Prepare a preliminary estimate of a residential building project with a total plinth area of all the buildings being 500 sq.m. The following information is given : 8 a) Plinth area rate : Rs. 20,000 per m2 b) Additional amount allowed for special architectural features : 1.5% of the building cost c) Extra for water supply and sanitary fittings : 5% of buildings cost d) Extra for building services = 7.50% of building cost e) Contingencies : 2% of overall cost f) Supervision charges = 7.5% of overall cost. b) State the methods of approximate estimate, explain any one. 5 4. A) Write the detailed specifications for : 8 a) 1st class brickwork in 1 : 6 cement mortar. b) Earthwork in excavation. B) Write note on provisional quantities and provisional sums. 5 5. A) Carry out rate analysis for the following items : 8 a) 1st class brickwork in 1 : 6 cement mortar. b) Random rubble masonry in C.M. (1 : 4). B) Differentiate between long wall, short wall and center line method. 5 6. A) List various types of contract and explain BOT contract. 8 B) What is Earnest Money Deposit and Security Deposit ? 5 7. A) List various methods of valuation and describe belting method of valuation of land with suitable example. 8 B) Define : 5 1) Book Value 2) Accommodation Value 3) Speculation value 4) Scrap value 5) Potential value. 8. A) A temporary shed has been constructed for Rs. 12,000/-. Assuming its salvage value at the end of 6 years as Rs. 3,000/-. Determine the depreciation and book value for each year by constant percentage method. 8 B) Explain Easement Rights. 5 9. What do you mean by valuation ? What is its necessity ? List various methods of valuation and describe any three of them giving examples. 14 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC49* SLR-PC 49 e a t S Set A N o . B.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015 EARTHQUAKE ENGINEERING Day and Date : Thursday, 7-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries two marks. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : 1) Choose the correct option from following statements. a) Earthquake causes landslide b) Landslide causes earthquake c) a) and b) are wrong d) a) and b) both are correct 2) Which of the following is not seismic wave of an earthquake ? a) P-Wave b) S-Wave c) L-Wave d) Q-Wave 3) What is the degree of freedom for two storeyed building ? a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1 4) ______is measurement of energy released during earthquake. a) Magnitude b) Intensity c) Magnitude and Intensity d) Distance 5) The type of damping considered in structural dynamics is a) Viscous damping b) Coloumbs damping c) Critical damping d) Coefficient of damping 6) The response reduction factor for ordinary reinforced concrete shear walls a) 3.0 b) 4.0 c) 5.0 d) 3.5 P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 49 -2- *SLRPC49* 7) The important factor for power plant a) 1.0 b) 1.5 c) 1.25 d) 2.0 8) is the differential equation for M y C y K y 0 a) Undamped free vibration b) Damped free vibration c) Undamped forced vibration d) Damped forced vibration 9) The equation for force transmitted to foundation is a) b) M y C y F M y K y F 6 6 c) d) C y K y F M y C y 0 6 10) The magnification factor is infinity for undamped forced vibration when a) b) c) d) ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC49* -3- SLR-PC 49 S e a t N o . B.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015 EARTHQUAKE ENGINEERING Day and Date : Thursday, 7-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from each Section. 2) Figures to right indicate full marks. 3) Use of only IS 1893 is allowed. 4) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly. SECTION I 2. a) Write a note on reservoir associated seismicity. 4 b) What do you understand by soil liquefaction ? What are the factors affecting liquefaction ? 10 3. From first principle derive the governing differential equation for free vibration of a damped SDOF system. Obtain the general solution of this differential equation and explain the terms critically and under-critically damped systems. 13 4. Derive the government differential equation of oscillations of a simple pendulum assuming small oscillations. Solve the differential equation if the pendulum is given an initial angular displacement and initial angular velocity . 13 5. Explain the concept of Duhamels integral for damped systems. Derive its expression for a damped system subjected to general dynamic loading. 13 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 49 -4- *SLRPC49* SECTION II 6. It is proposed to construct a R.C.C. three storied commercial building having plan dimensions as shown in Fig. 1 in zone IV with following data. Determine the lateral forces and base shear. The all column sizes are 300 × 450 mm and beams sizes are 230 × 450 mm. The slab thickness is 120 mm and thk. of walls is 230 mm. The ht. of floor is 3.15 m and live load is 3.0 kN/m2. IS 13920 will not be used. The strata is Medium. 14 7. What do you understand by a soft storey ? How will you reduce failure in soft storey ? What are the general codal provisions for design of soft storey ? 13 8. What is meant by confinement and how it is attained in every RC members of structure ? 13 9. a) Explain the significance of RC bands in masonry construction. 5 b) Write a detailed note on strengthening of walls with suitable sketches. 8 ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC5* SLR-PC – 5 Seat Set No. A F.E. Part - I/II (CGPA) Examination, 2015 ENGINEERING PHYSICS (GROUP – A) Day and Date : Saturday, 23-5-2015 Marks : 70 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Make suitable assumptions, if necessary. 2) Figures to the right indicate full mark. 4) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. Constants : 1) Avogadro’s no., N = 6.02 × 1026 / k.mol. 2) Velocity of light, c = 3 × 108 m/sec. 3) Charge of electron, e = 1.6 × 10-19 C. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 14 SECTION – I 1. Semiconductor materials are of ______group elements. a) 3rd b) 4th c) 5th d) 6th 2. The Fermi Direct distribution function is given by a) f (E) = 1/(1-exp(E-Ef)/KT) b) f (E) = 1/(1 + exp(E-Ef)/KT) c) f(E) = 1/(exp(E-Ef/KT) d) f(E) = 1/(1-exp(E+Ef)/KT) 3. The relation of angle between axes of a hexagonal crystal system is a) α = β = γ = 90 b) α ≠ β = γ = 90 c) γ = 120 , α = β = 90 d) α = β = γ = 120 4. The void space for BCC structure is ______a) 32% b) 26% c) 48% d) 52% P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 5 -2- *SLRPC5* 5. The audible range of frequency is ______a) 20 kHz to 20 MHz b) 200 kHz to 200 MHz c) 200 Hz to 200 MHz d) 20 Hz to 20 kHz 6. Optimum reverberation time for music is a) 0.5 to 1 second b) 0 to 1 second c) 1 to 2 second d) Above 5 second 7. Mass increases with velocity by the relation 2 2 2 2 a) m= m°/√1−v /c b) m=m°(√1−v /c ) 2 2 2 2) c) m= m°/1−v /c d) m=m°(1−v /c SECTION – II 8. For positive crystal ______a) μo > μe b) μo < μe c) μo = μe d) μo = 0 9. The bending of light around the edges of an obstacle is known as ______a) scattering b) diffraction c) polarization d) dispersion 10. Pumping mechanism used in semiconductor diode laser is ______a) electric discharge b) forward bias voltage c) heating d) optical 11. The process of mixing the signal with the carrier is called ______a) demodulation b) attenuation c) dispersion d) modulation 12. The diameter of cladding is nearly ______a) 500 μm b) 5 μm to 80 μm c) 125 μm d) 5 μm to 100 μm 13. Chirality of Helical CNT is ______a) (a, 0) b) (a, a) c) (a, b) d) (0, b) 14. The linking of fusion process is ______a) neutrons b) electrons c) protons d) higgs boson Set A ______ www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC5* -3- SLR-PC – 5 Seat No. F.E. Part - I/II (CGPA) Examination, 2015 ENGINEERING PHYSICS (GROUP – A) Day and Date : Saturday, 23-5-2015 Marks : 70 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Make suitable assumptions, if necessary. 2) Figures to the right indicate full mark. SECTION – I 2. Attempt any five of the following :15 a) Show that Fermi level in an intrinsic semiconductor lies half way between a valence band and conduction band. b) What are miller indices ? How they are determined ? c) Define reverberation time. State and explain Sabine’s formula for the reverberation time. d) Deduce the expression of length contraction. e) Calculate the lattice constant for potassium bromide. Density of potassium bromide is 2700 kg/m3 and belongs to FCC lattice. Molecular weight of potassium bromide is 119. f) The average reverberation time of a hall is 1.5 sec and the area of the interior surface is 3340 m2. If the volume of the hall is 12000 m3., find the absorption coefficient. g) Obtain the relativistic formula for the addition of velocities. 3. What is Hall effect ? Derive the relation for Hall voltage and Hall coefficient. 5 4. Attempt any two of the following : 8 a) What is atomic radius ? Find the relation between lattice constant and atomic radius for BCC, SC and FCC. b) Describe different methods used for detection of ultrasonic. c) Deduce Einstein’s expression for mass-energy equivalence. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 5 -4- *SLRPC5* SECTION – II 5. Attempt any five of the following : 15 a) Calculate the highest order of spectrum with the plane transmission grating having 15000 LPI when light of wavelength 6000 A U is used. b) Explain : i) Multiplication factor ii) Critical mass iii) Super critical mass c) Explain : i) Stimulated Absorption ii) Metastable state d) Explain types of carbon nanotubes (CNT) on the basis of chirality. e) The optical fiber has NA equal to 0.45 and core refractive index is 1.55. Determine the refractive index of the cladding. f) Write the characteristics of LASER. g) Explain the terms : i) Acceptance angle ii) Acceptance cone iii) Numerical aperture 6. Describe construction, working of He-Ne laser with the help of energy level diagram. 5 OR Explain construction and working of Laurentzs half shade polarimeter. 7. Attempt any two of the following : 8 a) Explain : i) Proton-Proton cycle, and ii) Carbon-Nitrogen cycle b) Define resolving power of diffraction grating and derive an expression for the resolving power of diffraction grating. c) Explain : Classification of optical fibers on the basis of index profile. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC50 SLR-PC – 50 Seat No. Set A B.E. Civil (Part – I) Examination, 2015 WATER RESOURCES ENGINEERING – II Day and Date : Friday, 8-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Solve any three questions from Section – I (Questions 2, 3, 4, 5) and any three questions from Section – II (Questions 6, 7, 8, 9). 3) Draw neat labeled sketches wherever necessary. 4) Assume suitable data if necessary and state it clearly. 5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Objective Type Questions : (1×20=20) 1) Reduction in reservoir capacity over the passage of time, the trap efficiency. a) increases b) decreases c) remains unaffected d) may increase or decrease, depending upon the reservoir characteristics 2) “Economical height of a dam” is that height, for which the a) cost per unit of storage is minimum b) benefit cost ratio is maximum c) net benefits are maximum d) none of the above α 3) The vertical downward earthquake acceleration, y = 0.1g, acting on a gravity dam, will a) increase the resisting weight of the dam by 10% b) decrease the resisting weight of the dam by 10% c) increase the uplift by 10% d) none of the above 4) Transverse joint in concrete gravity dams are the a) horizontal construction joints at each lift height b) vertical construction joints full of height and width c) diagonal construction joints for torsion d) none of the above 5) A reservoir, extending 20 km upstream and having a design wind velocity of 100 km/h, should be provided with a free-board of a) 1.2 m b) 1.6 m c) 2.5 m d) 3 m 6) The ‘surcharge storage’ in a dam reservoir is the volume of water stored between a) minimum and maximum reservoir levels b) minimum and normal reservoir levels c) normal and maximum reservoir levels d) none of the above 7) The most preferred type of an earthen dam section is the one, in which the a) entire embankment is made of one type of soil b) inner embankment is made of highly porous soil, surrounded by the outer shell of highly impervious soil, both separated by transition filter material of mediocre permeability c) inner embankment is made of highly impervious soil surrounded by the outer shell of highly pervious soil, both separated by transition filter material of mediocre permeability d) none of the above P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 50 -2- *SLRPC50 8) The only provision among the following, which can help control the seepage through the body of an earthen dam and, thus, to keep the phreatic line well within the dam width, is a) upstream impervious cutoff b) drain trench along the downstream toe c) relief wells d) chimney drain 9) Standard USBR stilling basin II is useful for energy dissipation at the bottom of an overflow structure, if the approaching Froude number is a) less than 4.5 b) more than 4.5 c) both a) and b) d) none of the above 10) The W.E.S. downstream profile of an ogee spillway can be represented by an equation n (x/Hd) = K(y/Hd) ; where the coefficients K and n for a vertical upstream spillway would, respectively, be a) 2.0 and 1.85 b) 0.5 and 1.85 c) 2.0 and 0.85 d) 0.5 and 0.85 where (x, y) are the coordinates on the crest profile with crest apex as origin. 11) Point out the correct meaning of ‘piping’, as applied to the design of barrages a) it refers to a network of pipes laid below the hydraulic structure to remove the seeping water b) it refers to the process of undermining of foundation and creation of hollows therein c) it refers to the uplift force caused by seeping water on the floor of the hydraulic structure d) none of the above 12) The safety against any possible scour, on upstream or downstream side of the pucca floor of a hydraulic structure, is usually ensured by laying a) inverted filer b) toe wall c) rock toe d) stone apron 13) Canal drops are required to a) dissipate excess energy b) dissipate inadequate land slope c) dissipate excess land slope d) none of the above 14) A cross regulator helps in a) increasing supply in the parent channel downstream b) increasing supply in the offtaking channel c) increasing water depth in the parent canal, upstream d) both b) and c) e) all a), b) and c) above 15) An alluvial river increases its length by meandering due to a) variation of discharge b) variation of land topography c) both a) and b) d) none of the above 16) The river reach upstream of a newly built dam may behave, as a) aggrading b) degrading c) virgin d) none of them 17) Point out the incorrect statement, out of the following : a) salinity is caused by water-logging b) water logging is not caused by salinity c) salinity subsides, when once the water logging is removed d) none of the above 18) Which one of the followings does not contribute to water logging ? a) inadequate drainage b) seepage from unlined canals c) frequent flooding d) excessive tapping of ground water 19) An impulse turbine, like a Pelton’s wheel, is used for a) low heads and high discharges b) high heads and low discharges c) low heads and high discharges d) high heads and high discharges 20) The minimum power, which a hydro-power plant can generate throughout the year, is called a) power plant capacity b) power plant load c) firm power d) water power ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC50* -3- SLR-PC – 50 Seat No. B.E. Civil (Part – I) Examination, 2015 WATER RESOURCES ENGINEERING – II Day and Date : Friday, 8-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from Section – I (Questions 2, 3, 4, 5) and any three questions from Section – II (Questions 6, 7, 8, 9). 2) Draw neat labeled sketches wherever necessary. 3) Assume suitable data if necessary and state it clearly. SECTION – I 2. a) Classify various types of dams according to construction materials used. Distinguish clearly between rigid and non rigid dams. 6 b) The amounts of water flowing from a certain catchment area at the proposed dam site are tabulated as following. Determine : i) The minimum capacity of the reservoir if the water is to be used to feed the turbines of hydropower plant at uniform rate and no water is to be spilled over. ii) The minimum storage capacity of reservoir necessary to satisfy uniform demand calculated as above. Month Jan. Feb. Mar. Apr. May Jun. Jul. Aug. Sep. Oct. Nov. Dec. Inflow 2.83 4.25 5.66 18.4 22.64 22.64 19.81 8.49 7.10 7.10 5.65 5.66 7 × 105m3 3. a) Figure shows profile of a gravity dam with maximum water level as shown : If the coefficient of friction between dam and foundations is 0.75, is the dam safe against sliding ? Take unit weight of concrete as 24 kN/m3. 6 b) Explain how you account for earthquake forces in the design of gravity dams. 7 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 50 -4- *SLRPC50 4. a) Enumerate and explain by neat sketches, the different ways the earth dam may fail. Also suggest suitable precautions that should be taken to avoid each type of failure. 6 b) Write short note on : i) Rock toe. ii) Design of drainage filters for earthen dams. 8 5. a) A saddle siphon spillway has the following data. Full reservoir level = 485 m, Level of center of siphon outlet = 479.6 m, Highest flood level = 485.9 m, Highest flood discharge = 570 cumec. If the dimensions of the throat of the siphon are : Width = 4.2 m and height = 1.9 m, determine the number of siphon units required to pass the flood safely. The siphon is to discharge freely in air. Assume coefficient of discharge = 0.65. 6 b) Enumerate important types of spillway gates. Describe with a neat sketch the construction and working of ‘Radial Gate’. 7 SECTION – II 6. a) State the fundamental difference between Khosla’s theory and Bligh’s creep theory for seepage below a weir. 5 b) Write short notes with sketches on : i) Aqueduct ii) Syphon aqueduct. 8 7. a) What is meant by water-logging ? What are its ill effects ? Describe some anti water logging measures with suitable sketches. 6 b) Write short notes on : i) Importance of rivers and necessity of controlling them. ii) Aggrading and degrading rivers. 8 8. a) What are the different ways in which the irrigation canals can be aligned ? Discuss the nature cross drainage works along such alignments. 6 b) What is meant by ‘Canal Lining’ and what are its advantages ? Enumerate the different types of canal linings materials. Also discuss the design and construction features of concrete linings. 7 9. a) Write a note on selection of suitable type of turbine for a hydroelectric scheme. 6 b) A runoff river hydroelectric power station is proposed across a river at a site where a net head of 30 meter is available on the turbine. The river carries a sustained minimum flow of 40 cumec in dry weather. Sufficient pondage is provided behind the power station to supply daily peak load of demand with a load factor of 73%. Assuming the plant efficiency of 60%, determine the maximum generating capacity of generators to be installed at the power house. If the daily load pattern indicates 20 hours average load and 4 hours peak load, determine the pondage to be provided to supply the daily demand. 7 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC501* SLR-PC – 501 Seat No. Set A T.E. (All Branches) (Part – I) (New) Examination, 2015 SELF LEARNING : (HSS) PROFESSIONAL ETHICS AND HUMAN VALUES Day and Date : Tuesday, 12-5-2015 Max. Marks : 50 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 12.00 noon Instructions : 1) Question No. 1 is compulsory. 2) Attempt any four from remaining questions. 3) Figures at right indicate full marks. 4) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks :10 1. Select the correct answer from the given options/alternatives 10 1) A specific exclusive right, describing rights given to creators for their literature and artistic works is called as a) Copyright b) Trademark c) Patent d) None of above 2) Integration of countries through commerce, transfer of technology, exchange of information and culture can be called as a) Globalization b) Import substitution c) Privatization d) None of above 3) In ‘FMEA’ , F stands for a) Fatigue b) Force c) Failure d) Free 4) Breaking the law/norm is called as a) Crime b) Punishment c) Value d) None of above P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 501 -2- *SLRPC501* 5) Kohlberg theory is related to a) Moral development b) Human values c) Motivation d) Team working 6) Unity of thoughts, words, honest, deeds and open mindedness is called as a) Ethics b) Moral c) Integrity d) None of above 7) ‘FMEA’ is a tool of a) Financial analysis b) Risk analysis c) Equity analysis d) None of above 8) Patent is given to a) product or a process b) Service c) Art d) None of above 9) An identity of specific goods and services permitting the differences to be made among different trades is called as a) Copyright b) Trademark c) Patent d) None of above 10) Alignment to goals and adherence to ethical principles during the activities can be referred as a) Commitment b) co-operation c) Empathy d) Confidence ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC501* -3- SLR-PC – 501 Seat No. T.E. (All Branches) (Part – I) (New) Examination, 2015 SELF LEARNING : (HSS) PROFESSIONAL ETHICS AND HUMAN VALUES Day and Date : Tuesday, 12-5-2015 Marks : 40 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 12.00 noon 2. Define ethics, moral and human values. Explain the objectives of studying these issues. 10 3. What is self confidence ? Explain the characteristics of self confidence. 10 4. Explain the various models of professional role. 10 5. Explain ‘collective bargaining’. 10 6. Explain ‘conflict of interest’. 10 7. Explain code of ethics of any one professional body such as institution engineer (India). 10 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC502* SLR-PC – 502 Seat Set No. A T.E. (Part – I) (All Branches) (New) Examination, 2015 ECONOMICS (Self Learning – H.S.S. Course) Day and Date : Tuesday, 12-5-2015 Total Marks : 50 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 12.00 noon Instructions : 1) Question No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 15 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 15 Minutes Marks : 10 1. Fill in the blanks by choosing most appropriate word from following : 1) Welfare can be measured through ______A) Increased money income of people B) Increased population of country C) Improved standard of living of people D) None of the above 2) Which of the following is the correct proposition ? A) Govt. interfere due to market imperfections B) Govt. does not interfere in the economy at all C) Both the propositions are correct D) Both the propositions are wrong P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 502 -2- *SLRPC502* 3) New Economic Policy of 1991 could ______A) Bring more investment in retail B) Bring more investment in agriculture C) Bring more job opportunities D) Reduce unwarranted controls 4) Supply of goods, as per law of supply, increases with ______A) Increase in price of goods B) Decrease in price of goods C) No effect of price on supply D) None of the above 5) What is true about investment ? A) Investment is always out of savings only B) Saving is surplus in India than need of investment C) Both statements are true in Indian context D) Both statements are wrong in Indian context 6) Which one of the following is not the characteristics of perfect competition ? A) Only normal profit for firm B) No transportation cost C) No entry and exit barriers D) Price discrimination in the market 7) Fixed cost is one which ______A) Increases with production increase B) Decreases with production decrease C) Remains constant D) None of the above 8) Price discrimination is basic feature of ______A) Perfect Competition B) Monopoly C) Oligopoly D) None of the above 9) Inflation always leads to ______A) Increase in prices B) Decrease in prices C) Stability in prices D) None of the above 10) Price stability is a aim of ______A) Fiscal Policy B) Monetary Policy C) Of both above D) Of none above ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC502* -3- SLR-PC – 502 Seat No. T.E. (Part – I) (All Branches) (New) Examination, 2015 ECONOMICS (Self Learning – H.S.S. Course) Day and Date : Tuesday, 12-5-2015 Marks : 40 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 12.00 noon Instructions : 1) Attempt any 4 from Q. 2 to 7. 2) All questions carry equal marks. 2. How would you justify the intervention of Government in economic activities of a country ? 3. Explain characteristics and distinction between perfect and imperfect competition markets. 4. Explain macroeconomics and state its subject matter and role in a developing economy. 5. Explain in details the relationship between money, output and prices. 6. What is international trade ? State the advantages of International trade. 7. How do you justify resource constraint as hindering factor for maximizing welfare ? ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC503* SLR-PC 503 S e a t 5 A J ) N o . T.E. (Part I) (All branches) Examination, 2015 SOCIOLOGY (New) Introduction to Sociology (Self Learning) (HSS) Day and Date : Tuesday, 12-5-2015 Max. Marks : 50 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 12.00 noon N. B. : 1) Question No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 15 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Attempt any 4 from the remaining questions. 3) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 15 Minutes Marks : 10 1. Multiple Choice Questions : 10 I) To sustain the continuity of the society is the basic function of ______institution. a) Religion b) Family c) Education d) Caste II) Sociology is a ______science. a) Ideal b) Natural c) Social d) Physical III) ______is an element of materialistic culture. a) Norms b) Value c) Computer d) Beliefs IV) Social change is a ______process. a) Mythical b) Universal c) Static d) None of the above V) Urban society is generally ______a) Homogeneous b) Heterogeneous c) Both a) and b) d) None of the above P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 503 -2- *SLRPC503* VI) ______types of solidarity is one of the basic features of modern industrial society. a) Organic b) Mechanical c) Emotional d) Traditional VII) ______is considered as one of the vital features of urban society. a) Unemployment b) Low mobility c) Primary relations d) Poor infrastructure VIII) ______is associated with Narmada Bachao Andolan. a) Anna Hazare b) Mega Patkar c) Popatrao Pawar d) None of the above IX) What is the long form of SEZ ? a) Social Economic Zone b) Special Economic Zone c) Special Earth Zone d) Special Engineering Zone X) ______is a process which helps a new born baby to become a social being. a) Socialization b) Sanskritization c) Social Change d) Value ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC503* -3- SLR-PC 503 S e a t N o . T.E. (Part I) (All branches) Examination, 2015 SOCIOLOGY (New) Introduction to Sociology (Self Learning) (HSS) Day and Date : Tuesday, 12-5-2015 Marks : 40 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 12.00 noon Instructions : 1) Attempt any 4 from the following questions. 2) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 2. Define social change and explain the factors responsible for social change. 10 3. Define social institution and explain the functions of family institution. 10 4. What is sociology ? Explain the importance of socialization. 10 5. Define social movement and explain the objectives of reformist movement. 10 6. Discuss the differences between social status and role. 10 7. Define social mobility and explain the types of social mobility. 10 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC504* SLR-PC 504 S e a t 5 A J N o . ) T.E. (Part I) (New) (All Branches) Examination, 2015 STRESS AND COPING (Self Learning (HSS)) Day and Date : Tuesday, 12-5-2015 Max. Marks : 50 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 12.00 Noon Note : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. 2) Solve any 4 from Q.No. 2 to Q.No. 7. 3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 minutes Marks : 10 1. A) Choose amongst the right alternative : 5 1) Automation, technological innovation are ______factors causing stress. a) Political b) Economic c) Technological d) Cultural 2) ______demands relates to pressure placed on a person to a role he/she plays in organization. a) Task b) Role c) Inter role d) Intra role 3) High BP, Heart diseases are ______symptoms of stress. a) Behavioural b) Psychological c) Physiological d) None of these 4) _____ is a feeling of role occupant when the role belonging to him/her is assigned to someone else. a) Role Stagnation b) Role Erosion c) Role Overload d) Role Isolation 5) ______deals with prioritizing and scheduling the activities to cope up with multiple job demands. a) Physical Exercise b) Relaxation c) Wellness Programs d) Time Management P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 504 -2- *SLRPC504* B) Match the pairs. 5 Set A Set B 1) Individual Coping 1) Absenteeism 2) Organisational Coping 2) Organisational Stressor 3) Meditation and Time Management 3) Physical Exercise 4) Behavioural Problems 4) Job Rotation 5) Role Ambiguity 5) Relaxation Techniques ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC504* -3- SLR-PC 504 S e a t N o . T.E. (Part I) (New) (All Branches) Examination, 2015 STRESS AND COPING (Self Learning (HSS)) Day and Date : Tuesday, 12-5-2015 Max. Marks : 50 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 12.00 Noon Note : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. 2) Solve any 4 from Q.No. 2 to Q.No. 7. 2. Discuss in detail the various copying styles of stress. 10 3. Define stress and explain historical status of stress. 10 4. Explain the common sources of stress. 10 5. Highlight the role of social support in minimising the effects of stress. 10 6. Explain the various stress management techniques. 10 7. Excessive stress is very harmful. Elaborate on this statement. 10 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC505* SLR-PC – 505 Seat No. Set A T.E. (All Branches) (Part – I) (New) Examination, 2015 INTELLECTUAL PROPERTY RIGHTS FOR TECHNOLOGY DEVELOPMENT AND MANAGEMENT (Self Learning (HSS)) Day and Date : Tuesday, 12-5-2015 Max. Marks : 50 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 12 noon N. B. : 1) Attempt all questions. 2) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 20 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q. P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Question Paper Duration : 20 Minutes Marks : 10 1. Choose the correct answers : 1) Patent grants are exclusive right for a period of ______years to the inventor to use and exploit the invention. a) 10 b) 15 c) 20 d) 25 2) The treaty on intellectual property rights in respect of integrated circuits formed in ______year, intends to make protection available for new and original designs of circuits and chips. a) 1985 b) 1990 c) 1992 d) 1989 3) In India Patent Act, 1970 was granted only for a) Models b) Process patents c) Methodology d) Product 4) Trade secret includes a) Computer program b) Process and method c) Device and technique d) All of the above P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 505 -2- *SLRPC505* 5) Countries like ______have enacted specific legislations of protect trade secrets. a) United States b) France c) United Kingdom d) None of the above 6) The First Intellectual Property Right legislation was enacted in British India in the year. a) 1850 b) 1856 c) 1865 d) 1870 7) The First Patent Law was enacted in India in the year. a) 1880 b) 1905 c) 1850 d) 1858 8) The bulk advantages was taken by ______in India after 1970 when the Final National Patent Act was enacted. a) Industrial sector b) Agricultural sector c) Pharmaceutical sector d) Transport sector 9) There was no product patent as per Indian Patent Act, 1970 for a) Pharmaceutical products b) Food products c) Chemical based products d) All of the above 10) Indian Patent Act, 1970 permitted licenses of right the royalty ceiling was stipulated at ______a) 10 percent b) 6 percent c) 4 percent d) 2 percent ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC505* -3- SLR-PC – 505 Seat No. T.E. (All Branches) (Part – I) (New) Examination, 2015 INTELLECTUAL PROPERTY RIGHTS FOR TECHNOLOGY DEVELOPMENT AND MANAGEMENT (Self Learning (HSS)) Day and Date : Tuesday, 12-5-2015 Marks : 40 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 12 noon N. B. : 1) Attempt all questions. 2) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 2. Explain the criteria for patentable inventions. 10 3. Describe the procedure for obtaining a patent. 10 OR Give detail procedure for patenting the inventions related to biotechnology. 4. Write short notes on any four : 20 1) Concept of property. 2) Copy rights. 3) Graphical indications patent. 4) Trade secrets. 5) Patenting inventions of information technology. 6) Evolution and development of law on industrial designs. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC51* SLR-PC 51 e a t S Set o . N A B.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015 (Elective I) AIR POLLUTION AND CONTROL Day and Date : Saturday, 9-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from Section I ie. Question no. 2 to Question no. 5. Question no. 6 is compulsory in Section II and solve any two questions from the remaining. 2) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and mention it clearly. 4) Use of non programmable calculator is allowed. 5) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 6) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose correct option. (20×1=20) 1) The category of devices by which dust is separated from gas is called a) Internal separator b) Fabric filter c) Cyclone separator d) None of these 2) The Gaussian model is used for prediction of the concentration of pollutants from a) Line source b) Single point source c) Plane source d) All of these 3) A state in which the warmer air lies over the colder air is a) Transverse b) Inversion c) Lapse rate d) None of these 4) Hydrocarbon which may damage plant is a) Ethane b) Methane c) Ethylene d) Acetylene 5) Concentration of ozone in clear air is a) 0.5 ppm b) 0.1 ppm c) 0.001 ppm d) 0.01 ppm 6) The primary pollutant caused by incomplete combustion of organic matter is a) Ozone b) Carbon monoxide c) Sulphur dioxide d) None of these 7) The inversion height may vary from ground surface to a) 1000 m b) 1600 m c) 500 m d) 2000 m 8) Photochemical smog is formed by oxidation of hydrocarbons and a) nitrogen oxides b) carbon monoxide c) sulphur dioxide d) carbon dioxide P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 51 -2- *SLRPC51* 9) ______are used to remove particulates above 40 diameter. a) Bagfilter b) Settling chamber c) Cyclone separator d) Scrubbers 10) ______refers to the dispersion of solid or liquid particles of microscopic size in gaseous media. a) pollen grain b) bacteria c) aerosol d) ozone 11) ______is a interaction among two or more primary pollutant. a) Hydrogen sulphide b) Sulphur dioxide c) Hydrogen chloride d) Ozone 12) ______has an influence on distribution of temperature in atmospheric air with water vapour. a) Humidity b) Precipitation c) Wind speed d) Condensation 13) ______is a representation to show distribution of wind direction. a) Stack b) Ringelmann chart c) Venturi d) Wind rose 14) The process of detection and measurement of pollutant in air is called a) Air quality criteria b) Air quality standards c) Air monitoring d) Air pollution index 15) A material usually harmful and having nuisance value is called a) Carcinogen b) Dust c) Particulate matter d) Contaminants 16) The relative humidity is the a) Amount of oxygen in the atmosphere b) Amount of water vapor in the atmosphere c) Amount of oxygen a given volume of air holds relative to the maximum amount it could hold d) Amount of water vapor a given volume of air holds relative to the maximum amount it could hold 17) Weather patterns are largely determined in the a) Stratosphere b) Mesosphere c) Troposphere d) Biosphere 18) Photochemical smog differs from industrial smog in that it a) is formed in the presence of sunlight b) has large quantities of soot c) is primarily composed of carbon monoxide d) consists of primary pollutants 19) If actual height of a stack is 150 m and plume height is 8 m, then effective height of stack is a) 150 m b) 142 m c) 158 m d) 166 m 20) The size of particular which settles in layers are in between a) 0.5-10 m b) 2-4 m c) 0.1-1 m d) 1-10 m ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC51* -3- SLR-PC 51 S e a t N o . B.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015 (Elective I) AIR POLLUTION AND CONTROL Day and Date : Saturday, 9-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from Section I ie. Question no. 2 to Question no. 5. Question no. 6 is compulsory in Section II and solve any two questions from the remaining. 2) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and mention it clearly. 4) Use of non programmable calculator is allowed. SECTION I 2. a) Explain the different sources of particular matter. Illustrate with examples. 5 b) What is meant by stability of atmosphere ? Explain relationship between Adiabatic and Environmental Lapse rate. 7 3. a) What is meant by radiation inversion and subsidence inversion ? Explain with sketch. 5 b) A thermal power plant burns coal at the rate of 8 tonnes per hour and discharges the flue gas through chimney having effective height of 90 m. The coal has a sulphur content of 4.5%. The wind velocity at the top of stack is 7.5 m/s. The atmospheric conditions are slightly unstable. Determine the maximum ground level concentration of SO2 and the distance from the stack at which this occurs. 9 4. a) Explain Plume behaviours with neat sketches. 5 b) Explain the effects of SO2 on man and plants. Give exposure time and concentration values. 7 5. Write shorts note on any three : 15 a) Wind Rose Diagram b) Pasquills Stability table c) Green House effect d) Mixing Height. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 51 -4- *SLRPC51* SECTION II Instructions :Question no. 6 is compulsory in Section II and solve any two questions from the remaining. 6. a) Explain the need of stack monitoring and ambient air quality monitoring. 6 b) What is meant by photochemical Smog ? Explain the effects. 6 7. a) A settling chamber is designed for removing 90 dia. particles with 100% efficiency. The particulate matter density is 1250 Kg/m3. Depth and width of chamber is 2.2 m each. Determine. 8 1) Length of chamber required without trays. 2) Length of chamber with 10 trays. b) Explain the principle working of wet scrubber. 6 8. a) Discuss any two methods of controlling gaseous pollutants. 7 b) Discuss ambient air quality standards and emission standards. 7 9. Write shorts note on any three : 14 a) Electrostatic precipitator b) London smog c) Bhopal Tragedy d) Automobile Exhaust Control. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC53* SLR-PC – 53 Seat Set No. A B.E. (Civil) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 MANAGERIAL TECHNIQUES (Elective – I) Day and Date : Saturday, 9-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose correct alternative (one mark each) : 20 1) represents a) Operation b) Inspection c) Transportation d) Temporary storage 2) Method study procedure consist of the following six steps a) SCRDMI b) CSRDMI c) SRCDIM d) None 3) Therbligs are used in a) Macro study b) Micro study c) Time study d) None 4) PMTS means a) Primary Motion Total Standard b) Preliminary Motion Total Standard c) Path Measurement Time Standard d) None 5) The principle objective of work study is a) Reduce cost b) Increase productivity c) Both a) and b) d) None 6) PDCA cycle is also called as a) Juran cycle b) Febingham cycle c) Kaizen cycle d) Deming cycle 7) The use of value engineering is a) Balance the cost and performance b) Cost reduction technique c) Prevent ever design of component d) All the above 8) If the part of system fails, there is an alternative success path (Back up) is provided, that is called as a) Reliability b) Redundancy c) FEMA d) PDF P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 53 -2- *SLRPC53* 9) ______technique is the identification of material, equipment, tools, data and information are arranged systematically. a) Seiton b) Seiso c) Seiko d) None 10) ______of 95.45% signifies that work study engineer is sure that 95.45% of the times the random observation will represent the true facts. a) Confidence area b) Percentage of occurrence c) Percentage of working time d) Confidence level 11) Quality control, quality measurement and quality system are ______’s trilogy. a) Deming b) Juran c) Kaizen d) None 12) FEMA means a) Failure mode and effect analysis b) Fast mode and error analysis c) Frequent mode and effect analysis d) None 13) Consistency of performance of product over a time is a) Value engineering b) Value analysis c) Reliability d) None 14) Bath tub curve is used in a) Value Engg. b) Value analysis c) Reliability d) None 15) Which of following is the type of value ? a) Cost value b) Use value c) Esteem value d) All the above 16) In value Engineering, Brain storming technique comes under ______phase. a) Identification b) Development c) Creative d) None 17) TQM means a) Total Quantity Manufacturing b) True Quantity Manufacturing c) Total Quality Manufacturing d) None 18) Time study was developed by a) Gilbert b) Taylor c) Deming d) None 19) Work study involves a) Method study b) Time study c) Work measurement technique d) All the above 20) Performance rating is used to calculate a) Observed time b) Delay time c) Both a) and b) d) None ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC53* -3- SLR-PC – 53 Seat No. B.E. (Civil) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 MANAGERIAL TECHNIQUES (Elective – I) Day and Date : Saturday, 9-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instruction : Solve any three questions from each Section. SECTION – I 2. a) Draw the symbols used in drawing flow chart. 5 b) Explain the procedure to find out standard time. 9 3. a) Discuss ‘5S’ techniques in TQM. 8 b) Write in short about the step “Maintain” in method study. 5 4. a) Explain “Flow diagram and string diagram” with example. 8 b) Tell the significance of TQM. 5 5. Write short notes on : a) Kaizen. 5 b) Therbligs. 4 c) Travel chart. 4 SECTION – II 6. a) Discuss the different creativity techniques. 9 b) Write down applications of value analysis/value engineering. 5 7. a) Discuss five steps in FTA analysis. 8 b) Write in short about “Bath tub curve in Reliability Engineering”. 5 8. a) Explain principle of “Work Sampling”. 8 b) Draw the “Normal distribution curve and confidence level” figure. 5 9. a) Explain advantages and limitations of work sampling. 8 b) Write a note on Random Sampling. 5 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC57* SLR-PC 57 e a t S Set A N o . B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015 DESIGN OF CONCRETE STRUCTURES II Day and Date : Wednesday, 13-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Write the correct option for each question. 2) While solving MCQ IS 456-2000 and IS 1343 is not allowed. 3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct option : (20×1=20) 1) Two way restrained slab the middle strip being a) 1/4 b) 1/8 c) 3/4 d) ½ 2) The prestressed concrete beam is suitable for a) Large spans b) Both large spans and short spans c) Short spans d) None of these 3) In pertresses concrete section ______section is effective. a) Above N.A b) Partially above and below c) Below N.A d) Entire section 4) From limiting deflection point of view, use of high strength steel in RC beam results in a) Reduction in depthb) Increase in depth c) No change in depth d) Increase in width 5) Yield Line Theory result in a) Elastic solution b) Upper bound solution c) Lower bound solution d) Unique solution 6) The safe stress in concrete at transfer is ______fck. a) 0.4 b) 0.5 c) 0.6 d) 0.7 7) High strength of concrete is necessary for prestressed concrete work because a) Large pre stressing force is applied b) High bond stress is required c) Bursting stress is more d) All of the above 8) The concept used for analysis of prestressed concrete section is a) Stress concept b) Load balancing concept c) Strength concept d) All of the above P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 57 -2- *SLRPC57* 9) The percentage of minimum reinforcement of the gross sectional area in slabs, is a) 0.10% b) 0.15% c) 0.12% d) 0.20% 10) If the ratio of the span to the overall depth does not exceed 10, the stiffness of the beam will ordinarily be satisfactory in case of a a) Simply supported beam b) Cantilever beam c) Continuous beam d) None of these 11) In design of P.S.C. beam section, the no. of fundamental stress conditions to be considered are a) Two b) Four c) three d) one 12) The safe stress in concrete at service is ____ fck. a) 0.3 b) 0.4 c) 0.6 d) 0.5 13) In case of pre tensioned RC beam a) Shrinkage of concrete is of order 3×104 b) Relaxation of steel can be ignored c) Only one wire can be stretched at a time d) Even mild steel can be used for prestressing 14) How is the deflection in RC beam controlled as per IS 456 ? a) By using large aspect ratio b) By using small modular ratio c) By using controlling span to depth ratio d) By moderating water cement ratio 15) Torsion resisting capacity of a given RC section a) Decreases with decrease in stirrup section b) Decreases with increase in longitudinal bars c) Does not depend upon stirrups and Longitudinal steel d) Increase with increase in Longitudinal steel 16) Cantilever retaining walls can safely be used for a height not more than a) 3m b) 4m c) 5m d) 6m 17) The effective span of a simply supported slab, is Characteristic strength is equal to a) The effective span of a simply supported slab, is b) Clear distance between the inner faces of the walls plus twice the thickness of the wall c) Clear span plus effective depth of the slab d) None of these 18) The number of treads in a flight is equal to a) Risers in the flight b) Risers minus one c) Risers plus one d) None of these 19) For stairs spanning horizontally, the minimum waist provided is a) 4m b) 8m c) 6m d) 12m 20) The permissible tensile stress in concrete is ______fck a) 0.125 b) 0.129 c) 0.126 d) 0.127 ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC57* -3- SLR-PC 57 S e a t N o . B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015 DESIGN OF CONCRETE STRUCTURES II Day and Date : Wednesday, 13-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from each Section. 2) Use of IS 456 and non programmable calculator is allowed. 3) Draw neat sketchs where required and assume suitable data if required and state it clearly. SECTION I 1. a) Design a reinforced concrete slab for a room of clear dimension 4.5m × 6m. The slab is supported all around on the wall of width 230mm. The slab has to carry a 2 2 live load of 3kN/m and floor finish 1kN/m . Use M20 concrete and Fe415steel. Assume corners are held down. 10 b) Sketch the details of reinforcement of the slab. 3 2. Design a three span continuous beam rectangular beam of span of 5m each to carry a dead load of 18 kN/m and live load of 9kN/m. The beam is supported by columns. Use M25 concrete and Fe500 steel. Sketch the reinforcement details. 13 3. Design the dog-legged type staircase for a residential building using following data floor to floor height = 3.2 m, No. of flight per floor = 2, Size of steps = 175 mm riser and 250 mm trade, live load is 3kN/m2 and assume width of stair is 1.2m. Use M20 concrete and Fe415 steel. 13 4. Design the stem slab of a counter fort retaining wall, if the height of wall above the ground level is 5m. SBC of soil is 200kN/m2, angle of internal friction is 30° and unit weight of back fill soil 18kN/m2. Keep spacing of counter fort as 3.2m. coefficient of friction between soil and concrete is 0.5. Use M25 concrete and Fe500 steel. 14 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 57 -4- *SLRPC57* SECTION II 5. A PSC beam of 230mm × 450mm is provided with 12m. The beam is prestressed by steel wires of area 450mm2 provided at a uniform eccentricity of 70 mm with an initial prestress of 1000 N/mm2. Determine the percentage loss of stress in the wires of the beam is post tensioned. Es = 2.1 × 105 N/mm2, Ec = 3.5 × 105 N/mm2, Relaxation loss 4 6 2 percentage = 5%, esh = Es = 1.9 × 10 , creep strain 25 × 10 N/mm of stress anchorage slip = 1.25 mm, friction coefficient = 0.00015/m. 13 6. Design PSC I section beam for the following span = 18m, superimposed load = 30kN/m, cube strength of concrete at 28 days is 35kN/m2, safe stress in concrete at transfer = 0.5 fck, allowable tensile stress in concrete is 0.279(fck)1/2, safe stress in steel is 1200MPa, total loss of stress 20%, ultimate stress in steel 1200 MPa. 14 7. A PSC beam 300 mm × 600 mm is subjected to an effective prestressing force of 1200 kN along the longitudinal centroidal axis. Design the end block by Guyons method. 13 8. a) Write on stress concept, strength concept and load balancing concept used for determinating extreme fibre stresses of PSC beam. 6 b) Enumerate the different systems of pretressing and explain any one of them. 7 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC58* SLR-PC – 58 Seat No. Set A B.E. (Civil) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 CONSTRUCTION PRACTICES AND TOWN PLANNING Day and Date : Friday, 15-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. A) Fill in the gaps with correct words : 10 1) The four essential ideals of town planning are ______, ______, ______and ______. 4 2) Town planning is a ______as well as an ______too. 1 3) Labour charges is included in ______cost. 1 4) The initial cost price is included in ______cost. 1 5) The 3 basic types of Scrapers are ______, ______and ______. 3 B) Match ‘A’ Group items with correct ‘B’ Group items. 10 A B 1) Growth according to direction The type, size and other particulars of the equipment 2) A vertically operated attachment Type of material, depth of cut and angle of swing 3) Kneading action Satellite growth 4) Metropolis Vertical growth 5) Megalopolis Clam shell 6) Character or personality of town Pneumatic – wheel Rollers 7) Multipurpose tool platform Town serving as capital of state or region 8) Selection of Equipment Indicates the first stage of decline 9) The output of power shovel Pattern, site and situation 10) Natural growth of town Hydraulic hoe ______ P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC58* SLR-PC – 58 Seat No. B.E. (Civil) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 CONSTRUCTION PRACTICES AND TOWN PLANNING Day and Date : Friday, 15-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Use separate answer book for each Section. 2) Figures on right indicate full marks. 3) Assume suitable data wherever required and mention it. 4) All questions are compulsory. SECTION – I (Construction Practices) 2. Attempt any five questions : (5×8=40) a) Write a note on ‘Disaster Management’. b) Explain the safety measures in Construction Industry. c) Enlist various Hoisting equipments and describe any one in detail. d) Explain the basic parts and operation of a Hoe. e) What are the components of ‘Ownership cost’ and ‘Operating cost’ ? f) Write a short note on hot mix plant. g) Discuss the suitability and merit of Prefabricated Construction and Insitu Construction. SECTION – II (Town Planning) 3. Attempt any five questions : (5×8=40) a) Describe the various provisions in MRTP Act. b) Discuss the contribution of Lauri Baker in the Rural Development. c) Explain necessity and objects of Land Acquisition Act. d) Describe Indus Valley Civilization. e) Explain the contribution of Sir Ebenezer Howard in town planning. f) Explain Zoning w.r.t. Town planning. g) Explain necessity and scope of Town planning. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC59* SLR-PC – 59 Seat Set No. A B.E. (Civil) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 Elective – II : GROUND IMPROVEMENT TECHNIQUES Day and Date : Monday, 18-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. N.B. : 1) In Section I : Q. No. 2 is compulsory, answer any two from remaining. 2) In Section II : Q. No. 6 is compulsory, answer any two from remaining. 3) Figures to the right indicates full marks. 4) Assume suitable data if necessary. 5) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 6) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : 1) The ratio of the energy input in the modified compaction test over that in standard compaction test is ______a) 1 : 1.1 b) 1.1 : 1 c) 1.5 : 1 d) 4.5 : 1 2) An impact roller is least suitable for compacting ______a) Unsaturated clay b) Wet sand c) Dry sand d) Rubble fill 3) Addition of lime to a soil generally ______a) Increases MDD and strength b) Decreases MDD and OMC c) Decrease MDD and increase OMC d) Increase MDD and decrease OMC 4) In case of physical and chemical modification soil is ______a) Preloaded b) Soil is reinforced c) Admixtures are added to soil d) None 5) Which soil doesn’t respond to compaction ? a) c-soil b) φ soil c) c- φ soil d) organic soil 6) Vibrofloat is inserted into the ground by a) hammering it b) lifting it and dropping it c) pushing it d) jetting 7) Suitability number of backfill material does not depend on a) D10 b) D20 c) D60 d) D50 8) Diameter of equivalent area of unit cell of stone column is called ______a) equivalent diameter b) effective diameter c) efficient diameter d) none P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 59 -2- *SLRPC59* 2 ⎛ d ⎞ = ⎜ ⎟ 9) Area replacement ratio is given by as c1 , for square grid, the value of constant c1 ⎝ s ⎠ is ______π π π a) b) c) d) none 24 4 2 3 10) Stone column method of ground improvement will a) reduce the settlement b) accelerate consolidation c) reinforce the soil d) all 11) To allow sufficient water to enter into drain, fabric has to satisfy a) kf ≥ 10 ks b) kf ≥ 100 ks c) kf ≥ 1000 ks d) kf ≥ 0.1 ks 12) Which of the following is not a permanent dewatering method ? a) Diaphragm wall b) Grouting c) Slurry trench cutoff d) Electro-osmosis 13) Solution grout is also called as a) suspension grout b) cementitious grout c) chemical grout d) none of above 14) Filling the joints or fracture by grout is a) Intrusion grouting b) Jet grouting c) Chemical grouting d) Fracture grouting 15) Calcium hydroxide is also called a) Hydrated lime b) Quicklime c) Dolomite lime d) Agricultural lime 16) Which of the following basic characteristics is not found in geosynthetics ? a) Non corrosiveness b) Lightness c) Long term durability under soil cover d) High rigidity 17) The term ‘weft’ refers to a) The longitudinal yarn of the geotextile b) The transverse yarn of the geotextile c) Both a) and b) d) None of the above 18) The thickness of a geotextile is measured at a specified normal compressive stress, generally equal to a) 2 kPa for 5 sec b) 2 kPa for 10 sec c) 20 kPa for 5 sec d) None of the above 19) The barrier in a linear or cover system of the landfill may consist of a) A compacted clay liner (CCL) b) A geomembrane (GMB) sheet c) A geosynthetic clay liner (GCC) d) All of the above 20) Which one of the following will have the highest efficiency in terms of soil loss under rain splash ? a) A jute product b) A synthetic product c) A geocomposite base on jute and synthetic products d) None of the above ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC59* -3- SLR-PC – 59 Seat No. B.E. (Civil) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 Elective – II : GROUND IMPROVEMENT TECHNIQUES Day and Date : Monday, 18-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. N.B. : 1) In Section I : Q. No. 2 is compulsory, answer any two from remaining. 2) In Section II : Q. No. 6 is compulsory, answer any two from remaining. 3) Figures to the right indicates full marks. 4) Assume suitable data if necessary. SECTION – I 2. Write a short note on any four : 16 a) Objectives of ground improvement. b) Characteristics of equipments used for shallow compaction. c) Suitability of backfill material for vibrofloatation. d) Installation of PVD. e) Factors affecting drain efficiency. 3. A) Design a suitable deep compaction system for the site to improve 10 m thick deposit of soil which lies in zone II. Assume suitable data for the design. Draw neat sketch of proposal. 8 B) Write a note on difference between standard compaction test and modified compaction test. 4 4. A) With a neat sketch explain the vibrocompaction process. What is a function of each component of the system ? 8 B) Write a note on blasting method of ground improvement. 4 5. A) Draw a neat sketch of stone column system and explain following terms related with it. 8 a) Unit cell b) Area replacement ratio c) Stress ratio d) Stress coefficient. B) Compare sand drain and prefabricated vertical drain. 4 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 59 -4- *SLRPC59* SECTION – II 6. Write a note on any four : 16 a) Properties of geotextile b) Grout monitoring c) Soil stabilization using cement d) Methods of slope stabilization e) Rapid impact compaction. 7. A) Design reinforcement for the earth wall to suit for following parameters : 8 a) Height of wall = 12 m b) Backfill soil unit weight = 22 kN/m3 c) Angle of internal friction = 30° d) Cohesion C = 0 e) Yield stress for reinforcement strip = 250 kPa f) Assume angle of wall friction = 0.5 φ . B) What is slope ? Why slope fails explain with sketch ? 4 8. A) What are the purpose of soil stabilization ? Discuss. 4 B) Discuss the commonly adopted tests for geotextile. 4 C) Write a note on mechanism of reinforced earth. 4 9. A) What is grouting ? Explain in detail various fields of application of grouting. 4 B) Explain the construction procedure in detail for using the geotextile as reinforcement in the construction of embankment. 8 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC6* SLR-PC 6 S e a t 5 A J ) N o . F.E. (Part I/II) Examination, 2015 ENGINEERING CHEMISTRY (Group B) (CGPA) Day and Date : Tuesday, 26-5-2015 Max. Marks : 70 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions :i)All MCQ are compulsory. ii) Each MCQ carry one mark. iii) MCQ should be solved in first 30 min. iv) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. v) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 14 1. Choose correct option : (20×1=20) 1) Coagulants help in the settling of A) Dissolved impurities only B) Fine suspended matter only C) Colloidal particles only D) Both B) and C) 2) During reverse osmosis A) Dissolved salts are pushed out through semi permeable membrane B) Only dissolved ionic salts are pushed out through the semi permeable membrane C) Pure water is pushed out through semi permeable membrane D) Both water and dissolved salts are pushed out through semi permeable membrane 3) The correct statement about phase is A) a gaseous mixture contains one phase only B) two immiscible liquids form two separate phases C) miscible liquids form one liquid phase only D) all of these 4) A lubricant should posses high A) volatility B) acidity C) oiliness D) none of these P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 6 -2- *SLRPC6* 5) A lubricant is used to A) Reduce frictional resistance between the metallic surfaces B) Reduce wear and tear of metal surfaces C) Reduce maintenance cost of machines D) All of above 6) The process of zinc coating over iron sheet by hot dipping is called A) Galvanizing B) Tinning C) Sheradizing D) Anodizing 7) FALSE statement about factors affecting corrosion is A) The metals placed higher in galvanic series, corrode more B) Smaller anodic area increases corrosion C) Pure metals corrode more D) Above critical humidity corrosion increases 8) Calorific valve of a coal sample is higher if its A) Moisture content is high B) Ash content is high C) Volatile matter is high D) Fixed carbon is high 9) Structural units of a high polymer are called A) Fibres B) Thermounits C) Monomers D) None of these 10) Sulfur is used particularly in A) Manufacture of Buna-S B) Compounding of plastic C) Vulcanization of raw rubber D) Corrosion control 11) Which of the following gases cannot be used as a carrier gas in Gas chromatography ? A) Nitrogen B) Argon C) Oxygen D) All of these 12) In Bomb-Calorimeter the ignition of fuel is made with the help of A) Cu fuse wire B) Mg fuse wire C) Al fuse wire D) Zn fuse wire 13) Fibres in composites containing metal matrix provides A) Decrease in density B) Stiffness C) Both A) and B) D) None of these 14) The main constituent of safety glass is A) CaCo3 B) PbO C) Vinyl Plastic D) Boron ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC6* -3- SLR-PC 6 S e a t N o . F.E. (Part I/II) Examination, 2015 ENGINEERING CHEMISTRY (Group B) (CGPA) Day and Date : Tuesday, 26-5-2015 Marks : 56 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : i) Attempt all questions. ii) Draw neat diagram wherever necessary. iii) Figures to right indicate full marks. SECTION I 2. A) Attempt any two : 8 a) Define hardness. Draw neat labelled diagram of Ion Exchange process to remove hardness. b) Describe Silver-Lead system with phase diagram. c) A sample of water on analysis was found to contain following impurities in ppm. Impurities Amount Mole. wt. Ca(HCO3)2 10.2 162 Mg (HCO3)2 15.6 146 CaCl2 17.1 111 MgSO4 12.3 120 Calculate temporary, permanent and total hardness of water. B) Attempt any two : 6 a) Explain thick film lubrication. b) Explain mechanism of oxidation corrosion. c) Write a note on metal cladding. 3. A) i) How will you select lubricant for gears and refrigeration ? 3 ii) Explain Mohrs method to determine chlorides in water sample. 3 OR A) i) What are the merits and demerits of phase rule ? 3 ii) Write a note on coagulation of water to remove suspended impurities. 3 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 6 -4- *SLRPC6* B) Attempt any two : i) Explain prevention of corrosion by cathodic protection method. 4 ii) Write a note on blended oils. 4 iii) Explain activated sludge process for reduction in BOD. 4 SECTION II 4. A) Attempt any two : 8 i) Discuss the manufacture of ordinary glass by Tank furnance. 4 ii) Define Vulcanization. Write properties of vulcanized rubber. 4 iii) A sample of coal contains : 4 C = 72%, O = 15%, H = 9%, S = 1.5%, N = 2%. Ash = 0.5%, Latent heat of steam = 587Kcal/Kg. Calculate Higher and Lower calorific value of coal sample. B) Attempt any two : 6 i) Draw a neat sketch of Boys calorimeter. 3 ii) Define : a) Glass transition temperature (Tg) of a polymer. 1 b) Glass melting temperature (Tm) of a polymer. 1 c) Average molecular wt. of a polymer (Mn). 1 iii) What is the composition of latex ? Explain method of isolation of natural rubber from latex. 3 5. A) i) Write characteristics of a good propellant. 4 ii) 62.5 gm of Vinyl chloride on polymerization form a polymer of polyvinyl chloride of mol. wt. 20,000. Calculate the degree of polymerization (Dp) 2 n CH = CH Cl C H C H C l 2 2 n OR i) Write differences between cast, iron, steel and wrought iron. 4 ii) Define Higher and Lower calorific value of a fuel. 2 B) Attempt any two : 8 i) Write characteristics of ceramics. 4 ii) Explain with neat sketch, the method of separation of components of a mixture by Gas liquid chromatography. 4 iii) What is the wt. of CaCl2 required to prepare 0.15 normal and 0.18 molar solution of 750 ml CaCl2 solution. 4 (Mol. wt. of CaCl2 = 111) ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC60* SLR-PC 60 e a t S Set o . N A B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015 TRAFFIC ENGINEERING AND CONTROL (Elective II) Day and Date : Monday, 18-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct option : (20×1=20) 1) Dimension, weight are comes under a) Vehicular static characteristics b) Vehicular dynamic characteristics c) Both a) and b) d) None of the above 2) Which of the following affect the total reaction time of the driver ? a) Fatigue b) Disease c) Alcohol consumption d) All the above 3) Acuity vision is formed by a cone whose angle is a) 3° about centre for retina b) 30° about centre of retina c) 10° about centre of retina d) 5° about centre of retina 4) The most popular pictorial representation of O-D data is a) O-D matrix b) O-D desired line c) O-D sector line d) O-D tabular column 5) Provision of one-way streets results in a) Increased accidents b) Decreased accidents c) Decreased capacity d) Reduction of speed 6) Spot-speed study may be useful in a) Planning traffic control and regulation b) Geometric design c) Analysing the causes of accidents d) All the above 7) Traffic volume is used as a) Quality measure of flow b) Quantity measure of flow c) Both a) and b) d) None of the above 8) Enoscope is used to find out a) Delay b) Journey speed c) Running speed d) Spot speed 9) Which of the following is correct ? a) Running time is greater than journey time b) Journey time is greater than running time c) Running time is equal to journey time d) Both b) and c) P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 60 -2- *SLRPC60* 10) Accident record includes a) Location files b) Spot maps c) Condition diagram d) All the above 11) Individual parking space required for a car can be considered as a) 2 × 4 m b) 2.5 × 5 m c) 3 × 6 m d) 2.5 × 5.5 m 12) In desire line diagram a) Width of desire-line is proportional to the number of trips in one direction b) Length of desire-line is proportional to the number of trips in both directions c) Width of desire-line is proportional to the number of trips in both directions d) Both length and width of desire line are proportional to the number of trips in both directions 13) Curb parking is also called as a) Mechanical parking b) On street parking c) Off-street parking d) Automatic parking 14) Maximum number of vehicles can be parked in a) 60° parking b) 35° parking c) 90° parking d) 45°parking 15) Main advantage of one-way street is a) Reduces points of conflicts b) Reduces speed of vehicle c) Both a) and b) d) None of the above 16) The designation of various sections of highway for different values of safe speed limits is called as a) Speed zoning b) Speed control area c) Speed boundary d) None of the above 17) Installation of traffic signal reduces, especially ______type of accidents. a) Rear-end collision b) Head on collision c) Right angled collision d) All the above 18) Marking intended for parking restriction and barrier line marking are of ______colour. a) White b) Yellow c) Black d) black and white 19) To improve the degree of brightness and life ______are used. a) Thermo paints b) Cold plastic paints c) Thermo plastic paints d) All the above 20) Consider the following statements Collision diagram is used to 1) Study accident pattern 2) Eliminate accidents 3) Determine remedial measures 4) Make statistical analysis of accidents Which of these statements are correct ? a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3 c) 3 and 4 d) 2 and 4 ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC60* -3- SLR-PC 60 S e a t N o . B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015 TRAFFIC ENGINEERING AND CONTROL (Elective II) Day and Date : Monday, 18-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Answer any two questions from each Section. 2) Figures to the right indicates full marks. 3) Draw neat sketch wherever it is necessary. 4) Any missing data can be suitably assumed. SECTION I 1. a) Define traffic engineering. And mention the scope of traffic engineering. 6 b) What are the resistances considered for determining the power performance of the road vehicles ? Also explain them briefly with a neat sketch. 8 c) Explain : 6 1) Vision 2) Hearing 3) Stability sensations 2. a) List out the various methods of spot speed study. And describe any one methods. 8 b) Explain Time-Space relationships of diverging manoeuvre with neat sketch. 6 c) Define the following elements of intersection operation : 6 1) Merging 2) Diverging 3) Crossing 4) Conflict or critical point 3. a) Write a short note on collision diagram with neat sketch. 8 b) Two vehicles A and B approaching at right angles. A from West and B from South collide with each other. After the collision, vehicle A skids in a direction 50° North of West and vehicle B 60° East of North. The initial skid distances of the vehicles A and B are 38 and 20 m respectively, before collision. The skid distances after collision are 15 m and 36 m respectively. If the weights of vehicles A and B are 4.4 and 6 tonnes respectively. Calculate the original speeds of the vehicles. The average skid resistance of the pavement is found to be 0.55. 8 c) What are the uses of collecting the accident data ? 4 SECTION II 4. a) What do you mean by speed control ? Explain the methods of speed control. 8 b) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of one-way streets. 8 c) Write short notes on (any one) : 4 1) Driver licencing 2) Vehicle registration Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 60 -4- *SLRPC60* 5. a) Discuss the basic requirements of traffic control devices. 6 b) The average normal flow on cross roads A and B during design period are 400 and 250 per/hr. The saturation flows are 1600 and 1000 per/hr. respectively. The all red time required for pedestrian crossing in 12 sec. Design a two-phase traffic signal by Websters method. 8 c) Explain : 6 1) Regulatory signs 2) Warnings signs 3) Guiding signs 6. a) Write a short note on road lighting. 8 b) Explain : 12 1) Bump integrator 2) Radar gun 3) Portable skid resistance meter. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC61* SLR-PC – 61 Seat Set No. A B.E. (Civil) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 SOLID AND HAZARDOUS AND WASTE MANAGEMENT (Elective – II) Day and Date : Monday, 18-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions :1)Right sides figure shows marks. 2) Draw the neat sketch wherever necessary. 3) Solve any three questions from Section I. However Q. No. 2 is compulsory. 4) Solve any three questions from Section II. However Q. No. 6 is compulsory. 5) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 6) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : 1) The pyrolysis process of solid waste management is ______a) Endothermic b) Exothermic c) Heterothermic d) None of the above 2) Separation processing of solid wastes is used to reduce a) Volume of solid waste b) Weight of solid waste c) Both a) and b) d) None of these 3) The highest heating valve is of a) Garbage b) Rubbish c) Hospital waste d) Industrial waste 4) The highest moisture content is in a) Garbage b) Rubbish c) Hospital waste d) Agricultural waste 5) Which of the following is a likely characteristic of hazardous waste ? a) Ignitability b) Corrosivity c) Reactivity d) Any of the above 6) High level radioactive waste can be managed in which of the following ways ? a) Open dumping b) Composting c) Incineration d) Dumping in sealed containers 7) Biomedical waste may be disposed of by ? a) Incineration b) Autoclaving c) Land filling d) Both b) and c) 8) Which of the following is a biodegradable organic chemical/substance ? a) Plastics b) Oils c) Pesticides d) Garbage 9) The largest single component of Municipal Solid Waste (MSW) is a) Plastics b) Food wastes c) Yard wastes d) Paper and paper products P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 61 -2- *SLRPC61* 10) An environmental problem with unsecured landfills is a) Groundwater pollution b) Methane production c) Incomplete decomposition d) All of the above 11) A modern landfill is required to a) Be sited on a location well above the water table b) Be surrounded by groundwater monitoring wells c) Have a leachate collection system d) All of the above 12) Which of the following components of municipal solid wastes can be recycled ? a) Metals b) Paper and paper products c) Glass d) All of the above 13) Which of the following is not a material in MSW ? a) Agricultural wastes b) Food wastes c) Glass and plastics d) Wood wastes 14) Typical modern municipal landfills contain which of the following ? a) Leachate treatment facilities b) Impermeable barriers c) Methane retrieval systems d) All of the above 15) Which is not true about incineration of solid waste ? a) There are drastic reductions in the volume and weight of wastes b) The incinerators are relatively cheap to build c) The ash can contain heavy metals and other toxic substances d) The incinerators can be built to generate electricity 16) Which of the following is a practice used to reduce and manage MSW ? a) Waste combustion b) Source reduction c) Recycling of materials d) All of the above 17) Which of the following is not a source reduction activity ? a) Products package reuse b) Reducing use by modifying practices c) Saving energy by using recycled materials d) Package or product design that reduces material or toxicity 18) Which of the following is not a method for the disposal of hazardous wastes ? a) ISV b) Landfills c) Deep-well injection d) Surface impoundments 19) Which of the following is NOT a major option for managing hazardous waste ? a) Reducing the production of waste while increasing the amount generated b) Reducing the volume and/or hazard of the waste c) Long-term storage or disposal d) Dumping at sea 20) Landfills are generally places where a) Microbes successfully break down the majority of trash produced b) Composting occurs, as there is plenty of water and oxygen c) Castoff materials find a final burial ground d) Biodegradation readily occurs. ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC61* -3- SLR-PC – 61 Seat No. B.E. (Civil) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 SOLID AND HAZARDOUS WASTE MANAGEMENT (Elective – II) Day and Date : Monday, 18-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions :1)Right sides figure shows marks. 2) Draw the neat sketch wherever necessary. 3) Solve any three questions from Section I. However Q. No. 2 is compulsory. 4) Solve any three questions from Section II. However Q. No. 6 is compulsory. SECTION – I 2. a) Explain the term incineration with neat sketch. Enlist merits and demerits of incinerator. 8 b) Enlist the various types of composting methods. Explain any one in detail. 6 3. a) Explain with figures the different types of magnetic separation methods. 6 b) Estimate the moisture content of solid waste sample of 100 kg using the following data : 7 Sr. No. Component % by mass % by M.C. 1 Food waste 16 65 2 Paper 36 08 3 Cardboards 05 05 4 Plastics 10 02 5 Grass 12 55 6Wood 0804 7 Metals 13 03 4. a) Write a short note on recycling of solid waste. 6 b) Describe the classification of solid waste in detail. 7 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 61 -4- *SLRPC61* 5. a) Describe the effect of following on composting process : 7 a) C/N ratio b) Temperature c) Moisture content d) pH b) Explain in detail solid waste collection method. 6 SECTION – II 6. a) What are the various types of landfilling techniques. Explain the control measures to be taken while landfilling techniques. 8 b) Define hazardous waste and explain the characteristics of hazardous waste. 6 7. a) Define leachate and explain in short any two methods used to control the flow of leachate. 7 b) Explain in brief how will you minimize the damage due to man-made hazard. 6 8. a) Write a detailed note on ‘waste minimization’. 5 b) Write the steps for recycling of solid waste. 4 c) Explain with one example ‘3R formulae’. 4 9. a) What is recycling ? What are some items at your home that can be recycled ? 7 b) Write in detail about risk assessment. 6 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC62* SLR-PC 62 e a t S Set A N o . B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015 DESIGN OF BRIDGES (Elective) Day and Date : Monday, 18-5-2015 Max. Marks : 60 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from each Section. 2) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 3) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly. 4) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Give correct option to following question each question carries one mark : (20×1=20) 1) Section V of IRC Bridge code is dealing with a) Composite construction b) Bearings c) Steel road bridges d) None of above 2) Total load of IRC A loading is a) 554 KN b) 332 KN c) 700 KN d) 1000 KN 3) For spans less than 5 m impact factor for IRC tracked vehicle is a) 15% b) 10% c) 25% d) 20% 4) If entire train is not on full span, braking force is taken as of load actually on span a) 25% b) 20% c) 15% d) 10% 5) As per IRC minimum limiting force on the deck due to wind is taken as a) 4 KN/m b) 4.5 KN/m c) 5 KN/m d) 6 KN/m 6) Bridge having span 6-60 m are called as a) Culvert b) Major bridges c) Long span bridges d) Minor bridges 7) If entire train is on full span, braking force is taken as a) 10% of load actually on span b) 20% of load actually on span c) 25% of load actually on span d) 20% of one train load plus 10% of succeeding train load P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 62 -2- *SLRPC62* 8) For calculation of earth pressure on abutment for smooth vertical face, coefficient of active earth pressure is given as 1 s i n 1 s i n 1 s i n s i n a) b) c) d) 1 s i n 1 s i n 1 s i n 1 s i n 9) Which of the following method is not used to analyze two way slabs subjected to concentrated loads ? a) Pigeauds method b) Courbons method c) Diagonals method d) Rankine-Grashoff method 10) Maximum permissible compressive stress for concrete M20 is a) 3 MPa b) 7 MPa c) 8 MPa d) 5 MPa 11) The in-depth inspection of bridges may be scheduled once in a) Five to seven years b) Ten years c) Three to five years d) Two years 12) During inspection of bridges crack be classified as wide for a crack width of a) Upto 0.3 mm b) Over 0.5 mm c) 0.3 mm to 0.5 mm d) None of these 13) Henry Jeagur method is related with a) Load factor b) Impact factor c) Effective width d) Buoyancy factor 14) As per IRC-21 dia. of main bar in beam shall not exceed a) 32 mm b) 40 mm c) 25 mm d) 36 mm 15) As per IRC-21 minimum clear cover to array reinforcement bar is a) 25 mm b) 30 mm c) 50 mm d) 40 mm 16) Horizontal force for water current is determined by following equation v k 2 2 a) P b) P = 0.5 kv c) P = 0.5 k v d) None of these 2 g 17) To provide possible variation in direction of water current, following allowance is considered a) 25° b) 30° c) 15° d) 20° 18) As per crack control criteria for IRC-21, the spacing of main reinforced bar shall not exceed a) 300 mm b) 200 mm c) 150 mm d) 100 mm 19) Courbons theory is applicable only when ratio of span to width is a) Greater than 2 but less than 4 b) Greater than 4 c) Greater than 4 but less than 6 d) None of these 20) Total load in case of IRC AA wheeled loading is a) 554 KN b) 332 KN c) 700 KN d) 1000 KN ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC62* -3- SLR-PC 62 S e a t N o . B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015 DESIGN OF BRIDGES (Elective) Day and Date : Monday, 18-5-2015 Marks : 40 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from each Section. 2) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 3) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly. SECTION I 2. Design of slab panel for T-beam bridge for following data : 14 1) Panel Dimensions 3 m × 3.5m. 2) Live load IRC class AA tracked. 3) Thickness of slab panel 0.24 m. 4) Thickness of wearing coat 0.1m. U V B 1 , 0 . 8 5) For 1 and , m1 = 0.038, m2 = 0.031. B L L U V B 0 . 3 5 , 0 . 8 6) For 1 and , m1 = 0.08, m2 = 0.059. B L L 7) Use concrete M-25 and Fe-415 steel. 3. Design a solid deck slab for two lane National Highway culvert with following data : 13 1) Clear span 7 m 2) Wearing coat 0.08 m 3) Kerb 600 mm wide, 250 mm thick 4) Loading IRC class AA tracked loading (two lane) 5) Material M-25 concrete, Fe-415 steel Show the reinforcement details with neat sketch. 4. Design the central longitudinal girder for Two Lane Bridge. Take following data : 13 1) Clear span 22 m 2) Live load IRC class A (two lane) 3) M-25, Fe-415 4) Spacing of longitudinal girder 3 m 5) No. of cross-girders 5. 5. A) Classify IRC loading for Bridges. 8 B) What do you mean by balanced cantilever bridge ? 5 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 62 -4- *SLRPC62* SECTION II 6. Compute the stress developed at the base and check for the stability of abutment as shown in Fig. 1. Take unit weight of soil = 19 KN/m3, soil friction angle = 33°, coefficient of friction between concrete and soil = 0.5. Take load from superstructure including self-weight of superstructure and live load = 360 KN/m length of abutment. 14 7. A) Design an elastomeric unreinforced neoprene pad bearing to suit the following data : 10 1) Vertical sustained load 200 KN 2) Vertical dynamic load 50 KN 3) Horizontal force 60 KN 4) Modulus of rigidity of elastomer 1 N/mm2 5) Coefficient of friction 0.3. B) Write on expansion joints. 3 8. A) Write on different type of pier with their suitability. 8 B) Write on Open well foundation. 5 9. A) What do you mean by inspection, maintenance and repair of bridges ? 8 B) Explain incremental launching method of superstructure construction. 5 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC63* SLR-PC – 63 Seat No. Set A B.E. (Civil) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 Elective – II : INFRASTRUCTURAL ENGINEERING Day and Date : Monday, 18-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries two mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Each MCQ question carries two marks. 1) What is meant by the term BOO ? a) Build Operate Own b) Build Own Operate c) Build Opt Operate d) Building Own Operate 2) Which of the following is correct term for DBFM ? a) Design Build Finance Maintain b) Design Building Finance Maintain c) Design Build Finance Manage d) Develop Build Finance Manage 3) Which of the following is not role of government in Public Private Partnership ? a) Ensure transparency b) Ensure value for money c) Expertise and innovation d) Identify needs in terms of output 4) Which of the following is role of private sector in Public Private Partnership ? a) Access to private finance b) Sufficient return to investors c) Providing the facility and service d) All of the above 5) Which of the following is benefit for Private sector of Public Private Partnership ? a) Innovative solutions b) Export opportunities c) Construction management d) Sharing the assets P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 63 -2- *SLRPC63* 6) Which of the following is not type of contract ? a) Service contracts b) Lease-develop-Operate or Buy c) Design build d) Lease-develop-Operate and Buy 7) Which of the following is not principle of Public Private Partnership ? a) Ownership by stakeholder b) Joint venture c) Simplicity in usage and management d) Flexibility 8) Which of the following is suitable as VGF scheme ? a) Viability Gap Funding scheme b) Viability Gap Finance scheme c) Volatile Gap Funding scheme d) Volatile Growth Funding scheme 9) Which of the following is not one of the key challenges for sustainability ? a) Water b) Energy c) Waste d) Rural development 10) Which of following is not the principle aspect of sustainable development ? a) Energy b) Environmental c) Social d) Economic ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC63* -3- SLR-PC – 63 Seat No. B.E. (Civil) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 Elective – II : INFRASTRUCTURAL ENGINEERING Day and Date : Monday, 18-5-2015 Max. Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from Section I and any three questions from Section II. 2) Assume necessary data if required and mention it clearly. 3) Figures to right indicate full marks. SECTION – I 2. a) Explain the term Net present Value (NPV). 4 b) Explain the major constraints in the delivery mechanism and infrastructure of water supply sector. 10 3. a) What are the benefits of Public Private Partnership ? 4 b) In what Circumstances should a Public Private Partnership be considered ? 9 4. a) Draw a neat diagram for model of public private partnership. 4 b) Explain the Viability Gap Funding (VGF) scheme with respect to Public Private Partnership projects. 9 5. a) Enlist the project planning activities. 4 b) Enlist and explain the potential application of DBOF and state its potential strengths and weakness. 9 SECTION – II 6. a) Draw a schematic diagram of work flow of five phase project management. 4 b) What are the associated tradeoffs in terms of maintenances and repair in extending the service life of infrastructure ? 10 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 63 -4- *SLRPC63* 7. a) Write a note on BOT (Toll) model. 4 b) Explain the BOT (Annuity) model. 9 8. a) Write a short note on risk mitigation. 4 b) Explain Quantitative and Qualitative techniques of risk assessment. 9 9. a) State and Discuss five key sustainability challenges. 4 b) State the strengths and weaknesses of developing commercially viable infrastructure projects. 9 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC64* SLR-PC – 64 Seat Set No. A B.E. (Civil) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 ADVANCED DESIGN OF CONCRETE STRUCTURES (Elective – III) Day and Date : Wednesday, 20-5-2015 Total Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : i) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. ii) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. iii) Answer any two questions from each Section. iv) Assume suitable data if necessary. v) Draw neat sketches wherever necessary. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : (20×1=20) 1) A flat slab is supported a) On beams b) On columns c) On beams and columns d) On columns monolithically built with slab 2) In water tanks the compressive (permissible) stress in column subjected to direct load is ______N/mm2 for HYSD bars. a) 115 b) 125 c) 175 d) 150 3) A circular slab subjected to external loading, deflects to form a a) Semi-hemisphere b) Ellipsoid c) Parabolic d) None of these 4) In case of water tank the permissible direct tensile stress in for HYSD bars is ______N/mm2. a) 115 b) 140 c) 150 d) 230 5) Piles are usually driven by a) Diesel operated hammer b) drop hammer c) Single acting steam hammer d) All the above 6) A raft foundation is provided if its area exceeds the plan area of the building by a) 10% b) 20% c) 40% d) 50% 7) In case of water tanks the permissible shear stress for M20 grade concrete is ______N/mm2. a) 1 b) 1.2 c) 1.25 d) 1.7 P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 64 -2- *SLRPC64* 8) In case of grid slab the in situ ribs shall not be less than ______mm wide. a) 60 b) 50 c) 65 d) 75 9) The permissible tensile stress in M.S. bars on liquid retaining face is ______N/mm2. a) 115 b) 100 c) 125 d) 150 10) In a combined footing for two columns carrying unequal loads, the maximum hogging bending moment occurs at a) a point of zero shear force b) a point of the maximum shear force c) a point equidistant from either column d) more loaded column 11) The minimum percentage in walls, floors and roofs in each of the two directions at right angles shall have an area of ______percent of the concrete section in that direction for sections up to 100 mm thickness. a) 0.3 b) 0.25 c) 0.2 d) 0.35 12) The walls of underground water tanks are designed for ______pressure, specially under the condition when tank is empty. a) Water b) Earth c) Both a) and b) d) All of these 13) The tanks situated underground, the walls of the tanks are to be generally designed for ______a) Earth pressure only b) Water pressure only c) Both Earth and water pressure d) All of these 14) If W is the load on a circular slab of radius R, the maximum circumferential moment at the centre of the slab, is a) WR2/16 b) 2WR2/16 c) 3WR2/16 d) zero 15) Thickened part of a flat slab over its supporting column, is technically known as a) Drop panel b) Capital c) Column head d) None of these 16) Piles are usually driven by a) Diesel operated hammer b) Drop hammer c) Single acting steam hammer d) All the above 17) For design of water tanks the permissible stress in bending tension in HYSD bars is for is ______N/mm2. a) 115 b) 140 c) 150 d) 230 18) According to I.S. : 456, 1978 the thickness of reinforced concrete footing on piles at its edges, is kept less than a) 20 cm b) 30 cm c) 40 cm d) 50 cm 19) The floor of the underground water tanks are designed for ______pressure, for the empty tank condition. a) Uplift b) Water c) Earth d) All of these 20) In grid slab the in situ ribs shall be spaced at centres not greater than ______m apart. a) 1 b) 1.5 c) 1.2 d) 1.25 ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC64* -3- SLR-PC – 64 Seat No. B.E. (Civil) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 ADVANCED DESIGN OF CONCRETE STRUCTURES (Elective – III) Day and Date : Wednesday, 20-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : i) Answer any two questions from each Section. ii) Assume suitable data if necessary. iii) Draw neat sketches wherever necessary. SECTION – I 2. a) A circular room has 5. Diameter from inside. Design a circular roof slab for the room to carry a super imposed load of 3800 N/mm2. Assume that the slab is simply supported. Use M20 grade of concrete and Fe415 Steel. 12 b) Explain with neat sketch reinforcement details section passing through column and middle strip. 8 3. a) Design combined rectangular footing for two columns A and B carrying loads of 500 kN and 700 kN respectively. Column A is 300 mm × 300 mm in size and column B is 400 mm × 400 mm in size. The centre to centre spacing of the columns is 3.4 m. The safe bearing capacity of soil may be taken as 2 200 k N/m . Use M20 grade of concrete and Fe415 Steel. 15 b) Explain the significance of raft foundation. 5 4. Design a pile under a column transmitting an axial load of 600 kN. The pile is to σ 2 σ 2 be driven at a depth of 8 m. Take cc = 4 N/mm and sc = 130 N/mm . 20 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 64 -4- *SLRPC64* SECTION – II 5. Design a circular water tank with flexible base for capacity of 400000 liters. The depth of water is to be 4 m including a free board of 200 mm. Use M25 grade of concrete and Fe415 Steel. Draw the reinforcement details of the tank. 20 6. a) A rectangular water tank 4.5 m long 2.25 m wide and 2.25 m high has its walls rigidly jointed at the critical edges. Design the tank by IS code method, it is supported an all sides under the wall. Use M25 grade of concrete and Fe415 Steel. 12 b) Explain the design procedure for approximate method of rectangular water tank resting on the ground. 8 7. Design an underground water tank 4 m × 10 m × 3 m deep. The subsoil consists of sand having angle of repose of 30° and saturated unit weight of 17 kN/m3. The water table is likely to rise up to ground level. Use M25 grade of concrete and Fe415 Steel. Take unit weight of water as 9.81 kN/m3. 20 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC65* SLR-PC 65 e a t S Set A N o . B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015 INDUSTRIAL WASTE TREATMENT (Elective III) Day and Date : Wednesday, 20-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 2) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and mention it clearly. 3) Use of non programmable calculator is allowed. 4) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct option : 20 1) The biodegradable organics deposited at the bed of stream undergoes ______decomposition. a) Aerobic b) Anaerobic c) Inorganic d) Photosynthesis 2) Biological treatment units are operated in ______growth phase of microorganism. a) Endogenous b) Lag c) Declining d) All of above 3) In a complete mix process volumetric loading is approximately ______that of conventional process. a) Ten times b) Five times c) Seven times d) Three times 4) Wasting of sludge is directly controlled from a) Aeration tank b) Sludge digester c) Trickling filter d) Recycle line 5) ______reduces the volume of organic content of sludge. a) Thickening b) Conditioning c) Digestion d) Incineration 6) ______wastes are highly corrosive for metallic and concrete structures also to aquatic life. a) Organic b) Acidic c) Alkaline d) Oil and grease 7) ______constant varies with temperature for effluent waste. a) Deoxygenation b) Ultimate BOD c) Reaeration d) DO saturation P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 65 -2- *SLRPC65* 8) The end products of anaerobic digestion are a) Methane and oxygen b) Methane and ammonia c) Methane and carbon dioxide d) Carbon dioxide and ammonia 9) Phosphate removal in aeration tank is accomplished by a) Air stripping b) Thermal reduction c) Ion exchange d) Chemical precipitation 10) ______substance deplete the oxygen content of the receiving streams. a) Inorganic b) Color producing c) Organic d) Toxic 11) ______is a process of aeration used for removal of gases from wastewater a) Thermal reduction b) Air stripping c) Adsorption d) Chemical oxidation 12) ______is expressed as sum of absorbance at wave lengths a) Turbidity b) Odour c) Colour d) Dissolved solids 13) Addition of lime to kraft process results information of a) Black liquor b) Green liquor c) Spent liquor d) White liquor 14) ______is manufactured from lignin which is recovered by black liquor. a) Fibres b) Activated carbon c) Ethanol d) Yeast 15) Beater and Jordan are manufacturing process of ______industry. a) Textile b) Sugar c) Pulp and paper d) Tannery 16) Parshall flume is a convenient device for measuring ______in sewer. a) Velocity b) Flow c) Depth d) Temperature 17) ______treatment of effluent using digesters in sugar industry is effective and economical. a) Aerobic b) Anaerobic c) Stabilisation d) Anoxic 18) The milk waste becomes acidic due to composition of ______under anaerobic condition. a) Lactose b) Glucose c) Sucrose d) Carbohydrates 19) ______is exposure of waste in increasing the concentration of initial microbiological population. a) Pickling b) Scrubbing c) Metabolism d) Acclimatisation 20) Thermal reduction process involves burning and ______a) Absorbance b) Precipitation c) Oxidation d) Steaming ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC65* -3- SLR-PC 65 S e a t N o . B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015 INDUSTRIAL WASTE TREATMENT (Elective III) Day and Date : Wednesday, 20-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : Solve any three questions from Section I. i.e. Question No. 2 to Question No. 5. Question No. 6 is compulsory in Section II and solve any two questions from the remaining. SECTION I 2. a) Explain the process of Ion-Exchange method for removal of dissolved inorganic materials. 8 b) Explain the pollutant characteristics of industrial wastes. 6 3. a) Explain any one method of neutralization of acidic waste. 5 b) A city discharge 1.25 m3/s of wastewater into a stream whose minimum rate of flow is 8 m3/s. The velocity of stream is 0.8 m/s. The temperature of wastewater is 20° C and that of stream is 15° C. The 20° C BOD5 of wastewater is 250 mg/l and that of stream is 2.0 mg/l. The wastewater contains no dissolved oxygen but the stream is 90% saturated upstream of the discharge. At 20° C, K is estimated to be 0.3 per day and R is 0.9 per day. Determine the critical oxygen deficit and its location. Also, estimate the 20° C BOD5 of the sample at a critical point. Use temperature coefficients of 1.135 for K and 1.024 for R. Given saturation concentration at 15° C is 10.15 mg/l and DO saturation at 15.68° C is 10.01 mg/l. 9 4. a) Explain how the strength of waste generated from industry can be reduced. 7 b) Explain DO sag curve. 6 5. Write short note on : I) Sludge disposal 6 II) In-Plant measures. 7 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 65 -4- *SLRPC65* SECTION II 6. a) Mention pollution characteristics of industrial waste and suggest treatment methods for any four industries. 8 b) What are the sources of wastes in dairy industries ? 4 7. Give the characteristics of wastewater, draw the wastewater treatment flow diagram and explain in detail. 7 a) Tannery industries 7 b) Cotton industries. 7 8. Draw manufacturing process flow diagram, indicate the sources wastes and explain in detail. a) Pulp and paper industries. 7 b) Distillery industries. 7 9. Write short note on : 14 I) Recycling of waste II) Minimal national standards. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC66* SLR-PC – 66 Seat Set No. A B.E. (Civil) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 Elective – III : WATER POWER ENGINEERING Day and Date : Wednesday, 20-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. N.B. : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct alternative : 20 i) The primary power at a hydro plant is determined considering a) minimum stream flow b) available pondage c) probable load curve d) all the above ii) The simplest method to eliminate positive water hammer pressure is to provide to take rejected flow to a) simple surge tank at upper end of penstock b) pressure relief valve at turbine c) none of them d) both of them iii) Sediment trop efficiency is low for reservoir with a) small capacity in flow ratio b) large capacity in flow ratio iv) Surge tank is necessarily provided in a) long penstocks b) short length penstocks c) surface penstocks d) embedded penstocks v) The load factor for the peak day of the year determines the required a) generating capacity b) water storage c) pond age d) none of the above vi) Function of surge tank is to a) store water on load rejection b) furnish additional water during increased load demand c) both to store and supply water d) none vii) Minimum pressure occurs in full flowing power tunnel at the time of a) load rejection b) load acceptance c) head race d) tailrace viii) Load factor for a power system serving highly industrial area Visa-a-Vis residential area is a) same b) high c) low d) none of these P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 66 -2- *SLRPC66* ix) Indicate type of turbine suitable for specific speed of 1000 and head 50 m a) Francis b) Pelton c) Kaplan d) Bulb x) cavitation in a turbine causes a) low efficiency b) blade surface is damaged c) vibration and noise d) none of the above xi) Effective head at a turbine is a) gross head – head loss in penstock b) gross head – head loss in penstock – velocity head at turbine exit c) none of the above xii) Unit power in a turbine is P P P P a) 1 b) c) 3 d) 3 H 2 H H 2 H 4 xiii) Francis Kaplan and propeller turbines fall under category of a) impulse turbine b) reaction turbine c) impulse reaction combined d) axial flow xiv) Jet ratio ‘m’ is defined as the ratio of a) diameter of jet of water to diameter of pelton wheel b) velocity of vane to velocity of jet of water c) velocity of flow to velocity of jet of water d) diameter of Pelton wheel to diameter of jet xv) A turbine is called reaction turbine if at the inlet of turbine, the total energy is a) kinetic b) pressure c) kinetic and pressure d) none of the above xvi) The flow through penstocks and pressure conducts is generally a) laminar b) turbulent c) both a) and b) d) none of these xvii) The head lost in the flow of water through a penstock pipe of given length a) increase with increase in flow velocity b) decreases with increase in flow velocity c) decreases with increase in the roughness of the pipe surface d) decreases with time xviii) When a gate valve, instilled in a pressure pipe is suddenly closed, water hammer pressure is caused on the pipe shell, in the portion a) down stream of the valve b) up stream of the valve c) both a) and b) d) none of the above xix) The only statement which is incorrect in regard to hydropower is a) the system efficiency of a hydropower plant is quite high b) the installation cost of a hydroplant is very high c) the running cost of hydro power plant is very low d) the hydraulic turbines take a lot of time in being put off and on xx) An impulse turbine like a pelton wheel is a) an open body, exposed to atmosphere b) a closed body not exposed to atmosphere c) a partially open and partially closed body Set A d) none of these ______ www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC66* -3- SLR-PC – 66 Seat No. B.E. (Civil) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 Elective – III : WATER POWER ENGINEERING Day and Date : Wednesday, 20-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. N.B. : 1) Solve any three questions from questions 2, 3, 4 and 5. Solve any three questions from questions 6, 7, 8 and 9. 2) Assume suitable data if necessary and state it clearly SECTION – I 2. a) What is meant by hydropower ? Compare hydropower plant with thermal power plant with respect to Indian conditions. 6 b) What are the principal components of a ‘Hydro-electric’ scheme ? Discuss the utility of each component. 7 3. a) A runoff river plant is installed on a river having minimum flow of 15 m3/sec. If the plant is used as a peak load plant, operating daily for 6 hours only, compute the firm capacity of the plant : i) without pondage ii) with pondage, but allowing 8% water to be lost in evaporation and other losses. Head at the plant is 16 m, and the plant efficiency may be assumed as 80%. 7 b) Define the mass-curve and explain its use in the design of dam capacity and spill-way capacity. 7 4. a) Discuss briefly, various types of hydraulic valves used in the penstock. 6 b) What do you understand by base load and peak load power plants ? What type of power plants are used as base load and peak load plants and why ? What factors are considered in selecting a plant as base load plant or peak load plant ? 7 5. a) What is meant by ‘Water hammer’ ? Does it affect long penstocks ? If so, why ? 6 b) What are the different salient factors to be considered in deciding the alignment of a tunnel in a hydroelectric project ? 7 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 66 -4- *SLRPC66* SECTION – II 6. a) What topographical features are in favour of adopting undergroud power house ? What are the different types underground power stations ? Draw neat layout of each. 6 b) Which factors are considered in deciding the setting of Pelton wheel : i) in horizontal plane ii) in vertical plane ? Discuss the advantages of one over the other. 7 7. a) Explain why the discharge conditions for a high specific speed runner are less favourable than those for a low specific speed runner both being assumed to be running at their points of maximum efficiency. 7 b) For a given head and stream flow available at a certain power plant, what quantities may be changed so as to permit the use of various types of turbines ? Which type of turbine will give the smallest number of units in the plant ? Which type will run at the lowest speed ? 7 8. a) Discuss the necessity for the development of pumped storage power in the country. Mention the advantages and limitations of pumped storage power. 6 b) What is meant by “Cavitation” ? How and where does it occur in water turbines ? Why does it become necessary to install a water turbine below tailrace level ? 7 9. a) Describe the methods used to avoid the cavitations in water turbines. Why the upper part of the daft tube in lined with mental plate ? 6 b) How are the ocean tides generated ? With the tidal cycle in the view, explain how the power can be generated. Enumerate the limitations of tidal power generations. 7 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC67* SLR-PC – 67 Seat Set No. A B.E. (Civil) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 Elective – III : ENTREPRENEURSHIP Day and Date : Wednesday, 20-5-2015 Total Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : a) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. b) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. c) Solve any three questions from each Section – I and Section II. d) Assume additional data if required and state it clearly. e) Figures on the right indicate full marks. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 PART – I 1. Give the correct option for the following multiple choice questions. All questions carry 1 mark each : (1×20=20) 1) The definition of Small Scale Industry is based on a) Sales of the unit b) Investments in machines and equipments c) Market coverage d) Export capacity 2) What is the acronym for SIDBI ? a) Short Investment development Bank of India b) Stock Investment Development Bank of India c) Small Investment Development Bank of India d) Small industries Development Bank of India 3) Which of the following contribute to sickness of small enterprises ? a) Poor financial management b) Inadequate quality control c) Lack of competitive market strategy d) All of these 4) Which of the following is not a phase in business plan preparation ? a) Setting business goals b) Locating resources c) Tracing competitions d) Developing the labour market 5) Of the following, who is the most popular entrepreneur ? a) Sudha Murthy b) Medha Patkar c) Kiran Muzumdar d) Deepa Mehta P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 67 -2- *SLRPC67* 6) Which of the following is the cause of sickness of an enterprise ? a) Lack of adequate capital b) Lack of demand for the products c) Lack of competition d) All of the above 7) SEZ stands for a) Small Entrepreneurship Zone b) Special Entrepreneurship Zone c) Sick Economic Zone d) Special Economic Zone 8) Which of the following is not the purpose of promotion of small business ? a) Generation of employment b) Balanced regional development c) Promotion of communal harmony d) Reduction in rural poverty 9) Which of the following organizations provides institutional support to SSI ? a) Indian Institute of Foreign Trade b) Tool Design Institute of SIDO c) Nationalized banks d) Ministry of Commerce 10) Technology development and modernization fund is provided by a) SIDBI b) NABARD c) KVIC d) SIDO 11) Principle of entrepreneurship may be applied to a) Government b) Business c) Society d) All of these 12) The criteria for small business is a) Capital invested b) Number of employees c) Number of managers d) Types of business 13) Which of the bank has been entrusted with the responsibility of developing and supporting small business ? a) NABARD b) SIDBI c) IDBI d) None of these 14) Entrepreneur is a person who a) Initiates business b) Invests capital c) Manages the business d) All of these 15) Which of the following is not a component of environment ? a) Economical factors b) Geographical factors c) Political factors d) None of these 16) Market research is related with a) Finding the facts b) Set of design c) Sampling d) None of these 17) Product mix consists of a) 2P b) 6P c) 4P d) None of these 18) Grapewine is the ______type of communication. a) Written b) Formal c) Informal d) All of these 19) The prices are generally determined by a) Product life cycle b) Marketing strategy c) Demand and supply d) None of these 20) The part of wealth which is used for further production of wealth is called as a) Cost b) Capital c) Price d) None of these ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC67* -3- SLR-PC – 67 Seat No. B.E. (Civil) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 Elective – III : ENTREPRENEURSHIP Day and Date : Wednesday, 20-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : a) Solve any three questions from each Section – I and Section II. b) Assume additional data if required and state it clearly. c) Figures on the right indicate full marks. PART – II Answer any three questions from each Section. Section – I 2. a) Define the term SSI. Explain the procedure for registration of SSI. Also explain the scope and characteristics of SSI. 9 b) Explain the various sources that provide financial assistance for SSI. 5 3. a) Define market survey. Explain data collection required for setting up small ventures. 9 b) Write a note on considerations in product selection. 4 4. a) Discuss the concept of SWOT analysis for the selection of business opportunities. 8 b) Write a note on SIDBI. 5 5. a) Define the term ‘Entrepreneur’. Explain the various traits of successful entrepreneur. 9 b) Define entrepreneurship. Distinguish between entrepreneur and entrepreneurship. 4 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 67 -4- *SLRPC67* Section – II 6. a) Define sales promotion. Explain various sales promotion techniques. 8 b) Define motivation. Explain hierarchy need of motivation. 6 7. a) Define goal setting. Write in detail various techniques for goal setting decision. 7 b) What do you mean by financial management ? Explain objective and functions of financial management. 6 8. a) What do you mean by project feasibility (Appraisal) ? Explain marketing feasibility of the project. 7 b) Define marketing mix. Explain the components of marketing mix. 6 9. a) Following is the balance sheet of a company as on 31st March. Liabilities Rs. Assets Rs. 1) Share capital 1,00,000 1) Land and buildings 70,000 2) P and L account 15,000 2) Plan and machinery stock 1,75,000 3) General reserve 20,000 3) Stock 1,00,000 4) 12% debentures 2,10,000 4) Bills receivable 5,000 5) Sundry creditors 50,000 5) Cash at bank 20,000 6) Bills payable 25,000 6) Sundry details 50,000 Calculate : i) Current ratio ii) Quick ratio iii) Inventory to working capital iv) Proprietary ratio v) Current assets to fixed assets. 10 b) Write a note on barriers to communication. 3 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC68* SLR-PC 68 e a t S Set o . N A B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015 OPTIMIZATION TECHNIQUES (Elective III) Day and Date : Wednesday, 20-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions :1)Assume suitable data if necessary but mention it clearly. 2) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 3) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct option : 20 1) For any primal problem and its dual a) Optimal value of objective functions is same b) Primal will have an optimal solution if and only if dual does too c) Both primal and dual cannot be infeasible d) All of the above 2) The right hand side of a constraint in a primal problem appears in the corresponding dual as a) A coefficient in the objective function b) A right hand side constant of a constraint c) A input out coefficient d) None of the above 3) If dual has an unbounded solution, primal has a) No feasible solution b) Unbounded solution c) Feasible solution d) None of the above 4) If primal LP problem has a finite solution then the dual LP problem should have a) Finite solution b) Infeasible solution c) Unbounded solution d) None of the above 5) The entering variable in the sensitivity analysis of objective function coefficient is always a a) Decision variable b) Non-basic variable c) Basic variable d) Slack variable 6) The cost of providing service in a queuing system decreases with a) Decreased average waiting time in the queue b) Decreased arrival rate c) Increased arrival rate d) None of the above 7) Service mechanism in a queuing system is characterized by a) Servers behaviour b) Customers behaviour c) Customers in the system d) All of the above 8) While assigning random numbers in the Monte Carlo simulation, it is a) Not necessary to assign the exact range of random number interval as the probability b) Necessary to develop a cumulative probability distribution c) Necessary to assign the particular appropriate random numbers d) All of the above P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 68 -2- *SLRPC68* 9) Dynamic programming approach a) Optimizes a sequence of interrelated decision over a period of time b) Provides optimal solution to single period decision problem c) Provides optimal solution to long term corporate planning problems d) None of the above 10) In mixed integer programming a) Every variable must be integer valued b) Some variables must be integer valued c) No variable must be integer valued d) None of these 11) In Dynamic programming principal of optimally states that optimal policy for leaving the state a) Depends on route taken to enter a particular state b) Does not depend on route taken to enter a particular state c) May or may not depend on route taken to enter a particular state d) Depends on earlier state 12) In every optimization problem formulation a) Variables are essential b) Constraints are essential c) Variables and constraints both are essential d) Variables and constraints both are not essential 13) A function is said to have local maxima at x = x*, for all values of h close to zero, if a) f(x*) f(x* + h) b) f(x*) f(x* + h) c) f(x*) f(x) d) f(x*) f(x) 14) A function is said to have global minima at x = x*, for all values of x, in the domain of f(x), if a) f(x*) f(x* + h) b) f(x*) f(x* + h) c) f(x*) f(x) d) f(x*) f(x) 15) Which of the following is a valid objective function for a linear programming problem ? a) Max 5xy b) Min 4x + 3y + (2/3)z 2 2 c) Max 5x + 6y d) Min (x1 + x2)/x3 16) Slack a) Is the difference between the left and right sides of a constraint b) Is the amount by which the left side of a < constraint is smaller than the right side c) Is the amount by which the left side of a > constraint is larger than the right side d) Exists for each variable in a linear programming problem 17) To find the optimal solution to a linear programming problem using the graphical method a) Find the feasible point that is the farthest away from the origin b) Find the feasible point that is at the highest location c) Find the feasible point that is closest to the origin d) None of the alternative is correct 18) The improvement in the value of the objective function per unit increase in a right-hand side is the a) Sensitivity value b) Shadow price c) Constraint coefficient d) Slack value 19) Infeasibility means that the number of solutions to the linear programming models that satisfies all constraints is a) At least 1 b) 0 c) An infinite number d) Atleast 2 20) A constraint that does not affect the feasible region is a a) Non-negativity constraint b) Redundant constraint c) Standard constraint d) Slack constraint ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC68* -3- SLR-PC 68 S e a t N o . B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015 OPTIMIZATION TECHNIQUES (Elective III) Day and Date : Wednesday, 20-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. SECTION I 2. a) Define optimization. State the necessary and sufficient conditions for the minimum or maximum of an unconstrained function of several variables. 5 b) Find the extreme points of the function. 9 ! ! f ( x , x ) x x 2 x 4 x 6 3. a) If (mean arrival rate) = 200 cars per hour through a toll booth and if it takes an average of 30 seconds to exchange money at a toll booth, then calculate (mean inter arrival time). How many servers are needed at toll booth to accommodate the passing cars without formation of any queue ? 5 b) Use simplex method to solve following LPP. 8 Maximise 6x1 + 8x2 Subject to x + x + x 10; 2x + 3x + x 25; x + 5x + x 35; x , x , x 0, 1 2 3 1 2 3 1 2 3 1 2 3 4. a) Find the shortest path from node 1 to all other nodes. Find the other distances, in order of increasing distance from node 1. 8 b) Determine the initial basic feasible solution using Vogels approximation method. 5 A B C S u p p l y 1 5 4 3 1 0 0 2 8 4 3 3 0 0 3 9 7 5 3 0 0 D e m a n d 3 0 0 2 0 0 2 0 0 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 68 -4- *SLRPC68* 5. a) Solve LPP using graphical method. 8 Maximize Z = 6x1 + 5x2 Subject to x + x 5; 3x + 2x 12; x , x 0 1 2 1 2 1 2 b) Explain stepwise the process of solving maximum flow problem. 5 6. a) A decision maker has three alternative plans with two possible states of nature and respective monitory profits (in thousand rupees) mentioned in following matrix. 9 S t a t e o f n a t u r e A l t e r n a t i v e s F a v o u r a b l e U n f a v o u r a b l e P u r c h a s e w a t e r 2 0 1 8 D i g w e l l 1 0 - 2 D o n o t h i n g 0 0 Determine the decisions by Maximax, Maximin and Laplace equally likely approach. What will be the expected value of perfect information ? b) Assume you have a lottery ticket with a 45% chance of paying $ 10 and a 55% chance of paying $0. Your friend has a lottery ticket that has a 20% chance of paying $ 25 and an 80% chance of paying nothing and he will trade it with you for your ticket and a dollar. Should you trade ? Draw decision tree for EMV for each option. 5 7. a) Explain the following terms : 5 i) MINI-MAX and MAXI-MIN criteria ii) Saddle point iii) Pure and Mixed Strategy. b) Determine the value of the game and optimal strategies for player P and Q. 8 P l a y e r Q ! P l a y e r P 8. a) In annual demand is 10000 units, order cost of is Rs. 300/ order, carrying cost is Rs. 4/unit/year. A shortage cost is Rs. 25/unit/year. Building backorder is allowed. Calculate EOQ, backorder quantity, total cost, no. of orders per year. Assume continuous demand and instantaneous replenishment. 8 b) Write the expressions for expected average queue length, expected average total time and expected / . Assume M/D/1 average waiting time in terms of = Service Rate, = arrival rate and case (random arrival, deterministic service and one service channel). 5 9. Write short notes on : a) Dynamic programming 4 b) Simulation applications 4 c) Solve the LPP using Integer Programming. 5 Maximise Z = 6x1 + 5x2 Subject to x + x 5; 3x + 2x 12; x , x 0, x and x are integers. 1 2 1 2 1 2 1 2 ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC69* SLR-PC – 69 Seat No. Set A B.E. (Civil) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 DISASTER MANAGEMENT (Elective – III) Day and Date : Wednesday, 20-5-2015 Total Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. 1 is Objective multiple choice. 2) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 3) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. 1) Which of the following is conducted to reduce hazard risk ? a) Mitigation b) Preparedness c) Response d) Recovery 2) Which of the following is a typical disaster-related function of law enforcement agencies ? a) Disaster scene security b) Warning issuance c) Critical facility security d) All of the above 3) Which of the following is an example of a set of standards for NGO humanitarian action ? a) The code of rules b) The sphere project c) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b 4) Which of the following UN agencies typically coordinates the response to major disasters ? a) UNHCR b) UNOCHA c) WFP d) UNDP 5) Which of the following is almost never funded by IFIs ? a) Preparedness b) Mitigation c) Response d) Recovery 6) Actions included in the period of short-term recovery are often referred to as which of the following ? a) Relief b) Life-saving c) Preparedness d) Risk perception 7) Infrastructure recovery is a responsibility of a) Government b) The Private Sector c) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b 8) Which of the following is a typical disaster-related function of law enforcement agencies ? a) Disaster scene security b) Warning issuance c) Critical facility security d) All of the above 9) It is violent, forceful unlawful means to achieve vested goals a) Terrorism b) Idealism c) Naturalism d) None of the above P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 69 -2- *SLRPC69* 10) What percent of land in India is prone to floods ? a) 10% b) 11% c) 12% d) None of the above 11) Disasters caused by pests are referred as a) Infestic b) Human c) Topographical d) Meteorological 12) Disasters caused by the direct effect of the atmosphere a) Infestic b) Human c) Topographical d) Meteorological 13) Extent to which a community can be affected by the impact of a disaster ? a) Hazard b) Vulnerability c) Risk d) None of these 14) Response cannot commence until which of the following occurs a) Recognition b) Declaration c) Mitigation d) All of the above 15) All of the following are TRUE about disasters EXCEPT a) A disaster may have a known and gradual onset b) A disaster may be domestic or international c) A disaster may be caused by nature or have human origins d) A disaster always receives widespread media coverage 16) Disasters frequently result in all of the following EXCEPT a) Damage to the ecological environment b) Displacement of populations c) Destruction of a population’s homeland d) Sustained public attention during the recovery phase 17) Responsibility for securing the scene, preserving life and treating the wounded is the responsibility of a) First responder b) Mental health professionals c) Social workers who specialize d) All citizens 18) There are nine tasks in the disaster management. All of the following are tasks of this model EXCEPT a) Assess secondary social problems such as health epidemics, displaced persons b) Counsel those who have suffered trauma and bereavement c) Control rumors, provide accurate information d) Provide security, prevent person and property 19) Which one of the following theories of disaster management informs organizational readiness and response in a disaster ? a) Hobfoll’s theory of conservation of resources b) The problem solving task model c) Structure-functional theory d) Theory of traumatogenic forces 20) The decision to offer humanitarian aid is determined by a) Theories of social justice b) Degntological reasoning c) Teleological reasoning d) Sociopolitical factors e) All of these ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC69* -3- SLR-PC – 69 Seat No. B.E. (Civil) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 DISASTER MANAGEMENT (Elective – III) Day and Date : Wednesday, 20-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. 2 and Q. 6 are compulsory, attempt any two of Q. 3 to Q. 5 and any two out of Q. 7 to Q. 9. 2) Assume suitable data if necessary but mention it clearly. SECTION – I 2. a) Explain Environmental Disaster Risk Reduction using landscape approach. 9 b) What is environmental stress ? 5 3. a) What are the causes of Earthquakes ? 5 b) What are environmental impact of volcanic eruptions ? 8 4. a) What are causes of cyclones ? 8 b) Explain about one of the recent Earthquakes in India. 5 5. a) Explain conservation measures of soil erosion. 8 b) Write a note on ‘impact of draughts’. 5 SECTION – II 6. a) Explain ‘Emergency Stage’ in Disaster Management. 9 b) What are the methods of prediction of hazards and disasters ? 5 7. a) Explain the role of seismological observatory in Disaster mitigation. 5 b) What are programs of disaster research run by ‘SCOPE’. 8 8. a) Explain role of Geographical Information System in disaster mitigation. 5 b) Explain about sustainable rural development in India. 8 9. a) Provide the details of coastal disasters in India. 8 b) Write a note on ‘Education on disasters’. 5 ——————— Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC7* SLR-PC – 7 Seat Set No. A F.E. (Part – II) Examination, 2015 ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS – II (New-CGPA) Day and Date : Thursday, 14-5-2015 Max. Marks : 70 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Attempt any three questions from each Section. 2) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 3) Use of calculator is allowed. 4) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 14 1. Choose the correct option : dy 1) The integrating factor of the differential equation (1 + x2) + y = tan–1 x is ______–1 dx a) etan x b) e–tan x c) etan x d) tan–1(x) 2) If the differential equation (x4ex – mxy2)dx + 4x2y dy=0 is exact, then the value of m is equal to ______a)1 b)– 4 c)– 1 d)– 2 3) If P(x, y) is a point on the curve y = f(x), then the intercept made by the normal on the Y-axis is ______dx dx dx a) x − y b) x + y c) y + x d) None of these dy dy dy 4) If C is a constant, the orthogonal trajectories of family of straight lines y = mx is ______a) x2+ y2 = c2 b) x2 – y2 = c2 c) x+y = c d) x – y = c ⎛ d2y ⎞ 1 ⎜ ⎟ = []Δ2y − Δ3y +K +..... 5) In Newton’s forward difference formula ⎜ ⎟ 0 0 , ⎝ dx2 ⎠ h2 = x x0 then the value of K is ______12 12 11 Δ4 − Δ4 4 Δ4 a) y0 b) y0 c) − Δ y d) y0 11 11 0 12 P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 7 -2- *SLRPC7* dy 6) If = y + x with y(0) = 1, then the Picards first approximation y is ______dx 1 x3 x2 x2 a) x + b) 1 + x + c) x – 2 d) x + 3 2 2 7) Among the following, which is the step-by-step iterative method for solving initial value problem ? a) Euler’s method b) Runge-Kutta method (4th order) c) Picard’s method d) Modified Euler’s method ⎛ 1 3 ⎞ 8) The value of β⎜ , ⎟ is ______⎝ 4 4 ⎠ π π a) b) c) 2.π d) 2 π 16 4 ∞ − 2 9) The value of ∫ e x dx is equal to______0 π π a) π b) c) π d) 2 2 10) Rectification is the process of evaluating a) Double integrals b) The length of the arc of plane curve c) Triple integrals d) The area under plane curve 11) The asymptotes parallel to Y-axis to the curve xy2 = a2 (a – x) is ______a) The Y-axis b) The X-axis c) The line x = a d) Line y = a π 2 1 12) The value of integral ∫∫r sin θ drdθ is ______0 0 1 1 1 1 a) b) c) d) − 2 3 2 2 13) If the density ρat any point varies as the distance of the point from Y-axis, then ρ equals to ______a) Kx b) Kxy c) Ky d) K(x2 + y2) a a 14) The polar form of the integral ∫∫dx dy is ______0 y π θ π θ π θ 4 a cos 2 a sec 4 a sec a) ∫∫ rdrdθ b) ∫∫ rdrdθ c) ∫∫ rdrdθ d) None of these 0 0 0 0 0 0 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC7* -3- SLR-PC – 7 Seat No. F.E. (Part – II) Examination, 2015 ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS – II (New-CGPA) Day and Date : Thursday, 14-5-2015 Marks : 56 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Attempt any three questions from each Section. 2) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 3) Use of calculator is allowed. SECTION – I 2. Solve any three from the following : 9 a) (2x + 3y + 4) dx = (4x + 6y + 5) dy. b) (2x3 + 3xy2 – 7x) dx + (3x2y + 2y3 – 8y) dy = 0. c) (1 + y2) dx = { 1+ y2 .siny − xy}dy . dy d) x + siny.cosy = x3 cos2y. dx 3. a) Find orthogonal trajectories of the curve y = x + bex, where b is parameter. 3 b) An e.m.f. of 200 e–5t is connected in series with 20 Ω resistance, 0.01 farad capacitance. If q = 0 at t = 0, then find the charge q at any time ‘t’. 3 c) If the intercept made by the tangent to the curve at (x, y) on Y-axis is y2/a, find the equation of curve. 3 dy 4. a) Using Picard’s method solve the differential equation = 2x – y with y(0) = 1 dx upto third approximations. 3 b) Using Euler’s method find the approximate value of y when x = 1.2 in four dy y steps, given that = 1 + with y(1) = 2. 3 dx x c) Apply Runge-Kutta method of fourth order to find an approximate value of y dy y − x at x = 0.2 in one step, given that = with y(0) = 1. 4 dx y + x Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 7 -4- *SLRPC7* dy d2y 5. a) Find and at x = 2.1, x = 2.6 for the following data : 5 dx dx2 x : 2 2.2 2.4 2.6 2.8 y : 2 5.576 9.968 15.272 21.584 b) Find f′ (g) from the following data : 4 x : 5 7 11 13 17 y = f(x) : 150 392 1452 2366 5202 SECTION – II 6. Attempt the following : ∞ −3. x a) Evaluate ∫ x e dx . 3 0 ∞ 1 ∫ dx b) Evaluate + 4 . 3 0 1 x ∞ −ax − (1− e ) c) Evaluate ∫ e x . dx , where ‘a’ is parameter. 3 0 x 7. Attempt the following : a) Trace the curve y2(a + x) = x2(a – x) with full justification. 3 b) Trace the curve x = a cos3 θ ; y = a sin3 θ with full justification. 3 1 ⎛ 1⎞ c) Find the length of the arc of the curve θ = ⎜r + ⎟ from r = 1 to r = 3. 3 2 ⎝ r ⎠ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC7* -5- SLR-PC – 7 8. Attempt the following : a 2a − x ∫∫ a) Evaluate 0 x2 xy dx dy. 3 a 1 1 1− x b) Evaluate ∫∫∫ x dx dy dz. 3 0 y2 0 c) Evaluate by changing to polar co-ordinates. 4 a x x3 ∫∫ dxdy 2 2 0 0 x + y OR c) Change the order of integration and evaluate 1 1 y2 ∫∫ dxdy 4 2 4 0 x y − x 9. Attempt the following : a) Find by double integration the area included between the curves y2 = 4ax and x2 = 4ay. 3 b) A solid is generated by rotating about Y-axis, the area between parabola y2 = 4x and the line 4x – 3y + 2 = 0. Find the volume of solid. 3 c) A lamina is bounded by y = x2 and y = 2x. If the density at any point is given by xy, then find the mass of lamina. 3 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal *SLRPC70* www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 70 Seat No. Set S.E. (Mechanical) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 A ANALYSIS OF MECHANICAL ELEMENTS Day and Date : Tuesday, 5-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory and every question has only one correct answer. 2) Answer cannot be changed once it is marked. 3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 Choose the correct answer : (20×1=20) 1. 1. The internal resistance which the body offers to meet the load or external forces is called a) Stress b) Strain c) Pressure d) None of above 2. The ratio of lateral strain to linear strain is known as a) Modulus of elasticity b) Modulus of rigidity c) Poisson’s ratio d) Elastic limit 3. ______strain is the deformation of the bar per unit length in the direction of the force. a) Volumetric b) Shear c) Lateral d) Linear 4. For the same material, length and given torque a Hollow shaft weighs ______a solid shaft. a) less than b) more than c) equal to d) None of above 5. Torque transmitted by a solid shaft of diameter D when subjected to shear stress τ is equal to π 2 π 3 π 2 π 3 a) τ D b) τ D c) τ D d) τ D 16 16 32 32 6. If a beam is supported on more than two supports it is called a) built in beam b) continuous beam c) simply supported beam d) cantilever beam 7. A simply supported beam of span l carries uniformly distributed load over the whole span. The SFD will be a) a rectangle b) a triangle c) two equal and opposite rectangles d) two equal and opposite triangles 8. In case of following beams the supports are not at the ends. a) cantilever beam b) simply supported beam c) overhanging beam d) none of above 9. If a member is subjected to an axial tensile load, the plane inclined at 45° to the axis of loading carries. a) Minimum shear stress b) Maximum normal stress c) Maximum shear stress d) None of above P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 70 -2- *SLRPC70* 10. The maximum shear stress induced in a member which is subjected to an axial load is equal to a) Maximum normal stress b) Half of maximum normal stress c) Twice of maximum normal stress d) Trice of maximum normal stress 11. The deflection is zero for cantilever beam at a) Free end b) Centre of beam c) Fixed end d) None of these 12. For I-section a) Bending stress is maximum at neutral axis b) Shear stress is zero at neutral axis c) Bending stress is average at neutral axis d) Shear stress is maximum at neutral axis 13. For cantilever beam carrying a point load at free end a) Slope is maximum at free end b) Slope is maximum at fixed end c) Deflection is maximum at fixed end d) deflection is average at free end 14. The unit of slenderness ratio is a) mm4 b) mm2 c) mm d) no unit 15. The sectional modulus for circular section is " ! π " π π π ! a) D b) c) D d) D 64 32 D 32 64 Where : D = diameter of circular section. 16. The radius of gyration of circular section of diameter 50 mm is a) 25 mm b) 100 mm c) 20 mm d) 12.5 mm 17. The unit of strain energy is a) No unit b) MPa c) Joule d) mm4 18. A square with side ‘x’ of beam is subjected to a shear force ‘F’. The value of shear stress at top edge of section is 0.5F 1.5F F a) b) c) d) zero x2 x2 x2 19. The shearing strain energy for block of material per unit volume subjected to constant shearing stress throughout is given by τ a) τ b) c) τ d) 2τ ` c c 2c c Where τ : shear stress c : Modulus of rigidity. 20. Crippling load is also called as a) tensile load b) bending load c) buckling load d) none of these ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC70* -3- SLR-PC – 70 Seat No. S.E. (Mechanical) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 ANALYSIS OF MECHANICAL ELEMENTS Day and Date : Tuesday, 5-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Solve any two questions from each Section. 2) Use of scientific calculator is allowed. 3) Figures to right indicate full marks. 4) Assume additional suitable data if necessary and state it clearly. SECTION – I 2. a) The following data relate to a bar subjected to a tensile test : Diameter of bar d = 30 mm Tensile load P = 54 kN Gauge length L = 300 mm Extension of the bar δ l = 0.112 mm Change in diameter δ d = 0.00366 mm Calculate : i) Poisson’s ratio. ii) The values of E, K and G. 6 b) A metallic bar 300 mm × 100 mm × 40 mm is subjected to external forces as shown in figure (2-b). Determine change in volume of the block. Take E = 2 × 105 N/mm2 and Poisson’s ratio = 0.25. 6 Figure (2-b) c) Two shafts AB and BC are connected in series. The diameters of AB and BC are 100 mm and 50 mm respectively and their length are 200 mm and 300 mm respectively. Both the shafts are made of the same material having modulus of rigidity as 8 × 104 N/mm2. Determine : i) Shear stresses set up in each shaft and ii) The total angle of twist the torque applied at the one end is 10 kNm. 8 Figure (2-c) Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 70 -4- *SLRPC70* 3. a) Explain principle of shear stress. 4 b) State assumptions for shear stress in a circular shaft subjected to torsion. 4 c) Draw SFD and BMD for the beam shown in figure (3-c). 12 Figure (3-c) 4. a) Explain procedure for Mohr’s Circle method. 4 b) Draw SFD and BMD for a cantilever beam of length l with a point load W at free end. 4 c) A plane element in a boiler is subjected to tensile stresses of 400 MPa on one plane along X-axis and 150 MPa on the other at right angle to former (Y-axis). Each of the above stresses is accompanied by a shear stress of 100 MPa such that when associated with major tensile stress tends to rotate the element in anticlockwise direction . Find a) Principal stresses and their directions. b) Maximum shearing stresses and directions of planes on which they act. 12 SECTION – II 5. a) The SS beam of span 4 m is simply supported beam. It carries a central point load of 100 kN. The beam is I-section of unequal flanges. The top flange is 200 mm wide × 25 mm deep, web is 20 mm wide and 150 mm deep and bottom flange is 100 mm wide × 25 mm deep. Draw the shear stress distribution diagram across the depth marking value at salient points. 12 b) Calculate the critical load of strut which is made of a bar of circular section and 5 m long and which is pin jointed at both ends. The same bar when freely supported gives mid span deflection of 10 mm with a load of 80 N at the centre. 8 6. a) Water under pressure 8 MPa is suddenly admitted on to a plunger of 80 mm diameter attached to a rod of 25 mm diameter and 2.5 m long. Find maximum instantaneous stress and deformation of the rod. Take E = 210 GPa. 8 b) A beam of length 5 m and of uniform rectangular section is supported at its ends and carries UDL over entire length. Calculate the depth of section if the maximum permissible bending stress is 8 N/mm2 and central deflection is not to exceed 10 mm. Take E = 1.2 × 104 N/mm2. 12 7. a) Prove that σ = 2P/A for suddenly applied load, where σ = stress induced, P = suddenly applied load, A = cross sectional area. 6 b) A hollow cast iron column whose outer diameter is 200 mm has thickness of 20 mm. It is 4.5 m long and is fixed at both ends. Calculate slenderness ratio. 7 c) Determine moment of resistance of ‘T’ section having top flange 80 mm × 10 mm and web 10 mm × 120 mm. Take permissible bending stress as 160 N/mm2. 7 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC71* SLR-PC 71 S e a t 5 A J ) N o . S.E. (Mech.) (Part I) Examination, 2015 APPLIED THERMODYNAMICS Day and Date : Wednesday, 6-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q.No. 1 objective question is compulsory. 2) Out of remaining questions, answer any two questions from each Section. 3) Use of steam tables and Mollier diagram is allowed. 4) Use of scientific calculator is allowed. 5) Assume suitable data if required and state it clearly. 6) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 7) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : (20×1=20) 1) In a throttling calorimeter, the quality of steam after throttling valve is A) wet B) dry C) superheated D) dry and saturated 2) Combustion is generally ______type of reaction. A) Endothermic B) Exothermic C) Thermoneutral D) None of these 3) The chemical composition of gasoline is A) C8 H18 B) C7 H16 C)C6 H14 D) C12 H26 4) The unit of specific entropy is A) KJ/K B) KJ/Kg K C) N/m2 D) Bar 5) The ratio of heat actually used in producing the steam to the heat liberated in the furnace is called A) Equivalent evaporation B) Evaporative capacity C) Boiler efficiency D) Factor of evaporation 6) Super critical cycle is operated A) above critical point B) below critical point C) above triple point D) below triple point 7) Reversible adiabatic process has A) ds = 0 B) ds > 0 C) ds < 0 D) ds = dh 8) The region of cooling and region of heating are separated by A) sublimation curve B) inversion curve C) vaporisation curve D) saturation curve 9) Rankine cycle efficiency of good steam power plant may be in the range of A) 15 to 20% B) 35 to 45% C) 70 to 80% D) 90 to 95% 10) Carnot cycle comprises of A) two isentropic processes and two const. vol. processes B) two isentropic processes and two const. pressure processes C) two isothermal processes and two const. pressure processes D) none of above P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 71 -2- *SLRPC71* 11) Stagnation properties of fluid are those properties reached at a point where the velocity is brought to A) zero isentropically B) infinite insentropically C) average isentropically D) half the inlet velocity 12) Critical pressure is found at the throat of nozzle for maximum discharge n n n 1 2 n 1 n 1 r r A) B) c c 2 n 1 n n n 1 2 n 1 n 1 r r C) D) c c 2 n 1 13) The isentropic expansion of steam through the nozzle for the steam initially dry and saturated at inlet is approximated by equation 1.4 1.3 1.135 F = c B) = c C) F = c D) F = c A) F 14) The thermal efficiency of the engine with condenser as compared to without condenser, for a given pressure and temp. of steam is A) higher B) lower C) same as long as initial press. and temp. are unchanged D) none of these 15) In a surface condenser if air is removed, there is A) fall in absolute pressure maintained in condenser B) rise in absolute pressure maintained in condenser C) no change in absolute pressure in the condenser D) rise in temp. of condensed steam 16) The cooling section in the surface condenser A) increases the quantity of vapour extracted along with air B) reduces the quantity of vapour extracted along with air C) does not affect vapour quantity extracted but reduces pump capacity of air extraction pump D) none of these 17) The pressure on the two sides of the impulse wheel of a steam turbine A) is same B) is different C) increases from one side to the other side D) decreases from one side to other side 18) For maximum blade efficiency for single stage impulse turbine c o s c o s c o s A) B) C) D) c o s 2 2 19) The work input to air compressor is minimum if the compression law followed is A) PV1.35 = const. B) Isothermal, PV = const. C) Isentropic, = const. D) PV1.2 = const. 2 L 20) With increase in clearance volume, the ideal work of compressing 1 kg of air A) increases B) decreases C) remains same D) first increases and then decreases ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC71* -3- SLR-PC 71 S e a t N o . S.E. (Mech.) (Part I) Examination, 2015 APPLIED THERMODYNAMICS Day and Date : Wednesday, 6-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q.No. 1 objective question is compulsory. 2) Out of remaining questions, answer any two questions from each Section. 3) Use of steam tables and Mollier diagram is allowed. 4) Use of scientific calculator is allowed. 5) Assume suitable data if required and state it clearly. SECTION I 2. a) Explain charging of cylinder with appropriate derivation. 6 b) One K.mol of octane (C8H18) is burned with air that contains 20 K.mol of O2. Assuming products of combustion contain only CO2, H2O, O2 and N2. Determine the mole fraction of each gas in the products and air fuel ratio for this combustion process. 7 c) Following data were obtained in a boiler trial Feed water = 650 Kg/hr Temp. of feed water = 25°C Steam press = 20 bar (abs) Steam temp. = 350°C Coal used = 100 Kg/hr with calorific value of 26500 KJ/Kg Unburnt coal in ash pit = 5 Kg/hr with calorific value of 2500 KJ/kg Flue gases formed = 18 Kg/Kg of coal Flue gases temp. = 300°C Boiler house temp. = 25°C Cp of flue gases = 1.1 KJ/Kg K Determine : i) Boiler efficiency ii) Draw up heat balance sheet on one kg of fuel basis. 7 3. a) Derive an expression for entropy change of an ideal gas undergoing change of state interms of initial and final temperatures and volumes. 7 b) Two Carnot engines A and B are connected in series between two thermal reservoirs maintained at 1000 K and 100 K respectively. Ensine A receives 1680 KJ of heat from the high temp. reservoir and rejects heat to the carnot engine B. Engine B takes in heat rejected by engine A and rejects heat to the low temp. reservoir. If engine A and B have equal thermal efficiencies, determine 7 i) The heat rejected by engine B ii) The temp. at which heat is rejected by engine A iii) The amount of heat taken by engine B iv) Work done by engine A and B c) Explain in detail classification of Boilers. 6 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 71 -4- *SLRPC71* 4. a) In a Rankine cycle, dry saturated steam enters the turbine at a pressure of 15 bar and the exhaust pressure is 0.075 bar. Determine. i) Rankine cycle efficiency ii) Specific steam consumption. 7 b) Explain ideal Reheat cycle with block and T-S diagram. How it differs from ideal regenerative cycle ? 7 c) Explain the effect of different operating conditions on Rankine cycle efficiency. 6 SECTION II 5. a) Derive the expression for maximum discharge through the nozzle. 7 b) Calculate the throat and exit diameters of a convergent-divergent nozzle which will discharge 820 Kg of steam per hour from a pressure of 8 bar superheated to 220°C in to a chamber having a pressure of 1.05 bar. Friction loss in the diverging part of the nozzle may be taken as 0.15 of the total isentropic enthalpy drop. 7 c) Classify condensers and mention their merits and demerits in the light of steam power plant. 6 6. a) What is natural draught cooling tower ? What are limitations ? How does water loss occurs in cooling tower ? 6 b) Explain simple impulse turbine with neat sketch. 7 c) Steam flows from the nozzles of a single row impulse turbine with a velocity 450m/s at a direction which is inclined at a angle of 16° to the peripheral velocity. Steam comes out of the moving blades with an absolute velocity of 100 m/s in the direction at 110° with the direction of blade motion. The blades are equiangular and steam flow rate is 6 Kg/s. Determine power loss due to friction. 7 7. a) Prove that the work done/Kg of air in a compressor is given by n n 1 W R T ( r ) F where r = pressure ratio. 7 p n 1 n b) What do you mean by multi-stage compression ? State its advantage. Draw the P-V diagram for a single-stage compressor. 6 c) Following data relate to a performance test of a single-acting 14 cm × 10 cm reciprocating compressor. 7 Suction pressure = 1 bar Suction temperature = 20°C Discharge pressure = 6 bar Discharge temperature = 180°C Speed of compressor = 1200 rpm Shaft power = 6.25 Kw Mass of air deliverd = 1.7 Kg/min Calculate : a) The actual volumetric efficiency b) The indicated power c) The isothermal efficieny d) the mechanical efficiency ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC72* SLR-PC – 72 Seat No. Set A S.E. (Mechanical Engg.) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS – III Day and Date : Thursday, 7-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1) Q. No. 1 is multiple choice question. It is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes. Each question carry one mark. 2) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 3) Use of non programmable calculator and statistical tables are allowed. 4) Assume necessary data whenever required. 5) Notations : L.O.S → Level Of Significance D.F. → Degree of Freedom. 6) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. 1) The particular integral of (D2+a2) = sin ax is (20×1=20) −x x − ax ax a) cos ax b) cosax c) cos ax d) cos ax 2a 2a 2a 2 α ± 2) If a linear differential equation with a constant coefficient, has a auxiliary equation with i . repeated roots 3 times then the C.F. is β β αx a) [(C1 + C2 + C3) cos x+ (C4 + C5 + C6) sin x]e β β αx b) [C1 +C2x + C3 cos x + (C4 + C5 + C6) sin x]e α x 2 β 2 β c) e [(C1 +C2x + C3x ) cos x + (C4 + C5x + C6x ) sin x] d) none of the above 3) The solution of x2 y′′ + x y′ = 0 is –z –x a) C1 + C2 b) C1 + C2e c) C1 + C2e d) C1 + C2logx 4) The differential equation whose auxiliary equation has the roots 0, – 1, – 1 is 3 2 d y d y d3y d2y dy a) + 2 + y = 0 b) + 2 + = 0 dt3 dt2 dt3 dt2 dt d3y d2y dy d3y d2y dy c) + 3 + 3 + y = 0 d) + 3 + 2 + y = 0 dt3 dt3 dt dt3 dt2 dt 5) On putting (1 + x) = et the differential equation 2 2 d y dy (1+x) +(1+ x) +y = 2sinlog(1+ x) is transformed to dx2 dx a) (D2 + 1) y = 2sint b) (D2 + 1) y = 2sinlogt c) (D2 + D) y = 2sint d) (D2 + 2D + D) y = 2sinet 6) Solution of p + q = 1 is a) z = a2x + b2y + c b) z = 6x +by + c c) z = ax + ay + c d) z = ax +(1− a)2y + c Set A P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 72 -2- *SLRPC72* 7) The solution of p + q = z is a) f (xy, y logz) = 0 b) f (x + y, y + logz) = 0 c) f (x – y, y – logz) = 0 d) none of above 8) The unit vector tangent to the curve x = t, y = t2, z = t3 at the point (– 1, 1, – 1) is 1 1 1 1 a) (i + 2j + 3k) b) (i – 2j + 3k) c) (i + j + k) d) (i – j + k) 14 14 3 3 9) If ∇ denotes differential operator, let i) ∇ (scalar) = vector ii) ∇ .(vector) = scalar a) only i) is true b) only ii) is true c) both are false d) both are true ⎛ − ⎞ ⎜ r ⎟ 10) If r2 = x2 + y2 + z2 then ∇.⎜ ⎟ is ⎜ r ⎟ ⎝ ⎠ 2 a) 0 b) 3r c) 2 d) r r 11) If a random variable X has a Poisson distribution with mean 3, then p (X = 4) = ______a) 0.11 b) 0.13 c) 0.15 d) 0.17 12) If x denote the binomial variate, the mean of the distribution is given by p a) x = npq b) x = np c) x = d) x = pq n 13) For a discrete probability distribution which of the following is true ? a) – 1 ≤ pi ≤ 1b)0 < pi < 1 c) 0 ≤ pi ≤ 1d)– 1 ≤ pi ≤ 0 z ∫ dz = ....., = 14) c (z −1) (z − 3) where C is the circle z 1.5 . a) 2 π ib)π ic)– π id)0 15) Cauchy-Riemann equations for f (z) to be analytic use ______ a) Ux = Vx, Uy = – Vy b) Ux = Vy, Uy = – Vx c) Ux = – Vx, Uy = Vx d) Ux = – Vy, Uy = Vx 16) If f (z) = 2x + ixy2, then f′(z) is ______ a) 2 + iy2 b) x + iy2 c) 2x + 2iy2 d) doesn’t exists 17) Rejecting null hypothesis when it is true, such error is called a) error of type II b) error of type III c) error of type I d) none of these 18) Critical value of z for one tailed test at level of significance α is same for two tailed test at level of significance α a) α b) c) α 2 d) 2 α 2 19) Chi-square test is also known as a) parametric test b) non-parametric test c) t-test d) none of these 20) I) Tails of t-distribution have greater area than the tail of standard normal distribution. II) t-distribution has less area in centre than the standard normal distribution. a) only (I) is true b) only (II) is true c) both (I) and (II) are true d) none of (I) and (II) is true ————————— Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC72* -3- SLR-PC– 72 Seat No. S.E. (Mechanical Engg.) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS – III ay and Date : Thursday, 7-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Attempt any three questions from each Section. 2) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 3) Use of non programmable calculator and statistical tables are allowed. 4) Assume necessary data whenever required. 5) Notations : L.O.S → Level Of Significance D.F. → Degree of F SECTION – I 3 d y dy − 2. a) Solve − 3 + 2y = e 2x + 2 sin hx . 5 dx3 dx b) (D3 + 1) y = sin (2x + 3). 3 2 2 d y dy c) Solve x + x + y = log sin(logx) . 6 dx2 dx 3. a) A body falling lyrically under gravity encounters resistance of atmosphere and satisfies equation of d2x dx motion + k = g where of being gravitational constant. Solve the differential equation and show that dt2 dt g as time increases to infinity velocity approaches to and distance fallen by body from rest in time ‘t’ is, k = gt − g − −kt x (1 e ). 7 k k2 2 1 ⎛ ⎞ d y dy − 1 b) − 3 + 2y = ee t + cos⎜ ⎟ . 6 dt2 dt ⎝ et ⎠ OR c) (D2 + 1) y = cosec x. 6 4. a) Solve pq = xmynz2l. 4 ⎛ ⎞ ⎜ y2z ⎟ b) Solve ⎜ ⎟ p + xzq = y2. 4 ⎝ x ⎠ c) Find the directional derivative of the function f = x2 – y2 + 2z2 at the point P (1, 2, 3) in the direction of the line PQ where Q is the point (5, 0, 4). In what direction it will be maximum ? Find also the magnitude of this maximum. 5 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 72 -4- *SLRPC72* ∂u ∂u –3x 5. a) Solve the equation = 2 + u given u (x, 0) = 6 e . 5 ∂x ∂t b) A vector r is defined by r = xi + yj + 3k. If r = r then show that the vector rnr is irrotational. 4 ⎛ ⎞ 3 3 1 − dr c) If r = t i + ⎜2t − ⎟ j then show that r× = k . 4 ⎝ 5t2 ⎠ dt SECTION – II 6. a) A certain injection administered to 12 patients resulted in the following changes of blood pressure 5, 2, 8, – 1, 3, 0, 6, – 2, 1, 5, 0, 4. Can it be concluded that the injection will be in general accompanied by an increase in blood pressure ? 4 [Critical value of t at 5% L.O.S. with 11 DF = 2.201 (two tailed test value)]. b) For the following table 5 Effect of influenza New drug Total Attacked Not Attacked Admistered 24 52 76 Not Admistered 32 12 44 Total 56 64 120 Use Chi-square test to find out whether new drug is effective or not. Take α = 0.05. [Given : Critical value of Chi-square at 5% L.O.S. with 1DF = 3.84]. z+i 2 c) Evaluate ∫ z dz 5 0 i) along the line x = 2y ii) along the real axis from z = 0 to z = 2 and then along the line parallel to imaginary axis from z = 2 to z= 2 + i. OR sin πz2 + cos πz2 ∫ dz = c) Evaluate − − where C is the circle z 4 . 5 c (z 2) (z 3) 7 a) If u-v = (x – y) (x2 + 4xy + y2) and f(z) = u + iv is an analytic function of z = x + iy. Find f(z) in terms of z. 4 2 2 b) Show that f(z) = r cos2 + ir sinp is analytic if p = 2. 4 c) 300 digits were choosen at random from a table of random numbers. The frequency of digits was as follows. 5 Digit 0123456789Total Frequency 28 29 33 31 26 35 32 30 31 25 300 Using Chi-square test examine the hypothesis that the digits were distributed in equal numbers in the table. [Given : Critical value of Chi-square at 5% L.O.S. with 9 DF = 16.919]. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC72* -5- SLR-PC – 72 8. a) In an experiment with 500 seeds in group of 5 the following results were obtained. 4 x : 012 345Total f : 10 70 150 160 80 30 500 Where f denote number of groups in which x seeds germinated. Fit a binomial distribution to the data. Calculate probability of germination using data values. b) Monthly salaries of 1000 workers have a normal distribution with mean of Rs. 575 and a standard deviation of Rs. 75. Find number of workers having salaries between Rs. 500 and Rs. 625 per month. Also find the minimum salary of highest paid 200 workers. 4 [Given : For a S.N.Y. Area between z = 0 and z = 1 is 0.3413, between z = 0 and z = 0.67 is 0.2486, between z = 0 and z = 0.84 is 0.3] c) Intelligence tests of two groups of boys and girls obtained from two normal populations having the same standard deviations gave the following results. 5 Mean S.D. Number Girls 84 10 121 Boys 81 12 81 Is the difference between mean significant at 5% L.O.S. ? [Given : Critical value of z.at 5% L.O.S. For two tailed test = 1.96] 9. a) In a certain city 400 business executives out of 500 were found to regular drinkers. When taxes on alcoholes were heavily increased it was found that out of a sample of 600 business executives 400 were drinkers. Was the difference in the proportion significant ? Check it at α = 0.01 and α = 0.05. 4 [Given : Critical value of z at 5% L.O.S. for two tailed test is 1.96 and at 1% L.O.S. is 2.58]. b) Find the value of k, if the following function is probability density function 4 ⎧ kx , 0 ≤ x ≤ 2 f(x) = ⎪ ⎪ 2k , 2 ≤ x ≤ 3 ⎨ ⎪5k − kx , 3 ≤ x ≤ 4 ⎩⎪ 0 , otherwise c) A manufacturer finds that average demand per day for the mechanic to repair his new production is 1.5. Over a period of one year the demand per day is distributed as Poisson distribution. He employs two mechanics. How many days in a year ? 5 i) Both mechanics would be free ii) Same demand is refused. ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC73* SLR-PC – 73 Seat Set No. A S.E. (Mechanical) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 MACHINE TOOLS AND PROCESSES Day and Date : Friday, 8-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. 3) Draw neat sketches wherever necessary. 4) Assume suitable data wherever necessary, and mention it clearly. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : 20 Type 1 : Match the correct pair (1 mark each) : 1. Job rotate, tool is given feed A) Flat surface milling 2. Bar feed mechanism B) Profile surface milling 3. Tool rotate and given feed, job stationary C) Lathe machine 4. Slab mill cutter D) Capstan Lathe 5. Gear cutter E) Drilling machine Type 2 : Choose proper answer (2 marks each) : 1. Internal gears can be manufactured by machine A) Lathe B) Broaching C) Capstan lathe 2. An auxiliary slide is provided on A) Capstan Lathe B) Turret lathe C) Centre lathe 3. Removal of loaded particles from grinding wheel is done by A) Wheel trueing B) Wheel mounting C) Wheel dressing 4. Reaming operation is done after A) Threading B) Drilling C) Milling P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 73 -2- *SLRPC73* 5. Drilling of different size holes at different locations can be performed by A) Upright drilling machine B) Radial drilling machine C) Precision drilling machine Type 3 : Select proper answer (True/False type) (1 mark each) : 1. For taper turning of long parts, Tailstock set over method is preferred over swiveling compound rest method. A) True B) False 2. In shaping machine job reciprocates and tool is given feed. A) True B) False 3. A grinding wheel specification is given as 51A36L5. Here “A” means type of Bond. A) True B) False 4. Push broach contain large number of cutting teeth and pull broach contain less number of cutting teeth. A) True B) False 5. Gear Hobbing is a generation process while gear shaving is a finishing process. A) True B) False ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC73* -3- SLR-PC – 73 Seat No. S.E. (Mechanical) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 MACHINE TOOLS AND PROCESSES Day and Date : Friday, 8-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Attempt any three questions from Section I and any three questions from Section II. 2) Draw neat sketches wherever necessary. 3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary, and mention it clearly. SECTION – I 2. a) Give classification of manufacturing processes. How machining processes are different than other manufacturing processes ? 5 b) A 83 mm diameter and 48 mm length Mild steel round bar is to be taper turned over entire length to diameter 73 mm, by using swiveling compound rest method. Calculate the necessary details. 5 c) List at least six operations performed on centre lathe. 4 3. a) Differentiate clearly between Capstan and Turret Lathes. 6 b) Explain with neat sketch construction and working of Radial drilling machine. 7 4. a) Explain with neat sketch construction and working of Slotting machine. 5 b) List different operations carried out on shaping machine. 3 c) Explain with neat diagram Ultrasonic Machining (USM). Give advantages, Limitations and applications. 5 5. Write short notes on following (any three) : 13 a) Automats b) Job holding devices on drilling machine c) Types of planning machines d) Electro Discharge Machining (EDM) e) Lathe specifications. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 73 -4- *SLRPC73* SECTION – II 6. a) Differentiate between up milling and down milling. 4 b) Explain with neat sketch construction and working of column and knee type milling machine. 5 c) Explain with neat diagram Jig Boring Machine. 5 7. a) List different Gear manufacturing processes. Explain any one process in detail with neat sketch. 7 b) Explain with respect to Grinding process following terms : 1) Wheel Balancing 2) Wheel Truing 3) Wheel Loading. 6 8. a) Differentiate between push and pull broaching processes. 6 b) Explain with neat sketch horizontal boring machine. 7 9. Write short notes on following (any three) : 13 a) Indexing methods b) CNC machines c) Gear finishing processes d) Boring tools and bars e) Grinding wheel specifications. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC74* SLR- PC 74 S e a t 5 A J ) N o . S.E. (Mech.) (Part I) Examination, 2015 MACHINE DRAWING Day and Date : Saturday, 9-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Retain all the constructional details. 2) Figures to right side indicate full marks for the respective question. 3) Mention the suitable details/assumptions wherever necessary. 4) Use and assume-suitable scale, data, dimensions wherever necessary and clearly mention the same. 5) Wherever necessary, refer the Tolerance Table, provided with the question paper. 6) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. 7) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : 20 Type I : Match the pair. (4 bit × 1 mark) Type of thread Angle of thread A) ACME thread P) 60° B) Sellers thread Q) 55° C) BSW thread R) 90° D) Square thread S) 29° Type II : Identify correct or incorrect : (3 bit × 1 mark) 0 . 3 0 . 2 A) The size % is example of bilateral tolerance system B) The fit 70 H , in this H stands for shaft basis system followed for fit designation 7 g 6 C) in this c indicate radial type direction of lay. P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR- PC 74 -2- *SLRPC74* Type III : Multiple correct answer type : (3 bit × 2 marks) A) Which of the following, an example of transition fit ? P) 15 H7 js6 Q) 150 H7 p6 R) 15 H8 d9 S) 65 H7 k6 B) Which of the following, an example of clearance fit ? P) 25 H7 C11 Q) 25 H8 a11 R) 65 H8 js6 S) 15 H7 r6 C) For the symbol P) The value 3 represents the sampling length for surface roughness measurement Q) The value 2 represents machining allowance R) The value 4 represents sampling length S) The value 4 represents surface roughness value Type IV : Straight objective type/classical MCQ : (Each bit one mark) A) To designate fit eg. 25 H7 g6, how many alphabets are facilitated for hole element P) 24 Q) 25 R) 26 S) 27 B) Is the example of which dimensioning system P) Chain type Q) Parallel type R) Increasing type S) Supplementary type C) In worm and worm wheel gear pair, which of the following is valid comment P) Motion will be transmitted from worm to worm wheel Q) Motion will be transmitted from worm wheel to worm R) The reciprocating motion transmission is possible S) Motion transmission is valid/possible in both way i.e. worm to worm wheel and worm wheel to worm D) This is example of sectional view of type P) Half sectional view Q) Core view R) Partial sectional view S) Screw view E) This symbol represents P) External threads Q) Internal threads R) Position S) Hollow shaft F) This representation is used to indicate material. P) Liquid Q) Glass R) Metal S) Copper 0 . 1 0 . 2 G) In case of % the lower limit size (Dimension) that can be accepted is P) 68.000 Q) 70.010 R) 69.800 S) 69.080 ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC74* -3- SLR- PC 74 S e a t N o . S.E. (Mech.) (Part I) Examination, 2015 MACHINE DRAWING Day and Date : Saturday, 9-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q.No. 2 is a compulsory question. 2) Attempt any three questions out of Q.No. 3 to Q. No. 6. 3) Retain all the constructional details. 4) Figures to right side indicate full marks for the respective question. 2. Fig. No. I shows the details of CRANE HOOK. 35 A) Assemble all the parts together and draw the following views of the assembly drawing. Fig. No. I a) Front view b) Side view Also show the necessary dimensions in the various views. B) Prepare a bill of material (Part List) with all its necessary details. C) Show the fit designation for at least two positions in assembly drawing and summarize it in a tabulated format. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR- PC 74 -4- *SLRPC74* 3. Draw the free hand sketches of the following (attempt any three) : (3×5=15) a) Flexible bush type flange coupling b) Universal joint c) Cotter joint with gib head d) V-belt pulley 4. A) Draw the B.I.S. convention for the following a) Bevel Gear 3 b) Ratchet and pinion 2 c) Symbol for Weld joint-any four type. 2 B) Draw the fig. to indicate Hole Basis System and Shaft Basis System. 4 C) Identify the type of fit indicate with following fit designation. (attempt any two) (2×2=4) a) 150 H7 f7 b) 100 H9 p6 c) 65 H7 r6 Also to support the answer, write/draw-the calculations/explanation/diagram for the same. 5. Refer Fig. II and draw following views with necessary dimensions. 15 Fig. No. II a) Front view in dirn. of X b) Top view c) Partial auxiliary view which shows true shape of inclined surface geometry. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC74* -5- SLR- PC 74 6. Refer Fig. III and draw front view from direction of X and left hand side view and show following in the same 15 Fig. No. III a) Geometry 120 is concentric with the hole 25, within 100 microns. b) Dimension radius 20 has tolerance (50 microns) c) The hole 16 is with position tolerance within 90 microns. d) The peripheral surface of width 35 and of 120 is with surface roughness 01 microns achieved with grinding process. e) Straightness of hole 25 is within 0.08 mm. f) For surface A surface roughness is 6 achieved by milling process where as sampling length and m/c ing allowance 8 mm and 3 mm respectively, direction of lay is radial. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR- PC 74 -6- *SLRPC74* TABLE C 2 : TOLERANCE ZONES AND LIMITS DIMENSIONS m ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC75* SLR-PC – 75 Seat Set No. A S.E. Mech. (Part – II) Examination, 2015 FLUID MECHANICS Day and Date : Wednesday, 13-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Complete all the entries on Answer Sheet with black ball pen. 2) No negative marking or partial marking system. 3) Each question carries one mark. 4) Do not fold or mutilate the answer sheet. 5) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 6) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Classical multichoice questions : (20×1=20) 1) The vertical component of the hydrostatic force on a submerged curved surface is a) The force on a vertical projection of the surface b) The product of pressure at centroid and the surface area c) The mass of the liquid vertically above it d) The weight of the liquid vertically above it 2) For stability of floating body a) The metacentre M should lie between the centre of gravity G and the centre of buoyancy B b) M should lie above B and G c) M should lie below B and G d) M should coincide with B and G 3) Dimensions of stream function are a) MLT–1 b) LT–1 c) L2T–1 d) LT 4) The equation of continuity in fluid mechanics a) is a condition of equilibrium in the flow b) is an embodiment of the law of thermodynamics c) relates work and energy d) is an embodiment of the law of conservation of mass 5) Steady flow occurs a) when the pressure does not change along the flow b) when the velocities does not change c) when the condition change gradually with time d) only when the conditioned do not change w.r.t. time at any point 6) A one dimensional flow is one which a) is uniform b) is steady c) involves zero transverse components of flow d) takes place in straight lines P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 75 -2- *SLRPC75* 7) For laminar flow between two stationary parallel plates, the shear stress is maximum at a) centre line between the two plates b) the walls of the plate c) the half of the length of plate d) both a) and c) 8) A large Reynold number is indication of a) highly turbulent flow b) laminar flow c) steady flow d) smooth and streamline flow 9) Bernoulli’s equation cannot be applied when the flow is a) rotational b) turbulent c) unsteady d) all of these 10) Following two forces are considered in Euler’s equation of motion a) Viscous and inertial b) Inertial and pressure c) Pressure and gravity d) Gravity 11) The distance of vena-contracta from the orifice is approximately equal to a) Diameter of pipe b) Half of the diameter of pipe c) Twice of the diameter of the pipe d) Square of the diameter of the pipe 12) To replace a compound pipe by a new pipe, the pipes will be equivalent when both the pipes have same a) length and flow b) diameter and flow c) loss of head and flow d) length and loss of head 13) Hydraulic grade line for any flow system as compared to energy line is a) above b) below c) at same level d) uncertain 14) An air vessel is provided at the summit in a siphon to a) regulate the flow b) increase the discharge c) increase velocity d) avoid an interruption in the flow 15) Rayleigh’s method of dimensional analysis is conveniently used if a) number of variables are equal to or less than fundamental variables b) number of variables are more than fundamental variables c) number of variables are equal to infinite d) all of the above 16) Separation of flow occurs when the pressure gradient a) tends to approach zero b) becomes negative c) changes abruptly d) reduces to a value when vapor formation starts 17) What drag force is exerted at sea level by a 3.5 m braking parachute when the speed is 20 m/s ? CD = 1.20. CD value remains constant. kg ρ=ρ=3 air (sea level) 1.225 , air (at 2000 m) 1.007 kg /m . m3 a) 2828.6 N b) 282.8 N c) 28.28 N d) 2.828 N 18) The shape factor (H) is the ratio of a) displacement thickness and boundary layer thickness b) displacement thickness and momentum thickness c) momentum thickness and displacement thickness d) momentum thickness and energy thickness 19) CFD is generally used for analysis of a) stress, displacement, strain b) velocity, pressure, temperature c) vibration, torque, bending moment d) current, voltage, magnetic flux 20) Pressure drag results from a) skin-friction b) deformation drag c) development of a stagnation point d) occurrence of a wake Set A ______ www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC75* -3- SLR-PC – 75 Seat Set No. A S.E. Mech. (Part – II) Examination, 2015 FLUID MECHANICS Day and Date : Wednesday, 13-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Answer any two questions from each Section. 2) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary. 3) Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed. 4) Assume suitable data if necessary and state it clearly. SECTION – I 2. a) A circular opening, 2.5 m diameter, in a vertical side of a tank is closed by a disc of 2.5 m diameter which can rotate about horizontal diameter. Find : i) the force on the disc, and ii) the torque required to maintain the disc in equilibrium in vertical position when the head of water above the horizontal diameter is 3.5 m. 7 b) Derive Euler’s equation of motion along a streamline for an ideal fluid stating clearly the assumptions made. 7 c) A jet of water from a 25 mm diameter nozzle is directed vertically upwards. Assuming that the jet remains circular and neglecting any loss of energy, what will be the diameter at a point 5 m above the nozzle, if the velocity with which the jet leaves the nozzle is 12 m/s. 6 3. a) The water is flowing through an inclined venturimeter in the upward direction. The inlet and throat diameters of the venturimeter are 200 mm and 100 mm respectively. The pressure of inlet is 196.2 KPa (gauge) and at throat is 39.24 KPa (vacuum). The length between inlet and throat is 500 mm and venturimeter is inclined at an angle of 60° with horizontal. Find the discharge through venturimeter. Take Cd = 0.98. 7 b) A solid cylinder of diameter 4 m has a height of 3 m. Find the metacentric height of the cylinder when it is floating in water with its axis is vertical. The specific gravity of the cylinder is 0.6. State whether the equilibrium is stable or unstable. 7 c) Explain different types of fluid flow with example. 6 4. a) Calculate the velocity components if the velocity potential function follows the law : x φ = loge 7 y b) A pitot tube is placed at the center of a 30 cm diameter pipe the static pressure head is 5 m. The stagnation pressure head is 6 m. Calculate rate of flow of water through pipe if the mean (average) velocity of flow is 0.85 times the central velocity. Take coefficient of tube Cv = 0.98. 7 ∂p ∂τ c) For viscous flow through two fixed parallel plates kept at distance b apart if = . ∂x ∂y From Newton’s law of viscosity, obtain velocity distribution equation across a section. 6 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 75 -4- *SLRPC75* SECTION – II 5. a) The frictional torque T of a disc of diameter D rotating at a speed N in a fluid of viscosity μ ⎡ μ ⎤ and density ρ in a turbulent flow is given by, T = D5N2 ρΦ . Prove this method ⎢ 2 ⎥ ⎣ D Nρ ⎦ of dimensions. 7 b) An old water supply distribution pipe of 250 mm diameter of a city is to be replaced by two parallel pipes of smaller equal diameter having equal lengths and identical friction factor values. Find out the new diameter required. 7 c) Write a short note on CFD models and software. 6 6. a) A jet plane which weighs 29.43 kN and having a wing area of 20 m2 flies at a velocity of 250 km/hr, when the engine delivers 7357.5 kW power. 65% of the power is used to overcome the drag resistance of the wing. Calculate the co-efficients of lift and drag for the wing. The density of the atmospheric air is 1.21 kg/m3. 7 b) In a refinery, crude oil of specific gravity 0.85 and viscosity 0.1 poise, flow through a pipe of 300 mm diameter with an average velocity of 3 m/s. Find the pumping power required to maintain the flow per km length of the pipe. 7 c) Define and explain following : i) Boundary Layer Thickness ii) Displacement Thickness iii) Momentum Thickness. 6 7. a) Derive Darcy-Weisbach equation for finding loss of head due to friction in pipes. 7 b) A flat plate 2 m × 2 m moves at 40 km/hr in a stationary air of density 1.2 kg/m3. If the co-efficient of drag and lift are 0.1 and 0.5 respectively, find : i) the lift force ii) the drag force iii) the resultant force, and iv) the power required to keep the plate in motion. 7 c) A 5 : 1 scale model of a car is tested in wind tunnel. The velocity with prototype is 75 km/hr. The drag on the model is 300 N. Find the drag on the prototype and the power required to overcome this drag force. The air is used with model as well as prototype also. 6 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLR-PC-76* SLR-PC – 76 Seat Set No. A S.E. (Mechanical Engineering) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 THEORY OF MACHINE – I Day and Date : Friday, 15-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 2) Attempt any two questions from each Section. 3) Make suitable assumptions if necessary and state them clearly. 4) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : 20 1) In a kinematic chain, a tertiary joint is equivalent to a) Two binary joints b) Three binary joints c) One binary joint d) One quaternary joint 2) In a four link mechanism, the sum of the shortest and longest link is less than the sum of other two links. It will act as a drag-crank mechanism if a) The longest link is fixed b) The shortest link is fixed c) Any link adjacent to the shortest link is fixed d) Any link adjacent to the longest link is fixed 3) Oldham’s coupling is used to connect to shafts which are a) Intersecting b) Parallel c) Perpendicular d) Co-axial 4) The instantaneous centre of a slider moving in a curved surface lies a) At infinity b) At their point of contact c) At the centre of curvature d) At the pin point 5) The component of acceleration directed towards the centre of rotation of a revolving body is known as ______component. a) Tangential b) Centripetal c) Coriolis d) Centrifugal 6) The linear velocity of a point B on a link rotating at an angular velocity relative to another point A on the same link is a) ω 2. AB b) ω.AB c) ω.(AB)2 d) ω/AB P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 76 -2- *SLR-PC-76* 7) The Ackermann steering gear fulfills the condition of correct gearing at a) no position b) one position c) three positions d) all position 8) The cam follower used in automobile engines is a) roller b) flat faced c) spherical faced d) knife edged 9) The most suitable follower motion programme for a high speed engine is a) uniform acceleration and deceleration b) uniform velocity c) simple harmonic motion d) cycloidal 10) The efficiency of a screw jack depends on a) pitch of the threads b) the load c) both pitch and load d) neither pitch nor load 11) The frictional torque for the same diameter in a conical bearing is ______than in a flat bearing. a) more b) less c) equal d) may be more or less 12) Acceleration of the piston of a reciprocating engine is ⎛ sin2θ⎞ ⎛ cos 2θ ⎞ a) r ⋅ ω2⎜sinθ + ⎟ b) rω⎜cos θ + ⎟ ⎝ n ⎠ ⎝ n ⎠ ⎛ cos2θ⎞ ⎛ cos2θ⎞ c) r ⋅ ω2⎜cosθ + ⎟ d) rω2 ⎜cosθ + ⎟ ⎝ 4π ⎠ ⎝ n ⎠ 13) Crank effort is the net force applied at the crankpin ______to the crank which gives the required turning moment on the crankshaft. a) parallel b) perpendicular c) at 45° d) at 135° 14) Which of the following brakes is commonly used in motor cars ? a) band brakes b) shoe brakes c) band and block brake d) internal expanding shoe brake 15) In an internal expanding shoe brake, more than 50% of the total braking torque is supplied by a) leading shoe b) trailing shoe c) any of the two d) none of the above 16) The height of a Watt governor is a) g/ ω 3 b) ω 2/g c) g. ω 2 d) g/ ω 2 17) If the controlling force of a spring controlled governor is expressed as (a.r + b), where r is the radius of rotation and a and b are constants, then is a/an ______governor. a) isochronous b) centrifugal c) dead-weight d) inertia 18) The condition of isochronisms can be realized in a ______governor. a) Watt b) Porter c) Proell d) Hartnell 19) In a multiple friction clutch, the number of active friction surfaces are a) 2n b) n c) 2(n –1) d) (n – 1) 20) A pantograph consists of a) 4 links b) 6 links c) 8 links d) 10 links ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLR-PC-76* -3- SLR-PC – 76 Seat No. S.E. (Mechanical Engineering) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 THEORY OF MACHINE – I Day and Date : Friday, 15-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 2) Attempt any two questions from each Section. 3) Make suitable assumptions if necessary and state them clearly. 4) Figures not to scale. SECTION – I 2. A) For the mechanism shown in Fig. (2A) crank OA rotates at 100 rpm clockwise. Using instantaneous centre method determine the linear velocities of points B, C and D and angular velocities of links AB, BC and CD. OA = 20 cm, AB = 150 cm, BC = 60 cm, CD = 50 cm and BE = 40 cm. 8 Fig. 2A B) Explain any two inversions of single – slider crank chain. 4 C) Explain : i) Scott-Russel mechanism. 4 ii) Tchebiceff mechanism. 4 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 76 -4- *SLR-PC-76* 3. A) For the mechanism shown in Fig. (3A) link 2 rotates at constant angular velocity. Construct the velocity polygon and determine the acceleration of D. 10 O2A = 50.8 mm AB = 102 mm BD = 102 mm DO6 = 102 mm AC = 203 mm ω 2 = 1 rad/s Fig. 3A B) A Hooke’s joint connects two shafts whose axes intersect at 18°. The driving shaft rotates at a uniform speed of 210 rpm. The driven shaft with attached masses has a mass of 60 kg and radius of gyration of 120 mm. Determine the : i) Torque required at the driving shaft is a steady torque of 180 N-m resists rotation of the driven shaft and the angle of rotation is 45°. ii) Angle between the shaft at which the total fluctuation of speed of the driven shaft is limited to 18 rpm. 5 C) What do you understand by a dynamically equivalent system ? 5 4. A) Explain briefly the Ackermann steering mechanism. 6 B) The crank and connecting rod of a vertical petrol engine, running at 1800 rpm are 60 mm and 270 mm respectively. The diameter of the piston is 100 mm and the mass of the reciprocating parts is 1.2 kg. During the expansion stroke when the crank has turned 20° from the top dead centre, the gas pressure is 650 kN/m2. Determine the : i) Net force on the piston ii) Net load on the gudgeon pin iii) Thrust on the cylinder walls iv) Speed at which the gudgeon pin load is reversed in direction. 8 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLR-PC-76* -5- SLR-PC – 76 C) The crank OA drives the rod AB as shown in Fig. (4C). Determine the speed of block F. The speed of crank is 105 rpm. OA = 18 cm, AC = 40 cm, CD = 36 cm, EF = 30 cm, AB = 72 cm, CE = 24 cm. 6 Fig. 4C SECTION – II 5. A) The following data relate to a cam operating an oscillating roller follower : Minimum radius of cam = 40 mm Diameter of roller = 16 mm Length of follower arm = 42 mm Distance of fulcrum centre from can centre = 48 mm Angle of ascent = 75° Angle of descent = 105° Angle of dwell for follower in highest position = 60° Angle of oscillation of follower = 28° Draw the profile of the cam if the ascent and descent both take place with constant acceleration and deceleration. 12 B) The mean diameter of the contact surfaces of a conical friction clutch is 250 mm and the width of the conical surface is 60 mm. The clutch is lined with material giving a co-efficient of friction of 0.3 and the angle between the generator of the conical surface and its axis is 15°. If the intensity of normal pressure between the surfaces is limited to 70 kN/m2, find the greatest power that can be transmitted at a speed of 1200 rev/min without slipping of the clutch and also the least axial force necessary to hold the clutch in engagement. 8 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 76 -6- *SLR-PC-76* 6. A) For the short shoe block brake shown in Fig. (6A) and for a co-efficient of friction of 0.3, a frictional power of 14.924 kW at 650 rpm is to be absorbed. What actuating force is required ? Can the brake be self locking ? 8 a = 1.0 m r = 0.375 m d = 0.375 m c = 0.05 m Fig. 6A B) The mass of each ball of a Proell governor is 7.5 kg and the load on the sleeve is 80 kg. Each of the arms is 300 mm long. The upper arms are pivoted on the axis of rotation whereas the lower arms are pivoted to links of 40 mm from the axis of rotation. The extensions of the lower arms to which of the balls are attached are 100 mm long and are parallel to the governor axis at the minimum radius. Determine the equilibrium speed corresponding to extreme radii of 180 mm and 140 mm. 12 7. A) Give classification of cams and followers and explain jumping of follower. 4 B) Classify brakes and explain the external shoe brakes stating its applications. 4 C) Explain isochronism and hunting of governors. 4 D) A vertical screw with a single start square thread 50 mm mean diameter and 10 mm pitch is raised against a load of 5500 N by means of a hand wheel the boss of which is threaded to act as a nut. The axial load is taken up by a thrust collar which supports the wheel boss and has a mean diameter of 65 mm. If the co-efficient of friction is 0.15 for the screw and 0.18 for the collar and tangential force applied by each hand to the wheel is 140 N; find the suitable diameter of the hand wheel. 8 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC77* SLR-PC 77 e a t S Set A N o . S.E. (Mech.) (Part II) Examination, 2015 MANUFACTURING PROCESSES Day and Date : Monday, 18-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) There will be two types of multiple choice questions MCQ with only one answer correct and MCQs with more than one answer correct. 3) Q. No. I and II is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 Choose the correct alternative : I. MCQ with only one answer correct (1 mark each) : (1×10=10) 1) Lathe bed casting is produced by a) Die casting b) Investment casting c) Shell molding d) CO2 process 2) Bottom pouring laddle is used in a) Steel foundry b) Aluminium foundry c) Cast iron foundry d) All foundries 3) Which of the following is added as reducing agent in green molding sand ? a) Saw dust b) Coal dust c) Starch d) Iron oxide 4) PVC pipes are manufactured by a) Compression molding b) Transfer molding c) Extrusion d) Blow molding 5) Liquid to solid shrinkage in casting is compensated by a) Providing contraction allowance on pattern b) Providing riser at hot spot c) Providing riser and contraction allowance both d) Providing chaplets 6) Railway rails are manufactured by a) Drop forging b) Impact extrusion c) Continuous casting d) Hot rolling P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 77 -2- *SLRPC77* 7) Forging hammers are generally not used for a) Upsetting b) Fullering c) Drawing down d) Trimming 8) Collapsible tubes are manufactured by a) Rolling b) Drawing c) Impact extrusion d) Direct extrusion 9) Which of the following welding process uses non-consumable electrode ? a) TIG welding b) MIG welding c) Submerged arc welding d) MMAW 10) Which of the following is not fettling operations ? a) Tumbling b) Shot blasting c) Knocking of gating system d) Averaging II. MCQs with more than one answer correct (2 marks each) : (2×5=10) 1) Riser efficiency can be improved by a) Use of exothermic compound b) Use of chaplets c) Use of insulating pads d) Promoting progressive solidification 2) Which of the following are additives added in green molding sand ? a) Bentonite b) Saw dust c) Dextrine d) Talcum powder 3) Seamless tubes are manufactured by a) Rolling b) Forging c) Seam welding d) Extrusion 4) Which of the following statements are false ? a) Crankshafts are manufactured by rolling b) Wire drawing is cold working operation c) Aluminium sections are manufactured by extrusion d) Cold rolling decreases the strength and hardness of product 5) Which of the following statements are true ? a) Oxyacetylene gas is used for welding b) Oxyacetylene gas is used for brazing c) In gas welding filler material is not used d) Gas welding is used for welding of thick plates having thickness above 25 mm ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC77* -3- SLR-PC 77 S e a t N o . S.E. (Mech.) (Part II) Examination, 2015 MANUFACTURING PROCESSES Day and Date : Monday, 18-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Attempt any three questions from Section I and any three questions from Section II. 2) Neat sketches must be drawn wherever necessary. 3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and mention it clearly. SECTION I 1. a) Explain various allowances added on pattern with their significance. 5 b) Enlist requisite prop. of green molding sand. 4 c) Draw neat sketches of any two types of core boxes. 4 2. a) Explain advantages and limitations of green sand molding process. 4 b) Explain the steps in investment casting process with neat sketch. 5 c) Explain the advantages and limitations of shell core making process. 4 3. a) What are the charge materials added to cupola ? What is flux ? 4 b) What is riser ? Explain types of riser with neat sketch. 4 c) Explain the process of compression molding of plastics with neat sketch. 5 4. Write notes on any three of the following : a) Types of gating systems and gating ratio. 4 b) Advantages and limitations of casting process. 4 c) Electric arc f/c. 5 d) Common defects in casting. 5 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 77 -4- *SLRPC77* SECTION II 5. a) Compare between hot working and cold working. 4 b) Explain classification of rolling mills on the basis of no. of rolls in stand. 5 c) Explain the stages in cold rolling of sheet. 4 6. a) Differentiate between open die forging and closed die forging. 5 b) Explain advantages and limitations of forging over casting. 4 c) Draw neat illustrating process of direct extrusion and indirect extrusion. 4 7. a) Explain the process of single pass wire drawing with neat sketch. 6 b) Explain various types of flames in oxyacetylene gas welding with their application. 7 8. Write notes on any three of the following : a) Submerged arc welding. 5 b) Impact extrusion. 4 c) Forging equipments. 5 d) Tube rolling. 4 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC78* SLR-PC – 78 Seat No. Set A S.E. (MECH) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 NUMERICAL METHODS Day and Date : Wednesday, 20-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. 3) Use of scientific calculator is allowed. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. 1) The generalized Newton’s Raphson iterative formula to obtain multiple root of the equation f(x) = 0 is f(x ) f(x ) a) x = x + m n b) x = x – m n n+1 n ′ n+1 n ′ f (xn) f (xn) ′ f(xn ) f (xn) c) xn+1 = xn – ′ d) xn+1 = xn – m f (xn) f(xn ) 2) Which of the following method is used to solve non-linear simultaneous equations ? a) Power method b) Gauss elimination method c) Jordan’s method d) Newton’s Raphson method 3) Identify, which of the following method has quadratic convergence. a) Regula falsi b) Bisection c) Newton-Raphson d) Iteration 4) As soon as a new value of a variable is found by iteration, it is used immediately in the next step, this method is called as a) Gauss-Jacobi’s method b) Gauss-seidal method c) Gauss-Jordan method d) Gauss-Elimination method 5) Let (x0, y0) and (x1, y1) be the points, then the first divided difference formula for the arguments x0 and x1 is x − x − + 1 0 y1 y0 y1 y0 a) y − y b) − c) + d) None of these 1 0 x1 x0 x1 x0 6) Which of the following is not direct method. a) Gauss-Elimination b) Gauss-Jordan c) Gauss-Seidal d) Grout’s method 7) The number of normal equations require to fit a curve of the form y = axb are a) 2 b) 3 c) 1 d) 4 8) For solving set of equation AX = B in which the matrix A B transformed to diagonal matrix. a) Gauss-seidal method b) Gauss elimination method c) Gauss-Jordan method d) Gauss-Jacobi’s method 9) Given the table : x 01 3 The quadratic polynomial by Lagrange’s formula is y 01 0 x2 x2 x2 3x x2 3x a) + 3x b) − 3x c) − + d) − − 2 2 2 2 2 2 P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 78 -2- *SLRPC78* 10) The line of regression of y on x is given by a) x – x = bxy (y – y ) b) y – y = byx (x – x) c) x – x = byx (y – y ) d) None of these 11) Romberg’s method is based on successive application of 1rd a) Trapezoidal Rule b) Simpson’s rule 3 th c) Simpson’s 3 Rule d) Weddle’s Rule 8 12) Guassian quadrature formula is used to a) solve PDE b) solve ODE c) find roots of equations d) evaluate definite integrations 13) The partial differential equation uxx + uyy + ux = 0 is a) Elliptic b) Parabolic c) Hyperbolic d) Circular b 1 14) To convert the integration ∫ f(x) dx to the form ∫ G(t) dt , while evaluating using Gaussian a −1 Quadrature formula, the substitution is (b − a) t + a + b (a − b) t + a + b a) x = b) x = 2 2 (b − a) x + a + b c) t = d) None of these 2 15) The finite difference scheme for the equation 2y′′ + y = 5 is 2 2 2 2 a) yi+2 – 2yi + yi–1 + h yi = 5h b) yi+3 – 2yi + yi–1 + h yi = 5h 2 2 c) yi+1 – 2yi + yi–1 + h yi = 5h d) None of these 16) If y′ = x − y , y(0) = 1, then by Picard’s method, the value of y(1) (1) is a) 0.2 b) 0.3 c) 0.4 d) 0.5 17) Application of Romberg’s method is to a) solve PDE b) solve OPE c) find roots of equation d) evaluate definite integral dy 18) The Picards nth approximation formula for = f(x, y) with y(x ) = y is dx 0 0 x x a) yn = y0 + ∫ f(xn, yn ) dx b) yn = y0 + ∫ f(x, yn−1) dx x0 x0 x c) yn = y0 + ∫ f(x, y) dx d) None of these x0 19) Leibman’s five point formula (standard) is 1 1 () a) u = ()u + , −u − , +u , + −u , − b) u = u + , + u + , +u, + +u, − ij 4 i 1 j i 1 j i j 1 i j 1 ij 4 i 1 j i 1 j i j 1 i j 1 1 c) u = ()u + , +u − , +u , + +u , − d) None of these ij 4 i 1 j i 1 j i j 1 i j 1 ∂2u ∂2u ∂2u ∂u ∂u 20) The PDE + 4 + 4 − + 2 = 0 is ∂x2 ∂x∂y ∂y2 ∂x ∂y a) Parabolic b) Hyperbolic c) Elliptic d) None of these ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC78* -3- SLR-PC – 78 Seat No. S.E. (MECH) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 NUMERICAL METHODS Day and Date : Wednesday, 20-5-2015 Max. Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Attempt any three questions from each Section. 2) Figures to the right indicate full marks. SECTION – I 2. a) Find a real root of the equation x log10x = 1.2 by regula-falsi method which lies between 2 and 3. (Take four Iterations only). 4 b) Find by Newton’s method, the real root of the equation 3x = cosx + 1 correct to four decimal places taking x0 = 0.6. 4 3 2 c) Find the double root of the equation x – x – x + 1 = 0 taking initial approximation x0 = 0.9. 5 OR c) Solve the system of non-linear equations 2 2 x + y = 11, y + x = 7 taking x0 = 3.5 and y0 = 1.8. 5 3. a) Apply Gauss-Jordan method of solve the equations 5 x + y + z = 9 ; 2x – 3y + 4z = 13 ; 3x + 4y + 5z = 40 b) Solve the equations 27x + 6y – z = 85 ; x + y + 54z = 110 ; 6x + 15y + 2z = 72 by Gauss-Seidal method (Perform four Iterations only) 5 ⎡5 4⎤ c) Determine the largest eigen value and corresponding eigen vector of the matrix ⎢ ⎥ ⎣1 2⎦ ⎡1⎤ taking initial vector as X = ⎢ ⎥ . 4 0 ⎣0⎦ 4. a) Calculate Karl Pearson’s Co-efficient of correlation from the following data 7 x : 28 45 40 38 35 33 40 32 36 33 y : 23 34 33 34 30 26 28 31 36 35 b) The following results were obtained from marks in Applied Mechanics and Engineering Mathematics in an Examination. Marks in Marks in Appli Mech (x) Engg. Maths (y) Mean 47.5 39.5 Standard Deviation 16.8 10.8 If r = 0.95, find both the regression equations. Also estimate the value of y for x = 30. 6 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 78 -4- *SLRPC78* 5. a) Fit a straight line to the following data 5 x : 6778889910 y : 554543433 b) Find f(3) by using Lagrange’s formula for the given table. 5 x : 0 1 2 5 y : 2 3 12 147 c) Find the normal equations for exponential curve y = aebx. 3 SECTION – II 6. a) Using Crank Nicholson’s method solve ∂u ∂2u 1 1 = subject to u (0, t) = 0, u(x, 0) = 0 and u(1, t) = t by taking h = and k = . 6 ∂t ∂x2 4 8 b) Using Bender – Schmidt method solve uxx = 32 ut by taking h = 0.25 for t > 0, 0 < x < 1 and u(x, 0) = 0, u(0, t) = 0, u(1, t) = t. 7 7. a) Solve ∇2u = 8x2y2 for square mesh given u = 0 on the 4 boundaries dividing the square into 16 sub-squares of 1 unit. 7 b) Solve uxx + uyy = 0 for the following mesh with boundary conditions as shown below, up to four decimal places. 6 12 A B u1 u2 12 u3 u4 2 1 D2 1 C Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC78* -5- SLR-PC – 78 1 1 2 2 sinxy 1 8. a) Evaluate dxdy using simpson’s rule with h = k = . 5 ∫∫ + 0 0 1 xy 4 6 dx b) Evaluate ∫ dx by trapezoidal rule. 5 + 2 0 1 x 1 c) Evaluate ∫ cos x dx by Gaussian three point formula. 3 −1 OR 1 dx c) Evaluate ∫ by gaussian two point formula. 3 + 2 −1 1 x 9. a) Solve y′ = y − x2, y(0) = 1, by Picard’s method up to the third approximation. 4 dy b) Given = xy1/ 3, y(1) = 1. Find y(1.2) using Runge Kutta method, in one step. 5 dx c) Using finite difference method solve d2y = x − y with y(0) = 0 y(1) = 2. Find y(0.25), y(0.5) y(0.75). 5 dx2 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC79* SLR-PC – 79 Seat Set No. A S.E. (Mechanical) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONICS TECHNOLOGY Day and Date : Friday, 22-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. 3) All questions are compulsory. 4) Assume suitable data if necessary. 5) Draw neat diagrams whenever necessary. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : (20×1=20) 1) Which of the following information available on name plate of a motor ? a) HP rating b) RPM c) Frame model d) All the above 2) Which of the following is an AC motor ? a) Slip ring motor b) Synchronous motor c) Squirrel cage Induction d) All of the above 3) Machine tools are a typical example of a) Constant power load b) Constant torque load c) Variable torque load d) a) and b) 4) Output power requirement of constant torque loads vary with ______a) Speed b) Voltage c) Current d) Power factor 5) A capacitor start single phase induction motor will usually have a power factor of a) Unity b) 0.8 leading c) 0.6 leading d) 0.6 lagging 6) A single phase motor generally used for small air compressor is a) Capacitor start capacitor run motor b) Reluctance motor c) Universal motor d) Shaded pole motor 7) The welding electric circuit is a) Never earthed b) Always earthed c) Through cables only d) None P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 79 -2- *SLRPC79* 8) In electrical resistance welding the greatest resistance is offered by which of the following ? a) Metal surface b) Contact layer of metals to be welded c) Contact point of electrode with metal bottom d) Contact point of electrode with metal top 9) In the indirect resistance heating method, maximum heat transfer takes place by a) Radiation b) Convection c) Conduction d) None 10) Resistance welding cannot be used for dielectrics. a) Yes b) No 11) Basic building block of combinational digital circuit are a) Gates only b) Flip-flop only c) Gate and flip-flop only d) None 12) 8051 microcontroller has in built ______a) Timers b) I/O ports c) Limited memory d) All of above 13) The output of Nand gate is zero when ______a) All inputs are zero b) When any input is zero c) All inputs are one d) When any input is one 14) ‘n’ cascade flip-flop count ______binary numbers. a) 2(n–1) b) 2n – 1 c) 2n d) 2n + 1 15) Input resistance and output resistance of ideal op amp respectively are ______a) zero, infinite b) infinite, zero c) infinite, finite d) none 16) What is the address range of SFR Register bank ? a) 00-77H b) 40H-80H c) 80H-7FH d) 80-FFH 17) In microcontroller 8051 address bus is of ______bits wide. a) 64 b) 8 c) 16 d) 32 18) Non-inverting amplifier using op-amp has voltage gain of Rf ⎛ Rf ⎞ Rf − Rf a) 1+ b) − ⎜1+ ⎟ c) d) R1 ⎝ R1⎠ R1 R1 19) The flip-flop which is free from race around problem is ______a) RS FF b) Master slave JK FF c) JK FF d) All 20) Which type of the following memory is non-volatile and may be written only once ? a) RAM b) EEPROM c) EPROM d) PROM ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC79* -3- SLR-PC – 79 Seat No. S.E. (Mechanical) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONICS TECHNOLOGY Day and Date : Friday, 22-5-2015 Max. Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)All questions are compulsory. 2) Assume suitable data if necessary. 3) Draw neat diagrams whenever necessary. SECTION – I 2. Attempt any four of the following : (4×5=20) a) State and explain modes of heat transfer. b) What is meant by slip an induction motor ? Why must slip be present for motor action ? c) Name the most popular types of stepper motors. Describe working principle, construction and applications of stepper motor. d) What are the advantages and disadvantages of single phase induction motors when compared with a 3-phase induction motor ? e) What are the requirement of electric drives for traction ? Explain a static control scheme used in a. c. traction employing a.c. motors. f) List out the speed control methods of d.c. motors and compare any two methods. 3. Attempt any two of the following : (2×10=20) a) Explain working principle, construction, types and applications of three phase induction motors. b) i) Write applications of d.c. shunt and series motors. ii) The speed of a 500 V dc motor is raised from 700 rpm to 1000 rpm by field weakening, the total torque remaining unchanged. The armature and field resistances are 0.8 Ω and 750Ω respectively, and the current at the lower speed is 12 A. Calculate the additional shunt field required assuming the magnetic circuit to be unsaturated. Neglect all losses. c) Explain with suitable diagrams : i) Induction heating ii) Dielectric heating. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 79 -4- *SLRPC79* SECTION – II 4. Attempt any four of the following : (4×5=20) a) Explain following instructions : a) ADD A, source byte b) ANL A, R4 c) CJNE A, #99, BACK. b) Explain how op-amp can be used as an integrator. c) Give comparison between microprocessor and microcontroller. d) Explain R-S flip-flop. e) Explain operation of decode counter with neat diagram. f) Explain architecture, types of memory of 8085 microprocessor. 5. Attempt any two of the following : (2×10=20) a) What are function of following pins of 8051 micro controller ALE, EA, RST. XTAK2, PSEN . b) What is need of digital to analog converter ? Discuss different types of DAC. c) What are ideal characteristics of OPAMP ? Also explain how op-amp can be used as Instrumentation amplifier. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC8* SLR-PC – 8 Seat No. Set A F.E. (Part – II) Examination, 2015 BASIC CIVIL ENGINEERING (New CGPA) Day and Date : Saturday, 16-5-2015 Max. Marks : 70 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00. p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 14 Choose the correct answer 1. 1) Fly levelling is adopted for the purpose of (14×1=14) a) Establishing new bench mark b) Checking accuracy of work c) For fixing alignment of road, canal etc. d) All the above 2) In the QB system a line is said to be free from local attraction, if the FB and BB are a) Numerically equal b) Numerically equal with opposite quadrants c) Anything d) Numerically different with opposite quadrants 3) The formula for finding the correct length of chain is where ‘Lo’ is True length, ‘Lm’ is Measured length, ‘lo’ is Standard length and ‘lo’ is chain length during chaining work l l = o = s a) LO x LM b) LO x LM ls lO l l = o = o c) lO x LM d) LM x LO ls ls P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 8 -2- *SLRPC8* 4) The back sight reading on a B.M. of R.L. 100.00 m is 2.685 m. If Foresight reading on a point is 1.345 m, the reduced level of the point is a) 102.685 m b) 101.345 m c) 101.340 m d) 104.030 m 5) The artificial lake formed on the upstream side of the river by constructing a dam across it is called a) Surface sources b) Underground sources c) Storage reservoir d) None of these 6) Contour lines are separated by less distance or even touch other in case of a) Overhanging cliff b) Hills and depressions c) Steep slopes d) Plane flat inclined plane 7) The minimum width of shoulder should be a) 2.5 m b) 2.0 m c) 2.1 m d) 3.0 m 8) Minimum area of kitchen cum dining room in residential building, as per “National Building Code”, should be a) 8.5 sq.m. b) 9.5 sq.m. c) 12 sq.m. d) 16 sq.m. 9) Minimum distance of a building line for residential building along national highway should be a) 10 m b) 20 m c) 30 m d) 40 m 10) In water-bound Macadam roads a) Small broken stone are laid in two layers b) Voids between the stone are filled by stone dust c) Camber for drainage is given at the formation level it self d) All the above 11) A foundation made up of thick R.C.C. slab covering entire bottom of the structure in called as a) Slab foundation b) Flat foundation c) Raft foundation d) Combined footing 12) A masonry wall needs ______for safety against earthquake forces. a) Continuous band at plinth, lintel and sill b) Use of through headers c) (a) and (b) d) None of the above 13) The desirable ratio of length to breadth of a room, satisfying ‘roominess’ principle of planning is a) 0.8 b) 1.0 c) 1.2 to 1.5 d) 2 to 3 14) M 20 grade of concrete has a proportion of cement : find aggregate : coarse aggregate as a) 1 : 1.5 : 3 b) 1 : 2 :4 c) 1 : 3 : 6 d) 1 : 4 : 8 ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC8* -3- SLR-PC – 8 Seat No. F.E. (Part – II) Examination, 2015 BASIC CIVIL ENGINEERING (New CGPA) Day and Date : Saturday, 16-5-2015 Marks : 56 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00. p.m. Instructions : Question No. 2 and Question No. 6 are compulsory, and solve any two question from each Section. SECTION – I 2. a) What are the various roles of civil engineer in construction activities ? 3 b) Find out missing readings (marked thus X) and complete the table. Also apply usual checks. 7 St. No. B.S. I.S. F.S. H.I. R.L. Remark 1 2.450 X X B.M.1 2 3.280 0.375 X X C.P. 3 X 453.805 4 2.345 X 5 2.990 452.365 6 X 3.665 454.415 X C.P. 7 2.110 X X 453.960 C.P. 8 1.370 X 9 1.425 X B.M.2 3. a) Distinguish between Height of instrument method and Rise and fall method. 2 b) Following bearings were observed on a closed compass traverse. 7 Line F.B. B.B. AB S 45° 00' E N 44° 30' W BC N 60° 00' E S 61° 00' W CD N 06° 00' E S 05° 50' W DE N 63° 40' W S 65° 00' E EA S 40° 00' W N 40° 00' E Calculate the a) interior angle b) corrected F.B. and B.B. Plot the traverse and show the corrected bearings. Also mention stations affected by local attraction. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 8 -4- *SLRPC8* 4. a) Write characteristics of contour map. 5 b) A 20 m chain was tested the commencement of the day’s work and found to be correct. After chaining a 840 m the chain was found to be 0.08 m too long. At the end of day’s work, after chaining a total distance of 1350 m the chain was found to be 0.12 m too long. What was true distance chained ? 4 5. a) Write short note rain water harvesting with neat sketch. 3 b) Explain the road structure in cutting with neat sketch. 3 c) What are the temporary adjustments in levelling work ? How it is done ? 3 SECTION – II Note : Question No. 6 is compulsory, solve any two questions from Q. No. 7 to Q. No. 9. 6. a) Explain with sketches the diff. elements of a building, mention their functions. 5 b) Privacy is the important principles of Building planning. Comment on the statement. 5 7. a) What is sulphate resisting cement ? Where it is used ? 5 b) What is W/C ratio ? How does it affect the strength of concrete ? 4 8. a) Give the uses of plastics in building construction. 5 b) Write short note on Energy efficient building. 4 9. a) State whether the following statement is true or false. Justify your answers. 1) There are restrictions on height of a building. 2) We cannot build on full area of plot. 3) We cannot build more number of stories on a small plot. 4) Pile foundation is a type of shallow foundaiton. 5) Lintels are provided over door, window openings. 5 b) Write short note on GPS. 4 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC80* SLR-PC 80 5 A J e a t S A N o . T.E. (Mech.) (Part I) Examination, 2015 THEORY OF MACHINE II (Old) Day and Date : Tuesday, 5-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Solve any 3 questions from Section I and Solve any 3 questions from Section II. 3) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 4) Assume suitable data wherever required and mention it. 5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. 1) Two parallel shaft can be connected by ______gears. a) straight spur b) cross helical c) spiral d) straight bevel 2) The size of gears is usually specified by a) circular pitch b) outside diameter c) pitch circle diameter d) inside diameter 3) The contact ratio of gears is always a) zero b) one c) less than one d) more than one 4) In a gear train the train value is given by a) N1/Nn b) Nn/N1 c) Nn× N1 d) none of the above 5) A gear train in which axes of gears have motion are called ______gear trains. a) Simple b) Reverted c) Compound d) Epicyclic 6) A differential uses ______gear train. a) Simple b) Reverted c) Epicyclic d) Compound 7) The maximum fluctuation of energy in a flywheel is equal to a) I ( )b)I2 Cs c) 2 E Cs d) All above 1 2 8) The ratio of the maximum fluctuation of speed to the mean speed is called a) fluctuation of speed b) maximum fluctuation of speed c) coefficient of fluctuation of speed d) none of these P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 80 -2- *SLRPC80* 9) The magnitude of the gyroscopic couple applied to a disc of moment of inertia I, spinning with an angular velocity and having an angular velocity of precession P is a) I2. . pb)I.. pc)I.2. pd)I.. p2 10) The engine of an aeroplane rotates in clockwise direction when seen from the tail and the aeroplane takes a turn the right. The effect of the gyroscopic couple on the aeroplane will be a) to dip the nose and tailb) to dip the nose and raise the tail c) to raise the nose and taild) to raise the nose and dip the tail 11) At resonance a) = 0 b) = c) = 0 d) / = 1 n n n 12) Balancing of rotating and reciprocating parts of an engine is necessary when it runs at a) slow speed b) medium speed c) high speed d) mean speed 13) Deflection for cantilever beam with UDL is given by ______ a) = WI3/3 EI b) = WI4/8 EI c) = WI3/48 EI d) = 5 WI4/8 EI 14) Number of cycles described in one second are ______a) frequency b) time period c) oscillation d) vibration 15) If critical speed of shaft is in rps then the natural frequency of transverse vibration is given as ______ b) 0.4985Ö c) 0.6585Ö d) 0.4988Ö a) 0.4958Ö 16) Natural frequency of free torsional vibration of shaft is a) 2 Öq/I b) 2 ÖqI c) 1/ Öq/I d) 1/ ÖqI 2 2 17) The equation of motion for a vibrating system with viscous damping is, d2x/dt2 + c/m.dx/dt + s/m x = 0, If the roots of this equation are real, then the system will be a) Over damped b) Under damped c) Critically damped d) Adequately damped 18) For static balancing of shaft a) net couple is zero b) net force is zero c) both force and couple is zero d) cant say 19) If a rotating system is dynamically balanced, it is statically a) partially balanced b) unbalanced c) balanced d) none of these 20) The amplitude ratio of two successive oscillations of a damped vibratory system is a) more than one b) less than one c) equal to one d) variable ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC80* -3- SLR-PC 80 S e a t N o . T.E. (Mech.) (Part I) Examination, 2015 THEORY OF MACHINE II (Old) Day and Date : Tuesday, 5-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Solve any 3 questions from Section I and Solve any 3 questions from Section II. 2) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 3) Assume suitable data wherever required and mention it. SECTION I 2. a) What is meant by interference involute gears ? Explain. 5 b) Two 20° involute spur gears mesh externally and give a velocity ratio of 3. The module is 3 mm and the addendum is equal to 1.1 module. If the pinion rotates at 120 rpm, determine the : i) Minimum number of teeth on each wheel to avoid interference ii) Contact ratio. 8 3. a) Discuss various types of gear trains. 5 b) An epicyclic gear train as shown in Fig. I is composed of a fixed annular wheel A having 150 teeth. The wheel A is meshing with wheel B which drives wheel D through an idle wheel C, D being concentric with A. The wheels B and C are carried on an arm which revolves clockwise at 100 rpm about the axis of A and D. If the wheels B and D have 25 teeth and 40 teeth respectively, find the number of teeth on C and the speed and sense of rotation of C. 8 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 80 -4- *SLRPC80* 4. a) Explain the terms fluctuation of energy and fluctuation of speed as applied to flywheels. 5 b) The turning moment diagram for a petrol is drawn to a vertical scale of 1 mm = 500 N.m and horizontal scale of 1 mm = 3°. The turning moment diagram repeats itself after every half revolution of the crankshaft. The areas above and below the mean torque line are 260, 580, 80, 380, 870 and 250 mm2. The rotating parts have a mass of 55 kg and radius of gyration of 2.1 m. If the engine speed is 1600 rpm, determine the coefficient of fluctuation of speed. 8 5. a) Write short note on ship stabilization. 6 b) Explain gyroscopic effect on four wheeled vehicle. 8 SECTION II 6. A) Shaft carries 4 masses in parallel planes A, B, C, D in this order along its length. The mass at B and C are 18 kg. and 12.5 kg. resp. and each has eccentricity of 60 mm. The masses at A and D have an eccentricity of 80 mm. Angle between masses B and C is 100° and between masses B and A is 190° both been measured in same direction. Axial distance between A and B is 100 mm and between B and C is 200 mm. If the shaft is in complete dynamic balance. Determine : 1) Magnitude of masses A and D 2) Distance between A and D 3) Angular position of mass D. 12 B) Define the following : 2 1) Transverse vibrations 2) Torsional vibrations. 7. A) Explain primary and secondary unbalanced force in case of reciprocating masses with a neat sketch. 5 B) A shaft 50 mm diam. and 300 mm long is supported at its upper end has a disc of mass 100 kg at its free end. The Youngs modulus for the shaft material is 200 kN/mm2, modulus of rigidity (G) = 800 kN/mm2, the radius of gyration of the disc is 450 mm. Determine the frequency of : i) Longitudinal ii) Transverse and iii) Torsional vibrations of the shaft. 8 8. A) Explain in brief different types of vibrations. 5 B) Derive an expression for force transmissibility and explain its significance. 8 9. A) What is dynamically equivalent system ? 5 B) Write short note on : 1) Different types of damping 2) Frequency response curve. 8 ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC91* SLR-PC – 81 Seat No. Set A T.E. Mechanical (Part – I) Examination, 2015 FLUID MACHINERY AND FLUID POWER (Old) Day and Date : Wednesday, 6-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. N.B. : 1) Question No. 1, 2, and 5 are compulsory. 2) Draw neat sketches wherever necessary. 3) Question No. 1 is having time duration of 30 minutes. 4) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. 5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. 1 and 2 statements in Column I may have 0/1/2 matches with statements in Column II (each question 3 marks). 1) Column I Column II Turbine Type Head and discharge status a) Pelton Wheel (single jet) p) Medium discharge low head b) Francis turbine q) High discharge low head c) Kaplan turbine r) Medium discharge medium head s) Low discharge high head 2) Column I Column II Device Symbol a) Pump p) b) Compressor q) c) Hydraulic motor r) P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 81 -2- *SLRPC91* 3 and 4 are multiple correct type answers (more than 1 answer may be correct) (2 marks each) 3) If 2 pumps identical in all respects and each capable of delivering a discharge Q against a head H are connected in parallel, the resulting discharge is a) 2 Q against a head 2 H b) 2 Q against a head H c) Q against a head 2 H d) 2 Q against a head 2 H 4) Seals used in hydraulic system are made of ______material. a) Metal b) Leather c) Asbestos d) Rubber Question 5 to 14 are questions of single answer correct type (1 mark each). 5) A turbine is called impulse if at the inlet of turbine total energy is a) kinetic energy b) pressure energy c) sum of kinetic energy and pressure energy d) none of the above 6) A pump is defined as device which converts a) Hydraulic energy into mechanical energy b) Mechanical energy into hydraulic energy c) Kinetic energy into mechanical energy d) Electrical energy into mechanical energy 7) Use of draft tube in a reaction type turbine helps to a) present air from entering b) increases the flow rate c) convert the K.E. to pressure energy d) convert the kinetic energy to pressure energy 8) Which of the following is a correct statement for a centrifugal pump ? a) Discharge varies directly as speed b) Head varies inversely as speed c) Power varies as the square of speed d) Discharge varies as square of speed 9) A turbine developes 2515 kW at 240 rpm. The torque in the shaft is a) 400 kN – m b) 3335 kN – m c) 1000 kN – m d) 100 kN – m 10) ______displacement pumps are used when pressure is primary consideration. a) Non positive b) Positive c) a) or b) d) None of the above 11) In case of meter in circuit, heat generated due to throttling is feel to the a) oil reservoir b) actuator c) a) or b) d) None of the above 12) Intensifiers are the devices which ______the pressure of the fluid. a) Increase b) Decrease c) a) or b) d) None of the above 13) Air motors are a) Compressors b) Electric motors c) Used to run fluid power systems using pressurised air d) None of the above 14) Relief valves are normally ______valves. a) Open b) Closed c) a) or b) d) None of the above ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC91* -3- SLR-PC – 81 Seat No. T.E. Mechanical (Part – I) Examination, 2015 FLUID MACHINERY AND FLUID POWER (Old) Day and Date : Wednesday, 6-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Question No. 2, and 5 are compulsory. 2) Solve any one question from each Section out of the remaining questions. 3) Draw neat sketches wherever necessary. SECTION – I 2. Attempt any four of the following : (4×5=20) a) Explain degree of reaction in steam turbine. b) Explain different types of casings used in centrifugal pumps. c) Explain the terms MPSH and NPSH in case of centrifugal pumps. d) What are unit quantities ? Derive an expression for unit discharge. e) Tests were conducted on a Francis turbine of 0.8 m diameter under a head of 9 m. The turbine running at 240 rpm developed 84.5 kW and water consumption was 1.2 m3/sec. If the same turbine is operated under a head of 16 m, predict its new speed, discharge and power developed. f) A water turbine has a velocity of 6m/s at the entrance to the draft tube and a velocity of 1.2 m/s at the exit. For friction losses of 0.1 m and a tail water 5 m below the entrance to the draft tube, find the pressure head at the entrance. 3. a) Steam at 300 m/s is supplied to a single stage impulse turbine through a nozzle. The nozzle angle is 25°. The mean diameter of the blade rotor is 100 cm and it has a speed of 2000 rpm. Find suitable blade angles if there is no axial thrust. If the blade velocity coefficient is 0.9 and steam flow rate is 10 kg/sec, find the power developed. 7 b) Explain construction and working of Francis turbine. 6 c) Define specific speed of centrifugal pumps and derive an expression for the same. 7 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 81 -4- *SLRPC91* 4. a) A Francis turbine has to be designed to develop 367.5 kW under a head of 70 m while running at 750 rpm. The ratio of width of runner to diameter of runner is 0.1, inner diameter is half the outer diameter. Flow ratio is 0.15, hydraulic efficiency is 95%, mechanical efficiency is 84%. Four percent of the circumferential area of runner to be occupied by the thickness of vanes, velocity of flow is constant and discharge is radial at exit. 7 Calculate : i) Diameter of the wheel ii) Quantity of water supplied. b) Compare impulse and reaction steam turbine. 7 c) Explain different types of efficiencies in centrifugal pump. 6 SECTION – II 5. Attempt any four of the following : (4×5=20) a) Draw symbol of single acting cylinder and pressure relief valve. b) Draw a neat sketch of lubricator used in pneumatic system. c) Explain different types of seals used in hydraulic system. d) Enlist advantages of fluid power. e) Explain pneumatic power tools. f) Explain counter balancing circuit. 6. a) What is intensifier ? Explain types of intensifiers. 7 b) Explain construction and working of vane pump. 6 c) Explain pneumatic braking system. 7 7. a) Explain construction and working of pressure reducing valve. 6 b) Explain construction and working of any two types of accumulators. 7 c) Explain construction and working of any two types of filters used in pneumatic system. 7 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC82* SLR-PC – 82 Seat No. Set A T.E. (Mech.) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 METALLURGY (Old) Day and Date : Thursday 7-5-2015 Total Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions :1)Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer book Page No. 3. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 Type (1) : 1. Match the appropriate pairs : 3 a) Ledeburite p) Proeutectoid constituent b) Pearlite q) Proeutectic constituent c) Ferrite r) Eutectic constituent s) Eutectoid constituent 2. Match the appropriate pairs : 3 a) Welded component p) Normalising b) Steel castings q) Patenting c) Steel forgings r) Full annealing s) Stress relief annealing Type (2) : MCQs with only one answer correct. 4 1. Hardness test recommended to check hardness of hardened and tempered steel is a) Brinell b) Rockwell c) Vickers d) Poldi 2. Stress strain curve for which of following shows pronounced yield point. a) Mild steel b) Medium carbon steel c) High carbon steel d) Cast iron P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 82 -2- *SLRPC82* 3. Treatment to improve machinability of tool steel is a) Patenting b) Spherodising c) Full annealing d) Process annealing 4. Precipitation hardening is carried out on a) Aluminium silicon alloys b) Brasses c) Aluminium copper alloys d) Tin bronzes Type (3) : MCQs with more than one answer correct (2 marks each) : 10 1. Solid solutions are characterized by a) Good ductility b) Wide freezing range c) Good casting properties d) Poor machinability 2. Proeutectic constituents observed in cast irons are a) cementite b) austenite c) delta iron d) ferrite 3. 1040 indicates a) AISI specification b) SAE specification c) EN specification d) ASTM specification 4. Impact test gives an idea regarding a) Behavior of material under shock load b) Transition temperature c) True toughness d) Recrystallisation temperature 5. Which of the following processes transform austenite to martensite ? a) Hardening b) Austempering c) Martempering d) Patenting ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC82* -3- SLR-PC – 82 Seat No. T.E. (Mech.) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 METALLURGY (Old) Day and Date : Thursday 7-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Attempt any three questions from Section – I and any three questions from Section – II. 2) Draw neat sketches wherever necessary. 3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and mention it clearly. SECTION – I 1. a) Draw Fe-Fe3C equilibrium diagram, label all the temperatures and constituents correctly. 5 b) With the help of above diagram explain significance of A1 line and A3 line. 4 c) Draw microstructure of Grey CI and S.G. Iron in unetched condition. 4 2. a) Compare between (any three) : 9 i) White Iron vs Grey Iron. ii) Steels vs Cast Irons. iii) Substitutional solid solution vs Interstitial solid solutions. iv) Brasses vs Bronzes. b) What is modification treatment ? What are its effects ? 4 3. a) Give typical composition, properties and applications of any three of the following : 9 i) Hadfield Mn steel ii) HSS iii) Admiralty Brass iv) Babbits. b) Explain Gibb’s phase rule and its significance. 4 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 82 -4- *SLRPC82* 4. Write notes on (any three) : a) Hume Rothery principles. 5 b) Malleable CI. 5 c) Solder materials. 4 d) Hot working tool steels. 4 SECTION – II 5. a) Draw T-T-T diagram for eutectoid steel. 4 b) Explain the meaning of following terms : 3 i) MS temperature ii) Critical cooling rate iii) Incubation period. c) What are the characteristics of martensitic transformations ? 3 d) Explain mechanism of Heat removal during quenching. 3 6. a) What is harden ability of steel ? What are the factors affecting it ? What is ideal critical diameter ? 6 b) Enlist the types of sub critical annealing. 3 c) What are the advantages of carbonitriding over gas carburizing ? 4 7. a) Explain the set up for tensile test and draw stress-strain curve for mild steel. 5 b) Explain Dye-penetrant test with neat sketch pointing out its applications. 5 c) Draw flow chart for manufacture of self lubricated bearings. 4 8. Write notes on (any three) : a) Eddy current test. 4 b) Methods of sintering. 4 c) Nitriding. 4 d) Fatigue phenomenon. 5 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC83* SLR-PC 83 S e a t 5 A J ) N o . T.E. (Mechanical Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015 METROLOGY AND MECHANICAL MEASUREMENT (Old) Day and Date : Friday, 8-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 Type I 20 i) Column I Column II A)Optical flat p)Michelsons Interferometer B)Interferometry q)Floating carriage Micrometer C)Screw thread r) Testing of parallelism s)Profile projector ii) Column I Column II A)Rotameter p)Force measurement B)RTD q)Temperature measurement C)Stroboscope r)Flow measurement s)Speed measurement Type II iii) Statement I Clinometer is used for the measurement of an inclined surface in relation to the basic horizontal. Statement II Clinometer is used for measurement of the relative position of two mutually inclined surfaces. P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 83 -2- *SLRPC83* iv) Statement I Thermistors are semiconductors which have negative coefficient of resistance. Statement II Thermocouple combination in series is used when average temperature is to be measured. Type III v)Profile projector can be used for the measurement of A)Pitch B)Thickness C)Clearance fit D)None of the above vi)In hole basis system A)Basic shaft is chosen B)Basic hole is chosen C)Shaft size is varied D)None of the above vii) The displacement of seismic mass is related to the input displacement in terms of A)Excitation frequency B)Natural frequency C)Flashing frequency D)Rotating frequency viii) Among the most common positive displacement meters are A)Petrol pump meters B)Water meters C)Gas meters D)Hot wire anemometers Type IV ix)The unit of standard tolerance unit, i = A)Inches B)Microns C) Centimeter D) Millimeter x)The process of inspecting and then adjusting a gauge or other measurement tool to meet a specific parameter means A)Precision B)Calibration C)Certification D)None of the above xi)The range of coefficient of discharge for a Venturimeter is A)0.6 to 0.7 B)0.7 to 0.8 C)0.8 to 0.9 D)0.95 to 0.97 Xii)Which of the following thermometers is most suitable for the measurement of surface temperature ? A)Liquid in glass thermometer B)Thermocouples C)Thermistors D)Resistance thermometer ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC83* -3- SLR-PC 83 S e a t N o . T.E. (Mechanical Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015 METROLOGY AND MECHANICAL MEASUREMENT (Old) Day and Date : Friday, 8-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Note : 1) Attempt any three questions from Section I and any three questions from Section II. 2) Draw meaningful sketches wherever necessary with pencil only. 3) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 4) Make suitable assumptions, if required and state them clearly. SECTION I 1. a)Distinguish between : i)Line standard and End standard ii)Mechanical and electronic comparator. 7 b)Distinguish between limit gauges and comparators with examples. 7 2. a)Why tolerances are specified ? What is basic dimension ? How tolerances are specified for the assemblies ? 5 b)Explain following terms in case of fits : i)Upper deviation ii)Lower deviation iii) Fundamental deviation iv)Maximum clearance v)Minimum clearance vi)Minimum interference vii)M aximum interference 8 3. a)Explain construction, working and application of NPL flatness and gauge length interferometer. 7 b)Compute the slip gauge block combinations necessary to build dimension of 37.975 mm using M87 special set. What is wringing of slip gauges ? 6 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 83 -4- *SLRPC83* 4. a)Explain, in details, types of fits with two applications. 6 b)Explain what is Metroscope and write a note on automatic inspection system.7 5. a)With the help of simple sketch indicate the basic elements of spur gear measurement. Explain method of measurement of any one of them. 7 b)Explain working principle of micrometer and define its least count. 6 SECTION II 6. a)Explain calibration of thermocouples. 7 b)Explain dead weight pressure gauge tester. 6 7. a)Derive an expression for gauge factor of strain gauge. 7 b)Explain sound level meter. 6 8. a)Explain, in details, generalized measurement system. 7 b)Explain construction and working of LVDT. 6 9. Write notes on any three : 14 a)Piezo-electric accelerometer b)Ionization gauge c)Drag cup tachometer d)Water meter. ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC84* SLR-PC – 84 Seat No. Set A T.E. (Mech.) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 INDUSTRIAL ENGINEERING (Old) Day and Date : Staurday, 9-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct alternative. 1) Micro-motion study involves ______fundamental hand motions. 1 A) 24 B) 16 C) 12 D) 18 2) Match the pairs 3 A) Grasp P. B) Select Q. C) Hold R. S. 3) Gilberth contributed to 1 A) Time study B) Motion study C) Project study D) Value Engineering 4) In method study the symbol represents 1 A) Operation B) Inspection C) Project study D) Delay 5) ______is required for cycle graph. 1 A) Light source B) Stop Watch C) String D) Template 6) Process layout is suitable for 1 A) Job production B) Mass production C) Fixed layout D) Batch production P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 84 -2- *SLRPC84* 7) Basic fatigue allowance is 1 A) 1% B) 6% C) 4% D) 8% 8) SIMO chart is used in 1 A) Value engineering B) Micro motion study C) Time study D) Memo-motion study 9) Multiple answer question two marks each. 1) Productivity can be increased 2 A) When production increased without increase in Input B) The same production with increase in input C) The rate of increase in output is more compared to rate of increase in input D) Production decreased without increase in Input 2) Flow process chart is useful 2 A) To study work station layout B) To avoid waiting time and unnecessary C) The reduce idle time of man and machine D) To fix up the sequence of operation 3) Which of the following allowances are personal allowances ? 2 A) To wash hand B) Travelling C) To get a glass of water D) To fix up the sequence of operation 4) Work sampling is used for 2 A) Idle time of machine B) Job analysis C) Performance analysis D) Accuracy 5) ______is individual incentive plan. 2 A) Taylor’s Differential piece rate system B) Halsey Premium Plan C) Scanlon Plan D) Priestman Production Bonus ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC84* -3- SLR-PC – 84 Seat No. T.E. (Mech.) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 INDUSTRIAL ENGINEERING (Old) Day and Date : Staurday, 9-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Solve any two from each Section. 2) Figure to the right carry full marks. 3) Draw appropriate diagrams wherever necessary. 4) Precise and to the point answer carry weightage. SECTION – I 2. a) Draw all the therbligs with their meaning and appropriate examples. 7 b) Explain in brief contribution of Gilberth in development of industrial engineering. 7 c) How to select job for method study ? 6 3. a) Construct a flow diagram for mailing an insured package at the post office. 7 b) Working environment and working conditions. 7 c) Explain design consideration for operating controls and visual displays. 6 4. a) What is ILO ? State the nature of activities and ILO Norms. 7 b) Explain critical examination. 6 c) Explain SIMO Chart. 7 SECTION – II 5. a) The following data refers to the study conducted for an operation. Table shows actual time for elements in minutes Elements Cycle time in Minutes 12 3 4 5 1 2.5 2.1 2.2 5.4 2.5 2 6.2 6.00 6.1 5.9 5.9 3 2.3 2.0 2.1 2.1 2.2 4 2.4 2.1 2.8 3.0 2.3 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 84 -4- *SLRPC84* 1) Element 2 is a machine element. 2) Consider the observations as abnormal and delete the same if they are more than 2% of average time of that element. 3) Take performance ratings as 120. 4) Take following allowances personal allowance 30 min. in a shift of 8 hours. Fatigue allowance - 15%, contingency allowance - 2%. Estimate the standard time of operation and production per 8 hours shift. 7 b) Write steps of time study. 7 c) Explain what is conveyor and where to use conveyors. Explain any one. 6 6. a) Explain different principle of plant layout. 7 b) Write note on MTM. 7 c) Explain any one incentive scheme. 6 7. a) List various methods of merit rating explain. 7 b) Write on performance rating. 7 c) Write note on PDCA cycle. 6 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC85* SLR-PC 85 S e a t A J 5 A N o . T.E. (Mech.) (Part I) Examination, 2015 MACHINE DESIGN I (Old) Day and Date : Monday, 11-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : i) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. ii) Answer any two questions from each Section. iii) Figures to the right indicate full marks. iv) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly. v) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : A) Match the following : 4 Column I Column II a) Multi Leaf Spring p) Bolt b) Lever Safety valve q) Shock absorber c) Splines r) Suspension of railway wagons d) Helical spring s) Automobile transmission t) Boiler B) Match the following : 4 Column I Column II a) Wahls stress factor p) Saint Vanants theory b) Preferred number q) Hencky theory c) Max. principal strain theory r) Coil spring d) Max. principal stress theory s) Rankine theory t) Minimize variation in sizes C) Multiple correct answers : (4×2=8) 1) The objectives of standardization a) interchangeability of components b) high costs c) easier mass production d) increase marketing cost 2) The types of standards used in design office are a) BIS b) ISO c) PRAGMA d) All of three P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 85 -2- *SLRPC85* 3) Hollow shaft a) Reduction in weight b) less cost c) lesser outer diameter d) smaller length 4) Coupling is required to a) reduce friction b) connect shafts c) reduce transmission shocks d) reduce mechanical flexibility D) Single answer correct : (4×1=4) 1) Cotter joint is used to transmit a) axial tensile force only b) axial tensile and compressive force c) axial compressive force only d) any of the above 2) Rankine theory of failure is applicable for which of the following material ? a) Brittle b) Ductile c) Elastic d) Plastic 3) The type of riveted joint shown in Fig. is a) double riveted lap joint b) double riveted butt joint c) quadruple riveted lap joint d) straight riveted joint 4) Fatigue life of parts can be improved by a) electroplating b) polishing c) coating d) shot peening ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC85* -3- SLR-PC 85 S e a t N o . T.E. (Mech.) (Part I) Examination, 2015 MACHINE DESIGN I (Old) Day and Date : Monday, 11-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : i) Answer any two questions from each Section. ii) Figures to the right indicate full marks. iii) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly. SECTION I 2. a) Define factor of safety. What are different factors influencing the magnitude of factor of safety ? 6 b) Define standardization. Which standards are used in practice ? 6 c) Design a cotter joint to connect two rods made of plain carbon steel 30C8 (Syt = 400 N/mm2). Each rod is subjected to axial tensile force of 50 kN. Take factor of safety for rods and spigot end as 6 and for cotter as 4. 8 3. a) What is notch sensitivity ? Explain its significance in design. 6 b) What is fluctuating stress ? Explain fatigue phenomenon in a rotating shaft. 6 c) A plate made of steel 20C8 (Sut = 440 N/mm2) in hot rolled and normalized condition is shown in figure. It is subjected to completely reversed axial load of 30 kN. The notch sensitivity factor can be taken as 0.8 and the expected reliability is 90%. The size factor is 0.85. The factor of safety is 2. Determine the plate thickness for infinite life. 8 Take surface finish factor, Ka = 0.67. Size factor, Kb = 0.85 Reliability factor, Kc = 0.89. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 85 -4- *SLRPC85* 4. a) Explain cumulative damage in fatigue. 6 b) Explain the design procedure of cranked lever. 6 c) It is required to select a flat drive to connect two transmission shafts rotating at 800 and 400 rpm respectively. The centre to centre distance between the shafts is approximately 3 meter and the belt drive is open type. The power transmitted by the belt is 30 kW and the load correction factor is 1.3 (use the table given). 8 SECTION II 5. a) Explain the concept of Equivalent Twisting Moment and Equivalent Bending Moment applied to design of shaft. 4 b) A solid spindle transmits 4 kW at 800 rpm. The shear stress induced is not to exceed 40 MPa and angular deflection is not to exceed 0.25° per meter of spindle. Take modulus of rigidity of spindle material = 84 GPa. Determine the diameter of spindle on strength as well as rigidity criteria. 6 c) A bushed-pin type flexible coupling is used to connect two shafts and transmit 5 kW power at 720 rpm. Shafts, keys and pins are made of commercial steel (Syt = Syc = 240 N/mm2) and the factor of safety is 3. The flanges are made of grey cast iron FG 200 (Sut = 200 N/mm2) and the factor of safety is 6. Assume, Ssy = 0.5 Syt and Ssu = 0.5 Sut. There are 4 pins. The pitch circle diameter of the pins is four times of shaft diameter. The permissible shear stress for pins is 35 N/mm2. The permissible bearing pressure for rubber bushes is 1 N/mm2. The keys have square cross-section. Calculate : i) diameter of the shafts; ii) dimensions of the key; iii) diameter of the pins; iv) outer diameter and effective length of the bushes. 10 6. a) Explain stress concentration due to the curvature of the coil and how it is accounted in spring design. 5 b) A compression spring of stiffness K is cut into two springs with equal no. of turns and they are then used in parallel. Compare spring constant and load carrying capacity of resulting combination with original. 5 c) In the design of an elevator, 8 springs are arranged in parallel to absorb the shock of impact, in case of failure. The elevator weighs 10 kN. Assuming a free fall of 1.5 m from rest, find the maximum stress in each spring, if each spring is made of 25 mm diameter rod and has a spring index as 8. The number of active turns are 20 and the modulus of rigidity of the spring material is 83 GPa. 10 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC85* -5- SLR-PC 85 7. a) Explain design considerations for machining. 5 b) Explain the design procedure for eccentrically loaded riveted joints. 5 c) For supporting the travelling crane in a workshop, the brackets are fixed on steel columns as shown in Fig. The maximum load that comes on the bracket is 12 kN acting vertically at a distance of 400 mm from the face of the column. The vertical face of the bracket is secured to a column by four bolts, in two rows (two in each row) at a distance of 50 mm from the lower edge of the bracket. Determine the size of the bolts if the permissible value of the tensile stress for the bolt material is 84 MPa. Determine the major diameter of the bolts on the basis of maximum principal stress. Assume, core dia. of bolts = 0.8 × nominal dia. 10 Table 1 : Load correction factor (Fa) T y p e o f l o a d F a i ) N o r m a l l o a d 1 . 0 i i ) S t e a d y l o a d , e g . c e n t r i f u g a l p u m p s f a n s l i g h t 1 . 2 m a c h i n e i i i ) I n t e r m i t t e n t l o a d , e g . h e a v y d u t y f a n b l o w e r s r e c i p r o c a t i n g p u m p s l i n e s h a f t s h e a v y d u t y 1 . 3 m a c h i n e s c o m p r e s s o r s i v ) S h o c k l o a d , e g . v a c u u m p u m p s r o l l i n g m i l l s 1 . 5 h a m m e r s g r i n d e r Table 2 : Arc of contact factor (Fd) 1 2 0 1 3 0 1 4 0 1 5 0 1 6 0 1 7 0 1 8 0 1 9 0 2 0 0 @ A C H A A I I . @ 1 . 3 3 1 . 2 6 1 . 1 9 1 . 1 3 1 . 0 8 1 . 0 4 1 . 0 0 0 . 9 7 0 . 9 4 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 85 -6- *SLRPC85* Table 3 : The power transmitting capacities of belt H I S P E E D 0 . 0 1 1 8 k W p e r m m w i d t h p e r p l y F O R T 0 . 0 1 4 7 k W p e r m m w i d t h p e r p l y The above values are based on following two assumptions : i) The arc of contact is 180° ii) The belt velocity is 5.08 m/s. The standard widths of these belts (in mm) are as following : 3 p l y 2 5 4 0 5 0 6 3 7 6 4 p l y 4 0 4 4 5 0 6 3 7 6 9 0 1 0 0 1 1 2 1 2 5 1 5 2 5 p l y 7 6 1 0 0 1 1 2 1 2 5 1 5 2 6 p l y 1 1 2 1 2 5 1 5 2 1 8 0 2 0 0 Table 4 : Preferred pitch diameters of pulleys P i t c h d i a m e t e r ( m m ) : 1 2 5 1 3 2 1 4 0 1 5 0 1 6 0 1 7 0 1 8 0 1 9 0 2 0 0 2 1 2 2 2 4 2 3 6 2 5 0 2 6 5 2 8 0 3 0 0 3 1 5 3 5 5 3 7 5 4 0 0 4 2 5 4 5 0 4 7 5 5 0 0 5 3 0 5 6 0 6 0 0 6 3 0 6 7 0 7 1 0 7 5 0 8 0 0 9 0 0 1 0 0 0 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLR-PC86* SLR-PC 86 S e a t 5 A J ) N o . T.E. (Mech.) (Part I) Examination, 2015 THEORY OF MACHINE II (New) Day and Date : Tuesday, 5-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Question 1 is compulsory which is objective type carries 20 marks. 2) Solve any 3 questions from Section I and Solve any 3 questions from Section II. 3) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 4) Assume suitable data wherever required and mention it. 5) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 6) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : (20×1=20) 1) The maximum length of arc of contact of two mating gears in order to avoid interference is a) (r + R) sin b) (r + R) cos c) (r + R) tan d) None of these 2) When circle rolls without slipping on outside of a fixed circle the curve traced by a point on circumference of circle is called as a) Hypocycloidal b) Involute c) Epicycloidal d) Cycloid 3) The difference between tooth space and tooth thickness measured along pitch circle is called as a) Pitch circle b) Circular pitch c) Tooth thickness d) Backlash 4) In an differential gear direction of first and last gear is a) Same b) Opposite c) Cant say d) Same or opposite 5) When input and output shaft rotate in same direction, input and output torque rotates in a) Same direction b) No relation c) Opposite direction d) Perpendicular direction 6) When the aeroplane is taking left turn, when viewed from tail end propeller is rotating in clockwise direction, its effect on it during pitching is a) No effect b) Tail will get lifted c) Nose will get lifted d) Nose will go down 7) A disc spinning at 20 rad/s will undergo precession when a torque 100 Nm is applied about an axis normal to it at an angular speed if the mass moment of inertia of disc is 1 kgm2 a) 2 rad/s b) 5 rad/s c) 10 rad/s d) 20 rad/s P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 86 -2- *SLR-PC86* 8) Gyroscopic effect occurs when a) Axis of spin and precession coinsides b) Axis of spin and pitch are perpendicular c) Axis of spin and axis of pitch are perpendicular d) Axis of spin and precession are perpendicular 9) In TMD area below mean resisting torque is a) Energy required b) Work done c) Energy absorbed d) Work required 10) Coefficient of fluctuation of energy is a) Fluctuation of energy/work done per cycle b) Fluctuation of energy/mean energy c) Fluctuation of speed/work done per cycle d) Max fluctuation of energy/work done per cycle 11) Secondary forces in reciprocating mass of engine are a) Of same frequency as of primary force b) Twice the frequency as of primary c) Four times frequency as of primary force d) None of the above = 90, value of Fp is 12) In V-engine balancing if 2 a) Ö2mr 2.sin2 /n b) mr 2/Ö2c)mr2 d) mr 2/2 13) Primary unbalanced force is maximum when angle of inclination of crank with line of stroke is a) 0 b) 90 c) 180 d) 0 and 180 14) In a spring mass system if the mass is halved and spring stiffness is doubled the natural frequency is a) doubled b) halved c) unchanged d) quadrupled 15) At certain speed revolving shafts tend to vibrate violently in transverse direction. The speed is known as a) Whirling speed b) Critical speed c) Whipping speed d) All of these 16) Deflection of cantilever shaft with UDL is a) = WI3/3 EI b) = WI3/48 EI c) = WI4/8 EI d) = 5 WI4/8 EI 17) Damping factor is a) Ratio of critical damping to damping coefficient of damping b) Ratio of coefficient of damping to critical damping c) Ratio of logarithmic decrement to critical damping d) Ratio of critical damping to logarithmic decrement 18) In transverse vibration, stresses induced are a) tensile and compressive b) bending c) shear d) all of above 19) Frequency of vibration at nodal point is a) Zero b) Maximum c) Minimum d) Unity 20) The equation of motion for a vibrating system with viscous damping is d2x/dt2 + c/m.dx/dt + s/mx = 0 If the roots of this equation are real, then the system will be a) Adequately damped b) Under damped c) Critically damped d) Over damped ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLR-PC86* -3- SLR-PC 86 S e a t N o . T.E. (Mech.) (Part I) Examination, 2015 THEORY OF MACHINE II (New) Day and Date : Tuesday, 5-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Solve any 3 questions from Section I and Solve any 3 questions from Section II. 2) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 3) Assume suitable data wherever required and mention it. SECTION I 2. a) Compare cycloidal and involute profile teeth. 4 b) The number of teeth on each of the two equal spur gear in mesh is 40. The teeth have 20° involute profile and the module is 6 mm. If the arc of contact is 1.75 times the circular pitch, find the addendum. 10 3. a) What is a gear train ? What are its main types ? 5 b) A single cylinder, single acting, four stroke gas engine develops 20 kW at 300 rpm. The workdone by the gases during the expansion stroke is three times the workdone on the gases during the compression stroke, the workdone during suction and exhaust stokes being negligible. If the total fluctuation of speed not to exceed 2 percent of the mean speed and the turning moment diagram during compression and expansion is assumed to be triangular in shape, find the moment of inertia of the flywheel. 8 4. a) Draw the turning moment diagram of a single cylinder double acting steam engine. 3 b) An epicyclic gear train, as shown in Fig. I has a sun wheel S of 30 teeth and two planet wheels p-p of 50 teeth. The planet wheels mesh with the internal teeth of a fixed annulus A. The driving shaft carrying the sunwheel transmits 4 kW at 300 r.p.m. The driven shaft is connected to an arm which carries the planet wheels. Determine the speed of the driven shaft and the torque transmitted, if the overall efficiency is 95%. 10 Fig. I 5. a) What do you understand by gyroscopic couple ? Derive a formula for its magnitude. 5 b) The turbine rotor of a ship has mass of 2.2 tonnes and rotates at 1800 rpm clockwise when viewed from the aft. The radius of gyration of rotor is 320 mm. Determine the gyroscopic couple and its effects when the i) Ship turns right at a radius of 250 m with a speed of 25 km/hr ii) Ship pitches with the bow rising at an angular velocity of 0.8 rad/s iii) Ship rolls at an angular velocity of 0.1 rad/s. 8 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal SLR-PC 86 www.downloadmela.com-4- *SLR-PC86* SECTION II 6. In a 4-cylinder in line reciprocating engine, the masses of the reciprocating parts per cylinder are 1 kg. The stroke is 12 cm. The length of the connecting rod is 22 cm. The cylinders are spaced at 12 cm pitch. If the cylinders are numbered from 1 to 4 from one end then in the end view, the cranks appear at successive intervals of 90° in the order 1, 4, 2, 3. Find with reference to the central plane of the engine, the maximum value of any primary and secondary out of balance effects when the engine is running at 2000 r.p.m. 13 7. a) A mass m is suspended from a spring system as shown in Fig. VII-a. Determine the natural frequency of the system. k1 = 5000 N/m, k2 = k3 = 8000 N/m and m = 25 kg. 6 K1 K2 K3 M x Fig. VII-a b) A shaft 50 mm diameter and 3 metres long is simply supported at the ends and carries three loads of 1000 N, 1500 N and 750 N at 1 m, 2 m and 2.5 m from the left support. Youngs modulus for shaft material is 200 GN/m2. Find the frequency of transverse vibration. 7 8. a) Discus the procedure for balancing of several masses rotating in different planes. 5 b) A flywheel is mounted on a vertical shaft as shown in Fig. VIII-b. The both ends of a shaft are fixed and its diameter is 50 mm. The flywheel has a mass of 500 kg and its radius of gyration is 0.5 m. Find the natural frequency of torsional vibrations, if the modulus of rigidity for the shaft material is 80 GN/m2. 8 l1 0.9 m l2 0.6 m Fig. VIII-b 9. a) Draw sketch of equivalent spring mass system for springs in parallel. 3 b) Derive and expression for natural frequency of undamped free vibrations of helical spring by energy method. 4 c) With help of graph explain magnification factor. 7 ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC87* SLR-PC – 87 Seat Set No. A T.E. Mechanical (Part – I) Examination, 2015 HEAT AND MASS TRANSFER (New) Day and Date : Wednesday, 6-5-2015 Total Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. 3) Out of remaining questions, attempt any two questions from each Section. 4) Assume suitable data if required. 5) Use of scientific calculator is allowed. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. 1) All of followings are units of thermal conductivity except (20×1=20) a) Kcal/m-hr°C b) KJ/m-hr-k c) w/mk d) cal/cms°C 2) Heat conduction in gases due to a) Motion of electrons b) Elastic impact of molecules c) Mixing motion of different layers of gas d) Electromagnetic waves 3) Indicate the metal with highest value of thermal conductivity a) Steel b) Silver c) Copper d) Saw dust 4) Which of the following forms of water have the highest value of thermal conductivity. a) Boiling water b) Steam c) Solid Ice d) Melting Ice 5) The temperature drop in a plane wall with uniformly distributed heat generation can be decreased by reducing a) Heat generation rate b) Thermal conductivity of wall material c) Wall thickness d) Convection coefficient at the surface 6) A satellite in space exchanges heat with surrounding essentially by a) Radiation b) Conduction c) Convection d) Conduction and convection 7) A fin produces from surface which is held at temperature higher than that of its environment. The heat transferred away from the fin is essentially valid for a) Heat escaping from the tip of the fin b) Heat conducting along the fin length c) Convection heat transfer from the fin surface d) None P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 87 -2- *SLRPC87* 8) For a finned surface, it is considered appropriate that area of cross section be a) Reduced along the length b) Increased along the length c) Maintained constant along the length d) None 9) Lumped parameter analysis for transient heat conduction is essentially valid for a) Bi < 0.1 b) 0.1 < Bi < 0.5 c) 1 < Bi < 10 d) Bi → ∞ 10) For grey surface a) Emissivity is constant b) Absorptivity equals to reflectivity c) Emissivity equal transmitivity d) Reflectivity equals emissivity 11) The law governing the distribution of radiant energy over wavelength for a black body at fixed temperature is referred as a) Plank’s law b) Wien’s law c) Kirchhoff’s law d) Lambert law 12) Absorptivity of a body is equal is equal to its emissivity a) For a polished body b) Under thermal equilibrium condition c) At one particular temperature d) At shorter wavelength 13) The free convection heat transfer is significantly offered by a) Reynolds number b) Grashoff number c) Prandtl number d) Stanton number 14) The value of Prandtl number for air is about a) 0.1 b) 0.4 c) 0.7 d) 1.1 15) Drop wise condensation usually occurs in a) Oily surface b) Smooth surface c) Glazed Surface d) Coated Surface 16) The steam condenser in a thermal power plant is a heat exchanger of type a) Direct contact b) Regenerator c) Recuperater d) None of these 17) The normal automobile radiator is a heat exchanger of type a) Parallel flow b) Counter flow c) Direct flow d) Cross flow 18) In a balanced counter flow heat exchanger with mhch = mccc, the NTU is equal to unity. What is effectiveness of heat exchanger ? a) 0.5 b) 1.5 c) 0.33 d) 0.2 19) In a heat exchanger, LMTD means a) Log mean temperature difference b) Long mass temperature difference c) Least mean temperature difference d) None 20) In a heat exchanger, hot fluid enters at 180°C and leaves at 160°C. The cooling fluid enters at 30°C leaves at 110°C. The capacity ratio of heat exchanger is a) 0.25 b) 0.2 c) 12.5 d) 0.33 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC87* -3- SLR-PC – 87 Seat No. T.E. Mechanical (Part – I) Examination, 2015 HEAT AND MASS TRANSFER (New) Day and Date : Wednesday, 6-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Attempt any two questions from each Section. 2) Assume suitable data if required. 3) Use of scientific calculator is allowed. SECTION – I 2. A) A furnace wall comprises of three layers. 15 cm thick inside layer of fire brick (K = 1.2 w/mk), 7.5 cm thick middle layer of insulating brick (K = 0.15 w/mk) and 10 cm thick outside layer of red brick (k = 1 w/mk). Inside and outside temperature of furnace wall are 840° C and 40° C respectively. Find the rate of heat loss from the furnace and the interface temperature. The size of furnace is 5m × 2m. 7 B) Derive the critical radius of a cylinder. 6 C) A chemical reactor is made of two co-axial cylinders having radii 1.5 cm and 1.7 cm respectively. The annular gap between two cylinders is filled with packed bed in which the chemical reaction is taking place at constant pressure. The reaction releases heat 600000 w/m3 through the reactor. The entire inner wall is at a uniform temperature 600° C and no heat transfer takes place from this surface. The thermal conductivity of packed bed is 0.6 w/mk. Calculate the temperature of the outer wall. Derive the formula used. 7 3. A) One end of long rod is placed into a furnace while the other end is projected into atmospheric air. Once the steady state condition is reached, the temperature of is measured at two points 7 cm apart and found to be 120° C and 85° C when the atmospheric temperature is at 20° C. Calculate the thermal conductivity of the rod if the diameter of rod is 2.5 cm in diameter and heat transfer coefficient h is 20 w/m2k. Assume the end of fin is insulated. 6 B) Using dimensional analysis, obtain the general form of equation for natural convection. 7 C) Derive three dimensional heat conduction in Cartesian co-ordinates. 7 4. A) Define Nusselt, Reynolds and Prandtl number and give their significance. 6 B) A vertical cylinder 1.5 m high and 180 mm in diameter is maintained at 100° C in an atmosphere of 20° C. Calculate heat loss by free convection from surface cylinder. Assume properties of air at mean temperature as ρ = 1.06 kg/m3, ν = 18.97 × 10–6 m2/s, Cp = 1.004 KJ/kg°C, k = 0.1042 KJ/mh-k. Use correlation Nu = 0.10 (Gr*.Pr)1/3. 7 C) Explain with neat sketch velocity boundary layer and thermal boundary layer. 7 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 87 -4- *SLRPC87* SECTION – II 5. a) Explain the following : i) Kirchoff’s law ii) Wein’s Law 6 b) Define Solid Angle and explain Lambert’s Cosine Rule. 7 c) Two parallel plates at temperatures 500°C and 150°C have emissivities 0.6 and 0.9 respectively. A radiation shield with emissivity 0.15 is placed between the plates. Calculate heat transfer by radiation per square meter with and without shield. (Take σ = 5.678 × 10–8 W/m2K4). 7 6. a) Explain the classification of Heat exchangers. 6 b) A parallel flow heat exchanger is required to cool 55000 kg/h of alcohol (Cp = 3810 J/kgK) from 66°C to 40°C using 40000 kg/h of water (Cp = 4187 J/kgK) entering at 5°C. If the overall heat transfer co-efficient is 450 W/m2K calculate : i) Exit temperature of water ii) Heat transfer rate iii) Surface area required. 7 c) Derive an expression for determining the effectiveness of parallel flow heat exchanger. 7 7. a) Define Condensation and explain its types. 6 b) Explain different modes of mass transfer and explain Fick’s law of diffusion. 7 c) Write a short note on Finite difference methods for solving conduction and convection problems. 7 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLR-PC-88* SLR-PC – 88 Seat Set No. A T.E. (Mech.) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 METALLURGY (New) Day and Date : Thursday, 7-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions :1)Draw neat sketches wherever necessary. 2) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and mention it clearly. 3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 Type – I : MCQ with more than one answer correct (2 marks each) : (2×5=10) 1. Which of the following points in the equilibrium diagram have zero degrees of freedom ? a) Eutectic point b) Eutectoid point c) Curie point d) Liquidus point 2. Which of the following have single phase structure ? a) Sn Bronze with 10% Sn b) Admiralty brass c) Naval Brass d) Cartridge brass 3. Which of the following treatments are related to gauges used in metrology ? a) Hardening and tempering b) Sub zero treatment c) Carburising d) Induction hardening 4. Which of the following properties are determined by impact test ? a) Behaviour of material under shock load b) Transition temperature c) True toughness of material d) Recrystalisation temperature P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 88 -2- *SLR-PC-88* 5. Which of the following HT processes give Martensite ? a) Austempering b) Martempering c) Hardening d) Patenting Type – II : MCQ with only one answer correct (1 mark each) : (1×10=10) 6. Which of the following constituent is observed as pro eutectic as well as proeutectoid constituent in Fe-Fe3C diagram ? a) Ferrite b) Austenite c) Delta iron d) Cementite 7. Which of the following is not a solid solution ? a) Alpha in Brass b) Gamma in steel c) Fe3C in steel d) Delta in steel 8. Which of the following cast iron has higher tensile test ? a) White iron b) Grey iron c) SG iron d) Motteled iron 9. Which of the following is two phase brass ? a) Cartridge brass b) Admiralty brass c) Naval Brass d) Low brass 10. Al-Si alloys are given ______treatment. a) Modification b) Solution c) Stabiling d) Malleabilizing 11. Magnetic particle test can be done on ______a) Brass b) Duralimin c) Bronze d) Plain carbon steel 12. Retained austenite can be completely transformed to martensite by ______a) Annealing b) Normalizing c) Martempering d) Sub zero treatment 13. L/D2 ratio is associate with ______test. a) Vicker’s test b) Micro hardness test c) Brinell test d) Rockwell test 14. Behaviour of material under constant load with respect to time is determined in ______test. a) Tensile test b) Fatigue test c) Creep test d) Hardness test 15. Powders of metal like Zn, Sn are manufactured by ______method. a) Atomisation b) Electrodeposition c) Reduction d) Condensation of metal vapours ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLR-PC-88* -3- SLR-PC – 88 Seat No. T.E. (Mech.) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 METALLURGY (New) Day and Date : Thursday, 7-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Attempt any three questions from Section I and any three questions from Section II. 2) Draw neat sketches wherever necessary. 3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and mention it clearly. SECTION – I 1. a) Draw Fe-Fe3C equilibrium diagram, lable all the temperatures and constituents. 6 b) Explain : i) Curie temperature ii) A1 temperature iii) A3 temperature. 3 c) Draw microstructures of 0.7% C steel and 0.9% C steel. 4 2. a) Compare between (any three) : i) SG iron and malleable iron ii) Brass Vs Bronze iii) Ferritic stainless steel Vs martensitic stainless steel iv) Substitutional solid solution vs interstitial solid solutions. 9 b) Inoculation treatment is given to Gray Cast Iron. Why ? 4 3. a) Give typical composition, properties and applications (any three) : i) Hadfield Mn steel ii) Invar steel iii) Hindalium iv) Naval Brass. 9 b) Explain classification of metallic materials. 4 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 88 -4- *SLR-PC-88* 4. Write notes on (any three) : a) Dispersion Hardened materials. 5 b) Al-Si Alloys. 4 c) Bronzes. 5 d) Maraging steel. 4 SECTION – II 5. a) Draw TTT diagram for eutectoid steel and show following heat treatments on it : i) Normalizing ii) Critical cooling rate iii) Annealing. 7 b) Explain the structural changes during different stages of Tempering in detail. 6 6. a) Differentiate clearly between (any 3) : i) Martempering - Hardening ii) Dye Penetrant Test - Magnetic Particle Test iii) Induction Hardening - Flame Hardening iv) Rockwell Hardness test- Brinell Hardness Test. 9 b) Explain the step by step procedure to manufacture friction material by powder metallurgy. 4 7. a) Explain the different methods of powder production in detail. 7 b) What is creep ? Explain the factors affecting creep phenomenon. 6 8. Write short note on (any 3) : a) Impact test and its significance. 5 b) Eddy current test. 4 c) Sub zero treatment and significance. 4 d) Cyniding and carbonitriding. 5 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC9* SLR-PC – 9 Seat No. Set A F.E. (Part – II) (New) (GPA) Examination, 2015 BASIC ELECTRONICS AND COMPUTER PROGRAMMING Day and Date : Tuesday, 19-5-2015 Max. Marks :70 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Figures to right indicate full marks. 2) Assume data if needed 3) All questions are compulsory. 4) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 15 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 15 Minutes Marks : 14 1. Choose correct alternative : (1×7=7) SECTION – I (Basic Electronics) 1) Thermister is a ______resister. a) linear b) non-linear c) active d) none of these 2) ‘β ’ is the current gain of ______configuration. a) CB b) CE c) CC d) None of these 3) In NTC, resistance ______with increase in temperature. a) decrease b) increase c) remains same d) none of these 4) A+AB = ______a) A b) B c) 1 d) 0 5) 2’s complement of 110001 is a) 110010 b) 001111 c) 110011 d) 101010 6) “Seebeck effect”is observed in a) RTD b) Thermocouple c) LDR d) Photodiode 7) Strain gauge is ______transducer. a) Active b) Passive c) Nonlinear d) None of these P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 9 -2- *SLRPC9* SECTION – II (Computer Programming) 8) The parameter in function definition are ______(1×7=7) a) actual parameter b) formal parameter c) dummy parameter d) optional parameter 9) The operator used to get value at address stored in the pointer variable is a) * b) & c) && d) II 10) Which of the following correctly declares array ? a) int anarray [10] b) int anarray c) int array {10} d) array anarray [10] 11) Which relational operator is used for comparison ? a) := b) = = c) equal d) = 12) An identifier in C cannot start with a) number b) an alphabet c) an underscore d) capital character 13) A character constant is written within a) double quotes b) single quotes c) option a and b d) none of above 14) int i = 4, ans; Ans = ++i + ++i + ++i; printf(“%d”, ans) ; What is the output of above code ? a) 21 b) 18 c) 15 d) none of above ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC9* -3- SLR-PC – 9 Seat No. F.E. (Part – II) (New) (GPA) Examination, 2015 BASIC ELECTRONICS AND COMPUTER PROGRAMMING Day and Date : Tuesday, 19-5-2015 Marks :56 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. SECTION – I (Basic Electronics) 2. Solve any four. (4×4= 16) a) Draw and explain V-I characteristics of p.n. junction diode. b) What is transducer ? What are its types ? Explain with suitable example. c) Substract the following using 2’s compliment method (110001)2 – (1111)2. d) What is Inductor ? Explain its types. e) Draw and explain full wave centre tap rectifier. 3. Solve any two : (2×6= 12) a) Define logic gate and explain basic gates and derived gates in detail. b) Explain strain guage as a transducer with its types and applications. c) Derive the ref. for Iavg and Vavg for Half wave rectifier and explain. What is filter and what are its types ? SECTION – II (Computer Programming ) 4. Attempt any four. (4×4=16) a) What is algorithm and flow chart ? Explain all symbols used in flow chart. b) Write a note on structure in C. c) Explain C tokens in details. d) Find the output and explain . # include < stdio .h> #include www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 9 -4- *SLRPC9* e) Find the output by correcting errors if any of following code ? main ( ) { int a = 1; b = 2; c = 3; a = b+ c b = c + a; c = a+b; printf (“%d%d%d”,a,b,c); } f) Explain break, continue and goto statement. 5. Attempt any two questions. (2×6=12) a) Explain operators with example. b) Write corrected program and find the output. #include ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC90* SLR-PC – 90 Seat No. Set A T.E. (Mechanical) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 FLUID MACHINERY AND FLUID POWER (Elective – I) (New) Day and Date : Friday, 8-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. MCQ/Objective question paper : 20 1 and 2 statements in Column I may have one or more matches with statements in Column II. (each question 3 marks). 1) Column – I Column – II a) Water turbine p) Priming b) Gas turbine q) Power producing device c) Centrifugal pump r) Francis turbine s) Joule’s cycle 2) Column – I Column – II a) Hydraulic system p) DCV b) Pneumatic system q) FRL c) Air brakes r) Automobile s) Meter in circuit Question 3 to 5 are multiple correct type questions (2 marks each). 3) Cavitations can take place in case of a) Pelton whel b) Francis turbine c) Reciprocating pump d) Centrifugal pump 4) Which if the following is/are normally closed valves ? a) Pressure reducing valve b) Sequence valve c) Pressure relief valve d) None of the above P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 90 -2- *SLRPC90* 5) Air motors a) Convert mechanical energy into fluid energy b) Convert fluid energy into mechanical energy c) Are damaged by overloading d) Are not damaged by overloading Q. No. 6 to 13 with single correct answers (1 mark each). 6) Water hammer effect causes a) Pitting of penstock internally and resulting in bursting of penstock b) Cavitations in centrifugal pump c) Priming d) Decreases thermal efficiency of turbine 7) Specific speed of water turbine is defined as a) The speed at which turbine produces 1 kW power at 1 meter head b) The speed at which pump lifts 1 m3 of water at 1 meter head c) The speed of turbine when turbine produces maximum power d) All of the above 8) Nozzles are used in a) Francis turbine b) Kaplan turbine c) Pelton wheel d) All of the above 9) Condition for maximum efficiency of hydraulic machine a) Final velocity of the water should be minimum b) Vane angle at outlet should be minimum c) Whirl velocity at outlet should be maximum d) All of the above 10) Thermal efficiency of the gas turbine can be improved by a) Inter cooling b) Re-heating c) Re-generation d) All of the above 11) Seals are used a) To avoid leakage of fluid from system b) To avoid entry of high pressurized air into system c) To avoid accidents d) To increase efficiency 12) Pressure rating (bar) for pipe material using a stainless steel is a) 250 b) 125 c) 200 d) 2500 – 4500 13) Air motors are ______efficient than electric motors. a) More b) Less c) Equally d) None of the above ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC90* -3- SLR-PC – 90 Seat No. T.E. (Mechanical) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 FLUID MACHINERY AND FLUID POWER (Elective – I) (New) Day and Date : Friday, 8-5-2015 Max. Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Question No. 2 and 5 are compulsory. 2) Solve any one question from each Section out of the remaining questions. 3) Draw neat sketches wherever necessary. 4) Use of non-programmable calculators is permitted. SECTION – I 2. Attempt any five of the following : (5×4=20) a) Derive Euler’s equation of workdone for turbine. b) Explain construction and working of vertex chamber in centrifugal pump. c) What are the different methods for improving thermal efficiency of open cycle gas turbine ? Explain any one of them. d) Derive an equation for maximum hydraulic efficiency of a Pelton Wheel. e) Explain NPSH in centrifugal pump. f) What is draft tube ? Explain its types. g) Compare impulse and reaction water turbines. 3. a) Derive an expression for minimum starting speed for a centrifugal pump. 6 b) The three jet pelton turbine is required to generate 10,000 KW under a net head of 400 m. The blade angle at outlet is 15° and reduction in relative velocity while passing over the blade is 15%. If the overall efficiency of the wheel is 80%, Cv = 0.98 and speed ratio is 0.46, find : i) The diameter of jet ii) Total flow rate iii) The force exerted by jet on the buckets. 7 c) Explain with neat sketch a closed cycle gas turbine plant. What are the merits and demerits of it ? 7 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 90 -4- *SLRPC90* 4. a) An inward-flow reaction turbine has a rotational speed of 360 rpm. The runner vanes are radial at inlet and the inner diameter is half the outer diameter. The velocity of flow is constant through the runner at 2 m/s. Water enters the runner at an angle of 11° – 19' to the wheel tangent at inlet. The width of the runner at inlet is 75 mm and 5% of area of flow is blocked by the vanes at inlet. Calculate : i) The inlet and outlet diameter of the runner. ii) The head acting on the wheel. iii) The wheel vane angle at outlet. iv) The hydraulic efficiency. 8 b) A four stage centrifugal pump has four impellers keyed to the same shaft. The shaft is running at 400 rpm and the total manometric head developed by the multistage pump is 40 m. The discharge through the pump is 0.2 m3/s. The vanes of each impeller are having outlet angle as 45°. If the width and diameter of each impeller at outlet is 5 cm and 60 cm respectively, find the manometric efficiency. 7 c) Explain construction and working of Francis Turbine. 5 SECTION – II 5. Attempt any five of the following : (5×4=20) a) Draw symbol for sequence hydraulic valve and speed control pneumatic valve with integral check. b) Explain piping layout in case of pneumatic system. c) List any four types of compressors with applications. d) Explain construction and working of 2/2 pneumatic direction control valve. e) Explain with application, materials used for seals. f) Explain non-return type flow control valve. g) Draw meter in circuit in speed control. 6. a) Draw a neat sketch of hydraulic and pneumatic clamping system. 7 b) Draw a neat block diagram of pneumatic system with its elements. 6 c) Explain pneumatic brake system in automobiles. 7 7. a) What is intensifier and explain different types of intensifier ? 6 b) Explain with sketch twin pressure valve in pneumatics. 7 c) Define actuator. Explain with neat sketch and symbol tandem cylinder. 7 Set A ______ www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC91* SLR-PC – 91 Seat No. Set A T.E. (Mech.) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 MATERIAL HANDLING SYSTEM (New) (Elective – I) Day and Date : Friday, 8-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Objective questions : (20×1) 1) The handling of a quantity designed to be treated as a single mass ______a) Unit load b) Unit mass c) Unit wt. d) None of these 2) ______conveyors vibrates at a lower frequency and larger amplitude in order to conveys larger objects. a) Screw conveyors b) Magnetic conveyors c) Oscillating conveyors d) None of these 3) ______cranes enables three dimension handing. a) Jib crane b) Gantry crane c) Stacker crane d) Bridge crane 4) In AGV, (automated guided vehicle) systems ______guide path on the floor used for guidance. a) Variable b) Physical c) Circular d) None of these 5) Interlocks be available in the controls of ______, so that worker can safely service the area. a) Electrical safety b) Robotics safety c) Chemical safety d) Radiation safety 6) The material handling equation consists of the material characteristics, the move requirement and ______a) The method capabilities b) Human capacity c) Load d) Gravity 7) “OSHA” stands for ______a) Occupational Safety and Human Administration b) Occupational Safety and Health Administration c) Occupational Safety and House Administration d) None of these P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 91 -2- *SLRPC91* 8) The equipment used to move material from one location to another is called as ______equipment. a) Positioning b) Transport c) Storage d) AGV 9) Flat belt conveyor is used for transporting ______and ______weight loads. a) Heavy and Bulky b) Light and Heavy c) Light and Medium d) Medium and Bulky 10) Storage equipments are used for ______material over a period of time. a) Catching b) Holding c) Hanging d) None of these 11) Loads are supported by arms in ______rack. a) Sliding b) Push-back c) Drive in d) Cantilever 12) As the distance or time factor increases, the cost per unit of product handled ______a) Increases b) Decreases c) Same d) None of these 13) There are three basic characteristics of material handling, picking up the load, transporting the load and ______a) Catching the load b) Rush the load c) Setting the load down d) Up the load 14) The objectives of material handling system are ______a) Improve production operations b) Max. space utilization c) Reduce the scrap d) None of these 15) A good plant layout ensures ______a) Maxi. material handling b) Min. material handling c) Machine handling d) None of these 16) Procedure chart gives the information about ______a) Inventory b) Inspection c) Communication d) Material requirement 17) Conveyors are used to move the material ______between specific points. a) Frequently b) Continuously c) After long time gap d) Rarely 18) From to chart gives the information about ______a) Density of moves between depts. b) Equipment c) Selection procedure d) None of these 19) Symbol ‘O’ represents for a) Operation b) Store c) Inspection d) Movement 20) If the degree of mechanization is increased to a high level, the total of the capital investment will ______the unit cost. a) Low b) Raise c) Medium d) No effect ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC91* -3- SLR-PC – 91 Seat No. T.E. (Mech.) (Part – I) Examination, 2015 MATERIAL HANDLING SYSTEM (New) (Elective – I) Day and Date : Friday, 8-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. SECTION – I Solve any two questions : 2. a) Describe material handling and plant layout. 7 b) Describe with figure any four types of mobile equipments. 7 c) Explain with figure any three types of cranes. 6 3. a) Explain with fig. roller conveyor, chain conveyor and flat belt conveyor. 7 b) Define material handling system and explain its objective and benefits. 7 c) Explain with fig. any three storing equipments. 6 4. Write a short notes (any three) : a) Palletization and containerization. 7 b) Automated guided vehicles. 6 c) Mobile equipments. 7 d) Compare CIMS and conventional material handling system. 6 SECTION – II Solve any two questions : 5. a) Describe diff. activities at the receiving function to improve the efficiency. 7 b) Describe with figure material handling equation. 7 c) Explain general procedure for selection of equipments. 6 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 91 -4- *SLRPC91* 6. a) Explain with figure from to chart. 7 b) Explain in brief material handling safety and training. 7 c) Explain with fig. process chart. 6 7. Write a short notes (any three) : a) Flow diagram. 6 b) Selection of material handling in sugar industry. 6 c) Procedure chart. 7 d) Degree of mechanization. 7 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC92* SLR-PC 92 S e a t 5 A J ) N o . T.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015 MACHINE DESIGN I Day and Date : Saturday, 9-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : i) Answer any two questions from each Section. ii) Figures to the right indicate full marks. iii) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly. iv) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. v) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. Objective Question Paper Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Objective Type Questions : 4 A) Match the following : Column I Column II a) Riveted Joint p) Pin b) Welded Joint q) Strap c) Bolted Joint r) Lock washer d) Knuckle Joint s) Fillet t) Bush B) Match the following : 4 Column I Column II (Mechanical property) (Measured in terms of) a) Strength (Fluctuating Load) p) Percentage elongation b) Toughness q) Modulus of elasticity c) Stiffness r) Endurance limit d) Ductility s) Impact strength t) Shear Modulus P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 92 -2- *SLRPC92* C) Multiple correct answers : (4×2=8) 1) A splined shaft is used for a) transmitting power b) holding a flywheel rigidly in position c) moving axially the gear wheels mounted on it d) mounting V-belt pulleys on it 2) A cotter joint is used to transmit a) Axial tensile load b) Axial compressive load c) Bending load d) All of these 3) In a 9 × 15 wire rope a) 6 is diameter of wire rope in mm b) 6 is the number of strands in wire c) 20 is number of wires in each strand d) 20 is gauge number of wire 4) If d = wire diameter of spring (mm) Di = inside diameter of spring coil (mm) Do = outside diameter of spring coil (mm) The mean coil diameter (D) of the spring is given by a) (Di + Do)/2 b) Do 2d c) Di + 2d d) Do d D) Single answer correct : (4×1=4) 1) Stress concentration in static loading is more serious in a) ductile materials b) brittle materials c) equally serious in both cases d) depends on other factors 2) The shearing area of a key of length L, breadth b and depth h is equal to a) b × h b) L × h c) L × b d) L × (h/2) 3) A pulley and belt in a belt drive form a a) cylindrical pair b) turning pair c) rolling pair d) sliding pair 4) The bolts in a rigid flanged coupling connecting two shafts transmitting power are subjected to a) Shear force and bending moment b) Axial force c) Torsion and bending moment d) Torsion ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC92* -3- SLR-PC 92 S e a t N o . T.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015 MACHINE DESIGN I Day and Date : Saturday, 9-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Instructions : i) Answer any two questions from each Section. ii) Figures to the right indicate full marks. iii) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly. SECTION I 2. a) Explain the IS coding of steels based on chemical composition. 5 b) Explain general design procedure for a machine component. 5 c) Design a knuckle joint to withstand a load of 100 kN. All the parts of the joint are made of the same material with MPa and MPa. $ " & ! $ K J K ? K Use factor of safety of 6 on ultimate strength. 10 3. a) Design and select suitable V belt to connect electric motor of 4 kW @ 1440 RPM to pulley of compressor at 480 RPM running 8 hours/day. Centre distance between motor and compressor is 1 meter. Use data sheet supplied with question paper. 10 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 92 -4- *SLRPC92* b) Fig. shows the rocker arm for operating an inlet valve of an I.C. engine. A force of 1200 N acts through the pin at C. The rocker arm is pivoted to the pin at B and subjected to the spring force at the end A. Design (i) the rocker arm (Rectangular form-Depth = 3 x width) and ii) the pin at B. 10 Assume, length of pin = diameter of pin The rocker arm and pin are made of the same material with permissible MPa and MPa. Allowable bearing pressure on the pin may be & $ J taken as 40 MPa. 4. a) Explain design of components subjected to completely reversed stresses. 5 b) Define stress concentration factor, its impact on design and state methods of reducing it. 5 c) Steel shaft having ultimate strength 600 N/mm2 and yield strength 350 N/mm2 undergoes fluctuating torque 150 to 450 Nm. If factor of safety is 3, find shaft diameter. Assume surface finish factor 0.8, size factor 0.85, reliability factor 0.897. Use distortion energy theory of failure. 10 SECTION II 5. a) What are the various design considerations for machining ? 5 b) Explain the design of splined shaft and state the applications in machines. 5 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC92* -5- SLR-PC 92 c) Design a bushed-pin type flexible coupling for connecting a motor shaft to a pump shaft for the following service conditions : Power to be transmitted = 38 kW Speed of the motor shaft = 980 rpm Diameter of the motor shaft = 50 mm Diameter of the pump shaft = 45 mm The bearing pressure in the rubber bush and allowable stress in the pins are to be limited to 0.45 N/mm2 and 25 MPa respectively. 10 6. a) What are the different types of spring ? Explain significance of Wahls factor in design of helical compression spring. 5 b) Describe the design consideration for forging. 5 c) A mechanism in printing machinery consists of a tension spring assembled with preload of 25 N. The wire diameter of spring is 2 mm with a spring index of 6. The spring has 18 active coils. The spring wire is hard drawn and oil tempered having the following properties. Design shear stress is 680 N/mm2 and modulus of rigidity is 80 kN/mm2. Determine : i) The initial torsional shear stress in the wire ii) Spring rate. iii) The force to cause the deflection of the spring. 10 7. a) Describe the design procedure of bolts subjected to eccentric loading when load is perpendicular to axis of bolts. 6 b) Explain procedure to design a woodruff key. Illustrate the considerations with neat sketch. 4 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 92 -6- *SLRPC92* c) A solid circular shaft, 25 mm in dia. is welded to a support by means of fillet weld as shown in fig. Determine leg dimension of weld if permissible shear stress is 95 N/mm2. 10 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC92* -7- SLR-PC 92 Design Power (KW) Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 92 -8- *SLRPC92* Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC92* -9- SLR-PC 92 ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC94* SLR-PC – 94 Seat Set No. A T.E. (Mech.) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 MACHINE DESIGN – II (OLD) Day and Date : Thursday, 14-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Objective type question is compulsory. 2) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 3) For objective questions, separate answer sheet is provided. 4) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. 5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 I. Match the pair : 5 List (i) List (ii) A) Helical gears P) Axes non parallel and non intersecting B) Spiral bevel gears Q) Axes parallel and teeth are inclined C) Hypoid gears R) Axes parallel and teeth are parallel D) Rack and Pinion S) Axes are perpendicular and intersecting E) Worm gears T) One of the gears is of infinite radius U) High speed reduction II. Multiple choice questions. (Two marks each). 8 A) Design of thick cylinders is based on a) Reynold’s equation b) Lame’s equation c) Clavarino’s equation d) Lewis equation B) Life of the deep groove ball bearing depends on a) Equivalent load b) Bore diameter c) Speed d) Dynamic Load capacity C) Objectives of optimum design are a) Minimization of Life b) Maximization of stresses c) Minimization of weight d) Maximization of life P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 94 -2- *SLRPC94* D) Wear strength of spur gear tooth depends upon a) Centre distance b) Lubrication c) Form factor d) Surface hardness III. Single correct answer type questions (carry one mark each). 7 A) According to IS 2825 : 1969 code for pressure vessels subjected to the toxic substances, the weld efficiency must be a) 50% b) 75% c) 85% d) 100% B) In which of the gear teeth slight variation in centre distance does not affect velocity ratio a) Cycloidal b) Hypoid c) Involute d) None of these C) When length of bearing is greater than the diameter of the journal it is called as a) Short bearing b) Long bearing c) Square bearing d) All of these D) Number of starts on the worm depends upon a) Speed of the worm b) Speed of the worm wheel c) Velocity reduction d) Number of teeth on the worm wheel E) The ball bearings are usually made of a) Low carbon steel b) Nickel chromium steel c) High carbon steel d) High speed steel F) The bevel factor is given as a) b/L b) b/2L c) 1– b/2L d) 1– b/L G) In case of thick cylinder subjected to the internal pressure, the max. radial stress will occur at a) Inner radius b) outer radius c) mean radius d) none of these ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC94* -3- SLR-PC – 94 Seat No. T.E. (Mech.) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 MACHINE DESIGN – II (Old) Day and Date : Thursday, 14-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Solve any two questions from each Section I and II. 2) Make necessary Assumption, if required and mention it clearly. 3) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 4) Make suitable assumptions, if required. SECTION – I 2. a) Define the following. 4 1) Beam strength of gear tooth 2) Wear strength of gear tooth b) A spur gear pair of 20° full depths involute is transmitting power from 20 teeth Pinion to 85 teeth gear. The pinion is made of steel 40 C 8 (Sut = 580 N/mm2) While the gear is made of grey cast iron FG 260. The pinion shaft is connected to 15 kW, 1440 rpm electric motor. The starting torque of motor is twice its rated torque. The face width of gear teeth is 12 times its module. The gears are to be machined to meet specifications of grade 10. 1) If the factor of safety against bending failure is 1.5, determine the module of the gear pair by using velocity factor. Select the first Preference Module. 2) Calculate the dynamic load bye Spott’s equation. Use Cv = 6/6 +v Y = 0.484 – 2.87/z For grade 10 e = 32 + 2.5 [m + 0.25√d ] microns 10 c) Derive the Lewis equation for beam strength of spur gear. State the assumptions made. 6 3. a) Derive the expression for formative number of teeth for helical gear. 4 b) Explain in brief Adequate and optimum design with suitable example. 6 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 94 -4- *SLRPC94* c) A pair of parallel helical gears consists of 20 teeth pinion meshing with a 100 teeth gear. The pinion rotates at 720 rpm. The normal pressure angle is 20 while the helix angle is 25. The normal module is 4 mm and the face width is 40 mm. Both the gears are made of steel (Sut = 600 N/mm2) and heat treated to 300 BHN. The service factor and the factor of safety are 1.5 and 2 respectively. Assume that the velocity factor accounts for the dynamic load and calculate the power transmitting capacity of gear pair. Assume form factor Y= 0.484 – 2.8 7/z’ Z’ = formative number of teeth Cv = 5.6 /(5.6+ v ) 10 4. a) Explain the type of pressure vessel support with help of neat sketches. 6 b) A pressure vessel subjected to an internal pressure of 0.75 N/mm2 consists of cylindrical shell of 2m inside diameter and 10 mm thick . A nozzle of inner diameter of 300 mm and wall thickness of 10 mm is provided in the shell. The corrosion allowance is 2 mm and weld joint is 85%. The extension of nozzle inside the shell is 15 mm. The allowable tensile stress is 140 N/mm2. A reinforcing pad of 10 mm thick is provided for opening. Determine the inner and outer diameter of pad. Draw a neat sketch of the opening and nozzle. 10 c) Write short on autofrettage. 4 SECTION – II 5. a) Draw the neat sketch of mating bevel gears and define the following terms. 5 i) Pitch angles ii) Cone distance iii) Backcone distance iv) Pitch circle diameter v) Face width of the gears. b) Derive the relationship for efficiency of the worm gear drive. 5 c) A pair of straight bevel gears consists of 30 teeth pinion meshing with 45 teeth gear, the module and face width are 6 mm and 50 mm resp. The pinion and the gears are made of steel (Sut = 600 N/mm2) with hardness of 400 BHN. Calculate the pitch angles, formative no. of teeth, beam strength and wear strength of pinion tooth. Take factor of safety 3 on Sut and and form factor based on formative number of teeth = 0.3767. 10 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC94* -5- SLR-PC – 94 6. a) A single-row deep groove ball bearing is subjected to a radial force of 8 kN and a thrust force of 3 kN. The value of X and Y factor are 0.56 and 1.5 respectively. The shaft rotates at 1200 rpm. The diameter of the shaft is 75 mm and Bearing No. 6315 (C = 112000 N) is elected of this application. i) Estimate the life of this bearing, with 90% reliability ii) Estimate the reliability for 20,000 hr life. 10 b) A worm gear box with an effective surface area of 1.5m2 is operating in still air with a heat transfer coefficient of 15 W/m2°C. The temperature is of the lubricating oil above the atmospheric temperature is limited to 50°C. The worm gears are designated as, 1/30/10/8 The worm shaft is rotating at 1440 rpm. The coefficient of friction is 0.024 and the normal pressure angle is 20°. Calculate the power transmitting capacity based on the thermal considerations. 10 7. a) Define the following terms as applied to rolling contact bearings, 5 i) Static load rating ii) Dynamic load rating iii) Bearing life iv) Equivalent dynamic load. b) Give various guidelines for selecting a proper type of roller bearing for a given application. 5 c) A ball bearing, subjected to a radial load of 5 kN, is expected to have a life of 9000 hr at 1450 rpm with a reliability of 97%. Calculate the dynamic load capacity of the bearing, so that it can be elected from the manufacturer’s catalogue based on a reliability of 90%. 10 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC95* SLR-PC – 95 Seat Set No. A T.E. (Mech.) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 TOOL ENGG. (Old) Day and Date : Saturday, 16-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m. N.B. : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer book Page No. 3. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. A) Single correct answer type questions. (7×2=14) 1) Springback effect phenomena is associated with a) Drawing b) Bending c) Cutting d) Forming 2) Trunnion is the word related with a) jigs and fixture b) press tool c) single point tool d) multipoint tool 3) 3-2-1 principle of location is used for a) Circular products b) Flat products c) Irregular products d) All types of products 4) Slip bush is used for a) drill b) drill, ream c) drill, ream, tap d) boring 5) Discontinuous chip is formed during machining of a) cast iron b) mild steel c) aluminium d) tin P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 95 -2- *SLRPC95* 6) Draw ratio is represented by D − d a) D b) d d 2 2 D − d D2 − d2 c) d) d2 d 7) Ironing means a) Drawing b) Making equal thickness c) Piercing d) Forming B) Multiple choice correct type questions : (3×2=6) 1) Machinability index is determined with respect to following criteria. a) Tool life b) Surface finish c) M/C condition d) Operator 2) Selection of cutting fluid depends upon a) Speed b) Feed c) Material d) Environment 3) Which of the following are fixed cost ? a) Interest b) Depreciation c) Power charges d) Labor charges ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC95* -3- SLR-PC – 95 Seat No. T.E. (Mech.) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 TOOL ENGG. (Old) Day and Date : Saturday, 16-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m. N.B. : 1) Q. No. 2 and 6 are compulsory. Attempt any two from the remaining. 2) Assume suitable data whenever necessary. SECTION – I 2. Design press tool for the following component shown in fig. I and make the necessary calculations and draw two views. 20 t = 5 mm 2 Ts = 140 N\mm hole = 4 φ Fig. I OR 2. Design a draw die which is having a diameter of 20 mm and height of 60 mm, t = 0.8 mm inner radius 1.6 mm, UTS of 150 N/mm2. Make the necessary calculations and draw one view for the same. 20 3. a) Following data refers to the orthogonal cutting 6 Uncut chip thickness = 0.6 mm Chip thickness = 0.4 mm Cutting speed = 90 m/min Cutting force = 20 kg Feed force = 8 kg Rate angle = 10° Determine following : 1) Shear angle 2) Shear strain 3) Woul done in shear. b) Write a note on cutting fluid. 4 4. a) In turning operation it was observed that, tool life was 90 mins and 40 mins at cutting speed of 20 m/min and 80 m/min respectively. Find out tool life at 180 m/min under same conditions. 5 b) Discuss tool geometry of a single point cutting tool. 5 5. Write short notes on any two : 10 1) Principle which are commonly used fig. and fixture design. 2) Types of chip. 3) Redundency and how to avoid it ? Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 95 -4- *SLRPC95* SECTION – II 6. Design a jig for a component shown in fig. II (4 holes of φ5) 20 Fig. II OR 6. Design a milling fixture for a component shown in fig. III. 20 Fig. III 7. a) The initial cost of m/c A is 1,00,000/- and unit production cost Rs. 60/- each. For M/C B, initial cost is Rs. 3,20,000/- and unit cost of production is Rs. 12/- each calculate break even quantity and explain which machine will be economical for quantity km than break even point and mor than BEP ? 5 b) Different angles of single point cutting tool and its effect. Explain. 5 8. a) Discuss economic lot size in brief. 5 b) Discuss different elements of cost. 5 9. Write short notes on any two : 10 1) Stock strip layout 2) Shippers and stock stops 3) Clearance and its effect. ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC96* SLR-PC 96 S e a t 5 A J N o . ) T.E. (Mechanical) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015 HEAT AND MASS TRANSFER Day and Date : Tuesday, 19-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions :1)Assume suitable data if required. 2) Use of scientific calculator is allowed. 3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct alternative : 20 1) Thermal conductivity of solid metals ______with rise in temperature. a) Decreases b) Increases c) Remains same d) Unpredictable 2) The radial heat transfer rate through hollow cylinder increases as the ratio of outer radius to inner radius. a) Decreases b) Increases c) Constant d) None of the above 3) The temperature distribution for a plane wall, for a steady state heat flow and constant value of thermal conductivity is a) Logarithmic b) Linear c) Parabolic d) Any of the above 4) The overall heat transfer co-efficient is used in case of a) Conduction b) Radiation c) Convection d) Conduction and Convection 5) In a Lumped heat capacity analysis, the assumption is a) The conductivity of solid is infinite b) The temperature gradient in solid is negligible c) The conduction resistance is negligible d) All of the above 6) Fins are provided on surface to a) Increase temperature gradient b) Increase heat transfer co-efficient c) Increase heat transfer area d) All of the above 7) ______number is relevant in transient heat condition. a) Reynolds b) Fourier c) Grashoff b) Prandtl P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 96 -2- *SLRPC96* 8) Planck law is applicable to _____ radiations. a) Monochromatic b) Thermal c) Temperature d) None of the above 9) Gases have poor a) Transmissivity b) Absorptivity c) Reflectivity d) All of the above 10) At thermal equilibrium absorptivity is ______emissivity. a) Greater than b) Lesser than c) Equal to d) None of the above 11) Why are baffles provided in heat exchangers ? a) To reduce heat transfer rate b) To improve heat transfer rate c) To remove dirt d) To reduce vibrations 12) In which of following cases heat is transferred by all three modes viz., Conduction, Convection and Radiation ? a) Steam condenser b) Boiler c) Electric heater d) All of the above 13) Forced convection in a liquid bath is caused by a) Density difference caused due to temperature gradient b) Molecular energy interaction c) Flow of electrons in a random fashion d) Intense stirring by an external agency 14) Why are multipass heat exchangers used ? a) To obtain high heat transfer co-efficient b) To reduce the pressure drop c) To get the compact unit d) All of the above 15) ______number gives an indication of ratio of internal (conduction) resistance to surface (convection) resistance. a) Stanton b) Biot c) Nusselt d) Fourier 16) The velocity profile for fully developed flow in a tube is a) Hyperbolic b) Linear c) Parabolic d) Exponential 17) Dropwise condensation occurs on ______surface. a) Oily b) Smooth c) Glazed d) Coated 18) The unit of mass transfer co-efficient is a) m2/s b) W/m2 k c) m/s2 d) None of these 19) The characteristics length in case of vertical tube for natural convection is a) Diameter b) Perimeter c) Height d) Thickness 20) The convective heat transfer co-efficients for boiling and condensation usually lie in the range of a) 50-500 W/m2 K b) 200-2500 W/m2 K c) 300-5000 W/m2 K d) 2500-10000 W/m2K ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC96* -3- SLR-PC 96 S e a t N o . T.E. (Mechanical) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015 HEAT AND MASS TRANSFER Day and Date : Tuesday, 19-5-2015 Max. Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Attempt any two questions from each Section. 2) Assume suitable data if required. 3) Use of scientific calculator is allowed. SECTION I 2. a) Derive an expression for steady state one dimensional heat flow through a slab without heat generation. 7 b) Derive general heat conduction equation in Cartesian co-ordinate for isotropic materials. 7 c) An exterior wall of house may be approximated by a 100 mm layer of common brick (K = 0.7 W/mK), followed by a 40 mm layer of gypsum plaster (K = 0.48 W/mK). What thickness of loosely packed rockwool insulation (K = 0.065 W/mK) should be added to reduce heat loss through the wall by 75% ? Assume the inside air temperature to be 20° C while ambient temperature to be 35° C. Take heat transfer co-efficients on both sides of wall as 15 W/m2K. 6 3. a) Define f in effectiveness and fin efficiency. Explain the effect of Biot number on effectiveness of fins. 6 b) State the assumptions made in Lumped heat capacity analysis and derive an expression for temperature distribution for a body subjected to heating or cooling in terms of Biot and Fourier numbers. 7 c) An aluminium rod 2.5 cm in diameter and 10 cm long protrudes from a wall surface which is maintained at 250° C. The rod is exposed to an environment at 15° C. Convict heat transfer co-efficient is 15 W/m2K. Calculate heat lost by rod. Assume rod tip is insulated. Take K for aluminium = 200 W/mK. Also find fin efficiency and temperature at end of fin. 7 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 96 -4- *SLRPC96* 4. a) State and explain Weins law and derive it from Plancks Law. 7 b) Explain following terms : i) Solid angle ii) Kirchoffs law 6 c) Find the percentage reduction in heat transfer with a polished aluminium radiation shield with emissivity 0.05 when placed between two very large parallel plates with emissivities 0.5 and 0.3. 7 SECTION II 5. a) Explain with sketch thermal boundary layer over a flat plate. 6 b) A vertical cylinder 2 m high and 20 cm in diameter is maintained at 150° C in an atmosphere of 30° C. Calculate heat loss by free convection from surface of cylinder. 3 6 2 Take : = 1.06 kg/m = 18.97 × 10 m /s 1/3 Nu = 0.1 (Gr.Pr.) Cp = 1.004 kJ/kg K k = 0.02896 W/m-k 7 c) Explain with neat sketch boiling curve and its different regions. 7 6. a) Derive an expression for determining the effectiveness of counter flow heat exchanger. 7 b) A counter double pipe heat exchanger using superheated steam to heat the water. The water flow rate is 10500 kg/h. The steam enters heat exchanger at 180° C and leave at 130° C. The inlet an exit temperatures of water are 30° C and 80° C respectively. If overall heat transfer co-efficient is 814 W/m2K, calculate the heat transfer area. What would be the increase in area if fluid flows were parallel ? 7 c) Define Reynolds number, Prandtl number, Nusselt number, Grashoff number and explain their physical significance. 6 7. a) Explain different modes of mass transfer and explain Ficks law of diffusion. 7 b) Describe the method to obtain temperature distribution in case of a long rectangular thin bar using numerical method. 6 c) Air at 20°C is flowing over a vertical plate of dimensions 500 mm × 200 mm. The plate is maintained at 100° C. Find the heat loss from the plate if air is flowing with a velocity of 2 m/s. Assume 500 mm side to be vertical. The properties of air at (100 + 20)/2 = 60° C are = 18.97 × 106 m2/s k = 0.025 w/mK and Pr = 0.701. Use correlation Nu = 0.664 (Re)1/2 (Pr)1/3. 7 ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC97* SLR-PC – 97 Seat Set No. A T.E. (Mech.) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 AUTOMATIC CONTROL ENGINEERING (Old) Day and Date : Thursday, 21-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 Type 1. 1. Match the following Pairs : Column-I Column-II A) Closed loop system p) Force-current analog B) Open loop system q) Air-conditioner ∂M C) V r) No need of comparator ∂C D) Inverse Analog s) KAH t) KGi KH Type 2. 2) Linearization is suitable for systems with lower order of non-linearity. A) True B) False 3) Angle condition is used to check existence of a point on the root locus. A) True B) False 4) Partial Fraction expansion is used in series programming. A) True B) False 5) Inverse analog is obtained by comparing a series mech. system with a series electric circuit. A) True B) False Type 3. 6) Starting slope of magnitude-plot for a system with two zeros at the origin is, A) 20 db/decade B) –40 db/decade C) 40 db/decade D) –20 db/decade P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 97 -2- *SLRPC97* 7) A system will have two roots symmetrically placed about the origin if Routh’s array, A) has two sign changes in the first column B) has a row of all zero coefficients C) has all +ve terms in the first column D) has a column of all zero coefficients 8) Offset error is observed in case of, A) D-control B) I-control C) P+I+D control D) P- control 9) A root locus will have the branches terminating to infinity if, A) Z < P B) P < Z C) P = Z D) P = O 10) Closed loop T.F. for a system with negative feedback is given by, G(s) G(s) H(s) H(s) A) B) C) D) 1− G(s)H(s) 1+ G(s)H(s) 1+ G(s)H(s) 1G(s)H(s)− 11) Which of the following devices is suitable to get a huge force ? A) Hydraulic Amplifier B) D.C. Motor C) A.C. Motor D) Hydraulic Servomotor 12) In block diagram algebra, a circle indicates, A) multiplication B) integration C) addition or substraction D) differentiation 13) For a load line plot drawn for a system under steady state, the vertical spacing is given by, ∂M ∂U ∂V ∂U A) ∂ B) ∂ C) ∂ D) ∂M C U C M C M C 14) If P-Z = 2, then the angles of the asymptotes to root locus are, A) 45° & 315° B) 135° & 225° C) 180° & –180° D) 90° & 270° 15) Phase Cross over frequency is the frequency at which A) M = 0 B) φ = −180° C) G.M. = 0 D) P.M. = 0 + 16) For x G1 y we get, G2 A) y = x (G1 – G2) B) x = y (G1 – G2) C) y = x (G2 – G1) D) x = y (G2 – G1) 17) For a system on the verge of instability, A) G.M. is positive B) P.M. is positive Set A C) G.M. and P.M. are zero D) G.M. and P.M. are negative ______ www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC97* -3- SLR-PC – 97 Seat No. T.E. (Mech.) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 AUTOMATIC CONTROL ENGINEERING(Old) Day and Date : Thursday, 21-5-2015 Max. Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Answer any three questions from each Section. 2) Figures to the right indicate full marks. 3) Use of non- programmable calculator is allowed. 4) Assume additional suitable data if necessary and state it clearly. 5) Use University graph-papers and semi-log papers if required. SECTION – I 1. a) Fig. (1-a) shows on oven supplied with heat from an electric source. Rate of heat supplied is, Qs = KEs T1 E s T Fig. (1-a) − T T1 Rate at which heat is lost through the walls is, Q = . 7 RT QQ− Rate of change of temperature of the oven is, DT = s . CT Determine the equation for oven temperature T as a function of supply voltage Es and surrounding temperature T1. b) Explain series and parallel laws for mechanical systems and state equations to determine the resultant and mechanical impedance in each case. 6 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 97 -4- *SLRPC97* 2. a) Explain with suitable examples, open loop and closed loop control systems. Discuss their advantages and limitations. 8 b) Determine the linear approximation to calculate he volume V of a cylinder with height H and base radius R. If Ri = 10 and Hi = 20, determine the percentage error in volume due to this approximation when R = 11 and H = 19. 6 3. a) Reduce the block diagram shown in Fig. (3-a) and obtain C (S)/R (S). 7 R (s) C(s) G1 G2 H2 H1 Fig. (3-a) b) Explain working of a hydraulic servomotor and construct its block diagram. 66 4. a) Fig. (4-a) shows steady state operating curves for a unity feedback system. Determine various system constants and construct the block diagram of this system in the steady state. 8 V = 1000 1200 600 U = 500 M 800 800 400 600 400 C 800 1000 1200 Fig. (4-a) Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC97* -5- SLR-PC – 97 b) For an electric circuit as shown in fig. (4-b), determine the relation between voltages E1 and E2. 5 I R E E 2 1 L C Fig. (4-b) SECTION – II 5. a) Discuss advantages and disadvantages of P, I and D- control actions. 4 b) Sketch the root loci for the unity feedback system with transfer function. 10 K G(s) = s(s + 1)(s2 + 4s + 13) 6. a) Suppose the error shown in fig. is applied to a PD controller with Kp = 6 and KD = 0.4 sec. with P (O) = 25%. Draw the graph of the controller output. 7 e(t) (%) 4 0 t 2 4 t 7 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 97 -6- *SLRPC97* b) Determine the range of K for stability of a unity feedback control system whose open loop transfer function is 6 K G(s) = . s(s + 1)(s + 2) 7. a) Explain the concept of loot locus used in control system. 4 b) Draw the Bode diagram of unity feedback control system for open loop transfer function 8.64 G(s) = s(s + 1)(s + 10) Determine the Phase margin and gain margin. 9 8. a) The speed of an automobile which is being controlled by the cruise control is described by the differential equation 7 2(D + 5) y(t) = f(t) (D + 2)(D + 3)(D + 4) Represent the above system by state space representation. Using parallel program, draw block diagram. b) What are various ‘important factors’ in the system equation considered to draw ‘Bode-plots’ ? Explain Bode-plots for the poles at the origin. 6 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC98* SLR-PC – 98 Seat Set No. A T.E. (Mechanical Engineering) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 CAD/CAM (Old) Day and Date : Saturday, 23-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Note : 1) Attempt any three questions from Section – I. 2) Q. No. 6 is compulsory from Section – II and solve any two from remaining questions. 3) Draw meaningful sketches wherever necessary with pencil only. 4) Figures to right indicate full marks. 5) Make suitable assumptions, if required and state them clearly. 6) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark. 7) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 1. Choose the correct answer : (20×1=20) 1) Following is the CAM software A) .ANSYS B) NASTRAN C) .DELMIA D) SOLID EDGE 2) Pro-MACHINICA is A) Application software B) Operating software C) Networking software D) None of the above 3) Geometric modeling corresponds to A) Synthesis phase of CAD B) Analysis phase of CAD C) Synthesis and analysis phase of CAD D) None of the above 4) ______is a Display Device. A) Printer B) CRT C) DVD D) Plotter 5) Shearing in X direction is (with usual notations) A) Y’ = Xshy + Y, X’ = X B) X’ = X + YShx, Y’ = Y C) Y’ = X + Yshy, X’ = X D) X’ = Xshy + Y, Y’ = Y 6) Creation, analysis, modification and optimization is A) CIM B) CAD C) CAM D) CAD/CAM 7) Modelling means A) 2D to 3D B) 3D to 2D C) 2 1/2 D D) All of the above P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 98 -2- *SLRPC98* 8) Commercial CAD software package available for kinematics analysis and virtual prototyping A) CATIA V5 B) Hypermesh C) ADAMS D) Master Cam 9) Moving coordinate system by holding the object stationary is A) Geometric transformation B) Coordinate transformations C) Object transformation D) None of the above 10) Reflection about X axis is A) Y flips B) X flips C) X-Y flips D) None of the above 11) The preparatory code used for absolute programming is A) G90 B) G91 C) G92 D) G93 12) The M08 Code is for A) Coolant OFF B) Coolant ON C) Clamps ON D) Clamps OFF 13) NC machines used for drilling, boring, reaming, tapping is A) Contouring type B) Straight cut C) Point to point D) None of the above 14) DC servo motors are used as drive motors in A) Open loop control B) Closed loop control C) Both A) and B) D) None of the above 15) The machine zero on lathe is generally set on the machine at A) Top right side B) Top left side C) At top mid position D) None of the above 16) Machining centre used for machining heavier work pieces with large metal removal rate is A) VMC B) HMC C) Both A) and B) D) None 17) In tool selection function T1504 the value 04 shows A) Tool number B) Tool position in magazine C) Offset register D) All of the above 18) Part program is combinations of number of A) Programs B) Blocks C) NC words D) None 19) A system in which machine coded programs are introduced in to the CNC controller from a remote computer A) NC B) CNC C) FMS D) DNC 20) Following machine is a powerful tool for geometric dimension and tolerance inspection for quality control A) CMM B) NC C) CNC D) DNC ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC98* -3- SLR-PC – 98 Seat No. T.E. (Mechanical Engineering) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 CAD/CAM (Old) Day and Date : Saturday, 23-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Note : 1) Attempt any three questions from Section – I. 2) Q. No. 6 is compulsory from Section – II and solve any two from remaining questions. 3) Draw meaningful sketches wherever necessary with pencil only. 4) Figures to right indicate full marks. 5) Make suitable assumptions, if required and state them clearly. SECTION – I 2. a) Explain the stages of CAD/CAM development. 7 b) Explain various functions of Graphics package. 6 3. a) Explain why automobile industries require CAD/CAM software for remaining competitive. 7 b) Explain the concept of machine cell. 6 4. a) Explain how Group Technology is beneficial in Production Planning and Control. 6 b) Differentiate between Wireframe and Surface models. 6 5. Write notes on any three : 14 a) Bezier curves b) GKS and IGES c) Automation d) FMS. Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 98 -4- *SLRPC98* SECTION – II 6. a) With reference to the component drawing given below, prepare CNC part program using G and M codes. Prepare : 1) Sequence of operations 2) Process sheet. Assume suitable job zero/Machine zero/Home position of tool etc. and state it clearly. Given : Work material : Mild steel Tool Material : HSS Work piece size : φ 60 × 100 Spindle speed – 200 rpm Feed rate –400 mm/min. All dimensions are in mm. 10 b) Enlist and explain any four M Codes. 4 7. a) Describe EIA standards of parameter of Punched Tape with neat sketch. 4 b) Explain Subroutines and DO Loop in Part Programming. 5 c) Compare CNC and DNC Machine Tools. 4 8. a) What are the basic components of an NC system ? Explain with neat sketch. 7 b) Explain tool length and cutter radius compensation in part programming. 6 9. Write short note on the following (any 4) : 14 a) Procedure associated with NC part programming b) ATC in CNC Tooling c) Drives used for table movement in a NC/CNC d) F-word and S-word in programming e) Part Programming formats. ______Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC99* SLR-PC – 99 Seat No. Set A T.E. (Mechanical) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 METROLOGY AND MECHANICAL MEASUREMENTS (New) Day and Date : Thursday, 14-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. 2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page. PART – A MCQ/Objective Type Questions Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20 Objective type questions Type 1 : Matrix Match type : (One mark each) i) Column I Column II A) Plug gauge p) To measure thickness of clearance B) Gear tooth vernier q) Inspecting the holes C) Feeler gauge r) Gear tooth thickness s) bore checking ii) Column I Column II A) Temperature measurement p) Thermometer B) Flow measurement q) Strain gauge C) Force measurement r) Thermistor s) Rotameter Type 2 : Assertion and Reasoning type ( Two Marks) iii) Statement 1 : Mechanical Comparator is sensing device. Statement 2 : It has many moving parts. OR iv) Statement 1 : Pressure below 1-mm of Hg can be measured with McLeod gauge. Statement 2 : The gas in McLeod gauge should obey the Boyle’s law over required range of compression. P.T.O. www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 99 -2- *SLRPC99* Type 3 : Multiple correct answer type : (Two marks each) v) Following standards can be classified as end standards A) Length bar B) Micrometre C) Light wave standard D) All of above vi) Which of the following is not angle measuring device ? A) Angle plate B) Sine bar C) Bevel protector D) Angle gauge vii) The uncertainty in the measurement is expressed in terms of A) Correction B) Precision C) Accuracy D) Error viii) In a rotameter the flow rate is indicated by A) Force balance on float B) Position of float C) Direction of flow D) Colour change Type 4 : Straight objective Type : (One mark each) ix) F.D. for H type of hole is A) – ve B) + ve C) Zero D) One x) The least count of metric vernier caliper having 25 vernier scale divisions matching with 24 main scale divisions of 0.5 mm each is A) 0.05 mm B) 0.01 mm C) 0.02 mm D) 0.001 mm xi) The dead weight pressure tester is used for A) Producing high pressure B) Accurate measurement of load C) Calibrating pressure measuring instrument D) Testing the magnitude of given weight xii) The average speed measurement is given by A) Centrifugal tachometer B) Drag cup tachometer C) Revolution counter D) Stroboscope ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com *SLRPC99* -3- SLR-PC – 99 Seat No. T.E. (Mechanical) (Part – II) Examination, 2015 METROLOGY AND MECHANICAL MEASUREMENTS (New) Day and Date : Thursday, 14-5-2015 Marks : 80 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m. PART – B Instructions : 1) Question No. 2, and 7 are compulsory. 2) Answer any two questions from remaining question of each Section. 3) Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed. 4) Answer briefly and to the point preferably using simple sketches. 5) Figures to the right indicate full marks. SECTION – I 2. A) State Wavelength standard and Compare it with material standards. 5 B) Design Go gauge to check the H type hole of diameter 25 mm and having Unilateral tolerance of 0.06 mm. Assume any data if necessary and state it. 5 C) Select the angle gauges for constructing an angle of magnitude 110°30’ 12’’. Draw sketch. 5 D) Describe basic elements of screw thread measurment. 5 3. Define and explain the following terms. Fundamental Deviation, Unilateral tolerance, Transition fit, Interchangeability, Gauge tolerance. 10 4. A) Draw the sketch of Sigma comparator illustrating its working. Name the parts. Write the magnification formula. 5 B) Explain wortking of thread micrometre. 5 5. A) Write the expressions for measurment of gear tooth thickness with the following methods : Measurment at pitch diameter, Measurement at constant chord. 5 B) Explain the working of clinometer. 5 6. A) Describe normal and special M 45 and M 87 sets of slip gauges. Compare them. 5 B) Explain the principle of micrometre screw gauge. What is the least count of floating carriage micrometre ? 5 Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 99 -4- *SLRPC99* SECTION – II 7. A) Explain the meaning of Sensitivity, Linearity and Hysteresis. 5 B) Explain working of Pirani gauge. 5 C) Explain principle of working of water meter. 5 D) Draw the sketch of setup for measurement of strain using cantilever beam sensing element and full bridge circuit diagram. 5 8. Identify and explain various basic functional elements in Bourdon tube pressure gauge in the form of different stages of the generalised measurement system. 10 9. A) Explain the law of intermediate metal in case of thermocouple. What is the application of this law ? 5 B) Compare null and deflection mode of bridge circuit in case of strain measurement. 5 10. A) Explain the principle of electric stroboscope. 5 B) Describe working of Gas flow meter. 5 11. A) Write a short note on hydraulic load cell. 5 B) Explain the working of diaphragm gauge. 5 ______ Set A www.downloadmela.com - World's number one free educational download portal