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Imagerunners 8860450330 Online Prelims Thematic TEST - 10 ( InsightsIAS Mock Test Series for UPSC Preliminary Exam 2020 ) 1 ‘RNA interference (RNAi)’ technology is being used to suppress desired genes. Which of the following is/are examples of such an application? 1. Decaffeinated Coffee 2. Nicotine free tobacco 3. Hypoallergenic crops Select the correct answer using the code given below. A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 C. 1 and 3 D. 1, 2 and 3 Your Answer : Correct Answer : D Answer Justification : Justification: RNA interference (RNAi) is a biological process in which RNA molecules inhibit gene expression or translation. Since the discovery of RNAi and its regulatory potentials, it has become evident that RNAi has immense potential in suppression of desired genes (gene silencing). Numerous studies have demonstrated that RNAi can provide a more specific approach to inhibit tumor growth by targeting cancer-related genes (i.e., oncogene). RNAi has resulted in the invention of novel crops such as nicotine-free tobacco, decaffeinated coffee, nutrient fortified vegetation, and hypoallergenic crops (allergen free crops). The genetically-engineered Arctic apples received FDA approval in 2015. While it was known that plants expressing virus-specific proteins showed enhanced tolerance or resistance to viral infection, it was not expected that plants carrying only short, non-coding regions of viralIMAGERUNNERS RNA sequences would 8860450330show similar levels of protection. Researchers believed that viral RNA produced by transgenes could also inhibit viral replication. The reverse experiment, in which short sequences of plant genes were introduced into viruses, showed that the targeted gene was suppressed in an infected plant. This phenomenon was labeled “virus-induced gene silencing” (VIGS), and the set of such phenomena were collectively called post transcriptional gene silencing. See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/RNA_interference Q Source: AR: UPSC CSP 2019 2 Consider the following statements: 1. The United Nations Convention against Corruption is the only legally binding international anti- corruption multilateral treaty. 2. The Indian Government has ratified the United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC). prelims.insightsonindia.com 1 © Insights Active Learning | All rights reserved - 133617. You may not reproduce, distribute or exploit the contents in any form without written permission by copyright owner. Copyright infringers may face civil and criminal liability Online Prelims Thematic TEST - 10 ( InsightsIAS Mock Test Series for UPSC Preliminary Exam 2020 ) 3. The Protocol against the Illicit Manufacturing of and Trafficking in Firearms, their Parts and Components and Ammunition is a protocol under UNCAC. 4. No south Asian country has so far ratified United Nations Convention against Transnational Organised Crime (UNTOC). Which of the statements given above are correct? A. 1 and 4 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Your Answer : Correct Answer : B Answer Justification : Justification: The United Nations Convention against Corruption is the only legally binding international anti-corruption multilateral treaty. In May 2011, the Indian Government ratified two UN Conventions - the United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) and the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organised Crime (UNTOC) and its three protocols. Having ratified both Conventions, India became the fourth South Asian country after Afghanistan, Pakistan and Sri Lanka to ratify the UNTOC while joining Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka in ratifying the UNCAC. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its Member States to assist in the implementation of both Conventions, which along with the UN Drug Conventions of 1961, 1971 and 1988 underpin all the operational work of UNODC. The UNTOC is further supplemented by three Protocols, which target specific forms of organized crime: IMAGERUNNERS 8860450330 1) The Protocol to Prevent, Suppress and Punish Trafficking in Persons, Especially Women and Children, provides an agreed upon definition of trafficking in persons. It aims at comprehensively addressing trafficking in persons through the so-called three P's - Prosecution of perpetrators, Protection of victims and Prevention of trafficking. 2) The Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air, also provides a definition of smuggling of migrants. The Protocol aims at preventing and controlling smuggling of migrants, promoting cooperation among States Parties, while protecting the rights of smuggled migrants. 3) The Protocol against the Illicit Manufacturing of and Trafficking in Firearms, their Parts and Components and Ammunition promotes, facilitates and strengthens cooperation among States Parties in order to prevent and control the illicit manufacturing of and trafficking in firearms, their parts and components and ammunition by mainly committing Member States to introduce solid registration and storage systems for all legally produced arms. prelims.insightsonindia.com 2 © Insights Active Learning | All rights reserved - 133617. You may not reproduce, distribute or exploit the contents in any form without written permission by copyright owner. Copyright infringers may face civil and criminal liability Online Prelims Thematic TEST - 10 ( InsightsIAS Mock Test Series for UPSC Preliminary Exam 2020 ) The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its Member States to assist in the implementation of both Conventions, which along with the UN Drug Conventions of 1961, 1971 and 1988 underpin all the operational work of UNODC. See https://www.unodc.org/southasia/en/frontpage/2011/may/indian-govt-ratifies-two-un-convention s.html Q Source: AR: UPSC CSP 2019 3 Consider the following statements. 1. The Service Area Approach was implemented under the purview of Lead Bank Scheme. 2. SAA was extended to all Indian scheduled commercial banks including Regional Rural Banks (RRBs). Which of the above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. None Your Answer : Correct Answer : C Answer Justification : Justification: Service area approach (SAA) is a developed version of the ‘area approach’ structure of the Lead Bank Scheme. Under SAA plan each commercial bank / RRB branch in a rural and semi-urban area is designated to serve 15 to 25 villages for the planned and orderly development of the areas. The designated branch of a bank has to meet the banking needs of its service area vis-à-vis forge effective IMAGERUNNERS linkages between bank 8860450330 credit, production, productivity, and an increase in income levels of the villages. SAA was introduced in April 1989 in order to bring about an orderly and planned development of rural and semi- urban areas of the country. See https://rbi.org.in/scripts/NotificationUser.aspx?Id=2044&Mode=0 Q Source: AR: UPSC 2019 4 Which of the following acts exempts several constitutional/public posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’? A. Representation of People Act, 1950 B. Representation of People Act, 1951 C. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 prelims.insightsonindia.com 3 © Insights Active Learning | All rights reserved - 133617. You may not reproduce, distribute or exploit the contents in any form without written permission by copyright owner. Copyright infringers may face civil and criminal liability Online Prelims Thematic TEST - 10 ( InsightsIAS Mock Test Series for UPSC Preliminary Exam 2020 ) D. None of the above Your Answer : Correct Answer : C Answer Justification : Justification: According to Articles 102(1)a) and 191(1)a) of Constitution, legislators (MP or MLA) can be barred from holding office of profit under Central Government or state government as it can put them in position to gain financial benefit. However, none of the following offices, in so far as it is an office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State, shall disqualify the holder thereof for being chosen as, or for being, a member of Parliament, namely:--- (a) any office held by a Minister, Minister of State or Deputy Minister for the Union or for any State, whether ex officio or by name: (b) the office of Chief Whip, Deputy Chief Whip or Whip in Parliament or of a Parliamentary Secretary; (c) the office of a member of any force raised or maintained under the National Cadet Corps Act, 1948 (31 of 1948.), the Territorial Army Act, 1948 (56 of 1948.), or the Reserve and Auxiliary Air Forces Act, 1952 (62 of 1952); (d) the office of a member of a Home Guard constituted under any law for the time being in force in any State; etc. See more here http://theindianlawyer.in/statutesnbareacts/acts/p2.html Q Source: Based on UPSC papers 5 Consider the following statements: 1. The largest chunk of India’s external debt comes from bilateral and multilateral debt owed to nations IMAGERUNNERS and international financial 8860450330 institutions. 2. Most of India’s external debt is denominated in Special Drawing Rights (SDRs). Which of the statements given above is / are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Your Answer : Correct Answer : D Answer Justification : Justification: S1: The largest portion are ECBs (commercial borrowings). Bilateral debt is the money India owes to foreign governments and Multilateral debt is the money India owes to prelims.insightsonindia.com 4 © Insights Active Learning | All rights reserved - 133617. You may not reproduce, distribute
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