FTW-17A Emergency Landings

READING ASSIGNMENT AFH Pages 17-1 to 17-7 – “Emergency Situations” through “Emergency Descents”

Study Questions

1. Who or what is the ultimate authority in what procedures to be used in the event of an inflight emergency? a) The Airplane Flying Handbook. b) The designated FAA-examiner. c) The pilot operating handbook (POH) for that aircraft.

2. Define the following terms:

forced landing ______precautionary landing ______ditching ______

3. What could cause a pilot to decide not to make a precautionary landing when one is advisable or necessary? a) Wishful thinking. b) Emergency procedures in the POH. c) Lack of a certificate or rating.

4. What is one way that a pilot’s reluctance to accept an emergency situation can result in an avoidable tragedy? a) Prompt establishment of gliding airspeed can result in an avoidable delay in the descent. b) The pilot’s delaying of the inevitable may cause acceptable landing areas to be overflown. c) Planning the approach off airport can unnecessarily delay the pilot’s ability to correctly reestablish fuel flow to the engine. FTW-17A

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5. Select the answers below that make the statements true.

In some situations, the pilot could unintentionally increase / decrease the danger to himself and his passengers by placing too little / much emphasis on trying to save the aircraft from damage. Simulated forced / short-field landing practice only in areas with safe landing procedures / areas could lead the pilot to try to avoid touchdown in terrain where airplane damage is unexpected / unavoidable. Examples of this include attempting an impossible turn back to the runway with insufficient altitude / airspeed, or choosing a landing area that affords no margin for error.

Two factors that can increase this error are the pilot’s financial stake / prior time in the aircraft, and the belief that an undamaged airplane implies no bodily harm. There are times, however, when the pilot should choose to defend / sacrifice the airplane so that the occupants can safely walk away from the landing.

6. Avoidance of crash injuries is largely a matter of a) protecting the wings and flight control surfaces from damage or impact. b) keeping the passenger cabin relatively intact by using expendable structure such as wings and landing gear to slow the deceleration of the aircraft upon impact. c) choosing to make sudden stops instead of prolonging the deceleration process during an off-airport landing.

7. Why are seat belts and shoulder straps critical to maintaining bodily security in the event of a forced landing? a) The human body must be decelerated at the same rate as the surrounding fuselage in order to benefit from the fuselage’s relative intactness. b) Seat belts and shoulder harnesses provide a psychological feeling of safety and security. c) The seat belts are made of material that will yield during landings in which it is safer for the body to be thrown free of the airplane.

8. What are examples of things that should be used to absorb the energy of the aircraft in a crash landing? a) The fuselage. b) Cultivated fields with dense crops, brush and small trees. c) Rocks, or craggy mountainous outcroppings.

9. Select the answers below that make the statements true. A critical error to be avoided in planning and executing an emergency landing is the loss of initiative over the airplane’s attitude/electrical system and sink rate/mayday broadcast at touchdown. Steep/Shallow bank angles just before touchdown should also be avoided, as they increase the stalling speed. An excessive nose-low/nose-high pitch attitude brings the risk of “sticking” the nose in the ground. A flat touchdown at a high/low sink rate on a hard surface can be injurious.

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10. In general, which of the following would be the best attitude for the airplane in execution of an emergency landing? a) Nose-low pitch attitude. b) Steep bank angles. c) Wings level, nose level (or slightly high). 11. What should be the ideal vertical sink rate on touchdown in an emergency landing? a) A flat touchdown with a high sink rate to provide greater surface friction and deceleration. b) High sink rates, but only on soft terrain; otherwise, low sink rates. c) A minimal sink rate.

12. A well-executed crash landing in poor terrain can be less hazardous than a) a well-executed normal landing on an established field. b) an uncontrolled touchdown on an established field. c) a soft-field landing on a dirt runway.

13. How should flaps be used during final approach in an emergency landing? a) Flaps should be deployed as early in the approach as possible to increase drag and slow the aircraft. b) Flaps should never be used in an emergency landing. c) Flaps should be used to improve maneuverability at slow airspeeds, but pilots should exercise caution in the timing and extent of their application.

14. What advantage of the use of flaps in a normal landing can create a hazard in an engine-out, emergency ? landing if not properly managed? a) Increased angle of descent. b) Increased airspeed on final approach. c) Reduced deceleration as a result of aerodynamic drag.

15. Why might a gear-up landing on a plowed field result in less damage to the aircraft than a gear-down landing? a) The plowed furrows can raise the nose of the airplane and prevent the propeller from striking the surface. b) Landing gear are less able to support the weight of the aircraft than the bottom of the fuselage. c) Landing gear could catch unevenly and flip the aircraft, and collapsed landing gear can contribute to fuel tank rupture.

16. How should a pilot of an irregularly running engine manage the engine operation in a forced landing?

a) Unless the engine is operating fully, it should be shut down at the first indication that an emergency FTW-17A landing is imminent. b) Any engine power is better than no engine power, so leave it running. c) Exploit the power available but switch the engine and fuel off just before touchdown.

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17. Experience shows that a collision with ground obstacles at the end of a ground roll, is much less hazardous than striking an obstacle before the touchdown point is reached. a) True. b) False.

18. Why would a river or creek be an inviting alternative for an emergency landing? a) The riverbed is often relatively level, soft ground with open area above. b) Water decelerates the airplane faster than landing on dry pavement. c) The water can be used to wash the airplane after the crash landing.

19. Why should a pilot making an emergency landing on a road or across a road be on heightened alert?

______

20. When making a landing into trees, the pilot should try to “hang” the airplane in the tree branches by a) making a slightly faster than normal approach and keeping the nose level or slightly down. b) using the fuselage to absorb the main impact and protecting the wings for flight. c) keeping the groundspeed as low as possible and keeping the nose high.

21. What can result when landing on snow or ditching over a wide expanse of smooth water? a) Loss of depth perception and errors in landing. b) Increased visibility. c) Loss of rudder effectiveness.

22. On takeoff, when altitudes are below 500 feet AGL, an engine failure should result in the pilot a) making a 180° turn back to the runway. b) establishing the proper glide attitude, and landing directly ahead or slightly to either side of the takeoff path. c) making a slight turn downwind to gain airspeed for landing.

23. The goal of an emergency descent is to a) maintain altitude for as long as possible. b) lose altitude as rapidly as possible. c) glide the farthest distance possible.

24. Name a situation that would demand an emergency descent.

______

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25. Why are simulated emergency descents made in a turn? a) To minimize load factor on the airframe. b) To improve radio reception. c) To check for other air traffic below and to look for possible landing areas (and reduce the vertical component of lift for a faster descent).

26. Except when prohibited by the aircraft manufacturer, the power setting in an emergency descent should be a) full throttle. b) normal power setting for high-speed cruise flight. c) idle. 27. The airspeed selected for emergency descent should be a) VA.

b) VLE. c) the maximum allowable airspeed consistent with the aircraft configuration and air conditions.

28. Why would a pilot choose a high airspeed emergency descent in the event of an engine fire? a) To descend quickly to a region of increased air density. b) A high airspeed descent could blow out the fire. c) High airspeed descents should NEVER be used in the event of an engine fire.

29. What actions should the pilot perform just before touchdown during a forced landing? a) Protect passengers from impact with spare clothing, cushions, or soft luggage. b) Move passengers to rear seats to create a more favorable center of gravity at touchdown.” c) Recline seatbacks to prevent back and neck injuries.

30. Seat belts and shoulder harnesses should be worn a) loose fitting to provide freedom of movement inside the cabin. b) loose to provide an air gap when decelerating a body during forced landing. c) low and tight to prevent body motion during forced landing deceleration. FTW-17A

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Answers to Study Questions

1. c 12. b 2. An immediate landing necessitated by the 13. c inability to continue further flight 14. a A premeditated landing when further flight is possible, but inadvisable 15. c A forced or precautionary landing on water 16. c 3. a 17. a (true) 4. b 18. a 5. increase 19. Manmade obstacles, such as power or telephone much lines and support structures, can be on either side forced of a road and many not be visible until the final areas portion of the approach. unavoidable 20. c altitude financial stake 21. a sacrifice 22. b 6. b 23. b 7. a 24. uncontrollable fire, a sudden loss of cabin 8. b pressurization, or any other situation demanding an immediate and rapid descent. 9. attitude sink rate 25. c Steep 26. c nose-low high 27. c 10. c 28. a 11. c 29. a 30. c

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