APTITUDE TEST FOR PLUS ONE ADMISSION – 2018

VERSION COMMERCE STREAM D

ENGLISH, ECONOMICS, SOCIAL SCIENCE & GK, MATHEMATICS, MAT

TIME: 2 ¼ Hrs Number of Questions:100 Max.Marks:400 NAME OF THE CANDIDATE:

APPLICATION NUMBER:

SIGNATURE OF CANDIDATE:

PHONE NO. WITH CODE:

MOB:

INSTRUCTIONS

1. Please fill in the items such as Name, Signature and Application Number of the candidate in the columns given above.

2. This question booklet contains 100 questions. For each question, four answers are suggested and given against (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) of which, only one will be the Most Appropriate Answer. Mark the bubble containing the letter corresponding to the ‘Most Appropriate Answer’ in the OMR answer sheet, by using either Blue or Black ball-point pen only.

3. Negative Marking: Each correct answer will be awarded FOUR marks. ONE mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. More than one answer marked against a question will be deemed as incorrect answer and will be negatively marked.

4. Return both the Question paper and the Answer sheet to the invigilator at the end of the examination.

IMMEDIATELY AFTER OPENING THIS QUESTION BOOKLET, THE CANDIDATE SHOULD VERIFY WHETHER THE QUESTION BOOKLET ISSUED CONTAINS ALL THE 100 QUESTIONS IN SERIAL ORDER. IF NOT, REQUEST FOR REPLACEMENT.

PLEASE DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL UNTIL THE INVIGILATOR ASKS YOU TO DO SO.

ENGLISH Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow: With its wild stare, swift speed and secretive nature, the UK’s brown hare is the rabbit’s mysterious cousin. Even in these days of agricultural intensification, the hare is still to be seen in open countryside, but its numbers are falling. Like many herbivores, brown hares spend a relatively large amount of their time feeding. They prefer to do this in the dark, but when nights are short, their activities do spill into daylight hours. Wherever they live, hares appear to have a fondness for fields with a variety of vegetation, for example, short as well as longer clumps of grasses. Studies have demonstrated that they benefit from uncultivated land and other unploughed areas on farms, such as field margins. Therefore, if farmers provided patches of woodland in areas of pasture as well as assorted crops in arable areas, there would be year-round shelter and food, and this could be the key to turning round the current decline in hare populations. Questions 1. According to the writer, what is the ideal habitat for hare? A. Open grassland which they can run across B. Densely wooded areas to breed in C. Areas which include a range of vegetation D. Land that has been formed intensively for years. E. All of the above. 2. According to the writer, the brown hare A. Is secretive despite its speed and stare B. Is secretive despite its mallowed stare and being slow C. Is wild, swift and secretive D. Looks wild and secretive E. None of the above. 3. Brown hares A. Like all herbivores, feed all through the day B. Prefer to feed by night C. Were found only in the UK D. Are rabbits E. None of the above 4. The Brown hares A. Were seen in the open country side B. Is seen in the open country side C. Have always been seen in the open country side D. Will be seen in the open countryside E. Are falling in number because they are seen in open countryside 5. The providing of patches of woodland in areas of pasture A. Can trigger a rise in the number of Brown hares B. Can accommodate assorted crops in arable areas C. Can guarantee year-round shelter and food for hares D. Can cause decline in the number of hares E. Can cause year-round shelter and food for hares and trigger a rise in their number. Give synonyms for the following: 6. COMPRESS A. Squeeze D. Less electronic data B. Gauze pad E. All of the above C. Packing machine 7. SPACE A. Acres D. Road B. Seat E. None of the above C. Field 8. BRICKBAT A. Weapon D. Insinuation B. Insult E. Soft C. Criticism

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9. SOUMI A. Finland D. Igloo B. Finnish E. All of the above C. Innuit 10. SCALD A. Burn D. Singe B. Scorch E. Peaceful C. Freeze Give the antonyms for the following: 11. COMMISSIONED A. Started D. Terminated B. Closed E. Intended C. Finished 12. BELITTLE A. Criticize D. Adore B. Flatter E. Pacifying C. Exaggerate 13. CULPABLE A. Defendable D. Irresponsible B. Blameless E. Provoking C. Careless 14. RELINQUISH A. Abdicate D. Deny B. Renounce E. Enraged C. Possess 15. FEASIBLE A. Impractical D. Impracticable B. Impossible E. Unattainable C. Difficult Five alternatives are given for the following idioms. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idioms 16. To make a clean breast of A. To praise yourself D. To destroy something before it B. To defend yourself develops C. To tell the truth about E. All of the above something 17. To leave someone in the lurch A. To help someone D. To make someone B. To leave someone when they uncomfortable need you to help them E. To dislike someone C. To make someone comfortable 18. To catch a tartar A. To deal with someone who proves to be too powerful B. To face negative consequences C. To meet with disaster D. To catch a dangerous animal E. To catch a bird 19. A man of straw A. A man of substance C. A very active person B. A person or an idea that is too D. A worthy fellow weak E. A very shrewd person 20. To cry wolf A. To listen carefully D. To keep off starvation B. To raise false alarm E. To keep calm C. To get angry

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For the expression which has been underlined in each of the following sentences, choose the best given alternative which most nearly expresses its meaning: 21. Which of the following words can be used to refer to a person who fears crowded places? A. Arsonist D. Katsaridaphobia B. Agoraphobe E. Algophobe C. Claustrophobe 22. Bacon’s essays are full of terse, witty, pointed statements. A. Epigraphs D. Epiboly B. Epigrams E. Epigeous C. Epitaphs 23. He is in debt because of his habit of spending money wastefully. A. Spendthrift D. Thrift B. Extravagance E. Miser C. Stinginess 24. Most of the Doctors have a handwriting that cannot be read. A. Indelible D. Indent B. Illegible E. None of the above C. Inaudible 25. Bob was worried about his first speech as a head boy A. Maiden D. Mainline B. Abecedarian E. All of the above C. Debutant Sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word. Five alternatives are suggested for each question. 26. It is a story of two men and a batch of ------armoured cares. A. Deceased D. Defeated B. Diseased E. Desired C. Decrepit 27. Although there is ______gunfire, there is no stiff resistance to the revolutionary army. A. Bitter D. Sporadic B. Meagre E. None of the above C. Continuous 28. I was amazed ______her stupendous ignorance. A. With D. Of B. On E. Before C. At 29. You will have some tea,…………..? A. Will you D. Can you B. Haven’t you E. Can’t you C. Won’t you 30. He told an anecdote about the first time he met Ian by ………………..of an introduction to Ian’s speech. A. Way D. More B. Act E. With C. Little

ECONOMICS, SOCIAL SCIENCE & GK

31. In which year did Sri Lanka emerge as an independent country? A. 1947 D. 1952 B. 1948 E. 1952 C. 1949

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32. In which country is the system of community government followed? A. D. USA B. Sri Lanka E. Nepal C. Belgium 33. Which among the following is a ‘coming together’ Federation? A. India D. England B. Spain E. USA C. Belgium 34. Which among the following is not a subject coming under the union list of Indian constitution? A. Forest D. Communications B. Banking E. foreign affairs C. Defence 35. Which Schedule of Indian constitution deals with languages? A. Second D. Third B. Eleventh E. Seventh C. Eighth 36. Which among the following is a book written by ? A. Rangbhoomi D. Hind B. Sevasadan E. Swatantra Bharat C. Samachar 37. Who formed the ? A. C. R. Das and B. C. R. Das and Motilal Nehru C. Muhammed Ali and Shaukar Ali D. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar and Jawaharlal Nehru E. Baba Ramachandra and Jawaharlal Nehru 38. In which year did arrive in India? A. 1928 D. 1921 B. 1938 E. 1922 C. 1920 39. Who formed FICCI in 1927? A. Motilal Nehru D. M.R Jayakar B. Dr. Ambedkar E. Purshottamdas Takurdas C. CR Das 40. Who is the founder of Depressed Classes Association? A. Alluri Sitarama Raju D. Jawaharlal Nehru B. Dr. Ambedkar E. Baba Ramachandra C. G.D. Birla 41. Who were the signatories of Poona Pact of September 1932? A. Mahatma Gandhi and M.R. Jayakar B. Jawaharlal Nehru and Mahatma Gandhi C. Jawaharlal Nehru and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar D. Motilal Nehru and CR Das E. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar and Mahatma Gandhi

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42. In which state of India is Rat hole mining practiced? A. Jharkhand D. Meghalaya B. Bihar E. Rajastan C. Karnataka 43. Which among the following is a geothermal project? A. Manikaran in Himachal C. Naharkatiya in Gujarat Pradesh D. Uran in Maharashtra B. Jaisalmer in Rajastan E. Talcher in Odisha 44. Which among the following is not a term of credit? A. interest rate D. documentation requirement B. mode of repayment E. Membership in SHG C. collateral 45. Name the authority which supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans. A. Nationalised Banks D. State Governments B. Reserve Bank of India E. Consumer Courts C. Ministry of Finance 46. Who was the founder of the Grameen Bank of Bangladesh? A. Prof. Muhammed Yanus D. Gangadhar Bhattacharya B. William Bolts E. Andrew Yule C. Richard M. Hoe 47. Which right is ensured through the implementation of MGNREGA? A. Right to life D. Right to safety B. Right to property E. Right to privacy C. Right to work 48. What is the aim of W T O? A. Development of third world countries B. Development of agrarian economics C. Protecting individual rights D. Liberalisation of international trade E. Alleviation of poverty 49. In which year did the Indian Parliament enact the Consumer Protection Act? A. 1984 D. 1981 B. 1987 E. 1986 C. 1980 50. Which among the following is not a consumer right? A. Right to represent D. Right to protest B. Right to safety E. Right to consumer education C. Right to choose 51. National Highways are laid and maintained by A. NHAI D. PMGSY B. CPWD E. BRO C. PWD 52. Which among the following is the largest public sector undertaking in India A. Indian Airlines D. BSEL B. Indian Railway E. TISCO C. BSNL

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53. Name the country which is the largest producer of feature film in the world A. USA D. India B. Japan E. China C. S. Korea 54. Metro channel is related to A. Indian Railway D. Afferestation B. Postal network E. Export C. National Highways 55. Banks in India can hold _____ percent of their deposits as cash A. 10 D. 15 B. 25 E. 40 C. 30 56. Who is the present RBI Governor? A. Raghuram Rajan D. Arundathi Bhattacharya B. Urjit Patel E. Naveen Chaula C. Aravind Subramanian 57. Who is the author of the book ‘I do what I do’? A. Narendra Modi D. Rahul Gandhi B. Donald Trump E. Raghuram Rajan C. Kim Jong-Un 58. What is the motto of GST? A. One Nation one Tax One Market B. One Country One Nation One People C. One Tax One World One People D. One Country One People One Tax E. One Country One People One Market 59. Who is the Brand Ambassador of GST? A. Sachin Tendulkar D. Arun Jaitley B. Narendra Modi E. Thomas Issac C. Amitab Bachchan 60. NITI Aayog is formed to replace; A. Finance Commission D. Public Service Commission B. Planning Commission E. Minority Commission C. Election Commission

MATHEMATICS

61. The sum of ages of a father and his son is 54 years. Two years ago, the product of their ages (in year) was 400. The present age of father is: A. 32 D. 62 B. 52 E. 38 C. 42 62. If Sin A + Sin2 A = 1, then the value of Cos2 A + Cos4 A is A. 2 D. 0 B. 1 E. –1 C. –2 63. The mean of 1, 3, 4, 5, 7, 4 is m. The numbers 3, 2, 2, 4, 3, 3, p have mean m –1 and median q. Then p + q is A. 4 D. 7 B. 5 E. 6.5 C. 6 D/7

64. Four points A(6, 3), B(–3, 5), C(4, –2) and D(x, 3x) are given in such a way that 퐴푟푒푎 (∆퐷퐵퐶) 1 = , then the value of x is 퐴푟푒푎 (∆퐴퐵퐶) 2 2 8 A. D. 9 13 7 13 B. E. 52 8 11 C. 8 65. The curved surface area of a cylinder is 264m2 and its volume is 924m3. The ratio of its diameter to its height is A. 3:7 D. 7:6 B. 4:7 E. 7:3 C. 6:7 66. A bag contains 6 red balls and some blue balls. If the probability of drawing a blue ball from the bag is twice that of a red ball, find the number of blue balls in the bag. A. 10 D. 12 B. 24 E. 14 C. 22 67. If a number x is chosen from the numbers 1, 2, 3 and a number y is selected from the numbers 1, 4, 9. Then P(xy<9) 7 1 A. D. 9 9 1 5 B. E. 3 9 2 C. 3 68. The mean of n observations is 푥 . If the first observation is increased by 1, the second by 2, the third by 3 and so on, then the new mean is 푛+1 A. 푥 + 2푛 + 1 D. 푥 + 푛+1 2 B. 푥 − 2 E. 푥 + 푛 C. 푥 + (푛 + 1) 69. The area of a sector whose perimeter is four times its radius r units is 푟2 푟2 A. 푠푞. 푢푛푖푡푠 D. 푠푞. 푢푛푖푡푠 4 2 B. 2푟2푠푞. 푢푛푖푡푠 E. 4r2sq.units C. r2sq.units

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70. The circumference of a circle is 100m. The side of a square inscribed in the circle is 50 2 A. 50 2cm D. cm 100 휋 B. cm 50 휋 E. cm 2 휋 C. 100 푐푚 휋 71. PQ is a tangent to a circle with centre O at the point P. If OPQ is an isosceles triangle, then OQP is equal to A. 30o D. 90o B. 45o E. 75o C. 60o 72. The height of a tower is 100m. When the angle of elevation of the sun changes from 30o to 45o the shadow of the tower becomes x meters less. The value of x is 100 A. 100( 3 + 1)푚 D. 푚 3 B. 100m E. 100( 3 − 1)푚 C. 100 3푚 73. If the product of two zeros of the polynomial f(x)=2x3 + 6x2 – 4x + 9 is 3, then the third zero is 3 −9 A. D. 2 2 −3 2 B. E. 2 3 9 C. 2 74. If one root of the equation 4x2 – 2x + ( – 4) = 0 be the reciprocal of the other, then = A. 8 D. –4 B. –8 E. 6 C. 4 75. If 18th and 11th terms of an AP are in the ratio 3:2, then its 21st and 5th terms are in the ratio A. 3:2 D. 2:3 B. 1:2 E. 3:1 C. 1:3 76. ∆퐴퐵퐶∆푃푄푅 such that ar(∆퐴퐵퐶)=4 ar(∆푃푄푅). If BC=12cm, then QR= A. 9cm D. 8cm B. 10cm E. 4cm C. 6cm SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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3 푠푖푛휃푡푎푛휃 −1 77. If θ is an acute angle such that cosθ= , then = 5 2 tan 2 휃 16 160 A. D. 625 3 1 3 B. E. 36 160 1 C. 160 78. The remainder when the square of any prime number greater than 3 is divided by 6, is A. 1 D. 4 B. 3 E. 5 C. 2 1 1 1 79. If α, β, γ are the zeroes of the polynomial f(x)=ax3+bx2+cx+d, then + + 훼 훽 훾 푏 푐 A. − D. − 푑 푑 푐 푐 B. E. 푑 푎 푐 C. − 푎 80. If 2x – 3y = 7 and (a+b)x – (a+b – 3)y=4a + b represent coincident lines, then a and b satisfy the equation A. a + 5b = 0 D. 5a – b = 0 B. a – 5b = 0 E. a+2b=0 C. 5a + b= 0 1 1 1 1 81. 1 − 1 − 1 − … … … . . 1 − =? 3 4 5 푛 푛−1 A. D. 0 푛 2 42 E. B. 푛 29 푛 C. 2 82. A circle and a square have same area. Therefore, the ratio of the side of the square and the radius of the circle is A. 휋: 1 D. π:1 B. 1: 휋 E. π:2 C. 1:π 83. A hall is 15m long and 12m broad. The sum of the areas of the floor and the ceiling is equal to the sum of areas of the 4 walls, the volume of the hall is A. 720m3 D. 1800m3 B. 900m3 E. 1200m3 C. 1400m3 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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84. Find the value of k such that the sum of the squares of the roots of the quadratic equation x2 – 8x + k =0 is 40 A. 4 D. 12 B. 2 E. 8 C. 5 85. A rectangular sheet of paper 40cmx22cm is rolled to form a hollow cylinder of height 40cm. the radius of the cylinder (in cm) is A. 2 D. 5 7 B. 7 E. 80 2 C. 7 86. If two solid hemispheres of same base radius ‘r’ are joined together along their bases, then curved surface area of this new solid is A. 4πr2 D. 3 πr2 B. 6 πr2 E. 2 πr2 C. 8 πr2 87. One eight of a number is 17.25. What will 73% of number be? A. 82.66 D. 138 B. 96.42 E. 124.84 C. 100.74 88. The LCM of 2 numbers of three digits each is 1740 and H.C.F is 290. The two numbers are: A. 290, 870 D. 290, 1106 B. 580, 870 E. 580, 630 C. 290, 580 89. 24 men complete a given job in 40 days. Then how many men are required to complete the job in 32 days A. 30 D. 34 B. 32 E. 35 C. 33 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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90. A die is thrown twice. What is the probability that 5 will not come up either time? 5 1 A. D. 6 6 25 7 B. E. 36 32 11 C. 32

MENTAL ABILITY 91. Which of the alternative figures would correctly fill in the blank space in the following series of numbers? 4, 9, 13, 22, 35,……… A. 47 D. 63 B. 70 E. 57 C. 75 92. In a certain code FIRE is coded as DGPC. What will be the last letter of the coded word for ‘SHOT’? A. Q D. T B. R E. none of these C. S 93. If TOUR is written in a certain code as 1234,CLEAR as 56784 and SPARE as 90847,what will be the 5th digit for SCULPTURE in the same code? A. 3 D. 0 B. 6 E. 4 C. 8 94. After starting from a point a man walks 3km towards East, then turning to his left he moves 3km. After this he again turns left and moves 3 km. Which choice given below indicates the correct direction in which he is from his starting point? A. North D. West B. East E. North-East C. South 95. Four boys A, B, C and D are up on the ladder. A is further up the ladder than B.B is between A and C. If D is further up than A, who is third from the bottom? A. B D. D B. C E. none of these C. A

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96. ‘Fire’ related to ‘Ashes’, in the same way ‘Explosion’ is related to A. Sound D. Bullet holes B. Flame E. Debris C. USA 97. If $ means –, * means +, @ means ÷, # means *, then 3#5*63@7$12=? A. 52 D. 2 B. 22 E. 12 C. 1 98. Pointing to a person in a photograph, lady said, “His sister is the daughter of my father’s son’s mother”. How is the person related to the lady? A. Sister D. Father B. Brother E. None of these C. Nephew 99. Babloo ranked 16th from the top and 29th from the last among those who passed an examination. 6 boys did not attempt the examination and 5 failed in the examination. How many boys were there in that class? A. 44 D. 55 B. 40 E. 60 C. 50 100. What should come in the place of (?) in the given series? ACE,FGH,?,PON A. KKK D. IKL B. JKI E. IJK C. HJH

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