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American Board of Dermatology Certification Pathway SAMPLE ITEMS

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American Board of Dermatology Certification Pathway SAMPLE ITEMS American Board of Dermatology Certification Pathway SAMPLE ITEMS BASIC Exam CORE Exam APPLIED Exam Disclaimer: The items included are for demonstration purposes only and are not intended to represent entirely the content, difficulty and scope of the items used on the exams. Version 2: July 17, 2017 Certification Pathway SAMPLE ITEMS This 50-item tutorial demonstrates the types of content on the BASIC, CORE, and APPLIED exams. The BASIC exam tests both knowledge base and application of knowledge, but in a limited scope. The emphasis is on common conditions and less complex situations. For more detail, see BASIC Exam Content Outline. The CORE modules test more advanced knowledge, for example, knowledge of less common conditions and less commonly used medications, as well as visual diagnosis of clinical and histologic images. The APPLIED exam focuses on application of knowledge in the context of an individual patient. The Content Overview of BASIC, CORE, and APPLIED Exams is a work in progress that provides a general outline of the three examinations. Please note that some overlap in content among the exams can be expected. The content of this tutorial is copyrighted by ABD. Dermatology residents and faculty are welcome to discuss its contents, but no portion of the tutorial, including images, is to be reproduced or distributed without the express written consent of the ABD. 2 BASIC EXAM BASIC EXAM 3 BASIC EXAM (1). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (A) Allergic contact dermatitis (B) Cutaneous larva migrans (C) Dermatitis herpetiformis (D) Eruptive xanthomas (E) Inflammatory tinea corporis due to Trichophyton mentagrophytes click here for a high resolution image 4 BASIC EXAM (2). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (A) Clear cell acanthoma (B) Cutaneous larva migrans (C) Granuloma annulare (D) Keratoacanthoma (E) Porokeratosis of Mibelli click here for a high resolution image 5 BASIC EXAM (3). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (A) Behçets syndrome (B) Dermatomyositis (C) Erythema elevatum diutinum (D) Knuckle pads (E) Lichen simplex chronicus click here for a high resolution image 6 BASIC EXAM (4). Which of the following is the most effective treatment for the patient shown? (A) Oral tetracycline (B) Topical azelaic acid (C) Topical benzoyl peroxide (D) Topical clindamycin (E) Topical tretinoin click here for a high resolution image 7 BASIC EXAM A patient has new-onset fever, transaminase elevation, peripheral eosinophilia, facial edema, (5). and the eruption shown. She has been hospitalized for two weeks for community-acquired pneumonia. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (A) Acute, generalized exanthematous pustulosis (B) Drug reaction with eosinophils and systemic symptoms (C) Serum sickness-like reaction (D) Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (E) Urticarial vasculitis click here for a high resolution image 8 BASIC EXAM (6). Which photograph contains the neoplasm that is most concerning for a malignancy? (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D (E) E (F) F click here for a high resolution image 9 BASIC EXAM Which of the following substances is the most likely cause of the skin eruption in this 10-year-old (7). boy? (A) Balsam of Peru (B) Epoxy resin (C) Lanolin (D) Nickel (E) p-Phenylenediamine click here for a high resolution image 10 BASIC EXAM Which of the following agents is most appropriate for the treatment of a 6-month-old infant with (8). these microscopic findings? (A) Malathion 0.5% lotion (B) Oral cotrimoxazole (C) Oral ivermectin (D) Permethrin 5% cream (E) Pyrethrin 0.3% lotion click here for a high resolution image 11 BASIC EXAM (9). Which of the following instruments is shown? (A) Blade remover (B) Hemostat (C) Nail nipper (D) Needle holder (E) Tissue forceps click here for a high resolution image 12 BASIC EXAM (10). Which of the following suture materials is nonabsorbable? (A) Catgut (B) Polydioxanone (PDS) (C) Polyglactin (Vicryl) (D) Polyglycolic acid (Dexon) (E) Polypropylene (Prolene) 13 BASIC EXAM (11). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (A) Basal cell carcinoma (B) Blue nevus (C) Nevus sebaceus (D) Sebaceous adenoma (E) Syringocystadenoma papilliferum click here for a high resolution image 14 BASIC EXAM (12). Which of the following best describes the histologic pattern shown? (A) Granulomatous (B) Lichenoid (C) Psoriasiform (D) Spongiotic (E) Vasculopathic click here for a high resolution image 15 BASIC EXAM A researcher is planning a study to determine whether a dermatologic therapy that is suspected (13). of causing an adverse effect truly causes that effect. Which of the following study designs is most appropriate? (A) Case-control (B) Case report (C) Case series (D) Open label pilot (E) Patient survey 16 BASIC EXAM Which of the following cells best characterize the innate (as opposed to the acquired) immune (14). response? (A) B cells (B) Cytotoxic T cells (C) NK cells (D) TH1 cells (E) TH2 cells 17 BASIC EXAM (15). Both loricrin and involucrin are found in which of the following? (A) Basement membrane zone (B) Cell envelopes (C) Intermediate filaments (D) Keratinosomes (E) Nucleus 18 CORE EXAM CORE EXAM 19 CORE EXAM (16). Secondary erythromelalgia is most commonly associated with which of the following? (A) Dapsone hypersensitivity (B) Hansen disease (C) Polyarteritis nodosa (D) Myeloproliferative disorders (E) Sarcoidosis 20 CORE EXAM Which of the following antibiotic drugs is most likely to interfere with the efficacy of oral (17). contraceptives? (A) Ampicillin (B) Ciprofloxacin (C) Clarithromycin (D) Doxycycline (E) Rifampin 21 CORE EXAM (18). These linear streaks on the back are secondary to treatment with which of the following? (A) Bleomycin (B) Chlorpromazine (C) Doxorubicin (D) Furocoumarin (E) Minocycline click here for a high resolution image 22 CORE EXAM (19). Which of the following areas is most likely to develop lesions of lupus panniculitis? (A) Hands (B) Neck (C) Posterior calves (D) Shins (E) Upper arms 23 CORE EXAM (20). Which of the following is the mechanism of action of ipilimumab? (A) Binding and inactivation of immunoglobulin E (B) Binding of CTLA-4 and blocking of its interaction with CD80/CD86 ligands (C) Competitive antagonism of the smoothened receptor (D) Inhibition of cyclic adenosine monophosphate hydrolysis (E) Interruption of the B-Raf/MEK/ERK pathway 24 CORE EXAM (21). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this 4-year-old girl? (A) Alopecia areata (B) Aplasia cutis congenita (C) Nevus sebaceous (D) Triangular alopecia (E) Trichorhinophalangeal syndrome click here for a high resolution image 25 CORE EXAM Compared with dermatomyositis in adults, juvenile dermatomyositis is characterized by which of (22). the following? (A) Increased association with malignancy (B) Increased calcinosis cutis (C) Increased photosensitivity (D) Lesser degree of muscle weakness (E) Male predominance 26 CORE EXAM Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis of this lesion in an 18-month-old boy born at 32 (23). weeks gestation? (A) Cutaneous calcinosis (B) Pilomatricoma (C) Porokeratotic nevus (D) Traumatic neuroma (E) Verruca vulgaris click here for a high resolution image 27 CORE EXAM A 1-year-old boy with ichthyosis was delivered by cesarean section following an induced, (24). prolonged labor. Physical examination shows cryptorchidism. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (A) Ichthyosis vulgaris (B) Lamellar ichthyosis (C) Refsum disease (D) Sjögren-Larsson syndrome (E) X-linked ichthyosis 28 CORE EXAM Initiation of acute inflammation in atopic dermatitis is most characteristically associated with (25). which of the following cytokines? (A) IFN-γ (B) IL-1β (C) IL-2 (D) IL-4 (E) TNF-α 29 CORE EXAM (26). These findings are most consistent with which of the following? (A) Eruptive xanthoma (B) Granular cell tumor (C) Multicentric reticulohistiocytosis (D) Sebaceous adenoma (E) Xanthogranuloma click here for a high resolution image 30 CORE EXAM (27). Which of the following histopathologic features is common to both melanoma and Spitz nevus? (A) Angiolymphatic invasion (B) Asymmetric architecture of the lesion (C) Maturation of melanocytes at deeper dermal levels (D) Pagetoid spread of melanocytes (E) Tripolar mitotic figures 31 CORE EXAM This direct immunofluorescence study uses antihuman IgG antibody. Which of the following is (28). the most likely diagnosis? (A) Bullous pemphigoid (B) Discoid lupus erythematosus (C) Lichen planus (D) Pemphigus erythematosus (E) Pseudoporphyria click here for a high resolution image 32 CORE EXAM (29). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (A) Blastomycosis (B) Coccidioidomycosis (C) Cryptococcosis (D) Lobomycosis (E) Protothecosis click here for a high resolution image 33 CORE EXAM (30). Albinism results from which of the following? (A) Increased degradation of melanosomes (B) Decreased tyrosinase activity (C) Decreased synthesis of melanosomes (D) Decreased transfer of melanosomes (E) Abnormal structure of melanosomes 34 CORE EXAM (31). The key tension stitch for this flap is located at which of the following labeled sites? (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D (E) E click here for a high resolution image 35 CORE EXAM According to American Heart Association recommendations, which of the following procedures (32). warrants administration of antibiotic prophylaxis in patients at high risk for endocarditis? (A) Ablative laser procedure of the face (B) Biopsy of a nail bed (C) Electrodesiccation and curettage on the neck (D) Mohs surgery
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