Comenius University in Bratislava Faculty of Medicine

COMENIUS UNIVERSITY IN BRATISLAVA FACULTY OF MEDICINE

CHEMISTRY BOOKLET

for entrance examinations 2021

Bratislava 2020

Editor: © Comenius University in Bratislava, Faculty of Medicine Guarantee of chemistry: prof. MUDr. Ladislav Turecký, PhD. Authors of chemistry questions: RNDr. Marta Brechtlová, prof. RNDr. Jozef Čársky, CSc., prof. Ing. Zdeňka Ďuračková, PhD., RNDr. Marta Hrnčiarová, CSc., Ing. Anna Liptáková, CSc., prof. MUDr. Ladislav Turecký, PhD., assoc. prof. RNDr. Eva Uhlíková, PhD., RNDr. Lucia Andrezálová, PhD., RNDr. Monika Ďurfinová, PhD., Mgr. Monika Dvořáková, PhD., Ing. Lucia Laubertová, PhD., assoc. prof. RNDr. Jana Muchová, PhD., RNDr. Zuzana Országhová, PhD., RNDr. Zuzana Paduchová, PhD., assoc. prof. MUDr. Viera Rendeková, PhD., MUDr. Peter Ščigulinský Proofreader of translation: assoc. prof. Ing. Ingrid Žitňanová, PhD., Ing. Bábelová Janka;

All rights are reserved. This publication and no part of this publication may be copied, changed, transmitted or used in any form or by any means without the prior written permission of the Dean of Faculty of Medicine Comenius University Bratislava. It can not be used by any mode by the third person for commercial purposes. The mode and the purpose of this booklet is determined by the dean.

1. If NaCl is dissolved in distilled water in a beaker, the following item is formed: a) a colorless solution b) a closed system c) a true solution d) a solution of electrolyte e) an open system f) an isolated system g) a chemically pure substance h) a homogeneous system

2. Distilled water differs from drinking water: a) in its chemical composition b) in the content of anions c) in the content of cations d) in the fact that the distilled water is the strong electrolyte and drinking water is the weak electrolyte e) in the fact that the drinking water is a chemical individual and distilled water is not a chemical individual f) it does not differ g) in the fact that the distilled water is a chemically pure substance and drinking water is a chemical individual h) in the ability to form hydrogen bonds

3. Drinking water: a) is a true solution b) consists only of H2O molecules c) is a homogeneous mixture d) is a mixture of chemical substances e) is not a true solution f) is a suspension g) is a chemical individual h) is a heterogeneous mixture

4. Electrons: a) of the same atoms are involved in the formation of a nonpolar covalent bond (for example in N2 molecule) b) with the lowest energy are referred to as electrons in the ground state c) occupy individual energy levels in the atom by filling the highest energy level first d) can be removed from the atom forming anions e) belong to the elementary particles with a negative charge f) their number in the atom is always equal to the number of neutrons g) in atoms are in the regions called orbitals h) in the outermost electron shell of the atom are called the valence electrons

5. An elementary structural unit of the substance is: a) a proton b) an electron c) an atom d) a nucleon e) a matter f) a compound g) each chemical individual h) a molecule, for example, H2 3

6. A chemical individual can be: a) a solution of NaCl in distilled water b) only a compound c) Al2O3 d) an electron e) drinking water f) sea water g) an element or a compound h) only an element

7. Nuclides a) are isotopes b) have the same number of protons c) have the same number of neutrons d) have a different number of nucleons e) have a different number of electrons f) have a different number of neutrons g) have a different number of protons h) have the same atomic number

8. Nuclides : a) can be found in nature in the same amount b) have the same number of neutrons c) have the same number of nucleons d) are isotopes e) have the same number of electrons f) have the same atomic and mass numbers g) do not differ in the electron configuration h) all have the same mass

9. Protium, deuterium and tritium: a) differ in their atomic number b) differ in their mass number c) differ in the number of protons d) differ in the number of neutrons e) differ in the number of electrons f) are isotopes of water g) are different names of the same isotope h) differ in the relative atomic mass

10. The maximum number of electrons in the shell with principal quantum number n = 2 is: a) 2 b) 8 c) 18 d) 32 e) possible to calculate from the relation 2n2 f) 6 g) 12 h) 16

11. The electron shell M can possess: a) 16 electrons at the most b) only p orbitals c) only s and p orbitals d) s, p, d orbitals e) 12 electrons at the most f) 18 electrons at the most g) 8 electrons at the most h) 2n2 electrons, where n = the principal quantum number

12. Neutron: a) is a particle the mass of which is approximately equal to the mass of hydrogen molecule b) is a particle which has only one elementary positive charge c) is an electrically uncharged particle d) has the mass approximately equal to the mass of the proton e) is one of the elementary particles of the electron shell f) is one of two types of elementary particles in the atomic nucleus g) is the basic structural unit of the substance h) does not belong to nucleons

13. According to the Pauli principle: a) in a px orbital there can be 1 electron at the most b) in a py orbital can be 2 electrons at the most c) in a py orbital there can be 6 electrons at the most d) in a pz orbital there can be 10 electrons at the most e) in an s orbital there can be 1 electron at the most f) in an s orbital there can be 2 electrons at the most g) in orbitals d there can be 10 electrons at the most h) in the orbital there can be 2 electrons with an antiparallel spin at the most

14. The energy needed for the cleavage of a certain chemical bond: a) is the same as the activation energy b) is the same as the energy released during its formation c) is higher than the energy released during its formation d) is the same as the ionization energy e) is the dissociation energy of a bond f) is also called the bond energy g) is given, e.g. in kJ.mol-1 h) is lower than the energy released during its formation

15. In the molecule of hydrogen peroxide: a) the atom of oxygen has an oxidation state of -II b) the atom of oxygen has an oxidation state of -I c) a valency of oxygen atom is 1 d) the atom of hydrogen has an oxidation state of -I e) the atom of hydrogen has an oxidation state of I f) the atom of hydrogen has an oxidation state of II g) a valency of oxygen atom is 2 h) the atoms of oxygen and hydrogen are bound by the covalent bond

16. Ionic compounds: a) most of them are not soluble in water

b) most of them are soluble in water c) have the structure in which cations and anions are attracted by electrostatic forces d) as melts or in solutions conduct electric current e) are those for which a covalent bond between elements is typical f) are those for which an electronegativity difference of combined elements is higher than 1.7 g) dissociate into ions in water h) are electrolytes in the water solution

17. Cations are ions which: a) can move to the cathode in the direct electric field b) have a positive charge c) can move to the anode in the direct electric field d) cannot be formed from atoms of alkali metals e) are easily formed from elements with the low electronegativity f) have more protons than electrons g) are formed from atoms of elements after the loss of 1 or more electrons h) are easily formed from elements with the low ionization energy

18. If both electrons of the covalent bond are provided only by one atom, the bond is: a) coordinate b) donor-acceptor c) metallic d) covalent nonpolar e) hydrogen f) ionic + g) present for example in NH4 h) typical for ionic compounds

19. In NH4Cl between individual atoms following bonds can occur: a) ionic b) donor-acceptor c) covalent d) hydrogen e) coordinate f) metallic g) van der Waals h) σ and π

20. A single covalent bond: a) is between C-C and C-H atoms of alkanes b) is in H2 molecule c) can be formed, if the difference of electronegativities between bound atoms is higher than 1.7 d) is for example in the NaCl molecule e) is in the molecule of ethane f) is in the molecule of ethyne between carbon atoms g) is formed, when both atoms are involved in the formation of the bonding electron pair h) is between nitrogen atoms in N2 molecule

21. A hydrogen bond: a) is also called the hydrogen bridge b) is stronger than the covalent bond

c) is formed between molecules (groups) that contain hydrogen atoms bound to the strong electronegative elements (mainly F, O, N) d) is formed in protein molecules e) is formed in nucleic acid molecules f) is present in a water molecule g) between molecules of the same compound is the reason for its higher boiling point h) is typical for water molecules in the gaseous state

22. In simple proteins following bonds are present: a) covalent b) hemiacetal c) ester d) hydrogen e) amide f) peptide g) N-glycosidic h) O-glycosidic

23. Hydrogen bonds are formed: a) in the molecules of DNA b) between the molecules of H2O c) between the molecules of NH3 d) between the molecules of CH4 e) between the molecules of C2H5OH f) between the molecules of CH3-O-CH2-CH3 g) between the molecules of HF h) in the molecules of proteins and they stabilize their secondary structure

24. Van der Waals forces: a) are formed between anions and cations b) are based on mutual effects of molecular dipoles c) are about 100 times weaker than covalent bonds d) occur between the central atom and ligands in complexes e) are in the molecules of proteins f) are strong bonds g) are responsible for the primary protein structure h) are intermolecular forces

25. A molecule: a) can be formed by two or more atoms b) is always formed only by atoms of the same type c) is a relatively stable cluster of atoms bound by chemical bonds d) can be formed by atoms of the same type e) of boron trifluoride has 4 bonding electron pairs f) of methane has the atomic nucleus of carbon in the middle of the regular tetrahedron g) is always nonpolar if it consists of atoms of different electronegativities h) can be linear or bent if it consists of three atoms

26. Assign symbols for the Latin names of these elements - stibium, stannum, aluminium, magnesium, silicium, selenium: a) At, Sn, Al, Mn, S, Se b) Sb, Sn, Al, Mg, Si, Sl

c) Sb, Sn, Am, Mg, Si, Sn d) Sb, Sn, Al, Mn, Si, Se e) Sb, St, Al, Mn, Si, Se f) St, Sn, Au, Mg, Si, Se g) Sb, Sn, Al, Mg, Si, Se h) St, Sn, Au, Mg, Sl, Se

27. What are the oxidation numbers of elements in listed oxides if oxidation number

of oxygen atom is -II: Mn2O7, HgO, Ag2O, P4O6, N2O5, SO3, SiO2: a) V, I, II, III, V, IV, VI b) VII, II, II, III, V, VI, IV c) VII, II, I, III, V, IV, VI d) VII, I, II, II, V, IV, VI e) V, IV, II, III, V, IV, VI f) I, VII, III, IV, VI, IV, IV g) VII, II, I, III, V, VI, IV h) V, II, I, III, V, VI, IV

28. Select the correct statement about hydroxides with the general formula M(OH)n: a) M is an atom of metal and n is 1 - 7 b) M is an atom of metal and n is 1 - 4 c) OH- is the hydroxide ion d) OH- is the hydroxonium ion e) they can be formed by the reaction of base-forming oxides with water f) according to Brönsted theory they are proton donors g) in the reaction with acids they form salts h) their water solutions have pH > 7

29. The ionization energy: a) is the energy required to remove an electron from an atom in the gaseous state b) informs us how strongly an electron is bound in an atom c) of alkali metals (Li, Na, K) is high d) is related to the energy of an electron in an atom so that the lower energy of an electron the higher ionization energy e) is given, e.g. in kJ.mol-1 f) is low for metals which are easily reduced g) is low for metals which are easily oxidized h) reflects how easily cation can be formed from an atom

30. The electron shell with the principal quantum number n = 3 can contain: a) s, p orbitals b) s orbitals c) s, p, d orbitals d) s, p, d, f orbitals e) only p orbitals f) orbitals with 18 electrons at most g) orbitals with 8 electrons at most h) only d orbitals

31. In starch molecules, the following bonds can occur: a) α(1-4) glycosidic b) α(1-6) glycosidic c) ß(1-4) glycosidic 8

d) N-glycosidic e) O-glycosidic f) amide g) α(2-6) glycosidic h) the same as in glycogen molecules

32. In the molecule of CH2 = CH2, the following bonds are present: a) 2 σ and 2 π bonds b) 1 σ and 1 π bond c) 5 σ and 1 π bond d) 1 σ and 3 π bonds e) 5 σ and 2 π bonds f) 1 σ and 5 π bonds g) 2 σ and 3 π bonds h) 5 σ and 3 π bonds

33. A single bond: a) is, e.g. the covalent bond in the molecules of H2 and F2 b) consists of two electron pairs c) can be formed by overlapping of two s orbitals d) can be formed by overlapping of s and p orbitals e) is typical for saturated hydrocarbons f) is more reactive than the double bond g) is stronger than the triple bond h) between atoms is formed by a common electron pair

34. A double bond: a) is formed by sigma and pi bonds (σ and π) b) is formed by one electron pair c) can be found in molecules of long-chain carboxylic acids d) can be a part of the conjugated system e) can be converted into a single bond by an addition reaction f) can be converted into a triple bond by an elimination reaction g) is more reactive than a single bond h) is present in the fumaric acid molecule

35. Glycosidic bonds: a) α(1-4) occur in the molecule of starch b) are formed during the oxidation of saccharides c) α(1-6) occur in the molecule of glycogen d) can be O-glycosidic e) occur in molecules of, e.g. starch, glycogen, nucleotides f) can be σ and π g) can be N-glycosidic h) are also found in nucleosides

36. According to the Brönsted theory, acids are: a) substances which can release a proton b) all substances that can color phenolphthalein to red violet c) substances which can release the atom of hydrogen d) substances able to cleave off H2 e) proton donors f) all substances that are ionized in water to form hydroxide anions 9

g) only electroneutral molecules that can release H+ - - + h) electroneutral molecules and some ions (e.g. HCO3 , H2PO4 ), which may be donors of H

37. According to the Brönsted theory, bases are: a) all substances that can color the litmus paper to the red in water solution b) proton acceptors c) substances which can accept a proton d) all compounds with -OH group in their molecule e) only compounds that can cleave off the OH- anion in water f) only the substances of alkali-forming oxides with water g) also anions of polyprotic acids that can accept a proton - - + + h) e.g. NH3, CH3COO , Cl , NH4 , C6H5NH3

38. Which of the following pairs are conjugated pairs of the following protolytic reaction + - NH3 + HCl NH4 + Cl : + a) HCl and NH4 - b) NH3 and Cl + c) NH3 and NH4 d) NH3 and NH4Cl e) HCl and Cl- f) NH3 and HCl + - g) NH4 and Cl h) HCl and NH4Cl

39. The strength of acids decreases in the following order:

HClO4 > HClO3 > HClO2 > HClO. Which of the following statements is true: a) the polarity of O-H bond increases b) the pK value of acids increases c) the value of the ionization (dissociation) constant decreases d) all values of ionization constants (K) are the same e) the value of the degree of ionization α decreases f) there is the same polarity of O-H bonds g) there are the same pK values for acids h) the K value increases

40. The electrolytic ionization (dissociation) occurs when: a) the number of particles in the volume unit of the solution is increased compared to the original number of molecules after the dissolution of the electrolyte b) after the dissolution of the electrolyte, the osmotic pressure decreases in the solution c) the soluble salt breaks down in the aqueous solution to give the oppositely charged ions d) during the dissolution the compound stays unchanged in the solution e) the substance in the solvent decomposes to cations and anions f) a crystal lattice decomposes into molecules in the solution g) the ion secretion occurs on the electrodes h) the dissolved substance in the form of the molecules is evenly dispersed throughout the solution

41. The strength of acids and bases: a) is assessed according to the solvent in which they are prepared b) is determined according to the value of osmotic pressure π of acid or base solution c) is determined according to the value of their ionization constant 10

d) is determined by the value of their isoelectric point e) is determined by the pH value of their solutions f) is determined by the pK value g) is determined by the value of the degree of ionization α h) is determined by their concentration

42. The solution is acidic if: a) pH = 4.8 b) pOH = 11.9 c) pOH > 7 d) pH < 6 e) pH > 8 f) pOH < 6 g) pH = 7 h) pOH = 7

43. The solution is alkaline if: a) pOH < 7 b) pH < 6 c) pOH = 4.5 d) pOH > 7 e) pH = 5.5 f) pOH = 13 g) pOH = 7 h) pH = 9

44. The solution is alkaline if: + -8 -1 a) c(H3O ) = 2×10 mol.l b) c(OH-) = 7×10-10 mol.l-1 + -7 -1 c) c(H3O ) = 1×10 mol.l + -1 -1 d) c(H3O ) = 7×10 mol.l + -6 -1 e) c(H3O ) = 1×10 mol.l f) c(OH-) = 1×10-7 mol.l-1 g) c(OH-) = 7×10-3 mol.l-1 + -12 -1 h) c(H3O ) = 2×10 mol.l

45. The solution is acidic if: a) c(OH-) = 4×10-12 mol.dm-3 + -5 -3 b) c(H3O ) = 7×10 mol.dm c) c(OH-) = 3×10-5 mol.dm-3 + -10 -3 d) c(H3O ) = 7×10 mol.dm e) c(OH-) = 1×10-7 mol.dm-3 + -7 -3 f) c(H3O ) = 1×10 mol.dm + -2 -3 g) c(H3O ) = 7×10 mol.dm h) c(OH-) = 8×10-9 mol.dm-3

46. If the acidity constant of the nitrous acid is 4.5×10-4, (log 4.5 = 0.65) then the following statement is true: a) the nitrous acid is a weak acid b) the nitrous acid is a strong acid c) the nitrous acid is a weak electrolyte 11

d) the HNO2 solution can react only with weak bases e) the pK value is 3.35 f) the pK value is 4.65 + - g) in its aqueous solution only H3O and NO2 ions will occur - + h) in the aqueous solution, the equilibrium between HNO2 molecules and NO2 and H3O ions can be expressed by the equilibrium constant

47. The ionization constant of the base: a) always has the same value as the ionization constant of the conjugate acid b) always has the same value as the autoprotolytic constant of water c) characterizes the ability to attract the proton d) determines the strength of a base e) has the same value as the degree of ionization of the base f) characterizes the ability to cleave off the proton g) indicates the solubility of a base in the given solvent h) indicates the amount of OH- ions in the solution of a base

48. If we dissolve in water (pH water = 7) the salt: a) KClO, the pH of the resulting solution will be higher than 7 b) sodium formate, the pH of the resulting solution will be in the acidic area c) the pH of the solution will depend only on the salt concentration and not on its composition d) of a strong base with a weak acid - the pOH of this solution will be less than 7 e) of a weak base with a strong acid - the pH of this solution will be less than 7 f) pH of the solution will always be 7 g) of a strong base with a weak acid - original pH does not change (i.e., pH = 7) h) of a strong acid with a strong base - salt hydrolysis occurs, and the pH of the solution will always be less than 7

49. After the dissolution of KCN in water (pH of water = 7): - - a) a partial reaction cannot occur: CN + H2O HCN + OH b) the ionization of the salt occurs in the solution c) the initial pH value of the water will not change d) pOH of the resulting solution will be less than 7 e) only KCN and H2O molecules will be present in the resulting solution f) the salt is hydrolyzed in the solution g) pH of the resulting solution is acidic h) the litmus paper will change its color to red

50. Which of the following pairs of salt solutions almost do not undergo hydrolysis: a) K2SO3, BiCl3 b) RbCl, Na2SO4 c) NaCN, (NH4)2S d) Li2SO4, NaClO4 e) Cs2SO3, KF f) CH3COOK, K2HPO4 g) K2SO4, NaCl h) Na2S, KCN

51. Protolytic reactions: a) are reactions in which acids react with non-noble metals to form hydrogen

b) are reactions in which bases and salts accept the -OH groups c) are essential for the acid ionization in which the acid reacts with molecules of water d) are reactions in which the base releases and the acid accepts the proton e) are reactions in which salts in the solution are ionized, and electrodes are covered by metals f) are called hydrolysis in which the salt ions react with water g) are opposite to electrolysis h) are reactions in which the acid releases and the base accepts the proton

52. According to the Brönsted theory, acids can be: - - - 3- a) e.g. HCO3 , HSO4 , OH , PO4 ions b) only electroneutral molecules + c) only cations, e.g. NH4 d) electroneutral molecules, cations and anions that can release H+ e) only substances with more hydrogen atoms per molecule f) proton donor substances g) substances with more oxygen atoms per a molecule - - - h) e.g. HSO3 , H2PO4 , HS ions

53. The strong and weak bases differ: a) in the number of -OH groups that they can accept from another molecule b) in their solubility in water c) in their concentration in non-aqueous solvents d) in the number of -OH groups in their molecules e) in ionization constants f) in the ability to accept a proton g) in the values of ionization degrees h) in the ability to donate a proton

54. Select groups of compounds that behave as electrolytes in aqueous solutions: a) CoCl2, Na2CO3, CHCl3, HCl, C2H6 b) CH4, benzene, KMnO4, CH3COOH, K2SO4 c) FeCl3, H2SO4, NaBr, CH3COOK, NH4Br d) CuSO4, HI, NaNO3, K3[Fe(CN)6] e) KCN, Na2CO3, C6H6, glucose, CH2Cl2 f) KCl, CH3COOK, NaI, (NH4)2S, FeCl2 g) fructose, CH2Cl2, KBr, NiCl2, toluene h) CH4, chloroform, HCl, NaOH, H2S

+ - 55. The value of the product of ion concentrations of H3O and OH (Kw): a) is related to the pH value as follows: pH + pOH = pKw b) is the same in all aqueous solutions at the given temperature c) does not change with the temperature change d) is also called the solubility constant -14 2 -2 e) is Kw = 1×10 mol .l at 25 °C f) is also called the autoprotolytic constant of water g) can be converted into a logarithmic scale as follows: pKw = - log Kw h) is also called the ionic product of water

56. True solutions are: a) only solutions of strong electrolytes 13

b) those, in which the size of dissolved particles is larger than 1×10-9 m c) crude dispersion systems of a liquid and solid substance d) homogeneous mixtures of a gas and solid substance e) only aqueous solutions of inorganic compounds f) those, in which the size of dissolved molecules (particles) is less than 1 nm g) e.g. egg white or starch solutions h) e.g. fructose and physiological saline solutions

57. Osmotic pressure: a) is the pressure to be applied to the surface of the solution to prevent dialysis b) can be used to determine the molar mass of the solute (especially for macromolecular substances) by the relation: where M = molar mass of the solute, m = weight of the solute, V = the solution volume c) is mainly caused by mineral salts in human blood d) of electrolytes is smaller than of non-electrolytes at the same concentration (mol.l-1) e) is determined by the external pressure applied to the more concentrated solution to prevent the solvent from entering the solution through the semipermeable membrane f) manifests if the red blood cells are put into the hypotonic environment - their hemolysis occurs g) is the same in glucose solution, c = 0.3 mol.l-1, and NaCl solution, c = 0.3 mol.l-1 h) does not depend on the structure of substances but the number of particles formed in the solution after the dissolution of the electrolyte in the given solvent and its ionization

58. Which of the following statements about osmosis is true: a) in humans, the osmosis is important during the administration of injections into a vein b) from the aqueous solution the hemoglobin can be separated from NaCl by osmosis c) it is a process that allows protein molecules to pass from the outside space into the cell d) the concentration of the substance in the more concentrated solution decreases as a result of osmosis e) if we put red blood cells into NaCl solution with concentration c = 0.3 mol.l-1, they will remain unchanged f) if a semipermeable membrane separates the solution and solvent, the solvent penetrates into the solution g) it is a process in which the concentration of the concentrated solution is increased h) it occurs when two solutions of different concentration (molecules, ions) are separated by a semipermeable membrane

-1 59. An aqueous solution of AgNO3 (Mr = 170) at the concentration of 0.5 mol.l contains: a) 0.25 mol AgNO3 in 50 milliliters of the solution b) 1 mol AgNO3 in two liters of water c) 0.5 mmol AgNO3 in one milliliter of the solution 3 d) 85 mg AgNO3 in one cm of the solution 3 e) 0.25 mol AgNO3 in 0.5 dm of water f) 2 mol AgNO3 in 4,000 ml of the solution g) 170 g AgNO3 in 2,000 ml of the solution 3 h) 170 g AgNO3 in one dm of the solution

-1 60. There are three aqueous solutions: A (NiCl2), c = 0.1 mol.l ; B (KCl), c = 0.15 mol.l-1; C (sucrose), c = 0.3 mol.l-1. Select the correct statement: a) the solution C has the greatest osmotic pressure b) the solution A has the lowest osmotic pressure c) in all these solutions there is the same osmotic pressure d) the solution B has the higher osmotic pressure than solution A e) the solution C is hypertonic to solution B f) the solution B is hypertonic to solution A g) solutions A, B and C are isotonic h) the solution A is hypotonic to solution C

61. The water solution of FeCl3 with the weight fraction w(FeCl3) = 0.008 may contain: a) 0.8 g of FeCl3 in 100 g of solution b) 1.6 g of FeCl3 and 200 g of water c) 0.8 g of FeCl3 in 1000 g of the solution d) 2 g of FeCl3 in 250 g of the solution e) 0.008 % of FeCl3 f) 8 % of FeCl3 g) 4 g of FeCl3 and 496 g of H2O h) 800 mg of FeCl3 and 99.2 g of H2O

62. There is a physiological solution of NaCl (c = 0.15 mol.l-1). Select the solution which is isotonic with NaCl solution: -1 a) CuSO4, c = 0.1 mol.l b) fructose, c = 0.3 mol.l-1 -1 c) NiCl2, c = 0.15 mol.l -1 d) CdSO4, c = 0.15 mol.l -1 e) KNO3, c = 300 mmol.l -1 f) FeCl2, c = 100 mmol.l g) sucrose, c = 0.15 mol.l-1 -1 h) FeCl3, c = 75 mmol.l

-1 63. There is a Ba(NO3)2 solution with a concentration of 0.2 mol.l . Select a solution

which is hypertonic compared to the Ba(NO3)2 solution: -1 a) AgNO3, c = 0.5 mol.l -1 b) FeSO4, c = 300 mmol.l -1 c) Fe2(SO4)3, c = 0.15 mol.l -1 d) NiCl2, c = 300 mmol.l -1 e) KMnO4, c = 0.3 mol.l -1 f) ZnI2, c = 0.4 mol.l g) fructose, c = 0.6 mol.l-1 -1 h) KIO3, c = 0.25 mol.l

64. Diffusion: a) is the opposite of osmosis b) may occur, e.g. when we insert a KMnO4 crystal into the beaker with water

c) is the passage of the solvent through the semi-permeable membrane d) is the passage of the low-molecular weight particles through the semi-permeable membrane e) is the spontaneous passage of particles of the substance from the area with a higher concentration into the area with a lower concentration f) is the passage of the solvent from the area with a higher substance concentration into the area with a lower concentration g) occurs in the system of two solutions separated by a semi-permeable membrane h) is the opposite of dialysis

65. The physiological solution is the water solution of NaCl (Mr = 58) with a concentration of 0.15 mol.l-1. It may contain: a) 30 mmol of NaCl in 200 ml of the solution b) 0.15 mol of NaCl in one liter of H2O c) 17.4 g of NaCl in two liters of the solution d) 4.35 g of NaCl in 500 ml of H2O e) 0.3 mmol of NaCl in two milliliters of the solution f) 8.7 g of NaCl in one liter of the solution g) 0.87 mg of NaCl in 100 ml of the solution h) 150 mmol of NaCl in one dm3 of the solution

66. The molar concentration c(A) of the compound A is: a) determined by the proportion of the mass of the solute m (A) and the volume of the solution (V): b) determined by the proportion of the amount of substance of solute n(A) and the solution volume (V) c) the number of moles of a substance A in 1,000 ml of a solvent d) expressed by the formula: where n(A) = the amount of substance of the solute A, V = the volume of the solution e) determined by the proportion of the amount of substance of the solute n(A) and the total amount of substance n of the solution f) expressed by the formula: where n(A) = the amount of substance of the solute A, n = the total amount of substance of the system g) the number of moles of the substance A in one dm3 of the solution h) determined by the proportion of the amount of substance of the solute n(A) and the volume of the solvent

67. In a saturated solution of a salt: a) the same amount of the substance is dissolved in the time unit as it is again precipitated from the solution b) its composition is the same under the defined conditions c) the osmotic pressure is calculated according to the formula: where:

c = the concentration of the solution, R = gas constant, T = temperature in Kelvin d) the maximum amount of the salt is dissolved under the defined conditions e) there is the dynamic balance between the undissolved part of the substance and the solution f) the equilibrium state is attained when during a time unit such a mass of the substance is dissolved which is equal to the mass of the substance already dissolved in the solution

g) the concentration is always 1 mol.l-1 h) the concentration is always 10 % (w %)

68. Mixing equation: a) can be expressed by the formula: b) can be used to calculate the pH of buffers after their preparation from two basic solutions c) can be expressed by the formula: m1w1 + m2w2 = m3w3, where: m1 and m2 are masses of

solutions before their mixing, m3 is the mass of the resulting solution, and the symbol w denotes the mass fractions of the respective solutions d) is used to calculate the values of the ionizing constants of the amino acid e) is used to calculate the composition of the resulting solution after mixing two solutions of different concentrations f) can be expressed by the formula: where n(A) = the amount of substance of the solute A, V = the volume of the solution g) is used to calculate values of isoelectric points of neutral amino acids according to

the formula: h) can be expressed by the formula: m1(A) + m2(A) = m3(A), where m1 and m2 are masses

of the solutions before their mixing, m3 is the mass of the resulting solution of the compound A

69. Select the correct statement: a) the amount of substance concentration c (A) is the number of moles of the substance A in one liter of a solution b) the amount of substance concentration c (A) is the number of moles of the substance A in one dm3 of a solvent c) the mass concentration of the substance A is determined by the fraction of the mass m (A) of the substance A and the volume of a solution V; the unit is kg.m-3 or kg.dm-3, g.l-1 may also be used d) the mass fraction of the substance A is the number of grams of the substance A in 1,000 g of a solution e) the volume fraction of the substance A is determined by the fraction of the volume V (A) of the substance A and the volume of a solution V f) the volume fraction of the substance A is the number of milliliters of the substance A

in 100 ml of H2O g) when w(NaCl) = 0.13, the solution is composed of 13 g of NaCl + 100 g of H2O h) the solution with the concentration c = 2 mol.l-1 contains two moles of a substance in two liters of a solution

70. Osmosis: a) is a process that cannot proceed in the human organism b) is a property of a system consisting of a solvent, a solution and a semi-permeable membrane c) occurs when two NaCl solutions of different concentrations are separated by a semipermeable membrane d) is the spontaneous transition of particles of the substance from places with a higher concentration to places with a lower concentration e) cannot occur when we add sterile distilled water to human blood

f) is the transition of solvent molecules through a semi-permeable membrane from a solution with a lower concentration of a substance to a solution with a higher concentration g) is the same at the same concentration (mol.l-1) of both electrolyte and non-electrolyte solutions h) is the opposite of the diffusion process

71. Oxidation: a) is any chemical reaction in which atoms of elements or their ions accept electrons b) is any chemical reaction in which atoms of elements or their ions donate electrons c) is a process associated with the decrease of the positive oxidation number of atoms d) is a process associated with the elevation of the positive oxidation number of atoms e) and reduction always occur together and are only the partial reactions of the oxidation - reduction reaction f) in biological systems is the basis for metabolism g) of the organic compounds is combined with their hydrogenation h) is the process in which the molecule of the organic compound accepts two hydrogen atoms

72. Reduction: a) is any chemical reaction in which atoms of the elements or their ions accept electrons b) is any chemical reaction in which atoms of the elements or their ions donate electrons c) is associated with the decrease of the positive oxidation number of atoms d) of silver by hydrogen is proceeding according to the reaction Ag2S + H2 → 2Ag + H2S e) is the process in which the compound accepts two hydrogen protons f) it is called dehydrogenation in organic compounds g) it is also the combination of compounds with hydrogen h) of organic compounds proceeds usually as the hydrogenation

73. Oxidizing agents are substances: a) which are proton acceptors in a chemical reaction b) which are acceptors of hydrogen atoms in the dehydrogenation of substances c) which accept electrons in the oxidation-reduction reaction d) which are donors of electrons in a chemical reaction e) which are reduced in the chemical reaction f) to which we can include KMnO4, H2O2 and KClO3 g) which can oxidize other substances while being reduced h) which can reduce other substances while being oxidized

74. Dismutation is a reaction: a) oxidation-reduction b) in which one substance (molecules of the same compound, the same ions or atoms of the same element) can accept and donate electrons c) in which the same ions or atoms of the same element undergo both oxidation and reduction d) Cl2 + H2O HClO + HCl e) f) 2 KMnO4 + 16 HCl 5 Cl2 + 2 MnCl2 + 2 KCl + 8 H2O g) 3 K2MnO4 + 2 H2O 2 KMnO4 + MnO2 + 4 KOH h) 3 HNO2 HNO3 + 2 NO + H2O

75. The iodine atom has the oxidation number VII in the following compounds: a) NaIO

b) I2O7 c) PbI2 d) NH4I e) HIO3 f) KIO4 g) H3IO5 h) H5IO6

76. The chromium atom has the oxidation number VI in the following compounds: a) Cr2O3 b) KCrSO4)212 H2O c) Cr(OH)3 d) K2CrO4 e) K2Cr2O7 f) CrO3 g) CrCl3 h) PbCrO4

77. The oxygen atom has the oxidation number -I in the following compounds: a) Na2O2 b) BaO c) K2O2 d) BaO2 e) Ba(OH)2 f) H2O2 g) H-O-O-H h) H2O

78. The manganese atom has the oxidation number VII in the following compounds: a) MnSO4 b) Ca(MnO4)2 c) Mn2O7 d) KMnO4 e) K2MnO4 f) H2MnO3 g) MnS h) CaMnO4

79. The phosphorus atom has the oxidation number III in the compounds: a) HPO3 b) Mg(H2PO4)2 c) Ca3(PO4)2.CaF2 d) Na2HPO4 e) H3PO3 f) P4O6

h) PI3

80. Which of the following statements is true for the chemical reaction

Zn + CuSO4 ZnSO4 + Cu: a) the copper cation is reduced b) Cu2+ cation is an oxidant (oxidizing agent) c) the reaction is oxidation-reduction d) the oxidation numbers of the elements do not change e) copper cation is oxidized f) zinc is reduced g) the reaction runs from left to right h) zinc is a reducing agent, because in the electrochemical series of metals (Beckett serie) it stands in front of the copper

81. Which of the following statements is true for the chemical reaction

Fe + 2 HCl (diluted) FeCl2 + H2 : a) Fe is oxidized b) Fe is reduced c) the reaction is oxidation-reduction d) the chloride anion is oxidized e) the reaction proceeds and Fe is a reducing agent f) the reaction does not proceed g) the H+ cation is an oxidizing agent h) the H+ cation is reduced

82. If we immerse pieces of iron and zinc in a solution of ferrous and zinc salts, the reaction proceeds: a) Fe + Zn2+ Zn + Fe2+ b) Fe2+ + Zn Zn2+ + Fe c) 2 Fe + 3 Zn2+ 2 Fe3+ + 3 Zn d) the reduction of the iron cation by the action of metal zinc e) in which elemental iron is oxidized f) in which metal zinc is oxidized g) oxidation-reduction h) in which zinc metal acts as a reductant (reducing agent)

83. For the oxidation-reduction reaction scheme, select the appropriate partial reactions or verify that the stoichiometric coefficients are correct:

Cu + HNO3 Cu(NO3)2 + NO2 + H2O a) NV + 3 e NII b) Cu0 + 2 e CuII c) Cu0 - 2 e CuII d) Cu0 - 1 e CuI e) NIII + 1 e NII f) NV + 1 e NIV g) CuI - 1 e CuII h) 1 + 4 1 + 2 + 2

84. For the oxidation-reduction reaction scheme, select the appropriate partial reactions or verify that the stoichiometric coefficients are correct:

H2O2 + KMnO4 + H2SO4 O2 + MnSO4 + K2SO4 + H2O a) MnVII + 5 e MnII b) MnVI + 4 e MnII c) SVI + 2 e SIV -I 0 d) 2 O - 2 e O2 e) MnVI - 4 e MnII f) MnVII + 3 e MnIV g) O-I + 1 e O-II h) 5 + 2 + 3 5 + 2 + 1 + 8

85. For the oxidation-reduction reaction scheme, select the appropriate partial reactions or verify that the stoichiometric coefficients are correct:

H2O2 H2O + O2 I 0 a) 2 H - 2 e H2 b) 2 O-I + 2 e 2 O-II -I 0 c) 2 O - 2 e O2 -II 0 d) 2 O - 4 e O2 e) 2 O-II - 2 e 2 O-I I 0 f) 2 H + 2 e H2 g) 2 2 + 1 h) 3 2 + 1

86. For the oxidation-reduction reaction scheme, select the appropriate partial reactions or verify that the stoichiometric coefficients are correct:

SO2 + H2S S + H2O a) S-II - 2 e S0 b) SII - 2 e S0 c) O-II - 1 e O-I d) SIV + 4 e S0 e) SVI + 6 e S0 f) S-I - 1 e S0 g) H-I - 2 e HI h) 1 + 2 3 + 2

87. For the oxidation-reduction reaction scheme, select the appropriate partial reactions or verify that the stoichiometric coefficients are correct:

Na2Cr2O7 + HCl NaCl + CrCl3+ Cl2+ H2O -I 0 a) 2 Cl - 2 e Cl2 b) 2 Cl-I - 2 e CrIII c) CrVI + 3 e CrIII d) ClI + 2 e Cl-I e) NaII + 1 e NaI f) CrVII + 4 e CrIII g) O-I + 1 e O-II h) 1 + 14 2 + 2 + 3 + 7

88. In which of the following reactions iodine is oxidized: a) Cl2 + 2 KI I2 + 2 KCl 21

b) 2 KI + O3 + H2O I2 + 2 KOH + O2 c) 3 I2 + 10 HNO3 6 HIO3 + 10 NO + 2 H2O d) NaIO3 + NaClO NaIO4 + NaCl e) Pb(NO3)2 + 2 KI PbI2 + 2 KNO3 f) I2 + H2S 2 HI + S g) I2 + 5 Cl2 + 6 H2O 2 HIO3 + 10 HCl h) Na3AsO3 + I2 + H2O Na3AsO4 + 2 HI

89. In which of the following reactions sulfur is oxidized: a) Fe S + 4 HCl 2 FeCl + 2 H + 3 S 2 3 2 2 b) 2 Cr + 6 H2SO4 Cr2(SO4)3 + 3 SO2 + 6 H2O c) I2 + H2S 2 HI + S d) NaOH + SO2 NaHSO3 e) 2 FeCl3 + H2S 2 FeCl2 + S + 2 HCl f) K2Cr2O7 + S Cr2O3 + K2SO4 g) Cl2 + SO2 + 2 H2O 2 HCl + H2SO4 h) 4 FeS2 + 11 O2 2 Fe2O3 + 8 SO2

90. Select the reactions, in which H2O2 is the oxidizing agent: a) H2O2 + 2 FeSO4 + H2SO4 Fe2(SO4)3 + 2 H2O b) 5 H2O2 + 2 KMnO4 + 3 H2SO4 5 O2 + 2 MnSO4 + K2SO4 + 8 H2O c) H2O2 + PbO2 + 2 HNO3 Pb(NO3)2 + O2 + 2 H2O d) H2O2 + 2 KI + H2SO4 I2 + K2SO4 + 2 H2O 2+ - e) Mn + H2O2 + 2 OH MnO2 + 2 H2O f) H2O2 + H2S 2 H2O + S g) Ag2O + H2O2 2 Ag + H2O + O2 2+ 3+ - • h) H2O2 + Fe Fe + OH + OH

91. The rate of chemical reaction: a) for gases depends on the pressure b) depends on the concentration of reacting substances c) is affected by the presence of catalysts d) is directly proportional to the product of reactants molar concentrations e) can be expressed as the change of reactants concentrations per time unit f) does not depend on the value of activation energy g) is determined by the equilibrium constant h) depends on the temperature

92. The equilibrium state of the reaction: a) is the state in which the reaction proceeds by the same rate in both directions b) is the state in which the reactants are completely converted to products c) is expressed by the equilibrium constant d) is the state in which concentrations of reactants in the reaction mixture are equal to concentrations of products e) depends on the activation energy f) can be affected by a change of temperature of the reaction mixture g) can be affected by a change of products concentration h) can be affected by the presence of catalysts 22

93.Chemical equilibrium of the reaction 2 HBr H2 + Br2 with the reaction heat -1 Qm = +70 kJ.mol is shifted to the reactant side by: a) increasing the temperature b) decreasing the temperature c) removing H2 from the reaction mixture d) the addition of Br2 into the reaction mixture e) the addition of a catalyst f) the addition of HBr into the reaction mixture g) removing HBr from the reaction mixture h) the addition of H2 into the reaction mixture

94. Select the correct expression for the equilibrium constant of the reaction

N2 + 3 H2 2 NH3: a) b) c)

3 d) K = [N2] . [H2] e) f) g) h)

95. Which of the following equations express exothermic process: -1 a) 2 SO3 2 SO2 + O2; Qm = +195 kJ.mol -1 b) CO + 1/2 O2 CO2; Qm = -283 kJ.mol -1 c) 4 NH3 + 5 O2 4 NO + 6 H2O; Qm = -906 kJ.mol -1 d) N2 + 3 H2 2 NH3; Qm = -93 kJ.mol -1 e) 2 H2 + O2 2 H2O; Qm = -452 kJ.mol -1 f) 2 H2O 2 H2 + O2; Qm = + 452 kJ.mol -1 g) C + O2 CO2; Qm = -394 kJ.mol -1 h) CH4 + 2 O2 CO2 + 2 H2O; Qm = -804 kJ.mol

96. The activation energy of the reaction: a) applies only during exothermic chemical processes b) applies during both the exothermic and endothermic chemical processes c) is related to the rate of the chemical reaction d) is affected by the presence of a catalyst e) is expressed by the equilibrium constant 23

f) is expressed by the reaction heat g) depends on the reaction heat h) depends on the equilibrium constant

-1 97. For the reaction 2 NO2 N2O4; Qm = -57 kJ.mol the following statement applies: a) when increasing the temperature, the equilibrium state of the reaction shifts toward the reactant side b) the reaction is endothermic in the direction of N2O4 formation c) when increasing the temperature, the equilibrium state of the reaction shifts to the product side d) the reaction is exothermic in the direction of N2O4 formation e) the reaction represents the oxidation-reduction process f) when decreasing the temperature, the equilibrium state of reaction shifts toward the reactant side g) when increasing the pressure (reaction in the gas phase), the equilibrium state of reaction shifts toward the product side h) when decreasing the pressure (reaction in the gas phase), the equilibrium state of reaction shifts toward the product side

98. According to Hess’s law, the value of reaction heat Qm of a given reaction: a) depends on the way how the reaction proceeds b) depends on the number of intermediate steps in which the reaction proceeds c) is decreasing with an increasing number of intermediate steps d) is determined by the difference between potential energies of products and reactants e) is proportional to the reaction rate f) is affected by the presence of a catalyst g) depends on the equilibrium constant of the reaction h) is increasing with an increasing number of intermediate steps

99. For the exothermic reactions following statements apply: a) the reaction system absorbs heat b) the reaction system releases heat c) potential energy of products is lower than that of reactants d) they are the source of energy e) they cannot have the character of redox processes f) they cannot have the character of protolytic processes g) they have the character of only redox processes h) they cannot proceed in the living systems

100. For the endothermic reactions following statements apply: a) the reaction system absorbs heat b) the reaction system releases heat c) the potential energy of products is higher than that of reactants d) they are the source of energy e) all of them have the character of redox processes f) all of them have the character of protolytic reactions g) their Qm value has a positive sign h) their Qm value has a negative sign

101. The energy balance of the chemical reaction provides information: a) about the difference between molar binding energies of formed as well as broken bonds 24

b) only about the value of molar binding energies of reactants c) only about the value of molar binding energies of products d) about the value of reaction heat Qm e) about the value of the rate constant f) about the value of activation energy g) whether the given reaction is exothermic or endothermic h) about the type or mechanism of the reaction

102. Molecular hydrogen is more reactive than molecular nitrogen, since: a) during the formation of H2 molecule from hydrogen atoms the lower amount of energy is

released than during formation of N2 molecule b) during the formation of N2 molecule from nitrogen atoms the higher amount of energy is

released than during the formation of H2 molecule c) binding energy in the N2 molecule is higher than in the H2 molecule d) binding energy in the H2 molecule is lower than in the N2 molecule e) reaction heat Qm of the H2 molecule formation from hydrogen atoms is lower than that of

the formation of the N2 molecule f) molecular hydrogen is less stable than molecular nitrogen g) the boiling point of nitrogen is higher than that of hydrogen h) H2 has lower relative molecular mass than N2

103. The reaction heat Qm is the heat, which: a) reaction systems release only in the chemical reaction b) reaction systems exchange with the environment in the chemical reaction c) is consumed or released in the chemical reactions d) can have only a positive sign e) value is influenced by the presence of a catalyst in the reaction mixture f) value does not depend on the presence of a catalyst in the reaction mixture g) expresses the rate of a chemical reaction h) can have positive or negative signs in the chemical reactions

104. Select the true statement about activation energy Ea: a) the lower the activation energy, the higher the chemical reaction rate b) its value is affected by the presence of a catalyst c) its value is determined by the difference between the potential energy of the transition state complex of the reaction and potential energy of reaction products d) the higher the activation energy, the lower the chemical reaction rate e) it influences the value of the equilibrium constant of the reaction f) it does not influence the rate of chemical reaction g) it applies to both exothermic and endothermic reactions h) it applies only to endothermic reactions

105. The value of reaction heat Qm of a chemical reaction is determined by: a) the presence of catalysts b) the reaction rate c) the value of the equilibrium constant d) the value of activation energy e) the difference between the relative atomic or molecular masses of reactants and products of a reaction f) the amount of released or consumed energy in a reaction

g) the amount of energy which the reaction system exchanges with the environment h) pH of the reaction medium

106. Select the correct statement about the isotopes of hydrogen: a) they have the same physical properties b) they differ in the number of neutrons in their nucleus c) they differ in the number of protons in their nucleus d) they differ in the number of electrons in the electron shell e) they have the same mass number f) deuterium is the most abundant isotope of hydrogen occurring in organic compounds g) they have the same atomic number h) deuterium has the nucleus called deuteron, composed of one proton and one neutron

107. Select the correct statement about hydrogen: a) in the compounds with fluorine, oxygen and nitrogen the hydrogen atom can be bound with adjacent molecules by a covalent bond b) hydrogen is the first member of the periodic table of elements c) hydrogen cannot react with nitrogen directly and reaction N2 + 3 H2 2 NH3 does not proceed even at higher temperature or using the catalysts d) hydrogen can also reduce sulfides, e.g. Ag2S + H2 2 Ag + H2S e) hydrogen forms ternary (three elements containing) compounds - hydrides - with all elements of the periodic table f) hydrogen atoms have the simplest electron configuration 1s1 g) hydrogen rapidly diffuses through the porous walls of solid substances h) at low temperatures (-253 °C) hydrogen condenses to a colorless liquid

108. A proton: a) has strong reducing effects b) can be an acceptor of an electron pair c) is indicated as H+ + d) forms the cation H3O with water e) binds to cation H+ forming the hydrogen molecule f) can provide the electron pair to other atoms g) is unstable and combines with the compound possessing a free electron pair h) is formed by removing the electron from the hydrogen atom

109. Hydrogen atoms: a) have very similar properties to those of other atoms in I.A group of the periodic table of elements b) are more reactive than hydrogen molecules c) can accept or donate electrons always leading to the formation of protons d) acquire a more stable electron configuration by forming the chemical bond (e.g. in the

molecule of H2) e) are formed by the cleavage of the hydrogen molecule by supplying the necessary energy f) are the cause of predominantly oxidative properties of hydrogen g) are the cause of reducing properties of hydrogen (in most reactions) h) are less reactive than the hydrogen molecules

110. Select the reactions of binary compounds of hydrogen with water, which can proceed: + - a) HBr + H2O H3O + Br b) KH + H2O H2 + KOH 26

c) CaH2 + 2 H2O 2 H2 + Ca(OH)2 d) PH3 + 4 H2O 4 H2 + H3PO4 e) BaH2 + 2 H2O 2 H2 + Ba(OH)2 f) C2H6 + 2 H2O 5 H2 + 2 CO2 g) AsH3 + 3 H2O H3AsO3 + 3 H2 h) NaH + H2O H2 + NaOH

111. Deuterium: a) has the nucleus composed of one proton and one neutron b) has the nucleus composed of one proton and two neutrons like tritium c) is the isotope of hydrogen d) is the nuclide of light hydrogen e) is designated D f) can be used to monitor reaction mechanisms and kinetics g) is the heavy water h) forms deuterium oxide D2O with oxygen

112. Choose the correct statement about the occurrence of hydrogen isotopes (protium, deuterium and tritium) in nature, mainly in water and organic compounds: a) tritium occurs in the lowest amount b) all three isotopes occur in the same ratio c) deuterium occurs the most frequently in the heavy water d) protium occurs in the lowest amount e) deuterium and tritium are the most often occurring isotopes f) the most frequently occurring isotope is free deuterium g) protium occurs in the largest amount h) the isotope occurs the most frequently

113. Hydrogen: a) does not occur on Earth as atomic hydrogen under the normal conditions b) can be prepared in the reaction of water steam with hot coal according to the

following equation: C + H2O CO + H2 c) has very similar chemical properties to those of other elements in the group IA of the periodic table d) can be prepared in the laboratory by water electrolysis e) belongs to s2 elements f) occurs in the universe in gaseous envelopes of Sun, fixed stars and nebulas g) is the second lightest element in the periodic table after helium h) can react with chlorine according to the following equation: H2 + Cl2 2 HCl

114. H+ cation: a) is also called protium b) is formed from a hydrogen atom by losing an electron c) forms the hydroxide ion in the reaction with water d) forms the oxonium cation in reaction with water e) is formed from a hydrogen atom by accepting an electron from the atom of another element f) can bind to the proton to form an H2 molecule g) can be a donor of an electron pair h) is unstable and binds to the substance which possesses a free electron pair

115. When an atom of oxygen accepts two electrons, there is formed: a) an octet configuration of the previous noble gas helium - b) an anion O2 c) an oxide anion O2- d) an oxide cation O2+ 2- e) peroxide O2 f) an O2 molecule, which has two unpaired electrons + g) a univalent diatomic cation O2 h) an atom of oxygen with the oxidation number -II

116. Oxygen: a) in the molecular form (O2) is more stable than atomic oxygen b) dissolved in water is important for the life of water animals c) is a colorless gas under the normal conditions d) forms oxonium cations with water e) can be prepared by decomposition of H2O2 after the catalytic effect of MnO2 f) in the molecular form (O2) is formed from two atoms of oxygen to gain a more stable electron configuration (of neon) g) in the molecular form (O2) is more stable than ozone h) cannot be prepared by the thermal decomposition of KMnO4

117. Ozone: a) is an isotope of oxygen b) is formed from the molecule and the atom of oxygen and its formula is O3 c) is formed in the atmosphere during the storms d) is prepared by fraction distillation of liquefied air e) is formed in the following reaction: O + O2 O3 f) has reduction properties g) easily releases atomic oxygen; therefore, it has oxidative effects h) has the same molar mass as the molecular oxygen O2

118. An atom of oxygen: a) in compounds acquires an octet configuration of the next noble gas (Ne) b) is stable at room temperature c) in the reaction with another oxygen atom acquires more stable electron configuration of the previous noble gas d) in compounds can form two single bonds or one double bond e) has two unpaired electrons in the valence shell f) can form longer chains similarly to a carbon atom g) in compounds is mostly bivalent h) after accepting two electrons forms an anion with an oxidation number -II

119. Oxidation of substances by oxygen: a) can proceed by the chain mechanism b) does not change the oxidation number of the oxygen atom c) mostly belongs to endothermic reactions d) proceeds faster at temperatures up to 5 °C e) e.g. in the reaction 4 Li + O2 2 Li2O leads to the change of oxidation number of an oxygen atom from 0 to -I f) is, e.g. the reaction 2 H2 + O2 2 H2O 28

g) during which thermal and light radiations arise, is called burning h) can also proceed in the water environment

120. Select the correct statement about water: a) water is the most quantitatively represented compound in the newborn body b) mineral water is a chemical individual (entity) c) water has the same crystal structure in all states d) water is the solvent for ionic compounds e) during the change of liquid water to ice the regular spatial structure is formed f) water is a good solvent for non-polar compounds g) water occurring in nature is a chemically pure substance h) water can be a ligand in coordination compounds

121. Individual atoms in water molecule: a) do not contain free electron pairs at all b) are not located in the straight line, but they form an angle of 104.5° (in the liquid state) c) are bound by the covalent bond d) are bound by the hydrogen bond e) are bound by the ionic bond, and therefore the water is a good solvent of both ionic and covalent compounds f) are bound by van der Waals forces g) are located in the straight line h) have the H-H-O structural arrangement

122. At what temperature water has a maximum density: a) 0 °C b) 273.15 K c) 4 °C d) 373.15 K e) 377.15 K f) 0 K g) 277.15 K h) 100 °C

123. The relatively high boiling point of water is caused by: a) the fact that atoms of elements within a water molecule form bonds using their s and p electrons b) the fact that the bond between oxygen and hydrogen atoms is a coordinate bond c) the fact that the bond between oxygen and hydrogen atoms is ionic d) the fact that molecules of water in the liquid state are bound by hydrogen bonds e) the fact that molecules of water are bound by oxygen bonds f) the fact that oxygen and hydrogen atoms have the same electronegativity g) the fact that energy is needed to split the H-O bond within a molecule of water h) its relatively low molecular weight

124. Which of the following statements about the hydrogen peroxide solution is true: 2- 2- a) it can act as an oxidant in the following reaction: S + 4 H2O2 SO4 + 4 H2O I b) it can react with strong hydroxides producing salts such as hydrogen peroxides M HO2 I and peroxides M2 O2 c) it is used as a whitening agent and for disinfection in medicine (3 % water solution) d) it is used for neutralization of weak acids e) in the acidic environment it can reduce MnVII to MnII

f) concentration of hydrogen peroxide can be determined using the volume of oxygen that is

released during the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide (catalyst MnO2) g) it behaves as a weak base h) its pH value is 7 - 9

125. A molecule of hydrogen peroxide: a) has the following arrangement of atoms: H-O-O-H b) atoms of oxygen are bound together by a covalent bond c) an atom of oxygen has the oxidation number -II d) individual atoms within the molecule are bound with hydrogen bonds e) an atom of oxygen has the oxidation number -I f) has the following arrangement of atoms: O-H-H-O g) atoms of hydrogen are bound together by a covalent bond h) an atom of hydrogen has the oxidation number I

126. Formulas of potassium hydrogen peroxide, strontium peroxide and sodium peroxide are: a) KHO2, SrO2, Na(O2)2 b) K2O2, SrHO2, Na2O2 c) KO2, Sr(O2)2, NaHO2 d) KHO2, SrO2, Na2O2 e) KHO, Sr2O, NaHO2 f) K(O2)2, SrH(O2)2, Na2O2 g) (KH)2O2, Sr2O2, NaO2 h) K2HO, Sr2O, Na2O2

127. Permanent hardness of water: a) can be removed by boiling according to the reaction:

CaCO3 + H2O + CO2 Ca(HCO3)2 b) is caused mainly by calcium sulfate and magnesium sulfate c) can be removed according to the reaction: Ca(HSO4)2 CaSO4 + H2O + SO3 d) is caused mainly by CaSO4 and MgSO4 e) cannot be removed by boiling f) can be removed by the addition of Na2CO3 while CaCO3 and MgCO3 are produced g) can be removed by the addition of CaCO3 h) is caused mainly by CaCO3 and MgCO3

128. Temporary hardness of water: a) is caused by CaSO4 dissolved in mineral water b) can be removed by the decomposition of salts which cause it, e.g. NaHCO3, according to

the reaction: 2 NaHCO3 Na2CO3 + H2CO3 c) is caused by Ca(HCO3)2 and Mg(HCO3)2 d) cannot be removed by boiling e) is caused mainly by magnesium bicarbonate and calcium bicarbonate f) can be removed by boiling according to the reaction:

Ca(HCO3)2 CaCO3 + H2O + CO2 g) is caused mainly by CaHPO4 and MgHPO4 h) is caused by bicarbonates of alkaline metals and alkaline earth metals

129. p elements: a) are for example noble gases (except He) b) their atoms have two s electrons and one to six p electrons in their valence orbitals (except He) c) are all elements located in the 4th, 5th and 6th period d) are elements located in the groups IIIA - VIIIA of periodic table of elements (except He) e) are transition elements f) are elements located in the groups IIIB - VIIIB of the periodic table of elements g) are for example Fe, Co, Ni h) are elements located in the groups IA and IIA of the periodic table of elements

130. Noble gases: a) are the following elements: He, Ne, Ag, Kr, Xn, Rh b) in their atoms the valence s and p orbitals (except He) are fully occupied resulting in an octet configuration c) their valence s orbitals are occupied, and their valence p orbitals are gradually filled with one to six p electrons from He to Rn d) in their valence shell they have two s electrons and eight p electrons (except He that has two s electrons only) e) are elements of the group VIIIA of the periodic table of elements f) are the following elements: He, Ne, Ar, Kr, Xe, Rn g) their valence orbitals are incompletely occupied h) are reactive elements

131. At room temperature the elements of group VIIIA: a) are present in small amounts in the atmosphere b) are very stable c) are liquids d) are present as single unbound atoms e) have electron configuration s2p6 in their valence shell (except He) f) are present as two-atom molecules g) are gases h) are in solid state

132. Halogen atoms can reach the electron configuration of the closest noble gas: a) only by forming a molecule composed of two identical atoms (Br + Br Br2) b) by forming a cation such as Cl3+, Br5+ c) by accepting one electron d) by forming halide anion X- in ionic compounds e) by the reaction with alkali metals f) by donating one electron g) in covalent compounds by forming one sigma and one π bond h) by forming the anion X2- in ionic compounds

133. Cl2O and Cl2O7 are anhydrides of the following acids: a) HClO4 and HClO2 b) HClO and HClO3 c) HClO3 and HClO d) HClO and HClO4 e) chlorous and hypochlorous f) hypochlorous and perchloric g) chloric and chlorous h) perchloric and chloric 31

134. A halogen with higher electronegativity: a) is more able to form halide ion X- than halogen with lower electronegativity b) can react with a halogen with lower electronegativity according to the reaction:

F2 + 2 NaBr 2 NaF + Br2 c) causes dismutation of a halogen molecule with lower electronegativity d) has a more polar bond in a compound with hydrogen (H-X) than a halogen with lower electronegativity e) does not react with a halogen with lower electronegativity f) causes the disproportionation of a halogen molecule with lower electronegativity g) reduces a halogen with lower electronegativity h) oxidizes a halogen with lower electronegativity

135. Which of the following statements about halogens is true: a) to reach the configuration of the closest noble gas they need one more electron b) combining halogens with organic substances is called halogenation c) iodine is able to sublime d) bromine is able to sublime e) iodine is a liquid at room temperature f) they are quite reactive in chemical reactions g) bromine is a liquid at room temperature h) iodine is solid at room temperature

136. Iodine tincture is: a) 5 % (w %) solution of iodine in methanol b) 5 % (w %) solution of iodine in ethanol c) 5 % (w %) solution of iodine in diethyl ether and is used to clean wound surroundings d) 3 % (w %) solution of potassium iodide in water e) a disinfectant used to clean wound surroundings f) 5 % (w %) solution of iodine in C2H5OH g) 3 % (w %) solution of KI in ethanol h) 5 % (w %) solution of iodine in chloroform

137. Select the formula or name of a salt that is produced when chlorine oxoacid with oxidation number of a chlorine atom VII reacts with a ferrous hydroxide: a) Fe(ClO4)2 b) iron(III) perchlorate c) Fe(ClO3)2 d) Fe(ClO2)3 e) iron(II) chlorate f) Fe(ClO4)3 g) Fe(ClO3)3 h) iron(II) perchlorate

138. Disinfectant chlorinated lime is a mixture of: a) Ca(ClO)2 + Ca(ClO2)2 b) sodium chlorate and calcium hypochlorite c) CaCl2 a Ca(ClO)2 d) sodium hypochlorite and calcium chlorate e) calcium hypochlorite and calcium chloride f) sodium chloride and sodium hypochlorite g) magnesium chloride and calcium chloride h) calcium chlorate and calcium hypochlorite 32

139. Which of the following statements about electronegativity of halogens is true: a) iodine has higher electronegativity than bromine b) fluorine has the highest electronegativity c) all halogens have the same electronegativity d) bromine has a higher electronegativity than chlorine e) electronegativity decreases from fluorine to iodine f) chlorine has a higher electronegativity than iodine g) electronegativity increases from fluorine to iodine h) a halogen with higher electronegativity can oxidize a halogen with lower electronegativity

140. Chalcogens are: a) elements of the group VIA of the periodic table of elements b) elements of period 6 of the periodic table of elements c) elements that have the following electron configuration in the valence shell: ns2np6 d) the following elements: O, S, Se, Te, Po e) elements with four p electrons in the valence shell f) elements with six electrons in the valence shell g) elements p5 h) elements that need two more electrons to reach the electron configuration of the closest noble gas

141. Which of the following statements about sulfur is true: a) it does not belong to biogenic elements b) it exists in different structural modifications (so called allotropy) c) it is present in nucleic acids d) a sulfur atom has six electrons in the valence shell, and its highest positive oxidation number is six e) sulfur is soluble very well in CS2 f) it is used to produce compounds used against plant pests g) it is not present in amino acids at all h) crystalline sulfur is insoluble in water

142. Sulfur dioxide: a) has both oxidative and reductive effects b) sulfur and oxygen atoms are bound by an ionic bond c) has oxidative properties only d) can be directly oxidized into SO3 e) its formula is SO2 f) is industrially produced by combustion of sulfur in the air g) can be dissolved in water forming H2SO3 h) is a gas that is an unwanted component of the atmosphere

143. Select the formula or name of a salt that is produced when sulfur oxoacid with an oxidation number of sulfur atom VI reacts with a ferrous hydroxide: a) FeSO3 b) Fe2S3 c) FeSO4 d) Fe2(SO4)3 e) iron(II) sulfite f) iron(II) sulfate g) iron(III) sulfate h) iron(II) sulfide

144. Chrome alum has the following formula: a) KCr(SO3)2·12 H2O b) K2Cr(SO3)2·12 H2O c) KCr(SO4)2·12 H2O d) K2SO3 - CrSO4·12 H2O e) KCrS2O7·12 H2O f) KCr(S2O4)2·12 H2O g) K[Cr(SO3)4]·12 H2O h) K2S2O4 - CrS2O6·12 H2O

145. Which of the following statements about the sulfuric acid is true: a) dissolving of H2SO4 in water produces a great amount of heat b) it mixes with water in any ratio c) in a diluted solution it loses its acidic properties and gains oxidative properties d) it is formed by the reaction of SO3 with water e) it forms salts called bisulfates and sulfates f) it is produced by the reaction: SO2 + H2O H2SO4 g) when diluting the acid, we should add water into H2SO4 h) concentrated sulfuric acid has strong oxidative and dehydration effects

146. The electron configuration of the valence shell of chalcogen atoms is: a) such that they need to gain two electrons to reach the electron configuration of the nearest noble gas b) ns2np3 c) ns2np4 d) ns2np2 e) ns1np5 f) ns1np4 g) the same as the valence shell of halogens 2 2 1 1 h) ns npx npy npz

147. The electron configuration of a nitrogen atom (Z = 7) is: a) [Ne]2s22p3 2 1 1 1 b) [He]2s 2px 2py 2pz c) the same as in a phosphorus atom (Z = 15) d) 1s22s22p3 e) [He]3s23p3 f) the same as in an arsenic atom g) such that a nitrogen atom has three unpaired electrons h) [He]2s22p3

148. Elements of the group VA of the periodic table of elements: a) belong to p3 elements b) nitrogen and phosphorus belong to the basic biogenic elements c) have five electrons in their valence shell d) are: N, P, V, Nb, Ta e) have their electrons in the shells K, L and M f) have the following electron configuration in their valence shell: ns2np3 g) all of them are found in nature in compounds only h) are: nitrogen, phosphorus, arsenic, antimony and bismuth 34

149. Molecules of nitrogen: a) are very stable because the energy of N≡N bond is very high (946 kJ.mol-1) b) contain atoms of nitrogen bound by polar covalent bonds c) have the following electron formula: |N=N| d) are present in the atmosphere at approx. 78 % (vol.) e) are in a gaseous state at room temperature f) are present in the atmosphere at approx. 21 % (vol.) g) have two atoms of nitrogen bound by a triple bond h) are unstable and decompose into single atoms

150. Which of the following statements about ammonia is true: a) it is a component of ammine complexes b) it is a colorless gas at room temperature c) it is insoluble in water d) it behaves mostly as an acid because it donates a proton to other substances e) its molecules can be bound together by hydrogen bonds f) it can be formed by the reaction of nitrogen with hydrogen g) it reacts with water as a Brönsted base h) its water solution is colored by Congo red into blue-purple color

151. Nitric acid: a) can oxidize almost all metals except gold and platinum metals b) forms salts such as binitrates (hydrogen nitrates) and nitrates c) has strong oxidative effects that depend on its concentration, temperature and the type of oxidized substance d) is a strong acid e) it mixes with water in every ratio I f) forms salts with the general formula: M NO2 g) can be prepared in a laboratory by the following reaction:

2 NaNO3 + H2SO4 2 HNO3 + Na2SO4 h) with HCl in the ratio 1:3 forms aqua regia

152. Which of the following statements about ammonium salts is true: + a) the cation NH4 has acidic properties b) ammonium carbonate is unstable and can decompose at about 60 °C + - c) they can be composed of the cation NH4 and acid anion X and have a general formula

NH4X d) ammonium salts soluble in water can hydrolyze e) almost all of them are well soluble in water f) they do not ionize in water solutions + g) the basic character of the cation NH4 is expressed by the protolytic reaction: + + NH4 + H2O NH3 + H3O h) if their anion X- is derived from a strong acid, pH of their water solution is less than 7

153. Which statement about phosphorus (Z = 15) is true: a) with hydrogen it forms phosphane PH3 and diphosphane P2H4 b) it occurs in bones and teeth in the form of calcium and magnesium salts c) with halogens (X) it forms compounds of types P2X3 and P2X5 d) it belongs to biogenic elements e) its electrons are distributed in the shells K, L, M and N f) it forms mostly ionic compounds

g) it forms mostly compounds with covalent bonds h) with oxygen it forms oxides P4O6 and P4O10

154. Which statement about nitrogen is true: a) a nitrogen atom has a positive oxidation number only in the compounds with oxygen and fluorine which have a higher electronegativity b) it is produced by the fractional distillation of liquefied air c) in the atmosphere it occurs predominantly in the form of atomic nitrogen d) it is used for the creation of an inert atmosphere e) in some compounds a nitrogen atom can bind to other molecules also by hydrogen bonds f) its molecule has the electron structural formula g) it is present in the fertilizer called superphosphate h) if a nitrogen atom in a compound has a lone electron pair, it can bind to atoms of other elements with coordinate bonds thus forming complexes

155. Which statement about phosphorus is true: a) it occurs in several allotropic modifications b) with hydrogen it forms phosphane PH3 and diphosphane P2H4 c) it has three unpaired electrons in 3p orbitals d) it has a 32P isotope, which is used in the study of reaction mechanisms e) it occurs as white, red and black phosphorus f) the mineral dolomite is a natural raw material for the production of phosphorus g) it is a part of glycolipids h) the phosphorus atom can bind to other molecules also by an oxygen bond

156. Phosphoric acid: a) is not present in the compounds: ATP, ADP and AMP b) is formed by the reaction: P4O10 + 6 H2O 4 H3PO4 c) is important in the metabolism of carbohydrates d) forms salts which all are well soluble in water e) is a part of nucleic acids f) is a tribasic, moderately strong acid g) is very reactive and has strong oxidizing effects already at room temperature h) forms only two types of salts: hydrogen phosphates and phosphates

157. When 1 mol of trihydrogen phosphoric acid reacts with 1 mol of ferrous hydroxide, the product is: a) Fe3(PO4)2 b) FeHPO4 c) Fe2(HPO4)3 d) Fe(H2PO4)2 e) ferrous dihydrogen phosphate f) FePO4 g) ferric hydrogen phosphate h) ferrous hydrogen phosphate

158. Bismuth(III) perchlorate, strontium dihydrogen phosphate and ammonium dihydrogen arsenate have formulas: a) Bi(ClO2)2, SrHPO4, (NH4)3AsO4 b) Bi(ClO3)3, Sr3(PO4)2, NH4AsO3 c) Bi(ClO4)3, Sr(H2PO4)2, NH4H2AsO4 36

d) BiClO4, SrH2P2O7, (NH4)2AsO2 e) BiCl3, Sr3(PO4)2, (NH4)3AsO3 f) Bi(ClO)4, Sr(H2PO4)2, NH4H2AsO4 g) Bi(ClO)3, Sr2P2O7, (NH4)3AsO3 h) Bi(ClO4)3, Sr(H2PO4)2, (NH4)2H2AsO4

159. Which statement about carbon (Z = 6) is true: a) a carbon atom cannot form compounds with different halogen atoms bound to the same

carbon atom, e.g. CF2Cl2, CFCl3 b) a carbon atom can have an oxidation number -IV in compounds containing elements with a lower electronegativity (e.g. with hydrogen in methane) c) it is the most widespread element in nature d) in nature it is found in a pure form as well as bound in compounds e) it belongs to biogenic elements f) a carbon atom is found in compounds HCN, CS2 and COCl2 which are used as drugs in medicine g) a carbon atom is tetravalent in most compounds h) it belongs to p2 elements

160. The compound COCl2: a) is prepared by the direct combination of carbon monoxide with chlorine b) is called guanidine c) is dichloride of carbon monoxide d) is called phosgene e) is used as a solvent in laboratories f) is a highly poisonous gas and it was used for military purposes g) is a derivative of carbonic acid h) has a structure: Cl-C-O-Cl and it is a derivative of hypochlorous acid

161. Which statement about CO is true: a) it can bind to transition metal atoms as a ligand b) it is formed during the combustion of carbon under the insufficient air access c) it is part of the exhaust gases of combustion engines, and it pollutes the environment d) it has a structural formula: O=C=O and its molecule is symmetrical, nonpolar e) it can be formed by the following reaction: C + CO2 2 CO f) it is a component of water gas (the mixture of CO + H2) g) it can oxidize metal oxides to elementary metals h) it is formed by the thermal decomposition of CaCO3

162. Which statement about carbon (Z = 6) is true: 2 2 1 1 a) the electron configuration of the carbon atom in the ground state is 1s 2s 2px 2py b) a carbon atom in the ground state has two unpaired electrons in orbitals 2p c) in compounds, its atom can have hybridization SP3 d) in most compounds it is divalent e) energy of bonds C-C, C=C, C≡C is the same f) a carbon atom can form polar and non-polar covalent bonds with atoms of other elements g) for a carbon atom it is typical that in a compound it can bind with an atom of another element with a hydrogen bond h) if the carbon atom in a compound has a lone pair, it can act as an electron donor and bind by a coordinate bond (e.g. transition metal carbonyls)

163. Carbonic acid: a) can be isolated from the solution in a crystal form - 2- b) forms salts in which anions are HCO3 or CO3 c) is also present in the human body d) forms carbonate salts that cannot be decomposed by stronger acids than H2CO3 e) is formed by the dissolution of CO2 in water and predominant parts of the solution are

hydrated molecules CO2· x H2O (where x = number of H2O molecules) f) forms carbonate salts which undergo hydrolysis in an aqueous solution (if they are soluble) - g) forms an anion HCO3 which can be a base in some protolytic reactions h) belongs to strong acids

164. Which statement about elements of the group IVA of the periodic table of elements is true: a) in nature they are found only in compounds (except carbon) b) they have four electrons in the valence shell c) C is non-metal, Si, Ge, Sn and Pb are metals d) atoms of carbon, silicon and germanium are bound by double and triple bonds in compounds e) they have the electron configuration in the valence shell: ns2np2 f) they form the same compounds with very similar properties g) they belong to biogenic microelements h) their atoms need to gain four electrons to reach the electron configuration of the following noble gas

165. Elements B, Al, Ga, In, Tl: a) their atoms have the electron configuration ns2np1 in the valence shell b) belong to transition elements c) occur in nature only bound in compounds d) all of them form compounds in which their atoms are bound with covalent bonds only e) have the same chemical reactivity and ability to form cations in aqueous solutions f) belong to p1 elements g) have three electrons in p orbital in the valence shell h) are all metals except boron

166. What is formed by the reaction of 3 moles of sulfuric acid and 2 moles of aluminium hydroxide: a) 3 mol H2O b) 1 mol aluminium sulfate c) 1 mol Al2(SO3)3 d) 2 mol Al2(SO4)3 e) 6 mol H2O f) 1 mol Al2(SO4)3 g) 2 mol aluminium sulfate h) 1 mol aluminium thiosulfate

167. Aluminium: a) has a great reducing ability b) does not conduct the electric current c) forms salts with weak acids and these salts do not ionize in solutions and do not hydrolyze (e.g. acetate) d) in compounds has atoms with the oxidation number III 38

e) is stable in the air because it is covered by a compact layer of oxide on its surface protecting it against the further effect of water and the environment f) belongs to noble metals g) does not form binary compounds h) forms aluminium hydroxide which can react with water solutions of strong acids and hydroxides

168. Elements: Li, Na, K, Rb, Cs, Fr: a) have atoms which have one valence electron less than the previous noble gas b) are also called alkaline earth metals c) are metals d) belong to s1 elements e) are also called alkali metals f) have one valence p electron g) are in the group IA of the periodic table of elements h) belong to elements with a high electronegativity

169. Which of the statements about alkali metals is true: a) cations of alkali metals M+ have the electron configuration of the previous noble gas b) they are relatively soft and can be cut with a knife c) their atoms are readily reduced to ions according to the general equation: M + e M- d) their atoms have the oxidation number I in compounds e) their atoms are oxidized to ions according to the general equation: M M2+ + 2 e f) their atoms occur as anions in compounds g) all isotopes of francium are radioactive h) their oxides are base forming

170. Elements s2: a) form compounds in which their atoms have an oxidation number II b) are also called alkali metals c) belong to elements with a low electronegativity d) are found in a pure form or bound in compounds in nature e) are more reactive than the elements located in the group IIB of the periodic table of elements f) are strong oxidizing agents g) have atoms which can be oxidized according to the general equation: M M2+ + 2 e h) form compounds which are all soluble in water

171. Which statement about s elements is true: a) all of them belong to metals (except hydrogen and He) b) atoms of s1 elements have the oxidation number I in compounds c) in compounds their atoms occur as anions d) their atoms have one or two electrons more than the atoms of previous noble gases e) atoms of s2 elements have typically the oxidation number II in compounds f) their atoms have one or two electrons less than the atoms of previous noble gases g) they are in the groups IA and IIA of the periodic table of elements (except He) h) their atoms provide an electron pair for binding to other elements

172. Magnesium: a) belongs to non-metal elements b) belongs to chalcogens c) can be prepared by electrolysis of the MgCl2 melt 39

d) can occur in green plants e) belongs to elements of the period 3 of the periodic table of elements f) belongs to alkali metals g) belongs to elements which are strong reducing agents h) is located in the group IIA of the periodic table of elements

173. Calcium oxide: a) is solid under the laboratory conditions b) is also called “slaked lime” c) reacts with water and pH of the resulting solution is higher than 7 d) is used as a fertilizer and called “baryte” e) can be prepared by the decomposition of CaCO3 f) is an acid-forming oxide g) does not react with water h) reacts with water thus forming a hydroxide

174. s1 elements: a) form salts which are mostly soluble in water (except hydrogen) b) are: Be, Mg, Ca, Sr, Ba, Ra c) they are characterized by good electrical and thermal conductivity (except H) d) form cations which have one electron more than the previous noble gas e) are located in the group IA of the periodic table of elements f) due to their reactivity they are stored in the chemically inert environment (except H) g) all of them form cations with the oxidation numbers I and II h) form compounds which have a predominantly ionic character (except hydrogen)

175. Which of the following statements about the alkalinity strength of hydroxide solutions formed from alkali metals and alkaline earth metals is true: a) KOH is stronger than Ca(OH)2 b) CsOH is stronger than NaOH c) LiOH is weaker than NaOH d) KOH is weaker than LiOH e) NaOH is weaker than RbOH f) Ca(OH)2 is stronger than Ba(OH)2 g) Sr(OH)2 is stronger than CsOH h) RbOH is stronger than Ca(OH)2

176. Which statement about d elements is true: a) they have high melting and boiling points (except Hg) b) they can be ligands in coordination compounds c) they have a good electrical and thermal conductivity d) according to the oxidation number, their compounds have different colors of solutions, e.g. Cr(VI) compounds are yellow and Cr(III) compounds are green e) they are also called non-transitional elements f) many of d elements and their compounds are catalysts of chemical reactions g) they belong to alkaline earth metals h) their atoms can have different oxidation numbers in compounds

177. d elements are: a) elements whose atoms have electrons in the orbital ns and also in orbitals (n - 1)d1-10, where: n = 4 - 7 b) transition elements

c) elements whose cations are in aqueous solutions mostly colorless d) e.g. N, O, S, Cl e) e.g. V, Cr, Mn, Zr, Mo f) elements whose atoms can use ns as well as (n - 1)d orbitals for a bond formation g) elements located in the group VIIIA of the periodic table of elements h) elements located in the groups A of the periodic table of elements

178. Select the neutral molecules or ions which can function as ligands in coordination compounds: + 2- a) H2, Na , CO3 b) F-, Cl-, CN- c) H2O, NH3, CO d) all molecules or ions which can accept electrons e) CN-, OH-, I- - f) Br , H2O, CO 2- 2- - g) O2 , S , SCN 2- + h) O2 , H3O , CH4

179. In the coordination compound [Ni(NH3)6](NO3)2: 2+ a) the cation [Ni(NH3)6] is a ligand b) molecules NH3 are ligands - c) anions NO3 are ligands d) a nickel atom is a donor of an electron pair e) nickel is the central atom f) the oxidation number of the central atom is II g) the central atom has the coordination number 6 - h) the anion NO3 is bound to the central atom by a coordinate bond

180. If the molecules H2O, NH3 and CO are ligands in coordination compounds, their names in formulas are: a) aquo, ammo, carboxyl b) hydro, ammin, carboxyl c) aqua, amino, carbo d) aqua, ammine, carbonyl e) hydrato, amo, carbonate f) hydro, amino, carbonate g) aqua, amo, carbonato h) hydro, ammino, carbonyl

181. The coordination number determines: a) an oxidation number of a central atom of a complex b) the group of the periodic table, into which a central atom of a complex belongs c) the number of the period, into which a central atom of a complex belongs d) the number of atoms directly bound by the coordinate bond to a central atom of a complex e) whether the bond between the central atom of a complex and the ligand is simple, double or triple f) the number of central atoms in a coordination compound g) whether the central atom is directly linked to another central atom h) the oxidation number of a complex cation

182. In the coordination compound Na3[Sc(OH)6]: a) the sodium atom is an acceptor of electrons b) the coordination number of the central atom is 6 c) the Sc3+ cation is a ligand d) OH- anions are ligands e) a scandium atom is an acceptor of electrons f) the oxidation number of a scandium atom is II g) the central atom has the oxidation number III h) an OH- anion represents the central atom

183. Select the correct oxidation number of the central atom in following coordination compounds: a) IV in (NH4)2[Ce(NO3)6] b) II in K3[Co(CN)6] c) III in [Fe(H2O)6]Cl2 d) IV in Cs2[Pt(OH)6] e) II in [Pt(NH3)6]Cl4 f) I in K[Au(CN)2] g) I in [Cu(H2O)4]SO4 h) II in K2[Ni(CN)4]

184. Molecules containing a coordinate bond are: a) bile acids and bile pigments b) hemoglobin and vitamin B12 c) vitamin B12 and myoglobin d) myoglobin and chlorophyll e) vitamin A and bilirubin f) vitamin D and riboflavin g) chlorophyll and hemoglobin h) purine bases and vitamin B6

185. Select the true statement about the group VIIIB elements of the periodic table: a) the eighth B group of the periodic table consists of three „triads“ b) the elements Fe, Co and Ni form the so-called iron triad c) the elements Os, Ir and Pt (so-called platinum metals) are situated in the fourth period d) for all their atoms the oxidation number VIII is typical e) their atoms may have more oxidation numbers in compounds f) the elements Os, Ir and Pt belong to noble metals g) all platinum metals have low melting points, and they are relatively soft h) rhodium and iridium may form alums, in which their atoms have the oxidation number III

186. Select the true statement about coordination compounds: a) the central atoms of complex compounds are mostly the elements of the group IA of the periodic table b) the complex can be a cation, anion or a neutral - - c) the central atom is the most often molecule, e.g. NH3, H2O, or an ion, e.g. Cl , CN d) the central atom has a free electron pair (a lone pair) e) the ligands are donors of electrons f) the central atom and ligands are bound by the coordinate bond g) the central atom and ligands are bound by the ionic bond h) the central atom is an acceptor of electrons 42

187. Select the true statement about copper and its compounds: a) in the compound Na2[Cu(OH)4] the copper atom has the coordination number 2 and oxidation number I b) the copper atom with the oxidation number II cannot be a central atom in the coordination compounds c) cupric sulfate is part of Fehling reagent for proof of reducing properties of organic compounds (e.g. monosaccharides), according to the following reaction: Cu2+ + e Cu+ d) copper and silver do not conduct electricity e) many copper (II) compounds are water soluble to form blue solutions f) the copper atoms in compounds have oxidation numbers I and II g) the compound CuSO4·5H2O is also called blue vitriol h) the compound Cu2S is called copper (II) sulfide

188. Select the correct statement about elements of the group IIB and their compounds: a) mercury compounds are not toxic to human organism; only metallic mercury is toxic b) atoms of the group IIB elements, similarly to those of the group IIA, have eight electrons in the penultimate shell (n-1) c) in compounds, mercury can have oxidation number I, e.g. in Hg2Cl2 (calomel), or II, e.g.

in HgCl2 (sublimate) d) atoms of the group IIB elements have their valence electrons in K, L, M and N shells e) mercury can form an alloy with aluminum and iron, which is called alpaca f) atoms of the group IIB elements have two s electrons in ns orbitals and 18 electrons in (n-1) shell g) cadmium can react with hydrochloric acid according to the equation:

Cd + 2 HCl CdCl2 + H2 h) atoms of the group IIB elements have smaller atomic radii than those of the group IIA in the same period and are less reactive

189. Select correct names of the following compounds [Fe(H2O)6]Cl2 and Cs2[Pt(OH)6]: a) hexaaquairon(II) chloride, cesium hexaaquaplatinate(IV) b) hexaaquairon(III) chloride, cesium hexaaquaplatinate(IV) c) hexaaquairon(II) chloride, cesium hexahydroxidoplatinate(IV) d) chlorine hexaaquairon(II), cerium hexahydroxidoplatinate(II) e) hexaaquairon(III) chloride, cesium hexahydroxidoplatinate(IV) f) hexaaquairon(II) chloride, cesium hexahydridoplatinate(II) g) chlorine hexaaquairon(II), cesium hexahydroxidoplatinate(IV) h) hexaaquairon(III) chloride, cesium hexahydridoplatinate(II)

190. Select the correct statement about radioactivity: a) external conditions cannot affect the type of nuclear radiation (α, ß or γ) b) α, ß and γ rays do not differ in their behavior in electric and magnetic fields c) it does not depend on whether the atom is a part of an element or a compound d) radioactivity can also be characterized by half-life, the time in which the number of nuclei of radioactive atoms decreases to one half of their original number e) it is an attribute of atomic nuclei f) it is a spontaneous decay of atomic nuclei of some elements accompanied by the emission of nuclear radiation g) natural radioactivity is an energy demanding process in which only an electron shell of an atom of a radioactive element is changed h) the discovery of radioactivity confirmed that atomic nuclei are indivisible particles

191. Which of the following statements about nuclear radiation is true: a) by emitting an α particle a new atom of an element is formed with the mass number four units higher than the parent atom b) ß radiation is a stream of electrons that can be halted by a lead plate with the thickness of 1.5 mm c) γ radiation is a form of electromagnetic radiation with a very short wavelength (0.5 - 40 pm) d) γ radiation is the least penetrating type of nuclear radiation e) α, ß and γ radiations differ in their behavior in electric and magnetic fields f) by emitting an α particle a new atom of the element is formed with the atomic number two units less and the mass number four units less than the parent atom g) α radiation is a stream of fast helium nuclei, and it is deflected by the magnetic field as a stream of positive charges h) γ radiation has the same energy than the light radiation

192. Which statement about radioactivity is true: a) α radiation is caused by the nuclear transformation of an electron into a proton b) spontaneous radioactive nuclei transformations are possible when the nuclear binding energy is released c) by emitting an α particle, an element moves two positions to the left and by emitting ß particle one position to the right in the periodic table of elements d) ß radiation is a stream of fast protons e) ß radiation is caused by the transformation of a neutron into a proton f) ß rays are deflected by the magnetic field as a stream of negative charges g) ß radiation is more penetrating compared to α radiation h) γ radiation is associated with the formation of a new element that is placed in the periodic table of elements two positions to the right of the parent element

193. Cl- ions were precipitated as silver chloride from an examined solution of potassium chloride using silver nitrate. The mass of filtered and dried AgCl was - 0.26 g. Calculate the content of Cl in the examined sample. Ar(K) = 39; Ar(Cl) = 35.5;

Ar(Ag) = 107.9 a) 0.164 g b) 180 mg c) 64 mg d) 18 mmol e) 6.4×10-3 mol f) 640 mg g) 1.8×10-3 mol h) 180 mmol

194. 45 ml of gastric juice were collected from a patient during the stomach examination within 30 minutes by gastric tube. 5 ml of this juice was taken to the beaker, completed with distilled water to 20 ml volume and neutralized by addition of 4 ml of sodium hydroxide solution with a concentration of c = 0.5 mol.l-1. What is the

secretion of gastric juice? Mr(HCl) = 36.5 a) 25 mmol of HCl/hour b) 0.18 mol of HCl/hour c) 0.036 g of HCl/hour d) 0.036 mol of HCl/hour e) 2.53 g of HCl/hour f) 1.31 g of HCl/hour

g) 145 mmol of HCl/hour h) 145 mg of HCl/hour

195. What amount of water has to be evaporated from 600 g of 3.5 % (w %) sodium

chloride solution to prepare 12 % (w %) NaCl solution? Mr (NaCl) = 58;

Mr(H2O) = 18 a) 175 g b) 28.3 mol c) 3.5 mol d) 350 g e) 425 g f) 23.6 mol g) 480 g h) 1.8 mol

196. 25 liters of 80 % (w %) sulfuric acid (ρ = 1.70 kg.l-1) should be diluted to 16 % solution. What volume of water (ρ = 1.0 kg.l-1) should be added? a) 1.7×104 cm3 b) 125 ml c) 1.7×102 liter d) 125×104 ml e) 17×104 cm3 f) 0.27 hl g) 1.25×103 dm3 h) 2.7×102 dm3

197. Calculate the crystallization yield, if 900 g of potassium chloride solution saturated at 75 °C is cooled down to 0 °C. The solubility of potassium chloride at 75 °C is 50 g in 100 g of water and solubility at 0 °C is 26 g in 100 g of water. a) 114.3 g b) 125.0 g c) 144.0 g d) 168.0 g e) 228.6 g f) 254.0 g g) 288.0 g h) 328.0 g

198. 210 g of water were evaporated from 500 g of a solution of barium chloride with the concentration w = 24 % resulting in precipitation of 40 g of barium chloride. What is the % concentration (w %) of the resulting solution? a) 16 % b) 20 % c) 24 % d) 26 % e) 30 % f) 32 % g) 36 % h) 39 %

199. Calculate the amount of water in which 100 g of sodium carbonate decahydrate has to be dissolved to prepare a saturated solution at 20 °C. The solubility of sodium

carbonate at 20 °C is 18 g in 100 g of solution. Ar (H) = 1; Ar (C) = 12; Ar (O) = 16;

Ar (Na) = 23 a) 52.8 g b) 76.9 g c) 98.8 g d) 105.9 g e) 122.8 g f) 134.6 g g) 155.9 g h) 64.6 g

200. One nmol is: a) 103 pmol b) 109 mol c) 10-6 mmol d) 103 mmol e) 10-9 mol f) 106 fmol g) 10-3 pmol h) 10-3 µmol

201. If we dissolve 35 g of NaNO3 in 250 g of water then: a) we get 14 % (w/w) solution b) we get 12.28 % (w/w) solution c) we get 35 % (w/w) solution d) 140 g NaNO3 is in 1 kg of solution e) 12.28 mg NaNO3 is in 0.100 g solution f) 24.56 g NaNO3 is in 250 g of solution g) 14 g NaNO3 is in 1 l of water h) 368.4 g NaNO3 is in 3 kg of solution

202. A solution of KCl with the mass fraction w(KCl) = 0.03, contains: a) 3 g KCl in 97 g of H2O b) 3 g KCl in 1,000 ml of solution c) 0.01 g KCl in 0.1 kg of solution d) 0.003 g KCl in 10 g of solution e) 6 g KCl in 0.2 kg of solution f) 3 g KCl in 100 g of solution g) 6 g KCl in 200 g of water h) 6 g KCl in 200 ml of water

203. How many mass percent of individual elements are present in thiourea?

Ar(N) = 14; Ar(H) = 1; Ar(C) = 12; Ar(O) = 16; Ar(S) = 32 a) 20.10 % C b) 36.84 % N c) 36.66 % S d) 15.79 % C e) 42.11 % N f) 5.26 % H g) 26.66 % O h) 42.11 % S 46

3 204. To prepare 250 cm of a saturated silver iodate solution, 0.011 g of AgIO3 is used.

Calculate the solubility constant (KS) of this salt. What are the concentrations of the

ions in this solution? Mr(AgIO3) = 282 -4 a) KS = 2.43×10 -4 b) KS = 1.56×10 -8 c) KS = 2.43×10 -8 d) KS = 3.79×10 e) [Ag+] = 2.43 mmol.l-1 f) [Ag+] = 0.156 mmol.l-1 - -4 -1 g) [IO3 ] = 1.56×10 mol.l - -4 -1 h) [IO4 ] = 1.56×10 mol.l

205. The solubility constant of silver bromide is 3.6×10-13. How many grams of Ag+ and Br- are present in 1 liter of saturated solution of this salt? What are the

concentrations of the ions in the solution? Ar(Ag) = 108; Ar(Br) = 80 a) c(Ag+) = 6.48×10-5 mol.l-1 b) c(Ag+) = 6×10-7 mol.l-1 c) 6.48×10-5 g of Ag+ in 1 liter of saturated solution d) 6.48×10-5 g of Br- in 1 liter of saturated solution e) 4.8×10-5 g Br- in 1 liter of saturated solution f) c(Br-) = 6×10-4 mmol.l-1 g) c(Br-) = 6.48×10-5 mol.l-1 h) c(Ag+) = 3.6×10-13 mol.l-1

206. A saturated aqueous solution of silver hydroxide was prepared by dissolving silver oxide in water. The pH of the solution after equilibration was 9.5. Calculate the

solubility constant (KS) of silver hydroxide under given conditions. What are the concentrations of the ions in the solution? (antilogarithm -4.5 = 3.16×10-5) -10 a) KS = 3.16×10 -10 b) KS = 6.32×10 -12 c) KS = 9.99×10 -10 d) KS = 9.99×10 e) c(Ag+) = 6.32×10-5 mol.l-1 f) c(Ag+) = 3.16×10-2 mmol.l-1 g) c(OH-) = 3.16×10-5 mol.l-1 h) c(OH-) = 3.16×10-2 mol.l-1

207. Determine, if mixing the same volumes of a CaCl2 (c = 0.01 mol/l) solution and

Na2SO4 (c = 0.01 mol/l) solution forms a CaSO4 precipitate. The solubility constant -4 2+ 2- of CaSO4 is 2.3×10 . What are the concentrations of the Ca and SO4 ions in the mixture? a) [Ca2+] = 0.01 mol.l-1 b) [Ca2+] = 10 mmol.l-1 c) CaSO4 precipitate is formed d) CaSO4 precipitate is not formed e) [Ca2+] = 5×10-3 mol.l-1 2- -1 f) [SO4 ] = 0.01 mol.l

2- -1 g) [SO4 ] = 0.05 mol.l 2- -1 h) [SO4 ] = 5 mmol.l

208. To dissolve 1 g of lead iodide at 18°C is required to add water to a volume of 1,470 ml (ρ = 1 g.cm-3). Calculate the concentration of PbI and ions in the H2O 2

solution and determine the solubility constant (KS) of lead iodide. Ar(I) = 127;

Ar(Pb) = 207 -3 -1 a) c(PbI2) = 2.169×10 mol.l -6 b) KS = 1.28×10 -8 c) KS = 1.28×10 d) c(Pb2+) = 1.28×10-4 mol.l-1 e) c(Pb2+) = 1.476 mmol.l-1 -3 -1 f) c(PbI2) = 2.951×10 mol.l -6 g) KS = 2.28×10 h) c(I-) = 2.951 mmol.l-1

-3 -1 209. The concentration of KMnO4 is 2×10 mol.l . Calculate the amount of substance

of KMnO4 present in 250 ml solution: a) 5×10-3 mol b) 1×10-2 mol c) 5×10-4 mol d) 3×10-4 mol e) 5 mmol f) 0.5 mmol g) 50 µmol h) 500 µmol

210. Calculate the amount of substance concentration of the hydrochloric acid in the solution at the density of 1.1 g.cm-3, where 18 % (w %) of HCl is present.

Mr(HCl) = 36.5 a) 2.73 mol.l-1 b) 3 mol.l-1 c) 5.42 mol.l-1 d) 1.24 mol.l-1 e) 0.542 mol.l-1 f) 5.42×103 mmol.dm-3 g) 4.93 mol.l-1 h) 4.93 mmol.l-1

211. Calculate what volume of ferric chloride solution at a concentration of c = 0.2 mol.l-1 can be prepared by dissolving 48.6 g of iron (III) chloride in water.

Mr(FeCl3) = 162 a) 15 liters b) 1.5 liter c) 150 ml d) 20 liters e) 1.5×106 µl f) 1,500 cm3 g) 2,000 cm3

h) 200 cm3

212. Indicate the true statement about the solution of NaOH, c = 2 mol.l-1, -3 ρ = 1.08 g.cm . Mr(NaOH) = 40. a) w = 10.8 % b) w = 8.00 % c) w = 7.41 % d) w = 1.08 % e) 7.41 g of NaOH is dissolved in 100 g of the solution f) w = 0.0741 g) 8.00 kg of NaOH is dissolved in 800 kg of the solution h) the solution can be composed of 14.82 g of NaOH and 185.18 g of H2O

213. Calculate the amount of sulfuric acid in 2,500 cm3 of the solution with the -3 concentration of 0.6 mol.dm . Mr(H2SO4) = 98 a) 15 mol b) 12 mol c) 1.5 mol d) 0.147 kg e) 147 g f) 14.7 g g) 98 g h) 1.5 liter

214. Calculate either the concentration of HNO3 in the solution that contains -3 3.5×10 mol of HNO3 in 400 ml of the solution or the mass of HNO3 in 400 ml

of the given solution. Mr(HNO3) = 63 a) 7.85 mol.l-1 b) 8.75×10-3 mol.l-1 c) 440 mg d) 0.22 g e) 7.85 mmol.l-1 f) 8.75 mmol.l-1 g) 220 mg h) 0.55 g

215. How much of sodium sulfate is needed to prepare 5 liters of 8 % (w %) solution, -3 the density of which is 1.075 g.cm ? Mr(Na2SO4) = 142 a) 43 g b) 430 g c) 400 g d) 40 g e) 0.3028 mol f) 0.605 mol g) 3.028 mol h) 0.43 kg

216. To 400 ml of the 85 % (w %) solution of sulfuric acid with a density of 1.8 g.cm-3

there was added 800 ml of water. What is the concentration of the H2SO4 original

solution (co) and the diluted solution (cd)? Mr(H2SO4) = 98 -1 a) co = 13.6 mol.l 49

-1 b) co = 15.6 mol.l 3 -1 c) cd = 5.2×10 mmol.l -1 d) co = 1.56 mol.l -1 e) cd= 5.2 mol.l -1 f) cd = 5.2 mmol.l -1 g) cd = 4.5 mol.l 4 -1 h) co = 1.56×10 mmol.l

217. What amounts of CuSO4·5H2O, or water are needed to prepare 1.5 kg of 6 % (w %)

solution of CuSO4? Mr(CuSO4·5H2O) = 250; Mr(H2O) = 18 a) 90 g of blue vitriol b) 1,359.4 g of H2O c) 1,410 g of H2O d) 1.3594 kg of H2O e) 140.6 g of blue vitriol f) 0.1406 kg of CuSO4·5H2O g) 140.6 g of CuSO4 h) 90 g of CuSO4·5H2O

218. Calculate the volumes of 95 % (v %) ethanol or water needed to prepare 600 ml of the solution in which 40 % (v %) of ethanol is present: a) 360 ml of H2O b) 240 ml of ethanol c) 252.63 ml of ethanol d) 347.37 ml of H2O e) 0.34737 liter of ethanol f) 0.34737 liter of H2O g) 295.63 ml of H2O h) 0.25263 liter of ethanol

219. We have a solution A containing 18.9 g of HNO3 per liter and a solution B containing 3.2 g of NaOH in 1 liter. In what volume ratio do we have to mix them

to produce a neutral solution? Mr(HNO3) = 63; Mr(NaOH) = 40 a) 1 liter of A + 37.5 liters of B b) 3.75 liters of B + 1 liter of A c) 5 liters of B + 15 liters of A d) 18.75 liters of B + 5 liters of A e) 4 liters of A + 15 liters of B f) 10 ml of A + 37.5 ml of B g) 0.6 ml of A + 2.25 ml of B h) 0.8 ml of B + 3 ml of A

220. Calculate how much water, or technical soda containing 95 % Na2CO3 is needed to

prepare 350 g of 8 % (w %) Na2CO3 solution: a) 29.47 g of technical soda b) 29.47 g Na2CO3 10 H2O c) 28 g of technical soda

d) 322.0 g of H2O e) 320.53 g of H2O f) 26.6 g of Na2CO3 g) 2.947×104 mg of technical soda h) 0.32053 kg of H2O

221. pOH of the completely dissociated nitric acid solution is 9.602. Calculate the pH or the concentration of the solution. (log 4 = 0.602; log 2.5 = 0.398) a) pH = 10.602 b) c = 4×10-2 mmol.l-1 c) c = 2.5×10-1 nmol.l-1 d) pH = 4.398 e) c = 2.5×10-10 mol.l-1 f) c = 4×10-5 mol.l-1 g) pH = 5.398 h) c = 4.398×10-3 mol.l-1

- + 222. What is the pH, pOH, c(OH ) and c(H3O ) of KOH solution, 1 liter of which neutralizes 500ml of the HCl solution at the concentration 3 mmol.l-1? (log 5 = 0.699; log 3 = 0.477; log 1.5 = 0.176; log 6 = 0.778) a) pH = 11.176 b) pOH = 1.222 c) pOH = 2.824 d) pH = 12.778 + -12 -1 e) c(H3O ) = 1.5×10 mol.l + -12 -1 f) c(H3O ) = 6.67×10 mol.l g) c(OH-) = 1.5×10-3 mol.l-1 h) c(OH-) = 6×10-3 mol.l-1

223. Calculate the pH and pOH of the solution containing 0.33 g of HCl in 600 ml.

What is the HCl solution concentration? Mr(HCl) = 36.5; (log 1.5 = 0.176) a) pH = 12.176 b) pOH = 1.824 c) pH = 1.824 d) [HCl] = 1.5×10-2 mol.l-1 e) pOH = 10.92 f) pOH = 12.176 g) [HCl] = 1.25×10-2 mol.l-1 h) pOH = 2.08

224. pH of the H2SO4 solution is 1.097. Calculate the concentration of the sulfuric acid solution (log 8 = 0.903; log 4 = 0.602; antilogarithm -1.097= 0.07998) a) 80 mmol.l-1 b) 0.08 mol.l-1 c) 8.10-3 mol.l-1 d) 0.04 mol.l-1 e) 20 mmol.l-1 f) 40 mmol.l-1 g) 4.10-2 mmol.l-1 h) 12 mmol.l-1

225. Calculate the pH or the pOH of a solution containing 0.17 g of hydroxyl ions in + - 5 liters. What are the H3O and OH ions concentrations in this solution? - Mr(OH ) = 17. (log 5 = 0.699; log 1.7 = 0.230; log 2 = 0.301) a) pH = 11.301 b) pH = 10.699 c) c(OH-) = 2×10-3 mol.l-1 d) pOH = 2.301 e) pOH = 2.699 f) c(OH-) = 2×10-6 mol.l-1 + -1 g) c(H3O ) = 5 mmol.l + -6 -1 h) c(H3O ) = 5×10 µmol.l

226. There are two solutions: solution A of pOH = 10 and solution B of pOH = 12. Indicate the true statement about these solutions: a) solution A is more acidic than B solution b) pH of B solution is lower than pH of the solution A c) pH of the solution A is higher by 2 than pH of B solution + d) in the A solution the H3O concentration is 100-times higher than in the B solution e) in the A solution is c(OH-) = 1×10-4 mol.l-1 f) in the B solution is c(OH-) = 1×10-2 mol.l-1 + -4 -1 g) in the A solution is c(H3O ) = 1×10 mol.l + -1 h) in the B solution is c(H3O ) = 10 mmol.l

227. Calculate the amount of products formed during the reaction of 16.35 g of zinc with

sulfuric acid. Ar(Zn) = 65.4; Ar(S) = 32; Ar(O) = 16; Ar(H) = 1 a) 1 mol of H2 b) 40.35 g of ZnSO4 c) 0.5 mol of ZnSO4 d) 0.25 mol of H2 e) 0.5 g of hydrogen f) 32.7 g of ZnSO4 g) 250 mmol of ZnSO4 h) 500 mmol H2

228. Calculate the amount of ammonia formed in its synthesis from nitrogen and

hydrogen if the amount of hydrogen entering the reaction is 4.5 mol. Ar(N) = 14;

Ar(H) =1 a) 0.051 kg b) 3.6 mol c) 44.8 liters d) 51 g e) 34 g f) 3 mol g) 67.2 dm3 h) 4.5 mol

229. The glucose solution, administered to a patient (with suspected diabetes) during the oral glucose tolerance test, contains 75 g of glucose in 250 ml of the solution. Calculate either the solution volume or the glucose quantity at this solution that must be

administered to a child of 20 kg weight after overnight fasting, if 1.75 g of glucose must be given per kg of body weight. a) 35 ml b) 0.116 liter c) 0.035 liter d) 58.33 ml e) 35 g of glucose f) 116 g of glucose g) 0.035 kg of glucose h) 116.66 ml

230. What products and in what quantities are produced by the thermal decomposition

of 7.5 g of calcium carbonate? Ar(Ca) = 40; Ar(C) = 12; Ar(O) = 16 a) 5.6 g of CaO 3 b) 1.68 dm of CO2 c) 1.68 dm3 of CaO d) 0.75 mol of CaO e) 75 mmol of CO2 f) 4.2 g of CaO g) 0.75 mol of CO2 h) 3.3 g of CO2

231. Chlorine can be prepared by acting of sulfuric acid on sodium chloride in the presence of manganese dioxide. How much chlorine do we get from 0.0234 kg NaCl

under the laboratory conditions? Ar(Na) = 23; Ar(Cl) = 35.5 a) 4,480 ml b) 7.1 g c) 0.2 mol d) 4.48 liters e) 14.2 g f) 0.1 mol g) 2.24 liters h) 200 mmol

232. Calculate either the amount of sulfur dioxide produced by burning 112 grams of

sulfur or the amount of oxygen needed in the reaction. Ar(S) = 32; Ar(O) = 16: a) 112 g of O2 b) 7 mol of O2 3 c) 78.4 dm of SO2 d) 3.5 mol of O2 3 e) 156.8 dm of O2 f) 156.8 liter of SO2 g) 112 g of SO2 h) 3.5 mol of SO2

233. Calculate how much chlorine reacts with 0.5 mol of iron in the reaction of ferric

chloride production or how much FeCl3 is produced? Ar(Fe) = 56; Ar(Cl) = 35.5 3 a) 16.8 dm of Cl2 3 b) 33.6 dm of Cl2

c) 0.5 mol of Cl2 d) 81.25 g of FeCl3 e) 40.62 g of FeCl3 f) 0.75 mol of Cl2 g) 53.25 g of Cl2 h) 0.5 mol of FeCl3

234. Calculate the amount of zinc and sulfur needed to prepare 24.25 g of zinc sulfide.

Ar(Zn) = 65; Ar(S) = 32 a) 0.25 mol of S b) 0.50 mol of Zn c) 16.25 g of Zn d) 0.20 mol of Zn e) 0.25 mol of Zn f) 8 g of S g) 0.20 mol of S h) 8.12 g of Zn

235. Calculate the amount of hydrogen and KOH produced in the reaction of 23.4 g

of potassium with water. Ar(K) = 39; Ar(H) = 1; Ar(O) = 16 a) 0.6 g of H2 b) 6 g of H2 c) 0.3 mol of H2 d) 33.6 g of KOH e) 0.3 mol of KOH f) 600 mg of H2 g) 0.6 mol of KOH h) 0.6 mol of H2

236. 6 mol of NaOH was added to a solution containing 1.8 mol of FeCl3. How much of

NaCl and Fe(OH)3 were formed and how much of unreacted NaOH remained in the

solution? Mr(NaOH) = 40; Mr(NaCl) = 58.5; Mr {Fe(OH)3} = 107 a) 1.2 mol of Fe(OH)3 b) 1.8 mol of Fe(OH)3 c) 48 g of NaOH d) 192.6 g of Fe(OH)3 e) 5.4 mol of NaCl f) 6 mol of NaCl g) 0.6 mol of NaOH h) 24 g of NaOH

237. Dissolving magnesium in sulfuric acid gave 36 g of magnesium sulfate. Calculate the amount of magnesium and 80 % (w %) sulfuric acid needed to prepare the

product. How much of hydrogen was formed during the reaction? Ar(Mg) = 24;

Mr(H2SO4) = 98; Mr(MgSO4) = 120 a) 29.4 g of H2SO4 b) 6.72 dm3 of hydrogen c) 36.75 g of H2SO4

d) 1.2 g of hydrogen e) 0.3 mol of Mg f) 0.6 g of hydrogen g) 7.2 g of Mg h) 0.6 mol of Mg

238. Which of the following hydroxides in given quantity can fully neutralize 0.4 mol of oxalic acid: a) 0.6 mol of NaOH b) 0.4 mol of Ba(OH)2 c) 0.8 mol of LiOH d) 0.4 mol of Mn(OH)2 e) 0.3 mol of Al(OH)3 f) 0.3 mol of Bi(OH)3 g) 0.7 mol of KOH h) 0.4 mol of CsOH

239. There is 30 cm3 of the LiOH solution in the titration flask. To neutralize it, we need 21 cm3 of 0.1 mol.dm-3 hydrochloric acid solution. What is the concentration of LiOH solution: a) 0.140 mol.l-1 b) 0.070 mol.l-1 c) 70 mmol.l-1 d) 140 mmol.l-1 e) 2.1 mol.l-1 f) 0.21 mol.l-1 g) 1.4×10-4 mol.l-1 h) 7×10-2 mol.l-1

240. What is the concentration of HNO3 solution if 30 ml of this solution is neutralized with 36 ml of a 0.1 mol.dm-3 LiOH solution, or how much of LiOH is present in these

36 ml of solution before neutralization? Mr(LiOH) = 24 a) 0.24 mol.l-1 b) 0.12 mol.l-1 c) 86.4 mg of LiOH d) 83 mmol.l-1 e) 120 mmol.l-1 f) 24 mmol.l-1 g) 0.0864 g of LiOH h) 0.0036 g of LiOH

241. 100 ml of a solution contains 0.1 mol of sulfuric acid. How many grams of barium

hydroxide (Mr = 171) are needed to neutralize this solution or how many milliliters

of 0.2 mol/l solution of Ba(OH)2 are needed to neutralize sulfuric acid? a) 17.1 g b) 34.2 g c) 68.4 g d) 171 g e) 0.5 l Ba(OH)2 solution f) 20 ml Ba(OH)2 solution

g) 500 ml Ba(OH)2 solution h) 50 ml Ba(OH)2 solution

242. 50 ml of a solution contains 1.5 mol of sulfuric acid. How many grams or moles of sodium hydroxide (Mr = 40) are needed to neutralize this solution? a) 60 g b) 30 g c) 120 g d) 3 g e) 3 mol f) 60 mol g) 120 mol h) 90 mol

243. A reversible reaction expressed by the reaction A + 2B C has the following concentrations of substances in the equilibrium: [A] = 0.5 mol.l-1, [B] = 1.6 mol.l-1, [C] = 2.56 mol.l-1. Calculate the equilibrium constant and the initial concentrations of substances A and B: a) K = 3.2; [A] = 2.1 mol.l-1; [B] = 4.16 mol.l-1 b) K = 2; [A] = 2.1 mol.l-1; [B] = 4.16 mol.l-1 c) K = 2; [A] = 3.06 mol.l-1; [B] = 6.72 mol.l-1 d) K = 6.4; [A] = 0.5 mol.l-1; [B] = 1.6 mol.l-1 e) K = 0.5; [A] = 1.0 mol.l-1; [B] = 3.2 mol.l-1 f) K = 0.5; [A] = 3.06 mol.l-1; [B] = 6.12 mol.l-1 g) K = 0.32; [A] = 2.1 mol.l-1; [B] = 3.2 mol.l-1 h) K = 0.3125; [A] = 3.56 mol.l-1; [B] = 5.76 mol.l-1

244. In the equilibrium state the substances of the reaction N2 + 3 H2 2 NH3 are -1 -1 at the concentrations: [N2] = 4.5 mol/l, [H2] = 7 mol.l , [NH3] = 8 mol.l . What were the initial concentrations of hydrogen and nitrogen? What is the equilibrium constant of the reaction under these conditions? -1 a) [H2] = 12.5 mol.l -1 b) [H2] = 31 mol.l c) K = 4 -1 d) [N2] = 3.5 mol.l -1 e) [H2] = 5 mol.l f) K = 4.15×10-2 -1 g) [N2] = 8.5 mol.l -1 h) [H2] = 19 mol.l

245. By heating, the phosphorus pentachloride is decomposed according to the following

equation: PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2. At a certain temperature the two out of eight moles

of PCl5 were decomposed in a 10-liter closed flask. Calculate the equilibrium constant of the reaction at this temperature and the concentration of the compounds (mol.l-1), in the equilibrium: a) K = 0.1 b) [PCl3] = 0.6 c) [PCl3] = 0.2 d) K = 0.067 e) [Cl2] = 0.2 56

f) [PCl5] = 0.6 g) [PCl3] = 2 h) [Cl2] = 2

246. The equilibrium constant of the esterification reaction of methanol with acetic acid is one. Mark the correct amount (moles) of the individual components of the equilibrium system, if 5 moles of methanol and 8 moles of acetic acid are mixed: a) methanol = 4.92 b) acetic acid = 1.92 c) ester = 1.92 d) water = 3.08 e) methanol = 1.92 f) acetic acid = 4.92 g) ester = 3.08 h) water = 1.92

247. The equilibrium of the following reaction H2 + I2 2HI was stabilized at the -1 -1 -1 following concentrations: [H2] = 0.50 mol.l , [I2] = 0.30 mol.l and [HI] = 1.6 mol.l . Calculate the initial concentrations (mol.l-1) of iodine and hydrogen and mark the correct concentrations of the individual substances. Mark the correct value of the equilibrium constant: a) [H2] = 1.1 b) [I2] = 1.1 c) [H2] = 1.6 d) K = 0.56 e) [H2] = 1.3 f) [I2] = 1.3 g) [HI] = 0.8 h) K = 17.067

248. What is the osmotic pressure of the potassium chloride solution at 30 °C if 3 g of KCl is dissolved in 0.5 liter of the solution? What is the concentration of osmotically -1 -1 active particles? Mr(KCl) = 75; R = 8.32 JK mol a) the osmotic pressure is 201.8 kPa b) the osmotic pressure is 403.6 kPa c) the osmotic pressure is 40 kPa d) the osmotic pressure is 20 kPa e) the concentration of osmotically active particles is 0.16 mol.l-1 f) the concentration of osmotically active particles is 0.08 mol.l-1 g) the concentration of osmotically active particles is 2.4 mol.l-1 h) the concentration of osmotically active particles is 0.04 mol.l-1

249. Calculate the osmotic pressure of the solution at 37 °C if 75 mmol of non-electrolyte is dissolved in 250 ml of the solution. What is the concentration of osmotically active particles in the solution? What is the resulting solution with regard to saline solution? R = 8.32 JK-1mol-1 a) the osmotic pressure of the non-electrolyte solution is 193.5 kPa b) the osmotic pressure of the non-electrolyte solution is 92.35 kPa c) the osmotic pressure of the non-electrolyte solution is 774.13 kPa d) the concentration of osmotically active particles in the solution is 0.3 mol.l-1 e) the concentration of osmotically active particles in the solution is 75 mmol.l-1 57

f) the resulting solution is isotonic to the NaCl physiological solution g) the resulting solution is hypertonic to the NaCl physiological solution h) the resulting solution is hypotonic to the NaCl physiological solution

250. What is the molecular weight of the non-electrolyte, or which substance can it be, if one liter of the solution contains 7.256 g of the substance and the osmotic pressure of the solution is 100 kPa at 25 °C? R = 8.32 JK-1mol-1 a) the molecular weight is 15 b) the molecular weight is 150 c) the molecular weight is 180 d) the non-electrolyte can be ribose e) the non-electrolyte can be fructose f) the non-electrolyte can be glucose g) the non-electrolyte can be sucrose h) the non-electrolyte can be glycerol

251. The osmotic pressure of 250 ml of the solution containing 3 g of saccharide is 200 kPa at 25 °C. Determine which saccharide can it be. What is the concentration of the saccharide solution? What is the molecular weight of the saccharide? -1 -1 R = 8.32 JK mol ; Ar(C) = 12; Ar(H) = 1; Ar(O)= 16 a) it can be sucrose b) it can be galactose c) it can be arabinose d) it can be xylulose e) the concentration of solution is 0.04 mol.l-1 f) the concentration of solution is 0.08 mol.l-1 g) the molecular weight of saccharide is 150 h) the molecular weight of saccharide is 180

252. What is the molecular weight of carbohydrate, if osmotic pressure of the solution containing 12.61 grams of carbohydrate in 300 ml of the solution is 700 kPa at 27 °C? Which carbohydrate could it be? R = 8.32 JK-1mol-1 a) 150 b) 180 c) 312 d) 282 e) sucrose f) glucose g) xylulose h) ribulose

253. Calculate the amount of carbon dioxide and water which are formed by oxidation

of 20 mol of methane at room temperature. Ar(C) = 12; Ar(O) = 16; Ar(H) =1 a) 40 moles of CO2 b) 20 moles of CO2 c) 44.8 liters of CO2 d) 448 liters of CO2 e) 20 moles of H2O f) 40 moles of H2O g) 720 g of H2O h) 360 g of H2O 58

254. What volume or how many moles of oxygen are consumed in the combustion of 44.8 dm3 of propane assuming the volumes of both gases are measured under the

same conditions? How many g or mol of H2O are formed during this process?

Ar(C) = 12; Ar(O) = 16; Ar(H) = 1 a) 224 liters of O2 are consumed b) 112 liters of O2 are consumed c) 5 moles of O2 are consumed d) 10 moles of O2 are consumed e) 4 moles of H2O are formed f) 8 moles of H2O are formed g) 144 g of H2O are formed h) 72 g of H2O are formed

255. Which volume or how many moles of hydrogen are released during the reaction of 92 mg of sodium with 5 mmol of ethanol at room temperature? What % of ethanol

remains unreacted? Ar(Na) = 23 a) 4 mmol of H2 are released b) 0.002 mol of H2 is released c) 44.8 ml of H2 are released d) 0.0448 liter of H2 is released e) 80 % of ethanol remain unreacted f) 20 % of ethanol remain unreacted g) 0.2 mmol of H2 is released h) 44.8 liters of H2 are released

256. Calculate the mass of sugar cane with 20 % content of sucrose and the mass of sucrose which has to be hydrolyzed to prepare 1 tonne of glucose?

Ar(H) = 1; Ar(C) = 12; Ar(O) = 16; Mr(sucrose) = 342 a) 9.5 tonnes of sugar cane b) 1,900 kg of sugar cane c) 9,500 kg of sugar cane d) 1.9 tonnes of C12H22O12 e) 1.9 tonnes of sugar cane f) 1,900 kg of sucrose g) 9,500 kg of C12H22O11 h) 1,900 kg of C12H22O11

257. Explosive mixture of methane with the air contains 5 to 15 volume % of methane. Calculate the mass and the amount of substance of methane in the volume of 1.12 m3

of mixture at the lower and upper limits of explosiveness. Ar(C) = 12; Ar(H) = 1 a) 40 - 120 g b) 40 - 120 kg c) 35.7 - 107.1 g d) 2.5 - 7.5 mol e) 2.5 - 7.5 kmol f) 40 - 120 ml g) 2,500 - 7,500 mmol

h) 0.04 - 0.12 kg

258. What amount of the air and oxygen is needed to complete the combustion of 26 g

of acetylene? Ar(C) = 12; Ar(H) = 1; Ar(O) = 16 a) 56 liters of O2 b) 266.66 liters of the air c) 56 ml of O2 d) 2.5 mol of O2 e) 5 mol of O2 f) 80 g of O2 g) 266.66 ml of the air h) 0.08 kg of O2

259. What volume, mass or amount of substance of ethane is produced in the reaction

of 13 g of acetylene with the volume 44.8 liters of hydrogen? Ar(H) = 1; Ar(C) = 12 a) 30 g b) 1 mol c) 0.5 mol d) 11.2 liters e) 22.4 liters f) 500 mmol g) 15 g h) 0.5 mmol

260. Calculate the amounts of ethene and chlorine needed for the preparation of 49.5 g

of dichloroethane at room temperature? Ar(Cl) = 35.5; Ar(H) = 1; Ar(C) = 12 a) 22.4 dm3 of chlorine b) 11.2 liters of Cl2 c) 11.2 liters of ethene d) 11.2 liters of CH≡CH e) 35.5 g of Cl2 f) 14 g of ethene g) 17.75 g of Cl2 h) 14 g of H2C=CH2

261. Calculate the mass of benzene that can be prepared from 6.72 dm3 of acetylene, if

the amount of product is only 50 % of the theoretical amount. Ar(C) = 12; Ar(H) = 1 a) 8.2 g of benzene b) 3,900 mg C6H6 c) 3.9 g of benzene d) 3.9 g of C6H10 e) 7.8 g of C6H6 f) 3.9 g of C6H6 -3 g) 3.9×10 kg of C6H6 h) 3.9 g of C6H12

262. Calculate the mass of toluene that can be prepared by the reaction of 26 g of benzene with chloromethane. How much chloromethane is consumed during the

reaction? Ar(Cl) = 35.5; Ar(C) = 12; Ar(H) = 1 a) 30.66 mg of toluene b) 46 g of toluene c) 30.66 g of toluene d) 0.333 mol of CH3Cl e) 16.83 g of CH3Cl f) 16.83 g of CHCl3 g) 0.333 mol of CHCl3 h) 16.83 g of CH2Cl2

263. Calculate the mass of toluene needed for preparation of 113.5 g of trinitrotoluene

(TNT), if the amount of product is only 50 % of the theoretical amount. Ar(N) = 14;

Ar(C) = 12; Ar(H) = 1; Ar(O) = 16; Mr(TNT) = 227 a) 92 g b) 184 g c) 92 mg d) 0.092 kg e) 92 kg f) 92×103 mg g) 92 µg h) 92×10-3 kg

264. For hydrolysis of 6 g of an unknown ester of formic acid we used 50 ml of sodium hydroxide solution with concentration of 2 mol.l-1. Determine which ester it is.

Mr(NaOH) = 40; Ar(C) = 12; Ar(O) = 16; Ar(H) = 1 a) methyl methanoate b) ethyl formate c) CH3COOCH3 d) HCOOCH3 e) HCOOC2H5 f) CH3COONa g) methyl formate h) CH3OOCH

265. What amount of hydrogen or alcoholate are produced when 23 g of sodium reacts

with 23 g of ethanol (volume of gas is measured at room temperature)? Ar(C)= 12;

Ar(H) = 1; Ar(O) = 16; Ar(Na) = 23 a) 0.5 mol of H2 b) 5.6 liters of H2 c) 11.2 liters of H2 d) 0.25 mol of H2 e) 34 g of CH3ONa f) 34 g of C2H5ONa g) 34 g of CH3CH2ONa h) 68 g of C2H5ONa

266. What amount of phenolate is prepared from KOH and phenol, if 47 grams of each

reactant are used? Ar(C) = 12; Ar(O) = 16; Ar(H) = 1; Ar(K) = 39 a) 66 g of C6H5OOK b) 110.8 g of C6H5OK c) 66 g of C6H5OK d) 132 g of C6H5OK e) 66 g of C6H5COOK f) 0.5 mol of C6H5OK g) 0.5 mol of C6H5COOK h) 0.066 kg of C6H5OK

267. What amounts of formic acid and ethanol are needed to prepare 222 g of ethyl

formate? Mr(ethanol) = 46; Mr(formic acid) = 46; Mr(ethyl formate) = 74 a) 138 g of HCOOH b) 138 g of CH3CH2OH c) 138 g of C2H5OH d) 138 g of CH3OH e) 3 mol of HCOOH f) 3 mol of C2H5OH g) 3 mol of CH3CHO h) 138 kg of HCOOH

268. How many grams and moles of ethanol are needed for the preparation of 22 g of ethyl acetate if the amount of produced ester is only 25 % of the theoretical amount?

Mr(ethanol) = 46; Mr(ethyl acetate) = 88 a) 46 g of CH3CHO b) 1 mol of CH3CHO c) 46 g of CH3CH2OH d) 11.5 g of C2H5OH e) 1 mol of CH3CH2OH f) 0.25 mol of C2H5OH g) 1 mol of CH3OH h) 46 g of CH3OH

269. Which combination of elements and their description match: a) Hg, As, Cd, Pb - all of them are toxic to living organisms b) Ca, Mg, Na, K, Cl, Fe - all of them are biogenic elements c) Zn, Mn, Cu, Mo, Se - all of them are biogenic microelements d) Cu, Se, Zn, I, Mo - all of them are biogenic macroelements e) Pb, Hg, Cd, As - all of them are biogenic microelements f) C, H, O, N - these elements are the most abundant in organic compounds g) C, H, O, N, S, P - most of bioorganic compounds are formed out of these elements h) O, N, S, Cl - these elements are the most abundant in organic compounds

270. The electron configuration of the carbon atom in the excited state is: a) 1s2 2s2 2p2 2 2 1 1 1 b) 1s 2s 2px 2py 2pz

2 1 1 1 1 c) 1s 2s 2px 2py 2pz d) 1s2 2s1 2p3 e) 1s2 2s2 2p3 2 1 1 2 f) 1s 2s 2px 2py 2 1 3 g) 1s 2s 2px h) the same as in the ground state

271. Characteristics of organic compounds depend: a) on the type of functional groups b) on the internal arrangement of the atoms in the molecule c) on the type of atoms in the molecule d) on the constitution of molecules e) on the structure of molecules f) mainly on the number of carbon atoms in the molecule g) only on the order of atoms of elements in the molecule h) only on the types of bonds

272. In the hydrocarbon secondary carbon atoms

are marked by the numbers: a) 1, 6 and 7 b) 1, 2 and 8 c) 5 and 6 d) 3 and 5 e) 1 and 6 f) 2 and 4 g) 7 and 8 h) 1, 3, 5 and 6

273. In the methane molecule: a) binding angles are 109° 28’ b) binding angles are 120° c) binding angles are 180° d) a carbon atom is located in the center of a regular tetrahedron e) atoms of hydrogen are located at the vertices of a regular tetrahedron f) all atoms lie in one plane g) all atoms lie in one line h) atom of carbon is four bonded

274. The compound with the formula: a) contains the secondary carbon atom marked by the number 2 b) contains the secondary carbon atom marked by the number 3 c) contains secondary carbon atoms marked by the numbers 2 and 3 d) is butanal e) is acetaldehyde f) is formaldehyde g) is butanone h) is butanol

275. Which of the following compounds contain a tertiary carbon atom: a) CH3-CH2-OH

b) c)

d) (CH3)3C-OH e) HO-CH2-CH2-OH f)

h) Cl3C-COOH

276. Constitutional isomers are: a) compounds which have the same molecular formula but different structural formulas b) isopentane and 2-methylbutane c) ethyl alcohol and dimethyl ether d) methanol and dimethyl ether e) n-pentane and isopentane f) CH3CH2OH and CH3-O-CH3 g) butanone and propanone h)

277. Which of the following compounds exhibits cis-trans isomerism: a) 1-butene (but-1-ene) b) 2-butene (but-2-ene) c) 2-hexene (hex-2-ene) d) 3-hexene (hex-3-ene) e) 2-methyl-2-butene (2-methylbut-2-ene) f) 1,2-dichloroethylene g) 9-octadecenic acid h) butenedioic acid

278. Which of the following structures is the cis isomer: a) b)

279. Which of the following structures is the trans isomer: a)

280. The pair of compounds CH3-CO-O-CH2-CH3 and CH3-CH2-O-CO-CH3 represents: a) constitutional isomers b) tautomers c) ethyl ester of ethanoic acid d) the same compound

e) ethyl ester of acetic acid f) ethyl acetate g) stereoisomers h) enantiomers

281. Which pairs of compounds are isomers: a) b) CH3-O-CH2-CH3 and CH3-CH2-O-CH3 c)

d) and CH -CH -CH 3 2 3 e)

g) h)

282. Which pairs of compounds are isomers: a) b) c) d) H3C-CH2-O-CH2-CH3 and CH3-O-CH2-CH2-CH3 e) CH3OCH3 and C2H5OH f) CH3CHO and CH2=CHO g)

h) CHCl3 and CH3Cl

283. Isomers cis-trans can form: a) 2-pentene (pent-2-ene) b) 1-chloro-1-propene (1-chlor-prop-1-ene) c) 1,3,5-hexatriene (hexa-1,3,5-triene) d) 1-pentene (pent-1-ene) e) propene 66

f) 3-hexene (hex-3-ene) g) 2-hexene (hex-2-ene) h) 2-methyl-2-butene (2-methyl but-2-ene)

284. The correctly marked chiral carbon (C*) atom is in the formula: * a) C6H5-CH(OH) -C OOH * b) CH3-C H(NH2)-COOH * c) CH3-CH(Cl)-C Cl3 * d) CH3-C H(OH) -COOH * e) CH2(OH) C H(OH) CHO * f) HO-CH2-C O-CH2OH g) h)

285. Which of the following compounds are optically active: a) b) c) d) e) f) g) h)

286. Which of the following compounds are optically active: a) lactic acid b) citric acid c) 2-methyl-1-butanol (2-methyl-butane-1-ol) d) 2-methylpropane e) dihydroxyacetone f) glyceraldehyde g) 2,2-dibromopropane h) 1,2-dibromopropane

287. Which of the following compounds is optically active: a)

b) c)

d) e) f) g) h)

288. Alkynes are hydrocarbons: a) which can undergo addition reactions b) with the general formula CnH2n-2 c) with the triple bond in the molecule d) which form a homologous sequence e) more reactive than alkanes f) unsaturated g) sensitive to oxidation h) which form acetylides with metals

289. Alkyls, R-: a) are one bonded groups b) are derived from alkanes by removing one hydrogen atom c) have the general formula CnH2n+1 d) are, for example, methyl and propyl e) are also called aryls f) are phenyl and naphthyl g) are formyl and acetyl h) are benzyl and benzoyl

290. To the compound of the formula assign the correct systematic

or trivial name: a) 2-methyl-1,3-butadiene (2-methylbuta-1,3-diene) b) chloroprene c) 2-methyl-1,4-butene (2-methylbut-1,4-ene) d) 3-methyl-1,3-butadiene (3-methylbuta-1,3-diene) e) isoprene f) methyl isoprene g) 2-methyl-1,4-butadiene (2-methylbuta-1,4-diene) h) styrene

291. Benzyl is one bonded group derived from: a) benzoic acid b) benzene c) toluene d) phenol e) cresol f) styrene g) ethylbenzene h) naphthalene

292. The compound with the formula represents: a) a tertiary amine b) an imine c) a substitutional derivative of propane d) a weak base e) nitropropane f) 2-aminopropane g) a secondary amine h) a primary amine

293. The compound with the formula C6H5-CH=CH2 is: a) a monomer for the polystyrene production b) a monomer for the PVC production c) cumene d) ethenylbenzene e) ethylbenzene f) vinylbenzene g) styrene h) an aromatic hydrocarbon

294. is: a) methanal b) acetaldehyde c) ketone d) methyl alcohol e) methanoic acid f) formaldehyde g) aldehyde h) carbonyl compound

295. CH3-CHO is: a) acetaldehyde b) formaldehyde c) acetylene d) acetone e) ethanal f) a tautomer of vinyl alcohol g) a compound formed by the oxidation of a secondary alcohol h) a compound by the oxidation of which formic acid is formed

296. The compound with the formula is: a) glyceraldehyde b) dihydroxyacetone c) oxo-compound d) aldehyde e) 2,3-dihydroxypropanal f) a product of the glycerol reduction g) an optically active compound h) a compound containing one asymmetric carbon atom in the molecule

297. Indicate the systematic name of the compound: a) 3-methyl-3-butenic acid (3-methylbut-3-enic) b) ß-methyl-3-butenic acid c) fumaric acid d) acrylic acid e) 2-methyl-2-butenoic acid (2-methylbut-2-enic) f) 3-methyl-2-butenoic acid (3-methylbut-2-enic) g) 2-methyl-3-butenoic acid (2-methylbut-3-enic) h) isobutyric acid

298. Indicate pairs where the correct name is assigned to the formula: a) 4-methylpentane b) 2-methylbutane c) 4-methylpentane d) 2,4-dimethylhexane

e) 4,4-dimethylpentane

f) C6H5-CH=CH2 vinyl benzene g) C6H5-CH3 toluene h) CH2=CH-CH=CH2 1,3-butadiene (buta-1,3-diene)

299. The addition of water to ethene: a) provides vinyl alcohol b) leads to the disappearance of the double bond c) is dehydration d) is electrophilic addition e) can be catalyzed by sulfuric acid f) is a reaction by which ethanol is formed g) is the basis of industrial ethanol production h) is controlled by the Markovnikov's rule

300. The reaction of methane with chlorine: a) is a radical chain reaction

b) consists of initiation, propagation and termination c) is a heterolytic substitution reaction d) is a homolytic substitution reaction e) is an addition nucleophilic reaction f) is performed by irradiating the reaction mixture with UV radiation g) is carried out at the temperature around 25 °C h) provides sequentially mono-, di-, tri- and tetrachloromethane

301. By the hydrogenation of ethylene the following compounds can be formed: a) ethene b) acetylene c) a saturated hydrocarbon d) acetaldehyde e) ethanol f) ethane g) ethyne h) alkane

302. Which of the following compounds is formed by the addition of hydrogen chloride to 1-butene and 2-butene: a) b) c) d) halogenoalkane e) 2-chlorobutane f) 1-chlorobutane g) an optically active compound h) a compound with a chiral carbon atom

303. By the reaction CH2=CH-CH3 + HBr the following compound is formed: a) 2-bromopropane b) 1-bromopropane c) bromoform d) isoprene e) 1-bromopropene f) 2-bromopropene g) alyl bromide h) vinyl bromide

304. By the addition of water to acetylene, the following compound can be formed: a) a non stable vinyl alcohol b) ethanal c) ethyl alcohol d) acetylbenzene e) acetaldehyde f) formaldehyde g) ethanol h) acetylide

305. Reaction R-CH2-CH2-NH2 R-CH=CH2 + NH3 is: a) deamination of the secondary amine b) an elimination c) a substitution d) an addition e) deamination of the tertiary amine f) deamination of the primary amine g) a deamination h) a chain reaction

306. By the benzene nitration into the second stage, the following compound is formed as the main product: a) 1,2-dinitrobenzene b) 1,4-dinitrobenzene c) 1,3-dinitrobenzene d) m-dinitrobenzene e) o-dinitrobenzene f) nitrobenzene g) p-dinitrobenzene h) a substitutional derivative of benzene

307. To the electrophilic substitutions of arenes we include: a) chloration b) bromation c) hydrogenation d) oxidation e) nitration f) sulfonation g) acylation h) alkylation

308. Nucleophilic substitution reactions are typical for: a) alkynes b) alcohols c) phenols d) arenes e) alkenes f) aromatic hydrocarbons g) aliphatic hydrocarbons h) halogenoalkanes

309. Indicate pairs with the correct name assigned to the formula: a) CH3Br bromomethane b) CH2=CH-Br vinyl bromide c) C5H5-Br bromobenzene d) C2H5-NO nitroethane e) C2H5CHO propanol f) H2C=O methanal g) CH3-CO-CH3 acetone h) CH3CHO formaldehyde

310. Which of the following reactions belong to elimination: a) deamination b) hydration c) dehydration of ethanol to ethene d) deamination of amino acid to unsaturated acid e) dehydrogenation f) hydrogenation g) dehydration h) hydrolysis

311. Calcium acetylide: a) is compound with the formula (C≡C)Ca b) is compound with the formula (C≡C)2Ca c) is calcium carbide d) is salt of acetylene e) by water is decomposed into acetylene f) is hydrolyzed to acetylene g) with the water is decomposed to ethyne h) is formed by substitution of hydrogen cations in the molecule of acetylene by the cation of a metal

- - 312. OH , Cl , and NH3 are: a) heterolytic reagents b) homolytic reagents c) nucleophilic reagents d) electrophilic reagents e) radicals f) donors of electrons in a chemical reaction g) acceptors of electrons in a chemical reaction h) anions or they contain a lone (free) electron pair in their molecule

+ + + 313. H , H3O , Br are: a) homolytic reagents b) nucleophilic reagents c) heterolytic reagents d) electrophilic reagents e) donors of electrons f) acceptors of electrons g) radicals h) cations

314. Electrophilic additions: a) are typical for alkynes b) lead to the disappearance of π - bonds c) are typical for alkenes d) are typical for alkanes e) are typical for unsaturated hydrocarbons f) are typical for aromatic hydrocarbons g) begin with an electrophile attack h) are reactions with the synthesis of carbocation as the fastest stage in the reaction mechanism

+ 315. NO2 : a) is a nucleophilic reagent b) is formed by the reaction of nitric and sulfuric acids c) is formed by the reaction of nitrous and sulfuric acids d) reacts with benzene to form aniline e) is a nitronium ion f) is a reagent for the electrophilic nitration g) is formed by the reaction of nitric and sulfurous acids h) during nitration it replaces a proton in the benzene molecule by the nitro group

316. Nitration of benzene is: a) a reaction of aniline formation b) an electrophilic substitution c) a nucleophilic substitution d) a reaction of benzene with the HNO3 + H2SO4 mixture e) a reaction of benzene with a nitrating mixture f) a reaction of benzene with a nitronium cation g) a reaction of nitrobenzene synthesis h) a reaction of nitrosobenzene synthesis

317. Radical addition is the reaction of benzene with: a) bromine under FeBr3 catalysis b) a mixture of nitric and sulfuric acids c) acetyl chloride under AlCl3 catalysis d) chloroethane under AlCl3 catalysis e) Cl2 under FeCl3 catalysis f) Cl2 by the UV radiation g) H2 under Pt catalysis h) a nitration mixture

318. m- (meta-) orienting substituents on the aromatic ring are: a) -COOH b) -C≡N c) -CH2CH3 d) -Br e) -NO2 f) -SO3H g) -OH h) -NH2

319. o- and p- (ortho- and para-) orienting substituents on the aromatic ring are: a) -NO2 b) -OH c) -COOH d) -CH3 e) -Br f) -COR g) -NH2 h) -Cl

320. Which of the following compounds are soluble in water: a) glucose b) CH3(CH2)16COOH c) CH3COOH d) cholesterol e) urea f) triacylglycerols g) saccharose h) alanine

321. Which of the following compounds are aromatic: a) cresol b) hydroquinone c) p-benzoquinone d) 1,3-cyclohexadiene e) 1,4-benzoquinone f) toluene g) benzylchloride h) resorcinol

322. Dehydrogenation of ethanol is: a) a reduction of ethanol b) an oxidation of ethanol c) an oxidation-reduction reaction d) a reaction of ethane synthesis e) a reaction of ethene synthesis f) a reaction of acetaldehyde synthesis g) a reaction of ethanal synthesis h) a reaction of formaldehyde synthesis

323. Hydrogenation of acetone is: a) associated with isomerization of acetone to acetaldehyde b) the oxidation of acetone c) the reduction of acetone by hydrogen d) the addition of hydrogen to the oxo group of acetone e) associated with the formation of a secondary alcohol f) associated with the formation of a primary alcohol g) the reaction of 2-propanol synthesis h) the reaction of 1-propanol synthesis

324. Choose the correct reactions: a) CH≡CH + HCl CH2=CHCl b) CH≡CH + HBr CH2-CHBr c) CH≡CH + Br2 Br2CH-CHBr2 d) CH≡CH + 2Br2 BrCH=CHBr e) f)

g) h)

325. Choose the correct reactions or schemes: a) b) c) d) e) f) CaC2 + H2O C2H2 + CaOH g) CaC2 + 2H2O C2H2 + Ca(OH)2 h)

326. Reaction of the complete combustion of compounds is: a) C6H5-CH3 + 9 O2 7 CO2 + 4 H2O b) CH3-(CH2)3-CH3+ 8 O2 5 CO2 + 6 H2O c) CH4 + O2 CH2O + H2O d) 2 CH4 + 4 O2 2 CO2 + 4 H2O e) 2 C6H6 + 3O2 2 CH3COOH + 2 H2O f) CH2=CH2+ 2 KMnO4+ 4 H2O 3 HO-CH2-CH2-OH + 2 MnO2 + 2 KOH g) C6H12O6 + 6 O2 6 CO2 + 6 H2O h) C16H32O2 + 23 O2 16 CO2 + 16 H2O

327. Choose the correct reactions or schemes: a) b) c) d) e) f)

g) h)

328. Which schemes illustrate the formation of the major product of the substitution reaction: a) b)

c) d) e) f)

329. Choose the correct reactions: a) b) c) d) e) f)

g) h)

330. From ethylene the following compound can be formed: a) styrene b) ethanol c) ethylene glycol d) vinyl chloride e) chlorinated solvents f) allyl chloride g) glycerol h) ethylene oxide

331. Benzyl chloride: a) is chloromethyl benzene b) is a substitutional derivative of toluene c) is an aromatic compound d) is a derivative of benzoic acid e) is identical to benzoyl chloride f) is an unsaturated compound g) is a halogen derivative of toluene h) is identical to chlorobenzene

332. Compound CH2=CHCl: a) is a cancerogenic gas b) belongs to freons c) polymerize to polyvinyl chloride d) is chloroethylene e) is chloroethene f) is vinyl chloride g) is styrene h) is ethyl chloride

333. The reaction is: a) an addition b) a radical substitution c) a reaction of bromoform synthesis d) bromation of methane e) a hydrolysis f) bromation g) an electrophilic substitution h) a nucleophilic substitution

334. Full hydrogenation of benzene leads to the production of: a) methylbenzene b) cyclohexadiene c) cyclohexatriene d) dioxane e) cycloalkane 78

f) cyclohexene g) toluene h) cyclohexane

335. The compound CHCl3 is: a) a halogen derivative of ethane b) chloroform c) trichloromethane d) trichloroethylene e) carbon tetrachloride f) methylene chloride g) halogenoalkane h) a volatile liquid

336. The compound with the formula is: a) an aromatic compound b) benzyl chloride c) a substitution derivative of benzoic acid d) a functional derivative of benzoic acid e) benzoyl chloride f) styrene g) chloride of benzoic acid h) halogenoalkane

337. The bond of bromine with the carbon atom in the chain: a) is a polar covalent bond b) causes a negative induction effect c) causes a positive induction effect d) causes a mesomeric effect e) is non-polar f) is covalent g) is ionic h) breaks homolytically in the chemical reaction

338. Negative inductive effect -I is caused by the following group: a) -NO2 b) -CH3 c) -Cl d) -OH e) -Br f) -CH2CH3 g) -NH2 h) -I

339. The positive inductive effect +I is caused by the following group: a) -Br b) -CH2-CH3 c) -F

d) e) -I f) -OH g) -CH3 h) -NO2

340. Acetyl is: a) b) CH3-CO- c) d) CH3-CO-O- e) -OC-CH3 f) HC-CO- g) R-CO- h) the acyl derived from acetic acid

341. Organic compounds with the characteristic -SH group are: a) sulfur analogues of hydroxy derivatives of hydrocarbons b) sulfides c) thioalcohols d) sulfonic acids e) thiols f) disulfides g) thiolates h) sulfites

342. Dimethyl disulfide is formed by the oxidation of: a) ethanethiol b) methanethiol c) ethylene glycol d) ethene e) methanediol f) sulfane g) cysteine h) thiophene

343. D-glyceraldehyde: a) contains an asymmetric carbon atom in the molecule b) is formed by the hydrogenation of glycerol c) contains one chiral carbon atom in the molecule d) contains two chiral carbon atoms in the molecule e) is formed by the mild oxidation of glycerol f) is formed by the mild oxidation of 1,2,3-propanetriol g) is an optically active compound h) contains the carbonyl group in the molecule

344. Which of the following reactions may proceed: a) oxidation of ethanol to acetaldehyde 80

b) oxidation of formaldehyde to formic acid c) reduction of methanal to methanoic acid d) oxidation of methanol up to formic acid e) reduction of keto acid to hydroxy acid f) oxidation of 1-propanol to propanal g) oxidation of acetaldehyde to acetic acid h) oxidation of 2-propanol to acetone

345. Which of the following alcohols is very toxic and causes the blindness: a) CH3-CH2-OH b) CH3OH c) CH3-CH2-CH2-OH d) e) methanol f) C2H5OH g) methyl alcohol h)

346. Hydroxy derivatives of hydrocarbons include: a) sorbitol b) alcohols c) phenols d) ketones e) acetals f) ethers g) diols h) triols

347. Primary alcohols include: a) 2-methyl-2-propanol (2-methylpropane-2-ol) b) 2-methyl-1-propanol (2-methylpropane-1-ol) c) 1-butanol (butane-1-ol) d) 2-butanol (butane-2-ol) e) hydroquinone f) ethane diol g) 1-propanol (propane-1-ol) h) 2-propanol (propane-2-ol)

348. Which of the following compounds belong to secondary alcohols: a)

b) HO-CH2-CH2-OH c) CH3(CH2)6CH2-OH d)

e) CH3CH2OH f) g) cyclohexanol 81

h) benzylalcohol

349. Hydroquinone belongs to: a) aromatic alcohols b) phenols c) benzoquinones d) aliphatic alcohols e) dihydroxybenzenes f) naphthols g) cresols h) ketones

350. Which of the following compounds can be the product of methanol oxidation: a) acetaldehyde b) ethanoic acid c) acetic acid d) formic acid e) methanal f) formaldehyde g) methanoic acid h) acetone

351. According to the Brönsted theory, alcohols are: a) ampholytes b) hydroxides c) compounds with amphoteric properties d) strong acids e) acceptors of electrons f) donors of electrons g) compounds with the -OH group in the molecule h) either bases or acids depending on the environment

352. Which of the following compounds can be the oxidation product of primary alcohol: a) ether b) ketone c) carboxylic acid d) secondary alcohol e) aldehyde f) alcoholate g) acetone h) dibasic (dihydric) alcohol

353. Which of the following compounds is more acidic than ethanol: a) 1,3-dihydroxybenzene b) hydroquinone c) phenol d) lactic acid e) aniline f) salicylic acid g) monochloroacetic acid h) trichloroacetic acid

354. Alcohols: a) form esters with phosphoric acid b) form esters with organic acids c) form esters with inorganic acids containing the atom of oxygen in their molecule d) provide alkenes by dehydration e) form esters with aldehydes f) contain the -OH group in the molecule and therefore are strong bases g) their molecules are connected by hydrogen bonds h) have higher boiling points than hydrocarbons with the same number of carbon atoms

355. Product of dehydrogenation of secondary alcohol is: a) aldehyde b) ketone c) carboxylic acid d) quinone e) a compound of the R-CO-R type f) a compound of the R-CHO type g) oxo compound h) alcoholate

356. The compound is alcohol: a) primary b) secondary c) monohydric d) tertiary e) 2-propanol (propane-2-ol) f) 1-propanol (propane-1-ol) g) dihydric h) trihydric

357. Vinyl alcohol is: a) a monobasic (monohydric) alcohol b) a dibasic (dihydric) alcohol c) an unsaturated alcohol d) a secondary alcohol e) a tautomer of acetaldehyde f) unstable, it is quickly rearranged to acetaldehyde g) a tautomer of ethanal h) a compound of the formula CH2=CH-OH

358. The compound of the formula: a) is formed by the hydrolysis of fats b) belongs to alcohols c) is bound in fats d) contains an asymmetric carbon in the molecule e) is glycerol f) is 1,2,3-propanetriol (propane-1,2,3-triol) g) is optically active h) is a trihydric alcohol

359. Ethylene glycol: a) is a component of antifreeze coolant mixtures b) is a dibasic alcohol c) is a material for the production of plastics d) is an oily liquid e) has a sweet taste f) is very toxic g) is used in the food industry h) is formed by the acidic or alkaline hydrolysis of ethylene oxide

360. Picric acid is: a) an explosive b) a compound of an acidic nature c) a basis of the explosive dynamite d) a basis of the explosive ecrasite e) monovalent phenol f) a toxic compound g) 2,4,6-trinitrophenol h) a yellow crystalline substance

361. Indicate the general formula of an aldehyde: a)

b) c) d) e) R-O-R f) R-OH g) R-CHO h) R-CO-O-R

362. Choose the formula of p-cresol from the following compounds: a) b) c) d)

g) h)

363. Which of the following compounds contain a hydroxy group directly bound to the aromatic ring: a) salicylic acid b) acetyl salicylic acid c) aspirin d) 1-naphthol (naphthalene-1-ol) e) hydroquinone f) tyrosine g) cyclohexanol h) o-cresol

364. Determination of an aldehyde by the Fehling's reagent is based on: a) the oxidation of an aldehyde b) the reduction of an aldehyde c) the hydrogenation of an aldehyde d) the reduction of Cu2+ e) the formation of Cu2O precipitate f) the formation of the red precipitate of copper oxide g) the formation of cupric oxide h) the oxidation of Cu2+

365. The compound with the formula can be formed by: a) the hydrogenation of hydroquinone b) the reduction of hydroquinone c) the oxidation of benzaldehyde d) the oxidation of hydroquinone e) the reduction of terephthalic acid f) the dehydrogenation of hydroquinone g) the dehydrogenation of 1,4-dihydroxybenzene h) the hydrogenation of 1,4-dihydrobenzene

366. Which of the following compounds is an ether: a) b) c)

d) (CH3)3CO-CH3 e) CH3-CH2-CO-O-CH3 f) CH3-O-CH3 g) CH3-CO-O-CO-CH3 h) C6H5-CH2-O-CH3

367. During the detection of aldehydes with the Schiff reagent: a) Cu2+ is precipitated b) a fuchsine dye is formed c) a red-violet coloration occurs d) the oxidation of the aldehyde occurs e) copper oxide is precipitated f) a green product is formed g) sulfur dioxide binds to the aldehyde h) a red precipitate is formed

368. Oxidation of hydroquinone results in the formation of: a) o-benzoquinone b) p-benzoquinone c) quinoline d) benzoic acid e) m-benzoquinone f) an unsaturated cyclic diketone g) an aromatic compound h) a substitution derivative of benzene

369. Formaldehyde: a) has reducing properties b) is oxidized to methanoic acid c) is oxidized to formic acid d) is formed by the oxidation of ethanol e) is formed by the oxidation of methanol f) is a material for production of plastics g) is a gas well-soluble in water h) is methanal

370. Compound of the formula is called: a) phenyl ketone b) acetylbenzene c) acetophenone d) benzoketone e) phenyl methyl ketone f) aspirin g) anisol h) phenyl methyl ether

371. For the group the following statement is true: a) oxygen has a partial positive charge b) oxygen has a partial negative charge c) a nucleophilic reagent may bind to the carbon atom 86

d) it is a polar group e) it is also called a carbonyl group f) it is also called a carboxyl group g) it is a characteristic group of aldehydes and ketones h) it is a characteristic group of carbonyl compounds

372. Chloroform is a trivial name for: a) monochloromethane b) dichloromethane c) trichloromethane d) tetrachloromethane e) a compound of the CHCl3 formula f) a compound of the CH3Cl formula g) a compound of the CH2Cl2 formula h) a compound of the CCl4 formula

373. By the dehydration of 1-butanol the following compound is formed: a) an unsaturated hydrocarbon b) a saturated hydrocarbon c) alkene d) 1-butene (but-1-ene) e) butyne f) butadiene g) 2-butene (but-2-ene) h) butane

374. By the oxidation of ethylene glycol the following compound can be formed: a) glyoxal b) glycolic acid c) glyoxalic acid d) oxalic acid e) glycolaldehyde f) ethanedioic acid (oxalic acid) g) acetic acid h) acetone

375. The compound with the formula is: a) pyrocatechol b) p-benzoquinone c) dihydric phenol d) dihydric alcohol e) 1,4-dihydroxybenzene f) pyrogallol g) resorcinol h) hydroquinone

376. Select the reactions or reaction schemes that are correct and their product is yellow-colored iodoform: a) CH3-CHO + 3 I2 + 4 KOH CHI3 + HCOOK +3 KI + 3H2O b) CH3OH + 2 I2 + 3 KOH CH3I + 3KI + 2 H2O

c) CH3CH2OH + 4 I2 + 6 NaOH CHI3 + HCOONa + 5NaI + 5H2O d) CH3 - CO - CH3 + 3 I2 + 4KOH CHI3 + CH3COOK + 3KI + 3H2O e)

f) CH4 + I2 CH3I + HI g) h) CH3I + I2 CH2I2 + HI

377. By the oxidation of the hydroxyl group of glycerol on the secondary carbon atom the following compound is formed: a) glyceraldehyde b) dihydroxyacetone c) lactic acid d) malonic acid e) 1,3-dihydroxy-2-propanone (1,3-dihydroxypropan-2-one) f) glyoxalic acid g) glyoxal h) glycolic acid

378. Which of the following statements about CH3-CH2-SH is true: a) its name is dimethyl sulfide b) it is a sulfur analogue of ethanol c) diethyl disulfide is formed by its oxidation d) it belongs to thioalcohols e) it has narcotic effects f) it is ethanethiol g) it is a liquid of pleasant smell h) it is used to odorize natural gas

379. The reduction of disulfides results in the formation of: a) thioethers b) thiols c) sulfonic acids d) substances with the group -S-S- e) thioesters f) thioalcohols g) compounds with the group -SH h) sulfur analogues of alcohols

380. Which of the following compounds belong to amines: a) b)

c) CH3-CO-NH2 d)

e) CH3-CH2-NH-CH3 f) g) h) H2N-CO-NH2

381. By oxidation of ethanethiol the following compound is formed: a) CH3-CH2-S-S-CH2-CH3 b) CH3-CH2-S-CH2-CH3 c) CH3-CH2-SH d) CH3-S-S-CH3 e) CH3-CH2-S-O-S-CH2-CH3 f) CH3-CH2-O-O-CH2-CH3 g) diethyl disulfide h) dimethyl disulfide

382. By the oxidation of CH3-CH2-CH2-CH2-OH to the second step, the following compound is formed: a) butanol b) butanal c) butanoic acid d) methyl ethyl ether e) succinic acid f) butyric acid g) maleic acid h) fumaric acid

383. The oxidation of the gives rise to: a) ethenoic acid b) acetic acid c) ethanol d) dimethyl ketone e) ethanoic acid f) glycolic acid g) HOOC-COOH h) CH3-COOH

384. The reduction of propanal results in: a)

b) CH3-CH2-CH2-OH c)

d) CH3-CH3 e) a primary alcohol f) 2-propanol (propan-2-ol) g) 1-propanol (propan-1-ol) 89

h) vinyl alcohol

385. The hydrogenation of acetone can form: a) a primary alcohol b) a secondary alcohol c) isopropyl alcohol d) a monohydric alcohol e) 1-propanol (propan-1-ol) f) propanone g) propanal h) 2-propanol (propan-2-ol)

386. The reaction between alcohol and acid is: a) e.g. the reaction which produces glycerol trinitrate b) e.g. the reaction generating ethyl acetate c) saponification d) hydrolysis e) esterification f) hydrogenation g) dehydrogenation h) oxidation

387. The primary alcohol is produced by the reduction of: a) glycerol b) benzaldehyde c) d) e) f) g) h) acetone

388. The oxidation of the glycerol hydroxyl group at the primary carbon atom gives rise to: a) dihydroxyacetone b) glyceraldehyde c) 1,3-dihydroxy-2-oxopropane d) the simplest aldotriose e) the simplest ketotriose f) a compound with a chiral carbon atom in the molecule g) 1,2,3-propanetriol h) the aldehyde group

389. The dipropylether is a metamer of: a) methyl ethyl ether b) ethylbutyl ether c) methylpentyl ether 90

d) CH3-O-CH2-CH2-CH3 e) dioxane f) CH3-CH2-O-CH2-CH2-CH2-CH3 g) vinyl alcohol h) ethyl ester of ethanoic acid

390. By the oxidation of 2-butanol the following compound is formed: a) butanone b) butanal c) CH3-CO-CH2-CH3 d) CH3-CH2-CO-CH3 e) butanoic acid f) butyric acid g) CH3-CH2-CH2-CHO h) CH3-CO-O-CO-CH3

391. Which of the following compounds are phenols: a) p-benzoquinone b) hydroquinone c) pyrocatechol d) resorcinol e) o-xylene f) alpha-naphthol g) o-cresol h) pyrogallol

392. Fehling's reagent is used to prove: a) aldehydes b) ketones c) glucose reduction properties d) alcohols e) phenols f) reducing carbohydrates g) peptides h) starch

393. Ethers have the general formula: a) R-O-CO-R b) R-O-R c) R-O-O-R d) R-O-H e) R-O-NO2 f) R-CO-O-CO-R g) R-CH(OH)-CO-R h) R-O-O-H

394. Ethers: a) are excellent lipid solvents b) form epimers c) have lower boiling temperatures than their isomeric alcohols d) form with air oxygen explosive peroxides e) form hydrogen bonds between the molecules 91

f) we recognize simple and mixed ethers g) form metamers h) form anomers

395. The compound is: a) cyclohexanone b) phenylmethyl ketone c) acetylbenzene d) methoxybenzene e) phenylmethyl quinone f) acetophenone g) methyl benzoate h) benzoic acid methyl ester

396. The compound is: a) sulfosalicylic acid b) p-aminobenzoic acid c) sulfanilic acid d) salicylic acid e) benzenesulfonamide f) p-aminobenzenesulfonic acid g) aspirin h) 4-aminobenzenesulfonic acid

397. The compound is: a) benzoic acid b) p-aminobenzoic acid c) p-aminosalicylic acid d) phenylamine e) a bacterial growth factor f) a typical antituberculotic compound g) anthranilic acid h) a part of the folic acid molecule

398. Which of the following pairs of compounds can enter esterification: a) an alcohol and organic acid chloride b) an organic carboxylic acid and an alcohol c) an organic carboxylic acid and a strong base d) an alcohol and water e) an inorganic oxoacid and a strong base f) an inorganic oxoacid and an alcohol g) an aldehyde and an alcohol h) an organic carboxylic acid anhydride and an alcohol

399. Iodoform reaction: a) is carried out in an alkaline medium b) is the reaction of I2 with ethanol in an alkaline medium c) is the reaction of I2 with methanol in an alkaline medium d) can also be used to prove acetaldehyde

e) is used to distinguish ethanol from methanol f) is used to distinguish the aldehyde from the ketone g) is the reaction which also produces CHI3 h) is the reaction which also produces CH3I

400. The nitro compounds have the following characteristic group: a) -NO2 b) -NH2 c) =NH d) e) ≡N f) -N=N- g) -N+≡N h) -N=O

401. The reduction of nitrobenzene results in: a) 2,4,6-trinitrotoluene b) aminobenzene c) nitroethane d) aniline e) 2-nitropropane f) aromatic amine g) a primary amine h) pyridine

402. Pyrrole belongs to: a) heterocyclic compounds b) cyclic hydrocarbons c) primary amines d) secondary amines e) tertiary amines f) heterocyclic compounds with one nitrogen heteroatom g) heterocyclic compounds of aromatic character h) five-membered heterocyclic compounds with two nitrogen heteroatoms

403. Amines: a) are functional derivatives of carboxylic acids b) if they are primary, they can form ammonium salts with acids c) form hydrogen bonds with water molecules d) have nucleophilic properties e) have an acidic character f) have a basic character g) are divided into mono-, di-, triamines, etc., according to the number of amino groups in the molecule h) are classified to primary, secondary and tertiary

404. The primary amines include: a) aniline b) CH3NH2 c) (CH3)2NH d) (CH3)3N 93

e) H2N-(CH2)6-NH2 f) C6H5-NH2 g) h) cadaverine

405. The compound H2N-CH2-CH2-CH2-CH2-CH2-NH2 is: a) a primary amine b) diamine c) cadaverine d) putrescine e) physiologically present in meat f) a substance produced during the rotting of proteins g) tetramethylenediamine h) 1,5-diaminopentane

406. Nitrogen occurs in the molecule of the following compounds: a) amines b) acylglycerols c) nucleic acids d) proteins e) glucose and fructose f) peptides g) alkaloids h) enzymes

407. Primary amines: a) have the characteristic group -NH- b) have the characteristic -NH2 group c) have the characteristic -NH3 group d) have the characteristic -NH4 group e) can have a characteristic group attached to the primary carbon atom f) aliphatic amines produce with nitrous acid alcohols and nitrogen through several intermediates g) give nitrosamines with nitrous acid h) may have the -NH2 group attached to the secondary carbon atom

408. The compound CH3NH2 is: a) the primary amine b) the secondary amine c) soluble in water d) a gas e) methylamine f) a substance with acidic properties g) a substance used for the preparation of diazonium salts h) a substance used for the preparation of nitrosamines

409. The compound belongs to: a) amines

b) cyclic hydrocarbons c) substances of aromatic character d) tertiary amines e) secondary amines f) primary amines g) the nitro compound h) compounds that are part of the molecules of biologically important pigments

410. Pyrrole is: a) a benzene derivative b) a part of the hemoglobin molecule c) a part of the chlorophyll molecule d) an azo dye e) a part of bile acids f) a part of bile pigments g) a part of the purine molecule h) a porphyrin component

411. The compound is: a) p-phenylenediamine b) p-aminophenol c) 1,4-benzenediamine (benzene-1,4-diamine) d) dimethylamine e) a primary amine f) a secondary amine g) a tertiary amine h) a component of photographic developers

412. Primary amines: a) are compounds of an alkaline nature b) are compounds of an acidic nature c) with acids give ammonium salts d) with bases produce ammonium salts e) are derived from ammonia by replacing the hydrogen atom with the monovalent group –R f) are formed by the hydrogenation of the nitro compounds g) are strong oxidants h) are formed by the dehydrogenation of the nitro compounds

413. Methyl orange is: a) colorless at pH = 2 b) a diazonium salt c) yellow in the basic environment d) an acid-base indicator e) an aromatic azo compound f) a redox indicator g) the substance present in oranges h) an azo dye

414. Amines: a) have electrophilic properties b) have nucleophilic properties c) have an alkaline character 95

d) can form ammonium salts e) have a free electron pair on the nitrogen atom f) we know only primary amines g) occurring in nature are only primary h) are Brönsted bases

415. The compound: a) is found in the urine of mammals b) is guanidine c) is used to prepare barbituric acid d) is carbonic diamide e) is urea f) is uric acid g) is the end product of protein metabolism in humans h) is a derivative of H2CO3

416. The simplest dicarboxylic acid is: a) acrylic acid b) adipic acid c) oxalic acid d) succinic acid e) ethanedioic acid f) acetic acid g) malonic acid h) fumaric acid

417. The compound HOOC-CH2-COOH is: a) propanedioic acid b) propenoic acid c) aspartic acid d) glutamic acid e) propanoic acid f) maleic acid g) butyric acid h) malonic acid

418. C6H5-COOH is the: a) saturated acid b) aromatic acid c) aliphatic acid d) acyclic acid e) monocarboxylic acid f) phenolic acid g) benzoic acid h) benzylcarboxylic acid

419. Citric acid: a) is a hydroxy acid b) is a tricarboxylic acid c) can cause blood coagulation d) is found in citrus fruits 96

e) is optically active f) is 2-hydroxy-1,2,3-butanetrioic acid (2-hydroxybutane-1,2,3-tricarboxylic acid) g) can be produced by vinegar fermentation h) binds Ca2+ ions and thus prevents blood clotting

420. HOOC-CH2-COOH is: a) an acid which can be decarboxylated to CH3COOH b) ketoacid c) monocarboxylic acid d) malonic acid e) methanedioic acid f) a part of the tricarboxylic acid cycle g) propanedioic acid h) the simplest dicarboxylic acid

421. Methanoic acid is: a) a compound with reducing properties b) a compound with an aldehyde group in the molecule c) HCOOH d) HO-COOH e) f) g) a substance with bactericidal properties h) formic acid

422. The formula C17H33COOH may be ascribed to: a) stearic acid b) oleic acid c) linoleic acid d) linolenic acid e) palmitic acid f) 9-octadecenoic acid g) octadecane acid h) 9,12,15-octatrienoic acid

423. Fumaric acid is the acid: a) which is a part of the Krebs cycle b) trans-butenedioic c) saturated, with three carbon atoms d) saturated, with four carbon atoms e) unsaturated, with four carbon atoms, the cis-isomer f) unsaturated, with four carbon atoms, the trans-isomer g) monocarboxylic acid h) dicarboxylic acid

424. The carboxylic acid is: a) the stronger, the greater its ionization degree is b) the stronger, the greater its Ka is c) the stronger, the greater its pKa is 97

d) the stronger, the lower its Ka e) the stronger, the lower its pKa is f) the stronger, the more concentrated it is g) stronger with the longer hydrocarbon chain h) stronger with the higher ionization constant

425. Esterification: a) is the reaction of an alcohol with an aldehyde to form the inner ester b) is a nucleophilic substitution with an addition-elimination mechanism c) is an electrophilic addition d) is the reaction in which an ester is formed, and water is released e) is shifted in the direction of reactant formation if we remove the formed water f) is shifted in the direction of product formation if we remove the formed water g) is the reaction of hydroxides with acids h) is the reaction of alcohols with inorganic oxoacids or organic carboxylic acids

426. The saponification of a long-chain carboxylic acid ester results in the formation of: a) a free acid b) an alcohol c) a long-chain carboxylic acid salt d) an aldehyde e) a soap f) an alkyloxonium salt g) a compound of the type R-COO-X+ (where X is, e.g. K or Na) h) a compound of the type R-CO-X+ (where X is, e.g. K or Na)

427. Ethanoic acid may be formed: a) by the ethanol fermentation pathway b) by the oxidation of acetone c) by the complete oxidation of ethyl alcohol d) the decarboxylation of malonic acid e) the oxidation of acetaldehyde f) the reduction of ethanol g) by the oxidation of methanol to the second stage h) by the reduction of ethanol

428. Which of the following statements about citric acid is true: a) it can be prepared from aspirin b) it forms the cis-trans isomer c) it rotates the plane of polarized light d) it binds Ca2+ cations and thus prevents blood clotting e) it is not optically active f) it occurs in the L-configuration g) it occurs in the D-configuration h) it is a part of the Krebs cycle

429. Optically active acids include: a) 2-aminopropanoic acid b) adipic acid c) oxalic acid d) citric acid e) lactic acid

f) malic acid g) fumaric acid h) succinic acid

430. Lactic acid: a) is a substitution derivative of carboxylic acid b) has the formula CH3-CH(OH) –COOH c) occurs as D (-) in the muscles d) occurs as L (+) in the muscles e) is present in sauerkraut (sour cabbage) f) is optically active g) has no asymmetric carbon in the molecule h) is one of the functional derivatives of carboxylic acids

431. The addition of 2 molecules of hydrogen to linolenic acid results in the formation of: a) stearic acid b) linoleic acid c) oleic acid d) palmitic acid e) palmitoleic acid f) C17H33COOH g) C17H35COOH h) hexadecanoic acid

432. Which of the following statements about dicarboxylic acids is true: a) they are stronger than monocarboxylic acids with the same number of carbon atoms b) they are weaker than monocarboxylic acids with the same number of carbon atoms c) their acidity depends on the distance between carboxyl groups in the molecule d) the acidity of their -COOH groups is mutually canceled e) all are liquids f) they are crystalline substances g) they are, for example, adipic acid and glutaric acid h) they are, for example, salicylic acid and acetylsalicylic acid

433. One mole of malonic acid reacts with (without the rest): a) 2 mol CsOH b) 1 mol Ba(OH)2 c) 3 mol LiOH d) 2 mol Ca(OH)2 e) 1 mol Mg(OH)2 f) 2 mol KOH g) 3 mol NaOH h) 1 mol Fe(OH)3

434. The opposite of esterification is: a) hydrogenation b) hydration c) hydrolysis d) condensation e) dehydrogenation f) elimination g) oxidation 99

h) dehydration

435. Which of the following formulas of carboxylic acids are paired with correct name: a) HOOC-COOH oxalic acid b) HOOC-CH2-CH2-COOH succinic acid c) CH3-CH2-COOH acrylic acid d) HOOC-CH = CH-COOH butenedioic acid e) CH2 = CH-COOH adipic acid f) HOOC-(CH2)3-COOH glutaric acid g) CH3-CH2-CH2-COOH butyric acid h) HOOC-CH2-CH(OH)-COOH tartaric acid

436. The correct formula for glutaric acid is: a) HOOC-CH(NH2)-(CH)2-COOH b) HOOC-(CH2)2-COOH c) HOOC-(CH2)3-COOH d) HOOC-(CH2)4-COOH e) HOOC-(CH2)5-COOH f) HOOC-(CH2)6-COOH g) CH3-(CH2)4-COOH h) CH3-(CH2)6-COOH

437. The compound with the formula is: a) aldol b) ketone c) hydroxyketone d) ethanoic acid e) formic acid f) carbonic acid g) formic acid aldehyde h) methanoic acid

438. Salicylic acid has the following structure: a) b) c) C6H5-SO3H d) HOOC-C6H4-O-CO-CH3 e)

100

g) h)

439. The compound is an acid which: a) is found in citrus fruits b) prevents blood clotting c) is an intermediate in carbohydrate metabolism (in mammals) d) is tricarboxylic acid e) precipitates proteins f) is a functional derivative of a carboxylic acid g) is a substitution derivative of carboxylic acid h) is called citric acid

440. The acyclic carboxylic acids with a small number of carbon atoms (C1-C4) are, under standard conditions: a) in the solid state b) in the liquid state c) in the gaseous state d) in all known states e) insoluble in water f) soluble in water g) colored compounds h) substances with a pleasant smell and are therefore used for the preparation of perfumes

441. Carboxylic acids: a) are mostly weak acids b) are mostly strong acids c) are ampholytes d) have two equivalent oxygen atoms in the ionized carboxyl group e) all belong to nonpolar compounds f) are substances whose water solubility is dependent on the length of the hydrocarbon chain g) aspartic and glutamic acids belong to hydroxy acids h) in the anion -COO- have the same distance and character of the bond between two oxygen atoms and the carbon atom

442. Carboxylic acids can be prepared: a) by the oxidation of aldehydes b) by the complete oxidation of primary alcohols c) by the complete oxidation of secondary alcohols d) by the fermentation of saccharides e) e.g. by the reduction of benzenesulfonic acid f) by the reduction of aldehydes g) by the acid hydrolysis of esters h) by the hydrolysis of carboxylic acid anhydrides

101

443. The reaction of the neutralization of propionic acid with sodium hydroxide is expressed by the equation: a) CH3-CH2-COOH + NaOH NaOOC-CH2-CH3 + H2O b) CH3-CH2-COOH + 2 NaOH CH3-CH2-CONa2 + H2O c) HOOC-CH2-COOH + 2 NaOH NaOOC-CH2-COONa + 2H2O d) CH3-COOH + NaOH CH3COONa + H2O e) C2H5-COOH + NaOH C2H5-COONa + H2O f) CH3-CH2-COOH + NaOH CH3-CH2-CONa + H2O g) CH3-CH2-COH + NaOH CH3-CH2-COONa + H2 h) esterification

444. Saponification is: a) an enzyme reaction b) the soap neutralization c) the soap hydrolysis in alkaline medium d) formally the opposite of the reaction generating triacylglycerols, while the saponification is carried out in the presence of KOH or NaOH e) the hydrolysis of simple fats in the presence of NaOH or KOH f) the reaction used for the soap production g) a reaction in which an ester forms a salt of a long-chain carboxylic acid h) a reaction of an ester and water formation

445. 1 mol of Ba(OH)2 can be neutralized completely and without residue by: a) 1 mol of suberic acid b) 3 mol of benzoic acid c) 1 mol of phthalic acid d) 1 mol of citric acid e) 2 mol of acetic acid f) 2 mol of succinic acid g) 1 mol of oxalic acid h) 0.5 mol of oxalic acid

446. Butyric acid has the formula: a) HOOC-CH2-COOH b) CH3-CH2-CH2-COOH c) CH3-CH2-CH2-CH2-CH2-COOH d) HOOC-(CH2)4-COOH e) HOOC-(CH2)5-COOH f) CH3-(CH2)5-COOH g) HOOC-(CH2)2-CH3 h) HOOC-(CH2)6-COOH

447. The simplest unsaturated dicarboxylic acid is: a) malonic acid b) fumaric acid c) maleic acid d) butenedioic acid e) succinic acid f) oleic acid g) oxalic acid 102

h) acrylic acid

448. By the complete hydrogenation of linolenic acid, we can obtain the acid with the rational formula: a) C15H29COOH b) C15H31COOH c) C17H29COOH d) C17H31COOH e) C17H33COOH f) C17H35COOH g) C15H33COOH h) C19H39COOH

449. Elimination of 2 molecules of hydrogen from C17H33COOH yields: a) an acid with three double bonds b) oleic acid c) linolenic acid d) linoleic acid e) an acid with two double bonds f) palmitoleic acid g) octadecenoic acid h) C17H29COOH

450. Carboxylic acid substitution derivatives include: a) ethers b) acid anhydrides c) amino acids d) halo acids e) amides f) esters g) hydroxy acids h) acid halides

451. Tartaric acid: a) has one chiral carbon atom b) has two chiral carbon atoms c) is a functional carboxylic acid derivative d) is a substitution derivative of carboxylic acid e) is optically active f) forms epimers g) is the substance from which the Seignett salt is derived h) is monohydroxy succinic acid

452. Acetylsalicylic acid is: a) salicylic acid ester with acetic acid b) salicylic acid ester with ethyl alcohol c) amino acid d) a functional derivative of acetic acid e) acetic acid ester f) aspirin g) a substance of a basic nature 103

h) the structural part of barbituric acid

453. The compound CH3-CO-CH2-COOH is: a) pyruvic acid b) the acid, which may be decarboxylated to acetone c) oxaloacetic acid d) acetoacetic acid e) 3-ketopropanoic acid f) oxoethane g) 3-oxobutanoic acid h) oxosuccinic acid

454. The compound may be formed: a) by the oxidation of pyruvic acid b) by the reduction of pyruvic acid c) in glycolysis (under anaerobic conditions) in the organism d) by the addition of water to succinic acid and subsequent decarboxylation e) during milk fermentation from carbohydrates f) under physiological conditions in the gastric juice g) by the hydrogenation of 2-oxopropanoic acid h) by the decarboxylation of tartaric acid

455. 2-hydroxypropanoic acid: a) is formed by the oxidation of acetic acid b) is found in sauerkraut (sour cabbage) c) is found in sour milk d) is formed by the oxidation of pyruvic acid e) is formed by the reduction of 2-oxopropanoic acid f) is the main product of aerobic carbohydrate degradation g) is formed during muscle work as a metabolite of saccharides h) is lactic acid

456. Substitution derivatives of carboxylic acids include: a) hydroxy acids b) salts of acids c) amides of acids d) anhydrides of acids e) oxoacids f) halo acids g) halides of acids h) esters of acids

457. Neutral amino acids: a) have always -OH group in the hydrocarbon chain b) have one carboxyl group and one -NH2 group c) have the group =N- instead of -NH2 d) have the -CHO group instead of the -COOH group e) are, e.g. serine, arginine, lysine f) are, e.g. glutamic acid, cysteine, histidine g) are, e.g. glycine, alanine, leucine h) are, e.g. proline, tyrosine, aspartic acid

104

458. At the isoelectric point neutral amino acids: a) have only the -COOH group ionized b) have only -NH2 group ionized - + c) have an ionized carboxyl group and an amino group to the ions: -COO and -NH3 d) have no ionized characteristic groups and therefore are electroneutral e) move only to the cathode f) move only to the anode g) do not move in a one-way electric field h) have the structure:

459. At the isoelectric point, glycine is in the following structural form: a) H2N-CH2-COOH + - b) H3N -CH2-COO c) HN=CH-COOH - d) H2N-CH2-COO + e) H3N -CH2-COOH + f) H3C-CH(NH3 )-COOH + - g) H3N -CH -COOH - + h) OOC-CH2-NH3

460. Glycine at pH = 9 is predominantly in the following structural form: - a) H2N-CH2-COO b) H2N-CH2-COOH + c) H3N -CH2-COOH + - d) H3N -CH2-COO e)

- f) HO-CH2-CH2-O g) h)

461. Compound has the name: a) alanine b) serine c) threonine d) cysteine e) asparagine f) α-amino-β-hydroxypropionic acid g) 2-amino-3-hydroxypropanoic acid h) valine

105

462. The compound is: a) tyrosine b) threonine c) phenylalanine d) tryptophan e) histidine f) 4-hydroxyphenylalanine g) proline h) tryptamine

463. Glutamic acid: a) by decarboxylation gives glutamine b) is 2-aminopentanedioic acid c) is monoamino monocarboxylic acid d) is diaminomonocarboxylic acid e) is monoaminodicarboxylic acid f) has the formula HOOC-CH2-CH2-CH2-COOH g) has the formula HOOC-CH2-CH2-CH(NH2)-COOH h) is an acidic amino acid

464. Compound HOOC-CO-CH2-CH2-COOH: a) is formed in the citrate cycle b) is called α-oxoglutamic acid c) is alpha-ketoglutaric acid d) is glutamic acid e) is glutaric acid f) is 2-oxoglutaric acid g) is 2-oxopentanedioic acid h) is an intermediate in the Krebs cycle

465. Trichloroacetic acid: a) is used to precipitate proteins in the biological material b) is used as a blood-clotting agent c) denatures proteins d) is the weakest halo carboxylic acid e) has the formula (CH3COO)3Cl f) is a strong acid g) has the formula Cl3C-COOH h) is a stronger acid than monochloroacetic acid

466. Select optically active compounds: a)

106

d) e) f) g) cysteine h) glucose

467. Lactic acid may be formed: a) by adding two hydrogen atoms to pyruvic acid b) by the hydration of pyruvic acid c) by the hydrogenation of 2-oxopropanoic acid d) by the reduction of pyruvic acid e) by the oxidation of pyruvic acid f) in the gastric juice under physiological conditions g) in the gastric juice under pathological conditions h) in the process of anaerobic glycolysis

468. Acetone from acetoacetic acid may be formed: a) by oxidation b) by reduction c) by decarboxylation d) by dehydrogenation e) by CO2 elimination f) by elimination of H2O g) by hydrogenation h) by hydration

469. The acidic character has the amino acid: a) 2-aminoglutaric acid b) 3-hydroxy-2-aminopropanoic acid c) aspartic acid d) glutamic acid e) valine f) arginine g) lysine h) leucine

470. Which of the following acids are well soluble in water: a) formic acid b) stearic acid c) linoleic acid d) acetic acid e) propionic acid f) palmitic acid g) ethanoic acid h) trichloroacetic acid

471. The group is: a) responsible for its oxidation properties in the formic acid molecule 107

b) formaldehyde c) formyl d) a characteristic group of ketones e) a characteristic group of aldehydes f) a characteristic group of carboxylic acids g) acetyl h) a group which gives the molecule reducing properties

472. Acetyl is: a) a synonym for acetate b) the acetic acid residue after removal of the -OH group from the carboxyl group c) CH3-CO- d) the acetic acid residue after removal of the hydrogen atom from the carboxylic group e) acetic anhydride f) the name for acyl derived from ethanoic acid g) the name for the acetic acid salt h) acetate

473. Aluminium acetate has the formula: a) CH3-COAl3 b) (CH3-COO)Al c) (CH3-COO)2Al3 d) (CH3-COO)3Al e) (CH3-CO)3Al f) CH3-COOAl3 g) CH3-COAl h) (CH3-CO)2Al

474. The basic component of kidney stones is: a) calcium oxaloacetate b) sodium acetate c) (COO)2Ca d) calcium citrate e) sodium citrate f) calcium oxalate g) sodium oxalate h) calcium salt of oxalic acid

475. The soap may be: a) potassium acetate b) sodium phenolate c) sodium arachidate d) potassium palmitate e) potassium stearate f) sodium myristate g) CH3-(CH2)14-COOK h) CH3-(CH2)16-CONa

476. Carboxylic acid salts may be formed by: a) the reaction of carboxylic acids with hydroxides b) replacing the -OH group in the carboxyl group with a metal 108

+ c) replacing the hydrogen cation in the carboxyl group with a metal cation or a NH4 d) carboxylic acids neutralization e) the acid hydrolysis of esters f) esterification g) the reduction of carboxylic acids h) salting out the carboxylic acids

477. The compound containing the following functional group is: a) ester b) anhydride c) hemiacetal d) acetal e) ketone f) hemiketal g) peroxide h) a functional derivative of carboxylic acids

478. The anhydride can be formed by the release of the water molecule: a) from one molecule of non- oxoacid and one molecule of oxoacid b) from two molecules of hemiacetals c) from one dicarboxylic acid molecule d) from one monocarboxylic acid molecule e) from two monocarboxylic acid molecules f) from two molecules of aldehydes g) from an inorganic oxoacid h) from one molecule of amino acid valine

479. The acid amide has the general formula: a)

b) R-COO-NH2 c) R-CO-NH2 d) R-NH-R e) R-CO-NH-CO-R f) R-CO-NO2 g) h) R-COONH

480. Aspirin is formed by: a) the neutralization of salicylic acid b) the reduction of the carboxyl group of salicylic acid c) the esterification of the carboxyl group of acetic acid with salicylic acid d) the reaction of acetic acid and pyridine e) the reaction of salicylic acid with acetyl chloride f) the esterification of salicylic acid with ethanol g) the esterification of the -COOH group in salicylic acid h) the esterification of phenolic hydroxyl in salicylic acid with acetic acid

109

481. The compound is: a) aspirin b) benzoylacetate c) acetylsalicylic acid d) benzoylacetyl ether e) salicylic acid f) 2-hydroxybenzoic acid ester with ethanol g) the o-hydroxybenzoic acid ester with acetic acid chloride h) the drug against fever, pain and cold

482. Reaction of ethanoic acid with methanol gives: a) CH3-CO-O-CH2-CH3 b) CH3-CO-O-CH3 c) CH3-O-CO-CH2-CH3 d) CH3-O-CO-CH3 e) ethyl ester of formic acid f) methyl ester of ethanoic acid g) methyl ester of acetic acid h) methyl acetate

483. The formation of the compound CH3-O-CO-CH2-CH3 involves: a) methanol and ethanoic acid b) C2H5OH and CH3COOH c) methanol and propanoic acid d) propanol and acetic acid e) ethanol and ethanoic acid f) ethanol and propionic acid g) propionic acid and methanol h) CH3-CH2-COCl and CH3OH

484. The internal anhydride is formed from the following acid: a) propanoic acid b) butyric acid c) succinic acid d) phthalic acid e) adipic acid f) stearic acid g) salicylic acid h) benzoic acid

485. The compound is: a) ethyl phosphine b) ethyl phosphate c) glycerophosphate d) ethyl phosphoether e) generally alkyl phosphate f) propyl phosphate 110

g) methyl phosphate h) ester of H3PO4 with ethanol

486. Urea is: a) uric acid diamide b) carbonic acid diamide c) uric acid salt d) a compound of formula CO(NH2)2 e) a compound of formula HCOONH2 f) a substance which is used to manufacture certain drugs g) a compound from which we can derive iminourea h) the major end product of protein metabolism in humans

487. Carbonic acid: a) is formed as an intermediate in the oxidation of formic acid b) decomposes to CO2 and H2 c) is a monohydric acid d) is a strong inorganic acid e) is a strong organic acid f) forms derivatives that can be included to organic compounds g) is a compound from which phosgene can be derived h) is a substance from which urea can be derived

- 488. The structure -OOC-CH(OH) -CH2-COO belongs to: a) malonate b) maleinate c) malate d) butyrate e) malonyl f) glutaryl g) succinyl h) oxalyl

489. Which of the following compounds can be included to the functional derivatives of carboxylic acids: a) acetic anhydride b) alanine c) calcium acetate d) benzoyl chloride e) ethyl acetate f) acetyl chloride g) pyruvic acid h) acetamide

490. Acetyl is: a) b) c)

111

d) CH3-COOH e) a group formed from acetic acid after the -OH group is removed f) a group formed after the hydrogen atom is cleaved from the carboxyl group of ethanoic acid g) the synonym for acyl h) an acetic acid abbreviation

491. Calcium oxalate has the formula: a) CaOOC-CH2-COOCa b) (OOC-CH2-COO)Ca c) (COO)2Ca d) CaOOC-COOCa e) HOOC-COOCa f) (CO)2Ca2 g) Ca-OC-CO-Ca h) Ca-OC-COOH

492. Ferric acetate has the formula: a) (CH3COO)2Fe3 b) (CH3COO)3Fe2 c) (CH3CO)3Fe d) (CH3COO)3Fe e) CH3COOFe f) CH3COOFe3 g) CH3COFe3 h) (CH3COO)2Fe

493. Soap can be: a) potassium valerate b) sodium palmitate c) potassium stearate d) calcium phthalate e) potassium salt of a long-chain carboxylic acid f) C17H35COONa g) C15H31COOK h) potassium benzoate

494. The carboxylic acid anhydride can be formed by cleaving the water molecule from: a) 2 molecules of ethanol b) 1 adipic acid molecule c) 1 molecule of acetic acid d) 1 molecule of propionic acid and 1 molecule of acetic acid e) 2 molecules of acetaldehyde f) 1 glutaric acid molecule g) 1 lactic acid molecule h) 1 phthalic acid molecule

495. The compound a) acetic anhydride b) anhydride of acetic acid 112

c) hemiacetal d) ketal e) anhydride f) aldol g) ester h) oxoether

496. Acetic acid amide is: a)

b) CH3-CO-NH2 c) a functional derivative of ethanoic acid d) CH3-COO-NH2 e)

f) CH3-CO-NO2 g) glycine h) CH3-CH2-CO-NH2

497. Hydrolysis of the compound results in the formation of: a) ethanol b) acetic acid c) propanoic acid d) methanol e) ethanoic acid f) methanoic acid g) acetyl chloride h) propionic acid

498. For the formation of the compound CH3-O-CO-C6H5, the following compounds may be involved: a) methyl alcohol b) ethanol c) methanol d) hexanol e) benzoyl chloride f) methanoic acid g) benzoic acid h) benzene

499. The compound CH3-O-CO-CH3 is generated from: a) methane and acetic acid b) ethanol and ethanoic acid c) methanol and acetic acid d) acetic acid and ethyl alcohol e) ethanoic acid and methyl alcohol f) acetyl chloride and methanol g) acetic anhydride and methanol h) acetic anhydride and ethanol

113

500. Trihydrogen phosphoric acid ethyl ester has the formula: a)

b) CH3-CH2-O-PO3H c) CH3-CH2-O-PO3H2 d) CH3-CO-O-PO3H2 e) CH3-CH2-O-PO4H2 f) CH3-CO-O-PO4H2 g) CH3-O-PO3H2 h) CH3-CH2-PO3H2

501. Which of the following statements about simple lipids is true: a) they contain glucose bound by the ester bond b) they do not contain an ester bond c) they have hydrophobic properties d) they are esters of long-chain carboxylic acids and glycerol e) they can contain the rest of H3PO4 f) they are soluble in water g) they contain the bond -O-CO- h) they are received by food in a form of triacylglycerols

502. Palmitic acid: a) is a compound of formula CH3-(CH2)15-COOH b) is a compound of formula CH3-(CH2)14-COOH c) is a compound of formula CH3-(CH2)16-COOH d) is hexadecanoic acid e) is a saturated long-chain carboxylic acid f) as well as stearic acid, both have 16 carbons g) is an 18 carbon carboxylic acid h) is a part of triacylglycerols

503. Two or more double bonds are present in: a) propanedioic acid b) CH3-(CH2)16-COOH c) oleic acid d) palmitic acid e) hexadecanoic acid f) linoleic acid g) stearic acid h) arachidonic acid

504. Acylglycerols as an alcohol part can contain: a) ribitol b) different alcohols c) 1,2,3-propanetriol (propane-1,2,3-triol) d) palmitic acid e) long-chain monohydric alcohols f) trihydric alcohol g) ethanol

114

h) tertiary alcohol

505. Ester bond: a) does not undergo the hydrolysis by strong acids and bases b) is formed between amino acids in proteins c) occurs in cholesterol esters d) is formed by the reaction of an alcohol with a carboxylic acid e) occurs in starch f) occurs in cellulose g) occurs in acylglycerols h) of lipids can be cleaved in the gastrointestinal tract by lipase

506. Compound CH3-(CH2)16-COONa is: a) a compound which belongs to sodium soaps b) a product of alkaline hydrolysis of neutral fats c) stearic acid d) sodium palmitate e) sodium stearate f) sodium salt of stearyl alcohol g) one of the products which are formed by the reaction of NaOH with triacylglycerols h) a substance which is formed in the process of rancidification of fats

507. To saturated long-chain fatty acids belong: a) acids with a general formula CnH2n+2 b) stearic acid c) linoleic acid d) arachidic acid e) acids essential for human f) hexadecanoic acid g) dehydroascorbic acid h) linolenic acid

508. Acylglycerols in their molecule can contain components: a) bound by the phosphoester bond b) saturated fatty acids and glycerol c) unsaturated fatty acids and glycerol d) glucose e) 1,2,3-propanetriol (propane-1,2,3-triol) f) stearyl alcohol g) bound by the ester bond h) glycerol

509. Biological functions of lipids are: a) production of ATP after the oxidation of carboxylic acids released from triacylglycerols b) they are solvents for vitamins of B group c) they are important source of energy d) they are solvents for biologically important nonpolar compounds e) they are solvents for biologically important polar compounds f) they are a reserve of energy for the organism g) they are part of nucleic acids h) they are part of biological membranes

510. For the biological value of plant oils is responsible: a) the type of fatty acids 115

b) the content of glycerol c) the content of unsaturated fatty acids d) the content of essential amino acids e) the presence of triple bonds in carboxylic acids f) the presence of double bonds in carboxylic acids g) the alcohol component h) the presence of essential fatty acids

511. To complex lipids belong: a) phospholipids b) mixed triacylglycerols c) waxes d) those lipids which are the main part of adipose tissue e) lecithins f) choline g) those which contain e.g. also ethanolamine h) those which contain e.g. also serine

512. Triacylglycerols: a) can be simple and also mixed acylglycerols b) contain three long-chain carboxylic acids bound with a tertiary alcohol c) contain bound saturated and unsaturated long-chain carboxylic acids d) do not contain choline e) contain as an alcohol part a trihydric alcohol f) are complex lipids g) are hydrophilic h) do not contain phosphoric acid

513. Important nonpolar substances for human are: a) also components of biological membranes b) simple triacylglycerols c) vitamin E d) vitamin C e) vitamins of B group f) esters of cholesterol g) vitamin A h) choline

514. Which of the following compounds have hydrophobic properties: a) compounds not soluble in water but soluble in nonpolar solvents b) vitamins C and B1 c) e.g. fats which can be stored in the adipose tissue d) esters of cholesterol e) nonpolar compounds f) mixed triacylglycerols g) waxes h) from lipids only phospholipids

515. Essential long-chain carboxylic acids are: a) all fatty acids with the number of carbon atoms 18 b) unsaturated fatty acids with two or more unsaturated bonds c) palmitic and stearic acids d) glyceric acid

116

e) glutamic acid f) e.g. linolenic acid g) e.g. linoleic acid h) all acids with the number of carbon atoms higher than 16

516. Compound CH3-(CH2)16-COONa: a) has a polar and a nonpolar part of the molecule b) has no emulsifying properties c) is formed mainly by the cleavage of acylglycerols in the gastrointestinal tract d) is sodium stearate e) is a functional derivative of carboxylic acid f) is sodium alcoholate g) is a substitution derivative of carboxylic acid h) does not contain an ester bond

517. Important sources of energy for a man are: a) lipids b) steroid substances e.g. cholesterol c) nucleic acid d) hormones e) saccharides f) triacylglycerols g) polysaccharides h) nucleotides e.g. AMP

518. Complex lipids are compounds: a) with their components bound only by the carboxy ester bond b) which occur also in brain, spinal cord, myocardium c) which have a polar and a non polar part of the molecule d) which are important components of cell membranes e) including also phospholipids f) including also mixed triacylglycerols g) including also glycolipids h) which can contain the rest of HCl

519. In a polar part of complex lipids the following compound can be bound: a) phosphoric acid b) a carbon chain of a fatty acid c) choline d) ethanolamine e) serine f) compound HO-CH2-CH2-NH2 g) adenine + h) a compound of formula HO-CH2-CH2-N (CH3)3

520. In the nonpolar part of complex lipids the following compound is bound: a) HO-CH2-CH2-NH2 b) a hydrocarbon chain of a long-chain carboxylic acid c) e.g. a hydrocarbon chain of palmitic acid d) choline e) phosphate group f) ethanol

117

g) serine h) sodium stearate

521. In simple lipids there are not bound compounds: a) by a phosphoester bond b) phosphoric acid c) serine d) glycerol e) glucose f) choline g) saturated fatty acids h) unsaturated fatty acids

522. Select compounds which are not present in complex lipids: a) CH2(OH)-CH(NH2)-COOH b) phosphoric acid c) glycerol d) dicarboxylic acids e) choline f) a nitrogen base guanine g) saccharides h) lipase

523. Which of the following lipids belong to glycolipids: a) lecithins b) lipids containing galactose c) cerebrosides d) lipids containing glycogen e) all phospholipids f) all lipids containing glycerol g) waxes h) lipids containing glucose

524. Phospholipids: a) do not contain threonine in the molecule b) can contain glycerol in the molecule c) can contain three rests of H3PO4 (e.g. 3-phosphoglyceric acid) d) can contain serine in the molecule e) contain also the phosphoester bond f) have glucose bound by the phosphoester bond g) contain cholesterol h) unlike triacylglycerols they also have a polar part in the molecule

525. The essential carboxylic acids: a) occur in triacylglycerols b) are unsaturated fatty acids, e.g. with two triple bonds c) are a measure of biological value of plant oils d) can be synthesized by the organism e) are formed in the organism by transamination f) occur in phospholipids g) the organism can synthesize from non essential long-chain carboxylic acids by decarboxylation h) are e.g. linoleic and linolenic acids

118

526. Terpenes include: a) compounds that have isoprene units in their molecule b) natural caoutchouc c) intermediate of glycogen synthesis d) tryptophan e) carotenoids f) beta-carotene g) morphine h) nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide

527. The structure : a) is a unit from which by the addition of water steroids are formed b) is present in terpenes c) is derived from 2-chloro-1,3-butadiene (2-chlorobuta-1,3-diene) d) is 2-pentene (pent-2-ene) e) is an isoprene unit f) is part of the natural caoutchouc (rubber) g) is present in carotenoids h) is 2-methyl-1,3-butadiene (2-methylbuta-1,3-diene)

528. Provitamin A: a) belongs to terpenes b) is beta-carotene c) occurs e.g. in carrot d) contains isoprene units e) in the organism is changed to vitamin of a steroid nature f) occurs in the plant food g) is tocopherol h) is a compound from which retinol can be formed in the organism

529. Ergocalciferol: a) is produced by the irradiation of the substance of a steroid character b) is vitamin D2 c) affects the absorption of Ca2+ from the digestive tract into the blood d) is esterified cholesterol e) affects the metabolism of calcium f) is a main hormone of adrenal cortex g) belongs to hormones of adrenal medulla h) is produced by the irradiation of calcitonin

530. Which of the following substances belong to sterols: a) a compound which gives acylcholesterol by the esterification with a fatty acid b) retinol c) thiazole d) cholesterol e) hormone adrenaline f) a compound which gives vitamin D2 after the UV irradiation g) vitamin A h) ergosterol

531. Which of the functional groups in cholesterol might be esterified: a) the carboxyl group

119

b) the hydroxyl group c) the hydroxyl as well as carboxyl groups d) cholesterol has no suitable group for the esterification so it can occur only in a free form e) the oxo group f) a group in the cholesterol side chain g) the -OH group h) the -COOH group

532. Bile acids are required: a) during absorption of fats b) for the production of steroid hormones c) for the production of ergocalciferol d) for the synthesis of vitamin A e) during the emulsification and the subsequent digestion of triacylglycerols in the digestive tract f) during the hydrolytic digestion of starch g) during the hydrolytic digestion of proteins h) during the hydrolytic digestion of fats taken by food

533. Ergocalciferol: a) is esterified cholesterol b) is vitamin D2 c) belongs to bile acids d) is formed directly from cholesterol by the UV irradiation e) is required for the absorption of calcium f) is formed in pancreas g) is alfa-tocopherol h) is important for the metabolism of calcium

534. Steroid compounds include: a) bile acids b) hormones of adrenal cortex c) some essential amino acids d) substances derived from cyclopentanoperhydrophenanthrene e) corticoids f) sex hormones g) hormones of adrenal medulla h) hormones of pancreas

535. Steroid hormones include: a) acylcholesterols b) hormones of adrenal medulla c) hormones of adrenal cortex d) male sex hormones e) insulin and glucagon f) esters of cholesterol g) corticoids h) cholesterol

536. Compound with the formula : a) contains carbon and oxygen as heteroatoms b) is a heterocyclic compound 120

c) is a six-membered heterocyclic compound with oxygen d) is furan e) is classified as a five-membered heterocycle f) is formed by the reduction of fumaric acid g) is one of the heterocyclic rings in the thiazole h) contains a saturated heterocyclic ring

537. Heterocyclic compounds or their derivatives include: a) a flavin nucleotide component b) bile pigments c) phenylalanine d) pyrrole e) hem f) bile acids g) pyridine h) nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide

538. A molecule of hemoglobin contains: a) magnesium as the central atom b) iron as a heteroatom c) Fe2+ d) Fe3+ in a situation where it carries oxygen e) a conjugated system of four pyrrole cores f) four indoles g) cyclopentanoperhydrophenanthrene core h) a heterocyclic part

539. Chlorophyll: a) is a tetrapyrrole pigment b) is a green leaf pigment c) contains cobalt d) contains iron as the central atom e) contains magnesium f) is formed in the human organism g) contains a conjugated system of four pyrrole cores h) is a steroid

540. Pyrrole can be found in biologically important substances such as: a) blood oxygen-carrying pigment b) cholesterol c) bilirubin d) vitamin D e) bile acids f) chlorophyll g) vitamin B12 h) myoglobin

541. Nicotinamide: a) has two heterocyclic rings and is classified as alkaloid b) is a functional derivative of nicotinic acid c) is derived from pyridine d) is a substitution nicotinic acid derivative e) is derived from pyrimidine 121

f) is a coenzyme of transamination reactions g) contains one heteroatom h) is a part of NAD+

542. Heterocyclic compounds: a) can be both cyclic and aliphatic b) are not found in higher organisms c) have important functions in humans as well d) are e.g. pyrimidine derivatives e) are found in cell nuclei f) are not part of DNA or RNA g) are also found in proteins h) are a part of each amino acid

543. An important pyridine derivative is: a) cytosine b) nicotinic acid amide c) one NAD+ component d) thymine e) nicotinic acid f) vitamin B1 g) vitamin PP h) vitamin H

544. Which amino acids contain a heterocyclic ring in their molecule: a) ornithine b) uric acid c) tryptophan d) alanine e) histamine f) arginine g) histidine h) phenylalanine

545. Indicate, which of the following compounds have an aromatic character: a) pyridine b) benzene c) thiophene d) ethyl ether e) phenylalanine f) alanine g) tyrosine h) cyclohexane

546. Pyridine: a) has basic properties b) has acidic properties c) is a compound with formula d) has two heteroatoms in the molecule e) has two heteroatoms of nitrogen f) has nitrogen as the heteroatom

122

g) has derivatives cysteine and thymine which are a part of the DNA molecule h) its major derivative is nicotinamide

547. Which of the following statements about bile pigments is true: a) they include cholic acid b) they are formed by the degradation of hemoglobin c) they ensure the emulsification of fats received by food d) they include bilirubin e) they are produced by the degradation of cholesterol f) their building unit belongs to heteroarenes g) they help fat absorption h) they contain a tetrapyrrole structure

548. Select the imidazole formula: a)

f) CH3-N=N-CH3 g) h)

549. Nitrogen bases derived from pyrimidine are: a) also part of RNA b) cytosine c) nicotinic acid d) guanine and guanosine e) tetrapyrroles f) a nitrogen base formed by the methylation of uracil g) found in proteins

123

h) uracil

550. Thymine is a compound derived from: a) uracil by the oxidation b) tetrapyrroles c) a heterocyclic compound containing one nitrogen heteroatom d) purine by methylation e) a heterocyclic compound containing two different heteroatoms f) a six-membered heterocyclic compound containing two heteroatoms of nitrogen g) pyrimidine h) cytosine directly by methylation

551. Cytosine is a molecule derived from: a) pyridine b) purine c) pyrrole d) a six-membered heterocyclic compound e) pyrimidine f) uracil by methylation g) tetrapyrroles h) a heterocyclic compound with two heteroatoms

552. Which alkaloid is used to stimulate the central nervous system: a) quinine b) nicotinamide c) theobromine d) caffeine e) morphine f) theophylline g) an alkaloid classified as analeptic h) codeine

553. The pyrimidine nitrogen bases do not include: a) a six-membered heterocyclic compound with one oxygen heteroatom b) thymine c) cytosine d) guanine e) caffeine f) nicotinamide g) uracil h) 5-methyluracil

554. The heterocyclic compounds with fused heterocycles include: a) uric acid b) pyridine c) cytosine d) adenine e) theobromine f) purine g) uric acid and urea h) guanine

124

555. 6-aminopurine is: a) a substance that the body cannot synthesize b) guanine c) adenine d) a compound which contains the same heterocycle as theophylline e) a part of both DNA and RNA f) caffeine g) a part of pyrimidine h) a heterocyclic compound

556. Pyrimidine and imidazole rings can be found in the structure of: a) purines b) amino acids such as tryptophan and proline c) imidazole d) 6-aminopurine and together contain 2 heteroatoms of nitrogen e) adenine f) thymine and adenine g) guanidine h) nicotinamide

557. The compound containing components such as cytosine, ribose and phosphoric acid: a) is a nucleoside b) is a nucleotide found in DNA but not in RNA c) is a monomer that is a building block of DNA d) is a triplet e) forms a deoxynucleotide f) as a nucleotide is a building block of RNA g) contains N-glycosidic and ester bond in its molecule h) in mRNA is complementary to guanine deoxynucleotide present in DNA

558. Among the nucleoside triphosphate components we can find the following bond: a) energy-rich bond b) ester bond c) O-glycosidic bond d) N-glycosidic bond e) covalent bond f) the bond between nitrogen base and ribose g) the bond between ribose and H3PO4 h) hydrogen bond between two bases

559. In ATP trihydrogen phosphoric acid is bound: a) to ribose via ester bond b) by the N-glycosidic bond c) to another phosphoric acid molecule via energy-rich bond d) by an ionic bond e) to ribose f) with an additional phosphoric acid molecule via anhydride bond g) to deoxyribose h) by a covalent bond

560. Guanine is a heterocyclic compound: a) that is classified as alkaloid with purine cycle

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b) found in DNA but not in RNA c) only with a pyrimidine ring d) with a purine ring e) catabolized to uric acid in human f) where -NH2 group is bound to nitrogen at the sixth position g) containing 4 heteroatoms of nitrogen h) with two fused heterocycles

561. The final metabolic product of purine compounds in human is: a) urea and CO2 b) a substance resulting from their complete reduction c) aminopurine d) uric acid e) carboxypurine f) 2,6,8-trihydroxypurine g) the product of deamination and oxidation of purine substances h) ammonia and CO2

562. In human the uric acid is the final metabolic product: a) of pyrimidine compounds and contains three -COOH groups b) of purine compounds and contains three -OH groups c) and can form tautomeric forms d) of urea e) of proteins f) of adenine nucleotides g) of uridine nucleotides h) of guanine nucleotides

563. What types of nucleotides are found in DNA: a) ones that contain nicotinamide and deoxypentose as a carbohydrate component b) ones that contain uracil and deoxyribose as a carbohydrate component c) ones that contain cytosine d) ones that contain thymine e) ones that are derived from pyridine f) ones that are derived from purine g) ones that have ribose as a carbohydrate component h) ones that have deoxyaldopentose as a carbohydrate component

564. What types of nucleotides are found in rRNA: a) ones that contain 5-methyluracil and ribose as a carbohydrate component b) ones that contain thymine and deoxyribose as a carbohydrate component c) ones that contain guanidine and aldopentose as a carbohydrate component d) ones that contain uracil and ribose as a carbohydrate component e) ones that contain cysteine f) ones that are derived from purine g) ones that contain cytosine h) ones that are derived from pyridine

565. Which of the following statements about deoxyribonucleic acids is true: a) they are carriers of a genetic information b) they are present in chromosomes c) they are formed by the transcription from the protein structure d) they are mainly found in the cell nucleus 126

e) their primary structure consists of nucleotides containing monosaccharide deoxyribose f) their primary structure is transcribed into RNA on ribosomes g) they are classified as biopolymers h) they contain ribose as a carbohydrate component

566. We can distinguish RNA and DNA: a) by the carbohydrate component b) RNA contains thymine and DNA contains uracil c) by their function in a cell d) by the presence of different types of pyrimidine nucleotides e) by the presence of the different types of basic purine nucleotides f) by the site of their production in cells g) by the type of nucleotides h) by the presence of phosphoric acid

567. RNA mainly contains following nitrogen bases: a) methyluracil b) two of which are classified as pyridine bases c) uracil d) guanine e) 6-aminopurine f) pyridine g) that are classified as purines and pyrimidines h) dioxopyrimidine

568. In nucleic acids following compounds can be found: a) H3PO4 bound to deoxyribose b) aldohexoses c) ketohexoses d) ketopentoses e) deoxymonosaccharides derived from pentoses and hexoses f) riboses g) aldopentoses h) purines and pyridines

569. Nucleotide is composed of: a) nucleoside and ribose b) two components: a nitrogen base and pentose c) a nitrogen base, pentose and phosphoric acid and it is a building block of nucleic acids d) guanidine, H3PO4 and ribose e) a pyridine base, pentose and H3PO4 f) a nitrogen base and pentose linked via H3PO4 g) three components linked via N-glycosidic and phosphoester bonds h) nucleoside and phosphoric acid

570. Polynucleotide: a) consists of basic units - nucleosides b) can contain up to millions of basic units, nucleotides c) consists of the basic units in which a nitrogen base, aldopentose and phosphoric acid are bound d) consists of basic units - nucleotides e) is formed on ribosomes

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f) contains peptide bonds g) contains phosphodiester bonds h) does not contain an amide bond

571. Polynucleotide: a) is formed in the cell nucleus b) is composed of nucleotides bound by the phosphodiester bond c) contains purine and pyridine bases, aldopentose and phosphoric acid d) forms the basis of the DNA structure e) forms the basis of the mRNA structure f) is formed from the corresponding nucleoside triphosphates g) contains deoxyglucose h) also contains the nitrogen base cysteine

572. The double-stranded DNA helix (the secondary DNA structure) is stabilized by: a) the type of bond that is formed between two electronegative elements, one of which must contain hydrogen b) hydrogen bonds between adenine and uracil c) by the same bonds as the double-stranded mRNA d) by hydrogen bonds between adenine and thymine e) N-glycosidic bonds f) by the bond between codon and anticodon g) peptide bonds h) hydrogen bonds between complementary bases

573. The hydrogen bonds in the DNA molecule are formed between: a) pyrimidine bases b) purine bases and ribose c) two strands of DNA and stabilize its secondary structure d) purine bases e) cysteine and guanine f) adenine and uracil g) adenine and thymine in one polynucleotide chain h) adenine and thymine of two anti-parallel DNA strands

574. Which of the following statements about DNA and RNA is true: a) in DNA uracil is a characteristic form of pyrimidine nitrogen bases and in RNA it is thymine b) they differ in the carbohydrate component c) they differ in the acidic component d) they differ in the types of pyrimidine bases e) the place of their biological effect is in the nucleus f) they differ in the content of aldose and ketose g) they differ in the function in the transmission of genetic information h) they differ in the place of their biological effect

575. In DNA complementary nitrogen bases are: a) identical to those in RNA b) thymine and guanine c) one derived from purine and the other one from pyrimidine d) cytosine and guanine e) uracil and adenine f) adenine and 5-methyluracil

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g) the ones derived from purine h) the ones bonded by hydrogen bonds

576. Anticodon is: a) a characteristic region of the tRNA molecule composed of three nucleotides b) a characteristic region of the tRNA molecule composed of three nucleosides c) a place where amino acid can bind to rRNA d) a sequence of three nucleotides in DNA e) complementary to the codon in mRNA f) a place in tRNA and this region is the same for all tRNAs g) is located in tRNA and is specific for the given amino acid h) is located in tRNA and its tripled determines the order of three amino acids

577. Proteosynthesis is when: a) the replication occurs b) proteins are formed c) proteins are produced directly in the transcription d) the translation occurs e) mRNA is formed f) the conversion of genetic information from mRNA is provided during formation of a peptide chain g) proteins in the cell nucleus are formed from DNA h) proteins are formed on ribosomes in the presence of mRNA and tRNA

578. Ribosomal RNA is formed: a) in the nucleus during translation from nucleoside triphosphates b) on ribosomes c) in the cytoplasm d) by the transcription of a particular DNA region e) by the transcription from mRNA on ribosomes f) from amino acids g) from deoxynucleoside triphosphate substrates h) in the nucleus and forms part of the cellular structures where the proteosynthesis occurs

579. Which properties of the DNA molecule are important in the transmission of genetic information in human: a) the existence of a right-handed double-helix DNA and the possibility of its duplication in the reproduction b) complementarity of the nitrogen bases c) the possibility of translation from DNA to mRNA d) the strength of the molecule due to the content of peptide bonds e) the possibility of reduplication of DNA molecules during the cell division f) a simple polynucleotide sequence of mRNA g) complementarity of amino acids h) the possibility of transmission of information from DNA to the primary protein structure via mRNA

580. The information about the amino acid sequence of the protein chain is encoded: a) in a sequence of deoxyribonucleotides in DNA b) in a sequence of nucleotides in tRNA c) in the primary DNA structure d) in the primary protein structure e) in the DNA in such a way that one nucleotide determines one amino acid

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f) in the DNA in such a way that after the transcription proteins are produced in the translation process g) in the DNA molecule in such a way that three nucleotides encode one amino acid h) in a structure of ribosomal RNA

581. The general formula C6H12O6 represents the following compound: a) glucose b) arabinose c) glucuronic acid d) mannose e) ribose f) aldohexose g) ketohexose h) galactose

582. Oxidation of substance “X” yields glucuronic acid. Which of the following statements about the substance „X“ is true: a) it is a hexose b) it is a reducing monosaccharide c) it is a monosaccharide which is in reaction reduced on C-1 d) it is a substance with a carboxylic group e) it is fructose, which is oxidized on C-6 f) it is a monosaccharide which participates on synthesis of cellulose g) it is a disaccharide consisting of glucose and fructose h) it is a substance with an aldehyde group

583. Glucose is: a) a compound soluble in polar solvents b) polyhydroxyaldehyde c) a physiological component of blood plasma d) a possible substrate for synthesis of glycosides e) aldopentose f) a physiological component of urine g) an electrolyte h) a compound metabolized by yeasts to ethanol and carbon dioxide

584. Which of the following compounds belong to monosaccharides: a) glyceraldehyde b) ribose c) dihydroxyacetone d) saccharose e) hemicellulose f) mannose g) pentose h) fructose

585. Glyceraldehyde: a) has alkaline properties b) contains one asymmetric carbon atom c) contains three asymmetric carbon atoms d) has two cis-trans isomers e) has two optical isomers f) is a reducing compound

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g) is naturally present in a free form h) its ester with orthophosphoric acid plays role in metabolism of saccharides in humans

586. Aldopentoses can form: a) only two optical isomers b) glycosides c) phosphate esters d) only three optical isomers e) biologically important compounds f) 16 optical isomers g) nucleosides h) polysaccharides in plants

587. Deoxyribose is: a) a reducing monosaccharide b) a structural component of RNA molecule c) a structural component of DNA molecule d) hexose e) a component of UTP molecule f) a component of dATP molecule g) a component of thymine molecule h) a component of DNA molecules in mitochondria

588. Cyclic form of monosaccharides is: a) ester b) acetal c) hemiacetal d) part of cyclopentanoperhydrophenanthrene e) diester f) glycoside g) water-insoluble h) internal hemiacetal

589. Which of the following substances can participate in the formation of hemiacetals: a) grape sugar b) acetaldehyde c) ethanol d) glutaric acid e) aspartic acid f) acetic acid g) adenine h) galactose

590. The same spatial orientation of hemiacetal hydroxyl group and hydroxyl group on the asymmetric carbon atom which is farthest from anomeric carbon atom results in the formation of: a) α-D-glucopyranose b) β-D-glucopyranose c) α-L-glucopyranose d) DL-glucose e) L-lactic acid f) cellulose g) β-L-glucopyranose

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h) glucuronic acid

591. Which of the following statements about monosaccharides and their optical activity is true: a) the simplest optically active monosaccharide is glyceraldehyde b) ketopentoses have four stereoisomers c) optical activity of monosaccharides is related to their important biological properties d) free L-glucose is present in the blood of mammals e) all monosaccharides, which are structural components of living matter, are optically active substances f) the enzymes of alcohol fermentation disrupt only L-forms of saccharides g) monosaccharides which are present in living matter, rotate the plane of polarized light only in an anti-clockwise direction h) glyceraldehyde can exists in four stereoisomers

592. Monosaccharides participate in: a) the formation of glycoside linkages b) condensation reactions c) oxidoreduction reactions d) proteolytic reactions e) polycondensation reactions f) synthesis of polysaccharides g) peptide bond formation h) synthesis of glycoproteins

593. Glucitol is formed by: a) the oxidation of glycerol b) the esterification of glucose c) the complete reduction of gluconic acid d) the oxidation of glucose e) the reduction of glucose f) the phosphorylation of gluconic acid g) the condensation of two glucose molecules h) the reduction of aldopentose

594. Mannitol is: a) polyhydroxyketone b) aldose c) polyhydroxy compound d) water soluble compound e) a product of starch hydrolysis f) a product of reduction of galactonic acid g) a product of mannose oxidation h) a product of nucleoside hydrolysis

595. Formula C6H12O6 may belongs to: a) glucose b) glucitol c) aldonic acid d) ketohexose e) the product of glucitol oxidation (into the first step) f) the product of lactose hydrolysis g) the product of DNA hydrolysis

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h) the product of cellulose hydrolysis

596. Formation of glycosidic bond is: a) a reaction of two hemiacetal hydroxyl groups of two monosaccharides during the synthesis of disaccharide b) the hydrolytic reaction c) the condensation reaction d) the esterification reaction e) the reaction of connection of two monosaccharides during the synthesis of cellulose f) the reaction of hemiacetal hydroxyl group and alcoholic hydroxyl group g) the reaction of alcoholic hydroxyl group and OH-group of orthophosphoric acid h) the reaction catalyzed by oxidoreductase

597. Glycosides may be synthesized: a) in polycondensation reactions b) in the reaction of two saccharides c) in the reaction of cyclic form of a monosaccharide with an alcohol d) in the reaction of a saccharide and orthophosphoric acid e) in polycondensation of monosaccharides f) in the reaction of cellulose with NaOH and carbon disulfide g) in the reaction catalyzed by aminotransferases h) in the reaction of the saccharide hemiacetal hydroxyl group with methanol

598. Glucose water solution: a) has a sweet taste b) gives a positive Fehling´s test c) has pH < 7 d) has pH > 7 e) gives a positive Selivanoff´s test f) rotates the plane of polarized light g) reduces solution of silver nitrate and ammonia (Tollens´ reagent) h) oxidizes Fehling´s reagent

599. Which of the following statements about monosaccharides is true: a) xylose is a water-soluble substance b) glucose is the only source of energy for erythrocytes c) glucose is a stereoisomer of mannose d) glucose can be synthesized from amino acids e) galactose can be a constituent of lipids f) fructose is a monomer of glycogen g) galactose can be formed by the starch hydrolysis h) ribose is formed in glycolysis

600. Grape sugar is: a) galactose b) aldopentose c) glucose d) a compound containing 8 atoms of oxygen e) water-insoluble f) a structural isomer of fructose g) a non-reducing saccharide h) a structural component of cellulose

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601. Galactose is: a) a component of complex lipids b) aldohexose c) ketohexose d) the direct source of energy in erythrocytes e) the water-soluble saccharide f) saccharide present in the human body g) milk sugar h) polyhydroxyaldehyde

602. Galactose is not: a) a component of saccharose b) a component of lactose c) a component of any polysaccharides d) a component of glycogen e) a component of complex lipids f) metabolized to glucose in the liver g) a structural component of nucleosides h) a reducing disaccharide

603. Which of the following statements about oxidation and reduction of saccharides is true: a) saccharides contain functional groups which can be oxidized b) aldonic acids are products of partial oxidation of aldoses c) lactic acid also belongs to the products which are produced during glucose oxidation in the human body d) uronic acids are formed from aldose by the effect of strong oxidative reagents e) polyols are products of moderate oxidation of pentoses f) mannitol is a product of oxidation of fructose g) hexitols have six optically active isomers h) arabitol is a product of pentose reduction

604. Following structure belongs to:

a) monosaccharide b) α-anomer c) β-anomer d) D-fructose e) optically inactive form of glucose f) L-galactose g) a reducing saccharide h) DL-glucose

605. Configuration in position C1 can be part of: a) α-D-glucopyranose 134

b) α-L-glucopyranose c) β-L-glucopyranose d) β-D-glucopyranose e) α -D-galactose f) β-D-mannose g) α-D-glucuronic acid h) α-D-gluconic acid

606. The compound represented by the following formula is formed by:

a) the oxidation of glucose b) the reduction of mannose c) the total reduction of galactitol d) the oxidation of xylose e) the reduction of aldohexose f) the oxidation of glucitol g) the reduction of saccharide with 4 asymmetric carbon atoms h) the reduction of arabinose

607. The following structure is:

a) polyhydroxyketone b) a component of nucleotides c) D-fructose d) L-fructose e) ketohexose f) xylose g) D-deoxyribose h) arabinose

608. Which of the following compounds give positive Fehling´s test: a) glucose b) ribose c) glycogen d) lactose e) arabinose f) galactose g) malt sugar h) grape sugar

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609. Critical for classification of deoxyribose to L- or D-configuration is: a) configuration on carbon atom C2 b) configuration on carbon atom C3 c) configuration on carbon atom C4 d) configuration on carbon atom C5 e) concordant spatial configuration of the hemiacetal hydroxyl group and hydroxyl group on

carbon atom C2 f) concordant spatial configuration of the hemiacetal hydroxyl group and hydroxyl group on

carbon atom C4 g) ability or disability to react with phosphoric acid h) spatial conformation on the last asymmetric carbon atom

610. Aldotetroses can form: a) colloidal solutions b) 4 optical isomers c) 6 optical isomers d) carboxylic acids after the oxidation e) phosphate esters f) glycosides g) alcohols after the reduction h) complex lipids

611. Deoxyribose participating in DNA synthesis: a) is reduced on the first carbon atom b) is reduced on the second carbon atom c) can react with phosphoric acid and the product of this reaction is nucleotide d) can react with uracil in the human body and the product of this reaction is a nucleoside e) can be a constituent of complex lipids f) binds to guanine by N-glycosidic bond g) binds to cytosine by O-glycosidic bond h) in the form of furanose binds to purine or pyrimidine bases

612. Which of the following statements about monosaccharides is true: a) they give a positive reaction with the biuret reagent b) they can be formed in the intestine under the action of maltase c) they can be formed in the intestine during the action of lactase on maltose d) they are absorbed in the small intestine e) they may be substrates for the synthesis of alcohol in the large intestine f) they may be substrates for the synthesis of alcohol g) they can generate homogeneous solutions h) they can contain seven carbon atoms

613. If an unknown saccharide gives the positive Molisch´s test, positive nitrochrome reaction and positive Fehling´s test, it can be: a) mannose b) lactose c) sucrose d) galactose e) glycogen f) the malt sugar g) cellulose h) ribose 136

614. Glucose-6-phosphate is: a) the phosphate monoester b) the phosphate diester c) a water-soluble substance d) a substrate of glycolysis e) a product of starch hydrolysis by the action of amylase f) a product of glycogen hydrolysis by the action of amylase g) a substrate for the synthesis of fructose-6-phosphate h) synthesized also in human body

615. Fructose: a) can be synthesized from glucose in animal tissues b) gives the positive Seliwanoff´s test c) can be synthesized in plants d) is a constituent of RNA e) gives alcohol after the reduction f) is a product of malt sugar hydrolysis g) is the sweetest disaccharide h) is not synthesized in human body

616. Mannose: a) is an epimer of arabinose b) is a structural component of amylose c) is formed during oxidation of mannitol d) can exist in L- and D-form e) gives a positive reaction with iodine f) can be a component of glycosides g) is produced by maltose hydrolysis h) is the malt sugar

617. Ribose: a) in L-form is a structural component of nucleic acids b) is a component of ATP molecule c) gives the positive nitrochrome reaction d) is a ketose e) is a product of hydrolysis of the RNA molecule f) is synthesized also in human body g) cannot be esterified with trihydrogen phosphoric acid h) gives the positive Fehling´s test

618. A part of a sucrose molecule is: a) an aldopentose b) a ketohexose c) a phosphoesteric bond d) a chemical bond cleaved by hydrolases e) a glycosidic bond f) an esteric bond g) a free hemiacetal hydroxyl group h) a chemical bond cleaved by saccharase

619. Which of the following compounds have not reducing properties: a) glucose b) sucrose

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c) glyceraldehyde d) glucopyranosyl-glucopyranose e) lactose f) cellulose g) mannose h) glycogen

620. Beet sugar is: a) a non-reducing saccharide b) a plant monosaccharide c) the substrate for the enzyme amylase d) a compound digested by salivary amylase e) the water-soluble saccharide f) present in the sugar beet (16-20 %) g) the product of starch hydrolysis h) a monomer of glycogen

621. Milk sugar is: a) galactose b) the saccharide cleaved in the small intestine by lactase c) a non-reducing disaccharide d) galactopyranosyl-fructofuranose e) a saccharide of animal origin f) cleaved in the small intestine by pancreatic amylase g) the product of lactic acid oxidation h) the product of lactic acid fermentation

622. Galactose is: a) the fruit sugar b) a compound synthesized also in human body c) the milk sugar d) a reducing disaccharide e) a structural component of lactic acid f) a substrate for pancreatic lipase g) a product of glycogen cleavage in the small intestine h) a structural component of complex lipids

623. During maltose hydrolysis following compound is formed: a) glucose b) mannose c) glucose and mannose d) mannose and galactose e) a reducing monosaccharide f) a non-reducing monosaccharide g) a product which is absorbed in the small intestine h) maltase

624. In animal organisms, the following compounds are synthesized: a) ribose b) lactose c) hemicellulose d) cellulose e) glycogen

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f) starch g) deoxyribose h) arabinose

625. Formation of lactose from monosaccharides is: a) the addition reaction b) esterification c) condensation d) polymerisation e) accompanied by the formation of a glycosidic bond f) hydrolysis g) acetylation h) oxidation

626. Conversion of maltose to glucose is the reaction: a) which takes place in the stomach b) hydrolytic c) oxidative d) transamination e) which takes place in the small intestine f) esterification g) which physiologically takes place in humans during digestion h) catalysed by salivary amylase

627. Maltose: a) is a reducing disaccharide b) can be formed from glucose c) can be formed from starch d) after cleavage gives glucose and galactose e) can be hydrolyzed by maltase f) can be synthesized by mannose oxidation g) can be synthesized by mannitol reduction h) is non-digestible for humans

628. The water solution of maltose: a) can be hydrolyzed by disaccharidase b) is colloidal c) gives a positive Fehling´s test d) gives a positive reaction with iodine e) gives a positive Molisch´s test f) has a neutral pH g) is decomposed by saccharase h) is formed during hydrolysis of cellulose by amylase

629. Sucrose is: a) a disaccharide of plant origin b) a reserve substance in humans c) a component of starch d) a compound important as an energy substrate in humans e) the product of amylase action on amylose f) a poorly water-soluble compound g) a compound enzymatically cleaved by saliva in the mouth cavity h) a syrupy non-crystallizing compound

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630. Reducing disaccharide is formed by: a) linking hemiacetal hydroxyl groups of both monosaccharides molecules b) linking the hemiacetal hydroxyl group of one monosaccharide molecule with the alcohol hydroxyl group of the second monosaccharide molecule c) linking glucose and galactose by the α(1-1) glycosidic bond d) the oxidation of glucitol e) the oxidation of aldonic acid f) the hydrolytic cleavage of starch by amylase catalytic action g) the connection of purine with ribose h) the action of saccharase on sucrose

631. Polysaccharides: a) can form true solutions b) are not ionized in aqueous solutions c) are generally water-insoluble substances d) are cleaved by aminotransferases e) have a sweet taste f) can reduce solution of AgNO3 g) are cleaved by hydrolases h) are resorbed unchanged in the small intestine

632. Starch is: a) a common component of human food b) a compound that generates a blue color after the reaction with iodine c) a compound containing 1,6-glycosidic bonds d) cleaved by salivary amylase e) a polysaccharide with the linear molecule f) homopolysaccharide g) hydrolyzed by amylase h) a compound giving a positive Fehling´s test

633. In the molecule of starch there are: a) chemical bonds cleaved by hydrolases b) β-glycosidic bonds c) 1,4-glycosidic bonds d) 2,6-glycosidic bonds e) phosphodiester bond f) peptide bonds g) diester bonds h) α-glycosidic bonds

634. Dextrins are formed: a) by partial hydrolysis of starch b) by the action of saccharase on glycogen c) by esterification of starch d) as intermediates of glycogen hydrolysis e) by cleavage of starch with amylose f) by the reaction of starch and cellulose g) by phosphorylation of glycogen h) by dissolving glycogen in water

635. Starch is not present in: a) the liver b) potatoes 140

c) cereals d) the human muscle e) neurons f) plant seeds g) plant cells h) red blood cells

636. Which of the following compounds belong to polysaccharides of animal origin: a) pectins b) glycogen c) cellulose d) hemicellulose e) amylose f) amylopectin g) arabinose h) lecithin

637. Glycogen: a) is a white amorphous powder b) is present in cells of skeletal muscle c) is a storage substance d) is water-soluble e) is stained blue by iodine f) is present in liver cells g) decomposes in the stomach by the action of amylase h) is cleaved in the small intestine by the action of pancreatic lipase

638. The most widespread polysaccharide in the biosphere is: a) starch b) glycogen c) dextrins d) cellulose e) amylopectin f) amylose g) lignin h) hemicellulose

639. Cellulose is: a) a plant polysaccharide b) an animal polysaccharide c) a storage substance d) the structural component of plant cells e) the component of lignin f) the component of wood g) a resin h) raw material for the production of viscose rayon

640. The molecule of cellulose contains: a) α-glycosidic bonds b) β-glycosidic bonds c) 1,6-glycosidic bonds d) 2,4-glycosidic bonds e) oxidation products of glucose

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f) molecules of carboxylic acids bound by the ester bond g) free carboxylic groups h) 1,4-glycosidic bonds

641. The starch molecule is formed: a) by esterification b) by polycondensation c) by phosphorylation d) by hydrolysis e) in plant cells f) in liver cells g) by linking multiple glucose molecules with a diester bond h) from non-reducing monosaccharides

642. Glycogen is: a) a reducing saccharide b) a non-reducing saccharide c) the compound that gives a positive Fehling´s test d) the compound that gives a positive Tollens´ test e) a common component of muscle cells f) the storage form of glucose in the human body g) the reserve substance in cereal grains h) non-digestible in man

643. In the cellulose synthesis participates: a) glucose b) β-1,6-glycosidic bond c) condensation reaction d) maltose e) fructose f) β-1,4-glycosidic bond g) esterification reaction h) amylase

644. Complete hydrolysis of starch gives rise to a product which: a) gives a positive reaction with iodine b) gives the positive Tollens´ test c) can serve as a source of energy for the muscle tissue d) can be absorbed in the human small intestine e) enters the glycolysis f) has reducing properties g) can produce esters with phosphoric acid h) gives glucitol after the reduction

645. Starch gives a positive reaction with: a) Molisch´s reagent b) iodine solution c) Seliwanoff´s reagent d) solution of basic fuchsine e) thymol reagent f) ethanolic solution of 1-naphtol g) solution of copper (II) sulfate h) nitrochrome reagent

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646. The binding of monomers in the amylose molecule is carried out by: a) the linkage produced by hydrolases b) O-glycosidic bond c) α(1-6)-glycosidic bond d) α(1-4)-glycosidic bond e) the linkage that is hydrolysable by galactosidase f) ester bond g) the linkage that may be cleaved by acids h) the linkage that is present in the maltose molecule

647. In the glycogen molecule we can find: a) 1,4-glycosidic bonds b) 1,6-glycosidic bonds c) N-glycosidic bonds d) ester bonds e) molecules of glucose and galactose as monomers f) linked molecules of orthophosphoric acid g) energy-rich bonds h) α-glycosidic bonds

648. Partial hydrolysis of starch by amylase generates: a) the product that is absorbed in the human small intestine b) dextrins c) a substance that is physiologically present in human blood d) glycogen e) lactose f) amylase g) glucose h) a compound that belongs to oligosaccharides

649. The branched structure has a molecule of: a) glycogen b) amylose c) cellulose d) amylopectin e) maltose f) lactose g) arabinose h) ethanolamine

650. 1,6-glycosidic bond: a) is formed by the condensation reaction b) is a peptide bond c) enables a branched structure of glycogen d) is present in the molecule of amylose e) is cleaved by the enzyme maltase f) is cleaved by a hydrolytic enzyme formed in the small intestine g) is present in the molecule of fructose h) is present in the molecule of glycogen

651. Non essential amino acids: a) the organism can synthesize from oxo acids b) can be formed by the transamination from pyruvate and also oxaloacetate

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c) must be taken by food d) are aspartic acid and glutamic acid e) are dispensable amino acids f) are also taken by food g) are also acidic amino acids h) are tryptophan and phenylalanine

652. Amino acid with an aromatic ring is: a) phenylalanine b) an amino acid present only in peptides and not in proteins c) valine d) tyrosine e) 2-amino-3-phenylpropanoic acid f) glutamic acid g) the amino acid which contains the benzene ring on beta-carbon of alanine h) glutamic acid and its amide – glutamine

653. Acidic amino acids: a) contain two amino groups in the molecule b) are aspartic and glutamic acid c) contain two carboxyl groups in the molecule d) in addition to carboxyl groups they also contain one -NH2 group e) pH of their aqueous solution is higher than 7 f) pH of their aqueous solution is less than 7 g) in the organism they form corresponding amides h) contain two -COOH groups and one amino group in the molecule

654. Basic amino acids: a) may bind a proton from the environment b) contain the -SH group c) are aspartic and glutamic acids d) contain, e.g. one carboxy group and two -NH2 groups e) include lysine which is an essential amino acid f) include serine g) are predominantly found in nucleoprotein forming proteins h) are predominantly present in histones

655. Amino acid in this form : a) may have dissociated functional groups in an aqueous solution as shown in this structure b) is a zwitterion c) shows no total charge d) in the electric field half of molecules move to the cathode and half of the molecules to the anode e) does not move in the electric field of the direct current f) is an ammonium salt g) is a neutral amino acid h) is alanine

656. Which of the following statements about amino acids in proteins of the human organism is true: a) after degradation their amino nitrogen occurs in uric acid

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b) they have L-configuration c) they have L- or D-configurations d) they have one -NH2 group bound to the alpha carbon (towards the carboxyl group) e) they also occur in food proteins f) they are synthesized in the human organism from CO2, H2, NH3 g) urea is formed as a waste product during their degradation h) they contain only -NH2 and -COOH functional groups

657. An amide group: a) is the -NH2 group bound to a carbon in the amino acid chain b) occurs in amino acids of proteins c) has a strongly acidic character d) of an amino acid releases the proton into the solution e) may bind a proton from the solution more strongly than the amino group f) in molecules of amino acids in the alpha position is involved in the formation of the peptide bond g) occurs in glutamine h) in basic building units of proteins is bound directly to the carbon chain

658. Essential amino acids: a) may be synthesized by the organism from oxo acids by the transamination b) are indispensable amino acids c) must be present in food d) are glycine and alanine e) contain the -NH2 group in the beta-position f) are, e.g. lysine and tryptophan g) contain the alpha-amino group h) occur in the organism free as well as bound in proteins

659. Which of the following amino acids contains the -OH group in the molecule: a) ethanolamine b) serine c) methionine d) threonine e) phenylalanine f) choline g) proline h) tyrosine

660. 2-aminosuccinic acid is: a) aspartic acid b) alanine c) amino acid which does not occur in proteins d) amino acid with two carboxyl groups in the molecule e) a compound of the formula f) an acidic amino acid g) a compound with one more carbon than glutamic acid h) a four carbon amino acid

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661. 2-aminopropanoic acid is: a) alanine b) glycine c) an amino acid with one chiral carbon atom in the molecule d) a neutral amino acid e) a part of proteins and in the human organism occurs as L-amino acid f) g) present in humans in the form of D-amino acid h) an amino acid without chiral carbon in the molecule

662. CH3-CH(NH2)-COOH: a) is an alpha-amino acid b) is alanine c) is formed by transamination of pyruvic acid d) is a neutral amino acid e) is glycine f) is a basic amino acid g) in proteins can be substituted by the compound h) in a solution at pH = pI is in the form of zwitterion

663. 2-amino-3-phenylpropanoic acid: a) contains the -NH2 group at the beta position from the -COOH group b) is phenylalanine c) contains the benzene ring d) is a heterocyclic compound e) is an aromatic amino acid f) is an amino acid from which tyrosine may be formed by the hydroxylation g) is a compound of the formula h) is tryptophan

664. A peptide bond: a) does not occur in molecules of amino acids b) present in food components is digested in the digestive tract by pepsin c) can be detected by the Fehling reaction d) does not occur in dipeptides e) connects amino acids in proteins f) is the bond -CO-NH- g) is formed in the process of transcription in the nucleus h) is formed in the process of translation in proteosynthesis

665. Which of the following statements about the peptide bond is true: a) amino acids in dipeptides are connected by this bond b) water is consumed during its formation c) it is the ionic non-polar bond d) it is a strong covalent bond e) energy is required during its formation f) two protein chains during the formation of the secondary structure are connected by this bond g) the bond is destroyed when denatured 146

h) the bond is cleaved by proteinases

666. During the formation of a peptide bond: a) identical or different amino acids may bind b) proteinases are required c) the -COOH group of one amino acid reacts with the -NH2 group of the same amino acid d) the -COOH group of one amino acid reacts with the -NH2 group of another amino acid e) the -CO-NH- bond connects amino acids f) a large amount of energy is released g) energy is consumed h) water is released

667. Dipeptide: a) is composed of two amino acids b) is composed of two peptides c) is composed of two proteins d) is composed of three amino acids e) is, e.g. alanyl-glycine f) unlike proteins does not contain the higher order structures g) contains two peptide bonds h) contains one -CO-NH- bond

668. Which statement about acidic amino acids is true: a) they contain more carboxyl groups than -NH2 groups b) they are aspartic acid and glutamic acid c) they are also found in enzymes d) they are 2-oxoglutaric acid and aspartic acid e) they are diamino mono-carboxylic amino acids f) they are bound in proteins and contain an oxo-group attached to the second carbon atom g) during the protein formation one acidic amino acid provides both carboxyl groups to produce the peptide bond h) these amino acids and their amides are part of proteins

669. During transamination there are formed amino acids: a) and a coenzyme of this reaction is thiamine b) non essential (also in humans) c) from corresponding oxo acids d) from long-chain carboxylic acids e) which can occur in proteins, e.g. alanine f) e.g. aspartic acid g) tryptophan from tyrosine h) and the coenzyme of this reaction is a derivative of vitamin B6

670. The primary structure of proteins: a) means a spatial arrangement of the polypeptide chain, e.g. alpha-helix b) means the sequence of amino acids in a protein chain c) is responsible for protein properties d) is determined by the sequence of nucleic bases in a protein chain e) is encoded in DNA f) is stabilized by bonds between -NH2 and -COOH groups of the consecutive amino acids g) is stabilized by ester bonds h) is destroyed by the denaturation

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671. A final (waste) product of the protein metabolism in humans: a) is a compound with two -NH2 groups b) is diamide of carbonic acid c) is uric acid d) are amino acids excreted by the urine e) is urea f) is a poorly soluble compound which is a part of kidney stones g) is a compound with the formula H2N-CO-NH2 h) is only ammonia

672. Amino acids: a) some also contain nitrogen in their heterocyclic structure b) are formed by the hydrolysis of proteins c) essential amino acids cannot be formed in the organism from oxo acids by transamination d) are monomers of all biopolymers in the organism e) are functional derivatives of carboxylic acids f) all contain the group g) are bound in proteins by the covalent bond h) are ampholytes

673. Glycine: a) is the simplest amino acid b) does not contain asymmetric carbon in its molecule c) is a substitution derivative of acetic acid d) belongs to functional derivatives of ethanoic acid e) is a functional derivative of acetic acid f) has the H2N-CH2-COOH formula g) is amino propionic acid h) is a neutral amino acid with three carbons

674. Glutamic acid: a) together with aspartic acid belongs to acidic amino acids b) is dicarboxylic 2-oxo acid c) is five carbon mono amino three carboxylic acid d) contains two carboxylic groups in the molecule e) is an essential amino acid f) is a non-essential amino acid g) contains one -NH2 group in the molecule h) and its amide occur in proteins

675. Which of the following statements about the secondary structure of proteins is true: a) it can be broken only by the hydrolysis of the peptide bond b) it can be in the form of alpha helix c) it is stabilized by hydrogen bridges d) it determines the sequence of amino acids in a chain e) unlike the primary structure it can be broken by denaturation f) it is stabilized only by peptide bonds g) it is stabilized by bonds formed among groups >C=O ….. H˗N< of peptide bonds h) it can occur in the form of a pleated sheet

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676. Tyrosine: a) belongs to neutral amino acids b) is a hormone c) contains the -OH group in the molecule d) can be phosphorylated in proteins e) differs from phenylalanine by the presence of the hydroxyl group in the molecule f) contains a heterocycle, amine-, hydroxyl- and carboxyl groups in the molecule g) is an aromatic amino acid h) is a conditionally essential amino acid

677. 2-amino-3-hydroxy propanoic acid is: a) a neutral amino acid b) serine c) alanine d) a compound with the formula HOOC-CH2-CH(NH2)-CH2-OH e) an essential amino acid f) a non-essential amino acid g) a part of some phospholipids h) a functional derivative of propanoic acid

678. Protein molecules: a) are composed of acids containing only the -NH2 group as the functional group b) are composed of 20 different amino acids c) contain amino acids in L-configuration d) are not found in the blood of a healthy person e) can be classified to fibrillar and globular f) are important biocatalysts g) can be denatured in vitro by the high temperature h) do not lose their biological activity by the denaturation

679. By protein denaturation: a) a protein loses biological properties because peptide bonds are cleaved b) the primary structure is damaged c) the polypeptide chain is cleaved into smaller portions d) there is a permanent change of the spatial arrangement of molecules e) higher order structures are not damaged f) their biological properties are lost g) no damage to the secondary structure occurs h) higher order protein structures are damaged

680. Proteins: a) are cleaved in the stomach and the small intestine b) participate in the transport of some compounds in blood, e.g. lipids c) are biocatalysts d) are cleaved by amylase e) have no regulatory function f) are also some hormones g) cannot be synthesized in the organism, they are taken only by food h) some have a structural function

681. Oxygen: a) is a biogenic macroelement b) belongs to electropositive elements 149

c) is transported from lungs to tissues by myoglobin d) is transported from lungs to tissues by hemoglobin e) is the last acceptor of electrons in the electron transport chain f) in water is bound with the ionic bond g) is an electronegative element which can form hydrogen bonds with other molecules h) in hydrogen peroxide is monovalent, and in the molecule of water it is bivalent

682. Water in the organism: a) enables the transport of substrates b) is a non-polar solvent c) is a solvent for vitamin C d) makes approx. 60 % of the adult weight e) is received just from food f) is not produced in metabolic processes g) serves for the transport of waste products h) is a product of terminal oxidation

683. Colloids: a) are stabilized by the electrical charge on their surface b) are not true solutions c) are true solutions d) are solutions containing 1-1000 nm particles e) are solutions of monosaccharides f) can be produced from low-molecular weight substances if these are aggregated to bigger units (micelles) g) are homogeneous systems h) loose their stability in solutions if they loose an electrical charge or if they have disrupted a hydration shell

684. The endergonic reactions are associated with: a) catabolic processes b) synthesis of macromolecules c) production of proteins d) anabolic processes e) energy release f) the consumption of energy in the form of ATP g) transformation of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate and fructose to fructose-1,6-bisphophate h) β-oxidation of fatty acids

685. Energy-rich compounds are: a) AMP b) GTP c) acetyl coenzyme A d) GDP e) ADP f) GMP g) adenosine triphosphate h) adenosine

686. Acetyl coenzyme A can be produced: a) from carbohydrates b) from lipids c) from amino acids

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d) from pyruvic acid e) directly from lactic acid f) directly from oxaloacetic acid g) from acetone h) directly from acetoacetyl coenzyme A

687. Dehydrogenation is: a) for example the oxidation of succinic acid to fumaric acid b) performed by oxidoreductases in the organism c) reduction d) for example the condensation reaction e) removing the water molecules f) oxidation g) reduction of pyruvic acid to lactic acid h) removing hydrogen atoms from a substrate

688. The Krebs cycle proceeds in the cell: a) in the nucleus b) in the mitochondria c) in the cytosol d) in the endoplasmic reticulum e) to provide energy and produce important intermediates f) under anaerobic conditions g) under aerobic conditions h) and leads to decarboxylation of substrates

689. The final product of glucose oxidation in the human under anaerobic conditions is: a) ethanol b) acetyl coenzyme A c) 2-hydroxypropanoic acid d) lactic acid e) acetoacetic acid f) pyruvic acid g) carbon dioxide h) lactate

690. Which of the following processes proceeds in mitochondria: a) oxidation-reduction reactions in the respiratory chain b) oxidation of the Krebs cycle intermediates c) oxidative phosphorylation d) β-oxidation of long-chain fatty acids e) reactions of glycolysis f) synthesis of fatty acids g) synthesis of most proteins h) oxidation of reduced coenzymes of most oxidoreductases

691. Carbohydrates in the body taken from the food: a) can be polysaccharides, for example glycogen b) are digested by hydrolases in the gastrointestinal tract c) contain β-glycosidic bonds, for example, starch d) are often coenzymes of reactions e) are oxidized and cleaved with energy consumption f) are metabolized to acetyl coenzyme A, which can enter the Krebs cycle

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g) at their excess they can be transformed to lipids h) are absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract as monosaccharides

692. Which of the following compounds can be formed during glucose oxidation in glycolysis under aerobic conditions: a) CO2 and water b) 2-oxopropanoic acid c) pyruvic acid d) glycogen e) acetoacetic acid f) oxaloacetic acid g) oxo-acid with one carboxylic group h) lactic acid

693. One molecule of glucose can provide: a) 1 molecule of acetyl coenzyme A b) 2 molecules of acetyl coenzyme A c) 3 molecules of acetyl coenzyme A d) 4 molecules of acetyl coenzyme A e) 1 molecule of pyruvic acid f) 2 molecules of pyruvic acid g) 2 molecules of lactate h) 1 molecule of lactic acid

694. Which of the following statements about simple lipids is true: a) they are an important source of energy in the organism b) they are stored in the form of triacylglycerols c) they can be a source of energy for heart d) they are the source of amino acids in the organism e) received by the food they are digested by pancreatic lipase f) together with phospholipids they are important components of biological membranes g) they can not be synthetized in the organism, they are only received from the food h) they form lipoproteins to be transported in the blood stream

695. Lipase is: a) a hydrolase b) a protease c) a digestive enzyme d) an enzyme cleaving triacylglycerols e) a hormone, which regulates the level of serum lipids f) an enzyme, which cleaves lipids received from the food g) an enzyme, which phosphorolytically cleaves lipids h) produced in the pancreas

696. Proteolytic enzymes of the digestive tract are produced in the: a) stomach b) pancreas c) large intestine d) gall-bladder e) salivary glands f) serum g) erythrocytes h) liver

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697. Enzymes: a) increase the velocity of a chemical reaction b) move the equilibrium of the reaction in the direction of product formation c) move the equilibrium of the reaction in the direction of substrate creation d) increase the free activation energy of the catalyzed reaction e) do not have the pH-optimum f) their catalytic effect is higher after their activation g) cannot have a non-protein component in their molecule h) can be synthesized in an inactive form

698. Coenzyme: a) is a protein part of an enzyme b) is a non-protein part of an enzyme c) is a product of enzyme reaction d) is an alloesteric site of an enzyme e) of transamination reactions is a phosphorylated form of vitamin B6 f) can be the same for a few types of enzymes g) is very often a vitamin h) of oxidation-reduction enzymes is NAD+

699. For the substrate specificity of an enzyme, there is responsible: a) apoenzyme b) coenzyme c) pH-optimum d) decrease of activation energy e) protein part of enzyme f) the presence of metal ions g) optimal temperature h) activation of enzymes by activators

700. pH-optimum of an enzyme: a) is always around 7 b) depends on the type of the enzyme c) can be around 7 d) depends on the amount of a substrate e) is a pH, with the lowest enzyme activity f) pepsin is in a strongly acidic range (pH = 1-2) g) is a pH with the highest enzyme activity h) is characteristic for each enzyme

701. Pepsin: a) is produced by the pancreas b) is a coenzyme c) catalyzes the cleavage of peptides d) has the optimal pH around 2 e) is a hydrolytic enzyme f) is synthesized in the form of zymogene g) digests proteins in the stomach h) is ligase

702. Competitive inhibition is a type of enzyme inhibition when: a) the inhibitor binds to the active site of the enzyme b) the inhibitor does not bind to the active site of the enzyme

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c) the inhibitor does not bind to the enzyme d) the inhibitor binds to the coenzyme e) the inhibitor has a similar structure as a substrate f) the inhibitor does not occupy the same site as the substrate g) the effect of an inhibitor can be reduced by the increased concentration of the substrate h) the enzyme is irreversibly inhibited

703. Enzymes are classified: a) according to the type of their substrate b) according to the type of chemical reaction, which they catalyze c) to 6 main classes d) to 4 main classes e) according to the type of coenzyme f) to apoenzymes and coenzymes g) according to the type of their product h) not according to the type of their substrate

704. Hydrolases are: a) pepsin b) proteinases c) transaminase d) lipase e) trypsin f) decarboxylase g) dehydrogenase h) chymotrypsin

705. Oxidoreductases are enzymes which: a) catalyze the oxidation of a substrate b) catalyze the reduction of a substrate c) use pyridoxine as a coenzyme d) use NAD+ as a coenzyme e) are located also in mitochondria f) are located in lysosomes g) catalyze dehydrogenation h) catalyze the conversion of lactose to glucose and galactose

706. The rate of enzyme reaction can be increased by: a) the increase in a substrate concentration b) the increase in the product concentration c) the decrease in a substrate concentration d) the temperature decrease below 37 °C e) the increase of the enzyme amount if there is an excess of the substrate f) the presence of enzyme activators g) the excess of coenzyme h) rising the temperature from 30 °C to 37 °C

707. The energy in the form of ATP is: a) mainly produced in the organism by the oxidation of substrates b) utilized in exergonic reactions c) used for the activation of substrates d) produced in processes of oxidative phosphorylation e) used for muscle contraction

154

f) produced in the respiratory chain g) produced in mitochondria h) the most important source of energy in the human organism

708. Oxidations of substrates: a) are located in the cytosol and also in mitochondria b) are catalyzed by transferases c) are catalyzed by enzymes with NAD+ and FAD as coenzymes d) are also reactions of the Krebs cycle e) are also catalyzed by dehydrogenases f) in the first phase lead to the production of reduced coenzymes g) in living systems are normally not one-stage processes h) lead to the production of energy in the organism

709. Zymogen: a) is an active form of an enzyme b) can be changed to the active form by cleaving a part of a peptide chain c) is proenzyme d) is an inactive form of an enzyme e) is also pepsinogen f) is also trypsin g) consists of amino acids linked by a glycosidic bond h) is a protein

710. Synthetases: a) are ligases b) catalyze reactions, which need energy from ATP c) catalyze reactions of the combining two substrate molecules d) are lyases e) do not need energy for their activity f) catalyze endergonic reactions g) catalyze energy-producing reactions h) catalyze exergonic reactions

711. Vitamins: a) are coenzymes and regulatory factors b) are often high-molecule organic compounds c) their amount in the organism is small d) do not belong to essential substances e) A, D, E, K are not fat soluble f) C, B1, B6 are water soluble g) their deficiency causes hypovitaminoses h) are important also in the metabolism of amino acids as coenzymes

712. Oxidation (dehydrogenation) of substances in the living system: a) occurs mainly in the presence of oxygen b) can also occur in the absence of oxygen c) is catalyzed by dehydrogenases (for example alcohol dehydrogenase) d) is catalyzed by hydrolases e) leads to the production of energy in the form of ATP f) can be a multi-step process (for example oxidation of glucose) g) provides the energy for exergonic reactions in the organism h) is for example the change of lactic acid to pyruvic acid

155

713. Acetyl coenzyme A: a) is an active form of acetic acid b) can be produced from glucose c) is oxidized in Krebs cycle d) its oxidation is not important for energy production e) is also a product of β-oxidation of fatty acids f) is not the energy-rich compound g) is a substrate for several synthesis h) is produced directly from lactic acid

714. Which of the following statements about citric acid cycle is true: a) its enzymes are localized in mitochondria b) it represents reactions, which mediate the production of ATP c) one of its intermediates is glutamic acid d) it starts with the condensation of citric acid and oxaloacetic acid e) it enables oxidation of acetyl coenzyme A to CO2 f) one of its intermediates is oxaloacetic acid g) it is also called the Krebs cycle h) its enzymes are located in the cytosol

715. Glucose: a) is phosphorylated to glucose-1-phosphate in glycolysis b) can be changed to ethanol in yeasts c) is converted to pyruvic acid in glycolysis d) in anaerobic glycolysis is converted to lactic acid e) is a monomer of glycogen f) is the product of CO2 and H2O assimilation in yeasts during the process of photosynthesis g) in excess can be stored in the form of glycogen h) in healthy people is not present in the urine

716. Glycolysis: a) is a metabolic pathway of glucose oxidation b) can be aerobic and anaerobic c) is a process, in which energy is not produced d) under anaerobic conditions pyruvic acid is the end product e) under anaerobic conditions lactic acid is the end product in human f) under anaerobic conditions acetyl coenzyme A is the end product g) is located in the cytosol h) is a process, in which the organism can produce energy also under anaerobic conditions

717. Lipids: a) in the heart can be used as a source of energy b) are less important source of energy as proteins c) are simple and complex lipids d) are digested hydrolytically by lipases e) are a structural part of cell membranes f) simple are hydrophobic substances g) simple are neutral fats h) are transported in the form of lipoproteins in the blood

718. Acetyl CoA: a) can be formed in the metabolism of saccharides b) is formed by β-oxidation of fatty acids 156

c) is metabolized in Krebs cycle d) is a substrate for the synthesis of steroids e) contains the thioester bond f) does not belong to energy-rich compounds g) enters the Krebs cycle after condensation with citric acid h) is a substrate for the synthesis of some hormones

719. Lipase: a) participates in the synthesis of lipids b) belongs to hydrolytic enzymes c) cleaves triacylglycerols d) activates fatty acids e) participates in β-oxidation of fatty acids f) is hydrolase g) requires water as one of the reaction substrates h) can be pancreatic and lipoprotein

720. Which of the following statements about the synthesis of fatty acids is true: a) for their synthesis directly glycerol is used b) for their synthesis acetyl CoA is used c) multicellular organism cannot produce saturated fatty acids d) multicellular organism can produce essential fatty acids with more double-bonds e) it is an exergonic process f) it is an endergonic process g) it is a process catalyzed by lipase h) also occurs in adipocytes

721. Estrogens are: a) sex hormones b) the main product of ovary c) the main product of testicles d) under the control of adenohypophysis e) derivatives of pyridine f) derivatives of sterane g) synthesized from cholesterol h) hormones containing an aromatic ring

722. Following products are synthesized in the anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis): a) calcitonin b) prolactin c) testosterone d) gonadotropin e) adrenocorticotropic hormone f) growth hormone g) vasopressin h) antidiuretic hormone

723. Calcitonin: a) is a hormone of thyroid gland b) is a hormone of the parathyroid gland c) increases the calcium level in the blood d) enhances the release of calcium from bones e) promotes the deposition of calcium into bones

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f) is water insoluble g) is secreted into the blood after the decrease of plasma calcium level h) is composed of amino acids

724. Aldosterone: a) increases the blood sodium level b) increases excretion of potassium into the urine c) is of the steroid nature d) is synthesized from tyrosine in the adrenal medulla e) is structurally similar to epinephrine f) is synthesized in the adrenal cortex together with androgens g) increases the blood calcium level h) accelerates the heart rate

725. In the medulla of adrenal gland the following compound is formed: a) cortisol from cholesterol b) glucagon from amino acids c) epinephrine from tyrosine d) somatotropin from amino acids e) norepinephrine from cholesterol f) theophylline from pyrimidines g) catecholamines from aromatic amino acids h) adrenocorticotropic hormone from amino acids

726. Insulin: a) increases the entry of the glucose into the cells b) delays oxidation of glucose in the cells c) is of the peptide nature d) increases the conversion of carbohydrates to lipids e) promotes fat storage f) is synthesized in the exocrine part of the pancreas g) increases the blood glucose level h) decreases the blood glucose level

727. Which of the following compounds has the opposite effect of insulin on carbohydrate metabolism: a) cortisol b) follicle stimulating hormone c) aldosterone d) glucocorticoids e) epinephrine f) calcitonin g) glucagon h) hormones of the adrenal medulla

728. Testosterone: a) regulates the menstrual cycle b) promotes the synthesis of proteins c) is a hormone of the steroid nature d) is synthesized from cholesterol e) belongs to anabolic hormones f) is increasingly secreted in puberty g) promotes the development of secondary sexual characteristics

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h) increases the blood glucose level

729. Serum potassium level is controlled by: a) the thyroid gland b) the parathyroid gland c) the adrenal gland d) one of the steroid hormones e) aldosterone f) mineralocorticoids g) the liver h) one of the adrenal medulla hormones

730. The secretion of progesterone: a) is stimulated by a follicle stimulating hormone b) is increased by a luteinizing hormone c) is affected by the adenohypophysis d) stimulates one of the hormones of the posterior pituitary e) in men begins in puberty f) occurs from corpus luteum (the yellow endocrine body) g) depends on the insulin level h) is parallel to the secretion of estrogens

731. Steroid nature have: a) testosterone b) adrenocorticotropic hormone c) cholesterol d) bile pigments e) ergosterol f) gonadotropin g) estradiol h) aldosterone

732. Which of the following statements about the effects of hormones on tissues is true: a) estrogens cause a decrease in the uterine musculature b) testosterone increases the synthesis of muscle proteins c) calcitonin decreases the blood glucose level d) aldosterone increases the blood sodium level e) parathormone increases the renal phosphate excretion f) cortisol supports the synthesis of glucose from amino acids g) glucocorticoids increase the blood glucose level h) vasopressin supports water excretion in the kidney

733. Iodine deficiency disturbs directly: a) the function of the stomach b) the function of the pancreas c) the function of parathyroid glands d) the function of the thyroid gland e) the synthesis of parathormone f) the synthesis of thyroxine g) the synthesis of aldosterone h) the synthesis of amino acid tyrosine

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734. The synthesis of glycogen in liver cells is supported by: a) glucagon b) one of the pancreatic hormones c) epinephrine d) a hormone synthesized from cholesterol e) insulin f) amylase g) one of the hormones of the peptide nature h) a hormone synthesized in the thyroid gland

735. Testicles mainly produce: a) estradiol b) a steroid hormone c) gonadotropins d) a hormone synthesized from an aromatic amino acid e) an anabolic hormone f) a hormone supporting development of muscles g) androgens h) a hormone synthesized in the Graaf´s follicle

736. Riboflavin: a) belongs to the B-complex vitamins b) is a derivative of thiazole c) is a part of the coenzyme FAD d) belongs to heterocyclic compounds e) is a compound containing sulfur f) is water soluble g) is important for the course of oxidation-reduction reactions h) is a part of coenzyme A

737. Among the coenzymes of the amino acid metabolism, there does not belong: a) thiamine b) pantothenic acid c) ascorbic acid d) activated form of pyridoxine e) calciferol f) phosphorylated derivative of pyridoxine g) thiazole h) phosphorylated form of folic acid

738. Vitamin K is needed for: a) blood clotting b) absorption of lipids in the human small intestine c) photosynthesis d) absorption of calcium e) the synthesis of prothrombin f) the normal kidney function g) the synthesis of hemocoagulation factors h) the correct testicle function

739. For the production of red blood cells, the following substances are needed: a) a vitamin containing cobalt b) folic acid

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c) riboflavin d) vitamin B12 e) vitamin D f) vitamin A g) iron h) zinc

740. Retinol participates in: a) the decarboxylation of amino acids b) the transamination of amino acids c) the oxidation and reduction of amino acids d) the synthesis of carotene e) the process of vision f) the maturation of eggs in the ovary g) the regulation of the blood glucose level h) ensuring the proper function of epithelial cells

741. Vitamin D3: a) is of the plant origin b) is fat soluble c) increases the resorption of calcium in the small intestine d) increases the renal excretion of calcium e) is a heterocyclic compound f) is synthesized from cholesterol g) can be synthesized in human body h) is cholecalciferol

742. Which of the following compounds belong to essential factors for humans: a) linoleic acid b) ascorbic acid c) lactic acid d) malic acid e) citric acid f) pantothenic acid g) glutamic acid h) oleic acid

743. The sulfur atom is present in the molecule of: a) vitamin B1 b) riboflavin c) vitamin B6 d) pantothenic acid e) folic acid f) thiamine g) ascorbic acid h) methionine

744. Blood clotting disorders occur in: a) avitaminosis E b) hypervitaminosis A c) calcium deficiency d) lack of vitamin K

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e) disorders of the liver function f) disorders of the protein digestion and resorption g) the deficiency of the bile acids secretion h) hypovitaminosis of cobalamin

745. Scurvy is: a) the disorder of the connective tissue metabolism b) the disorder of the nervous tissue metabolism c) resulting from hypovitaminosis of folic acid d) resulting from a lack of vitamin C e) the disorder of collagen metabolism f) the result of ascorbic acid deficiency g) a disease of the central nervous system h) one of the consequences of vitamin C hypervitaminosis

746. Vitamin B12: a) is a heterocyclic compound b) is a derivative of pyrazole c) is a derivative of pyrrole d) contains cobalt e) has corrin as a basic structure f) is important for hematopoiesis g) contains iron in its molecule h) is a coenzyme of oxidation-reduction enzymes

747. Vitamins: a) are involved in the metabolism as coenzymes b) serve as a source of energy c) are absorbed in the small intestine d) can be formed by the bacterial flora activity in the colon e) are introduced into the organism only in the diet f) can be stored in the liver g) can also be synthesized in CNS h) can interfere with the oxidation-reduction processes

748. Carotene is: a) a provitamin b) vitamin A c) a terpene alcohol d) tetraterpene e) a factor, excess of which causes anaemia f) a water soluble substance g) a heterocyclic compound h) an orange-yellow pigment from carrots

749. Which of the following compounds does not belong to provitamins: a) riboflavin b) ergosterol c) pyridoxine d) β-carotene e) thyroxine f) retinol g) pepsinogen

162

h) folic acid

750. Coenzyme FAD contains the following compound in its molecule: a) vitamin B1 b) vitamin B2 c) vitamin B6 d) thiamine e) nicotinamide f) pyridoxine g) riboflavin h) adenine

163

CHEMISTRY - Multiple Choice Questions - ANSWERS

1. TFTTTFFT 51. FFTFFTFT 101. TFFTFFTF 151. TFTTTFTT 2. TTTFFFFF 52. FFFTFTFT 102. TTTTTTFF 152. TTTTTFFT 3. TFTTFFFF 53. FFFFTTTF 103. FTTFFTFT 153. TTFTFFTT 4. TTFFTFTT 54. FFTTFTFF 104. TTFTFFTF 154. TTFTTTFT 5. FFTFFFFF 55. TTFFTTTT 105. FFFFFTTF 155. TTTTTFFF 6. FFTFFFTF 56. FFFFFTFT 106. FTFFFFTT 156. FTTFTTFF 7. TTFTFTFT 57. FFTFTTFT 107. FTFTFTTT 157. FTFFFFFT 8. FFFTTFTF 58. TFFTFTFT 108. FTTTFFTT 158. FFTFFFFF 9. FTFTFFFT 59. FFTTFTTF 109. FTFTTFTF 159. FTFTTFTT 10. FTFFTFFF 60. FFTFFFTF 110. TTTFTFFT 160. TFFTFTTF 11. FFFTFTFT 61. TFFTFFTT 111. TFTFTTFT 161. TTTFTTFF 12. FFTTFTFF 62. FTFTFTFT 112. TFFFFFTT 162. TTTFFTFT 13. FTFFFTTT 63. TFTTFTFF 113. TTFTFTFT 163. FTTFTTTF 14. FTFFTTTF 64. FTFFTFFF 114. FTFTFFFT 164. TTFFTFFT 15. FTFFTFTT 65. TFTFTTFT 115. FFTFFFFT 165. TFTFFTFT 16. FTTTFTTT 66. FTFTFFTF 116. TTTFTTTF 166. FTFFTTFF 17. TTFFTTTT 67. TTFTTFFF 117. FTTFTFTF 167. TFFTTFFT 18. TTFFFFTF 68. FFTFTFFF 118. TFFTTFTT 168. FFTTTFTF 19. TTTFTFFF 69. TFTFTFFF 119. TFFFFTTT 169. TTFTFFTT 20. TTFFTFTF 70. FTTFFTFF 120. TFFTTFFT 170. TFTFTFTF 21. TFTTTFTF 71. FTFTTTFF 121. FTTFFFFF 171. TTFTTFTF 22. TFFTTTFF 72. TFTTFFTT 122. FFTFFFTF 172. FFTTTFTT 23. TTTFTFTT 73. FTTFTTTF 123. FFFTFFFF 173. TFTFTFFT 24. FTTFTFFT 74. TTTTTFTT 124. TTTFTTFF 174. TFTFTTFT 25. TFTTFTFT 75. FTFFFTTT 125. TTFFTFFT 175. TTTFTFFT 26. FFFFFFTF 76. FFFTTTFT 126. FFFTFFFF 176. TFTTFTFT 27. FFFFFFTF 77. TFTTFTTF 127. FTFTTTFF 177. TTFFTTFF 28. FTTFTFTT 78. FTTTFFFF 128. FFTFTTFF 178. FTTFTTTF 29. TTFTTFTT 79. FFFFTTFT 129. TTFTFFFF 179. FTFFTTTF 30. TTTFFTFF 80. TTTFFFTT 130. FTFFTTFF 180. FFFTFFFF 31. TTFFTFFT 81. TFTFTFTT 131. TTFTTFTF 181. FFFTFFFF 32. FFTFFFFF 82. FTFTFTTT 132. FFTTTFFF 182. FTFTTFTF 33. TFTTTFFT 83. FFTFFTFT 133. FFFTFTFF 183. TFFTFTFT 34. TFTTTTTT 84. TFFTFFFT 134. TTFTFFFT 184. FTTTFFTF 35. TFTTTFTT 85. FTTFFFTF 135. TTTFFTTT 185. TTFFTTFT 36. TFFFTFFT 86. TFFTFFFT 136. FTFFTTFF 186. FTFFTTFT 37. FTTFFFTF 87. TFTFFFFT 137. TFFFFFFT 187. FFTFTTTF 38. FFTFTFFF 88. TTTTFFTF 138. FFTFTFFF 188. FFTFFTTT 39. FTTFTFFF 89. TFTFTTTT 139. FTFFTTFT 189. FFTFFFFF 40. TFTFTFFF 90. TFFTTTFT 140. TFFTTTFT 190. TFTTTTFF 41. TFTFFTTF 91. TTTTTFFT 141. FTFTTTFT 191. FTTFTTTF 42. TTTTFFFF 92. TFTFFTTF 142. TFFTTTTT 192. FTTFTTTF 43. TFTFFFFT 93. FTFTFFTT 143. FFTFFTFF 193. FFTFFFTF 44. TFFFFFTT 94. FTFFFFFF 144. FFTFFFFF 194. FFFTFTFF 45. TTFFFFTT 95. FTTTTFTT 145. TTFTTFFT 195. FFFFTTFF 46. TFTFTFFT 96. FTTTFFFF 146. TFTFFFFT 196. FFTFTFFF 47. FFTTFFFF 97. TFFTFFTF 147. FTFTFFTT 197. FFTFFFFF 48. TFFTTFFF 98. FFFTFFFF 148. TTTFFTFT 198. FFFFFTFF 49. FTFTFTFF 99. FTTTFFFF 149. TFFTTFTF 199. FFFTFFFF 50. FTFTFFTF 100. TFTFFFTF 150. TTFFTTTF 200. TFTFTTFT

164

201. FTFFTFFT 253. FTFTFTTF 305. FTFFFTTF 357. TFTFTTTT 202. TFFFTTFF 254. TFFTFTTF 306. FFTTFFFT 358. TTTFTTFT 203. FTFTFTFT 255. FTTTFTFF 307. TTFFTTTT 359. TTTTTTFT 204. FFTFFTTF 256. TFTFFTFT 308. FTFFFFFT 360. TTFTTTTT 205. FTTFTTFF 257. TFFTFFTT 309. TTFFFTTF 361. FFTFFFTF 206. FFFTFTTF 258. TTFTFTFT 310. TFTTTFTF 362. FFFTFFFT 207. FFFTTFFT 259. FFTTFTTF 311. TFTTTTTT 363. TFFTTTFT 208. FFTFTFFT 260. FTTFTTFT 312. TFTFFTFT 364. TFFTTTFF 209. FFTFFTFT 261. FTTFFTTF 313. FFTTFTFT 365. FFFTFTTF 210. FFTFFTFF 262. FFTTTFFF 314. TTTFTFTF 366. TTTTFTFT 211. FTFFTTFF 263. TFFTFTFT 315. FTFFTTFT 367. FTTFFFTF 212. FFTFTTFT 264. TFFTFFTT 316. FTFTTTTF 368. FTFFFTFF 213. FFTTTFFF 265. FTFTFTTF 317. FFFFFTTF 369. TTTFTTTT 214. FTFTFTTF 266. FFTFFTFT 318. TTFFTTFF 370. FTTFTFFF 215. FTFFFFTT 267. TTTFTTFF 319. FTFTTFTT 371. FTTTTFTT 216. FTTFTFFT 268. FFTFTFFF 320. TFTFTFTT 372. FFTFTFFF 217. FTFTTTFF 269. TTTFFTTF 321. TTFFFTTT 373. TFTTFFFF 218. FFTTFTFT 270. FFTTFFFF 322. FTTFFTTF 374. TTTTTTFF 219. FTFTTTTF 271. TTTTTFFF 323. FFTTTFTF 375. FFTFTFFT 220. TFFFTFTT 272. FFFTFFFF 324. TFFFTTFT 376. TFTTTFFF 221. FTFTFTFF 273. TFFTTFFT 325. TFTFTFTT 377. FTFFTFFF 222. TFTFFTTF 274. TTTTFFFF 326. TTFTFFTT 378. FTTTFTFT 223. FFTTFTFF 275. FFTTFFFF 327. FTTFTFTT 379. FTFFFTTT 224. FFFTFTFF 276. TFTFTTFT 328. FTFFFFTF 380. FTFTTTTF 225. TFTFTFFT 277. FTTTFTTT 329. TFFTTFTF 381. TFFFFFTF 226. FTTFFFTT 278. TTFFFFFF 330. TTTTTFFT 382. FFTFFTFF 227. FTFTTFTF 279. TTFFFFTT 331. TTTFFFTF 383. FTFFTFFT 228. TFFTFTTF 280. FFTTTTFF 332. TFTTTTFF 384. FTFFTFTF 229. FTFFTFTT 281. FFTFTTFT 333. FTFTFTFF 385. FTTTFFFT 230. FTFFTTFT 282. TFTTTFTF 334. FFFFTFFT 386. TTFFTFFF 231. TFTTTFFT 283. TTTFFTTF 335. FTTFFFTT 387. FTFFTTTF 232. TFTTFFFT 284. FTFTTFTT 336. TFFTTFTF 388. FTFTFTFT 233. TFFTFTTT 285. TTFFTTTT 337. TTFFFTFF 389. FTTFFTFF 234. TFTFTTFF 286. TFTFFTFT 338. TFTTTFTT 390. TFTTFFFF 235. TFTTFTTF 287. TTFFTTTT 339. FTFTFFTF 391. FTTTFTTT 236. FTFTTFTT 288. TTTTTTTT 340. FTTFTFFT 392. TFTFFTFF 237. FTTFTTTF 289. TTTTFFFF 341. TFTFTFFF 393. FTFFFFFF 238. FTTTFFFF 290. TFFFTFFF 342. FTFFFFFF 394. TFTTFTTF 239. FTTFFFFT 291. FFTFFFFF 343. TFTFTTTT 395. FTTFFTFF 240. FTTFTFTF 292. FFTTFTFT 344. TTFTTTTT 396. FFTFFTFT 241. TFFFTFTF 293. TFFTFTTT 345. FTFFTFTF 397. FTFFTFFT 242. FFTFTFFF 294. TFFFFTTT 346. TTTFFFTT 398. TTFFFTFT 243. FFTFFFFF 295. TFFFTTFF 347. FTTFFTTF 399. TTFTTFTF 244. FFFFFTTT 296. TFTTTFTT 348. FFFFFTTF 400. TFFTFFFF 245. FFTTTTFF 297. FFFFFTFF 349. FTFFTFFF 401. FTFTFTTF 246. FFFTTTTF 298. FTFTFTTT 350. FFFTTTTF 402. TFFTFTTF 247. FTFFTFFT 299. FTFTTTTF 351. TFTFFFFT 403. FTTTFTTT 248. FTFFTFFF 300. TTFTFTFT 352. FFTFTFFF 404. TTFFTTTT 249. FFTTFTFF 301. FFTFFTFT 353. TTTTFTTT 405. TTTFFTFT 250. FFTFTTFF 302. TFFTTFTT 354. TTTTFFTT 406. TFTTFTTT 251. FFTTFTTF 303. TFFFFFFF 355. FTFFTFTF 407. FTFFTTFT 252. TFFFFFTT 304. TTFFTFFF 356. FTTFTFFF 408. TFTTTFFF

164

409. TFTFTFFT 461. FTFFFTTF 513. TTTFFTTF 565. TTFTTFTF 410. FTTFFTFT 462. TFFFFTFF 514. TFTTTTTF 566. TFTTFFTF 411. TFTFTFFT 463. FTFFTFTT 515. FTFFFTTF 567. FFTTTFTT 412. TFTFTTFF 464. TFTFFTTT 516. TFFTTFFT 568. TFFFFTTF 413. FFTTTFFT 465. TFTFFTTT 517. TFFFTTTF 569. FFTFFFTT 414. FTTTTFFT 466. TFTTTFTT 518. FTTTTFTF 570. FTTTFFTT 415. TFTTTFTT 467. TFTTFFTT 519. TFTTTTFT 571. TTFTTTFF 416. FFTFTFFF 468. FFTFTFFF 520. FTTFFFFF 572. TFFTFFFT 417. TFFFFFFT 469. TFTTFFFF 521. TTTFTTFF 573. FFTFFFFT 418. FTFFTFTF 470. TFFTTFTT 522. FFFTFTFT 574. FTFTFFTT 419. TTFTFFFT 471. FFTFTFFT 523. FTTFFFFT 575. FFTTFTFT 420. TFFTFFTF 472. FTTFFTFF 524. TTFTTFFT 576. TFFFTFTF 421. TTTFTTTT 473. FFFTFFFF 525. TFTFFTFT 577. FTFTFTFT 422. FTFFFTFF 474. FFTFFTFT 526. TTFFTTFF 578. FFFTFFFT 423. TTFFFTFT 475. FFTTTTTF 527. FTFFTTTF 579. TTFFTFFT 424. TTFFTFFT 476. TFTTFFFF 528. TTTTFTFT 580. TFTFFTTF 425. FTFTFTFT 477. FTFFFFFT 529. TTTFTFFF 581. TFFTFTTT 426. FTTFTFTF 478. FFTFTFTF 530. TFFTFTFT 582. TTFFFTFT 427. TFTTTFFF 479. FFTFFFTF 531. FTFFFFTF 583. TTTTFFFT 428. FFFTTFFT 480. FFTFTFFT 532. TFFFTFFT 584. TTTFFTTT 429. TFFFTTFF 481. TFTFFFTT 533. FTFFTFFT 585. FTFFTTFT 430. TTFTTTFF 482. FTFTFTTT 534. TTFTTTFF 586. FTTFTFTT 431. FFTFFTFF 483. FFTFFFTT 535. FFTTFFTF 587. TFTFFTFT 432. TFTFFTTF 484. FFTTTFFF 536. FTFTTFFF 588. FFTFFFFT 433. TTFFTTFF 485. FTFFTFFT 537. TTFTTFTT 589. TTTFFFFT 434. FFTFFFFF 486. FTFTFTTT 538. FFTFTFFT 590. TFTFFFFF 435. TTFTFTTF 487. TFFFFTTT 539. TTFFTFTF 591. TTTFTFFF 436. FFTFFFFF 488. FFTFFFFF 540. TFTFFTTT 592. TTTFTTFT 437. FFFFTFFT 489. TFTTTTFT 541. FTTFFFTT 593. FFTFTFFF 438. FFFFFTFF 490. FTFFTFFF 542. FFTTTFTF 594. FFTTFFFF 439. TTTTFFTT 491. FFTFFFFF 543. FTTFTFTF 595. TFFTTTFT 440. FTFFFTFF 492. FFFTFFFF 544. FFTFFFTF 596. TFTFTTFF 441. TFFTFTFT 493. FTTFTTTF 545. TTTFTFTF 597. TTTFTFFT 442. TTFTFFTT 494. FTFTFTFT 546. TFFFFTFT 598. TTFFFTTF 443. TFFFTFFF 495. TTFFTFFF 547. FTFTFTFT 599. TTTTTFFF 444. FFFTTTTF 496. FTTFFFFF 548. FTFFFFFF 600. FFTFFTFT 445. TFTFTFTF 497. FFTTFFFT 549. TTFFFTFT 601. TTFFTTFT 446. FTFFFFTF 498. TFTFTFTF 550. FFFFFTTF 602. TFFTFFTT 447. FTTTFFFF 499. FFTFTTTF 551. FFFTTFFT 603. TTTFFFFT 448. FFFFFTFF 500. TFTFFFFF 552. FFTTFTTF 604. TFTFFFTF 449. TFTFFFFT 501. FFTTFFTT 553. TFFTTTFF 605. TFFFTFTF 450. FFTTFFTF 502. FTFTTFFT 554. TFFTTTFT 606. FTFFTFTF 451. FTFTTFTF 503. FFFFFTFT 555. FFTTTFFT 607. TFFTTFFF 452. TFFTTTFF 504. FFTFFTFF 556. TFFFTFFF 608. TTFTTTTT 453. FTFTFFTF 505. FFTTFFTT 557. FFFFFTTT 609. FFTFFFFT 454. FTTFTFTF 506. TTFFTFTF 558. TTFTTTTF 610. FTFTTTTF 455. FTTFTFTT 507. FTFTFTFF 559. TFTFTTFT 611. FTFFFTFT 456. TFFFTTFF 508. FTTFTFTT 560. FFFTTFTT 612. FTFTTTTT 457. FTFFFFTF 509. TFTTFTFT 561. FFFTFTTF 613. TTFTFTFT 458. FFTFFFTT 510. TFTFFTFT 562. FTTFFTFT 614. TFTTFFTT 459. FTFFFFFT 511. TFFFTFTT 563. FFTTFTFT 615. TTTFTFFF 460. TFFFFFFT 512. TFTTTFFT 564. FFFTFTTF 616. FFTTFTFF

165

617. FTTFTTFT 669. FTTFTTFT 721. TTFTFTTT 618. FTFTTFFT 670. FTTFTTFF 722. FTFTTTFF 619. FTFFFTFT 671. TTFFTFTF 723. TFFFTFFT 620. TFFFTTFF 672. TTTFFFTT 724. TTTFFTFF 621. FTFFTFFF 673. TTTFFTFF 725. FFTFFFTF 622. FTFFFFFT 674. TFFTFTTT 726. TFTTTFFT 623. TFFFTFTF 675. FTTFTFTT 727. TFFTTFTT 624. TTFFTFTF 676. TFTTTFTT 728. FTTTTTTF 625. FFTFTFFF 677. TTFFFTTF 729. FFTTTTFF 626. FTFFTFTF 678. FTTFTTTF 730. FTTFFTFF 627. TTTFTFFF 679. FFFTFTFT 731. TFTFTFTT 628. TFTFTTFF 680. TTTFFTFT 732. FTFTTTTF 629. TFFTFFFF 681. TFFTTFTF 733. FFFTFTFF 630. FTFFFTFF 682. TFTTFFTT 734. FTFFTFTF 631. FTTFFFTF 683. TTFTFTFT 735. FTFFTTTF 632. TTTTFTTF 684. FTTTFTTF 736. TFTTFTTF 633. TFTFFFFT 685. FTTTTFTF 737. TTTFTFTT 634. TFFTFFFF 686. TTTTFFFT 738. TFTFTFTF 635. TFFTTFFT 687. TTFFFTFT 739. TTFTFFTF 636. FTFFFFFF 688. FTFFTFTT 740. FFFFTFFT 637. TTTTFTFF 689. FFTTFFFT 741. FTTFFTTT 638. FFFTFFFF 690. TTTTFFFT 742. TTFFFTFF 639. TFFTFTFT 691. TTFFFTTT 743. TFFFFTFT 640. FTFFFFFT 692. FTTFFFTF 744. FFTTTFTF 641. FTFFTFFF 693. FTFFFTTF 745. TFFTTTFF 642. FTFFTTFF 694. TTTFTTFT 746. TFTTTTFF 643. TFTFFTFF 695. TFTTFTFT 747. TFTTFTFT 644. FTTTTTTT 696. TTFFFFFF 748. TFFTFFFT 645. TTFFTTFF 697. TFFFFTFT 749. TFTFTTTT 646. FTFTFFTT 698. FTFFTTTT 750. FTFFFFTT 647. TTFFFFFT 699. TFFFTFFF 648. FTFFFFFT 700. FTTFFTTT 649. TFFTFFFF 701. FFTTTTTF 650. TFTFFTFT 702. TFFFTFTF 651. TTFTTTTF 703. FTTFFFFT 652. TFFTTFTF 704. TTFTTFFT 653. FTTTFTTT 705. TTFTTFTF 654. TFFTTFTT 706. TFFFTTFT 655. TTTFTFTT 707. TFTTTTTT 656. FTFTTFTF 708. TFTTTTTT 657. FTFFFFTF 709. FTTTTFFT 658. FTTFFTTT 710. TTTFFTFF 659. FTFTFFFT 711. TFTFFTTT 660. TFFTTTFT 712. TTTFTTFT 661. TFTTTTFF 713. TTTFTFTF 662. TTTTFFFT 714. TTFFTTTF 663. FTTFTTTF 715. FTTTTFTT 664. TTFFTTFT 716. TTFFTFTT 665. TFFTTFFT 717. TFTTTTTT 666. TFFTTFTT 718. TTTTTFFT 667. TFFFTTFT 719. FTTFFTTT 668. TTTFFFFT 720. FTFFFTFT

166

Comenius University in Bratislava, Faculty of Medicine

Chemistry Booklet Issued by Comenius University in Bratislava Extent 168 pages, printing 400, printed in October 2020