PRE-Mix (Compilations of the Multiple Choice Questions) For the 1st Week Of August 2021
(2nd August to 7th August)
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Also Available: Prelims Crash Course || Prelims Test Series T.me/SleepyClasses Table of Contents 1. Geography ...... 1 2. History & Culture ...... 5 3. Polity &Governance ...... 8 4. Economy ...... 11 5. Environment ...... 14 6. Science & Technology ...... 18
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1. Arrange the following Seas from south to • The Celebes Sea of the western Pacifc north: Ocean is bordered on the north by the Sulu Archipelago and Sulu Sea and Mindanao 1. Sulu Sea Island of the Philippines, on the east by the 2. Banda Sea Sangihe Islands chain, on the south by 3. Celebes Sea Sulawesi’s Minahasa Peninsula, and on the west by northern Kalimantan in Indonesia. Choose the Correct Option: Banda Sea A. 1–2- 3 • The Banda Sea is a sea in the Maluku B. 2 - 1 -3 Islands of Indonesia, connected to the C. 2–3- 1 Pacifc Ocean but surrounded by hundreds D. 3 – 2 - 1 of islands, as well as the Halmahera and Ceram Seas. Answer: C Explanation • Sulu Sea is located in the northern most position, followed by Celebes Sea and Banda Sea. Indonesia lies between latitudes 11°S and 6°N, and longitudes 95°E and 141°E. • It is the world’s largest archipelagic country, extending 5,120 kilometres (3,181 mi) from east to west and 1,760 kilometres (1,094 mi) from north to south. The islands of Indonesia are separated by many water bodies (seas). Sulu Sea • Sulu sea is a body of water in the south- western area of the Philippines separated from the South China Sea in the northwest by Palawan and from the Celebes Sea in the southeast by the Sulu Archipelago. • Borneo is found to the southwest and Visayas to the northeast. 2. Consider the Following statement about Celebes Sea Placer Deposits: 1. Placer is an accumulation of valuable minerals formed by gravity separation from a specifc source rock during sedimentary processes. www.sleepyclasses.com Available on App store 1 Call 1800 - 890 - 3043 and Play Store T.me/SleepyClasses 2. Gold, Diamond and Platinum group 3. Consider the following statements about metals are mined from placer deposits Northeast India’s geography: Choose the Correct Statement/(s): 1. Betlingchhip is the highest peak of Tripura. A. 1 only 2. The state has a tropical Monsoon B. 2 only climate, designated Aw under the C. Both 1 and 2 Köppen climate classifcation. D. None of the above Choose the correct statements: Answer: C A. 1 only Explanation B. 2 only • In geology, a placer deposit or placer is an C. Both 1 and 2 accumulation of valuable minerals formed D. None of the above by gravity separation from a specifc source rock during sedimentary processes. Answer: A • Types of placer deposits include alluvium, Explanation eluvium, beach placers, aeolian placers and • Betlingchhip, also known as Betalongchhip, paleo-placers. Balinchhip and Thaidawr is the highest • Some of the substances commercially peak of the Jampui Hills. It is located in the mined from placer deposits include: state of Tripura. ✓Diamonds • The state has a tropical savannah climate, designated Aw under the Köppen climate ✓Gold classifcation. ✓Garnet • The undulating topography leads to local ✓Iron, from iron sands containing high variations, particularly in the hill ranges. concentrations of magnetite Wladimir Köppen (1846 - 1940), a German ✓Platinum group metals Climatologist, gave a detailed climate classif c a t i o n a n d h i s f r s t - e v e r Why in news? classifcation came in 1918 and continued • The Geological Survey of India has provided to refne and modify it. The last modifed us valuable information pertaining to the version of his classifcation was published in gold reserves in India. 1936. • India has 501.83 million tonnes of gold ore • This classifcation was done with the usage reserves as of April 1, 2015, according to of different kinds of symbols which National Mineral Inventory data. Out of represent different meanings and climate. these, 17.22 million tonnes were placed • Majorly, the climate classifcation was done under reserves category and the rest under into fve major groups along with one more remaining resources category. type which was considered a special • The largest reserves of gold ores are category. located in Bihar (44 per cent), followed by Rajasthan (25 per cent), Karnataka (21 per cent), West Bengal (3 per cent), Andhra Pradesh (3 per cent), Jharkhand (2 per cent). Available on App store www.sleepyclasses.com 2 and Play Store Call 1800 - 890 - 3043 T.me/SleepyClasses • The fve major climate groups are Explanation represented by capital letters i.e A, B, C, D, • The Ganges is a trans-boundary river of and E. Among these major groups, only B Asia which fows through India and belongs to the dry type of climate whereas Bangladesh. The 2,525 km (1,569 mi) river others are humid climate groups. rises in the western Himalayas in the Indian • These major groups are further divided into state of Uttarakhand, and subtypes on the basis of their features like • fows south and east through the Gangetic temperature and precipitation or level of Plain of North India into Bangladesh, where dryness or coldness, etc. it empties into the Bay of Bengal. Due to the proposed plans to develop a • • Supporting over 11% of world's population plan regarding the Agarwood trees in as it passes through the densest populated Tripura, the climate of the little state comes regions on the planet, it is the third largest into picture. river on Earth by discharge. The Agar species are critically endangered • • Major left-bank tributaries include the but in Tripura, due to adaptability of the Gomti River, Ghaghara River, Gandaki land and low input for management and River, and Kosi River; major right-bank growth, intercropping adaptation could tributaries include the Yamuna River, Son make Agar a preferred cash crop. River, Punpun and Damodar. Hence, in order to promote Agar tree, • • In July 2014, the Government of India Agarwood based industry, its plantation, its announced an integrated Ganges- sustainable harvesting, the Tripura development project titled Namami Ganga government released the ‘Tripura and allocated ₹ 2,037 crore for this AgarWood Policy 2021,’ which aims to purpose. double agarwood plantation by the year In March 2017 the High Court of 2025. The potential of Agar trade Uttarakhand declared the Ganges River a estimated to around ₹ 2000 crore. legal “person”, in a move that according to one newspaper, “could help in efforts to 4. Which of the following are the right–bank clean the pollution- choked rivers.” tributaries of the Ganga?
1. Gomti 5. Consider the following statements: 2. Son 1. Kuroshio cold current fows through the 3. Punpun Bering Strait in southerly direction and thus transports cold water of the Arctic 4. Damodar Sea into the Pacifc Ocean. 5. Kosi 2. The waters of the Oyashio Current Choose the correct option: originate in the Arctic Ocean and fow A. 1 and 2 only southward via the Bering Sea. B. 2 and 3 only Choose the correct statement/(s): C. 2, 3 and 4 A. 1 only D. All except 5 B. 2 only Answer: C C. Both 1 and 2 www.sleepyclasses.com Available on App store 3 Call 1800 - 890 - 3043 and Play Store T.me/SleepyClasses D. None of the above Answer: B Explanation • The Oyashio cold current is also known as Kurile cold current. This cold current fows through the Bering Strait in southerly direction and thus transports cold water of the Arctic Sea into the Pacifc Ocean. • The Kuroshio System consists of several currents and drifts are similar to the Gulf Stream system of the Atlantic Ocean. • The Kuroshio , also known as the Black or Japan Current or the Black Stream, is a north-fowing, warm ocean current on the west side of the North Pacifc Ocean. • Like the Gulf Stream in the North Atlantic, the Kuroshio is a powerful western boundary current and forms the western limb of the North Pacifc Subtropical Gyre. • The Oyashio cold current is also known as Kurile cold current. This cold current fows through the Bering Strait in southerly direction and thus transports cold water of the Arctic Sea into the Pacifc Ocean. • The Kuroshio System consists of several currents and drifts are similar to the Gulf Stream system of the Atlantic Ocean. • The Kuroshio , also known as the Black or Japan Current or the Black Stream, is a north-fowing, warm ocean current on the west side of the North Pacifc Ocean. • Like the Gulf Stream in the North Atlantic, the Kuroshio is a powerful western boundary current and forms the western limb of the North Pacifc Subtropical Gyre.
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1. Consider the following statements with 2. What was the part of land granted by the respect to Dholavira. sultan to military chiefs for maintenance of a given number of troopers called? 1. It is the second site of the ancient Indus Valley Civilisation in India to get the tag A. Muahatsib of UNESCO world heritage. B. Iqta 2. It is fourth site from Gujarat to make the C. Nazir list of UNESCO world heritage sites. D. Usharaf 3. The origin of the Buddhist Stupas lies in the memorials in Dholavira. Answer: B Which of the above statements is/are Explanation correct? • Under Iqta System, the land of the empire A. 1 only was divided into several large and small tracts called Iqta and assigned these Iqtas B. 2 and 3 only to his soldiers, offcers and nobles. In the C. 1 and 3 only beginning, an Iqta was based upon salary. Later, under Firoz ShahTughlaq, it became D. 1, 2 and 3 hereditary. Answer: B Explanation • Dholavira, the archaeological site of a Harappan-era city, received the UNESCO world heritage site tag. • While Dholavira became the fourth site from Gujarat and 40th from India to make • The agricultural and land revenue system of the list, it is the frst site of the ancient the early Turkish Sultans rested on two Indus Valley Civilisation (IVC) in India to get foundations viz. the Iqta (assignment of the tag. land revenue) and Kharaj (Land Revenue). • After Mohen-jo-Daro, Ganweriwala and • The Iqta system provided an agrarian Harappa in Pakistan and Rakhigarhi in system to the country while the members Haryana of India, Dholavira is the ffth of the ruling class attained income without largest metropolis of IVC. any permanent attachment to any territory. • The site has a fortifed citadel, a middle • The Iqta system was provided institutional town and a lower town with walls made of status by Iltutmish and later this system sandstone or limestone instead of mud became the mainstay of the sultanate bricks in many other Harappan sites. administration under slave dynasty.
www.sleepyclasses.com Available on App store 5 Call 1800 - 890 - 3043 and Play Store T.me/SleepyClasses 3. Consider the following statements about Explanation Lingayat tradition. 1. Lingayats encouraged post-puberty marriage and the remarriage of widows. 2. Lingayats emerged as a reactionary force against Jainism in the twelfth century. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 only • Aihole was once the capital of the Chalukya Dynasty, and is a city with a rich and B. 2 only illustrious history. C. Both 1 and 2 • It has great cultural signifcance as the D. None of the above cradle of Hindu temple architecture, and Answer: A has more than 125 temples in and around it. Explanation • Aihole is an archaeologists’ delight with Hinduism being an amorphous religion has • several temples dating back to Chalukyan seen branches of sub-traditions and times. oppositional traditions since time immemorial. • Aihole is a historic site of ancient and medieval era Buddhist, Hindu and Jain The Lingayats too emerged as a reactionary • monuments in north Karnataka (India) force against Hinduism in the twelfth dated from the fourth century through the century. twelfth century CE. • While it rejected most of the broad Hindu traditions, it also assimilated aspects of it, making the demand for a separate religious 5. Which of the following places of India have status a rather complicated affair. been recognised under UNESCO’s Historic Urban Landscape Project? • The Lingayats also encouraged certain p r a c t i c e s d i s a p p r o v e d i n t h e 1. Gwalior Dharmashastras, such as post-puberty 2. Mysore marriage and the remarriage of widows. 3. Varanasi 4. Ajmer 4. Aihole is called the 'Cradle of Indian Temple Select the correct code. Architecture'. It is related to which dynasty? A. 1, 2 and 4 A. Cholas B. 2, 3 and 4 B. Cheras C. 1, 3 and 4 C. Chalukyas D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 D. Pandyas Answer: C Answer: C Explanation
Available on App store www.sleepyclasses.com 6 and Play Store Call 1800 - 890 - 3043 T.me/SleepyClasses • MP government has launched the UNESCO’s Historic Urban Landscape Project in Gwalior and Orchha in a virtual event with UNESCO representatives and other senior offcials of the state. • Only eight cities in the entire South Asian region have been recognised under the UNESCO’s Historic Urban Landscape Project and Varanasi and Ajmer are the other two Indian cities recognised by UNESCO under the project. • The city of Gwalior hosts the historic Gwalior Fort, Scindia Royal Palace called Jai Vilas Palace and other monuments of tourist interest. • Similarly, Orchha is also considered a riveting tourist destination among people residing in neighbouring cities and states. • Being part of the UNESCO missions and projects not only brings technical and fnancial assistance for the development of the place but also attracts a large number of international tourists whose itinerary begins from visiting top UNESCO recognised sites.
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1. Recently, NISHTHA initiative was 2. Consider the following statements with launched. Consider the following respect to Juvenile Justice (Care and statements with respect to the same. Protection of Children) Amendment Bill, 2021. 1. The initiative has been launched by Ministry of MSME. 1. Offences punishable with imprisonment (less than 7 years) will be tried by any 2. The initiative will focus on generating Judicial Magistrate. resources for young entrepreneurs. 2. The Bill adds that serious offences will Which of the above statements is/are also include offences for which incorrect? maximum punishment is imprisonment A. 1 only of more than seven years. B. 2 only Which of the above statements is/are C. Both 1 and 2 correct? D. None of the above A. 1 only Answer: C B. 2 only Explanation C. Both 1 and 2 • NISHTHA : National Initiative for School D. None of the above H e a d s ' a n d Te a c h e r s ' H o l i s t i c Answer: B Advancement Explanation • It is an initiative to build capacities of teachers and school principals at the • The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection elementary stage. of Children) Act, 2015 states that adoption of a child is fnal on the issuance of an The initiative is an Integrated Teacher • adoption order by the civil court. Training Programme of the Department of School Education and Literacy, Ministry of • The Bill provides that instead of the court, HRD as part of its National Mission to the district magistrate (including additional improve learning outcomes at the district magistrate) will issue such adoption Elementary level under the Centrally orders. Sponsored Scheme of Samagra Shiksha Under the 2015 Act offences committed by during 2019-20. • juveniles are categorised as heinous • Due to COVID-19 and to provide offences, serious offences, and petty continuous development opportunities to offences. Serious offences include offences the teachers at the elementary level, this with three to seven years of imprisonment. Department has launched NISHTHA online using DIKSHA platform in October 2020.
Available on App store www.sleepyclasses.com 8 and Play Store Call 1800 - 890 - 3043 T.me/SleepyClasses ✓The Bill adds that serious offences will • The functions of the Commission as laid also include offences for which maximum down in Section 9(1) of the Act are related punishment is imprisonment of more to the six notifed minority communities i.e. than seven years, and minimum Jain (2014) , Parsi, Sikh, Christian, Buddhist punishment is not prescribed or is less and Muslim. than seven years.
4. Which of the following agencies act as the nodal body for adoption of Indian children? 3. Consider the following statements with respect to National Commission for A. Indian Council For Child Welfare Minorities (NCM). B. Central Adoption Resource Authority 1. The frst Statutory National Commission C. Central Child Welfare Committee for Minorities (NCM) was set up in 1993 under Ministry of Minority Affairs. D. None of the above
2. The functions of the Commission are Answer: B related to the six notifed minority Explanation communities. Central Adoption Resource Authority Which of the above statements is/are • (CARA) is a statutory body of Ministry of incorrect? Women & Child Development, Government A. 1 only of India. B. 2 only • It functions as the nodal body for adoption of Indian children and is mandated to C. Both 1 and 2 monitor and regulate in- country and inter- D. None of the above country adoptions. Answer: A • CARA is designated as the Central Authority to deal with inter-country Explanation adoptions in accordance with the • The National Commission for Minorities provisions of the Hague Convention on (NCM) has informed that the erstwhile Inter-country Adoption, 1993, ratifed by Minority Commission in its Annual Reports Government of India in 2003. (1981-82, 1982-83), had recommended for CARA primarily deals with adoption of setting up of a Committee to consider the • orphan, abandoned and surrendered need for considering and, if necessary, to children through its associated / recognised formulate a scheme to establish a National adoption agencies. I n t e g r a t i o n - c u m - H u m a n R i g h t s Commission for promotion of secular traditions and national integration. • The frst Statutory NCM was set up on 17th May 1993 under Ministry of Home Affairs Resolution.
www.sleepyclasses.com Available on App store 9 Call 1800 - 890 - 3043 and Play Store T.me/SleepyClasses 5. Consider the following statements with respect to I-MESA.
1. The scheme has been formulated by Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
2. Under this scheme, Financial Audits are to be conducted for all the schemes of the Department starting FY 2021-22.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None of the above
Answer: A
Explanation • The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment has formulated a scheme, namely InformationMonitoring, Evaluation and Social Audit (I- MESA) in FY 2021-22. • Under this scheme, Social Audits are to be conducted for all the schemes of the Department starting FY 2021-22. • These social audits are done through Social Audit Units (SAU) of the States and National Institute for Rural Development and Panchayati Raj. • Social Audit is much more holistic having a g r e a t e r s c o p e f o r m e a s u r i n g , understanding and improving the social performance of an activity of an organization.
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1. Recently 108 training programmes were 2. The platform has been developed by organized for the awareness of the farmers Reserve Bank of India. under Pandit Deen Dayal Upadhyay Unnat 3. e-RUPI is expected to ensure a leak- Krishi Shiksha Yojana (PDDUUKSY). The proof delivery of welfare services. scheme is under which of the following agencies? Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. Education Division of ICAR A. 1 only B. Krishi Vigyan Kendras B. 2 only C. Chaudhary Charan Singh National Institute of Agricultural Marketing C. 1 and 3 only
D. National Skill Training Institute D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A Answer: C
Explanation Explanation • Pandit Deen Dayal Upadhyay Unnat Krishi • e-RUPI is a cashless and contactless digital Shiksha Yojana (PDDUUKSY) was launched payments medium, which will be delivered to develop human resource in organic to mobile phones of benefciaries in form of farming, natural farming and cow based an SMS- string or a QR code. economy for environmental sustenance This will essentially be like a prepaid gift- and soil health. • voucher that will be redeemable at specifc • The scheme is under Ministry of accepting centres without any credit or Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, debit card, a mobile app or internet implemented by Education Division of banking. ICAR. • e-RUPI will connect the sponsors of the • Three ICAR institutes viz, National services with the benefciaries and service Academy of Agricultural Research providers in a digital manner without any Management (NAARM), Hyderabad; physical interface. Central Institute for Women In Agriculture The benefciaries will be identifed using (CIWA), Bhubaneswar and National • their mobile number and a voucher Institute of Agricultural Economics and allocated by a bank to the service provider Policy Research (NIAP), New Delhi are also in the name of a given person would only be under this division. delivered to that person.
2. Consider the following statements with respect to e-RUPI.
1. It is an electronic voucher based digital payment system. www.sleepyclasses.com Available on App store 11 Call 1800 - 890 - 3043 and Play Store T.me/SleepyClasses 3. Consider the following statements with respect to Indian Economy.
1. It is the world’s 3rd largest economy by nominal GDP.
2. It is the sixth largest by purchasing power parity (PPP).
3. Type of Indian Economy is open, liberal and protectionist.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 4. The term demographic trap relates to:- A. 1 and 2 only A. Combination of high fertility and B. 2 and 3 only declining mortality rates
C. 3 only B. Combination of low fertility and rising D. 1, 2 and 3 mortality rates
Answer: C C. Combination of low fertility and low mortality rates Explanation D. Combination of high fertility and high • India’s economy is the world's sixth largest mortality rates. economy by nominal GDP. Answer: A • It is the third largest by purchasing power parity (PPP). Explanation • According to the Encyclopedia of International Development, the term demographic trap is used by demographers "to describe the combination of high fertility (birth rates) and declining mortality (death rates) in developing countries, resulting in a period of high population growth rate". • The term "demographic trap" then describes a situation where quality of health care improves and death rates fall, but birth rates still remain high, resulting in a period of high population growth. • It persists because "falling living standards reinforce the prevailing high fertility, which in turn reinforces the decline in living standards."
Available on App store www.sleepyclasses.com 12 and Play Store Call 1800 - 890 - 3043 T.me/SleepyClasses • This results in more poverty, where people rely on more children to provide them with economic security.
5. Which one of the following SEZs of India has been awarded IGBC Platinum Rating?
A. Kandla Special Economic Zone
B. Cochin Special Economic Zone
C. Madras Special Economic Zone
D. Noida Special Economic Zone
Answer: A
Explanation • Kandla SEZ (KASEZ) was awarded IGBC Platinum Rating. KASEZ is the First Green SEZ to achieve the IGBC Green Cities Platinum Rating for Existing Cities. • IGBC Platinum rating has been awarded for ‘Green master planning, policy initiatives a n d i m p l e m e n t a t i o n o f g r e e n infrastructure’ by CII’s Indian Green Building Council (IGBC). • The recognition is set to pave way for all the other SEZs in the country to emulate the green initiative and efforts of Kandla SEZ. • The efforts of KASEZ team were applauded especially noting the fact that this was accomplished in Bhuj region where water conservation and afforestation are critical interventions.
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1. Consider the following statements with • Despite the pandemic and lockdowns, more respect to Ozone in atmosphere. days and locations witnessed higher and longer duration of ozone spells. 1. Recently, there has been an increase in abundance of ozone from 0-5 km • Stratospheric ozone. Stratospheric ozone is altitude. formed naturally by chemical reactions involving solar ultraviolet radiation 2. Any reading of up to 50 on the air quality (sunlight) and oxygen molecules, which index is considered to be an indicator of make up 21% of the atmosphere. good air quality. Tropospheric ozone. Near Earth’s surface, 3. Ozone is formed only by chemical • ozone is produced by chemical reactions reactions involving solar ultraviolet involving naturally occurring gases and radiation (sunlight) and oxygen gases from pollution sources. molecules.
Which of the above statements are correct? 2. Which of the following Tiger Reserves in A. 1 and 2 only India have received accreditation of the B. 2 and 3 only Global Conservation Assured Tiger Standards in 2021? C. 1 and 3 only 1. Corbett D. 1, 2 and 3 2. Valmiki Tiger Reserve Answer: A 3. Sunderbans Explanation 4. Bandipur Tiger Reserve
5. Ranthambore
Select the correct code.
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 2, 3 and 4
C. 1, 4 and 5
D. 1, 2, 3 and 5
Answer: B A Centre for Science and Environment • Explanation study has found that ozone levels are exceeding the permitted levels even during winter in Delhi-NCR, making the smog more “toxic”.
Available on App store www.sleepyclasses.com 14 and Play Store Call 1800 - 890 - 3043 T.me/SleepyClasses • On the occasion of International Tiger Day, 1. Companies abroad that wanted to sell Union Minister for Environment, Forest cement, iron, steel, aluminum, fertilizer and Climate Change announced that 14 or electricity to the EU would also be tiger reserves in India have received required to pay that price for each ton of accreditation of the Global Conservation carbon dioxide they emit in making their Assured Tiger Standards (CA|TS). products. • 14 Tiger Reserves: 2. The carbon border tax will be effective from 1st Jan 2022. ✓Manas, Kaziranga and Orang in Assam Which of the above statements is/are ✓Satpura, Kanha and Panna in Madhya correct? Pradesh A. 1 only ✓Pench in Maharashtra B. 2 only ✓Valmiki Tiger Reserve in Bihar C. Both 1 and 2 ✓Dudhwa in Uttar Pradesh D. None of the above ✓ Sunderbans in West Bengal Answer: A ✓Parambikulam in Kerala Explanation ✓Bandipur Tiger Reserve of Karnataka • June 2021 marked a historic month, as the ✓Mudumalai and Anamalai Tiger Reserve frst dedicated climate law was signed into in Tamil Nadu action by the European Parliament. The three most popular tiger reserves • Carbon Border Arrangements (CBA) or B a n d h a v g a r h i n M P, C o r b e t t i n Carbon border tax or carbon border Uttarakhand, and Ranthambore in adjustment mechanism (CBAM) Rajasthan are not on the list of reserves that have been granted accreditation • Companies abroad that wanted to sell cement, iron, steel, aluminum, fertilizer or Fourteen out of India’s 52 tiger reserves • electricity to the EU would also be required have received the Conservation Assured to pay that price for each ton of carbon Tiger Standards (CATS) accreditation for dioxide they emit in making their products. meeting a set of standards for effective conservation of big cats. • The idea would be to level the carbon playing feld. The border tax would not take
effect until 2026.
3. Recently, Carbon Border Arrangements (CBA), frst dedicated climate law was 4. Which of the following are necessary signed into action by the European conditions for a pollutant for its Parliament. Consider the following Biomagnifcation to occur? statements with respect to the same. 1. It should be fat soluble.
2. It should be water soluble.
3. It should be biologically inactive.
4. It should be short lived. www.sleepyclasses.com Available on App store 15 Call 1800 - 890 - 3043 and Play Store T.me/SleepyClasses Select the correct code. 5. Which of the following Biosphere Reserves have been declared as UNESCO Biosphere A. 1 and 3 only Reserve? B. 2, 3 and 4 only 1. Manas C. 1 and 4 only 2. Simlipal D. 1 only 3. Khangchendzonga Answer: D 4. Sunderbans Explanation 5. Panna In biomagnifcation there is an increase in • Select the correct code. concentration of a pollutant from one link in a food chain to another. In order for A. 1, 2, 4 and 5 biomagnifcation to occur, the pollutant B. 2, 3 and 5 must be: long- lived, mobile, soluble in fats, b i o l o g i c a l l y a c t i v e . E . g . D D T C. 2, 3, 4 and 5 (Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane) D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 • If a pollutant is short-lived, it will be broken Answer: C down before it can become dangerous. Explanation • If it is not mobile, it will stay in one place and is unlikely to be taken up by organisms. • Biosphere reserves are sites established by countries and recognized under UNESCO's • If the pollutant is soluble in water, it will be Man and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme excreted by the organism. Pollutants that to promote sustainable development based dissolve in fats, however, may be retained on local community efforts and sound for a long time. science. • The programme of Biosphere Reserve was initiated by UNESCO in 1971. • Biosphere reserves are designated by the UNESCO to resolve man-animal confict and promote conservation of biodiversity as well as enable sustainable use of natural resources. • Biosphere Reserves recognised by UNESCO
✓Nilgiri, 2000
✓Gulf of Mannar, 2001
✓Sunderban, 2001
✓Nanda Devi, 2004
✓Nokrek, 2009
✓Pachmarhi, 2009 Available on App store www.sleepyclasses.com 16 and Play Store Call 1800 - 890 - 3043 T.me/SleepyClasses
✓Similipal, 2009
✓Achanakmar-Amarkantak, 2012
✓Great Nicobar, 2013
✓Agasthyamala, 2016
✓Khangchendzonga, 2018
✓Panna, 2020
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1. In the context of recent advances in human • The zygote derived from the donor egg is reproductive technology, ‘Pronuclear then implanted into the mother’s uterus. Transfer” is used for A. Fertilization of egg in vitro by the donor 2. Consider the following statements with sperm respect to Zolgensma gene therapy. B. Genetic modifcation of sperm producing 1. It is a one-time injection that replaces cells the defective gene with normal gene and C. Development of stem cells into functional rectifes the disorder. embryos 2. Recently, European Medicines Agency D. Prevention of mitochondrial diseases in (EMA) approved this therapy for offspring children aged less than two years. Answer: D Which of the above statements is/are correct? Explanation A. 1 only • Mutations in mtDNA are a cause of mitochondrial disease, a heterogeneous B. 2 only group of diseases that can lead to C. Both 1 and 2 premature death, sometimes in infancy or childhood. D. None of the above • Most mitochondrial diseases lack specifc Answer: A treatments, and women who carry the Explanation causative mutations are at high risk of transmitting the diseases to their offspring. • ZOLGENSMA is a gene therapy used to treat children less than 2 years old with • In pronuclear transfer, the mother’s egg is spinal muscular atrophy (SMA). frst fertilized with the father’s sperm, producing a zygote. • It is given as a one-time infusion into a vein. • ZOLGENSMA can cause acute serious liver injury. • Liver enzymes could become elevated and may refect acute serious liver injury in children who receive ZOLGENSMA. • The pronuclei of the egg and sperm are • In 2019, US FDA approved this therapy for then removed from the zygote and inserted children aged less than two years. into a donor egg that has been fertilized and has had its own nucleus removed (a pronucleus is the nucleus of the egg or sperm at the stage of fertilization prior to nucleus fusion).
Available on App store www.sleepyclasses.com 18 and Play Store Call 1800 - 890 - 3043 T.me/SleepyClasses • Overuse and misuse of antimicrobial agents is the single most important cause of development of resistance. • For instance, when antibiotics (which are meant for bacterial infections only) are taken by people with viral infections like colds and fu. • They are also used indiscriminately as growth promoters in animals or used to prevent diseases in healthy animals. • !Poor infection control practices in hospitals, in the hospitality sector, and at home can cause the spread of disease, 3. Which of the followings are the reasons for fuelling the high use of these drugs. the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India? 4. “Additive Manufacturing” is commonly 1. Genetic predisposition of some people. known as which of the following? 2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to A. Manual Labour cure diseases. B. 3D Printing 3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming. C. Artifcial Intelligence 4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people. D. Bitcoin Mining Select the correct answer using the code Answer: B given below. Explanation A. 1 and 2 • Additive manufacturing, also known as 3D B. 2 and 3 only printing, is a transformative approach to industrial production that enables the C. 1, 3 and 4 creation of lighter, stronger parts and D. 2, 3 and 4 systems. Answer: D • I t i s y e t a n o t h e r t e c h n o l o g i c a l Explanation advancement made possible by the transition from analog to digital processes. • Antibiotic resistance is specifc to drugs and In recent decades, communications, their ineffective action on bacteria. imaging, architecture and engineering have • Antimicrobial resistance is a broader term, all undergone their own digital revolutions. encompassing resistance to drugs that • Now, AM can bring digital fexibility and treat infections caused by other microbes effciency to manufacturing operations. as well, such as parasites, viruses and fungi. • Additive manufacturing uses data • Acquired resistance refers to micro- computer-aided-design (CAD) software or organisms acquiring the gene coding for 3D object scanners to direct hardware to resistance. It’s kind of like hacking, except deposit material, layer upon layer, in it’s happening inside our bodies. precise geometric shapes. www.sleepyclasses.com Available on App store 19 Call 1800 - 890 - 3043 and Play Store T.me/SleepyClasses 2. International Olympic Committee is an inter-governmental organisation 5. Consider the following statements about a dedicated to using the revenue digital signature: generated from the Olympic Games to 1. An electronic record that identifes the assist athletes and develop sport certifying authority issuing it. worldwide. 2. Used to serve as a proof of identity of an Select the correct code. individual to access information of A. 1 only server on Internet. B. 2 only 3. An electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that C. Both 1 and 2 the original content is unchanged. D. None of the above Which of the statements given above is/are Answer: correct? Explanation A. 1 only • In December 2019, the World Anti-Doping B. 2 and 3 only Agency (WADA) banned Russia for four C. 3 only years from competing in international events, including the Tokyo Olympics and D. 1, 2 and 3 the FIFA World Cup in 2022. Answer: D • The ban was enacted after new revelations Explanation came up about a doping programme that • A digital signature is a mathematical Russia had been accused of. technique used to validate the authenticity • In 2020, the Court of Arbitration for Sport and integrity of a message, software or (CAS) reduced the initial ban of four years digital document. to two, but it ensured that no offcial • It's the digital equivalent of a handwritten Russian team can participate in events signature or stamped seal, but it offers far organised by a WADA signatory until the more inherent security. sanction term ends on December 16, 2022. • A digital signature is intended to solve the • The ban is not outright, and 335 athletes problem of tampering and impersonation in from Russia are still playing at Tokyo, only digital communications. under the name ROC, meaning Russian Olympic Committee – the team that sends • Digital signatures can provide evidence of Russian athletes to all Games. origin, identity and status of electronic documents, transactions or digital messages. Signers can also use them to acknowledge informed consent.
6. Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to Olympics? 1. No player can participate in Olympics without representing his/ her nation.
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