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1 1. Consider the following statements:

1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months. 2. State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhaar data. 3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products. 4. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting beneﬁts funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Option-A: 1 and 4 only.  Option-B: 2 and 4 only.  (Correct Answer) Option-C: 3 only.  m Option-D: 1, 2 and 3 only.  o Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect - Aadhaar authentication data can’t be retained beyond 6 months. .c Statement 2 is correct - Supreme Court ruling that struck down parts of Section 57 of the Aadhaar Act, that gave access to private companies puts a stop to this mission creep of Aadhaar. Section 57 of the Aadhaar Acct, 2016, which allows the use of the 12-digit Aadhaar number for establishing the identity of an individual for any purpose—whether by the State or any corporate or person— has been read down. “That portion of Section 57 of the Aadhaar sAct which enables body corporate and individual to seek authentication is held to be unconstitutional," the bench said pin it's judgement. Statement 3 is correct - The Insurance Regulatory and Development Autuhority of India said that linkage of 12-digit Aadhaar number to insurance policies mandatory requirement under the prevention of money laundering rules for existing and new policies. “The Authority clarifies that, linkage of Aadhaar number to tInsurance Policies is mandatory under the Prevention of Money-laundering (Maintenance of Records) Second Amendnment Rules, 2017." IRDA said that life and general insurers including standailone health insurers have to implement link Aadhaar number issued by the Unique Identification Authority of India with insurance policies without awaiting further instructions. All policyholders will have to link there policies and furnish the Aadharar number. Insurer expect it to help the sector in reducing frauds and quicker claim settlement. p Statement 4 is correct - The State govsernment is actively working on making Aadhaar authentication mandatory for availing any benefit, subsidy or service for. schemes funded by the Consolidated Fund of the State in line with the circular issued by the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI). The development follows the amendment made to Section 7 of the Aadhaar (Targeted delivery of financial and other subsidies, benefits and services) Act 2016, stipulating a condition that the State government can mwandate use of Aadhaar authentication for beneficiaries for receipt of a subsidy, benefit or service for which the expenditure is incurred from the consolidated fund.

References -w https://www.livemint.com/Politics/GAxIxuF3FpzQr0M4efADmJ/Supreme-Court-strikes-down-some-sections- of-Aadhaar-Act-Wha.html httpws://economictimes.indiatimes.com/wealth/personal-ﬁnance-news/irda-makes-aadhaar-mandatory-for-insurance- policies/articleshow/61565808.cms

References: Mint; -

2. Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in

Option-A: the matter of creating new All India Services.  Option-B: amending the Constitution.  (Correct Answer) Option-C: the removal of the government.  Option-D: making cut motions. 

Explanation: In the following matters, the powers and status of the Rajya Sabha are equal to that of the Lok Sabha:

1. Introduction and passage of ordinary bills.

2. Introduction and passage of Constitutional amendment bills.

3. Introduction and passage of ﬁnancial bills involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India.

4. Election and impeachment of the president.

5. Election and removal of the Vice-President. However, Rajya Sabha alone can initiate the removal of the vice-president. He is removed by a resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha by an effective majority (which is a type of special majority) and agreed to by the Lok Sabha by a simple majority. m 6. Making recommendation to the President for the removal of Chief Justice and judges of Supreme Court and high courts, chief election commissioner and comptroller and auditor general. o 7. Approval of ordinances issued by the President. c 8. Approval of proclamation of all three types of emergencies by the President. . 9. Selection of ministers including the Prime Minister. Under the Constitution, the ministers including the Prime Minister can be members of either House. However, irrespective of their membership, they are responsible conly to the Lok Sabha. 10. Consideration of the reports of the constitutional bodies like Finance Commission, sUnion Public Service Commission, comptroller and auditor general, etc. 11. Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the Union Public Spervice Commission. References: Laxmikanth Indian Polity - Parliament tu 3. With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Lnocal Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct ? ri 1. MPLADS funds must be used to createp durable assets like physical infrastructure for health, education, etc. 2. A speciﬁed portion of each MP’s fund must beneﬁt SC/ST populations. 3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next year. 4. The district authority must in.spesct at least 10% of all works under implementation every year. Select the correct answwer using the code given below : Option-A: 1 and 2 only  Option-B:w 3 and 4 only  Option-C: 1, 2 and 3 only  wOption-D: 1, 2 and 4 only  (Correct Answer) Explanation: Statement 1 is correct - According to the document ‘Guidelines on Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS)’ published by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation in June 2016, “The objective of the scheme is to enable MPs to recommend works of developmental nature with emphasis on the creation of durable community assets based on the locally felt needs to be taken up in they're Constituencies. Right from inception of the Scheme, durable assets of national priorities viz. drinking water, primary education, public health, sanitation and roads, etc. are being created.” Recommendations for non-durable assets can be made only under limited circumstances. For example, March 2020, the government allowed use of MPLAD funds for the purchase of personal protection equipment, coronavirus testing kits etc.

Statement 2 is correct - The guidelines recommend MPs to suggest works costing at least 15 per cent of there MPLADS entitlement for the year for areas inhabited by Scheduled Caste population and 7.5 per cent for areas inhabited by ST population. “In other words, out of an amount of Rs 5 crore, an MP shall recommend for areas inhabited by SC population, Rs75 lacs and Rs.37.5 lacs for areas inhabited by S.T. population. In case their is insuﬃcient tribal population in the area of Lok Sabha Member, they may recommend this amount for the creation of community assets in tribal areas outside of there constituency but within there State of election,” the guidelines say.

Statement 3 is incorrect - Funds under the MPLADS are non-lapsable, both at the end of the Central Government and at the end of the District Authorities. Members of Parliament can recommend works up to they're full annual entitlement without linking with actual release of funds and District Authorities are required to undertake immediate sanction and implemenmtation of the eligible works so recommended. o Statement 4 is correct - The District Authority would be responsible for overall coordination and superviscion of the works under the scheme at the district level and inspect at least 10% of the works under implementation ev.ery year. The District Authority should involve the MPs in the inspections of projects to the extent feasible c [Ref : https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/mplad-funds-covid-19-coronaviruss-6350358/] [Ref : https://mplads.gov.in/MPLADS/UploadedFiles/MPLADSGuidelines2016English_638.pdf] Learning: p The Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS) is a programme ﬁrst launched during the Narasimha Rao Government in 1993, aimed towards providing funds four developmental works recommended by individual MPs. The MPs were entitled to recommend works to the tune of Rs 1 crore annually between 1994-95 and 1997-98, after which the annual entitlement was enhanced to Rs 2 crore. The UPA tgovernment in 2011-12 raised the annual entitlement to Rs 5 crore per MP. in States have there version of this scheme with varyinrg amounts per MLA. Delhi has the highest allocation under MLALAD; each MLA can recommend works for up to Rs 10 crore each year. In Punjab and Kerala, the amount is Rs 5 crore per MLA per year; in Assam, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra and Karnataka, it is Rs 2 crore; in Uttar Pradesh, it was recently increased from Rs 2 crore to Rs 3 crore. p References: Economic_Times; - httpss://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/ﬁnance/govt-says-rs-5275-crore- remains-unspent-under-mplad-sc.heme/articleshow/74576396.cms

4. Which one of the followwing categories of Fundamental Rights incorporates protection against untouchability as a form of discriminatiown ? Option-A: Right against Exploitation.  Option-B: Right to Freedom.  wOption-C: Right to Constitutional Remedies.  Option-D: Right to Equality.  (Correct Answer)

Explanation: Article 17 abolishes ‘untouchability’ and forbids its practice in any form. The enforcement of any disability arising out of untouchability shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law.

Right to equality (Articles 14–18) (a) Equality before law and equal protection of laws (Article 14).

(b) Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth (Article 15).

(d) Abolition of untouchability and prohibition of its practice (Article 17).

(e) Abolition of titles except military and academic (Article 18).

Learning: The Constitution says that the government shall not deny to any person in India equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws. It means that the laws apply in the same manner to all, regardless of a person’s status. This is called the rule of law. Rule of law is the foundation of any democracy. It means that no person is above the law. There cannot be any distinction between a political leader, government oﬃcial and an ordinary citizen.

The principle of non-discrimination extends to social life as well. The Constitution mentions one extreme form of social discrimination, the practice of untouchability, and clearly directs the government to put an end to it. The practice of untouchability has been forbidden in any form. Untouchability here does not only mean refusal to touch people belonginmg to certain castes. It refers to any belief or social practice which looks down upon people on account of their birth with certain caste labels. Such practice denies them interaction with others or access to public places as equal citizens. So othe Constitution made untouchability a punishable offence. References: Laxmikanth Indian Polity - Fundamental Rights; NCERT Class 9 - Democratic Politics - Chaptcer 5 - Democratic Rights; NCERT Class 11 - Indian Constitution at Work - Chapter 2 - Rights In The Indian Constitcution . 5. In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by s Option-A: the Preamble of the Constitution.  p Option-B: a Directive Principle of State Policy.  (Correct Answer) Option-C: the Seventh Schedule.  u Option-D: the conventional practice.  t Explanation: n The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated ini Part IV of the Constitution from Articles 36 to 51. The Constitution does not contain any classiﬁcation of Directive Principles. However, on the basis of their content and direction, they can be classiﬁed into three broad categories, viz, socialisticr, Gandhian and liberal-intellectual. p One of the Liberal-Intellectual principle is to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State (Article 50). s Learning: . The Criminal Procedure Code (1973) has effected the separation of judiciary from the executive (Article 50 under the Directive Principles of Swtate Policy).

Seventh Schedule - The Constitution divided the powers between the Centre and the states in terms of the Union List, State List and Concwurrent List in the Seventh Schedule. The Union List consists of 98 subjects (originally 97), the State List 59 subjects (originally 66) and the Concurrent List 52 subjects (originally 47). Both the Centre and the states can make laws on the subjects of the concurrent list, but in case of a conﬂict, the Central law prevails. The residuary subjects (i.e., which are not mewntioned in any of the three lists) are given to the Centre. References: Laxmikanth Indian Polity - Directive Principles of State Policy

6. Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the Parliament which include "The Macro Economic Framework Statement". The aforesaid document is presented because this is mandated by Option-A: Long-standing parliamentary convention.  Option-B: Article 112 and Article 110(1) Constitution of India.  Option-C: Article 113 of the Constitution of India.  Option-D: Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003.  (Correct Answer)

Explanation: The budget is not merely a statement of receipts and expenditures. Since Independence, with the launching of the Five-Year Plans, it has also become a signiﬁcant national policy statement. The budget, it has been argued, reﬂects and shapes, and is, in turn, shaped by the country’s economic life. Along with the budget, three policy statements are mandated by the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003 (FRBMA).

The Medium-term Fiscal Policy Statement sets a three year rolling target for specific fiscal indicators and examines whether revenue expenditure can be financed through revenue receipts on a sustainable basis and how productively capital receipts including market borrowings are being utilised. The Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement sets the priorities of the government in the fiscal area, examining current polimcies and justifying any deviation in important fiscal measures. The Macroeconomic Framework Statement assesses the prospects of the economy with respect to the GDoP growth rate, fiscal balance of the central government and external balance

Learning: c There is a constitutional requirement in India (Article 112) to present before the Parliament a stateme.nt of estimated receipts and expenditures of the government in respect of every financial year which runs from 1 April to 31 March. This ‘Annual Financial Statement’ constitutes the main budget document of the government. sc Article 113 of the Constitution of India mandates that estimates of expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India are included in the Annual Financial Statement, which are required to be voted by thpe Lok Sabha, and submitted in the form of demand for grants. References: NCERT Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics - Chapter 5u - Government Budget And The Economy 7. A constitutional government by definition is a in Option-A: government by the legislature.  r Option-B: popular government.  Option-C: multi-party government.  p Option-D: limited government.  s(Correct Answer) Explanation: . Constitutional government is defined by the existence of a constitution—which may be a legal instrument or merely a set of fixed norms or principles generally accepted as the fundamental law of the polity—that effectively controls the exercise of political power. The esswence of constitutionalism is the control of power by it's distribution among several state organs or offices in such a way that they are each subjected to reciprocal controls and forced to cooperate in formulating the will of the state. w

A limited government is one who's legalized force and power is restricted through delegated and enumerated authorities. Couwntries with limited governments have fewer laws about what individuals and businesses can and cannot do. In many cases, such as the United States, it is a constitutionally limited government, bound to speciﬁc principles and actions by a state or federal constitution.

The one of the function of a constitution is to specify who has the power to make decisions in a society. It decides how the government will be constituted. In the Indian Constitution for example, it is specified that in most instances, Parliament gets to decide laws and policies, and that Parliament itself be organised in a particular manner. Before identifying what the law in any given society is, you have to identify who has the authority to enact it. If Parliament has the authority to enact laws, there must be a law that bestows this authority on Parliament in the first place. This is the function of the constitution. It is an authority that constitutes government in the first place.

References: NCERT Class 11 - Indian Constitution at Work - Chapter 1 - Constitution - Why And How?

8. Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reﬂect/reﬂects the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)?

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. Preamble. 2. Directive Principles of State Policy. 3. Fundamental Duties. m Option-A: 1 and 2 only.  o Option-B: 2 only.  Option-C: 1 and 3 only.  c Option-D: 1, 2 and 3.  (Correct Answer) .

Explanation: c The Indian Constitution was framed by the Constituent Assembly of India, which met for the ﬁrst time on December 9, 1946. The Constitution of India gave primary importance to human rights. The Constituent Asssembly incorporated in the Constitution of India the substance of the rights proclaimed and adopted by the General Assembly in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights. Further on 10th December 1948, when the Constiptution of India was in the making, the General Assembly proclaimed and adopted the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, which surely inﬂuenced the framing of India’s Constitution. Viewed from the Indian standpoint, human rights have beeun synthesized, as it were, not as an integrated fabric by the Preambular promises and various Constitutional clause of thte National Charter of 1950. Article 1 of the Universal Declaration seeks to promote brothnerhood. This concept is mentioned in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution, where it seeks to ensure fraternity, and in Fuindamental Duties, in Article 51A(e), in which it is mentioned that we all share duty to promote harmony and brotherhoodr in society.

The most of the economic, social and culturpal rights proclaimed in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights have been incorporated in part IV (Directive P.rinsciples of State Policy) of the Indian Constitution, as given below in the table. [Ref: https://shodhganga.inﬂibnet.ac.in/bitstream/10603/102509/9/09_chapter%2003.pdf]

Learning: Human rights issues hawve been placed centre stage in the last decade or so in discussions on police reforms. The General Assembly of the United Nations Organisation adopted the Universal Declaration of Human Rights on 10th December, 1948. India became a signatory to the International Convention on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR) and the International wConvention on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR) in 1966. The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) was estwablished on 12th October, 1993 as mandated by the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 m 9. In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the following type of citizens? co Select the correct answer using the code given below: . 1. Person with an annual income of less than 1,00,000. 2. Transgender with an annual income of less than 2,00,000. c 3. Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with an annual income of less than 3,00,000. 4. All Senior Citizens. s Option-A: 1 and 2 only.  (Correct Answer) p Option-B: 3 and 4 only.  Option-C: 2 and 3 only.  u Option-D: 1 and 4 only.  t Explanation: n The provision for the free legal aid is state speciﬁc so in ithis question none of the statements is correct, but if we need to attempt the question then in the best case scenario rthe answer would be, 1 and 2 only (Option A). The persons eligible for getting free legal seprvices include: (i) Women and children. (ii) Members of SC/ST. .s (iii) Industrial workmen. (iv) Victims of mass diswaster, violence, ﬂood, drought, earthquake or industrial disaster. (v) Disabled persons

(vi) Persons in custody. (vii) Persons wwhose annual income does not exceed ₹1 lakh (in t Supreme Court Legal Services Committee the limit ₹1,25,000/-). (viiwi) Victims of traﬃcking in human beings or begar.

Senior citizens’ eligibility for free legal aid depends on the Rules framed by the respective State Governments in this regard.

In Delhi for example, senior citizens are eligible for free legal aid subject to prescribed ceiling of annual income. Any individual above the age of 60 can apply for free legal aid/services. Similarly in Delhi the condition for free legal aid for Transgender is subject to prescribed ceiling of annual income less than 2,00,000.

[https://nalsa.gov.in/services/legal-aid/eligibility]

Learning: Article 39A of the Constitution of India provides for free legal aid to the poor and weaker sections of the society and ensures justice for all. Articles 14 and 22(1) of the Constitution also make it obligatory for the State to ensure equality before law and a legal system which promotes justice on the basis of equal opportunity to all. In the year 1987, the Legal Services Authorities Act was enacted by the Parliament which came into force on 9th November, 1995 to establish a nationwide uniform network for providing free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity. The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) has been constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 to monitor and evaluate implementation of legal aid programmes and to lay down policies and principles for making legal services available under the Act. References: Laxmikanth Indian Polity - Subordinate Courts m 10. Consider the following pairs : co International agreement/set-up Subject c. 1. Alma-Ata Declaration ------Healthcare of the people 2. Hague Convention ------Biological and chemical weapons s 3. Talanoa Dialogue ------Global climate change 4. Under2 Coalition ------Child Rights p Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? tu Option-A: 1 and 2 only  Option-B: 4 only  in Option-C: 1 and 3 only  (Correct Answer) r Option-D: 2, 3 and 4 only 

Explanation: p Statement 1 is correct - The Alma-Ata Declaration of 1978emerged as a major milestone of the twentieth century in the field of public health, and it identified primsary health care as the key to the attainment of the goal of Health for All. In 1978, a pivotal conference was held in Al.maty, Kazakhstan, bringing together health experts and world leaders to commit to health for all. Endorsed at that conference, the declaration formed the foundation for the last 40 years of global primary health care efforts. [https://www.deccanchwronicle.com/discourse/120519/take-care-all-revisiting-primary-health-care-40-yrs-after-alma- ata.html] w Statement 2 is incorrect - Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) is a statutory body that functions as the nodal body for adoption of Indian children and is mandated to monitor and regulate in-country and inter-country adoptions. CARA is deswignated as the central authority to deal with inter-country adoptions in accordance with the provisions of the Hague Convention on Inter-country Adoption, 1993, ratified by Government of India in 2003. CARA primarily deals with adoption of orphan, abandoned and surrendered children through its associated/recognised adoption agencies. The Hague Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction or Hague Abduction Convention is a multilateral treaty developed by the Hague Conference on Private International Law (HCCH) that provides an expeditious method to return a child internationally abducted.

One can be confused with the Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW); an intergovernmental organization based in The Hague, Netherlands is the ‘treaty organisation' for the CWC. Statement 3 is correct - The Talanoa Dialogue of the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change, beginning this month, will facilitate the parties to take stock of progress post-Paris. As a key player in international climate governance, India could set the precedent in deepening the dialogue process through an action-oriented, inclusive, bottom-up approach, involving extensive participation and collaboration of it's States.

[Ref:https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/a-sum-of-contributions/article22391950.ece]

Statement 4 is incorrect - The Under2 Coalition, a Memorandum of Understanding by subnational governments to reduce there greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions towards net-zero by 2050, is generating a unique precedent for bold climate leadership, with it's member states and regions surpassing 200 in number. Currently (2017), Telangana and Chhattisgarh are signatories to this pact from India, as compared to representations from the other top emitters: 26 subnational governments in China and 24 in the U.S. Greater representation of Indian States is crucial. [[Ref:https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/a-sum-of-contributions/article22391950.ece] m References: India Year Book 2020 - Chapter 28 - Welfare; The_Hindu; - o 11. A Parliamentary System of Government one in which .c Option-A: all political parties in the Parliament are represented in the Government.  c Option-B: the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it.  (Correct Answer) Option-C: the Government is elected by the people and can be removed by them. s Option-D: the Government is chosen by the Parliament but cannot be removped by it before completion of a fixed term.  Explanation: Modern democratic governments are classified into parliamentary and upresidential on the basis of nature of relations between the executive and the legislative organs of the government. The parliamentary system of government is the one in which the executive is responsible to the legislature for its policies and acts. The parliamentary government is also known as cabinnet government or responsible government or Westminster model of government and is prevalent in Britain, Japan, Canadai, India among others. Ivor Jennings called the parliamentary system as ‘carbinet system’ because the cabinet is the nucleus of power in a parliamentary system. The parliamentary government is also known as ‘responsible government’ as the cabinet (the real executive) is accountable to the Parliamentp and stays in office so long as it enjoys the latter’s confidence. It is described as ‘Westminster model of government’ after the location of the British Parliament, where the parliamentary system originated. Learning: s When the Constitution of India wa.s written, India already had some experience of running the parliamentary system under the Acts of 1919 and 1935. This experience had shown that in the parliamentary system, the executive can be effectively controlled by the representatives of the people. The makers of the Indian Constitution wanted to ensure that the government would be sensitive to puwblic expectations and would be responsible and accountable. The other alternative to the parliamentary executive was the presidential form of government. But the presidential executive puts much emphasis on the president as the chief executive and as source of all executive power. There is always the danger of personality cult in presidential ewxecutive. Thew makers of the Indian Constitution wanted a government that would have a strong executive branch, but at the same time, enough safeguards should be there to check against the personality cult. In the parliamentary form there are many mechanisms that ensure that the executive will be answerable to and controlled by the legislature or people’s representatives. So the Constitution adopted the parliamentary system of executive for the governments both at the national and State levels.

References: Laxmikanth Indian Polity - Parliamentary System; NCERT Class 11 - Indian Constitution at Work - Chapter 4 - Executive

12. Which part of the Constitution of India declares the ideal of Welfare State?

Option-A: Directive Principles of State Policy.  (Correct Answer) Option-B: Fundamental Rights.  Option-C: Preamble.  Option-D: Seventh Schedule. 

Explanation: According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the Directive Principles of State Policy is a ‘novel feature’ of the Indian Constitution. They are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution. They can be classiﬁed into three broad categories – socialistic, Gandhian and liberal-intellectual. The Directive Principles are meant for promoting the ideal of social and economic democracy. They seek to establish a ‘welfare state’ in India.

However, unlike the Fundamental Rights, the directives are non-justiciable in nature, that is, they are not enforceable by the courts for their violation. Yet, the Constitution itself declares that ‘these principles are fundamental in the governance ofm the country and it shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws’. Hence, they impose a moral obligation on the state authorities for their application. But, the real force (sanction) behind them is political, that is, public oopinion. Learning: Seventh Schedule - The Constitution divided the powers between the Centre and the states in terms of thce Union List, State List and Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule. The Union List consists of 98 subjects (originally 97.), the State List 59 subjects (originally 66) and the Concurrent List 52 subjects (originally 47). Both the Centre and the states can make laws on the subjects of the concurrent list, but in case of a conflict, the Central law prevails. The residucary subjects (i.e., which are not mentioned in any of the three lists) are given to the Centre. s References: Laxmikanth Indian Polity - Directive Principles of State Policy p 13. Consider the following statements: u 1. The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms otf federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy. 2. The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ tno safeguard the citizens liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based. ri Which of the statements given above is/are pcorrect? Option-A: 1 only.  s Option-B: 2 only  (Correct A.nswer) Option-C: Both 1 and 2.  Option-D: Neither 1 wnor 2.  Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect - The Constitution does not defines the basic structure, as it was in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Suwpreme Court overruled its judgement in the Golak Nath case (1967). It upheld the validity of the 24th Amendment Act (1971) and stated that Parliament is empowered to abridge or take away any of the Fundamental Rights. At thew same time, it laid down a new doctrine of the ‘basic structure’ (or ‘basic features’) of the Constitution. Statement 2 is correct - In India, the Constitution itself confers the power of judicial review on the judiciary (both the Supreme Court as well as High Courts). Further, the Supreme Court has declared the power of judicial review as a basic feature of the Constitution or an element of the basic structure of the Constitution. Hence, the power of judicial review cannot be curtailed or excluded even by a constitutional amendment

Though the phrase ‘Judicial Review’ has nowhere been used in the Constitution, the provisions of several Articles explicitly confer the power of judicial review on the Supreme Court and the High Courts. Learning: The present position is that the Parliament under Article 368 can amend any part of the Constitution including the Fundamental Rights but without affecting the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution. However, the Supreme Court is yet to deﬁne or clarify as to what constitutes the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution. From the various judgements, the following have emerged as ‘basic features’ of the Constitution or elements of the ‘basic structure’ of the constitution:

1. Supremacy of the Constitution

2. Sovereign, democratic and republican nature of the Indian polity

3. Secular character of the Constitution

4. Separation of powers between the legislature, the executive and the judiciary

5. Federal character of the Constitution

6. Unity and integrity of the nation 7. Welfare state (socio-economic justice) m 8. Judicial review 9. Freedom and dignity of the individual o 10. Parliamentary system c 11. Rule of law . 12. Harmony and balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles 13. Principle of equality c 14. Free and fair elections s 15. Independence of Judiciary 16. Limited power of Parliament to amend the Constitution p 17. Effective access to justice u 18. Principles (or essence) underlying fundamental rights t 19. Powers of the Supreme Court under Articles 32, 136, 141 and 142. 20. Powers of the High Courts under Articles 226 and 22i7. n References: Laxmikanth Indian Polity - Basic Structurre of the Constitution; Laxmikanth Indian Polity - Judicial Review 14. One common agreement between Gandhismp and Marxism is s Option-A: the ﬁnal goal of a st.ateless society  (Correct Answer) Option-B: class struggle  Option-C: abolition wof private property  Option-D: economic determinism 

Explanation: India follows wthe democratic type of Government. India is a big country and hence needs to be governed in a proper and an effective way. Mahatma Gandhi's imagination of the democracy -fully encircled with non-violence -exists in no nation of the world as up to now. His ideal is a stateless democracy, in which there is a federation of satyagrahi village communities, funwctioning on the basis of voluntary cooperation and digniﬁed and peaceful co-existence are relevance in the context of Indian democracy. In the present day democracy, there is a great deal of centralization and inequality. Gandhian concept of Self Rule means Swaraj is real democracy, where people's power rests in the individuals and each one realizes that he or she is the real master of one's self.

Classless society, in Marxism, the ultimate condition of social organization, expected to occur when true communism is achieved. According to Karl Marx (1818–83), the primary function of the state is to repress the lower classes of society in the interests of the ruling class. However, after the class struggle has resulted in the victory of the proletariat and the establishment of a socialist society, there will be no further need for such a repressive institution; with the disappearance of classes, the state is expected to “wither away.”

This clariﬁes that stateless society was the common point of these two thinkers.

(https://www.mkgandhi.org/articles/indian_democracy.html; https://www.britannica.com/topic/classless-society)

15. In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy?

Option-A: An agency for widening the scope of parliamentary democracy.  m Option-B: An agency for strengthening the structure of federalism.  Option-C: An agency for facilitating political stability and economic growth.  o Option-D: An agency for the implementation of public policy.  (Correct Answer) c Explanation: . India has established professional administrative machinery. At the same time, this machinery is made politically accountable. The bureaucracy is also expected to be politically neutral. This means that the bucreaucracy will not take any political position on policy matters. In a democracy, it is always possible that a party is defeated in elections and the new government wants to opt for new policies in the place of policies of the previous governsment. In such a situation, it is the responsibility of the administrative machinery to faithfully and efficiently participate in drafting the policy and in its implementation. p Learning: Government organizations are bureaucratic. The term 'bureaucratic' ofteun carries a negative image and denotes red tapism, insensitivity and the rule bound nature of an organization. When Matx Weber propounded 'bureaucracy' as a form of organization he meant organizations structured along rational lines, where: • Offices are placed in a hierarchical order. n • Operations are governed by impersonal rules thereby reiducing discretion. There is a set of rules and procedures to cater for every situation. r • Officials are given specific duties and areas of responsibility. • Appointments are made on the basis of qupalifications and merit. References: Second Administrative Rseform Commission Reports(2ndARC) - 13th Report - Organisational structure of Govt of India; NCERT Class 11 - Indian Co.nstitution at Work - Chapter 4 - Executive

16. The Preamble to the Cownstitution of India is Option-A:w a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect.  Option-B: not a part of the Constitution and has no legal effect either.  Option-C: a part of the Constitution and has the same legal effect as any other part.  w  Option-D: a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts. (Correct Answer)

Explanation: Like any other part of the Constitution, the Preamble was also enacted by the Constituent Assembly; but, after the rest of the Constitution was already enacted. The reason for inserting the Preamble at the end was to ensure that it was in conformity with the Constitution as adopted by the Constituent Assembly. While forwarding the Preamble for votes, the President of the Constituent Assembly said, ‘The question is that Preamble stands part of the Constitution’. The motion was then adopted. Hence, the current opinion held by the Supreme Court that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution, is in consonance with the opinion of the founding fathers of the Constitution. However, two things should be noted:

1. The Preamble is neither a source of power to legislature nor a prohibition upon the powers of legislature.

2. It is non-justiciable, that is, its provisions are not enforceable in courts of law.

Learning: In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court rejected the earlier opinion and held that Preamble is a part of the Constitution. It observed that the Preamble is of extreme importance and the Constitution should be read and interpreted in the light of the grand and noble vision expressed in the Preamble. In the LIC of India case (1995) also, the Supreme Court again held that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution.

References: Laxmikanth Indian Polity - Preamble of the Constitution

17. m “Gold Tranche” (Reserve Tranche) refers to o Option-A: a loan system of the World Bank.  Option-B: one of the operations of a Central Bank.  c  . Option-C: a credit system granted by WTO to its members. Option-D: a credit system granted by the IMF to its members.  (Correct Answer) c Explanation: s The total foreign currencies (of different countries) an economy possesses at a point of time is its ‘foreign currency assets/reserves’. The Forex Reserves (short for ‘foreign exchange reserves’) of an economy is its ‘foreign currency assets’ added with its gold reserves, SDRs (Special Drawing Rights) and Reserve Trancphe Position (RTP) in the IMF. u Reserve Position in the IMF -The reserve tranche is portion of the retquired quota of currency that each International Monetary Fund (IMF) member country must provide to the IMF that can be utilized for its own purposes without a service fee. In other words, it is basically an emergency account that IMF members can access without agreeing to conditions or paying a service fee. If the amount being sought by the member nationn exceeds its reserve tranche position (RTP), then it becomes a credit tranche that must be repaid in three years. ri The Reserve Position or Reserve Tranche Popsition is the difference between IMF holdings of a country and the designated IMF quota of the country. References: Indian Economy Ram.eshs Singh - Chapter 15 - External Sector in India 18. With reference to the provisions contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are correct? w 1. They shall be enforceable by courts. 2. They shall wnot be enforceable by any court. 3. The principles laid down in this part are to inﬂuence the making of laws by the State. wOption-A: 1 only.  Option-B: 2 only.  Option-C: 1 and 3 only.  Option-D: 2 and 3 only.  (Correct Answer)

Explanation: The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution from Articles 36 to 51. The Directive Principles are non-justiciable in nature,that is, they are not legally enforceable by the courts for their violation. Therefore, the government (Central, state and local) cannot be compelled to implement them. Nevertheless, the Constitution (Article 37) itself says that these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be theduty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.Therefore statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Learning: The Directive Principles, though non-justiciable in nature, help the courts in examining and determining the constitutional validity of a law. The Supreme Court has ruled many a times that in determining the constitutionality of any law, if a court ﬁnds that the law in question seeks to give effect to a Directive Principle, it may consider such law to be ‘reasonable’ in relation to Article 14 (equality before law) or Article 19 (six freedoms) and thus save such law from unconstitutionality.

References: Laxmikanth Indian Polity - Directive Principles of State Policy

19. Consider the following statements : m o 1. According to the Constitution of India, a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a State for six months even if he/she is not a member of the Legislature of that State. c 2. According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence a.nd sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election evenc after his release from prison. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? s Option-A: 1 only  p Option-B: 2 only  Option-C: Both 1 and 2  u Option-D: Neither 1 nor 2  (Correct Answer) t Explanation: n Statement 1 is incorrect - Usually, the members of the staite legislature, either the legislative assembly or the legislative council, are appointed as ministers. A person who is not a member of either House of the state legislature can also be appointed as a minister. But, within six months, he mrust become a member (either by election or by nomination) of either House of the state legislature, otherwise, he ceases to be a minister. So to be a member of state legislature, the Constitution lays down the following qualifications p (a) He must be a citizen of India. s (b) He must make and subscribe .to an oath or affirmation before the person authorised by the Election Commission for this purpose.

(c) He must be not less than 30 years of age in the case of the legislative council and not less than 25 years of age in the case of the legislative awssembly. (d) He must posses other qualiﬁcations prescribed by Parliament. Though persown above 18 years of age can vote, but he/she can not be made minister since minimum requirement is to be of 30 wyears of age in case of legislative council and 25 years of age in the case of the legislative assembly. Statement 2 is incorrect - Section 8 (3) of the Representation of People Act 1951 states that if an MP or MLA is convicted for any other crime and is sent to jail for 2 years or more, he/ she will be disqualiﬁed for 6 years from the time of release.

References: Laxmikanth Indian Polity - State Legislature

20. Consider the following statements: 1. The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such place as he/she thinks ﬁt. 2. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions. 3. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Option-A: 1 only.  Option-B: 2 only.  Option-C: 1 and 3 only.  (Correct Answer) Option-D: 2 and 3 only.  Explanation: m Statement 1 is correct - According to Article 85 of the Constitution, the President shall from time to time summon each House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six months shall not intervene betweeno it's last sitting in one session and the date appointed for it's first sitting in the next session. c Statements 2 is incorrect - The Parliament should meet at least twice a year. By convention, there are. usually three sessions in a year, viz, c 1. the Budget Session (February to May); 2. the Monsoon Session (July to September); and s 3. the Winter Session (November to December). In 1955, Lok Sabha recommended a calendar of sittings for each session, the cpabinet of Jawaharlal Nehru agreed to the recommendation, but it was not implemented. The Constitution does not specify when or for how many days Parliament should meet. Article 85 only requires that their should not be a gap of muore then six months between two sessions of Parliament. t n Statement 3 is correct - There are no minimum number oif days that Parliament is required to meet in a year — in fact, the number of days that Parliament meets has reduced over the years. During the first two decades of Parliament, Lok Sabha met for an average of a little more then 120 days a year. rThis has come down to approximately 70 days in the last decade. p [Ref: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/parliament-winter-session-delay-congress-november-december-assembly- elections-4951659/] s References: Laxmikanth Indian P.olity - Parliament 21. w With reference to the history of India, consider the following pairs:

1. Aurang — In-charge of treasury of the State 2. Banian —w Indian agent of the East India Company 3w. Mirasidar — Designated revenue payer to the State Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?

Option-A: 1 and 2 only  Option-B: 2 and 3 only  (Correct Answer) Option-C: 3 only  Option-D: 1, 2 and 3  Explanation: 1. Statement 1 is incorrect : Aurang – A Persian term for a warehouse – a place where goods are collected before being sold; also refers to a workshop. 2. Statement 2 is correct :A contemporary described the banian as an individual, “By whom the English gentlemen in general conduct all their business. He is interpreter, head book-keeper, head secretary, head broker, the supplier of cash and cash-keeper, and in general also secret-keeper.” In these roles, the banians were crucial in enabling British mercantile interests to establish themselves in India, and they rose to great prominence and wealth in the 18th century 3. Statement 3 is correct :Revenue from land rental as well as an income tax based on the tenant's net profits from their land was the Madras presidency's main source of income. In ancient times, land appears to have been held in common with an individual unable to sell it without the consent of the other owners, who in most cases were members of the same community. Prior to the arrival of the British, the concept of individual proprietorship of land had already emerged along India's west coast such that the new administration's land revenue system was not markedly different from that of its predecessor. Nevertheless, landlords never sold land without the consent of other members of the community. This communistic property rights system was known as kaniachi among the Vellalars, swastium among the Brahmins and mirasi among Muslims and Christians. In the Tanjore district, all mirasi in the village were vested in a single individmual who was called the Ekabhogam.The mirasidars were required to donate a certain amount of money known as mirei to the village administration.They also paid a specified sum to the Government. In return, the mirasidars demoanded non- interference by the government in the internal affairs of the villages. Means Mirasidars were the designated revenue payer to the State. c Learning: . In 1823 the Company government in India received a petition from 12,000 weavers stating: Our ancestors and we used to receive advances from the Company and maintain ourselves ancd our respective families by weaving Company’s superior assortments. Owing to our misfortune, the aurangs have been abolished ever since because of which we and our families are distressed for want of the means of livelihood. We are wseavers and do not know any other business. We must starve for food, if the Board of Trade do not cast a look of kindness towards us and give orders for clothes. p References: OUR PASTS III - Chapter 6 - Weavers; Iron Smelters andt Facutory Owners 22. With reference to the religious history of India, consider the nfollowing statements : 1. Sthaviravadins belong to Mahayana Buddhism. i 2. Lokottaravadin sect was an offshoot of Mahasanghika sect of Buddhism. 3. The deification of Buddha by Mahasanghikas frostered the Mahayana Buddhism. p Which of the statements given aboves is/are correct ? Option-A: 1 and 2 only  . Option-B: 2 and 3 only  (Correct Answer) Option-C: 3 only  w Option-D: 1, 2 and 3 

Explanation: w Statement 1 is incorrect: The Sthaviravadins or the Theravadins The earliest available teachings of the Buddha to be found in Pali literature belongs to the school of the Theravadins, who may be called the most orthodox school of Buddhism. The teawching of the Buddha according to this school is very simple. Supporters of Mahayana regarded other Buddhists as followers of Hinayana. However, followers of the older tradition described themselves as theravadins, that is, those who followed the path of old, respected teachers, the theras. So Sthaviravadins belong to Hinayana Buddhism.

Statements 2 and 3 are correct: When King Dharmasoka (i.e. Kaiasoka) was reigning in Kusumapura (Me-tog-gis rgyaspa, i.e., Pataliputra), there arose a great schism in Buddhism on account of some controversial questions, and it divided into two schools, the Mahasanghika and the Sthaviravada. Of these, the Mahasanghika School gradually divided into eight fractions (to wit), the Mahasanghika School, the Ekavyavaharika, the Lokottaravadina, the Bahusrutiya, and so on. References: OUR PASTS I - Chapter 9 - Traders; Kings And Pilgrims; NCERT CLASS XII Themes in Indian History I - Chapter 4 - Thinkers; Beliefs And Buildings - Cultural Developments (C. 600 Bce-600 Ce); Tamil Nadu Higher Secondary First Year - Chapter 4 - Jainism and Buddhism

23. Which of the following statements correctly explains the impact of Industrial Revolution on India during the ﬁrst half of the nineteenth century ?

Option-A: Indian handicrafts were ruined.  (Correct Answer) Option-B: Machines were introduced in the Indian textile industry in large numbers.  Option-C: Railway lines were laid in many parts of the country.  Option-D: Heavy duties were imposed on the imports of British manufactures.  m Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: o The loss of traditional livelihood was not accompanied by a process of industrialisation in India, as had happened in other rapidly industrialising countries of the time. This resulted in deindustrialisation of India at a time when Eucrope was witnessing a reintensified Industrial Revolution. This happened at a time when Indian artisans and handicraftsmen were already feeling the crunch due to loss of patronage by princes and the nobility, who were now under the influence of .new western tastes and values. Cheap and machine-made imports flooded the Indian market after the Charter Act of 1813 allowing one-way free trade for the British citizens. On the other hand, Indian products found it more and more difficuclt to penetrate the European markets. Tariffs of nearly 80 per cent were imposed on Indian textiles so that Indian cloth could no longer be cheap. After 1820, European markets were virtually closed to Indian exports. Cheap British made closth flooded the Indian market. First railway line connecting Bombay and Thane was laid down in 1853 under Lord Dalhousie. Construction of Railway line picked up after this, that is in the second half of the 19th century. p References: A Brief History of Modern India - Spectrum - Chapter 28 - Euconomic Impact of British Rule in India; Tamil Nadu Higher Secondary Second Year - Chapter 7 - Revenue Administrationt and Economic Policy of the British 24. n Consider the following events in the history of India: i 1. Rise of Pratiharas under King Bhoja r 2. Establishment of Pallava power under Mahendravarman — I 3. Establishment of Chola power by Paranptaka -1 4. Pala dynasty founded by Gopalas What is the correct chronological. order of the above events, starting from the earliest time ?

Option-A: 2 - 1- 4 - 3w  Option-B: 3 - 1 - 4 - 2  Option-C:w 2 - 4 - 1 - 3  (Correct Answer) Option-D: 3 - 4 - 1 - 2  Expwlanation: 1. The dominance of Rajputs began from the seventh and eighth centuries and lasted till the Muslim conquest in the twelfth century. The Paramaras were also important Rajput rulers of this period. The most important king was Bhoja (836 – c. 885 CE). His military conquests as well as cultural contributions remain notable in the history of Rajputs. 2. Mahendravarman I (600 – 630 A.D.) 3. Parantaka I was one of the important early Chola rulers. He defeated the Pandyas and the ruler of Ceylon. But he suffered a defeat at the hands of the Rashtrakutas in the famous battle of Takkolam. Parantaka I (907– c. 955)was a great builder of temples. He also provided the vimana of the famous 4. The Pala empire was founded with the election of Gopala as the emperor of Gauda in 750 CE. Learning: Mahendravarman I was a follower of Jainism in the early part of his career. He was converted to Saivism by the inﬂuence of the Saiva saint, Thirunavukkarasar alias Appar. He built a Siva temple at Tiruvadi. He assumed a number of titles like Gunabhara, Satyasandha, Chettakari (builder of temples) Chitrakarapuli, Vichitrachitta and Mattavilasa. The long-drawn Pallava – Chalukya Conﬂict began during his period. Pulakesin II marched against the Pallavas and captured the northern part of their kingdom. Although a Pallava inscription refers to the victory of Mahendravarman I at Pullalur, he was not able to recover the lost territory.

After the death of Harsha, there was no political unity in north India for about ﬁve centuries. The country was split up into a number of states which were constantly ﬁghting and changing their frontiers. The important kingdoms in north India were Kashmir, Gandhara, Sind, Gujarat, Kanauj, Ajmir, Malwa, Bengal and Assam. In the early eighth century Kashmir was dominant. Then, the Palas of Bengal reigned supremetill the Pratiharas became the most powerful rulers of north India.

References: Tamil Nadu Higher Secondary First Year - Chapter 11 - South Indian Kingdoms - I Pallavas m o 25. Which of the following phrases deﬁnes the nature of the *Hundi’ generally referred to in the sources of thce post-Harsha period ? . Option-A: An advisory issued by the king to his subordinates.  c Option-B: A diary to be maintained for daily accounts  Option-C: A bill of exchange  (Correct Answer) s Option-D: An order from the feudal lord to his subordinates  p Explanation: 1. Harshavardhana period is designated from 606 to 647 A.D. u 2. Hoards of gadahiya/gadhaiya coins of the 7th– 12th centuriest have been found in various parts of western India, indicating the use of money as a medium of exhange. Traders also used hundikas or bills of exchange, which facilitated large-scale transactions without the use of money. Inscnriptions often mention toll houses (shulka-mandapikas), and commercial taxes were an important source ofr statie income. (Refernce: A HISTORY OF ANCIENT AND EARpLY MEDIEVAL INDIA By Upinder Singh) 26. s With reference to the book “Desher Katha" written by Sakharam Ganesh Deuskar during the freedom struggle, consider the following statements : . 1. It warned against the Colonial States hypnotic conquest of the mind. 2. It inspired the perfwormance of swadeshi street plays and folk songs. 3. The usew of ‘desh’ by Deuskar was in the speciﬁc context of the region of Bengal. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

wOption-A: 1 and 2 only  (Correct Answer) Option-B: 2 and 3 only  Option-C: 1 and 3 only  Option-D: 1, 2 and 3 

Explanation: Sakharam Ganesh Deuskar's Bangla book, published in 1904 titled 'Desher Katha', is a document of the screaming of the living Indian people in the chains of slavery and torture of exploitation in the British Empire. Fearful of the publication of the publication of thirteen thousand copies of its ﬁve editions in just ﬁve years, the British banned the book in 1910. To destroy the Indian economy, there is an authentic picture of the events of the agricultural system, destroying the craftsmanship and industry and dealing with contemptuous sentences in relation to the Indian citizen.

This book was translated into Hindi by 'Desh Ki Baat' by Baburao Vishnu Paradkar. First published from Mumbai in 1908 and its revised edition from Calcutta in 1910.

Deuskar used desh to mean nation. The overlap of place of origin and nation, as well as jati (literally birth, family or caste) and nationality inflected understandings of the nation/country in distinct ways. Moreover, the constant overlap and conflation of Bengal and India, and Bengalis and Indians in the use of desh and jati, added further twists to notions of nationalism. It is worth quoting part of an article “Amader Desher Katha” [About our Country], that appeared in the children’s periodical Prakriti [Nature] in 1907. Though we constantly reiterate the phrase ‘our country’ do we have any exact idea of the actual constituents of that territory? . . What are the boundaries of our land? . . . Steering clear of political debates, let us see what Mother Nmature has to say in this regard . . . her fingers point to a huge expanse - far greater than Bengal - as our nation. Following her directions we recognize the glorious Bharatbarsha as our majestic land. With walls of the highest mountains anod the deepest caverns of the seas, Nature has carved out the contours of Bharat and made it distinct from the rest of the world . . . this great expanse called Bharatbarsha is our nation. .c ( A History of Modern India Ishita Banerjee Dube. Page. no. 233; c http://wiki-gyan.blogspot.com/2013/04/sakharam-ganesh-deuskar.html; https://www.jstor.org/stable/179304?read-now=1&seq=5#page_scan_tab_contents) s Learning: Sakharam Ganesh Deuskar (17 December 1869 - 23 November 1912) was a revpolutionary writer, historian and journalist. He was such a thinker of Indian public awareness, whose locality in thinking and writing, and the field of All-Bangla and contemplation, was history, economics, society and literature. tu 27. The Gandhi-Irwin Pact included which of the following ? n 1. Invitation to Congress to participate in the Round Taible Conference 2. Withdrawal of Ordinances promulgated in connrection with the Civil Disobedience Movement 3. Acceptance of Gandhiji’s suggestion for enquiry into police excesses 4. Release of only those prisoners who wepre not charged with violence s Select the correct answer using th.e code given below :

Option-A: 1 only  Option-B: 1, 2 and 4w only  (Correct Answer) Option-C: 3 only  Option-D:w 2, 3 and 4 only  Explanation: Ganwdhi-Irwin Pact On January 25, 1931, Gandhi and all other members of the Congress Working Committee (CWC) were released unconditionally. The CWC authorised Gandhi to initiate discussions with the viceroy. As a result of these discussions, a pact was signed between the viceroy, representing the British Indian Government, and Gandhi, representing the Indian people, in Delhi on February 14, 1931. This Delhi Pact, also known as the Gandhi-Irwin Pact, placed the Congress on an equal footing with the government. Irwin on behalf of the government agreed on—

1. immediate release of all political prisoners not convicted of violence;

2. remission of all ﬁnes not yet collected; 3. return of all lands not yet sold to third parties;

4. lenient treatment to those government servants who had resigned;

5. right to make salt in coastal villages for personal consumption (not for sale);

6. right to peaceful and non-aggressive picketing; and

7. withdrawal of emergency ordinances.

The viceroy, however, turned down two of Gandhi’s demands—

(i) public inquiry into police excesses, and

(ii) commutation of Bhagat Singh and his comrades’ death sentence to life sentence.

Gandhi on behalf of the Congress agreed— m (i) to suspend the civil disobedience movement, and (ii) toparticipate in the next Round Table Conferenceon the constitutional question around the three lynch-pins of federation, Indian responsibility, and reservations and safeguards that may be necessary in India’s interests (covering such areas as defence, external affairs, position of minorities, financial credit of India and discharge of other obligationcs). References: A Brief History of Modern India - Spectrum - Chapter 19 - Civil Disobedience Movement a.nd Round Table Conferences c 28. s The Vital-Vidhvansak,' the first monthly journal to have the untouchable people aps its target audience was published by Option-A: Gopal Baba Walangkar  (Correct Answer) Option-B: Jyotiba Phule  u Option-C: Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi  t Option-D: Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar  n Explanation: i In 1888, Walangkar began publishing the monthly jorurnal titled Vital-Vidhvansak (Destroyer of Brahmanical or Ceremonial Pollution), which was the first to have the untouchable people as its target audience. He also wrote articles for Marathi- language newspapers such as Sudharak and Deenbandhu, as well as composing couplets in Marathi that were intended to inspire the people. p Having read Hindu religious texts, Waslangkar concluded that caste was contrived by the Aryan invaders to control the Anaryans (indigenous people). In .1889, he published Vital Viduvansan (Annihilation of Ceremonial Pollution), which protested the position of untouchables in society and raised consciousness regarding what those people should expect. He addressed this pamphlet, which was crafted as a collection of 26 questions, to the elites of Maharashtrian society. T. N. Valunjkar says that Walangkar "can bew regarded as the first intellectual rebel from the dalit community to have launched a scathing criticism of the caste swystem and the position of dalits in it." (http://untouchables.org.in/icons/10)

Learning: Gopwal Baba Walangkar, also known as Gopal Krishna, (ca. 1840-1900) is an early example of an activist working to release the untouchable people of India from their historic socio-economic oppression and is generally considered to be the pioneer of that movement. He developed a racial theory to explain the oppression and also published the ﬁrst journal targeted at the untouchable people.

Gopal Baba Walangkar was born into a family of the untouchable Mahar caste around 1840 at Ravdal, near Mahad in what is now Raigad district, Maharashtra. In 1886, after serving in the army, Walangkar settled at Dapoli and became inﬂuenced by another early social reformer, Jyotirao Phule. Walangkar was appointed to the local taluk board of Mahad in 1895, which displeased the members from the upper castes and caused considerable debate in newspapers.He died at Ravdal in 1900.

29. With reference to the history of India, the terms “kulyavapa” and “dronavapa” denote:

Option-A: measurement of land  (Correct Answer) Option-B: coins of different monetary value  Option-C: classiﬁcation of urban land  Option-D: religious rituals 

Explanation: Several inscriptions, e.g., the Gunaigarh grant of Vainyagupta, and the Damodarpur, Paharpur, and Baigram copper platems refer to potential donees applying for wasteland. It is not clear whether this was because of increasing pressure on arable land, the relative cheapness of such land, or the easy availabity of tax concessions for reclaiming wasteland. o Texts and inscriptions mention various land measure terms (Maity [1957], 1970: 48–61). The angula (probably ¾ inch) was the smallest measure. The hasta (cubit) was the standardized distance between the tip of the elbow andc the middle ﬁnger (18 inches). Larger units of measure included the dhanu/danda and nala. The land measures used in eastern India included the adhavapa (3/8– 1/2 acre), dronavapa (1½–2 acres), and kulyavapa (12–16 acres).These were th.e areas required to sow one adhaka, drona, and kulya of grain respectively. Pataka was another land measure, and seems to have been equivalent to 60–80 acres. Other terms included pravartavapa (this was much smaller than a kulyavapa), pacdavarta (over 1 ft), and bhumi. The large number of land measure terms indicate that there was no single standard set of measurement and that different measures were current in different regions. s p (Reference: A HISTORY OF ANCIENT AND EARLY MEDIEVAL INDIA Bty Uupinder Singh) 30. Who among the following rulers advised his subjects throiugnh this inscription ? “Whosoever praises his religious sect or blames other sects out of excessive devotion to his own sect, with the view of glorifying his own sect, he rather injures his own secrt very severely.”

Option-A: Ashoka  (Correct Answer) p Option-B: Samudragupta  s Option-C: Harshavardhana . Option-D: Krishnadeva Raya  Explanation: w Ashoka’s messages to his subjects:

“People perform a variety of rituals when they fall ill, when their children get married, when children are born, or when they go on a journey. wThese rituals are not useful. If instead, people observe other practices, this would be more fruitful. What are these other practices? 1w. These are: being gentle with slaves and servants. 2. Respecting one’s elders. 3. Treating all creatures with compassion. 4. Giving gifts to brahmins and monks.” 5. “It is both wrong to praise one’s own religion or criticise another’s. Each one should respect the other’s religion. If one praises one’s own religion while criticising another’s, one is actually doing greater harm to one’s own religion. Therefore, one should try to understand the main ideas of another’s religion, and respect it.” Learning: Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, the ﬁrst Prime Minister of India, wrote: “His edicts (instructions) still speak to us in a language we can understand and we can still learn much from them.”

References: OUR PASTS I - Chapter 7 - Ashoka; The Emperor Who Gave Up War

31. With reference to the cultural history of India, which one of the following is the correct description of the term "Paramitas" ?

Option-A: The earliest Dharmashastra texts written in aphoristic (sutra) style  Option-B: Philosophical schools that did not accept the authority of Vedas  Option-C: Perfections whose attainment led to the Bodhisattva path  (Correct Answer) Option-D: Powerful merchant guilds of early medieval South India  m Explanation: The conduct and practices that formed part of the path leading to Buddhahood were not very different from thosoe recommended in the earlier tradition. The several stages along the bodhisattva path involved the attainment of a number of perfections known as paramitas. These were originally listed as six and later expanded to ten. They conscisted of generosity (dana), good conduct (shila), patient forbearance (kshanti), mental strength (virya), meditation (dhyana), wisdom (prajna), skilfulness in means (upaya-kaushalya), determination (pranidhana), power (bala), and knowlecdge (jn.ana). (Reference: A HISTORY OF ANCIENT AND EARLY MEDIEVAL INDIA By Upinder Singh) s p 32. In the context of Indian history, the Rakhmabai case of 1884 revolved aruound 1. women’s right to gain education t 2. age of consent 3. restitution of conjugal rights in Select the correct answer using the code given belorw :

Option-A: 1 and 2 only  p Option-B: 2 and 3 only  (Corrects Answer) Option-C: 1 and 3 only  . Option-D: 1, 2 and 3  Explanation: w In 1885, after 12 years of marriage, Bhikaji sought “restitution of conjugal rights”, where the hearing and judgement was presided by Justice Robert Hill Pinhey. Rukhmabai had refused to live with the man she was married to as a child, as she had no say in the wmarriage. The British precedents could not be implied in this case, as British law was meant to be applied in the case of consenting adults. Justice Pinhey found this limitation in British law and found no previous cases of such nature in Hindu law. Hence his judgement on the case stated that Rukhmabai had been wed as an innocent child, had no say in the mawtter and now couldn’t be forced. The case came up for retrial in the year 1886. There was a lot of backlash from society, with some Hindus stating that the law did not respect the Hindu rituals and customs, whereas some praised the step. The judgement received a lot of criticism in the newspapers. In March 1887, Rukhmabai was ordered to go live with her husband or spend six months in jail. Determined about her decision to not to return to Dadaji and to continue her education, Rukhmabai bravely said that she would rather face maximum penalty than accept the verdict given. Subsequently, after numerous hearings, the marriage was aﬃrmed, where Rukhmabai wrote to Queen Victoria. The Queen overruled the court’s verdict and dissolved the marriage. In July of 1888, Dadaji accepted monetary compensation of two thousand rupees to dissolve the marriage.

(https://feminisminindia.com/2017/08/22/rukhmabai-essay/)

33. Indigo cultivation in India declined by the beginning of the 20th century because of

Option-A: peasant resistance to the oppressive conduct of planters  Option-B: its unprofitability in the world market because of new inventions  (Correct Answer) Option-C: national ’ leaders’ opposite to the cultivation of indigo   m Option-D: Government control over the planters Explanation: o Gandhi was requested by Rajkumar Shukla, a local man, to look into the problems of the farmers in context of indigo planters of Champaran in Bihar. The European planters had been forcing the peasants to grow indigo on 3/20 parct of the total land (called tinkathia system). When towards the end of the nineteenth century German synthetic dyes re.placed indigo,the European planters demanded high rents and illegal dues from the peasants in order to maximise their profits before the peasants could shift to other crops. Besides, the peasants were forced to sell the produce at pcrices fixed by the Europeans. References: A Brief History of Modern India - Spectrum - Chapter 15 - Emergence of Gandhi; Indias Struggle for Independence Bipin Chandra - Chapter 15 - The Non-Cooperation Movement- 1920-22 s

34. p Wellesley established the Fort William College at Calcutta because u Option-A: he was asked by the Board of Directors at London to dto so  Option-B: he wanted to revive interest in oriental learningn in India  Option-C: he wanted to provide William Carey and hisi associates with employment  Option-D: he wanted to train British civilians for ardministrative purpose in India  (Correct Answer) Explanation: In 1800, Wellesley (governor-general, 1798-1p805) set up the Fort William College for training of new recruits. He wanted to train British civilians for administrative purpose in India. In 1806 Wellesley’s college was disapproved by the Court of Directors and instead the East India Csollege was set up at Haileybury in England to impart two years’ training to the recruits. Learning: . The civil service system introduced in India by the East India Company for the beneﬁt of its commercial affairs got transformed into a wellw structured machinery to look after the administrative affairs of the acquired territories in India. In fact, in the beginning, the term ‘civil service’ was used to distinguish the servants of the Company engaged in commercial affairs from those people employed in the military and naval services. Gradually, the civil servants were bestowed with other responsibilitiews and authority. Cornwallis’ Role

Cornwallis (governor-general, 1786-93) was the ﬁrst to bring into existence and organise the civil services. He tried to check corwruption through— ● raising the civil servants’ salary,

● strict enforcement of rules against private trade,

● debarring civil servants from taking presents, bribes etc.,

● enforcing promotions through seniority. References: A Brief History of Modern India - Spectrum - Chapter 26 - Constitutional, Administrative and Judicial Developments

35. With reference to the history of India, “Ulgulan” or the Great Tumult, is the description of which of the following events ?

Option-A: The Revolt of 1857  Option-B: The Mappila Rebellion of 1921  Option-C: The Indigo Revolt of 1859 - 60  Option-D: Birsa Munda’s Revolt’of 1899 - 1900  (Correct Answer)

Explanation: The rebellion (ulgulan) of the Munda tribesmen, led by Birsa Munda, occurred during 1899-1900. For over thirty years thme Munda sardars had been struggling against the destruction of their system of common land holdings by the intrusion of jagirdar, thikadar (revenue farmers) and merchant moneylenders. o Learning: Birsa, born in a poor share-cropper household in 1874, had a vision of God in 1895. He declared himself tco be a divine messenger, possessing miraculous healing powers. Thousands gathered around him seeing in him a Messiah with a new religious message. Under the influence of the religious movement soon acquired an agrarian and pol.itical Birsa began to move from village to village, organizing rallies and mobilizing his followers on religious and political grounds. On Christmas Eve, 1899, Birsa proclaimed a rebellion to establish Munda rule in the land and encouraged ‘thce killing of thikadars and jagirdars and Rajas and Hakims (rulers) and Christians.’ Saiyug would be established in place of the present-day Kalyug. He declared that ‘there was going to be a fight with the dikus, the ground would be as red ass the red flag with their blood.’ The non-tribal poor were not to be attacked. To bring about liberation, Birsa gathered a force of 6,000 Mundas armed with swords, spears, battle-axes, and bows and arrows. He w, however, captured in the beginpning of February 1900 and he died in jail in June. The rebellion had failed. But Birsa entered the realms of legend. u References: Indias Struggle for Independence Bipin Chandra - Chaptter 2 - Civil Rebellions And Tribal Uprisings; A Brief History of Modern India - Spectrum - Chapter 6 - People's Resistaincne Against British Before 1857 36. With reference to the scholars/litterateurs of ancienrt India, consider the following statements : 1. Panini is associated with Pushyamitra pShunga. 2. Amarasimha is associated with Harshavardhana. 3. Kalidasa is associated with .Chasndra Gupta - II Which of the statementws given above is/are correct ? Option-A: 1 and 2 only  Option-B: 2 and 3 only  Option-C:w 3 only  (Correct Answer) wOption-D: 1, 2 and 3  Explanation: 1. Around 500 BCE, Panini wrote Ashtadhyayi, a work on Sanskrit grammar. Whereas Pushyamitra Shunga ruled from c. 185 to c. 149 BCE, was the founder and first ruler of the Shunga Empire in East India. He was a follower of Hinduism. There is time difference between the two of about 315-350 years, so both of them were not associated with each other. 2. The Buddhist author Amarasimha compiled a lexicon called Amarakosa during the Gupta period (mid-to-late 3rd century AD to 543 AD.) whereas HARSHAVARDHANA ruled from 606 to 647 A.D. So Amarimha and Harshavardhan were not associated to each other. 3. The power and glory of Gupta empire reached its peak under the rule Chandragupta II Vikramaditya. He also contributed to the general cultural progress of the age and patronized great literary figures like Kalidasa.

Only Statement 3 is correct.

Learning: Sanskrit plays including the works of Kalidasa; works on astronomy and mathematics by Aryabhata and Varahamihira (in Sanskrit); compilation of Jaina works (in Prakrit) were compiled during 400-500 CE.

References: NCERT CLASS XII Themes in Indian History I - Chapter 3 - Kinship; Caste And Class - Early Societies(C. 600 Bce- 600 Ce); Tamil Nadu Higher Secondary First Year - Chapter 9 - Gupta Empire; OUR PASTS I - Chapter 10 - New Empires And Kingdoms

37. In the context of recent advances in human reproductive technology, “Pronuclear Transfer” is used for m

Option-A: fertilization of egg in vitro by the donor sperm.  o Option-B: genetic modification of sperm producing cells.  c Option-C: development of stem cells into functional embryos.  . Option-D: prevention of mitochondrial diseases in offspring.  (Correct Answer) c Explanation: Pronuclear Transfer is a technique which is used to prevent any transfer of mitochondrsial disease in offspring's. The technique is also known as "three-parent baby". In this technique, mother's egg is fertilised with father's sperm. Then a doner's (aka the second mother) eggs are fertilised with father's sperm. Once zygote formation takes place, zygote from mother's cell is removed and placed in doner's cell, after removing zygote formepd in doner's cell. The mitochondria inherited by the baby is only from mother and not from father. tu [Ref: https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S2212066116300345] Learning: n The world’s first baby with three parents was born on thei 6th of April 2016. Although unusual, but this event was made possible with the help of a relatively new, highly experrimental and controversial in-vitro fertilisation (IVF) technique. This technique has been approved only in the UK pby the Human Fertilisation and Embryology Authority (HFEA) as of now. This experimental technique was performed by John Zhang at the New Hope Fertility Center in New York City. Of the several methods available in theory for doings this, the method approved in the UK is called the pronuclear transfer. This particular method involves fertilising both th.e mother’s egg and a donor egg with the father’s sperm. Before the fertilised egg progresses into the early embryonic stages, the nucleus from the donor’s fertilised egg is discarded and is replaced with the fertilised nucleus of thew mother. But, owing to some religious constraints the couple couldn’t follow this technique and Zhang had to come up with an alternate soluwtion, namely the spindle nuclear transfer technique. In this technique, the nucleus of the donor’s egg (with normal mitochondrial DNA) was replaced with that of the mother. This was done to ensure that the baby receives the mother’s nuclear DNA, but not the faulty mitochondrial DNA. This resulted into an egg with nuclear DNA from the mother and mitwochondrial DNA from the donor, which was than fertilised with the sperm of the father. [https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2875160/] m o .c sc p u 38. t With the present state of development, Artificial Intelligence can effectively do which of the following? Select the correct answer using the code given below: in 1. Bring down electricity consumption in industrial units. 2. Create meaningful short stories and songs. r 3. Disease diagnosis. 4. Text-to-Speech Conversion. p 5. Wireless transmission of electricals energy. Option-A: 1, 2, 3 and 5 only. . Option-B: 1, 3 and 4 only.  Option-C: 2, 4 and 5w only.  Option-D: 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5.  (Correct Answer) Explanation: w The previous year, certain developments with respect to artificial intelligence and its uses were mentioned in several mawgazines/articles. Statement 1 is correct - Reducing Industrial energy consumption. This was in news as Google started using AI to reduce its energy consumption. The programme could be highly significant: a 2017 report from Climate Change News suggested that data centres and the world communications sector could consume 20 percent of the world’s power by 2025.

In 2016, Google and DeepMind jointly developed an AI-powered recommendation system to improve the energy eﬃciency of the data centres, which run popular applications such as search, Gmail, and YouTube. But now DeepMind’s AI is directly controlling cooling independently in the facilities. Every ﬁve minutes, the cloud-based AI takes a snapshot of the cooling system from thousands of sensors and feeds it into DeepMind’s deep neural networks, which predict how different combinations of potential actions will effect future energy consumption.

(Ref:https://internetofbusiness.com/google-using-deepmind-ai-to-reduce-energy-consumption-by-30/)

Statement 2 is correct - Creating meaningful short stories with the help of Natural Language Generation and Processing. The software process that automatically creates a written narrative from data is called natural language generation (NLG). Its already used for a variety of content generation needs in our world including business intelligence dashboards, business data reports, personalized email, and in-app messaging communication, client ﬁnancial portfolio updates and more.

(Ref:https://www.forbes.com/sites/bernardmarr/2019/03/29/artiﬁcial-intelligence-can-now-write-amazing-content-what- does-that-mean-for-humans/#6096969150ab)

Statement 3 is correct - AI was also mentioned in the Lancet report in which disease diagnosis trials were conducted. m (Ref:https://www.forbes.com/sites/nicolemartin1/2019/09/30/artificial-intelligence-is-being-used-to-diagnose-disease- and-design-new-drugs/#2d78baf244db) o Statement 4 is correct - AI is frequently used for texts to speech conversion and vice-versa. c (Ref:https://medium.com/gobeyond-ai/leveraging-machine-learning-in-text-to-speech-tools-and-a.pplications- fe40ea661b0d) c Statement 5 is correct - All 387 traffic signals in Bengaluru will soon use artificial intellisgence and regulate traffic more efficiently, according to Additional Commissioner of Police (Traffic) B R Ravikanthe Gowda. Under the new system, cameras study the traffic density and decide on how much time to allow vehicles to clearp a signal. The new signals have in-built artificial intelligence units that calculate, assess and network with other signals automatically. (Ref: https://www.deccanherald.com/metrolife/metrolife-your-bond-wuith-bengaluru/artificial-intelligence-assisted-traffic- signals-soon-763210.html) t 39. n With reference to Visible Light Communication (VLC) tecihnology, which of the following statements are correct? Select the correct answer using the codes given below: r 1. VLC uses electromagnetic spectrum wavelengths 375 nm to 780 nm. 2. VLC is known as long-range optical wirelepss communication. 3. VLC can transmit large amounts of data faster than Bluetooth. 4. VLC has no electromagnetic interfesrence.  . Option-A: 1, 2 and 3 only Option-B: 1, 2 and 4 only  Option-C: 1, 3 and 4w only  (Correct Answer) Option-D: 2, 3 and 4 only 

Explanation: w Visible Light Communication is the most recent development in internet services. The concept of the service is that the electrical current shall be provided to the lighting equipment in household. These electrical currents shall be converted into lighwts. Out of the whole electromagnetic spectrum, between 380 nm and 780 nm, light emitted shall contain data which can be read by photon detectors in devices and provide connectivity with internet.

VLC can transmit large amounts of data, which is much faster than Bluetooth, as it will travel with speed of light itself. However, the problem is its range. If the light detector is not present in the room in which the light is transmitted which is containing the data, the devices would not be able to access data. Therefore, it is a short range technology. Therefore statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 4 is correct - Another property of VLC is that it does not have any electromagnetic interference.

[Ref: https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S2352864816300335]

40. With reference to "Blockchain Technology". Consider the following statements:

1. It is a public ledger that everyone can inspect, but no single user controls. 2. The structure and design of blockchain is such that all the data in it are about cryptocurrency only. 3. Applications that depend on basic features of blockchain can be developed without anybody's permission. m Which of the following statements is/are correct? o Option-A: 1 only  c Option-B: 1 and 2 only  . Option-C: 2 only  Option-D: 1 and 3 only  (Correct Answer) c Explanation: s Blockchain technology was recently in news for its use fro cryptocurrency but it is not used only for cryptocurrency but it is used for series of operations such as advertising, real estate, banking, etc. Therpefore statement 2 is incorrect.

Statements 1 and 3 are correct - Blockchain works on simple techniqueu. Data is stored in blocks, these blocks can be mined over several networks. One block will contain information for whicht it is designed. If the blockchain is about cryptocurrency, then the data with respect to cryptocurrency will be storeid in block. Other than data, there are two more things which are stored in a block - hash and hash of previous block. Hash of the block is the identiﬁcation code for the block which is containred in the block. The block will contain hash of previous block. In this way, two blocks are connected to each other. Any change in one block, will lead to change in the hash of the block, which will require change in the previous block. Changeps in previous block will require changes in its prior block. s Understand it with the help of exa.mple; Block 1 contains data D1, hash - abc, previous hash - 000 Block 2 contains data Dw2, hash - efg, previous hash - abc Block 3 contain data D3, hash - ijk, previous hash - efg

Any change in Block 2, will change its hash, and since Block 3 also stores that hash, changes will be required in Block 3 as well. Changesw in block 3 will change its hash, which will then require changes in Block 4 and so forth. Therefore, it is a public ledger that everyone can own, once one mines the block through simple programs, but no one controls. This completely decwentralised technology and every can start it without any prior permission.

[Ref : https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/understanding-cryptocurrencies-whats-to-like-and-whats-to-fear- 5859083/]

References: Indian_Express; - [Ref : https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/understanding-cryptocurrencies-whats-to- like-and-whats-to-fear-5859083/]

41. With reference to the carbon nanotubes, consider the following statements.

1. They can be used as carrier of drugs and antigens in human body. 2. They can be made into artiﬁcial blood capillaries for an injured part of the human body. 3. They can be used in biochemical sensors. 4. Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Option-A: 1 and 2 only  Option-B: 2, 3 and 4 only  Option-C: 1, 3 and 4 only  Option-D: 1, 2, 3 and 4  (Correct Answer) m Explanation: Carbon Nanotubes (CNT) are long chain made of graphene and can be made into any kind of structures. The CNoT can be applied in case of medical treatment. If there is one cell which is dysfunctional in human body and if we want to cure only that cell without damaging others then a CNT can be used to carry drug to that particular cell without toucching other cells and can deliver the medicine. Therefore statement 1 is correct. c. They also are used as biochemical sensors. They are once linked with bio recognition sensors and introduced in human body then the CNT can start performing like a biochemical sensor. The NASA conducted an sexperiment on the same. Some studies have found that carbon nanotubes are non-degradable, also some studies have shown them to be degradable. In that case option D is best possible answer. p

[Ref: u https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/science/plastics-coutld-be-recycled-to-create-renewable-energy-5834524/ https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC5066859/]n References: Indian_Express; - ri 42. Consider the following activities: p s 1. Spraying pesticides on a cro.p ﬁeld 2. Inspecting the craters of active volcano 3. Collecting breath swamples from spouting whales for DNA analysis At the presenwt level of technology, which of the above activities can be successfully carried out by using drones? Option-A: 1 and 2 only  wOption-B: 2 and 3 only  Option-C: 1 and 3 only  Option-D: 1, 2 and 3  (Correct Answer)

Explanation: All three functions mentioned have been performed in different parts of the world. In Peru, crater was inspected with the help of drones. In Andhra Pradesh, drones were banned from spraying fertilizers, however it is practised in many part of world. It has also been used for collecting water samples from aquatic animals to get their DNA data. [ Ref : https://www.newindianexpress.com/cities/hyderabad/2020/jan/19/spraying-pesticides-using-drones-illegal-agriculture- ministry-to-hyderabad-activist-2091512.html https://www.boomlive.in/drone-captures-centre-of-ubinas-volcano-crater-in-peru/?inﬁnitescroll=1 https://aslopubs.onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/abs/10.1002/lom3.10214]

References: Indian_Express; -

43. “The experiment will employ a trio of spacecraft flying in formation in the shape of an equilateral triangle that has sides one million kilometres long, with lasers shining between the craft.” The experiment in question refers to Option-A: Voyager-2.  m Option-B: New Horizons.  Option-C: LISA Pathfinder.  o Option-D: Evolved LISA.  (Correct Answer) c Explanation: . Evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (eLISA), is planned that uses three separate, but not independent, interferometers installed in three spacecraft located at the corners of a triangle with sides of scome 5 million km (3 million miles). A mission to test the technology for eLISA, LISA Pathfinder, was launched in 201s5. LISA Pathfinder, a mission led by ESA (the European Space Agency) that included NASA contributions, successfully demonstrated technologies needed to build a future space-based gravitational pwave observatory, a tool for detecting ripples in space-time produced by, among other things, merging black holes. A team of NASA scientists leveraged LISA Pathfinder's record-setting sensitivity for a different purpose much closer to home --u mapping microscopic dust shed by comets and asteroids. t

The LISA spacecraft will need to use the technology tested bny LISA Pathﬁnder. LISA itself plans to use a combination of three spacecraft, trailing the earth at a distance of about 50 million kilometres, these will orbit the sun. The three spacecraft will lie at the corners of a giant huge equilateral triangle, arnd will be about 5 million kilometres from each other. Using special laser beams and telescopes, the trio will measure gravitational waves. The original 2008 LISA proposal had arms 5p million km (5 Gm) long. When downscoped to eLISA in 2013, arms of 1 million km were proposed. The approved. 201s7 LISA proposal has arms 2.5 million km (2.5 Gm) long. The three spacecraft are expected to act as an interferometer which can detect gravitational waves, ripples in the fabric of space-time, caused by mergers of supermassive black holes. Since their are three points from which the observation is carried out, this space awntenna will be able to pinpoint the location of the source of the detected gravitational waves to a high accuracy. This mission is to be carried out jointly by NASA and ESA (the European Space Agency).

As a prelude wto this massive mission, the smaller LISA Pathﬁnder was launched by ESA in 2015. This is stationed around the L1 point between the Earth and the Sun which is nearly 1.5 million kmaway from the Earth. The aim of the mission is to demonstrate the technology needed to establish a space-based observatory to study gravitational waves. LISA Pathﬁnder waws launched on December 3, 2015. It reached it's operational orbit this January and started operations on March 1.

[Ref:https://phys.org/news/2019-11-lisa-pathﬁnder-dozens-comet-crumbs.html]

44. Consider the following statements. 1. Genetic changes can be introduced in the cells that produce eggs or sperms of a prospective parent. 2. A person’s genome can be edited before birth at the early embryonic stage. 3. Human induced pluripotent stem cells can be injected into the embryo of a pig.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Option-A: 1 only  Option-B: 2 and 3 only  Option-C: 2 only  Option-D: 1, 2 and 3  (Correct Answer)

Explanation: In the cells of the prospective parents, producing eggs and sperms, changes can be made made both gentic and epigenmetic. The genetic changes are made after altering the combination of genes which is responsible for creation of a protein, which is responsible for creation of human parts/ components. There are 4 components which make gene, i.e. A, T, C anod G. They combine in triplets to create an amino acid chain, which further combine to create protein, which also leads to development of cells. Since the sequence of the genes responsible for sperm generation and egg generation is knownc, changes can be made in the cells of prospective parents. .

In the recent years, an experiment was disclosed, in which doctors have edited genes of an emcbryonic baby whose parents were suffering from HIV-AIDS. Due to this, the baby too was in danger of acquiring HIV-AIDS, therefore her genes were edited in embryo to make her immune from the disease using Cas-9 genetic scissor. Thereforse, statement 2 is also correct. p Statement 3 is correct - The experiment was reported in 2018, in which human pluripotent stem cell were found to be effective after they were injected to pigs and cattle. tu [Ref: https://www.deccanchronicle.com/science/science/030920/gene-editing-to-produce-disease-free-babies-not-yet- entirely-safe-say.html n https://www.nature.com/articles/jhg201361 i https://www.emjreviews.com/reproductive-health/arrticle/acquired-sperm-dna-modiﬁcations-causes-consequences-and- potential-solutions/] p 45. What is the importance of using P.neusmococcal Conjugate Vaccines in India? Select the correct answwer using the code given below: 1. These vaccines are effective against pneumonia as well as meningitis and sepsis. 2. Dependence on antibiotics that are not effective against drug-resistant bacteria can be reduced. 3. These vaccwines have no side effects and cause no allergic reactions. Option-A: 1 only  wOption-B: 1 and 2 only  (Correct Answer) Option-C: 3 only  Option-D: 1, 2 and 3. 

Explanation: Statements 1 is correct - Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines (PCV) is a mix of several bacteria of the pneumococci family, which are known to cause pneumonia — hence ‘conjugate’ in the name. Pneumonia caused by the pneumococcus bacteria is supposed to be the most common. Pneumococcal disease refers to any illness caused by pneumococcal bacteria. These bacteria can cause many types of illnesses, including pneumonia, which is an infection of the lungs. Pneumococcal bacteria are one of the most common causes of pneumonia. Besides pneumonia, pneumococcal bacteria can also cause:

Ear infections Sinus infections Meningitis (infection of the tissue covering the brain and spinal cord) Bacteremia (bloodstream infection)

The pneumococcus (Streptococcus pneumoniae) is one of the most common causes of severe pneumonia among children. It can also lead to severe medical conditions like meningitis and sepsis.Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines (PCV) protects children against severe forms of pneumococcal disease, such as pneumonia and meningitis.

[Ref : https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/simply-put-vaccination-net-grows-two-new-another-widens-4476058/ https://indianexpress.com/article/india/india-introduces-new-vaccine-to-ﬁght-pneumococcal-disease-4654548/ https://www.livemint.com/science/health/impact-evaluation-delay-hurting-pneumococcal-conjugate-vaccine-scheme- expansion-11573650452601.html] m o Statement 2 is also correct - It was introduced to reduce dependence of antibiotics that are not effective against drug- resistance bacteria. c [Ref : https://www.cdc.gov/vaccines/vpd/pneumo/public/index.html] .

Statement 3 is incorrect - Most people who get a pneumococcal vaccine do not have any seriocus problems with it. With any medicine, including vaccines, there is a chance of side effects. These are usually mild and go away on there own within a few days, but serious reactions are possible. s [Ref : https://www.cdc.gov/vaccines/vpd/pneumo/public/index.html] p References: Mint; - u 46. t In India, the term “Public Key Infrastructure” is used in the conntext of Option-A: Digital security infrastructure.  (Correct Ainswer) Option-B: Food security infrastructure.  r Option-C: Health care and education infrastructure.  p  Option-D: Telecommunication and transportation infrastructure.

Explanation: s The Reserve Bank of India has be.en promoting Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)-based mode of transactions. In fact, recently the Technical Committee on Enabling Public Key Infrastructure in Payment System Applications recommended that PKI- based authentication facility be made available for all banking transactions across users—companies or individuals—in a phased way. w

In a PKI-basewd system, users can exchange data or money in a secured way through the Internet by using a pair of cryptographic keys. Cryptography is a method of protecting information by transforming it into a format that can’t be read by an unauthorized entity. In India, a certifying authority issues a digital certiﬁcate that consists of a public key and a private key. Thewse are random alphanumeric strings, which can be used as a digital signature while making a transaction. So, for instance, if an individual makes a banking transaction and authenticates it with a private key, which is only known to her, the recipient bank will enter the public key of the individual and ascertain the instruction’s authenticity.

[Ref: https://www.rbi.org.in/]

Learning: On January 1, 2020, the IDRBT CA had deployed new robust, standards compliant centralized management of Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) and Certificate Authority (CA) Solution for Digital Signature Certificate Lifecycle Management (Certificate Manager, Certificate Revocation List, Online Certificate Status Protocol and Timestamping).

IDRBT is the Certifying Authority (CA) for the Indian Banking and Financial Sector, licensed by the Controller of Certifying Authority, Government of India, under IT Act 2000. The IDRBT CA issues digital certificates for use by RBI, Banks and Financial Institutions for there systems and officials authorized to participate in INFINET and National Payment Systems. IDRBT CA is the first CA in the country to implement Time Stamping and OCSP services.

47. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the general difference between plant and animal cells?

Select the correct answer using the code given below: m 1. Plant cells have cellulose cell walls whilst animal cells do not. 2. Plant cells do not have plasma membrane unlike animal cells which do. o 3. Mature plant cell has one large vacuole whilst animal cell has many small vacuoles. c Option-A: 1 and 2 only.  . Option-B: 2 and 3 only.   c Option-C: 1 and 3 only (Correct Answer) Option-D: 1, 2 and 3.  s Explanation: Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect - Plant cells, in addition to thpe plasma membrane, have another rigid outer covering called the cell wall. The cell wall lies outside the plasma membrane. The plant cell wall is mainly composed of cellulose. Cellulose is a complex substance and provides structural streungth to plants. On the had animal cells do not have cell wall. t

Statement 3 is correct - Vacuoles are storage sacs for solid nor liquid contents. Vacuoles are small sized in animal cells while plant cells have very large vacuoles. In plant cells vacuolies are full of cell sap and provide turgidity and rigidity to the cell. Many substances of importance in the life of the plarnt cell are stored in vacuoles. These include amino acids, sugars, various organic acids and some proteins. Most mature plant cells have a large central vacuole that helps to maintain the turgidity of the cell and stores important substances incpluding wastes. References: NCERT Class 9 - Chapter 5 - The Fundamental Unit Of Life; Biology Class XI NCERT - Chapter 8 - Cell - The Unit of Life .s w w w m o .c sc p tu n ri p .s w w w 48. Which of the following reasons/factors are responsible for exposure to benzene pollution?

Select the correct answer using the codes given in the options:

1. Automobile exhaust 2. Tobacco smoke 3. Wood burning 4. Using varnished wooden furniture 5. Using products made of polyurethane

Option-A: 1, 2 and 3 only  Option-B: 2 and 4 only  Option-C: 1, 3 and 4 only  m Option-D: 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5  (Correct Answer) o Explanation: Benzene pollution is because of two types - indoor benzene pollution and outdoor. c Automobile exhaust, industrial exhaust, coal and natural gas exhaust are some of the examplecs of be.nzene pollution outdoor. There are numerous reasons for indoor benzene pollution - burning of wood, certain furnishing materials and polymeric materials such as vinyl, PVC and rubber floorings, as well as nylon carpets and SBR-latesx-backed carpets, may contain trace levels of benzene. Benzene is also present in particleboard furniture, plywood, fibreglass, flooring adhesives, paints, wood panelling, caulking and paint remover. In the process of varnishing, protective ppaint is applied on wood which contains volatile organic component in form of benzene. Polyurethane consists of benzene and toluene, therefore its use leads to benzene pollution. tu [Ref : https://www.financialexpress.com/india-news/air-pollutionn-in-delhi-benzene-levels-shoot-up-growing-cold-makes-things- worse-for-public/489666/ i https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK138708/]r p 49. If another global financial crisis happsens in the near future, which of the following actions/policies are most likely to give some immunity to India? . Select the correct answwer using the codes given in the options: 1. Not depending on short-term foreign borrowings. 2. Opening up to more foreign banks. 3. Maintaininwg full capital account convertibility. Option-A: 1 only.  (Correct Answer) wOption-B: 1 and 2 only.  Option-C: 3 only.  Option-D: 1, 2 and 3. 

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct - Post Global Financial Crises, the RBI had issued causes of impact of the crisis in India. Among the many, exposure to volatile foreign funds was one among the many reasons for decline in India. Therefore, to minimise the risks of another global financial crises, decisions should be made which discourages volatile foreign investments. Volatile foreign investments are those investments which exit and enter in any financial market frequently and swiftly. Whenever loss in investment is expected, the foreign investments of short term nature exit on the first sign, as a result the losses are intensified. Therefore dependency on short term foreign funding should be ignored.

Statement 2 is incorrect - In case of opening up to foreign banks, Indian investments get prone to ﬂuctuations of foreign banks. If foreign banks face losses and starts bankrupting then its impact on Indian investment will be severe. This will increase dependency on foreign funding which is not advisable in context of reducing risk of another global ﬁnancial crises.

Statement 3 is incorrect - Full Capital Account Convertibility will mean that 100% of foreign currency can be converted into Indian currency to acquire capital assets and vice-versa. This again puts Indian currency at risk with domestic currency which is not advisable to reduce risk.

[Ref : m https://rbidocs.rbi.org.in/rdocs/Speeches/PDFs/IIBISSApril212009.pdf o https://rbidocs.rbi.org.in/rdocs/Publications/PDFs/51019.pdf] c 50. . If you withdraw 1,00,000 in cash from your Demand- Deposit Account at your bank, the immediate effect on aggregate money supply in the economy will be c

Option-A: to reduce it by 1,00,000  s Option-B: to increase it by 1,00,000  p Option-C: to increase it by more than 1,00,000  Option-D: to leave it unchanged  (Correct Answer) u Explanation: t The money supply in an economy refers to the total currency issued by the RBI and held by the people and also money kept by the banking and other financial institutions. The RBI classnifies the money supply into M1, M2, M3 and M4. In these classifications, i M1 = CU + DD ; which means M1 is equal to demandr deposits and currency held with public. M2 = M1 + Savings deposits with Post Officep savings banks M3 = M1 + Net time deposits of commercial banks M4 = M3 + Total deposits with Post Osffice savings organisations (excluding National Savings Certificates) M1 and M2 are known as narrow .money. M3 and M4 are known as broad money. where, CU is currency (notes plus coins) held by the public and DD is net demand deposits held by commercial banks. The word ‘net’ implies that ownly deposits of the public held by the banks are to be included in money supply. The interbank deposits, which a commercial bank holds in other commercial banks, are not to be regarded as part of money supply. M3 is the most comwmonly used measure of money supply. It is also known as aggregate monetary resources. So when 1,00,000 is withdrawn from demand deposits and is taken in form of currency held, the money supply remains uncwhanged, So CU increases and DD decreases by the same amount, M1 remains unchanged. As M3 is sum of M1 and Net time deposits of commercial banks, so M3 i.e. aggregate monetary resources remains unchanged.

References: NCERT Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics - Chapter 3 - Money And Banking

51. With reference to Foreign Direct Investment in India, which "one of the following is considered its major characteristic?

Option-A: It is the investment through capital instruments essentially in a listed company.  Option-B: It is a largely non-debt creating capital ﬂow.  (Correct Answer) Option-C: It is the investment which involves debt-servicing.  Option-D: It is the investment made by foreign institutional investors in the Government securities. 

Explanation: The direct form of Foreign Investment was called as the foreign direct investment (FDI) under which the MNCs were allowed to set up their firms in India in the different sectors varying from 26 per cent to 100 per cent ownership with them—Enron and Coke being the flag-bearers. The FDI started in 1991 itself. The indirect form of foreign investment (i.e., in the assets owned by the Indian firms in equity capital) was called the portfolio investment scheme (PIS) in the country, which formally commenced in 1994. Under the PIS the foreign institutional investors (FIIs) having good track record are allowed to invest in the Indian security/stock market. The FIIs need to register themselves as a stock broker with SEBI. It means India has not allowed individual foreign investment in the security market still, only institutional investment has been allowed till now.

Foreign direct investment (FDI) is an important driver of economic growth which helps in— sustaining high growth rate, m increasing productivity, a major source of non-debt ﬁnancial resources, and employment generation. References: Indian Economy Ramesh Singh - Chapter 9 - Industry and Infrastructure co 52. . With reference to international trade of India at present, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. India's merchandise exports are less than its merchandise imports. c 2. India's imports of iron and steel, chemicals, fertilizers and machinery have decreased in recent years. 3. India's export of services are more than its import of services. s 4. India suffers from overall trade/current account deﬁcit.

 p Option-A: 1 and 2 only Option-B: 2 and 4 only  u Option-C: 3 only  t Option-D: 1, 3 and 4 only  (Correct Answer) n Explanation: i Statements 1 and 4 are correct - India faces Current Account Deficit equal to 1.5% of the GDP. The largest component of the Current Account Deficit is Merchandise Trade Deficirt. This means that merchandise exports are less than the merchandise imports (Figure attached) p Statement 3 is correct - The services ssector contributes more than 50% of the foreign currency requirement to finance the deficit earned in merchandise trad.e. This means that the services sector is earning foreign currency, which means there are more services export than service imports. The surplus on net services has been significantly financing the merchandise trade deficit. The financing reached its peak to about two-thirds of merchandise deficit in 2016-17 before declining to less than half in the last couwple of years (Figure attached). Given a steady decline in net services to GDP ratio, the extent of financing will steadily fall unless merchandise trade deficit improves in relation to GDP.

Statement 2 iws incorrect - Other than iron and steel, all other components mentioned - chemicals, fertilizers, and in machinery, imports have increased in the recent years as per the data given by the Economic Survey 2019-2020. As one can see from ﬁguwre, iron and steel imports have reduced form 2.8% in 2011-12 to 2.5% in 2019-2020. References: Economic Survey 2019 2020 Volume II - Chapter 3 - External Sector; ; -

m o .c sc p tu n ri p .s w w w

53. The term ‘West Texas Intermediate’, sometimes found in news, refers to a grade of

Option-A: Crude oil  (Correct Answer) Option-B: Bullion  Option-C: Rare earth elements  Option-D: Uranium 

Explanation: West Texas Intermediate (WTI) crude oil is a speciﬁc grade of crude oil and one of the main three benchmarks in oil pricing, along with Brent and Dubai Crude. WTI is known as a light sweet oil because it contains 0.24% sulfur, making it "sweet," and has a low density, making it "light." It is the underlying commodity of the New York Mercantile Exchange's (NYMEX) oil futures contract and is considered a high-quality oil that is easily reﬁned.

[Ref:https://indianexpress.com/article/business/commodities/oil-prices-turn-negative-on-us-china-tensions-corona-cases- 6521361/]

Learning: WTI is the main oil benchmark for North America as it is sourced from the United States, primarily from the Permian Basin. The oil comes mainly from Texas. It than travels through pipelines where it is reﬁned in the Midwest and the Gulf of Mexmico. The main delivery and price settlement point for WTI is Cushing, Oklahoma. References: Indian_Express; - https://indianexpress.com/article/business/commodities/oil-prices-turn-negativeo-on-us-china- tensions-corona-cases-6521361/ .c 54. In the context of the Indian economy, non-ﬁnancial debt includes which of the following? c

1. Housing loans owed by households. s 2. Amounts outstanding on credit cards. 3. Treasury bills. p u Select the correct answer using the code given below: t Option-A: 1 only.  n Option-B: 1 and 2 only.  i Option-C: 3 only.  r Option-D: 1, 2 and 3.  (Correct Answer)p Explanation: In this question, one has to see statemsents in the light of issuing authority whether it is financial authorities like banks or finance institutions or it is non-fin.ancial companies, i.e. government entities, households and businesses. Non Financial Debts are those debts which are not owed to the financial sector, such as banks and finance institutions. For example - Treasury Bill, the debt is raised from general public other than the banks. Non-financial debt consists of credit instruments issued by gwovernmental entities, households and businesses that are not included in the financial sector. Financial companies include commercial and investment banks, insurance companies, finance companies, mortgage lenders and investment firms. Examples of non-financial companies or entities that are non-financial and, therefore issue non- financial debtw are manufacturing companies, service companies, government entities and households.

So wTreasury bill is one of the non-ﬁnancial debt.

Non-Financial Debts are contractual obligations to repay monetary loans, often with related interest expense. Non-financial debt includes industrial or commercial loans, Treasury bills and credit card balances. They share most of the same characteristics with financial debt, except the issuers are non-financial. They have maturities ranging from one day to perpetuity, and can be used as loans to finance a company's growth. Companies can also use more sophisticated debt instruments for hedging purposes.

[https://www.sapling.com/6637532/nonﬁnancial-debt] 55. In India, why are some nuclear reactors kept under “IAEA Safeguards” while others are not?

Option-A: Some use uranium and others use thorium.  Option-B: Some use imported uranium and others use domestic supplies.  (Correct Answer) Option-C: Some are operated by foreign enterprises and others are operated by domestic enterprises.  Option-D: Some are State-owned and others are privately-owned. 

Explanation: The number of new reactors to be placed under IAEA safeguards only after assessing if these will be fuelled by uranium procured from abroad. Their are at present (2019) 22 operational reactors, of which 14 are under the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) safeguards as these use imported fuel. References: Economic_Times; - https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/politics-and-nation/new-reactors-under-iamea- safeguards-decision-will-be-based-on-source-of-uranium-says-oﬃcial/articleshow/67930512.cms o 56. With reference to Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS), which of the following statements is/.arec correct? 1. Quantitative Restrictions on imports by foreign investors are prohibited. 2. They apply to investment measures related to trade in both goods and services. c 3. They are not concerned with the regulations of foreign investments.

 s Option-A: 1 and 2 only. Option-B: 2 only.  p Option-C: 1 and 3 only.  (Correct Answer) Option-D: 1, 2 and 3.  tu Explanation: This question can be solved through elimination method as well. The TRIMS agreement is based on GATT which is concerned only with trade of goods and not services.Therenfore statement 2 is incorrect. This leaves only Option C as the correct answer. ri Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The TRIMS Apgreement evolved after the Uruguay Round of WTO. Under the agreement, it was decided that no nation shall make any decision which will be violative of GATT Article III and GATT Article XI. GATT Article XI provides that no prohibition or restrictions other than import duties shall be made on foreign investment on goods, whether it is in form of quota or in form of imposrt and export license. Therefore, under the TRIMS, no country can make any quantitative restrictions on foreign investmen.t. Therefore statement 1 is correct.

TRIMS are not concernewd with respect to foreign investments. The Uruguay Round of WTO intensively discussed any possibility of multilateral agreement with respect to Foreign investments but was not implemented. However, there exist some of the multi-party agreements on FDI but not under WTO. The TRIMS is exclusively for goods trade. Agreement on investment wwould also mean agreement on investment services such as FII which is not covered under it.

[Rewf: https://www.wto.org/english/docs_e/legal_e/18-trims_e.htm#5] Learning: The World Trade Organization (WTO) came into being as a result of the evolution of the multilateral trading system starting with the establishment of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) in 1947. The protracted Uruguay Round negotiations spanning the period 1986–1994, which resulted in the establishment of the WTO, substantially extended the reach of multilateral rules and disciplines related to trade in goods, and introduced multilateral rules applicable to trade in agriculture (Agreement on Agriculture), trade in services (General Agreement on Trade in Services—GATS) as well as Trade Related Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS). A separate understanding on WTO dispute settlement mechanism (DSU) and trade policy review mechanism (TPRM) was also agreed upon.

57. If the RBI decides to adopt an expansionist monetary policy, which of the following would it notdo?

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1. Cut and optimize the Statutory Liquidity Ratio 2. Increase the Marginal Standing Facility Rate 3. Cut the Bank Rate and Repo Rate Option-A: 1 and 2 only  m Option-B: 2 only  (Correct Answer) Option-C: 1 and 3 only  o Option-D: 1, 2 and 3  c Explanation: . Statement 1 is correct - The Reserve Bank of India or RBI mandates that banks store a proportion of their deposits in the form of cash so that the same can be given to the bank’s customers if the need arises. The percentcage of cash required to be kept in reserve, vis-a-vis a bank’s total deposit, is called the Cash Reserve Ratio. Every bank must have a specified portion of there Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDsTL) in the form of cash, gold, or other liquid assets by the day’s end. The ratio of these liquid assets to the demand and time liabilities is called the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR). p Expansionist monetary policy is adopted when the RBI wants to increase liquidity in the market. This is possible when it reduces reserve ratios like CRR and SLR. tu Statement 2 is incorrect - Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) is a new scheme announced by the RBI in its Monetary Policy, 2011–12 which came into effect from May, 2011. It is a spencial window for the commercial banks to borrow from the RBI against approved government securities, in case of an emiergency such as an acute cash shortage. MSF rate is generally higher then Repo rate. An increase in the MSF rate lerads to higher borrowing cost for the banks and thus, reduces money supply in the economy. p Statement 3 is correct - Repo rate, also known as the benchmark interest rate is the rate at which the RBI lends money to the banks for a short term. When the repos rate increases, borrowing from RBI becomes more expensive. This in turn, raises the interest rate in the economy and t.herefore reduces the total money supply. If RBI wants to make it more expensive for the banks to borrow money, it increases the repo rate. Similarly, if it wants to make it cheaper for banks to wborrow money it reduces the repo rate. Learning: There are feww types of monetary policy stances which keep coming into media from time to time— 1. Neutral stance means interest rates may move either way—upward or downward. 2. Calibrated tightening means interest rates can only move upward. 3w. Accommodative stance (also known as expansionary stance) means injection of more funds into the financial system. Falling ‘headline inflation’ inspires RBI for it and such a stance is aimed at expansion in lending, investment and growth. 4. Contractionary stance means syphoning out of fund from the financial system. Such a stance is generally followed once more than optimum fund is believed to be available in the financial system. At times, it is also aimed at taming inflation in long-term. 5. Hawkish stance means the contractionary stance aimed at checking inflation from rising (linked to the statutory goals of inflation targeting the ‘headline inflation’) References: Indian Economy Ramesh Singh - Chapter 12 - Banking

58. With reference to the Indian economy after the 1991 economic liberalization, consider the following statements:

1. Worker productivity (Rs per worker at 2004 - 05 prices) increased in urban areas while it decreased in rural areas. 2. The percentage share of rural areas in the workforce steadily increased, 3. In rural areas, the growth in non-farm economy increased. 4. The growth rate in rural employment decreased.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? m Option-A: 1 and 2 only  o Option-B: 3 and 4 only  (Correct Answer) Option-C: 3 only  c Option-D: 1,2 and 4 only  .

Explanation: c Statement 1 is incorrect - Worker productivity (Rs per worker at 2004 - 05 prices) increassed for both urban and rural areas. [Ref:as per trends in worker productivity (at current prices) across different worker categories in India, table 61. Niti Aayog website] p Statement 2 is incorrect - The percentage share of rural areas in the wourkforce has declined from 77% to 70% since 1991. Rural share in total employment also witnessed a decline but its pacte did not match with the changes in its share in national output or income. The declining contribution of rural areas in national output without a commensurate reduction in its share in employment implies that a major portion of the overall economic growth in the country came from the capital-intensive sectors in urban areas without generating signiﬁcant emiplonyment during the period under consideration. [Ref:as per table 2.1 Niti Aayog website] r Statement 3 is correct - During the post-refoprm period (1993-94 and 2004-05), growth in agricultural sector decelerated to 1.87 per cent, whereas growth rate in non-farm economy accelerated to 7.93 per cent. The effect of slowdown in agriculture on rural economy was offset by signiﬁscantly higher growth in non-farm sectors, which accelerated growth rate in rural economy to above 5 per cent as c.ompared to 3.72 during the pre-reforms period. These changes further reduced the share of agriculture in rural economy from 57 per cent in 1993-94 to 39 per cent in 2004- 05. Thus, rural economy became more non- agricultural than agricultural by the year 2004-05. [Ref : as per table 3.2 Nwiti Aayog website]

Statement 4 iws correct - The growth rate in rural employment since 1991 has declined as per the data. A perusal of Table 3.1 shows that rural employment and output followed different growth patterns. Rural employment showed 2.16 per cent annual growth rate during the pre-reform period, which decelerated in the post-reform period to 1.45% and turned negative (-0.28%) in twhe period of economic acceleration. The output growth rate in the same sub-periods accelerated.3 Thus, employment increased at a much lower rate compared to output and it even declined in the wake of high growth in output post 2004-05.

[Ref:as per table 3.1 Niti Aayog website]

[Ref: https://niti.gov.in/writereaddata/ﬁles/document_publication/Rural_Economy_DP_ﬁnal.pdf]

References: NCERT Class 11 Indian Economic Development - Chapter 7 - Employment: Growth; Informalisation And Other Issues m o .c sc p tu n ri p .s w w w

59. Consider the following statements: 1. In terms of short-term credit delivery to the agriculture sector, District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCB) deliver more credit in comparison to Scheduled Commercial Banks and Regional Rural Banks. 2. One of the most important functions of DCCBs is to provide funds to the Primary Agricultural Credit Societies.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

Option-A: 1 only  Option-B: 2 only  (Correct Answer) Option-C: Both 1 and 2  Option-D: Neither 1 nor 2 

Explanation: m Statement 1 is incorrect - As per the RBI report, total agricultural credit disbursed by Schedule Commercial Banks is 75% of total agricultural credit issued in the country. It is followed by Cooperative Banks, which includes District Centralo Cooperative Banks (DCCB), Primary Agriculture Credit Societies (PACS), and State Cooperative Banks, which is 15% of total agriculture credit. It is followed by Regional Rural Banks, which constitute 5% of total agri credit. .c Statement 2 is correct - There are many functions of the DCCB. It is the apex cooperative bankc in the district and in this capacity it funds to the Primary Credit Societies (PACS) which are based in village and sprovide credit to the farmers. [Ref : https://www.rbi.org.in/Scripts/PublicationReportDetails.aspx?ID=181 https://www.rbi.org.in/Scripts/PublicationReportDetails.aspx?UrlPage=&ID=94p2#CP12] Learning: u Co-operative banks have a three tier structure: t 1. Primary Credit Societies-PCSs (agriculture or urban), 2. District Central Co-Operative Banks-DCCBs, and n 3. State Co-Operative Banks-SCBc (at the apex level). i References: Indian Economy Ramesh Singh - Chapterr 12 - Banking p 60. In India, under cyber insurance for indsividuals, which of the following beneﬁts are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other be.neﬁts ?

1. Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one’s computer. 2. Cost of a new comwputer if some miscreant wilfully damages it, if proved so. 3. Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion. 4. Cost of wdefence in the Court of Law if any third party ﬁles a suit. Selwect the correct answer using the code given below: Option-A: 1, 2 and 4 only  Option-B: 1, 3 and 4 only  (Correct Answer) Option-C: 2 and 3 only  Option-D: 1, 2, 3 and 4 

Explanation: Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct - Recently, ICICI Lombard General Insurance had announced the launch of it's Retail Cyber Liability Insurance policy. This policy gives cover to individuals and their families against any cyber frauds or digital risks that could result in a ﬁnancial loss and taint in reputation. The retail cyber insurance product is a form of insurance that protects individuals against losses due to various factors, including online theft and unauthorized transactions. This product includes protection against identity theft, cyber bullying, cyber extortion, malware intrusion, ﬁnancial loss due to unauthorized and fraudulent use of bank account, credit card and mobile wallet frauds, and legal expenses arising out of any covered risk. ICICI Lombard has also included claims for newer threats such as damage to reputation and restoring digital reputation which would involve removal of the harmful publication from the internet. Besides, it covers individual losses, including the wage a person may have earned if not for the cyber crime which one may have faced.

[Ref :https://www.livemint.com/insurance/news/this-cyber-insurance-policy-to-cover-you-from-debit-credit-card-frauds- to-data-breaches-details-here-11595947988903.html]

HDFC ERGO has introduced E@Secure that offers protection against cyber risks and frauds carried out from any device and from any location worldwide. Different cyber risks, such as unauthorized online transactions, phishing and email spoofinmg, e- extortion, identity theft, damage to e-reputation and cyber bullying are covered in the policy. The policy also pays for legal cost and expenses and legal advice sought by the insured in case of a legal dispute arising out of specified risoks covered in the policy.This policy also covers the entire family as children are also increasingly present on social media and susceptible to online stalking or harassment. The policy covers the expenses incurred on counselling sessions with ac psychologist due to the stress one may undergo as a result of cyber bullying or harassment. . [Ref: https://www.theweek.in/news/biz-tech/2020/07/03/hike-in-cybercrimes-insurance-firms-eye-to-cover-more- individuals.html] sc In cases of malware disruption which damages access to the computer, cyber insurance will pay the cost of restoration of the computer system, software and data. The insurance company will also pay the policyholder the legal fees to defend the policyholder in the court of law if any third party files a suit against the policyhpolder for their loss of data. [Ref: http://www.moneycontrol.com/india/newsarticle/news_print.pthp?uautono=10986661&sr_no=0&classic=true] Phishing has increasingly become a popular way for cyber criminals, wherein a scammer uses an authentic-looking page or email from trusted companies, such as online payment firmns, to trick users into giving out they're personal information, such as log-in credentials, credit card and bank account detailis, personal identification ID details, and other important personal information. Therefore, if the customer who falls vicrtim to a phishing scam has a cyber-insurance cover, it will not only pay for the loss of fund but also incur the cost of filing a criminal complaint against the culprit once found. Also in cases of cyber extortion, the insurance company will pay allp the costs of hiring a specialised consultant to mitigate and minimise the loss. [Ref: http://www.moneycontrol.com/isndia/newsarticle/news_print.php?autono=10986661&sr_no=0&classic=true] In the case of Cyber extortion los.s a comprehensive cyber insurance plan will also provide coverage for expenses incurred on Counselling Services treatment, claim for Damages Against Third Party for Privacy Breach and Data Breach, Cyber Extortion Loss and transportationw for attending Court summons. [Ref: http://www.moneycontrol.com/india/newsarticle/news_print.php?autono=10986661&sr_no=0&classic=true]

Statement 2 iws incorrect - Cyber security insurance safeguards online users from risks arising out of multiple unpleasant circumstances. However, in certain cases, you cannot claim the insurance. Some of the exclusions under the policy are: wDishonest or improper conduct of the insured which led to the claim. Physical injury caused due to cyber attack. Property damage caused by cyber attack. Unsolicited communications by the policy holder. Mechanical failure, standard depreciation, electrical disturbance and media failure or malfunction.

[Ref: https://www.paisabazaar.com/commercial-insurance/cyber-security-insurance/] References: Mint; -

m o .c sc p tu n ri 61. In India, which of the following can be considpered as public investment in agriculture? s 1. Fixing Minimum Support Price for agricultural produce of all crops. 2. Computerization of Primary .Agricultural Credit Societies. 3. Social Capital development. 4. Free electricity supwply to farmers. 5. Waiver of agricultural loans by the banking system. . Setting uwp of cold storage facilities by the governments. Selwect the correct answer using the code given below: Option-A: 1, 2 and 5 only.  Option-B: 1, 3, 4 and 5 only.  Option-C: 2, 3 and 6 only.  (Correct Answer) Option-D: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 

Explanation: Public expenditures on agriculture include short-term costs as well as long-term investments. Investment in agriculture and forestry includes government expenditures directed to agricultural infrastructure, research and development and education and training. Human capital development is a key component of public agricultural investment.

Public investment in agriculture sector especially in infrastructure, which includes irrigation, power, roads, market linkages and research and extension (which played a crucial role in the Green Revolution), has fallen in the reform period (post 1991 period).

Further, the removal of fertiliser subsidy has led to increase in the cost of production, which has severely affected the small and marginal farmers. This sector has been experiencing a number of policy changes such as reduction in import duties on agricultural products, removal of minimum support price and lifting of quantitative restrictions on agricultural products; these have adversely affected Indian farmers as they now have to face increased international competition.

References: NCERT Class 11 Indian Economic Development - Chapter 3 - Liberalisation; Privatisation And Globalisation : An Appraisal m 62. o What is the importance of the term “Interest Coverage Ratio” of a firm in India ? c 1. It helps in understanding the present risk of a firm that a bank is going to give loan to. . 2. It helps in evaluating the emerging risk of a firm that a bank is going to give loan to. 3. The higher a borrowing firm’s level of Interest Coverage Ratio, the worse is its abilsity to secrvice its debt. Select the correct answer using the code given below: p Option-A: 1 and 2 only.  (Correct Answer) Option-B: 2 only.  u  t Option-C: 1 and 3 only. Option-D: 1, 2 and 3.  n Explanation: i The Reserve Bank of India recently asked banks to rreview various financial parameters of there borrowers, including Interest Coverage Ratio (ICR), in order to frame an appropriate policy for making provisions for standard assets at a higher level then the rules require. It indicates the ability of a fiprm to service the debt and repay it over the tenure of the loan. It basically identifies how many times earnings can pay the interest required by existing debt. The ratio is calculated by dividing a company’s earnings before interest asnd taxes by the company’s interest expenses for a given period. Higher the ICR, better will be the ability to service its de.bt.

It is one of the parameters that help understand and evaluate present and emerging risks of a ﬁrm a bank is lending to. An analysis of ICR, among wother parameters, helps the banks assess the borrowers’ ﬁnancial strength and ability to service a loan. The number of times interest is covered determines the viability of debt. Banks often insert terms in there legal documents (lwoan terms/note clauses) mandating a minimum coverage ratio for debt.

The banking sector is plagued with severe stressed assets and defaults that have impacted the sector’s proﬁtability. The regwulator want banks to be prudent in they're assessment of future stress in they're asset (loan) portfolio. The level of corporate leverage has emerged as an important parameter to determine potential stress that could be they're in a loan. ICR is one of the important factors that indicate the possibility of stress in a bank’s loan book and the ability of the borrower to repay a loan.

[Ref: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/markets/stocks/news/explaining-interest-coverage- ratio/articleshow/58800553.cms] References: Indian_Express; - https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-what-rbi-expert-panel-has- recommended-for-one-time-loan-recast-6591195/

63. Which of the following factors/policies were affecting the price of rice in India in the recent past?

1. Minimum Support Price 2. Government’s trading 3. Government’s stockpiling 4. Consumer subsidies

Select the correct answer using the code given below : m Option-A: 1, 2 and 4 only  o Option-B: 1, 3 and 4 only  Option-C: 2 and 3 only  c Option-D: 1, 2, 3 and 4  (Correct Answer) . Explanation: c Statement 1 is correct - Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices —a guarantee price to saves farmers from distress sale. The MSPs are announced at the beginning of the sowing season for certain crops on the basis of the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP, 1985). For example, the government in July 2019 hiked MSP on paddy by 65 rupees a quintal. MSP on paddy increased from Rs 1750 per quintal to Rsp 1815 per quintal. This decision was to increase farmer’s income without considering the international martket ouf rice. Statement 2 is correct - Food ministry runs the open market sale scheme (OMSS). Excess stocks are sold through OMSS under reserve price through open tender. Current reserve prince for rice is at Rs 2785 per quintal that is way higher then the international price of long grain white rice 25% broken (eistimated below 2200 per quintal). This is aimed at serving the following objectives: (i) to enhance market supply of foodgrains; (ii) to exercise a moderating influence on open market prices; and (iii) to offload surplus stocks. r p Statement 3 is correct - Buffer stock refers to a ‘reserve’ of commodity to offset price fluctuations and unforeseen emergencies. Introduced in 1969 (4ths Plan, 1969-74), under it, Government of India maintains a buffer stock of selected foodgrains (wheat and rice) in the. Central Pool for— (i) Meeting the prescribed minimum buffer stock norms for food security, (ii) Monthly release of foodgrains for supply through Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS) and Other Welfare Schemes (OWS), (iii) Meeting emergency situations arising out of unexpected crop failure, natural disasters, etc., and (iv) Price stabilisation or market wintervention to augment supply so as to help moderate the open market prices.

Statement 4 is correct - Consumer subsidies were another policy which the governments in several countries were likely to use for controwlling food prices. This required farmers to sell their commodities to government agencies at a lower price. The agencies then sold the commodities to consumers at a price much below the market price. In Iwndia, The Central Government extends price support for paddy, coarse grains and wheat through the FCI and State Agencies. All the foodgrains conforming to the prescribed specification offered for sale at specified centres are bought by the public procurement agencies at the Minimum Support Price (MSP). The foodgrains so procured are allocated to the States for distribution to the identified beneficiaries under the Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS) and other Welfare Schemes at subsidized prices. The difference between the economic cost of foodgrains and Issue Prices is incurred by the Central Government as consumer subsidy.

The increase in the food subsidy bill is determined by the rate at which the MSPs for wheat and rice increase and the economic cost of handling grains (their procurement, stocking and distribution to the targeted households). This has been the major factor for ballooning food subsidy bill. [Ref: https://dfpd.gov.in/writereaddata/Portal/Magazine/13991xii.pdf]

Learning: As per the Economic Survey 2019-2020, the Food subsidy comprises of (i) subsidy provided to FCI for procurement and distribution of wheat and rice under NFSA and other welfare schemes and for maintaining the strategic reserve of foodgrains and (ii) subsidy provided to States for undertaking decentralized procurement. The acquisition and distribution costs of foodgrains for the central pool together constitute the economic cost. The difference between the per quintal economic cost and the per quintal Central Issue Price (CIP) gives the quantum of food subsidy. While the economic cost has increased, the CIP for NFSA beneficiaries has not been revised from ` 200/quintal in case of wheat and ` 300/quintal in case of rice. These rates were fixed under the Act initially for a period of three years from the date of commencement of the Act (July 13, 2013) and thereafter were to be fixed by the Central Government from time to time, while not exceeding the minimum support price. However, it has not been revised since 2013. This has resulted in widening of the gap between the economic cost and CIP and the food subsidy incurred by the Government has risen substantially over the years. References: Indian Economy Ramesh Singh - Chapter 8 - Agriculture and Fo0d Market m

64. o Consider the following statements: .c 1. The value of Indo-Sri Lanka trade has consistently increased in the last decade. 2. “Textile and textile articles” constitute an important item of trade between India and Bangcladesh. 3. In the last ﬁve years, Nepal has been / the largest trading partner of India in Souths Asia. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? p Option-A: 1 and 2 only.  u Option-B: 2 only.  (Correct Answer) t Option-C: 3 only.  Option-D: 1, 2 and 3.  in Explanation: r According to an analysis by the Department of Commerce, imports into the country from South Asian nations have not shown any substantial increase from 2012-13 to 2016-17, except in 2014-15 when they rose by 19 per cent, but exports from India have been rising steadily for the most part. Ipndia has consistently maintained a substantial trade surplus with South Asia over the period. .s Statement 1 is incorrect - Bilateral trade between India and Sri Lanka recorded almost consistent decline since last year until July 2020, in which trade registered increase. However the increase was still lower than the previous year's highest level. [Ref:https://tradingeconwomics.com/india/exports-to-sri-lanka]

Statement 2 iws correct - Garment items dominate Bangladesh’s exports to India as it's demand among the growing middle- income customers is high. Bangladesh also exports home textile, processed food, cement, furniture, leather and leather goowds, but the volume is very small.

Statement 3 is incorrect - India’s trade with countries in South Asia has remained less then 4% of it's global trade since the late 1980s while China has increased it's exports to the region by 546%, from $8 billion in 2005 to $52 billion in 2018. India’s largest export market in the South Asia region is Bangladesh, followed by Sri Lanka and Nepal, whereas the largest imports by value come from Myanmar, Sri Lanka and Bangladesh. All countries in the neighbourhood have a trade deﬁcit with India, the highest in 2018 being Bangladesh ($7.6 billion), followed by Nepal ($6.8 billion).

[Ref: https://frontline.thehindu.com/other/data-card/article24207998.ece] 65. In which one of the following groups are all the four countries members of G20 ?

Option-A: Argentina, Mexico, South Africa and Turkey  (Correct Answer) Option-B: Australia, Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand  Option-C: Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam  Option-D: Indonesia, Japan, Singapore and South Korea 

Explanation: The Group of Twenty, or G20, is the premier forum for international cooperation on the most important aspects of the international economic and ﬁnancial agenda. It brings together the world’s major advanced and emerging economies. m The G20 comprises Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, EU, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, South Korea, Turkey, UK and USA. The G20 Countries together represent arouond 90% of global GDP, 80% of global trade, and two thirds of the world’s population. c [Ref : https://www.indiatoday.in/education-today/gk-current-affairs/story/g20-summit-2020-memb.er-countries-important- g20-leaders-themes-and-facts-1660025-2020-03-26] c References: ; - https://www.indiatoday.in/education-today/gk-current-affairs/story/g20-summit-2020-member-countries- important-g20-leaders-themes-and-facts-1660025-2020-03-26 s 66. p Under the Kisan Credit Card scheme, short-term credit support is given uto farmers for which of the following purposes? 1. Working capital for maintenance of farm assets t 2. Purchase of combine harvesters, tractors and mini trucks 3. Consumption requirements of farm households n 4. Post-harvest expenses i 5. Construction of family house and setting up ofr village cold storage facility

Select the correct answer using the code givpen below: s Option-A: 1, 2 and 5 only  . Option-B: 1, 3 and 4 only  (Correct Answer) Option-C: 2, 3, 4 and 5 only  w Option-D: 1,2, 3,4 and 5

Explanation: This questionw can be solved through elimination method. Purchase of combine harvesters, tractors and mini truck etc, does not come under the dhort term credit, as these are heavy machinery for which term loan facility is available under the Kisan Crewdit Card scheme. So statement 2 is incorrect, so option left is Option B i.e. statements 1,3 and 4 are correct.

Term loans for investments towards land development, minor irrigation, purchase of farm equipments and allied agricultural activities. The banks may ﬁx the quantum of credit for term and working capital limit for agricultural and allied activities, etc., based on the unit cost of the asset/s proposed to be acquired by the farmer, the allied activities already being undertaken on the farm, the bank’s judgment on repayment capacity vis-a-vis total loan burden devolving on the farmer, including existing loan obligations. The long term loan limit is based on the proposed investments during the ﬁve year period and the bank’s perception on the repaying capacity of the farmer.

[Ref : https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/india-farmers-distress-farm-loans-rural-income-national- statistical-oﬃce-6135268/]

[Ref : https://vikaspedia.in/agriculture/agri-credit/revised-kisan-credit-card-scheme]

Learning: The Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme was announced in the Budget speech of 1998-99 to fulﬁl the ﬁnancial requirements of the farmers at various stages of farming through institutional credit. The Kisan Credit Card scheme aims at providing adequate and timely cred it for the comprehensive credit requirements of farmers under single window for their cultivation and other needs as indicated below:

To meet the short term credit requirements for cultivation of crops Post harvest expenses m Produce Marketing loan Consumption requirements of farmer household o Working capital for maintenance of farm assets, activities allied to agriculture, like dairy animals, inland fishery and also working capital required for floriculture, horticulture etc. c Investment credit requirement for agriculture and allied activities like pump sets, sprayers, dairy animals, floriculture, horticulture etc . Short term credit requirements of rearing of animals, birds, fish, shrimp, other aquatic orgcanisms, capture of fish. References: Indian_Express; - https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/india-farmers-distress-farm-loans-rural- income-national-statistical-office-6135268/ s

67. p Consider the following statements : tu 1. The weightage of food in Consumer Price Index (CPI) is higher than that in Wholesale Price Index (WPI). 2. The WPI does not capture changes in the prices of services, which CPI does. 3. Reserve Bank of India has now adopted WPI as its keyn measure of inﬂation and to decide on changing the key policy rates. ri Which of the statements given above is/are pcorrect ? Option-A: 1 and 2 only.  (Correcst Answer) Option-B: 2 only.  . Option-C: 3 only.  Option-D: 1, 2 and 3w.  Explanation: Statement 1 iws correct - As per the data given in the Economic Survey 2019-2020, the weightage of food in Consumer Price Index (CPI) Combined is 45.9% as compared to 24.4% in Wholesale Price Index (WPI).

Stawtement 2 is correct - The CPI measures the average change in prices over time that consumers pay for a basket of goods and services, commonly known as inﬂation, whereas WPI does not measure the average change in prices.

Statement 3 is incorrect - In April 2014, the RBI had adopted the Consumer Price Index (CPI) as its key measure of inﬂation.

Learning: The rate of inﬂation is measured on the basis of price indices which are of two kinds—Wholesale Price Index (WPI) and Consumer Price Index (CPI). A price index is a measure of the average level of prices, which means that it does not show the exact price rise or fall of a single good. The rate of inﬂation is the rate of change of general price level.

Wholesale Price Index WPI - Key Features:

It is the most widely used inflation indicator in India. Published by the Office of Economic Adviser, Ministry of Commerce and Industry. All transactions at the first point of bulk sale in the domestic market are included. Major criticism for this index is that the general public does not buy products at wholesale price. The base year of All-India WPI has been revised from 2004-05 to 2011-12 in 2017.

Consumer Price Index CPI - Key Features

It measures price changes from the perspective of a retail buyer. It measures changes over time in the level of retail prices of selected goods and services on which consumers of am deﬁned group spend there incomes. Four types of CPI are as follows: o CPI for Industrial Workers (IW). CPI for Agricultural Labourer (AL). c CPI for Rural Labourer (RL). . CPI (Rural/Urban/Combined). Of these, the ﬁrst three are compiled by the Labour Bureau in the Ministry of Labour and cEmployment. Fourth is compiled by the Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) in the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation. Base Year for CPI is 2012. s

[Ref: Indian Economy - Ramesh Singh - Chapter 7 - Inflation and Business Cyclep] References: Economic Survey 2019 2020 Volume II - Chapter 5 - Prices And Inflation; Indian_Express; - https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/wholesale-retail-inflatiton-wupi-october-6121542/ n ri p .s w w w m o .c sc p tu n ri p 68. Consider the following pairs : s River Flows into . 1. Mekong — Andaman Sea 2. Thames — Irish Sea w 3. Volga — Caspian Sea 4. Zambezi —w- Indian Ocean Whwich of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ? Option-A: 1 and 2 only  Option-B: 3 only  Option-C: 3 and 4 only  (Correct Answer) Option-D: 1,2 and 4 only 

Explanation: 1. Statement 1 is incorrect: The Mekong, or Mekong River,is a trans-boundary river in East Asia and Southeast Asia. It is the world's twelfth longest river and the seventh longest in Asia. From the Tibetan Plateau the river runs through China, Myanmar, Laos, Thailand, Cambodia, and Vietnam and ultimately falls in South China Sea. 2. Statement 2 is incorrect: The River Thames, known alternatively in parts as the River Isis, is a river that flows through southern England including London. At 215 miles (346 km), it is the longest river entirely in England and the second- longest in the United Kingdom, after the River Severn. It flows through Oxford (where it is called the Isis), Reading, Henley-on-Thames and Windsor. The lower reaches of the river are called the Tideway, derived from its long tidal reach up to Teddington Lock. It rises at Thames Head in Gloucestershire, and flows into the North Seavia the Thames Estuary. The Thames drains the whole of Greater London. 3. Statement 3 is correct:The Volga is the longest river in Europe. Flowing through Central Russia to Southern Russia and into the Caspian Sea, it has a length of 3,531 km (2,194 mi) and a catchment area of 1,360,000 km2 (530,000 sq mi). It is also Europe's largest river in terms of discharge and drainage basin. It is widely regarded as the national river of Russia. 4. Statement 4 is correct: The Zambezi River is the fourth longest in Africa, after the NILE, CONGO, and NIGER rivers. It runs for 1,678 miles across the southern part of the continent, from ZAMBIA through ANGOLA, NAMIBIA, BOTSWANA, ZIMBABWE, and MOZAMBIQUE before emptying into the Indian Ocean. m o .c sc p tu n ri p .s w w w m o .c sc p tu n ri p .s w w w m o .c sc p tu n ri p .s w

69. w Consider the following statements :

1. In the case of all cereals, pulses and oil-seeds, the procurement at Minimum Support Price (MSP) is unlimited in any Stawte/UT of India. 2. In the case of cereals and pulses, the MSP is ﬁxed in any State/UT at a level to which the market price will never rise.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Option-A: 1 only  Option-B: 2 only  Option-C: Both 1 and 2  Option-D: Neither 1 nor 2  (Correct Answer)

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect - The procurement in case of oilseeds is limited to only 25 quintals per farmer. This was increased during Covid-19 pandemic to 40 quintals per farmer. In other words, State/UT can not procure oilseed more than 25% of total output in a given year.

Statement 2 is incorrect - Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices —a guarantee price to save farmers from distress sale. The MSPs are announced at the beginning of the sowing season for certain crops on the basis of the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP, 1985). The major objectives are to support the farmers from distress sales and to procure food grains for public distribution. In case the market price for the commodity falls below the announced minimum price due to bumper production and glut in the market, government agencies purchase the entire m quantity offered by the farmers at the announced minimum price. As Market price, by definition, is determined through demand and supply force. So, it is difficult to predict whether market price for any crop must be lower or higher as compared to MSP. Purpose of MSP is not to create a maximum price limit of that crop, but it is to provide minimum assuraonce to farmers that they will not get prices less than those. Market prices may or may not increase beyond limit Minimum Support Prices. .c (https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/agri-business/pss-procurement-limit-enhancced-to-40- quintalsfarmer/article31301037.ece s https://www.hindustantimes.com/chandigarh/govt-enhances-mustard-procurement-limit-number-of-centres/story- 266uyqldlXSzJzZW3SN7UN.html) p Learning: u Minimum support price (MSP) is a “minimum price” for any crop that the government considers as remunerative for farmers and hence deserving of “support”. It is also the price that governmetnt agencies pay whenever they procure the particular crop. in The Centre currently fixes MSPs for 23 farm commordities — 7 cereals (paddy, wheat, maize, bajra, jowar, ragi and barley), 5 pulses (chana, arhar/tur, urad, moong and masur), 7 oilseeds (rapeseed-mustard, groundnut, soyabean, sunflower, sesamum, safflower and nigerseed) and 4 commercial pcrops (cotton, sugarcane, copra and raw jute) References: Indian Economy Rameshs Singh - Chapter 8 - Agriculture and Fo0d Market 70. . With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements : 1. 'Commercial Papewr’ is a short-term unsecured promissory note. 2. 'Certificate of Deposit’ is a long-term instrument issued by the Reserve Bank of India to a corporation. 3. 'Call Money* is a short-term finance used for interbank transactions. 4. ‘Zero-Cowupon Bonds’ are the interest bearing short-term bonds issued by the Scheduled Commercial Banks to wcorporations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Option-A: 1 and 2 only  Option-B: 4 only  Option-C: 1 and 3 only  (Correct Answer) Option-D: 2, 3 and 4 only  Explanation: Statement 1 is correct - Commercial Paper (CP), was organised in 1990, is used by the corporate houses in India (which should be a listed company with a working capital of not less than ₹5 crore). The CP issuing companies need to obtain a speciﬁed credit rating from an agency approved by the RBI (such as CRISIL, ICRA, etc). Aimed to broaden investor participation, in October 2019, the SEBI allowed listing of the Commercial Papers.

Statement 2 is incorrect - Certificate of Deposit (CD) was organised in 1989, the CD is used by banks and issued to the depositorsfor a specified period ranging less than one year (short term not long term)—they are negotiable and tradeable in the money market. Since 1993 the RBI allowed the financial institutions to operate in it—IFCI, IDBI, IRBI (IIBI since 1997) and the Exim Bank—they can issue CDs for the maturity periods above one year and upto three years.

Statement 3 is correct - Call Money Market (CMM) is basically an inter-bank money market where funds are borrowed and lent, generally, for one day—that is why this is also known as overnight borrowing market (also called money at call). Fund can be borrowed/raised for a maximum period upto 14 days (called short notice). Borrowing in this market may take place m against securities or without securities. Rate of interest in this market ‘glides’ with the ‘repo rate’ of the time the principle remains very simple—longer the period, higher the interest rate. Depending upon the availability and demand of ofund in this market the real call rate revolves nearby the current repo rate. The scheduled commercial banks, co-operative banks operate in this market as both the borrowers and lenders while LIC, GIC, Mutual Funds, IDBI and NABARD are allocwed to operate as only lenders in this market. c. Statement 4 is incorrect - Zero Coupon Bond is a bond bearing zero coupon rate (i.e. no interest) sold at a price lower than its face value. Investors book profit when they sell it (at its face value). Such bonds are pospularly used by the governments to raise long-term funds. In a situation of rate cut by the RBI, zero coupon bonds gain value-it means, they sell at higher prices. When there is an increase in rate, the opposite happens. p Learning: The organised form of money market in India is just close to three decades old. However, its presence has been there, but restricted to the government only. It was the Chakravarthy Committee (1u985) which, for the first time, underlined the need of an organised money market in the country and the Vaghul Committtee (1987) laid the blue print for its development. Today, money market in India is not an integrated unit and has two segments—Unorganised Money Market and Organised Money Market. n ri Organised Money Market - Since the government started developing the organised money market in India (mid-1980s), we have seen the arrival of a total of eight instruments designed to be used by different categories of business and industrial firms. A brief description of these instrumenpts follows: Treasury Bills (TBs). s Certificate of Deposit (CD) Commercial Paper (CP) . Commercial Bill (CB). Call Money Markewt (CMM) Money Market Mutual Fund (MF) Repos and Reverse Repos. Cash Mawnagement Bill (CMB) Refwerences: Indian Economy Ramesh Singh - Chapter 11 - Indian Financial Market 71. With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following pairs. Which of the following pairs are matched correctly?

1. Parivrajaka ----- Renunciant and wanderer 2. Shramana ------Priest with a high status 3. Upasaka ------Lay follower of Buddhism

Option-A: 1 and 2 only  Option-B: 1 and 3 only  (Correct Answer) Option-C: 2 and 3 only  Option-D: 1, 2 and 3 

Explanation: All pairs are matched correctly.

1. Parivrajak is a sanskrit word, whose literal meaning is a wanderer. In the ancient times, the Jain Monks and the Buddhist Monks were expected to be a Parivrajaka in order to preach their religion. 2. Vedic Brahmanism - drawing its identity from the Vedic corpus - was a religious form associated with socially dominant groups, supporting practices and beliefs that could be seen as an orthodoxy, there have been movements that have distanced themselves in various ways from Vedic Brahmanism. The Shramana group - Buddhism, Jainism and various 'heterodox' sects - is one such well -established group. Shramanas did not regard the brahmans as being of the highest status. The shramanas included a variety of ascetics, as well as the monks and lay followers of various sects - Buddhist, Jaina, Ajivika and others. Monks renounced social obligations to take on an alternative life when they joined the Ormder. They lived as equal members of the Order, denying caste distinctions. But they lived in monasteries near villages and towns so that they could draw on the support of the lay community, namely, those who were Buddhists or Jainas but were not initiated into renunciatory groups. o 3. Upasaka are the male lay follower of Buddhism,and Upasika are the female lay followers of Bud.dhicsm. Therefore all statements are correct. c (Reference: A HISTORY OF ANCIENT AND EARLY MEDIEVAL INDIA By Upinder Singh) History of Early India: From the Origins to AD 1300 -Romila Thapar, Page. no. 62,172,29s4 https://courses.lumenlearning.com/suny-hccc-worldcivilization/chapter/the-srapmana-movement/] tu Learning: Sramana was an ancient Indian religious movement that bengan as an offshoot of the Vedic religion and gave rise to other similar but varying movements, including Buddhism and iJainism. Sramana, meaning “seeker,” was a tradition that began around 800-600 BCE when new philosophical grouprs, who believed in a more austere path to spiritual freedom, rejected the authority of the Brahmins (the priests of Vedic Hinduism). Modern Hinduism can be regarded as a combination of Vedic and Sramana traditions; it is substantially inﬂuenpced by both. Brahmin is a caste, or social group, ins Vedic Hinduism consisting of priests and teachers who are held as intermediaries between deities and followers. Br.ahmins are traditionally responsible for religious rituals in temples, and for reciting hymns and prayers during rite wof passage rituals, such as weddings. In India, Sramana originally referred to any ascetic, recluse, or religious practitioner who renounced secular life and society in order to focus solely on ﬁnding religious truth. Sramana evolved in India over two phases: the Paccekabuddha, the tradition of the individualw ascetic, the “lone Buddha” who leaves the world behind; and the Savaka, the phase of disciples, or those who gatwher together as a community, such as a sect of monks. Brahmin - A member of caste in Vedic Hinduism, consisting of priests and teachers who are held as intermediaries between deities and followers, and who are considered the protectors of the sacred learning found in the Vedas.

Sramanas - Sramana followers who renounced married and domestic life, and adopted an ascetic path. The Sramanas rejected the authority of the Brahmins.

72. With reference to the Indian Elephants, consider the following statements. Which of the given statements is/are correct?

1. The leader of an elephant group is a female. 2. The maximum gestation period can be 22 months. 3. An elephant can normally go on calving till the age of 40 years only. 4. Among the States in India, the highest elephant population is in Kerala

Option-A: 1 and 2 only  (Correct Answer) Option-B: 2 and 4 only  Option-C: 3 only  Option-D: 1, 3 and 4 

Explanation: Elephants are the animals with very intricate social norms among themselves. They move in single file and they are always headed by a female elephant.Other than that they are also found to take care of babies of other elephants. Thus Statemment 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct :Gestation periods for elephants can not exceed 22 months. The gestation period of elepohant was in news since June when an elephant pregnant with one month baby died in Kerala after eating pineapple stuffed with crackers. Statement 3 is incorrect: Calving period of elephant vary in case of African and Indian elephants. In Africcan, it is 16 years and among Indian elephants, it is 22 years. In any case, 40 years is way too much. . Statement 4 is incorrect: Maximum population of elephant is found in state of Karnataka, follocwed by Assam and Kerala respectively. s (https://www.sciencemag.org/news/2012/06/elephant-womb) p 73. Which of the following Protected Areas are located in Cauvery basint? u 1. Nagarhole National Park 2. Papikonda National Park 3. Sathymanagalam Tiger Reserve n 4. Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary ri Option-A: 1 and 2 only  Option-B: 3 and 4 only  p Option-C: 1, 3 and 4  (Correct Asnswer) Option-D: 1, 2, 3 and 4  . Explanation: 1) In December 2019, forest officials started butterfly census in Papikonda National Park, which is in the Godavari Delta. Therefore, it is in the Gowdavari basin and not in Cauvery basin. Statement 2 is eliminated and we are left with Option B and Option C. This is the sewcond consecutive year in which any question on Nilgiri Biosphere reserve is asked in prelims. All three National Parks are in the Nilgiri Biosphere and the biosphere reserve is in the Cauvery Basin. 2) Nwagarahole is derived its name from Naga, means snake and Hole refers to as streams. The park is also known as Rajiv Gandhi National Park located in Kodagu and Mysore District. Kannada is the local language around the National park Nagarahole Park is declared as thirty seventh Tiger Reserve in India. It is also considered as World Heritage site by UNESCO. Three of the park namely Bandipur, Mudumalai & Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary are adjacent to the Nagarahole.

3) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve, the Gateway to Eastern Ghats, is a signiﬁcant ecosystem and a wildlife corridor in the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve between the Western Ghats and the rest of the Eastern Ghats and a genetic link between the ﬁve other protected areas which it adjoins, including the Billigiriranga Swamy Temple Wildlife Sanctuary, Sigur Plateau, Mudumalai National Park, Bandipur National Park and the Cauvery Wildlife Sanctuary. 4) Established in 1973, the sanctuary is now an integral part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. It is bounded by protected area network of Nagarhole and Bandipur of Karnataka in the northeast, and on the southeast by Mudumalai of Tamil Nadu.

Learning: Papikonda National Park is a beautiful place, located in East Godavari and West Godavari districts of Andhra Pradesh and Khammam district of Telangana. Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuary was established in the year 1978. Total area of the Sanctuary is about 591 km2. Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuary declared as a National Park in 2008. Total area of the National Park is about 1012.86 km2.

74. With reference to India's biodiversity, Ceylon frogmouth, Coppersmith barbet, Gray-Chinned minivet and White-throated redstarts are: m Option-A: Birds  (Correct Answer) Option-B: Primates  o Option-C: Reptiles  Option-D: Amphibians  .c Explanation: All of them are birds and all are the migratory species. c Also, Coppersmith barbet is the oﬃcial bird of Mumbai city.It was declared in 2017 and was in news that year. Also, all of the mentioned are migratory birds. s p (https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/bright-colours-and-loud-noises-the-coppersmith-barbet-is-a- treat-to-watch/article30038137.ece) tu n ri p .s w w w m o .c sc p tu n ri p .s w w w m o .c sc p tu n ri p .s w 75. Which of the following protected areas is well-known for the conservation of a sub-species of the Indian Swamp Dear (Barasingha) wthat thrives well on hard-ground and is exclusively graminivorous? wOption-A: Kanha National Park  (Correct Answer) Option-B: Manas National Park  Option-C: Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary  Option-D: Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary 

Explanation: The species was in news when it was found that the sub-species of Swamp Deer is on revival after it was in near extiction situation in India. Its revival was spotted in Kanha National Park. It is also a state animal of Madhya Pradesh. This year numbers of these deers increased to 80 from 33 in 2016.

Various conservation methods were used, including habitat improvement and captive breeding, and today there’s an estimated 450 Barasingha in Kanha. Today, you can see herds of 10 to 20 strong roaming the fields and meadows of this large and beautiful national park and tiger reserve. The Barasingha is a Kanha success story, which the park celebrated in 2017 by becoming the first tiger reserve in India to officially introduce a mascot: Boorsingh the Barasingha.

(https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/near-extinct-hard-ground-swamp-deer-see-revival-in-kanha- 69603#:~:text=It%20is%20now%20found%20only,found%20in%20the%20Indian%20Subcontinent.&text=The%20southern%20 swamp%20deer%20has,is%20adapted%20to%20hard%20ground.)

76. m Steel slag can be the material for which of the following? 1. Construction of base road o 2. Improvement of agricultural soil 3. Production of cement c  . Option-A: 1 and 2 only Option-B: 2 and 3 only  c Option-C: 1 and 3 only  Option-D: 1, 2 and 3  (Correct Answer) s Explanation: p Steel slag is a bi-product of steel manufacturing industries. These are obtained after removing impurities from steel. These can be used in multiple ways. Steel slags can be used in several activitiues, such as construction and paving, and also in the agricultural sector due to its ability to correct soil acidity, as it contains some nutrients for the plants and also as silicate fertilizer that is capable of providing silicon to the plants. Thus, steetl slags can be considered as a sustainable alternative to agricultural practice. n Steel slag is also used for construction of roads and cemient manufacturing. Therefore statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. r

(https://www.sciencedirect.com/topics/engpineering/steel-slag; https://www.frontiersin.org/articl.es/1s0.3389/fmicb.2019.01320/full) 77. Which of the following are the most likely places to ﬁnd the musk deer in its natural habitat? 1. Askot Wildlife Sanctuwary 2. Gangotri National Park 3. Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary 4. Manas Natwional Park

Option-A: 1 and 2 only  (Correct Answer) wOption-B: 2 and 3 only  Option-C: 3 and 4 only  Option-D: 1 and 4 only 

Explanation: Musk Deer is found in alpine environment, barren plateaus at high altitudes meadows. Therefore in India, western Himalaya (since they are at signiﬁcant height) and Ladakh's surrounding region like Lahaul, Leh, musk deers can be found. Out of the given locations, only Askot Wildlife Sanctuary and Gangotri National Park qualify for the given conditions. Both the places are in Uttarakhand. Askot WS is in Pithauragarh District and Gangotri is in Uttarkashi district.

Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary is a part of Dudhwa Tiger Reserve in Uttar Pradesh and Manas National Park is in Assam (in Eastern Himalayas, where altitude is not high enough for musk deers).

Musk Deers are poached for their musk gland which are used in premium perfumes.

References: Shankar IAS book - Chapter 11 - Schedule Animals of WPA;1972

78. In rural road construction, the use of which of the following is preferred for ensuring environmental sustainability or to reduce carbon footprint?

1. Copper Slag 2. Cold mix asphalt technology 3. Geotextiles m 4. Hot mix asphalt technology 5. Portland cement o Option-A: 1, 2 and 3  (Correct Answer) c Option-B: 2, 3 and 4  . Option-C: 4 and 5  Option-D: 1 and 5 only  c

Explanation: s Asphalt is generally required to construct sustainable roads. But the question mentioned environment friendly method. Hot mixed asphalt require heating crude oil with asphalt cement. Due to this carbonp emission increases. Therefore option 4 can be eliminated, with this Options B and C can be eliminated. Cold mix asphalt is an environment friendly option. In this technology, ausphalt for road construction can be made without any heating. Neither does it require any heavy investment. Therefore stattement 2 is correct. In the process of construction of rural roadways in India, several industrial wastes are used. Some of them are - ﬂy ash, steel slag, copper slag, marble slurry dust waste, etc. Thus statemnent 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct : Geotextiles, especially jute geoteixtiles, are used in the construction of roadways. These are not only environment friendly but also provides strength to rorad. Though Portland cement is a sustainable material as it provides strength to roads but its manufacturing requires lot of Carbon Dioxide emission. Therefore statempent 5 is incorrect. s (Reference ; https://niti.gov.in/pla.nningcommission.gov.in/docs/aboutus/committee/wrkgrp12/transport/wgrep_rural.pdf)

79. Consider the following wstatements. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and mercury 2. Coal-ﬁred pwower plants release sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the environment 3. High ash content is observed in Indian coal wOption-A: 1 only  Option-B: 2 and 3 only  Option-C: 3 only  Option-D: 1, 2 and 3  (Correct Answer)

Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. India is heavily dependent on coal powered power generation. In the process, carbon monoxides, oxides of sulphur and oxides of nitrogen are emitted. Even after the emission, the bi-products are obtained in form coal ash. Coal ash contains many toxic minerals like arsenic, lead and mercury.

Statement 3 is also correct. Coal in India contains many grades. Most abundantly used is anthracite. Coal deposits found in India contain high ash content.

(Reference: Fundamental of Human Geography - Majid Khan)

80. What is the use of biochar in farming ?

Which of the statements given below is/are correct? m 1. Biochar can be used as a part of the growing medium in vertical farming. 2. When biochar is a part of the growing medium, it promotes the growth of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms. o 3. When biochar is a part of the growing medium, it enables the growing medium to retain water for a longer time. Option-A: 1 and 2 only  .c Option-B: 2 only  Option-C: 1 and 3 only  c Option-D: 1, 2 and 3  (Correct Answer) s Explanation: Biochar is a charcoal-like substance that's made by burning organic material fropm agricultural and forestry wastes (also called biomass) in a controlled process called pyrolysis. Although it looks a lot like common charcoal, biochar is produced using a specific process to reduce contamination and safely store carboun. Biochar holds potential for long-term carbon sequestration, improvitng soil health and water-holding capacity, and further reducing emissions of greenhouse gases associated with fertiliser application. Adding biochar to soil not only provides a way to sequester carbon, but also has many soil health benefits which will help farmers adapt to climate change and increase productivity. in Biochar has the potential to boost the natural abilityr of legumes to fix nitrogen to the soil. Adding biochar to the substrate at 7% (by wepight) can be a way to improve the quality of water downstream water by reducing nitrogen, phosphorus, organic carbon concentrations and thus reducing turbidity in runoff… A promising solution for the urban green rooftop. The usage osf biochar can be also interesting for the urban farming industry. In fact, green roofs are seen as “privileged areas” for reta.ining rainwater and reducing the effects of urban heat islands. w (https://www.dpi.nsw.gov.au/content/archive/agriculture-today-stories/ag-today-archives/june-2010/biochar-boosts- nitrogen-fixatwion---study , https://horti-generation.com/potential-use-of-biochar-horticulture-urban-farming-industry/) 81. If aw particular plant species is placed under Schedule VI of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, what is the implication?

Option-A: A license is required to cultivate that plant.  Option-B: Such a plant can not be cultivated under any circumstances.  (Correct Answer) Option-C: It is a genetically modiﬁed crop plant.  Option-D: Such a plant is invasive and harmful to the ecosystem. 

Explanation: There are six schedules under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. The speciﬁed endemic plants in Schedule VI are prohibited from cultivation and planting. The hunting to the Enforcement authorities has the power to compound offences under this Schedule (i.e. they impose ﬁnes on the offenders).

The wildlife Protection Act defines "specified plant" as any plant specified in Schedule VI. It further states that "Cultivation of specified plants without license prohibited. -

(1) no person shall cultivate a speciﬁed plant except under, and in accordance with a license granted by the Chief Wildlife Warden or any other oﬃcer authorized by the State Government in this behalf;

2) Every licence granted under this section shall specify the area in which and the conditions if any, subject to which the licensee shall cultivate a speciﬁed plant.

[Ref: http://nbaindia.org/uploaded/Biodiversityindia/Legal/15.%20Wildlife%20%28Protection%29%20Act,%201972.pdf] m Learning: Schedule 1 and part II of Schedule 2 o • Animals listed in schedule 1 and part II of schedule 2 have absolute protection - offences under these are prescribed the highest penalties. c • Examples of animals listed in schedule 1 are lion tailed macaque, rhinoceros, great indian bustard, .narcondam hornbill, nicobar megapode, black buck, etc. • Examples of animals listed in schedule 2 are rhesus macaque, dhole, Bengal porcupine, kingc cobra, ﬂying squirrel, himalyan brown bear, etc. s Schedule 3 and schedule 4 p • Animals listed in schedule 3 and schedule 4 are also protected, but the penalties are lower compared to schedule 1 and part 2 of schedule 2. u • Examples of animals listed in schedule 3 are hyaena, hogdeer, nilgtai, goral, sponges, barking deer, etc. • Examples of animals listed in schedule 4 are mangooseis, nvultures, etc. schedule 5 • Animals listed in schedule 5 are called r“vermin” which can be hunted. • Mice, rat, common crow and ﬂying fox (fruit eating bats) are the list of animals (onlpy 4 nos) in schedule 5 [i.e. vermin]. Schedule 6 • Cultivation, Collection, extraction., trasde, etc. of Plants and its derivatives listed in schedule 6 are prohibited. • Red Vanda, blue Vanda, kuth, pitcher plant, beddomes cycad and ladies slipper orchid are the list of plants listed in schedule 6 References: Shankar IAwS book - Chapter 25 - Acts and Policies

82. w With reference to the period of the Gupta dynasty in ancient India, the towns Ghantasala, Kadura and Chaul were well known as:w Option-A: Ports handling foreign trade.  (Correct Answer) Option-B: Capitals of powerful kingdoms.  Option-C: Places of exquisite stone art and architecture.  Option-D: Important Buddhist pilgrimage centers. 

Explanation: All three mentioned cities were port cities which handled international trade. During the Gupta era, the ports of the east coast, Tamralipti, Ghantashala, and Kadura handled the north-Indian trade with south-east Asia, and those of the west coast, Broach, Chaul, Kalyan and Cambray, traded with the Mediterranean and west Asia but the more southerly of these ports were outside Gupta control.

(Reference: A History of India - Romila Thapar and History of Ancient and Early Medieval India - Upinder Singh)

83. What is/are the advantages of zero tillage in agriculture?

1. Sowing of wheat is possible without burning the residue of the previous crop. 2. Without the need for nursery of rice saplings, direct planting of paddy seeds in the wet soil is possible. 3. Carbon sequestration in the soil is possible. m Option-A: 1 and 2 only  Option-B: 2 and 3 only  o Option-C: 3 only  Option-D: 1, 2 and 3  (Correct Answer) .c Explanation: Tillage is the process of preparing the land for next cycle of crop cultivation. In zero tillage mecthod, no land preparation method takes place. As a result, no crop residue is burnt and land is given proper time to restore its nutrients. In the process, crops are planted without removing residue of other crops. This helps in carbon sequesstration, prevent soil erosion, reduce cost of agriculture and also reduces sowing period. In this method, seeds/sapling are drilled into the soil which contains crop residue. The remaining crop residue in the soil provides organic content to the soil as a result it yields better productivity. When wheat seeds are sown in soil using happy seeder, the rice stalks act as mpulch. Learning: u The Features of Zero Tillage/Conservation Agriculture t Crop residues are distributed evenly and left on the soil surface; No implements are used to turn the soil over, cultivate nit, or incorporate crop residues; Weeds and/or purpose-planted cover crops are conitrolled by a pre-planting application of a non-pollutant desiccant herbicide; A specialized planter or drill cuts through the dresiccated cover and residues accumulated on the soil surface, slotting seed (and fertilizer) into the soil with minimal disturbance; Subsequent weed control is carried outp with some pre- but mostly post-emergent herbicides, which also used in conventional tillage; Crop rotation is fundamental to sZero Tillage, since this promotes adequate biomass levels for permanent mulch cover; it also assists in the control of. weeds, pests and diseases, as well as in improving the physical condition of the soil. Soil erosion is redwuced by about 90% and soil biological activity and bio-diversity are maximized. (http://www.fwao.org/3/Y2638E/y2638e04.htm) References: ICSE Class X Environmental Education - Chapter 3 - Conservation and Management: Soil

84.w According to India's Naitonal Policy on Biofuels, which of the following can be used as raw materials for production of biofuels?

1. Cassava 2. Damaged wheat grains 3. Groundnut seeds 4. Horse gram 5. Rotten potatoes . Sugar beet

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Option-A: 1, 2, 5 and 6 only  (Correct Answer) Option-B: 1, 3, 4 and 6 only  Option-C: 2, 3, 4 and 5 only  Option-D: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 

Explanation: In 2018, the Union Cabinet gave approval to the National Policy on biofuels. Under this policy, biofuels were categorised into 1G, 2G, and 3G fuels. Accordingly, raw materials were required for different generations of biofuels. Earlier, biofuel production was conﬁned more or less to ethanol, but the new policy expands the scope of raw material for ethanol production by allowing use of Sugarcane Juice, Sugar containing materials likeSugar Beet, Sweet Sorghum, Starch containing materimals like Corn, Cassava, Damaged food grains like wheat, broken rice, Rotten Potatoes,unﬁt for human consumption for ethanol production. o (https://pib.gov.in/Pressreleaseshare.aspx?PRID=1532265) .c 85. Which of the following statements best describe the term 'Social Cost of Carbon'? sc Option-A: Long term damage done by a tonne of CO2, emissions in a given year.  (Correct Answer) Option-B: Requirement of fossil fuels for a country to provide goods and seprvices to its citizen, based on the burning of those fuels  Option-C: Efforts put in by a climate refugee to adapt to live in a newu place  Option-D: Contribution of an individual person to the carbon foottprint on the planet earth  Explanation: An article was published on 'global social cost of carboni'. Thne Social Cost of Carbon is usually estimated as the net present value of climate change impacts over the next 100 years (or longer) of one additional tonne of carbon emitted to the atmosphere today. It is the marginal global damage rcosts of carbon emissions. Therefore Option A is the correct answer. p (https://www.oecd.org/env/cc/37321s411.pdf) Learning: . The social cost of carbon is a measure of the economic harm from those impacts, expressed as the dollar value of the total damages from emitting one ton of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere. The current central estimate of the social cost of carbon is over $50 per twon in today's dollars.

(https://wwww.edf.org/true-cost-carbon-pollution) w m co c. 86. With reference to pulse production in Indian, consider the following statements. Which sof the following statements is/are correct? 1. Black gram can be cultivated as both Kharif and rabi crop p 2. Green-gram alone accounts for nearly half of pulse production 3. In the last three decades, while the production of Kharif pulses has inucreased, the production of rabi pulses has decreased. Option-A: 1 only  (Correct Answer) t Option-B: 2 and 3 only  n Option-C: 2 only  i Option-D: 1, 2 and 3  r Explanation: Statement 1 is correct : Like most of the pulspes in India, Black gram pulse too can be cultivated both in kharif as well as in rabi season in India. s Statement 2 is incorrect : Chickpe.a pulse, also known as Chana, are the major pulse produced in India. It contributes more than 48% of the total pulse production in India.

Since statement 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect, statement 3 is also incorrect through elimination. Statement 3 is incorrecwt : Overall trend of area, production and yield of last three plan periods have shown increasing trend in production and productivity of Kharif Pulses. Overall trend wof area, production and yield of last three plan periods have shown increasing trend in area however, production and productivity of Rabi Pulses declined during XIth plan period from Xth plan period and signiﬁcantly increased during XIIth plawn period. (Reference : http://dpd.gov.in/Reterospects%20and%20Prospects%202017.pdf)

Learning: For the year, India had the target of 26 million metric tonnes of production of pulses. It was reported in Down to Earth that due to rainfall, production might decrease this year. References: NCERT Class 10 - Contemporary India -II - Chapter 4 - Agriculture

m o .c sc p tu n ri p .s w w w m o .c sc p tu n ri p 87. s "The crop is subtropical in nature. A hard frost is injurious to it. It requires at least 210 frost-free days and 50 to 100 centimeters of rainfall for its grow.th. A light well-drained soil capable of retaining moisture is ideally suited for the cultivation of the crop". Which onew of the following is that crop? Option-A: Cotton  (Correct Answer) Option-B: Jute  w  Option-C: Sugarcane wOption-D: Tea  Explanation: India is believed to be the original home of the cotton plant. Cotton is one of the main raw materials for cotton textile industry. In 2008 India was second largest producer of cotton after China. Cotton grows well in drier parts of the black cotton soil of the Deccan plateau. It requires high temperature, light rainfall or irrigation, 210 frost-free days and bright sun-shine for its growth. It is a kharif crop and requires 6 to 8 months to mature. Major cotton-producing states are– Maharashtra, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Tamil Nadu, Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh.

References: NCERT Class 10 - Contemporary India -II - Chapter 4 - Agriculture 88. With reference to solar water pumps^ consider the following statements :

1. Solar power can be used for running surface pumps and not for submersible pumps. 2. Solar power can be used for running centrifugal pumps and not the ones with piston.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Option-A: 1 only  Option-B: 2 only  Option-C: Both 1 and 2  Option-D: Neither 1 nor 2  (Correct Answer) m Explanation: Solar pumps present a clean, simple and energy-efficient alternative to traditional electric and fuel-driven pump osets. They are part of an environmentally friendly approach in agriculture and can be used to exploit every region, whether it's developed or poor. The main components in a solar pumping system include a photovoltaic (PV) array, an electric motcor and a pump. Solar water pumping systems, on the other hand, are classified as either direct current (DC) or alternating c.urrent (AC) systems based on they're motor’s ability. Recently, the concept of brushless DC (BLDC) motors for solar pumping water applications was presented as well. sc When it comes to stand-alone solar pumping systems, the main types include rotating and positive displacement pumps. Centrifugal pumps are the common choice for rotation and are designed for fixped head applications. There output increases in proportion to there speed of rotation. Additionally, pumps are also classified as submersible and surface pumps, based on they're placement (underwater and above the waterline). Therefore tbothu the statements are incorrect. [Ref: https://solarmagazine.com/solar-water-pumps/] Learning: n While presenting the budget for 2020-21, the finance miniister said that 15 lakh farmers would be provided funds to set up grid-connected 15 lakh solar pumps and announcedr expansion of Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha Utthan Mahabhiyan (PM KUSUM) Scheme under which 20 lakh fparmers would be provided funds to set up standalone solar pumps. The PM KUSUM scheme had three components - 10,000 megawatts (MW) of decentralised ground mounted grid- connected renewable power plants (Csomponent-A); installation of 17.50 lakh standalone solar powered agriculture pumps (Component-B); and solarisation .of 10 lakh grid-connected solar powered agriculture pumps (Component-C).

All three components cwombined, the scheme had aimed to add a solar capacity of 25,750 MW by 2022.

[Ref - https://wenergy.economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/renewable/budget-2020-govt-expands-pm-kusum-scheme-for- solar-pumps-targets-to-cover-20-lakh-farmers/73843355]

References: Economic_Times; - https://energy.economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/renewable/budget-2020-govt-expands- pmw-kusum-scheme-for-solar-pumps-targets-to-cover-20-lakh-farmers/73843355 m o .c 89. With reference to the current trends in the cultivation of sugarcane in India, consider the followcing statements :

1. A substantial saving in seed material is made when ‘bud chip settlings’ are raised in sa nursery and transplanted in the main ﬁeld. p 2. When direct planting of setts is done, the germination percentage is better' with single-budded setts as compared to setts with many buds. u 3. If bad weather conditions prevail when setts are directly planted, tsingle-budded setts have better survival as compared to large setts. 4. Sugarcane can be cultivated using settlings prepared firomn tissue culture. Which of the statements given above is/are correct r?

Option-A: 1 and 2 only  p Option-B: 3 only  s Option-C: 1 and 4 only  (Cor.rect Answer) Option-D: 2, 3 and 4 only  Explanation: w Two andthreebudded settsareideal for optimum germination compared to larger seed pieces (Ali, 1990; Yadav, 1991). One budded set might give good germination underideal condition,butare morevulnerable to environmentalstresses. Primary shoots develowped from two or three budded setts are more vigorous than from one budded set. There is experimental evidence to show that three budded setts gave 16% higher yield than single bud setts (Kakde, 1985).

The settlingsdevelopedthroughtissue culture or from bud chip or small sett, with bud and complete root-band, could be viawble and economical optionforsugarcaneplanting.Lal et al. (2014) concluded that tissue culture techniques could be beneﬁcially utilized for rapid multiplication of sugarcane after resolving the problems of thin canes in tissue culture raised crops, high cost of production and soma clonal variation.

(https://www.researchgate.net/publication/322976767_SUGARCANE_PLANTING_TECHNIQUES_A_REVIEW ; https://sugarcane.icar.gov.in/index.php/en/faq/crop-production?id=339&phpMyAdmin=11c501a2a5dt8788ed6 ) 90. In the context of India, which of the following is/are considered to be practice(s) of eco-friendly agriculture ?

1. Crop diversiﬁcation

2. Legume intensiﬁcation

3. Tensiometer use

4. Vertical farming

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Option-A: 1, 2 and 3 only  Option-B: 3 only  Option-C: 4 only  Option-D: 1,2, 3 and 4  (Correct Answer) m Explanation: o 1. Crop diversification refers to the addition of new crops or cropping systems to agricultural production on a particular farm taking into account the different returns from value- added crops with complementary marketicng opportunities. Major advantages of crop diversification include income increases of small farm holdings; less risk for price fluctuation, climatic variability etc.; balancing food demand; increasing the production of quality fodder for l.ivestock animals; beneficial for conserving natural resources; minimize environmental pollution; reduce dependence on offfarm inputs; and community food security can be increased. c 2. Legumes fix the atmospheric nitrogen, release in the soil high-quality organic matter and facilitate soil nutrients' circulation and water retention. Based on these multiple functions, legume crops shave high potential for conservation agriculture, being functional either as growing crop or as crop residue. 3. A tensiometerin soil science is a measuring instrument used to determinep the matric water potential (soil moisture tension) in the unsaturated zone. The tensiometer is buried in the soil, and a hand pump is used to pull a partial vacuum. As water is pulled out of the soil by plants and evaporation, the vacuuum inside the tube increases. When the soil is wetted flow can also occur in the reverse direction: as water ist added to the soil, the vacuum inside the tube pulls moisture from the soil and decreases. When the water pressure in the tensiometer is determined to be in equilibrium with the water pressure in the soil, the tensiometer gauge reading represents the matric potential of the soil. Such tensiometers are used in irrigation scheduling to help fnarmers and other irrigation managers to determine when to water. In conjunction with a water retention curve, teinsiometers can be used to determine how much to water. With practice, a tensiometer can be a useful tool forr these purposes. Soil tensiometers can also be used in the scientific study of soils and plants. 4. Advantages of Vertical Farming p Year-round crop production. Eliminates agricultural runoff. s Significantly reduces use of .fossil fuels (farm machines and transport of crops) Makes use of abandoned or unused properties. No weather related crop failures. Offers the possibiwlity of sustainability for urban centers.

(https://wwww.sciencedirect.com/topics/agricultural-and-biological-sciences/tensiometers)

91.w What are the advantages of fertigation in agriculture ?

1. Controlling the alkalinity of irrigation water is possible. 2. Eﬃcient application of Rock Phosphate and all other phosphatic fertilizers is possible. 3. Increased availability of nutrients to plants is possible. 4. Reduction in the leaching of chemical nutrients is possible. Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Option-A: 1, 2 and 3 only  Option-B: 1, 2 and 4 only  Option-C: 1,3 and 4 only  (Correct Answer) Option-D: 2, 3 and 4 only 

Explanation: Advantageous of fertigation:

Improves eﬃciency of fertilizer use Increases nutrient availability Saves 20-40% fertilizer without affecting growth and yield Saves laboures and energy in application of fertilizer Reduce environmental contamination m Reduces leaching of nutrients Ability to control pH.The pH in the fert-irrigation solutions, both in soil culture and in hydroponics, must beo such that it allows to be dissolved in all the nutrients without damaging the roots, This way avoiding the formation of precipitates that could cause clogging in the irrigation systems and unavailability for the root absorption of saidc nutrients. The ideal pH range is between 5.0 and 6.5, since practically all of the nutrients are assimilable by the plan.t. Above pH 6.5 the formation of precipitates can cause important problems. Below pH5, the root system may deteriorate, especially in hydroponic crops. sc Disadvantages of fertigation 1. Uneven nutrient distribution occurs when the irrigation system is faulty. It pleads to over fertilization or leaching of nutrients when excess water is applied to crops. 2. Chemical reactions of fertilizer with calcium and magnesium, bicaurbonates in water, which can lead to chemical clogging. 3. Suitable for readily soluble or liquid fertilizers. Phosphatic ferttilizer and some micronutrients may precipitate in micro- irrigation system. Hence statement 2 is incorrect 4. Corrosion resistant fertigation equipments are neededn. 5. Potential chemical backﬂow into the water suprply siource. (Reference : http://ecoursesonline.iasri.res.inp/mod/page/view.php?id=8966 ; https://nutricontrol.com/2015/general- concepts-about-ph/?lang=en) .s

92. w Consider the following minerals : 1. Bentonite w 2. Chromite

3. Kyanite

4. Swillimanite

In India, which of the above is/are oﬃcially designated as major minerals ?

Option-A: 1 and 2 only  Option-B: 4 only  Option-C: 1 and 3 only  Option-D: 2, 3 and 4 only  (Correct Answer) Explanation: For calculating the value of output, the mining and quarrying sector is divided into two broad groups viz., Major Minerals and Minor Minerals. The major minerals cover fuel minerals consisting of coal, lignite, petroleum and natural gas and other major minerals i.e. metallic minerals including atomic minerals and non-metallic minerals.

1. Bentonite - Minor Mineral 2. Chromite - Metallic Major Mineral 3. Kyanite - Non-Metallic Major Mineral 4. Sillimanite - Non-Metallic Major Mineral

(Reference : http://www.mospi.gov.in/sites/default/ﬁles/reports_and_publication/statistical_manual/Chapter%2012.pdf)

Learning: m The Ministry of Mines had taken a decision in 2015 to notify 31 additional minerals, presently under the list of major minerals, as minor minerals. The notiﬁcation will be issued soon. “This is being done with the intention to devolve more power to the states, and consequently, expedite the process of mineral development in the country,” .c (https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/indl-goods/svs/metals-mining/mines-ministry-to-notify-31-major-minerals- as-minor-minerals/articleshow/46131503.cms?utm_source=contentoﬁnterest&utm_medium=ctext&utm_campaign=cppst )

Major minerals are those specified in the first schedule appended in the MMDR Act. Thsere is no official definition for “major minerals” in the MMDR Act. Hence, whatever is not declared as a “minor minerapl” may be treated as the major mineral. ‘Obvious Geological Mineral Potential’ (OGP) of area around 0.57 millionu sq. km has been divided into the following five major mineral belts t 1. N.E. Peninsular Belt/ Chota Nagpur and Orissa Plateau (Jharkhand, West Bengal and Orissa) 2. Central Belt (Chhattisgarh, A.P., M.P. & Maharashtra) n 3. Southern Belt (Karnataka Plateau and Tamil Nadu) i 4. S.W. Belt (Karnataka and Goa) r 5. N.W. Belt / Aravalli Belt (Rajasthan and Gupjarat)

Chhattisgarh is the richest State in tesrms of mineral wealth, with 28 varieties of major minerals, including diamonds. Chhattisgarh, alon with two other. Indian Sttes has almost all the coal deposits in India. All the tin ore is in Chhattisgarh. A ﬁfth of iron ore reserves in the country are located here, and one of the best quality iron ore deposits in the world is found in the Bailadila mines in south Chhattisgarh, from where it is exported to Japan. Rich deposits of Bauxite, Limestone, Dolomite and Corundum are found inw the State. The Raipur-based Directorate of Geology and Mining is reputed to be one of the best knowledge anwd resource centres in mining minerals. w m o .c sc p tu n ri p .s w w w

93. With reference to Ocean Mean Temperature (OMT), which of the following statements is/are correct ?

1, OMT is measured up to a depth of 26°C isotherm which is 129 meters in the south-western Indian Ocean during January - March.

2. OMT collected during January - March can be used in assessing whether the amount of rainfall in monsoon will be less or more than a certain long-term mean.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Option-A: 1 only  Option-B: 2 only  (Correct Answer) Option-C: Both 1 and 2  m Option-D: Neither 1 nor 2  o Explanation: Sea surface temperature (SST) is routinely used for predicting whether the total amount of rainfall that Incdia receives during the monsoon season will be less or more than the long-term mean of 887.5 mm. Now, scientists from Pune’s Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM) find that ocean mean temperature (OMT) has better ability to predict t.his than the sea surface temperature. Compared with SST that has 60% success rate of predicting summer monsoon, cOMT has 80% success rate. The SST is restricted to a few millimetres of the top ocean layer and is largely influencesd by strong winds, evaporation, or thick clouds. In contrast, OMT, which is measured up to a depth of 26 degree C isotherm, is more stable and consistent, and the spatial spread is also less.The 26 degree C isotherm is seen at depths varyping from 50-100 metres. During January- March, the mean 26 degree C isotherm depth in the Southwestern Indiuan Ocean is 59 metres.Thus statement 1 is incorrect In addition to better predictive success, the information on whethert the amount of monsoon rainfall will be more or less than the long-term mean will be available by beginning of April, two months before the south-west monsoon can set. This is becauseOMT is analysed by measuring the ocean thermal ennergy during the period January to March. South-westmonsoon sets in Kerala around June 1 each year.Thus statemrent 2i is correct (Reference:https://journosdiary.com/2018/0p9/01/iitm-omt-sst-ocean-mean-temperature-indian-monsoon/) 94. s With reference to chemical fertiliz.ers in India, consider the following statements : 1. At present, the retail wprice of chemical fertilizers is market-driven and not administered by the Government. 2. Ammonia, which is an input of urea, is produced from natural gas. 3. Sulphur, whwich is a raw material for phosphoric acid fertilizer, is a by-product of oil refineries. Whwich of the statements given above is/are correct ? Option-A: 1 only  Option-B: 2 and 3 only  (Correct Answer) Option-C: 2 only  Option-D: 1, 2 and 3 

Explanation: 1. As fertilizer is an essential input for agricultural production, the Government’s objective is to make this critical input available to the farmers at affordable prices. Until 24th August 1992, the prices of all the fertilizers were controlled, the Government setting the maximum retail prices of various fertilizers. With effect from 25August 1992, the prices of phosphate and potash fertilizers were decontrolled. The prices of urea continued to remain under control. Following decontrol, the prices of phosphatic and potassic fertilizers rose sharply. Since 1997/98 the Government has fixed indicative maximum retail prices of decontrolled fertilizers, uniform throughout the country. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.(Refernce : http://www.fao.org/3/a0257e/A0257E06.htm) 2. Statement 2 is correct :Synthetic ammonia (NH3) refers to ammonia that has been synthesized (Standard Industrial Classification 2873) from natural gas. Natural gas molecules are reduced to carbon and hydrogen. The hydrogen is then purified and reacted with nitrogen to produce ammonia. Approximately 75 percent of the ammonia produced is used as fertilizer, either directly as ammonia or indirectly after synthesis as urea, ammonium nitrate, and monoammonium or diammonium phosphates. The remainder is used as raw material in the manufacture of polymeric resins, explosives, nitric acid, and other products. (Refernce : https://www3.epa.gov/ttnchie1/ap42/ch08/final/c08s01.pdf) 3. Statement 3 is correct : Most crude oil grades contain some sulfur, most of which must be removed during the refining process to meet strict sulfur content limits in refined products. This is typically done through hydrotreating and resmults in production of H2S gas, which is converted into elemental sulfur in the sulfur recovery unit. The resultant elemental sulfur is in a molten state and can either be sold as a heated liquid or (more commonly) converted to solido form as blocks or pellets. Most of the sulfur produced by refineries is sold into the petrochemicals market where it is used to make sulfuric acid. Processing of high-sulfur natural gas is also a large source of sulfur supply. Sulfcur can also be mined from underground, naturally-occurring deposits, but this is more costly than sourcing from oil and gas and has largely been discontinued. . Phosphate fertilizers are produced by adding acid to ground or pulverized phosphate rock. If sculfuric acid is used, single or normal, phosphate (SSP) is produced, with a phosphorus content of 16–21% as phosphorous pentoxide (P2O5). (Refernce : https://www.mckinseyenergyinsights.com/resources/refinery-reference-dessk/sulfur-product/) p Learning: u For Potassic & Phosphatic (P&K) fertilizers, the Government is impltementing Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) Scheme w.e.f 1.4.2010. n “Under the NBS Policy, the Government announces a fixeid rate of subsidy (in Rs. per Kg basis), on each nutrient of subsidized P&K fertilizers, namely Nitrogen (N), Phosphate (P), rPotash (K) and Sulphur (S), on annual basis taking into account all relevant factors including international prices, exchange rate, inventory level and prevailing Maximum retail prices of P&K fertilizers. p .s (Reference : https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/agriculture/govt-rules-out-decontrolling-urea- prices/articleshow/698w91217.cms?utm_source=contentofinterest&utm_medium=text&utm_campaign=cppst )

95. w Witwh reference to India’s Desert National Park, which of the following statements are correct ? 1. It is spread over two districts.

2. There is no human habitation inside the Park.

3. It is one of the natural habitats of Great Indian Bustard.

Select the correct answer using the code given below : Option-A: 1 and 2 only  Option-B: 2 and 3 only  Option-C: 1 and 3 only  (Correct Answer) Option-D: 1, 2 and 3 

Explanation: 1. Statement 1 is correct :The Thar Desert in north-western India is a unique and the only habitat of its type in the Indian subcontinent. The Aravalli hills mark the eastern-most boundary limit of the Thar desert while the western limit is deﬁned by the fertile plains of the Indus. The Great Rann of Kutch forms a sharp boundary in the south while its northern limits are formed by the riparian sub-Himalayan plains. The Desert National Park (DNP) covers an area of 3162 km² of which 1900 km² is in Jaisalmer district and remaining 1262 km² is in Barmer district of Rajasthan State. The area falls in the extreme hot and arid region of very low rainfall zone (<100mm) of the country. DNP was gazetted in the year 1980. 2. Statement 2 is incorrect :The Thar desert is the most thickly populated desert in the world with an average density of 83 persons/km² (compared to 7km² of other deserts) (Baqri and Kankane 2001). However, the human population withmin the DNP is low (4-5 persons per km²). There are 73 villages and also settlements or Dhanis existing within the Park. These communities have inhabited this area for hundreds of years and with their rich culture and tradition they are an integral part of this ecosystem. o 3. Statement 3 is correct :More than 100 bird species have been listed from DNP including a good population of the Great Indian Bustard (locally called Godawan) (Kalra et al. 2006) and is a home for migrant Houbara Bustacrd. The important mammal species of the area includes Chinkara Gazella bennetti, Desert Fox Vulpes vulpes, India.n Fox Vulpes bengalensis, Desert Cat Felis silvestris, Hairy-footed Gerbil Gerbillus gleadowi, Desert hare Lepus nigrricollis dayanus and Long-eared hedgehog Hemeichinus auritus. sc (Reference :https://whc.unesco.org/en/tentativelists/5448/) p 96. Siachen Glacier is situated to the tu Option-A: East of Aksai Chin  Option-B: East of Leh  in Option-C: North of Gilgit  r Option-D: North of Nubra Valley  (Correct Answer)

Explanation: p The Siachen Glacier is a glacier located in the eastern Karakoram range, North of Nubra Valley, in the Himalayas, just northeast of the point NJ9842 wheres the Line of Control between India and Pakistan ends. At 76 km (47 mi) long, it is the longest glacier in the Karakoram a.nd second-longest in the world's non-polar areas. It falls from an altitude of 5,753 m (18,875 ft) above sea level at its head at Indira Col on the China border down to 3,620 m (11,875 ft) at its terminus. The entire Siachen Glacier, with all major passes, has been under the administration of India (currently as part of the union territory of Ladakh, located in the Kwashmir region) since 1984. Pakistan maintains a territorial claim over the Siachen Glacier and controls the region west of Saltoro Ridge, lying west of the glacier, with Pakistani posts located 3,000 ft below more than 100 Indian posts on the ridge. It is the source for the 50-mi-long Nubra River, a tributary of the Shyok, which is part of the Indus River system.w

(httwps://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/defence/siachen-all-you-should-know-about-the-worlds-costliest- battleﬁeld/articleshow/72142137.cms; https://www.britannica.com/place/Siachen-Glacier) m o .c sc p tu n ri p .s w w 97. Witwh reference to the history of India, consider the following pairs :

Famous Place Present State

1, Bhilsa — Madhya Pradesh

2. Dwarasamudra — Maharashtra

3. Girinagar — Gujarat

4, Sthanesvara — Uttar Pradesh Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched ?

Option-A: 1 and 3 only  (Correct Answer) Option-B: 1 and 4 only  Option-C: 2 and 3 only  Option-D: 2 and 4 only 

Explanation: 1. Option 1 is correct :Vidisha, formerly known as Bhelsa and known as Besnagar in ancient times, is a city in the state of Madhya Pradesh, India. It is located 62.5 km northeast of the state capital, Bhopal. The name "Vidisha" is derived from the nearby river "Bais", mentioned in the Puranas. The district was created as "Bhilsa District" in 1904 by joining the tehsils of Vidisha (also known as Bhilsa) and Basoda, but not Basoda State, which were then part of Gwalior state. After India's independence in 1947, the former princely state of Gwalior became part of Madhya Bharat state, which was formed in 1948. Vidishā was the administrative headquarters of Bhelsa, or Bhilsa, during the Medieval period. It wams renamed Vidisha in 1956. 2. Option 2 is incorrect :Halebidu (literally "old capital, encampment") is a town located inHassan District, Kaornataka, India. Halebidu (which used to be called Dorasamudra or Dwarasamudra) was the regal capital of the Hoysala Empire in the 12th century. It is home to some of the best examples of Hoysala architecture. Most notable arec the ornate Hoysaleshwara and Kedareshwara temples. The city got the name "Halebidu" because it was da.maged and deserted into "old capital" after being ransacked and looted twice by forces of the Delhi Sultanate in the 14th century. 3. Option 3 is correct :Girinar is one of the most ancient Datta kshetras in India. Lord Dattatreya performed penance at the top of the hill. People have to climb 10,000 (ten thousand) steps to have Datta paduka dacrshan. The group temples of Jainism are also situated on the Mount Girnar situated near Junagadh in Junagadh district, Gujarat, India. There temples are sacred to the Digambara and the Svetambara branches of Jainism. Girnar, alsso known as Girinagar ('city-on-the- hill') or Revatak Parvata, is a group of mountains in the Junagadh District of Gujarat, India. 4. Option 4 is incorrect :Thanesar (sometimes called Thaneswar and, archaipcally, Sthanishvara) is a historic town and an important Hindu pilgrimage centre on the banks of the Saraswati River in the state of Haryana in northern India. It is located in Kurukshetra district, approximately 160 km northwest ouf Delhi, and Kurukshetra’s urban area now merges with Thanesar. Prabhakarvardhana was a ruler of Thanesar in the etarly seventh-century CE and was succeeded by his sons, Rajyavardhana and Harsha n 98. i Consider the following statements : r 1. 36% of India’s districts are classiﬁed as "overexploited” or “critical” by the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA). 2. CGWA was formed under the Environmenpt (Protection) Act. 3. India has the largest area under grosundwater irrigation in the world. Which of the statements given ab.ove is/are correct ?

Option-A: 1 only  w Option-B: 2 and 3 only (Correct Answer) Option-C: 2 only  Option-D:w 1 and 3 only 

Explanation: 1w. The degree of ground water exploitation has varied widely across the country. Some states have a large number of semi critical, critical and over-exploited assessment units (Annexure 2.3).4 Out of the 5723 assessment units assessed jointly by State Ground Water Departments and CGWB in the country, 4078 are safe (71%), 550 are semi critical (10%), 226 are critical (4%) and 839 are overexploited (15%). Just six states [Gujarat, Haryana, Maharashtra, Punjab, Rajasthan and Tamil Nadu] comprising 1413 assessment units, have 762 assessment units which are semi critical, critical or overexploited (54% against national average of 29%). 2. Central Ground Water Authority has been constituted under Section 3 (3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 to regulate and control development and management of ground water resources in the country. 3. Today, India is the world’s largest user of groundwater, accounting for almost 25% of the approximate 1000 km3 of groundwater that is extracted annually in the world. India also has the largest number of wells and tube wells, and the latest round of Minor Irrigation Census puts this number at approximately 20 million.

(Reference : https://niti.gov.in/planningcommission.gov.in/docs/reports/genrep/rep_grndwat.pdf)

Learning: Powers & Functions:

The CGW Authority has been conferred with the following powers:

(i) Exercise of powers under section 5 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 for issuing directions and taking such measures in respect of all the matters referred to in sub-section(2) of section 3 of the said Act. m (ii) To resort to penal provisions contained in sections 15 to 21 of the said Act. (iii) To regulate and control, management and development of ground water in the country and to issue necessaory regulatory directions for the purpose. c (iv) Exercise of powers under section 4 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 for the appointmen.t of oﬃcers.

The Central Ground Water Authority is regulating withdrawal of ground water by industriecs/ projects in 802 Over- exploited and 169 Critical Assessment Units. List of these critical areas has been circulated to the State Pollution Control Boards and Ministry of Environment & Forests which refer the new industrsies/ projects to CGWA for obtaining permission. CGWA has notified 162 critical/ overexploited areas in parts of NCT Delhi, pHaryana, Punjab, Andhra Pradesh, Rajasthan, MP, Gujarat, West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, UT of Puducherry and UT of Diu for control and regulation of development of ground water resources. For enforceument of the regulatory measures in these areas, concerned Deputy Commissioners/ District Magistrates have been directed under Section 5 of Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 to regulate ground water development in these notifited areas. Construction of new ground water structures is prohibited in the notified areas. Permission of drilling tubewells is being granted only to the Govt. agencies responsible for dirinnking water supply. Groundwater irrigation has played an important roler in India’s food security and has provided drought resilience and income certainty for millions of farmers in the country. Indeed, the success of Green Revolution in India has often being attributed to assured irrigation from groundwater. Yet, 50 years down the line, in many parts of India, groundwater is in a precarious condition, with over 1/3rd of the blocks in Inpdia having extracted more groundwater than is naturally recharged. .s w w w m o .c sc p tu n ri p .s w w w

99. Consider the following statements : 1. Jet streams occur in the Northern Hemisphere only. 2. Only some cyclones develop an eye. 3. The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is nearly 10°C lesser than that of the surroundings.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Option-A: 1 only  Option-B: 2 and 3 only  Option-C: 2 only  (Correct Answer) Option-D: 1 and 3 only 

Explanation: 1. Statement 1 is incorrect:Jet streams are relatively narrow bands of strong wind in the upper levels of the atmosphmere. The winds blow from west to east in jet streams but the flow often shifts to the north and south. Jet streams follow the boundaries between hot and cold air. Since these hot and cold air boundaries are most pronounced in wintoer, jet streams are the strongest for both the northern and southern hemisphere winters. 2. Statement 2 is correct:The eye is a region of mostlycalm weather at the centerof strong tropical cycclones. The eye of a storm is a roughly circular area, typically 30–65 kilometers (19–40 miles) in diameter. It is surro.unded by the eyewall, a ring of towering thunderstorms where the most severe weather and highest winds occur.In a temperate cyclone,there is not a single place where winds and rains are inactive, means no eye, where weather is calm. 3. Statement 3 is incorrect:The eye is the region of lowest surface pressure and warmest tecmperatures aloft - the eye temperature may be 10°C [18°F] warmer or more at an altitude of 12 km [8 mi] than the surrounding environment, but only 0-2°C [0-3°F] warmer at the surface (Hawkins and Rubsam 1968) in the tropicsal cyclone. Eyes range in size from 8 km [5 mi] to over 200 km [120 mi] across, but most are in the range 30-60 km [20-40 mi] in diameter (Weatherford and Gray 1988). p (https://www.meteo.physik.uni-muenchen.de/~roger/manuskripte/tA11u.html) 100. Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the liargnest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat” ? Option-A: Corbett  r Option-B: Ranthambore  Option-C: Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam  (Cporrect Answer) Option-D: Sunderbans  s Explanation: . Critical 'tiger' habitats (CTHs), also known as core areas of tiger reserves—are identified under the Wild Life Protection Act (WLPA), 1972 based on scientific evidence that "such areas are required to be kept as inviolate for the purpose of tiger conservation, without awffecting the rights of the Scheduled Tribes or such other forest dwellers". The notification of CTH is done by the state government in consultation with the expert committee constituted for the purpose.

‘Inviolate’ is a general term used to indicate no human settlement and usage. This inevitably implies that establishing CTHs as inviolate awreas requires relocation of people living in such areas. The Section 38V (5) of WLPA, 1972 clearly states: "…no Scheduled Tribes or other forest dwellers shall be resettled or have their rights adversely affected for the purpose of creating inviolate areas for tiger conservation unless the process of recognition and determination of rights and acquisition of land or forewst rights of the Scheduled Tribes and such other forest dwelling persons is complete".

(https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/forests/community-forest-rights-in-critical-habitats-face-hurdle-due-to-lack-of-legal- roadmap-57602#:~:text=Critical%20'tiger'%20habitats%20(CTHs,of%20the%20Scheduled%20Tribes%20or) (http://wiienvis.nic.in/Database/trd_8222.aspx)

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