1. The Golgi tendon organ is an essential component of static stretching because it A. increases muscle spindle activity in a tight muscle. Rationale A. Golgi tendon organs decrease muscle spindle activity. B. prevents muscles from stretching too far or too fast. Rationale B. Muscle spindles prevent muscles from stretching too far or too fast. C. increases contraction rate in muscle fibers. Rationale C. Holding a stretch creates tension in the muscle, which stimulates the Golgi tendon organ, causes relaxation of an overactive muscle, and allows optimal lengthening of tissue. D. prevents muscle from being placed under excessive tension.(correct) Rationale D. The Golgi tendon organ prevents muscles from being placed under excessive tension (autogenic inhibition).

Question Name 1-1 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference Chapter 7, Task 1A1

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2. Which of the following is the correct force-couple relationship that allows for the upward rotation of the scapula? A. Longus capitus and brachialis Rationale A. The longus capitus concentrically accelerates cervical flexion and lateral flexion, while the brachialis concentrically accelerates elbow flexion. B. Rhomboid minor and anterior scalenes Rationale B. The rhomboid minor concentrically accelerates scapular retraction and downward rotation, while the anterior scalenes concentrically accelerates cervical flexion, rotation, and lateral flexion. C. Sternocleidomastoid and longus coli Rationale C. The sternocleidomastoid concentrically accelerates cervical flexion, rotation, and lateral flexion while the longus coli concentrically accelerate cervical flexion, lateral flexion, and ipsilateral rotation. D. Upper trapezius and lower portions of the serratus anterior (correct) Rationale D. The upper trapezius and the lower portion of the serratus anterior are muscle groups that move together to produce upward rotation of the scapula.

Question Name 1-12 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference New, CPT 4 Table 5.3 Task 1C2a

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3. Deoxygenated blood is pumped from the right ventricle to the lungs through which of the following vessels? A. Aortic valve Rationale A. The aortic valve allows blood to exit the left ventricle into the aorta. B. Aortic arch Rationale B. Oxygenated blood leaves the left ventricle and moves through the aortic arch to be pumped to the entire body. C. Pulmonary arteries (correct) Rationale C. Deoxygenated blood is pumped from the right ventricle to the lungs through the pulmonary arteries. D. Pulmonary veins Rationale D. Oxygenated blood enters the left atrium from the pulmonary veins.

Question Name 1-17 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 Chapter 3 Task 1A4

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4. Dynamic stretching improves soft tissue extensibility by using which of the following? A. Davis’s law Rationale A. Davis’s law states that soft tissue models along the lines of stress. B. Wolff’s law Rationale B. Wolff's law states that bone density changes in response to changes in the functional forces on the bone. C. Reciprocal inhibition (correct) Rationale C. Dynamic stretching uses the concept of reciprocal inhibition to improve soft tissue extensibility. Reciprocal inhibition is the simultaneous relaxation of one muscle and the contraction of its antagonist to allow movement to take place. D. Autogenic inhibition Rationale D. Autogenic inhibition is the process by which neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles.

Question Name 1-21 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 ch 7, Task 1C2c

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5. The oxidative system is primarily used when a client A. jogs for 30 minutes. (correct) Rationale A. The oxidative system is the slowest producing energy system used primarily during long-duration aerobic events. B. executes a 1RM clean and jerk. Rationale B. ATP-PC pathway is used when high-intensity exercises are executed that last up to 10 seconds. C. performs a 1RM squat. Rationale C. ATP-PC pathway is used when high-intensity exercises are executed that last up to 10 seconds. D. sprints 40 yards. Rationale D. ATP-PC pathway is used when high-intensity exercises are executed that last up to 10 seconds.

Question Name 1-23 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chapter 4 Task 1B6

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6. Which of the following would aid the primary respiratory muscles in breathing after a set of maximum effort sprints? A. Scalenes (correct) Rationale A. The scalenes are secondary respiratory muscles. B. Lower trapezius Rationale B. The lower trapezius is not a secondary respiratory muscle. C. Serratus anterior Rationale C. The serratus anterior is not a secondary respiratory muscle. D. Deltoids Rationale D. The deltoids are not secondary respiratory muscles.

Question Name 1-26 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 Chapter 3, Task 1B5

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7. When an exercise is high intensity and lasts about 10 seconds, which of the following energy pathways is predominantly in use? A. ATP-PC (correct) Rationale A. The ATP-PC system provides energy for primarily high-intensity, short-duration bouts of exercise or activity. B. Glycolysis Rationale B. The glycolytic system provides energy for about 30 to 50 seconds. Most fitness workouts will place a greater stress on this system than the other systems because a typical repetition range of 8 to 12 repetitions fall within this time frame. C. Oxidative Rationale C. Aerobic metabolism has the capability to produce energy, at least for exercise, for an indefinite period of time. D. ADP Rationale D. ADP stands for adenosine diphosphate. ADP is a high-energy compound occurring in all cells from which ATP is formed.

Question Name 1-28 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chpt 4 Task 1B6

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8. A client who is practicing repeated squat exercises in order to create permanent changes in her technique is exhibiting A. synergistic dominance. Rationale A. Synergistic dominance is the neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when inappropriate muscles take over the function of a weak prime mover. B. autogenic inhibition. Rationale B. Autogenic inhibition is the process by which neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract. C. motor learning. (correct) Rationale C. Motor learning occurs through repeated practice and experience, leading to a relatively permanent change to produce skilled movement. D. relative flexibility. Rationale D. Relative flexibility is the tendency of the body to seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns.

Question Name 1-29 Certification Thinking Skills Critical Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chapter 5 Task 1C3a

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9. Which of the following stimulates muscle fibers to go through a series of steps that initiate muscle contractions? A. Sarcolemma Rationale A. The sarcolemma is the cell membrane of a muscle cell. B. Perimysium Rationale B. The permysium is the connective tissue that surrounds fascicles. C. Myosin Rationale C. Myosin are thick contractile myofilaments in a myofibril. D. Acetylcholine (correct) Rationale D. The neurotransmitter acetylcholine crosses the synapse between the neuron and muscle fiber, transporting electrical impulses from the nerve to the muscle.

Question Name 1-36 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chapter 2 Task 1B1

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10. Which of the following exercises uses a ball-and-socket joint as the primary mover? A. Cable hamstring curl Rationale A. This exercise uses the knee as the primary mover. The knee is a condyloid joint. B. Cable pushdown Rationale B. The elbow must extend and flex in order for a cable pushdown to occur. The elbow is a hinge joint. C. Seated hammer curl Rationale C. The elbow must flex and extend in order for a biceps curl to occur. The elbow is a hinge joint. D. Seated dumbbell lateral raise(correct) Rationale D. This shoulder is a ball-and-socket joint and is a primary mover during the seated dumbbell lateral raise.

Question Name 1-4 Certification Thinking Skills Critical Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 ch 2, Appendix A Task 1A3

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11. The body's ability to differentiate between walking on concrete and walking on sand is an example of which of the following functions of the nervous system? A. Arthrokinematic Rationale A. Arthrokinematics refers to joint motion. B. Motor Rationale B. Motor function is the response to sensory information. C. Integrative Rationale C. Integrative function is the ability to analyze and interpret sensory information to allow for proper decision making. D. Sensory (correct) Rationale D. Sensory function allows the body to sense changes in the internal and external environments.

Question Name 1-5 Certification Thinking Skills Critical Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chapter 2 Task 1A1

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12. If a client exhibits increased force output of his hamstrings and adductor magnus to compensate for a weakened gluteus maximus during hip extension, this is an example of which of the following? A. Arthrokinetic dysfunction Rationale A. Arthrokinetic dysfunction refers to a dysfunction of the motion of the joints. B. Synergistic dominance (correct) Rationale B. Synergistic dominance is the neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when synergists take over function for a weak or inhibited prime mover. C. Reciprocal inhibition Rationale C. Reciprocal inhibition is the simultaneous relaxation of one muscle and the contraction of its antagonist to allow movement to take place. D. Pattern overload Rationale D. Pattern overload is consistently repeating the same pattern of motion, which may place stresses on the body.

Question Name 1-62 Certification Thinking Skills Critical Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chapter 7 Task 1C2d

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13. If a client squats with his feet excessively externally rotated, it is evidence of which of the following? A. Altered reciprocal inhibition Rationale A. Altered reciprocal inhibition involves inhibition of a muscle caused by a tight agonist that decreases performance of its functional antagonist. B. Altered arthrokinematics (correct) Rationale B. Altered arthrokinematics leads to altered joint motion. C. Excessive dorsiflexion Rationale C. Excessive dorsiflexion does not affect external rotation during the squat. D. Limited plantarflexion Rationale D. Limited plantarflexion does not affect external rotation during the squat.

Question Name 1-67 Certification Thinking Skills Critical Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 Chapter 7 Task 1B3

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14. Which of the following is considered the functional unit of muscle? A. Epimysium Rationale A. Epimysium is a layer of connective tissue that surrounds the muscle. B. Perimysium Rationale B. Perimysium is connective tissue that surrounds the fascicles. C. Muscle spindle Rationale C. Muscle spindles are microscopic intrafusal fibers that are sensitive to change in muscular length and rate of length change. D. Sarcomere (correct) Rationale D. A sarcomere is the functional unit of muscle and consists of repeating sections of actin and myosin.

Question Name 1-68 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chapter 2 Task 1B2

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15. Which structure of the skeletal muscle contains a combination of glycogen, fats, minerals, and oxygen-binding myoglobin? A. Sarcoplasm (correct) Rationale A. Sarcoplasm is a plasma membrane that encases multiple muscle fibers. B. Fascia Rationale B. Fascia is connective tissue. There is an outer layer of fascia that wraps around the actual muscle. C. Endomysium Rationale C. Endomysium is connective tissue that wraps around individual muscle fibers. D. Troponin Rationale D. Troponin is a protein structure within a single muscle fiber.

Question Name 1-7 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chapter 2 Task 1A2

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16. Which of the following is the appropriate method to estimate the maximum heart rate for a client? A. Divide the client's resting heart rate by 220. Rationale A. Dividing the client's resting heart rate by 220 does not provide information about the client’s maximum heart rate. B. Divide 220 by the client's age. Rationale B. Dividing 220 by the client's age does not provide information about the client's maximum heart rate. C. Subtract the client's resting heart rate from 220. Rationale C. Subtracting the client's resting heart rate from 220 does not provide the client's personal heart rate information. D. Subtract the client's age from 220. (correct) Rationale D. Subtracting the client's age from 220 gives the client's estimated maximum heart rate.

Question Name 2-10 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 ch 6 Task 2B1a

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17. After performing a 3-minute step test, it is determined that a client falls in the “Below Average” category for cardiovascular fitness. What is the appropriate starting zone for the client? A. Zone two intervals Rationale A. Zone two is too advanced for this client. B. Zone three Rationale B. Zone three is too advanced for this client. C. Zone one (correct) Rationale C. Zone one is the appropriate starting program for this client. D. Zone three intervals Rationale D. Zone three intervals are too advanced for this client.

Question Name 2-16 Certification Thinking Skills Critical Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 Chapter 6 Task 2B1c

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18. During a single-leg squat assessment, the client’s standing leg caves inward. Which of the following muscles is probably underactive? A. Gluteus medius (correct) Rationale A. This is a probable underactive muscle for the compensation of knees moving inward. B. Vastus lateralis Rationale B. This is a probable overactive muscle. C. Tensor fascia latae (TFL) Rationale C. This is a probable overactive muscle. D. Adductor complex Rationale D. This is a probable overactive muscle.

Question Name 2-17 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chpt 6 Task 2D3

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19. A trainer is working with a senior client. The trainer should be aware of which of the following physiological characteristics? A. Decreased blood pressure Rationale A. Blood pressure usually increases with age. B. Decreased lean body mass (correct) Rationale B. Lean body mass will decrease with increasing age. C. Increased connective tissue elasticity Rationale C. Elasticity is decreased with age. D. Decreased risk of arteriosclerosis Rationale D. The risk of arteriosclerosis increases with age.

Question Name 2-2 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chpt 16 Task 2A2 2011

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20. A client's head protrudes during a pulling assessment. Which of the following muscles should be stretched? A. Longus coli Rationale A. Longus coli is an underactive muscle that requires strengthening. B. Longus capitis Rationale B. Longus capitis is an underactive muscle that requires strengthening. C. Sternocleidomastoid(correct) Rationale C. Sternocleidomastoid is an overactive muscle that requires stretching. D. Supraspinatus Rationale D. Supraspinatus is a shoulder (rotator cuff) muscle and does not require stretching in this instance.

Question Name 2-21 Certification Thinking Skills Critical Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 Chapter 6 Task 2C4

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21. Which of the following best describes the purpose of the Davies test assessment? A. Assessing dynamic flexibility and integrated total body strength Rationale A. This is best assessed with the overhead squat assessment. B. Assessing lower extremity agility and balance Rationale B. The Davies test does not assess lower extremity agility. C. Estimating one-rep maximum and upper extremity strength Rationale C. The Davies test does not measure maximum strength. D. Assessing upper extremity agility and stabilization (correct) Rationale D. This is the correct function of the Davies test.

Question Name 2-27 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chapter 6 Task 2B5

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22. During the overhead squat assessment, the client’s arms fall forward. Which of the following muscles are considered to be overactive? A. Rotator cuff Rationale A. The rotator cuffs are typically underactive with this compensation. B. Erector spinae Rationale B. Erector spinae are not associated with this movement impairment. C. Lower trapezius Rationale C. The lower trapezius is considered to be underactive in this movement observation. D. Pectoralis minor (correct) Rationale D. The pectoralis minor and major are tight if the arms fall forward.

Question Name 2-28 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chapter 6 Task 2D1

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23. The client's feet turn out when performing the overhead squat assessment. Which of the following is likely the overactive muscle? A. Gracilis Rationale A. This is likely an underactive muscle. B. Sartorius Rationale B. This is likely an underactive muscle. C. Lateral gastrocnemius (correct) Rationale C. The lateral gastrocnemius is typically overactive when the feet externally rotate during the overhead squat assessment. D. Medial hamstring Rationale D. This is likely an underactive muscle.

Question Name 2-36 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4: chapter 6 chapter 7, Table 7.6, Task 2C1

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24. Why is it crucial to have a client complete the PAR-Q? A. It helps detect any possible cardiorespiratory dysfunction. (correct) Rationale A. The PAR-Q is designed to detect any possible cardiorespiratory dysfunction, such as coronary heart disease. B. It helps detect any possible postural imbalances. Rationale B. Movement assessments are the correct way to detect postural imbalances. C. It provides information about muscular strength. Rationale C. The PAR-Q is not a strength assessment test. D. It provides information about body fat percentage. Rationale D. A body composition test is the correct way to determine body fat percentage.

Question Name 2-44 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chpt 6 Task 2A1a

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25. A personal trainer observes that a client leans forward excessively while performing an overhead squat. Based on this observation, the appropriate action is to A. static stretch the soleus, gastrocnemius, hip flexor complex, and abdominal complex. (correct) Rationale A. Stretching these muscles will help correct the dysfunction. B. static stretch the anterior tibialis, gluteus maximus, and erector spinae. Rationale B. These muscles are most likely underactive and require activation (strengthening). C. self-myofascial release the medial hamstrings, hip extensor complex, and erector spinae. Rationale C. These muscles are most likely underactive and do not require foam rolling. D. self-myofascial release the anterior tibialis, gracilis, and sartorius. Rationale D. These muscles are most likely underactive and do not require foam rolling.

Question Name 2-46 Certification Thinking Skills Critical Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chpt 6 Task 2D2

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26. Which of the following muscles is most likely overactive if a client’s head protrudes forward during the pushing assessment? A. Levator scapulae(correct) Rationale A. When overactive, the levator scapulae can jut the head forward. B. Longus coli Rationale B. This muscle is a deep cervical flexor and is often underactive during this movement impairment. C. Teres minor Rationale C. This muscle does not pull the head forward, but rather concentrically accelerates shoulder external rotation. D. Infraspinatus Rationale D. This muscle does not pull the head forward, but rather concentrically accelerates shoulder external rotation.

Question Name 2-47 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chpt 6 Task 2C3

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27. In order to ensure accuracy while taking resting heart rate, it is best that all three tests be taken A. at the same time each day. (correct) Rationale A. To get an accurate average, all three tests should be taken at the same time of the day and on consecutive days. B. five minutes apart. Rationale B. To obtain a true average, it is best to get readings on three consecutive days, not on the same day. C. with a firm touch. Rationale C. If the touch is too firm, it is likely that the heart rate will not be felt. D. immediately before bed. Rationale D. It is best to obtain resting heart rate in the morning, immediately after waking up.

Question Name 2-51 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4: Chapter 6 Task 2B2a

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28. Which of the following assessments is commonly used in exercise physiology laboratories to measure body fat composition? A. Skin fold caliper measurement Rationale A. Skin fold caliper measurement is more commonly used in gyms and health clubs. B. Bioelectrical impedance Rationale B. Bioelectrical impedance is more commonly used in gyms and health clubs. C. Hydrostatic weighing (correct) Rationale C. Hydrostatic weighing is the most accurate and reliable method for measuring body fat composition. D. BMI measurement Rationale D. The BMI is a body composition assessment. It does not measure body fat.

Question Name 2-59 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chpt 6 Task 2B3

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29. During a standing pulling assessment, a client compensates by moving his head forward. Which of the following static stretches would be appropriate for this client? A. Levator scapulae(correct) Rationale A. The static levator scapulae stretch is appropriate for a client who compensates by moving his head forward during a standing pulling assessment. B. Erector spinae Rationale B. The static erector spinae stretch does not address a forward head posture. C. Piriformis Rationale C. The static piriformis stretch does not address a forward head posture. D. Latissimus dorsi Rationale D. The static latissimus dorsi stretch does not address a forward head posture.

Question Name 2-6 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 Ch 6 Task 2C4

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30. Which of the following assessments would be most appropriate to determine an athlete’s maximal strength capabilities of the upper body pressing musculature? A. Pushing assessment Rationale A. The pushing assessment assesses movement efficiency and potential muscle imbalances during pushing movements. B. Push-up test Rationale B. The push-up test measures muscular endurance of the upper body, primarily the pushing muscles. C. Davies test Rationale C. The Davies test assesses upper body agility and stabilization. D. Bench press 1RM test(correct) Rationale D. The bench press 1RM test is used to estimate one-rep max and upper extremity strength of the pressing musculature.

Question Name 2-78 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chapter 6 Task 2B4

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31. What auditory cue would a trainer use for a client who is performing a stability ball crunch? A. “Turn your feet outward for more balance.” Rationale A. The client should point his feet straight ahead to maintain ideal posture of the lower extremities. B. “Squeeze your knees together to help isolate your abs.” Rationale B. The client should maintain the five kinetic chain checkpoints including the knees pointing straight ahead in line with the toes. C. "Perform a chin tuck to take stress off your neck.”(correct) Rationale C. A chin tuck will help keep the cervical spine in proper alignment. D. “Place your hands on your hips for greater stability." Rationale D. The client should place his hands behind his head or across the chest when performing this exercise.

Question Name 3-11 Certification Thinking Skills Critical Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT chapter Task 3D2

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32. Which of the following techniques is more of a risk, rather than a benefit, for a new senior client? A. Recumbent cycling Rationale A. This is a recommended cardio option for seniors because it safeguards against falls and foot problems. B. Arching quadriceps stretch(correct) Rationale B. The arching quadriceps stretch places high stress on the kneecap and is not recommended for senior clients. C. Seated strength training machines Rationale C. Resistance options include seated machines, progressing to standing exercise. D. Cardio at 60-80% of VO2 peak Rationale D. Exercise within this range is acceptable for most senior clients.

Question Name 3-13 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chpt 16 Task 3C3

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33. Which of the following statements is correct regarding proper spotting technique for a client using dumbbells? A. Spot at the client’s wrists.(correct) Rationale A. Spotting at the wrists will prevent the elbows from flexing and caving inward. B. Spot at the client’s elbows. Rationale B. Spotting at the elbows will not prevent the elbows from caving inward. C. Spot at the client’s axilla. Rationale C. It is not safe to spot at the armpit when clients are using dumbbells. D. Spot at the client’s hands. Rationale D. Spotting at the hands is dangerous.

Question Name 3-14 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chpt 15 Task 3C1

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34. An obese client who has been diagnosed with peripheral artery disease (PAD) should be advised to A. avoid aerobic exercise for lower extremities. Rationale A. Peripheral arterial disease decreases aerobic capacity. Focus should be placed on walking. B. substitute self-myofascial release for static stretching. Rationale B. There are currently no established guidelines for the use of self-myofascial release, and its use is not suggested for clients who have PAD. Static stretching is a recommended flexibility technique. C. strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily.(correct) Rationale C. An obese client who has PAD should be encouraged to perform continuous aerobic activity daily for 20 to 30 minutes. D. alternate between modalities so leg pain will not limit exercise. Rationale D. Clients who have PAD frequently have coexisting heart disease. Alternating between modalities could result in a higher cardiac workload that would be inappropriate for this client.

Question Name 3-16 Certification Thinking Skills Critical Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chpt 16 Task 3C5

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35. Which of the following exercises is the next progression to a two-arm dumbbell chest press on a stability ball for a client who is in a Phase 1 OPT™ program? A. Barbell bench press Rationale A. A barbell bench press is a strength level exercise and is not appropriate during Phase 1. B. One-arm dumbbell chest press on a stability ball Rationale B. A one-arm dumbbell chest press on a stability ball is several progressions from a bilateral dumbbell chest press on a stability ball. C. Alternating-arm dumbbell chest press on a stability ball (correct) Rationale C. Alternating the arms during each repetition is the next progression to a bilateral stability ball chest press. D. Incline barbell bench press Rationale D. An incline barbell bench press is a strength level exercise and is not appropriate during Phase 1.

Question Name 3-18 Certification Thinking Skills Critical Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chpt 13 Task 3B1

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36. A client is currently training in the Hypertrophy phase of the OPT™ Model. Which phase of the flexibility continuum would be the most appropriate? A. Active (correct) Rationale A. Active flexibility is most appropriate for the strength level phases of the OPT Model. It uses self- myofascial release and active-isolated stretching techniques. B. Dynamic Rationale B. Dynamic stretching is most appropriate for clients in the power level or before athletic competition. C. Functional Rationale C. Functional flexibility is most appropriate at the power level or before athletic competition. D. Corrective Rationale D. Corrective flexibility is most appropriate at the stabilization level of the OPT Model.

Question Name 3-20 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 Ch. 7 Task 3A1c

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37. A client is placing pressure on his calf musculature using a foam roll. Which of the following stretching techniques is the client using? A. Static stretching Rationale A. This technique passively takes a muscle to the point of tension and holds the stretch. B. Self-myofascial release (correct) Rationale B. The gentle pressure stimulates the Golgi tendon organ and creates autogenic inhibition, which decreases muscle spindle excitation and decreases overactivity of underlying muscles. C. Active-isolated stretching Rationale C. This technique uses agonist and synergists to move a joint through the full range of motion. D. Dynamic stretching Rationale D. This technique uses momentum to take a joint through the full range of motion.

Question Name 3-27 Certification Thinking Skills Critical Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chpt 7 Task 3A1a

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38. A client indicates he is taking beta-blockers for hypertension. During Phase 1 of the OPT™ Model, the trainer should A. use Valsalva maneuvers. Rationale A. The client should breathe normally, and rhythmic breathing should be emphasized. B. avoid prone positions.(correct) Rationale B. Body position dramatically increases the effects of hypertension. Having the head lower than the heart can increase blood pressure. C. implement a drop set loading system. Rationale C. Peripheral heart action or a circuit training-style system is recommended for this client. D. modify training to include heavy workloads. Rationale D. Heavy resistance training can increase blood pressure.

Question Name 3-3 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chpt 16 Task 3C5

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39. Which form of stretching should be used to decrease muscle spindle activity of a tight muscle before and after physical activity? A. Ballistic stretching Rationale A. Ballistic stretching increases motorneuron excitability and does not decrease muscle spindle activity. B. Static stretching(correct) Rationale B. By holding the muscle in a stretch position for a prolonged period, muscle spindle activity will decrease. This is called autogenic inhibition. C. Dynamic stretching Rationale C. Dynamic stretching increases motorneuron excitability and does not decrease muscle spindle activity. D. Active-isolated stretching Rationale D. Active-isolated stretching increases motorneuron excitability and does not decrease muscle spindle activity.

Question Name 3-32 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chpt 7 Task 3A1b

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40. A personal trainer is working with a 65-year-old client who is sedentary. Which of the following SAQ drills would be appropriate for this client? A. Red Light, Green Light Rationale A. This drill is appropriate to use with youth because it is high intensity. B. Stand Up to Figure 8(correct) Rationale B. This drill is appropriate to use with a senior client because it is low intensity and places emphasis on standing from a seated position. C. Follow the Snake Rationale C. This drill is appropriate to use with youth because it emphasizes high-intensity movement patterns. D. Modified Box Drill Rationale D. This drill is appropriate to use with athletic clients to emphasize speed and agility.

Question Name 3-42 Certification Thinking Skills Critical Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chpt 12 Task 3A2d

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41. What visual cue would a trainer use for a client who is performing the single-leg scaption exercise? A. Demonstrate shoulder abduction until both arms are held at shoulder height toward the sides of the body. Rationale A. This motion does not occur during the scaption exercise. This is a similar motion to a dumbbell lateral raise exercise. B. Demonstrate horizontal abduction of both arms, thumbs up, from a starting position of 90 degrees of shoulder flexion. Rationale B. This motion does not occur during the scaption exercise. This is a similar motion to a dumbbell fly exercise. C. Demonstrate pressing both dumbbells directly overhead until both arms are fully extended. Rationale C. This motion does not occur during the scaption exercise. This is a similar motion to a dumbbell overhead press exercise. D. Demonstrate raising both arms, thumbs up at a 45-degree angle in the front of the body. (correct) Rationale D. This is the correct motion during the scaption exercise.

Question Name 3-43 Certification Thinking Skills Critical Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4: Chapter 13 Task 3D3

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42. Within the stabilization phase of resistance training, which would be an appropriate regression of the two-arm shoulder press seated on a stability ball? A. Single leg Rationale A. This is a progression, not a regression. B. One arm Rationale B. This is a progression, not a regression. C. Seated on a bench (correct) Rationale C. A bench provides increased stability, reducing some of the proprioceptive element. D. Alternating arms Rationale D. This is a progression, not a regression.

Question Name 3-45 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4, Chapter 13 Task 3A2e

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43. A client is performing a prone iso-ab exercise. The trainer notices that he is not able to maintain proper alignment. As a regression, the trainer should instruct the client to perform the exercise A. in a standard push-up position. (correct) Rationale A. Elevation of the upper body makes the exercise easier. B. with the feet elevated. Rationale B. Elevation of the feet would be a progression of the exercise. C. with hands on stability ball. Rationale C. A stability ball would be a progression of the exercise. D. with one hip in full extension. Rationale D. This would be a progression of the exercise.

Question Name 3-48 Certification Thinking Skills Critical Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chpt 9 Task 3B2

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44. The proper balance progression to increase a client’s proprioception is which of the following? A. Single-leg unstable, single-leg stable, two-leg unstable, one-leg unstable Rationale A. A single-leg unstable stance is the most difficult position. A client should be steadily progressed to this point. B. Two-leg stable, single-leg stable, two-leg unstable, single-leg unstable (correct) Rationale B. This is the correct progression, starting from the most stable position and progressing to the most unstable position. C. Two-leg stable, two-leg unstable, single-leg stable, single-leg unstable Rationale C. A single-leg stable exercise should be mastered before progressing to a two-leg unstable exercise. D. Single-leg stable, two-leg stable, one-leg unstable, two-leg unstable Rationale D. A two-leg stable exercise should be mastered before a single-leg stable exercise.

Question Name 3-49 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chpt 10 Task 3B1

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45. What is the proper ending position of the back leg during a cable rotation? A. Parallel to the front leg Rationale A. The back leg should be perpendicular to the front leg. B. Flexed at the hip, knee, and ankle Rationale B. The back leg should be in full extension, not flexed. C. Triple extension (correct) Rationale C. To decrease stress in the low back, make sure to pivot the back leg into triple extension. D. Foot should be flat Rationale D. The ankle of the back foot should be plantarflexed.

Question Name 3-54 Certification Thinking Skills Critical Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chapter 9 Task 3A2a

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46. Which of the following is an appropriate kinesthetic cue for a client performing a standing cable row? A. Have the client imagine a foam roll in the small of her back. Rationale A. The spine should be in a neutral alignment. B. Have the client look at an image 30° above her head. Rationale B. The client should perform a chin tuck rather than lifting the chin to maintain optimal alignment of the head and neck. C. Have the client imagine she is squeezing a quarter between her shoulder blades. (correct) Rationale C. This is a kinesthetic cue to help the client retract and depress her shoulder blades. D. Have the client protrude her abdomen against a weight belt. Rationale D. A weight belt is not necessary for this exercise.

Question Name 3-61 Certification Thinking Skills Critical Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chpt 13 Task 3D1

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47. Which of the following is the correct kinetic chain checkpoint for the single-leg squat? A. Knee is in line with the second and third toe. (correct) Rationale A. The knee should be in line with the second and third toe. This will decrease stress to the knee. B. Knee is in line with the medial border of the big toe. Rationale B. This will cause the knee to excessively adduct. C. Knee is in line with the fourth toe. Rationale C. This will cause the knee to slightly abduct. D. Knee is in line with the lateral border of the fifth toe. Rationale D. This will cause the knee to excessively abduct.

Question Name 3-72 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 Chapter 6 Task 3A2b

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48. Which of the following is appropriate when spotting during a bench press? A. Spot at the elbows. Rationale A. Assisting at the elbows does not prevent the elbows from flexing and caving inward. B. Place hands at both ends of the barbell. Rationale B. The hands should be placed shoulder-width apart in the middle of the barbell. C. Wait until the client progresses through the sticking point before providing assistance. Rationale C. Spotting requires assistance throughout the entire exercise. D. Determine how many repetitions the client will perform before beginning the set.(correct) Rationale D. This ensures safety for the client and the spotter.

Question Name 3-80 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 Chapter 15 Task 3C1

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49. Which of the following is the best example of a stabilization level plyometric exercise? A. Have the client use a repeating tempo on a squat jump. Rationale A. This is an example of a strength level plyometric exercise. B. Have the client perform ice skaters with as fast a tempo as he can control. Rationale B. This is an example of a power level plyometric exercise. C. Have the client perform a squat jump and hold the landing for five seconds before performing another rep. (correct) Rationale C. This is an example of a stabilization level plyometric exercise. D. Have a client perform a single-leg squat with a 4-2-1 tempo. Rationale D. This is an example of a stabilization level resistance exercise.

Question Name 3-81 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chpt 11 Task 3A2c

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50. Which of the following exercises is a dynamic stretch? A. Single-leg squat touchdown (correct) Rationale A. This is an example of a dynamic stretch. B. Static 90/90 hamstring stretch Rationale B. This is an example of a static stretch. C. Active latissimus dorsi ball stretch Rationale C. This is an example of an active stretch. D. Step-up to balance Rationale D. This is an example of a balance strength exercise.

Question Name 3-84 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 ch 7 Task 3A1d 2011

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51. Which of the following exercises is most appropriate for the goal of targeting the local core stabilizers? A. Incline reverse crunch Rationale A. This is a strength level exercise that involves more dynamic eccentric and concentric movements of the spine throughout a full range of motion. B. Prone iso-ab(correct) Rationale B. This exercise involves little motion through the spine and pelvis and helps to improve the functional capacity of the local stabilization system. C. Overhead medicine ball throws Rationale C. This is a power level exercise that focuses on increased rate of force production and targets the total body. D. Back extension Rationale D. This is a strength level exercise that targets the lumbar spine.

Question Name 4-1 Certification Thinking Skills Critical Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chpt 9 Task 4A6a

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52. Which of the following resistance training systems is advised for clients who have lung disease? A. Pyramid system Rationale A. The pyramid system targets the same muscle group for multiple sets while increasing or decreasing the load; therefore, this system is not appropriate for clients who have lung disease. B. Circuit training system(correct) Rationale B. Circuit training in a peripheral heart action is recommended for clients who have lung disease. The peripheral heart action system alternates upper and lower body exercises. C. Drop-set system Rationale C. The drop-set system is an advanced resistance training system and is too intense for clients who have lung disease. D. Giant set system Rationale D. The giant set system is an advanced resistance training system and is too intense for clients who have lung disease.

Question Name 4-101 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 Chapter 16 Task 4D6

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53. Which of the following warm-up strategies is most appropriate for a client in the stabilization level of the OPT™ model? A. Step 1. Cardiorespiratory Exercise, Step 2. Static Stretching, Step 3. Self-myofascial Release Rationale A. Performing cardiorespiratory exercise first may predispose the individual to faulty movement patterns during the warm-up. B. Step 1. Active-isolated Stretching, Step 2. Dynamic Stretching, Step 3. Cardiorespiratory Exercise Rationale B. Active-isolated stretching is most appropriate for a client in the strength level of the OPT Model. C. Step 1.Static Stretching, Step 2. Active-isolated Stretching, Step 3. Dynamic Stretching Rationale C. It is not necessary to combine static, active, and dynamic stretching as a warm-up. D. Step 1.Self-myofascial Release, Step 2. Static Stretching, Step 3. Cardiorespiratory Exercise(correct) Rationale D. This is an appropriate warm-up strategy for a client in the stabilization level of the OPT Model.

Question Name 4-106 Certification Thinking Skills Critical Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 Chater 8 Task 4A7a

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54. Performing resistance training exercises in a circuit fashion in order to burn more calories is an example of which of the following principles of specificity? A. Neuromuscular Rationale A. Neuromuscular specificity is the speed of contraction and exercise selection. B. Mechanical Rationale B. Mechanical specificity refers to weight and movement placed on the body. C. Metabolic (correct) Rationale C. Metabolic specificity refers to the energy demands placed on the body. D. Overload Rationale D. The principle of overload refers to greater-than-normal stress or load placed on the body.

Question Name 4-109 Certification Thinking Skills Critical Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chpt 13 Task 4A1c

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55. The adaptation of muscular hypertrophy is best achieved using which of the following repetition ranges and intensity? A. 1-5 reps at 85% to 100% of the 1RM Rationale A. This is an ideal repetition range and intensity for maximal strength. B. 5-10 reps at 30% to 45% of the 1RM Rationale B. This is a repetition range and intensity for power. C. 6-12 reps at 75% to 85% of the 1RM (correct) Rationale C. This is an ideal repetition range and intensity for muscular hypertrophy. D. 12-20 reps at 50% to 70% of the 1RM Rationale D. This is an ideal repetition range and intensity for muscular endurance.

Question Name 4-111 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chpt 14, Task 4A6c

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56. Which of the following balance exercises is appropriate for a client training in Phase 2 of the OPT™ model? A. Single-leg box hop-up Rationale A. This is an example of a balance-power exercise. Phase 2 requires a balance-strength exercise. B. Single-leg squat touchdown (correct) Rationale B. This is an appropriate exercise for a client in the balance-strength level. C. Single-leg lift and chop Rationale C. This is an example of a balance-stabilization exercise. Phase 2 requires a balance-strength exercise. D. Single-leg balance reach Rationale D. This is an example of a balance-stabilization exercise. Phase 2 requires a balance-strength exercise.

Question Name 4-116 Certification Thinking Skills Critical Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chpt 10 Task 4A7c

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57. On Monday, a client trains his chest, shoulders, and triceps. Thursday, he trains his back, biceps, and legs. This is an example of what type of resistance training system? A. Vertical loading system Rationale A. Vertical loading follows the OPT model vertically down the template by alternating body parts trained from set to set. B. Split routine system (correct) Rationale B. Split routines break up the body parts to be trained on separate days. C. Superset system Rationale C. A superset is two exercises performed in rapid succession of one another. D. Pyramid system Rationale D. This involves increasing or decreasing weight with each set.

Question Name 4-119 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chpt 13 Task 4A8g

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58. Which of the following resistance training systems aims to distribute blood flow between upper and lower extremities? A. Pyramid system Rationale A. This involves increasing or decreasing weight with each set. B. Drop-sets system Rationale B. This involves performing a set to failure, then removing a small percentage of the load, and continuing with the set. C. Split-routine system Rationale C. Split routines break up the body parts to be trained on separate days. D. Peripheral heart action system(correct) Rationale D. Peripheral heart action system is a form of circuit training that alternates upper and lower body exercises.

Question Name 4-15 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chpt 13 Task 4A8f

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59. Which of the following represents the minimum requirements as specified by the 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans? A. Adults should accumulate 75 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic activity every week or 30 minutes of vigorous-intensity aerobic activity every week. Rationale A. This is an insufficient amount of physical activity and does not meet the 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans. B. Adults should accumulate 100 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic activity every week or 45 minutes of vigorous-intensity aerobic activity every week. Rationale B. This is an insufficient amount of physical activity and does not meet the 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans. C. Adults should accumulate 125 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic activity every week or 60 minutes of vigorous-intensity aerobic activity every week. Rationale C. This is an insufficient amount of physical activity and does not meet the 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans. D. Adults should accumulate 150 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic activity every week or 75 minutes of vigorous-intensity aerobic activity every week. (correct) Rationale D. The 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans state that adults should accumulate 2 hours and 30 minutes (150 minutes) of moderate-intensity aerobic activity (e.g., brisk walking) every week, or 1 hour and 15 minutes (75 minutes) of vigorous-intensity aerobic activity (e.g., jogging or running) every week, or an equivalent mix of moderate- and vigorous-intensity aerobic activity.

Question Name 4-16 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chpt 8 Task 4F

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60. Which of the following is a physiologic adaptation a client experiences from high-volume resistance training? A. Increased resting heart rate Rationale A. A high resting heart rate typically occurs because of deconditioning and poor health. B. Increased resting arterial blood pressure Rationale B. High-volume resistance training can reduce resting arterial blood pressure. C. Increased metabolic rate (correct) Rationale C. This is an adaptation that is acquired from high-volume training. D. Increased LDL cholesterol Rationale D. High-volume resistance training has the potential to reduce LDL cholesterol.

Question Name 4-2 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chpt 14 Task 4A6h

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61. All exercise training recommendations, including cardiorespiratory exercise, should use the FITTE principle. What does FITTE stand for? A. Frequency, Intensity, Type, Time, Enjoyment(correct) Rationale A. FITTE stands for Frequency, Intensity, Type, Time, and Enjoyment. B. Functionally, Integrated, Transfer-of-Training Effect Rationale B. FITTE stands for Frequency, Intensity, Type, Time, and Enjoyment. C. Fitness, Intervals, Technique, Training, Equipment Rationale C. FITTE stands for Frequency, Intensity, Type, Time, and Enjoyment. D. Flexible, Integral, Timely, Terrific, Enhanced Rationale D. FITTE stands for Frequency, Intensity, Type, Time, and Enjoyment.

Question Name 4-21 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chpt 8 Task 4C4

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62. What is the recommended repetition tempo for a client performing a ball squat during Phase 1 of the OPT™ model? A. 4/2/1(correct) Rationale A. A slow tempo is recommended in the stabilization level of training. B. 2/0/2 Rationale B. A moderate tempo is recommended in the strength level of training. C. 1/1/1 Rationale C. A fast tempo is recommended in the strength/power levels of training depending on the exercise and goal. D. X/X/X Rationale D. An explosive tempo is recommended in the power level of training.

Question Name 4-25 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chpt. 14 Task 4A6e

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63. A client has been performing cardiorespiratory exercise for four weeks. Which of the following physiologic adaptations should the personal trainer expect to observe in the client? A. Decreased stroke volume Rationale A. Cardiorespiratory exercise increases stroke volume. B. Increased exercising heart rate Rationale B. Cardiorespiratory exercise decreases exercising heart rate. C. Decreased cardiac output Rationale C. Cardiorespiratory exercise increases cardiac output. D. Increased oxidative capacity of muscle(correct) Rationale D. Cardiorespiratory exercise increases oxidative capacity of muscle.

Question Name 4-30 Certification Thinking Skills Critical Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chpt 8 Task 4A7g

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64. During functional movement patterns, a client demonstrates excessive spinal motion. Which of the following core exercises should the trainer recognize as being most appropriate for this individual? A. Ball medicine pullover throw Rationale A. This is a core-power exercise. Individuals should demonstrate proper core stabilization before performing core-power level exercises. B. Two-leg floor bridge(correct) Rationale B. This is a core-stabilization exercise and is appropriate for individuals who demonstrate lumbopelvic instability. C. Reverse crunch Rationale C. This is a core-strength exercise involving flexion and extension of the spine. It may not be appropriate for individuals demonstrating excessive spinal motion. D. Back extension Rationale D. This is a core-strength exercise involving flexion and extension of the spine. It may not be appropriate for individuals demonstrating excessive spinal motion.

Question Name 4-36 Certification Thinking Skills Critical Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 Ch 9 Task 4A7b 2011

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65. Which of the following should the trainer advise for a pregnant client in her third trimester? A. Avoid static stretching and perform self-myofascial release on swollen calves to ease tension. Rationale A. Static stretching is recommended, and SMR should be avoided on varicose veins and any areas of swelling. B. Discontinue exercises in the supine position.(correct) Rationale B. Exercises in the supine position should be avoided in the second and third trimesters. C. Use seated adduction strength-training machines to target the inner thighs and pelvic floor. Rationale C. Adduction machines should be avoided by pregnant clients. D. Perform cardiorespiratory exercise of 60% to 70% of peak work capacity. Rationale D. Cardiorespiratory training during the third trimester should be performed at 40-50% of peak work capacity.

Question Name 4-42 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chpt 16 Task 4D10

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66. Which of the following is an appropriate warm-up for a client in Phase 1 of the OPT™ model? A. Self-myofascial release and static stretching(correct) Rationale A. Phase 1 of the OPT model uses self-myofascial release and static stretching. B. 20-minute treadmill run and sagittal plane lunges Rationale B. This warm-up does not address imbalances or corrective measures prior to activity. C. Push-ups and jumping jacks Rationale C. This warm-up does not address imbalances or corrective measures prior to activity. D. Active stretching and dynamic stretching Rationale D. Active and dynamic stretching are not appropriate for a client in Phase 1.

Question Name 4-47 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 Ch 7 Task 4A7a 2011

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67. A new client tells the personal trainer that she is experiencing soreness following her first exercise session. Which stage of the general adaptation syndrome does this represent? A. Resistance development Rationale A. The body increases the capacity to respond to a stressor. This is the second stage. B. Amortization phase Rationale B. The amortization phase is the time between the end of an eccentric muscle action and concentric muscle contraction. C. Exhaustion Rationale C. The third stage of response to a stressor is known as the exhaustion stage. D. Alarm reaction (correct) Rationale D. The first stage of response to a stressor is known as the alarm reaction stage.

Question Name 4-48 Certification Thinking Skills Critical Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chpt 13 Task 4A5a

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68. Which of the following is an appropriate movement assessment for a senior client who is sedentary? A. Pushing test(correct) Rationale A. The pushing test is a proper movement assessment for sedentary senior clients. B. Landing Error Scoring System (LESS) test Rationale B. This type of assessment is not appropriate for seniors who are unable to perform plyometric movements. C. Shark skill test Rationale C. The shark skill test is not appropriate and too advanced for most senior clients. D. Davies test Rationale D. The Davies test is not appropriate and too advanced for most senior clients.

Question Name 4-65 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chpt 16 Task 4D9

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69. Which of the following is a benefit of integrated cardiorespiratory training? A. Decreases high-density lipoproteins Rationale A. Cardiorespiratory training increases HDL (good) cholesterol. B. Decreases glucose tolerance Rationale B. Cardiorespiratory training increases glucose tolerance. C. Decreases resting heart rate (correct) Rationale C. Cardiorespiratory training has the ability to lower resting heart rate. D. Decreases oxidative capacity of muscle Rationale D. Cardiorespiratory training increases the oxidative capacity of muscle.

Question Name 4-8 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 Ch 8 Task 4A7g 2011

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70. Which of the following supersets is appropriate for a client training in Phase 5 of the OPT™ model? A. Bench press superset with a ball dumbbell chest press Rationale A. This is an appropriate superset for a client training in Phase 2 of the OPT model. B. Bench press superset with a stability ball push-up Rationale B. This is an appropriate superset for a client training in Phase 2 of the OPT model. C. Barbell squat superset with a squat jump(correct) Rationale C. This is an appropriate superset for this client. Phase 5 requires supersetting a strength exercise with a power exercise. D. Barbell squat superset with a single-leg squat Rationale D. This is an appropriate superset for a client training in Phase 2 of the OPT model.

Question Name 4-87 Certification Thinking Skills Critical Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 Chapter 14 Task 4A3

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71. Which of the following micronutrients should be at low levels or absent in a multivitamin? A. Biotin Rationale A. There are no reports of toxicity from oral ingestion of biotin. B. Vitamin B12 Rationale B. There are no reports of toxicity from oral ingestion of vitamin B12. C. Calcium (correct) Rationale C. Calcium should be at low levels or absent in a multivitamin because taking 100% of the RDA, which is 1 g (1,000 mg) of elemental calcium, would make the supplement pill too large to swallow easily. D. Riboflavin Rationale D. Riboflavin is generally considered harmless and can be included as a daily dietary supplement.

Question Name 5-1 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chpt 18 Task 5A5

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72. Which of the following recommendations are most appropriate for a client who desires to achieve lean body mass gain? A. Consume a diet consisting of 2.5 g of protein per pound of body weight. Rationale A. The scientifically based recommendation for strength athletes range from 0.5 to 0.8 g of protein per pound (1.2 to 1.7 g/kg). B. Make small decreases in food and beverage calories at each meal. Rationale B. This is a recommendation for a client who desires fat loss. C. Avoid sports drinks containing up to 8% carbohydrates. Rationale C. If exercise exceeds 60 minutes, use of a sports drink (containing up to 8% carbohydrates) can replace both fluid and dwindling muscle glycogen stores. D. Eat at least four meals each day. (correct) Rationale D. Those with a goal of increasing lean body mass will benefit most from eating four to six meals a day because the insulin response from a meal stimulates protein synthesis.

Question Name 5-14 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chapter 17 Task 5C1a

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73. To enhance athletic ability for the endurance athlete, how much carbohydrate intake is recommended six days before an event? A. 1 g/kg of body weight Rationale A. This is the lowest amount of carbohydrate recommended prior to exercise. B. 1.5 g/kg of body weight Rationale B. This is appropriate for 2 hr following the event. C. 4 g/kg of body weight (correct) Rationale C. This is done four to six days before the event. D. 4.5 g/kg of body weight Rationale D. This is done 4 hr prior to exercise.

Question Name 5-16 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chpt 17 Task 5D

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74. Which of the following popular diets advocates consuming less than 21% of total calories from carbohydrate sources? A. Dean Ornish Rationale A. This diet recommends more than 60% of calories from carbohydrate sources. B. Atkins(correct) Rationale B. This is a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet. C. South Beach Rationale C. This diet recommends 21% to 42% of calories from carbohydrate sources. D. Mediterranean Rationale D. This diet recommends 51% to 60% of calories from carbohydrate sources.

Question Name 5-19 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chpt 17 Task 5C1b

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75. An excess of which of the following vitamins may cause complications in a client who is taking blood thinners? A. Biotin Rationale A. Biotin does not currently have a tolerable upper intake level. There are no reports of toxicity from oral ingestion. B. Vitamin E (correct) Rationale B. Excess intake of vitamin E can cause deficiency in blood clotting. C. Riboflavin Rationale C. Riboflavin is generally considered harmless besides yellow discoloration of urine. D. Vitamin B12 Rationale D. There are no reports of toxicity from oral ingestion of vitamin B12.

Question Name 5-2 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chpt 18 Task 5B1

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76. Which of the following is a source of soluble fiber? A. Milk Rationale A. Milk is not a source of soluble fiber. B. Oatmeal(correct) Rationale B. Oatmeal is a good source of soluble fiber. C. Eggs Rationale C. Eggs are not a source of soluble fiber. D. Peanut butter Rationale D. Peanut butter is not a source of soluble fiber.

Question Name 5-21 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 Ch 17 Task 5A7

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77. Which of the following percentages of total caloric intake from fat is appropriate for an athlete? A. 8% Rationale A. A diet containing less than 15% of its calories from fat does not have any performance benefits. B. 22% (correct) Rationale B. Fat intake can range from 20% to 25% for athletes. C. 36% Rationale C. An intake of 36% is generally considered too high for most populations. D. 50% Rationale D. An intake of 50% is generally considered too high for most populations.

Question Name 5-22 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 Ch 17 Task 5A3 2011

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78. What is the approximate amount of water that a man who is sedentary should consume on a daily basis? A. 1.2 L (5 cups) Rationale A. This amount is too small. B. 2.0 L (8 cups) Rationale B. This amount is too small. C. 2.2 L (9 cups) Rationale C. This is the amount for a healthy woman who is not trying to lose weight. D. 3.0 L (13 cups)(correct) Rationale D. This is the amount for a healthy man who is not trying to lose weight.

Question Name 5-25 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 Chapter 17 Task 5A4

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79. A high-protein diet is commonly associated with A. an increase in fiber intake. Rationale A. A high-protein diet typically is associated with a decrease in fiber intake. B. a decrease in glycogen stores. (correct) Rationale B. A high-protein diet usually is associated with a decrease in glycogen stores. C. a decreased risk of dehydration. Rationale C. A high-protein diet increases the risk of dehydration. D. a decrease in urea production. Rationale D. A high-protein diet usually increases urea production.

Question Name 5-31 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chpt 17 Task 5C1a 2011

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80. Which of the following is classified as a carbohydrate? A. Phenylalanine Rationale A. This is an amino acid. B. Cholecystokinin Rationale B. This is a hormone that signals satiety. C. Monosaccharide (correct) Rationale C. Monosaccharide is classified as a carbohydrate. D. Insulin Rationale D. This is a protein hormone that helps to regulate the delivery of glucose to cells.

Question Name 5-4 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 Chapter 17 Task 5A1

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81. A trainer is working with a client who is attempting to increase his lean body mass. The trainer should recognize that the highest percentage of caloric intake should come from which of the following? A. Lipids Rationale A. Lipids should compromise 20% to 35% of total caloric intake. B. Proteins Rationale B. Proteins should comprise 10% to 35% of total caloric intake. C. Carbohydrates (correct) Rationale C. Carbohydrates should comprise 45% to 65% of caloric content. D. Liquids Rationale D. A majority of calories should come from solid food sources to provide satiety.

Question Name 5-48 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 Ch 17 Task 5C5 2011

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82. Which of the following vitamins is fat-soluble? A. Vitamin A(correct) Rationale A. Fat-soluble vitamins include vitamins A, D, E, and K. B. Vitamin B1 Rationale B. Vitamin B1 (thiamin) is a water-soluble vitamin. C. Vitamin C Rationale C. Vitamin C is a water-soluble vitamin. D. Vitamin B12 Rationale D. Vitamin B12 is a water-soluble vitamin.

Question Name 5-9 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 Ch 17 Task 5A5 2011

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83. Which of the following is an example of a nondirective question? A. "Is there an athlete or celebrity whose body you would like to have?" Rationale A. This is a directive question. B. "Did you play sports in high school?" Rationale B. This is a directive question. C. "If someone told you all your goals were at the top of a mountain, would you climb that mountain to reach them?" Rationale C. This is a vision question, and is directive. D. "What are your top three fitness goals?"(correct) Rationale D. This question is nondirective because it can’t be answered with one word.

Question Name 6-12 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chpt 19 Task 6C1

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84. What is the purpose of asking a client an open-ended question? A. For the client to better understand the trainer’s question Rationale A. An open-ended question requires more than a “yes” or “no” response and helps to provide the personal trainer with more information about the client. B. So the client can provide more in-depth answers to invite discussion (correct) Rationale B. An open-ended question requires more than a “yes” or “no” response and helps to provide the personal trainer with more information about the client. C. So the client can quickly reply in order to establish agreement Rationale C. An open-ended question requires more than a “yes” or “no” response and helps to provide the personal trainer with more information about the client. D. So the client can answer the question with only one word Rationale D. An open-ended question requires more than a “yes” or “no” response and helps to provide the personal trainer with more information about the client.

Question Name 6-16 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4: Ch. 19 Task 6A2a

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85. The fitness professional asks the client, “Why do you want to lose weight?” This is an example of which of the following kinds of questions? A. Directive Rationale A. Directive questions can be answered with one word. B. Open-ended(correct) Rationale B. This is an example of an open-ended (nondirective) question. C. Dichotomous Rationale C. A dichotomous question has two possible responses. D. Contingency Rationale D. These types of questions are designed to determine whether or not the individual answering the question needs to continue on to answer subsequent questions.

Question Name 6-39 Certification Thinking Skills Critical Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 Chapter 19 Task 6A2a

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86. A client tells the personal trainer that she does not exercise, but that she is thinking about becoming more active in the next 6 months. In which of the following sections of the Stages of Change model is this client? A. Precontemplation Rationale A. Precontemplators have no intention of changing their behavior. B. Contemplation(correct) Rationale B. People in the contemplation stage do not exercise but are considering becoming more active within the next six months. C. Preparation Rationale C. People in the preparation stage exercise occasionally. D. Action Rationale D. People in the action stage are already physically active.

Question Name 6-40 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 Ch 19 Task 6B 2011

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87. When family members pressure a loved one to exercise, that person may respond by exercising less. This is known as A. self-monitoring. Rationale A. Self-monitoring is usually done in the form of a daily written record of the behavior that a client is trying to change. An example is an exercise log. B. behavioral reactants.(correct) Rationale B. People generally do not like to be controlled by others and on feeling pressured and controlled to exercise will do the opposite. C. action potential. Rationale C. Action potential is nerve impulse that allows neurons to transmit information. D. remodeling. Rationale D. Remodeling is the process of resorption and formation of bone.

Question Name 6-43 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT4 Ch 19 Task 6C3c 2011

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88. People most frequently cite which of the following reasons for not exercising? A. A lack of time(correct) Rationale A. A lack of time is the most common reason people give for not being physically active. B. A lack of sufficient funds Rationale B. A lack of sufficient funds is not the most common reason people give for not being physically active. C. A lack of access to a fitness club Rationale C. A lack of access to a fitness club is not the most common reason people give for not being physically active. D. A lack of positive social influences Rationale D. A lack of positive social influences is not the most common reason people give for not being physically active.

Question Name 6-47 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 Ch 19 Task 6C3b 2011

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89. Which of the following statements refers to a SMART goal? A. “Starting on Monday, I will try a new group exercise class to maximize my results and meet new friends.” Rationale A. The goal is not specific or measureable. B. “Starting next week, I will exercise three times a week to reduce my blood pressure and cholesterol by 5 points.” Rationale B. Although this goal is measureable, it does not provide a timeframe. C. “I will hire a friendly personal trainer with adequate credentials to help me achieve my ideal body and six-pack abs.” Rationale C. The goal is not measureable. D. “I will reduce my body fat by 5% in 12 weeks by exercising 60 minutes five days per week and eating a 1,600- calorie per day diet.”(correct) Rationale D. This goal is specific, measureable, attainable, realistic, and timely.

Question Name 6-48 Certification Thinking Skills Critical Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 Ch 19 Task 6B 2011

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90. Which of the following statements refers to a SMART goal? A. “I will join a new cycling club to maximize my aerobic fitness and avoid boredom.” Rationale A. The goal is not specific or measureable. B. “I will exercise five days a week and eat a healthy diet to reduce my LDL cholesterol and glucose levels.” Rationale B. The client does not provide specific expectations for LDL cholesterol or glucose levels. C. “I will purchase a workout video to help me lose 30 pounds in the next four weeks to be ready for my daughter's wedding.” Rationale C. The goal is not realistic. D. “I will lose 15 pounds in eight weeks by jogging for 30 minutes five days per week with weekly weigh-ins to monitor my progress.”(correct) Rationale D. This goal is specific, measureable, attainable, realistic, and timely.

Question Name 6-49 Certification Thinking Skills Critical Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 Ch 19 Task 6B 2011

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91. What strategy can the trainer incorporate that may enhance the client's exercise adherence? A. SMART goals(correct) Rationale A. A trainer can help the client create specific, measurable, attainable, realistic, and timely goals. B. Metabolic testing Rationale B. Metabolic testing is a physiological test not related to exercise adherence. C. Internal feedback Rationale C. Internal feedback is a process in which the body uses sensory information to reactively monitor movement and the environment. D. Brigance test Rationale D. The Brigance test assesses IQ.

Question Name 6-5 Certification Thinking Skills Critical Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 chpt 19 Task 6C1

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92. Which of the following questions is open-ended? A. "Are you currently exercising?" Rationale A. This is a closed-ended question that can be answered with a yes or no. B. "What is your fitness goal?" (correct) Rationale B. This is an open-ended question because it requires more than a one-word response, and it could lead to the discovery of other information that is pertinent to the program. C. "Do you enjoy group classes?" Rationale C. This is a closed-ended question that can be answered with a yes or no. D. "Have you ever worked with a personal trainer?" Rationale D. This is a closed-ended question that can be answered with a yes or no.

Question Name 6-8 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 Ch 19 Task 6A2a 2011

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93. Which of the following is an appropriate example of a fitness professional practicing proper conduct and upholding NASM’s Code of Professional Conduct? A. Training a client before the client completes a health history questionnaire Rationale A. A health history questionnaire is required prior to training a client. B. Providing an overweight client with meal plans to help reduce calorie consumption Rationale B. Personal trainers are not qualified to provide meal plans. C. Treating common musculoskeletal injuries that appear to be minor Rationale C. Unless the fitness professional is licensed to diagnose and treat injuries, he/she shall not do so, no matter how minor the injury appears to be. D. Training a client with coronary artery disease who has received medical clearance(correct) Rationale D. A client with a medical condition can be trained once he has received medical clearance.

Question Name 7-13 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 Code of Professional Conduct Task 7A7c

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94. A certified personal trainer is working for two weeks on a cruise ship as a guest instructor. According to the Code of Professional Conduct, which of the following clients is the personal trainer allowed to train? A. A 60-year-old man who has cardiac arrhythmia, and a written medical clearance to exercise and prescribed restrictions on which exercises to avoid. (correct) Rationale A. This client has been given approval to exercise by his physician. B. A 16-year-old soccer player who has a recent ACL injury and verbal permission from his coach to start exercising. Rationale B. This client needs written permission from a medical professional. C. A 35-year-old man who has no known injuries and does not turn in a signed health history, but he gives a complete verbal history. Rationale C. A signed written health history questionnaire must be turned in before the first training session. D. A 45-year-old man who has type 1 diabetes and no written medical clearance from a doctor, but he has worked with a certified personal trainer at his home gym for two years, and just completed his first marathon. Rationale D. Clients with diagnosed medical conditions such as diabetes must provide written consent before exercise is started.

Question Name 7-15 Certification Thinking Skills Critical Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference NASM Code of Professional Conduct Task 7A5

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95. Which of the following is an appropriate recommendation a personal trainer can make for a new elderly female client who acknowledges high blood pressure during her preparticipation health screening? A. Recommend that the client reduce her sodium intake. Rationale A. Dietary recommendations related to a medical condition should be made by a qualified professional. B. Recommend that the client start slowly in Phase I of the OPT model. Rationale B. This is an appropriate starting point for many beginning clients, but not for someone with high blood pressure. The client should not start any exercise program until further assessed by a physician. C. Recommend that the client see her physician for further evaluation. (correct) Rationale C. The client should not start any exercise program until further assessed by a physician. D. Recommend that the client perform exercises in a supine position to regulate blood pressure. Rationale D. This is not an appropriate recommendation for a client with high blood pressure because supine positions can raise blood pressure.

Question Name 7-20 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 Chapter 16 Task 7A4

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96. According to the NASM-BOC Code of Professional Conduct, certified personal trainers are required to meet legal and ethical requirements and uphold high levels of professionalism, which include A. keeping accurate financial, contract, appointment, and tax records for a minimum of one year. Rationale A. Trainers are required to maintain these records for a minimum of four years. B. completing the cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and automated external defibrillator (AED) certification within one month of obtaining personal training certification. Rationale B. Trainers must have current CPR and AED certification at all times, prior to beginning work with clients, and to take the CPT exam. C. referring the client to other healthcare professionals when nutritional meal plans are requested, unless the trainer has been specifically trained to do so.(correct) Rationale C. Personal trainers are permitted to give nutritional advice if specifically trained to do so. D. conducting a detailed health-history questionnaire with the client to assess any current or past health conditions with at least verbal consent to attest to accuracy. Rationale D. Trainers need to obtain a signed copy of a health history questionnaire.

Question Name 7-23 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 NASM Code of Professional Conduct Task 7A7

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97. During the subjective assessment, a client reports pain and swelling in his right knee. What is the best course of action for the personal trainer to take? A. Perform exercise only for the left leg until the swelling subsides in the right knee. Rationale A. Exercise is not appropriate until the underlying cause is identified. B. Instruct the client to see his physician to diagnose the problem. (correct) Rationale B. Clients should not exercise until the underlying cause is identified by a physician. C. Instruct the client to use an ice pack on the knee and take over-the-counter anti-inflammatory medication for 10 days. Rationale C. This falls outside the scope of practice for a personal trainer. D. Train only the upper body of the client until all pain and swelling has subsided in the right knee. Rationale D. Exercise is not appropriate until the underlying cause is identified.

Question Name 7-24 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference NASM Code of Professional Conduct Task 7A7c 2011

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98. Which of the following actions is within the scope of the NASM-BOC Code of Professional Conduct? A. Give the client a detailed diet plan. Rationale A. The client should be referred to a registered dietitian or appropriate licensed professional. B. Refer the client to the appropriate medical practitioner when injured. (correct) Rationale B. Referring the client to the appropriate medical practitioner when injured is within the scope of the NASM-BOC Code of Professional Conduct. C. Recommend over-the-counter supplements for chronic conditions. Rationale C. The client should have clearance from a licensed health care practitioner before using over-the- counter supplements for chronic conditions. D. Wrap joints before each training session. Rationale D. This is outside the scope of practice for a personal trainer. Refer the client to a physician, physical therapist, or certified athletic trainer.

Question Name 7-29 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 NASM Code of Professional Conduct Task 7A6

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99. Which of the following best allows a certified personal trainer to comply with the NASM Code of Professional Conduct? A. Provide nutritional supplementation to treat illness. Rationale A. Providing nutritional supplementation to treat illness is beyond the scope of personal training. B. Provide detailed menu plans for clients. Rationale B. Personal trainers should not provide menu plans unless specifically trained to do so, or if they have a credential to do so and are working in that capacity at that time. C. Maintain adequate liability insurance. (correct) Rationale C. Each certified personal trainer must maintain adequate liability insurance. D. Diagnose an injury after an assessment. Rationale D. Personal trainers should not diagnose illness or injury unless they are qualified to do so and are working in that capacity at that time.

Question Name 7-4 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 page v NASM Code of Professional Conduct Task 7A7a

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100. When it comes to client confidentiality, when would it be appropriate to share a client’s personal information with someone else? A. During a conversation with the client's new trainer after the client has switched to another trainer Rationale A. A personal trainer must protect the client’s confidentiality unless otherwise agreed to by the client in writing, or as a result of medical or legal necessity. B. When a client agrees in writing that you may share her personal information (correct) Rationale B. A personal trainer must protect the client’s confidentiality unless otherwise agreed to by the client in writing, or as a result of medical or legal necessity. C. When a client who is a minor gives permission to discuss his information Rationale C. A personal trainer must protect the minor client’s confidentiality unless otherwise agreed to by the client's parent or guardian in writing, or as a result of medical or legal necessity. D. During a conversation with a personal training manager Rationale D. A personal trainer must protect the client’s confidentiality unless otherwise agreed to by the client in writing, or as a result of medical or legal necessity.

Question Name 7-8 Certification Thinking Skills Foundational Thinking Current Forms 2011 Practice A Primary Reference CPT 4 Code of Professional Conduct Task 7A7g

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