Tc Rd Dgk U Tk, Bl Iz'u Iqflrdk Dks U [Kksysaa
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PART-I (Hkkx-I) BOOKLET SERIES/ iqfLrdk lhjht+ D DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO tc rd dgk u tk, bl iz'u iqfLrdk dks u [kksysaA Important: Please refer to your admit card while filling in details in this Question Booklet and in the OMR Answer Sheet. egRoiw.kZ% d`i;k vius izos'k i=k dks ns[kdj iz'u&iqfLrdk vkSj mÙkj i=kd esa fooj.k HkjsaA The written test structure is as given below: fyf[kr ijh{kk dh lajpuk uhps nh xbZ gS % Paper-I Test Components Question Nos. No. of Questions to be Answers to be isij-I ijh{k.k ?kVd iz'u&la[;k Questions attempted marked/ dqy iz'u dqy iz'u gy written on mÙkj fdl ij djus gSa fy[kuk gS Part-1 Objective Type OMR 1-50 50 50 Hkkx&1 oLrqfu"B iz'u mÙkj i=kd Question-cum- Part-2 Subjective Type Answer booklet 1-8 8 5 Hkkx&2 vkRefu"B iz'u iz'u&lg mÙkj iqfLrdk PLEASE READ INSTRUCTIONS ON THE BACK COVER CAREFULLY. fiNys doj ij fn, x, vuqns'kksa dks è;ku ls if<+,A Use ball point pen to fill in the following particulars. Ñi;k fuEufyf[kr tkudkfj;ksa dks cky ikWbaV isu dk iz;ksx dj Hkfj,A Name / uke: …………………………………………………………………………………… Roll No./ jksy ua- Signature/ gLrk{kj:……………………………………………………………………………. This Question Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet are to be returned on completion of the test. ijh{kk iwjh gksus ij ;g iz'u iqfLrdk rFkk vks- ,e- vkj- mÙkj&i=kd ykSVk nsaA 11/D/XVIII/II 1 1. fMftVy besftax esa 4K fjtkWY;w'ku dk rkRi;Z gksrk gS % (1) fMLIys vkdkj (2) fiDlsy (3) iznhfIr (4) jax (o.kZ) 2. iQkWYdu gsoh] Lisl ,Dl] VsLyk ________ ls tqM+s uke gSaA (1) ekdZ tqdjcxZ (2) fudksyk VsLyk (3) ,yksu eLd (4) fcy xsV~l 3. euq"; ds dku fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl vko`fÙk jsUt esa lcls laosnu'khy gksrs gSa\ (1) 100-500 Hz (2) 1-2KHz (3) 10-12KHz (4) 13-16KHz 4. ^lqbV~l* dk;ZØe dh fdl vesfjdh Vh oh vfHkus=kh dh fczVsu ds fizal gSjh ls lxkbZ gqbZ gS\ (1) esxku iQkWDl (2) esxku ekdZy (3) fejkaMk dsj (4) esx fj;ku 5. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl 'kgj dks ;wusLdks }kjk Hkkjr dk igyk fo'o /jksgj 'kgj ?kksf"kr fd;k x;k gS\ (1) fnYyh (2) eqEcbZ (3) vgenkckn (4) okjk.klh 6. ^fgylk* ___________ dh ,d fdLe gSA (1) esa<d (2) eNyh (3) dsdM+k (4) >haxk 7. uoEcj&fnlEcj 2017 esa Jhyadk ds f[kykiQ ,dfnolh; fØdsV Ük`a[kyk ds fy, fdls Hkkjrh; Vhe dk dIrku cuk;k x;k Fkk\ (1) fojkV dksgyh (2) f'k[kj /ou (3) ;qojkt flag (4) jksfgr 'kekZ 8. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl ys[kd us fiQYeksa dh iVdFkk Hkh fy[kh gS\ (1) izQSUt dkÝdk (2) tsEl tkW;l (3) vusZLV gsfeaXos (4) eklsZy izkmLV 9. Hkkjr ds rVorhZ (rVh;) ty dk eq[; iznw"kd gS % (1) ikuh esa rsy dk fc[kjko (2) uxjh; ey ty (3) ,jkslksy (4) vkS|ksfxd cfg%lzko 10. Hkkjrh; ewy ds fdl funsZ'kd us ^feflflih elkyk* fiQYe dk funsZ'ku fd;k gS\ (1) xqfjUnj pM~<k (2) ehjk uk;j (3) nhik esgrk (4) ruqtk pUnzk 11. fuEufyf[kr esa ls D;k ,d LekVZ iQksu vkWijsfVax flLVe ugha gS\ (1) iOS (2) ehxks (3) xSysDlh (4) ,sUMªkW;M 12. 2016 ds vesfjdh pquko vfHk;ku ds nkSjku vesfjdh iz'kklu }kjk fdl ns'k ij pqukoksa esa gLr{ksi djus dk vkjksi yxk;k x;k Fkk\ (1) mÙkj dksfj;k (2) :l (3) bjku (4) yhfc;k 13. ys[kd@funsZ'kd@fuekZrk@vfHkusrk vt+ht+ valkjh ds ,eh iqjLdkj fotsrk usVfÝyDl dk;ZØe ('kks) dk D;k uke gS] tks U;w;kWdZ esa ,d la?k"kZ'khy Hkkjrh;&vesfjdh vfHkusrk ds :i esa muds thou ds okLrfod vuqHkoksa ij vk/kfjr gS\ (1) n bfexzSUV (2) n vkmVlkbMj (3) ekLVj vkWiQ uu (4) tSd vkWiQ vkWy VªsM~l 14. Hkkjr ljdkj dk ^'kxqu* osc iksVZy ____________ ls tqM+k gSA (1) vk;kr vkSj fu;kZr (2) xzkeh.k fo|qr (3) f'k{kk (4) viogu ra=k 15. ,f'k;k dk lcls LoPN xkao ^ekWfyuk¡x* Hkkjr ds fdl jkT; esa fLFkr gS\ (1) es?kky; (2) flfDde (3) ukxkySaM (4) ef.kiqj 11/D/XVIII/II 2 1. 4K resolution in digital imaging refers to __________. (1) Display size (2) Pixels (3) Luminosity (4) Colour 2. Falcon Heavy, SpaceX, Tesla are names associated with ________. (1) Mark Zuckerberg (2) Nicola Tesla (3) Elon Musk (4) Bill Gates 3. Human ear is most sensitive to noise in the __________ frequency range. (1) 100-500 Hz (2) 1-2KHz (3) 10-12KHz (4) 13-16KHz 4. Which American TV actress from the show ‘Suits’ is now engaged to be married to Britain's prince Harry? (1) Megan Fox (2) Meghan Markle (3) Miranda Kerr (4) Meg Ryan 5. Which among the following has been declared as India's first world Heritage city by UNESCO? (1) Delhi (2) Mumbai (3) Ahmedabad (4) Varanasi 6. ‘Hilsa’ is a variety of _________. (1) Frog (2) Fish (3) Crab (4) Prawn 7. Who was named as the captain of the Indian Team for ODI cricket series against Sri Lanka in Nov.-Dec. 2017? (1) Virat Kohli (2) Shikhar Dhawan (3) Yuvraj Singh (4) Rohit Sharma 8. Which one of these writers also wrote movie screenplays? (1) Franz Kafka (2) James Joyce (3) Ernest Hemingway (4) Marcel Proust 9. The main pollutant of the Indian coastal water is ____________. (1) Oil Spill (2) Municipal Sewage (3) Aerosols (4) Industrial effluents 10. Which director of Indian origin directed the film ‘Mississippi Masala’? (1) Gurinder Chadda (2) Mira Nair (3) Deepa Mehta (4) Tanuja Chandra 11. Which among the following is not a smart phone operating system? (1) iOS (2) MeeGo (3) Galaxy (4) Android 12. During the 2016 US election campaign, which country was accused by the US administration of interfering in the elections? (1) North Korea (2) Russia (3) Iran (4) Libya 13. Which is the Emmy-winning Netflix show by writer/director/producer/actor Aziz Ansari, based on his real-life experiences as a struggling Indian American actor in New York? (1) The Immigrant (2) The Outsider (3) Master of None (4) Jack of All Trades 14. Govt. of India's ‘ShaGun’ web portal is associated with (1) Export & Import. (2) Rural Electricity. (3) Education. (4) Drainage System. 15. Asia's cleanest village ‘Mawlynnong’ is in which Indian state? (1) Meghalaya (2) Sikkim (3) Nagaland (4) Manipur 11/D/XVIII/II 3 16. O;fDr;ksa ds fdlh lewg esa dqy la[;k dk 3/8 iq:"k gSa] mu iq:"kksa esa 2/3 dh vka[ksa Hkwjh gSaA ;fn dqy O;fDr;ksa esa ls 3/4 dh vka[ksa Hkwjh gSa rks ml lewg dk fdruk Hkkx ,slh efgykvksa dk gS ftudh vka[ksa Hkwjh ugha gSa\ (1) 1/8 (2) 3/16 (3) 1/4 (4) 5/16 17. uhps nh xbZ Ük`a[kyk esa [kkyh LFkku ij dkSu&lh la[;k vk,xh\ 1, 1, 2, 8, …, 1024, 32768 (1) 16 (2) 64 (3) 256 (4) 20 1 18. 3200 ds 7 izfr'kr ds 10 izfr'kr dk eku fdruk gksxk\ 2 (1) 24 (2) 240 (3) 25 (4) 250 19. A, B dh cgu gS_ C, B dh eka gS_ D, C dk firk gS vkSj E, D dh eka gSA A dk D ls D;k fj'rk gS\ (1) xzSaMiQknj (2) xzSaMenj (3) csVh (4) xzSaMMkWVj 20. fn, x, js[kkfp=k esa ;fn rks Nk;knkj Hkkx fdls izLrqr djrk gS\ (1) efgyk fiQYe LVkj dk ,d lewg (2) fiQYe LVkj dk ,d lewg tks u rks fØdsV vkSj u xksYiQ f[kykM+h gSa (3) efgyk fiQYe LVkj dk ,d lewg tks u rks fØdsV vkSj u xksYiQ [ksyrh gSa (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha funsZ'k (iz'u 21-24). bu iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsus ds fy, uhps nh xbZ lwpuk dk mi;ksx djsaA rhu cPps fdlh Mksjh ij 11 vyx&vyx jax ds nkus p<+k jgk gSA bu 11 nkuksa esa ls pkj ihys gSa] rhu yky gSa] nks uhys gSa vkSj nks gjs gSaA yky nkus ,d&nwljs ds vxy&cxy gSaA uhys nkus ,d&nwljs ds vxy&cxy gSaA gjs nkus ,d&nwljs ds vxy&cxy ugha gSaA Mksjh ds ,d fljs ij ,d yky nkuk vkSj nwljs fljs ij ,d gjk nkuk gSA 21. ;fn pkj ihys nkus ,d&nwljs ds Bhd ckn gSa vkSj ;fn nloka nkuk ihyk gS rks fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk nkuk vo'; uhyk gksxk\ (1) pkSFkk (2) ikapoka (3) NBk (4) lkroka 22. ;fn ,d gjk nkuk] ,d yky nkus ds Bhd ckn (vxyk) gS vkSj nwljk gjk nkuk] ,d uhys nkus ds Bhd ckn (vxyk) gS rks fuEufyf[kr esa ls D;k vo'; lgh gS\ (1) nwljk nkuk uhyk gS (2) pkSFkk nkuk gjk gS (3) pkSFkk nkuk ihyk gS (4) lkroka nkuk ihyk gS 23. ;fn NBs vkSj lkrosa nkus uhys gSa vkSj nloka nkuk yky gS rks fuEufyf[kr esa ls D;k vo'; lgh gS\ (1) nwljk nkuk gjk gS (2) ikapoka nkuk ihyk gS (3) vkBoka nkuk gjk gS (4) ,d gjk nkuk] ,d ihys nkus ds ckn (vxyk) gS 11/D/XVIII/II 4 16.