PART-I (Hkkx-I)
BOOKLET SERIES/ iqfLrdk lhjht+ D
DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO tc rd dgk u tk, bl iz'u iqfLrdk dks u [kksysaA
Important: Please refer to your admit card while filling in details in this Question Booklet and in the OMR Answer Sheet. egRoiw.kZ% d`i;k vius izos'k i=k dks ns[kdj iz'u&iqfLrdk vkSj mÙkj i=kd esa fooj.k HkjsaA
The written test structure is as given below: fyf[kr ijh{kk dh lajpuk uhps nh xbZ gS % Paper-I Test Components Question Nos. No. of Questions to be Answers to be isij-I ijh{k.k ?kVd iz'u&la[;k Questions attempted marked/ dqy iz'u dqy iz'u gy written on mÙkj fdl ij djus gSa fy[kuk gS Part-1 Objective Type OMR 1-50 50 50 Hkkx&1 oLrqfu"B iz'u mÙkj i=kd Question-cum- Part-2 Subjective Type Answer booklet 1-8 8 5 Hkkx&2 vkRefu"B iz'u iz'u&lg mÙkj iqfLrdk
PLEASE READ INSTRUCTIONS ON THE BACK COVER CAREFULLY. fiNys doj ij fn, x, vuqns'kksa dks è;ku ls if<+,A
Use ball point pen to fill in the following particulars. Ñi;k fuEufyf[kr tkudkfj;ksa dks cky ikWbaV isu dk iz;ksx dj Hkfj,A
Name / uke: ……………………………………………………………………………………
Roll No./ jksy ua-
Signature/ gLrk{kj:…………………………………………………………………………….
This Question Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet are to be returned on completion of the test. ijh{kk iwjh gksus ij ;g iz'u iqfLrdk rFkk vks- ,e- vkj- mÙkj&i=kd ykSVk nsaA
11/D/XVIII/II 1 1. fMftVy besftax esa 4K fjtkWY;w'ku dk rkRi;Z gksrk gS % (1) fMLIys vkdkj (2) fiDlsy (3) iznhfIr (4) jax (o.kZ)
2. iQkWYdu gsoh] Lisl ,Dl] VsLyk ______ls tqM+s uke gSaA (1) ekdZ tqdjcxZ (2) fudksyk VsLyk (3) ,yksu eLd (4) fcy xsV~l
3. euq"; ds dku fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl vko`fÙk jsUt esa lcls laosnu'khy gksrs gSa\ (1) 100-500 Hz (2) 1-2KHz (3) 10-12KHz (4) 13-16KHz
4. ^lqbV~l* dk;ZØe dh fdl vesfjdh Vh oh vfHkus=kh dh fczVsu ds fizal gSjh ls lxkbZ gqbZ gS\ (1) esxku iQkWDl (2) esxku ekdZy (3) fejkaMk dsj (4) esx fj;ku
5. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl 'kgj dks ;wusLdks }kjk Hkkjr dk igyk fo'o /jksgj 'kgj ?kksf"kr fd;k x;k gS\ (1) fnYyh (2) eqEcbZ (3) vgenkckn (4) okjk.klh
6. ^fgylk* ______dh ,d fdLe gSA (1) esa
7. uoEcj&fnlEcj 2017 esa Jhyadk ds f[kykiQ ,dfnolh; fØdsV Ük`a[kyk ds fy, fdls Hkkjrh; Vhe dk dIrku cuk;k x;k Fkk\ (1) fojkV dksgyh (2) f'k[kj /ou (3) ;qojkt flag (4) jksfgr 'kekZ
8. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl ys[kd us fiQYeksa dh iVdFkk Hkh fy[kh gS\ (1) izQSUt dkÝdk (2) tsEl tkW;l (3) vusZLV gsfeaXos (4) eklsZy izkmLV
9. Hkkjr ds rVorhZ (rVh;) ty dk eq[; iznw"kd gS % (1) ikuh esa rsy dk fc[kjko (2) uxjh; ey ty (3) ,jkslksy (4) vkS|ksfxd cfg%lzko
10. Hkkjrh; ewy ds fdl funsZ'kd us ^feflflih elkyk* fiQYe dk funsZ'ku fd;k gS\ (1) xqfjUnj pM~ 11. fuEufyf[kr esa ls D;k ,d LekVZ iQksu vkWijsfVax flLVe ugha gS\ (1) iOS (2) ehxks (3) xSysDlh (4) ,sUMªkW;M 12. 2016 ds vesfjdh pquko vfHk;ku ds nkSjku vesfjdh iz'kklu }kjk fdl ns'k ij pqukoksa esa gLr{ksi djus dk vkjksi yxk;k x;k Fkk\ (1) mÙkj dksfj;k (2) :l (3) bjku (4) yhfc;k 13. ys[kd@funsZ'kd@fuekZrk@vfHkusrk vt+ht+ valkjh ds ,eh iqjLdkj fotsrk usVfÝyDl dk;ZØe ('kks) dk D;k uke gS] tks U;w;kWdZ esa ,d la?k"kZ'khy Hkkjrh;&vesfjdh vfHkusrk ds :i esa muds thou ds okLrfod vuqHkoksa ij vk/kfjr gS\ (1) n bfexzSUV (2) n vkmVlkbMj (3) ekLVj vkWiQ uu (4) tSd vkWiQ vkWy VªsM~l 14. Hkkjr ljdkj dk ^'kxqu* osc iksVZy ______ls tqM+k gSA (1) vk;kr vkSj fu;kZr (2) xzkeh.k fo|qr (3) f'k{kk (4) viogu ra=k 15. ,f'k;k dk lcls LoPN xkao ^ekWfyuk¡x* Hkkjr ds fdl jkT; esa fLFkr gS\ (1) es?kky; (2) flfDde (3) ukxkySaM (4) ef.kiqj 11/D/XVIII/II 2 1. 4K resolution in digital imaging refers to ______. (1) Display size (2) Pixels (3) Luminosity (4) Colour 2. Falcon Heavy, SpaceX, Tesla are names associated with ______. (1) Mark Zuckerberg (2) Nicola Tesla (3) Elon Musk (4) Bill Gates 3. Human ear is most sensitive to noise in the ______frequency range. (1) 100-500 Hz (2) 1-2KHz (3) 10-12KHz (4) 13-16KHz 4. Which American TV actress from the show ‘Suits’ is now engaged to be married to Britain's prince Harry? (1) Megan Fox (2) Meghan Markle (3) Miranda Kerr (4) Meg Ryan 5. Which among the following has been declared as India's first world Heritage city by UNESCO? (1) Delhi (2) Mumbai (3) Ahmedabad (4) Varanasi 6. ‘Hilsa’ is a variety of ______. (1) Frog (2) Fish (3) Crab (4) Prawn 7. Who was named as the captain of the Indian Team for ODI cricket series against Sri Lanka in Nov.-Dec. 2017? (1) Virat Kohli (2) Shikhar Dhawan (3) Yuvraj Singh (4) Rohit Sharma 8. Which one of these writers also wrote movie screenplays? (1) Franz Kafka (2) James Joyce (3) Ernest Hemingway (4) Marcel Proust 9. The main pollutant of the Indian coastal water is ______. (1) Oil Spill (2) Municipal Sewage (3) Aerosols (4) Industrial effluents 10. Which director of Indian origin directed the film ‘Mississippi Masala’? (1) Gurinder Chadda (2) Mira Nair (3) Deepa Mehta (4) Tanuja Chandra 11. Which among the following is not a smart phone operating system? (1) iOS (2) MeeGo (3) Galaxy (4) Android 12. During the 2016 US election campaign, which country was accused by the US administration of interfering in the elections? (1) North Korea (2) Russia (3) Iran (4) Libya 13. Which is the Emmy-winning Netflix show by writer/director/producer/actor Aziz Ansari, based on his real-life experiences as a struggling Indian American actor in New York? (1) The Immigrant (2) The Outsider (3) Master of None (4) Jack of All Trades 14. Govt. of India's ‘ShaGun’ web portal is associated with (1) Export & Import. (2) Rural Electricity. (3) Education. (4) Drainage System. 15. Asia's cleanest village ‘Mawlynnong’ is in which Indian state? (1) Meghalaya (2) Sikkim (3) Nagaland (4) Manipur 11/D/XVIII/II 3 16. O;fDr;ksa ds fdlh lewg esa dqy la[;k dk 3/8 iq:"k gSa] mu iq:"kksa esa 2/3 dh vka[ksa Hkwjh gSaA ;fn dqy O;fDr;ksa esa ls 3/4 dh vka[ksa Hkwjh gSa rks ml lewg dk fdruk Hkkx ,slh efgykvksa dk gS ftudh vka[ksa Hkwjh ugha gSa\ (1) 1/8 (2) 3/16 (3) 1/4 (4) 5/16 17. uhps nh xbZ Ük`a[kyk esa [kkyh LFkku ij dkSu&lh la[;k vk,xh\ 1, 1, 2, 8, …, 1024, 32768 (1) 16 (2) 64 (3) 256 (4) 20 1 18. 3200 ds 7 izfr'kr ds 10 izfr'kr dk eku fdruk gksxk\ 2 (1) 24 (2) 240 (3) 25 (4) 250 19. A, B dh cgu gS_ C, B dh eka gS_ D, C dk firk gS vkSj E, D dh eka gSA A dk D ls D;k fj'rk gS\ (1) xzSaMiQknj (2) xzSaMenj (3) csVh (4) xzSaMMkWVj 20. fn, x, js[kkfp=k esa ;fn rks Nk;knkj Hkkx fdls izLrqr djrk gS\ (1) efgyk fiQYe LVkj dk ,d lewg (2) fiQYe LVkj dk ,d lewg tks u rks fØdsV vkSj u xksYiQ f[kykM+h gSa (3) efgyk fiQYe LVkj dk ,d lewg tks u rks fØdsV vkSj u xksYiQ [ksyrh gSa (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha funsZ'k (iz'u 21-24). bu iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsus ds fy, uhps nh xbZ lwpuk dk mi;ksx djsaA rhu cPps fdlh Mksjh ij 11 vyx&vyx jax ds nkus p<+k jgk gSA bu 11 nkuksa esa ls pkj ihys gSa] rhu yky gSa] nks uhys gSa vkSj nks gjs gSaA yky nkus ,d&nwljs ds vxy&cxy gSaA uhys nkus ,d&nwljs ds vxy&cxy gSaA gjs nkus ,d&nwljs ds vxy&cxy ugha gSaA Mksjh ds ,d fljs ij ,d yky nkuk vkSj nwljs fljs ij ,d gjk nkuk gSA 21. ;fn pkj ihys nkus ,d&nwljs ds Bhd ckn gSa vkSj ;fn nloka nkuk ihyk gS rks fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk nkuk vo'; uhyk gksxk\ (1) pkSFkk (2) ikapoka (3) NBk (4) lkroka 22. ;fn ,d gjk nkuk] ,d yky nkus ds Bhd ckn (vxyk) gS vkSj nwljk gjk nkuk] ,d uhys nkus ds Bhd ckn (vxyk) gS rks fuEufyf[kr esa ls D;k vo'; lgh gS\ (1) nwljk nkuk uhyk gS (2) pkSFkk nkuk gjk gS (3) pkSFkk nkuk ihyk gS (4) lkroka nkuk ihyk gS 23. ;fn NBs vkSj lkrosa nkus uhys gSa vkSj nloka nkuk yky gS rks fuEufyf[kr esa ls D;k vo'; lgh gS\ (1) nwljk nkuk gjk gS (2) ikapoka nkuk ihyk gS (3) vkBoka nkuk gjk gS (4) ,d gjk nkuk] ,d ihys nkus ds ckn (vxyk) gS 11/D/XVIII/II 4 16. In a certain group of people, 3/8 of the total number are men, 2/3 of the men have brown eyes. If 3/4 of the people have brown eyes, then what fraction of the group are women who do not have brown eyes? (1) 1/8 (2) 3/16 (3) 1/4 (4) 5/16 17. What is the missing number in the following series? 1, 1, 2, 8, …, 1024, 32768 (1) 16 (2) 64 (3) 256 (4) 20 1 18. 10 percent of 7 percent of 3200 is ______. 2 (1) 24 (2) 240 (3) 25 (4) 250 19. A is B's sister, C is B's mother, D is C's father and E is D's mother. How is A related to D? (1) Grandfather (2) Grandmother (3) Daughter (4) Granddaughter 20. If in the given diagram Then, what does the shaded portion depict? (1) A group of female film stars (2) A group of film stars who are neither cricketers nor golfers (3) A group of female film stars who neither play cricket nor golf (4) None of these Directions (Questions 21-24). Read the following information carefully to answer these questions. Three children are stringing 11 different coloured beads on a string. Of the 11, four are yellow, three are red, two are blue and two are green. The red beads are adjacent to one another The blue beads are adjacent to one another The green beads are not adjacent to one another A red bead is at one end of the string and a green bead is at the other end. 21. If the four yellow beads are next to each other, and if the tenth bead is yellow, which of the following beads must be blue? (1) The fourth (2) The fifth (3) The sixth (4) The seventh 22. If one green bead is next to a red bead and the other green bead is next to a blue bead, which of the following must be true? (1) The second bead is blue. (2) The fourth bead is green. (3) The fourth bead is yellow. (4) The seventh bead is yellow. 23. If the sixth and seventh beads are blue and the tenth bead is red, which of the following must be true? (1) The second bead is green. (2) The fifth bead is yellow. (3) The eighth bead is green. (4) A green bead is next to a yellow bead. 11/D/XVIII/II 5 24. ;fn ikaposa vkSj NBs nkus uhys gSa vkSj ukSoka nkuk yky gS rks fuEufyf[kr esa ls D;k vo'; lgh gksxk\ (1) gjs nkuksa esa ls ,d] ,d uhys nkus ds Bhd ckn (vxyk) gS (2) yky nkuksa esa ls ,d] ,d gjs nkus ds Bhd ckn (vxyk) gS (3) izR;sd ihyk nkuk] de ls de ,d vU; ihys nkus ds Bhd ckn (vxyk) gS (4) nwljk nkuk ihyk gS 25. (288.5 × 30) – (30 × 288) – (28 × 15.5) + (15 × 28) dk eku gksxk % (1) 14 (2) 1 (3) 12 (4) 430.5 26. uhps fn, x, v{kjksa ds Øe esa [kkyh LFkkuksa ij dkSu&ls v{kj vk,axs\ B, Q, D, O, F, …, …, K, J (1) G, P (2) H, K (3) M, G (4) M, H 27. fdlh dkj Mhyj dks ,d dkj ds vafdr ewY; ij 20% NwV xzkgd dks nsus ij Hkh ykxr dk 25% ykHk izkIr gksrk gSA ;fn Mhyj dh ykxr 4,80,000 gS rks dkj dk vafdr ewY; fdruk gS\ (1) 6,00,000 (2) 6,18,000 (3) 7,20,000 (4) 7,50,000 28. ;fn fdlh cSBd esa iq:"kksa ls efgykvksa dk vuqikr 4:1 gS rks ml cSBd esa fdrus izfr'kr O;fDr iq:"k gSa\ 1 (1) 20% (2) 25% (3) 33 % (4) 80% 3 29. fdlh Dyc dh cSBd ds nkSjku dqy 28 ckj gkFk feyk, x,A ml cSBd esa fdrus lnL; mifLFkr Fks\ (1) 14 (2) 7 (3) 9 (4) 8 30. ifr vkSj iRuh dh vkSlr vk;q 22 o"kZ Fkh tc 5 o"kZ igys mudh 'kknh gqbZ FkhA ;fn vc rhu o"kZ dk mudk ,d csVk gS rks bl ifjokj dh vkSlr vk;q fdruh gS\ (1) 19 o"kZ (2) 25 o"kZ (3) 27 o"kZ (4) 28.5 o"kZ 31. ;fn gesa ,d vke lkaLd`frd izlax esa tkSuiqj] ekyok] nD[ku vkSj dkaxM+k dk mYys[k djuk gks rks og izlax D;k gksxk\ (1) isafVax (2) ewfrZdyk (3) okLrqdyk (4) e`n~Hkk.M 32. ,d jkx ds :i esa izLrqr fd, tkus ds fy, [k;ky fgUnqLrkuh laxhr ds bfrgkl esa vis{kkd`r gky gh esa 'kq: gqvk gSA fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl dykdkj us bl Lo:i esa igyh ckj xk;u izLrqfr nh Fkh\ (1) fu;ker [kku (2) rkulsu (3) cM+s xqyke vyh [kka (4) Hkhelsu tks'kh 33. 18oha lnh ds mÙkjk¼Z vkSj 19oha lnh ds vkjaHk esa ,sls rhu laxhrK Fks ftudh jpuk,a dekscs'k muds ckn ds dukZVd laxhr dh :ijs[kk dks ifjHkkf"kr djrh gSaA buesa ls ,d lar dfo R;kxjkt vkSj nwljs ';ke 'kkL=kh FksA rhljs laxhrK dkSu Fks\ (1) iqjanj nkl (2) eqFkqLokeh nhf{krj (3) v:.kkpy dfo (4) ikiuk'ke f'kou 34. Hkkjr esa u`R; tSlh gjdrksa okyh ^ysfte* uke dh ,d lkewfgd 'kkjhfjd xfrfof/ gSA ;g fdl jkT; esa ns[kus dks feyrh gS\ (1) egkjk"Vª (2) if'pe caxky (3) dsjy (4) iatkc 35. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl jkT; esa lqcg ds Hkkstu ls igys ?kj dh efgyk }kjk 'ka[k ctk, tkus dk O;kid izpyu gS\ (1) egkjk"Vª (2) if'pe caxky (3) mÙkjk[kaM (4) dukZVd 36. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk uke tkiku ds ,fues'ku flusek ls tqM+k gS\ (1) g;kvks fe;ktkdh (2) ;klwthjks vkstw (3) vdhjk dqjkslkok (4) gk:dh eqjkdkeh 11/D/XVIII/II 6 24. If the fifth and sixth beads are blue and the ninth bead is red, which of the following must be true? (1) One of the green beads is next to a blue bead. (2) One of the red beads is next to a green bead. (3) Each yellow bead is next to at least one other yellow bead. (4) The second bead is yellow. 25. Solve (288.5 × 30) – (30 × 288) – (28 × 15.5) + (15 × 28) = ………….. (1) 14 (2) 1 (3) 12 (4) 430.5 26. What are the letters missing from the following sequence of letters? B, Q, D, O, F, …, …, K, J (1) G, P (2) H, K (3) M, G (4) M, H 27. A car dealer who gives a 20% discount to a customer on the list price of a car still realizes a net profit of 25% of cost. If the dealer's cost is 4,80,000, what is the list price of the car? (1) 6,00,000 (2) 6,18,000 (3) 7,20,000 (4) 7,50,000 28. If the ratio of women to men in a meeting is 4 to 1, what percent of the persons in the meeting are men? 1 (1) 20% (2) 25% (3) 33 % (4) 80% 3 29. During a club meeting, a total of 28 handshakes were made. How many members were present in the meeting? (1) 14 (2) 7 (3) 9 (4) 8 30. The average age of husband and wife was 22 years, when they were married 5 years back. What is the present average age of the family if they have a 3 year old son? (1) 19 years (2) 25 years (3) 27 years (4) 28.5 years 31. If we were to refer to Jaunpur, Malwa, Deccan and Kangra in a common cultural context then what would this context be? (1) Painting (2) Sculpture (3) Architecture (4) Pottery 32. The Khayal as a form in which to present a raaga is a relatively recent development in the history of Hindustani Music. This method of presentation was first sung by which of the following individuals? (1) Niyamat Khan (2) Tansen (3) Bade Ghulam Ali Khan (4) Bhimsen Joshi 33. In the late 18th and early 19th centuries there were three musicians whose work more or less defines the contours of Carnatic music thereafter. One was the saint poet Tyagaraja, the second was Syama Sastri. Who was the third? (1) Purandara Dasa (2) Muthuswami Dikskitar (3) Arunachala Kavi (4) Papanasam Sivan 34. In India, there is a collective physical activity with dance like movements called ‘lezim’. In which state would you expect to see this performed? (1) Maharashtra (2) West Bengal (3) Kerala (4) Punjab 35. The blowing of a conch shell by the lady of the house before the morning meal is an activity that is widespread in which of the following states? (1) Maharashtra (2) West Bengal (3) Uttarakhand (4) Karnataka 36. Which of the names below is associated with Japanese animation cinema? (1) Hayao Miyazaki (2) Yasujiro Ozu (3) Akira Kurosawa (4) Haruki Murakami 11/D/XVIII/II 7 37. dfo ,ysu ftUlcxZ dk uke fdl lkfgfR;d vkanksyu ls tqM+k gS\ (1) fu;ks DyklhflTe (2) chV tsujs'ku (3) jksekafVd ewoesaV (4) gaxzh tsujs'ku 38. fdl laLd`fr esa ^iQkusd* uked efgyk ifj/ku dk fo'ks"k rRo lcls O;kid rkSj ij tqM+k gS\ (1) vlfe;k (2) cksMks (3) ef.kiqjh (4) Hkhy 39. ^VªkWfid vkWiQ dSfizdkWuZ* fdl ys[kd dk vkRedFkkRed miU;kl gS\ (1) vusZLV gsfeaXos (2) tSd dsjkWd (3) gsujh feyj (4) fofy;e iQkWduj 40. fdl fdLe dh isafVax dk 'kfCnd vFkZ ^oSDl jkbfVax* (ys[ku) gS\ (1) iQkM isafVax (2) ratkSj isafVax (3) dyedkjh isafVax (4) ckfrd isafVax 41. vtark dh xqiQk isafVax esa fo'o ds vyx&vyx Hkkxksa ls jaxnzO; (jatd) [kjhndj yk, x, FksA yktonZ iQkjl ls yk;k x;k FkkA yktonZ fdl jax ds jaxnzO; gS\ (1) yky (2) uhyk (3) gjk (4) ihyk 42. fuEufyf[kr esa ls rhu fodYi ,d [kkl vFkZ esa ,d tSls gSa vkSj ,d fodYi muls fHkUu gSA og fodYi dkSu&lk gS\ (1) dqphiqM+h (2) HkjrukV~;e (3) ;{kxku (4) ef.kiqjh 43. ewfrZdyk esa dkaL; ds iz;ksx dh rduhd Hkkjr esa flU/q ?kkVh lH;rk ds le; ls izpyu esa FkhA rFkkfi Hkkjr esa vUos"k.k fd, x, dkaL; ds lcls iqjkus uewus 9oha ls 12oha lnh bZloh lu dky ds gSa vkSj nf{k.k Hkkjr esa cuk, x, FksA ml oDr nf{k.k Hkkjr esa fdl jktoa'k dk 'kklu Fkk\ (1) ekS;Z (2) psj (3) ikafM;u (4) pksy 44. orZeku esa Kkr laLd`r dk lcls izkphu ewy ikB gS % (1) jkek;.k (2) egkHkkjr (3) ½Xosn (4) Hkkxor iqjk.k 45. ^dyedkjh* 'kCn dk laca/ fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlls gS\ (1) lqys[ku dh dqN fuf'pr jhfr;ksa (2) dye cukus dh dqN fuf'pr rduhdksa (3) oL=kksa dh dqN fuf'pr fdLeksa (4) ewfrZdyk dh dqN fuf'pr d`fr;ksa 46. ^lqjcgkj* fdl laxhr ;a=k dk ,d cM+k Lo:i gS\ (1) oh.kk (2) flrkj (3) ckalqjh (4) 'kgukbZ 47. ÝykWcs;j ds miU;kl ^enke cksosjh* ij fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lh fgUnh iQhpj fiQYe vk/kfjr Fkh\ (1) ek;k eselkc (2) twyh (3) pk:yrk (4) lqtkrk 48. v:.k dksyrdj dh dfork Js.kh ^tstwjh* ,d ______ds uke ls lacaf/r gSA (1) iQwy (2) tkuoj (3) nsork (4) uxj 49. ^O;kseds'k c['kh* ds pfj=k dh jpuk fdl ys[ku us dh Fkh\ (1) 'kjrpanz pV~Vksikè;k; (2) rkjk'kadj ca|ksikè;k; (3) 'kjfnUnq ca|ksikè;k; (4) eSfFkyh'kj.k xqIr 50. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu ,d o`Ùkfp=k fiQYedkj ugha gS\ (1) gfjlnu nklxqIrk (2) ,l lq[knso (3) vkuan iVo/Zu (4) oh th nkeys 11/D/XVIII/II 8 37. The poet Allen Ginsberg is associated with which literary movement? (1) Neoclassicism (2) Beat Generation (3) Romantic Movement (4) Hungry Generation 38. Which culture is mostly associated with special element of female dress called ‘Phanek’? (1) Assamese (2) Bodo (3) Manipuri (4) Bhil 39. ‘Tropic of Capricorn’ is an autobiographical novel, written by which writer? (1) Ernest Hemingway (2) Jack Kerouac (3) Henri Miller (4) William Faulkner 40. Which type of painting literally means ‘wax writing’? (1) Phad painting (2) Tanjore painting (3) Kalamkari painting (4) Batik painting 41. In the cave paintings of Ajanta, the various pigments were procured from different parts of the world. Lapis lazuli was obtained from Persia. What is the colour of the Lapis lazuli pigment? (1) Red (2) Blue (3) Green (4) Yellow 42. Which is the odd one out in this list of dance forms? (1) Kuchipudi (2) Bharatanatyam (3) Yakshagana (4) Manipuri 43. The technique of executing sculptures in bronze was known in India since the time of the Indus Valley Civilisation. However the most sought-after bronzes from India date between 9th and 12th centuries AD and were made in South India. Which dynasty of kings ruled South India at that time? (1) Maurya (2) Chera (3) Pandian (4) Chola 44. The oldest text in Sanskrit known to us today is (1) Ramayana. (2) Mahabharata. (3) Rig Veda. (4) Bhagwat Puran. 45. With what would you associate the word ‘Kalamkari’ (or ‘qalamkari’)? (1) Certain methods of calligraphy (2) Certain techniques of pen making (3) Certain kinds of textiles (4) Certain pieces of sculpture 46. The ‘surbahar’ is a larger version of which musical instrument? (1) Veena (2) Sitar (3) Flute (4) Shehnai 47. Flaubert's novel ‘Madame Bovary’ was adapted into a Hindi feature film by the name of _____. (1) Maya Memsaab (2) Julie (3) Charulata (4) Sujata 48. ‘Jejuri’, Arun Kolatkar's poetry sequence, refers to the name of a ______. (1) flower (2) animal (3) deity (4) town 49. ‘‘Byomkesh Bakshi’s’’ character was created by which writer? (1) Sharatchandra Chattopadhyay (2) Tarashankar Bandyopadhyay (3) Sharadindu Bandyopadhyay (4) Maithili Sharan Gupt 50. Who among the following is not known to be a documentary filmmaker? (1) Harisadhan Dasgupta (2) S. Sukhdev (3) Anand Patwardhan (4) V.G. Damle 11/D/XVIII/II 9 Space for Rough work ...... 11/D/XVIII/II 10 Space for Rough work ...... . 11/D/XVIII/II 11 INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE / ijh{kkFkhZ ds fy, vuqns'k 1. Please do not open this Question Booklet until asked to do so. 2. Fill up the necessary information in the space provided on the cover of Question Booklet and the OMR Answer-Sheet before commencement of the test. 3. The duration of the complete test (Part-I & Part-II) is 180 minutes. 4. Please check for completeness of the Question Booklet immediately after opening. 5. There are 50 objective type questions to be attempted. 6. In case of any ambiguity in translation, the English version will be deemed authentic. 7. Each question has four answer options marked (1), (2), (3) and (4). 8. Objective type Answers are to be marked on the OMR Answer-Sheet, which is provided separately. 9. Choose the most appropriate answer option and darken the circle/oval completely, corresponding to (1), (2), (3) or (4) against the relevant question number. 10. Use only Ball Point Pen to darken the circle/oval for answering. 11. Please do not darken more than one circle/oval against any question, as scanner will read such marking as wrong answer. 12. Once a/an circle/oval is darkened as answer to the question, it is final. Answer option once darkened cannot be changed. 13. All objective type questions carry equal marks. There is no negative marking. 14. Rough work, if any, is to be done on the Question Booklet only. No separate sheet will be provided/used for Rough Work. 15. Calculator, Mobile, etc., are not permitted inside the examination hall. 16. Candidates seeking, receiving and/or giving assistance during the test will be disqualified. 17. Appropriate civil/criminal proceedings will be instituted against the candidate taking or attempting to take this Question Booklet or part of it outside the examination hall. 18. The right to exclude any question(s) from final evaluation rests with the testing authority. 19. Do not seek clarification on any item in the question booklet from the test invigilator. Use your best judgment. 1. tc rd dgk u tk;s bl iz'u iqfLrdk dks u [kksysaA 2. ijh{kk 'kq: gksus ls igys iz'u iqfLrdk rFkk vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj&i=kd ds vkoj.k ij fn;s x;s LFkku ij vko';d lwpuk HkjsaA 3. ijh{kk dk dqy le; (Hkkx-I vkSj Hkkx-II ds fy,) 180 feuV gSA 4. iz'u&iqfLrdk [kksyus ds rqjUr ckn tkap dj ysa fd iz'u&iqfLrdk iwjh gSA 5. blesa dqy 50 oLrqfu"B iz'u gSa ftUgsa gy djuk gSA 6. ;fn vuqokn esa dksbZ vLi"Vrk gks] rks vaxzsth ikB lgh ekuk tk,xkA 7. izR;sd iz'u ds mÙkj ds fy, pkj fodYi gSa ftu ij (1), (2), (3) vkSj (4) vafdr gSaA 8. oLrqfu"B iz'u ds mÙkj vyx ls fn;s x;s vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj&i=kd ij vafdr djsaA 9. lcls mi;qDr fodYi pqusa rFkk lEcfU/r iz'u ds lkeus fn;s x;s rnuq:i fodYi ds fy, (1), (2), (3) ;k (4) ds xksys@vaMkd`fr dks iwjh rjg ls dkyk djsaA 10. mÙkj nsus ds fy, xksys@vaMkd`fr dks dkyk djus ds fy, dsoy cky ikWbaV isu dk iz;ksx djsaA 11. fdlh iz'u ds lkeus ,d ls vf/d xksys@vaMkd`fr dks dkyk u djsa] D;ksafd LdSuj ml fu'kku dks xyr mÙkj i<+sxkA 12. ,d ckj xksys@vaMkd`fr dks iz'u ds mÙkj ds :i esa vafdr dj fn;k x;k rks og vafre gksxkA mÙkj fodYi ,d ckj vafdr djus ds ckn cnyk ugha tk ldrkA 13. lHkh oLrqfu"B iz'uksa ds leku vad gSA ½.kkRed vadu ugha gSA 14. ;fn dksbZ dPpk dke djuk gS rks og dsoy iz'u iqfLrdk ij gh djsaA dPps dke ds fy, dksbZ vyx ls 'khV ugha nh tk,xh@iz;ksx esa ugha yk;h tk,xhA 15. dSYdqysVj] eksckby vkfn ijh{kk gkWy ds vUnj ys tkus dh vuqefr ugha gSA 16. vuqfpr lk/uksa dk iz;ksx djus okys ijh{kkFkhZ dks v;ksX; Bgjk fn;k tk,xkA 17. bl iz'u&iqfLrdk ;k blds fdlh Hkkx dks ijh{kk gkWy ls ckgj ys tkus ;k ys tkus dh dksf'k'k djus okys ijh{kkFkhZ dh ijh{kkFkhZ&ik=krk dks jn~n djus ds vykok mlds fo:¼ leqfpr nhokuh@iQkStnkjh dk;Zokgh dh tk,xhA 18. vafre ewY;kadu ls fdlh iz'u dks fudky nsus dk vf/dkj ijh{kk izkf/dkjh ds gkFk esa gSA 19. iz'u iqfLrdk esa fdlh Hkh oLrq ij tkap vUoh{kd ls Li"Vhdj.k u ekaxsA vius foosd dk iz;ksx djsaA This Question Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet are to be returned on completion of the test. ijh{kk iwjh gksus ij ;g iz'u iqfLrdk rFkk vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj&i=kd ykSVk nsaA 11/D/XVIII/II 12