Shankar Ias Academy Prestorming – Mock Test

SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY M ock test I I on 13.05.2018 PRESTORMING – MOCK TEST - I - EXPLANATION KEY

1. Ans (c) Explanation: • Statement 1 is correct. The qualifications for judges of Supreme Court explicitly mention the ‘eminent jurist’ whereas the provision is not found in the case of High Court judges. • Article 124(3) of the Constitution mentions the qualifications for appointment as a Supreme Court Judge. It states that • A person shall not be qualified for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court unless he is a citizen of India and— • has been for at least five years a Judge of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession; or • has been for at least ten years an advocate of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession; or • is, in the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist • Article 217(2) of the Constitution talks about the qualifications needed for a High Court Judge. It states, • A person shall not be qualified for appointment as a Judge of a High Court unless he is a citizen of India and— • has for at least ten years held a judicial office in the territory of India; or • has for at least ten years been an advocate of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession • Statement 2 is also correct and it goes with the concept of eminent jurist. A jurist is any individual who researches on the theory of law and hence needn’t necessarily be an advocate. This results in a situation where even a non-practising lawyer who is an eminent jurist in the eyes of the President could be appointed as a Supreme Court Judge.

2. Ans (d) Explanation: • All the pairs are matched correctly. All the four satellites are Indian satellites. • Kalpana is the first in the series of meteorological satellites built by ISRO. The mission was launched in 2002 and it had a life span of 7 years. • GSAT – 7 Rukmini is the first military communication satellite developed by ISRO. The satellite is primarily used by the Indian Navy and was launched in the year 2013. • AstroSat is the first dedicated Indian astronomy mission aimed at studying celestial sources in X- ray, optical and UV spectral bands simultaneously. • The Cartosat series of satellites are a series of earth observation satellites indigenously built by India and is part of the nation’s Indian Remote Sensing Program. Cartosat I was launched in the year 2005.

3. Ans (c) Explanation: • The second wave of globalization brought about the era of multinational corporations (MNCs). Branches and subsidiaries of the MNCs operate simultaneously in different countries and different tax jurisdictions. In such cases, when goods and services are traded between subsidiaries of the same MNC, countries suspect that the companies could alter their balance sheets of profits and losses to show losses in low tax jurisdictions and profits in higher tax jurisdictions. The tax arrangement between subsidiaries of the same company are known as Transfer Pricing agreements. • This results in loss of revenue for the governments. • On suspicion countries could tax companies heavily which could be harmful for businesses which are not involved in tax evasion. To find a balance companies and the countries in which the company operates finalize the tax arrangements. Such agreement between a tax payer and a tax authority are called as Advanced Pricing Agreement.

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UPSC Final Results = Total Selection 74 | Tamil nadu selection out of 42 /35 from our academy | Bengaluru out of 22 / 12 from our academy | Trivandrum out of 33/11 from our academy SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY M ock test I I on 13.05.2018 4. Ans (c) Explanation: • The first Kehlo India School Games was held in New Delhi and not in Guwahati, Assam. • Under-17 athletes had been invited to participate across 16 disciplines, which are as follows: Archery, Athletics, Badminton, Basketball, Boxing, Football, Gymnastics, Hockey, Judo, Kabaddi, Kho-Kho, Shooting, Swimming, Volleyball, Weightlifting, and Wrestling.

5. Ans (a) Explanation: The Mission 41k was unveiled in the month of January 2017. The mission plans to save Rs. 41,000 crore in the next decade in Railway costs’. To implement this comprehensive strategy with the participation of various stakeholders, the Government of India plans to take advantage of regulatory frameworks, and to use new technologies for reducing energy consumption.

6. Ans (b) Explanation: • e-Shakti is a pilot project of National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) for digitisation of Self Help Groups (SHGs). It was initiated to address certain concerns like improving the quality of book keeping of SHGs and to enable banks to take informed credit decisions about the group through a Management Information System (MIS). The project covers 25 districts and 1,30,176 SHGs have been digitised as on 31st March, 2017. • The scheme operates under the Ministry of Finance.

7. Ans (a) Explanation: • The trophic level of an organism is the position it occupies in a food chain. • An ecological pyramid no (also trophic pyramid, eltonian pyramid, energy pyramid, or sometimes food pyramid) is a graphical representation designed to show the biomass or bio productivity at each trophic level in a given ecosystem. • An upright pyramid has a broader base and a narrow top while it is vice-versa in an inverted pyramid. • The pyramid of energy shows how the energy flows between one trophic level to another level. To compare the functional roles of the trophic levels in an ecosystem, an energy pyramid is the most suitable. An energy pyramid gives information on how energy moves through different organisms in a food chain. A pyramid of energy is always upright as energy can flow only from a region of higher energy to a lower energy and not vice-versa. Plants are the producers and hence have higher energy compared to animals thus pyramid of energy has a broader base. • The pyramid of numbers provides information on the number of organisms in the food pyramid. In an upright pyramid of numbers, the number of individuals is decreased from lower level to higher trophic level. In an inverted pyramid the number of individuals increases when we move to a higher level. An inverted pyramid can be seen in a forest. • A forest has a small number of big trees. Trees would represent the base of the pyramid. The birds which consume from the tree are larger in number and are found at a higher trophic level. The parasites which feed on the birds are at a higher number and found further higher. Thus pyramid of numbers can be upright or inverted be it a forest or an aquatic ecosystem.

8. Ans (b) Explanation: • The Equator passes through the following countries: • Ecuador, Brazil, Colombia, Gabon, Congo, Democratic Republic of Congo, Uganda, Kenya, Sao Tome and Principe, Somalia, Maldives, Indonesia and Kiribati.

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9. Ans (c) Explanation: • The answer could be narrowed down to options (a) and (c) at the start, as Mediterranean climate has a distinct characteristic of winter rainfall. • It is well known that Equatorial climate experiences rainfall throughout the year, as it receives maximum insolation from the sun throughout the year. • China climate also known as Temperate Monsoon climate experiences rainfall throughout the year from multiple factors like orographic, convectional and at times cyclonic rainfall. The Temperate Monsoon climate is locate in the eastern coast of continents just above the Tropics of Cancer and Capricon and experiences the tempest of tropical cyclones.

• China climate has variations within different regions of the world as i. China type – which occurs in Southern China ii. Gulf Type – In the eastern coast of USA iii. Natal Type – Off the coast of South Africa • The Gulf Type and Natal type do not have distinct high rainfall regimes as seen with China type. In the Gulf type there is moderation in precipitation due to the presence of Gulf Stream and the narrowness of Southern Africa contributes to the moderation in Natal Type.

10. Ans (d) Explanation: • In this question the answer could be narrowed down to options (b) and (d) and then (d) be chosen through elimination. • Statement 3 of the question states that the soil is found in areas with high temperature and high rainfall. Sandy soil is found in arid regions and hence it can be eliminated. • Peaty soils have organic content. In areas of high temperature organic content gets decomposed quickly and hence peaty soils does not match the specification in the question. • Between Alluvial soil and Laterite soil using Statement 1 that soil is acidic one could choose Laterite soil. In high rainfall areas, silica is leached out by rain water and hence the soil becomes Laterite.

11. Ans (c) Explanation: Surya Sen was a revolutionary and a famous bengali person among many other bengalis who made India proud and was influential in the Indian independence movement (against British rule) who is noted for leading the 1930 Chittagong armoury raid In Chittagong of Bengal in British India (now in Bangladesh). Sen was a school teacher by profession and was popularly called as Master Da. He was influenced by the nationalist ideals in 1916 while he was a student of B.A. in Behrampore College. In 1918 he was selected as president of Indian National Congress, Chittagong branch.

12. Ans (b) Explanation: • The Non cooperation Movement was the first all-India movement spearheaded by Mahatma Gandhi based on the principle of Sathyagraha – Truth and Non-violence. • Non-violence is the foundation of the movement. Right from the inception of the movement from 1920 the activities were based on non-violent means. But the Chauri Chaura incident in Feb 1922 turned violent during a tussle between protesters and policemen in which both protesters and policemen died. As the incident went against the principle of NCM, Gandhi suspended the movement. • After the suspension of the movement there was a tussle within the Congress on whether they should become part of the government by participating in the provincial legislative elections or should refrain and continue with their current methods. • This resulted in two factions arising within the Congress, the no-changers who believed in the continuation of the current policy and finally the Swarajisits who wanted to wreck the government from within.

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UPSC Final Results = Total Selection 74 | Tamil nadu selection out of 42 /35 from our academy | Bengaluru out of 22 / 12 from our academy | Trivandrum out of 33/11 from our academy SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY M ock test I I on 13.05.2018 13. Ans (a) Explanation: • National Knowledge Network (NKN) project is aimed at establishing a strong and robust Indian network which will be capable of providing secure and reliable connectivity. Globally, frontier research and innovation are shifting towards multidisciplinary and collaborative paradigm and require substantial communication and computational power. In India, NKN with its multi-gigabit capability aims to connect all universities, research institutions, libraries, laboratories, healthcare and agricultural institutions across the country to address such paradigm shift. The leading mission oriented agencies in the fields of nuclear, space and defence research are also part of NKN. By facilitating the flow of information and knowledge, the network addresses the critical issue of access and creates a new paradigm of collaboration to enrich the research efforts in the country. • India has decided to extend the National Knowledge Network to all SAARC countries except Pakistan. It will extend and include the global and research institutions in SAARC nations.

14. Ans (a) Explanation: • By examining Statement 2 one could narrow down the options to (a) and (d). • Statement 2 mentions that all former Soviet countries are members of this organization. The former Soviet Union was composed of 15 republics. Logically, the probability of the statement being correct is extremely unlikely. • The Collective Security Treaty Organization was formed post the dissolution of the Soviet Union and is a military defence organization. The Organization has six members namely Armenia, Belarus, Kazakhstan, Kyrgystan, Russia, Tajikistan.

15. Ans (b) Explanation: • Chandrayaan-2 will be the first inter-celestial mission in which the orbiter will land on the celestial body. Though Mangalyaan mission was inter-planetary yet not a landing mission. • Chandrayaan-2, India's second mission to the Moon is a totally indigenous mission comprising of an Orbiter, Lander and Rover. After reaching the 100 km lunar orbit, the Lander housing the Rover will separate from the Orbiter. After a controlled descent, the Lander will soft land on the lunar surface at a specified site and deploy a Rover. • The mission will carry a six-wheeled Rover which will move around the landing site in semi- autonomous mode as decided by the ground commands. The instruments on the rover will observe the lunar surface and send back data, which will be useful for analysis of the lunar soil • The Chandrayaan-2 weighing around 3290 kg and would orbit around the moon and perform the objectives of remote sensing the moon. The payloads will collect scientific information on lunar topography, mineralogy, elemental abundance, lunar exosphere and signatures of hydroxyl and water-ice. • GSLV will be used for placing the orbiter in an elliptical orbit and then narrowing it down further for landing on the moon.

16. Ans (c) Explanation: • WMO is a specialized agency of the United Nations (UN) with 191 Member States and Territories. It is the UN system's authoritative voice on the state and behaviour of the Earth's atmosphere, its interaction with the land and oceans, the weather and climate it produces and the resulting distribution of water resources. • As weather, climate and the water cycle know no national boundaries, international cooperation at a global scale is essential for the development of meteorology and operational hydrology as well as to reap the benefits from their application. WMO provides the framework for such international cooperation. • The World Meteorological Congress is the supreme body which meets once in four years. It discusses and approves the budget.

UPSC Final Results = Total Selection 74 | Tamil nadu selection out of 42 /35 from our academy | Bengaluru out of 22 / 12 from our academy | Trivandrum out of 33/11 from our academy SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY M ock test I I on 13.05.2018 17. Ans (a) Explanation: • Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation is the premier economic forum in the Asia-Pacific region. Most of the members of the APEC are Pacific rim countries. The organization has 21 members. • The organization aims to create greater prosperity for the people of the region by promoting balanced, inclusive, sustainable, innovative and secure growth and by accelerating regional economic integration. • APEC ensures that goods, services, investment and people move easily across borders. Members facilitate this trade through faster customs procedures at borders; more favorable business climates behind the border; and aligning regulations and standards across the region. For example, APEC's initiatives to synchronize regulatory systems is a key step to integrating the Asia- Pacific economy. A product can be more easily exported with just one set of common standards across all economies.

18. Ans (b) Explanation:

• The Zangger Committee, also known as the "NPT Exporters Committee", essentially contributes to the interpretation of article III, paragraph 2, of the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) and thereby offers guidance to all parties to the Treaty. • Article III, paragraph 2, of the NPT performs a vital function in helping to ensure the peaceful use of nuclear material and equipment. Specifically, it provides: • "Each State Party to the Treaty undertakes not to provide: (a) source or special fissionable material, or (b) equipment or material especially designed or prepared for the processing, use, or production of special fissionable material, to any non-nuclear-weapon State for peaceful purposes, unless the source or special fissionable material shall be subject to the safeguards required by this article." • The main significance of this paragraph is that parties to the Treaty should not export, directly or indirectly, nuclear material and equipment to non-nuclear-weapon States unless the export is subject to International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) safeguards. By interpreting and implementing article III, paragraph 2, the Zangger Committee helps to prevent the diversion of exported nuclear items from peaceful purposes to nuclear weapons or other nuclear explosive devices, and thereby furthers the objectives of the Treaty and enhances the security of all States. • As circumstances are changing with respect to the use of nuclear technology, it is the Zangger Committee's mission within the framework of the NPT to take account of changing security aspects and to adapt export control conditions and criteria from time to time according to the needs.

19. Ans (d) Explanation: • The Open Skies Treaty established a regime of unarmed observation flights over the territories of State Parties. It specifies, inter alia, quotas for observation flights, the notification of points of entry, the technical details and inspection for sensors. • The treaty is designed to enhance mutual understanding and confidence by giving all participants, regardless of size, a direct role in gathering information about military forces and activities of concern to them. • The treaty has 57 participating countries and USA and Russian Federation are members in this organization.

20. Ans (a) Explanation: • Sovereign Gold Bonds are government securities denominated in grams of gold. They are substitutes for holding physical gold. Investors have to pay the issue price in cash and the bonds will be redeemed in cash on maturity. The Bond is issued by Reserve Bank on behalf of Government of India. • The quantity of gold for which the investor pays is protected, since he receives the ongoing market price at the time of redemption/ premature redemption. The SGB offers a superior alternative to holding gold in physical form. The risks and costs of storage are eliminated.

UPSC Final Results = Total Selection 74 | Tamil nadu selection out of 42 /35 from our academy | Bengaluru out of 22 / 12 from our academy | Trivandrum out of 33/11 from our academy SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY M ock test I I on 13.05.2018 • The SGB is not an attempt for improving India’s gold exports but decreasing India’s gold imports by enabling investors to pool their money in gold bond schemes.

21. Ans (b) Explanation: Gross value added (GVA) is the measure of the value of goods and services produced in an area, industry or sector of an economy. In national accounts GVA is output minus intermediate consumption; it is a balancing item of the national accounts' production account.

22. Ans (b) Explanation: • At the high-level United Nations Conference to Support the Implementation of Sustainable Development Goal 14 (SDG 14) - The Ocean Conference - held in June 2017 at UN headquarters in New York, close to 1,400 voluntary commitments for concrete action to advance implementation of SDG 14 were made by governments, the United Nations system, civil society organizations, academia, the scientific community, and the private sector. These commitments, together with the Conference outcome document Our Ocean, Our Future: Call for Action, mark a global breakthrough on the path to sustainable management and conservation of our oceans, seas and marine resources.

• Each of the Ocean Conference voluntary commitments addresses one or several of the SDG 14 targets, often with associated positive impact on other SDGs, including for example SDG 3 on good health and well-being and SDG13 on climate action, among others. • To follow-up on the implementation of these voluntary commitments; to catalyze and generate new voluntary commitments; and to facilitate collaboration and networking amongst different actors in support of SDG 14, the United Nations have launched nine thematic multi-stakeholder Communities of Ocean Action. • Each community is coordinated by designated focal points who work together with United Nations Secretary-General's Special Envoy for the Ocean, Ambassador Peter Thomson, and the UN Department of Economic and Social Affairs in carrying out the activities. • The nine Communities of Ocean Action are: • Coral reefs • Implementation of international law as reflected in United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea • Mangroves • Marine and coastal ecosystems management • Marine pollution • Ocean acidification • Scientific knowledge, research capacity development and transfer of marine technology • Sustainable blue economy • Sustainable fisheries

23. Ans (b) Explanation: • From the options one can narrow down to (b) and (c). The Andes Mountains are found on the western part of South America whereas Brazil expands over the east and the central region. • Andean Community, Spanish Comunidad Andina (CAN), formerly (1969–97) Andean Group, South American organization founded to encourage industrial, agricultural, social, and trade cooperation. Formed in 1969 by the Cartagena Agreement, the group originally consisted of Bolivia, Colombia, Ecuador, Peru, and Chile; Venezuela joined in 1973 but withdrew in 2006, and Chile withdrew in 1977. Peru suspended its membership in 1992 but resumed it in 1997. CAN’s headquarters are in Lima, Peru.

24. Ans (c) Explanation: • Pulses have a symbiotic relationship with nitrogen-fixing bacteria which are housed in the root- nodules of the pulses plants. This enriches soil nitrogen. • By housing microbes in root nodules, pulses contribute to improving soil microbial biomass and activity thus improving biodiversity in farmlands. UPSC Final Results = Total Selection 74 | Tamil nadu selection out of 42 /35 from our academy | Bengaluru out of 22 / 12 from our academy | Trivandrum out of 33/11 from our academy SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY M ock test I I on 13.05.2018 25. Ans (a) Explanation: • Mixed cropping is a practice in which two or more agricultural crops are grown in the same field. It is practiced in areas where there is moderate to low rainfall as a method of insurance by farmers. • Of the options mentioned Kachch Peninsula has extensive salt pans and receives extremely low rainfall and hence only crops which could withstand tough climatic conditions are grown there. Eastern Odisha receives high rainfall and has the estuaries of multiple rivers where cultivation of the same crop is prevalent. High altitudes restrict the amount of crops which can be cultivated as there is mild temperature. • Central Telangana on the other hand is a dry land region where there is large scale cultivation of mixed cropping.

26. Ans (d) Explanation: • Statement 1 talks about a state which experiences average rainfall of 57 cm. Bihar naturally has a higher threshold and hence it can be eliminated. • Then using Statement 3 the option can be narrowed down to Rajasthan.

27. Ans (b) Explanation: • The Andaman and Nicobar Islands, one of the seven union territories of India, are a group of islands at the juncture of the Bay of Bengal and Andaman Sea. • The territory is 150 km north of Aceh in Indonesia and separated from Thailand and Myanmar (Burma) by the Andaman Sea. It comprises two island groups, the Andaman Islands and the Nicobar Islands, separated by the 10°N parallel, with the Andamans to the north of this latitude, and the Nicobars to the south. The Andaman Sea lies to the east and the Bay of Bengal to the west.

28. Ans (d) Explanation: • The 'Treaty of Sri ranga pattanam (also called Srirangapatinam), signed on March 1792, ended the Third Anglo-Mysore War. Its signatories included Lord Cornwallis on behalf of the British East India Company, representatives of the Nizam of Hyderabad and the Maratha Empire, and Tipu Sultan, the ruler of Mysore. • Lord Metcalfe has a shorter stint as the Governor General of India between 1835-36. He was called the ‘liberator of Indian press’ for his conducive journalistic policies. • The Age of Consent Act, 1891, also Act X of 1891, was a legislation enacted in British India on 19 March 1891 which raised the age of consent for sexual intercourse for all girls, married or unmarried, from ten to twelve years in all jurisdictions, its violation subject to criminal prosecution as rape. • Child Marriage Restraint Act 1929 passed on 28 September 1929 in the British India Legislature of India, fixed the age of marriage for girls at 14 years and boys at 18 years which was later amended to 18 for girls and 21 for boys. It is popularly known as the Sarda Act, after its sponsor Harbilas Sarda. • Lord Chelmsford was the Governor General of India from 1916 to 1921.

29. Ans (c) Explanation: • A motion is a methodology of initiating an act in the parliament.A guillotine closure motion is used when due to lack of time a Bill which is currently under discussion is put to vote with the parts which were not discussed left untouched. It is applicable to all Bills. If you have any suggestions/disputes regarding Answer key and Explanation notes for General Studies and CSAT Questions kindly send SMS either in Whatsapp or Telegram @ 95660 62776

30. Ans (b) Explanation: • The Parliament of India is chiefly tasked with legislation. But discussion and analysis of each Bill, verifying the functioning of finances, regulation of parliamentary affairs could take a lot of time. To manage such affairs, Parliamentary committees are instituted as part of Parliament. • Parliamentary committees are both Standing and ad-hoc i.e they have a permanent purpose or could be formed on a temporary basis.

31. Ans (a) Explanation: • The answer could easily be narrowed down to option (a) if one considers the chemical formula of methanol. Methanol is the first hydrocarbon in the alcohol chain and has only one carbon atom – CH3OH. • Statement 2 states that one of the reasons for methanol being an alternate fuel is carbon-carbon bonding. But there is no carbon-carbon bonding in Methanol. If statement 2 is eliminated then the answer is (a). Absence of carbon-carbon bonding results in Methanol burning with a clean flame. • Methanol is heavily corrosive.

32. Ans (c) Explanation: • Core industry is a tag given to industries which form the foundation based on which the other industries function. Based on the options, one could clearly see that it is not the characteristic with either textile, telecom or pharmaceutical. • On the other hand, Natural gas is a fuel and is also used in industrial manufacturing hence it is part of core industries. • The Eight Core Industries comprise 40.27 per cent of the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP). They include Natural Gas, coal, crude oil, cement, refinery products, fertilizers, steel and electricity.

33. Ans (b) Explanation: • The use of High Yielding Varieties in agricultural sector indicates a technology augmentation process. HYV have better productivity compared to conventional crops. They can be produced after sufficient biotechnological processes for improving their productivity. • The process is requires more capital and not less capital and less labour as pointed out in the other options.

34. Ans (d) Explanation: • Small savings scheme is a money saving scheme which is run by different entities. Prominent small savings schemes include National Savings Certificate, National Savings scheme, etc. • Post offices run the Kisan Vikas Patra savings scheme since 1988. • According to the October 2017 notification, all Public Sector Banks, ICICI Bank Ltd., Axis Bank Ltd., and HDFC Bank Ltd., were authorised to receive subscriptions under National Saving Time Deposit Scheme, 1981, National Saving (Monthly Income Account) Scheme, 1987, National Saving Recurring Deposit Scheme, 1981 and National Saving Certificates (VIII Issue) Scheme, 1989 in addition to the existing small saving schemes.

35. Ans (d) Explanation: • Waterlogged soils are soils which are saturated with water. Waterlogged soils need not always have water at the surface, it is that the top soil profiles are saturated with water. • Water logging is prevalent in wet farming practices or when intensive irrigation is practised. As waterlogged soils do not provide any transport of both biotic and abiotic components, any addition to the soil material is retained and not drained away. Hence salts accumulate in soils over time with no transport mechanism. Because of poor drainage waterlogged soils have high salinity.

UPSC Final Results = Total Selection 74 | Tamil nadu selection out of 42 /35 from our academy | Bengaluru out of 22 / 12 from our academy | Trivandrum out of 33/11 from our academy SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY M ock test I I on 13.05.2018 36. Ans (b) Explanation: • A primary pollutant is emitted directly from a source whereas a secondary pollutant is formed from when other pollutants react. • From the options given Lead can be eliminated as lead has a higher atomic number and is less reactive and hence is a primary pollutant. • DDT, abbreviation of dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane, also called 1,1,1-trichloro-2,2-bis(p- chlorophenyl)ethane, a synthetic insecticide belonging to the family of organic halogen compounds, highly toxic toward a wide variety of insects as a contact poison that apparently exerts its effect by disorganizing the nervous system. DDT remains in the same form as it is released into the environment and is a primary pollutant. • Peroxyacetyl nitrate is a peroxyacyl nitrate. It is a secondary pollutant present in photochemical smog. It is thermally unstable and decomposes into peroxyethanoyl radicals and nitrogen dioxide gas

37. Ans (a) Explanation: • From the question it can be understood that one needs an international organization for operationalizing the framework. Hence Green Climate Fund option (c) can be eliminated. • And as it related to oil pollution, a safer option to guess based on logic is the International Maritime Organisation (IMO). • In July 1989, a conference of leading industrial nations in Paris called upon IMO to develop further measures to prevent pollution from ships. This call was endorsed by the IMO Assembly in November of the same year and work began on a draft convention aimed at providing a global framework for international co-operation in combating major incidents or threats of marine pollution. • Parties to the International Convention on Oil Pollution Preparedness, Response and Co-operation (OPRC) are required to establish measures for dealing with pollution incidents, either nationally or in co-operation with other countries. • Ships are required to carry a shipboard oil pollution emergency plan. Operators of offshore units under the jurisdiction of Parties are also required to have oil pollution emergency plans or similar arrangements which must be co-ordinated with national systems for responding promptly and effectively to oil pollution incidents. • Ships are required to report incidents of pollution to coastal authorities and the convention details the actions that are then to be taken. The Convention calls for the establishment of stockpiles of oil spill combating equipment, the holding of oil spill combating exercises and the development of detailed plans for dealing with pollution incidents. • Parties to the convention are required to provide assistance to others in the event of a pollution emergency and provision is made for the reimbursement of any assistance provided. • The Convention provides for IMO to play an important co-ordinating role. • A Protocol to the OPRC relating to hazardous and noxious substances (OPRC-HNS Protocol) was adopted in 2000.

38. Ans (a) Explanation: • The Eastern Ghats include several discontinuous and dissimilar hill masses that generally trend northeast-southwest along the Bay of Bengal. The narrow range has an average elevation of about 2,000 feet, with peaks reaching 4,000 feet and higher; the high point is Arma Konda (5,512 feet) in Andhra Pradesh state. • The Eastern Ghats are dissected by major rivers because of the orientation of the subcontinent. The slope is from the West to the East and hence most river deltas are found on the Eastern coast after dissecting the Eastern Ghats. • The Eastern Ghats are discontinuous in the South and continuous in the North. The mountains meet the Western Ghats at Nilgiris.

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39. Ans (a) Explanation: El Nino Modoki is a coupled ocean-atmospheric phenomenon in the tropical Pacific. It is characterised by warming in the Central Pacific ocean and cooling of ocean waters in the Western and Eastern Margins. It is accompanied by rise of airmass in the Central Pacific region and subsidence of airmass in the Western and Eastern zones.

40. Ans (b) Explanation: • Nokrek is an important Man and Biosphere reserve in the State of Meghalaya where Garo Hills are also present. This would enable one to narrow down to options (b) and (c). Guru Shikar is a prominent pilgrimage site in the Aravalli ranges which enables one to choose option (b). • Nokrek National Park, the core area of Nokrek Biosphere Reserve, is a national park located approximately 2 km from Tura Peak in West Garo Hills district of Meghalaya, India. UNESCO added this National park to its list of Biosphere Reserves in May 2009. Along with Balphakram national park, Nokrek is a hotspot of biodiversity in Meghalaya. • Phawngpui also known as Blue Mountain is the highest mountain peak in the Lushai Hills and in the state of Mizoram, with an elevation of 2157 m. It is located in Lawngtlai District, in the southeastern region of Mizoram near the Myanmar border. • Saramati is a peak rising above the surrounding peaks at the mountainous border of Nagaland state, India and the Sagaing Region, Burma. It is located near Tuensang town, Tuensang district and Thanamir Village in the Kiphire district of Nagaland • Guru Shikhar, a peak in the Arbuda Mountains of Rajasthan, is the highest point of the Aravalli Range. It rises to an elevation of 1,722 metres. It is 15 km from Mount Abu and a road from there leads almost to the top of the mountain.

41. Ans (d) Explanation: • Rast Goftar ("The Truth Teller") was an Anglo-Gujarati paper operating in Bombay that was started in 1851 by Dadabhai Naoroji and Kharshedji Cama and championed social reform among Parsis in Western India. • Amrita Bazar Patrika is one of the oldest daily newspapers in South Asia and the oldest in Bangladesh. Originally published in Bengali script, it evolved into an English format published from Kolkata and other locations such as Cuttack, Ranchi and Allahabad • Hicky's Bengal Gazette or the Original Calcutta General Advertiser was an English language weekly newspaper published in Kolkata (then Calcutta), the capital of British India. It was the first newspaper printed in Asia.

42. Ans (a) Explanation: Right to form cooperatives was made a fundamental right through the 97th Constitutional Amendment in the year 2011. Cooperative societies are fundamental to the development of the rural economy.

43. Ans (b) Explanation: Salient features of the Government of India Act 1919 were as follows: • This Act had a separate Preamble which declared that Objective of the British Government is the gradual introduction of responsible Government in India. • Diarchy was introduced as Provincial Level. Diarchy means a dual set of governments one is accountable another is not accountable. The provincial subjects were divided into two groups: One was reserved and another was transferred. The reserved subjects were kept with the Governor and transferred subjects were kept with the Indian Ministers. This division of subjects was basically what they meant by introducing the Diarchy. • The Government of India Act of 1919, made a provision for classification of the central and provincial subjects. The Act kept the Income Tax as source of revenue to the Central Government. However, for Bengal and Bombay for which, to meet their objections, a provision to assign them 25% of the Income tax was made. • No bill of the legislature could be deemed to have been passed unless assented to by the governor general. The later could however enact a Bill without the assent of the legislature. UPSC Final Results = Total Selection 74 | Tamil nadu selection out of 42 /35 from our academy | Bengaluru out of 22 / 12 from our academy | Trivandrum out of 33/11 from our academy SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY M ock test I I on 13.05.2018 • This Act made the central legislature bicameral. The lower house was the Legislative Assembly, with 145 members serving three year terms; the upper house was the Council of States with 60 members serving five year terms • The Act provided for the establishment of a Public Service Commission in India for the first time. • This act also made a provision that a statutory commission would be set up at the end of 10 years after the act was passed which shall inquire into the working into the system of the government. The Simon commission of 1927 was an outcome of this provision. • The communal representation was extended and Sikhs, Europeans and Anglo Indians were included. The Franchise (Right of voting) was granted to the limited number of only those who paid certain minimum “Tax” to the government. • The seats were distributed among the provinces not upon the basis of the population but upon the basis of their importance in the eyes of the government, on the basis of communities, and property was one of the main basis to determine a franchisee. Those people who had a property, taxable income & paid land revenue of Rs. 3000 were entitled to vote. • The financial powers of the central legislature were also very much limited. The budget was to be divided into two categories, votable and non-votable. The votable items covered only one third of the total expenditure. Even in this sphere the Governor-General was empowered to restore any grant refused or reduced by the legislature, if in his opinion the demand was essential for the discharge of his responsibilities.

44. Ans (d) Explanation: • The Council of States or the Rajya Sabha is a permanent house which is indirectly elected by members of the State Legislative Assemblies. The House of the People or the Lok Sabha is directly elected by the people. • As the Lok Sabha has members who are directly elected by the people, when it comes to obtaining financial resources for spending the permission of the Lok Sabha is essential. That is why it has superior powers when it comes to finances. • Thus though the Rajya Sabha could discuss the Money Bill and the Annual financial statement they cannot vote on it. • The Council of Ministers is the part of the executive. As Lok Sabha is the direct representative of the people the Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha and not the Rajya Sabha.

45. Ans (a) Explanation: • Zoonotic tuberculosis (TB) is a form of tuberculosis in people caused by Mycobacterium bovis, which belongs to the M. tuberculosis complex. It often affects sites other than the lungs (extrapulmonary), but in many cases is clinically indistinguishable from TB caused by M. tuberculosis. Within animal populations, M. bovis is the causative agent of bovine TB. M. bovis mainly affects cattle as well as range of wild animal species. It results in important economic losses and trade barriers with a major impact on the livelihoods of poor and marginalized communities. • Though zoonotic tuberculosis is resistant to few antibiotics it is not completely antibiotic resistant. Zoonotic TB poses challenges for patient treatment and recovery. M. bovis is naturally resistant to pyrazinamide, one of the four medications used in the standard first-line anti TB treatment regimen. • It is contagious with animals but there is not documented transmission between human beings

46. Ans (d) Explanation: • It is mentioned in the question that Nag is an Anti-Tank missile. But Statement 1 missile says that it is medium range. Medium range missiles are at least 1000 km and are associated with ballistic missiles whereas tanks are moving targets for which cruise missiles are to be used in combat operations. • If Statement 1 is wrong, the answer could be narrowed down to options (b) and (d).

UPSC Final Results = Total Selection 74 | Tamil nadu selection out of 42 /35 from our academy | Bengaluru out of 22 / 12 from our academy | Trivandrum out of 33/11 from our academy SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY M ock test I I on 13.05.2018 47. Ans (a) Explanation: • Statement 2 of the question states that the climate of the national park/biosphere reserve extends from Temperate to Alpine zone. • It meant that the National park under consideration is in a steep mountainous area. This meant that options (b) and (c) could be eliminated and the answer could be chosen from the other two.

48. Ans (b) Explanation: • Bass Strait is located between Australia and Tasmania • Cook Strait is between North and South New Zealand

49. Ans (c) Explanation: • The Grand Banks of Newfoundland are a group of underwater plateaus south-east of Newfoundland on the North American continental shelf. These areas are relatively shallow, ranging from 50 to 300 feet in depth. The cold Labrador Current mixes with the warm waters of the Gulf Stream here. • The mixing of these waters and the shape of the ocean bottom lifts nutrients to the surface. These conditions helped to create one of the richest fishing grounds in the world. Fish species include Atlantic cod, swordfish, haddock and capelin; shellfish include scallop and lobster.

50. Ans (c) Explanation: A wide variety of weapons are used in silamban, some of which are not found anywhere else in the world. Silambam art also used animal movements of snake, tiger, eagle forms and footwork patterns is play a key role here as well.

51. Ans (b) Explanation: • The Gupta Empire was named after the Gupta dynasty which ruled approximately between 320- 550 CE. The Gupta dynasty period is regarded as the Golden Age of India. The Gupta Empire was not only popular for the overall development and prosperity of the Empire, but was also popular for its paintings. • It was during the Gupta period that progress was made in the field of art. The paintings of this era were of a secular nature. The paintings in the cave of Ajanta in the state of Maharashtra and the paintings in the cave of Bagh in the state of Madhya Pradesh symbolize the Gupta style painting. The cave paintings of the Gupta period commonly showcased the life of Buddha and various stories from the Jataka tales. As such, there was some religious aspect attached to the painting style of the Gupta period. • Ellora Caves: Ellora caves located near Aurangabad in Maharashtra were initially built by the Rashtrkutas. The caves belonging to the 6th to 10th century AD represent the epitome of the Indian Rock Cut architecture and are one of the World Heritage sites. The Buddhist, Brahmanical and Jaina caves of Ellora were made on the trade route from nearby Paithan to Ujjain in central India. There are 34 caves carved out of the Charanandri hills. Out of them, 12 are Buddhist Caves, 17 Hindu Caves and 5 Jaina Caves. Oldest caves are Hindu Caves.

52. Ans (c) Explanation: A parliamentary democracy can work even without written constitution and independent judiciary as is evident with British parliamentary democracy. But they cannot function without Political parties as they are representing people in the parliament and in turn elect the Prime minister and the executive.

53. Ans (b) Explanation: Article 243 (I) of the Indian Constitution prescribes that the Governor of a State shall, as soon as may be within one year from the commencement of the Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment) Act, 1992, and thereafter at the expiration of every fifth year, constitute a Finance Commission to review the financial position of the Panchayats and to make recommendations to the Governor as to. 1. The principles which should govern: UPSC Final Results = Total Selection 74 | Tamil nadu selection out of 42 /35 from our academy | Bengaluru out of 22 / 12 from our academy | Trivandrum out of 33/11 from our academy SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY M ock test I I on 13.05.2018 • The distribution between the State and the Panchayats of the net proceeds of the taxes, duties, tolls and fees leviable by the State, which may be divided between them under this Part and the allocation between the Panchayats at all levels of their respective shares of such proceeds; • The determination of the taxes, duties, tolls and fees which may be assigned as, or appropriated by, the Panchayats; • The grants-in-aid to the Panchayats from the Consolidated Fund of the State; 2. The measures needed to improve the financial position of the Panchayats; 3. Any other matter referred to the Finance Commission by the Governor in the interests of sound finance of the Panchayats. • Article 243 (Y) of the Constitution further provides that Finance Commission constituted under Article 243 (I) shall make similar recommendation vis-à-vis municipalities. • The Governor is required to cause every recommendation made by the State Finance Commission together with an explanatory memorandum as to the action taken thereon to be laid before the Legislature of the State.

54. Ans (c) Explanation: • The Sixth Schedule deals with the details of the mechanism and institutions essential for governance of the autonomous districts in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. These autonomous districts are directly administered by the Governor. The Sixth Schedule deals with the constitution, powers and functions of District Councils and Regional Councils in these autonomous districts. • These Councils enjoy legislative powers on specific subjects and are also allotted certain sources of taxation. These councils also have the powers to set up and administer their system of justice and maintain administrative and welfare services in respect of land, revenue, forests, education, public health etc. • These Autonomous District Councils are in existence in the states of Assam, Mizoram, Tripura, and Meghalaya. The Indian Constitution provides funds under Article 275(1) to both Schedule Fifth and Schedule Sixth areas for the purpose of promoting the welfare of Scheduled tribes or raising the level of administration of the Schedule Areas. • The Autonomous districts are the mechanism to safeguard the traditional heritage of the Tribals, their customary practices and usages and also maintaining economic security. This is achieved by conferring on them Executive, Legislative and judicial powers along with development and financial powers and functions. • Sixth Schedule envisages the powers of the Autonomous District Councils within the autonomous areas, to make laws of the land, management of forests (except reserved forests), regulation on trade by persons not being local schedule tribes, appointment of traditional chiefs and headmen, inheritance of property, marriage, divorce, social customs, establishment and maintenance of primary schools, markets, taxation, issue of lease for extraction of minerals etc.

55. Ans (b) Explanation: Out of the above options Mira tough can be used for weather forecasting it is not developed indigenously in India. Mira supercomputer was constructed by IBM for Argonne National Laboratory's Argonne Leadership Computing Facility with the support of the United States Department of Energy, and partially funded by the National Science Foundation. And Aaditya though in India is not an indigenous supercomputer Pratyush: Prathyush is a supercomputer established at Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune in India. Pratyush is the fastest supercomputer in India with a maximum speed of 6.8 Pflops. Mihir: It was developed by Ministry of Earth Science (MoES) at National Centre for Medium Range Weather Forecasting (NCMRWF), Noida.

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Aadithya: The Aaditya supercomputer at the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology in Pune has a peak performance of 790.7 Tera Flops. The Supercomputer uses the iDataPlex dx360 M4 compute nodes from Lenovo, and is designed to be efficient in both space utilisation and power consumption. Aaditya is a common supercomputing facility for all the organisations under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, and is part of the back end for the Central Information Processing System (CIPS) of the Ministry of Earth Sciences. Param Yuva 2: Param Yuva II will be used for research in space, bioinformatics, weather forecasting, seismic data analysis, aeronautical engineering, scientific data processing and pharmaceutical development. Educational institutes like the Indian Institutes of Technology, National Institutes of Technology and Indian Institute of Information Technology can be linked to the computer through the national knowledge network.

56. Ans (a) Explanation: Peer-to-peer lending: • All peer-to-peer lending (P2P) platforms are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI, all the P2P loan platforms will be treated as non-banking financial companies (NBFCs) and are under the ambit of the banking regulator. Nidhi Companies: • Nidhis are companies registered under Section 406 of the Companies Act, 2013 (or Section 620A of the Companies Act, 1956) and is regulated by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA). NBFCs are wholly or partially regulated by the RBI. Chit funds: • Chit funds in India are governed by the Chit Funds Act, 1982. Under this Act, the chit fund businesses can be registered and regulated only by the respective State Governments. Regulator of chit funds is the Registrar of Chits appointed by respective state governments under Section 61 of Chit Funds Act. Powers of adjudication vest in the Registrar and the state government concerned is the Appellate authority. In case of failure of a chit fund business, the responsibility for winding up such a business also vests with the respective State Governments. Moreover, the Prize chits and money circulation schemes are illegal and are banned under the Prize Chits and Money Circulation Schemes (Banning) Act, 1978. Powers of investigation under this Act are vested with the concerned state police authorities.

57. Ans (c) Explanation: Pradhan manthri Fasal Bhima Yojana is implemented by Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare.

58. Ans (c) Explanation: Procedure for passing No-Confidence Motion: Rule 198 in the Rule Book deals with ‘motion of no-confidence in Council of Ministers’. It states the things about what a House member who wants to move a no-confidence motion is required to do: 1. He/she should give notice of the motion to the “Secretary General of the House by 10.00 hours” on that day and should ask for leave of the House to make the motion “when called by the Speaker”. 2. The rest is done by the Speaker who has to satisfy him/herself that the motion is in order, which only means that the motion is fully in accordance with the rules. Thereafter, the Speaker reads the motion to the House and requests “members who are in favour of leave being granted to rise in their places”. If 50 members stand, the speaker will declare that leave is granted. Once leave is granted, the Speaker will fix the date for debating the motion. 3. The rules provide a 10-day period within which to debate the motion and to take a vote on it. 4. The vote can be conducted either through 'Voice Vote' or by 'Division of Votes'. No-confidence motion has its genesis in Article 75 of the Constitution. It is, therefore, a constitutional right of a member of the House to move a no-confidence motion against the council of ministers. Forestry and Geology options (with two way online coaching) for Indian Forestry Service Examination 2018 will commence from October 1st week for further details kindly log in to our website: www.shankariasacademy.com

UPSC Final Results = Total Selection 74 | Tamil nadu selection out of 42 /35 from our academy | Bengaluru out of 22 / 12 from our academy | Trivandrum out of 33/11 from our academy SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY M ock test I I on 13.05.2018 59. Ans (b) Explanation: Statement 1: WEF was established in 1971 as a not-for-profit foundation and is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland. It is independent, impartial and not tied to any special interests. Statement 2: An annual meeting of WEF is generally held in Davos, Switzerland every year. Statement 3: WEF is not an observer in the United Nations General Assembly

60. Ans (a) Explanation: Statement 1: The UN refugee agency is governed by the UN General Assembly and the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC). The UNHCR Executive Committee, composed of 78 members, approves the agency's biennial programmes and the corresponding budget. Statement 2: the head of UNHRC organization is elected by UN general assembly and is not the secretary general of UN.

61. Ans (c) Explanation: Periyar River doesn't pass through Silent Valley National park. The river that passes through this national park is Kunthipuzha.

62. Ans (c) Explanation: • Hope Spots are ecologically unique areas of the ocean designated for protection under a global conservation campaign overseen by Mission Blue, a non-profit organization founded by Sylvia Earle with her 2009 TED prize wish. Hope Spots can be Marine Protected Areas (MPA) that need attention or new sites. • In India Andaman and Lakshadweep Is. have been declared as Hope spots by the IUCN.

63. Ans (d) Explanation: The biggest emitters of mercury into the environment: 1. Coal-fired power plants. Mercury exists naturally in coal, making coal-fired power plants the largest source of mercury pollution in this country. Coal accounts for nearly 50 percent of the electricity generated in this country—and almost 50 tons of mercury emissions annually. 2. Cement kilns. The mercury comes from coal, which is used to fuel the cement-manufacturing process, as well as limestone, another natural source of the heavy metal. The group released a report last July finding that, individually, some cement kilns emit nearly one and a half times more mercury than the most polluting coal-fired power plants. But because there are fewer kilns, they account for lower levels of atmospheric mercury overall than coal plants. 3. Chlor-alkali plants. Chlorine bleach, laundry detergent, cheap vinyl purses, shoes, and toys made with polyvinyl chloride (or PVC)—making all these products required the use of chlorine gas at some point. The chlor-alkali plants that produce it, use mercury to convert salt to chlorine gas, and to convert salt to caustic soda, or lye, which is then used in products like detergent, plastics, and bleach. 4. Trash incinerators. Hazardous waste, medical waste, and regular garbage incinerators release 13.1 tons (or about 26,000 pounds) of mercury every year. The mercury comes from common household items, such as compact fluorescent light bulbs and thermostats, and from automobile scrap. Despite common perceptions that mercury is used in thermometers and blood pressure machines, the medical industry has switched to mercury-free versions of those tools, and medical waste now accounts for the smallest percentage of mercury emissions from incinerators.

Exclusive Mains Crash Course with Test Batch will commence from 2018 June 2nd week for further details kindly log in to our website: www.shankariasacademy.com UPSC Final Results = Total Selection 74 | Tamil nadu selection out of 42 /35 from our academy | Bengaluru out of 22 / 12 from our academy | Trivandrum out of 33/11 from our academy SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY M ock test I I on 13.05.2018 5. Gold mining. 11.5 tons of mercury each year are released from gold mining, often called the most polluting industry in the world. Historically, mercury was used to separate gold from mined ore. The mercury is released when gold is heated to separate the two. Mercury can seep out of long- abandoned gold mines, which continue to release mercury from underground pools of mine tailings, despite the fact that they’ve been closed since the end of the 19th century.

64. Ans (c) Explanation: Statement 1: As an answer to Lord Birkenhead’s challenge, an All Parties Conference met in February 1928 and appointed a subcommittee under the chairmanship of Motilal Nehru to draft a constitution. • This was the first major attempt by Indians to draft a constitutional framework for the country. • The report was finalised by August 1928. • The recommendations of the Nehru Committee were unanimous except in one respect—while the majority favoured the “dominion status” as the basis of the Constitution, a section of it wanted “complete independence” as the basis, with the majority section giving the latter section, liberty of action. Major Recommendations of Nehru Report • Dominion status on lines of self-governing dominions as the form of government desired by Indians • Much to the chagrin of younger, militant section, who wanted complete independence • Rejection of separate electorates which had been the basis of constitutional reforms so far • Instead, a demand for joint electorates with reservation of seats for Muslims at the centre and in provinces where they were in minority in proportion to the Muslim population there with right to contest additional seats • Not in those areas where Muslims were in majority, such as Punjab and Bengal • Linguistic provinces • Nineteen fundamental rights including equal rights for women, right to form unions, and universal adult suffrage. • Full responsible government at the center along with Autonomy to the provinces • A bicameral legislature at the center, with Clear cut division of power between the center and provinces • Full protection to cultural and religious interests of Muslims & Complete dissociation of state from religion Muslim demands in draft constitution – Delhi Proposals Earlier, in December 1927, a large number of Muslim leaders had met at Delhi at the Muslim League session and evolved four proposals for Muslim demands to be incorporated in the draft constitution. These proposals, which were accepted by the Madras session of the Congress (December 1927), came to be known as the ‘Delhi Proposals’. These were – • joint electorates in place of separate electorates with reserved seats for Muslims • one-third representation to Muslims in Central Legislative Assembly • representation to Muslims in Punjab and Bengal in proportion to their population • formation of three new Muslim majority provinces— Sindh, Baluchistan and North-West Frontier Province. However, the Hindu Mahasabha was vehemently opposed to the proposals for creating new Muslim- majority provinces and reservation of seats for Muslims majorities in Punjab and Bengal (which would ensure Muslim control over legislatures in both).The concessions made in the Nehru Report to Hindu communalists included the following: • Joint electorates proposed everywhere but reservation for Muslims only where in minority; • Sindh to be detached from Bombay only after dominion status was granted and subject to weightage to Hindu minority in Sindh; • Political structure proposed was broadly unitary, as residual powers rested with the centre. Statement 2: Delhi Manifesto • On November 2, 1929, a conference of prominent national leaders issued a “Delhi Manifesto” which demanded: . that the purpose of the Round Table Conferences (RTC), promised by Lord Irwin, should be to formulate a scheme for implementation of the dominion status; . that the Congress should have majority representation at the conference; UPSC Final Results = Total Selection 74 | Tamil nadu selection out of 42 /35 from our academy | Bengaluru out of 22 / 12 from our academy | Trivandrum out of 33/11 from our academy SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY M ock test I I on 13.05.2018 . amnesty and a general policy of conciliation; • Viceroy Irwin rejected these demands on December 23, 1929, which led to the demand of Purna swaraj in Lahore session of INC.

65. Ans (d) Explanation: The expanded scope of Article 21 has been explained in the case of Unni Krishnan v. State of A.P. In the case the court provided the list of some of the rights covered under Article 21. Some of them are listed below: • The right to go abroad • The right to privacy • The right to education • The right against solitary confinement • The right against hand cuffing • The right against delayed execution • The right to shelter • Right to livelihood • Right to health and medical aid • The right against custodial death • The right against public hanging • Doctors assistance

66. Ans (d) Explanation: The election of a Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix, and the Secretary-General of Lok sabha shall send to every member notice of this date.

67. Ans (b) Explanation: • There is no short wave radiation from the earth. Energy reaches earth in the form of short wave radiation and is absorbed by the Earth. After absorption the remaining energy is reflected as long wave radiation. • Most of the atmospheric components lie closer to the earth surface due to gravity. As one moves up, the density of air decreases and so does air pressure. When there is less pressure, there is lesser transfer of heat and hence there is decrease in temperature with increase in latitude.

68. Ans (d) Explanation: Statement 1: Kalarippayattu, as a highly developed martial art and as an extremely popular physical-cultural activity, had a direct bearing on the development of Kerala’s art and culture. It is an age-old tradition, martial and healing art, now used by dancers and performers. The influence of this Martial art is seen in almost all performing arts and many foreigners are coming to learn Kalarippayattu as a method of self-defence, choreography and health tourism. Festivals are social and cultural stages for traditional arts like Kalari demonstration. Kalari culture heritage can be seen in almost all performing arts of Kerala such as Theyyam, Thira, Kanyarkali, Velakali, Kummattikali, Margamkali, Kathakali, Padayani and Mudiyettu which have strong relationship with Kalarippayattu. Statement 2: Kathakali music follows the traditional sopana sangeet of Kerala. It is said to be the ritual singing of the Ashtapadis on the flight of steps leading to the sanctum sanctorum. Now, Kathakali music also uses Carnatic ragas-the raga and talaconforming to the bhava, rasa and dance patterns (nritta and natya). The orchestra which is also used in other traditional performing arts of Kerala, normally comprises the Chenda, Maddalam, Chengila, Ilathalam, Idakka and Shankhu. For more refer: http://ccrtindia.gov.in/kathakali.php , http://shodhganga.inflibnet.ac.in/bitstream/10603/45120/13/13_summary_conclusion.pdf

69. Ans (c) Explanation: Al Biruni's expertice in several languages allowed him to compare and traslate many works in other languages. Al Biruni translated Patanjali’s work on grammar, into Arabic. And later,Al Biruni translated the works of Euclid into Sanskrit for his Brahmana Friends.

70. Ans (d) Explanation: • The Constituent Assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the scheme formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan. The features of the scheme were: . The total strength of the Constituent Assembly was to be 389. Of these, 296 seats were to be allotted to British India and 93 seats, to the Princely States. Out of 296 seats allotted to the British India, 292 members were to be drawn from the eleven governors’ provinces and four from the four chief commissioners’ provinces, one from each. . Each province and princely state (or groups of states in case of small states) were to be allotted seats in proportion to their respective population;roughly, one seat was to be allotted for every million population. . Seats allocated to each British province were to be decided among the three principal communities-Muslims, Sikhs and general (all except Muslims and Sikhs), in proportion to their population. • The elections to the Constituent Assembly (for 296 seats allotted to the British Indian Provinces)were held in July-August 1946. The Indian National Congress won 208 seats, the Muslim League 73 seats, and the small groups and independents got the remaining 15 seats. However, the 93 seats allotted to the princely states were not filled as they decided to stay away from the Constituent Assembly. • Although the Constituent Assembly was not directly elected by the people of India on the basis of adult franchise, the Assembly comprised representatives of all sections of Indian Society: Hindus, Muslims, Sikhs, Parsis, Anglo-Indians, Indian Christians, SCs, and STs including women of all these sections. The Assembly included all important personalities of India at that time, with the exception of Mahatma Gandhi and MA Jinnah.

71. Ans (c) Explanation: Habeas Corpus It is a Latin term which literally means ‘to have the body of’. It is an order issued by the court to a person who has detained another person, to produce the body of the latter before it. The court then examines the cause and legality of detention. It would set the detained person free, if the detention is found to be illegal. Thus, this writ is a bulwark of individual liberty against arbitrary detention. The writ of habeas corpus can be issued against both public authorities as well as private individuals. The writ, on the other hand, is not issued where the • detention is lawful, • the proceeding is for contempt of a legislature or a court, • detention is by a competent court, and • detention is outside the jurisdiction of the court.

72. Ans (a) Explanation: Statement 1: Article 143 of the Indian Constitution confers upon the Supreme Court advisory jurisdiction. The President may seek the opinion of the Supreme Court on any question of law or fact of public importance on which he thinks it expedient to obtain such an opinion. On such reference from the President, the Supreme Court, after giving it such hearing as it deems fit, may report to the President its opinion thereon. The opinion is only advisory, which the President is free to follow or not to follow. However, even if the opinion given in the exercise of advisory jurisdiction may not be binding, it is entitled to great weight. Statement 2: The salaries and allowances of the Judges of the Supreme Court and the administrative expenses of the Court are charged on the Consolidated fund of India and are not subject to the vote of the

UPSC Final Results = Total Selection 74 | Tamil nadu selection out of 42 /35 from our academy | Bengaluru out of 22 / 12 from our academy | Trivandrum out of 33/11 from our academy SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY M ock test I I on 13.05.2018 Parliament. This provision is there to ensure independence of Judiciary and reduce interference of Legislature and executive.

Statement 3: Supreme Court decisions are binding on all Courts/ Tribunals in the country and act as precedence for lower courts. Under Art 141 of the Constitution, all courts in India are bound to follow the decision of the Supreme Court as the rule of law. However its jurisdiction doesn't extend to Armed forces tribunal. A parliamentary law enacted under Article 33 can also exclude the court martials (tribunals established under the military law) from the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the high courts, so far as the enforcement of Fundamental Rights is concerned.

73. Ans (b) Explanation: The water coming out of air conditioning system is a simple condensate due to due formation over the cooling coil. Generally this ‘dew’ is formed from the moisture laden in the circulated air. When air passes over the chilled coil tubes, and the temperature is less than the ‘dew point’ of water, the moisture condensates which comes out as water.

74. Ans (d) Explanation: • The term INGPHR stands for Indian National Gas Hydrate Program Expedition 02 is the world‘s most comprehensive natural gas hydrate field project carried out as a joint venture by India, Japan and US. • Under this project, the scientists were found the natural gas hydrate, an icy form of the fuel in the Bay of Bengal in the coarse grained sand rich depositional systems of Krishna-Godavari basin. • Natural gas hydrates are naturally occurring, ice-like combination of natural gas and water found in oceans and Polar Regions. • The gas found over here is Methane hydrate, which is more stable at the seafloor at water depths beneath 500 metres. • Japan had provided Chikyu, a deep water drilling vessel for the INGPHR-02 project.

75. Ans (a) Explanation: • Under the scheme, waitlisted passengers will have the option to travel by an another train, including premier ones such as the Rajdhani and Shatabdi, on the same route at no extra cost. • Passengers who opt for the Vikalp scheme will be provided accommodation in another train. But they can choose the new service only after the charts for their current train are prepared. The Vikalp scheme will initially be available for e-tickets only. • However, the usual hefty cancellation charges will apply if passengers do not wish to travel by the alternative they are given. There are no refunds once the charts are prepared, and 50% of the cost of the ticket is deducted if one cancels between 12 and four hours before departure.

76. Ans (c) Explanation: • The Government of India had set up a National Population Stabilization Fund (NPSF) in the year 2004-05 with a one-time grant of Rs.100 crore in the form of a corpus fund. This is now known as Jansankhya Sthirata Kosh (JSK). • To empower the NPSF, Government of India has set up Jansankhya Sthirata Kosh (JSK). This is an autonomous body registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860. JSK can take all the policy related decisions. It can raise contributions from organisations and individuals that support population stabilisation.JSK implements two schemes, namely, Santushti and Prerna.

77. Ans (b) Explanation: • The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International Importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution or other human interference. • Currently, two wetlands of India are in Montreux record viz. Keoladeo National Park, Rajasthan and Loktak Lake, Manipur. Further, Chilka lake was placed in the record but was later removed from it

78. Ans (d) Explanation: Great Indian bustard, (Ardeotis nigriceps), large bird of the bustard family (Otididae), one of the heaviest flying birds in the world. The great Indian bustard inhabits dry grasslands and scrublands on the Indian subcontinent; its largest populations are found in the Indian state of Rajasthan.

79. Ans (c) Explanation: • Agriculture is most dependent on the geographical factors of a region. The more unique an agro- climatic condition the more factors control the cultivation of crops. • Of the four regions mentioned in the options, Punjab plains have high capital investment in agriculture which reduces its vulnerability. Vidharba region is a rain shadow region and is adapted to cultivating dry land crop. • Between Dandakaranya and Hilly tracts of North-east, the north-eastern region is more vulnerable as agriculture is unique and there is absence of monoculture.

80. Ans (c) Explanation: Andaman and Nicobar Islands is located in the tropical region whereas Wheat is a temperate crop and is generally not cultivated in this region.

81. Ans (c) Explanation: Mahavir expounded and established the Jain philosophy and communicated it to his first disciple, Indrabhuti Gautam and ten other Ganadhars (Chief disciples) in three phrases which constitute the foundation of the Jain philosophy; and lays down its essentials. These three phrases are known as Tripati.

82. Ans (d) Explanation: The early coinage of Kushan had a great Greek iconographic influence and were struck depicting the Greek deities. However as the Kushans created a vast Empire under Kanishka I the iconographic imagery, as well as the deities on Kushan coins, became more and more Indian. The religious pantheon under Kanishka I and Huvishka drew heavily from the pre-Zoroastrian Iran and the Hindu and Buddhist pantheon. The coins of Later Kushan rulers mostly depicted Oesho (Indian) and Ardochsho (Iranian).

83. Ans (b) Explanation: Protective discrimination is one of the important methods through which Constitutional goals like social and economic justice can be secured to the Women, Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. Protective discrimination means preference given in admission to public educational institutions and in public employment to the weaker sections of the society including the Women, Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. As India is having diversity in terms of religion, castes, belief and communities with different levels of social and educational advancement, which made it difficult for the State to adopt uniform policy to all sections of the society. Therefore, the founding father of the Constitution of India, Dr. Ambedkar, in order to provide social Justice to the Women, Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes has incorporated many provisions in the Indian Constitution like, special provisions for Women, special protection to Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes, special representation in legislatures, public services and reservation of seats in educational institutions. This had been done for increasing the educational opportunities and representation in public services for the Women, Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes to provide equal opportunity as guaranteed by the Constitution.

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84. Ans (c) Explanation: The Inter-State Council was established under Article 263 of the Constitution of India The Council consists of:- • Prime Minister – Chairman • Chief Ministers of all States – Members • Chief Ministers of Union Territories having a Legislative Assembly and Administrators of UTs not having a Legislative Assembly – Members • Six Ministers of Cabinet rank in the Union Council of Ministers to be nominated by the Prime Minister – Members

85. Ans (d) Explanation: A head-up display or heads-up display, also known as a HUD, is any transparent display that presents data without requiring users to look away from their usual viewpoints.

86. Ans (d) Explanation: • The darknet refers to networks that are not indexed by search engines such as Google, Yahoo or Bing. These are networks that are only available to a select group of people and not to the general internet public, and only accessible via authorization, specific software and configurations. This includes harmless places such as academic databases and corporate sites, as well as those with shadier subjects such as black markets and hacking and piracy. • Most of the torrent sites that we access are in open web and are easily accessible tough there are certain torrent sites which are accessible through darknet.

87. Ans (b) Explanation: It is a web portal for Information sharing on Mobile Towers and EMF Emission Compliances. The portal will allow users to get a tower or base station checked for radiation emission, for a fee of Rs 4,000.

88. Ans (a) Explanation:

UPSC Final Results = Total Selection 74 | Tamil nadu selection out of 42 /35 from our academy | Bengaluru out of 22 / 12 from our academy | Trivandrum out of 33/11 from our academy SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY M ock test I I on 13.05.2018 • InvITs, are instruments that work like mutual funds. InvITs are designed to pool small sums of money from a number of investors to invest in assets that give cash flow over a period of time. Part of this cash flow would be distributed as dividend back to investors. • Often, infrastructure projects such as roads or highways take some time to generate steady cash flows. Meanwhile, the infrastructure company has to pay interest to banks for the loans taken by it. An InvIT essentially gives the company the leeway to fulfil its debt obligations quickly. There are four important parties to an InvIT — sponsors, investment managers, project managers and the trustee. InvITs are formed by complying with the Sebi Infrastructure Investment Trust Regulation, 2014. The infrastructure company interested in getting funds from the public will, therefore, form this trust, and then appoint an investment manager who will be responsible for how the assets and investments of the InvIT are managed. Statement 1: • InvITs are set up as a trust and registered with SEBI and are not monitored by Ministry of roadways. Statement 2: • InvITs can invest in infrastructure projects, either directly or through a special purpose vehicle (SPV). In case of Public Private Partnership (PPP) projects, such investments can only be through SPV.

89. Ans (b) Explanation: India State of Forest Report (ISFR) is released by Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).

90. Ans (c) Explanation: Option B: IUCN publishes the Green List of protected areas. Option A,C and D: The CBD, one of the key agreements adopted during the Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992, is the first comprehensive global agreement which addresses all aspects relating to biodiversity.

91. Ans (c) Explanation: The 1999 Gothenburg Protocol to Abate Acidification, Eutrophication and Ground-level Ozone (known as the Multi-effect Protocol or the Gothenburg Protocol) is a multi-pollutant protocol designed to reduce acidification, eutrophication and ground-level ozone by setting emissions ceilings for sulphur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, volatile organic compounds and ammonia to be met by 2010. As of August 2014, the Protocol had been ratified by 26 parties, which includes 25 states and the European Union.

92. Ans (d) Explanation: Statement 1: The United Nations Conference on the Human Environment (Stockholm, 1972), established the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) as the environmental conscience of the United Nations (UN) system. Statement 2: The Global Environment Facility (GEF) was established on the eve of the 1992 Rio Earth Summit to help tackle our planet’s most pressing environmental problems. The World Bank serves as the GEF Trustee, administering the GEF Trust Fund (contributions by donors).

93. Ans (c) Explanation: Statement 1: The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) is a membership Union uniquely composed of both government and civil society organisations. Statement 2: The IUCN Red List of Threatened Species is the world's most comprehensive inventory of the global conservation status of plant and animal species. It uses a set of criteria to evaluate the extinction risk of thousands of species and subspecies. These criteria are relevant to all species and all regions of the UPSC Final Results = Total Selection 74 | Tamil nadu selection out of 42 /35 from our academy | Bengaluru out of 22 / 12 from our academy | Trivandrum out of 33/11 from our academy SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY M ock test I I on 13.05.2018 world. With its strong scientific base, the IUCN Red List is recognized as the most authoritative guide to the status of biological diversity.

94. Ans (c) Explanation: Statement 1: “The Arya Mahila Samaj was started on November 30, 1882, by Pandita Ramabai with the aim of empowering and educating each woman for leading a dignified life. Statement 2: Sir Syed Ahmed started the Aligarh movement. The 1857 revolt was one of the turning points of Indian history. Sir Syed foresaw the imperative need for the Muslims to acquire proficiency in English language and modern sciences. He recognized the critical role of education for the empowerment of the poor and backward Muslim community. He started number of schools for Muslim education. He instituted Scientific Society in 1863 to to create scientific temperament among the muslims and to make western knowledge available to them in their own language. He is a reformist not revivalist religious reformer Statement 3: Raja Ram Mohan Roy was hailed as the father of Indian Renaissance. Nineteenth Century India witnessed a remarkable transformation in the Social ideas in the History of India. Age old ‘Sati system’, ie, burning of Widow in her dead husband’s funeral pyre which existed in India was abolished due to the effort of Raja Ram Mohan Roy He was the founder of Brahmo samaj and he also played a vital role in the abolition of Polygamy and Child marriage in India. Raja Ram Mohan Roy also criticised Hindu Practice of Pantheism and Idol Worship. Statement 4: The Wahabi movement started in Saudi Arabia in the 18th century by Muhammad ibn-Abd-al-Wahab (1703–1792) and regards all other religions as heretical and thus intolerant towards them. The Indian Wahabi movement was founded by Syed Ahmed Brelavi (1789-1831) belonging to Rai Baraili. When he saw Islam drifting towards superstitions and exaggerated veneration of saints and prophets, he steered Islam to its more fundamental roots similar to the Arabian Wahabi movement. However, the Brelavi Wahabis had no direct contact with their counterparts in Arabia. Its aim was to establish Muslim sovereignty in India or a Dar-ul-Islam.

95. Ans (b) Explanation: Statement 1: The Bardoli Taluk in modern-day Gujarat was hit by floods and famines in 1925, which adversely affected crop yield. This affected the farmers financially. Ignoring the plight of the farmers, the Bombay Presidency increased the tax rates by 22%. The Bardoli Satyagraha, 1928 was a movement in the independence struggle led by Sardar Vallabhai Patel for the farmers of Bardoli against the unjust raising of taxes. Statement 2: Gandhiji lent support to the movement through his writings in ‘Young India’ magazine. Hind Swaraj is a book written by gandhiji not a magazine. Statement 3: Fearing things could go out of hand, the British government set up the Maxwell-Broomfield commission to look into the matter. • The revenue was reduced to 6.03%. • The peasants were returned their confiscated land. Patel emerged as a national leader after the success of the Bardoli Satyagraha. He showed his remarkable organising skills. 96. Ans (c) Explanation: • Quasi-judicial bodies are institutes which have powers analogous to that of the law imposing bodies but these are not courts. They primarily oversee the administrative zones. The courts have the power to supervise over all types of disputes but the quasi-judicial bodies are the ones with the powers of imposing laws on administrative agencies. These bodies support to lessen the burden of the courts. Quasi-judicial activity is restricted to the issues that concern the particular administrative agency. Quasi-judicial action may be appealed to a court of law.

UPSC Final Results = Total Selection 74 | Tamil nadu selection out of 42 /35 from our academy | Bengaluru out of 22 / 12 from our academy | Trivandrum out of 33/11 from our academy SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY M ock test I I on 13.05.2018 • These organizations generally have authorities of settlement in matters like breach of discipline, conduct rules, and trust in the matters of money or otherwise. Their powers are usually limited to a particular area of expertise, such as financial markets, employment laws, public standards, immigration, or regulation. • Awards and judgements of a quasi-judicial bodies often depend on a pre-determined set of rules or punishment depending on the nature and gravity of the offence committed. Such punishment may be legally enforceable under the law of a country, it can be challenged in a court of law which is the final vital authority. Quasi judicial functions of CIC: • The Central Information Commission (CIC) set up under the Right to Information Act is the authorized quasi judicial body, established in 2005,under the Government of India to act upon complaints from those individuals who have not been able to submit information requests to a Central Public Information Officer or State Public Information Officer due to either the officer not having been appointed, or because the respective Central Assistant Public Information Officer or State Assistant Public Information Officer refused to receive the application for information under the RTI Act. Quasi judicial functions of National Commission for Women: • The National Commission for Women was set up as statutory body in January 1992 under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990 ( Act No. 20 of 1990 of Govt.of India ) to : . Review the Constitutional and Legal safeguards for women ; . Recommend remedial legislative measures ; . Facilitate redressal of grievances and . Advise the Government on all policy matters affecting women Quasi judicial functions of SEBI: • Securities and Exchange Board of India is a quasi-legislative, quasi-judicial and quasi-executive body. It can draft regulations, conduct inquiries, pass rulings and impose penalties.

97. Ans (c) Explanation: • The PAVA shells, aka Pelargonic Acid Vanillylamide or Nonivamide is an organic compound found characteristically in natural chilli pepper, which is capable of temporarily incapacitating the targets and render them immobile for several minutes. • The home ministry panel which recommended it noted that PAVA is “biosafe, better than chilli grenade or tear smoke shell and can also be used in combination with stun and tear shells”. Since this Compound is organic, the dye is non-permanent.

98. Ans (a) Explanation: Statement 1: Pradhan Mantri Gramin Digital Saksharta Abhiyaan is the scheme to make six crore persons in rural areas, across States/UTs, digitally literate, reaching to around 40% of rural households by covering one member from every eligible household by 31st March, 2019. The Scheme aims to bridge the digital divide, specifically targeting the rural population including the marginalised sections of society like Scheduled Castes (SC) / Scheduled Tribes (ST), Minorities, Below Poverty Line (BPL), women and differently-abled persons and minorities. Statement 2: It is carried out by Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology.

99. Ans (c) Explanation: Statement 1: • Zero Budget Natural Farming (ZBNF) is a set of farming methods, and also a grassroots peasant movement, which has spread to various states in India. It has attained wide success in southern India, especially the southern Indian state of Karnataka where it first evolved. • The neoliberalization of the Indian economy led to a deep agrarian crisis that is making small scale farming an unviable vocation. Privatized seeds, inputs, and markets are inaccessible and expensive for peasants. Indian farmers increasingly find themselves in a vicious cycle of debt, because of the high production costs, high interest rates for credit, the volatile market prices of crops, the rising costs of fossil fuel based inputs, and private seeds. Debt is a problem for farmers of all sizes in UPSC Final Results = Total Selection 74 | Tamil nadu selection out of 42 /35 from our academy | Bengaluru out of 22 / 12 from our academy | Trivandrum out of 33/11 from our academy SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY M ock test I I on 13.05.2018 India. Under such conditions, ‘zero budget’ farming promises to end a reliance on loans and drastically cut production costs, ending the debt cycle for desperate farmers. The word ‘budget’ refers to credit and expenses, thus the phrase 'Zero Budget' means without using any credit, and without spending any money on purchased inputs. 'Natural farming' means farming with Nature and without chemicals.

100. Ans (c) Explanation: Statement 1: The Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations is a specialized agency of the United Nations that leads international efforts to defeat hunger. Statement 2: An intergovernmental organization, FAO has 194 Member Nations, two associate members and one member organization, the European Union.

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