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Are You Suprised ? DAMB 711 Microbiology Final Exam B 100 points December 16, 2009 Your name (Print Clearly): _____________________________________________ Exam # __________ Seat # ___________ CPA # ____________ I. Multiple Choice: Choose the ONE BEST answer. Mark the correct answer on Part 1 of the answer sheet. Use a #2 pencil. 1. Which of the following describes the infectious agent of a microorganism that causes atypical pneumoniae? A. fecal material from a patient harboring Salmonella typhi B. endospores of Clostridium botulinum C. Treponema pallidum in a chancre D. the reticulate body of Chlamydia trachomatis. E. the elementary body of Chlamydia pneumoniae 2. Many bacteria are intracellular parasites with specialized mechanisms for survival inside cells. One of the following is not a mechanism for survival in the cell. Which one? A. Shigella’s escape from the endosome. B. Mycobacterial prevention of phagosome and lysosome fusion. C. Salmonella’s transcription of an acid tolerance response gene. D. Aggregatibacter’s leukotoxin 3. Diabetic patients are predisposed to __________________ caused by___________________: A. athlete’s foot: Candida albicans B. typhus: Rickettsia typhi C. rhino-cerebral zygomycosis: Mucor species D. hypersensitivities: Aspergillus fumigatus E. lung infections: Coccidioides immitis 4. Chalmydia psittaci and Cryptococcus neoformans have the following in common: A. They are both molds. B. They are both yeasts. C. Their infectious agents are transmitted in avian feces. D. A, B and C are true E. B and C are true. 5. Members of the genus Mycoplasma are unique among bacteria because they: A. have a rudimentary life cycle. B. have a primary arthropod host that is both a vector and a reservoir. C. have sterols stabilizing the cell membrane. D. have human intermediate host. 6. Microorganisms that have a binding mechanism like the n-methylphenylalanine pilus: A. include Orthomyxoviruses. B. have neuraminidase activity. C. include Actinomyces naeslundii. D. A, B and C. E. All except C. 2 7. The Rickettsiales cause symptoms of intense headache, fever and rash; however _______________ does not cause a rash and can cause complications of myocarditis and pericarditis. A. Listeria monocytogenes B. Rickettsia rickettsii C. Rickettsia typhi D. Coxiella burnetii E. Erlichia chafeensis 8. The arthropod vector for, Rickettsia prowazekii, the cause of epidemic typhus, is: A. a louse that is parasitic on a human B. a tick that is parasitic on a white tailed deer C. a flea that is parasitic on a mouse D. a tick that is parasitic on a sheep 9. Adult diseases caused by Listeria monocytogenes are spread through: A. respiratory droplets. B. transplacental passage. C. consumption of contaminated meat and vegetables D. contact with family pets. E. B and C. 10. One of the following is a common cause of non-gonococcal urethritis, causes co-infections with Neisseria gonorrhoea, and some strains can cause a chronic conjunctivitis that leads to blindness. Which one? A. Chlamydia psittaci B. Ureaplasma urealyticum C. Cryptococcus neoformans D. Listeria monocytogenes E. Chlamydia trachomatis 11. This bacterium is never transmitted from human to human; instead it is transmitted from water sources where it may be parasitic on amoebae. A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae C. Legionella pneumophilia D. Rickettsia typhii 12. White patches that appear on the tongue and oral mucosa of AIDS patients: A. may be a Candida albicans infection B. may be an infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus C. A and B are true. 3 13. A Candida albicans infection that is caused by restricted contact between the maxillary mucosa and saliva: A. denture induced stomatitis B. oral thrush C. angular chelitis D. midline glossitis 14. Untreated caries predisposes a patient to pulpitis. Usually this happens, because bacteria gain access to: A. the apical foramina B. lateral canals C. periodontal ligament D. dentinal tubules E. periapical lesions 15. The infectious agent of a dimorphic fungus is a/an: A. elementary body. B. endospore. C. yeast cell. D. conidiospore. E. capsid 16. The bacterium that is the cause of 90% of aggressive periodontitis in adolescents is: A. Porphyromonas gingivalis B. Prevotella intermedia C. Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans D. Campylobacter rectus 17. Statement A: LPS is elaborated by most of the periodontal and endodontic pathogens. Statement B: LPS induces tissue destruction by activating the host immune system. Statement C: LPS induces inflammation which leads to an excess of osteoclasts in the lesion and resulting bone resorption. A. Only Statement A is true. B. Only Statement B is true. C. Only Statement C is true. D. All of the statements are true. E. None of the statements are true. 18. Collagenase is a virulence factor and serves as a means of obtaining a carbon source for: A. Porphyromonas gingivalis B. Campylobacter rectus C. Tannerella forsythia D. Treponema denticola E. Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans 4 19. The BPB that is/are most often isolated from infected pulp with acute apical abscess. A. Porphyromonas endodontalis B. Porphyromonas gingivalis C. Prevotella intermedia D. A and B 20. Which of the following microorganisms causes an esophagitis that is seen in AIDS patients? A. Cryptococcus neoformans B. Aspergillus fumigatis C. Histoplasma capsulatum D. Coccidioides immitis E. Candida albicans 21. The BPB that is/are most often associated with pregnancy gingivitis: A. Porphyromonas endodontalis B. Porphyromonas gingivalis C. Prevotella intermedia D. A and B 22. Which of the following microorganisms is a common cause of periodontitis in insulin dependent diabetic patients and requires formate and fumarate to grow in vitro? A. Candida albicans B. Treponema denticola C. Campylobacter rectus D. Fusobacterium nucleatum E. Prevotella intermedia 23. Which of the following microorganisms is the cause of interstitial plasma cell pneumonia? A. Chlamydia pneumoniae B. Aspergillus fumigatis C. Histoplasma capsulatum D. Cryptococcus neoformans E. Pneumocystis carinii 24. _______________, ________________________, and ______________ are in the “Red Complex” and are associated with the symptoms of __________________________. A. Porphyromonas gingivalis, Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans and Treponema denticola: necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis B. Porphyromonas gingivalis, Tannerella forsythia and Treponema denticola: aggressive periodontitis C. Prevotella intermedia, Tannerella forsythia and Treponema denticola: chronic periodontitis D. Porphyromonas gingivalis, Tannerella forsythia and Treponema denticola: chronic periodontitis 5 Use the choices below to answer. Questions 25 through 28 refer to the sequence of plaque formation. A. If it describes secondary plaque buildup and maturation. B. If it describes the initial bacterial colonization of the dental pellicle. C. If it describes formation of the dental pellicle on the tooth surface. D. If it does not describe plaque formation. B25. Actinomyces viscosus attaches to the tooth surface via type 1 fimbriae and to Streptococcus sanguis via type 2 fimbriae D26. Crevicular fluid components such as albumin and inorganic phosphates adhere to the cemental surface of the tooth. C27. Calcium and phosphate ions attach salivary mucins to the enamel surface of the tooth. A28. Co-aggregating pairs of anaerobic Gram-negative rods form a biofilm on the tooth surface. 29. To be considered etiologic in periodontal disease a bacterium must satisfy Socransky's Postulates. Which situation below, would not satisfy Socransky’s postulates? A. A specific bacterial species is eliminated from a periodontal lesion and the lesion begins to heal. B. A patient’s serum has high antibody titers to a specific bacterium that is isolated from a disease site. C. The patient in A has 2 teeth that show deep pockets with bleeding on probing. The bacterial species described in A is present in large numbers in these pockets and is not found in subgingival sites anywhere else in the mouth. D. The bacterial species in A is tested in vitro and does not possess virulence factors that would cause tissue destruction, and it is Gram positive. 30. Which of the following microflora would most likely be found in a periodontal lesion? A. Gram negative, facultatively anaerobic, nonmotile rods B. Gram positive, facultatively anaerobic, cocci C Gram negative and gram positive facultative rods D. Gram negative, anaerobic, motile rods and spirochetes 31. The DaPT is not: A. a vaccine B. partially comprised of Fha, pertussis toxin and pertactin C. partially comprised of two toxoids. D. partially comprised of inactivated Bordetella pertussis E. C and D 6 32. Dental plaque is a microbiological biofilm. The statements, below, describe some characteristics of the biofilm; however, one is not characteristic. Which one? A. The bacteria in the biofilm establish a food chain in which the metabolic by products of one species furnish nutrients for another species. B. The biofilm is encased in a polysaccharide matrix that is absorbed from saliva in the oral cavity. C. The water channels in the biofilm are the only conduits for materials to enter or leave the biofilm. D. Bacteria can survive within the biofilm without dividing. E. Bacteria living in a biofilm are up to 1000X more resistant to antimicrobials than bacteria growing planktonic conditions. 33. Hutchinson’s teeth are the result of a congenital infection with: A. Treponema pallidum B. HIV C. Hepatitis B D. Neisseria gonorrhoea E. Borrelia burghdorferi 34. One of the following
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