ALL APSC CCE (PRELIMS) 2020 FREE MOCK TEST (20-12-2020)

GENERAL STUDIES-1 Time Allowed: 2 (Two) Hours Maximum Marks: 200 ______INSTRUCTIONS

1. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, you should check that this test booklet does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items, etc. If so, get it replaced by a complete test booklet. 2. This test booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English only. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 3. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. 4. All items carry equal marks. 5. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in the registration form attached along with the question paper/answer (OMR) sheet and submit to the invigilator. Failing to do so, your answer sheet may not be evaluated. 6. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 7. Penalty for wrong answers: THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-fourth (0.25) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that. Note: Please keep your mobile phones in switched off mode.

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1. For which did Dr. Birendra Kumar 7. The Arjun Bhanjan of Madhabdeva is Bhattacharya receive the Academy award? a. Yatra a. Rajpathe Ragini b. Rupak b. Iyaruingam c. Jhumura c. Mrityunjoy d. Natak d. Aai 8. The Assamese poet known as ‘Sewali 2. The first Postal Stamp released in the Kavi’ is name of Assamese writer a. Debakanta Baruah a. Lakshminath Bezbaruah b. Ananda Chandra Baruah b. Hem Baruah c. Ratnakanta Borkakoti c. Mitradev Mahanta d. Sailadhar Rajkhowa d. Surjya Kumar Bhuyan 9. Who started the tradition of 3. The noval Abijatri is based on the life and performing Lord Rama plays known Ram deeds Leela? a. Aideo Handique a. Kabir b. Chandra Prabha Saikiani b. Tulsidas c. c. Ramanuj d. Rajbala Handique d. Ramakrishna Paramhangsha

4. Karengar Ligiri is a play written by 10. First Assamese play to be broadcast a. Parbati Prasad Baroah over All Radio in 1935 was b. Jyoti Prasad Agarwala a. Jivanar batat c. Bishnu Prasad Rabha b. Been Bairagi d. Phani Sarma c. Lahori d. Bon Kunwari 5. Who wrote the essay Hindu View of Life? a. Swami Vivekananda 11. Namghosa contains a collection of b. Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan Verses numbering c. Sri Arabindo a. One Thousand d. Ananda Ram Barooah b. One hundred c. Five Thousand 6. Chira Cheneli Mor Bhasa Janani is a d. Five hundred patriotic song written a. Parbati Prasad Barooah 12. Which one of the following Assamese b. Bishnu Prasad Rabha writers is expert in historical writing? c. Mitradev Mahanta a. Ananda Chandra Baruah d. Lakshminath Bezbaruah b. Mohim Bora c. Surya Kumar Bhuyan

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d. Atul Ch. Hazarika 19. Which of the following is not an official language of the United Nations? 13. Freedom from fear is a book written by (a) Arabic a. Aung San Suu Kyi (b) Chinese b. Benazir Bhutto (c) Portuguese c. Nayantara Sehgal (d) Spanish d. Mahatma Gandhi 20. Besides India, great Indian one horned 14. Gita Rahshya was written by rhinoceros is also found in natural habitat of a. Mahatma Gandhi (A) Myanmar b. Swami Dayananda (B) Nepal c. Swami Bivekananda (C) Sri Lanka d. Ananda Ram Baruah (D) Bhutan and part of Tibet

15. The meaning of Calligraphy is 21. Ibn Batuta, the celebrated traveler a. Art of drawing visited Assam in the b. Art of designing a thirteenth century c. Beautifully gardening b. fourteen century d. Beautifully handwriting c. tenth century d. fifteen century 16. The first Social Assamese drama is a. Manomoti 22. Adhalekha Dastabej is written by b. Labhita a. Krishnakanta Handique c. Miri Jiori b. Banikanta Kakati d. Ram Navami c. Sayed Abdul Malik d. Mamoni Roisom Goswami 17. Who among the following is popularly known as the poet of Sagar Dekhisa? 23. The first poetical work of Sankardev is a. Biren Borkataki a. Rukmini Haran b. Nilomani Phukan b. Anadi Patan c. Hem Barua c. Kirtan d. Devakanta Barua d. Harchandra Upakhyan

18. Name of first Assamese writer who 24. The system of Thapona, the holy book on received the Sahitya Academy award the pedestal introduced by a. Raghunath Choudhari a. Sankardev b. Jatindra Nath Duarah b. Madhavdev c. c. Damodardev d. Binanda Barua d. Ram Rai

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25. Kokborok is one of the principal d. Tirot Singh languages of a. Manipur 31. Which of the following place Nidhanpur b. Assam inscriptions is found? c. Mizoram a. Nidhanpur in the district of Sylhet d. Tripura b. Nidhanpur in the district of Karimganj c. Nidhanpur in the district of Kochbihar 26. The last independent Ahom king was d. Nidhanpur in the district of Dhubri a. Chandrakanta Singha b. Kamleswar Singha 32. The metal central to this age finds c. Jogeswar Singha frequent mention in the Vedas and the d. Purandar Singha age itself follows after the Chalcolithic age. It can be 27. Hasti Vidyarnava was composed during (a) Palaeolithic Age the reign of (b) Iron Age a. Rudra Singha (c) Copper-stone b. Rajeswar Singha (d) Later Stone Age c. Gadadhar Singha d. Siva Singha 33. The beginning of agriculture can be ascribed most suitably to which of these 28. The battle of Saraighat was fought in times? a. 1616 1. 2,500 years ago with the onset of b. 1618 Magadha empire c. 1671 2. 4,700 years ago with the appearance d. 1691 of the first cities on the Indus 3. Nearly 8,000-10,000 years ago 29. In which film Dr. Bhupen Hazarika sang 4. About 25,000 years ago in the first for the first time Penistone glacial period a. Chirag b. Indramalati 34. The river(s) that do NOT find mention c. Bhagya in Rigveda is? d. Chameli Memsab (a) Ganga and Yamuna (b) Indus and its othertributaries 30. In the seventh century A.D., the throne (c) Saraswati of Kamrupa occupied so long by princes of (d) All of the above findmention. the Bhagadatta, was wrested by a tribal leader named 35. The Principle of “Right Faith” as a. Nitipala propounded by Mahavira Jaina is that b. Virstambha (a) That all sentient beings are destined c. Salastambha to salvation

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(b) All must understand their role in (d) Sentokwara spiritual life and strictly follow the doctrine of ahimsa 39. Ashoka’s policy of “Dhamma Vijaya” (c) Unshaken belief in the teachings and meant that wisdom of Mahavira 1. Dhamma cannot be spread to another (d) Not believing in the theory of a God country except by voluntary submission or a creator and acceptance of its subjects 2. Every empire should fund welfare 36. EarlyBuddhist andJainatexts mention projects in neighbouring empires. certain statesthatwerevery largeand 3. No empire should try to conquest knownas mahajanapadas. Consider the another empire. following statements about them. Select the correct answer using the 1. Sanghas, which were smaller codes below. mahajanapadas, were forbidden to (a) 2 only control land resources. (b) 1 and 3 only 2. In smaller mahajanapadas, sanghas, (c) 3 only power was shared by a number of men. (d) None of the above Which of the above is/are correct? (a) 1 only 40. The history of the Vakatakas is largely (b) 2 only known from inscriptions and texts like (c) Both 1 and 2 the Puranas. They became a major (d) None power in which of these regions of India? (a) Deccan region 37. Kulasangha, mentioned by Kautilya in (b) Eastern region Arthashastra, is (c) Kurukshetra region (a) Recruitment manual for new officers (d) Kashmir region (b) A system of government (c) A forum of the members of royal 41. What is the relationship between family these two Tamil Epics - Silappatikaram (d) Procession led by a group of and Manimekalai? Kingdoms to assert authority over a (a) Manimekalai is a poetic composition certain region of the prosaic content of Silappatikaram. (b) Both bear the same author and the 38. With reference to Ancient India, in same date of compilation. the northern part of the country, the (c) Silappatikaram is a commentary on village headman was Manimekalai. known as the (d) Manimekalai is a sequel to (a) Gramabhojaka Silappatikaram (b) Agrahara (c) Dhammsurna

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42. With reference to Kabir, a fifteenth century poet and mystic, consider the following statements. 1. Salvation cannot be attained by search for the knowledge, rather results from complete surrender of oneself. 2. Kabir was critical of social discrimination but maintained that caste system was useful for the division of labour in the society. Which of the above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None

43. After consolidating their position in India, the Delhi Sultans introduced reforms in the land revenue administration. In this context, inam lands were assigned to 1. officials against the payment for their services 2. religious leaders or religiousinstitutions 3. courtyards for mosques 4. expand the market in the hinterland of theempire 44. The first Federal Court in India was constituted under the a) Regulating Act of 1773 b) Councils Act of 1891 c) Morley Minto Act, 1909 d) Act, 1935

45. The Secretary of State for India 1) Was a British Cabinet minister 2) Political head of the India Office responsible for the governance of the British Raj 3) Had his permanent seat in Calcutta

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(now Kolkata) 48. Fundamental rights are available 4) Was appointed by the British monarch against the actions of Select the Solution using the codes a) The State only to private individuals below alone a) 1, 2 and 4 only b) The State as well as individuals only to b) 2 and 3 only private individuals alone c) 1 and 3 only c) The State, private individuals and d) 1, 3 and 4 only commercial entities to individuals and commercial entities 46. Which of the following is/are the d) Private individuals only to private federal features of the Constitution? individuals alone 1) The Constitution is written and not easily amendable. 49. The often used term “fourth estate” 2) State governments derive authority of a democracy refers to the from the Centre. a) Inter-governmental organizations 3) Equal representation of all states in b) Political parties Rajya Sabha c) Local Bodies Select the Solution using the codes d) Press and Media below. a) 1 only 50. In the Constitution, protecting the b) 2 and 3 only ‘Dignity of women’ is a theme that c) 1 and 3 only appears most prominently in the d) 1 and 2 only a) Fundamental rights b) Directive Principles of State Policy 47. Which of the following features of c) Fundamental Duties the Indian constitution are borrowed d) Directives outside part IV of the from the USA Constitution? Constitution 1) Vice-President as the ex-officio Chairman of Council of States 51. Which of the following authorities, in 2) Independence of Judiciary and judicial the capacity of holding that office as the review primary duty, is NOT appointed by the 3) Directive Principles of State Policy President of India? 4) Parliamentary Type of Government a) Chairman, UPSC Select the Solution using the codes b) Chief Election Commissioner of India below: c) Chairman, NITI Aayog a) 1 and 2 only d) All of the above are appointed by the b) 2 only President. c) 1, 3 and 4 only d) None of the above 52. The Cabinet Committees are constituted under a) Provisions in Part V of the Constitution

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b) Transaction of Business Rules (TBR), 56. The Appellate jurisdiction of Supreme 1961 Court in appeals from high courts in c) Government of India Act, 1951 regard to civil matters is a d) Parliamentary Conventions of Good a) Constitutional Provision Governance b) Statutory Provision c) Precedent under a ruling of Supreme 53. Reservation of Seats for the Court Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled d) Rule made by the Supreme Court Tribes (STs) is provided for in the 1) Lok Sabha 57. Who or which among the following is 2) Rajya Sabha authorized to create or abolish the State 3) State Legislative Assembly Legislative Councils? 4) State Legislative Council a) President of India on the Select the Solution using the codes recommendation of concerned State below. Cabinet a) 1 and 3 only b) Parliament of India b) 2, 3 and 4 only c) Union Council of Ministers c) 1 and 2 only d) Governor of the Concerned State d) D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 58. Local Government’ is a subject 54. As per the Constitution, who causes mentioned in the to be laid before the Parliament the a) State List under the 7th Schedule of Union Budget? the Constitution a) President of India b) Concurrent List under the 7th b) Presiding Officer of the House Schedule of the Constitution c) Leader of the House c) Union List under the 9th Schedule of d) Minister of Finance the Constitution d) Residuary List under the 9th Schedule 55. The Rajya Sabha alone has the power of the Constitution to declare that it would be in national interest for the Parliament to 59. Elections in country X will be 1) Legislate with respect to a matter in “Democratic” if the State List a) Country X has a written constitution. 2) Create one or more All-India Services b) Country X has a very large voter and common to the Union and the States elector base. Which of the above is/are correct? c) If an independent and powerful body a) 1 only supervises elections in Country X. b) 2 only d) Country X has a large number of c) Both 1 and 2 political parties. d) None

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60. In case of difference of opinion 3) The Constitution imposes a duty upon amongst the Chief Election the Centre to promote the spread and Commissioner and/or two other election development of the Hindi language. commissioners, the matter is always Select the Solution using the codes decided by the below. a) President of India a) 1 only b) Chief Justice of India b) 2 and 3 only c) Chief Election Commissioner c) 1 and 3 only d) Majority in the ECI d) 1, 2 and 3

61. What are the mandated functions of 63. The ex-officio Chairman of the Civil NITI Aayog? Services Board is 1) To assist the Cabinet Secretariat in the a) Prime Minister performance of its secretarial duties b) Minister of Personnel and Grievances 2) To act as the administrative and c) Cabinet Secretary executive head of the Ministry of d) Director, LBSNAA Planning allowing it to juxtapose views from diverse stakeholders 64. The national income estimates of 3) To maintain a state-of-the-art GDP are released quarterly by the Resource Centre and be a repository of a) Chief Economic Advisor, Ministry of research on good governance Finance 4) To actively monitor and evaluate the b) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) implementation of programmes and c) Central Statistics Office (CSO) initiatives, including the identification of d) Department of Commerce and the needed resources Industry 5) To develop mechanisms to formulate credible plans at the village level and 65. If the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) aggregate these progressively at higher of a country is growing, it implies that levels of government 1. The nation must be experiencing an Select the Solution using the codes expansion of the share of manufacturing below. vis-à-vis other sectors in the GDP. a) 1, 2 and 3 only 2. The nation must be experiencing a b) 3, 4 and 5 only general rise in the prices of goods and c) 1 and 5 only services on an annual basis. d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 only 62. Consider the following statements. b) 2 only 1) Hindi is the mother tongue of majority c) Both 1 and 2 of the Indian population. d) None 2) Bengali is the most spoken language after Hindi.

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66. Twin Balance Sheet Problem (TBS), companies frequently seen in news, deals with which of these major problems? 70. In the context of International trade, 1) Poor performance of the Public Sector ‘Aggregate Measure of Support’ is often Units (PSUs) heard concerning which of the following 2) Non-performing assets in the Indian sectors? Banks a) Banking 3) Debt accumulation on Indian b) Information Technology companies c) Agriculture 4) Accretion of foreign currency debt on d) Manufacturing India Select the correct answer using the 71. Consider the following hills and their codes below. locations. a) 1 and 3 only 1. Shevroy Hills: Eastern Ghats b) 2 and 3 only 2. Cardamom Hills: Western Ghats c) 1 and 4 only 3. Anaimalai Hills: Garhjat Range d) 2 and 4 only Select the correct answer using the codes below. 67. Which of these taxation systems is a) 1 and 2 only most closely related to what India b) 2 only follows? c) 1 and 3 only a) Proportional system d) 1, 2 and 3 b) Regressive system c) Progressive system d) Neither progressive nor proportional

68. E-GRAINS is an initiative of the a) Food Policy Foundation (FPF) b) Down to Earth c) Food Corporation of India (FCI) d) Akshay Patra

69. Venture capitalists and Angel Investors invest in a) Only debt-ridden ventures b) Promising start-ups c) Overseas companies that round-trip money d) Corporate bonds issued by blue chip

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d) Tapti and Kosi

74. As per the Koeppen classification, which of the following regions of India has a Steppe Climate? a) Central India b) Parts of North-western India and leeward side of Western Ghats c) North-eastern India d) Coastal regions of south-eastern India

75. Abnormal accumulation of cold water occurring in the central and eastern Pacific Ocean and the strengthening of Tropical pacific trade winds is an unusual occurrence associated with a) El Nino b) Indian Ocean Dipole c) La Nina d) Either (a) or (b)

76. Which of these are species of hardwood trees? 1. Birch 2. Mahogany 3. Spruce 4. Redwood 72. The Vindhyan system of rocks is one Select the correct answer using the of the important rock systems of India. It codes below. is known for the production of a) 1 and 2 only a) Uranium and thorium b) 2, 3 and 4 only b) Iron ore, coal and manganese c) 1 and 3 only c) Precious stones and building materials d) D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 d) Bauxite and mica 77. The alluvial soils 73. Eastern Ghats are eroded and cut 1. Vary in nature from sandy loam to clay through by 2. Are generally rich in potash but poor a) Chambal and Mahanadi in phosphorous b) Godavari and Krishna 3. Found usually in mountainous regions c) Pennar and Gandak 4. Are always deposited within the flood plains

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Select the correct answer using the long codes below. a) 1 and 2 only 82. India as a “Knowledge Economy” b) 1, 2 and 4 only implies c) 1 and 3 only a) Only education can result in our d) 2, 3 and 4 economic growth. b) India has become a large export 78. Which of the following crops require destination for published materials. moderate temperature and rainfall c) Physical infrastructure must be given during growing season and bright for expanding knowledge-based sunshine at the time of harvest? education in Universities. a) Rice and maize d) India is advancing in the use of b) Wheat and maize knowledge-intensive sectors like c) Wheat and Cotton Information Technology. d) Jute and Cotton 83. This Protected Area is very important 79. A system of agriculture where because it links the eastern and western monoculture is practiced on a large area populations of many wild animals is through the Vindhyan ranges that run a) Subsistence Agriculture from north-east to south-west. It can be b) Plantation Agriculture a) Panna Tiger Reserve c) Slash and Burn Agriculture b) Jim Corbett National Park d) Transhumance Agriculture c) Gir Forest National Park d) Sariska Wildlife Sanctuary 80. The sector that uses over eighty five per cent of groundwater resources in 84. The state of Sikkim borders which of India is the following regions? a) Agriculture 1. Nepal b) Household sector 2. Bihar c) Industrial sector 3. Bhutan d) Energy sector 4. Assam Select the correct answer using the 81. In the technique of drip irrigation codes below. a) Water is applied to the crops using a a) 1, 2 and 3 only sprinkler b) 1 and 3 only b) Plants are watered by narrow tubings c) 1, 3 and 4 only which deliver water directly at the base d) 2 and 4 only of the plant c) Canal water is directly supplied to 85. This river is a major tributary of crops Brahmaputra river and splits into two d) Plants are dipped in high water for separate rivers, the Beki and

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Bholkaduba. The river serves as an c) Shyok, Leh, Kargil, Srinagar international border dividing India and d) Leh, Shyok, Srinagar, Kargil Bhutan. The protected area named after this river is 87. Consider the following regions and a) Nameri National Park the water body near which they are b) Kolong Wildlife Sanctuary located: c) Singalila National Park 1. Qatar: A. Mediterranean Sea d) Manas National Park 2. Cyprus: B. Red Sea 3. Mecca: C. Persian Gulf Select the correct answer using the codes below. a) 1A, 2B, 3C b) 1C, 2A, 3B c) 1B, 2C, 3A d) 1C, 2B, 3A

88. The Strait of Gibraltar is one of the busiest shipping routes in the world because a) The strait is free from generation of internal waves and high faring currents b) Being near Mediterranean region, sea level is at the higher side aiding ship movement through higher gradient c) It has the most indented coastline in Europe providing ships a natural transit route. d) The strait is the only connection between the Atlantic Ocean and the Mediterranean Sea

89. Parties to the Antarctica Treaty System include 1. India

2. Russia 3. China 86. What is the correct order of these 4. USA major regions in J&K from east to west? 5. Australia a) Srinagar, Kargil, Leh, Shyok Select the correct answer using the b) Kargil, Srinagar, Shyok, Leh codes below. a) 2 and 4 only

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b) 2, 4 and 5 only Which of the above is/are correct? c) 1, 3 and 5 only a) 1 only d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 90. Tuberculosis (TB) in India is under- d) None reported. Which of the following can be the appropriate reason(s) for the same? 93. Sentinel-5, of the European Space 1) TB, as a disease condition, is Agency, is dedicated to stigmatized in the country. a) Air quality monitoring 2) We lack the technique to detect Multi- b) Observation of Sun’s Core drug resistant TB. c) Interstellar exploration 3) TB skin and blood tests, that are quite d) Space rescue missions popular, are not cent percent effective in detecting TB. 94. Copernicus, sometimes seen in news, Select the correct answer using the is codes below. a) Satellite based service of the European a) 1 and 2 only Union (EU) b) 2 and 3 only b) NASA’s latest rover mission to c) 1 and 3 only Jupiter’s Moon d) 1, 2 and 3 c) A Giant telescope installed at Greenland to survey the sky 91. Chemotherapy has been known to d) A network of scientific institutions inhibit the process has of mitosis as a spread across Russia and Asia precursor of reducing the effects of cancer in the body. What is mitosis? 95. DNA sequencing can be used to a) A process of cell division in the body 1) Detect genetic disorders b) Self-suicidal tendencies of cells 2) Identify genetic variations within and c) Generation of glucose in cells across species d) Conscious mapping of DNA over m- 3) Understand whether genetic RNA variations are associated with health conditions 92. A ramjet engine is a more efficient Select the correct answer using the propulsion system for flight within the codes below. atmosphere than a rocket propulsion a) 1 only system because b) 2 and 3 only 1) A ramjet engine does not require c) 1 and 3 only oxygen for its operation unlike rocket d) 1, 2 and 3 engines 2) A ramjet engine does not use thrust 96. CRISPR, recently seen in news, is a for forward movement unlike any a) Powerful gene editing technique traditional rocket engine b) Space probe to Jupiter

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c) Electronic storage device capable of Select the correct answer using the very large data storage codes below. d) Supercomputer inducted by India a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only 97. B4’ – the ‘Brahmaputra Biodiversity c) 1 and 3 only and Biology Boat’ intends to save which d) 1, 2 and 3 of the following islands, that is fast eroding? 100. Agro-forestry is a) Havelock a) Altering the agriculture land use b) Barren category to forest category c) Majuli b) Clearing forests for slash and burn d) Katchal agriculture c) Raising of trees and agriculture crops 98. Why are weeds unwanted in crop farms? on the same land inclusive of the 1) They serve as hosts for crop diseases or waste patches provide shelter for insects to overwinter. d) Harnessing the practices of local tribal 2) They compete with the crop for nutrients communities in raising crops and water. inside a forest 3) They reduce crop quality by contaminating the commodity. Select the correct answer using the codes below. a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

99. As global temperature increases 1) Increased frequency of extreme events like drought will reduce crop production. 2) Pest attacks may increase on crops. 3) Acidification of oceans will disturb the marine food chain

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