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Home , Dentin dysplasia, Odontogenic keratocyst, Odontoma

Name: ______

Oral Pathology DAPA 741 Final Exam December 12, 2000

1. After performing a tissue biopsy for routine microscopic examination, the specimen should be placed in which fixative? A. Water B. 10% Formalin C. Sterile saline D. 95% ethanol

2. A cytologic preparation is useful in the oral cavity as a diagnostic aid in which of the following diseases? A. Candidosis and herpes B. Dysplasia and carcinoma C. Apthous ulcers and herpes D. Cytologic preparation is not a useful technique in the oral cavity

3. When should a radiograph be sent with a specimen? A. Whenever a lesion involves bone B. If the clinician thinks it will be helpful to the pathologist C. All available radiographs should be sent with all specimens, soft tissue or bone. D. Never, the pathologist doesn’t need radiographs, and they won’t return them.

4. A 42 year old black male presents to the OD clinic requesting routine care. During your examination you notice that his buccal mucosa appears milky white bilaterally. The patient reports that his cheeks are not sore and was unaware of a problem with his mucosa. Upon stretching his cheek the milky white appearance disappears. Dr. Goebel wants to know what you think accounts for the appearance of the patient’s buccal mucosa. You tell him A. B. C. Candidosis D.

5. A 56 year old female presents to your office concerned the she has “cancer on her tongue”. Her tongue is not painful, but has several well defined erythematous areas with a white border. She mentions that the areas disappear in one area, then appear again in another, evidence to her that her “cancer is spreading” You feel the most likely diagnosis for the lesion on her tongue is A. Lichen planus B. Mucous membrane pemphigoid C. Candidosis D.

6. A 72 year old male presents to your office with an asymptomatic 6mm by 3mm flat, rough white lesion on the lateral border of his tongue adjacent to the mandibular left second molar. Which of the following diagnosis would you include in your differential diagnosis? A. Hyperkeratosis (focal keratosis) B. Epithelial dysplasia C. Carcinoma –in-situ D. All of the above

7. Which of the following is true about tobacco pouch keratosis? A. Most rapidly progress to B. Only areas which become ulcerated or indurated need to be biopsied C. The lesion persists for months to years following cessation of the habit D. All of the above

8. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for an exophytic, pedunculated, rough surfaced white lesion on the soft palate? A. Papilloma B. Verrruca vulgaris C. Condyloma acuminatum D. Focal keratosis

9. Which of the following characteristically presents as multiple or clustered, sessile, white to pink, rough surfaced exophytic lesions? A. Papilloma B. Verruca vulgaris C. Condyloma acuminatum D. Keratoacanthoma

10. Which of the following statements is true about a keratoacanthoma? A. The lesion enlarges rapidly over a period of weeks B. The lesion demonstrates a central plug C. The lesion may spontaneously resolve D. All of the above are true about a keratoacanthoma

11. Which of the following epithelial lesions which is seen almost exclusively in HIV infected or otherwise immunocomprimised patients? A. Keratoacanthoma B. Inflammatory papillary C. Condyloma acuminatum D. Hairy

12. A 83 year old female presents to your office desiring a new set of . She feels that her upper denture isn’t fitting as well as when Ol’ Doc Jones made it out of vulcanite rubber 50 years ago. She reports that she wears her dentures 24 hours a day. Upon examination of her oral cavity you notice that she has numerous exophytic, erythematous nodules on her hard palate. She says that her mouth is not painful. You realize these nodules represent A. Squamous cell carcinoma B. Nicotinic C. Inflammatory papillary hyperplasia D.

13. Inflammatory papillary hyperplasia A. Resolves after treatment with an antifungal agent B. Is best managed with a topical corticosteroid agent placed on the inner surface of the denture C. May respond to an antifungal agent, but ultimately requires excision followed by construction of a new denture D. Resolves if the patient begins to leave the denture out overnight

14. Epithelial dysplasia can present clinically as which of the following? A. White lesion B. Red lesion C. Red and white lesion D. All of the above

15. Carcinoma –in-situ differs from squamous cell carcinoma in that A. Carcinoma-in-situ cannot metastasize because it has not invaded into the underlying connective tissue B. Squamous cell carcinoma always presents as an indurated lesion while carcinoma-in-situ does not C. Squamous cell carcinoma presents an ulcerated lesion while carcinoma-in-situ does not. D. Squamous cell carcinoma presents as a painful lesion while carcinoma-in-situ is asymptomatic

16. The most common site of squamous cell carcinoma in the oral cavity is the A. Floor of the mouth B. Tongue C. Soft palate D. Upper lip

17. Which of the following is a risk factor for oral squamous cell carcinoma? A. Repeated trauma B. Chronic use of hot liquids C. Tobacco D. History of oral lichen planus

18. The most common site of initial metastasis for oral squamous cell carcinoma is A. Bone B. Lung C. Cervical lymph nodes D. Thyroid gland

19. The most useful prognositc indicator for squamous cell carcinoma is the stage of the tumor. Stage takes into account which of the following factors? A. Age of the patient, location of the tumor, size of the tumor B. Size of the tumor, regional lymph node involvment, distant metastasis C. Size of the tumor, grade of the tumor, distant metastasis D. Size of the tumor, location of the tumor, grade of the tumor

20. The grade of a tumor refers to A. the degree of cellular differentiation B. the size of the tumor C. the depth of invasion D. amenability to treatment

21. A. Presents as a localized erythematous lesion B. Is only seen on the skin, not on the C. Is locally invasive, but does not metastasize D. Is best treated using chemotheraputic agents

22. Café au lait spots are seen in what two syndromes? A. Peutz-Jegers and Neurofibromatosis B. Addison’s disease and C. Albright’s syndrome and neurofibromatosis D. Peutz-Jegers and Addison’s disease

23. Melasma, a generalized brown pigmentation on the labial mucosa, forehead, malar prominences and around the eyes and lips, is most commonly seen in association with what disease or condition? A. Obesity B. Pregnancy C. Diabetes mellitus D. Systemic lupus erythematosis

24. Which of the following lesions is usually present at birth or develops shortly after birth? A. Hemangioma B. Varix C. Melanocytic macule D. Tattoo

25. A 60 year old man presents to your office for routine care. During your thorough oral soft tissue examination, you notice a well circumscribed, 7mm diameter, palpable, compressible blue lesion on the patient’s upper lip. The lesion in not painful and blanches when pressure is applied. The patient was previously unaware of the lesion. What is the most likely diagnosis for this lesion? A. Kaposi’s sarcoma B. Varix C. Tattoo D. Nevus

26. A 4 year old patient presents with a vascular lesion on his tongue. It was first noticed by his parents when he was an infant. You pull out the clinical impression sheet for pigmented lesions which you carry with you wherever you go and decide it is most consistent with a hemagioma. How can you tell it is not an arteriovenous (AV) malformation? A. They cannot be clinically distinguished B. An AV malformation is painful C. An AV malformation demonstrates a thrill and a bruit D. An AV malformation has an ulcerated surface

27. In general a vascular lesion will blanch when pressure is applied. Which is the exception? A. Kaposi’s sarcoma B. A varix containing a thrombus C. A hemangioma which persists into adulthood D. Vascular lesions always blanch

28. Which of the following lesions presents as a palpable mass? A. Petechiae B. Purpura C. Ecchymosis D. Hematoma

29. A tattoo can be ruled out of the differential diagnosis for a pigmented lesion on the gingiva if a periapical radiograph does not reveal foreign material. A. True B. False

30. What is the main difference between an ephelis and a melanocytic macule? A. An ephelis is larger than a melaocytic macule B. An ephielis is palpable and a melanocytic macule is flat C. An ephelis is associated with sunlight and a melanocytic macule is not D. An ephelis is flat and a melanocytic macule is palpable

31. Upon examination of a new patient you notice a 4 mm raised, evenly brown pigmented lesion on the right malar region of the face. The lesion in evenly round and is well demarcated from the surrounding skin. You decide A. The lesion is a nevus and does not require any treatment B. The lesion is a nevus and should be biopsied C. The lesion is a melanoma and should be biopsied

32. Which of the following is a person at greatest risk for developing a cutaneous melanoma? A. persons with outdoor recreational habits but an indoor occupation B. persons with dark complexions C. smokers D. persons with nevi above their waist

33. The prognosis for a melanoma on the skin without evidence of lymph node involvement or metastasis is determined by its A. diameter B. color C. depth of invasion D. all cutaneous melanoma have the same dismal prognosis

34. A 24 year old female presents to your office with a chief complaint of a lesion of 3 weeks duration on the mucosal surface of her lower lip. The lesion is a raised, compressible mass with a slight bluish hue. The lesion does not blanch on pressure. She reports the lesion swells, then leaks a fluid and gets smaller, then swells again. Your diagnosis is A. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma B. Hemangioma C. Mucocele D. You can’t venture a guess without a biopsy

35. When excising a mucocele you should A. remove adjacent minor salivary glands to prevent recurrence of the lesion B. remove adjacent normal tissue and orient the specimen to make sure the margins are clear C. remove only the swelling, leaving any minor salivary glands alone to prevent the possibility of xerostomia D. remove only the superficial surface of the swelling, allowing it to drain

36. A 35 year old female patient presents to your office with a swelling and pain of two days duration in the right submandibular region. She has a low grade fever and does not feel well. Massage of the submandiblular gland results in purulent discharge from Warthin’s duct. What is you diagnosis? A. Odontogenic infection B. Acute C. Necrotizing sialometaplasia D. Sjogren’s syndrome

37. The above patient (question 36) reports two previous occurences over the past two months, both of which resolved upon treatment with antibiotics. She asks why this continues to happen to her. You suspect it may be the result of A. A malignant lesion in her salivary gland B. A necrotic in one of the right mandibular molars C. A sialolith in her right submandibular gland D. A metastatic lesion in a submandiblar lymph node

38. The classic triad of Sjogren’s Syndrome includes A. dry mouth, dry eyes and rheumatoid arthritis B. dry mouth, dry eyes, enlarged parotid glands C. dry mouth, enlarged parotid glands, rheumatoid arthritis D. dry mouth, dry eyes, lymphoma

39. Salivary glands lesions can be excluded from the differential diagnosis of an asymptomatic soft tissue mass if the lesion occurs on the A. Lower lip B. Buccal mucosa C. Posterior Soft palate D. Anterior dorsal tongue

40. It is often impossible to clinically differentiate between a benign and malignant salivary gland lesion because both may have which of the following characteristics. A. Slow growth B. Does not ulcerate overlying mucosa C. Asymptomatic D. All of the above

41. Which of the following is the most common salivary gland tumor (benign or malignant)? A. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma B. Polymorphous low-grade C. Pleomorphic adenoma D. Oncocytoma

42. A malignant salivary gland tumor in the buccal mucosa can be distinguished from a because A. The malignant tumor will grow slowly B. The malignant tumor will be fixed to the underlying structures C. The malignant tumor will ulcerate the overlying tissue D. The two cannot be clinically distinguished

43. Which of the following is a rapidly growing tumor which, in one of its two forms, commonly presents in the posterior jaw. A. Leukemia B. Hodgkin’s disease C. Burkitt’s lymphoma D. Lymphoid hyperplasia

44. Which of the following is a malignancy of hematopoietic cells which begins in the bone marrow? A. Lymphoma B. Leukemia C. Hodgkin’s disease D. All of the above

45. Which of the following is the major oral manifestion of leukemia? A. Macroglossia B. Enlarged tonsils C. Boggy, edematous gingival hyperplasia D. Xerostomia 46. Which of the following is a characteristic of a reactive soft tissue lesion? A. Fluctuate in size B. Asymptomatic C. Slow growth rate D. All of the above

47. Which of the following are characteristics of benign soft tissue lesions? A. Asymptomatic B. Well circumscribed C. Slowly growing D. All of the above

48. A 15 year old female presents to your office concerned about a growth of 2 weeks duration on her gums. Your examination reveals an erythematous, ulcerated mass on her attached gingiva between the mandibular left first and second premolars. The lesion is not painful, but bleeds when palpated. The most likely diagnosis for this lesion is A. Irritation fibroma B. Pyogenic C. Hemangioma D. Mucoepidermoid carcioma

49. A 60 year old male presents for construction of new dentures. Your intraoral exam reveals a pink, firm soft tissue mass in the maxillary buccal vestibule. The denture flange seems to fit into a cleft in the mass. The patient was unaware of the mass. The most likely diagnosis is A. Peripheral giant cell granuloma B. Lipoma C. fissuratum D. Squamous cell carcinoma

50. Which of the following lesions is congenital? A. Hemangioma B. of the newborn C. Lymphangioma D. All of the above

51. Which of the following lesions is only found on the gingiva or attached alveolar mucosa? A. Lipoma B. C. Peripheral ossifying fibroma D. Granular cell tumor

52. Which of the following is a characteristic of malignant soft tissue tumors? A. Rapid growth B. Fixed to underlying structures C. Loosens teeth D. All of the above

53. What is the most common site for metastasic to occur in the oral cavity? A. Gingiva B. Bone C. Tongue D. Floor of mouth

54. Which of the following is a general clinical feature of an autoimmune disease? A. Rapid onset B. Gradual onset C. Lymphadenopathy D. Negative Nikolski sign

55. A 14 year old female patient presents to your office complaining of frequent painful sores in her mouth. She reports that these sores occur every month or so and take a week or two to heal. Clinical examination reveals a well circumscribed ulceration surrounded by an erythematous halo on the lower labial mucosa. No other mucosal abnormalities are identified. You confidently tell her that she has A. Squamous cell carcinoma B. Recurrent herpes C. Apthous ulcers D. Mucous membrane pemphigoid

56. The same girl calls your office 7 months later concerned that her apthous ulcers are getting worse. She says she has numerous sores of 5 days duration on her lips, gingiva and perioral skin. The lesions on her perioral skin began as blisters. She has a low grade fever and is not feeling well. You wisely hesitate to make a diagnosis without seeing the patient; however, you suspect she has A. Major apthae B. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis C. Epidermolysis bullosa D. An unspecified bacterial infection

57. Clinical examination of the patient from question 56 confirms your suspicions concerning her condition. She says that this is very painful and asks what can be done. You inform her A. This will clear up in a jiffy with an antibiotic. B. Corticosteroids can be used to manage the condition but you may experience exacerbations throughout your life. C. The sores will clear up in a few days whether I treat it or not. You may, however, experience recurrent lesions in the future, but they will not be as severe. D. High doses of acyclovir (an anti-viral agent) will clear up your current infection and prevent future recurrences.

58. A 58 year old female present to your office complaing of a sore mouth of several months duration. She reports the soreness is getting progrssively worse. Clinical examination reveals areas of ulceration and erosion bilaterally on her buccal mucosa. These ulceratons and erosions are surrounded by areas of hyperkeratosis which have a lacy pattern. The hyperkeratotic areas do not rub off. No Nikolsky sign is noted. No cervical lymphadenopathy is noted. She reports taking an estrogen supplement. The most likely diagnosis for these lesions is A. Erosive lichen planus B. Epidermolysis bullosa C. Mucous membrane pemphigoid D. Candidosis

59. Which of the following lesions can be ruled out if clinical examination reveals the presence of vesicles or bullae? A. Apthous ulcers B. Toxic mucositis C. Traumatic ulcer D. All of the above

60. Which of the following is a predisposing factor for candidosis? A. Antibiotic use B. Diabetes mellitus C. Xerostomia D. All of the above

61. A 70 year old female presents to your office for the construction of new dentures. The teeth on her current dentures are severely worn. You notice that she has erythematous, cracked areas at the corners of her mouth. She reports that these areas are not painful. You tell her that the erythemaous areas are A. Angular cheilits and prescribe a topical corticosteroid B. Angular and prescribe a topical antifungal medication C. Actinic cheilosis and recommend a biopsy to rule out carcinoma D. Lichen planus and prescribe a topical corticosteroid

62. Which of the following mucosal diseases may affect the conjunctiva and, if untreated, lead to blindness? A. Lichen planus B. vulgaris C. Mucous membrane pemphigoid D. Erythema multiforme

63. Which of the following mucosal diseases affects the labial and buccal mucosa but characeristically spares the gingiva and hard palate? A. Lichen planus B. Pemphigus vulgaris C. Mucous membrane pemphigoid D. Erythema multiforme

64. Which of the following is a characteristic of primary viral disease? A. Exacerbations and remissions B. Solitary lesion C. Acute onset D. All of the above

65. A patient presents to your office with a sore mouth. She reports a history of Sjogren’s syndrome. She is taking a NSAID for rheumatoid arthritis and a diuretic for hypertension. Her mouth is dry and there is generalized erythema of the mucosa. Numerous cervical carious lesions are present. What most likely accounts for the soreness for which she presents? A. Toxic mucosits B. Lichen planus C. Candidosis D. Lupus erythematosis

66. Chronic osteomyelitis presents on a radiograph as a A. Radiopaque lesion at the apex of a tooth B. Well circumscribed radiolucent lesion C. Poorly circumscribed radiolucent lesion containing radiopaque masses D. Chronic osteomyelitis is most often not apparent on a radiograph

67. A periosteal reaction may be evidence of A. A malignant lesion in the jaw B. A fracture of the jaw C. An inflammatory condition of the jaw D. All of the above

68. Localized (dry socket) is best treated using A. Antibiotics B. Debridement of the socket C. Irrigation and analgesic packing of the socket D. No treatment is indicated for a dry socket

69. Which of the following is a clinical or radiographic feature of localized alveolar osteitis (dry socket)? A. Diffuse radiolucency B. Purulent discharge from the extraction site C. Periosteal reaction D. Foul odor

70. A 42 year old female is referred to your office by a radiation oncologist who plans to deliver 8000 rads of radiation to the oral region. The physician wants to know what oral side effects may result from the planned therapy. Which of the following is a side effect of the planned therapy? A. Mucositis B. Xerostomia C. Predisposition to D. All of the above

71. What measures do you recommend for the patient in question 70 prior to radiation treatment? A. Prophylactic antibiotic treatment B. Extraction of all remaining teeth C. Careful evaluation of the dentition, with all at risk teeth removed and instructions to maintain oral hygiene D. Begin radiation treatment as soon as possible. Dental examination can be performed following treatment.

72. A 9 year old male presents to your office because his parents are concerned about a gradual enlargement of his right lower jaw. He recently brought it to their attention, but he thinks it has been going on for a few months. He reports that his jaw is not painful. Clinical examination reveals expansion of the buccal and lingual cortical plates of his right mandible with mild separation of the teeth on the affected side. A panoramic radiograph reveals a diffuse radiopaque “ground glass”- appearing lesion in the right mandible. There is no evidence of odontogenic disease. His parents are concerned because an uncle recently died of osteosarcoma. You feel the expansion is the result of A. Paget’s disease of bone B. Fibrous dysplasia C. Osteosarcoma D. Osteomyelitis

73. Not 5 minutes after dismissing the patient is question 72, another 9 year old male walks in the door. His parents are concerned about a gradual swelling of both sides of his jaw. The swelling was first noted several months ago and the parents took the child to a physician who prescribed an antibiotic. The antibiotic seemed to have no effect on the swelling. Clinical examination reveals bilateral expansion of the buccal and lingual cortical plates. A panoramic radiograph reveals multilocular radiolucencies in both the left and right mandible. You feel the expansion in this patient is most likely the result of A. Paget’s disease of bone B. Fibrous dyplasia C. Cherubism D. Focal cemento-osseous dysplasia

74. It is important to recognize the features of periapical cemental dysplasia because A. It will continue to enlarge causing expansion of the bone B. It will result in pulp necrosis of the involved teeth C. It is evidence of systemic disease D. It can be mistaken for an inflammatory lesion secondary to pulp necrosis resulting in unnecessary endodontic treatment or tooth extraction

75. Which of the following lesions characteristically presents as a well circumscribed radiolucency which invaginate between the roots of the adjacent teeth? A. Lingual salivary gland defect B. Idiopathic bone cavity C. Central giant cell granuloma D. Hematopoietic marrow defect

76. If a lesion in the jaws is confined to the area inferior to the inferior nerve canal, you can feel fairly comfortable ruling out which of the following? A. Metastatic lesions to bone B. Benign non-odontogenic lesions C. Benign odontogenic lesions D. This criteria cannot be used to rule out any lesions

77. A patient presents concerned about a painless swelling of the anterior hard palate, just lingual to the maxillary central incisors. The swelling has enlarged over the past year or two. Clinical examination reveals a modest swelling of the anterior hard palate. The central and lateral incisors are unrestored and the pulps respond to the EPT. A periapical radiograph reveals a well circumscribed, 1.8 cm, pear shaped radiolucency between and apical to the maxillary central incisors. This most swelling is most likely the result of A. Fibrous dysplasia B. Incisive canal C. Nasolabial cyst D. Antral pseudocyst

78. You are reviewing a panoramic radiograph with Dr. Dixon in Oral Radiology. The patient has no caries or . Dr. Dixon points to a lightly radiopaque dome shaped area in the maxillary sinus and asks, “What do you think this is?” You confidently reply “Why Dr. Dixon, I learned in Oral Pathology that it is a(n) A. Antral psudocyst B. Nasolabial cyst C. Thyroglossal duct cyst D. Could be any of the above

79. A 19 year old patient presents with a well circumscribed radiolucent lesion associated with the crown of an unerupted third molar. No expansion of the bone is noted. Which of the following diagnoses would you consider as part of your differential diagnosis? A. and hemangioma B. Dentigerous cyst and lateral periodontal cyst C. Dentigerous cyst and odontogenic D. Dentigerous cyst and complex

80. Which of the following lesions may present as rapidly enlarging, multilocular radiolucent lesions? A. B. Central giant cell granuloma C. D. All of the above E. Two of the above

81. Which of the following odontogenic is most likely to recur? A. Dentigerous cyst B. Calcifying epithelial C. Parakeratinizing D. Orthokeratinizing odontogenic keratocyst

82. Which of the following odontogenic lesions presents as a radiopaque mass, surrounded by a radiolucent line, surrounded by a radiopaque line? A. Calcifying odontogenic cyst B. Calcifying epithelial (Pinborg tumor) C. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor D. Odontoma

83. Which of the following is a feature of a malignant of bone? A. Well circumscribed B. Expands, but does not perforated the cortex C. Loosens teeth D. All of the above

84. A 21 year old man presents to your office complaining that several of his teeth have become loose. He first noticed his manidibular first molar becoming loose several months ago. He was staying with relatives out of town at the time and went to another dentist. The dentist told him he had periodontal disease and extracted the involved tooth. Since that time he has noticed several other teeth in his mandible become loose. Clinical examination reveals several loose posterior teeth. Despite deep probing depths, there is little bleeding on probing. Around teeth that are not loose there are no probing depths greater than 3 mm. He appears to have excellent oral hygiene. A panoramic radiograph reveals multiple areas of alveolar bone loss in the posterior mandible. Several of the teeth appear to be “standing in space”, with no alveolar bone surrounding them. Aside for these focal areas in the posterior mandible, there is no evidence of alveolar bone loss in the mandible or maxilla. You immediately suspect the patient may have A. Osteosarcoma B. Chondrosarcoma C. Ameloblastoma D. Langerhans cell disease

85. A click or pop in the temporomandibular joint which just before the patient reaches complete opening and is not eliminated by anterior positioning of the mandible is likely to be the result of A. Anterior disk displacement B. Subluxation C. Osteoarthritis D. Ankylosis

86. Crepitus upon opening of the TMJ is evidence of A. Irregularity of the joint surfaces B. Anterior disk displacement C. Muscle guarding D. Ankylosis

87. A momentary, sharp, shooting pain like an electric shock is characteristic of which of the following conditions? A. Inflammatory arthralgia B. Trigeminal neuralgia C. Migraine headaches D. Cluster headaches

88. Which of the following causes of head and neck pain may result in blindness if untreated? A. Trigeminal neuralgia B. Migraine headaches C. Cluster headaches D. Temporal arteritis

89. A 25 year old female presents to your office with frequent headaches. She often sees flashing lights before a headache begins. The headache is often retrorbital and makes her sick to her stomach. She usually lies down in a dark, quiet room for several hours until the headache passes. Use of OTC analgesics has not been effective in controlling the headaches. She has heard a lot about TMJ pain and is wondering if that might be her problem. You feel the most likely diagnosis of her head and neck pain is A. Trigeminal neuralgia B. Migraine headaches C. Cluster headaches D. Temporal arteritis

90. The oral manifestations of iron deficiency anemia are similar to A. Candidosis B. Lichen planus C. Lupus erythematosis D. Primary herpes gingivostomatitis

91. Which of the following is an oral manifestation of hyperparathyroidism? A. Angular cheiltis B. Macroglossia C. Brown tumor D.

92. Which of the following metabolic disorders may cause a generalized pigmentation of the oral cavity easily mistaken for normal racial pigmentation? A. Acromegaly B. Addison’s disease C. Albright syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus

93. Which of the following lesions is highly suggestive that a patient is HIV positive or in some other way immunosuppressed? A. Squamous cell carcinoma B. Kaposi’s sarcoma C. Oral hairy leukoplakia D. All of the above E. Two of the above

94. Which is the most commonly congenitally missing tooth? A. Lateral incisor B. First premolar C. Second premolar D. Third molar

95. A single enlarged tooth or joined (double) tooth in which the tooth count reveals a missing tooth when the anomalous tooth is counted as one is considered an example of A. Gemination B. Fusion C. D. Supernumerary teeth

96. A. is most common in molar teeth B. predisposes the tooth to pulp necrosis and resulting periapical disease C. is a cusp like elevation which usually contains a pulpal extension D. All of the above E. Two of the above

97. The teeth in hypoplastic amelogenesis imperfecta demonstrate A. Enamel which is of normal hardness, but is too thin in generalized or focal areas B. Enamel which is of normal thickness, but not of normal hardness C. Enamel which is of normal thickness and hardness, but abnormally soft D. Shortened roots with obliterated pulp chambers

98. The radiographic features of dentinogenesis imperfecta include A. B. Shortened roots C. Bulbous crowns D. All of the above E. Two of the above

99. Which of the following disorders demonstrates permanent teeth with abnormally large pulp chambers and numerous pulp stones? A. Amelogenesis imperfecta B. Dentinogenesis imperfecta C. Dentin dysplasia type I D. Dentin dyplasia type II

100. Which of the following disorders may be associated with ? A. Amelogenesis imperfecta B. Deninogenesis imperfecta C. Dentin dysplasia type I D. Dentin dyplasia type II