QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JUNE PART 2
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Q1. Consider the following statements. 1. When a urea molecule hydrolyses in soil, it releases a gas into the stratosphere called nitrous oxide (N2O). 2. The pricing and distribution being controlled statutorily by the Government, no one can sell urea above the MRP declared by the Govt. Select the correct code. a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: c Explanation: When a urea molecule hydrolyses in soil, it releases a gas into the stratosphere called nitrous oxide (N2O). It lingers in the atmosphere for as long as 350 years and contributes approximately 35 per cent to global warming.
Urea is the only fertilizer at present with pricing and distribution being controlled statutorily by the Government. Thus, no one can sell urea above the MRP declared by the Govt. This information is taken from Ministry of Fertilizer website. Click here to see. GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 1
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Q2. Atal Tinkering Labs aims to: a. It is a strategic nation building initiative to engage leaders who can guide and mentor students in startups and incubators under the programs of Atal Innovation Mission across India. b. nurture innovative start-up businesses in their pursuit to become scalable and sustainable enterprises and create world class incubation facilities across various parts of India with suitable physical c. to incentivize innovation in areas like health, housing, hygiene, energy and water, critical to India’s growth that can impact directly on livelihood of all sections of society. d. to foster curiosity, creativity and imagination in young minds and inculcate skills such as design mindset, computational thinking, adaptive learning, physical computing etc. Solution: d Explanation: News is: Here question is not difficult, but deliberately given big statements to waste your time. Every statement talks about innovation. It’s confusing. So, next time whenever you read any schemes or policies, read clear objective of it. Atal Tinkering Labs: Background With a vision to ‘Cultivate one Million children in India as Neoteric Innovators’, Atal Innovation Mission is establishing Atal Tinkering Laboratories (ATLs) in schools across India. The objective of this scheme is to foster curiosity, creativity and imagination in young minds; and inculcate skills such as design mindset, computational thinking, adaptive learning, physical computing etc. Key Features of ATL; ATL is a work space where young minds can give shape to their ideas through hands on do-it-yourself mode; and learn innovation skills. Young children will get a chance to work with tools and equipment to understand the concepts of STEM (Science, Technology, Engineering and Math). ATL would contain educational and learning ‘do it yourself’ kits and equipment on – science, electronics, robotics, open-source microcontroller boards, sensors and 3D printers and computers. Other desirable facilities include meeting rooms and video conferencing facility. Link: https://aim.gov.in/overview.php
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Q3. Which of the following correctly defines the term Social Forestry? a. land-use systems and technologies where woody perennials (trees, shrubs, palms, bamboos, etc.) are deliberately used on the same land-management units as agricultural crops and/or animals b. Forestry outside the conventional forests which primarily aim at providing continuous flow of goods and services for the benefit of people c. It is an applied science that studies ecological processes applied to agricultural production systems. d. It is the science and technology of producing and using plants in agriculture for food, fuel, fiber, and land restoration. Solution: b Explanation:
Q4. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1. G-20 was formed earlier than G-7. 2. SAARC was formed before BIMSTEC. 3. BRICS was formed earlier than SAARC. Select the correct code. a. 1 and 2 only
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b. 3 only c. 2 only d. 2 and 3 only Solution: c Explanation: First statement is incorrect.
The members of the G7 are Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom and the United States. The group started out as the G6 at the first summit in (France) in 1975, before becoming the G7 when Canada joined the following year.
The European Union was gradually involved in the G7 starting from 1977. It now takes part in all discussions and is represented jointly by the President of the European Council and the President of the European Commission.
Third statement is incorrect.
The South Asian Association of Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was created in 1985 as an expression of the region's collective decision to evolve a regional cooperative framework. Presently, there are eight member countries in SAARC namely Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Maldives, Pakistan and Sri Lanka. It also has nine Observers, namely China, EU, Iran, Republic of Korea, Australia, Japan, Mauritius, Myanmar and USA.
The BRIC [Brazil, Russia, India and China] idea was first conceived in 2001 by Goldman Sachs as part of an economic modeling exercise to forecast global economic trends over the next half century.
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As a formal grouping, acknowledging the leadership role played by each of the BRIC countries and their growing contribution to the global economy, the 1st meeting of BRIC Foreign Ministers was held on the margins of United Nations General Assembly in New York in 2006. The 1st BRIC Summit was held in Yekaterinburg, Russia, in 2009.
Second statement is correct.
The South Asian Association of Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was created in 1985 as an expression of the region's collective decision to evolve a regional cooperative framework. Presently, there are eight member countries in SAARC namely Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Maldives, Pakistan and Sri Lanka. It also has nine Observers, namely China, EU, Iran, Republic of Korea, Australia, Japan, Mauritius, Myanmar and USA. The BIMSTEC region brings together 1.67 billion people and a combined GDP of around US $ 2.88 trillion. The organisation came into being on 6 June 1997 through the 'Bangkok Declaration'.
Q5. Consider the following.
1. North Sea 2. Baltic Sea 3. Atlantic Ocean 4. Black Sea Arrange the above seas from West to East.
a. 3-2-1-4 b. 3-1-2-4 c. 3-1-4-2 d. 1-3-2-4 Solution: b
Explanation:
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Q6. Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government:
a. An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all. b. A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day. c. A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people. d. A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline. Solution: c
Explanation:
No explanation needed. It’s a straight- forward question.
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But we can’t leave it like this. Read a small Paragraph below.
Q7. Consider the following statements.
1. Appointment and Promotion of district judge in any state is made by Governor in consultation with High Court of that State. 2. President has been authorized to extend and exclude the jurisdiction of a High Court from any Union Territory. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2
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Solution: A
Explanation:
We will see here two articles: 230 and 233.
First statement is correct.
Q8. Consider the following statements.
1. The Karkota period of Kashmir is the most significant in terms of architecture. 2. One of the most important temples during this period is Pandrethan, which was a Hindu Temple, dedicated to Shiva. Select the correct code.
a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: c
Explanation:
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Q9. As per the provisions mentioned in the Constitution, consider the following statements.
1. An election to fill a vacancy caused by the expiration of the term of office of Vice-President shall be completed before the expiration of the term. 2. The person elected to fill the vacancy of Vice President shall be entitled to hold office for the full term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. Select the correct code.
a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: c
Explanation:
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Q10. In the context of Indian Constitution, Consider the following statements.
1. President can be impeached on the basis of incapacity and proved misbehavior. 2. Procedure for the impeachment of President is mentioned in the Constitution. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: b
Explanation:
Under article 56 Of the Constitution, Violation of Constitution is the only ground for the impeachment of President. As per the Constitution, President cannot be impeached on the basis of incapacity and proved misbehavior. See the image below:
Article 61 mentions the procedure for the impeachment of the President. Therefore, statement 2 is correct.
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Q11. Consider the following pairs. 1. Rajasthan is the largest Indian state by area but only about 10 percent of it is covered under forests. 2. Bansi Paharpur region in Rajasthan is famous for Manganese. 3. Besides Great Indian Bustard, Rajasthan is also home Royal Bengal Tigers and Blackbuck. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 and 2 only b. 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: c Explanation: First statement is correct: Rajasthan is the largest Indian state by area but only about 10 percent of it is covered under forests. This you don’t know, it is fine. But other two statements are important. Second statement is incorrect: This region is in news for temple building stones in Ayodhya. Bansi Paharpur region in Rajasthan is famous for sandstone mining. GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 11
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What about Manganese?
Third statement is correct. Ranthambore National Park of Rajasthan contains good number of Royal Bengal tigers. Royal Bengal Tiger, Black Buck, Chinkara, Asiatic Wildcat, White Footed Fox, Great Indian Bustard, Great Indian Spotted Eagle, Leopards, Marsh Crocodile, Stripes Hyena are some of the wildlife species that can be spotted in Rajasthan.
Q12. Consider the following statements regarding Blue Dot Network. 1. It brings together governments, the private sector, and civil society under shared standards for global infrastructure development. 2. Blue Dot Network is built on success of Quad Leadership in India pacific region to counter China. 3. It is open only to India-pacific countries. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3
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Solution: c Explanation: First statement is correct: What is the Blue Dot Network? a. The Blue Dot Network will bring together governments, the private sector, and civil society under shared standards for global infrastructure development. b. The network will certify infrastructure projects that demonstrate and uphold global infrastructure principles. c. Certification by the Blue Dot Network will serve as a globally recognized symbol of market-driven, transparent and financially sustainable development projects. d. By proposing a common standard of project excellence, the Blue Dot Network will attract private capital to infrastructure projects in developing and emerging economies. Second statement is incorrect: What are the principles underlying the Blue Dot Network? The Blue Dot Network vision uses as its foundation established global infrastructure principles set out in the G20 Principles for Quality Infrastructure Investment, the G7 Charlevoix Commitment on Innovative Financing for Development, and the Equator Principles. The Blue Dot Network builds on the success of Japan’s G20 leadership in building consensus on the Principles for Quality Infrastructure Investment, which is the basis for the visions of the Blue Dot Network. Can any country join? Third statement is incorrect: Blue Dot Network is a multi-stakeholder initiative that brings together governments, the private sector, and civil society to encourage adoption of trusted standards for quality, global infrastructure development in an open and inclusive framework. It does not exclude any country from supporting the Blue Dot Network’s mission of promoting quality, market-driven, and private-sector led investment. What are the benefits of the Blue Dot Network for developing countries? A developing country that agrees to implement BDN standards signifies that the government values high quality infrastructure that benefit local communities. The Blue Dot Network will provide countries with clear project standards. Projects, companies, and governments that meet or uphold the standards can build public confidence in their commitment to good practices.
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Q13. The concept of producer responsibility organization ('PRO') is currently applied for which of the following rules? 1. E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2016 2. Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016 3. Bio-Medical Waste Management. Rules, 2016. 4. Batteries (Management and Handling) Rules, 2010 Select the correct code. a. 1 and 4 only b. 2 only c. 1 and 2 only d. 1, 2 and 3. Solution: c Explanation: In India, the concept of PRO is recognized in two sectors namely, plastic waste management and e-waste management. The E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2016, and Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016, imposes primary burden on the producer for collection of waste plastic electronic products. They need to establish a system for collecting back the waste generated due to their products. PRO is defined as a professional organization authorized or financed collectively or individually by producers, which can take the responsibility for collection and channelization of e-waste generated from the 'end-of-life' of their products to ensure environmentally sound management of such e-waste. Most of these policies are based on the principle of Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR), which makes the producers responsible for the environmental impacts throughout the life-cycle of products. A new arrangement called Producer Responsibility Organisation (PRO) has been introduced to strengthen EPR further.
Q14. On World Crocodile Day, we will solve one question. Consider the following statements. 1. India is home to all three species of crocodiles, mugger, saltwater and Gharials. 2. The saltwater crocodiles are majority found in Himalayan rivers. 3. The Gharials described as critically endangered on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: a Explanation: First statement is correct. India is home to three crocodilian species:
• The mugger or marsh crocodile • The estuarine or saltwater crocodile • The gharial (Gavialis gangeticus) The mugger is the most widespread, found in other South Asian countries too. The gharial is found mostly in Himalayan rivers. The estuarine crocodile is found in Odisha’s Bhitarkanika National Park, the Sundarbans in West Bengal and the Andamans and Nicobar Islands. It is also found across Southeast Asia and northern Australia. Second statement is incorrect
Third statement is correct:
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The gharial is listed in schedule 1 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 and also described as critically endangered on the International Union for Conservation of Nature Red List of Threatened Species. Link: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/world-crocodile-day-experts-call-f or-patience-regarding-human-croc-conflict-71809 Q15. Which of the following is the nearest island (Lakshadweep) to the mainland India? a. Andrott b. Kadmat c. Kalpeni d. Kavaratti Solution: a Explanation:
Q16. Which of the following serves as International Corridor for Asian Elephant Migration between India and Bhutan?
a. Gorumara wildlife Sanctuary b. Buxa Tiger Reserve c. Nameri National Park
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d. Namdapha Tiger Reserve Solution: b
Explanation:
Buxa Tiger Reserve (BTR) lies in Alipurduar district of West Bengal. Its northern boundary runs along the international border with Bhutan. The Sinchula hill range lies all along the northern side of BTR and the eastern boundary touches that of the Assam State.
BTR, serves as international corridor for Asian elephant migration between India and Bhutan.
Q17. Consider the following statements.
1. Minor Forest Produce (MFP) is defined by Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006. 2. Panchayat Raj (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act of 1996 endows power over ownership of minor forest produce to the Gram Sabha. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 only b. 2 only
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c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: C
Explanation:
Section 2(4) of the Indian Forest Act 1927 defines only "forest-produce" and this term connotes to those products whether found in or brought from a forest.
Minor Forest Produce (MFP) is a subset of forest produce and got a definition only in 2007 when the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006. Therefore, first statement is wrong.
Section 2(i) of the said Act defines a Minor Forest Produce (MFP) as all non-timber forest produce of plant origin and includes bamboo, brushwood, stumps, canes, Tusser, cocoon, honey, waxes, Lac, tendu/kendu leaves, medicinal plants and herbs, roots, tuber and the like.
PESA endows power over ownership of minor forest produce to the Gram Sabha.
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Q18. Consider the following statements.
1. Increasing Soil Organic Carbon (SOC) can help in reducing global warming. 2. There is a clear link between soil health and Sustainable Development Goals. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: c
Explanation:
Healthy, fertile soils will help to achieve Sustainable Development Goal 1 (No Poverty) and Goal 2 (Zero Hunger), better soil management will help achieve Goal 13 (Climate Action) and Goal 15 (Life on Land), and eliminating dumping and minimizing the release of chemicals and hazardous materials into the environment will help achieve Goal 6 (Clean Water and Sanitation) by contributing substantially to reducing soil pollution.
There is, therefore, a clear link between soil health and most Sustainable Development Goals, requiring governments, the private sector and civil society to join forces to prevent new pollution, minimize its negative effects, and remediate polluted sites and soils that pose a risk to human health and the environment.
Soil organic carbon’ (SOC) – the amount of carbon stored in the soil is a component of soil organic matter – plant and animal materials in the soil that are in various stages of decay. Soil
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QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JUNE PART 2 organic carbon is the basis of soil fertility. It releases nutrients for plant growth, promotes the structure, biological and physical health of soil, and is a buffer against harmful substances.
Increasing soil organic carbon has benefits: to mitigate climate change, it improves soil health and fertility. Many management practices that increase soil organic carbon also improve crop and pasture yields.
If more carbon is stored in the soil as organic carbon, it will reduce the amount present in the atmosphere, and help reduce global warming. The process of storing carbon in soil is called ‘soil carbon sequestration’.
Q19. Consider the following.
1. To protect Public Property. 2. To preserve rich heritage and composite culture 3. Early childhood care and education to children below the age of six years. 4. Equal justice and free legal aid. Which of the above is/are part of Fundamental Duties?
a. 2 and 3 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 1, 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Solution: b
Explanation:
Many can make mistake in 3rd statement. Please don’t. It’s time to worry if you did. Not acceptable.
Provision for early childhood care and education to children below the age of six years is a part of DPSP (Article 45).
Equal justice and free legal aid is also part of DPSP (Article 39A).
Fundamental duty related to education:
It is a duty of parent or guardian, to provide opportunities for education to his child, or as the case may be, ward between the age of six to fourteen years.
Q20. Consider the following statements.
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1. Warren Hastings introduced the annual lease system of auctioning the land to the highest bidder. 2. Lord Cornwallis introduced Permanent Settlement in Bengal and Bihar region only. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: c
Explanation:
Izaredari system was introduced in 1773 by Warren Hastings in Bengal whereby he assumed that all land belongs to State. This was the first land tenure system implemented in India by British. Under this system, right of collecting revenue of a particular area was auctioned to the highest bidder.
The Permanent Settlement of Bengal was brought into effect by the East India Company headed by the Governor-General Lord Cornwallis in 1793.
This was basically an agreement between the company and the Zamindars to fix the land revenue. First enacted in Bengal, Bihar and Odisha, this was later followed in northern Madras Presidency and the district of Varanasi. Cornwallis thought of this system inspired by the prevailing system of land revenue in England where the landlords were the permanent masters of their holdings and they collected revenue from the peasants and looked after their interests. He envisaged the creation of a hereditary class of landlords in India. This system was also called the Zamindari System.
Q21. Which of the following is/are components of Deep Ocean Mission with respect to India? 1. exploring and harnessing of deep-sea minerals and energy. 2. Coastal Tourism 3. Developing an alliance with countries in Indian Ocean for sustainable ‘Green’ trade 4. off-shore energy development. 5. development of human capacity and enterprise in ocean biology and engineering. Select the correct code. a. 1, 2 and 5 only
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b. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only c. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only d. 3, 4 and 5 only Solution: c Explanation: Read carefully Missions/Schemes. UPSC has stopped asking Ministry and basic statements about schemes/missions. If you haven’t read deep, you can’t answer Deep Ocean Mission. Explanation now, The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs chaired by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi, has approved the proposal of Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) on "Deep Ocean Mission", with a view to explore deep ocean for resources and develop deep sea technologies for sustainable use of ocean resources. Deep Ocean Mission with be a mission mode project to support the Blue Economy Initiatives of the Government of India. Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) will be the nodal Ministry implementing this multi-institutional ambitious mission. The Deep Ocean Mission consists of the following six major components: Development of Technologies for Deep Sea Mining, and Manned Submersible: A manned submersible will be developed to carry three people to a depth of 6000 metres in the ocean with suite of scientific sensors and tools. This component will help the Blue Economy priority area of exploring and harnessing of deep-sea minerals and energy. Development of Ocean Climate Change Advisory Services: A suite of observations and models will be developed to understand and provide future projections of important climate variables on seasonal to decadal time scales under this proof-of-concept component. This component will support the Blue Economy priority area of coastal tourism. Technological innovations for exploration and conservation of deep-sea biodiversity: Bio-prospecting of deep-sea flora and fauna including microbes and studies on sustainable utilization of deep-sea bio-resources will be the main focus. This component will support the Blue Economy priority area of Marine Fisheries and allied services. Deep Ocean Survey and Exploration: The primary objective of this component is to explore and identify potential sites of multi-metal Hydrothermal Sulphides mineralization along the Indian Ocean mid-oceanic ridges. This component will additionally support the Blue Economy priority area of deep-sea exploration of ocean resources.
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Energy and freshwater from the Ocean: Studies and detailed engineering design for offshore Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC) powered desalination plant are envisaged in this proof-of-concept proposal. This component will support the Blue Economy priority area of off-shore energy development. Advanced Marine Station for Ocean Biology. This component is aimed as development of human capacity and enterprise in ocean biology and engineering. This component will translate research into industrial application and product development through on-site business incubator facilities. This component will support the Blue Economy priority area of Marine Biology, Blue trade and blue manufacturing. The technologies required for deep sea mining have strategic implications and are not commercially available. Hence, attempts will be made to indigenise technologies by collaborating with leading institutes and private industries. Link: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1727525 Q22. Composite Regional Centres (CRCs) has been set up in India for: a. Developing infrastructure for Artificial Intelligence, IoT in rural areas b. Facilitation of Interest Subvention Scheme for MSMEs. c. For Skill Development, Rehabilitation and Employment of Persons with Disabilities d. Tobacco Rehabilitation Centres for Age Group 18-60 years. Solution: c Explanation: The Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment inaugurated the “Composite Regional Centre (CRC) for Skill Development, Rehabilitation and Employment of Persons with Disabilities (PwDs). CRCs have been established in many States and they all are working for skill development, rehabilitation and providing employment to the Persons with Disabilities. Link: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1632133#:~:text=The%20Union%20Minister%2 0of%20Social,inside%20Namkum%20Block%20Office%2C%20Khijri%2C Q23. Global Competitiveness Index is a publication of: a. International Monetary Fund b. World Economic Forum c. Institute for Management Development (IMD) d. World Trade Organization
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Solution: b Explanation: It is a publication of World Economic Forum. One more index recently released: World Competitiveness Index, compiled by Institute for Management Development (IMD). Q24. Consider the following statements regarding Land Degradation Neutrality (LDN) Programme. 1. It was adopted by UNEP aims to combat desertification and achieve a land degradation-neutral world. 2. India is a part of this Programme. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: b Explanation: First statement is incorrect as it is United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD). Through the Land Degradation Neutrality (LDN) Target Setting Programme, the Global Mechanism (GM) and the secretariat of the UNCCD, in collaboration with multiple international partners, are supporting interested countries with their national LDN target setting process, including setting national baselines, targets and associated measures to achieve LDN. Second statement is correct: To date, over 120 countries have committed to setting LDN targets. India is one of those countries.
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Just for reference, in 2019 India has announced restoration targets:
Q25. Which of the following state shares boundary with only one India state and only one neighbouring country?
a. Sikkim b. Meghalaya c. Nagaland d. Mizoram
Solution: b
Explanation:
See, here only two states share boundary with one Indian state: Sikkim and Meghalaya
Sikkim shares boundary with only West Bengal. Meghalaya shares boundary with only Assam.
Now, Sikkim shares boundary with Nepal, Bhutan and China. Meghalaya shares boundary only with Bangladesh.
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So, Meghalaya is correct (one Indian state and one neighbouring country)
Q26. Which of the following are the sources of Aerosols in atmosphere? 1. Sea Salt particle 2. Sulphur Cycle 3. Soil Dusts 4. Ocean Phytoplankton Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 2 and 3 only b. 2 and 4 only c. 2, 3 and 4 only d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Solution: d Explanation: An aerosol is a suspension of fine solid particles or liquid droplets in air or another gas. Aerosols can be natural or anthropogenic. Aerosols influence the planetary radiation balance directly by scattering and absorbing sunlight, and indirectly by modifying cloud microphysical properties. Marine aerosols are particularly
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QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JUNE PART 2 important, as they contribute considerably to the global aerosol load, are emitted from a large surface area, and have an ability to strongly influence reflective properties and lifetime of marine stratiform clouds. Because approximately 75% of the Earth's surface is ocean, sea salt is the biggest contributor. Another natural source of primary aerosol is soil dust, generated primarily through wind action in arid regions. Soil dust particles consist of mineral materials. Ocean Phytoplankton: ocean - phytoplankton produce dimethylsulphide (DMS) - DMS forms SO2 in atmosphere which in turn produces sulfate aerosols One mission related to this: The North Atlantic Aerosols and Marine Ecosystems Study (NAAMES) of NASA is an interdisciplinary investigation to improve understanding of Earth's ocean ecosystem-aerosol-cloud system. Specific overarching science objectives for NAAMES are to A. characterize plankton ecosystem properties during primary phases of the annual cycle and their dependence on environmental forcing, B. determine how these phases interact to recreate each year the conditions for an annual plankton bloom, and C. resolve how remote marine aerosols and boundary layer clouds are influenced by plankton ecosystems. Something more to read:
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Q27. The power to legislate on all matters relating to elections to Panchayats lies with: a. the Parliament of India b. the State Legislatures c. the State Election Commission d. the Election Commission of India Solution: b Explanation: The Election Commission of India conducts election of state assemblies, Parliament, president and Vice President. The parliament has passed 73rd Constitutional amendment, wherein The State legislature can enact law related to Panchayat elections. And according to those laws, the State Election Commission conducts elections to Panchayat.
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Q28. Consider the following statements regarding Economy of Sangam Age. 1. Spinning and weaving of cotton and silk clothes attained a high quality during this period. 2. Externa Trade was completely banned during Sangam age, whereas internal trade follows barter system. 3. Due to large parts of land under this age was infertile, agriculture was not practiced. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 2 only d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: a Explanation: First statement is correct.
Second statement is incorrect.
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Third statement is incorrect.
Q29. Which of the following are most possible actions can be taken by the Government to reduce the deficit budget in India? 1. Remove all welfare schemes 2. Rationalizing subsidies 3. Increase tax rate 4. Reducing import duty Select the correct code. a. 1, 2 and 3 only b. 2, 3 and 4 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1 and 4 only Solution: c Explanation: If you read question properly, there is a word: “possible actions”.
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Remove all welfare schemes in India is not possible. India has lot of population under poverty. To remove all schemes is not an inclusive growth. So, we can eliminate it. Rationalizing subsidies will work. This is correct. Increasing Tax rate is also a possible action. As we have seen increment in tax slabs in past few years. This is correct. Fourth is incorrect. It won’t increase income of government. Concept: to reduce deficit, we’ve to increase income and reduce Expenditure. Q30. Raimona National Park is in: a. Assam b. Odisha c. West Bengal d. Bihar Solution: a Explanation: Assam is right answer. Q31. With respect to higher education in India, consider the following statements regarding Gross enrollment Ratio. 1. GER for male has improved, while female’s GER shows a decline in recent few years. 2. The Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in Higher education in India highest in Kerala. 3. The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 aims to increase the total GER (including vocational education) to 50% by 2035. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: C Explanation: The access to higher education has increased over the years, from 21.5% in 2012-13 to 27.1% in 2019-20, according to the All-India Survey on Higher Education Survey (AISHE). First statement is incorrect.
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GER for male population has improved from 22.7% (in 2012-13) to 26.9% (2019-20) and for female population from 20.1% (in 2012-12) to 27.3% (in 2019-20).
Also, you can see female’s GER is higher than male. Second statement is incorrect.
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The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 aims to increase the total GER (including vocational education) to 50% by 2035. Third statement is correct.
Q32. With respect to school education in India, NISHTHA programmes aims to: a. To implement Skill Development courses in all primary and secondary schools GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 35
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b. To translate the goals of National policy on Education and Empowerment of women in rural areas particularly of women from socially and economically marginalized groups. c. improving Quality of School Education through Integrated Teacher Training d. Strengthening for providing quality Education in Madrassas Solution: c Explanation: NISHTHA is a capacity building programme for "Improving Quality of School Education through Integrated Teacher Training". It aims to build competencies among all the teachers and school principals at the elementary stage. The functionaries (at the state, district, block, cluster level) shall be trained in an integrated manner on learning outcomes, school-based assessment, learner – centred pedagogy, new initiatives in education, addressing diverse needs of children through multiple pedagogies, etc. Link: https://itpd.ncert.gov.in/mod/page/view.php?id=504 Q33. With reference to ‘Quality Council of India (QCI)’, consider the following statements: 1. QCI was set up jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry. 2. Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendations of the industry to the Government. 3. It aims to develop, establish and operate National Accreditation Programmes for various service sectors such as education, healthcare. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: d Explanation: First statement is correct: The Quality Council of India, an autonomous body set up by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government of India jointly with the Indian Industry represented by the three premier industry associations i.e., Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India (ASSOCHAM), Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) and Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI), to establish and operate national accreditation structure and promote quality through National Quality Campaign.
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Second statement is correct. QCI is governed by a Council comprising of 38 members including the Chairperson and Secretary General. The Council has an equal representation of Government, Industry and other Stakeholders. The composition of the Council is: - Chairperson (Nominated by Prime Minister of India) Third statement is correct: Go to this link (click) and read once all the objectives of QCI. Q34. India has Strategic Clean Energy Partnership (SCEP) with which of the following nations? a. US b. Germany c. Norway d. France Solution: a Explanation: India’s Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), United States Department of Energy (DOE), and the US India Strategic Partnership Forum (USISPF), together launched a US-India Hydrogen Task Force. This is under the aegis of the US-India Strategic Clean Energy Partnership (SCEP). The partnership (SCEP) will leverage India’s landmass and green energy sources for exporting green hydrogen as one of the measures for gaining energy sufficiency for the country, as per a draft proposal circulated by the Ministry of New and Renewable energy (MNRE) for the proposed National Energy Mission. India and the US started the Strategic Energy Partnership in New Delhi in April 2018. Four working groups have been formed under the Strategic Energy Partnership — power and energy efficiency, oil and gas, sustainable development and renewable energy.
Q35. Consider the following Nations.
1. Turkmenistan 2. Syria 3. Pakistan 4. Afghanistan Which of the above nations share boundaries with Iran? GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 37
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a. 2 and 3 only b. 1, 2 and 4 only c. 1, 3 and 4 only d. 4 only Solution: c
Explanation:
There are seven countries that Iran shares this long land border with. These countries are Iraq, Turkmenistan, Afghanistan, Pakistan, Turkey, Armenia, and Azerbaijan. Of these countries, Turkmenistan shares the longest border with Iran.
Q36. Consider the following statements. 1. Procedure for the election of President is provided in RPA Act, 1951. 2. The notification calling the election to the office of the President can be issued by the Election Commission within the period of sixty days before the expiry of the term of office of the outgoing President. 3. One of the qualifications for the election of President is that he must have completed 30 years of age. Select the correct code. a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 2 only d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: c GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 38
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Explanation: Third statement is very easy. By elimination, a and c will be left. Now all depends on First statement.
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Q37. Consider the following statements. 1. The Prime Minister who served for longest continuous term is Indira Gandhi. 2. Leader of the Opposition” was defined by Salaries and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977. 3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognized as the Leader of the Opposition. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 only d. 2 and 3 only Solution: c Explanation: First statement is incorrect: Its Jawahar Lal Nehru.
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Second statement is correct: We have given solution, but agar aapko ye ni bhi pta phir bhi aap easily solve kr lete. The leader of the opposition in the houses of Indian parliament is a statutory post. This post is defined in the Salaries and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977 as simply the leader of the numerically biggest party in opposition to the government and recognised as such by the speaker/chairman:
Third statement is incorrect: In each House of Parliament, there is the ‘Leader of the Opposition’. The leader of the largest Opposition party having not less than one-tenth seats of the total strength of the House is recognised as the leader of the Opposition in that House. maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is fixed at 552 so minimum 10% doesn’t translate to 75 in any case Similar question asked by UPSC:
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If you know third statement here, you can easily solve UPSC question given above. Q38. Consider the following statements. 1. Dvaita Vedanta (dualistic conclusions of the Vedas) school of philosophy was founded by Ramanujacharya. 2. This school considered Vishnu being the supreme Self, God, the absolute truth of the universe. Select the correct code. a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: b Explanation: For different schools of Philosophy, go through the document attached below:
Link: http://164.100.133.129:81/econtent/Uploads/Indian_Philosophy.pdf Q39. World Investment Report 2021 is a publication of: a. WEF b. UNCTAD c. WTO d. IMF Solution: b
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Explanation: As per UN report, India received USD 64 billion in foreign direct investments (FDI) in 2020. It has emerged the fifth largest recipient of FDI inflows across the world. “World Investment Report 2021” was released by UN Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD). Q40. Vishnudharmottara Purana, Citralaksana, Silparatna are the texts belongs to: a. Music b. Dances c. Paintings d. Puppetry Solution: c Explanation:
Q41. Consider the following statements. 1. Amalgamation of DCCBs with the State Co-operative Bank can be done by State Governments without approval of RBI. 2. One of the important functions of State Co-operative Banks (StCBs) is to provide liquidity and technical assistance to DCCBs and Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS).
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Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: b Explanation: Seeing these difficult terms, don’t loose hope. Face such questions. Ok, see one example from 2020 Prelims question:
In very simple terms, these statements are written under RBI website. But itni mehnat kaun kare. We are trying. A similar response we need from your side. First statement is incorrect:
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Amalgamations of the above banks have to be sanctioned by Reserve Bank of India in terms of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949. Recently, it was in news.
Second statement is correct: State Co-operative Banks (StCBs), the apex institutions in the short-term rural co-operative structure, mobilise deposits and provide liquidity and technical assistance to DCCBs and PACS. StCBs also mobilise refinance support from higher refinancing institutions like the NABARD for supporting the crop loan needs of affiliated DCCBs and PACS. Over time, StCBs have diversified their operations towards providing medium-term loans for investments in agriculture in particular, and the rural sector, in general. Similarly, District central co-operative banks (DCCBs) - the intermediate tier in the short-term rural co-operatives structure-mobilise deposits from the public and provide credit to them as well as to PACS. Now, see second statement of UPSC question. It’s easy. Q42. Which of the following is/are objectives of Model Tenancy Act, 2021? 1. To establish Rent Authority to regulate renting of premises 2. To protect the interests of landlords and tenants 3. To provide a speedy adjudication mechanism for the resolution of disputes Select the correct code. a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: d Explanation: Important here is you will always read objective of any Act. It is very important to know the motive of any Act or scheme. See below:
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Link: http://mohua.gov.in/upload/uploadfiles/files/Model-Tenancy-Act-English-02_06_2021.pdf
Q43. Fly Ash is used in which of the following? 1. Portland cement concrete pavement 2. Geo-polymer coarse aggregates 3. road/ flyover embankments construction. Select the correct code. a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: d Explanation: All are correct options.
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In the midst of the deadly second wave of COVID-19, the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change sought public comments on its draft Fly Ash Notification 2021. June 21, marks the last day on which people may submit their comments on the draft. We will wait for updates. Q44. Consider the following statements regarding Environment Protection Act, 1986. 1. The Act empowers the Government of India to lay down procedures and safeguards for the handling of hazardous substances. 2. If an offence is committed under EPA Act as well as under any other Act, the offender will be liable to be punished under the other Act, not under EPA. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: c Explanation: Under section 3 of EPA, 1986,
Now, if you relate first statement with UPSC Prelims question:
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Second statement of UPSC question was directly from the Act. See image given above. Second statement is correct: This is biggest flaw in EPA, 1986. That’s why we took this statement. EPA 1986 is a comparatively weak Act, thanks to its Section 24. This section states specifically that if an offence is committed under this Act as well as under any other Act, the offender will be liable to be punished under the other Act, not under EPA.
Q45. If you travel from Uttar Pradesh to Andhra Pradesh, what is the minimum number of states you need to cross between two states?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 Solution: a
Explanation:
One needs to cross one state between Uttar Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh.
Uttar Pradesh-Chhattisgarh-Andhra Pradesh
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Q46. SVAMITVA Scheme aims to: a. to empower Street Vendors by providing a collateral-free loan b. to enable citizens of rural India to use their property as a financial asset for taking loans and other financial benefits. c. To provide loan social security benefits to Anganwadi and Self-Help groups d. To facilitate education in rural areas. Solution: b Explanation: SVAMITVA Scheme is a Central Sector scheme launched by Hon’ble Prime Minister of India on National Panchayat Day i.e., 24th April 2020. The Ministry of Panchayati Raj is the Nodal Ministry for implementation of the scheme. The scheme seeks to achieve the following objectives: -
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• To bring financial stability to the citizens in rural India by enabling them to use their property as a financial asset for taking loans and other financial benefits. • Creation of accurate land records for rural planning. • Determination of property tax, which would accrue to the GPs directly in States where it is devolved or else, add to the State exchequer. • Creation of survey infrastructure and GIS maps that can be leveraged by any department for their use. • To support in preparation of better-quality Gram Panchayat Development Plan (GPDP) by making use of GIS maps. • To reduce property related disputes and legal cases Q47. With reference to the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
1. The President is authorized to dissolve the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha at any time even before the completion of five years. 2. The term of the Lok Sabha can be extended during the period of national emergency by a law of the Parliament for two years at a time. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: d
Explanation:
Statement (1) is not correct:
The Council of States shall not be subject to dissolution, but as nearly as possible one-third of the members thereof shall retire as soon as may be on the expiration of every second year in accordance with the provisions made in that behalf by Parliament by law.
The Lok Sabha’s normal term is five years from the date of its first meeting after the general elections, after which it automatically dissolves. However, the President is authorized to dissolve the Lok Sabha at any time even before the completion of five years.
Statement (2) is incorrect:
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The term of the Lok Sabha can be extended during the period of national emergency by a law of the Parliament for one year at a time for any length of time. However, this extension cannot continue beyond a period of six months after the emergency has ceased to operate.
Q48. Parliamentary proceedings include introduction and discussion on various bills, debates on important public issues, questions raised by the members of parliament and the responses provided by the government etc. While responding to the questions asked in the house and during debates, the government on various occasions makes undertakings, promises to consider, take action or furnish information on a later date. To ensure that these undertakings are implemented within a reasonable timeframe, the Parliament Houses constitute which of the following committee? a. Rules Committee b. Business Advisory Committee c. Committee on Government Assurances d. Committee on Subordinate Legislation Solution: c Explanation: We are trying here to take your time. So, be careful in such questions. Be fast. The answer is Committee on Government Assurances. The business conducted on the floor of both the houses of parliament is a key aspect of our democracy. Parliamentary proceedings include introduction and discussion on various bills, debates on important public issues, questions raised by the members of parliament and the responses provided by the government etc. While responding to the questions asked in the house and during debates, the government on various occasions makes assurances, undertakings, promises to consider, take action or furnish information on a later date. Such responses by the Government are termed as “Assurances” in parliamentary parlance.
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To ensure that these assurances are implemented within a reasonable timeframe, both the Lok Sabha & the Rajya Sabha have constituted – ‘Committee on Government Assurances’. Q49. The Abhinaya Darpana by Nandikesvara is one of the main sources of textual material, for the study of the technique and grammar of body movement of which dance form?
a. Bharatanatyam b. Kuchipudi c. Sattriya Dance d. Kathak Solution: a
Explanation:
Q50. Which of the following provide information about the Earth’s interior?
1. Volcanic eruptions 2. Meteorites 3. Seismic activities 4. Deep ocean drilling projects Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1, 2 and 3 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 2, 3 and 4 only d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Solution: d
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Explanation:
Nothing much explanation needed. Just information.
The various sources of information about the Earth's interior can be classified into direct and indirect sources.
Direct sources include:
a. Study of surface rock or the rocks - from mining areas b. Deep Ocean Drilling Projects c. Volcanic eruption Indirect sources include:
a. Analysis of properties of matter indirectly provides information about the interior. b. Meteorites c. Gravitation d. Magnetic field, and e. Seismic activity
Q51. With respect to Rubber cultivation, consider the following statements. 1. Rubber tree basically grows up to 30-meter height and begins yielding latex in 6 to 7 years age. 2. The rubber plantation requires heavy and well distributed rainfall of 200 cm to 300 cm having humidity about 75%. 3. North Eastern states are major rubber producing states in India. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: d Explanation: First statement is correct: Basically, rubber is an elastic solid material retrieved from latex of many tropical trees. Rubber tree basically grows up to 30-meter height and begins yielding latex @ 6 to 7 years age.
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The latex is a sticky, milky colloid drawn off by making incisions into the bark and collecting the fluid in vessels in a process called "tapping". The latex then is refined into rubber ready for commercial processing.
Climatic condition for Rubber Farming: Second statement is correct. The rubber plantation requires heavy and well distributed rainfall of 200 cm to 300 cm having humidity about 75%. The best growing temperatures for rubber plant is from 20°C to 35°C. Freezing temperatures will halt the temperatures for rubber plant is from 20°C to 35°C. Freezing temperatures will halt the growth of rubber plants and strong wind areas are not suitable for rubber farming. This plantation requires at least 5 to 6 hours of sunlight. Soil for Rubber Farming Rubber Plants require highly deep weathered soils which consist of laterite and lateritic soils. They grow best in well drained porous soils with moderate acidic in nature. However, rubber plant also thrives in red alluvial soils, if there is a good organic matter in the soil. The soil pH of 5.0 to 6.0 is best for rubber cultivation. For good aeration and root growth, water table should be below at least 1 meter depth in the soil. Third statement is also correct. Kerala is the largest producer followed by Tripura.
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The Department of Commerce brought out the National Rubber Policy in March 2019. The National Rubber Policy includes several provisions to support the Natural Rubber (NR) production sector and the entire rubber industry value chain. The Policy covers new planting and replanting of rubber, support for growers, processing and marketing of natural rubber, labour shortage, grower forums, external trade, Centre-State integrated strategies, research, training, rubber product manufacturing and export, climate change concerns and carbon market.
Q52. Thai sacbrood virus (TSBV) recently seen in news in India is affecting: a. Banana Plant b. Cotton Cultivation c. Honey Bee colonies d. Sugarcane planation Solution: c Explanation: Thai Sacbrood, a viral disease affecting honey bee colonies, has resurfaced in southern India. The disease, which has been dormant in the southern states for some years, is back and impacting the population of bees especially of the Apis cerana species (Apis cerana or the Asian honey bee is one of the most domesticated species of honey bees in India).
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This, in turn, can have far-reaching consequences for human life that is indirectly or directly dependent on honey bees. What is Thai sacbrood virus? Thai sacbrood virus (TSBV) is a variant of sacbrood virus (SBV), a viral disease affecting honey bee colonies. TSBV disease was first observed in Thailand in 1976. In 1991-92, there was an outbreak of the virus in India which resulted in the destruction of more than 90 percent of the then-existing bee colonies in south India. The disease kills bees when they are larvae, thereby reducing the population of bee colonies. Q53. With respect to Community Reserves in India, consider the following statements. 1. They were first introduced by Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. 2. Community reserve management committee, whose members nominated by village Panchayats are responsible for conserving, maintaining and managing the community reserve. 3. More than 60 percent of the community reserves are located in North Eastern region of India. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 3 only d. 1 and 3 only Solution: b Explanation: First statement is incorrect: These protected area categories were first introduced in the Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act of 2002 − the amendment to the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972.
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Second statement is correct:
Third statement is correct: There are 214 existing Community Reserves in India covering an area of 1302 km2, which is 0.04% of the geographical area of the country (National Wildlife Database, Dec. 2020).
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Q54. With respect to recent development in Hydrogen Energy in India, consider the following statements. 1. The Union Budget for 2021-22 has announced a National Hydrogen Energy Mission that will draw up a road map for using hydrogen as an energy source. 2. Recently, the US-India hydrogen taskforce was launched under the aegis of US-India Strategic Clean Energy Partnership. 3. India recently hosted first BRICS Green Hydrogen Summit. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: d Explanation: All statements are correct. No need to explain. But remember these points for Mains. You can directly use. Q55. Consider the following Seas.
1. Black Sea 2. Aegean Sea 3. Caspian Sea 4. Adriatic Sea To which of the above given Seas, does Turkey forms border with? a. 1 and 4 only b. 3 and 4 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1 and 2 only Solution: d
Explanation:
Turkey shares boundaries with Black Sea, Aegean Sea and Mediterranean Sea.
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Q56. Consider the following statements with respect to the duration of the Houses of Parliament: 1. The Constitution has fixed the term of office for members of the Upper house. 2. The term of Lower House is of five years from the date of declaration of results. Which of the statements given above are not correct? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c Explanation: The Constitution chas not fixed the term of office of members of the Rajya Sabha and left it to the Parliament. Accordingly, the Parliament in the Representation of Peoples Act 1951 provided that the term of office of a member of Raya Sabha shall be 6 years. So, statement 1 is not correct. The normal term of Lok Sabha is five years from the date of its first meeting after the general elections, after which it automatically dissolves. So, statement 2 is not correct. Q57. In the context of “Right to Freedom of Religion”, consider the following statements: 1. Only citizens of India are entitled to profess, practice and propagate religion in India. 2. The State cannot constitutionally restrict any secular activities associated with religious practices.
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Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: c Explanation: Article 25 of the constitution which entails the Freedom of Conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion states that all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice and propagate religion. Hence both the Indian citizen and foreigner are empowered to freely profess, practice and propagate religion. So, statement 1 is not correct. It is constitutionally stated that Article 25 covers not only religious beliefs (doctrines) but also religious practices (rituals). However, rights under Article 25 are subject to public order, morality, health and other provisions relating to fundamental rights. Further, the State is permitted to regulate or restrict any economic, financial, political or other secular activity associated with religious practice. And provide for social welfare and reform or throw open Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus. So, statement 2 is not correct. Therefore, the answer is c. Q58. Temple building activity gained momentum during the Vijayanagar rule. Which of these was/were some of chief characteristics of the Vijayanagar temple architecture? 1. Temples were made without mandapams to accommodate greater number of people in the premises. 2. Horse was the most common animal found in the pillars of these temples. Which of the above is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: b Explanation: Statement 1: The chief characteristics of the Vijayanagar architecture were the construction of tall Raya Gopurams or gateways and the Kalyan mandapam with carved pillars in the temple premises.
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The sculptures on the pillars were carved with distinctive features. Large mandapams contain one hundred pillars as well as one thousand pillars in some big temples. Statement 2: The horse was the most common animal found in these pillars. These mandapams were used for seating the deity on festival occasions. Also, many Amman shrines were added to the already existing temples during this period. The Amman shrine is a subsidiary temple, enshrining the consort of the chief deity of the garbhagriha.
Q59. Which of the following statements indicates that GDP is not as an appropriate indicator of welfare?
1. An armaments industry contributes most of its GDP. 2. Growth in GDP may be concentrated in the hands of few individuals. 3. Ranking in Human Development Index is poor. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: d
Explanation:
Statement 1: Since GDP measures the value of all finished goods and services within an economy, it also includes products that may have negative effects on social welfare. Think of a country with an extremely strong armaments industry that represents most of its GDP. If the arms are sold and used within the country itself, overall social welfare will most likely decrease. SO, GOOD GDP DOESN’T MEAN WELFRE STATE.
Statement 2: If there is a high degree of inequality when it comes to income distribution, the majority of people do not really benefit from an increased economic output because they cannot afford to buy most of the goods and services. Thus, to accurately describe social welfare it is essential to consider income distribution.
Statement 3: It doesn’t matter how big is GDP. But if HDI index is low it means no welfare.
Q60. Pench National Park is shared between which of the following states?
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a. Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh b. Chhattisgarh and Odisha c. Maharashtra and Chhattisgarh d. Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh Solution: d Explanation: Pench National Park is shared between Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh.
Q61. With respect to India, consider the following statements. 1. The role of voters should be majorly to elected government which forms majority in the Parliament. 2. Voters are solely responsible for the weak opposition in country. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: d Explanation: First statement is incorrect: The role of the voters is not only to elect the government, but also the opposition. However, in most parliamentary democracies including India, the focus is on electing the government and the latter responsibility is completely ignored. This has had both political as well as administrative implications. Politically, this has led to a shift towards majoritarianism and administratively ineffective governance has remained unaccountable. As mechanisms of accountability, no-confidence motion and parliamentary committees lose strength and relevance in the legislature without strong opposition. It allows the executive to stretch its powers without the fear of any limits. Second statement is incorrect: Voters are not solely responsible for the weak opposition in country. Ideological differences, lack of vision, lack of leadership, poor development activities all contributes to weak opposition.
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Q62. Consider the following statements. 1. During 8th Five Year Plan, solar was discussed first time in India. 2. The solar power tariffs are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India. 3. Indian solar industry relies heavily on imports of important components such as solar cells, modules and solar inverters, mostly from China. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 3 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1 only Solution: a Explanation:
First statement is incorrect:
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Tariffs are determined under the Electricity Act. Second statement is incorrect. Third statement is correct: The Indian solar industry relies heavily on imports of important components such as solar cells, modules and solar inverters. Currently, India’s annual installed solar photovoltaic (PV) manufacturing capacity is 3 GW for solar PV cells, 10-15 GW for solar PV modules, 5 GW for solar inverters while we have no manufacturing capacity for “polysilicon/wafer/ingots”, another critical component in case of solar power systems.
Mostly from China:
Q63. Consider the following statements. 1. A litigant cannot seek recusal of a judge from hearing his/her case on the ground that he/she may not get a favorable order. 2. There are no written rules on the recusal of judges from hearing cases, It is left to the discretion of a judge. GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 64
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Which of the above statement is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: c Explanation: Recusal is "removal of oneself as a judge or policy maker in a particular matter, especially because of a conflict of interest. " What are the rules on recusals? There are no written rules on the recusal of judges from hearing cases listed before them in constitutional courts. It is left to the discretion of a judge. The reasons for recusal are not disclosed in an order of the court. Some judges orally convey to the lawyers involved in the case their reasons for recusal, many do not. Some explain the reasons in their order. The decision rests on the conscience of the judge. Also, in taking oath of office, judges, both of the Supreme Court and of the high courts, promise to perform their duties, to deliver justice, “without fear or favour, affection or ill-will”. Litigant cannot seek recusal of a judge from hearing his/her case on the ground that he/she may not get a favorable order.
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Q64. North Sea region borders: 1. Great Britain (Scotland and England). 2. Germany 3. Denmark 4. Norway Select the correct code. a. 1 and 4 only b. 1, 2 and 4 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Solution: d Explanation: The North Sea region borders some of the strongest economies in Europe. To the west of the sea is Great Britain (Scotland and England). The Northern and Central European countries such as Germany, Belgium, Denmark, the Netherlands, and Norway bound the sea to the east and west.
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Q65. Which of the following organization recently announced that “our world must not only become net zero, but also nature positive, for the benefit of both people and the planet?” a. G-20 b. G-7 c. BRICS d. European Union Solution: b Explanation: G7 leaders recently announced that “our world must not only become net zero, but also nature positive, for the benefit of both people and the planet”
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QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JUNE PART 2 for the benefit of both people and the planet, with a focus on promoting sustainable and inclusive development. Nature, and the biodiversity that underpins it, ultimately sustains our economies, livelihoods and well-being – our decisions must take into account the true value of the goods and services we derive from it. The lives and livelihoods of today’s youth and future generations rely on this. Q66. Consider the following statements regarding Indus Water Treaty. 1. The pact was signed between India and Pakistan by the then Indian Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru. 2. All rivers under Pakistan control under this treaty originates from Tibet, China. 3. Indus Water Treaty was brokered by World Bank. Select the correct code. a. 1 and 2 only b. 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: c Explanation: The Indus Waters Treaty is one of the most liberal water distribution agreements between the two countries. The pact was signed between India and Pakistan in September 1960 in Karachi by the then Indian Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru and Pakistan President Ayub Khan. In the year 1960, India and Pakistan signed a water distribution agreement -- came to be known as Indus Waters Treaty, which was orchestrated by the World Bank. This agreement took nine years of negotiations and divides the control of six rivers between the two nations once signed. Under this treaty, India got control over: a. Beas b. Ravi c. Sutlej While Pakistan got control over: a. Indus b. Chenab c. Jhelum While Chenab and Jhelum originate from India, Indus originates from China, making its way to Pakistan via India. Second statement is wrong.
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Q67. A real estate agent resells a house to a person at a commission in India. Which part of this transaction will be included in the calculation of GDP of India?
a. The whole amount of the transaction b. Only the cost of the house excluding the commission c. Only the amount of the commission paid to the agent d. No amount will be included as it is just a resale. Solution: c
Explanation:
In this question, there is resale of the house which has already been possessed by someone else. Therefore, it has been included in the earlier GDP calculation and recounting it will lead to double counting. However, the amount of commission earned by the agent is the result of his/her services being rendered. Therefore, only the amount of services provided by the agent will be included in the GDP of India.
Option a is incorrect as the whole amount cannot be included again.
Option b is incorrect as the cost of the house has to be excluded.
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Option c is correct as only the amount of the new service created will be included.
Option d is incorrect as the commission amount has to be included in the calculation of GDP.
Q68. Consider the following bodies.
1. Municipalities 2. Rajya Sabha 3. Legislative Council 4. Lok Sabha Which of the above bodies has/have the provision of reservation of seats for SC/ST?
a. 2, 3 and 4 only b. 4 only c. 1, 3 and 4 only d. 1 and 4 only Solution: d:
Explanation:
Article 334 provides that seats should be reserved for SC/STs in Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabhas. This same article also ensures that Anglo-Indians too get representation in these bodies.
There ’s no reservation for Rajya Sabha and State Legislative Council.
In Panchayats and Municipalities, there is a provision for reservation of SC/ST. See below for Municipalities.
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Q69. In the context of Indian Constitution, consider the following provisions.
1. The national Language of India shall be Hindi in Devanagari script. 2. The Constitution has given discretion to President to direct the states to recognize any language as official language of state, if spoken by substantial population of that state. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: b
Explanation:
The Constitution has said India is official language, not national language.
Article 347 states: ON demand being made in that behalf the President may, if he is satisfied that a substantial proportion of the population of a State desire the use of any language spoken
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QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JUNE PART 2 by them to be recognized throughout that State, direct that the such language shall also be officially recognized throughout that state or any part.
Q70. Dehing Patkai National Park is in: a. Assam b. Sikkim c. Manipur d. Mizoram Solution: a Explanation: Assam… Everyone knows. Hope you learned new things today. Q71. Consider the following statements. 1. In case of shortfall in achieving priority sector targets by banks, target of Prior Sector Lending (PSL) will increase for the next fiscal year as decided by RBI. 2. For last two consecutive years, PSL targets are not achieved by Public Sector banks. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: d Explanation: First statement is incorrect: Non-achievement of Priority Sector targets
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Banks having any shortfall in lending to priority sector shall be allocated amounts for contribution to the Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) established with NABARD and other funds with NABARD/NHB/SIDBI/ MUDRA Ltd., as decided by the Reserve Bank from time to time. With effect from March 31, 2021, all UCBs (excluding those under all-inclusive directions) will be required to contribute to Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) established with NABARD and other funds with NABARD / NHB / SIDBI / MUDRA Ltd., against their priority sector lending (PSL) shortfall vis-à-vis the prescribed target. Second statement is incorrect:
Q72. Consider the following statements regarding Payment and Settlement Systems Act. 1. Reserve Bank of India is the authority to regulate this Act. 2. NBFC do not form part of the payment and settlement system. 3. As per the Act, foreign entities are not allowed to operate a payment system in India. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 only
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d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: a Explanation: First statement is correct: The PSS Act, 2007 provides for the regulation and supervision of payment systems in India and designates the Reserve Bank of India (Reserve Bank) as the authority for that purpose and all related matters. The Reserve Bank is authorized under the Act to constitute a Committee of its Central Board known as the Board for Regulation and Supervision of Payment and Settlement Systems (BPSS), to exercise its powers and perform its functions and discharge its duties under this statute. Second statement is correct: NBFCs lend and make investments and hence their activities are akin to that of banks; however, there are a few differences as given below: a. NBFC cannot accept demand deposits; b. NBFCs do not form part of the payment and settlement system and cannot issue cheques drawn on itself; c. deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation is not available to depositors of NBFCs, unlike in case of banks. Third statement is incorrect: Are foreign entities allowed to operate a payment system in India? Yes. The PSS Act 2007 does not prohibit foreign entities from operating a payment system in India and the Act does not discriminate/differentiate between foreign entities and domestic entities. Q73. With respect to Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, consider the following statements. 1. The Act has empowered state governments to make rules to prevent illegal mining, transportation and storage of minerals. 2. It empowers state government to regulate excavation or collection of minerals from any mine. 3. The Act authorize Central Government to appoint Geological Survey of India to collect the precise information with respect to any mineral. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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a. 1 and 3 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 only d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: a Explanation: First statement is correct: Section 23 C of MMDR, Act 1957 empowered the State Government to make rules for preventing illegal mining, transportation and storage of minerals.
Second statement is incorrect:
Third statement is correct:
Q74. Consider the following Pairs.
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Initiatives/programme 1. Kaval Plus programme Kerala 2. SALT Programme Andhra Pradesh
Which of the above pairs is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: c Explanation:
By which state Initiatives/programme 1. Kaval Plus programme Kerala 2. SALT Programme Andhra Pradesh
SALT programme was launched with the aim of improving learning outcomes, quality of teaching practices and school management in basic education. This aim would be achieved by transforming government schools into vibrant and competitive institutions. nternational Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) has sanctioned funds of Rs 1,860 crore to implementation of SALT programme. Department of Women & Child Development in Kerala has decided to expand Kaval Plus programme to five districts, after the success of this pilot project in two districts of Kerala. It is an ambitious programme to lend holistic support to children in need of care & protection and to the survivors of sexual abuse. Q75. Consider the following Seas. 1. Aral Sea. 2. Red Sea 3. Caspian Sea. Arrange the above seas from west to east. a. 3-2-1 b. 2-3-1 c. 2-1-3 d. 3-1-2
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Solution: b Explanation:
Q76. A regulatory framework for the approval of Genetically Modified (GM) Crops is established under which of the following Acts?
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a. The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 b. The Forest (Conservation)Act, 1980 c. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 d. The Biological Diversity Act, 2002 Answer: c
Explanation:
A Genetically Modified (GM) or transgenic crop is a plant that has a novel combination of genetic material obtained through the use of modern biotechnology. For example, a GM crop can contain a gene(s) that has been artificially inserted instead of the plant acquiring it through pollination. There is a well-established regulatory framework for approval of Genetically Modified (GM) Crops as per “Rules for the Manufacture/Use/Import/Export and Storage of Hazardous Microorganisms, Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells, 1989” under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 in India.
Q77. Consider the following statements.
1. The Indian Constitution has prescribed the maximum age to be eligible to become judge of both Supreme Court and High Court. 2. The ground for the removal of a Supreme Court Judge, in the Indian Constitution, is ‘incapacity’ and ‘proved misbehavior’ only. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: c
Explanation:
First statement is correct:
For SC judge:
Article 124 (2): Every Judge of the Supreme Court shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal after consultation with such of the Judges of the Supreme Court and of the High Courts in the States as the President may deem necessary for the purpose and shall hold office until he attains the age of sixty-five years.
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For High Court:
Through a constitutional amendment. Section 4 of the Constitution (Fifteenth Amendment) Act, 1963, amended the retirement age of a high court judge from the earlier 60 years to 62 years.
As of now, Article 217 of the Constitution reads as:
Second statement is correct:
Article 124 (4) states that:
A Judge of the Supreme Court shall not be removed from his office except by an order of the President passed after an address by each House of Parliament supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting has been presented to the President in the same session for such removal on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
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Q78. Consider the following.
1. Food subsidy 2. Fertilizer subsidy 3. Petroleum subsidy Arrange the above subsidies in highest to lowest allocation by Government.
a. 3-1-2 b. 2-1-3 c. 1-2-3 d. 2-3-1 Solution: c
Explanation:
Q79. In context of the Indian Freedom Struggle, Carlyle Circular is related to which of the following?
a. Non-Cooperation Movement b. Civil Disobedience Movement
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c. Swadeshi Movement d. Quit India Movement Solution: c
Explanation:
When the Indian youth started opposing the western education against partition of Bengal, the then chief secretary of Bengal, Carlyle issued a declaration known as Carlyle Circulation, on 22 October 1905.
According to the Circular - "If any college violates the government order and the student quits the educational institution then no assistance will be provided by the government to the institute." It was termed the declaration of slavery.
Students who were promoting the boycott and swadeshi movement drew upon them the wrath and violence of the British Raj.
Q80. Arrange the below rules in chronological order of their rulling. 1. Rule of Kanishka 2. Rule of Chandragupta 3. Rule of Narasimhavarman I 4. Rule of Pushyamitra Shunga Select the correct code. a. 4-1-2-3 b. 4-2-1-3 c. 4-1-3-2 d. 1-2-3-4 Solution: a Explanation: Pushyamitra Shunga (ruled c. 185 – c. 149 BCE) was the founder and first ruler of the Shunga Empire in East India. He was a follower of Hinduism. Pushyamitra was originally a Senapati "General" of the Maurya Empire. In 185 BCE he assassinated the last Mauryan Emperor, Brihadratha Maurya, during an army review, and proclaimed himself emperor.
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Q81. With respect to India, consider the following statements regarding Special Economic Zones (SEZs). 1. Exports (in term of value) from SEZs has decreased consistently in last five years. 2. Under SEZs, only manufacturing activities are permitted, services are not allowed. 3. Maximum number of operational SEZs are currently established in Tamil Nadu. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 and 2 only
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b. 1 and 3 only c. 3 only d. 2 and 3 only Solution: c Explanation: First statement is incorrect:
Second statement is incorrect: Under the Special Economic Zone Act, 2005 ("the Act") SEZ can be set up either jointly or severally by the Central Government, State Government, or any person (including a private or public limited company, partnership or proprietorship) for the following purposes:
• Manufacture of goods; or • Services to be rendered; or • Both manufacturing of goods and for rendering of services; or • As a Free Trade and Warehousing Sector. Third statement is correct: Important states with SEZs.
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Currently, there are 265 operational SEZs. Q82. Which of the following statements is correct regarding International Solar Alliance? 1. All member states of the United Nations, including those lying beyond the tropics, can also join the International Solar Alliance (ISA) 2. It aims to reduce the cost of finance and the cost of technology, mobilize investments needed for massive deployment of solar energy. 3. ISA is yet to enter into force. Select the correct code. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 only d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: a Explanation: The International Solar Alliance was launched jointly by the Hon’ble Prime Minister of India and the President of France during COP21 in Paris. It aims to contribute to the implementation of the Paris Climate Agreement through rapid and massive deployment of solar energy. First statement is correct: For achieving the universalization of the membership of the International Solar Alliance beyond the Tropics, the First General Assembly of the ISA, held on 3 October 2018, adopted the amendment of the Framework Agreement on the establishment of the International Solar Alliance, to expand the scope of Membership of the ISA to all Member States of the United Nations. After the necessary ratifications/ approvals/ acceptances were obtained from the requisite number of ISA Member countries as mandated by the Framework Agreement of the ISA, the said amendment has entered into force on 8th January 2021.The coming into force of the
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QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JUNE PART 2 amendment of the ISA Framework Agreement allows all the Member States of the United Nations to join the International Solar Alliance, including those lying beyond the Tropics. Second statement is correct: The objective of the ISA is to collectively address key common challenges to the scaling up of solar energy in ISA member countries. It also aims to undertake joint efforts required to reduce the cost of finance and the cost of technology, mobilize investments needed for massive deployment of solar energy, and pave the way for future technologies adapted to the needs. Third statement is incorrect: On receipt of 15 ratifications, the International Solar Alliance (ISA) Framework Agreement entered into force on the 6th December, 2017 thereby making ISA a de jure treaty based international intergovernmental Organisation.
Q83. With respect to coal washing in India, consider the following statements. 1. Coal washing is important because it reduce the ash content in coal. 2. Currently, it is mandated in India to use washed coal in Thermal Power Plants. 3. Washed coal would also provide high grade “coking” coal that is essential for the steel sector. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1 only Solution: c Explanation: First statement is correct. Third statement is correct. Indian coal is known to contain 30-50% ash, meaning that for every two units of coal burned, one unit of ash could be produced. So, a manufacturing or power producing unit has to burn more coal and in turn generate not only ash but also noxious gases, particulate matter and carbon emissions. Coal washeries are units that reduce the ash content in coal through a mix of segregation, blending and washing techniques. These technologies are meant to allow the conservation and optimal use of coal reserves by improving the quality and efficiency of low grade, high ash
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Indian coal. Washery units set up in different locations were also meant to make improved coal available across manufacturing and industrial areas and thus reduce the reliance on long distance transportation of different grades of coal to units that needed them. Most importantly, washed coal would also provide high grade “coking” coal that is essential for the steel sector. Second statement is incorrect: It is not mandatory. According to government coal washing can be handled at Power Plants itself. No need of coal washing before use. The new notification states “The extent of ash content in mined coal remains the same. With washeries, the ash content gets divided at two places (washeries and the power plant), whereas if unwashed coal is used in power plant, the ash content is handled at only one place viz. the power plant”. Q84. Consider the following statements regarding Indian Green Building Council (IGBC). 1. It is a part of the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) aims to facilitate India to be one of the global leaders in the sustainable built environment by 2025. 2. The council also closely works World Green Building Council in promoting green building concepts in the country. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: c Explanation:
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Q85. Consider the following:
1. Lushai Hills; Manipur 2. Barail Range: Northeast India 3. Dafla Hills: Mizoram Select the correct code.
a. 1 and 2 only b. 3 only c. 2 only d. 2 and 3 only Solution: c
Explanation:
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Q86. Controller General of Accounts (CGA) functions under: a. Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance b. Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance c. Department of Financial Services, Ministry of Finance
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d. Cabinet Secretariat Solution: a Explanation: Controller General of Accounts (CGA), in the Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance, is the Principal Accounting Adviser to Government of India and is responsible for establishing and maintaining a technically sound Management Accounting System. Controller General of Accounts derives his mandate from Article 150 of the Constitution. This statutory mandate as incorporated in the Allocation of Business Rules 1961.
Q87. Consider the following statements regarding Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG). 1. The Government of India Act, 1858 paved the way for the appointment of first Auditor General. 2. Powers and duties of the CAG are defined under Constitution. 3. CAG is responsible for the audit of revenue, expenditure, for both Centre and States. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 2 only Solution: d Explanation: First statement is correct:
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The Constitution under Article 149 says, duties and Powers will be decided by the Parliament. Second statement incorrect
The Parliament enacted:
What is there in CAG DPC Act, 1971?
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Any amendment to this Act:
Third statement is correct:
Q88. Consider the following statements.
Belongs to Tradition of 1. Krishnattam Kerala
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2. Bhand Pather Odisha
3. Yakshagana Karnataka
Which of the following pairs is/are correct? a. 1 and 3 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 3 only d. 1 and 2 only Solution: a Explanation:
Belongs to Tradition of Krishnattam Kerala Bhand Pather Kashmir Yakshagana Karnataka
Q89. Which of the following is/are important sources of Carbon Sequestration? 1. Ocean and Forests as sinks 2. Un-mineable Coal Seams 3. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs 4. Deep Saline Formations Select the correct code. a. 1, 2 and 3 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 3 and 4 only
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d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Solution: d Expalantion:
IMPORTANT SOURCES AND METHODS OF CARBON a. Forests as sink - Afforestation / Reforestation / Plantation / Agro forestry Above mentioned all the practices works as carbo carbon, they take carbon from atmosphere, utilize it in the process of photosynthesis as well as they store it in the form of biomass or wood. For this process of carbon sequestration to be succeed it is essential that carbon must not return to the atmosphere from burning. b. Wetland restoration Wetland soil is an important natural carbon pool or sink. Wetlands conserves 14.5 % of the soil carbon found in world. But only 6 % of the world’s land is composed of wetlands. c. Oceans as sink Oceans absorb CO2 from the atmosphere because the concentration of CO2 in the atmosphere is greater than that in the oceans. This difference in partial pressure of CO2 results in the gas being absorbed into the world’s oceans.
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Q90. If the RBI decides to adopt an expansionist monetary policy, which of the following would it not do? 1. Cut and optimize the Statutory Liquidity Ratio 2. Increase the Marginal Standing Facility Rate 3. It may allow more disinvestment of organizations. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a. 3 only b. 2 only c. 1 only d. 2 and 3 only Solution: d Explanation: More than statements, here focus on “not do”. Now, if we see statements, RBI has nothing to do with Disinvestment. So, statement 3 is correct.
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During the Expansionary Money / Cheap Money / Dovish Monetary Policy, RBI will try to increase the supply of money and/or reduce the loan interest rates. So, reducing the SLR, bank rate and repo rate will help in that regard. Therefore, it is wrong. Increasing the MSF will raise the loan interest rates, so, if RBI pursues Expansionary policy, it’ll not do it. Statement 2 is correct.
Q91. Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) is responsible for: 1. Approval of Drugs 2. Conduct of Clinical Trials 3. laying down the standards for Drugs 4. control over the quality of imported Drugs in the country Select the correct code. a. 1, 2 and 3 only b. 2, 3 and 4 only c. 1 and 4 only d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Solution: d Explanation: The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO)under Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India is the National Regulatory Authority (NRA) of India. CDSCO is constantly thriving upon to bring out transparency, accountability and uniformity in its services in order to ensure safety, efficacy and quality of the medical product manufactured, imported and distributed in the country. Under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, CDSCO is responsible for approval of Drugs, Conduct of Clinical Trials, laying down the standards for Drugs, control over the quality of imported Drugs in the country and coordination of the activities of State Drug Control Organizations by providing expert advice with a view of bring about the uniformity in the enforcement of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act. Further CDSCO along with state regulators, is jointly responsible for grant of licenses of certain specialized categories of critical Drugs such as blood and blood products, I. V. Fluids, Vaccine and Sera.
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Q92. Consider the following statements regarding One Nation, One Ration Card’ scheme. 1. Through this all-eligible ration card holders/beneficiaries covered under NFSA can access their entitlements from anywhere in the country. 2. The scheme will be implemented by Ministry of Agriculture. 3. Aadhaar card is mandatory for obtaining for obtaining food under this scheme. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1 and 2 only Solution: a Explanation: First statement is correct. One Nation One Ration Card aims to empower all eligible ration card holders/beneficiaries covered under NFSA can access their entitlements from anywhere in the country. Through this system, the migratory NFSA beneficiaries, who frequently change their place of dwelling in search of temporary employments, etc. are now enabled with an option to lift their entitled quota of foodgrains from any Fair Price Shop (FPS) of their choice anywhere in the country by using their same/existing ration card with biometric/Aadhaar based authentication on an electronic Point of Sale (ePoS) device installed at the FPSs. There is no need to share or carry the ration card or Aadhaar card with ration dealer to avail the benefit. Beneficiaries can undergo Aadhaar authentication by using their finger prints or iris-based identification. Third statement is incorrect. Anyone in the family, who have seeded Aadhaar in the ration card can undergo authentication and lift the ration. The scheme will be implemented by Department of Food & Public Distribution, Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution. Second statement is incorrect.
Q93. A parliamentary system of government is one in which a. All political parties in the parliament are represented in the government b. The government is responsible to the parliament and can be remove by it c. The government is elected by the people and can be removed by them
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d. The government is chosen by the parliament but cannot be removed by it before completion of a fixed term Solution: c Explanation: Article 75: The ministers are collectively responsible to the Parliament in general and to the Lok Sabha in particular. The principle of collective responsibility implies that the Lok Sabha can remove the ministry (i.e., council of ministers headed by the prime minister) from office by passing a vote of no confidence. Q94. One can predominantly find Black-Necked Crane in: a. Western Ghats b. Gujarat and Rajasthan National Parks c. Eastern Ladakh d. Eastern Ghats Solution: c Explanation: Black-necked crane is found at extremely high elevations. Here, Ladakh will be the most appropriate answer. What was the news? The former state of Jammu and Kashmir had the black-necked crane and Kashmir stag as its State Bird and State Animal. But the black-necked crane is found only in Eastern Ladakh and the Hangul is found only in Kashmir Valley. So, following the bifurcation, new options for the bird and animal symbols were needed for the newly created state and union territory. Local wildlife bodies in Ladakh are batting strongly for the black-necked crane and the snow leopard to be named as the State Bird and State Animal. Q95. Consider the following pairs.
Mountains/Seas location
1. Pyrenees Mountains France and Spain
2. Kamchatka peninsula Sea of Okhotsk and Bering Sea
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3. Dead Sea Israel and Syria
Which of the above locations is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 2 only d. 2 only Solution: c Explanation:
location Mountains/Seas
Pyrenees Mountains France and Spain
Kamchatka Sea of Okhotsk and Bering peninsula Sea
Dead Sea Israel and Jordan
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Q96. In context of Art and Architecture, "Kulhadar Group" is associated with:
a. Paintings b. Dance c. Puppetry d. Regional song of Rajasthan Solution: a
Explanation:
Kulhadar group belongs to miniature paintings.
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Link: http://ccrtindia.gov.in/miniaturepainting.php
Q97. Consider the following statements.
1. There are no WTO definitions of “developed” and “developing” countries. 2. Decision at WTO is taken on the basis of consensus where, the implication is that effectively every member has veto power. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1nor 2 Solution: c
Explanation:
Basically, there are 3 types of countries in WTO, a. developed countries, b. developing countries and c. the least developed countries There are no WTO definitions of “developed” and “developing” countries (very important for prelims).
So, the next question now is how we categorize which country to fall in which basket (developed, developing or least developed countries).
It’s very simple. The countries themselves categorizes in which basket they fall. For example, if country A says that I am developing country. WTO will say OK FINE, you are now a part of developing countries. But problem comes when any country challenges his decision (here country A decision to join developing country can be challenged).
If you remember during Trump era, US is challenging the decision of India and China that they belong to developing nations category. According to US, India and China economies have already grown. They can’t be kept in category of developing countries anymore. Being a part of
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Now, we will see second statement.
The WTO is run by its member governments. All major decisions are made by the membership as a whole, either by ministers or by their ambassadors or delegates. Decisions are normally taken by consensus. According to website of the WTO, it is a member driven, consensus-based organizations. Hence, the working of WTO is different from some other international organizations such as World Bank and IMF. In WTO, power is not delegated to Board of Directors or Organization’s head. The topmost decision-making body of the WTO is the Ministerial Conference, which usually meets every two years. It brings together all members of the WTO, all of which are countries or customs unions. The Ministerial Conference can take decisions on all matters under any of the multilateral trade agreements.
Q98. Consider the Followings.
1. No tax shall be collected except by authority of Law. 2. Vote of Credit 3. Supplementary Grants (if amount needed more than passed by Appropriation Bills) Which of the above provisions is/are part of Indian Constitution?
a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: d
Explanation:
All provisions are mentioned in the Constitution.
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Q99. Which of the following are the advantages of 'Genetically Modified (GM)' crops?
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1. Increased efficacy of mineral usage in plants. 2. Increase the shelf life of the crops 3. Enhance Nutritional Value 4. Increased efficacy of mineral usage in plants. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 and 3 only b. 1, 2 and 3 only c. 2 and 4 only d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Solution: d
Explanations:
Plants, bacteria, fungi and animals whose genes have been altered by manipulation are called Genetically Modified Organisms (GMO).
GM plants have been useful in many ways. Genetic modifications have:
a. made crops more tolerant to abiotic stresses (cold, drought, salt, heat). b. reduced reliance on chemical pesticides (pest-resistant crops). c. helped to reduce post-harvest losses. d. increased efficiency of mineral usage by plants (this prevents early exhaustion of fertility of soil). e. enhanced nutritional value of food f. increased the shelf life of food. Because GMO crops have a prolonged shelf life, it is easier to transport them greater distances. This improvement makes it possible to take excess food products from one community and deliver it to another that may be experiencing a food shortage.
Q100. Consider the following statements.
1. The constitution has bestowed power in Supreme Court to see matters related to election of Vice President. 2. The oath/affirmations of Vice President in the Constitution mention to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 only
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b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: a
Explanation:
As per the Article 71, all doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of a president or vice President shall be inquired into and decided by the Supreme court whose decision shall be final.
The oath/affirmations of only two bodies, President and Governor, mentions to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution, Therefore, statement 2 is wrong. The oath of Governor reads as:
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Q101. Besides Rajasthan, Thar Desert spreads in:
1. Punjab 2. Haryana 3. Gujarat 4. Pakistan
Select the correct code.
a. 1, 3 and only b. 3 and 4 only c. 2, 3 and 4 only d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Solution: d
Explanation:
Distribution of area
About 85% of the Thar Desert is located within India, rest 15% lies in Pakistan
In India, the area covers about 170,000 km2 (66,000 sq mi), and the rest 30,000 km2 (12,000 sq mi) of the desert is within Pakistan
60% of the desert lies in the Indian state of Rajasthan, and it spreads into other the states of Gujarat, Punjab, and Haryana, and the Pakistani province of Sindh.
Q102. Bio-Medical Waste Management Rules, 2016 applies to:
1. Ayush hospitals 2. veterinary institutions 3. blood donation camps 4. first aid rooms of schools 5. pathological laboratories
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a. 3 and 5 only b. 3, 4 and 5 only c. 2, 3 and 5 only d. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Solution: d
Explanation:
Q103. Consider the following statements.
1. Nuclear share of total installed capacity in India is less than 2 percent. 2. Processing of materials like uranium, zirconium and heavy water has been fully developed in India. 3. Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant in Tamil Nadu has been built with co-operation from Russia.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3
Solution: d
Explanation:
First statement is correct:
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Second statement is correct:
Materials Technology
A variety of special materials are required for PHWR construction. The development of technologies for special nuclear materials has been key to our indigenous PHWR programme. For example, processing of materials like uranium, zirconium and heavy water has been fully developed in India and the technology has been translated into production plants which are successfully operating as various units of DAE. The point to be highlighted here is that intricate processing steps of a wide variety of high purity materials and alloys were not only developed at the laboratory scale, but also converted to successful design and operation of corresponding regular production plants.
Third statement is correct. Recently, Russia started construction of fifth nuclear power unit at Kudankulam in Tamil Nadu on June 29, 2021.
Q104. Consider the following statements.
1. India has lost few million hectares of grassland area in a decade. 2. Steppes, Prairies, and Pampas are example of temperate grasslands. 3. Pygmy Hog is a flagship species that denotes the health of the grasslands.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 only b. 2 and 3 only
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c. 2 only d. 1, 2 and 3
Solution: d
India lost 31 per cent, or 5.65 million hectares (mha), of grassland area in a decade, showed data the Union government presented to the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) during the ongoing 14th Conference of Parties (COP).
There are two main kinds of grasslands: tropical and temperate. Examples of temperate grasslands include Eurasian steppes, North American prairies, and Argentine pampas. Tropical grasslands include the hot savannas of sub-Saharan Africa and northern Australia.
The Pygmy Hog, a critically endangered species, itself rapidly lost numbers mainly because of the degradation of grasslands -- its main habitat. Pygmy Hog is a flagship species that denotes the health of the grasslands.
PHCP: Pygmy Hog Conservation Programme.
Q105. Consider the following. 1. Strait of Hormuz 2. Gulf of Aqaba 3. Gulf of Aden 4. Gulf of Oman Saudi Arabia forms border with: a. 1, 3 and 4 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 2 and 4 only d. 2 only Solution: d Explanation:
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Q106. Global Cybersecurity Index (GCI) is a publication of:
a. International Telecommunication Union (ITU) b. World Trade Organization c. UNCTAD d. AMESTY
Solution: a
Explanation:
India has been ranked at 10th position in the cybersecurity index. India was ranked ahead of China (No. 33) and Pakistan (No. 79) in global cybersecurity ranking of countries. India has improved its ranking from 47 to 10 in United Nation’s ITU Global Cybersecurity Agenda (GCA). Q107. Which of the following is/are application of Sulphur? 1. Vulcanization of rubber 2. Sulfites, derived from burning sulphur, are used as preservatives in dried fruit and processed fruit products. 3. Sulphuric acid derived from sulphur is used in the manufacture of phosphatic fertilizer.
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Select the correct code. a. 1 and 2 only b. 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: d Explanation: Vulcanization is a chemical process in which the rubber is heated with sulphur, accelerator and activator at 140–160°C. The process involves the formation of cross-links between long rubber molecules so as to achieve improved elasticity, resilience, tensile strength, viscosity, hardness and weather resistance.
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Q108. Consider the following statements.
1. Gandhiji became present of Indian National Congress in Belgaum session. 2. Formation of Swaraj Party 3. Passage of Poorna Swaraj Resolution 4. Nehru Report Arrange the above events of Indian National movement in sequence.
a. 2-1-4-3 b. 1-2-4-3 c. 2-1-3-4
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d. 2-4-1-3 Solution: a
Explanation:
The Swaraj Party was established as the Congress-Khilafat Swaraj Party. It was a political party formed in India in January 1923 after the Gaya annual conference in December 1922 of the National Congress after Gandhi called off Non-cooperation Movement following Chauri-Chaura incident.
Mahatma Gandhi became President of Indian National Congress at Belgaum session in 1924.
Nehru Report came in 1928.
The Indian National Congress, on 19 December 1929, passed the historic 'Poorna Swaraj' (total independence) resolution at its Lahore session.
Q109. Which of the following can be a form of economic “Protectionism” by India? 1. Entry restrictions for foreign nationals 2. Preferential market access policies for domestic industries 3. Increasing custom duties on imported goods and services Select the correct answer code: a. 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: d Explanation: Protectionism can be any attempt to protect domestic industries from global competition. Restricting movements of people (labour), goods, services will all be considered under economic protectionism. Preference to domestic industries creates barriers for other MNCs that desire investing in India. Increasing custom duties on imported goods and services renders Indian goods to be more competitive than goods imported from abroad
Q110. Consider the following statements. 1. State Election Commission supervise all elections to the Panchayats, but preparation of electoral rolls is still with the Election Commission of India.
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2. State Election Commission shall be removed from office on the like grounds as a Judge of a High Court. Select the correct code. a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: b Explanation: First statement is incorrect. Everything is done by State Election Commission.
Second statement is correct:
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