izFke 10 feuV esa vH;FkhZ viuh iz'u&iqfLrdk ds Øekad dk feyku vks0,e0vkj0 mÙkj i=d ds Øekad ls dj ysaA ;fn vks0 ,e0 vkj0 mÙkj i=d o iz'u&iqfLrdk ds Øekad fHkUu gSa rks dsUnz v/kh{kd ls fuosnu djds iz'u&iqfLrdk cny ysaA
Level : 2 Exam. – 2018 TGT : For Classes VI to VIII MUSIC
Sub. Code No. : 320 9 iz'u&iqfLrdk Øekad ,oa vks0,e0vkj0 Øekad Question-Booklet Serial No. & O. M. R. Serial No. vuqØekad ¼vadksa esa½ % SET : A Roll No. (In Figures) vuqØekad ¼'kCnksa esa½ % ______Roll No. (In Words) ijh{kk dsUnz dk uke % ______Name of Examination Centre vH;FkhZ dk uke % ______vH;FkhZ ds gLrk{kj % ______Name of Candidate Signature of Candidate
bl iz'u&iqfLrdk esa i`"Bksa dh la[;k 32 iz'uksa dh la[;k 150 le; 2½ hours No. of Pages in this Question Booklet No. of Questions Time
fujh{kd ds gLrk{kj@Signature of Invigilator : ______vH;FkhZ dks 10 feuV dk le; iz'u&iqfLrdk ij Nis funsZ'kksa dks i<+us rFkk mÙkj i=d esa vius fooj.k Hkjus ds fy, fn;k tk,xkA ;fn iz'u&iqfLrdk o mÙkj i=d dh Øe la[;k xyr vafdr gksa rks rqjUr dsUnz v/kh{kd ls fuosnu djds iz'u&iqfLrdk cny ysaA blds i'pkr~ dksbZ nkok Lohdkj ugha fd;k tk,xkA bu 10 feuVksa ds vfrfjDr] iz'uksa ds mÙkj vafdr djus ds fy, iwjs 2½ ?kaVs dk le; fn;k tk,xkA• ;fn fdlh vH;FkhZ dks iz'u&iqfLrdk esa fn, x, fdlh Hkh iz'u eas dksbZ =qfV gksus dk lansg gks rks blds fy, vH;fFkZ;kas dks ijh{kk lekfIr ds mijkUr izfrosnu nsus ds fy, volj fn;k tk,xkA vr% vH;FkhZ fu/kkZfjr volj ds nkSjku bl lEcU/k eas viuk izfrosnu cksMZ dk;kZy; eas ntZ djok ldrs gSaA bl volj ds ckn] bl lEcU/k esa izkIr izfrosnuksa ij dksbZ fopkj ugha fd;k tk,xkA ;fn fdlh iz'u esa fgUnh o vaxzsth ek/;e esa fHkUurk gS rks vaxzsth ek/;e dk iz'u Bhd ekuk tk,xkA If there is any variance between Hindi and English Version of any question then English Version would be considered correct. vH;fFkZ;ksa ds fy, funsZ'k@INSTRUCTIONS FOR THE CANDIDATES : 1. vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj i=d bl iz'u&iqfLrdk ds vUnj j[kk gSA tc vkidks iz'u&iqfLrdk i<+us dks dgk tk,] rks mÙkj i=d fudky dj /;ku ls dsoy uhys@dkys ckWy IokbaV iSu ls fooj.k HkjsaA (The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Question Booklet. When you are directed to read the Question Booklet, take out the OMR Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.) 2. ijh{kk dh vof/k 2½ ?kaVs gS ,oa iz'u&iqfLrdk esa 150 iz’u gSaA dksbZ _.kkRed vadu ugha gSA (The test is of two-and-half hours duration and consists of 150 questions. There is no negative marking .) 3. vius fooj.k vafdr djus ,oa mÙkj i=d ij fu’kku yxkus ds fy, dsoy uhys@dkys ckWy IokbaV iSu dk iz;ksx djsaA vH;FkhZ iz'u&iqfLrdk dk mi;ksx djus ,oa mÙkj i=d dks Hkjus esa lko/kkuh cjrsaA (Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/darkening responses in the Answer Sheet. The candidate should remain careful in handling the question paper and in darkening the responses on the answer sheet.) 4. izFke 10 feuV esa] ;g Hkh lqfuf’pr dj ysa fd iz'u&iqfLrdk Øekad vkSj mÙkj i=d Øekad ,d gh gSaA vxj ;g fHkUu gksa rks vH;FkhZ nwljh iz’u&iqfLrdk vkSj mÙkj i=d ysus ds fy, i;Zos{kd dks rqjUr voxr djok, ¡A (Within first 10 minutes, also ensure that your Question Booklet Serial No. and Answer Sheet Serial No. are the same. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet.)
5. ysoy&2 ¼d{kk VI ls VIII ds fy,½ 5. Level–2 (For Classes VI to VIII) Hkkx&I % cky fodkl o f’k{kk 'kkL= ¼ç0 1 ls ç0 30 ½ Part–I : Child Development and Pedagogy (Q. 1 to Q. 30 ) Hkkx&II % Hkk"kk % ¼ç0 31 ls ç0 60 ½ Part–II : Language : (Q. 31 to Q. 60 ) ¼fgUnh % 15 iz'u o vaxzsth % 15 iz'u½ (Hindi : 15 Q. & English : 15 Q.) III 61 90 Hkkx& % lkekU; v/;;u % ¼ç0 ls ç0 ½ Part–III : General Studies : (Q. 61 to Q. 90 ) ¼ek=kRed ;ksX;rk % 10 iz'u] rkfdZd vfHk{kerk % 10 iz'u] (Quantitative Aptitude : 10 Q, Reasoning lkekU; Kku ,oa vfHkKku % 10 iz'u½ Ability : 10 Q, G. K. & Awareness : 10 Q) Hkkx&IV % laxhr ¼ç0 91 ls ç0 150 ½ Part–IV : Music (Q. 91 to Q. 150 )
uksV % Ñi;k bl iqfLrdk ds vUr esa fn, x, 'ks"k funsZ'kksa dks i<+saA (Please read other remaining instructions given on the last page of this booklet.) [ 3 ] [ A ] HkkxHkkxHkkx – I / PART – I cky fodkl o f'k{kk'kkL= / CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY funsZ'k % fuEufyf[kr iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsus ds fy, lcls mfpr fodYi pqfu,A Direction : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.
1. fuEukafdr esa ls dkSu -lk xkMZuj }kjk fn;s x, 1. Which of the following is not a type of cqf) dk ,d izdkj ughaughaugha gS \ intelligence as proposed by Gardener ? (1) laxhrh; cqf) (1) Musical Intelligence (2) Hkk"kk;h cqf) (2) Linguistic Intelligence (3) rkfdZd ,oa xf.krh; cqf) (3) Logico-Mathematical Intelligence (4) ltZukRed cqf) (4) Creative Intelligence
2. fuEukafdr esa ls dkSu -lk dFku lR; ughaughaugha gS \ 2. Which of the following statement is not (1) ckSf)d v{kerk ,oa vf/kxe v{kerk correct ? nksuksa leku ugha gSaA (1) Intellectual Disability and Learning (2) vf/kxe v{kerk ;qDr ckyd dh IQ Disability are not same. fuf'pr :i ls 70 ls de gksuh pkfg,A (2) A child with learning disability essentially has an IQ score less than 70. (3) ckSf)d v{kerk 18 o"kZ dh vk;q ls iwoZ gksrh gSA (3) Intellectual Disability occurs before age 18.
(4) Intellectual Disability and learning (4) ckSf)d v{kerk ,oa vf/kxe v{kerk Disability both are Developmental nksuksa gh fodklkRed v{kerk,¡ gSaA Disability. 3. czkWuQsucszuj ds fodkl ds ikfjfLFkfrdh; ra= 3. Which of the following system contains fl)kUr ds vuqlkj] ^ekrk -firk dk dk;ZLFky* 'Parents Work Place' as per the fuEukafdr esa ls fdl ra= esa lekfgr gS \ Bronfenbrenner's Ecological Theory of Development ? (1) lw{e ra= (1) Micro System (2) o`gr~ ra= (2) Macro System (3) ehtks ra= (3) Meso System (4) ,Dlks ra= (4) Exo System
Level-2/3209 P. T. O. [ A ] [ 4 ] 4. ,d ek¡ vius cPps dks nw/k fiykus ls Bhd 4. A mother gently strokes her infant's igys mlds yykV ij Fkifd;k¡ nsrh gSA tYnh forehead each time immediate before og ns[krh gS fd gj ckj tc Hkh cPps ds breast feeding. Soon, she noticed that yykV ij Fkifd;k¡ nsrh gS] og lfØ; gksdj each time the baby's forehead is pwlus laca/kh xfrfof/k;k¡ iznf'kZr djus yxrk stroked, he makes active sucking gSA cPps dk ;g O;ogkj loksZÙke O;k[;k gS % movement. The baby's behaviour best describes : (1) iz;kl ,oa =qfV }kjk vf/kxe dk (1) Trial and Error learning (2) 'kkL=h; vuqca/ku dk (2) Classical Conditioning (3) fØ;k -izlwr vuqca/ku dk (3) Operant Conditioning (4) lkekftd vf/kxe dk (4) Social Learning 5. fuEukafdr esa ls dkSu -lk dFku ^lehiLFk 5. Which of the following is not true about fodkl dk {ks=* ds lanHkZ eas lgh ughaughaugha gS \ 'Zone of Proximal Development' ? (1) ;g okbxksRldh ds fl)kUr ls tqM+k gSA (1) It is related to Vygotsky's Theory. (2) ;g cPps ds lh[kus dh {kerk dh mPp (2) It sets the upper limit on what the lhek fu/kkZfjr djrk gSA child is capable to learn. (3) ;g mu dk;ks±/fØ;kvksa dk {ks= gS ftUgsa (3) It is a range of tasks that a learner cPpk fcuk nwljksa dh lgk;rk ds iwjk cannot perform without help of ugha dj ldrk vkSj uk gh Lora= :i ls others but yet cannot perform Lo;a dj ldrk gSA independently. (4) ;g mu dk;ks± dh mPp lhek gS ftls (4) It is the upper limit of a task that a cPpk lQyrkiwoZd Lora= :i ls dj learner can successfully perform ldrk gSA independently. 6. fuEukafdr esa ls dkSu -lk dFku lR; ughaughaugha gS \ 6. Which of the following statement is not true ? (1) 'kkL=h; vuqca/ku ,sfPNd O;ogkjksa ls (1) Classical conditioning deals with voluntary behaviours. lEcfU/kr gSA (2) Operant conditioning deals with (2) fØ;k -izlwr vuqca/ku ,sfPNd O;ogkjksa ls voluntary behaviours. lEcfU/kr gSA (3) Classical conditioning deals with (3) 'kkL=h; vuqca/ku vuSfPNd O;ogkjksa ls involuntary behaviours. lEcfU/kr gSA (4) In operant conditioning, (4) fØ;k -izlwr vuqca/ku esa ^ifj.kke*] 'consequences' are important in vuqca/ku dk ,d egÙoiw.kZ dkjd gSA framing an association.
Level-2/3209 [ 5 ] [ A ] 7. ehrk us f[kykSuk -lk¡i ls yxus okyk Hk; nwj 7. Meeta has overcome her fear of toy- dj fy;k Fkk] ijUrq ,d fnu vpkud mldk snakes. However on one occasion her Mj okil ykSV vk;k tc mls vius fcLrj fear returned when she found toy-snake ij ,d f[kykSuk lk¡i iM+k feykA Hk; ds bl on her bed. Such return of fear can be izdkj okilh dks dgk tk ldrk gS % termed as : (1) míhid lkekU;hdj.k (1) Stimulus Generalization (2) míhid foHksnu (2) Stimulus Discrimination (3) Lor% iquizkZfIr (3) Spontaneous Recovery (4) foyksiu (4) Extinction 8. fuEukafdr esa ls dkSu -lh izfØ;k fi;kts ds 8. Which of the following is not a process laKkukRed fodkl dh ,d izfØ;k ughaughaugha gS \ of Cognitive Development as given by Piaget ? (1) lfEeyu (1) Assimilation (2) vkRelkrhdj.k (2) Accommodation (3) vuqdwyu (3) Adaptation (4) 'ksfiax (4) Shaping
9. LVuZcxZ }kjk fn;s x;s lQy cqf) ds 9. Which of the following type is not a f='kk[kh; (Triarchial) fl)kUr ds vuqlkj type of Intelligence, as given in fuEukafdr esa ls dkSu -lk cqf) dk ,d izdkj Sternberg's Triarchial Theory of ughaughaugha gS \ successful intelligence ? (1) fo'ys"k.kkRed cqf) (1) Analytical Intelligence (2) ltZukRed cqf) (2) Creative Intelligence (3) laxhrh; cqf) (3) Musical Intelligence (4) izk;ksfxd cqf) (4) Practical Intelligence 10. ;g dFku ^rqe esjh ihB [kqtkvks] eSa rqEgkjh 10. The example 'you scratch my back and I [kqtkšxk*] fuEukafdr esa ls fdl izdkj dh will scratch yours', indicates which type uSfrdrk dh vksj bafxr djrk gS \ tSlk fd of morality as given by Piaget ? fi;kts us crk;k % (1) Beginning of Morality of Co- (1) lg;ksx dh uSfrdrk dk vkjaHk operation (2) iwoZ :f<+oknh uSfrdrk (2) Pre-conventional morality (3) okLrookn (3) Realism (4) uSfrdrk ls dksbZ laca/k ugha gS (4) Not related to moral concern
Level-2/3209 P. T. O. [ A ] [ 6 ]
11. fuEukafdr esa ls dkSu -lk 'kkL=h; vuqca/ku ls 11. Which of the following is not related to lacaf/kr ughaughaugha gS \ the classical conditioning experiment ? (1) foyksiu (1) Extinction (2) Lor% iquizkZfIr (2) Spontaneous Recovery (3) 'ksfiax (3) Shaping (4) míhid foHksnu (4) Stimulus Discrimination 12. ^Loyhurk* dh loZizFke O;k[;k nh gS % 12. 'Autism' was first described by : (1) lSeqvy fddZ us (1) Samuel Kirk (2) fy;ks dSuj us (2) Leo Kanner (3) ch0 ,Q0 fLduj us (3) B. F. Skinner (4) ts0 ch0 okVlu us (4) J. B. Watson 13. fuEufyf[kr eas ls dkSu&lk fodYi lkekthdj.k 13. Out of the following alternative which dh izfØ;k ds vUrxZr ugha vkrk gS \ one is not comes under processes in (1) lkekftd :i ls vuqeksfnr O;ogkj dks socialization ? lh[kuk (1) Learning to behave in socially (2) lkekftd :i ls vuqeksfnr Hkwfedk dk approved way fuokZg djuk (2) Playing approved social roles (3) lkekftd vfHko`fÙk dk fodkl (3) Development of social attitudes (4) vkRedsfUnzr O;ogkj dk vuqeksnu (4) Approval of egocentric behaviour 14. og vkdyu tks vuqns'ku ds nkSjku ;k 14. The Assessment done during or before vuqns'ku ds iwoZ fd;k tkrk gS] mls dgk tkrk instruction is known as : gS % (1) ;ksxkRed vkdyu (1) Summative Assessment (2) jpukRed vkdyu (2) Formative Assessment (3) vkSipkfjd vkdyu (3) Formal Assessment (4) funkukRed vkdyu (4) Diagnostic Assessment 15. thu fi;kts ds laKkukRed fodkl ds fl)kUr 15. In which of the following stage of ds vuqlkj ,d ckyd ^laj{k.k* ds fl)k Ur Cognitive Development, as described dks le>us esa l{ke gks tkrk gS % by Jean Piaget, a child become capable of understanding 'Conservation' ? (1) laosnh xked voLFkk esa (1) Sensory Motor Stage (2) iwoZ lafØ;kRed voLFkk esa (2) Pre-operational Stage (3) ewrZ lafØ;kRed voLFkk esa (3) Concrete Operational Stage (4) vkSipkfjd lafØ;kRed voLFkk esa (4) Formal Operational Stage Level-2/3209 [ 7 ] [ A ] 16. dksgycxZ ds vuqlkj] vPNk ckyd /vPNh 16. According to Kohlberg, Good Boy/Good ckfydk dh vksj mUeq[k gksuk ladsr gS % Girl orientation indicates : (1) iwoZ ykSfdd uSfrdrk dk (1) Pre conventional Morality (2) i'p ykSfdd uSfrdrk dk (2) Post conventional Morality (3) ykSfdd uSfrdrk dk (3) Conventional Morality (4) uSfrdrk dk lkisf{kd (4) Relative Morality 17. pkj o"kZ dh fcUuh us ^fcLrj xhyk* djuk 'kq: 17. Four year old Binny started wetting her dj fn;k tc mlds ekrk -firk ,d u;s cPps bed after her parents brings home a new dks ?kj ysdj vk;sA ;g fuEukafdr esa ls fdl baby. Which of the following type izdkj dh ^lqj{kk ;qfDr* dk mnkgj.k gS \ 'defense mechanism' it is ? (1) i'pxeu (2) neu (1) Regression (2) Suppression (3) rknkRehdj.k (4) foLFkkiu (3) Rationalization(4) Displacement
18. fuEukafdr eas ls dkSu -lk uotkr f'k'kq ds 18. Which of the following is not an ^fj¶ySDl* dk ,d izdkj ughaughaugha gS \ example of newborn 'reflexes' ? (1) vk¡[k >idkuk (2) pwluk (1) Eye blink (2) Sucking (3) rSjuk (4) dkj pykuk (3) Swimming (4) Driving Car 19. cqf) dk ^f=Lrjh; fl)kar* (Three Stratum 19. The 'Three Stratum Theory' of Theory) fn;k x;k gS % Intelligence was given by : (1) fi;kts ds }kjk (2) fcus ds }kjk (1) Piaget (2) Binnet (3) dSjksy ds }kjk (4) dSVy ds }kjk (3) Carrol (4) Cattle
20. fuEukafdr esa ls dkSu -lk dFku efLr"d ds 20. Which of the following is not true about czksdk {ks= ds lanHkZ esa lgh uuughaughaghagha gS \ the Broca's area of brain ? (1) ;g efLr"d ds ck;sa ÝaVy yksc esa fLFkr (1) It is located in the left frontal lobe. gksrk gSA (2) It supports grammatical processing. (2) ;g O;kdj.k laca/kh izfØ;kvksa esa lgk;rk (3) It is responsible for language djrk gSA production. (3) ;g Hkk"kk mRiknu dk dk;Z djrk gSA (4) It is responsible for comprehending (4) ;g 'kCnksa ds vFkZ le>us esa enn djrk gSA word meaning. 21. ;fn ,d cPpk vkidks ;g crk jgk gS fd 21. If a child is sharing with you what he vkt lqcg mB us ds ckn mlus D;k fd;k] rc did after he got up in the morning, he is og iz;ksx dj jgk gS % using his : (1) vFkZxr LEk`fr dk (1) Semantic Memory (2) laosnh iath;u dk (2) Sensory Register (3) izfØ;kRed LEk`fr dk (3) Procedural Memory (4) /kkjkokfgd LEk`fr dk (4) Episodic Memory Level-2/3209 P. T. O. [ A ] [ 8 ]
22. ^ukVdh; -[ksy* ds ckjs esa fuEukafdr esa ls 22. Which of the following is not true about dkSu -lk dFku lgh ugha gS \ dramatic play ? (1) ;g lfØ; -[ksy dk ,d izdkj gSA (1) It is a form of active play. (2) ;g ^Lok¡x jpuk [ksy* (Make Believe (2) It is known as make believe play. Play) ds uke ls Hkh tkuk tkrk gSA (3) It involve overt behaviour. (3) blesa izR;{k O;ogkj lekfgr gSA (4) It is always reproductive. (4) ;g ges'kk iqumZRiknd gksrk gSA 23. fdlh vuqfØ;k dh vko`fÙk dks jksdus ds fy, 23. Presentation of an unpleasent stimulus fdlh vfiz; míhid ds iz;ksx dks dgrs gSa % to decrease the occurrence of a response is known as : (1) ldkjkRed iqucZyu (1) Positive Reinforcement (2) udkjkRed iqucZyu (2) Negative Reinforcement (3) naM (3) Punishment (4) izsjd (4) Motivator 24. ;g dFku fd ^O;fDrRo] lh[kh gq;h 24. The statement 'Personality is nothing vuqfØ;kvksa dk ,d leqPp; -ek= gS*] O;fDrRo but a set of learned responses', best ds lanHkZ esa fuEukafdr esa ls fdl n`f"Vdks.k dh describes which of the following view loksZÙke O;k[;k gS \ about personality ? (1) O;ogkjoknh n`f"Vdks.k dh (1) Behaviouristic view (2) lajpukoknh n`f"Vdks.k dh (2) Structuralist view (3) izdk;Zoknh n`f"Vdks.k dh (3) Functionalist view (4) laKkuoknh n`f"Vdks.k dh (4) Cognitivist view 25. tc pkyd dkj dh lhV -csYV ck¡/k ysrk gS] 25. The seat belt buzzer of a car, stops as rc dkj dk lhV csYV ctj ctuk can gks soon as the driver put on the seat belt. It tkrk gSA ;g mnkgj.k gS % is an example of : (1) ldkjkRed iqucZyu dk (1) Positive Reinforcement (2) udkjkRed iqucZyu dk (2) Negative Reinforcement (3) ldkjkRed naM dk (3) Positive Punishment (4) udkjkRed naM dk (4) Negative Punishment 26. ;g tkuuk fd ^lkbfdy dSls pyk;sa* ,d 26. Knowing 'how to ride a bicycle' is an mnkgj.k gS % example of : (1) izfØ;kRed Kku dk (1) Procedural knowledge (2) ?kks"k.kkRed Kku dk (2) Declarative knowledge (3) Li"V Kku dk (3) Explicit knowledge (4) dksbZ fodYi lgh ugha gS (4) No option is correct Level-2/3209 [ 9 ] [ A ] 27. fodkldky ds nkSjku Hkzw.k ds flj dk fodkl 27. During the developmental period of mlds iSjkas ls igys gksrk gSA ;g fodkl dh foetus' head is well developed before his dkSu&lh izo`fÙk dh loksZÙke O;k[;k gS \ legs. This best describes which of the following tendency of development ? (1) dsUnz ls ckgj dh vksj (1) Proximo-distal (2) flj ls iSj dh vksj (2) Cephalo-caudal (3) le:irk (3) Uniformity (4) ,dhdj.k (4) Integration 28. cPpksa ds [ksy ds lanHkZ esa fuEukafdr esa ls 28. Which of the following is not true about dkSu -lk dFku lgh ughaughaugha gS \ children's play ? (1) [ksy -fØ;kvksa dh la[;k vk;q c<+us ds (1) The number of play activities lkFk de gksrh tkrh gSA decrease with increasing age. (2) vk;q c<+us ds lkFk -lkFk [ksy T;knk (2) Play becomes increasingly social lkekftd gksrk tkrk gSA with increasing age. (3) lkFk [ksyus okys lkfFk;ksa dh la[;k vk;q (3) The number of playmates increases c<+us ds lkFk c<+rh tkrh gSA with increasing age. (4) vk;q c<+us ds lkFk [ksy T;knk ySafxd (4) Play become increasingly sex- :i ls mi;qDr gks tkrk gSA appropriate with increasing age. 29. ^xf.krh; /x.kuk* laca/kh v{kerk ,d izdkj gS % 29. 'Dyscalculia' is a type of : (1) xked v{kerk dk (1) Locomotor Disability (2) vf/kxe v{kerk dk (2) Learning Disability (3) ckSf)d v{kerk dk (3) Intellectual Disability (4) n`f"V ckf/krk dk (4) Visual Impairment 30. fuEukafdr esa ls fdl n`f"Vdks.k dh ;g ekU;rk 30. Which of the following theory assumes gS fd cky fodkl ,d lrr izfØ;k ughaughaugha gS \ that Child Development is not a continuous process ? (1) fi;kts dk laKkukRed fodkl dk fl)kUr (1) Cognitive Development theory of Piaget (2) O;ogkjokn (2) Behaviourism (3) lkekftd vf/kxe fl)kUr (3) Social learning theory (4) ikfjfLFkfrdh; ra= fl)kUr (4) Ecological system theory
Level-2/3209 P. T. O. [ A ] [ 10 ] HkkxHkkxHkkx – II / PART – II Hkk"kk ¼fgUnh ,oa vaxzsth½ / LANGUAGES (HINDI & ENGLISH) [ fgUnh / HINDI ] funsZ'k % fuEufyf[kr iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsus ds fy, lcls mfpr fodYi pqfu,A
31. ^o;kso`)* 'kCn esa laf/k gS % 35. fdl okD; esa lkoZukfed fo'ks"k.k dk iz;ksx (1) Loj laf/k (2) o.kkZxe laf/k gqvk gS \ (3) folxZ laf/k (4) O;atu laf/k (1) rqe lc vk x, ; vPNs dgk¡ jg x,A
32. okrZfud n`f"V ls v'kq) fodYi pqfu, % (2) tks ckgj [kM+k gS mls vUnj cqykvksA (1) fo}rk (2) xhrkatyh (3) rqe Nk=ksa ds fy, dqN fdrkcsa ys vkvksA (3) if{kx.k (4) LokfeHkDr (4) dqN rqe djks; dqN eSa d:¡xkA 33. fdl okD; esa loZuke inca/k dk iz;ksx gqvk gS \ 36. ^og fnuHkj fy[krk jgkA* okD; esa iz;qDr (1) esjs fj'rsnkjksa esa ls dksbZ le; ij ugha fØ;k fo'ks"k.k dk Hksn bafxr dhft, % igq¡pkA (1) dkyokpd fØ;k fo'ks"k.k (2) fj'rksa esa LokFkZ ns[kus okys ;qok lkf Uu/; dh Å"ek igpkusaA (2) jhfrokpd fØ;k fo'ks"k.k (3) - jke us yadk ds vR;kpkjh] jk{kl jkt (3) LFkkuokpd fØ;k fo'ks"k.k jko.k dks ekj MkykA (4) (4) ik¡poha eafty ls fxjk] ejsxk ugha rks D;k ifjek.kokpd fØ;k fo'ks"k.k ftank jgsxkA 37. vlaxr dFku Nk¡fV, % 34. fdl okD; esa ^bPNkFkZ o`fÙk* dk iz;ksx gqvk (1) ukikd bjkns ls dh tkus okyh ea=.kk – gS \ fnRlk (1) bZ'oj rqEgkjk Hkyk djsA (2) nksigj ls igys dk le; – iwokZg~u (3) – (2) Ñi;k ;g izdj.k tk¡p nhft,A ftls ns[kdj jksaxVs [kM+s gks tk,¡ ykseg"kZd (3) yxrk gS bl o"kZ [kwc o"kkZ gksxhA (4) ckyqdk ;qDr rV /Hkwfe – fldrk (4) ;fn og i<+rk rks vkt lQy gks tkrkA
Level-2/3209 [ 11 ] [ A ]
38. v'kq) okD; pqfu, % 42. rRle -rn~Hko dh n`f"V ls vlaxr fodYi pqfu, % (1) vkils feydj eq>s vkuUn dk vkHkkl (1) – gqvkA okrkZd cSaxu (2) yksge'kk – ykseM+h (2) esjB esa dbZ n'kZuh; LFky gSaA (3) eLrd – ekFkk (3) ;g Nk=o`fÙk dsoy Nk=kvksa ds fy, gSA (4) 'kf.Bdk – lksaB (4) eSa viuk er Li"V djuk pkgrk gw¡A 43. fdl fodYi esa nks milxks± dk iz;ksx ughaughaugha gqvk 39. fdl fodYi esa rRiq#"k lekl ughaughaugha gS \ gS \ (1) (1) okd~pkrq;Z lkjksik (2) (2) rhFkkZVu lgxkfeuh (3) (3) vj.;jksnu iqu#n~/kkj (4) (4) ehudsrq lekf/k
40. fuEu esa ls fdl fodYi esa ^x#M+* dk i;kZ; 44. fuEu esa ls HkkookP; pqfu, % ughaughaugha gS \ (1) xfeZ;ksa esa jkst+ ugk;k tkrk gSA (1) vfgHkksth (2) ukuh }kjk dgkuh lqukbZ xbZA (2) oSurs; (3) gsjEc (3) dqÙkk lkjh jkr HkkSadrk gSA (4) [kxukFk (4) fdlkuksa }kjk Qly dkV yh xbZ gSA
41. v'kq) laf/k okyk fodYi pqfu, % 45. fuEu esa ^ladj 'kCn* fdl fodYi esa ughaughaugha gS \ (1) + = en mUeÙk enksUeÙk (1) foKkiunkrk (2) + = fo}r~ eq[k fo}Ueq[k (2) McyjksVh (3) + = rr~ mijkUr rnksijkUr (3) vkepquko (4) + = "kV~ vk;ru "kMk;ru (4) fgUnhdj.k
Level-2/3209 P. T. O. [ A ] [ 12 ] [ vaxzsth / ENGLISH ] Direction : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.
46. Fill in the blank with appropriate 50. Hearing the noise, the boy woke up : preposition : (1) Pronoun (2) Noun We're going for a drive …….. the (3) Verb (4) Participle country. (1) on (2) at 51. ''They arrived soon after.'' (3) in (4) for The word 'after' is used as : (1) Preposition (2) Adverb 47. '' He wore a turban made of silk .'' (3) Adjective (4) Conjunction The underlined words are :
(1) Adverb 52. Fill in the blank with appropriate (2) Adverb Phrase conjunction : (3) Adjective Phrase Grievances cannot be redressed ……………. they are known. (4) Noun Phrase (1) unless (2) and 48. ''There is a mystery about his death and (3) but (4) before the police are looking into it.''
The underlined phrasal verb means : 53. Choose the most appropriate modal for the blank : (1) To investigate When I was young, I ……………. (2) To take care of climb any tree in the forest. (3) To look behind (1) can (2) must
(4) To revise quickly (3) may (4) could
49. Fill in the blank with appropriate 54. Choose the correct verb for the blank from the options below : preposition :
We stayed ……………. Mumbai for The earth ……………. round the sun. five days. (1) move (2) moved
(1) in (2) at (3) moves (4) shall move (3) into (4) by
Level-2/3209 [ 13 ] [ A ]
55. Choose the correct answer from the 58. Choose the correct word for the options below : following expression :
"I took it home with me'', She said. One who makes maps or charts. (1) She just took it home. (1) Cartoonist (2) She said she had taken it home with (2) Cartographer her.
(3) She said she would take it home. (3) Choreographer
(4) She said she will take it home with (4) Choirmaster her. 59. Fill in the blank with the correct 56. Choose the correct passive construction option : for the given sentence. They were carrying the injured player I have not heard the ……………. off the field. news.
(1) The injured player was being (1) latest carried off the field. (2) late (2) The injured player will be carried off the field. (3) latter (3) The injured player must be taken (4) later off the field.
(4) Carry the injured player off the 60. Choose the word which is spelt field. correctly : (1) Disentigration 57. Fill in the blank by choosing the correct (2) Disintegration option : (3) Dissintegration He is ……………. his glasses. (4) Desintegration (1) look for (2) look (3) looking for (4) will look
Level-2/3209 P. T. O. [ A ] [ 14 ] HkkxHkkxHkkx – III / PART – III lkekU; v/;;u / GENERAL STUDIES [ ek=kRed ;ksX;rk] rkfdZd vfHk{kerk rFkk lkekU; Kku ,oa vfHkKku / QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE, REASONING ABILITY AND G.K. & AWARENESS ] funsZ'k % fuEufyf[kr iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsus ds fy, lcls mfpr fodYi pqfu,A Direction : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.
61. vewY; fdlh dk;Z dks 2 fnu esa djrk gS vkSj 61. Amulya does a piece of work in 2 days fcanq bls 6 fnu esa djrk gSA nksuksa feydj and Bindu does it in 6 days. In how fdrus fnuksa esa bl dk;Z dks djsaxs \ many days will the two do it together ? (1) 2/3 fnu (1) 2/3 days (2) 3/2 fnu (2) 3/2 days (3) 5/3 fnu (3) 5/3 days (4) 3 fnu (4) 3 days
62. 20 iSls rFkk 25 iSls ds dqy 324 flDds gSa] 62. A total of 324 coins of 20 paise and 25 ftudk ;ksx ` 71 gS] rks 20 iSls ds dqy paise make a sum of ` 71, then number fdrus flDds gSa \ of 20 paise coins is : (1) 124 (2) 140 (1) 124 (2) 140 (3) 200 (4) 210 (3) 200 (4) 210
63. uhps nh xbZ la[;kJs.kh esa fdrus 6 ,sls gSa fd 63. How many 6's are there in the following izR;sd ds Bhd igys 1 ;k 5 vkrs gksa rFkk number series, each of which is Bhd ckn esa 3 ;k 9 vkrs gksa \ immediately preceded by 1 or 5 and 263756429613416391569231654321967 immediately followed by 3 or 9 ? 263756429613416391569231654321967 (1) ,d (1) One (2) nks (2) Two (3) rhu (3) Three (4) pkj (4) Four
Level-2/3209 [ 15 ] [ A ] 64. ;fn "BORN" dks "APQO" dwV fd;k tkrk 64. If "BORN" is coded as "APQO" and gS] "LACK" dks "KBBL" dwV fd;k tkrk "LACK" is coded as "KBBL", then gS] rks "GRID" dks dwV fd;k tk;sxk % "GRID" will be coded as : (1) FSEH (2) SFHE (1) FSEH (2) SFHE (3) FSHE (4) FHSE (3) FSHE (4) FHSE
65. ,d fpfM+;k?kj esa fgju ,oa eksj gSa] x.kuk 65. There are deer and peacocks in a zoo. djus ij muds fljksa dh la[;k 80 gS rFkk By counting heads they are 80. The mudh Vkaxksa dh la[;k 200 gSA rks ogk¡ eksj number of their legs is 200. How many dh la[;k fdruh gS \ peacocks are there ? (1) 20 (2) 40 (1) 20 (2) 40 (3) 52 (4) 60 (3) 52 (4) 60
66. la[;kvksa dk dkSu -lk lewg fd;s x;s lewg ds 66. Which set of numbers is like the given leku/kehZ gSa \ set ? 2, 14, 16 2, 14, 16 (1) 2, 7, 8 (1) 2, 7, 8 (2) 2, 9, 16 (2) 2, 9, 16 (3) 3, 21, 24 (3) 3, 21, 24 (4) 4, 16, 18 (4) 4, 16, 18
67. dFku % 67. Statements : I. lHkh f[kykM+h MkWDVj gSaA I. All players are doctors. II. dqN MkWDVj laxhrK gSaA II. Some doctors are musicians. fu"d"kZ % Conclusions : I. dqN MkWDVj f[kykM+h ds lkFk -lkFk laxhrK I. Some doctors are players as well as Hkh gSaA musicians. II. lHkh laxhrK MkWDVj gSaA II. All musicians are doctors. rks fuEu esa ls dkSu -lk lghlghlgh gS \ Then which of the following is correct ? (1) dsoy fu"d"kZ I vuqlj.k djrk gSA (1) Only conclusion I follows. (2) dsoy fu"d"kZ II vuqlj.k djrk gSA (2) Only conclusion II follows. (3) nksuksa fu"d"kZ I rFkk II vuqlj.k djrs gSaA (3) Both conclusion I and II follow. (4) u rks fu"d"kZ I u gh II vuqlj.k djrs gSaA (4) Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
Level-2/3209 P. T. O. [ A ] [ 16 ]
68. ;fn '+' dk rkRi;Z '÷', '×' dk rkRi;Z '–', '÷' 68. If '+' mean '÷', ' ×' mean '–', dk rkRi;Z '+' vkSj '–' dk rkRi;Z '×' gks] rks '÷' mean '+' and '–' mean '×', then 16 ÷ 8 × 6 – 2 + 12 = ? 16 ÷ 8 × 6 – 2 + 12 = ? (1) 22 (1) 22 (2) 24 (2) 24 (3) 23 (3) 23 (4) 120 (4) 120
69. A, B dh cfgu gS] C, B dh ekrk gS] D, C 69. A is B's sister, C is B's mother, D is C's dk firk gS] E, D dh ekrk gS] rks A dk D ls father, E is D's mother, then how is A D;k lEcU/k gS ? related to D ? (1) csVh (1) Daughter (2) ekrk (2) Mother (3) nknh /ukuh (3) Grand Mother (4) nknk /ukuk (4) Grand Father
70. fuEu Js.kh dk vxyk in Kkr dhft, % 70. Find the next term of the following 0, 5, 22, 57, 116, ? series : 0, 5, 22, 57, 116, ? (1) 205 (2) 216 (1) 205 (2) 216 (3) 192 (4) 207 (3) 192 (4) 207
2 2 71. 16 71. A tank is part full. If 16 litres of water ,d VSad 5 Hkkx Hkjk gS] ;fn blesa yhVj 5 6 6 is added to the tank, it becomes part ikuh vkSj Hkj fn;k tkrk gS] rks og 7 Hkkx 7 Hkj tkrk gS] rks VSad dh dqy {kerk gS % full, then total capacity of tank is : (1) 24 yhVj (1) 24 litres (2) 35 yhVj (2) 35 litres (3) 38 yhVj (3) 38 litres (4) 42 yhVj (4) 42 litres
Level-2/3209 [ 17 ] [ A ]
72. ,d yhi o"kZ esa fo"ke fnuksa dh la[;k D;k 72. What is the number of odd days in a gksrh gS \ leap year ? (1) 0 (2) 1 (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3 (3) 2 (4) 3
73. og NksVh ls NksVh la[;k Kkr dhft,] ftlesa 73. Find the least number, when divided by 12, 15, 20 vkSj 54 ls Hkkx nsus ij izR;sd 12, 15, 20 and 54, leaves in each case a n'kk esa 'ks"kQy 8 vkrk gS : remainder of 8 : (1) 504 (2) 540 (1) 504 (2) 540 (3) 546 (4) 548 (3) 546 (4) 548
74. ;fn A dh vk; B dh vk; ls 40% de gS 74. If A's income is 40% less than that of B. rks B dh vk; A dh vk; ls fdrus izfr'kr How much percent B's income is more vf/kd gS \ than that of A ? (1) 25% (2) 40% (1) 25% (2) 40% 1 2 1 2 (3) 33 % (4) 66 % (3) 33 % (4) 66 % 3 3 3 3
75. og NksVh ls NksVh la[;k Kkr dhft, ftlls 75. Find the least number by which 294 294 dks xq.kk djds ,d iw.kZ oxZ la[;k cukbZ must be multiplied to make it a perfect tk lds \ square. (1) 3 (2) 4 (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 12 (3) 6 (4) 12
2 3 4 5 6 2 3 4 5 6 76. , , , 76. If the fractions , , , and are ;fn fHkUuksa 5 8 9 13 rFkk 11 dks c<+rs gq, 5 8 9 13 11 arranged in ascending order, which one Øe esa O;ofLFkr fd;k tkrk gS rks pkSFks LFkku will be fourth place ? ij dkSu -lh fHkUu gksxh \ 3 4 3 4 (1) (2) (1) (2) 8 9 8 9 5 6 5 6 (3) (4) (3) (4) 13 11 13 11
77. izFke lkr vHkkT; la[;kvksa dk vkSlr gksxk % 77. Find the average of first seven prime numbers. (1) 8 (2) 9 (1) 8 (2) 9 1 2 1 2 (3) 8 (4) 8 (3) 8 (4) 8 7 7 7 7
Level-2/3209 P. T. O. [ A ] [ 18 ]
78. vlaxr dks Kkr dhft, % 78. Find out the odd-one : (1) EJNO (2) HMQR (1) EJNO (2) HMQR (3) KPSU (4) NSWX (3) KPSU (4) NSWX
79. vtqZu viuh ;k=k dk vk/kk Hkkx jsyxkM+h ls 79. Arjun travels half of his journey by train 120 fdeh /?k.Vk dh xfr ls rFkk vk/kk Hkkx at the speed of 120 km/hr and rest half dkj }kjk 80 fdeh /?k.Vk dh xfr ls r; djrk by car at 80 km/hr. What is his average gS] rks mldh vkSlr xfr D;k gS \ speed ? (1) 88 fdeh /?k.Vk (1) 88 km/hr (2) 92 fdeh /?k.Vk (2) 92 km/hr (3) 96 fdeh /?k.Vk (3) 96 km/hr (4) 100 fdeh /?k.Vk (4) 100 km/hr
80. ;fn 11 lUrjs 10 #i;s esa [kjhns tkrs gSa rFkk 80. If 11 oranges are bought for Rs. 10 and 10 lUrjs 11 #i;s esa csps tkrs gSa] rks ykHk sold 10 oranges for Rs. 11. What is the izfr'kr gS % gain in percentage ? (1) 11% (2) 21% (1) 11% (2) 21% (3) 25% (4) 28% (3) 25% (4) 28%
81. fx) laj{k.k ,oa iztuu dsUnz dgk¡ ij fLFkr 81. Where the Vulture Conservation and gS \ Breeding Center situated ? (1) dS: esa (1) Kairu (2) eksjuh esa (2) Morni (3) >kcqvk eas (3) Zhabua (4) fiUtkSj esa (4) Pinjore
82. fuEufyf[kr f[kykfM+;ksa esa ls fdlus iq#"kksa dh 82. Who among the following athletes won 800 ehVj nkSM+ esa ,f'k;kbZ [ksy – 2018 esa the Gold in Men's 800 m. race at Asian Lo.kZ ind thrk \ Games – 2018 ? (1) ftUlu tkWUlu (1) Jinson Johnson (2) euthr flag (2) Manjit Singh (3) vjfiUnj flag (3) Arpinder Singh (4) jkds'k dqekj (4) Rakesh Kumar Level-2/3209 [ 19 ] [ A ] 83. gfj;k.kk dk {ks= tks iwoZ e/;dky esa HkMkudks 83. The area of Haryana, which was ds izHkko {ks= ds vUrxZr ekuk tkrk Fkk % considered under the sphere of influence of Bhadanakas during the Pre-
medieval period : (1) jsokM+h (2) vackyk (1) Rewari (2) Ambala (3) ikuhir (4) dq#{ks= (3) Panipat (4) Kurukshetra 84. ykyk eqjyh/kj ds ckjs esa fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa 84. Consider the following statements about ij fopkj dhft, % Lala Murlidhar : (a) mUgksaus vackyk esa odkyr dhA (a) He practiced Law at Ambala. (b) mUgksaus cEcbZ esa vk;ksftr dkaxszl ds izFke (b) He attended the first session of vf/kos'ku esa Hkkx fy;kA Congress held at Bombay. mi;qZDr esa ls dkSu -lk /dkSu -ls dFku lR;lR;lR; gS/ Which of the above statement/statements gSa \ is/are true ? (1) dsoy (a) lR; gSA (1) Only (a) is true. (2) dsoy (b) lR; gSA (2) Only (b) is true. (3) u rks (a) vkSj u gh (b) lR; gSA (3) Neither (a) nor (b) is true. (4) nksuksa (a) vkSj (b) lR; gSaA (4) Both (a) and (b) are true. 85. ogkch usrk ftls 19 oha 'krkCnh ds nkSjku 85. The Wahabi leader, who was arrested in ns'knzksg ds vkjksi esa fxj ¶rkj fd;k x;k % charge of Sedition during 19th century : (1) ð eqgEen t+Q j (1) Muhammad Zafar (2) xT+t+u [kku (2) Ghazzan Khan (3) eqckjd vyh (3) Mubarak Ali (4) lyeku [kku (4) Salman Khan 86. fuEufyf[kr dks lqesfyr dhft, % 86. Match the following : 'kS{kf.kd dsUdsUnznznznz ftyk Education Institute District A. vkbZ0 vkbZ0 vkbZ0 Vh0 (i) jksgrd A. I. I. I. T. (i) Rohtak B. vkbZ0 vkbZ0 ,e0 (ii) lksuhir B. I. I. M. (ii) Sonipat C. ,u0 vkbZ0 Mh0 (iii) iapdqyk C. N. I. D. (iii) Punchkula D. ,u0 vkbZ0 ,Q0 Vh0 (iv) dq#{ks= D. N. I. F. T. (iv) Kurukshetra
lgh dwV pqfu, % Choose the correct code : A B C D A B C D (1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) (3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) (4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Level-2/3209 P. T. O. [ A ] [ 20 ] 87. >T>j ftys esa fdrus oU;tho vHk;kj.; gSa \ 87. How many Wildlife Sanctuaries are there in Jhajjar district ? (1) nks (1) Two (2) rhu (2) Three (3) ,d (3) One (4) pkj (4) Four 88. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu -ls ftys esa lcls de 88. Which of the following districts has the 'kgjh tula[;k gS \ lowest urban population ? (1) esokr (1) Mewat (2) egsUnzx<+ (2) Mahendragarh (3) than (3) Jind (4) fljlk (4) Sirsa 89. ds ,e ih ,Dlizsl ekxZ ds ckjs esa fuEufyf[kr 89. Consider the following statements about dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft, % KMP Expressway : (a) ;g ^osLVuZ isfjQsjy ,Dlizslos* ds :i esa (a) It is also known as Western Hkh tkuk tkrk gSA Peripheral Expressway. (b) ds ,e ih ,Dlizsl ekxZ ij ik¡p u, (b) Five new cities will be developed 'kgjksa dk fodkl fd;k tk;sxkA along with the KMP Expressway. mi;qZDr esa ls dkSu -lk /dkSu -ls dFku lR; Which of the above statement/s is/are gS/gSa \ true ? (1) dsoy (a) lR; gSA (1) Only (a) is true. (2) dsoy (b) lR; gSA (2) Only (b) is true. (3) u rks (a) vkSj u gh (b) lR; gSA (3) Neither (a) nor (b) is true. (4) nksuksa (a) vkSj (b) lR; gSaA (4) Both (a) and (b) are true. 90. gfj;k.kk esa fdruh rglhy gSa \ 90. How many Tahsils are there in Haryana ? (1) 71 (2) 93 (1) 71 (2) 93 (3) 76 (4) 68 (3) 76 (4) 68
Level-2/3209 [ 21 ] [ A ] HkkxHkkxHkkx – IV / PART – IV laxhr / MUSIC funsZ'k % fuEufyf[kr iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsus ds fy, lcls mfpr fodYi pqfu,A Direction : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option. 91. ^tu&x.k&eu* dks Hkkjr ds jk"Vª&xku ds :Ik 91. 'Jana-Gana-Mana' adopted as national esa dc Lohdkj fd;k x;k \ anthem of India on : (1) 14 vxLr 1947 (2) 26 tuojh 1948 (1) 14 Aug. 1947 (2) 26 Jan. 1948 (3) 24 tuojh 1950 (4) 15 vxLr 1952 (3) 24 Jan. 1950 (4) 15 Aug. 1952 92. jfoUnz laxhr esa lokZf/kd iz;qDr jkx gS % 92. The most used Rag in Rabindra Sangeet is : (1) [kekt (2) vklkojh (1) Khamaj (2) Asavari (3) ;eu (4) HkSjoh (3) Yaman (4) Bhairvi
93. dFku % 93. Statement : A. iwjc rFkk iatkc vax Bqejh xk;u dh A. Purab and Punjab-ang are the styles 'kSfy;k¡ gSaA of Thumri. B. iwjc vax Bqejh esa ^rku* dk iz;ksx izeq[k B. Uses of 'Taan' in Purab-ang Thumri vkd"kZ.k gSA is a major attraction. mÙkj % Answer : (1) A lgh] B xyr (1) A correct, B false (2) B lgh] A xyr (2) B correct, A false (3) A rFkk B nksuksa lgh (3) A and B both correct (4) A rFkk B nksuksa xyr (4) A and B both false 94. dFku % 94. Statement : A. jktk ekuflag rksej dks /kzqin rFkk A. Raja Mansingh Tomar is for Dhrupad and Mohammad Shah eksgEen 'kkg jaxhys dks [;ky dk Rangile is considered as a patron of vkJ;nkrk ekuk tkrk gSA Khayal. B. okftn vyh 'kkg ds njckj esa Bqejh dk B. Thumri was developed in the Court fodkl gqvkA of Wajid Ali Shah. mÙkj % Answer : (1) dsoy A lgh (1) Only A correct (2) dsoy B lgh (2) Only B correct (3) A, B nksuksa lgh (3) A, B both correct (4) A, B nksuksa xyr (4) A, B both wrong
Level-2/3209 P. T. O. [ A ] [ 22 ]
95. Lojfyfi i)fr eas xyrxyrxyr fpUg dks NkafV, % 95. Which sign is wrong in notation system : Hkkr[k.Ms iyqLdj Bhatkhande Paluskar (1) le × A (1) Sam × A (2) [kkyh 0 $ (2) Khali 0 $ A (3) dksey js js (3) Komal Re ReA (4) eanz /k+ /ka (4) Mandra Dha + Dha
a 96. lqesfyr dhft, % 96. Match the following : A. lka fu /k i] /k e x i. ckxsJh A. Sa a Ni Dha Pa, Dha Ma Ga i. Bageshri B. lka fu · i] x e x ii. [kekt B. Sa a Ni · Pa, Ga Ma Ga ii. Khamaj C. x e /k ··] fu /k lka iii. fcgkx C. Ga Ma Dha ·· , Ni Dha Sa a iii. Bihag D. x e /k fu /k] e x iv. gehj D. Ga Ma Dha Ni Dha, Ma Ga iv. Hamir mÙkj %%% Answer : (1) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i (1) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i (2) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii (2) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii (3) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii (3) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii (4) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv (4) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv 97. ^tok* ls ctk;k tkus okyk ok| gS % 97. The instrument played by 'Java' : (1) bljkt (2) ok;fyu (1) Israj (2) Violin (3) ljksn (4) fny#ck (3) Sarod (4) Dilruba
98. dkSu&lh FkkV&jkx tksM+h lghlghlgh gS \ 98. Which Thaat-Rag pair is correct ? (1) dsnkj & dY;k.k (1) Kedar - Kalyan (2) vklkojh & ckxsJh (2) Asavari – Bageshri (3) nsl & dkQh (3) Desh – Kafi (4) gehj & fcykoy (4) Hamir – Bilawal 99. iyqLdj Lojfyfi esa ^ 0* fpUg D;k n'kkZrk 99. Sign ^0* is depicted in Paluskar Notation gS \ for : 1 1 (1) 1 (2) (1) 1 Beat (2) Beat ek=k 2 ek=k 2 1 1 (3) (4) 4 (3) Beat (4) 4 Beat 4 ek=k ek=k 4
Level-2/3209 [ 23 ] [ A ] 100. laxhr jRukdj ds fdl v/;k; esa o.kZ rFkk 100. Which chapter of Sangeet Ratnakar vyadkj dk mYys[k gS \ describe 'Varna' and 'Alankar' ? (1) izdh.kZdk/;k; (1) Prakeernkadhyay (2) izca/kk/;k; (2) Prabandhadhyay (3) jkxfoosdk/;k; (3) Ragvivekadhyay (4) Lojk/;k; (4) Swaradhyay
101. vkdk'kok.kh }kjk tks dk;Z ughaughaugha fd;k tkrk 101. Which is not done by All India Radio ? gS % (1) dykdkjksa dks xzsM (1) Gradation to artist (2) iqLrd izdk'ku (2) Book Publication (3) laxhr lEesyu (3) Sangeet Sammelan (4) laxhr izfr;ksfxrk (4) Music Competition 102. lk;a 1-4 ¼fnu ds r`rh; igj½ esa xk;k tkus 102. The Rag known to be sung between okyk jkx gS % 1-4 PM (Third 'Pahar' of Day) is : (1) fcgkx (2) nsl (1) Bihag (2) Desh (3) [kekt (4) Hkheiyklh (3) Khamaj (4) Bhimpalasi
103. dFku % 103. Statement : A. ^oans&ekrje~* ls iqjkuk xhr gS A. 'Jana-Gana-Mana' is older song ^tu&x.k&eu*A than 'Vande-Matram'. B. ^tu&x.k&eu* xhr vkuan&eB eas fy[kk B. 'Jana-Gana-Mana' was written in x;k gSA Anand-Math. mÙkj % Answer : (1) dsoy A lgh (1) Only A correct (2) dsoy B lgh (2) Only B correct (3) A rFkk B nksuksa lgh (3) A and B both correct (4) A rFkk B nksuksa xyr (4) A and B both wrong 104. dqfpiqM+h u`R; dks eap ij ykus dk Js; fdls 104. Who has the credit for bringing gS \ Kuchipudi dance on stage ? (1) jfoUnzukFk VSxksj (1) Ravindranath Tagore (2) mn; 'kadj (2) Udai Shankar (3) flrsUnz ;ksxh (3) Sitendra Yogi (4) fiYybZ ca/kq (4) Pillai Brothers
Level-2/3209 P. T. O. [ A ] [ 24 ] 105. nwjn'kZu dk vkn'kZ okD; D;k gS \ 105. What is the motto of Doordarshan ? (1) cgqtu fgrk;] cgqtu lq[kk; (1) Bahujan Hitay, Bahujan Sukhay (2) lR;e~ f'koe~ lqUnje~ (2) Satyam Shivam Sundaram (3) d`.oUrks fo'oa vk;± (3) Krinvanto Vishwam Aryam (4) ;ksx{ksea ogkE;ge~ (4) Yogakshemam Vahamyaham 106. fuEufyf[kr rkyksa dks igpkfu, % 106. Identify these Taals : 1. xfn xu 1. Gadi Gan 3 3
2. xfn xu 2. Gadi Gan 0 0 (1) pkSrky] rhozk (1) Choutal, Teevra (2) lwyrky] pkSrky (2) Sooltal, Choutal (3) rhozk] lwyrky (3) Teevra, Sooltal (4) nhipanh] lwyrky (4) Deepchandi, Sooltal
107. jk"Vª&xku dh vafre iafDr dk lgh Lojkadu 107. The correct notation of last line of the gS % national anthem : ßt; t; t; t; gs ------Þ "Jaya Jaya Jaya Jaya He ……." is : (1) lklk jsjs xx jse i ------(1) SaSa ReRe GaGa ReMa Pa …. (2) fu+fu+ jsjs xx fu+js lk ------(2) N+iN +i ReRe GaGa N +iRe Sa …. (3) jsjs xx ii jsx i ------(3) ReRe GaGa PaPa ReGa Pa …. (4) lklk jsjs xx jsx e ------(4) SaSa ReRe GaGa ReGa Ma ….
108. dFkd u`R; dk ?kjkuk ughaughaugha gS % 108. Not a Gharana of Kathak Dance : (1) fnYyh ?kjkuk (1) Delhi Gharana (2) cukjl ?kjkuk (2) Banaras Gharana (3) y[kuÅ ?kjkuk (3) Lucknow Gharana (4) t;iqj ?kjkuk (4) Jaipur Gharana 109. ^vfHku;* ds fdl izdkj esa & os'kHkw"kk] 109. In which type of 'Abhinaya' the costume, vkHkw"k.k] eq[kkSVs ----- lfEefyr gSa \ ornaments, mask ………. are included ? (1) vkafxd (2) okfpd (1) Angik (2) Vachik (3) lkfRod (4) vkgk;Z (3) Satvik (4) Aharya
Level-2/3209 [ 25 ] [ A ] 110. jk"Vª&xku ds :Ik esa ewy xhr ds fdrus inca/k 110. How many stanzas has been adopted vf/kx`fgr fd, x, \ from the poem as the National Anthem ? (1) 4 (2) 3 (1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1 (3) 2 (4) 1 111. ^"kk
Level-2/3209 P. T. O. [ A ] [ 26 ] 117. fdl u`R;dkj dh 'kSyh dks ^vksfj,.Vy u`R; 117. Which dancer's style is called 'Oriental 'kSyh* dgk tkrk gS \ dance form' ? (1) #fDe.kh nsoh (1) Rukmini Devi (2) jktk&jk/kk jsìh (2) Raja-Radha Reddy (3) mn; 'kadj (3) Udai Shankar (4) dsyqpju egkik= (4) Kelucharan Mahapatra 118. ^rjkuk* fdl xhr jpuk dk ,d Hkkx gS \ 118. Tarana is a part of which song form ? (1) ljxe xhr (1) Sargam Geet (2) y{k.k xhr (2) Lakshan Geet (3) Bqejh (3) Thumri (4) prqjax (4) Chaturang 119. ^f/ka DM~ f/ka rk* cksy ;qDr jpuk dgykrh gS % 119. Composition Contain – 'Dhin Kda Dhin Ta' words known as : (1) dk;nk (1) Kayda (2) jsyk (2) Rela (3) is'kdkj (3) Peshkar (4) yXxh (4) Laggi 120. ^fpujSLV* 'kCn fdlls lacaf/kr gS \ 120. The term 'Chinrest' is related with : (1) ckalqjh (2) eSaMksfyu (1) Flute (2) Mandolin (3) ok;fyu (4) fxVkj (3) Violin (4) Guitar 121. ^cM+s xqyke vyh [kka* dks bl uke ls Hkh tkuk 121. 'Bade Gulam Ali Khan' is also known tkrk gS % as : (1) lcjax (2) gjjax (1) Sabrang (2) Harrang (3) eujax (4) 'kks[kjax (3) Manrang (4) Shokhrang 122. ^ykL;* ds izdkj gSa % 122. The types of 'Lasya' are : (1) ;kSor] Nqfjr (1) Yovat, Chhurit (2) f=iqj] lagkj (2) Tripur, Sanhar (3) fo"ke] fodV (3) Visham, Vikat (4) vkafxd] vkgk;Z (4) Angik, Aharya
Level-2/3209 [ 27 ] [ A ] 123. ia0 fo".kq fnxacj iyqLdj ds f'k"; ughaughaugha gSa % 123. Not a disciple of Pt. V. D. Paluskar : (1) ia0 ch0 vkj0 nso/kj (1) Pt. B. R. Deodhar (2) ia0 fouk;d jko iVo/kZu (2) Pt. Vinayak Rao Patwardhan (3) ukjk;.k jko O;kl (3) Narayan Rao Vyas (4) Ñ".k jko 'kadj iafMr (4) Krishna Rao Shankar Pandit 124. guqeUer eas ,d jkx dh jkfxfu;k¡ gSa % 124. How many Ragini of one Rag in Hanuman sect ? (1) 5 (2) 6 (1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 30 (4) 36 (3) 30 (4) 36 125. le; fl)kar ds vuqlkj iwok±xoknh jkxksa dk 125. The time of Purvangvadi Raga as per le; gS % time theory is : (1) fnu ds 12 ls jkf= 12 cts (1) 12 Noon to 12 Midnight (2) jkf= ds 12 ls fnu 12 cts (2) 12 Midnight to 12 Noon (3) izkr%dky rFkk lk;adky (3) Dawn and Dusk (4) fnu dk izFke ^igj* (4) 1st ‘Pahar’ of day 126. ^jkseu esXlsls iqjLdkj* izkIrdrkZ izFke Hkkjrh; 126. First Indian musician to receive the laxhrK gSa % 'Roman Magsaysay Award' is : (1) ia0 jfo'kadj (1) Pt. Ravi Shankar (2) ,e0 ,l0 lqCcqy{eh (2) M. S. Subbulakshmi (3) fcfLeYykg [kka (3) Bismillah Khan (4) ia0 Hkhelsu tks'kh (4) Pt. Bhimsen Joshi 127. vksfMlh u`R; ds vkHkw"k.k] fdl dyk ds uewus 127. Jewellery of Odissi dance are the gSa \ samples of : (1) rkjd'kh dyk (2) mLrk dyk (1) Tarkashi art (2) Usta art (3) cksedkbZ dyk (4) lacyiqjh dyk (3) Bomkai art (4) Sambalpuri art 128. ^uÙkqou* ;k ^uVqoukj* ls rkRi;Z gS % 128. 'Nattuvan' or 'Nattuvanar' means : (1) vksfMlh u`R; dk laxhr (1) Music of Odissi Dance (2) ef.kiqjh u`R; ds dsUnz (2) Manipuri Dance Centers (3) dqfpiqM+h u`R; dk eap (3) Stage of Kuchipudi Dance (4) HkjrukV~;e u`R;&xq# (4) Bharatnatyam Dance Teachers 129. gfj;k.kk ds fdl ftys esa xk¡oksa ds uke 129. In which district of Haryana, the name ¼Hkksikyh] fcykoy] fgaMksy ----½ jkxksa ds leku of Villages (Bhopali, Bilawal Hindol ...) gSa \ are similar to Raga ? (1) pj[kh&nknjh (2) lksuhir (1) Charkhi-Dadri (2) Sonipat (3) >Ttj (4) fglkj (3) Jhajjar (4) Hisar
Level-2/3209 P. T. O. [ A ] [ 28 ] 130. #fDe.kh nsoh }kjk LFkkfir ^dyk{ks= 130. 'Kalakshetra Foundation' was established QkmUMs'ku* dk LFkkiuk o"kZ gS % by Rukmini Devi in which year ? (1) 1918 (2) 1922 (1) 1918 (2) 1922 (3) 1936 (4) 1952 (3) 1936 (4) 1952 131. ^iaMokuh* fo/kk dh iz[;kr dykdkj gSa % 131. Famous artist of 'Pandwani' form is : (1) yyu Qdhj (2) lkdj [kka (1) Lalan Fakir (2) Saakar Khan (3) rhtu ckbZ (4) xqykcks (3) Teejan Bai (4) Gulabo
132. gfj;k.kk ds yksd laxhr esa dkSu&lk ok| 132. Which instrument is not used in folk iz;qDr ughaughaugha fd;k tkrk \ music of Haryana ? (1) chu@iwaxh (2) MQ (1) Been/Pungi (2) Daf (3) fpeVk (4) isuk (3) Chimta (4) Pena 133. caxky esa ukfod ,oa eNqvkjksa ds xhr gSa % 133. The song of sailors and fisherman of Bengal are : (1)
137. ia0 Hkkr[kaMs }kjk LFkkfir laxhr fo|ky; ughaughaugha 137. Which Music school was not gS % established by Pt. Bhatkhande ? (1) ek/ko laxhr fo|ky; & Xokfy;j (1) Madhav Sangeet Vidyalaya – Gwalior (2) vk;Z laxhr fo|ky; & iwuk (2) Arya Sangeet Vidyalaya – Pune (3) eSfjl E;qftd dkWyst & y[kuÅ (3) Marris Music College – Lucknow (4) E;qftd dkWyst & cM+kSnk (4) Music College – Baroda Level-2/3209 [ 29 ] [ A ] 138. fjDr LFkku dh iwfrZ dhft, % 138. Fill in the blank : "Gan Kriyochyte ………………… Sa ßxku fØ;ksP;rs% ------l prq/kkZfu#fir%AÞ Chaturdhanirupitah." (1) Loj (2) o.kZ (1) Swar (2) Varna (3) rku (4) xed (3) Taan (4) Gamak 139. fdl rky ds ,d pØ esa] lwyrky] nhipanh 139. In a cycle of which tal, the 'Chogun' of rFkk f=rky rkyksa ds ,d vkorZu dh pkSxqu one avartan of Sooltal, Deepchandi and laHko gS \ Trital is possible ? (1) rhozk (2) dgjok (1) Teevra (2) Keharva (3) >irky (4) :id (3) Jhaptal (4) Rupak 140. gfj;k.kk ds izfl) yksd laLd`fr dehZ gSa % 140. Famous Folk cultural figure of Haryana is : (1) izg~ykn frifu;k (1) Prahlad Tipaniya (2) nknk y[keh pan (2) Dada Lakhmi Chand (3) ek;k tk/ko (3) Maya Jadhav (4) fpjathyky raoj (4) Chiranjilal Tanwar 141. lqesfyr dhft;s % 141. Match the following : A. xed i. vpjd A. Gamak i. Achrak B. rku ii. Nanksorh B. Taan ii. Chhandovati C. Jqfr iii. lapkjh C. Shruti iii. Sanchari D. o.kZ iv. frfji D. Varna iv. Tirip mÙkj %%% Answer : (1) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i (1) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i (2) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i (2) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i (3) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii (3) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii (4) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii (4) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii 142. 72 FkkV i)fr dk vk/kkj gS % 142. The basis of 72 Thaat system is : (1) /keZ (1) Religion (2) xf.kr (2) Mathematics (3) euksfoKku (3) Psychology (4) n'kZu'kkL= (4) Philosophy 143. iq#fy;k] e;wjHkat rFkk ljkbdsyk fdldh 143. Purulia, Saraikela and Mayurbhanj are 'kSfy;k¡ gSa \ the styles of : (1) HkaxM+k (2) NkÅ (1) Bhangra (2) Chhau (3) (4) (3) Lawani (4) Pandwani Ykkouh iaMokuh Level-2/3209 P. T. O. [ A ] [ 30 ] 144. jfoUnz laxhr esa vf/kdka'kr% fdl Lojfyfi dk 144. Which Notation system is mostly used iz;ksx gksrk gS \ in Rabindra Sangeet ? (1) vkdkj ekf=d Lojfyfi (1) Aakar matric Notation (2) Hkkr[k.Ms Lojfyfi (2) Bhatkhande Notation (3) ekSyk c['k Lojfyfi (3) Moula Baksh Notation (4) iyqLdj Lojfyfi (4) Paluskar Notation
145. gfj;k.kk dk yksd u`R; ughaughaugha gS % 145. Not a folk dance of Haryana : (1) /keky (2) >wej (1) Dhamal (2) Jhoomar (3) ywj (4) NkÅ (3) Loor (4) Chhau 146. varj&xa/kkj ;qDr ewPNZuk dgykrh gS % 146. 'Moorchhna' containing 'Antar-Gandhar' is called as : (1) lkarjk (1) Santara (2) lk/kkj.khÑrk (2) Sadharanikrita (3) "kk 147. ^>Eid* rky dk lghlghlgh Lo:Ik gS % 147. Find the correct form of 'Jhampak' Tal : (1) 5 ek=k] 2 foHkkx (1) 5 Beat, 2 Section (2) 6 ek=k] 2 foHkkx (2) 6 Beat, 2 Section (3) 8 ek=k] 3 foHkkx (3) 8 Beat, 3 Section (4) 10 ek=k] 3 foHkkx (4) 10 Beat, 3 Section 148. ^Loj esy dykfuf/k* esa of.kZr ^esy* dh la[;k 148. Numbers of 'MEL' mentioned in 'Swar gS % Mel Kalanidhi' is : (1) 19 (2) 20 (1) 19 (2) 20 (3) 23 (4) 15 (3) 23 (4) 15 149. ^Bqejh* ds lkFk iz;qDr rky gS % 149. Which Tal is used with 'Thumri' ? (1) pkSrky (2) nhipanh (1) Choutal (2) Deepchandi (3) rhozk (4) ,drky (3) Teevra (4) Ektal 150. fHkUu NkafV, % 150. Find the different : (1) /kzqo (2) 'kaik (1) Dhruva (2) Shampa (3) lfUuikr (4) ;fr (3) Sannipat (4) Yati Level-2/3209 6. iz'uksa ds mÙkj] mÙkj i=d esa fu/kkZfjr [kkuksa dks dkys@uhys 6. Answers to questions in answer sheet are to be given by ckWy IokbaV iSu ls iw.kZr;k Hkjuk gS] tSlk fd uhps fn[kk;k darkening complete circle using Black/Blue ball point pen x;k gS % as shown below : 1 3 4 1 3 4 vki }kjk fn;k x;k mÙkj xyr ekuk tk,xk] ;fn mÙkj okys The answer will be treated wrong, if it is marked, as given below : [kkus dks fuEu izdkj ls Hkjrs gSa % ;fn ,d ls T;knk [kkuksa dks Hkj nsrs gSa rks vkidk mÙkj xyr If you fill more than one circle it will be treated as a wrong ekuk tk,xkA answer. 7. jQ dk;Z iz'u&iqfLrdk esa bl iz;kstu ds fy, nh xbZ [kkyh txg ij gh djsaA (Rough work should be done only in the space provided in the Question Booklet for the same.) 8. lHkh mÙkj dsoy OMR mÙkj i=d ij gh vafdr djsaA vius mÙkj /;kuiwoZd vafdr djsaA mÙkj cnyus gsrq 'osr jatd ¼lQsn ¶Y;wM½ dk iz;ksx fuf"k) gSA (The answers are to be recorded on the OMR Answer Sheet only. Mark your responses carefully. Whitener (white fluid) is not allowed for changing answers.) 9. izR;sd iz’u ds fy, fn, x, pkj fodYiksa esa ls mfpr fodYi ds fy, OMR mÙkj i=d ij dsoy ,d o`Ùk dks gh iwjh rjg uhys@dkys ckWy IokbaV iSu ls HkjsaA ,d ckj mÙkj vafdr djus ds ckn mls cnyk ugha tk ldrk gSA (Out of the four alternatives for each question, only one circle for the most appropriate answer is to be darkened completely with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen on the OMR Answer Sheet. The answer once marked is not allowed to be changed.) 10. vH;FkhZ lqfuf’pr djsa fd bl mÙkj i=d dks eksM+k u tk, ,oa ml ij dksbZ vU; fu’kku u yxk,¡A vH;FkhZ viuk vuqØekad mÙkj i=d esa fu/kkZfjr LFkku ds vfrfjDr vU;= u fy[ksaA (The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Answer Sheet.) 11. iz'u&iqfLrdk ,oa mÙkj i=d dk /;kuiwoZd iz;ksx djsa] D;ksafd fdlh Hkh ifjfLFkfr esa ¼iz'u&iqfLrdk ,oa mÙkj i=d ds Øekad esa fHkUurk dh fLFkfr dks NksM+dj½ nwljh iz'u iqfLrdk lSV miyC/k ugha djokbZ tk,xh A (Handle the Question Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, as under no circumstances (except for discrepancy in Question Booklet and Answer Sheet Serial No.), another set of Question Booklet will not be provided .) 12. iz'u&iqfLrdk@mÙkj i=d esa fn, x, Øekad dks vH;FkhZ lgh rjhds ls gLrk{kj pkVZ esa fy[ksaA (The candidates will write the correct Number as given in the Question Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Signature Chart.) 13. vH;FkhZ dks ijh{kk gkWy@d{k esa izos’k i= vkSj igpku i= ds vfrfjDr fdlh izdkj dh ikB~;lkexzh] eqfnzr ;k gLrfyf[kr dkxt dh ifpZ;k¡] istj] eksckby Qksu] bysDVªkWfud midj.k ;k fdlh vU; izdkj dh lkexzh dks ys tkus ;k mi;ksx djus dh vuqefr ugha gSA (Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, electronic device or any other material except the Admit Card and Identity Card inside the examination hall/room.) 14. i;Zos{kd }kjk iwNs tkus ij izR;sd vH;FkhZ viuk izos’k dkMZ ¼jksy ua0½ vkSj igpku i= fn[kk,¡A (Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit Card (Roll No.) and identity card to the Invigilator.) 15. dsUnz v/kh{kd ;k i;Zos{kd dh fo’ks"k vuqefr ds fcuk dksbZ vH;FkhZ viuk LFkku u NksMa+sA (No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, should leave his/her seat.) 16. dk;Zjr i;Zos{kd dks viuk mÙkj i=d fn, fcuk ,oa gLrk{kj pkVZ ij nksckjk gLrk{kj fd, fcuk vH;FkhZ ijh{kk gkWy ugha NksMa+sxsA ;fn fdlh vH;FkhZ us nwljh ckj gLrk{kj pkVZ ij gLrk{kj ugha fd, rks ;g ekuk tk,xk fd mlus mÙkj i=d ugha ykSVk;k gS vkSj ;g vuqfpr lk/ku dk ekeyk ekuk tk,xkA OMR mÙkj i=d esa fu/kkZfjr LFkku ij lHkh vH;fFkZ;ksa }kjk ck;sa gkFk ds vaxwBs dk fu’kku yxk;k tkuk gSA vaxwBs dk fu'kku yxkrs le; bl ckr dk /;ku j[kk tk , fd L;kgh lgh ek=k esa gh yxkbZ tk, vFkkZr~ L;kgh dh ek=k u rks cgqr vf/kd gks o u gh cgqr deA (The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and signing the Signature Chart twice. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Signature Chart second time will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case. All candidates have to affix left hand thumb impression on the OMR answer sheet at the place specified which should be properly inked i.e. they should not be either over inked or dried in nature. ) 17. bysDVªkWfud@gLrpkfyr ifjdyd dk mi;ksx oftZr gSA (Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.) 18. ijh{kk gkWy esa vkpj.k ds fy,] vH;FkhZ foojf.kdk esa nh xbZ izfØ;k@fn’kk&funsZ’k o cksMZ ds lHkh fu;eksa ,oa fofu;eksa dk fo'ks"k /;ku j[ksaA vuqfpr lk/kuksa ds lHkh ekeyksa dk QSlyk cksMZ ds fu;eksa ,oa fofu;eksa ds vuqlkj gksxkA (The candidates are governed by Guidelines/Procedure given in the Information Bulletin, all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board.) 19. fdlh gkyr esa iz'u&iqfLrdk vkSj mÙkj i=d dk dksbZ Hkkx vyx u djsaA (No part of the Question Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.) 20. ijh{kk lEiUu gksus ij] vH;FkhZ d{k@gkWy NksM+us ls iwoZ mÙkj i=d d{k&i;Zos{kd dks vo’; lkSai nsaA vH;FkhZ vius lkFk bl iz'u&iqfLrdk dks ys tk ldrs gSaA (On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator in the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Question Booklet with them.)