Saidai Sa. Duraisamy’s Manidhanaeyam Free IAS Academy (Run by Manidha Naeyam Charitable Trust) 28, 1st main Road, CIT Nagar, Chennai-35 (HO) A-Block Old No.A9 New No. A 41, 6th Street, Anna Nagar East, Chennai – 600 102 E Mail Address : [email protected] Website : saidais.com

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GROUP – 2A SAMACHEER BOOKS: 9th & 10th - Social Science & Aptitude: Ratio Proportion & Profit and Loss [Time Allowed : 2 Hours] TEST-4 [Maximum Marks: 150] Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions. IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

1. This Booklet has a cover (this page) which should not be opened till the invigilator gives signal to open it at the commencement of the examination. As soon as the signal is received you should tear the right side of the booklet cover carefully to open the booklet. Then proceed to answer the question. 2. This Question Booklet contains 150 questions. 3. Answer all questions. All Questions carry equal marks. 4. The Test Booklet is printed in ‘A’ series booklet, he/she has to indicate in the side 2 of the Answer Sheet with Blue or Black Ink Ball point pen as follows:

[A] [B] [C] [D] A

5. You must write your Register Number in the space provide on the top right side of this page. Do not write anything else on the Question Booklet. 6. An Answer Sheet will be supplied to you separately by the invigilator to mark the answers. You must write your Name, Register No. and other particulars on side 1 of the Answer Sheet provided, failing which your Answer sheet will not be evaluated. 7. You will also encode your Register Number, Subject Code etc., with Blue or Black Ink Ball Point Pen in the space provided on the side 1 of the Answer Sheet. If you do not encode properly or fail to encode the above information. Your Answer Sheet will not be evaluated. 8. Each question comprises four response [A], [B], [C] and [D]. You have to select ONLY ONE correct response and mark in your Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there are more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each question. Your total marks will depend on the number of correct responses marked by you in the Answer Sheet. 9. In the Answer Sheet there are four brackets [A], [B],[C] and [D] against each question. To answer the questions you are to mark with Ball point pen ONLY ONE bracket of your choice for each question. Select one response for each question in the Question Booklet and mark it in the Answer Sheet. If you mark more than one answer for one question, the answer will be treated as wrong. E.g. If for any item, [A] is the correct answer, you have to mark as follows: [A] [B] [C] [D] 10. You should not remove or tear off any sheet from this Question Booklet. You are not allowed to take this Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet out of the Examination Hall during the examination. After the examination is concluded, you must hand over your Answer Sheet to the invigilator. You are allowed to take the Question Booklet with you one after the Examination is over. 11. The sheet before the last page of the Question Booklet can be used for Rough Work. 12. In all matters and in cases of doubt, the English Version is final. 13. Do not tick-mark or mark the answer in the Question Booklet.

Saidai Sa. Duraisamy’s Manidhanaeyam Free IAS Academy (Run by Manidha Naeyam Charitable Trust) 28, 1st main Road, CIT Nagar, Chennai-35 (HO) A-Block Old No.A9 New No. A 41, 6th Street, Anna Nagar East, Chennai – 600 102 E Mail Address : [email protected] Website : saidais.com

tpdhj;jhs; thpir gjpT vz; F&g;- 2A rkr;rPh; Gj;jfk;: 9k; kw;Wk; 10k; tFg;G – r%f mwptpay; kw;Wk; jpwdwpjy;: tpfpjq;fs;> yhgk; kw;Wk; ,og;G Njh;T-4 [ mDkjpf;fgl;Ls;s Neuk;: 2kzp ] [ nkhj;j kjpg;ngz;fs; : 150] tpdhf;fSf;F gjpyspf;FKd; fPo;f;fz;l mwpTiufis ftdkhfg; gbf;fTk; Kf;fpa mwpTiufs; 1. ,e;j tpdhj; njhFg;G xU NkYiwia (,e;j gf;fj;ij)f; nfhz;Ls;sJ. Njh;T njhlq;Fk; Neuj;jpy; tpdhj;njhFg;igj; jpwf;Fk;gb fz;zfhzpg;ghsh; $Wk; tiuapy; NkYiwiaj; jpwf;ff; $lhJ. tpdhj;njhFg;igj; jpwf;Fk;gbahd nra;if fz;fhzpg;ghshplkpUe;J ngw;wTld; NkYiwapd; tyJGwj;ij ftdkhf fpopj;Jj; jpwf;f Ntz;Lk;. mjd;gpd; Nfs;tpfSf;F tpilaspf;fj; njhlq;fyhk;. 2. ,e;j tpdhj; njhFg;G 150 tpdhf;fisf; nfhz;Ls;sJ. 3. vy;yh tpdhf;fSf;Fk; tpilaspf;fTk;. vy;yh tpdhf;fSk; rkkhd kjpg;ngz;fs; nfhz;lit 4. tpdhj; njhFg;G vd;w xU thpirapy; mr;rplg;gl;Ls;sJ. (,e;j gf;fj;jpd; ,lJ Nky; %iyapy; A cs;s fl;lj;ijg; ghh;f;fTk;) tpz;zg;gjhuh; tpdhj;jhs; thpiria tpilj;jhspy; mjw;nfd mike;Js;s ,lj;jpy; Fwpj;Jf; fhz;gpf;f Ntz;k;. cjhuzkhf xU tpz;zg;gjhuh; vd;Dk; tpdhj; njhFg;G ngw;wpwUe;jhy A mth;mij jd;Dila tpilj;jhspd; ,uz;lhk; gf;fj;jpy; fPNo fhz;gpj;Js;sthW ePyk; my;yJ fUik epwikAila ge;JKidg; Ngdhtpdhy; Fwpj;Jf;fhl;l Ntz;Lk;.

[A] [B] [C] [D] A

5. cq;fSila gjpT vz;iz ,e;jg; gf;fj;jpd; tyJ Nky; %iyapy; mjw;nfd mike;Js;s ,lj;jpy; ePq;fs; vOj Ntz;Lk; NtW vijAk; tpdhj; njhFg;gpy; vOjf; $lhJ. 6. tpilfisf; Fwpj;Jf; fhl;l vd> tpilj;jhs; xd;W cq;fSf;F fz;fhzpg;ghsuhy; jdpahfj; jug;gLk;. tpilj;jhspd; Kjy; gf;fj;jpy; cq;fSila gjpT vz;> ngah; kw;Wk; Nfl;Ls;s tpguq;fis ePq;fs; vOj Ntz;Lk;: jtwpdhy; cq;fsJ tpilj;jhs; nry;yhjjhf;fg;gLk;. 7. cq;fSila gjpT vz;> Njh;Tj;jhs; vz; Kjypatw;iwAk; tpilj;jhspd; ,uz;lhk; gf;fj;jpy; mitfSf;fhf mike;Js;s ,lq;fspy; ePyk; my;yJ fUik epwikAila ge;JKidg; Ngdhtpdhy; Fwpj;Jf;fhl;l Ntz;Lk;. Nkw;fz;l tpguq;fis tpilj;jhspy; ePq;fs; Fwpj;Jf; fhl;lj; jtwpdhy; cq;fs; tpilj;jhs; nry;yhjjhf;fg;gLk;. 8. Xt;nthU tpdhTk; (A), (B), (C) kw;Wk; (D) vd ehd;F tpilfisf; nfhz;Ls;sJ. ePq;fs; mitfspy;> xNu xU rhpahd tpiliaj; Njh;T nra;J tpilj;jhspy; Fwpj;Jf;fhl;l Ntz;Lk;. xd;Wf;F Nkw;gl;l rhpahd tpilfs; xU Nfs;tpf;F ,Ug;gjhff; fUjpdhy; ePq;fs; kpfr; rhpahdJ vd;W vij fUJfpwPh;fNsh me;j tpilia tpilj;jhspy; Fwpj;Jf; fhl;l Ntz;Lk;. vg;gbahapDk; xU Nfs;tpf;F xNu xU tpiliaj;jhd; Njh;e;njLf;fNtz;Lk;. cq;fSila nkhj;j kjpg;ngz;fs; ePq;fs; tpilj;jhspy; Fwpj;Jf; fhl;Lk; rhpahd tpilfspd; vz;zpf;ifiag; nghWj;jJ. 9. tpilj;jhspy; xt;nthU Nfs;tp vz;zpw;Fk; vjphpy; (A), (B), (C) kw;Wk; (D) vd ehd;F tpilf;fl;lq;fs; cs;sd. xU Nfs;tpf;F tpilaspf; ePq;fs; rhpnad fUJk; tpilia xNu xU tpilf;fl;lj;jpy; kl;Lk; ge;J Kidg; Ngdhtpdhy; Fwpj;Jf; fhl;l Ntz;Lk;. xt;nthU Nfs;tpf;Fk; xU tpiliaj; Njh;e;njLj;J tpilj;jhspy; Fwpf;fNtz;Lk;. xU Nfs;tpf;F xd;Wf;F Nkw;gl;l tpilaspj;jhy; me;j tpil jtwhdjhf fUjg;gLk;. Cjhuzkhf ePq;fs; vd;gij rhpahd tpilahff; fUjpdhy; mij gpd;tUkhW Fwpj;Jf;fhl;l Ntz;Lk;. [A] [B] [C] [D] 10. ePq;fs; tpdhj; njhFg;gpd; ve;jg; gf;fj;ijAk; ePf;fNth my;yJ fpopf;fNth $lhJ. Njh;T Neuj;jpy; ,e;j tpdhj; njhFg;gpidNah my;yJ tpilj;jhisNah Njh;Tf; $lj;ij tpl;L ntspapy; vLj;Jf; nry;yf;$lhJ. Njh;T Kbe;jgpd; ePq;fs; cq;fSila tpilj;jhisf; fz;fhzpg;ghshplk; nfhLj;J tpl Ntz;Lk;. ,t;tpdhj; njhFg;gpidj; Njh;T Kbe;jTld; ePq;fs; cq;fSld; vLj;Jr; nry;yyhk;. 11. Fwpg;Gfs; vOjpg; ghh;g;gjw;F tpdhj; njhFg;gpd; filrp gf;fj;jpw;F Kd;gf;fj;ij cgNahfpj;Jf; nfhs;syhk;. 12. Nkw;fz;l tpjpfspy; vijahtJ kPwpdhy; Njh;thizak; KbntLf;Fk; eltbf;iffSf;F cs;shf NehpLk; vd mwpTWj;jg;gLfpwJ. 13. Mq;fpy tbtpy; nfhLf;fg;gl;Ls;s Fwpg;Gfs;jhd; KbthdjhFk;. 14. tpdhj; njhFg;gpdy; tpilia FwpaplNth> Fwpg;gpl;Lf; fhl;lNth $lhJ MANIDHANAEYAM FREE IAS ACADEMY

1. Who did preach the three gems? (A) Buddha (B) Mahavira (C) A and B (D) Neither A nor B

%d;W uj;jpdq;fs; Nghjidia nra;jth; ahh;? (A) Gj;ju; (B) kfhtPuh; (C) A kw;Wk; B (D) AAkpy;iy BAkpy;iy

2. Who was the 24th Thirthankara? (A) Rishaba (B) Parsavanatha (C) Mahavira (D) Buddha

24-tJ jPu;j;jq;fhuh; ahh;? (A) up~gh; (B) ghh;rtehjh; (C) kfhtPuh; (D) Gj;jh;

3. Which literature describes the social condtions of the sangam tamils? (A) Tolkappiam (B) Akananooru (C) Pattinapalai (D) Agathiyam

rq;ffhy jkpoh;fspd; r%f epiyiag; gw;wp tpsf;Fk; E}y; vJ? (A) njhy;fhg;gpak; (B) mfehD}W (C) gl;bdg;ghiy (D) mfj;jpak;

4. Match List I with List II correctly and select your answer using the codes give below List I - Land List II - People a. Hilly Region 1. Parathavar b. Forest Region 2. Uzhavar c. Cultivable region 3. Idayar d. Coastal Region 4. Kuravar a b c d (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 4 3 2 1 (C) 3 4 2 1 (D) 3 4 1 2

gl;bay; I I gl;bay; II cld; nghUj;jp> fPNo nfhLf;fg;gl;Ls;s FwpaPLfisf; nfhz;L rhpahd tpiliaj; Njh;e;njL : gl;bay; I – epyg;gFjp gl;bay; II – kf;fs; a. kiyg;gFjp 1. gujth; b. fhl;Lg;gFjp 2. coth; c. gapupLk; gFjp 3. ,ilah; d. flw;fiu gFjp 4. Fwth;

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MANIDHANAEYAM FREE IAS ACADEMY

a b c d (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 4 3 2 1 (C) 3 4 2 1 (D) 3 4 1 2

5. The pallava inscription at ______refers to a great musician Rudracharya. (A) Kudimian Malai (B) Utheramerur (C) Mamandur (D) Mahendravadi

Gfo;ngw;w ,irf;fiyQh; cUj;uhrhhpahh; gw;wp gy;th;fsJ ______fy;ntl;L Fwpg;gpLfpwJ. (A) FLkpahd;kiy (B) cj;jpuNk&h; (C) khkz;^h; (D) kNfe;jputhb

6. What is the extent of ? (A) 80051N to 130091N and 760151E to 800201E (B) 80051N to 140091N and 760151E to 800201E (C) 80051N to 140091N and 770151E to 800201E (D) 80051N to 130091N and 770151E to 800201E

jkpo; ehl;bd; guty; vd;d? (A) 80051N to 130091N and 760151E to 800201E (B) 80051N to 140091N and 760151E to 800201E (C) 80051N to 14091N and 770151E to 800201E (D) 80051N to 130091N and 770151E to 800201E

7. What is the total area of Tamil Nadu? (A) 1,50,038 sq.km (B) 1,30,058 sq.km (C) 1,80,035 sq.km (D) 1,30,085 sq.km

jkpo;ehl;bd; nkhj;j epyg;gug;G ahJ? (A) 1,50,038 sq.km (B) 1,30,058 sq.km (C) 1,80,035 sq.km (D) 1,30,085 sq.km

8. When did “Tamil” become the official language of Tamil Nadu? (A) January 12, 1958 (B) January 16, 1958 (C) January 18, 1958 (D) January 14, 1958

“jkpo;” vg;NghJ jkpo;ehl;bd; mYty; nkhopahdJ? (A) [dthp 12> 1958 (B) [dthp 16> 1958 (C) [dthp 18> 1958 (D) [dthp 14> 1958

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MANIDHANAEYAM FREE IAS ACADEMY

9. Find the Wrong Statement/Statements? 1. Tamil Nadu is the 11th largest state of . 2. Tamil Nadu accounts for 4% of the total area of the country.

(A) a only (B) b only (C) Both a and b (D) None of the above

jtwhd thf;fpak;/thf;fpaq;fisf; fhz;f a. jkpo;ehL ,e;jpahtpd; 11tJ nghpa khepykhFk;. b. ,e;jpahtpd; nkhj;j gug;gstpy; 4 rjtPjk; mstpy; mike;Js;sJ.

(A) a kl;Lk; (B) b kl;Lk; (C) a kw;Wk; b ,uz;Lk; (D) Nkw;fz;l vJTkpy;iy

10. What is the total number of members in the Tamil Nadu legislative assembly? (A) 233 (B) 234 (C) 235 (D) 236

jkpo;ehL rl;lrigapd; nkhj;j cWg;gpdh;fspd; vz;zpf;if vd;d? (A) 233 (B) 234 (C) 235 (D) 236

11. Select the correct order of rivers from North to South (A) Palar, Vaippar, Vellar, Vaigai (B) Palar, Vellar, Vaippar, Vaigai (C) Palar, Vellar, Vaigai, Vaippar (D) Palar, Vaigai , Vellar, Vaippar

tlf;fpypUe;J njw;fhf MWfspd; rhpahd thpiria Nju;e;njL. (A) ghyhW> itg;ghW> nts;shW> itif (B) ghyhW> nts;shW> itg;ghW> itif (C) ghyhW> nts;shW> itif> itg;ghW (D) ghyhW> itif> nts;shW> itg;ghW

12. Select the incorrect pair: (A) - (B) Doddapetta - Highest peak in South India (C) Shervarayan hills - The largest hills of Eastern Ghats (D) - Namakkal District

rhpaw;w ,iziaf; fhz;f: (A) fy;uhad; Fd;Wfs; - fpof;Fj; njhlh;r;rp kiyfs; (B) njhl;l ngl;lh - njd;dpe;jpahtpd; kpf cah;e;j rpfuk; (C) Nrh;tuhad; Fd;Wfs; - fpof;Fj;njhlh;r;rp kiyapd; kpf cah;e;j Fd;Wfs; (D) gr;irkiyf;Fd;Wfs; - ehkf;fy; khtl;lk;

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MANIDHANAEYAM FREE IAS ACADEMY

13. Which is called as “Queen of Hills”? (A) Moonar (B) Nilgiris (C) Kodaikanal (D) Kollimalai

“kiyfspd; murp” vd miof;fg;gLtJ vJ? (A) %zhh; (B) ePyfphp (C) nfhilf;fhdy; (D) nfhy;ypkiy

14. Which of the following districts gets very high rainfall? (A) Nilgiris (B) Pudukkottai (C) Thirunelveli (D) Madurai

fPo;f;fz;l khtl;lq;fspy; mjpf kiog; nghopitg; ngWtJ vJ? (A) ePyfphp (B) GJf;Nfhl;il (C) jpUney;Ntyp (D) kJiu

15. When was the National forest policy came into force? (A) 1986 (B) 1987 (C) 1988 (D) 1989

Njrpa tdf;nfhs;if mkYf;F te;jJ vg;NghJ? (A) 1986 (B) 1987 (C) 1988 (D) 1989

16. Tropical cyclones occur during the month of ______(A) November (B) January (C) December (D) April

madkz;ly #whtspfs; cUthFk; khjk; ______MFk; (A) etk;gh; (B) [dthp (C) brk;gh; (D) Vg;uy;

17. Quinine-a drug for treating malaria is extracted from ______tree. (A) Cinchona (B) Saal (C) Ebony (D) Oak kNyhpah Nehiaf; Fzg;gLj;Jk; Fa;idd;-a kUe;J ______kuj;jpypUe;J vLf;fg;gLfpwJ. (A) rpd;Nfhdh (B) rhy; (C) vNghdp (D) Xf;

18. Match List I with List II correctly and select your answer using the codes give below List I - Soil List II - District a. Alluvial Soil 1. Thiruvalluvar b. Black Soil 2. Thirunelveli c. Read Loams 3. Virudhuanagar d. Laterite soil 4. Sivagangai [GROUP – 2A - 2017 – TEST – 4] Page 4

MANIDHANAEYAM FREE IAS ACADEMY

a b c d (A) 2 3 1 4 (B) 2 3 4 1 (C) 2 4 3 1 (D) 2 4 1 3

gl;bay; I I gl;bay; II cld; nghUj;jp> fPNo nfhLf;fg;gl;Ls;s FwpaPLfisf; nfhz;L rhpahd tpiliaj; Njh;e;njL : gl;bay; I – kz; gl;bay; II – kf;fs; a. tz;ly; kz; 1. jpUts;Sh; b. fhpry; kz; 2. jpUney;Ntyp c. nrk;kz; 3. tpUJefh; d. Nyl;liul; kz; 4. rptfq;if a b c d (A) 2 3 1 4 (B) 2 3 4 1 (C) 2 4 3 1 (D) 2 4 1 3

19. Select the incorrect pair: (A) Lime Stone – Trichy (B) Mica – Coimbatore (C) Magnesite – Vellore (D) Steatie - Salem

rupaw;w ,iziaj; Njh;e;njLf;fTk; (A) Rz;zhk;Gf;fy; - jpUr;rp (B) ikf;fh –Nfhak;Gj;J}h; (C) khf;dirl; - NtY}h; (D) ];Baill; - Nryk;

20. From which of the following districts bauxite is extracted? (A) Villupuram (B) Namakkal (C) Erode (D) Thiruvannamalai

fPo;f;fz;l khtl;lq;fSs; vq;fpUe;J ghf;i]l; vLf;fg;gLfpwJ? (A) tpOg;Guk; (B) ehkf;fy; (C)

21. Medicinal herbs are commonly found in ______hills (A) Kollimalai (B) Pachaimalai (C) Agathiar Malai (D) Palanimalai

______Fd;Wfspy; kUj;Jt %ypiffs; kpFe;J fhzg;gLfpd;wd. (A) nfhy;ypkiy (B) gr;irkiy (C) mfj;jpau; kiy (D) godpkiy

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MANIDHANAEYAM FREE IAS ACADEMY

22. Which one of the following is not a factor of soil formation? (A) Time (B) Soil texture (C) Inorganic matter (D) Organic matter

gpd;tUtdtw;Ws; vJ kz; cUthtjw;F fhuzkhf miktjpy;iy? (A) fhyk; (B) kz;zpd; mikg;G (C) capupy;yhg; nghUl;fspd; Nrh;f;if (D) caphpdg; nghUl;fspd; Nrh;f;if

23. Which district is called as Land of Thosuand Lakes? (A) Kanyakumari (B) Thirunelveli (C) Kancheepuram (D) Ramanathapuram

ve;j khtl;lk; Mapuk; Vhpfspd; epyk; vd miof;fg;gLfpwJ? (A) fd;dpahFkhp (B) jpUney;Ntyp (C) fhQ;rpGuk; (D) uhkehjGuk;

24. Find the correct pair: a. Sornavari - Chittirai pattam b. Samba - Adipattam c. Navarai - Karthigai Pattam

(A) a and b only (B) b and c only (C) c and a only (D) All the above

rhpahd ,iziaj; Njh;e;njL a. nrhh;zthhp - rpj;jpiug;gl;lk; b. rk;gh - Mbg;gl;lk; c. etiu - fhh;j;jpifg;gl;lk;

(A) a kw;Wk; b kl;Lk; (B) b kw;Wk; c kl;Lk; (C) c kw;Wk; a kl;Lk; (D) midj;k;

25. Match List I with List II correctly and select your answer using the codes give below List I List II a. Rearing Silk worms 1. Sericulture b. Growing fruit plants 2. Silviculture c. Growing flower 3. Flori culture d. Growing grapes 4. Viniculture a b c d (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 4 3 2 1 (C) 3 4 1 2 (D) 2 1 4 3

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MANIDHANAEYAM FREE IAS ACADEMY

gl;bay; I I gl;bay; II cld; nghUj;jp> fPNo nfhLf;fg;gl;Ls;s FwpaPLfisf; nfhz;L rhpahd tpiliaj; Njh;e;njL : gl;bay; I gl;bay; II a. gl;Lg;GO tsh;j;jy; 1. nrhpfy;r;rh; b. gokuq;fs; tsh;j;jy; 2. rpy;tpf;fy;r;rh; c. G+f;fs; tsh;j;jy; 3. /GNshhpfy;;r;rh; d. jpuhl;ir tsh;g;G 4. tpdpfy;r;ryu; a b c d (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 4 3 2 1 (C) 3 4 1 2 (D) 2 1 4 3

26. Where is located Tamil Nadu rice research institute? (A) Tanjore (B) Trichy (C) Thiruvarur (D) Aduthurai

jkpo;ehl;bd; ney; Muha;r;rp ikak; vq;Nf mike;Js;sJ? (A) jQ;rhT+h; (B) jpUr;rp (C) jpUth&h; (D) MLJiw

27. ______Type of irrigation is most predominant irrigation system in Tamil Nadu. (A) Well (B) Tank (C) Canal (D) Tune Well

______tif ePu;g;ghrdk; jkpo;ehl;bd; kpf Kf;fpakhd ePu;ghrd KiwahFk;. (A) fpzW (B) Fsk; (C) fhy;tha; (D) Foha; fpzW

28. Fish farmers Development Agency of Tamil Nadu is located at ______(A) Ennore (B) Thoothukudi (C) Karaikkal (D) Kanya Kumari

jkpo;ehl;bd; kPd;tsh;g;Nghh; Kd;Ndw;w tsh;r;rpf; fofk; ______,y; mike;Js;sJ. (A) vz;Z}h; (B) J}j;Jf;Fb (C) fhiuf;fhy; (D) fd;dpahf;Fkhp

29. Find the incorrect pair: (A) The Manchester of South India - Coimbatore (B) Textile valley of Tamil Nadu - Karur, Thiruppur (C) Textile capital of Tamil Nadu - Erode, Karur (D) Synthetiz clothes manufacturing - Ramanathapuram

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rhpaw;w ,iziaf; fhz;f: (A) njd; ,e;jpahtpd; khd;nr];lh; - Nfhak;Gj;J}h; (B) jkpo;ehl;bd; nerT gs;sj;jhf;F - f&h;> jpUg;G+h; (C) jkpo;ehl;bd; nerTj; jiyefuk; - f&u; (D) nraw;if ,io Mil cw;gj;jp - ,uhkehjGuk;

30. Which is called as “Detroit of Southern Asia”? (A) Chennai (B) Bangalore (C) Surat (D) Mumbai

“njw;F Mrpahtpd; nll;uha;;l;” vd miof;fg;gLtJ vJ? (A) nrd;id (B) ngq;f@h; (C) #uj; (D) Kk;ig

31. Match List I with List II correctly and select your answer using the codes give below List I List II a. Leather Industry 1. b. Sugar Industry 2. Dindigul c. Chemical Industry 3. Manamadurai d. Cement Industry 4. Thoothukudi a b c d (A) 3 4 1 2 (B) 4 3 2 1 (C) 1 2 3 4 (D) 2 1 4 3

gl;bay; I I gl;bay; II cld; nghUj;jp> fPNo nfhLf;fg;gl;Ls;s FwpaPLfisf; nfhz;L rhpahd tpiliaj; Njh;e;njL : gl;bay; I gl;bay; II a. Njhy; njhopw;rhiy 1. nguk;gY}h; b. rh;f;fiu njhopw;rhiy 2. jpz;Lf;fy; c. ,urhadj; njhopw;rhiy 3. khdhkJiu d. rpnkz;l njhopw;rhiy 4. J}j;Jf;Fb a b c d (A) 3 4 1 2 (B) 4 3 2 1 (C) 1 2 3 4 (D) 2 1 4 3

32. When was State Industries promotion corporation of Tamil Nadu (SIPCOT) established? (A) 1970 (B) 1971 (C) 1972 (D) 1973

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jkpo;ehL khepy njhopy; Nkk;ghl;Lf; fofk; (SIPCOT) vg;NghJ Vw;gLj;jg;gl;lJ? (A) 1970 (B) 1971 (C) 1972 (D) 1973

33. SPIC is the largest producer of ______in India. (A) Fertilizer (B) Chemical (C) Sugar (D) Cement

SPIC vd;gJ ,e;jpahtpd; mjpf ______cw;gj;jp nra;Ak; epWtdkhFk;. (A) cuk; (B) ,urhadk; (C) rh;;f;fiu (D) rpnkz;l;

34. Which one is not a state transport corporation? (A) Salem (B) Madurai (C) Villupuram (D) Thoothukudi

ve;j xd;W khepyg; Nghf;Ftuj;Jf; fofk; my;y? (A) Nryk; (B) kJiu (C) tpOg;Guk; (D) J}j;Jf;Fb

35. Consider the following statements: Assertion (A) : Minor ports are anchorage ports Reason (R) : Cargo is transhipped from the vessel to the shore. (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the Correct Explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the Correct Explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

fPo;f;fz;l thf;fpaq;fisf; ftdp $w;W (A) : rpwpa JiwKfq;fs; eq;$u JiwKfq;fs; vdg;gLfpd;wd. fhuzk; (R) : fg;gypUe;J nghUl;fisf; nfhz;L nry;yg; gad;gLfpd;wd (A) (A) kw;Wk; (R) ,uz;Lk; rup> NkYk; (R) vd;gJ (A) tpw;F rhpahd tpsf;fk; (B) (A) kw;Wk; (R) ,uz;Lk; rup> NkYk; (R) vd;gJ (A) tpw;F rhpahd tpsf;fky;y (C) (A) rhp> Mdhy; (R) jtW. (D) (A) jtW> Mdhy; (R) rup.

36. When was Indian Radio broad casting started? (A) 1927 (B) 1936 (C) 1947 (D) 1951

,e;jpa thndhyp xypg;gug;G vg;NghJ njhlq;fg;gl;lJ? (A) 1927 (B) 1936 (C) 1947 (D) 1951

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37. ______acts as arteries and veins for national development. (A) Communication (B) Internet (C) Transport system (D) Remote sensing

______vd;gJ Njrpa tsh;r;rpapd; capNuhl;lkhFk;. (A) jfty; ghpkhw;wk; (B) ,izajsk; (C) Nghf;Ftuj;Jj; jpl;lk; (D) njhiyJ}uk; mwpjy;

38. First Uzhavar Sandai was started at ______in ______. (A) Cuddalore, 1999 (B) Dindigul, 1998 (C) Villupuram, 1998 (D) Madurai, 1999 Kjy; coth; re;ij ______,y; ______,y; njhlq;fg;gl;lJ. (A) flY}h;> 1999 (B) jpz;Lf;fy;> 1998 (C) tpOg;Guk;> 1998 (D) kJiu> 1999

39. ______decides the economic growth of country. (A) Export (B) Transport (C) Import (D) Trade

xU ehl;bd; tsh;r;rpia ______jPu;khdpf;fpwJ. (A) Vw;Wkjp (B) Nghf;Ftuj;J (C) ,wf;Fkjp (D) th;j;jfk;

40. Match List I with List II correctly and select your answer using the codes give below List I List II a. Forests day 1. June 5 b. Environment Day 2. March 21 c. Earth Day 3. September 16 d. Ozone day 4. April 22 a b c d (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 2 1 4 3 (C) 3 4 2 1 (D) 4 3 2 1

gl;bay; I I gl;bay; II cld; nghUj;jp> fPNo nfhLf;fg;gl;Ls;s FwpaPLfisf; nfhz;L rhpahd tpiliaj; Njh;e;njL : gl;bay; I gl;bay; II a. fhLfs; jpdk; 1. [Pd; 5 b. Rw;W#oy; jpdk; 2. khh;r; 21 c. Gtp jpdk; 3. nrg;lk;gh; 16 d. XNrhd; jpdk; 4. Vg;uy; 22

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a b c d (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 2 1 4 3 (C) 3 4 2 1 (D) 4 3 2 1

41. What is the current forest are percentage of Tamil Nadu? (A) 17 (B) 17.3 (C) 18 (D) 18.3

jkpo;ehl;bd; jw;Nghija fhLfspd; gug;G rjtPjk; vd;d? (A) 17 (B) 17.3 (C) 18 (D) 18.3

42. Find the correct statement/statements In the Biosphere reserve. 1. An inner core area which is well protected. 2. A buffer zone with facilities for education training and research. 3. An outer transition area for tourism and recreation (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 3 and 1 only (D) All the above

rhpahd thf;fpak; thf;fpaq;fisf; fhz;f: caph;Nfhs ghJfhg;Gg; gFjpapy; 1. ikag;gFjp vd;gJ ehd;F ghJfhf;fg;gl;ljhFk;. 2. nray;ghl;LgFjp vd;gJ fy;tp> gapw;rp kw;Wk; Muha;r;rpf;fhf gad;gLj;jg;gLtjhFk;. 3. ntspg;gFjp vd;G Rw;WshTf;fhfTk;> nghOJ Nghf;fpw;fhfTk; gad;gLk; khw;wkilAk; gFjpahFk;. (A) 1 kw;Wk; 2 kl;Lk; (B) 2 kw;Wk; 3 kl;Lk; (C) 3 kw;Wk; 1 kl;Lk; (D) midj;Jk;

43. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct? (A) Lead can damage the working of the kidneys and intestines. (B) Carbonmonoxide reduces oxygen carrying capacity of blood. (C) Sulphurdioxide causes severs lung ailments (D) Hydrogen Sulphide causes irritation in the eyes.

fPo;f;fz;l thf;fpaq;fSs; ve;j xd;W rhpaw;wJ? (A)

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44. Which of the following places are Medicinal Plants Conservation Areas (MPCA)? 1. Alagar Koil 2. Kodaikanal 3. Viralimali 4. Pachaimalai 5. Kuttralam (A) 1, 2 and 3 only (B) 2, 3 and 4 only (C) 1, 2 and 5 only (D) 2, 3 and 5 only

fPo;f;fz;ltw;Ws; ghJfhf;fg;gl Ntz;ba kUj;Jt jhtu gFjpfs; vit? 1. mofh;Nfhtpy; 2. nfhilf;fhdy; 3. tpuhypkiy 4. gr;irkiy 5. Fw;whyk; (A) 1> 2 kw;Wk; 3 kl;Lk; (B) 2> 3 kw;Wk; 4 kl;Lk; (C) 1> 2 kw;Wk; 5 kl;Lk; (D) 2> 3 kw;Wk; 5 kl;Lk;

45. In ______state APIKO movement was started (A) (B) Kerala (C) (D) Maharashtra

______khepyj;jpy; mgpf;Nfh ,af;fk; njhlq;fg;gl;lJ. (A) fh;ehlfh (B) Nfush (C) Me;jpugpuNrjk; (D) kfhuh~;buh

46. Match List I with List II correctly and select your answer using the codes give below List I List II a. Kanjirankulam Bird Sanctuary 1. Ramanathapuram b. Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary 2. Ariyalur c. Vedanthangal Bird Sanctuary 3. Kanchipuram d. Indira Gandhi Wild life Sanctuary 4. Coimbatore a b c d (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 4 3 2 1 (C) 3 4 2 1 (D) 3 4 1 2

gl;bay; I I gl;bay; II cld; nghUj;jp> fPNo nfhLf;fg;gl;Ls;s FwpaPLfisf; nfhz;L rhpahd tpiliaj; Njh;e;njL : gl;bay; I – epyg;gFjp gl;bay; II – kf;fs; a. fQ;rpuhq;Fsk; gwitfs; ruzhyak; 1. ,uhkehjGuk; b. fiuntl;b gwitfs; ruzhyak; 2. mhpaY}h;

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c. Ntle;jhq;fy; gwitfs; ruzhyak; 3. fhQ;rpGuk; d. ,e;jpuhfhe;jp tdtpyq;F ruzhyak; 4. Nfhak;Gj;J}h; a b c d (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 4 3 2 1 (C) 3 4 2 1 (D) 3 4 1 2

47. Find the correct statement/statements: 1. Project Tiger was started in 1972. 2. Project Elephant was started in 1973.

(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2

rhpahd thf;fpak;/thf;fpaq;fisf; fhz;f: 1. g;uhn[f;l; ilfh; 1972 Mk; Mz;by; njhlq;fg;gl;lJ 2. g;uhn[f;l; ahid 1973 Mk; Mz;by; njhlq;fg;gl;lJ (A) 1 kl;Lk; (B) 2 kl;Lk; (C) 1 kw;Wk; 2 kl;Lk; (D) 1k; 2k; ,y;iy

48. Protection of animals in their habitat is ______(A) Presevation (B) Sanctuary (C) Park (D) Zoo

tpyq;Ffis mjd; thOk; ,lj;jpNyNa ghJfhj;jy; ______MFk; (A) guhkhpj;jy; (B) ruzhyak; (C) G+q;fh (D) kpUf fhl;rprhiy

49. Which one is not a qualification to become Rajya Sabha Member? (A) He/ She must be a Citizen of India (B) He/She must not be less the 25 years of Age (C) He/she must posses such other qualifiacation as may be prescribed by the Parliament for that purpose from time to time. (D) He/She must not be the member of the Lok Sabha or any other legislature.

ve;j xd;W uh[;a rgh cWg;gpdh; Mtjw;fhd jFjpay;y? (A) ,e;jpa Fbkfdhf ,Uj;jy; Ntz;Lk; (B) 25 taJ epuk;gpatuhf ,Uj;jy; Ntz;Lk;. (C) ehlhSkd;wj; njhFjpapy; thf;fhsuhfg; gjpT nra;gl;bUf;f Ntz;Lk;. (D) kj;jpa khepy muR Copauhf ,Uj;jy; $lhJ.

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50. Which Article says that there shall be a High Court in each State? (A) 214 (B) 217 (C) 218 (D) 222

ve;j ~uj;J xt;nthU khepyj;jpYk; xU cah;ePjpkd;wk; mikf;fg;gl Ntz;Lk; vdf; $WfpwJ? (A) 214 (B) 217 (C) 218 (D) 222

51. By which amendment act Delhi became the National Capital Territory? (A) 68th (B) 69th (C) 70th (D) 71st

ve;j jpUj;jr;rl;lj;jpdhy; nly;yp Njrpa jiyefh; A+dpad; gpuNjrkhdJ? (A) 68tJ (B) 69tJ (C) 70tJ (D) 71tJ

52. Which of the following articles say the administration of the states? (A) 152 to 236 (B) 151 to 237 (C) 152 to 237 (D) 153 to 237

fPo;f;fz;l ~uj;JfSs; vit khepyq;fspd; eph;thfk; gw;wp $WfpwJ? (A) 152 to 236 (B) 151 to 237 (C) 152 to 237 (D) 153 to 237

53. Who appoints the Chief Minister of a State? (A) President (B) Chief Justice of Supreme Court (C) Governor (D) Speaker

xU khepyj;jpd; Kjy;tiu epakpg;gth; ahh;? (A) FbauR jiyth; (B) cr;rePjpkd;w jiyik ePjpgjp (C) MSeh; (D) rghehafh;

54. Which constitutional amendment act lowered the voting age from 21 years to 18 years? (A) 64th (B) 63rd (C) 62nd (D) 61st ve;j murpayikg;G jpUj;jr;rl;lk; thf;fspf;Fk; taij 21 ypUe;J 18 Mf Fiwj;jJ? (A) 64tJ (B) 63tJ (C) 62tJ (D) 61tJ

55. When was the Upper House of Tamil Nadu abolished? (A) December 1, 1987 (B) November 1, 1987 (C) December 1, 1986 (D) November 1, 1986

jkpo;ehl;bd; Nkyit vg;NghJ fiyf;fg;gl;lJ? (A) brk;gh; 1> 1987 (B) etk;gh; 1> 1987 (C) brk;gh; 1> 1986 (D) etk;gh; 1> 1986

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56. Which is the Article for right to freedom of religion? (A) Article 24 (B) Article 25 (C) Article 26 (D) Article 27

rka Rje;jpuj;jpw;fhd ~uj;J vJ? (A) ~uj;J 24 (B) ~uj;J 25 (C) ~uj;;J 26 (D) ~uj;J 27

57. Which are the fundamental duties? 1. To respect the constitution, National Flag or National Anthem. 2. To cherish and follow noble ideals that inspired our national struggle. 3. The protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India. 4. To defend the country. 5. To promote the spirte of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India. (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (B) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only (C) 3, 4, 5 and 1 only (D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

vit mbg;gil flikfshFk;? 1. murpay; rl;lk;> Njrpa rpd;dk;> Njrpaf; nfhb kw;Wk; Njrpa fPjj;jpw;F kjpg;G mspj;jy;. 2. Rje;jpug; Nghuhl;l tPuh;fspd; cd;dj czh;it epidj;Jg; NgZjy;. 3. ehl;bd; ,iwik xw;Wik kw;Wk; xUikg;ghl;il ghJfhj;jy;. 4. ehl;bd; ghJfhg;gpw;fhfr; nrayhw;Wjy;. 5. kjk;> nkhop> ,dk;> tFg;G> Ntw;Wikfisj; Jwe;j> rNfhju czh;Tld; Njrpa xw;Wik Xq;fr; nra;jy;. (A) 1> 2> 3 kw;Wk; 4 kl;Lk; (B) 2> 3> 4 kw;Wk; 5 kl;Lk; (C) 3> 4> 5 kw;Wk; 1 kl;Lk; (D) 1> 2> 3> 4 kw;Wk; 5 kl;Lk;

58. Which is the first state to recognize Transgender as a separate gender? (A) Kerala (B) Tamil Nadu (C) Maharashtra (D) Karnataka

jpUeq;iffis %d;whtJ ghypdkhf mq;fPfhpj;j Kjy; khepyk; vJ? (A) Nfush (B) jkpo;ehL (C) kfhuh~;buh (D) fh;ehlfk;

59. Who did run the Journal “Harijan”? (A) Gandhi (B) Ambedkar (C) Periyar (D) Bharathiyar

“`hp[d;” vd;w ,jio elj;jpath; ahh;? (A) fhe;jp (B) mk;Ngj;fhh; (C) nghpahh; (D) ghujpahh;

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60. Match List I with List II correctly and select your answer using the codes give below List I List II a. Factories Act 1. 1950 b. Plantation Labour Act 2. 1951 c. Merchant ship Act 3. 1961 d. Motor Transport Worker Act 4. 1948 a b c d (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 4 3 2 1 (C) 4 2 1 3 (D) 3 4 1 2

gl;bay; I I gl;bay; II cld; nghUj;jp> fPNo nfhLf;fg;gl;Ls;s FwpaPLfisf; nfhz;L rhpahd tpiliaj; Njh;e;njL : gl;bay; I gl;bay; II a. njhopw;r;rhiy rl;lk; 1. 1950 b. Njhl;l njhopyhsh; rl;lk; 2. 1951 c. tzpff;fg;gy; rl;lk; 3. 1961 d. thfd Nghf;Ftuj;Jj; njhopyhsh; rl;lk; 4. 1948 a b c d (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 4 3 2 1 (C) 4 2 1 3 (D) 3 4 1 2

61. Supply comes from ______(A) Investors (B) Dealers (C) Producers (D) Consumers

mspg;G ______ypUe;J tUfpwJ. (A) KjyPl;lhsh;fs; (B) ,ilj;jufh;fs; (C) cw;gj;jpahsh;fs; (D) Efh;thsh;fs;

62. Who said this? “The greater the amount to be sold the smaller must be the price at which it is offered”. (A) Alfred Marshall (B) Adams Smith (C) Thomas Attwood (D) William Ashley

ahh; ,ij nrhd;dJ? “epiwa gz;lq;fis tpw;f Ntz;Lkhapd; tpiy Fiwthf ,Uf;f Ntz;Lk;”. (A) my;/uL khh;~y; (B) Mlk;]; ];kpj; (A) jhk]; ml;Tl;L (D) tpy;ypak; M~;Ny

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63. Equilibirum price equalizes (A) Demand and Supply (B) Demand and Income (C) Supply and Production (D) Demand and Utility

rkepiy tpiy fPo;f; fz;ltw;Ws; vj;jid rkd;gLj;JfpwJ. (A) Njit kw;Wk; mspg;ig (B) Njit kw;Wk; tUkhdj;ij (C) mspg;G kw;Wk; cw;gj;jpia (D) Njit kw;Wk; gad;ghl;il

64. Which are the organs of UNO? 1. The General Assembly 2. The Security Council 3. The Economic and Social Council 4. The Trusteeship Council 5. The International Court of Justice 6. The Secretariat (A) 2, 4, 3 and 5 only (B) 1, 5, 4 and 3 only (C) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 (D) 4, 2, 6 and 5 only I.eh. rigapd; mq;fq;fs; ahit? 1. nghJr;rig 2. ghJfhg;G kd;wk; 3. nghUshjhu kw;Wk; r%f kd;wk; 4. ju;kfu;j;jh mit 5. gd;dhl;L ePjpkd;wk; 6. nrayfk; (A) 2> 4> 3 kw;Wk; 5 kl;Lk; (B) 1> 5> 4 kw;Wk; 3 kl;Lk; (C) 1> 2> 3> 4> 5 kw;Wk; 6 kl;Lk; (D) 4> 2> 6 kw;Wk; 5 kl;Lk;

65. Where is the international court of Justice located? (A) Netherlands (B) Finland (C) Scotland (D) England

rh;tNjr ePjpkd;wk; vq;F mike;Js;sJ? (A) nejh;yhe;J (B) gpd;yhe;J (C) ];fhl;yhe;J (D) ,q;fpyhe;J

66. Which are official languages of UNO? 1. Arabic 2. Chinese 3. Italian 4. Portoguese 5. Spanish (A) 1, 2 and 3 only (B) 2, 3 and 4 only (C) 1, 2 and 5 only (D) 3, 4 and 5 only

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I.eh. rigapd; mYty; nkhopfs; ahit? 1. muG 2. irdP]; 3. ,j;jhyp 4. Nghh;j;JfPR 5. ];ghdp~; (A) 1> 2 kw;Wk; 3 kl;Lk; (B) 2> 3 kw;Wk; 4 kl;Lk; (C) 1> 2 kw;wk; 5 kl;LK; (D) 3> 4 kw;Wk; 5 kl;Lk;

67. Match List I with List II correctly and select your answer using the codes give below List I List II a. NTBT 1. 1956 b. CTBT 2. 1992 c. Agenda 21 3. 1996 d. Suez Canal crisis 4. 1963 a b c d (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 4 3 2 1 (C) 3 4 2 1 (D) 3 4 1 2

gl;bay; I I gl;bay; II cld; nghUj;jp> fPNo nfhLf;fg;gl;Ls;s FwpaPLfisf; nfhz;L rhpahd tpiliaj; Njh;e;njL : gl;bay; I gl;bay; II a. NTBT 1. 1956 b. CTBT 2. 1992 c. mwpf;if 21 3. 1996 d. #a]; fhy;tha; rpf;fy; 4. 1963 a b c d (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 4 3 2 1 (C) 3 4 2 1 (D) 3 4 1 2

68. UNO’s main deliberative body is (A) The General Assembly (B) The Secretariat (C) The Security Council (D) The Trusteeship Council

I.eh.tpd; epue;ju mit (A) nghJr;rig (B) jiyikr; nrayfk; (C) ghJfhg;G mit (D) ju;kfu;j;jh mit

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69. European Union Traces its origin from the (A) ESCS (B) EEC (C) EURATOM (D) ETC

INuhg;gpa xd;wpak; Njhw;Wtjw;F %ykhf fUjg;gLtJ. (A) ESCS (B) EEC (C) EURATOM (D) ETC

70. Which is not a member state of European Union? (A) Germany (B) Ireland (C) Spain (D) England

vJ INuhg;gpa xd;wpaj;jpd; cWg;G ehL my;y? (A) n[h;kdp (B) mah;yhe;J (C) ];ngapd; (D) ,q;fpyhe;J

71. The British historians call the revolt of 1857 as (A) Military revolt (B) The great revolt (C) War of Independence (D) Freedom struggle

1857 Mk; Mz;L ngUk;Gul;rpia Mq;fpy tuyhw;wpQh;fs; mioj;jJ. (A) giltPuh; fyfk; (B) ngUk; fyfk; (C) ,e;jpa Rje;jpug; Nghh; (D) Rje;jpug; Nghuhl;lk;

72. The first sign of unrest appeared at (A) Meerut (B) Barrackpore (C) Barailley (D) Kanpur

giltPuh;fs; ntspg;gilahfg; Gul;rpapy;

73. Who was called as ‘Herald of New Age’ in India? (A) Dayananda Saraswathi (B) Raja Rammohan Roy (C) Ramakrishna Paramahamsar (D) Vivekanandar

“,e;jpahtpd; tpbnts;sp” vd;wiof;fg;gl;lth; ahh;? (A) jahde;j ru];tjp (B) uh[huk; Nkhfd; uha; (C) uhkfpU~;z guk`k;rh; (D) tpNtfhde;jh;

74. Who founded the Theosophical society? (A) Annie Besant (B) Dayanada Saraswathi (C) Olcott (D) Atmaram Pandurang

gpuk;kQhd rigia Njhw;Wtpj;jth; ahh;? (A) md;dpngrd;l; (B) jiyikr; nrayfk; (D) ghJfhg;G mit (D) ju;kfu;j;jh mit

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75. The head quarters of the Ramakrishna Mission is located at ______. (A) Trichy (B) Belur (C) Melur (D) Hampi

uhkfpU~;zh kp~dpd; jiyikafk; ______,y; mike;Js;sJ. (A) jpUr;rp (B) NgY}h; (D) NkY}h; (D) `k;gp

76. Match List I with List II correctly and select your answer using the codes give below List I List II a. Amrit Bazaar Patrika 1. 1878 b. Bombay Samachar 2. 1881 c. The Hindu 3. 1822 d. Maratha 4. 1868 a b c d (A) 4 3 2 1 (B) 3 4 1 2 (C) 4 3 1 2 (D) 3 4 2 1

gl;bay; I I gl;bay; II cld; nghUj;jp> fPNo nfhLf;fg;gl;Ls;s FwpaPLfisf; nfhz;L rhpahd tpiliaj; Njh;e;njL : gl;bay; I gl;bay; II a. mkpupj; g[hh; gj;jphpfh 1. 1878 b. ghk;Ng rkhr;rhh; 2. 1881 c. ,e;J 3. 1822 d. kuhj;jh 4. 1868 a b c d (A) 4 3 2 1 (B) 3 4 1 2 (C) 4 3 1 2 (D) 3 4 2 1

77. Which has been Wrongly Watched? (A) The Arms Act - 1878 (B) Vernaculer Press Act - 1878 (C) Regulation Act - 1773 (D) The Ilbert Bill - 1883

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vJ jtwhfg; nghUj;jg;gl;bUf;fpwJ? (A) MAjr;rl;lk; - 1878 (B) gpuhe;jpa nkhop gj;jphpf;ifr; rl;lk; - 1878 (C) xOq;FKiwr;rl;lk; - 1773 (D) ,y;gh;l; kNrhjh - 1883

78. Which were the aims of Indian National Congress? 1. Greater representation and expansion of legislative councils. 2. Freedom of Press 3. More facilities for the spread of education. 4. Reduction of military expenditure 5. Indian council at London should be continued. (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (B) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only (C) 3, 4, 5 and 1 only (D) All

fhq;fpu]pd; Fwpf;Nfhs;fshf ,Ue;jit vit? 1. rl;lkd;wq;fs; tpupTgLj;jg;gl Ntz;Lk;> mjpfg;gbahd gpujpepjpj;Jtk; toq;fg;gl Ntz;Lk;. 2. gj;jphpf;ifr; Rje;jpuk;. 3. fy;tpiag; gug;g eltbf;if Nkw;nfhs;s Ntz;Lk;. 4. ,uhZtr; nryTfisf; Fiwf;f Ntz;Lk;. 5. yz;ldpy; cs;s ,e;jpa fTd;rpy; njhlug;glNtz;Lk;. (A) 1> 2> 3 kw;Wk; 4 kl;Lk; (B) 2> 3> 4 kw;Wk; 5 kl;Lk; (C) 3> 4> 5 kw;wk; 1 kl;Lk; (D) midj;Jk;

79. The Minto-Morley reforms introduced separate electorate for the ______(A) Hindus (B) Muslims (C) Sikhs (D) Christians

kpz;Nlh-khu;yp rPh;jpUj;jr; rl;lk; jdpj; njhFjpfis ______f;fhf mwpKfg;gLj;jpaJ. (A) ,e;Jf;fs; (B) K];yPk;fs; (C) rPf;fpah;fs; (D) fpwpj;jth;fs;

80. Who did announce the Communal Award? (A) Mc Donald (B) Irwin (C) Pethick Lawrence (D) A.V. Alexander

tFg;Gf; nfhilia mwptpj;jth; ahh;? (A) nkf;nlhdhy;L (B) ,u;tpd; (C) ngjpf; yuhd;]; (D) A.V.mnyf;rhz;lu;

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81. Which of the following is not correct about Government of Indian Act 1935? (A) Abolishged provincial autonomy (B) Abolished diarchy in the provinces (C) Established federal government at the centre. (D) Established the Federal Reserve Bank

fPo;f;fz;ltw;Ws; ,e;jpa muRr;rl;lk; 1935-Ig; gw;wp vJ jtW? (A) khfhzq;fspy; jd;dhl;rpia xopj;jJ. (B) khfhzq;fspy; ,ul;il Ml;rp xopf;fg;gl;lJ. (C) kj;jpapy; $l;lhl;rp murhq;fk; Vw;gLj;jg;gl;lJ (D) $l;lhl;rp tq;fpia Vw;gLj;jpaJ.

82. When was Pondicherry became the part of Indian Union? (A) 1952 (B) 1953 (C) 1954 (D) 1956

ghz;br;Nrhp vg;NghJ ,e;jpa A+dpadpd; gFjpahdJ? (A) 1952 (B) 1953 (C) 1954 (D) 1956

83. Who said this? “The Light has gone out of our lives and there is darkness everywhere”. (A) Ambedkhar (B) Nehru (C) Gandhi (D) Patel

ahh; ,ijf; $wpaJ? “ek; tho;tpy; xsp kiwe;J vq;Fk; ,Us; $o;e;Jtpl;lJ” (A) mk;Ngj;fhh; (B) NeU (C) fhe;jp (D) gNly;

84. The Last Governor General of India is ______(A) Lord Mounbattern (B) Nehru (C) C. Rajagopalachari (D) Vallabhai Patel

,e;jpahtpd; filrp ftu;dh; n[duy; ______Mthh;. (A) nksz;l;Ngl;ld; gpuG (B) NeU (C) rp. ,uh[Nfhghyhr;rhhp (D) ty;ygha; gNly;

85. Who was the first President of Madras Mahajan Sabha? (A) Rangaiah Naidu (B) Subramania Iyer (C) Ramasamy Mudhaliar (D) Anandacharlu

nrd;id kfh[d rigapd; Kjy; jiytuhf ,Ue;jth; ahh;? (A) uq;ifah ehAL (B) Rg;gpukzpa Iau; (C) uhkrhkp Kjypahh; (D) Mde;jrhUY

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86. Which is not related to V.O. Chidambaram Pillai? (A) Swadesi Dharma Sanga weaving association. (B) Swadesi Cooperative stores. (C) Swadesi steam Navigations company. (D) All India Khadi exhibition and Swadesi Exhibition.

t.c. rpjk;guk;gps;isAld; njhlu;gpy;yhjJ vJ? (A) RNjrp ju;k rq;f nerthspfs; rq;fk;. (B) RNjrp $l;LwT mq;fhbfs; (C) RNjrp fg;gy; epWtdk; (D) midj;jpe;jpa fhjp fz;fhl;rp kw;Wk; RNjrp nghUl;fs; fz; fhl;rp

87. The first organization in the Madras Presidency to agitate for the right of people was ______(A) Madras Native Assocation (B) Indian National Congress (C) Muslim League (D) Dravidar Kazhagam

kf;fs; chpikfis epiyehl;l Vw;gLj;jg;gl;l kjuh]; khfhzj;jpd; Kjy; mikg;G ______MFk;. (A) nrd;id RNjrp rq;fk; (B) ,e;jpa Njrpa fhq;fpu]; (C) K];yPk; yPf; (D) jpuhtplh; fofk;

88. When was the Hindu religious Endowment bill was passed in Madras Province? (A) 1922 (B) 1929 (C) 1926 (D) 1921

nkl;uh]; khfhzj;jpy; vg;NghJ ,e;J mwepiyar; rl;lk; epiwNtw;wg;gl;lJ? (A) 1922 (B) 1929 (C) 1926 (D) 1921

89. The Name of Justice Party was changed as “Dravidar Kazhagam” in ______(A) 1943 (B) 1944 (C) 1942 (D) 1941

ePjpf;fl;rpapd; ngau; ‘jpuhtplu; fofk;’ vd ______,y; khw;wg;gl;lJ. (A) 1943 (B) 1944 (C) 1942 (D) 1941

90. Who was conferred the title “Veera Tamilannai”? (A) Ambujathammal (B) Moovalur Ramamirtham (C) Dharmambal (D) Muthulakshmi Reddy

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“tPuj;jkpod;id” gl;lk; ahUf;F nfhLf;fg;gl;lJ? (A) mk;G[j;jk;khs; (B) %thY}u; ,uhkhkph;jk; (C) ju;khk;ghs; (D) Kj;Jyl;rkp nul;b

91. All Indian Women Conference was organized at ______in 1930. (A) Pune (B) Bombay (C) Thane (D) Chennai

1930-,y; mfpy ,e;jpa kfspu; khehL ______,y; elj;jg;gl;lJ. (A) G+Nd (B) ghk;Ng (C) jhNd (D) nrd;id

92. Which country does Share the Longest border line with India? (A) Pakistan (B) Afghanistan (C) Bangladesh (D) China

ve;j ehL ,e;jpahTld; ePskhd vy;iyf; Nfhl;bid gfph;fpwJ? (A) ghfp];jhd; (B) Mg;fhdp];jhd; (C) gq;fshNj~; (D) rPdh

93. Which is one of the oldest fold mountain systems in the world? (A) Himalayan Range (B) Western Ghats (C) Aravalli Range (D) Vindya Range

cyfpd; kpfg;goikahd kbg;G kiyj; njhlu; vJ? (A) ,kakiyj;njhlh; (B) Nkw;F njhlh;r;rp kiyfs; (C) Muty;yp kiyj;njhlh; (D) tpe;jpa kiyj;njhlh;

94. Which river delta is called as “Granary of South India”? (A) Mahanadhi River (B) (C) Godhavari River (D) River

“njd;dpe;jpahtpd; jhdpaf; fsQ;rpakhf” miof;fg;gLtJ vJ? (A) kfhejp MW (B) fpU~;zh MW (C) Nfhjhthp MW (D) fhtphp MW

95. The highest peak in India is ______(A) Everest (B) Godwin Austin (C) Kanchanjanga (D) Dhaulagiri

,e;jpahtpd; kpf caukhd rpfuk; ______MFk;. (A) vntu];l; (B) fhl;tpd; M];bd; (C) fQ;rd; [q;fh (D) njsyfphp

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96. India’s largest Solar Energy Conversion centre is located in ______State. (A) Maharashtra (B) Rajastan (C) Gujarat (D) Andra Pradesh

,e;jpahtpd; #hpa rf;jpia khw;Wk; kpfg;nghpa ikak; ______khepyj;jpy; mike;Js;sJ. (A) kfhuh~;buh (B) uh[];jhd; (C) F[uhj; (D) Me;jpugpuNrjk;

97. The Monsson forests are otherwise called as ______(A) Tropical Evergreen forests (B) Decidous forests (C) Mangrove forests (D) Mountain forests

gUtf;fhLfs; ______vd;Wk; miof;fg;gLfpd;wd. (A) mad kz;ly gRikkhwhf; fhLfs; (B) ,iyAjph;f; fhLfs; (C) khq;FNuht; fhLfs; (D) kiyf;fhLfs;

98. When was the Indian Council of Agricutural Research (ICAR) established? (A) 1922 (B) 1924 (C) 1929 (D) 1931

,e;jpa tptrha Muha;r;rpf;F fofk; Vw;gLj;jg;gl;lJ vg;NghJ? (A) 1922 (B) 1924 (C) 1929 (D) 1931

99. Eleventh Five year plan period is ______(A) 1991 - 1996 (B) 1997 - 2002 (C) 2002 - 2007 (D) 2007 - 2012

gjpNdhuhtJ Ie;jhz;Lj;jpl;l fhyk; ______(A) 1991 – 1996 (B) 1997 – 2002 (C) 2002 - 2007 (D) 2007 - 2012

100. Bhoomidan Movement was started by ______(A) Jayaprakash Narayan (B) Jawaharlal Nehru (C) Acharya Vinobhave (D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

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G+kpjhd ,af;fk; ______My; njhlq;fg;gl;lJ. (A) n[agpufh~; ehuhaz; (B) [t`h;yhy; NeU (C) Mr;rhu;a tpNdhghNt (D) lhf;lh;. uN[e;jpugpurhj;

101. A man sells two cows at Rs.12000 each. On one he gains 10% and on the other he loses 10%. Find his gain or loss percent on the whole. (A) 1% gain (B) 1% loss (C) No losss No gain (D) None of these

xUtu; jd;dplKs;s ,uz;L gRf;fs; xt;nthd;iwAk; &.12000-f;F tpw;gid nra;fpwhh;. mtw;wpy; xd;wpy; 10% yhgKk; kw;nwhd;wpy; 10% el;lKk; milfpwhh; vdpy; mthpd; xl;Lnkhj;j ,yhg/el;l rjtpfpjk; vd;d? (A) 1% yhgk; (B) 1% el;lk; (C) yhgKk; el;lKk; ,y;iy (D) ,tw;wpy; vJTkpy;iy

102. The cost price of 72 chairs is equal to the selling price of 60 chairs. Find the gain percent. (A) 25% (B) 33 1/3% (C) 75% (D) 20%

72 ehw;fhypfspd; thq;fpa tpiy 60. ehw;fhypfspd; tpw;wtpiyf;Fr; rkk; vdpy; ,yhg rjtpfpjk; vd;d? (A) 25% (B) 33 1/3% (C) 75% (D) 20%

103. A Computer marked at Rs. 15,000 is sold for Rs. 13,200. What is the percentage of discount? (A) 15% (B) 12% (C) 10% (D)11 1/9%

&.15>000 vd Fwpf;fg;gl;l xU fzpdp &.13>200 f;F tpw;fg;gl;lhy; js;Sgb rjtpfpjk; vd;d? (A) 15% (B) 12% (C) 10% (D)11 1/9%

104. A television set was sold for Rs. 14,400 after giving successive discounts of 10% and 20% respectively. What was the marked price? (A) Rs. 18,000 (B) Rs. 21000 (C) Rs. 20,000 (D) Rs. 25,000

xU njhiyf;fhl;rpg; ngl;bahdJ 10 kw;Wk; 20 vd;w ,U mLj;jLj;j js;SgbfSf;Fg; gpwF &.14>400f;F tpw;fg;gl;lhy; mjd; Fwpf;fg;gl;l tpiy vd;d? (A) &. 18,000 (B) &. 21000 (C) &. 20,000 (D) &. 25,000

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105. A vendor bought apples at 12 for Rs.20 and sold them at 8 for Rs.12. Find his gain or loss percent? (A) 14 % loss (B) 10 % loss (C) 12 % loss (D) 12% gain xU tpahghhp Mg;gps; goq;fis> 12 goq;fs; &.20 vd;w tpiyapy; thq;fp mtw;iw 8 goq;fs; &.12 vd;w tpiyapy; tpw;why; mtupd; ,yhgel;l rjtpfpjk; vd;d? (A) 14 % loss (B) 10 % loss (C) 12 % loss (D) 12% gain

106. A sells a Washing machine to B at a profit of 20%. B Sells it to C at a profit of 25%. If C pays Rs. 900 for it, the cost price of the bicycle for A is : (A) Rs. 440 (B) Rs. 500 (C) Rs. 240 (D) Rs. 600

A vd;gtu; xU ryit ,ae;jpuj;ij 20% ,yhgj;jpy; B-f;Fk;> B-Mdth; mij 25% ,yhgj;jpy; C-f;Fk; tpw;gid nra;fpd;wdh; C-,d; thq;fpa tpiy &.900 vdpy; ,d; thq;fpa tpiy vd;d? (A) &. 440 (B) &. 500 (C) &. 240 (D) &. 600

107. A shopkeeper fixes the marked price of an item 35% above its cost price. The percentage of discount allowed to gain 8% is (A) 18% (B) 20% (C) 22% (D) 24%

xU filf;fhuh; xU nghUspd; tpiyia mjd; thq;fpa tpiyia tpl 35% mjpfkhf Fwpj;J itf;fpwhh;. 8% ,yhgk; ngw mth; mg;nghUis vj;jid rjtpfpjk; js;Sgbapy; mg;nghUis tpw;gid nra;a Ntz;Lk;. (A) 18% (B) 20% (C) 22% (D) 24%

108. Ramesh purchased a box full of sweets at the rate of 7 for Rs. 9 and sold all of them at the rate of 8 for Rs. 11. In this transaction, he gained Rs. 50. How many sweets did the box contain? (A) 450 (B) 440 (C) 560 (D) 600

uNk~; vd;gtu; xU Fg;gp epiwa ,dpg;Gfis 7 ,dpg;Gfs; 9 &gha; vd;w tpiyapy; thq;fp> 8 ,dpg;Gfs; &. 11 vd;wp tpiyapy; tpw;gid nra;J &.50 ,yhgk; ngWfpwhh; vdpy; mf;Fg;gpapy; ,Ue;j ,dpg;Gfspd; vz;zpf;if vd;d? (A) 450 (B) 440 (C) 560 (D) 600

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109. If the cost price is 20% of selling price. Then what is the profit percent. (A) 400% (B) 500% (C) 300% (D) 350% thq;fpa tpiyahdJ tpw;w tpiyapd; 20% vdpy; ,yhg rjtpfpjk; vd;d? (A) 400% (B) 500% (C) 300% (D) 350%

110. The cash difference between the selling prices of the articles at a profit of 5% and 40% is Rs. 700. The ratio of the two selling prices is: (A) 1 : 8 (B) 1 : 3 (C) 3 : 4 (D) 13 : 18

5% kw;Wk; 20% ,yhgj;jpy; tpw;fg;gl;l nghUl;fspd; tpiyfspd; NtWghL &.700 vdpy; KiwNa mg;nghUl;fspd; tpw;gid tpiyfspd; tpfpjk; vd;d? (A) 1 : 8 (B) 1 : 3 (C) 3 : 4 (D) 13 : 18

111. A dealer sold a bicycle for Rs. 2100 at a loss of 12.5%. At what price should he have sold it to gain 12.5%? (A) Rs. 2440 (B) Rs. 2760 (C) Rs. 2400 (D)Rs. 2700

xU tpahghhp xU kpjptz;bia 12.5% el;lj;jpy; &.2100-f;F tpw;gid nra;fpwhh;. mth; 12.5% yhgk; ngw Ntz;Lkhdhy; mk;kpjptz;bia vj;jid &ghaf;F tpw;gid nra;a Ntz;Lk;. (A) &. 2440 (B) &. 2760 (C) &. 2400 (D) &. 2700

112. The incomes of A and B are in the ratio 3:4 and their expenditures are in the ratio 5:7.If both of them save 400 Rs each, find the income of A (A) 1200 (B) 1800 (C) 600 (D) 900

A kw;Wk; B ,d; tUkhdq;fspd; tpfpjk; 3:4 kw;Wk; mth;fspd; nryTfspd; tpfpjk; 5:7. NkYk; mth;fs; xt;nthUtUk; &.400 Nrkpf;fpwhh;fs; vdpy; A-,d; tUkhdk; vd;d? (A) 1200 (B) 1800 (C) 600 (D) 900

113. A bag contains 50 paisa, 20 paisa and 10 paisa coins in the ratio 5:3:1.If the total amount in the bag is Rs. 640, find the difference in the amounts contributed by 50 paisa and 20 paisa coins. (A) 300 Rs (B) 400 Rs (C) 380 Rs (D) None

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xU igapy; 50 igrh 20 igrh kw;Wk; 10 igrh ehzaq;fs; 5:3:1 vd;w tpfpjj;jpy; cs;sd. mg;igapy; cs;s nkhj;j ehzaq;fspd; nkhj;j kjpg;G &.320 vdpy; 50 igrh kw;Wk; 20 igrh ehzaq;fspd; kjpg;Gfspd; tpj;jpahrk; vd;d? (A) 300 Rs (B) 400 Rs (C) 380 Rs (D) VJkpy;iy

114. A bag containing 12 eggs fell down. Which of the following cannot be the ratio of the broken eggs to unbroken eggs? (A) 1:1 (B) 5:7 (C) 4:3 (D) 2:1

12 Kl;ilfs; cs;s ig fPNo tpOe;jjpy; rpy Kl;ilfs; cile;JtpLfpd;wd. gpd;tUtdtw;Ws; vJ cile;j Kl;ilf;Fk; cilahj Kl;ilf;Fk; cs;s tpfpjkhf ,Uf;f KbahJ? (A) 1:1 (B) 5:7 (C) 4:3 (D) 2:1

115. The ratio of the number of students in Team A and Team B in a college is 4:3.If 21 students from Team A shift to Team B then the ratio becomes 1:1.Find the total strength of Team A and Team B together. (A) 156 (B) 294 (C) 147 (D) 196

FO A kw;Wk; FO B ,y; cs;s khzth;fspd; vz;zpf;if tpfpjk; 4:3. FO A ,y; ,Ue;J FO B-f;F 21 khzth;fs; nrd;why; mth;fspd; tpfpjk; KiwNa 1:1 vd khWk; vdpy; FO A kw;Wk; FO B ,d; nkhj;j khzth;fspd; vz;zpf;if vd;d? (A) 156 (B) 294 (C) 147 (D) 196

116. Salary of A and B is 4:5 and that of B and C is 2:3. If A's salary is Rs.1200, then C's salary is (A) Rs.2850 (B) Rs.2200 (C) Rs.2250 (D) Rs.3200

A kw;Wk; B ,d; rk;gsq;fspd; 4:5. NkYk; B kw;Wk; C ,d; rk;gsq;fspd; 2:3 A-d; rk;gsk; &.1200 vdpy; C-,d; rk;gsk; vd;d? (A) &.2850 (B) &.2200 (C) &.2250 (D) &.3200

117. The ages of Sarathi and Viji are in the ratio of 3:5. After 15 years, the ratio of their ages will become 3:4. The present age of Viji is : (in years) (A) 20 (B) 15 (C) 30 (D) 25

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rhujp kw;Wk; tp[pa[d; taJfspd; tpfpjk; 3:5. 15 tUlq;fSf;Fg; gpd;du; mth;fspd; taJfspd; tpfpjk; 3:4 vdpy; tp[papd; jw;Nghija taJ vd;d? (A) 20 (B) 15 (C) 30 (D) 25

118. Rs 7700 has been divided among P,Q and R such that P receives 2/9th of what Q and R together receives. Then P's share is (A) Rs. 1400 (B) Rs. 1520 (C) Rs. 1620 (D) Rs. 1440

P,Q kw;Wk; R f;F ,ilNa &.7700 MdJ Q kw;Wk; R ngUk;; njhifapd; 2/9 gq;F P-ngWkhW gfph;e;jspf;fg;gLfpwJ. vdpy; P-,d; gq;F vd;d? (A) &. 1400 (B) &. 1520 (C) &. 1620 (D) &. 1440

119. In a mixture 60 litres, the ratio of milk and water 2:1. If the ratio is to be 1:2, then the quantity of water to be further added is: (A) 20 litres (B) 30 litres (C) 40 litres (D) 60 litres

60 ypl;lh; fyitapy; ghYk; jz;zPUk; 2:1 vd;w tpfpjj;jpy; fye;Js;sd. mf;fiyitapy; vj;jid ypl;lu; jz;zPh; fye;jhy; mtw;wpy; tpfpjk; 1:2 Mf khWk;? (A) 20 ypl;lh; (B) 30 ypl;lh; (C) 40 ypl;lh; (D) 60 ypl;lh;

120. The ratio of the number of boys and girls in a college is 7:8. If the percentage increase in the number of boys and girls be 20% and 10% respectively, what will be the new ratio? (A) 8:9 (B) 17:18 (C) 21:22 (D) cannot be determined

xU fy;Y}happy; gapYk; igad;fs; kw;Wk; ngz;fs; vz;zpf;if tpfpjk; 7:8. igad;fs; kw;Wk; ngz;fspd; vz;zpf;if 20% kw;Wk; 10% cah;e;jhy; mth;fs; vz;zpf;ifapd; Gjpa tpfpjk; vd;d? (A) 8:9 (B) 17:18 (C) 21:22 (D) tpil fhz,ayhJ

121. If 40% of a number is equal to two-third of another number, what is the ratio of first number to the second number? (A) 2:5 (B) 3:7 (C)5:3 (D) 7:3

xU vz;zpd; 40% rjtPjk; vd;gJ kw;nwhU vz;zpd; %d;wpy; ,uz;L gq;Ff;F rkk; vdpy; Kjy; vz;Zf;Fk; ,uz;lhk; vz;Zf;Fk; cs;s tpfpjk; vd;d? (A) 2:5 (B) 3:7 (C)5:3 (D) 7:3

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122. The proportion of milk and water in 3 samples is 2:1, 3:2 and 5:3. A mixture comprising of equal quantities of all 3 samples is made. The proportion of milk and water in the mixture is : (A) 2:1 (B) 5:1 (C) 99:61 (D) 227:133

ghYk; ePUk; fye;j %d;W fyitfspy; mtw;wpd; tpfpjk; KiwNa 2:1> 3:2 kw;Wk; 5:3. ,k;%d;W fyitfSk; rk mstpy; vLf;fg;gl;L fyf;fg;gl;L Gjpa fyit cUthf;fg;gl;lhy; Gjpa fyitapy; ghy; kw;Wk; ePhpd; Gjpa tpfpjk; vd;d? (A) 2:1 (B) 5:1 (C) 99:61 (D) 227:133

123. The ratio of the cost price and the selling price is 4 : 5. The profit percent is : (A) 10% (B) 25% (C) 20% (D) 30%

thq;fpa tpiyf;Fk; tpw;w tpiyf;Fk; cs;s tpfpjk; 4:5 vdpy; ,yhg rjtpfpjk; vd;d? (A) 10% (B) 25% (C) 20% (D) 30%

124. A man sold 20 articles for Rs. 60 and gained 20%. How many articles did he buy for Rs.60? (A) 22 (B) 24 (C) 25 (D) 26 xUth; 20 nghUl;fis &.60f;F tpw;gid nra;J 20% ,yhgk; mile;jhh; vdpy; mth; &.60f;F thq;fpa nghUl;fspd; vz;zpf;if vd;d? (A) 22 (B) 24 (C) 25 (D) 26

125. A mixture contains milk and water in the ratio 3:2. If 4 litres of water is added to the mixture, milk and water in the mixture becomes equal. The quantity of milk in the mixture in litre is. (A) 18 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 12

xU fyitapy; cs;s ghy; kw;Wk; ePhpd; tpfpjk; 3:2. mf;fyitapy; 4 ypl;lh; jz;zPh; Nrh;f;fg;gLk;NghJ mf;fyitapy; ghy; kw;Wk; ePhpd; msT rkkhfpwJ. vdpy; mf;fyitapy; cs;s ghypd; msT vd;d (ypl;lhpy;)? (A) 18 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 12

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Saidai Sa. Duraisamy’s Manidhanaeyam Free IAS Academy (Run by Manidha Naeyam Charitable Trust) 28, 1st main Road, CIT Nagar, Chennai-35 (HO) A-Block Old No.A9 New No. A 41, 6th Street, Anna Nagar East, Chennai – 600 102 E Mail Address : [email protected] Website : saidais.com TNPSC GROUP – 2A – TEST – 4 (ANSWER KEY) 1. B 21. C 41. D 61. C 81. A 101. B 121. C 2. C 22. B 42. D 62. A 82. C 102. D 122. D 3. A 23. C 43. D 63. A 83. B 103. B 123. B 4. B 24. D 44. C 64. C 84. C 104. C 124. B 5. A 25. A 45. A 65. A 85. A 105. B 125. D 6. A 26. D 46. A 66. C 86. D 106. D 7. B 27. A 47. C 67. B 87. A 107. B 8. D 28. C 48. B 68. A 88. C 108. C 9. D 29. B 49. B 69. A 89. B 109. A 10. C 30. A 50. A 70. D 90. C 110. C 11. C 31. D 51. B 71. A 91. A 111. D 12. D 32. C 52. C 72. A 92. C 112. A 13. C 33. A 53. C 73. B 93. C 113. C 14. A 34. C 54. D 74. C 94. D 114. C 15. C 35. A 55. C 75. B 95. B 115. B 16. A 36. A 56. B 76. C 96. C 116. C 17. A 37. C 57. D 77. D 97. B 117. D 18. B 38. D 58. B 78. A 98. C 118. A 19. C 39. D 59. A 79. B 99. D 119. D 20. A 40. B 60. C 80. A 100. C 120. C