Emergency Equipment

I. Doors and Emergency Exits: II. Smoke Detection: III. Fire Detection: IV. Firefighting equipment: V. Aircraft oxygen equipment: VI. Emergency equipment

Doors and Emergency Exits:

The purpose of a rain repellent system is to: A) decrease the surface tension of the water. B) prevent the water droplets from freezing when impacting on the cold windscreen. C) clean the windscreen when used with windscreen wipers. D) increase the surface tension of the water.

For maximum strength against impact damage pilots windows are: A) only heated when the IOAT falls below 0 ° C in precipitation. B) normally kept to a minimum size. C) heated internally to increase their elasticity. D) specially treated during construction.

On modern transport aircraft, cockpit windows are protected against icing by: A) Vinyl coating. B) Electric heating. C) Anti-icing fluid. D) Rain repellent system.

The correct statement about rain protection for cockpit windshields is that: A) wipers are sufficient under heavy rain conditions to provide adequate view through the cockpit windows. B) rain repellent should never be sprayed onto the windshield unless the rainfall is very heavy. C) the alcohol de-icing system for cockpit windows is also suitable for rain protection. D) the electric de-icing system for cockpit windows is also suitable for rain protection.

Flight deck windows are constructed from: A) Strengthened clear vinyl with an electrical conducting coat for de-icing and rubber pressure seals. B) Strengthened glass with shock absorbing clear vinyl interlayers and rubber pressure seals. C) Strengthened glass with rubber seals. D) An amalgam of strengthened glass and vinyl with rubber pressure seals.

On a modern wide-body jet the windscreen is heated primarily to: A) prevent condensation of water on the windscreen. B) prevent the vinyl from losing strength at low outside air temperature. C) keep the windscreen free of ice. D) prevent the vinyl from getting too warm.

What is the effect of heating flight deck windows? A) to protect the windows against bird strike and ice formation. B) to protect the windows against ice formation. C) to demist the interior of the window if normal demist does not function correctly. D) to protect the windows against bird strike.

In flight, if a windscreen overheat warning light illuminates: A) there is no overheat protection for windscreens. B) immediately switch off all heat to the windscreen. C) the windscreen heating will continue to operate satisfactorily at a temperature 10 - 15 degrees C higher than normal. D) windscreen heating will be removed automatically and the windscreen will cool down.

Pilots cockpit windows are heated: A) by passing current across an inner conductive electrical coating. B) only to prevent condensation occurring. C) by agitating the window molecules with an AC current. D) with a reflective inner coating that prevents fogging.

Pilots cockpit windows are: A) made of polarised glass. B) constructed by heat treating the outer surface to reduce glare. C) made of sandwich construction with an electrical conductive coating. D) only heated by air from the de-misting fan.

Evacuation slides may be... or... mounted with an emergency mechanism referred to as a... bar, which connects the slide to the aeroplane. A) wall, floor, dirt B) floor, door, girt C) floor, ceiling, daisy D) floor, door, skirt

Evacuation slides are inflated by: A) a/c pneumatic system B) manual inflation pump C) bottles internal to slide D) a/c air conditioning air

Aircraft above a certain capacity must carry a crash axe, it is provided to: A) enable access behind panels and soundproofing to aid fire fighting. B) cut through the aircraft fuselage to allow escape. C) restrain disorderly passengers. D) cut firewood in a survival situation.

Some emergency exits must be equipped with devices so as to help the occupants to get out and reach the ground if their threshold is at a height above the ground greater than: A) 8 ft, aeroplane on the ground, one main gear or nose gear collapse B) 6 ft, aeroplane on the ground, landing gear extended C) 6 ft, aeroplane on the ground, one main gear or nose gear collapse D) 8 ft, aeroplane on the ground, landing gear extended

Evacuation slide inflation is ensured by: A) the aircraft's general pneumatic circuit B) a pressurized gas canister combined with the slide itself C) pressurized air from the air conditioning system D) a manual pump, used when needed by the cabin crew

A manual inflation handle: A) serves to inflate a life jacket when the normal inflation function fails B) serves to actuate inflation of a slide when automatic inflation fails C) operates a hand pump for manual inflation of a slide D) is generally not applied on slides

In normal flight, what is the position of the Emergency Lighting Switch? A) OFF B) STBY C) ARMED D) ON

An emergency exit assisted escape device must be fitted if the door sill height is above: A) 6ft with the aircraft on the landing gear with the nosewheel extended B) 8ft with the aircraft on the landing gear with the nosewheel collapsed C) 6ft with the aircraft on the landing gear with the nosewheel collapsed D) 8ft with the aircraft on the landing gear with the nosewheel extended

When the door operation of a modern transport airplane equipped with evacuation slides is controlled from the outside, the slide: A) is disarmed automatically B) unfolds and becomes inflated C) unfolds but does not become inflated D) becomes inflated in its packboard thus preventing its unfolding

How are escape slides inflated? A) Self contained gas bottle B) Hand pumped by cabin crew C) Using the oral inflation adapter D) Fed from bleed air system

21. An automatic escape slide: A) automatically inflates when the crash switches are activated B) can be armed from the inside of the aircraft only C) inflates when the recovery team open the door from the outside of the aircraft D) can only be activated from the flight deck

A cut-in area: A) always has a crash axe located next to it B) is designated as a weaker fuselage area C) is lit internally by the emergency lighting system D) is delineated by external markings having right angled comers

When opening an aircraft door from outside, what happens to the escape slide? A) unfolds and becomes inflated B) becomes inflated in its packboard thus preventing its unfolding C) unfolds but does not become inflated D) is disarmed

The purpose of the proximity of the emergency evacuation path marking system is to: A) to be used only at night B) mark only the exits at the floor level C) replace the overhead emergency lighting in case of failure D) replace the overhead emergency lighting during an emergency evacuation with a thick smoke

The number of emergency exits in transport aeroplanes: A) must be in accordance with the number of passengers on board B) must be arranged to allow at least 50 % of all passengers to leave the aeroplane within 2 minutes C) must be arranged to allow all passengers and all crew members to leave the aeroplane within 90 sec. through 50 % of the available emergency exits D) depends on the decision of the manufacturer in agreement with the operator

An exit is considered to be out of service when the following elements are inoperative the: 1. external door opening mechanism 2. internal door opening mechanism 3. door opening aid device 4. open door locking system 5. auxiliary means of evacuation 6. emergency lighting The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: A) 1, 2, 5, 6 B) 1, 3, 4, 5 C) 2, 3, 4, 6 D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 Emergency exits: A) can only be opened from the inside B) must be outlined externally by a 2 inch band of contrasting colour C) must have an escape slide fitted to them D) are painted yellow

In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an airplane must be equipped with equipment or systems at each emergency exit that allow to reach the ground safely in the case of an emergency when the sill height of the passenger emergency exit is higher than: A) 1,86 m B) 1,83 m C) 1,80 m D) 1,89 m

An aircraft entrance door is fitted with an automatic escape slide, the door is 'armed' from the inside by the cabin crew: A) If the door is opened from the outside the slide will remain stowed B) The door cannot be opened from the outside C) If the door is opened from the outside the slide will deploy and inflate D) Entrance to the aircraft from outside must be made through the 'break in' panel

Smoke Detection:

Automatic smoke detectors: A) can only be tested during flight B) have a test facility C) do not have a test facility D) do not show a light when the airflow is interrupted

A visual type smoke detector operates on the principle A) that smoke obscuring the light falling on to a photo-electric cell makes and electrical warning circuit B) all of the above methods have been used in visual type smoke detectors C) of drawing a sample of air through an illuminated chamber and visually checking for the presence of smoke D) that smoke contains alpha particles which are detected by a radio active sensing device

Where are smoke detectors if installed, located in an aircraft? A) In the cockpit, in the cabin, on the lavatory B) In the cabin, on the lavatory, in the cargo compartment C) In the avionics, lavatory and cargo compartments D) In the wheel wells

Smoke detectors fitted on transport aircraft are of the following type: A) magnetic B) optical or ionization C) electrical D) chemical

Smoke detector systems are installed in the A) upper cargo compartments (class E) B) engine nacelles C) wheel wells D) fuel tanks

Ion detectors are devices used in aircraft for systems protection. They detect: A) smoke B) over temperature and fire C) over temperature D) fire

On what principle do smoke detectors work? A) Inductance and light diffraction B) Optical and ionisation C) Resistance and capacitance D) Ionisation and impedance Smoke detectors are fitted in: A) cargo bays, APU compartment, toilets B) passenger cabins, cargo bays, electrical equipment bays C) cargo bays, electrical equipment bays, toilets D) toilets, electrical equipment bays, APU compartments

Smoke and flame detectors operate according to several different principles, for example: A) light detection, light refraction and ionisation B) light refraction, change in resistance of semiconductor and radiation C) nuclear fusion, light detection and light diffraction D) ionisation, light interference and doppler

The type of smoke detection system fitted to aircraft is: A) chemical B) optical and ionisation C) electrical D) magnetic

Where are smoke detectors fitted? A) toilets and cargo compartments B,C,E B) toilets C) all cargo compartments D) toilets and cargo compartments A,B,C,D,E

Smoke detectors using photo-electric cells are based upon... the light source. A) absorbing B) defracting C) protracting D) refracting

An ion detector detects: A) smoke and fire B) smoke C) light D) overheat

Fire Detection: Fire detector loops operate on the principle that when the temperature of the wire increases the: A) capacitance increases and/or resistance decreases B) resistance and capacitance of the wire decreases C) resistance of the wire increases D) resistance and capacitance of the wire increases

When a continuous element of a fire detection system is heated: 1. its resistance decreases 2. its resistance increases 3. the leakage current increases 4. the leakage current decreases A) 1, 3 B) 2, 3 C) 1, 4 D) 2, 4

A fault protection circuit in a fire detection system will: A) activate an alarm in the cockpit and in the landing gear bay for ground crew B) automatically initiate APU shutdown and fire extinguisher striker activation in the event of fire C) inhibit the fire detector when the detection line is connected to ground D) activate the fire detection system when the detection line is connected to ground

In transport aeroplanes overheat detection systems are installed in the: A) cabin B) fuel tanks C) landing gear bays / wheel wells D) tyres

A Continuous-Loop-Detector-System is a: A) Fire detection system B) Fire fighting system C) Carbon dioxide warning system D) Smoke detection system

Continuous loop fire detector systems operate on the principle that an increase in temperature produces: A) a decrease in pressure B) a decrease in the reference current C) a decrease in resistance D) an increase in resistance

In a fire detection system with single-loop continuous components (with no fault protection), if the line is accidentally grounded: A) there will be no effect on the system B) the engine fire extinguisher striker is automatically activated C) the power supply is cut off automatically D) the fire alarm is triggered The indication of the fire detection systems is performed by a: A) warning light B) gear warning C) warning light and a warning bell D) warning bell

Fire detection systems: A) are connected to the vital bus bar B) can only use AC electricity C) can be tested from the flight deck D) automatically fire the engine extinguishers

On a multi-engined aircraft, an engine fire warning system consists of: A) steady amber lights for each engine and a common warning bell B) steady red lights for each engine and a common warning bell C) steady red lights for each engine and a warning bell for each engine D) common steady amber light and a warning bell for each engine

On an aircraft provided with resistance and capacitance variation type fire detection loops, a fire alarm is initiated by a temperature increase detected: A) on at least one loop B) only at an isolated point of the loops C) at any isolated point of the loops or else generally on all the loops D) only in a uniform way along the loops

A thermocouple consists of two wires of dissimilar metal and work on the principle of: A) an Emf being induced in the wires as gas flows over the probe B) an Emf being induced in the wires by the external supplied current C) a reduction in the external supplied current with an increase in temperature D) a rise in the externally supplied current with an increase in temperature

If the continuous element of a fire detection system is heated than: A) the resistant decreases and the leakage current increases B) the resistant increases and the leakage current increases C) the resistant increases and the leakage current decreases D) the resistant decreases and the leakage current decreases

A gaseous sensor/responder tube fire sensor is tested by: A) heating up the sensor with test power connection B) checking the sensor with pressurized gas C) checking the wiring harness for faults but not the sensor D) checking the continuity of the system with a test switch

On a multi-engined aircraft a fire detection system includes: A) a warning light for each engine and a single alarm bell common to all engines B) a single warning light but a separate alarm bell for each engine C) a single warning light and a single alarm bell D) both a warning light and an alarm bell unique to each engine

A short circuit in a resistive " fire wire" detector will: A) disable the test circuit B) cause the blow out disc to be ruptured C) fire the squib in the fire bottle discharge head D) cause a spurious fire warning to be received

The overheat warning system of a transport aeroplane consists of a warning: A) light. B) bell. C) light and warning bell. D) light or a warning bell.

When a wire type fire system is tested: A) the wiring and the warning are tested B) a part of the wire is totally heated C) Only the warning function is tested D) the wire is totally heated

The bimetal strip detectors of an engine fire detection system:

1. Allow fire-warning to disappear after fire was extinguished. 2. Do not allow fire-warning to disappear after fire was extinguished. 3. open during a fire. 4. close during a fire. The combination containing all of the correct statements is: A) 1 and 3 only. B) 2 and 4 only. C) 2 and 3 only. D) 1 and 4 only.

When a bimetallic strip is used as a switch in a fire detection loop, a fire alarm is triggered after a delay. The purpose of this delay is to: A) delay the triggering of the fire extinguishers and increase their efficiency. B) avoid false alarms in case of vibrations. C) allow temperatures to equalize. D) wait for the triggering of the second fire detection loop in order to confirm the fire.

Firefighting equipment: One type of extinguishing agent you would expect to find in an aircraft installed engine fire protection system is: A) CO2 B) Dry Powder C) Halon D) Freon

In order to enable a fire to be controlled as quickly as possible, the fire detectors are located in the highest risk compartments. Theses compartments are: 1. the main landing gear wheel wells 2. the fuel tanks 3. the oil tanks 4. the auxiliary power unit 5. around the engines The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: A) 1,4,5 B) 1,2,3,4,5 C) 2,5 D) 2,3

Which of the following portable fire extinguishers are most suitable for an engine start fire? A) Chemical dry powder B) CO2 C) Foam D) Methyl Bromide

When an engine bay fixed fire extinguisher is activated, to what location is the extinguishant directed? A) the engine intake B) the high pressure end of the engine turbine C) into the combustion chambers D) the low pressure end of the outside of the engine compressor

A flight deck indication that a fixed fire extinguisher has been fired is: A) low pressure warning lamp B) a protruding indicator pin at the discharge head C) a green coloured bursting disc D) thermal discharge indicator

The best extinguishant to use on a wheel or brake fire is: A) Halon B) CO2 C) Dry powder D) Sand

When fire is detected on engine #2, the fire shutoff handle #2 is pulled and rotated to the left. This results in: A) the discharge of fire extinguisher bottle #1 and illumination of the DISCH indicator lamp of agent #1 on both engines B) the discharge of fire extinguisher bottle #2 and illumination of the DISCH indicator lamp of agent #1 on engine #1 and agent #2 on engine #2 C) the discharge of fire extinguisher bottle #1 and illumination of the DISCH indicator lamp of agent #1 on engine no. and DISCH indicator lamp of agent #2 on engine #1 D) the discharge of fire extinguisher bottle #1 and illumination of the DISCH (discharge) indicator lamp

What type of fire extinguisher must be located on a flight deck? A) Halon B) Special fluid C) Dry powder D) Water

Most modern aeroplanes have fire extinguishers in the toilet compartments which are: A) fully automatic and activated by smoke B) operated by a switch in the cockpit and/or a switch at each cabin attendant station C) manually operated to release the extinguishant D) automatic and self activated by heat

Discharge of an engine bay fire extinguisher due to normal firing operation is indicated by: A) a red pin extended at the base of the extinguisher distributor valve B) a red ruptured disc on the engine nacelle C) a red ruptured disc at the base of the extinguisher distributor valve D) a yellow ruptured disc on the extinguisher

The cylinder colour of a chemical dry powder fire extinguisher is: A) Black B) Red C) Blue D) Green

When the fire handle of the fire-extinguishing system of an aircraft is pulled, the effects are: 1. closing of the LP valve of the fuel system 2. opening of the air bleed valves and HP valves on the engine concerned 3. setting of extinguishing systems 4. closing of the isolation and de-icing valves 5. isolation of the associated electric current generators 6. immediate discharge of extinguishing agent The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: A) 1,3,4,5 B) 2,3,4,5 C) 1,3,4 D) 1,2,5,6

A CO2 fire extinguisher is unsuitable for use on wheel brake fires because: A) CO2 may cause an explosion when applied to a hot wheel brake B) electrics are not contained within the wheel brake assembly C) CO2 will not extinguish burning brake pad material D) only foam is suitable for use on wheel brakes

Which of the following are the most suitable portable hand held fire extinguishers for use on engine start fires? A) CO2 - Foam B) BCF - Foam C) CO2 - Dry Powder D) CO2 - BCF

An automatic toilet fire extinguisher is activated by: A) odour detection B) smoke detection C) CO2 D) heat detection

The engine fire extinguisher system is activated: A) automatically when a fire warning is sensed B) automatically after a time delay to allow the engine to stop C) by the pilot when required D) after the engine has been shut down

The main feature of BCF fire extinguishers is that they: A) are electrical conductors B) act as flame inhibitors by absorbing the air's oxygen C) are highly corrosive particularly for aluminium alloys D) use the cooling effect created by the venturi during discharge

When an engine bay fire extinguisher is activated: A) it requires 24V DC and directs the extinguishant into the engine combustion chambers B) it directs the extinguishant to the inside and outside of the engine casing C) it requires 28V DC and directs the extinguishant to the engine intake D) it requires 28V DC and directs the extinguishant to the outside of the engine A twin engine jet is equipped with a twin head extinguisher system. A fire occurs in the port engine. The engine is shut down and the fire goes out after a single shot from the system. If the other engine were to develop a fire, how many shots would be available for it? A) 2 B) 3 C) none D) 1

A two shot fire extinguisher system usually has: A) a single fire bottle containing two shots B) a single fire bottle with a dual outlet discharge head C) two fire bottles, one for each shot D) two squibs on each discharge head

21. A two shot fire extinguisher system normally has: A) two fire bottles, one for each shot B) a single fire bottle with a dual outlet discharge head C) two fire bottles each with a single head D) a single fire bottle containing two shots

On the following figure, the two fire bottles can be used for each engine of this twin-engined aeroplane. This requires the use of: A) a priority valve B) a shuttle valve C) a check valve D) a restrictor valve

What is the main advantage of Halon 1301 over CO2 for extinguishing an aircraft cabin fire? A) Halon 1301 gives a much lower cost than Co2 B) Co2 can extinguish faster than Halon 1301, but the heat will be higher with CO2 C) Halon 1301 can extinguish a fire with much lower concentration than is required for CO2, and it will not deprive the occupants of the cabin of the needed oxygen D) You will need less Halon 1301 to fight the fire than CO2

The best extinguishing agent for a wheel fire is: A) Foam B) Dry powder C) C02 D) Water

The most common extinguishing agent used in gas turbine engine fire protection system is: A) Water B) Freon C) Powder D) CO2

With engine fire alarm activated, the extinguisher discharge: A) does not need the engine to be stopped B) is automatic after a delay to allow the pilot to stop the engine C) is the pilot's task D) is automatic and immediate

The fuel temperature, under standard conditions, the vapour ignites in contact with flame and extinguishes immediately, is the: A) self ignition point B) fire point C) flash point D) combustion point

A ruptured red disc on the nacelle skin of a gas turbine engine bay fire extinguisher indicates: A) the extinguisher has discharged due to excess pressure B) the extinguisher is overcharged and therefore over pressurized C) the excess pressure has been released from the extinguisher to return it to within safe limits D) that the extinguisher pneumatic firing system has been activated

If a landing gear wheel is on fire, the best extinguishant to use is: A) Freon B) CO2 C) water with methanol D) dry powder

Flames are coming out from the wheel of a main undercarriage bogie type system. The fire should be tackled with: A) a dry powder extinguishant applied standing in line with the rolling path of the wheel B) a carbon dioxide extinguisher from the front or rear of the wheel as close to the wheel as is practical C) a carbon dioxide extinguisher from the side of the wheel in line with the rolling path of the wheel D) a water-glycol extinguisher aimed at the fire

Aircraft oxygen equipment:

What is the purpose of the diluter demand valve in the emergency oxygen system? A) To dilute oxygen with air in passenger oxygen system B) To dilute oxygen with air in crew oxygen system C) To supply air only when inhaling D) To supply oxygen only when inhaling

An aircraft is certified to carry a maximum of 240 passengers; it is configured to carry 200 and actually has 180 passengers on board. The minimum number of drop-down oxygen masks provided must be: A) 200 B) 240 C) 180 D) 220

Above what flight level must one pilot wear an oxygen mask at all times during commercial flight. A) 250 B) 410 C) 490 D) 300

When air is pressurised, the percentage of oxygen present: A) increases B) decreases C) increases because density increases D) remains the same

In case of smoke in the cockpit, the crew oxygen regulator must be set to: A) on demand B) normal C) 100% D) emergency

Lubrication of an oxygen component thread is by: A) oil B) graphite C) soap water D) grease

At what altitude will the diluter-demand oxygen regulator provide 100% pure oxygen? A) 24 000 ft B) 14 000 ft C) 34 000 ft D) 10 000 ft The type of an aircraft oxygen system intended for use by passengers is mostly: A) portable equipment only B) a continuous flow system C) an air recycle system D) a pressure demand system

Chemical oxygen generators are used to furnish oxygen to the: A) toilets only B) cabin only C) cockpit only D) cockpit and the cabin

Which of the following is correct of Chemical Oxygen Generators? A) They must have a minimum duration of 20 mins B) They require a supply of 24V DC electricity C) Masks automatically drop to half hung position at a cabin altitude of 14.000 ft D) They produce low flow high pressure oxygen

The oxygen masks have dropped down from the passengers service units. The oxygen flow starts: A) after pulling the oxygen mask downwards B) only above FL200 C) immediately D) After the system has been switched on by a crew member

An oxygen regulator has 3 controls: 1. a power lever: ON/OFF 2. an " O2" lever: NORMAL/100% 3. an emergency lever: ON/OFF Among the following statements, the correct proposition is: A) the EMERGENCY lever on ON enables breathing of pure oxygen at ambient pressure B) with the EMERGENCY lever on OFF, in an emergency situation, one cannot use the oxygen mask to breathe C) the power lever on ON, and, the " O2" lever on NORMAL allows the oxygen to enter the regulator and enables breathing of a mixture of air/oxygen according to altitude D) the " O2" lever on ON enables breathing of the over-pressure oxygen at a constant flow rate

A public transport jet aeroplane may be operated up to FL 450. The cabin includes 180 passenger seats, made up of 30 rows (3 seats from each side of central aisle). The minimum number of cabin oxygen masks for this aeroplane must be: A) 240 (one additional mask per seat block). B) 198 (110% of the seating capacity). C) 210 (one additional mask per seat row). D) 270 (150% of the seating capacity). Satisfactory operation of the oxygen system is indicated by: A) flow indicators B) aural reassurance C) lack of anoxia D) pressure indicators

If the aircraft suffers a rapid decompression: A) the pilot must select the oxygen masks to drop B) the cabin will fill with water vapour C) water will boil at a higher temperature D) the stick pusher will operate automatically

The chemical oxygen generator is a system:

1. which is inexpensive 2. requiring no external input 3. which is lightweight 4. requiring no maintenance 5. with adjustable flow rate 6. which is unsafe The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: A) 1, 4, 6 B) 1, 3, 4 C) 2, 3, 6 D) 2, 4, 5

In a diluter demand system, selection of emergency on this regulator will result in: A) 100% oxygen continuous flow at positive pressure B) air mix supplied at emergency pressure C) 100% oxygen supply as called for by the user D) 100% oxygen at positive pressure

Without added oxygen the time of useful consciousness at 40 000ft is approximately: A) six minutes B) twenty seconds C) eighty seconds D) three seconds

The survival oxygen is: A) the oxygen supplied to the airplane occupants in case of accidental depressurization B) a therapeutical oxygen specifically carried for certain passengers C) the oxygen supplied to a passenger who needs oxygen for pathological reasons D) the oxygen used for protection against smoke and carbon dioxide

When the oxygen selection lever on a demand regulator is set to NORMAL, the air supply for the air/oxygen mix comes from: A) the compressed oxygen bottle B) the flight deck C) none of the above D) the chemical oxygen generator

21. A flow indicator fitted to an oxygen regulator indicates: A) that oxygen is flowing through the regulator B) that exactly the correct amount of oxygen is being used by the crew member C) that the crew member is correctly connected to the regulator D) that the system pressure reducing valve is supplying the correct pressure to the regulator

In a continuous flow oxygen system, oxygen is supplied: A) immediately after the mask is released from overhead compartments B) only when the mask is plugged into the socket connection C) any time the cabin altitude exceeds 12500 ft D) all of the above

A passenger emergency mask is a: A) mask with flow on request and cannot be used if there is smoke in the cabin B) continuous flow mask and can be used if there is smoke in the cabin C) continuous flow mask and cannot be used if there is smoke in the cabin D) mask with flow on request and can be used if there is smoke

From which flight level do the regulations require a quick donning type oxygen mask for the flight crew in a pressurized aircraft? A) FL 100 B) FL 390 C) FL 300 D) FL 250

Crew emergency oxygen is provided from: A) Chemical oxygen generators B) Ram air supplies C) Gaseous oxygen cylinders D) Liquid oxygen cylinders

Without added oxygen, the time of useful consciousness at 25 000 ft is approximately: A) 80 seconds B) 6 to 9 minutes C) 3 to 5 minutes D) 20 seconds When selected to normal, the oxygen proportion of the air/oxygen mixture supplied by the cockpit oxygen system regulator: A) is constant whatever the altitude B) increases when the altitude increases C) is 100 % D) decreases when the altitude increases

Modern pressurized transport airplanes are equipped with: A) only one oxygen system supplying the whole aircraft B) two independent oxygen systems, one supplying the cockpit, the other the cabin C) only portable oxygen bottles D) two oxygen systems both supplying the cockpit and the cabin

When the oxygen lever on a demand regulator is set to NORMAL, the air/oxygen mix will become 100 percent oxygen at approximately: A) when taking a deep breath B) 33,000ft C) 14,000ft D) 10,000ft

Emergency oxygen is provided by: A) two independent systems, one for flight deck, one for cabin B) three systems, one for the flight deck, one for the passengers and one for the cabin crew C) two systems each capable of supplying the flight deck and cabin D) one system for both flight deck and cabin

A chemical on board oxygen generating system provides: A) high pressure continuous 100% oxygen flow B) low pressure oxygen on demand C) high pressure continuous flow oxygen/air mix D) low pressure continuous flow oxygen

In the cabin, when the oxygen mask is pulled downwards, the passenger breathes: A) cabin air under pressure B) a mixture of oxygen and cabin air C) pure oxygen under pressure D) pure oxygen at the ambient pressure

In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, the minimum requirement for the survival oxygen needed to supply 100 % of the passengers during and following an emergency descend is: A) 30 minutes B) the entire flight time where the cabin pressure altitude is above 13000 C) 10 minutes or the entire flight time where the cabin pressure altitude is above 15000 ft, whichever is the greater D) the entire flight time where the cabin pressure altitude is above 10000 ft minus 30 minutes The excess cabin altitude alerting system must operate to warn the crew at: A) 14000ft B) 8000ft C) 13000ft D) 10000ft

When smoke appears in the cockpit, after donning the oxygen mask the pilot should select: A) Normal B) Emergency C) 1 D) Diluter

A crew narrow panel oxygen regulator, when selected to 100% oxygen will provide: A) 100% oxygen on demand B) 100% diluted oxygen on demand C) 100% pressure oxygen to the mask D) 100% oxygen in an emergency

The purpose of the first aid oxygen is to: A) supply all the passengers in case of depressurization B) provide some passengers with additional respiratory assistance after an emergency descent following a depressurization C) provide the flight crew with respiratory assistance after depressurization D) provide the cabin attendants with respiratory protection

What is the effect on cabin temperature of a rapid de-compression at 30 000 ft? A) Insignificant change over the first 2 minutes B) A gradual decrease to ambient temperature over a period of about 30 minutes if cabin heating continues C) Sudden and extreme drop D) A gradual decrease to ambient over a period of about 10 minutes if the cabin heating ceases

The passenger oxygen drop-down mask stowage doors are released: A) manually by the cabin crew B) electrically for chemical oxygen generators and pneumatically for gaseous systems C) mechanically D) by a lanyard operated by a barometric capsule

In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, when an airplane flies at over 25000 ft, the total number of oxygen dispensing units and supply terminals must be at least greater than the number of: A) passengers by 10 % B) passengers by 30% C) seats by 10 % D) seats by 30 % 41. The chemical oxygen generator supplies oxygen for about: A) 15 minutes B) 2 hours C) 30 minutes D) 5 minutes

A public transport aircraft has a cruising altitude of FL 390. It is fitted with individual oxygen masks for the passengers. In the event of depressurization, the masks must be automatically released before the cabin pressure altitude exceeds: A) 13 000 ft B) 14 000 ft C) 12 000 ft D) 15 000 ft

Without added oxygen the time of useful consciousness at 40 000 ft is approximately: A) 20 seconds B) 6 minutes C) 80 seconds D) 3 minutes

Modern pressurized transport airplanes are equipped with: A) two oxygen systems both supplying the cockpit and the cabin B) only portable oxygen bottles C) two independent oxygen systems, one supplying the cockpit, the other the cabin D) only one oxygen system supplying the whole aircraft

In jet transport aircraft, breathing oxygen for the cockpit is stored in the following state: A) chemical or gaseous B) gaseous C) liquid D) chemical

The state in which the breathing oxygen for the cockpit of jet transport aircraft is stored is: A) chemical compound B) gaseous or chemical compound C) gaseous temperature has to be -119° (Tcrit) minimum D) liquid

Oxygen cylinders are normally charged to: A) 2,000 psi B) 1,200 psi C) 1,000 psi D) 1,800 psi

With increasing altitude, the percentage of oxygen in the air entering the aircraft cabin: A) remains constant B) increases, due to lower temperatures at higher altitudes C) decreases, due to increased pressure D) decreases, due to reduced pressure

Which is true of chemical oxygen generators? A) They provide diluted oxygen on demand B) Once activated they cannot be stopped C) They provide continuous flow high pressure oxygen D) Low pressure oxygen is available in the half hung position

The safety precautions to be taken whenever using oxygen are:

1. refrain from smoking, avoid sparks. 2. Avoid operation of radio communication equipment. 3. Slowly operate oxygen system valves. 4. Avoid greasy matter. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: A) 1, 2, 3 B) 2, 3, 4 C) 1, 2, 4 D) 1, 3, 4

Public transport aircraft is operated at FL 390. The total number of oxygen dispensing units and outlets in the cabin must be at least the same as the total number of: A) seats exceeded by 10% B) passengers exceeded by 10% C) seats D) passengers

Generally speaking when the oxygen flows to the masks in the passenger cabin, the system is activated by A) firmly pulling the cover behind which the oxygen mask is stowed B) pushing the mask against the face and breath normally C) activating the relevant switch in the cockpit D) firmly pulling the mask towards the face, after the cover has opened

Discharge of a chemical oxygen generator is shown by: A) Red-colour disc missing B) Steady red light C) Yellow-colour disc missing D) Discolouration of thermal paint

In a continuous flow oxygen system, the pressure of the oxygen reaching the masks is: A) always 1800 psid B) controlled by the user C) controlled by a pressure regulator in the distribution system D) controlled by a pressure regulator in the breathing mask

When quick donning masks are in use, the pilot is: A) able to radiotelephone B) not able to do any radio communication C) only able to transmit D) only able to receive

The equipment of an oxygen supply installation must be kept absolutely free of oil or grease traces as: A) these substances could plug the oxygen masks filters B) these substances mixed with oxygen could catch fire in the presence of a spark C) the oxygen system would be contaminated D) these substances catch fire spontaneously in the presence of oxygen under pressure

The purpose of the " Pressure Relief Valve" in a high pressure oxygen system is to: A) act as a manual shut-off valve B) maximize the charging pressure of the system C) relieve overpressure if the pressure reducing valve malfunctions D) reduce pressure in the oxygen reservoir to a suitable manifold pressure for the regulator

The advantages of a chemical oxygen source for the passenger cabin are:

1. reduced weight and volume 2. easy storage and maintenance 3. greater autonomy 4. no risk of explosion 5. reversible functioning 6. no maintenance The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: A) 1, 2, 3, and 6 B) 1, 4 and 6 C) 1, 2, 4, and 6 D) 2, 3, 4 and 5

An non-pressurised aircraft is flying above FL 100 and therefore must have sufficient oxygen for: A) both Pilots and all passengers B) both pilots only C) both pilots immediately and the cabin crew plus all passengers after 30 minutes above FL 100 but below FL 130 D) both pilots immediately and the cabin crew plus some passengers after 30 minutes above FL 100 but below FL 130 When oxygen comes into contact with oil or grease it may: A) cause spontaneous combustion B) produce carbon monoxide C) produce sulphur dioxide D) produce carbon dioxide

61. The opening of the doors giving access to the oxygen masks for the passengers is: 1. pneumatic for the gaseous oxygen system 2. electrical for the chemical oxygen system 3. pneumatic for the chemical oxygen system 4. electrical for the gaseous oxygen system The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: A) 1, 3 B) 2, 4 C) 1, 2 D) 2, 3

A jet aircraft is certified for the carriage of 120 passengers. 42 passengers are on board and the expected Flight Level on route Paris-Alger is FL 330. The first aid oxygen to be on board at departure shall provide breathing supply for at least: A) no first aid required B) 3 passengers for the entire flight after cabin depressurisation at cabin altitude between 10000 and 14000 ft C) 1 passenger for the entire flight after cabin depressurisation at cabin altitude of more than 8000 ft D) 1 passenger for the entire flight after cabin depressurisation at cabin altitude between 10000 and 14000 ft

Diluter demand oxygen is provided for: A) crew use only. B) portable oxygen sets. C) use by cabin crew when dealing with de-pressurisation or medical incidents. D) crew and passenger use.

If the maximum operating pressure of the oxygen system is exceeded the: A) oxygen becomes unusable for the passengers B) passenger oxygen masks will drop down C) oxygen bottles will explode D) oxygen is discharged overboard via a safety plug

When a 120 litre portable oxygen set is selected to NORMAL it will provide: A) 100% continuous flow oxygen for 120 minutes B) 100% continuous flow oxygen for 60 minutes C) Continuous flow oxygen mixed with cabin air for 30 minutes D) 100% continuous flow oxygen for 30 minutes

Oxygen regulators used by the flight crew for most commercial jet aircraft are of the A) continuous pressure diluter demand type B) Diluter demand type C) continuous flow type D) Pressure demand type

In a pressurized aircraft, the first-aid (therapeutic) oxygen is designed to: A) protect the flight crew and cabin attendants against fumes and noxious gases B) give medical assistance to passengers with pathological respiratory disorders C) protect certain passengers, and is only carried on board for these people D) protect all the occupants against the effects of accidental depressurisation

To leak test an oxygen system use: A) acid free soap and distilled water B) vegetable oil C) Vaseline D) none of the above

At what height is it mandatory for one of the flight deck crew to wear an oxygen mask? A) 41000ft B) 32000ft C) 25000ft D) 37000ft

In accordance with JAR-OPS 1: 10 % of the passengers in a non-pressurized airplane must have an oxygen supply reserve for the entire flight time when the cabin altitude pressure is greater than: A) 13000 ft B) 10000 ft C) 10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft D) 10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft minus 30 minutes

The state in which the breathing oxygen for the cockpit of jet transport aeroplanes is stored is: A) Chemical compound B) Liquid C) Gaseous D) Gaseous or chemical compound

Oxygen systems are systems used on pressurized airplanes in: 1. an emergency in the case of depressurization. 2. an emergency in the case of the indisposition of a passenger. 3. normal use in order to supply oxygen to the cabin. 4. an emergency in the case of smoke or toxic gases. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: A) 2, 3 B) 3 C) 1, 2, 4 D) 1,4 The operations of an airline plan the operation of a pressurized aircraft at a 240 flight level on its whole route with 150 passengers on board. As concerns the regulatory requirements about oxygen:

1. each crew member will have available a quick fitting inhaler device. 2. the aircraft will be equipped with a warning system indicating that the cabin altitude is higher than 3 000 m. 3. the quantity of oxygen on board will be sufficient for the supply of 100 % of the occupants during the whole flight time above the flight level 150 after an eventual depressurization. 4. the first aid quantity of oxygen will be sufficient for the supply of two passengers during the whole flight time when the cabin altitude is greater than 8 000 feet. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 2,3 C) 3, 4 D) 2

Dangerous pressure rise in oxygen cylinders is: A) controlled by a thermal relief valve B) controlled using a liquid refrigerant to cool down the oxygen bottle C) relieved by a bursting disc D) relieved by a thermostat

In a diluter demand oxygen system, when TEST MASK is selected: A) air is supplied to the mask at greater than ambient pressure, but at a lower pressure than when EMERGENCY is selected. B) oxygen is supplied to the mask at a lower pressure than when EMERGENCY is selected. C) oxygen is supplied to the mask at a greater pressure than when EMERGENCY is selected. D) there is no supply to the mask.

In a pressure demand system, switching the emergency lever to ON will result in: A) air mix supplied at emergency pressure B) 100 percent oxygen at positive pressure C) 100 percent oxygen continuous flow at positive pressure D) 100 percent oxygen supply as called for by the user

Satisfactory operation of the crew oxygen system is indicated by: A) flow indicators B) aural warnings C) pressure indicators D) lack of anoxia

If the pressurisation system fails and the cabin starts to climb, how will oxygen be available to the passengers above 14,000ft? A) Portable oxygen bottles are located in the seat backs B) Passengers will have to look for oxygen masks in the overhead lockers C) Masks are automatically ejected to a half hung position from overhead D) Oxygen masks will be handed out by the cabin crew Susceptibility to hypoxia is increased by: A) Heat B) Smoking C) Noise D) Under-breathing

The demand valve of a diluter-demand type oxygen regulator in normal mode, operates when the: A) diluter control is in normal position B) user requires 100 percent oxygen C) pressure in the oxygen reservoir is more than 500 psi D) user breathes in

81. During climb, the percentage of oxygen in the air: A) increases B) increases up to FL360, and then decreases C) remains the same D) decreases

In a diluter demand oxygen system, when EMERGENCY is selected: A) 100 percent oxygen flows to the mask at higher than ambient pressure. B) air flows to the mask at greater than ambient pressure. C) diluted oxygen flows to the mask at higher than ambient pressure. D) 100 percent oxygen flows to the mask at ambient pressure on demand only.

As regards passengers oxygen in public transport aircraft, information must be given to passengers through a demonstration. If a flight is to be carried out at Flight Level FL 290, this demonstration must be completed before: A) the aircraft reaches FL 250. B) the aircraft reaches FL 140. C) take-off. D) the aircraft reaches FL 100.

A diluter demand oxygen regulator: A) is only recommended for use with smoke in the cockpit. B) delivers oxygen flow when inhaling. C) delivers oxygen flow only above FL 100. D) mixes air and oxygen in a passenger oxygen mask.

Passenger oxygen masks will present: A) if selected manually or electrically or barometrically B) only when the cabin altitude reaches 14 000 ft C) only if selected by the cabin crew staff D) only if selected by the crew A public transport aircraft has a cruising altitude of FL 390. It is fitted with individual oxygen masks for the passengers. In the event of depressurisation, the masks must be automatically released before the cabin pressure altitude exceeds: A) 14 000 ft B) 12 500 ft C) 12 000 ft D) 15 000 ft

When air is pressurised the % of oxygen: A) remains the same B) decreases C) nil D) increases

An aircraft is scheduled to fly from PARIS to MARSEILLE at FL 390 and has the following characteristics: 1. Maximum permissible number of passenger specified by the certificate of airworthiness= 230 2. Number of seats on board= 200 3. Scheduled number of passengers on board= 180 The minimum number of inhaler systems provided in the aircraft cabin should be: A) 230 B) 200 C) 220 D) 180

Without added oxygen the time of useful consciousness at 25000ft is approximately: A) 3 minutes B) 1 minute C) 40 seconds D) 4 to 5 minutes

In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, during and following an emergency descent, each occupant of the cockpit seats on duty must have access to a minimum amount of oxygen in: 1. order to maintain a supply throughout the entire flight time where the cabin altitude pressure is greater than 13000 ft. 2. order to maintain a supply throughout the entire flight time where the cabin altitude pressure is greater than 10000 ft and smaller than 13000 ft minus 30 minutes. 3. no case less than 30 minutes for airplanes certified to fly up to 25000 ft. 4. no case less than 2 hours for airplanes certified to fly at over 25000 ft. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: A) 1, 2, 4 B) 1,4 C) 1, 2 D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

The passenger oxygen mask will supply: A) A mixture of oxygen and Freon gas B) Cabin air and oxygen or 100% oxygen C) 100% oxygen D) Cabin air and oxygen A smoke mask is a: A) mask with flow on request and covers only the nose and the mouth B) mask with flow on request and covers the whole face C) continuous flow mask and covers the whole face D) continuous flow mask and covers only the nose and the mouth

The maximum altitude without oxygen at which flying efficiency is not seriously impaired is: A) 10 000 ft B) 17 500 ft C) 30 000 ft D) 25 000 ft

An aircraft has a chemical emergency oxygen system. The masks will automatically drop down at: A) 8000 ft aircraft altitude B) 14000 ft aircraft altitude C) 8000 ft cabin altitude D) 14000 ft cabin altitude

In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, 100 % of the passengers in a non-pressurized airplane must have an oxygen supply reserve for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes greater than: A) 14000 ft B) 15000 ft C) 13000 ft D) 10000 ft

Airliners are equipped with oxygen systems. It can be said that: A) the same circuit is used by the crew and the passengers B) the passenger circuit never uses chemically generated oxygen C) the seals must be carefully greased to avoid sparks D) with setting on " NORMAL" , the crew breathes a mixture of oxygen / cabin air

The built-in passenger oxygen system be activated by: A) switching the diluter demand regulator ON B) opening the oxygen-bottle valves C) switching the diluter demand regulator and the passenger oxygen ON D) switching the passenger oxygen ON

What are the minimum instrument indications required for an aircraft oxygen system? A) Flow, Pressure, Dilution Rate and Content B) Oxygen Flow and Contents C) Dilution Rate, Oxygen Flow and Contents D) Pressure, Flow and Contents

In a pressure demand oxygen system: A) oxygen demand will cause the pressure to rise B) each crew member has a continuous oxygen supply C) oxygen is supplied with a continuous pressure flow at all times D) each crew member has a regulator A substance which may never be used in the vicinity or on parts of an oxygen installation is: A) Grease B) Nitrogen C) Water D) Halon

101. If during a normal flight oxygen is not available, then the cabin altitude must be: A) at or below 8,000 feet B) at or below 14,000 feet. C) below 10,000 feet D) at a maximum of 12,000 feet

Consider the flight deck oxygen supply system. The purpose of the oxygen regulator (as a function of demand and altitude) is to:

1. decrease oxygen pressure from 1800 PSI (in the bottles) down to about 50-75 PSI (low pressure system) 2. supply pure oxygen 3. supply diluted oxygen 4. supply oxygen at normal pressure 5. supply oxygen at emergency/positive pressure 6. trigger the continuous cabin altitude warning at 10000 ft cabin altitude The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: A) 1, 3, 4, 6 B) 2, 3, 4, 5 C) 3, 4, 5, 6 D) 1, 2, 3, 4

Partial oxygen pressure is sufficient for normal human performance up to an altitude of: A) 12,000 ft B) 18,000 ft C) 2.6 NM D) 8,000 ft

An aircraft is to fly at 29 000 ft. When should the oxygen briefing take place? A) before take-off B) at 20000ft C) before reaching 14000ft D) before reaching 10000ft

If the aircraft suffers a decompression, passenger oxygen masks: A) automatically drop to a half hung (ready position) and oxygen starts flowing immediately B) automatically drop from overhead compartments and oxygen starts flowing immediately C) are released manually from the cockpit by activating a release switch D) automatically drop to a half hung (ready position)

Chemical oxygen generators should be able to supply oxygen for at least: A) 5 minutes B) 15 minutes C) 30 minutes D) 10 minutes

The advantages of a gaseous oxygen source for the passenger cabin are:

1. a greater autonomy 2. no risk of explosion 3. reversible functioning 4. easy storage and maintenance 5. possibility to regulate flow The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: A) 1, 3, 5 B) 2, 4, 5 C) 2, D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

In an emergency, chemically produced oxygen is supplied for a given period by: A) sodium chlorate, iron powder, an electrical firing system and a filter B) sodium chlorate, iron powder which is chemically activated by air then filtered C) potassium chlorate, iron powder, an electrical firing system and a filter D) sodium chlorate and an electrical firing system

Emergency equipment:

In accordance with the JAR-OPS, an airplane constituted of only one passenger deck, equipped with 61 seats and effectively carrying passengers, must be equipped with: A) 1 megaphone B) 2 megaphones if there are more than 31 passengers on board C) no megaphone D) 2 megaphones

What type of gas is used to inflate life saving jackets? A) Compressed air B) Helium C) Nitrogen D) CO2

The number of crash axes on board an airplane, whose maximum approved configuration of passenger seats is 201, is: A) 3 B) 1 C) 2 D) 4

A 311 litre portable oxygen bottle (flow rate of 3 litres/min) will last for: A) up to 311 minutes, depending on the cabin altitude B) 103 minutes C) 10 minutes D) 12 minutes

There are 60 passengers and crew members on board a turbo-prop aircraft. Its speed is 240 kt. At a point along the course steered, above the sea, the aircraft is at 1h45 min from an airdrome suitable for emergency landing. The minimum equipment complying with regulations is: A) 60 life jackets and three 30-seat life boats B) 60 life jackets C) one 30-seat life boat and two 20-seat life boats D) 60 life jackets and two 30-seat life boats

In the cockpit of a transport airplane, at least one manual fire-extinguisher must be conveniently located containing: A) special fluids B) Halon C) water D) powder

A pressurized aeroplane is operated at FL 300. It undergoes a rapid decompression so that the pressure in the cabin goes quickly down to the outside pressure value. What happens concerning the oxygen system? A) manual override of the automatic presentation of passenger oxygen masks is, generally speaking, not possible B) the oxygen masks are automatically presented to flight crew members C) the oxygen masks are automatically presented to cabin crew members and passengers D) if the automatic mask presentation has been activated, the oxygen will flow within the first 3 minutes

If an aircraft has a maximum seating configuration of less than 200 but more than 9, a crash axe or crowbar must be carried: A) One on the flight deck and one in the passenger cabin B) One on the flight deck and two in the passenger cabin C) Two on the flight deck and one in the fwd cargo hold D) One on the flight deck only

A lifejacket may be deflated by: A) Depressing the non-return valve in the mouthpiece B) Activating the red knob C) Turning the red knob through 180 degrees D) Pulling the deflation cord

The minimum number of fire extinguishers to be carried in the passenger cabin of an aircraft having 31 to 60 seats is: A) 1 B) 4 C) 2 D) 3

An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 201 to 300 seats must be equipped with at least: A) 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment B) 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment C) 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment D) 6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment

A standby bus will typically power mostly: A) Essential consumers B) Emergency/vital consumers C) Non essential consumers D) All kinds of consumers In flight, what activates emergency lighting? A) Cabin altitude B) Main electrical supply failure C) Crew selected ON/OFF switch D) Light intensity

Emergency torches have a... light to indicate the state of charge of the battery. When removed from their holding bracket, it will illuminate... A) flashing red, automatically B) flashing red, manually C) steady red, manually D) steady red, automatically

The number of hand fire extinguishers which have to be installed in the passenger cabin according to JAR-OPS depends on the number of: A) emergency exits in the cabin B) seat rows in the cabin C) seats in the cabin D) passengers in the cabin

The passenger life jacket is fitted with a light which is activated: A) Automatically on contact with water B) Manually by pulling on activation cord C) Automatically on life jacket inflation D) Manually on contact with water

The number of manual fire-extinguishers, on board the passenger cabin of an airplane, whose maximum approved configuration for passenger seats is 31, is: A) 3 B) 4 C) 2 D) 1

An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 31 to 60 seats must be equipped with at least: A) 2 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment B) 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment C) 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment D) 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment

An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 60 seats must be equipped with at least: A) 2 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers and 1 WATER fire-extinguisher B) 3 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers and 1 WATER fire -extinguisher C) 2 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers D) 3 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers

The external emergency lights are powered: A) in such a way that all the above statements are true B) so that each battery is charged from an essential 24V DC supply C) so that each battery should supply at least 20 minutes of power from a fully charged state D) by each light unit having it's own battery

21. Typical fire extinguishant for on-board aircraft fires are: A) BCF, BTM and carbon dioxide B) methane, propane and butane C) BCF, Freon and ILS D) dust, Freon and propane

An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 501 to 600 seats must be equipped with at least: A) 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment B) 6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment C) 8 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment D) 7 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment

In accordance with JAR-OPS aeroplane with only one passenger deck equipped with 61 seats and effectively carrying passengers. The available number of megaphones if there are more than 31 passengers on board are: A) 4 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3

A water extinguisher is contained in a red cylinder. It is used to fight: A) Oil fires B) Fuel fires C) Electrical fires D) Solid material fires

If a portable oxygen set (120 Litre) is pressurized to 1800psi and is selected to emergency, what will be the duration of supply? A) 12 mins B) Zero as there is no such selection C) 30 mins D) 15 mins

Which of the following is a requirement? A) An aircraft with 59 seats must carry at least 3 hand held fire extinguishers B) A crash axe or crowbar must be carried in the flight deck on aircraft of more than 5700kg MAUW C) Passenger aircraft with more than 100 seats must carry at least one megaphone D) Aircraft on extended flight over water must carry life rafts with a capacity at least 10% above the passenger requirement With the control knob set to " high" , a 120 litre portable bottle will provide oxygen for a period of: A) 30 mins B) 3 mins C) 12 mins D) 60 mins

The correct extinguisher to use on a brake fire would be: A) Halon B) dry powder C) CO2 D) water

Lifejackets normally come equipped with: A) A whistle B) A radio and marker beacon C) Marker dye, a light and first aid pack D) A radio and shark repellent

Protective breathing equipment: A) protects crew against accidental depressurisation B) is not required on commercial flights C) is only available for cockpit crew D) protects crew against fumes and noxious gasses

An aircraft planning to fly at FL330 with 120 seats fitted and 42 passengers on board must provide first aid oxygen for: A) at least 3 passengers for the duration of the flight above 15000ft B) no first aid oxygen is necessary C) at least one passenger for the duration of the flight above 8000ft D) at least one passenger for the duration of the flight above 14000ft

The chemical oxygen generator in a smoke hood is normally activated by: A) pull-cord only B) an internal smoke detection device C) normal breathing or pull-cord D) normal breathing

The most suitable extinguishant for use on magnesium fires is: A) Freon B) water C) carbon dioxide D) sand

In a ditching situation, the passenger life jackets will be inflated: A) when leaving the airplane B) immediately on ditching C) once the passengers are in the water D) immediately on the opening of the exits

The crash/fire axe is part of the safety equipment fitted to passenger aircraft. Its function is to: A) free exits in case of evacuation via the sides B) settle an escalating conflict with unreasonable passengers, who threaten flight safety C) obtain forced access to a fire behind a panel and a general purpose tool during evacuation D) activate a radio survival beacon by cutting off the red coloured top

When a portable oxygen set is selected to: A) test mask, it will produce a higher pressure and flow rate than any other selection B) high, it will have a duration of 12 mins C) emergency, it will produce a flow rate of 10 litres per min D) emergency, it will produce high pressure on demand

Which of the following portable fire extinguishers are suitable for electrical fires? A) CO2, Dry powder, BCF, Halon and Methyl Bromide B) Water Gas, Dry powder, CO2, and BCF C) Dry powder, Foam, CO2 and Methyl Bromide D) CO2, BCF and Halon

An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 7 to 30 seats must be equipped with at least: A) 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment B) 2 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment C) 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment D) 1 hand fire-extinguisher conveniently located in the passenger compartment

An aircraft, 340 nm from land and its one engine inoperative speed is 150 kts,... A) must carry lifejackets for each passenger and life rafts sufficient to carry all persons on board B) must carry life rafts but lifejackets are not necessary C) must carry lifejackets for each passenger only D) does not need lifejackets or life rafts

Smoke hoods protect: A) full face and provide oxygen on demand B) mouth and nose and provide a continuous flow of oxygen C) full face and provide a continuous flow of oxygen D) mouth and nose and provide oxygen on demand 41. An already inflated lifejacket may be topped up by: A) Opening the standby cylinder B) A further pull on the red knob C) Blowing in the mouthpiece D) Operating the hand pump

Four First Aid Kits is the minimum number readily available for an aircraft with: A) 200 and more seats B) 300 and more seats C) 250 and more seats D) 400 and more seats

On a large transport aircraft with 300 passenger capacity, the minimum total number of hand held fire extinguishers that are required to be carried on the aircraft is: A) 9 B) 12 C) 7 D) 4

The pyrotechnic means used in case of an emergency to indicate your position to the emergency teams are a flare: A) and a smoke device which are only used at night B) which is used at daytime and a smoke device which is used at night C) and a smoke device which are only used in the daytime D) which is used at night and a smoke device which is used in the daytime

The battery in a search and rescue beacon (SARB) should last for: A) 72 hours B) 48 hours C) 24 hours D) 12 hours

An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 301 to 400 seats must be equipped with at least: A) 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment B) 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment C) 6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment D) 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment

An aircraft whose maximum approved configuration for passenger seats is 200 seats must be equipped with: A) 7 manual-fire extinguishers in the cabin B) 5 manual-fire extinguishers in the cabin C) 3 manual fire-extinguishers in the cabin D) 4 manual fire-extinguishers in the cabin

Smoke hoods provide: A) oxygen for at least 4 hours B) protection against all forms of smoke generated in a ground of flight emergency C) oxygen after a decompression has occurred D) protection from flames for the wearer

An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 401 to 500 seats must be equipped with at least: A) 7 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment B) 6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment C) 8 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment D) 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment

What is the colour code of a portable hand held water fire extinguisher? A) green with red letters B) red C) black D) red with black letters

Passenger life jackets: A) have a light which is activated when in contact with water B) are inflated using a build-in gas bottle C) provide all of this D) are inflated manually

An aircraft whose maximum approved configuration for passenger seats is 10 seats must be equipped with: A) two fire-extinguishers in the cockpit and two fire-extinguishers in the passenger cabin B) one fire-extinguisher in the cockpit and two fire- extinguishers in the passenger cabin C) one fire extinguisher only in the cockpit D) three fire-extinguishers in the passenger cabin only

If the emergency lighting system is powered from the aircraft electrical system, it takes is power supply from: A) Vital DC bus-bar B) AC essential bus-bar C) DC essential bus-bar D) The inverter

In accordance with JAR-OPS 1 and if necessary, the number of life rafts to be found on board an aircraft must allow the transportation of the entire aircraft occupants: A) in the case of a loss of two rafts B) plus 30 % C) plus 10 % D) in the case of a loss of one raft of the largest rated capacity

An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 61 to 200 seats must be equipped with at least: A) 2 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment B) 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment C) 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment D) 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment

What type of fire extinguisher would be used on a propane fire? A) foam B) dry powder C) sand D) water

A wheel brake fire should be fought with a: A) water/gas fire extinguisher B) dry powder extinguisher C) carbon dioxide extinguisher D) foam fire extinguisher

A public transport passengers aircraft, with a seating configuration of more than 61 seats, must have in its passenger compartment(s), at least 3 portable fire-extinguishers including: A) 2 Halon fire-extinguishers B) 1 Halon fire-extinguisher C) no Halon fire-extinguisher D) 3 Halon fire-extinguishers

In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an airplane whose maximum take-off mass exceeds 5 700 kg or whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 9 seats and smaller than 200 seats must be equipped with a: A) crash axe in the cockpit and a crow-bar in the passenger compartment B) crash axe or a crow-bar in the pilot compartment C) crash axe and a crow-bar in the passenger compartment D) crow-bar in the cockpit and a crash axe in the passenger compartment

The emergency lighting system must be able to function and supply a certain level of lighting after the main electric power system has been cut off for at least: A) 90 seconds B) 30 minutes C) 5 minutes D) 10 minutes

61. In inflammable gaseous materials like propane for example and set on fire, the following extinguisher agent should be used: A) BCF and CO2 B) Dry powder and water C) CO2 and water D) Water If you have a wheel fire, the best extinguishant to use is: A) Freon B) dry powder C) Water D) CO2

Nomex gloves are provided on the flight deck to: A) protect hands from chemicals during chemical spill B) all of the above C) protect hands from hot materials during fire fighting D) protect hands from freezing-cold fire extinguishers during Halon discharge

If an aircraft has 10 seats how many fire extinguishers are required? A) 1 B) 4 C) 3 D) 2

Emergency lighting: A) can be switched on from the flight deck only B) once activated cannot be switched off C) must illuminate the inside of the passenger cabin only D) comprises flight deck lighting, cabin internal and external lighting

An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 600 seats must be equipped with at least: A) 9 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment B) 6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment C) 8 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment D) 7 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment

The portable emergency beacons which are used after an emergency landing or ditching have a duration of: A) 12 h B) 72 h C) 48 h D) 24 h

A fire of the aircraft's wheel, or wheel brake will require which of the following types of portable hand held fire extinguishers to be used? A) Dry Powder B) CO2 or BCF C) FOAM D) CO2

In accordance with the JAR-OPS and with the exception of amphibians and hydroplanes, the carriage of a life jacket per person on board is compulsory when the airplane is:

1. cruising at such a distance from the shore that it would not be able to return in the case of an engine failure. 2. is flying over a water surface at more than 50 NM off shore. 3. is using departure and arrival paths above the water and when a ditching probability exists in the case of a problem. 4. is flying over a stretch of water at more than 100 NM off shore. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 3,4 C) 1,2 D) 2,3

The LED indicator light on the emergency torch is flashing at 4 second intervals. This indicates: A) the filament is broken B) the battery needs replacing C) the torch is serviceable D) the battery is charging

Regulations governing the fitting, marking and use of safety equipment is contained in: A) British Civil Airworthiness Requirements B) Joint Airworthiness Requirements C) Navigation Regulations D) Operations Manual