CET (PG)-2014 Sr

CET (PG)-2014 Sr. No. : Question Booklet Series : A Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet. Roll No. In Figures In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No. Signature of the Candidate : Subject : B.P.Ed. (Bachelor of Physical Education) Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75 DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO INSTRUCTIONS 1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided and nowhere else. 2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet. 4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so. 5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test. 6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question, darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases. 8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the Question Booklet. 9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble. 10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed. 11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used. 12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the candidate only. 13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty. 14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from the examination. 15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent/Observer whose decision shall be final. 16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculator is not allowed. B.P.Ed. (Bachelor of Physical Education)/A

1. What is the philosophy of Physical Education Programmes ? (A) Realism (B) Pragmatism (C) Idealism (D) All of the above 2. The word ‘Athlete’ originated in : (A) Rome (B) Greece (C) China (D) India 3. Which of the following represents the correct combination of colours of Olympic Rings ? (A) Blue, Yellow, Black, Green, Red (B) Brown, Blue, Yellow, Black, Red (C) Purple, Green, Red, Pink, Yellow (D) Blue, Yellow, Brown, Green, Purple 4. ATP is stored in : (A) Muscle cell (B) Nerve cell (C) Heart (D) Brain 5. Knee Cartilage Injuries are commonly associated with : (A) Swimming (B) Rowing (C) Boxing (D) Football 6. Who won men’s singles Australian open 2014 ? (A) Stan Wawrinka (B) Rafael Nadal (C) Sergi Brugura (D) Robert Lindstedt 7. If a student comes late to the school on daily basis, then it will be appropriate to : (A) Throw him out of the class (B) Punish him in the presence of students (C) Complain to the Principal that he is always late (D) Find out the reasons for this behaviour 8. Which gland is known as master gland of human body ? (A) Thymus (B) Adrenal (C) Pituitary (D) Hypothalamus 9. Which muscle in the body is called ‘throwers muscle’ ? (A) Quadriceps (B) Hamstrings (C) Rectus Abdominus (D) Pectoralis major 10. In your opinion, a successful teacher is one, who : (A) Gives home work regularly (B) Gives good marks in examinations (C) Takes keen interest in the progress of students (D) Comes to school on time

B.P.Ed. (Bachelor of Physical Education)/BDU-22273-A 3 [Turn over 11. What type of tissue is bone marrow ? (A) Adipose (B) Connective (C) Areolar (D) Cellular 12. Sociology is a body of scientific knowledge about human : (A) Institutions (B) Relationships (C) Concerns (D) Civilizations 13. Women athletes using anabolic steroids to boost muscular performance are specially vulnerable to : (A) Reproductive mal-functioning (B) Migraines (C) Growth of male characteristics (D) Muscle atrophy 14. Where 2014 Commonwealth Games are going to be held ? (A) France (B) Glasgow (C) Brazil (D) Germany 15. Longest bone in the human body is : (A) Femur (B) Cranium (C) Humorous (D) Tibialis 16. The instrument used for estimation of body fat is : (A) Flexiometer (B) Goniometer (C) Skinfold caliper (D) Dynamometer 17. If SPORTS is coded in a certain manner as TOPQUR, then TENNIS will be written as : (A) SFMOJT (B) UFONHT (C) SDOMJR (D) UDOMJR 18. If EDUCATION is written as DECUTAOIN, then COLLEGE will be coded as : (A) OCLLGEE (B) OCLGEEL (C) COELLEG (D) EOLCGLE 19. Complete the series 65 : 30 :: 44 :_ ? (A) 79 (B) 16 (C) 62 (D) 28 20. Which of the following factors is not included in the process of class management ? (A) Class formation (B) Roll call (C) Play field cleanliness (D) Class discipline 21. Pointing to a man, a woman said, “He is the only son of my mother’s mother.” How is the woman related to the man ? (A) Aunt (B) Daughter (C) Niece (D) Sister

B.P.Ed. (Bachelor of Physical Education)/BDU-22273-A 4 22. The name of the Senior National Trophy in Football is : (A) B C Roy Trophy (B) Jules Rimet Trophy (C) Santosh Trophy (D) ICC Trophy 23. Process by which the food is taken by the organisms is called : (A) Digestion (B) Absorption (C) Assimilation (D) Ingestion 24. For strength dominating sports, the diet should be rich in : (A) Carbohydrates (B) Vitamins (C) Minerals (D) Proteins 25. Originally, the ancient Olympic Games were a sort of : (A) Social gathering (B) Religious festivals (C) Eloquence contests (D) Gladiatorial Sports 26. An adult person must have a sleep for : (A) Six hours (B) Eight hours (C) Ten hours (D) Twelve hours 27. In anatomical language, the calf muscle is known as : (A) Gastrocnemius (B) Glutius maximus (C) Trepizius (D) Triceps 28. What type of factory is human liver ? (A) Mechanical (B) Chemical (C) Electrical (D) Biological 29. Which two of the following Olympiads were not celebrated due to the World War-II ? (A) Xth and XIth (B) XIIth and XIIIth (C) XIIIth and XIVth (D) XVth and XVIth 30. The official languages of the International Olympic Committee are : (A) French and English (B) English and German (C) Russian and English (D) English and Greek 31. Which of the following vitamins is water soluble ? (A) C and B complex (B) D and K complex

(C) A and D complex (D) B1 and B2 complex 32. The Olympic motto-Citius, Altius, Fortius-in sequence means : (A) Higher, stronger, faster (B) Faster, stronger, higher (C) Faster, higher, stronger (D) Stronger, higher, faster

B.P.Ed. (Bachelor of Physical Education)/BDU-22273-A 5 [Turn over 33. The red blood cells are produced in the : (A) Heart (B) Bone marrow (C) Spinal column (D) Cerebrum 34. The Grapplers are : (A) Boxers (B) Rock Climbers (C) Wrestlers (D) Judokas 35. Where 2014 Asian Games are going to be held ? (A) Incheon (B) New Delhi (C) Bangkok (D) Doha Qatar 36. Aerobic Fitness is best achieved through : (A) Swimming (B) Circuit Training (C) Short Sprints (D) Long Distance Running 37. Who among the following is known as Payoli Express ? (A) Anju Bobby George (B) P.T. Usha (C) Kanwaljit Sandhu (D) Sania Mirza 38. Health is primarily a responsibility of the : (A) Community (B) State (C) Individual (D) Parent 39. Which of the following is known as mother sport ? (A) Wrestling (B) Judo (C) Athletics (D) Boxing 40. The ancient Olympic Games were held in the honour of God : (A) Apollo (B) Zeus (C) Mars (D) Poseidon 41. What is the number of wisdom teeth in a person ? (A) Four (B) Two (C) Six (D) Eight 42. Meta–carpal bones are found in the : (A) Knee (B) Palm (C) Elbow (D) Shoulder 43. Which of the following muscles are with man’s conscious control ? (A) Cardiac muscles (B) Respiratory muscles (C) Skeletal muscles (D) Smooth muscles 44. Through which of the following does the most of the heat loss occur ? (A) Skin (B) Expired air (C) Urine (D) Faeces

B.P.Ed. (Bachelor of Physical Education)/BDU-22273-A 6 45. People suffering from cardiac disorder are generally advised by the doctors to : (A) Run (B) Walk (C) Jog (D) March 46. The human heart– the finest pump ever known–is about the size of a : (A) Closed fist (B) Big toe (C) Human ear (D) Open hand 47. Group play is a royal road to : (A) Socialization (B) Civilization (C) Globalization (D) Urbanization 48. The word sportsmanship primarily denotes : (A) Healthy competition (B) Tough character (C) Modesty in victory and defeat (D) Social adjustment 49. What according to biologists is the seat of life ? (A) A cell (B) A tissue (C) An organ (D) A system 50. The motto of the Asian Games : (A) Ever onwards (B) Ever upward (C) Ever forward (D) Ever raising 51. Which of the following games was initially called mintonette ? (A) Volleyball (B) Lawn tennis (C) Basketball (D) Badminton 52. Characteristically, bones of the face are : (A) Long (B) Short (C) Flat (D) Irregular 53. Sociologists consider sport as a : (A) Human urge for excellence (B) Life commitment (C) Survival Activity (D) Socio-cultural phenomena 54. Which of the following is least concerned with concept of motivation ? (A) Drive (B) Need (C) Motive (D) Sympathy 55. The teaching of motor skills should be based on the principle of : (A) Selectivity (B) Flexibility (C) Progression (D) Complexity

B.P.Ed. (Bachelor of Physical Education)/BDU-22273-A 7 [Turn over 56. The word membrane means : (A) An envelope (B) A string (C) A net (D) A mesh 57. The term Lona is associated with : (A) Kho-Kho (B) Kabaddi (C) Atya-patya (D) Malkhamb 58. The knot used to tie a bandage is known as : (A) Reef knot (B) Granny knot (C) Clove knot (D) Half hitch 59. The two great dangers of wounds are : (A) Bleeding and infection (B) Shock and shivering (C) Pain and swelling (D) Burning and loss of tissue 60. Which of the following officials has no place in volleyball ? (A) Timekeeper (B) Second umpire (C) Scorer (D) Linesman 61. The main objective of the intramural programme is : (A) Infuse spirit of competition in students (B) Make optimal use of sports facilities and funds (C) Select athletes for extramural (D) Encourage mass participation in physical activities 62. Which of the following games is said to have had its origin during the British period at Pune ? (A) Cricket (B) Cycle polo (C) Badminton (D) Judo 63. The running distance between the two opposite wickets is : (A) 20 yards (B) 22 yards (C) 20 meters (D) 22 meters 64. Which of the following names does table tennis not bear ? (A) Ping pong (B) Gossima (C) Tick tack (D) Whiff-whaff 65. In archery, the distance for Olympic round is : (A) 30 m (B) 70 m (C) 50 m (D) 90 m 66. Ball that has no spin, usually travelling fast is known as : (A) Flat (B) Dead (C) Loaded (D) Lob

B.P.Ed. (Bachelor of Physical Education)/BDU-22273-A 8 67. Children are admitted to the school on the basis of their : (A) Chronological age (B) Physiological age (C) Mental age (D) Anatomical age 68. Which visceral organ manufactures antibodies ? (A) Spleen (B) Liver (C) Stomach (D) Kidneys 69. Endemic goiter is caused due to the deficiency of : (A) Iodine (B) Vitamin A (C) Iron (D) Calcium 70. Hepatitis is an infection of the : (A) Liver (B) Kidney (C) Lungs (D) Stomach 71. Dog bite can cause : (A) Hydrophobia (B) Whooping cough (C) Madness (D) Vertigo 72. Western Blot test is conducted to confirm : (A) HIV infection (B) Blood contamination (C) Tuberculosis (D) Malaria parasite 73. In gymnastics, which of the following equipment is used only by women ? (A) Balancing beam (B) Vaulting horse (C) Pommel horse (D) Horizontal bars 74. A game of table-tennis finishes at : (A) 11 points (B) 21 points (C) 15 points (D) 25 points 75. The main function of WBC is to : (A) Carry oxygen (B) Remove dead cells (C) Fight against bacteria (D) Supply energy to body

B.P.Ed. (Bachelor of Physical Education)/BDU-22273-A 9 [Turn over Rough Work

B.P.Ed. (Bachelor of Physical Education)/BDU-22273-A 10 Rough Work

B.P.Ed. (Bachelor of Physical Education)/BDU-22273-A 11 152 CET(PG)-2014 Sr. No. : Question Booklet Series : A Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet. Roll No. In Figures In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No. Signature of the Candidate : Subject : LL.M. (Master of Laws) Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75 DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO INSTRUCTIONS 1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided and nowhere else. 2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet. 4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so. 5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test. 6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question, darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases. 8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the Question Booklet. 9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble. 10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed. 11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used. 12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the candidate only. 13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty. 14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from the examination. 15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent/Observer whose decision shall be final. 16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculator is not allowed. LL.M. (Master of Laws)/A

1. What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha ? (A) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha (B) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further (C) The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration (D) The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill 2. Which article of the Constitution provides for reservation in promotion for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes ? (A) Article 15 (4) (B) Article 16 (4) (C) Article 16 (4-A) (D) Article 16 (4-B) 3. The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing International treaties : (A) with the consent of all the States (B) with the consent of the State concerned (C) without the consent of any State (D) of the majority of States 4. The case of Rupa Ashok Hurrah v. Ashok Hurrah 2002 (4) SCC 388 is related with : (A) Curative petition (B) Writ of Certiorari (C) Free Legal Aid (D) Appellate Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court 5. Doctrine of pleasure is incorporated in which article of Contitution of India ? (A) 309 (B) 310 (C) 311 (D) 312 6. The jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India is : (A) Appellate only (B) Original only (C) Original as well as appellate (D) Original, Appellate and Advisory 7. Consider the following statements; Attorney General of India can : 1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha 2. be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha 3. speak in the Lok Sabha 4. vote in the Lok Sabha Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (A) 1 only (B) 2 and 4 (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1 and 3 only

LL.M. (Master of Law)/BDU-22253-A { 3 } [Turn over 8. President of India can make Laws during the recess of Parliament through : (A) Bills (B) Ordinances (C) Statutes (D) Notifications 9. The appointment of Comptroller and Auditor-General of India under article 148 shall be made by : (A) Chief Justice of India (B) President of India (C) Prime Minister of India (D) Finance Minister of India 10. Which one of the following statements is correct ? (A) In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time. (B) The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President. (C) No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post. (D) In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support. 11. To nullify the effect of Golak Nath v. State of Punjab AIR 1967 SC 1643 decision, which amendment was passed to make changes in Article 13 and 368 of the Constitution ? (A) Twenty – Second Amendment (B) Twenty – Third Amendment (C) Twenty – Fourth Amendment (D) Twenty – Fifth Amendment 12. The words ‘Socialist’ and ‘Secular’ were added in the Preamble of the Constitution by : (A) Forty-First Amendment (B) Forty-Second Amendment (C) Forty-Third Amendment (D) Forty-Four Amendment 13. The case of Jaya Bachchan v. Union of India (2006) 5 SCC 266 in the Constitution is mainly related with : (A) Office of Profit (B) Right to Education (C) Election of the President (D) Trade Commerce Intercourse 14. Under Article 370 special provisions regarding the State of Jammu and Kashmir is provided, and under Article 371-A special provision with repect to : (A) State of Nagaland (B) State of Sikkim (C) State of Manipur (D) States of Maharashtra and Gujarat 15. Prior to enactment of Right to Information Act 2005, the Right to Information was considered by the Supreme Court under : (A) Article 14 (B) Article 19 (1) (a) (C) Article 19 (2) (D) Article 19 (1) (g)

LL.M. (Master of Law)/BDU-22253-A { 4 } 16. The Ancient Monuments Preservation Act 1904 for the purpose of which article creates obligation for the State ? (A) Article 39 (B) Article 48 – A (C) Article 49 – A (D) Article 49 17. Bikaji Narain Dhakras v. State of M.P. AIR 1955 SC 781 is a leading case related to : (A) Doctrine of Eclipse (B) Doctrine of Severability (C) Doctrine of Waiver (D) Retrospective effect of Constitution 18. The status of Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) as State, was discussed in the case of : (A) Northern Indian Caterers Ltd. v. State of Punjab 1967 (B) Zee Telefilms Ltd. v. Union of India 2005 (C) Bangal Cricket Association v. Union of India 2004 (D) Zee Sports Ltd. v. State of Punjab 2010 19. Formation of new State under Article 3 includes : i. Form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by uniting two or more States or parts of States or by uniting any territory to a part of any State ii. Alter the boundaries of any State iii. Alter the name of any State (A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii) (C) Only (ii) and (iii) (D) (i) (ii) and (iii) 20. Under Article 223 of the Constitution appointment of acting Chief Justice of a High Court shall be made by the : (A) Chief Justice of India (B) President of India (C) By the majority decision of the other Judges of the High Court (D) Decision of two senior judges of the High Court 21. Who was recently appointed as the new Chief Executive Officer of Microsoft ? (A) Satya Nadella (B) Catherine Samba (C) Juan Gelman (D) Rakesh Khurana 22. Who is the first woman Chief Justice of Delhi High Court ? (A) Justice G. Rohini (B) Justice Ranjana Desai (C) Justice Ruma Paul (D) Justice Leila Seth 23. Where did India’s first Monorail Service commence recently ? (A) Calcutta (B) Mumbai (C) Bangalore (D) Gandhinagar

LL.M. (Master of Law)/BDU-22253-A { 5 } [Turn over 24. What is the name of India’s first gun for Women, manufactured by Indian Ordnance Factory, Kanpur ? (A) Narmada (B) Nirbheek (C) Prateek (D) Nirmala 25. Who was the Chief Guest at Republic Day Parade on 26th Januray 2014 ? (A) Shinzo Abe, Prime Minister of Japan (B) Jigme Khesar Namgyel Wangchuck, King of Bhutan (C) Nicholas Sarkozy, President of France (D) Hamid Karzai, Afghanistan 26. Justice R. M. Lodha is the ______Chief Justice of India. (A) 40th (B) 41st (C) 42nd (D) 43rd 27. What is the name of India’s first supersonic jet fighter which has been recently decommissioned after 50 years of service ? (A) Hunter (B) Dhruv (C) Pawan Hans (D) MIG 21 28. Which sport has been added to Olympics 2020 to be held in Tokyo, Japan ? (A) Squash (B) Softball (C) Baseball (D) Wrestling 29. Sachin Tendulkar played his last test match against which country ? (A) West Indies (B) Australia (C) South Africa (D) Bangladesh 30. The 2014 general election in India has been conducted for ______. (A) 14th Lok Sabha (B) 15th Lok Sabha (C) 16th Lok Sabha (D) 17th Lok Sabha 31. Who defined jurisprudence as, “the formal science of positive law” ? (A) Bentham (B) Blackstone (C) Holland (D) Pound 32. Bentham’s Philosophy was based on the central idea of : (A) Utilitarian Communalism (B) Utilitarian fundamentalism (C) Utilitarian Individualism (D) Utilitarian Socialism 33. Match the following : a. Sociological School 1. Kant b. Historical School 2. Savigny c. Philosophical School 3. Roscoe Pound d. Analytical School 4. Austin a b c d (A) 3 2 1 4 (B) 4 1 2 3 (C) 1 2 3 4 (D) 4 3 2 1

LL.M. (Master of Law)/BDU-22253-A { 6 } 34. Meaning of the word ‘Volkgeist’ is : (A) The bunch of customs (B) The series of judge made laws (C) General consciousness of the people (D) Laws prevailing in country 35. According to Henry Maine, the movement of progressive societies has hitherto been a movement from : (A) Status to contract (B) Contract to status, as contract gives rise to status (C) Fact of fancy (D) Fancy of fact 36. Who has said that ‘Jurisprudence is the lawyer’s extroversion' ? (A) Salmond (B) Julius Stone (C) Blackstone (D) Holland 37. What is the meaning of jus cogens ? (A) They are peremptory norms of International law, from which no derogations are allowed and which can never be altered even with the consent of the States. (B) They are rules of International law that are laid down in multilateral treaties with a wide participation. (C) They are the decisions of the UN Security Council. (D) They are the rules of International law on which the ICJ founds its decisions. 38. The European Court of Human Rights at Strasbourg has been established under the : (A) Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms, 1950 (B) Charter of the Fundamental Rights of the European Union, 2000 (C) Charter of Human Rights in Europe, 1975 (D) European Human Rights Convention, 1960 39. The sources of International Law are provided under : (A) Article 34 of the Statute of International Court of Justice (B) Article 38 of the Charter of the United Nations (C) Article 34 of the Charter of the United Nations (D) Article 38 of the Statute of International Court of Justice 40. The first case taken up by the International Court of Justice was : (A) Tunis v. Morocco (B) Corfu Channel (C) Lighthouse in Crete and Samos (D) The EU Asbestos Case 41. ‘Handing over a person accused or convict of a crime by a State to the demanding State’ is known in the International Law as : (A) Intradition (B) Extradition (C) Asylum (D) Territorial Sovereignty

LL.M. (Master of Law)/BDU-22253-A { 7 } [Turn over 42. Tender notification on the official website of government department is : (A) An Offer (B) Invitation to offer (C) Acceptance (D) Neither an offer nor an Invitation to offer 43. Promises which form the consideration or part of the consideration for each other are called : (A) Conditional promises (B) Cross offers (C) Conditional offer (D) Reciprocal promises 44. Under section 19A of Indian Contract Act the contract is voidable if consent is caused by : (A) Fraud (B) Minor (C) Undue Influence (D) Mistake 45. An agreement restraint of trade is valid under section 27 if it relates to : (A) Mutual adjustment (B) Sale of Goodwill (C) Business contingency (D) To reduce competition 46. The definition of Consent is provided under which section of Indian Contract Act ? (A) Section 11 (B) Section 12 (C) Section 13 (D) Section 14 47. Communication of acceptance is complete as against the proposer : (A) When it comes to the knowledge of the proposer (B) When it is put in the course of transmission to him so as to be out of power of the acceptor (C) When the acceptance is communicated to the proposer (D) All the above 48. Rescission of the contract means : (A) The renewal of original contract (B) Cancellation of contract (C) Alteration of contract (D) Substitution of new contract in place of earlier one 49. Statutory auditor of a company in the case of a casual vacancy may be appointed by the : (A) Board of Directors (B) Managing Director (C) Extraordinary General meeting (D) Government concerned 50. Which doctrine does not apply to acts void ab initio ? (A) Ultra vires (B) Intra vires (C) Constructive notice (D) Indoor management 51. XYZ Co. is having 15% share capital held by X Company and 50% held by Central Government and 10% held by State Government and 25% held by other people then that company will be : (A) Government Company (B) Private Company (C) Public Company (D) Multinational Company

LL.M. (Master of Law)/BDU-22253-A { 8 } 52. The doctrine of indoor management is an ______to the doctrine of constructive notice. (A) Exception (B) Extension (C) Alternative (D) Illustration 53. According to Section 2(ee) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, controlled industry means : (A) The industry is controlled by Central Government (B) The industry is controlled by public (C) The industry is controlled by a private company (D) The industry is controlled by a multinational company 54. Which of the following is not a wage ? (A) The value of house accommodation (B) Bonus (C) Dearness allowance (D) Value of concessional supply of food grains 55. The Industrial Disputes Act came into force on : (A) 1st April 1947 (B) 1st March 1947 (C) 1st May 1947 (D) 1st January 1947 56. According to Sec 2(aaa) of Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, average pay means the average of the wages payable to a daily paid workman for : (A) 7 full working days (B) 15 full working days (C) 12 full working days (D) 30 full working days 57. The rule of Ryland v. Fletcher does not apply when the escape is due to : (A) Act of God (B) Negligence (C) Mistake (D) Inevitable accident 58. “Volenti non fit injuria” means : (A) Act of God (B) Leave and License (C) Contributory Negligence (D) Strict Liability 59. The Meaning of the maxim ‘quifacit per alium facit per se’ means : (A) He who acts through others is deemed in law as doing it himself (B) Responsibility must be that of the superior (C) One can not be held liable for his own wrong (D) None of the above 60. Ashby v. White is an example of : (A) Ubi jus ibi remedium (B) Damnum sine injuria (C) Injuria sine demno (D) Volenti not fit injuria

LL.M. (Master of Law)/BDU-22253-A { 9 } [Turn over 61. Match the following (sections with their headnotes) : A B Sections Headnotes a. 354 A 1. Stalking b. 354 B 2. Assault or use of criminal force to women with intent to disrobe c. 354 C 3. Sexual harassment d. 354 D 4. Voyeurism a b c d (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 2 1 4 3 (C) 4 3 2 1 (D) 3 2 4 1 62. Where the offender is himself in possession of the property and subsequently dishonestly converts it to his own use, the offence committed is a : (A) Theft (B) Robbery (C) Criminal misappropriation (D) Dacoity 63. A, a police officer, has a warrant of arrest for B. He asks D as to the identity of B. D knowingly tells A that Z is B and consequently A arrests D : (A) D is guilty of abetment by instigation (B) D is guilty of abetment by aiding (C) D is guilty of abetment by false representation (D) D is guilty of abetment of any kind only of mischief 64. In case of imprisonment for non-payment of fine, if a part of the fine is paid, such sentence : (A) Shall be reduced proportionately (B) Shall not be reduced in direct proportion to the fine paid (C) Shall be reduced but subject to the discretion of the court as to the quantum of reduction (D) Shall not be reduced in any circumstances 65. Match the following (sections with their headnotes) A B Sections Headnotes a. 376 A 1. Gang rape b. 376 B 2. Punishment for causing death or resulting in persistent vegetative state c. 376 D 3. Punishment for repeat offenders d. 376 E 4. Sexual intercourse by husband upon his wife during separation a b c d (A) 2 4 1 3 (B) 2 1 4 3 (C) 4 3 2 1 (D) 3 2 4 1

LL.M. (Master of Law)/BDU-22253-A { 10 } 66. Under Section 20 of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956, the following is not entitled to claim maintenance from : (A) Childless step Mother (B) Major son (C) Major unmarried daughter (D) Any illegitimate minor child 67. After the Amendment of 2005 in Hindu Succession Act, 1956, total number of Class-I Heirs for a Hindu male intestate are : (A) 11 (B) 12 (C) 14 (D) 16 68. Under Hindu Succession Act, 1956 who amongst the following is not in Class I heir ? (A) Father (B) Mother (C) Son (D) Daughter 69. Section 8 of Hindu Succession Act, 1956 lays down the order of priority of succession, the correct order of priority is reflected as : (A) Class I – class II – cognates – agnates (B) Class I – class II – agnates – cognates (C) Class II – class I – cognates – agnates (D) Class II – class I – agnates – cognates 70. Section 29 of Hindu Succession Act, 1956 incorporates : (A) Disqualified heirs (B) Doctrine of escheat (C) Presumption in cases of simultaneous deaths (D) Rights of a child in womb 71. Section 51 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 does not apply to : (A) Court Sale (B) Auction Sale (C) Bid (D) Electronic Sale 72. Section 52 of Transfer of Property Act deals with : (A) Rule against perpetuity (B) Lis pendens (C) Doctrine of apportionment (D) Doctrine of part-performance 73. Which of the following mortgages is not required to be in writing ? (A) Simple mortgage (B) Mortgage by conditional sale (C) English mortgage (D) Mortgage by deposit of title deeds 74. ‘A’ makes a gift in favour of his sons with a condition that if any one of them dies leaving no male issue, his share will be taken by A’s daughter, and not by the widow or daughter of the deceased son. What is the nature of the interest created in favour of A’s daughter ? (A) Vested Interest (B) Contingent Interest (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Void Interest 75. “Nemo dat quod non habet” is related to which Section of the Transfer of Property Act ? (A) Sec. 8 (B) Sec. 7 (C) Sec. 9 (D) Sec. 14

LL.M. (Master of Law)/BDU-22253-A { 11 } Rough Work

LL.M. (Master of Law)/BDU-22253-A { 12 } 187 CET(PG)-2014 Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D Sr. No. : Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet. Roll No. In Figures In Words In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.

Signature of the Candidate : Subject : M.C.A. (Master of Computer Applications) Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75

DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO INSTRUCTIONS 1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided and nowhere else. 2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet. 4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so. 5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test. 6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question, darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases. 8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the Question Booklet. 9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble. 10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed. 11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used. 12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the candidate only. 13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty. 14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so would be expelled from the examination. 15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent / Observer whose decision shall be final. 16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculator is not allowed. M.C.A. (Master of Computer Applications)/BDU-22254-A 2 M.C.A. (Master of Computer Applications)/A 1. The factors of x3 – 19x – 30 are : (A) (x+2) (x+3) (x–5) (B) (x+2) (x–3) (x+5) (C) (x–2) (x–3) (x–5) (D) (x+2) (x+3) (x+5)

2. The expression x+3 is not a factor of : (A) x2 – 2x – 15 (B) –2x2 + 18 (C) –3x2 + 9x (D) x2 + 8x + 15

3. What is the degree of the polynomial x3y2z + xy2z ? (A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 5 (D) 10

4. Which of the following equations are linear ? (I) y/x = 3x +10 (II) y = 2x + 3 (III) y2 = 8x (IV) x = 7 (A) I (B) II (C) II and IV (D) IV

5. The lines y = 2x and 2y = –x are : (A) Parallel (B) Vertical (C) Horizontal (D) Perpendicular

6. The price of a car is increased by 7%. If the new price is Rs. 1,07,000, what was the original cost of the car ? (A) 1,00,000 (B) 99,510 (C) 98,777 (D) 96,540

7. 81¾ = (A) 9 (B) 27 (C) 69 (D) 78

8. Lt (sinax/sin bx)  x  0 (A) 1 (B) b/a (C) a/b (D) 0

M.C.A. (Master of Computer Applications)/BDU-22254-A 3 [Turn over 9. The derivative of sin2 x with respect to x is : (A) sin x (B) sin 2x (C) cos 2x (D) cos x

10. The derivative of log tan x with respect to x is : (A) 2/sin 2x (B) 1/sin x (C) 1/cos x (D) 2/cos 2x

11. If C denotes a constant,  log x dx = (A) x log x + x + C (B) x log x + C (C) x log x – x + C (D) x – x log x + C

12. If C denotes a constant, 1/(ax  b) dx  (A) a x + b + C (B) 1/a [log(a x + b)] + C (C) log log (a x + b) + C (D) (a + b) log x + C

13. If a set S contains n elements, the power set of S contains ______elements. (A) 2n (B) n2 (C) 2n (D) n!

14. Identify the incorrect statement in the following : (A) A relation is an equivalence relation if it is reflexive, symmetric and transitive (B) Every relation is a function but every function need not be a relation (C) Every relation that is symmetric and transitive need not be reflexive (D) Every relation has an inverse relation but every function need not have

15. The geometric mean of the numbers 5, 10, 40, 80 is : (A) 10 (B) 30 (C) 40 (D) 20

16. Consider the data : 10, 15, 23, 32, 23, 15, 45, 32, 45, 23, 76, 23, 45. The mode is : (A) 23 (B) 45 (C) 76 (D) 10

M.C.A. (Master of Computer Applications)/BDU-22254-A 4 17. A bag contains 10 red, 25 green and 15 blue colored pens. A pen is taken out at random from the bag. What is the probability that the color of the pen is green or blue ? (A) 1 (B) 0.15 (C) 0.2 (D) 0.8

18. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability of obtaining a total score of 7 ? (A) 5/6 (B) 1/6 (C) 1/3 (D) 1/12

19. Out of 7 consonants and 4 vowels, how many words of 3 consonants and 2 vowels can be formed ? (A) 1050 (B) 210 (C) 25200 (D) 2520

20. Three unbiased coins are tossed. What is the probability of getting at most two heads ? (A) 7/8 (B) 3/4 (C) 3/8 (D) 1/4

21. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘COMPARE’ be arranged such that the vowels always come together ? (A) 256 (B) 720 (C) 360 (D) 480

22. From a group of 7 boys and 6 girls, five persons are to be selected to form a committee so that at least 3 boys are there in the committee. In how many ways selection is possible ? (A) 564 (B) 735 (C) 756 (D) 645

23. In how many ways can the letters of the word ‘BEATLE’ be arranged ? (A) 720 (B) 120 (C) 180 (D) 360

M.C.A. (Master of Computer Applications)/BDU-22254-A 5 [Turn over 24. In the first 10 overs of a cricket game, the run rate was only 3.2. What should be the run rate in the remaining 40 overs to reach the target of 262 runs ? (A) 6.5 (B) 6.25 (C) 6.75 (D) 7

25. The average of 20 numbers is zero. Of them, at the most, how many are greater than zero ? (A) 19 (B) 0 (C) 10 (D) 1

26. The standard deviation is the best measure of ______. (A) Correlation (B) Frequency (C) Regression (D) Dispersion

27. There are 10 lamps in a hall and each one of them can be switched on independently. The number of ways in which the hall can be illuminated is : (A) 2020 (B) 1010 (C) 1023 (D) 23456

28. If the mode of a data is 18 and the mean is 24, then median is : (A) 18 (B) 22 (C) 24 (D) 36

29. The least perfect square, which is divisible by each of 21, 36 and 66 is : (A) 213444 (B) 214344 (C) 214434 (D) 231444

30. 66 cubic centimeters of silver is drawn into a wire one mm in diameter. The length of the wire in meters will be : (A) 90 (B) 168 (C) 84 (D) 180

31. Consider three vectors : X = [1 0 0], Y = [0 1 0] and Z = [0 0 1]. The rank of the matrix with rows X, Y and Z is : (A) 0 (B) 3 (C) 1 (D) 2

M.C.A. (Master of Computer Applications)/BDU-22254-A 6 32. If the three rows of a singular matrix M are [1 0 2], [0 a 1] and [ 2 3 3] respectively, then the value of ‘a’ is : (A) –3 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 6

33. If log 27 = 1.431, then the value of log 9 is : (A) 0.934 (B) 0.945 (C) 0.954 (D) 0.958

34. The value of alog aN = (A) 1 (B) a (C) aN (D) N

35. If absolute value of x < 1, the sum of the infinite series 1 + X + X2 +X3 + X4 + .... is : (A) 1 (B) 1+ x (C) 1/(1– x) (D) 1/(1+ x)

36. The value of log 75 + log 28 – log 21 = (A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 1

37. The equation of the circle passing through the point (4, 5) and with centre at (2, 2) is : (A) x2 + y2 + 4x + 4y – 5 = 0 (B) x2 + y2 + 4x – 4y – 5 = 0 (C) x2 + y2 – 4x – 4y – 5 = 0 (D) None of the above

38. The equation of y-axis is : (A) z = 0 (B) x = 0 (C) y = 0, z = 0 (D) x = 0, z = 0

39. The locus of x2 + y2 + z2 = 0 is : (A) (0, 0, 0) (B) a sphere (C) a circle (D) a plane

40. If n is a positive integer, then n3 + 2n is divisible by : (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 6

M.C.A. (Master of Computer Applications)/BDU-22254-A 7 [Turn over 41. ______contained in the mobile devices and digital cameras provides the control program for the devices. (A) Software (B) Hardware (C) Firmware (D) Freeware

42. The world’s first computer programmer is : (A) Charles Babbage (B) Jon Von Neumann (C) Alan Turing (D) Ada Lovelace

43. The world’s first single chip microprocessor is : (A) Intel 4004 (B) Intel 8085 (C) Motorola 68060 (D) Pentium 8086

44. In computer networks, bandwidth is measured in ______. (A) Bytes per second (B) Bits per second (C) Kilo Bytes (D) Bits

45. The time taken for the hard disk controller to locate a specific piece of stored data is called : (A) Access time (B) Rotational Delay (C) Transfer time (D) Seek-time

46. A program counter is a processor register that contains : (A) Address of the current instruction being executed (B) Error value (C) Results of computations (D) Instruction currently being executed

47. The Relational Model for database management is a database model based on : (A) Table (B) Queries (C) First-order Predicate Logic (D) Normalization

48. ______is a field (or collection of fields) in one table that uniquely identifies a row of another table in relational databases. (A) Primary key (B) Candidate key (C) Alternate key (D) Foreign key

M.C.A. (Master of Computer Applications)/BDU-22254-A 8 49. The 2’s complement of 1100 is : (A) 0011 (B) 0100 (C) 0101 (D) 1001

50. The decimal equivalent of the Hexadecimal number 2E is : (A) 46 (B) 17 (C) 20 (D) 18

51. Which of the following data types can not be returned by functions ? (A) Integer (B) Float (C) Array (D) Pointer to array

52. For which of the following Boolean operators the output is false when both the inputs are true or both the inputs are false ? (A) XNOR (B) XOR (C) AND (D) NOR

53. Which of the following statements is false ? (A) Recursion is implemented using stack data structure (B) Every tree can be converted into a binary tree (C) Every node in a binary tree can have at most two children (D) Every graph is a tree but every tree need not be a graph

54. Which of the following computer languages is used for artificial intelligence ? (A) FORTRAN (B) PASCAL (C) PROLOG (D) COBOL

55. The worst case complexity of quicksort algorithm to sort n elements is : (A) n2 (B) n log n (C) log n (D) n3

56. The synonym for the word “MELANCHOLY” is : (A) Happy (B) Depressed (C) Brave (D) Tough

M.C.A. (Master of Computer Applications)/BDU-22254-A 9 [Turn over 57. Find the odd man out from the following : (A) Strong (B) Energetic (C) Robust (D) Attractive

58. The antonym of the word HAPHAZARD is : (A) Disciplined (B) Careless (C) Organized (D) Strict

59. Consider the sentence “When she left Agra her friends ______her good-bye.” (A) bid (B) bade (C) bidded (D) bids

60. Consider the sentence “When did you hear ______him last ?” The correct word to be filled in the blank is : (A) from (B) to (C) by (D) for

61. Consider the sentence “The bus came after we ______for more than an hour.” The correct verb to be filled in the blank is : (A) waited (B) have waited (C) waiting (D) had waited

62. Consider the sentence “The medical shop is ______to sell medicines.” The correct word to be filled in the blank is : (A) licence (B) licenced (C) licensed (D) licensing

63. The word with wrong spelling is : (A) Algebra (B) Mathemetics (C) Geometry (D) Arithmetic

64. Choose the correct word for the blank in the sentence “You are ______no compul- sion to come.” (A) under (B) in (C) with (D) by

M.C.A. (Master of Computer Applications)/BDU-22254-A 10 65. The plural form of the word mouse is : (A) Mouse (B) Meese (C) Mouses (D) Mice

66. Pointing to a photograph of a girl Ramesh said, “She is the daughter of the only son of my mother.” How is Ramesh related to that girl ? (A) Brother (B) Uncle (C) Father (D) Cousin

67. The total of the ages of Karan, Kusum and Kiran is 84 years. What was the total of their ages (in years) three years ago ? (A) 81 (B) 75 (C) 71 (D) 74

68. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence : 1. Family 2. Community 3. Member 4. Locality 5. Country (A) 3, 1, 2, 4, 5 (B) 3, 1, 4, 2, 5 (C) 1, 3, 2, 4, 5 (D) 1, 3, 4, 2, 5

69. Choose the pair of words that represents a similar relationship as the pair given below : Waitress : Restaurant (A) doctor : diagnosis (B) actor : role (C) driver : truck (D) teacher : school

70. What number should come next in the series : 80, 10, 70, 15, 60, ...... ? (A) 25 (B) 65 (C) 20 (D) 40

M.C.A. (Master of Computer Applications)/BDU-22254-A 11 [Turn over 71. If 6 is obtained from {12, 18, 30}, 8 is obtained from {16, 24, 40} and x is obtained from {45, 18, 27} . The value of x is : (A) 12 (B) 9 (C) 18 (D) 6

72. Suppose at 6 P.M. the hour hand in a timepiece points to North. In which direction the minute hand will point at 9.15 P.M. ? (A) West (B) North (C) South (D) East

73. Suppose A can do a work in 15 days and B in 20 days. If they work on it together for 4 days, then the fraction of the work that is left is : (A) 1/10 (B) 1/4 (C) 7/15 (D) 8/15

74. Three ships are kept next to each other. A blue ship is to the right of a red ship and to the left of a green ship. If the blue ship and the green ship change places, then : (A) The red ship and the blue ship are next to each other (B) The red ship is immediately to the left of the blue ship (C) The green ship is between the red and the blue ships (D) The red ship is in the middle

75. If CUP is coded as ASN, then ROW is coded as : (A) PUM (B) PMU (C) SUM (D) PMV

M.C.A. (Master of Computer Applications)/BDU-22254-A 12 ROUGH WORK

M.C.A. (Master of Computer Applications)/BDU-22254-A 13 [Turn over ROUGH WORK

M.C.A. (Master of Computer Applications)/BDU-22254-A 14 ROUGH WORK

M.C.A. (Master of Computer Applications)/BDU-22254-A 15 [Turn 424over CET(PG)-2014 Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D Sr. No. : Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet. Roll No. In Figures In Words In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.

Signature of the Candidate : Subject : M.Com. (Honours) Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 85 Maximum Marks : 85

1. Which of the following is also known as an inventoriable cost ? (A) Period cost (B) Fixed cost (C) Product cost (D) Conversion cost

2. Which of the following is not generally true when a company compares ABC and traditional costing ? (A) ABC uses more cost drivers (B) ABC allocates cost based solely on production volume (C) ABC is more expensive (D) ABC is less likely to under-cost complex, low-volume products

3. Operating leverage is related to which of the following ? (A) Manufacturing costs versus selling costs (B) Estimated costs versus actual costs (C) Total revenues versus total costs (D) Fixed costs versus variable costs

4. Which of the following costs should not be taken into consideration when making a decision ? (A) Opportunity costs (B) Sunk costs (C) Relevant costs (D) Differential costs

5. Ending finished goods inventory is : (A) beginning finished goods inventory + cost of goods completed – cost of goods sold (B) cost of goods completed – cost of goods sold (C) beginning finished goods inventory + cost of goods completed (D) beginning finished goods inventory – cost of goods completed + cost of goods sold

6. Production of all the joint products should cease if : (A) any of the individual products sells for less than its joint cost (B) the joint cost is less than the total revenue generated when the joint products are sold (C) any of the products have a negative gross margin after the joint costs have been allocated (D) total revenue from the sale of all the joint products is less than the joint cost

M.Com. (Honours)/BDU-22269-A 3 [Turn over 7. Which budget would show the amount of goods to be purchased from suppliers rather than to be manufactured during the period ? (A) Production budget (B) Merchandise purchases budget (C) Direct materials budget (D) Sales budget

8. The overhead volume variance is favourable when : (A) more units are produced than were originally planned (B) actual overhead costs are less than the flexible budget (C) the predetermined overhead rate was too low (D) there are units remaining in ending inventory

9. There is conceptual and computational similarity between production yield variance and (A) revenue sales quantity variance (B) revenue market size variance (C) revenue sales volume variance (D) revenue sales mix variance

10. Target price is target cost plus : (A) target selling price (B) target profit (C) manufacturing costs (D) transportation costs

11. Which of the following is not a part of the calculation of residual income ? (A) NOPAT (B) Invested capital (C) Required rate of return (D) Interest expense

12. Which of the following is not a dimension of the Balanced Scorecard ? (A) Customer (B) Internal processes (C) Innovation (D) Stakeholder

13. Which of the following is a cash inflow ? (A) Share redemption (B) Rights issue (C) Bonus issue (D) Redemption of debentures

14. Which of the following would be subtracted from operating profit when calculating the net cash flow from operating activities ? (A) Profit on disposal of assets (B) Depreciation (C) Increases in creditors (D) Decrease in debtors

M.Com. (Honours)/BDU-22269-A 4 15. Which of the following is not a capital reserve ? (A) Share premium (B) Fixed asset replacement (C) Capital redemption (D) Revaluation

16. A debit balance on a partner’s current account must indicate that : (A) drawings are higher than the profit share for that year (B) they have withdrawn more than they have earned in the partnership (C) they have a credit balance on their capital account (D) they are insolvent

17. Which of the following will improve a company’s working capital management position ? (A) An increase in the credit period allowed by suppliers (B) An increase in the stock turnover period (C) An increased debtor collection period (D) An increased level of bad debts

18. An investment centre is a responsibility centre where manager has control of : (A) costs (B) costs and profits (C) costs, profits and assets (D) costs, profits and product quality

19. Which group of ratios measure a firm’s ability to meet short-term obligations ? (A) Debt ratios (B) Coverage ratios (C) Profitability ratios (D) Liquidity ratios

20. The opportunity cost approach in human resource accounting was introduced by : (A) William C. Pyle (B) Rensis Likert (C) Eric G. Flamholtz (D) Hekimian and Jones

21. Which of the following is not an ‘experiential training’ method ? (A) Case study (B) Lectures (C) On-the-job training (D) Role playing

22. The management system, as identified by Likert, whereby leadership involves trust and confidence in subordinates, there is a high degree of teamwork and communication and responsibility for achieving the goals of the organisation is spread throughout all levels of the hierarchy is : (A) participative group (B) consultative (C) benevolent authoritative (D) exploitative authoritative

M.Com. (Honours)/BDU-22269-A 5 [Turn over 23. The four main approaches to organisations and management are : (A) classical, human relations, systems and contingency (B) contingency, social action, scientific management and classical (C) human relations, social action, contingency and scientific management (D) classical, human relations, bureaucracy and social action

24. Who proposed the ‘Hierarchy of Needs Theory’ in 1943 ? (A) Abraham Maslow (B) Frederick Herzberg (C) Douglas McGregor (D) David McClelland

25. Taylor’s thoughts were based on studies at : (A) the Bethlehem Steel Corporation (B) the American Steel Arsenal (C) the Arsenal (D) the Watertown Steel Corporation

26. Coordinating people and human resources to accomplish organizational goals is the process of : (A) planning (B) directing (C) management (D) leadership

27. Specific, short-term statements detailing how to achieve an organization’s goals is known as its : (A) mission statement (B) vision (C) operational planning (D) objectives

28. What is ‘Six Sigma’ ? (A) A mathematical model for increasing output while lowering costs (B) An ad-hoc grouping of the world’s six most valuable companies (C) Form of industrial dispute arbitration (D) A system of quality management

29. The set of marketing tools a firm uses to implement its marketing strategy is called the : (A) product mix (B) promotion mix (C) marketing mix (D) marketing effort

30. Which type of promotional tool is non-public, immediate, customized, and interactive ? (A) Segmented advertising (B) Direct marketing (C) Brand contacts (D) Sales promotion

M.Com. (Honours)/BDU-22269-A 6 31. According to research, which selection method is perceived to be fairest by most applicants ? (A) References (B) Written ability tests (C) Interviews (D) CVs

32. Which of the following is not a type of performance appraisal ? (A) Team based appraisal (B) 45 degree appraisal (C) Customer appraisals (D) Appraisal of managers

33. The individuals (representing functional areas and management) within an organization who participate in making a given purchase decision make up the : (A) strategic business unit (B) decision-making unit (C) strategic decision unit (D) functional decision unit

34. For products in which stage of the product life cycle are the engineering and R & D likely to be key functions influencing the purchase decision ? (A) Introduction (B) Growth (C) Maturity (D) Decline

35. Which of the following inventory techniques uses cards to monitor inventory movement ? (A) JIT Approach (B) Economic Order Quantity (C) Kaizen (D) Kanban

36. According to the BCG matrix, which of the following business units do not hold out much economic purpose and as such the organization must either not invest in them or should consider selling them as soon as possible ? (A) Question marks (B) Dogs (C) Cash cows (D) Stars

37. According to the Scientific Management School of Thought, which of the following is defined as the systematic, objective and critical examination of all the factors governing the operational efficiency of a specified activity to bring about improvement ? (A) Work Methods Study (B) Time Study (C) Motion Study (D) Micromotion Study

M.Com. (Honours)/BDU-22269-A 7 [Turn over 38. According to Maslow, a person who is looking for affection, belongingness, acceptance, and friendship is at which need level ? (A) Physiological (B) Self-actualization (C) Social (D) Esteem

39. Which of the following is not one of the categories of research design ?

(A) Exploratory research (B) Descriptive research (C) Casual research (D) Desk research

40. Diversification is best described as which of the following ? (A) Existing products in new markets (B) Existing products in existing markets (C) New products for new markets (D) New products for existing markets

41. What is the time limit to get the information under the Right to Information Act, 2005 ? (A) 30 days from the date of application (B) 35 days from the date of application (C) 38 days from the date of application (D) 45 days from the date of application

42. The judicial system set up under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, does not include consumer courts at the : (A) village level (B) district level (C) state level (D) national level

43. Which one of the following is not a welfare provision under the Factories Act, 1948 ? (A) Canteen (B) Drinking water (C) Creches (D) First aid

44. When two or more persons have made a joint promise under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, then, unless a contrary intention appears from the contract, all such persons must fulfil the promise : (A) jointly (B) Severally (C) jointly and severally (D) jointly or severally

45. The term ‘negotiation’ in Section 14 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 refers to : (A) the transfer of a bill of exchange, promissory note or cheque to any person, so as to constitute the person the holder thereof (B) the payment by a bank on a negotiable instrument after due verification of the instrument (C) the bargaining between the parties to a negotiable instrument (D) an understanding between the parties to a negotiable instrument

M.Com. (Honours)/BDU-22269-A 8 46. Under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, how many days notice does a person employed in a public utility needs to give before going on a strike ? (A) Seven days (B) Fourteen days (C) Fifteen days (D) Twenty-one days

47. The term ‘company’ is defined under which section of the Companies Act, 1956 ? (A) Section 1 (3) (B) Section 2 (4) (C) Section 3 (1) (D) Section 4 (2)

48. A prospectus which does not have complete particulars on the price of securities and the quantum of securities offered are called as : (A) deemed prospectus (B) red herring prospectus (C) shelf prospectus (D) abridged prospectus

49. Which out of the following sources are available to companies for buy back of securities ? (A) Securities premium account (B) Revaluation reserve (C) Capital redemption reserve (D) Investment allowance reserve

50. A company may hold its first annual general meeting within a period of not more than : (A) twelve months from the date of tis incorporation (B) fifteen months from the date of its incorporation (C) eighteen months from the date of its incorporation (D) twenty months from the date of its incorporation

51. A special resolution of the members (or of a class of members) of a company means a resolution passed by a majority of not less than : (A) 50 percent (B) 65 percent (C) 75 percent (D) 80 percent

52. For limited companies, what is the minimum number of meetings of the Board of Directors to be held each year ? (A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five

M.Com. (Honours)/BDU-22269-A 9 [Turn over 53. Loss from derivative trading is : (A) loss under the head ‘Income from other Sources’ (B) loss under the head ‘Investments’ (C) speculative business loss (D) non-speculative business loss

54. Which of the following income is not included in the term ‘Income’ under the Income Tax Act, 1961 ? (A) Reimbursement of travelling expenses (B) Profit in lieu of salary (C) Dividend (D) Profits and gains of business or profession

55. The charging section of the Income Tax Act, 1961 is : (A) Section 1 (B) Section 2 (C) Section 3 (D) Section 4

56. A company, other than an Indian company would be a resident in India for the previous year if during that year its control and management is situated : (A) wholly in India (B) wholly or partly in India (C) wholly outside India (D) partly in India

57. As per Section 60 of the Income Tax Act, 1961, income is clubbed if : (A) asset is transferred without transferring income (B) income is transferred without transferring asset yielding income (C) asset yielding income is transferred as irrevocable transfer (D) asset yielding income is transferred as revocable transfer

58. Employer’s contribution towards statutory public fund is : (A) taxable (B) partly exempt (C) fully exempt (D) eligible for deduction under Section 60

59. Which of the following duties is under the purview of the State Government ? (A) Central Excise duty (B) Customs duty (C) Service tax (D) VAT

M.Com. (Honours)/BDU-22269-A 10 60. CIN stands for : (A) Challan Identification Number (B) Cash Identification Number (C) Commission Identification Number (D) Central Information Number

61. The study of inflation is part of : (A) descriptive economics (B) normative economics (C) macroeconomics (D) microeconomics

62. According to the Ricardian Theory of Rent, transfer earnings of land are : (A) zero (B) negative (C) positive (D) equal to rent

63. According to the Keynesian Theory of Interest, “people may keep cash on hand to make profit out of anticipated changes in the prices of bonds and shares.” This liquidity preference of people is called as : (A) transaction motive (B) precautionary motive (C) speculation motive (D) price motive

64. The output gap is defined as : (A) nominal GDP minus real GDP (B) potential GDP minus actual GDP (C) nominal GDP adjusted for inflation (D) actual output minus the output that could be produced if the capital stock remained constant

65. The Law of Equi-Marginal Utility is a law of : (A) production of wealth (B) consumption of wealth (C) distribution of wealth (D) exchange of wealth

66. Most of the economic growth of the four “Asian Tigers” between 1966 and 1990 came from : (A) increases in inputs (B) increases in total factor productivity (C) reliance on a free market economy (D) access to natural resources

67. A rational expectations model in which the short-run Phillips curve moves up or down in response to newly available information about monetary growth was first proposed by : (A) M. Friedman (B) E. Lucas (C) E.S. Phelps (D) W. Phillips

M.Com. (Honours)/BDU-22269-A 11 [Turn over 68. If the central bank were convinced that that there is a large trade-off between unemployment and inflation, then it would most likely : (A) target real GDP (B) target nominal GDP (C) target inflation (D) rely solely on automatic stabilizers

69. The goods market and the money market are linked together by : (A) monetary policy (B) fiscal policy (C) interest rates (D) the labour market

70. The economy is said to be in a liquidity trap, if : (A) money demand is totally interest elastic (B) money demand is totally interest inelastic (C) investment is totally interest inelastic (D) a government spending increase is totally crowded out by a decrease in private investment

71. An exchange rate system in which central banks are always ready to buy and sell their currency at a predetermined price is called : (A) a dirty floating exchange rate system (B) a fixed exchange rate system (C) a flexible exchange rate system (D) a managed exchange rate system

72. As credit and debit cards are more widely used, we should expect that : (A) more money balances will be held in M1 (B) more money balances will be held in M2 (C) less money balances will be held in M2 (D) less money balances will be held in M1, but those held in M2 will remain unchanged

73. The money multiplier is the ratio of : (A) bank deposits divided by bank reserves (B) bank deposits divided by high-powered money (C) money supply divided by high-powered money (D) the currency divided by bank reserves

74. The real interest rate is : (A) the expected inflation rate (B) the nominal interest rate less the discount rate (C) the actual interest rate of the loan (D) the nominal interest rate less the expected rate of inflation

M.Com. (Honours)/BDU-22269-A 12 75. The yield curve : (A) depicts the term structure of interest (B) depicts interest rate differentials between government bonds and corporate bonds (C) is most often downward sloping (D) ranks different stocks according to their risk and expected yield

76. After a long and persistent overvaluation of the domestic currency a long-lasting change in trade patterns may occur even after the value of the currency has come down again. This is generally known as the : (A) sterilization effect (B) J-curve effect (C) purchasing power effect (D) hysteresis effect

77. Which of the following holds that a government can improve the economic well-being of a country by encouraging exports and discouraging imports without a reliance on previous metals ? (A) Mercantilism (B) Neo-mercantilism (C) Quotas (D) The Leontief paradox

78. A form of industry structure characterised by a few firms, each large enough to influence market price is : (A) oligopoly (B) monopoly (C) perfect competition (D) monopolistic competition

79. Which one of the following is not an assumption made in the Heckscher-Ohlin analysis ? (A) Constant returns to scale (B) Imperfect competition (C) Identical production functions across countries (D) Identical tastes across countries

80. A monopsony occurs if there is : (A) a major employer of labour (B) a highly unionised workforce (C) a major provider of employees (D) a single seller in a market

81. Who is the first woman managing director of State Bank of India (SBI) ? (A) Kalpana Morparia (B) Naina Lal Kidwai (C) Arundhati Bhattacharya (D) Vijaylakshmi Iyer

M.Com. (Honours)/BDU-22269-A 13 [Turn over 82. Which of the following term refers to meeting the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs ? (A) Corporate social responsibility (B) Sustainability (C) Green economics (D) Convergence

83. Which group aims to establish and maintain worldwide standards for efficient, orderly and fair markets ? (A) International Accounting Standards Board (IASB) (B) International Auditing and Assurances Standards Board (IAASB) (C) International Organization of Securities Commissions (IOSCO) (D) Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD)

84. Raghuram Rajan, the current RBI governor was the former Chief Economist of : (A) International Monetary Fund (B) World Bank (C) Asian Development Bank (D) European Investment Bank

85. In economics, BRIC is a grouping acronym that refers to the countries of Brazil, Russia, India and China. Who coined this acronym ? (A) Tushar Poddar (B) Jim O’Neill (C) Eva Yi (D) Adler Martins

M.Com. (Honours)/BDU-22269-A 14 ROUGH WORK

M.Com. (Honours)/BDU-22269-A 15 [Turn over ROUGH WORK

M.Com. (Honours)/BDU-22269-A 16 207 CET(PG)-2014 Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D Sr. No. : Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet. Roll No. In Figures In Words In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.

Signature of the Candidate : Subject : M.Com. (Business Innovation) Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75

1. Which among the following is not member state of SAARC ? (A) Maldives (B) Bhutan (C) Sri Lanka (D) Myanmar

2. Which is the world’s largest desert ? (A) Sahara (B) Gobi (C) Thar (D) Takala Makan

3. Petroleum prices are determined by : (A) OPEC (B) IMF (C) IBRD (D) WTO

4. Who is named as the Flying Sikh of India ? (A) Mohinder Singh (B) Ajit Pal Singh (C) Joginder Singh (D) Milkha Singh

5. The term epicenter is associated with : (A) Earthquake (B) Volcanoes (C) Cyclones (D) Landslides

6. Which of the following fuels causes minium environmental pollution ? (A) Diesel (B) Kerosene (C) Hydrogen (D) Coal

7. Which of the following institution deal with Credit to Agriculture and Rural Development ? (A) IDBI (B) NABARD (C) SIDBI (D) ICICI

8. Which of the following market structures has a kinked demand curve ? (A) Perfect Competition (B) Monopoly (C) Oligopoly (D) Monopolistic Competition

9. Who among the following has been appointed as interim President of BCCI ? (A) Navjot Singh (B) Anil Kumble (C) Sunil Gavaskar (D) Ajay Jadeja

M.Com. (Business Innovation)/BDU-22270-A 3 [Turn over 10. The Minimum age to cast vote in India is : (A) 18 Years (B) 19 Years (C) 20 Years (D) 21 Years

11. Author of the “Accidental Prime Minister” the making and unmaking of Manmohan Singh is : (A) Yashwant Sinha (B) Sachin Pilot (C) Sanjay Baru (D) Rajiv Pilot

12. Who among the following Prime Minister of India has not presented the budget ? (A) Jawaharlal Nehru (B) Morarji Desai (C) Indira Gandhi (D) Rajeev Gandhi

13. Which of the following quantities is the measure of inertia ? (A) Velocity (B) Acceleration (C) Mass (D) Weight

14. In which of the following state is the child-sex ratio the lowest as per the 2011 census ? (A) Haryana (B) Punjab (C) Chhattisgarh (D) Bihar

15. Kaziranga National Park is situated in : (A) Odisha (B) Gujarat (C) Rajasthan (D) Assam

16. The mean of 5 numbers is 27. If one number is excluded, their mean is 25. So the excluded number is : (A) 25 (B) 35 (C) 30 (D) 40

17. Fill in the blank : 49 : 16 : 169 : _____ ? (A) 86 (B) 94 (C) 96 (D) 100

M.Com. (Business Innovation)/BDU-22270-A 4 18. The cost of carpeting a room 15 m. long with a carpet 75 cm wide at 30 paisa per meter is Rs. 36. The breadth of the room is : (A) 6 m (B) 8 m (C) 9 m (D) 12 m

19. In 4 years, Rs. 6,000 amounts to Rs. 8,000. In what time at the same rate will Rs. 525 amount to Rs. 700 ? (A) 2 years (B) 3 years (C) 4 years (D) 5 years

20. If 16 – 2 = 2, 9 – 3 = 0, 81 – 8 = 8, then what is 64 – 4 ? (A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 4 (D) 2

21. A train 280 m long, running at the speed of 63 kmph will pass an electric pole in : (A) 160 Seconds (B) 16 Seconds (C) 18 Seconds (D) 15 Seconds

22. A and B can run 200 m in 22 and 25 Seconds respectively. How far is B from the finishing line when A reaches it ? (A) 8 m (B) 12 m (C) 16 m (D) 24 m

23. A card is drawn from a pack of 52 cards at random. What is the probability that it is neither a heart nor a jack ? (A) 15/52 (B) 7/52 (C) 9/13 (D) 17/18

24. How many panels of 5 judges can be formed when 6 men and 4 women containing at least two women ? (A) 156 (B) 148 (C) 186 (D) 110

25. X and Y are brothers. R is the father of Y. S is the brother of T and Maternal uncle of X. What is T to R ? (A) Mother (B) Wife (C) Sister (D) Brother

M.Com. (Business Innovation)/BDU-22270-A 5 [Turn over 26. Select the number which does not belong to the given series : 232, 343, 454, 564, 676 (A) 676 (B) 454 (C) 343 (D) 564

27. By selling an article of Rs. 100, one loses Rs. 10. The loss percent is : (A) 9% (B) 10% 1 1 (C) 9 % (D) 11 % 11 9

28. If Ram can do a piece of work in 20 days. Sham can do this piece of work in 30 days; together they will complete the work in how many days ? (A) 9 days (B) 8 days (C) 10 days (D) 12 days

29. What would be the interior angle of a regular octagon ? (A) 145° (B) 135° (C) 125° (D) 155°

30. The Chancellor of the State University is always the State’s : (A) Chief - Minister (B) Governor (C) Education - Minister (D) Deputy Commissioner

31. When a telephone is used to connect with the internet what is it called ? (A) Voice Net (B) Voice Portal (C) Voice Mail (D) Web Net

32. The first Prime Minister of India was : (A) Rajiv Gandhi (B) Jawaharlal Nehru (C) Indira Gandhi (D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

3 4 33. If th of the number is equal to rd of another number, what is the ratio 4 3 between them ? (A) 7 : 12 (B) 9 : 16 (C) 16 : 9 (D) 6 : 8

M.Com. (Business Innovation)/BDU-22270-A 6 34. If 5 and 3, 8 and 6, 9 and 4 and 2 and 7 change themselves mutually. What will be 84325 become ? (A) 65937 (B) 69753 (C) 69573 (D) 96537

35. A sum of money doubles itself in 10 years at simple interest. In how many years would it triple itself ? (A) 20 years (B) 17 years (C) 15 years (D) 12 years

36. If Joke = 164 and LOVE = 216, Then Hate = ? (A) 180 (B) 140 (C) 139 (D) 136

37. In a certain code ‘TEAMWORK’ is written as ‘NBFU JQNU’ and ‘SOME’ is written as ‘PTDL’. How is PERSON written in that code ? (A) QDOOPT (B) QDOMNR (C) SFQMNR (D) SFQOPT

38. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letter LGEU using each letter only once in each word ? (A) None (B) One (C) Two (D) Three

39. If the day after tomorrow is Sunday, what day was tomorrow day before yesterday ? (A) Friday (B) Thursday (C) Monday (D) Tuesday

40. Suresh is 7th ranks ahead of Ashok in the class of 39 students. If Ashok’s rank is 17th from the last, what is Suresh’s rank from the start ? (A) 16th (B) 23rd (C) 24th (D) 15th

41. A man is 3 years older than his wife and four times as old as his son. If the son becomes 15 years older after 3 years what is the present age of the wife ? (A) 60 years (B) 51 years (C) 48 years (D) 45 years

M.Com. (Business Innovation)/BDU-22270-A 7 [Turn over 42. Indian Institute of Petroleum is located in : (A) Pune (B) Dehradun (C) Lucknow (D) Mysore

43. The organization of South East Asian countries is know as : (A) OPEC (B) SAARC (C) ASEAN (D) NATO

44. Amongst the following which one of the following sectors provides the highest contribution in Industrial Production Index ? (A) Crude Oil (B) Electricity (C) Coal (D) Bauxite

45. Which of the following is considered a Non-Food crop ? (A) Wheat (B) Maize (C) Bajra (D) Jute

46. In a certain code language ‘TELEVISION’ is coded as ‘ETLEIVSINO’. How will ‘ARITHMETIC’ be coded in that code language ? (A) RAITHMICTE (B) RATIMHTECI (C) RAIMHETCI (D) RATIHMTEIC

Direction (47—51) : Ram walks 2 km towards North and turns to his right and walks 4 km more. He then turns to his right and walks another 4 km. Here he meets Renu coming from the opposite direction. They both stop here.

47. After taking the first turn, in which direction was Ram going ? (A) East (B) West (C) North (D) South

48. If the starting point is marked ‘A’ and finishing point is marked ‘B’ what will be the distance between their point ? (A) 10 km (B) 8 km (C) 6 km (D) 2 km

49. From which direction was Ram coming in the end ? (A) South (B) North (C) South-East (D) East

M.Com. (Business Innovation)/BDU-22270-A 8 50. After taking the second turn, in which direction was Ram walking ? (A) West (B) North (C) South-East (D) South

51. If Ram is to again reach the point from where he started in which direction will he have to go from where he is standing now ? (A) East (B) North (C) South-East (D) North-East

52. e-marketing is same as : (A) Virtual Marketing (B) Digital Marketing (C) Viral Marketing (D) Real Time Marketing

53. The term “Green Revolution” has been used to indicate higher production through : (A) Creation of Grass Lands (B) Planting more Trees (C) Enhanced Agricultural Productivity (D) Creation of Gardens in Urban Areas

54. MODVAT relates to : (A) Sales Tax (B) Wealth Tax (C) Income Tax (D) Excise Duty

55. The Centurion Bank of Punjab has been merged recently with : (A) ICICI (B) SBI (C) HDFC (D) SBOP

56. Which of the following is not a direct tax ? (A) Income Tax (B) Wealth Tax (C) Sales Tax (D) Estate Tax

57. Which of the following is not a Mass Media ? (A) Television (B) Magazine (C) Fax (D) Computer

58. Which makes business globally easiest and fastest ? (A) Telephone (B) Internet (C) Fax (D) Computer

M.Com. (Business Innovation)/BDU-22270-A 9 [Turn over 59. Employee receiving a share of the company’s annual profit is called : (A) Piece work (B) ESOP (C) Profit sharing (D) Merit Pay

60. In India the chief source of urban pollution is : (A) Industry (B) Noise (C) Drainage (D) Automobiles

61. Increasing inflation rate will affect : (A) Exchange Rates (B) Cross Rates (C) Purchasing Power (D) Economic Power

62. Voluntary association of traders, industrialists, bankers and professionals formed for the purpose of promotion of common business interests in a particular area is called : (A) Association of Industrialists (B) Chambers of Commerce (C) Entrepreneurs Association (D) Bankers Union

63. ‘Watts APP’ has been acquired by ‘FACEBOOK’ for : (A) 17 bn (B) 18 bn (C) 19 bn (D) 20 bn

64. Which of the following is not the social responsibility of business ? (A) Adopting Villages for Development (B) Setting up Educational Institutes (C) Opening Research and Development Centers (D) Construction of Temples

65. Books and records are the primary sources of data in : (A) Historical Research (B) Participatory Research (C) Clinical Research (D) Laboratory Research

66. Human Resource Management is : (A) Work Centered (B) Material Centered (C) People Centered (D) Personality Centered

67. Which of the following is not a trait of a human relations manager ? (A) Communication (B) Motivation (C) Self Awareness (D) Ego

M.Com. (Business Innovation)/BDU-22270-A 10 68. Corporate Governance does not include : (A) Developing Expertise (B) Misuse of Economic Resources (C) Increasing Productivity (D) Satisfying Consumers

69. Sexual Harassment is unethical because it isolates an important part of which approach to ethical behavior ? (A) The Justice Approach (B) The Moral Right Approach (C) The Defensive Approach (D) The Individualism

70. Which of the following is not a function of Production Management ? (A) Production Planning (B) Quality Control (C) Dividend Planning (D) Inventory Control

71. Which one is the same as Daisy, Pansy and Rose ? (A) Bed (B) Violet (C) Plant (D) Red

72. Identify the wrong number in the following series : 21, 28, 33, 35, 37, 36 ? (A) 33 (B) 35 (C) 21 (D) 36

73. The sum of two numbers is 22, five times one number is equal to 6 times the other. The bigger of the two numbers is ? (A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 15 (D) 16

74. In a certain language “KNOWLEDGE” is coded as 256535475, how is ‘GENERAL’ coded in that code ? (A) 7545993 (B) 7969393 (C) 7555913 (D) 755591

75. Primary source of Vitamin D for human beings is ? (A) Citrus Fruits (B) Sun (C) Green Vegetables (D) Yeast

M.Com. (Business Innovation)/BDU-22270-A 11 [Turn over ROUGH WORK

M.Com. (Business Innovation)/BDU-22270-A 12 84 CET(PG)-2014 Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D Sr. No. : Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet. Roll No. In Figures In Words In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.

Paper : I Signature of the Candidate : Subject : M.E. Civil Engineering (Construction Technology and Management) Programme Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75

DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO INSTRUCTIONS 1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided and nowhere else. 2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet. 4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so. 5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test. 6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question, darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases. 8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the Question Booklet. 9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble. 10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed. 11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used. 12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the candidate only. 13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty. 14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from the examination. 15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent / Observer whose decision shall be final. 16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculator is not allowed. M.E. Civil Engineering (Construction Technology & Management) Programme/BDU-22265-A 2 – M.E. Civil Engineering (Construction Technology & Management) Programme/A

1. Maxwell’s reciprocal theorem in structural analysis can be applied in : (A) All elastic structures (B) Plastic structures (C) Symmetrical structures only (D) Prismatic element structures only

2. The method of moment distribution in structural analysis is : (A) An iterative method (B) An exact method (C) An approximate method (D) None of the above

3. A symmetrical two-hinged parabolic arch when subjected to uniformly distributed load on the entire horizontal span, is subject to : (A) Radial shear alone (B) Normal thrust alone (C) Normal thrust and bending moment (D) Normal thrust, radial shear and bending moment

4. In a plane truss if ‘M’ is the number of members, ‘R’ is the number of reaction and ‘J’ is the number of joints then for this truss to be determinate : (A) J = M + R (B) J = 2M + R (C) 3J = M + 2R (D) 2J = M + R

5. In a linear structural elements : (A) Stiffness is directly proportional to flexibility (B) Stiffness is inversely proportional to flexibility (C) Stiffness is equal to flexibility (D) Stiffness and flexibility are not related

6. The absolute stiffness of a prismatic member with one end hinged is : (A) 2EI/L (B) 4EI/L (C) 3EI/L (D) None

7. The three moment equation in structural analysis is basically a : (A) Stiffness method (B) Displacement method (C) Energy method (D) Flexibility method

M.E. Civil Engineering (Construction Technology & Management) Programme/BDU-22265-A 3 [Turn over – 8. The fixed end of a continuous beam in three moment method is replacement by an addition at span of length : (A) Zero length (B) Equal to other span length (C) Infinite length (D) None of the above

9. If two springs of stiffness K1 and K2 are connected in series, the stiffness of the combined spring is : (A) K1 × K2/K1 + K2 (B) K1 + K2/K1 K2 (C) K1 + K2 (D) K1 × K2

10. The ratio of Young’s modulus to modulus of rigidity for a material having Poison’s ratio 0.2 is : (A) 12/5 (B) 5/12 (C) 5/14 (D) 14/5

11. As per IRC, the maximum permissible axle load is : (A) 5.0 tonnes (B) 7.565 tonnes (C) 8.165 tonnes (D) 10.250 tonnes

12. The recommended camber value for Bituminous concrete surface is : (A) 1 in 50 to 1 in 60 (B) 1 in 40 to 1 in 50 (C) 1 in 33 to 1 in 40 (D) 1 in 60 to 1 in 80

13. The peak formed by two rising gradients is called : (A) Summit (B) Peak (C) Ridge (D) Top

14. The commonly used binder for prime coat is : (A) Cutback (B) Bitumen – VG-30 grade (or 80/100) (C) Bitumen VG-30 grade (D) Emulsion

15. The Grade compensation on horizontal curve is about : (A) 65/R (B) 130/R (C) 120/R (D) 75/R

16. The minimum radius for a cubic parabola valley curve : (A) Ls/N (B) Ls/2N (C) 1.1 Ls/N (D) Ls/1.1N

M.E. Civil Engineering (Construction Technology & Management) Programme/BDU-22265-A 4 – 17. A small depression formed in longitudinal direction on a flexible pavement by the wheels is known as : (A) Corrugation (B) Depression (C) Rut (D) Shallow depression

18. The plant where bituminous mix is prepared prior to placing at site is known as : (A) Batching Plant (B) Bituminous Mixer (C) Hot Mix Plant (D) Appollo Plant

19. The Aggregate Strength for use in road should be determined by : (A) Aggregate Crushing Value Test (B) L.A. Abrasion Value Test (C) Impact Value Test (D) Either (B) or (C)

20. The Bituminous Binder of VG-30 grade should have softening point in the range : (A) 42 to 50°C (B) Min 57°C (C) > 45°C (D) 60 to 70°C

21. For highway geometric design the speed that is taken is : (A) Average Speed (B) 98th percentile speed (C) 85th percentile speed (D) Mean running speed of cars

22. Relation between speed (S), Density (D) and Traffic Volume (V) is : (A) D = V/S (B) D = S/V (C) S = 100 VD (D) S = 100 D/V

23. The minimum % age of Chemical Ingredients in cement is : (A) Magnesium Oxide (B) Alumina (C) Silica (D) Lime

24. The high strength of Rapid hardening cement in early stage is due to : (A) Finer Grinding (B) Burning at high temperatures (C) Increased lime content (D) Higher content of Tri-calcium

25. Vicat’s Apparatus is used for : (A) Fineness test (B) Consistency test (C) Setting time (D) Soundness test

M.E. Civil Engineering (Construction Technology & Management) Programme/BDU-22265-A 5 [Turn over – 26. A good aggregate for concreting should be : (A) Chemically Inert (B) Strong (C) Durable (D) Should satisfy all of these

27. The % age of the aggregate of F.M. 2.6 to be combined with F.M. of 6.8 to obtain FM 5.4 is : (A) 30% (B) 40% (C) 50% (D) 60%

28. To prevent segregation, the maximum height for placing concrete is : (A) 100 cm (B) 125 cm (C) 150 cm (D) 200 cm

29. A M-20 grade should have closely the following ratio of ingredients : (A) 1 : 2 : 4 (B) 1 : 3 : 6 (C) 1 : 1.5 : 2 (D) 1 : 1 : 2

30. Internal friction between ingredients of concrete is reduced by : (A) Using less water (B) Fine aggregates (C) Rich Mix (D) More water and coarse aggregate

31. Full strength of concrete is obtained after : (A) 7 days (B) 14 days (C) 21 days (D) 28 days

32. Workability of concrete may be improved by adding : (A) Hydrated lime (B) Fly-ash (C) Calcium Chloride (D) All of these

33. Relation between n and e is : (A) n = 1 + e / 1 – e (B) n = e / 1 – e (C) e = 1 + n / 1 – e (D) e = n(1 + e)

34. If void ratio = 0.67, w = 0.188% and S.G. = 2.68, the degree of saturation will be : (A) 0.75 (B) 0.60 (C) 0.40 (D) 0.25

M.E. Civil Engineering (Construction Technology & Management) Programme/BDU-22265-A 6 – 35. A well graded particle size distribution curve shall have Cc between : (A) 1 to 2 (B) 1 to 3 (C) 3 to 4 (D) < 1

36. Fine grained soils have : (A) Good permeability (B) High compressibility (C) Are good foundation soils (D) Low water absorption

37. To calculate settlement of a soil layer of finite thickness due to imposed load, we need to know : (A) Cc (B) Tv (C) Cv (D) Cc and stress increment on soil layer

38. An under-ream pile is used when : (A) Uplift forces are there (B) When pile base level is below the Ground water table (C) In sandy soils (D) For under-ground storage structures

39. Shear strength of clays is mainly due to : (A) Cohesion (B) Adhesion (C) Friction between individual grains (D) Both (A) and (C)

40. Maximum shear stress occurs on the plane which makes an angle of _____ degrees with the horizontal plane. (A) 30° (B) 45° (C) 60° (D) between 30° to 45°

41. Back staff reading on a bench mark of R.L. = 200.00 is 2.685. If Foresight reading on a point = 1.345 m, the R.L. of the point is : (A) 200.685 (B) 201.345 (C) 201.340 (D) 202.585

42. The direction of steepest slope on a contour is : (A) along the contour (B) at 45° to contour (C) at right angle (D) None of these

M.E. Civil Engineering (Construction Technology & Management) Programme/BDU-22265-A 7 [Turn over – 43. The whole circle bearing of a line is 180°., its reduced bearing is : (A) S 0°E (B) S 0°W (C) S (D) N 180°

44. Bernoulli’s theorem assumes : (A) Fluid is non-viscous (B) Fluid is viscous (C) Flow is not steady (D) Flow is bi-directional

45. Chezy formula is used to determine : (A) Head loss due to friction (B) Velocity of flow in pipe (C) Velocity of flow in open channels (D) None of these

46. A gradient at which a vehicle does not require any tractive effort to maintain the specified speed is called : (A) Minimum gradient (B) Floating gradient (C) Natural gradient (D) Ruling gradient (E) Pushing gradient

47. Cleveland apparatus is used for the determination of : Q (A) Specific gravity (B) Softening point (C) Fire and flash point (D) Water content test (E) Viscosity

48. The soil moisture useful in the plant growth is : (A) Hygroscopic water (B) Chemical water (C) Capillary water (D) Free water (E) Gravity water

49. The movement of water under or around a structure built or permeable foundation is called : (A) Percolation (B) Creep (C) Penetration (D) Seepage (E) Any of the above

M.E. Civil Engineering (Construction Technology & Management) Programme/BDU-22265-A 8 – 50. The consumptive use of water of standing crop is : (A) Equal to the depth of water evaporated by the crop (B) Equal to the depth of water transpired from the crop (C) Equal to the depth of water evaporated and transpired from the crop (D) Equal to the depth of water consumed by the crop in evaporation and transpiration from the crop and also the quantity of water evaporated from the adjacent soil (E) None of the above

51. The water in the soil which is in excess of the hygroscopic and capillary water and which can move freely downwards when the soil is porous and drainage available is called : (A) Free water (B) Firing water (C) Capillary water (D) Hygroscopic water (E) Reservoir water

52. A method of irrigating by which each tree is surrounded by a border to form a pool when water is applied, is called : (A) Broad irrigation (B) Distributed irrigation (C) Sport irrigation (D) Basin irrigation (E) None of the above Q 53. A channel which is designed to irrigate all the year around is called : (A) All weather channel (B) Green channel (C) Permanent channel (D) Perennial channel (E) Continuous channel

54. A reservoir supplied with water from a canal whenever in excess of canal requirements, is called (A) Excess water tank (B) Surplus tank (C) Auxiliary tank (D) Tail tank (E) Any of the above

55. According to Lacy’s theory the wetted parameter (WP) is related to the discharge Q as : (A) (WP) = 476 Q (B) (WP) = 4.75 Q (C) (WP) = 4.75 Q3/2 (D) (WP) = 4.75 Q5/2 (E) (WP) = 4.75 Q1.75

M.E. Civil Engineering (Construction Technology & Management) Programme/BDU-22265-A 9 [Turn over – 56. The Lacy’s silt factor varies with the average particle size m, in millimeters, as : (A) m3/2 (B) m2/3 (C) m1/2 (D) m1/3 (E) m

57. For the water flowing in a canal, the average velocity occur at a point located at the depth from the water surface equal to : (A) 0.8 d (B) 0.6 d (C) 0.5 d (D) 0.4 d (E) 0.33 d

58. A structure that divides the flow between two conduits or channel, is known as : (A) Dividing wall (B) Division wall (C) Bifurcation gate (D) Parting gate (E) None of the above

59. An weir that is not submerged and in which the tail water stays below the crest, is called : (A) Free weir (B) Ground weir (C) Natural weir (D) Positive-head weir (E) Any of the above

60. An earthen embankment built on each side of a river, some distance away from its banks, to control flood, is called : (A) Dyke (B) Earthen dam (C) Grone (D) Spur (E) None of the above

61. Turbidity in water is due to : (A) Algae (B) Fungi (C) Organic salts (D) Finally divided particles of clay, silt and organic matter (E) None of the above

M.E. Civil Engineering (Construction Technology & Management) Programme/BDU-22265-A 10 – 62. Plants that grow in absence of sunlight water mains, are called : (A) Algae (B) Shrubs (C) Fungi (D) Any of the above (E) None of the above

63. A hard water may contain : (A) Calcium carbonate (B) Magnesium sulphate (C) Magnesium bicarbonate (D) Any of the above (E) None of the above

64. The aeration of water is done for the removal of : (A) Colour (B) Turbidity (C) Harness (D) Bacteria (E) Odour

65. Disinfection of drinking water involves removal of : (A) Turbidity (B) Colour (C) Odour (D) Oxygen (E) Bacteria

66. Zeolite is : (A) A naturally occurring salt (B) Hydrated silica (C) Silicon carbide (D) Dehydrated calcium silicate (E) Hydrated alumina silicate

67. Pre-chlorination : (A) Improves coagulation (B) Reduces odours (C) Reduces tastes (D) Reduces organisms (E) All of the above

68. In Rapid Sand Filters, the maximum permissible loss of head is : (A) 10 m (B) 5 m (C) 3 m (D) 2 m (E) 1 m

M.E. Civil Engineering (Construction Technology & Management) Programme/BDU-22265-A 11 [Turn over – 69. In Slow Sand Filters, the rate of infiltration of water is in the range : (A) 175 to 250 litres/sq. m./hour (B) 500 to 1000 litres/sq. m./hour (C) 1000 to 5000 litres/sq. m./hour (D) 6000 to 10,000 litres/sq. m./hour (E) 20,000 to 30,000 litres/sq. m./hour

70. The self cleaning velocity normally adopted for sewers is : (A) 5 m/min (B) 15 m/min (C) 25 m/min (D) 50 m/min (E) 100 m/min

71. Sewer which gets discharge from two or more main sewers is called : (A) Trunk sewer (B) Combined sewer (C) Main sewer (D) Leading sewer (E) Intercepting sewer

72. The shape of sewer suitable to carry combined flow is : (A) Circular (B) Elliptical (C) Rectangular (D) Horse shoe shaped (E) Egg shaped

73. The biochemical decomposition of organic matter in a sewage, is called : (A) Digestion (B) Decomposition (C) Dilution (D) De-organization (E) None of the above

74. In an oxidation pond, the sewage is treated by : (A) Aerobic bacteria (B) Chlorine (C) Oxidation (D) Carbon dioxide (E) Carbolic acid

75. An orifice is called large orifice if water head is : (A) Twice the dia. of orifice (B) Thrice the dia. of orifice (C) 4 times the dia. of orifice (D) 5 times the dia. of orifice

M.E. Civil Engineering (Construction Technology & Management) Programme/BDU-22265-A 12 – ROUGH WORK

M.E. Civil Engineering (Construction Technology & Management) Programme/BDU-22265-A 13 [Turn over – ROUGH WORK

M.E. Civil Engineering (Construction Technology & Management) Programme/BDU-22265-A 14 – ROUGH WORK

M.E. Civil Engineering (Construction Technology & Management) Programme/BDU-22265-A 15 [Turn over68 – CET(PG)-2014 Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D Sr. No. : Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet. Roll No. In Figures In Words In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.

Signature of the Candidate : Subject : M.E. (Computer Science and Engineering/Information Technology) Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75

1. Let X and Y be sets with cardinalities m and n respectively. If the number of possible functions that can be defined with domain X and co-domain Y is exactly 10 the : (A) m = n = 10 (B) m = 1; n = 10 (C) m = 10; n = 1 (D) m = 5; n = 5

2. If the determinant of an n × n matrix A is zero, then : (A) Rank of A is n (B) Rank of A < = n – 2 (C) A has at least one zero eigen value (D) The system of equations Ax = 0 has no solution other than trivial solution

3. Suppose a number system has only three digits : 0, 1, 2 such that 2 > 1 > 0. What will be the binary equivalent of 222 in this system ? (A) 101010 (B) 11000 (C) 10110 (D) 11010

4. A point on the curve is said to be an extremum if it is a local minimum or local maximum. The number of distinct extrema for the curve 3x4 – 16x3 + 24x2 + 37 : (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 0

5. What is the number of reflexive relations on set of 5 elements ? (A) 210 (B) 215 (C) 220 (D) 225

6. If 731 + 672 = 1623 how much is 137 + 276 ? (A) 543 (B) 435 (C) 604 (D) 513 7. A byte addressable computer has a memory capacity of 2m kbytes and can perform 2n operations. An instruction involving 3 operands and one operator needs a maximum of : (A) 3m bits (B) 3m + n bits (C) m + n bits (D) 3m + n + 30 bits

M.E. (Comp. Sc. and Engg./Info. Tech.)/BDU-22264-A 3 [Turn over 8. The number of columns in state table for a sequential circuit with ‘m’ flip-flops and ‘n’ inputs is : (A) m + n (B) m + 2n (C) 2m + n (D) 2m + 2n

9. A combination circuit with three inputs x, y, z and three outputs A, B, C. When Binary input is 0, 1, 2 or 3 the Binary output is one greater than input. When the Binary input is 4, 5, 6 or 7, the Binary output one less than input : (A) C = 0 (B) C = xy + xz + yz (C) C = x + y + z (D) C = z’

10. (10110011100011110000)2 in base 32 is : (A) 22 14 7 16 (B) 11 9 23 31 (C) 11 9 7 16 (D) 11 14 23 16

11. If (11A1B)8 = (12c9)16 (c stands for decimal 12), then the values of A and B are : (A) 5, 1 (B) 7, 5 (C) 5, 7 (D) 3, 1

12. The number of Boolean functions that can be defined for ‘n’ Boolean variables over ‘n’-valued Boolean algebra are : (A) 2 nn (B) nnn n (C) 2n2 (D) n2

13. A computer uses a floating point representation comprising signed magnitude fractional mantissa and an excess-16 base 8 exponent. What decimal number is represented by a floating point number whose exponent is 10011, mantissa 101000, and sign bit is set ? (A) – 6250 (B) – 20480 (C) – 320 (D) – 0.00125

14. Suppose the largest n-bit binary number requires ‘m’ digits in decimal representation. Which of the following relations between ‘n’ and ‘m’ is approximately correct ? (A) m = 2n (B) n = 2m

(C) m < n log10 2 (D) m > n log10 2 15. With a clock frequency of 3 MHz, the execution time for the instruction “STA Address” of 8085 microprocessor will be : (A) 4333 ns (B) 3957 ns (C) 5115 ns (D) 3960 ns M.E. (Comp. Sc. and Engg./Info. Tech.)/BDU-22264-A 4 16. The number of flip-flops needed to construct a binary modulo N counter is : (A) N (B) 2N

2 (C) N (D) log2 N

17. The following Boolean function of four variables is : f(w, x, y, z) = (1, 3, 4, 6, 9, 11, 12, 14) (A) Independent of one variable (B) Independent of two variables (C) Independent of three variables (D) Dependent on all the variables

18. To increase the reliability, fault tolerance is included in the system in the form of multiple modules. If the problem can be solved by 5 different modules, each with probability of success 0.7, the probability that it can be solved even if 4 modules fail is approximately : (A) 0.49 (B) 0.30 (C) 0.05 (D) 0.03

19. The probability of success of two modules in unit testing is 0.9 each. The probability of success of integration testing is 0.9. The joint probability of success is : (A) 0.913 (B) 0.729 (C) 0.105 (D) 0.810

20. Let M be a mode that represents if-the-else node in a Program Graph. Let the number of paths from its if part to the end node is y, and from the else part to the end node is z. If the number of paths from start node to node M is x, then total number of paths through M are : (A) xy + z (B) xz + y (C) x + y + z (D) x(y + z)

21. When will be the 32-bit multiplication complete and correct 32 bit outputs expected due to ripple carry propagation effect ? Assume that shifting left after each addition also takes 0.0002 ns. (A) 2112 ns (B) 204.8 ns (C) 1.0224 ns (D) 303.5 ns

M.E. (Comp. Sc. and Engg./Info. Tech.)/BDU-22264-A 5 [Turn over 22. If it takes 5 ns to read an instruction from memory, 2 ns to decode the instruction, 3 ns to read register file, 4 ns to perform the computation required by instruction, and 2 ns to write the results into register file, what is the max clock rate of the processor ? (A) 16 MHz (B) 16 GHz (C) 62.5 MHz (D) 62.5 GHz

23. If a memory system has a latency of 10 ns per operation and a data width of 32 bits, what is the throughput and bandwidth of the memory system, assuming only one operation can be performed at a time and there is no delay between operations ? (A) Throughput= 8 million operation/sec, bandwidth is 240 million bytes/sec (B) Throughput= 32 million operation/sec, bandwidth is 100 million bytes/sec (C) Throughput= 32 million operation/sec, bandwidth is 320 million bytes/sec (D) Throughput= 100 million operation/sec, bandwidth is 400 million bytes/sec

24. A processor executes 40,000,000 cycles in one second. A printer device is sent 16 bytes in programmed I/O mode. The printer can print 250 characters per second and does not have a printer buffer. How many processor cycles are used in transferring just 16 bytes ? (A) 1,600,000 (B) 2,560,000 (C) 4,000,000 (D) 6,400,000

25. Eight devices 0-7 interrupts are connected to daisy chain mode through a common th INTR. An i device processes the ISR in a time period Ti, what is the maximum latency of ith device ? Assume that each device executes ISR only once, context switches time can be neglected and 0th device has highest priority.

i i (A)  ki–1 Tk (B)  k1 Tk

7 i – 1 (C)  k0 Tk (D)  k0 Tk

26. Suppose it takes 2.5 ns to access the long array of a set associative cache, 4 ns to access the data array, 1 ns to perform the hit/miss comparison and 1 ns to return the selected data to processor in case of hit. What is the cache hit latency of system ? Is the data array access the critical path in a cache hit ? (A) 7.5 ns, Yes (B) 6 ns, No (C) 5 ns, Yes (D) 3.5 ns, No.

M.E. (Comp. Sc. and Engg./Info. Tech.)/BDU-22264-A 6 27. Consider a project that has 0.5 percent probability of an undetected fault that would cost the organization Rs. 1,00,000 in fines. The computed risk exposure will be : (A) Rs. 350 (B) Rs. 500 (C) Rs. 550 (D) Rs. 995

28. If the software had 7 failures in 100 tests during 10 days of testing, what would be a good estimate of reliability of the software over the next day ? Week ? (A) 0.484, 0.006 (B) 0.598, 0.027 (C) 0.672, 0.035 (D) 0.769, 0.062

29. The method inheritance factor (MIF) and attribute inheritance factor (AIF) for the following C++ code are : Class A { protected : int a ; public : void x ( ) ; virtual void y ( ) ; } ; Class B public A { int b ; protected : int bb ; public : void z ( ) ; void y ( ) : void w ( ) ; } ; Class C public B { int c; void v ( ) ; } ; (A) MIF = 0.95, AIF = 0.83 (B) MIF = 0.35, AIF = 0.73 (C) MIF = 0.65, AIF = 0.45 (D) MIF = 0.45, AIF = 0.33

M.E. (Comp. Sc. and Engg./Info. Tech.)/BDU-22264-A 7 [Turn over 30. If a program has 264 possible inputs and one test can run every millisecond, how long would it take to execute all of the possible inputs ? (A) 5.99 × 105 years (B) 8.64 × 105 days (C) 3.07 × 1013 hours (D) 4.92 × 108 seconds

31. Given a chain-product of n-dimensional matrices, we can compute a parenthesization of this chain that achieves the minimum number of scalar multiplication ______time. (A) O(n3) (B) O(n log n) (C) O(n2) (D) O(n)

32. Given an integer W and a set S of n items, each of which has a positive benefit and a positive integer weight, we can find the highest benefit subset of S with total weight the most W in ______time. (A) O(n) (B) O(W/n) (C) O(nW) (D) O(n2)

33. Let T be a tree with n nodes, let cv denote the number of children of a node  of

T. Then T C is equal to : (A) n – 1 (B) n (C) n2 (D) n(n – 1)/2

34. Let T be a proper binary tree with n nodes, let h denote the height of T. Then the  minimum and maximum number of external nodes in T is : (A) h and 2h-1 (B) h – 1 and 2h (C) h+1 and 2h (D) nh and 2h/n

35. The complexity of merge-sort algorithm for sorting a list of n elements is : (A) O(n) (B) O(log n) (C) O(n2) (D) O(n log n)

36. P  (Q  R) is equivalent to (A) (P  Q)  R (B) (P  Q)  R (C) (P  Q)  R (D) (P  Q)  R

37. What would be the expectation of the number of failures preceding the first success in an infinite series of independent trials with constant probability of success p ? (A) 1/p (B) 1/(1 – p) (C) (1 – p)/p (D) p

M.E. (Comp. Sc. and Engg./Info. Tech.)/BDU-22264-A 8 38. The sum of the eigen values of the matrix A is :

1 1 3   A  1 5 1 3 1 1

(A) 7 (B) 9 (C) 11 (D) 17

39. Assume that the times required for the five functional units of pipeline, which operate in each of the five cycles are : 10 ns, 8 ns, 10 ns, 10 ns, and 7 ns respectively. Assume that pipeline adds 1ns of overhead. Then the speedup versus the single path would be : (A) 6 times (B) 5.9 times (C) 5 times (D) 4.1 times

40. A cache organization is of 32 kB 2-way set associative with 32 byte block size. The size of the address is 32 bits. A 2-to-1 MUX has latency of 0.6 ns while a k-bit comparator has latency of k/10 ns. The hit latency of the cache is :  (A) 2.4 ns (B) 2.3 ns (C) 1.8 ns (D) 1.7 ns

41. If we sort the alphabets in a string ‘PEOPLE’ using bubble sort algorithm. The number of comparisons and number of interchanges will be : (A) 6, 9 (B) 9, 11 (C) 11, 7 (D) 15, 9 42. The conversion of following infix expression to postfix form yields : A* (B + D)/E – F* (G + H/K) (A) ABD+*E/FGHK/+*- (B) ABD*+/EFGHK/+*- (C) ABD+*/EFGHK/+*- (D) ABD/+*E/FGHK+*-

M.E. (Comp. Sc. and Engg./Info. Tech.)/BDU-22264-A 9 [Turn over 43. A program below uses six temporary variables : a, b, c, d, e, and f. Assuming that all operations take their operands from registers, what is minimum number of registers needed to execute this program ? a = 4 b = 2 c = 10 d = a + b e = c + d f = c + e b = c + e e = b + f d = 7 + e return d + f (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 6

44. Consider a deque maintained in a circular array with N element. If the two pointers used to maintain the deque are same then deque has ______elements. (A) N (B) N – 1 (C) 1 (D) 0

45. Let I be the set Z of integers. To each integer n we assign the following subset of R :

An = {x : x  n} Hence we can say that

(A) n An = R but n An =  (B) n An = 1 but n An = 0

46. Let A be set of students in an institute. Determine which of the following statement does not define a function A. (A) To each student assign his age (B) To each student assign his teacher (C) To each student assign his sex (D) To each student assign his spouse

47. The CNF and DNF of the following is : p  (p–  q–) (A) (p–  q)  (q  p) and –p (B) (p  q–)  p– (q  p) and (–p q) (C) (p–  q–)  p  (q  p) and (–p  p) (D) (p–  q–) and (–p q)

M.E. (Comp. Sc. and Engg./Info. Tech.)/BDU-22264-A 10 48. The minimum number of colours are required to colour the vertices of a cycle with n modes in such a way that no two adjacent nodes have the same colour as : (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) n (n + 1) /2

49. Consider the words u = a2b and  = b3 ab, then u is (A) a2b4ab (B) bab2a2ba3b2 (C) ab2a3b2 (D) b2a2bab2

50. For any Boolean expression in SOP E form, EL and ES denote the number of literals and number of summands in E. Given two E and F are two equivalent Boolean SOP expressions, E is simpler than F, if :

(A) EL  FL and ES = FS (B) EL = FL and ES > FS

51. Suppose Q is the consensus of P1 and P2. Then P1 + P2 + Q is :

(A) P1 + P2 (B) P1

(C) P2 (D) P1  P2 52. An algorithm is made up of two modules M1 and M2. If the order of M1 is f(n) and M2 is g (n) then the order of the algorithm is : (A) max (f (n), g(n)) (B) mix (f (n), g(n)) (C) f(n) + g(n) (D) f(n) × g(n)

53. The output of the following C program is main ( ) { int size ; scanf ("%d", & size) ; int arr [size] ; for (i = 1 ; i < = 10 ; i ++) { scanf ("%d", & arr [i]) ; printf ("%d", arr [i]) ; } } (A) Take input from user for 9 elements of the array named arr prints them (B) Take input from user for 10 elements of the array named arr prints them (C) Take input from user for 11 elements of the array mamed arr prints them (D) Error M.E. (Comp. Sc. and Engg./Info. Tech.)/BDU-22264-A 11 [Turn over 54. A text is made up of characters a, b, c, d, e each occurring with the probability 0.12, 0.4, 0.15, 0.08 and 0.25 respectively. The optimal coding technique will have average length of (A) 1.78 (B) 2.15 (C) 2.30 (D) 3.01

55. In a paged memory, the page hit ratio is 45%. The time required to access a page in secondary memory is 100 ns. The time required to access a page in the primary memory is 10 ns. The average time required to access a page is : (A) 45 ns (B) 59.5 ns (C) 68.5 ns (D) 78.5 ns

56. The entry of starting cluster of a file is present in (A) Boot parameters (B) Data space (C) File allocation table (D) Directory

57. Consider a system having ‘m’ resources of the same type. The resources are shared by 3 processors A, B, C, which have peak time demands of 3, 4, 6 respectively. The minimum value of ‘m’ that ensures that deadlock will never occur is (A) 11 (B) 12 (C) 13 (D) 14

58. The variable i in the following program fragment gets the value : int i = 3, j = 4, k = 2; i = j / = k + 4 ; (A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 0

59. The following program results in main ( ) { if (fork ( ) > 0) sleep (100) ; } (A) An orphan process (B) An exception (C) A zombie process (D) A process that executes for ever

M.E. (Comp. Sc. and Engg./Info. Tech.)/BDU-22264-A 12 60. All the hidden surface algorithms employee image space approach except ? (A) Back face removal (B) Depth buffer method (C) Scan line method (D) Depth sort method.

61. The entire class C network 192.168.1.0 by using a mask of 255.255.255.224 can be subdivided into : (A) 64 networks of 2 hosts (B) 32 networks of 6 hosts (C) 8 networks of 30 hosts (D) 4 networks of 62 hosts

62. A valid Internal host loop back address is : (A) 255.0.0.1 (B) 128.0.0.255 (C) 127.0.0.1 (D) 1.0.0.1

63. Consider the following relation scheme pertaining to a student’s database, where the primary keys are underlined Student : (Enrollno, name, address) Enroll : (Enrollno, courseno, coursename) The number of tuples in the Student and the Enroll tables are 150 and 9 respectively. What are the maximum and minimum number of tuples that can be present in (Student Enroll) the natural join of Student and Enroll ? (A) 9,9 (B) 150,9 (C) 1350,9 (D) 1350,150

64. Assume transaction A holds a shared lock R. If the transaction B also requests for a shared lock on R, it will : (A) result in a deadlock situation (B) immediately be granted (C) immediately be rejected (D) be granted as soon as it is released by A

65. Recursive descent parsing is an example of : (A) Bottom-up parser (B) Top-down parser (C) Predictive parsing (D) None of these

M.E. (Comp. Sc. and Engg./Info. Tech.)/BDU-22264-A 13 [Turn over 66. Consider the following set of processes that arrive at time 0, with the length of CPU-burst time was given in milliseconds ; using a time quantum of 4 milliseconds and round robin scheduling, the average waiting time is : Process Burst time P1 24 ms P2 3 ms P3 3 ms (A) 6.25 ms (B) 5.66 ms (C) 5.33 ms (D) 4.33 ms 67. Assume that a user process is of 200 K and backing store on hard disk with transfer rate 10 megabytes per second (assume no head seeks and average latency of 8 milliseconds). What should be the minimum value of the time quantum for efficient round robin CPU scheduling ? (A) 11 ms (B) 13 ms (C) 16 ms (D) 20 ms 68. In a computer system where ‘best fit’ algorithm is used for allocating jobs to memory partitions, the following situation was encountered, when will the 20 K job complete ? Partition sizes in KB 1K 4K 8K 20K 2K Job size in KB 2K 14K 3K 6K 6K 10K 20K 2K Time for execution 4 10 2 1 4 1 8 6 (A) 8 units (B) 10 units (C) 19 units (D) 23 units

69. What is the bit rate for transmitting compressed VGA colour with 8 bits/pixel at 40 frames/sec ? (A) 93.7 Mbps (B) 73.7 Mbps (C) 53.7 Mbps (D) 63.7 Mbps

M.E. (Comp. Sc. and Engg./Info. Tech.)/BDU-22264-A 14 70. How much bandwidth is there in 0.1 micron of spectrum at a wavelength of 1 micron ? (A) 10,000 GHz (B) 15,000 GHz (C) 30,000 GHz (D) 40,000 GHz

71. Following functional dependencies are given : AB  CD, AF  D, DE  F, C  G, F  E, G  A, which one of the following is not true ? (A) {CF}+ = {ACDEFG) (B) {AF}+ = {ACDEFG) (C) {BG}+ = {ABCDG) (D) {AB}+ = {ABCDFG)

72. Algorithm that solves the all-pair shortest path problem is : (A) Dijkstra’s algorithm (B) Prim’s algorithm (C) Flyod’s algorithm (D) Warshall’s algorithm

73. If the memory for the run time stack is only 150 words, how big can N be for computing Factorial (N) before encountering stack overflow ? (A) 150 (B) 66 (C) 15 (D) 24

74. The following program results in main ( ) {printf ("%u," main) ; }

(A) printing of starting address of function main ( ) (B) printing of garbage value (C) an execution error (D) an infinte loop

75. The sum m of the degree of the vertices of G where V(G) = {A,B,C,D} and E(G)= [{A, B}, {A, C}, {B, D}, {C, D}] : (A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 10 (D) 14

M.E. (Comp. Sc. and Engg./Info. Tech.)/BDU-22264-A 15 [Turn over ROUGH WORK

M.E. (Comp. Sc. and Engg./Info. Tech.)/BDU-22264-A 16 88 CET(PG)-2014 Sr. No. : Question Booklet Series : A Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet. Roll No. In Figures In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No. Paper : I Signature of the Candidate : Subject : M.E. (Electrical Engg. and Instrumentation and Control) Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75 DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO INSTRUCTIONS 1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided and nowhere else. 2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet. 4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so. 5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test. 6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question, darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases. 8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the Question Booklet. 9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble. 10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed. 11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used. 12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the candidate only. 13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty. 14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from the examination. 15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent/Observer whose decision shall be final. 16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculator is not allowed. M.E. (Electrical Engg. and Instrumentation and Control)/A 1. The units of time constant L/R are : (A) Seconds (B) Henry/sec (C) Ohms/sec (D) Ohm 2. In a series RC circuit excited by dc voltage source E, the initial current is : (A) E/R (B) 0 (C) E/C (D)  3. At half power frequencies, the current in the RLC series circuit is : 1 1 (A) current at resonance (B) current at resonance 2 3

1 (C) current at resonance (D) 1 current at resonance 4 2 4. The quality factor of RLC circuit will increase if : (A) R increases (B) R decreases (C) Voltage increases (D) Voltage decreases 5. The suspectance of an RLC series circuit is given as : R R (A) (B) Z2 Z X X (C) (D) Z2 Z 6. The steady state current in RC series circuit, on the application of step voltage of magnitude E will be : (A) E/R (B) zero

E t E (C) eRC (D) et R RC 7. The form factor is the ratio of : (A) average value to rms value (B) rms value to average value (C) peak value to average value (D) peak value to rms value 8. Silicon steel is used in electrical machines because it has : (A) Low hysteresis loss (B) Low retentivity (C) Low coercivity (D) High retentivity

M.E. (Electrical Engg. and Instrumentation and Control)/BDU-22262-A 3 [Turn over   9. The aim of shielding an instrument is : (A) To prevent its damage due to moisture (B) To reduce the effect of stray magnetic fields on its reading (C) To increase the range of the instruments (D) To reduce the mechanical damage 10. The direction of induced e.m.f. is given by : (A) Fleming’s right hand rule (B) Fleming’s left hand rule (C) Kirchhoff’s voltage law (D) KCL 11. The self inductances of two coils are 4 mH and 9 mH. If the coefficient of coupling is 0.5, the mutual inductance between the coils is : (A) 12 mH (B) 3 mH (C) 6.5 mH (D) 6 mH 12. The ripple factor of a filter is : (A) directly proportional to the load (B) inversely proportional to the load (C) load dependent (in simple L and C filters) (D) high for good filters. 13. The typical value of the switching frequency of switched mode power supply is : (A) 50 Hz (B) 50 kHz (C) 50 MHz (D) 500 GHz 14. When the reverse voltage across a p-n junction is decreased gradually, the depletion region inside the diode : (A) does not change with width (B) initially increases upto a certain width and then decreases (C) continuously decreases in width (D) continuously increases in width 15. Thermal runaway will take place if the quiescent point is such that :

 1  (A) V   V (B) V < V CE  2  CC CE CC

 1  (C) V > 2V (D) V   V CE CC CE  2  CC 16. The voltage gain of single phase amplifier is increased when : (A) Its AC load is decreased (B) Resistance of signal source is increased

M.E. (Electrical Engg. and Instrumentation and Control)/BDU-22262-A 4   17. In a JFET, drain current is primarily controlled by : (A) Size of depletion region (B) Channel resistance (C) Gate reverse bias (D) Voltage drop across channel 18. Which of the following statements is not correct in regard to UJT ? (A) It exhibits a negative resistance. (B) It is operated with emitter junction reverse biased. (C) It has no ability to amplify while it has stability to control a large AC power with small signal. (D) It has one p-n junction and three leads. 19. The output of class B amplifier : (A) Is distortion free (B) Consists of positive half cycle only (C) Is like the output of a full wave rectifier (D) Comprises short duration current pulses 20. In a FET, 10 volts reverse voltage is applied. If gate current is 0.1 A, the input resistance is : (A) 1000 M (B) 100 M (C) 10 M (D) 1 M 21. A device having characteristics very close to that of an ideal voltage source is : (A) vacuum diode (B) zener diode (C) transistor (D) FET 22. Race condition occurs in (A) Combinational circuit (B) All the digital circuits (C) Synchronous circuits (D) Asynchronous circuit 23. The speed of conversion is maximum in______ADC. (A) Successive approximation type (B) Parallel comparator type (C) Counter type (D) Dual slope type 24. A/D converter which does not use D/A converter is : (A) Continuous null balance A/D converter (B) Dual slope integrator A/D converter (C) Staircase ramp A/D converter (D) Successive approximation A/D converter 25. An 8-bit A/D converter has a resolution of : (A) 1/24 (B) 1/28 (C) 1/212 (D) 1/216

M.E. (Electrical Engg. and Instrumentation and Control)/BDU-22262-A 5 [Turn over   26. Electrostatic type instruments are primarily used as : (A) Ammeters (B) Wattmeters (C) Voltmeters (D) Ohmmeters 27. A 1 mA ammeter has a resistance of 100 ohm. It is to be converted to a 1 A ammeter. The value of shunt resistance is : (A) 0.001 ohm (B) 0.1001 ohm (C) 100000 ohm (D) 100 ohm 28. Wave excitation of a stepper motor results in : (A) Micro-stepping (B) Increased step angle (C) Half stepping (D) Reduced resolution 29. The characteristic equation of a system is given by s4 + 6s3 + 11s2 + 6s + K = 0. For the system to be stable, the value of K should be : (A) zero (B) greater than zero but less than 10 (C) greater than 10 but less than 20 (D) greater than 20 but less than 30 30. A system is described by :

x   0 1  x  0 1  1  u         x2   2  3 x2  1 Y = [1 0]X The transfer function is : 1 1 (A) (B) s2  2s  3 2s2  3s 1 1 1 (C) (D) s2  3s  2 3s2  2s 1 31. A linear time invariant system, initially at rest when subjected to s unit step input gave a response c(t) = te–t (t 0). The transfer function of the system is : s 1 (A) (s 1)2 (B) s(s 1)2

1 1 (C) (s 1)2 (D) s(s 1)

32. AC servomotor is a : (A) 3-phase induction motor (B) 2-phase induction motor (C) 1-phase induction motor (D) 2-phase synchronous motor

M.E. (Electrical Engg. and Instrumentation and Control)/BDU-22262-A 6   33. A lag compensation network : (A) Increases the gain of the original network (B) Does not effect stability on increased gain (C) Reduces the steady state error (D) Reduces the speed of the response 34. Which of the following are the characteristics of the hydraulic actuator : 1. Sluggish 2. Having capacity to handle large power 3. Having linear operation over a wide range Select the correct answer using the codes below : (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1 and 3

K 35. The transfer function of control system is given as T(s)  where K is gain of the s2  4s  K system in radians per amp. For this system to be critically damped, the value of K should be : (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 49 36. A linear second order system with the transfer function G(s)  is subjected to step s2  16s  49 input. The response of the system will exhibit a peak overshoot of : (A) 16% (B) 9% (C) 2% (D) zero 37. If the system has multiple poles on the j axis, the system is : (A) stable (B) unstable (C) marginally stable (D) absolutely stable 38. Conditionally stable system is one which exhibits poor stability at : (A) increased values of open loop gain (B) reduced values of open loop gain (C) low frequencies (D) high frequencies

K 39. A feedback system has its characteristic equation as 1  = 0. The centroid of the s(s 1)(s 2) asymptotes will be equal to : (A) –1 (B) –2 (C) –3 (D) –4 40. The impulse response of the system is 5e–10t, its step response is equal to : (A) 0.5e–10t (B) 5(1–e–10t) (C) 0.5(1 –e–10t) (D) 10(1–e–10t)

M.E. (Electrical Engg. and Instrumentation and Control)/BDU-22262-A 7 [Turn over   41. A thermistor exhibits : (A) Only a negative change of resistance with increase in temperature (B) Only a positive change of resistance with increase in temperature (C) Can exhibit either a negative or positive change of resistance with increase in temperature depending upon the type of the material used (D) No change with temperature 42. A tachometer encoder can be used for the measurement of displacement : (A) In both the directions (B) In one direction only (C) Its output pulses are counted only for the forward direction (D) Its output pulses are counted only for the reverse direction 43. The principle of operation of LVDT is based on variation of : (A) self inductance (B) mutual inductance (C) reluctance (D) permeance 44. Hydrometer is employed for the determination of : (A) relative humidity (B) specific gravity of liquids (C) fluid level (D) flow rate 45. A differential amplifier having CMRR 50,000 has a mode gain of 500. The common mode gain is : (A) 1 (B) 0.1 (C) 0.01 (D) 0.001 46. A successive approximation A/D converter has a resolution of 20 mV. What will be its digital output for an analog input of 2.17 V ? (A) 01101100 (B) 01101101 (C) 01101011 (D) 01110001 47. An ideal Op-amp has (A) infinite input and output impedance (B) very low input and output impedance (C) low input and infinite output impedance (D) infinite input and zero output impedance 48. Thermocouples are : (A) inverse transducers (B) active transducers (C) passive transducers (D) both A and C

s  5 49. The phase angle of the system G(s)  varies between : s2  4s  9 (A) 0° and + 90° (B) 0° and –90° (C) 0° and 180° (D) –90° and – 180°

M.E. (Electrical Engg. and Instrumentation and Control)/BDU-22262-A 8   50. The temperature transducer exhibit nonlinear behaviour. The order in which they exhibit non linearity (highest to lowest) is : (A) Thermocouples, RTD and Thermistors (B) Thermistors, Thermocouples and RTDs (C) RTDs, Thermocouples, and Thermistors (D) Thermistors, RTDs, and Thermocouples 51. The function of the shunt in an ammeter is to : (A) bypass the current (B) increase the current in the coil (C) decrease the voltage drop (D) increase the meter resistance 52. Two meters X and Y require 40 mA and 50 mA, respectively to give full scale deflection, then : (A) X is more sensitive (B) Y is more sensitive (C) Both are equally sensitive (D) Sensitivity cannot be judged with the given information 53. A wattmeter can measure : (A) AC power only (B) DC power only (C) AC and DC power both (D) DC power and AC power after rectification 54. Two holes are provided in the energy meter rotating disc : (A) to avoid creeping (B) to reduce frictional force (C) to cut eddy current path (D) to compensate for friction at light load 55. The instruments used for measuring relative humidity make use of : (A) magnetic materials (B) hygroscopic substances (C) piezoelectric substances (D) photoconductive substances 56. Addition of zeros in transfer function causes______compensation. (A) lag (B) lead (C) lag-lead (D) no 57. The moving iron instruments : (A) indicate the same values of measurand for both ascending and descending values. (B) indicate higher value of measurand for descending values. (C) indicate lower value of measurand for ascending values. (D) may indicate any of the higher or lower value of measurand for ascending or descending values. 58. The readings of a PMMC ammeter and moving iron ammeter connected in a circuit carrying a direct of 5 A and alternating current of 4 A (rms value) will be : (A) 5 A and 6.4 A respectively (B) 1A and 9 A respectively (C) 9 A and 1 A respectively (D) 5 A and 5.74 A respectively

M.E. (Electrical Engg. and Instrumentation and Control)/BDU-22262-A 9 [Turn over   59. A Lissajous pattern on an oscilloscope has 5 horizontal tangencies and 2 vertical tangencies. The frequency of the horizontal input is 1000 Hz. What is the frequency of the vertical input ? (A) 400 Hz (B) 2500 Hz (C) 4000 Hz (D) 5000 Hz 60. A moving waveform on an oscilloscope can be made stationary by adjusting : (A) horizontal position control (B) coarse frequency control (C) sync-amplitude control (D) vertical positioning control 61. A current transformer is used to measure a 100 A current by a 5 A ammeter. The current transformer is a : (A) Step up transformer (B) Step down transformer (C) Power transformer (D) Distribution transformer 62. It is economical to use an autotransformer when the transformation ratio is : (A) Low (B) High (C) Neither too high nor too low (D) More than 10 63. Under no load condition the power factor of a transformer is : (A) Unity (B) About 0.7 lagging (C) About 0.7 leading (D) About 0.2 lagging 64. If the starting winding of a single phase induction motor is left in the circuit : (A) The motor will run faster (B) The motor will run slower (C) There will be undue sparking (D) The auxiliary winding will get overheated due to continuous flow of current and may get damaged. 65. If the Cu loss of a transformer at 7/8th full load is 4900 W, then its full load Cu loss would be_____watt. (A) 5600 (B) 6400 (C) 375 (D) 429 66. Which of the following transformers is smallest one ? (A) 50 kV A, 25 Hz (B) 50 kV A, 50 Hz (C) 50 kV A, 200 Hz (D) 50 kV A, 400 Hz 67. The maximum possible speed of a 3-phase squirrel cage induction motor running at a slip of 4% is : (A) 1440 rpm (B) 3000 rpm (C) 2880 rpm (D) 960 rpm

M.E. (Electrical Engg. and Instrumentation and Control)/BDU-22262-A 10   68. Speed of d.c. series motor at no load is : (A) zero (B) 3000 rpm (C) 3600 rpm (D) Infinity 69. Interpoles are provided in d.c. machines to : (A) Neutralize the cross magnetizing component of armature reaction (B) Neutralize the demagnetizing component of armature reaction (C) Reduce iron loss (D) Reduce copper loss 70. The efficiency and p.f. of a squirrel cage induction motor increases in proportion to its : (A) Speed (B) Rotor torque (C) Voltage (D) Mechanical load 71. The power consumption of dynamic RAM is : (A) More than that of the static RAM (B) Equal to that of the static RAM (C) Less than that of the static RAM (D) Zero 72. The instruction ‘DAD rp’ is used to perform : (A) Add the contents of register pair HL to register pair given the address of the instruction (B) Decrement the contents of register pair rp (C) Complement the contents of register pair (D) BCD addition of contents of register pair rp to Accumulator contents 73. The term cycle stealing is used in : (A) Programmed data transfer scheme (B) DMA data transfer (C) PUSH PSW and POP PSW operation (D) Synchronous data transfer scheme 74. Baud rate is rate at which : (A) results are obtained in the accumulator (B) transmission of the data takes place (C) a memory location can be accessed in microprocessor (D) an instruction is executed in a microprocessor 75. Intel’s 8086 microprocessor is : (A) 8 bit microprocessor available as 40 pin DIP (B) 16 bit microprocessor available as 40 pin DIP (C) 16 bit microprocessor available as 48 pin DIP (D) 16 bit microprocessor available as 64 pin DIP

M.E. (Electrical Engg. and Instrumentation and Control)/BDU-22262-A 11 [Turn over   Rough Work

M.E. (Electrical Engg. and Instrumentation and Control)/BDU-22262-A 12 100   CET(PG)-2014 Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D Sr. No. : Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet. Roll No. In Figures In Words In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.

Signature of the Candidate : Subject : M.E. (Electronics & Communication Engineering) Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75

DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO INSTRUCTIONS 1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided and nowhere else. 2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet. 4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so. 5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test. 6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question, darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases. 8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the Question Booklet. 9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble. 10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed. 11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used. 12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the candidate only. 13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty. 14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/ noted from this Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so would be expelled from the examination. 15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent / Observer whose decision shall be final. 16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculator is not allowed. M.E. (Electronics & Communication Engg.)/BDU-22263-A 2 ° M.E. (Electronics & Communication Engineering)/A 1. A p+n junction has a built in potential of 0.8 V. The depletion layer width at a reverse bias of 1.2V is 2m. For a reverse bias of 7.2V, the depletion layer width will be : (A) 4 m (B) 4.9 m (C) 8 m (D) 12 m

2. A silicon PN junction is forward biased with a constant current at room temperature. When the temperature is increased by 10 ºC, the forward biased voltage across the PN junction : (A) increases by 60 mV (B) decreases by 60 mV (C) increases by 25 mV (D) decreases by 25 mV

3. Drift current in semiconductors depends upon : (A) only the electric field (B) only the carrier concentration gradient (C) both the electric field and the carrier concentration gradient (D) both the electric field and the carrier concentration.

4. A Zener diode, when used in voltage stabilization circuits, is biased in : (A) reverse bias region below the breakdown voltage (B) reverse breakdown region (C) forward bias region (D) forward bias constant current mode

5. A dc power supply has no-load voltage of 30 V and a full-load voltage of 25 V at a full-load current of 1A. Its output resistance and load regulation, respectively are : (A) 5  and 20% (B) 25  and 20% (C) 5  and 16.7% (D) 25  and 16.7%

6. A device whose characteristics are very close to that of an ideal voltage source is a : (A) Vacuum diode (B) Field-effect transistor (C) Transistor in common-base mode (D) Zener diode

M.E. (Electronics & Communication Engg.)/BDU-22263-A 3 [Turn over ° 7. A device whose characteristics are very close to that of an ideal current source is a : (A) transistor in common-base mode (B) crystal diode (C) gas diode (D) vacuum triode

8. In a trans-conductance amplifier, it is desirable to have a : (A) A large input resistance and a large output resistance (B) A large input resistance and a small output resistance (C) A small input resistance and a large output resistance (D) A small input resistance and a small output resistance

9. The DC current gain () of a BJT is 50. Assuming that the emitter injection efficiency is 0.995, the base transport factor is : (A) 0.980 (B) 0.985 (C) 0.990 (D) 0.995

10. A transistor connected in common-base configuration has : (A) a low input resistance and a high output resistance (B) a high input resistance and a low output resistance (C) a low input resistance and a low output resistance (D) a high input resistance and a high output resistance

11. Compared to CB amplifier, the CE amplifier has : (A) lower input resistance (B) higher output resistance (C) lower current amplification (D) higher current amplification

12. The input and output signals of a common emitter amplifier are : (A) always equal (B) out of phase (C) always negative (D) in phase 13. A transistor is said to be in a quiescent state when : (A) no signal applied to the input (B) it is unbiased (C) no currents are flowing (D) emitter-junction bias is just equal to collector-junction bias

M.E. (Electronics & Communication Engg.)/BDU-22263-A 4 ° 14. A field-effect transistor (FET) : (A) has three PN junctions (B) incorporates a forward biased junction (C) depends on the variation of a magnetic field for its operation (D) depends on the variation of the depletion-layer width with reverse voltage, for its operation

15. The operation of a JFET involves : (A) a flow of minority carriers (B) a flow of majority carriers (C) recombination (D) negative resistance

16. For generating a 1-kHz note, the most suitable circuit is : (A) Hartley oscillator (B) Colpitts oscillator (C) Tuned-collector oscillator (D) Wein bridge oscillator

17. To generate a 1-MHz signal, the most suitable circuit is : (A) Wein bridge oscillator (B) Phase shift oscillator (C) Colpitts oscillator (D) Hartley oscillator

18. We use crystal oscillator because : (A) it gives high output voltage (B) it works at high efficiency (C) the frequency of oscillations remains substantially constant (D) it requires very low dc supply voltage

19. The resolution of a 4-bit counting ADC is 0.5 Volts. For an analog input of 6.6 Volts, the digital output of the ADC will be : (A) 1011 (B) 1101 (C) 1100 (D) 1110

20. An 8 bit successive approximation analog to digital converter has full scale reading of 2.55 V and its conversion time for an analog input of 1V is 20 ms. The conversion time for a 2V input will be : (A) 10 s (B) 20 s (C) 40 s (D) 50 s

M.E. (Electronics & Communication Engg.)/BDU-22263-A 5 [Turn over ° 21. The number of comparators in a 4-bit flash ADC is : (A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 15 (D) 16

22. The two numbers represented in signed 2’s complement form are P=11101101 and Q = 11100110. If q is subtracted from P, the value obtained in signed 2’s complement form is : (A) 100000111 (B) 00000111 (C) 1111101 (D) 111111001

23. A system with an input x(t) and output y(t) is described by the relation : y(t) = tx(t). This system is : (A) linear and time-invariant (B) linear and time varying (C) non-linear and time-invariant (D) non-linear and time-varying

24. The region of convergence of the Z-transform of a unit step functions is : (A) | Z | > 1 (B) | Z | < 1 (C) (Real part of Z) > 0 (D) (Real part of Z) < 0

25. If a signal f(t) has energy E, the energy of the signal f(2t) is equal to : (A) E (B) E/2 (C) 2E (D) 4E

26. Which of the following cannot be the Fourier series expansion of a periodic signal ? (A) X(t) = 2 cos t + 3 cos 3t (B) X(t) = 2 cos t + 7 cos t (C) X(t) = cos t + 0.5 (D) X(t) = 2 cos 1.5 t + sin 3.5 t

27. The trigonometric Fourier series of an even function does not have the : (A) dc term (B) cosine terms (C) sine terms (D) old harmonic terms

28. A system is defined by its impulse response h(n) = 2n u(n–2). The system is : (A) stable and causal (B) causal but not stable (C) stable but not causal (D) unstable and noncausal

M.E. (Electronics & Communication Engg.)/BDU-22263-A 6 ° 29. If the characteristics equation of a closed-loop system is s2 + 2s + 2 = 0, then the system is : (A) overdamped (B) Critically damped (C) under damped (D) undamped

30. An amplifier with resistive negative feedback has two left half plane poles in its open-loop transfer function. The amplifier : (A) will always be unstable at high frequency (B) will be stable for all frequency (C) may be unstable, depending on the feedback factor (D) will oscillate at low frequency

31. A PD controller is used to compensate a system. Compared to the uncompensated system, the compensated system has : (A) a higher type number (B) reduced damping (C) higher noise amplification (D) larger transient overshoot

32. The peak-to-peak input to an 8-bit PCM coder is 2 volts. The signal power-to-

quantization noise power ratio (in db) for an input of 0.5 cos (mt) is : (A) 47.8 (B) 43.8 (C) 95.6 (D) 99.6

33. Four independent messages have bandwidths of 100 Hz, 100 Hz, 200 Hz and 400 Hz, respectively. Each is sampled at the Nyquist rate, and the samples are Time division multiplexed (TDM) and transmitted. The transmitted sample rate (in Hz) is : (A) 1600 (B) 800 (C) 400 (D) 200

34. A transmitter antenna radiates 251 W isotropically. A receiving antenna, located 100 m away from the transmitter antenna, has an effective aperture of 500 cm2. The total power received by the antenna is : (A) 10 W (B) 1 W (C) 20 W (D) 100 W

M.E. (Electronics & Communication Engg.)/BDU-22263-A 7 [Turn over ° 35. In a digital communication system employing Frequency Shift Keying (FSK), the 0 and 1 bit are represented by sine waves of 10 kHz and 25 kHz respectively. These waveforms will be orthogonal for a bit interval of : (A) 45 sec (B) 200 sec (C) 50 sec (D) 250 sec

36. The frequency range for satellite communication is : (A) 1 kHz to 100 kHz (B) 100 kHz to 10 kHz (C) 10 MHz to 30 MHz (D) 1 GHz to 30 GHz

37. A Hilbert transformer is a : (A) non-linear system (B) non-causal system (C) time-varying system (D) low pass system

38. In delta modulation, the slope overload distortion can be reduced by : (A) decreasing the step size (B) decreasing the granular noise (C) decreasing the sampling rate (D) increasing the step size

39. In a GSM system, 8 channels can co-exist in 200 kHz bandwidth using TDMA.  A GSM based cellular operator is allocated 5 MHz bandwidth. Assuming a frequency reuse factor of 1/5 i.e. a five-cell repeat pattern, the maximum number of simultaneous channels that can exist in one cell is : (A) 200 (B) 40 (C) 25 (D) 5

40. A rectangular waveguide has dimensions 1 cm × 0.5 cm. Its cut-off frequency is : (A) 5 GHz (B) 10 GHz (C) 15 GHz (D) 12 GHz

41. A transmission line is distortion less if : (A) RL = 1/GC (B) RL = GC (C) LG = RC (D) RG = LC

M.E. (Electronics & Communication Engg.)/BDU-22263-A 8 ° 42. The phase velocity of waves propagating in a hollow metal waveguide is : (A) greater than the velocity of light in free space (B) less than the velocity of light in free space (C) equal to the velocity of light in free space (D) equal to the group velocity

43. The VSWR can have any value between : (A) 0 and 1 (B) – 1 and + 1 (C) 0 and  (D) 1 and 

44. A medium wave radio transmitter operating at a wavelength of 492 m has a tower antenna of height 124 m. What is the radiation resistance of the antenna ? (A) 25  (B) 36.5  (C) 50  (D) 73 

45. The unit of  × H is : (A) ampere (B) ampere/meter (C) ampere/meter2 (D) ampere-meter

 46. The number of hardware interrupts (which require an external signal to interrupt) present in an 8085 microprocessor are : (A) 1 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 13

47. In the 8085 microprocessor, the RST 6 instruction transfers the program execution to the following location : (A) 30 H (B) 24 H (C) 48 H (D) 60 H

48. In the microprocessor, the service routine for a certain interrupts starts from a fixed location of memory which cannot be externally set, but the interrupt can be delayed or rejected. Such an interrupt is : (A) non-maskable and non-vectored (B) maskable and non-vectored (C) non-maskable and vectored (D) maskable and vectored

M.E. (Electronics & Communication Engg.)/BDU-22263-A 9 [Turn over ° 49. The eigen values of a skew-symmetric matrix are : (A) always zero (B) always pure imaginary (C) either zero or pure imaginary (D) always real

50. A fair coin is tossed independently four times. The probability of the event “the number of times heads show up is more than the number of times tails show up” is : (A) 1/16 (B) 1/8 (C) 1/4 (D) 5/16

51. A fair dice is tossed two times. The probability that the second toss results in a value that is higher than the first toss is : (A) 2/36 (B) 2/6 (C) 5/12 (D) 1/2

52. The Q point in voltage amplifier is selected in the middle of the active region because : (A) it gives a distortion less output (B) the operating point then becomes stable (C) the circuit then requires less number of resistors (D) it then requires a small dc voltage

53. The potential-divider method of biasing is used in amplifiers to : (A) limit the input ac signal going to the base (B) make the operating point almost independent of  (C) reduce the dc base current (D) reduce the cost of circuit

54. A transistor is operating in active region, under this condition : (A) both the junctions are forward-biased (B) both the junctions are reverse-biased (C) emitter-base junction is forward biased and collector base junction is forward biased (D) emitter-base junction is forward biased and collector base junction is reverse- biased

M.E. (Electronics & Communication Engg.)/BDU-22263-A 10 ° 55. The signal handling capacity of an amplifier is high if : (A) the operating point is selected near the cut-off region (B) the operating point is selected near the saturation region (C) the operating point is selected in the middle of the active region (D) an NPN transistor of similar characteristics is used instead of PNP one

56. In an amplifier the coupling capacitors are used : (A) to control the output (B) to limit the bandwidth (C) to match the impedances (D) to prevent dc mixing with input or output

57. If the power gain of an amplifier is X and its voltage gain is Y, then its current gain will be : (A) X/Y (B) Y/X (C) XY (D) X+Y

58. An amplifier circuit of voltage gain 100, gives 2V output. The value of input voltage is : (A) 200 V (B) 50 V (C) 20 mV (D) 2 mV

59. The main component responsible for the fall of gain of an RC coupled amplifier in low-frequency range is : (A) the active device itself

(B) stray shunt capacitance Cs

(D) the grid leak resistor RG

60. The overall gain of a two stage RC coupled amplifier is 100. A signal voltage of 10 V, 1 kHz is applied across the output terminals of this amplifier. Then, the voltage obtained across the input terminals will be : (A) 0.1 V, 1 kHz (B) 0 V (C) 100 V, 1 kHz (D) 10 V, 1 kHz

M.E. (Electronics & Communication Engg.)/BDU-22263-A 11 [Turn over ° 61. Harmonic distortion of the signal is produced in an RC coupled transistor amplifier. The probable component responsible for this distortion is :

(A) the transistor itself (B) the power supply VCC

62. The output power of a power amplifier is several times its input power. It is because : (A) the power amplifier introduces negative resistance (B) the power amplifier converts a part of the input dc power into ac output (C) positive feedback exists in the circuit (D) step-up transformer is used in the circuit

63. Heat sinks are used in power amplifier circuits : (A) to increase the output power (B) to reduce the heat losses in the transistor (C) to increase the voltage gain of the power amplifier (D) to increase the collector dissipation rating of the transistor

64. An amplifier of pass band 450 kHz to 460 kHz will be named as : (A) wide-band amplifier (B) audio frequency amplifier (C) tuned voltage amplifier (D) video amplifier

65. Tuned voltage amplifiers are not used : (A) in public-address system (B) radio receivers (C) where a band of frequencies is to be selected and amplified (D) in television receivers

66. For a series or parallel LC circuit, resonance occurs when :

(A) XL is ten times XC (B) XL is Q times XC

(C) XL is equal to XC (D) XC is ten times XL 67. The negative feedback in an amplifier : (A) reduces the voltage gain (B) increases the voltage gain (C) does not affect the voltage gain (D) can convert it into an oscillator if the amount of feedback is sufficient

M.E. (Electronics & Communication Engg.)/BDU-22263-A 12 ° 68. An emitter follower circuit is widely used in electronic instruments because : (A) its voltage gain is less than unity (B) its output impedance is high and input impedance is low (C) its output impedance is low and input impedance is high (D) its voltage gain is very high

69. The calibration signal, usually available from a CRO, is of the : (A) sine-wave voltage (B) square-wave voltage (C) sawtooth-wave voltage (D) dc voltage

70. Lissajous patterns obtained on a CRO can be used to determine : (A) phase shift (B) voltage amplitude (C) amplitude distortion (D) frequency shift

71. The time-base of an oscilloscope is developed by : (A) sine waveform (B) sawtooth waveform (C) square waveform (D) output from a built-in check

72. To prevent loading of a circuit under test, the input impedance of a CRO must be : (A) capacitive (B) inductive (C) high (D) low

73. The maximum frequency to be applied to a CRO is limited by : (A) The vertical amplifier (B) The horizontal amplifier (C) The SYNC signal frequency (D) Coating material of the screen

74. The attenuator in a signal generator is used to : (A) provide an external shunt across the output terminals (B) vary the output impedance (C) increase the frequency of the output voltage (D) vary the output voltage amplitude in steps

75. The transducer used in a strain gauge is : (A) an active transducer (B) a device that converts electrical voltage into mechanical displacement (C) a device that converts mechanical displacement into an electrical current (D) a device that converts mechanical displacement into a change in resistance

M.E. (Electronics & Communication Engg.)/BDU-22263-A 13 [Turn over ° ROUGH WORK

M.E. (Electronics & Communication Engg.)/BDU-22263-A 14 ° ROUGH WORK

M.E. (Electronics & Communication Engg.)/BDU-22263-A 15 [Turn 72over ° CET(PG)-2014 Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D Sr. No. : Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet. Roll No. In Figures In Words In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.

Signature of the Candidate : Subject : M.E. (Mechanical) Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75

DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO INSTRUCTIONS 1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided and nowhere else. 2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet. 4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so. 5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test. 6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question, darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases. 8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the Question Booklet. 9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble. 10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed. 11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used. 12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the candidate only. 13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty. 14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so would be expelled from the examination. 15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent / Observer whose decision shall be final. 16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculator is not allowed. M.E. (Mechanical)/BDU-22266-A 2 = M.E. (Mechanical)/A 1. A skew symmetric matrix cannot have the rank : (A) Zero (B) 1 (C) greater than 1 (D) –1

2. The integral  log x.dx has the value (A) xlogx–1 (B) log x–x (C) x(log x–1) (D) x2/logx

3. What is the probability of correctly choosing an unknown integer between 0 to 9 within three chances ? (A) 963/1000 (B) 973/1000 (C) 983/1000 (D) 993/1000

4. Using Newton-Raphson method, a root correct to three decimal places of the equation X2 – 3X – 5 = 0 (A) 2.275 (B) 2.279 (C) 2.222 (D) 2.001

5. For the differential equation dy/dx + 5y = 0 with y(0) = 1, the general solution is : (A) e (B) e–5t (C) 5e–5t (D) e5t

6. The angular momentum of a system is conserved if there are : (A) No forces present (B) No magnetic forces present (C) No net force on the system (D) No torque present

7. Ratio of moment of inertia of a circle and that of a square having same area about their centroidal axis is : (A) 3/ (B) 3/2 (C) 4/ (D) 5/

8. First law of thermodynamics is a measurement of : 1. Conservation of energy 2. It relates internal energy, work and heat 3. It gives idea about entropy Of these (A) Only 1 is correct (B) 1 and 2 are correct (C) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (D) Only 3 is correct

M.E. (Mechanical)/BDU-22266-A 3 [Turn over = 9. A stationary mass of gas is compressed without friction from an initial state of 0.3 m3 and 0.105 MPa to final state of 0.15 m3 and 0.105 MPa at constant pressure. There is a transfer of 37.6 kJ of heat from the gas during the process. How much does the internal energy of the gas change ? (A) Decreases by 21.85 kJ (B) Increases by 21.85 kJ (C) Decreases by 23.75 kJ (D) Increases by 23.75 kJ

10. For a reversible cycle : dQ dQ (A)  0 (B)  0  T  T dQ (C)  0 (D) Either (A) or (C)  T

11. Which one of the following statements is correct ? (A) Pressure and temperature are independent during phase change (B) An isothermal line is also a constant pressure line in the wet vapour region (C) Entropy decreases during evaporation (D) The term dryness fraction is used to specify the fraction by mass of liquid in a mixture of liquid and vapour

12. Consider the following statements with reference to gas turbine cycle : 1. Regeneration increases thermal efficiency 2. Reheating decreases thermal efficiency 3. Cycle efficiency increases when maximum temperature of the cycle increases Of these statements : (A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (B) 1 and 2 are correct (C) 2 and 3 are correct (D) 1 and 3 are correct

13. Keeping other parameters constant brake power of a diesel engine can be increased by : (A) decreasing the density of intake air (B) increasing the temperature of intake air (C) increasing the pressure of intake air (D) decreasing the pressure of intake air

14. For evaporators and condensers for the given conditions, the logarithmic mean temperature difference for parallel flow is : (A) equal to that for counter flow (B) greater than that for counter flow (C) smaller to that for counter flow (D) very much smaller than that for counter flow

M.E. (Mechanical)/BDU-22266-A 4 = 15. In radiative heat transfer, a gray surface is one which : (A) appears gray to the eye (B) has emissivity independent of wavelength (C) has reflectivity equal to zero (D) appears equally bright from all directions

hA 16. Addition of fin to the surface increases the heat transfer if is Kp (A) equal to one (B) greater than one (C) less than one (D) greater than one but less than two

17. The color of the flame of halide torch, in case of leakage of Freon refrigerant, will change to : (A) Bright green (B) Yellow (C) Red (D) Orange

18. A refrigerating machine working on reversed Carnot cycle consumes 6 kW to produce a refrigerating effect of 1000 kJ/min for maintaining a region at –40ºC. The highest temperature (in degree centigrade) of the cycle will be : (A) 317.88 (B) 23.88 (C) 40.88 (D) zero

19. The most commonly used method for the design of duct size is the : (A) Velocity reduction method (B) Equal friction method (C) Static regain method (D) Dual or double method

20. In some carburetors, meter rod and economizer device is used for : (A) Cold starting (B) Idling (C) Power enrichment (D) Acceleration

21. When a burnt out hermetic compressor is replaced by a new one, it is desirable to include in the system a large drier-cum-strainer also. This is to be placed in : (A) Liquid line (B) Suction line (C) Hot gas line (D) Discharge line

22. A good refrigerant should have : (A) Large latent heat of vaporization and low operating pressures (B) Small latent heat of vaporization and high operating pressures (C) Large latent of vaporization and large operating pressures (D) Small latent heat of vaporization and low operating pressures

M.E. (Mechanical)/BDU-22266-A 5 [Turn over = 23. Bernoulli equation is applicable between any two points : (A) If any rotational flow of an incompressible fluid (B) If any type of irrotational flow of a fluid (C) In steady rotational flow of an incompressible fluid (D) In steady irrotational flow of an incompressible fluid

24. If a stream function  exists, it implies that : (A) The function  represents a possible flow field (B) The flow is irrotational (C) The flow is steady, incompressible (D) The potential function also exists

25. In a 1/60 model of a spillway, the discharge was measured as 0.15 m3/s. The corresponding prototype discharge in m3/s is : (A) 4183 (B) 32400 (C) 2789 (D) 5400

26. An ideal fluid : (A) obeys the Newton’s law of viscosity (B) satisfies the relation pv = RT (C) has no viscosity (D) is both incompressible and non-viscous

27. The streamlines and the lines of constant velocity potential in an inviscid rotational flow field from : (A) Parallel grid lines placed in accordance with their magnitude (B) Intersecting grid net with arbitrary orientation (C) An orthogonal grid system (D) A chaotic grid system

28. When a cylinder rotates in a fluid :

(A) Only one stagnation point is possible (B) Always two stagnation points occur (C) No stagnation point is formed

(D) Either two or one stagnation point is formed depending upon the ratio of free stream and rotational velocity.

29. The sequent depths in a hydraulic jump formed in a horizontal rectangular channel are 0.2 m and 2.0 m. The length of the jump is about : (A) 50 m (B) 12 m (C) 8 m (D) 2 m M.E. (Mechanical)/BDU-22266-A 6 = 30. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer : List I (Water Turbine) List II (Application) X. Pelton 1. High head low discharge Y. Francis 2. High head high discharge Z. Kaplan 3. Medium head and medium discharge 4. Low head and high discharge

X Y Z (A) 1 3 2 (B) 1 3 4 (C) 2 4 3 (D) 3 2 4

31. Cavitation in a centrifugal pump is likely to occur at the : (A) Impeller exit (B) Impeller inlet (C) Diffuser exit (D) Involute casing

32. For a single stage impulse turbine with a rotor diameter of 2 m and a speed of 3000 rpm when the nozzle angle is 20º the optimum velocity of steam in m/s is : (A) 337 (B) 356 (C) 668 (D) 711

33. With reference to super saturated flow through a steam nozzle, which of the following statements are true ? 1. Steam is sub cooled 2. Mass flow rate is more than the equilibrium rate of flow 3. There is loss in availability 4. Index of expansion corresponds to wet steam conditions Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 4 (C) 1 and 2 (D) 2, 3 and 4

34. The number of fire tubes in Lancashire boiler are : (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

35. In high pressure water tube boilers, the tube bundles are : (A) Hung from top girders (B) Supported on brick walls (C) Bolted on steel structures (D) Firmly fixed on any structure

M.E. (Mechanical)/BDU-22266-A 7 [Turn over = 36. Match List I (Components) with List II (Functions) and select the correct answer : List I List II W. Steam trap 1. Controls steam flow rate X. Fusible plug 2. Controls rate of water flow to boiler Y. Blow-of cock 3. Puts off furnace fire when water level reaches unsafe limit Z. Feed check value 4. Removes mud and dirt collected at the bottom of boiler 5. Drains off water collected by partial condensation of steam in pipes

W X Y Z (A) 5 1 4 2 (B) 1 3 5 4 (C) 5 3 4 2 (D) 1 2 5 4

37. Partial admission steam turbine refers to the situation where the : (A) Steam is admitted partially into the blades through nozzles (B) Nozzles occupy the complete circumference leading into the blade annulus (C) Nozzles do not occupy the complete circumference leading into the blade annulus (D) Steam is admitted partially into the blades directly

38. Time in minutes for drilling a hole is given by : Depth of hole  h T  Feed  rpm Where h is the : (A) Length of the drill (B) Drill diameter (C) Flute length of drill (D) Cone height of drill

39. To reduce the consumption of synthetic resins, the ingredients added is : (A) Accelerator (B) Elastometer (C) Modifier (D) Filler

40. The rake angle in a drill : (A) Increases from centre to periphery (B) Decreases from centre to periphery (C) Remains constant (D) Is irrelevant to the drilling operation

M.E. (Mechanical)/BDU-22266-A 8 = 41. Which one of the following process is performed in powder metallurgy to promote self- lubricating properties in sintered parts ? (A) Infiltration (B) Impregnation (C) Plating (D) Graphitization

42. The forging defect due to hindrance to smooth flow of metal in the component called ‘Lap’ occurs because : (A) The corner radius provided is too large (B) The corner radius provided is too small (C) Draft is not provided (D) The shrinkage allowance is adequate

43. Carbonized machine components have high endurance limit because carburization : (A) Raises the yield point of the material (B) Produces a better surface finish (C) Introduces a compressive layer on the surface (D) Suppresses any stress concentration produced in the component

44. Among the conventional machining processes maximum specific energy is consumed in : (A) Turning (B) Drilling (C) Planing (D) Grinding

45. Preheating before welding is done to : (A) Make the steel softer (B) Bum away oil, grease etc. from the plate surface (C) Prevent cold cracks (D) Prevent plate distortion

46. Ideal surface roughness, as measured by the maximum height of unevenness is best achieved when the material is removed by : (A) An end mill (B) A grinding wheel (C) A tool with zero nose radius (D) A ball mill

47. A dynamometer is a device used for the measurement of : (A) Chip thickness ratio (B) Forces during metal cutting (C) Wear of tool (D) Deflection of cutting tool

M.E. (Mechanical)/BDU-22266-A 9 [Turn over = 48. For obtaining a cup of diameter 25 mm and height 15 mm by drawing, the size of round blank should be approximately : (A) 42 mm (B) 44 mm (C) 46 mm (D) 48 mm

49. Quartz is a : (A) Ferroelectric material (B) Ferromagnetic material (C) Piezoelectric material (D) Diamagnetic material

50. Which one of the following welding processes uses non-consumable electrode ? (A) TIG welding (B) MIG welding (C) Manual arc welding (D) Submerged arc welding

51. The end deflection to the cantilever with a couple acting at the end as shown in the figure is :

 M MI2 MI2 (A) (B) 2EI 8EI

2MI2 MI (C) (D) EI 4EI

52. A solid metal bar of uniform diameter D and length L is hung vertically from a ceiling. If the density of the material of the bar is and the modulus of elasticity is E, then the total elongation of the bar due to its own weight is :

L L2 (A) (B) 2E 2E

E E (C) (D) 2L 2L2

53. The principal stress at a point in an elastic material are 1.5  (tensile), and 0.5  (compressive). If the elastic limit in simple tension is 200 MPa and Poisson ratio is 0.3, then the value of failure would work out to be 100 MPa according to : (A) Maximum principal stress theory (B) Maximum shear stress theory (C) Shear strain energy theory (D) Maximum strain theory

M.E. (Mechanical)/BDU-22266-A 10 = 54. A simply supported beam of span L carries a concentrated load W at its midspan. If the width b of the beam is constant throughout the span, when the permissible bending stress is f, the beam’s midspan depth will be :

3WL 3WL (A) (B) 2bf 2bf

6WL 6WL (C) (D) bf bf

55. A rigid beam ABCD is hinged at D and supported by two springs at A and B as shown in the given figure. The beam carries a vertical load P at C. The stiffness of spring at A is 2 K and that of B is K. The ratio of forces of spring at A and B is :

a a a

A B D P

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

56. Simply supported beam is loaded as shown in the given figure. The B.M. at E would be :

2 kN-m 2 kN 4 kN 2 kN 2 kN-m

A B C E D

1 m 1 m 1 m 1 m

(A) 6 kN-m (sagging) (B) 6 kN-m (hogging) (C) 4 kN-m (hogging) (D) 4 kN-m (sagging)

M.E. (Mechanical)/BDU-22266-A 11 [Turn over = 57. In gears, interference takes place when : (A) The tip of a tooth of a mating gear digs into the portion between base and root circles (B) Gears do not move smoothly in the absence of lubrication (C) Pitch of the gear is not same (D) Gear teeth are undercut

58. The equation of free vibration of a system is X + 49 2 X = 0. Its natural frequency is : (A) 7 Hz (B) 3.5  Hz (C) 3.5 Hz (D) 7  Hz

59. If  is the actual coefficient of friction in a belt moving in a grooved pulley, the groove angle being 2 , the virtual coefficient of friction will be :   (A) sin  (B) cos  (C)  sin  (D)  cos 

60. The total number of instantaneous centers for a mechanism consisting of n links is : (A) n/2 (B) n (C) (n–1)/2 (D) n (n–1)/2

61. In the multi cylinder in-line engines, even number of cylinders is chosen so that : (A) Uniform firing order is obtained (B) Two couples are balanced (C) Primary forces are balanced (D) Secondary forces are balanced

62. There are six gears A, B, C, D, E and F in a compound train. The number of teeth in the gear is 20, 60, 30, 80, 25 and 75 respectively. The ratio of angular speed of the driven (F) to the driver (A) of the drive is : (A) 1/24 (B) 1/8 (C) 4/15 (D) 12

63. In reciprocating engine primary forces : (A) Are completely balanced (B) Are partially balanced (C) Are balanced by secondary forces (D) Cannot be balanced

64. Swaying couple results due to : (A) Primary disturbing force (B) Secondary disturbing force (C) Partial balancing (D) Use of two cylinders

M.E. (Mechanical)/BDU-22266-A 12 = 65. A shaft carrying three rotors will have number of nodes equal to : (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3

66. An open-coiled helical spring of mean diameter D, number of coils N and wire diameter d is subjected to an axial force P. The wire of the spring is subjected to : (A) Direct shear only (B) Combined shear and bending (C) Combined shear, bending and twisting (D) Combined shear and twisting only

67. Design of shafts made of brittle materials is based on : (A) Guest’s theory (B) Rankine’s theory (C) St. Venants theory (D) Von-Mises theory

68. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer :

List I (Name) List II (Type) W. Oldham coupling 1. Joins collinear shafts and is of rigid type X. Flange coupling 2. Joins non-collinear shaft and is adjustable Y. Universal coupling 3. Joins collinear shafts and engages and disengages them during motion Z. Friction coupling 4. Compensate spherical shafts, longitudinal and angular shifts of shafts

W X Y Z (A) 2 1 4 3 (B) 3 2 1 4 (C) 1 4 2 3 (D) 2 4 1 3

69. From the point of motion economy it is preferable to move : (A) Both hands in same direction (B) Right hand first and then left hand (C) Only one hand at a time (D) Both hands in opposite directions

M.E. (Mechanical)/BDU-22266-A 13 [Turn over = 70. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ? 1. Project scheduling—Critical path analysis 2. Batch production—Line of balance scheduling 3. Dispatching—Job order 4. Routing—Gantt chart Select the answer using the codes given below : (A) 1, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 4 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3

71. A company sells 14,000 units of its products. It has a variable cost of Rs. 15 per unit. Fixed cost is Rs. 47,000 and the required profit is Rs. 23,000. Per unit product price will be (in Rs.) : (A) 60 (B) 40 (C) 30 (D) 20

72. In inventory control theory, the economic order quantity (E.O.Q.) is : (A) Average level of inventory (B) Optimum lot size (C) Lot size corresponding to break-even analysis (D) Capacity of a warehouse

73. The cost of producing one more unit is referred to an : (A) Capacity planning (B) Extra cost (C) Opportunity cost (D) Marginal cost

74. Slack of various events at critical path will be : (A) Same as at end points (B) Increasing proportional to that at the end point (C) Decreasing proportional to that at the end point (D) Mean of values at end points

75. Killed steels : (A) Have minimum impurity level (B) Are produced by LD process (C) Have almost zero percentage of phosphorous and sulphur (D) Are free from oxygen

M.E. (Mechanical)/BDU-22266-A 14 = ROUGH WORK

M.E. (Mechanical)/BDU-22266-A 15 [Turn over = ROUGH WORK

M.E. (Mechanical)/BDU-22266-A 16 76 = CET(PG)-2014 Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D Sr. No. : Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet. Roll No. In Figures In Words In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.

Signature of the Candidate : Subject : M. E. F. B. (Master of Entrepreneurship and Family Business) Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75

M.E.F.B. (Master of Entrepreneurship and Family Business)/A 1. Silicon Valley of India is located in : (A) Dehradun (B) Bangalore (C) Hyderabad (D) Srinagar 2. Which day is the International Human Rights Day ? (A) 10th December (B) 24th October (C) 25th November (D) None of these 3. Indian has purchased Harpoon II Missiles from which of the following countries ? (A) Italy (B) China (C) France (D) USA 4. The term ' Black box' is more commonly used in relation to which of the following ? (A) It is a box in which high grade uranium is kept to prevent radiation (B) It is a time capsule in which records of improvement events are kept to be opened at a later date (C) It is a flight recorder in an aeroplane (D) None of these 5. Which of the following is the Trophy/ Cup associated with the game of Hockey ? (A) Agha Khan Cup (B) Durand (C) Vizzy Trophy (D) Rovers Cup 6. World Environment Day is on : (A) June 5 (B) June 11 (C) June 17 (D) June 30 7. In the normal human body, the total number of blood platelets per cubic mm is : (A) 2.5 lakh (B) 3.0 lakh (C) 3.5 lakh (D) 4.0 lakh 8. Most of the production of Natural Gas in India comes from : (A) Andhra Pradesh Coast (B) Gujarat Coast (C) Bombay High (D) Tamil Nadu Coast 9. In which year a resolution 'Uniting for peace' was adopted by UN General Assembly ? (A) 1950 (B) 1960 (C) 1965 (D) 1980

M.E.F.B. (Master of Entrepreneurship and Family Business)/BDU-22268-A 3 [Turn over  10. Who wrote the book ' Why Socialism' ? (A) Jayaprakash Narayan (B) Mahatma Gandhi (C) Acharya Narendra Dev (D) MN Roy 11. Communication satellites are used to : (A) Transmit communication signal only (B) Receive communication signal only (C) Receive and redirect communication signal (D) Provide information of natural resources only 12. Computer follows a simple principle called GIGO which means : (A) Garbage input good output (B) Garbage in garbage out (C) Greater instructions greater output (D) Good input good output 13. Indian Institute of Petroleum is located at : (A) Dehradun (B) Kolkata (C) Dhanbad (D) New Delhi 14. Who was the only Indian to be elected as President of the United Nations General Assembly ? (A) Vijayalakshmi Pandit (B) V.K. Krishna Menon (C) Jawaharlal Nehru (D) Rajeshwar Dayal 15. Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research, established in 1971, is located at : (A) Indore (B) Trombay, Maharashtra (C) Kalpakkam, Chennai (D) Kolkata Directions- (Q.16-17) Study the following information and answer the given question Point F is 10m to the south if E. Point G is 3m to the east of F. Point H is 5m to the south of G. Point I is 6m to the west of H. Point J is 10m to the north of I. Point K is 6 m to the east of J. Point L is 5m to the north of K. 16. Which of the following represents the direction of point G with respect of point J ? (A) South-east (B) North-west (C) South-west (D) South 17. How far and in which direction is point E from point L ? (A) 5 metres south (B) 3 metres east (C) 234 metres north (D) 3 metres west Directions- (Q.18–23) Study the following information and answer the given question A, B, C, D,E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular area at equal distances between each other, but not necessarily in the same order; some of the people are facing the centre, while some face outside (i.e., in a direction opposite to the centre).

M.E.F.B. (Master of Entrepreneurship and Family Business)/BDU-22268-A 4  B sits third to left of H. H faces the centre. F sits second to right of B. E sits second to left of D. D is neither an immediate neighbour of B nor H. Both the immediate neighbours of C face outside. A is not an immediate neighbour of H. Immediate neighbours of A face opposite directions 9oppositie. Directions means if one neighbour faces the centre then the other faces outside and vice-versa.Both the immediate neighbours of D face the same direction as F (i.e if F faces the centre then both the immediate neighbours of D also face the centre and vice-versa) A faces same direction as B (i.e, if A faces the centre then B also faces the centre and vice-versa). 18. How many people in the given arrangement face the centre ? (A) Three (B) One (C) Two (D) Four 19. Which of the following is true regarding G as per the given seating arrangement ? (A) C sits third to left of G (B) G does not face the centre (C) A sits to immediate right of G (D) B is one of the immediate neighbours of G 20. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ? (A) G (B) A (C) C (D) F 21. What is A's position with respect to H ? (A) Third to the left (B) Third to the right (C) Fourth to the right (D) Second to the left 22. Who is sitting to immediate right of E ? (A) H (B) G (C) C (D) F 23. Who amongst the following sits exactly between F and B ? (A) G (B) C (C) E (D) A 24. Find the odd one : (A) Cannon- ball (B) Sword (C) Bullet (D) Arrow 25. If 5 men earn Rs. 540 in 4 days; then earning of 7 men in 6 days is : (A) Rs.1440 (B) Rs.1134 (C) Rs.1270 (D) Rs.1468

M.E.F.B. (Master of Entrepreneurship and Family Business)/BDU-22268-A 5 [Turn over  26. The door of Aditya's house faces the East. From the back side of his house, he walks straight 50 metres, then turns to the right and walks 50 metres again. Finally, he turns towards left and stops after walking 25 metres. Now, Aditya is in which direction from the starting point ? (A) South-East (B) North-East (C) South-West (D) North-West 27. ZAJ, YBK, XCL, WEDM, '?' (A) VEN (B) VFM (C) VEM (D) VNO 28. Roshan is taller than Hardik who is shorter than Susheel. Niza is taller than Harry BUT SHORTER THAN Hardik. Susheel is shorter than Roshan. Who is the tallest ? (A) Roshan (B) Susheel (C) Hardik (D) Harry Directions : In the following questions (27-28) a series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. 29. EFA, GHC, IJE, ? (A) KDA (B) JKG (C) KLG (D) HIF 30. 13, 10, ?, 100, 1003, 1000, 10003 (A) 130 (B) 1030 (C) 1130 (D) 103 Directions (Q. 31-35) : Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below it. Average Production of Six Machines during the given years in thousands.

Year Machine I Machine II Machine III Machine IV Machine V Machine VI

2009 620 400 1020 2050 680 980

2008 680 400 1040 2070 670 1000

2007 640 403 1043 2130 680 1020

2006 700 399 1060 1908 690 1060

2005 706 397 1080 1603 685 1200

M.E.F.B. (Master of Entrepreneurship and Family Business)/BDU-22268-A 6  31. For which machine has there been increase in production from its previous year ? (A) No machine (B) III (C) IV (D) II 32. For which year and the machine has the production been highest for the given date ? (A) 2009, IV (B) 2008, IV (C) 2007, III (D) None of these 33. Which of the following can be concluded ? (A) As the machine becomes older the production goes down (B) The production goes down in the initial two or three years then it starts improving (C) All the fluctuations from one year to other are in the range of 100 (D) None of the above 34. Which machine has shown the least fluctuation in production ? (A) I (B) II (C) V (D) VI 35. How many machines has have production lower than 700 for all the given years ? (A) Nil (B) One (C) Two (D) Three Directions(Q. 36-40) The following table gives demand and supply of sugar, in million ton, for the period 2007 to 2012. Surplus is defined as excess of supply over demand Read the table and answer questions. Year Demand Supply 2007 43.3 46.4 2008 47.2 47.8 2009 49.5 50.7 2010 53.4 54.2 2011 54.5 57.3 2012 62.7 63.4

M.E.F.B. (Master of Entrepreneurship and Family Business)/BDU-22268-A 7 [Turn over  36. The percentage increase in demand of sugar was the lowest as compared to its previous year in : (A) 2009 (B) 2010 (C) 2011 (D) 2008 37. The average surplus (in million ton) of sugar for the period 2008 to 2012 is : (A) 1.53 (B) 1.22 (C) 1.44 (D) 1.84 38. In how many years, the supply (in million ton) sugar was more than the average supply for 2007 to 2012 ? (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 2 39. The surplus of sugar was lowest for the year : (A) 2009 (B) 2010 (C) 2012 (D) 2008 40. If the volumes of two right circular cones are in the ratio 1:3 and their diametres are in the ratio 3:5, then the ratio of their heights is : (A) 3:5 (B) 5:27 (C) 25:27 (D) 1:5 41. It costs Re. 1 to photocopy a sheet of paper. However, 2% discount is allowed on all photocopies done after first 1,000 sheets. How much will cost to photocopy 5000 sheets of paper ? (A) 4,920 (B) 3,920 (C) 4,900 (D) 3,980 42. A shopkeeper had stock worth Rs. 1,000 and Rs. 100 in cash in the morning. He gave Rs. 20 to his son and contributed Rs. 11 for Puja. At the end of the day, he found that he had stock of Rs. 750 and Rs. 450 in cash. What is his net revenue for the the day ? (A) Rs. 319 (B) Rs. 121 (C) Rs. 69 (D) Rs. 131 43. Which of the following sets has fractions in descending order ? (A) 17, 18, 14, 13 (B) 13, 17, 15, 14 19, 17, 16, 14 14, 19, 17, 16 (C) 17, 15, 13, 14 (D) 13, 14, 15, 17 19, 17, 14, 16 14, 16, 17, 19

M.E.F.B. (Master of Entrepreneurship and Family Business)/BDU-22268-A 8  44. Anita , Sandhya and Sheela had amounts in the ratio 3:4:5 respectively. Each of them got an additional amount of Rs.8,000 and so the ratio of the amounts became 4:5:6 respectively. What is the amount that Sheela had originally ? (A) Rs.24,000 (B) Rs.30,000 (C) Rs.40,000 (D) Rs.36,000 45. Shishir started a business investing certain amount. At the end of the year, he earned a profit of 30%. He invested the entire amount of profit for the next year alongwith the original investment and earned 20% profit for the next year. What is the percent profit earned in two years by Shishir as compared to his original investment ? (A) 56 (B) 45 (C) 48 (D) 52 46. RBI on Oct.29, 2013 made alteration in Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) . What is true regarding it ? (A) Raised from 8.5% to 8.75% (B) Raised from 8.25% to 8.5% (C) Reduced from 9.0% to 8.75% (D) Reduced from 9.0% to 8.75% 47. As on Oct. 29,2013, the repo rate stands at : (A) 8.0% (B) 7.75% (C) 7.5% (D) 7.25% 48. IX Ministerial Conference of WTO was held in ...... on December 3-6, 2013. (A) Bali, Indonesia (B) Johanesburg, South Africa (C) Geneva, Switzerland (D) Perth, Australia 49. For substitutes, cross elasticity of demand is : (A) Positive (B) Negative (C) Zero (D) Always less than one 50. Reservation wage means : (A) Fair wage at which workers are willing to work (B) Subsistence wage at which an individual is willing to work (C) Minimum wage at which an individual is willing to work (D) Maximum wage at which an individual is willing to work 51. Assertion (A) : Sunk costs are not relevant to economic decisions : Reason (R) : The opportunity cost of such resources is zero : Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct (C) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is incorrect explanation of (A) (D) (R) is correct, but (A) is incorrect

M.E.F.B. (Master of Entrepreneurship and Family Business)/BDU-22268-A 9 [Turn over  52. Select the correct statement out of the following : (A) Multilateral Trade Negotiations are a process of increasing tariffs to trade among member countries (B) Multilateral Trade Negotiations are a process of increasing non-tariffs barriers to trade (C) Multilateral Trade Negotiations are a process of increasing tariffs but decreasing non-tariff barriers to trade (D) Multilateral Trade Negotiations are a process of reducing tariffs and non-tariff barriers to trade among member countries GATT or WTO 53. Let the two regression lines be given as 3x = 10 + 5y and 4y = 5 + 15x. Then the correlation Coefficient between x and y is : (A) –0.40 (B) 0.40 (C) 0.89 (D) +1.05 54. Who had been appointed as 14th President of Finance Commission ? (A) YV Readdy (B) Arjit Patel (C) C Rangarajan (D) D Subharoa 55. The full form of GAAR is : (A) General Anti Avoidance Rules (B) General Atomic Avoidance Rules (C) General Alliances of Atomic Research (D) General Active Alliance Regeneration 56. The full form of UNAI is: (A) United Nations Academic Impact (B) United Nations Alliance Implementation (C) United Nations All Institution (D) United Nations for Academy Impact 57. Revealed preference theory was formulated by : (A) Paul Samuelson (B) Hicks (C) Keynes (D) B. Walker 58. Max Weber is associated with : (A) Theory of Scientific Management (B) Theory of Bureaucracy (C) Theory of Motivation (D) Principles of Management 59. The Behavioral theory describes : (A) How firms actually arrive at equilibrium rather than how they should (B) The role of customer satisfaction for a business. (C) The role of entrepreneur in the business and commercial world (D) The role of the manager and his objective of seeking self interest 60. The idea of functional foremanship is associated with : (A) Elton Mayo (B) F.W. Taylor (C) Harold Koontz (D) Henry Fayol

M.E.F.B. (Master of Entrepreneurship and Family Business)/BDU-22268-A 10  61. In case there is no relation between two variables, value of coefficient of correlation will be : (A) –2 (B) +1 (C) +2 (D) 0 62. In case, coefficient of correlation is negative , the curve representing the relation will be : (A) Vertical (B) Downward sloping (C) Upward sloping (D) Horizontal 63. Graph of variables having non-linear relation will be : (A) Curved (B) Hyperbola (C) Straight line (D) None of the above 64. Sales for the year Rs. 40,000, purchase Rs. 2,000, Expenses Rs. 5,000, Creditors at the start Rs, 10,000, Creditors at the end Rs. 15,000, Cash from operation will be : (A) Rs. 20,000 (B) Rs. 5,000 (C) Rs. 10,000 (D) Rs. 15,000 65. According to whom, "Management is what a manger does" ? (A) H. Fayol (B) Lousi Allen (C) S. Vauce (D) G. R. Terry 66. Which one of the following statements is incorrect ? (A) Fixed costs are not included in the valuation of stock under Marginal Costing (B) The technique of marginal costing is also known as variable costing (C) Contribution is also known as marginal income (D) Absorption costing is more suitable for decision taking than marginal costing 67. The concept of Small Scale Industries (SSIs) was brought to fore by the : (A) Industrial Policy Resolution, 1948 (B) Industrial Policy Resolution, 1956 (C) Industrial Policy Resolution, 1977 (D) None of the above 68. A consumer consuming two goods will be in equilibrium, when the marginal utilities from both goods are : (A) Maximum possible positive (B) Minimum possible positive (C) Equal (D) Zero 69. Who coined the expression 'Marketing Mix' ? (A) Henry Fayol (B) James Culliton (C) Peter Drucker (D) Abraham Maslow

M.E.F.B. (Master of Entrepreneurship and Family Business)/BDU-22268-A 11 [Turn over  70. Road blocking advertisement refers to : (A) Advertising a product by blocking the road (B) Creating big blocks for advertising a product (C) Advertising a product on multiple TV channels at the same time (D) None of the above 71. The Commercial Banks in India are governed by: (A) Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 (B) Indian Companies Act, 1956 (C) Indian Banking Regulation Act, 1949 (D) Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992 72. If the amount claimed by a consumer as compensation is Rs. 89 lacs, the case under the Consumer Protection Act shall be filed with : (A) District Consumer Redressal Forum (B) State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (C) National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (D) Supreme Court 73. The sales at which a firm would earn profit after tax @ 8% of sales, if fixed cost is Rs.45,000; selling price Rs. 50 per unit, variable cost Rs.30 per unit and tax rate 20 % : (A) Rs. 90,000 (B) Rs. 1,50,000 (C) Rs.1,68,000 (D) None of the above 74. Induction is an intergral part of : (A) Training (B) Selection (C) Recruitment (D) None of the above 75. In terms of Blake Mouon's managerial grid approach, a production oriented leader will be one who adopts : (A) 1.1 style (B) 9.1 style (C) 9.9 style (D) 5.5 style

M.E.F.B. (Master of Entrepreneurship and Family Business)/BDU-22268-A 12  Rough Work

M.E.F.B. (Master of Entrepreneurship and Family Business)/BDU-22268-A 13 [Turn over  Rough Work

M.E.F.B. (Master of Entrepreneurship and Family Business)/BDU-22268-A 14  Rough Work

M.E.F.B. (Master of Entrepreneurship and Family Business)/BDU-22268-A 15 60  CET(PG)-2014 Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D Sr. No. : Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet. Roll No. In Figures In Words In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.

Signature of the Candidate : Subject : M.P. Ed. (Master of Physical Education) Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75

DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO INSTRUCTIONS 1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided and nowhere else. 2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet. 4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so. 5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test. 6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question, darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases. 8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the Question Booklet. 9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble. 10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed. 11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used. 12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the candidate only. 13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty. 14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from the examination. 15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent / Observer whose decision shall be final. 16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculator is not allowed. M.P. Ed. (Master of Physical Education)/BDU-22272-A 2 M.P. Ed. (Master of Physical Education)/A 1. Sports and Physical Education are best learnt by : (A) Thinking (B) Watching (C) Performing (D) Competing

2. The number of chromosomes in a human cell : (A) 46 (B) 26 (C) 36 (D) 56

3. The amount of blood pumped from the heart with each beat is called : (A) Cardiac output (B) Vital capacity

4. The percentage of water in human body is : (A) 40% (B) 50% (C) 60% (D) 70%

5. Which of the following games does not resemble the other three in format ? (A) Kabaddi (B) Archery (C) Kho-Kho (D) Cricket

6. Which edition of Asian Games held at Guangzhou in 2010 ? (A) XVI (B) XVII (C) XXI (D) XIV

7. Who won Women’s Single Australian Open 2014 ? (A) Li Na (B) Sara Eraani (C) Roberta Vinci (D) Elena Vesnina

8. What was the slogan of Commonwealth Games of 2010 held at Delhi ? (A) Come out and play (B) Run together and play (C) One World, one dream (D) One God, one theme

9. The lower of centre of gravity in women makes their movements : (A) Speedier (B) More stable (C) Very unstable (D) Slower

M.P. Ed. (Master of Physical Education)/BDU-22272-A 3 [Turn over 10. The amount of blood a health human contains is : (A) 6 litres (B) 7 litres (C) 8 litres (D) 10 litres

11. Who carried the National Flag during the opening ceremony of London Olympics ? (A) Anju Bobby George (B) Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore (C) Sushil Kumar (D) Sania Mirza

12. Osteology is the study of : (A) Muscles (B) Bones (C) Joints (D) Nerves

13. During adolescence, the behaviour of a person is influenced by : (A) Family (B) Peer Group (C) School (D) Society

15. The main purpose of circuit training is to improve : (A) Speed (B) Dynamic strength (C) Flexibility (D) Strength endurance

16. In a hurdle race, how many hurdles can an athlete knock down while running the race ? (A) Two (B) Five (C) None (D) All

17. Fatigue in sports is due to : (A) Formation of lactic acid (B) Lack of physical activity (C) Having a mental tension (D) Improper playing surface

18. Deficiency of ‘Vitamin D’ causes : (A) Beri Beri (B) Scurvy (C) Rickets (D) Night Blindness

M.P. Ed. (Master of Physical Education)/BDU-22272-A 4 19. Which of the following is not an organ of the respiratory system ? (A) Diaphragm (B) Larynx (C) Pharynx (D) Bronchi

20. With which of the following games is the Durand Cup associated ? (A) Badminton (B) Handball (C) Football (D) Basketball

21. Which tissues help more in learning swimming ? (A) Epithelial (B) Connective (C) Adipose (D) Nervous tissue

23. “The state of complete physical, mental, social well-being and not merely the absence of disease and infirmity” is given by : (A) CRY (B) UNICEF (C) WHO (D) UNESCO

24. Which one of the following is a muscle protein ? (A) Hemoglobin (B) Myoglobin (C) Myosin (D) Calcium

25. Psycho-Analytic theory initiated by : (A) Thorndike (B) Plato (C) Freud (D) Clarke & Clarke

26. Who is the father of Gymnastics ? (A) Koch (B) Johan Simon (C) Guts Muths (D) Ludwig John

27. The playing court of which of the following games is laid East to West direction ? (A) Kabaddi (B) Volleyball (C) Kho-Kho (D) Atya Patya

M.P. Ed. (Master of Physical Education)/BDU-22272-A 5 [Turn over 28. The theory of Insight learning was propounded by : (A) Tollman (B) Smith (C) Bartlet (D) Kohler

29. The type of the wind velocity, which is beneficial for the throwing event, is : (A) Tail wind (B) Head wind (C) Both head and tail wind (D) Second wind

30. The exact distance to be run by an athlete in a Marathon Race is : (A) 10,000 m (B) 21.195 m (C) 42.195 km (D) 42.295 km

31. The length of baton-exchange zone in all relay races shall be : (A) 24 m (B) 20 m (C) 22 m (D) 18 m

32. The average life of Red Blood Cells is : (A) 100 days (B) 220 days (C) 120 days (D) 200 days

33. The number of cervical vertebrae in the human skeleton is : (A) 7 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 3

34. Ergometer is an instrument used for measuring : (A) Brain’s alpha rhythm (B) Lung capacity (C) Amount of oxygen used during work (D) Cardiac output

35. The major function of the ligaments in the body is to : (A) Keep the body straight (B) Hold the bones together at the joints (C) Help the individual move fast (D) Give strength to the skeleton

36. Exercise done in the presence of oxygen is called : (A) Aerobic (B) Anaerobic (C) Isometric (D) Isotonic

M.P. Ed. (Master of Physical Education)/BDU-22272-A 6 37. The irregular bones are found in : (A) Chest (B) Cheeks (C) Legs (D) Arms

38. The Aorta carries blood away from : (A) Right ventricle (B) Right auricle (C) Left ventricle (D) Left auricle

39. Insulin is secreted by : (A) Spleen (B) Thyroid glands (C) Pancreas (D) Liver

40. To break tie in Discus throw : (A) One additional trial is given (B) Average of all trials is taken (C) Last attempt is considered (D) Second best performance is considered

41. Width of the lane in track is : (A) 1.22 m (B) 1.22 – 1.25 m (C) 1.22  1 cm (D) 1.22  2 cm

42. The store house of energy in human body is : (A) Glands (B) Cells (C) Nerves (D) Spinal cord

43. The term ‘Cagers’ stands for : (A) Boxers (B) Basketballers (C) Throwers (D) Footballers

44. Absorption of water takes place in : (A) Stomach (B) Kidney (C) Small intestine (D) Large intestine

45. The Pugilists are : (A) Boxers (B) Rock Climbers (C) Wrestlers (D) Judokas

M.P. Ed. (Master of Physical Education)/BDU-22272-A 7 [Turn over 46. 2016 summer Olympics will be held at : (A) Mexico city (B) Chicago (C) London (D) Rio De Janeiro

47. Biggest Artery in the human body is : (A) Femoral artery (B) Aorta (C) Internal carotid artery (D) Facial artery

48. Human movement is caused when : (A) All the muscle groups involved are relaxed (B) All the muscle groups involved are contracted (C) Some of the muscles relax while the other contract (D) None of the muscle contract or relax

49. In a single league fixture of eight teams, the total number of matches to be played shall be : (A) Fifteen (B) Thirty (C) Fifty six (D) Twenty eight

50. Hamstring muscle : (A) Extends knee (B) Flexes knee (C) Extends elbow (D) Flexes elbow

51. Concurrent feedback is provided to the learner : (A) After the activity (B) During the activity (C) Before the activity (D) Any time

52. The store house of glycogen (to be used as glucose) in the body is : (A) Liver (B) Pancreas (C) Spleen (D) Kidneys

53. ‘Cybex’ machine is based on the principle of : (A) Isometric contraction (B) Isotonic contraction (C) Isokinetic contraction (D) Concentric contraction

54. Who invented circuit training ? (A) Aristotle (B) Morgan and Adamson (C) Herbert Spencer (D) C.A. Bucher

M.P. Ed. (Master of Physical Education)/BDU-22272-A 8 55. The number of water jumps in the steeple chase are : (A) Five (B) Six (C) Seven (D) Eight

56. Plyometrics is also called : (A) Reflex phenomena (B) Reactive jumps (C) Agility training (D) Flexibility training

58. An efficient coach is he who ? (A) Tells (B) Tells and demonstrate (C) Tells, demonstrate and explains (D) Tells, demonstrate, explains and inspires

59. Number of flights in 110 m (Hurdle) race are : (A) 8 (B) 9 (C) 10 (D) 11

60. Highest point in Judo is : (A) Koka (B) Ippon (C) Wazari (D) Yuko

61. How many features are there in a shuttle cock ? (A) 14 to 16 (B) 15 to 17 (C) 17 to 19 (D) 21 to 24

62. ‘Round Robin’ is a name given to : (A) Elimination tournament (B) League tournament (C) Consolation tournament (D) Challenge tournament

63. The appropriate formula for working out the number of matches to be played in a single league tournament is : N 1 N(N 1) (A) (B) 2 2

2N(N 1) N(N 1) (C) (D) 2 2

M.P. Ed. (Master of Physical Education)/BDU-22272-A 9 [Turn over 64. The final event in ‘Decathlon’ is : (A) Javelin throw (B) 1500 meter race (C) 110 meter Hurdles (D) 800 meter race

65. ‘Ranga Swami Cup’ is associated with the game of : (A) Hockey (B) Football (C) Basketball (D) Volleyball

66. The most crucial skills needed in the management of physical education and sports are : (A) Motor skills (B) Communication skills (C) Teaching skills (D) Technical skills

67. The first woman Asian Gold medalist in athletics is : (A) M.D. Valasamma (B) Rosa Kutti (C) Kamaljeet Sandhu (D) P.T. Usha

68. The imitation method of teaching is best suited to teaching : (A) Adolescents (B) Children (C) Adults (D) Women

69. Who invented the game of basketball ? (A) James N. Smith (B) W.A. Morgan (C) C.A. Bucher (D) Orbeteuffer

70. Blood gets de-oxygenated in : (A) Muscles (B) Nerves (C) Lungs (D) Heart

71. Olympia city is situated in which country of the world ? (A) Greece (B) Germany (C) Italy (D) China

72. What is the slogan of 2014 Football World Cup ? (A) All in one rhythm (B) All in same rhyme (C) All are one (D) All are different

M.P. Ed. (Master of Physical Education)/BDU-22272-A 10 73. When was the National Discipline Scheme founded by General J.K. Bhonsle ? (A) 30 January, 1952 (B) 26 January, 1956 (C) 26 July, 1954 (D) 1 April, 1957

74. Complete the series 30 : 42 : : 56 : _____ ? (A) 92 (B) 21 (C) 38 (D) 72

75. The curriculum of physical education must be : (A) Activity-centered (B) Research-centered (C) Child-centered (D) Ideal-centered

M.P. Ed. (Master of Physical Education)/BDU-22272-A 11 [Turn over ROUGH WORK

M.P. Ed. (Master of Physical Education)/BDU-22272-A 12 57 CET(PG)-2014 Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D Sr. No. : Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet. Roll No. In Figures In Words In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.

Signature of the Candidate : Subject : M.Sc. (Hons. School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75

1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of prokaryotes ? (A) DNA (B) Cell membrane (C) Cell wall (D) Endoplasmic reticulum

2. Ribosomes are made up of ...... subunits. (A) 0, they are whole (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

3. Plants differ from animals in that plants have : (A) An endoplasmic reticulum (B) A central vacuole (C) Golgi complexes (D) Vesicles

4. Passage through pores in nuclear envelope is restricted primarily to : (A) Proteins, RNA and protein RNA complexes (B) Lipids and glycolipids (C) DNA and RNA (D) RNA and protein carbohydrate complexes

5. Proteins synthesized by the rough ER are : (A) For internal storage (B) To build more membranes in the cell (C) To digest food in lysosomes (D) Exported from the cell

6. Within chloroplast, light is captured by : (A) Grana within cisternae (B) Thylakoids within grana (C) Cisternae within grana (D) Grana within thylakoids

7. Clusters of rRNA where ribosomes are assembled are called : (A) Nuclei (B) Cisternae (C) Nucleoli (D) Golgi complexes

8. Assuming all other factors to be the same, electron microscope have greater resolving power than light microscope because : (A) The wavelength of electrons is much longer than the wavelength of visible light (B) Electron microscopes have more lenses (C) Because the beams in electron microscopes overlap creating clearer picture (D) The wavelengths in visible light are longer than with electrons

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology/BDU-22286-A (3) [Turn over 9. The cytoskeleton includes all of the following except : (A) Microtubules (B) Intermediate filaments (C) Myosin filaments (D) Actin filaments

10. Protein glycosylation occurs in : (A) Lumen of mitochondria (B) Lumen of rough ER (C) Lumen of smooth ER (D) Lumen of lysosomes

11. Adjacent amino acids are joined by a : (A) Ionic bond (B) Hydrogen bond (C) Phosphodiester bond (D) Peptide bond

12. Growth hormone producing apical dominance is : (A) Auxin (B) Cytokinin (C) GA (D) Ethylene

13. Ecotype is a type of species in which environmentally induced variations are : (A) Temporary (B) Genetically fixed (C) Genetically not related (D) Variations

14. Species that occur in different geographical regions separated by special barrier are : (A) Allopatric (B) Sympatric (C) Siblings (D) Offsprings

15. Sigma factor is a component of : (A) DNA ligase (B) DNA polymerase (C) RNA polymerase (D) Endonuclease

16. The DNA chain acting as template for RNA synthesis has the following order of bases, AGCTTCGA. What will be the order of bases in mRNA ? (A) TCGAAGCT (B) UGCUAGCT (C) TCGAUCGU (D) UCGAAGCU

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology/BDU-22286-A (4) 17. Tetracycline blocks protein synthesis by : (A) Inhibiting binding of aminoacyl tRNA to ribosome (B) Inhibiting initiation of translation (C) Inhibiting peptidyl transferase (D) Inhibiting translocase enzyme

18. In prokaryotes, the ribosomal binding site on mRNA is called : (A) Hogness sequence (B) Shine-dalgarno sequence (C) Pribnow sequence (D) TATA box

19. Conversion of fats into sugars in plant occurs in : (A) Golgi-bodies (B) Peroxisomes (C) Glyoxisomes (D) Lysosomes

20. Mitochondria are believed to be descendents of : (A) Early aerobic bacteria (B) Early anaerobic bacteria (C) Early aerobic cyanobacteria (D) Early anaerobic cyanobacteria

21. In water molecule, the two hydrogen atoms are joined to oxygen atom by covalent bonds forming an angle of : (A) 100º (B) 105º (C) 110º (D) 115º

22. Which of the following elements are not called as macronutrients ? (A) C.H.O (B) N. P. K (C) Ca. S. Mg (D) Fe. Zn. Mo

23. Nitrogen fixation is the process of conversion of atmospheric nitrogen into : (A) Nitrates (B) Nitrites (C) Ammonia (D) Inorganic nitrogenous compounds

24. Combination of a purine or pyrimidine base with pentose sugar is known as : (A) Nucleotide (B) Nucleoside (C) Nucleic acid (D) Nucleus

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology/BDU-22286-A (5) [Turn over 25. The word enzyme was coined by : (A) FW Kuhne (B) Louis Pasteur (C) Traube (D) Willstatter

26. Accessory or antenna pigments absorb and transfer light energy to : (A) Chlorophyll b (B) Chlorophyll c (C) Chlorophyll a (D) Pheophytin

27. Which of the following has more energy per photon of light ? (A) Red light (B) Blue light (C) UV light (D) Infra-red light

28. Main credit for investigating the sequence of dark reaction of photosynthesis goes to : (A) Ruben and Kamen (B) Melvin Calvin (C) AA Benson (D) J Kreb

29. Auxins are synthesized mainly in : (A) Roots (B) Shoots (C) Meristematic regions of the plant (D) Leaves

30. According to the Beer-Lambert law, on which of the following does absorbance not depend ? (A) Distance that the light has travelled through the sample (B) Extinction coefficient of the sample (C) Solution concentration (D) Colour of the solution

31. Infrared spectroscopy provides valuable information about : (A) Molecular wt. (B) Melting point (C) Conjugation (D) Functional groups

32. The correct order for the basic features of a mass spectrometer is : (A) Acceleration, deflection, detection, ionisation (B) Ionisation, acceleration, deflection, detection (C) Acceleration, ionisation, deflection, detection (D) Acceleration, deflection, ionisation, detection

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology/BDU-22286-A (6) 33. To work out the molecular mass of an organic molecule you would look at its : (A) Infrared spectrum (B) Mass spectrum (C) Proton nmr spectrum (D) Boiling point

34. The enzyme reverse transcriptase enables us to produce : (A) Restriction endonucleases (B) cDNA molecules (C) Blunt end restriction fragments (D) mRNA molecule

35. Oligonucleotide probes are defined as : (A) The piece of DNA produced by restriction endonucleases (B) An enzymes that recognize and subsequently degrade foreign DNA (C) A short stretch of DNA of a known sequence that will base pair with a complementary sequence (D) A piece of DNA to which new nucleotide are added during DNA sequencing

36. The rate of migration of DNA within an agarose gel in the gel electrophoresis technique is primarily based on : (A) The size of the DNA fragments (B) The number of DNA fragments (C) The size of the wells in the gel (D) The volume of DNA sample loaded

37. In the Sanger method of DNA sequencing, what causes the termination of chain elongation ? (A) The incorporation of regular DNA nucleotide (B) The incorporation of a dideoxynucleotide (C) Denaturation of the double stranded test fragments (D) When DNA polymerase encounters a stop codon

38. Which of the following statements regarding the polymerase chain reaction is untrue ? (A) It can increase the amount of DNA in a sample (B) It has the potential of diagnosing an infection (C) It utilizes DNA polymerase from psychrophilic organism (D) It essentially mimics DNA replication as it occurs naturally

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology/BDU-22286-A (7) [Turn over 39. Good cloning vector must possess all but which of the following qualities ? (A) They should possess origin of replication (B) They should be easily accepted by the cloning host (C) They should be capable of carrying a significant piece of donor DNA (D) They should be resistant to restriction endonucleases

40. Why the environmental protection agency closely monitor the release of transgenic organisms used for agricultural purposes ? (A) They want to monitor the destruction of crops by GMOs. (B) They want to ensure the GMOs do not proliferate in the environment and pose threat to humans. (C) They want people to understand how food product is manufactured. (D) They want to ensure that people are aware that GMOs may have played a role in the production of a particular food product.

41. Why are DNA polymerases from thermophilic organisms used in the PCR ? (A) Because they are required to keep the two strands separated (B) Because they cannot add new nucleotides at low temperatures (C) Because they are easier to isolate than psychrophilic DNA polymerase (D) Because the priming and extension steps must be carried out at high temperatures to prevent the single strands from reannealing

42. In what type of gene therapy are genes inserted into an egg, sperm or early embryo ? (A) Ex vivo therapy (B) Germline therapy (C) Antisense therapy (D) Triplex DNA therapy

43. What type of genome map is the most ideal for understanding the nature of genes, what they code for and their functions ? (A) Linkage maps (B) Physical maps (C) Sequence maps (D) Fingerprint maps

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology/BDU-22286-A (8) 44. The analysis and storage of the massive amount of data generated from sequence maps has led to the growth of what new disciplines ? (A) Immunology and virology (B) Bioinformatics and medical microbiology (C) Genomics and genetic engineering (D) Genomics and bioinformatics

45. Which of the following statements regarding the findings of the human genome project is incorrect ? (A) Humans share approximately 80% of their DNA sequences with mice (B) Genetic screening of families for inheritable diseases may become possible (C) 97% of the human genome is made up of support DNA that functions in chromosome stabilizing and division, gene regulation and ribosome assembly (D) Human chromosomes are capable of walking

46. The creation of DNA fingerprint involves all but which of the following techniques ? (A) Southern blotting (B) Western blotting (C) PCR (D) Use of restriction endonucleases

47. Microarray analysis has allowed us to view : (A) The genome sequence in a cell (B) The number of genes in a cell (C) The expression of specific genes in a cell (D) The cDNAs of a cell

48. Expression vector differ from a cloning vector in having : (A) An origin of replication (B) Suitable marker gene (C) Unique restriction sites (D) Control elements

49. In pBR322, pBR stands for : (A) Plasmid bacterial replication (B) Plasmid bacterial recombination (C) Plasmid Boliver and Rodriguez (D) Plasmid Baltimore and Rodriguez

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology/BDU-22286-A (9) [Turn over 50. Cosmid is a plasmid with : (A) A minimum of 250 bp of lambda DNA that includes cos sites (B) A minimum of 250 bp of M 13 DNA that includes cos sites (C) A minimum of 100 bp of lamda DNA that includes cos sites (D) A minimum of 250 bp of T4 phage DNA that includes cos sites

51. Vectors designed to replicate in cells of two different species are called : (A) Phasmids (B) Transfer vectors (C) Shuttle vectors (D) Phagemids

52. Chromosome walking is a technique used to : (A) Move chromosomes around the nucleus (B) Move a fragment of chromosomal DNA from one area of a chromosome to another (C) Recombination between chromosomal DNA of two different species (D) A method used to locate a gene using a set of clones from a DNA library

53. Micropropagation is a technique : (A) For production of true to type plants (B) For production of haploid plants (C) For production of somatic hybrids (D) For production of somaclonal plants

54. Meristem culture is practised in horticulture to get : (A) Slow growing callus (B) Somaclonal variations (C) Haploids plants (D) Virus free plants

55. Which one of the following is also called Sewall Wright Effect ? (A) Gene pool (B) Gene Flow (C) Genetic drift (D) Isolation

56. When two species of different genealogy come to resemble each other as a result of adaptation, the phenomenon is termed : (A) Microevolution (B) Divergent evolution (C) Convergent evolution (D) Co-evolution

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology/BDU-22286-A (10) 57. Removal of RNA polymerase III from nucleoplasm will affect the synthesis of : (A) mRNA (B) rRNA (C) tRNA (D) hnRNA

58. A gene of operon which synthesize a repressor protein is : (A) Promoter gene (B) Regulator gene (C) Operator gene (D) Structural gene

59. If two pea plants having red (dominant) coloured flowers with unknown genotypes are crossed, 75% of the flowers are red and 25% are white. The genotypic constitution of the parents having red coloured flowers will be : (A) Both heterozygous (B) One homozygous and other heterozygous (C) Both homozygous (D) Both hemizygous

60. A character which is expressed in a hybrid is called : (A) Dominant (B) Recessive (C) Co-dominant (D) Epistatic

61. Genes for cytoplasmic male sterility in plants are generally located in : (A) Nuclear genome (B) Chloroplast genome (C) Mitochondrial genome (D) Cytosol

62. According to lac operon concept, which functional unit of the bacterial gene material is responsible for suppressing the activity of the operator gene in the absence of lactose : (A) Promoter gene (B) Repressor protein (C) Regulator gene (D) Structural gene

63. DNA has equal number of adenine and thymine residues (A = T) and equal number of guanine and cytosine (G = C). These relationships are known as : (A) Chargaff’s rule (B) Coulomb’s law (C) Le-Chatelier’s principle (D) Van’t Hoff plot

64. Darwin judged the fitness of an individual by : (A) Ability to defend itself (B) Strategy to obtain food (C) Number of offspring (D) Dominance over other individuals

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology/BDU-22286-A (11) [Turn over 65. Which of these statements about the European patent convention is true ? (A) It provides for a single patent covering all member states (B) It is an EU treaty (C) It sets up the European patent office, which deals with the granting and enforcement of European patents (D) It harmonises the patent laws of the member states

66. To apply for a patent, an inventor must : (A) File an application at a patent office which must comply with formal and technical requirements (B) Draft the full specification of the patent they seek, which cannot be later amended (C) Demonstrate that their invention works. (D) State the date on which the invention was first reduced to practise

67. An international application under the patent co-operation treaty : (A) Is examined by a patent examiner at a designated office (B) Is searched against by a single search conducted at a designated office (C) Results in a single patent covering all the states for which protection is sought (D) Is forwarded to the patent offices of all the states for which protection is sought for search and examination

68. What is the term of a patent ? (A) 15 years (B) 20 years (C) 25 years (D) Unlimited term

69. A researcher who had determined the sequence of a previously unknown gene would submit the sequence to : (A) A primary database (B) BLAST (C) A genome browser (D) A metadatabase

70. Which of the following is not a type of copyright work ? (A) Literary work (B) Furniture (C) Sculpture (D) Musical work

71. The discovery of transposons showed that genetic information...... ? (A) Is not fixed in the genome (B) Can be altered (C) Is passes from one generation to another (D) Can be transferred between species

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology/BDU-22286-A (12) 72. The ames test assays whether or not a compound causes : (A) Chromosome mutations (B) Gene mutations (C) DNA repair (D) Crossing over

73. NMR is based on : (A) Nuclear fission (B) Charge of nucleus (C) Magnetically moment of the nucleus (D) Electrical moment of the nucleus

74. Radioactive substance emits the following rays except : (A) Gamma (B) Beta (C) Alpha (D) X-rays

75. Instrument used to measure optical activity is : (A) Spectrophotometer (B) Polarimeter (C) Calorimeter (D) Infantometer

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology/BDU-22286-A (13) [Turn over ROUGH WORK

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology/BDU-22286-A (14) ROUGH WORK

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology/BDU-22286-A (15) [Turn111 over CET(PG)-2014 Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D Sr. No. : Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet. Roll No. In Figures In Words In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.

Signature of the Candidate : Subject : M.Sc. (Environment Science) Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75

DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO INSTRUCTIONS 1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided and nowhere else. 2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet. 4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so. 5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test. 6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question, darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases. 8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the Question Booklet. 9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble. 10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed. 11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used. 12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the candidate only. 13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty. 14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from the examination. 15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent / Observer whose decision shall be final. 16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculator is not allowed. M.Sc. (Environment Science)/BDU-22281-A 2 + M.Sc. (Environment Science)/A 1. Which of the following is a disaccharide ? (A) Glycogen (B) Sucrose (C) Ribose (D) Mannose

2. Cell wall is made of chitin in ______. (A) Bacteria (B) Algae (C) Fungi (D) Higher plants

3. Sulphur is present in which of the following amino acid ? (A) Glycine (B) Alanine (C) Cysteine (D) Histidine

4. Which of the following polysaccharide has -1, 4 linkage ? (A) Chitin (B) Starch (C) Cellulose (D) Murein

5. c-Phycocyanin pigment is present in _____ algae. (A) Green (B) Brown (C) Red (D) Blue-green algae

6. Potato is a modified _____. (A) Leaf (B) Stem (C) Root (D) Fruit

8. Which of the following is present in chlorophyll ? (A) Mn (B) Fe (C) Co (D) Mg

9. Allometric growth involves _____. (A) No change in shape or size (B) Change in both shape and size (C) Change in shape only (D) Change in size only

M.Sc. (Environment Science)/BDU-22281-A 3 [Turn over + 10. Mendel was a ______. (A) Monk (B) Teacher (C) Farmer (D) Labourer

11. Speciation that occurs due to geographical barrier is known as ______speciation. (A) Parallel (B) Cline (C) Allopatric (D) Sympatric

12. A type of selection that eliminates extremes from the population is ______selection. (A) Directional (B) Disruptive (C) Special (D) Stabilizing

13. Which of the following was the first used antiseptic ? (A) Taxol (B) Sodium Hypochlorite (C) Carbolic acid (D) Glycyrrhizin

14. Narrowing of artery is : (A) Angina (B) Stroke (C) Atherosclerosis (D) Emphysema

15. The specialization of homologus organs to perform variety of functions is : (A) Parallel evolution (B) Natural selection (C) Adaptive radiation (D) Convergent evolution

16. Drugs that suppress anxiety and relax muscles are ______. (A) Stimulants (B) Sedatives (C) Tranquilizers (D) Depressants

17. Anabolic steroids are artificial version of which of the following hormone ? (A) Adrenalin (B) Testosterone (C) Progesterone (D) Insulin

18. Which of the following is not a narcotic ? (A) Codeine (B) Heroine (C) Opium (D) Caffeine

M.Sc. (Environment Science)/BDU-22281-A 4 + 19. The stage after fermentation in which desired product is screened and purified is ______. (A) Scaling (B) Fermentation (C) Downstream processing (D) Batch culture

20. A type of fermentation in which conditions are not changed from outside is known as ______. (A) Downstream (B) Batch (C) Open (D) Continuous

21. The groundwater that occurs within the unsaturated zone is termed as ______. (A) Connate water (B) Meteorite water (C) Vadose water (D) Plutonic water

22. The remote sensing satellite records data from the ground objects at a height of approximately ______. (A) 900 km (B) 400 km (C) 100 km (D) 20 km

23. Long-range weather forecast is generally based on which of the following methods ? (A) Numerical (B) Statistical (C) Synoptic (D) Deterministic

24. Which of the following is not an in situ method of biodiversity conservation ? (A) Biosphere reserves (B) National parks (C) Germplasm banks (D) Wildlife sanctuaries

25. World Earth Day is celebrated on ______. (A) March 23 (B) June 5 (C) April 22 (D) May 22

26. Which among the following is the state animal of Punjab ? (A) Peacock (B) Falcon (C) Black buck (D) Cow

M.Sc. (Environment Science)/BDU-22281-A 5 [Turn over + 27. Threshold of hearing is ______. (A) 0 db (B) 1 dB (C) 5 dB (D) 15 dB

28. The ozone is a friend in which of the following layers of atmosphere ? (A) Troposphere (B) Ionosphere (C) Stratosphere (D) Exosphere

29. Geothermal energy is : (A) Non-renewable and Non-conventional (B) Renewable and Conventional (C) Non-renewable and Conventional (D) Renewable and Non-conventional

30. The belt of variable winds near the equator is known as ______. (A) Trade wind belt (B) Doldrums (C) Roaring Forties (D) Sub-tropics

31. The average salinity of sea water is ______. (A) 20 parts per thousand (B) 25 parts per thousand (C) 30 parts per thousand (D) 35 parts per thousand

32. Ramsar Convention relates to the conservation of ______. (A) Wildlifes (B) Deserts (C) Forests (D) Wetlands

33. CFC stands for ______. (A) Carbonated fluoride compounds (B) Chlorofluorocarbon (C) Chlorofluoro carmine (D) Chlorofluoro calcium

34. Which of the following is eco-friendly way of managing kitchen waste ? (A) Open dumping (B) Vermicomposting (C) Landfilling (D) Incineration

35. Minamata disease is caused due to pollution of ______. (A) Lead (B) Mercury (C) Selenium (D) Chromium

M.Sc. (Environment Science)/BDU-22281-A 6 + 36. Which of the following sequence (in increasing height from earth’s surface) is true ? (A) Stratosphere, Troposphere, Thermosphere, Mesosphere (B) Mesosphere, Thermosphere, Stratosphere, Troposphere (C) Troposphere, Mesosphere, Stratosphere, Thermosphere (D) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere

37. UNEP stands for ______. (A) United Nations Environment Policy (B) United Nations Energy Programme (C) United Nations Environment Programme (D) United Nations Energy Policy

38. CNG stands for ______. (A) Compressed Nobel Gas (B) Compact Natural Gas (C) Compact Nobel Gas (D) Compressed Natural Gas

39. Which among the following cities has the maximum population density ? (A) Patiala (B) Amritsar (C) Jalandhar (D) Chandigarh

40. Which of the following diseases is caused by bacteria ? (A) Cholera (B) Dengue (C) Diabetes (D) AIDS

41. Which of the following countries has the minimum population density ? (A) India (B) Finland (C) Pakistan (D) England

42. Greenpeace International is ______activist group. (A) Environment (B) Child welfare (C) Human rights (D) Women welfare

43. The population explosion results from : (A) High birth and death rate (B) Low birth and death rate (C) Low birth rate and high death rate (D) High birth rate and low death rate

M.Sc. (Environment Science)/BDU-22281-A 7 [Turn over + 44. Which of the following was responsible for Bhopal gas tragedy ? (A) Mercury (B) Carbon monoxide (C) Chlorine (D) Methyl isocyanate

45. Which of the following is the unit of measuring noise ? (A) Dobson (B) Hertz (C) Decibels (D) Joule

46. The 2012 Earth Summit was held at ______. (A) Rio de Janeiro (B) Lisbon (C) London (D) Stockholm

47. Which amongst the following relates to sustainable development ? (A) Kyoto Protocol (B) Brundtland Commission (C) Vienna Convention (D) Stockholm Summit

48. Which amongst the following is the oldest National Park in India ? (A) Kaziranga (B) Jim Corbett (C) Kanha (D) Ranthambore

49. Which amongst the following igneous rock type has the maximum silica content ? (A) Dacite (B) Basalt (C) Rhyolite (D) Komatite

50. If two drops of same radius falling through air with a steady velocity of 5 cm s–1 coalesce, the terminal velocity would be : (A) 10 cm s–1 (B) 2.5 cm s–1 (C) 5(4)1/3 cm s–1 (D) 5(3)1/3 cm s–1

51. One micron is equal to 10x nanometer. The value of x is ______. (A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 12

52. Two resistances R1 and R2 are connected in series. Potential differences across

R1 and R2 are balanced at L and 2L length of wire, respectively. If R2 = 2 ohm,

then the value of R1 is : (A) 1 ohm (B) 2 ohm (C) 3 ohm (D) 4 ohm

M.Sc. (Environment Science)/BDU-22281-A 8 + 53. Water flows faster than honey because (A) Water has more density than honey (B) Water has less density than honey (C) Water is colorless (D) Coefficient of viscosity of water is less than that of honey

54. A proton is bombarded on 27Al. As a result, a 27Si nucleus is formed and a particle is emitted. This particle is a ______. (A) Neutron (B) Proton (C) Electron (D) Positron

55. A body is moving in a circular path. Which of the following quantities may remain constant during the motion ? (A) Acceleration (B) Velocity (C) Magnitude of acceleration (D) All of the above

56. The magnifying power of a telescope is ‘m’. If the focal length of the eye piece is doubled, then its magnifying power becomes : (A) 2 m (B) m/2 (C) 2 m (D) 3 m

57. If 10% of a radioactive material decays in 5 days, then the amount of original material left after 20 days is approximately : (A) 60% (B) 65% (C) 70% (D) 75%

58. A bar magnet of dipole moment ‘p’ is cut into two equal parts by cutting perpendicular to its length. The dipole moment of each part is : (A) p (B) p/2 (C) 2 p (D) 4 p

59. The process of combining speech with carrier wave in radio broadcasting is called ______. (A) Modulation (B) Rectification (C) Amplification (D) Detection

60. How many numbers of arrangement can be made by using all the letters of the word LAUGH, keeping the vowels adjacent ? (A) 10 (B) 24 (C) 48 (D) 120

M.Sc. (Environment Science)/BDU-22281-A 9 [Turn over + 61. How many subsets can be formed from the set {x, y, z} ? (A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 8 (D) 9

62. Everybody in a room shakes hands with everybody else. The total number of handshakes is 66. The total number of persons in the room is : (A) 11 (B) 12 (C) 13 (D) 14

63. A bond between carbon and hydrogen atoms in acetylene molecule is : (A) 109.5° (B) 120° (C) 180° (D) 104.5°

64. CFC-12 contains how many Fluorine atom(s) ? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) 3

65. The pH of 0.10 M NaOH is ______. (A) 0.10 (B) 1.0 (C) 10 (D) 13

66. The general formula of the alkane homologous series is ______.

(A) CnH2n (B) CnH2n – 2

67. If excess of methane is treated with chlorine, in the presence of sunlight under continuous distillation, the product formed is :

(A) CH3Cl (B) CHCl3

68. In the Winkler method, the indicator used is ______. (A) Phenolphthalein (B) Iodine (C) Starch (D) Starch and Iodine

M.Sc. (Environment Science)/BDU-22281-A 10 + 69. Henry’s law constant k H depends on ______. (A) Nature of solute and solvent only (B) Nature of solute, solvent as well as the temperature (C) Nature of solute and solvent but independent of temperature (D) Nature of solute and temperature only

70. The hybridization of carbon in benzene is ______. (A) sp (B) sp2 (C) sp3 (D) sp3d

71. The density of water is the maximum at ______. (A) 0°C (B) 4°C (C) –4°C (D) 100°C

72. If in a town, 30% of the voters are under 40 years of age. If two voters are randomly selected for a survey, the probability that they are both under 40 years of age is ______. (A) 0.300 (B) 0.087 (C) 0.600 (D) 0.090

73. Second central moment is called : (A) Mean (B) Standard deviation (C) Coefficient of variation (D) Variance

74. What is the cause of an earthquake ? (A) Collision of Lithospheric Plates (B) Climate Change (C) Gravitational Pull of the Moon (D) God’s Will

75. A seed lot contains 10 good and 10 bad seeds. Two seeds are drawn from the lot at a time. The probability of getting one good and one bad seed is ______. (A) 10/19 (B) 20/98 (C) 2/10 (D) 1/4

M.Sc. (Environment Science)/BDU-22281-A 11 [Turn over + ROUGH WORK

M.Sc. (Environment Science)/BDU-22281-A 12 52 + CET(PG)-2014 Sr. No. : Question Booklet Series Code : A Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet. Roll No. In Figures In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No. Signature of the Candidate : Subject : M.Sc. (Hons. School)–Biochemistry Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75 DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO INSTRUCTIONS 1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided and nowhere else. 2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet. 4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so. 5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test. 6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question, darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases. 8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the Question Booklet. 9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble. 10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed. 11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used. 12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the candidate only. 13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty. 14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from the examination. 15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent/Observer whose decision shall be final. 16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculator is not allowed. M.Sc. (Hons. School)–Biochemistry/A 1. The Handerson–Hasselbalch equation is described as :

[A ] [HA] (A) pKa  pH  log (B) pH  pKa  log [HA] [A ]

[HA] [A ] (C) pKa  pH  log (D) pH  pKa  log [A ] [HA]

2. Which of the following compounds has the highest standard free energy of Hydrolysis ? (A) ATP (B) Phosphoenol pyruvate (C) Phosphocreatine (D) Glucose –6-phosphate 3. The number of isomers of glucose is : (A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 16 4. Proteins may be separated according to size by : (A) Isoelectric focussing (B) Polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis (C) Ion exchange chromatography (D) Molecular exclusion chromatography 5. The dehydrogenases involved in HMP shunt are specific for : (A) FMN (B) NAD+ (C) FAD (D) NADP+ 6. Acyl carrier protein contains the vitamin : (A) Biotin (B) Lipoic acid (C) Pantothenic acid (D) Folic acid 7. Rotenone inhibits the respiratory chain at : (A) FMN coenzyme Q (B) NAD  FMN (C) Coenzyme Q  cyt b (D) Cyt b  Cyt c 1 8. Invert sugar is : (A) Lactose (B) Mannose (C) Fructose (D) Hydrolytic product of sucrose 9. According to Chargaff’s rule, the following proportion exists in DNA : (A) C = G (B) C > G (C) C > T (D) C = T

M.Sc. (Hons. School)–Biochemistry/BDU-22274-A 3 [Turn over  10. The actual synthesis of DNA in E. coli is the function of : (A) Primase (B) Polymerase I (C) Polymerase III (D) DNA ligase 11. Glycogen synthetase activity is depressed by : (A) Glucose (B) Insulin (C) Cyclic AMP (D) Fructokinase 12. Ramachandran plot : (A) Gives the frequency of occurrence of amino acids in b-sheet structure (B) Represents the sterically allowed conformations of a polypeptide back bone (C) Predicts a-helical structure from the given amino acid sequences (D) Shows the X-ray diffraction pattern of a position. 13. Globular proteins have completely folded, coiled polypeptide chain and the axial ratio (ratio of length to breadth) is : (A) Less than 10 and generally not greater than 3–4 (B) Generally 10 (C) Greater than 10 and generally 20 (D) Greater than 10 14. The purity of an enzyme at various stages of purification is best measured by : (A) Total protein (B) Total enzyme activity (C) Specific activity of the enzyme (D) Percent recovery of protein 15. Control of urea cycle involves the enzyme : (A) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase (B) Ornithine transcarbamoylase (C) Argininosuccinase (D) Arginase 16. Antigenic sites within antigen where antibodies react are : (A) Haptens (B) Epitopes (C) Paratops (D) Immunogen 17. Cells use up to 40% of their daily energy expenditure engaged in what important process ? (A) Active transport (B) Endocytosis (C) Exocytosis (D) Facilitated diffusion

M.Sc. (Hons. School)–Biochemistry/BDU-22274-A 4  18. The reaction catalyzed by phosphofructokinase is : (A) Inhibited by high concentration of ATP and citrate (B) Uses fructose–1-P as substrate (C) Is near equilibrium in most cells (D) Is inhibited by AMP 19. Sanger’s reagent contains : (A) Phenylisothiocyanate (B) Dansyl chloride (C) 1-Fluoro-2, 4-dinitrobenzene (D) Ninhydrin 20. What is the property of C4 plants but not C3 plants ?

(A) Initially fix CO2 in mesophyll cells as 4-carbon long compounds

(B) Initially fix CO2 in bundle sheath cells as 3-carbon long compounds

(D) Initially fix CO2 in bundle sheath cells as 4-carbon long compounds 21. Although the Ti plasmid has revolutionized plant genetic engineering, one limitation of its use is that it : (A) Is only about 50% effective (B) Can only be used on fruit-bearing plants (C) Cannot transmit prokaryotic genes (D) Does not infect cereal plants 22. Which of the following antibiotics resembles the 3’end of charged t-RNA molecule ? (A) Streptomycin (B) Tetracyclin (C) Kanamycin (D) Puromycin 23. A peptide bond : (A) is ionized at physiological pH (B) is stable to heating in strong acids (C) has a partial double bond character (D) occurs most commonly in cis configuration 24. Which of the following amino acids would be MOST prone to a reaction with an irreversible inhibitor ? (A) Phenylalanine (B) Serine (C) Threonine (D) Histidine 25. The first mRNA codon to specify an amino acid is always : (A) TAC (B) UAA (C) AUG (D) UAG

M.Sc. (Hons. School)–Biochemistry/BDU-22274-A 5 [Turn over  26. A drug which prevents uric acid synthesis by inhibiting the enzyme xanthine oxidase is : (A) Aspirin (B) Allopurinol (C) Colchicine (D) Probenecid 27. Degeneracy of the genetic code denotes the existence of : (A) Multiple codons for a single amino acid (B) Codons consisting of only two bases (C) Base triplets that do not code for any amino acids (D) Different protein synthesis systems in which a given triplet codes for different amino acids 28. With what mRNA codon would the UAC tRNA be able to form a codon-anticodon base pairing interaction ? (A) 3'-GUA-5' (B) 3'-AUG-5' (C) 3'-CAU-5' (D) 3'-UAC-5' 29. Which one of the following best describes the number of ATPs produced by the oxidation of

palmitic acid to CO2 and H2O ? (A) 100 ATP (B) 130 ATP (C) 40 ATP (D) 70 ATP 30. Aspartate transcarbamoylase is inhibited by : (A) CTP (B) PRPP (C) ATP (D) TMP 31. There are five isozymes of lactate dehydrogenase, which catalyze the interconversion of pyruvate and lactate : pyruvate + NADH <==> lactate + NAD + + H+. Which one of the following parameters must be the same for all of these enzyme-catalyzed reactions ? (A) pH optimum (B) Keq (C) kcat (D) Km 32. Which of the following components is NOT a component of 30S initiation complex ? (A) GTP (B) Initiation factor-2 (IF-2) (C) N-formylmethionyl-tRNA (D) ATP 33. The posterior pituitary stores and secretes : (A) ACTH and ADH (B) GH and prolactin (C) ADH and Oxytocin (D) ADH and FSH 34. Which of the following types of enzymes usually form hydrogen peroxide as one of its products ? (A) Dehydrogenases (B) Oxidases (C) Oxygenases (D) Peroxidases

M.Sc. (Hons. School)–Biochemistry/BDU-22274-A 6  35. Ternary complex is not formed in : (A) Random Bi B (B) Ordered Bi Bi (C) Theorel-Chance Bi Bi (D) Ping Pong Bi BI 36. The rate limiting step in catecholamine synthesis is catalysed by : (A) Phenylalanine hydroxylase (B) Tyrosine hydroxylase (C) Dopa decarboxylase (D) Phenylethanolamine N-methyl transferase 37. During liver disease the LDH isozyme raised in serum is : (A) M4 (B) M3H (C) M2H2 (D) MH3 38. Sphingomyelin accumulates in : (A) Tay-Sachcs disease (B) Gaucher’s disease (C) Fabry’s disease (D) Niemann-Pick’s disease 39. Recombination of V, D and J lg gene segments : (A) Only occurs in mature B-cells (B) Involves heptamer-spacer-heptamer flanking sequences (C) Is effected by recombinase enzymes (D) Does not occur until the mRNA stage 40. Which one of the following mast cell products is not preformed and therefore has to be newly synthesized ? (A) Histamine (B) Prostaglandin D2 (C) Eosinophil chemotactic factor (ECF) (D) Neutral protease 41. ADP-ribosylation by cholera toxin locks : (A) Gs in active form (B) Gs in inactive form (C) Gi in active form (D) Gi in inactive form 42. Effect of release of IP3 during signal transduction pathway is : (A) Closure of Ca2+ channel in ER (B) Increase in intracellular Ca2+ level (C) Increase in extracellular Ca2+ level (D) Inactivation of calmodulin proteins 43. Most common types of introns spiced in mammals are : (A) GU-AG (B) UA-UC (C) UG-UA (D) UG-GA

M.Sc. (Hons. School)–Biochemistry/BDU-22274-A 7 [Turn over  44. siRNA : (A) forms complex in the spliceosome (B) recruits histone acetyl transferases to the nucleus (C) forms a complex with RISC proteins to inhibit translation or cause degradation of complementary mRNA (D) is not transmitted to daughter cells after cell division 45. If there is a deletion mutation in the operator for the lac operon, the expression of lac structural genes would be : (A) Permanently repressed (B) Constitutively expressed (C) Not expressed (D) Resistant to catabolite repression 46. The catabolite repression is mediated by a catabolite gene activator protein (CAP) in conjunction with : (A) AMP (B) GMP (C) cAMP (D) cGMP 47. In the Messelson-Stahl DNA replication experiment, what percent of the DNA was composed of one light strand and one heavy strand after one generation of growth in 14N containing growth media ? (A) 25 (B) 50 (C) 75 (D) 100 48. During starvation, ketone bodies are used as a fuel by : (A) Erythrocytes (B) Brain (C) Liver (D) Muscles 49. All -amino acids give positive : (A) Million’s test (B) Biuret test (C) Xanthoproteic test (D) Ninhydrin test 50. The following hormone is a peptide of less than 10 amino acids : (A) Insulin (B) Growth Hormone (C) Oxytocin (D) Parathyroid hormone 51. The principal intracellular cation is : (A) Na+ (B) Ca2+ (C) Cl– (D) K+

M.Sc. (Hons. School)–Biochemistry/BDU-22274-A 8  52. A PCR reaction that continues for 30 cycles will produce approximately how many PCR products from a single template DNA molecule ? (A) 64 (B) 128 (C) 128,000 (D) Approximately 1 billion 53. In what way does the ras oncogene contribute to cancers ? (A) Ras codes for a GTP ase switch protein which cannot be switched off in its mutated form. (B) Ras codes for an anti-apoptotic protein, produced in abnormally large amounts. (C) Ras codes for a truncated form of a growth factor receptor which is continually active. (D) Ras codes for a transcription factor which is produced in abnormally large amounts. 54. Which of the following statements about SDS polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis is correct ? (A) SDS polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis separates proteins on the basis of charge. (B) SDS polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis separates proteins on the basis of size. (C) Wanted proteins can be tested for their biological activity after separation by SDS polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis. (D) Proteins are solubilized but not denatured when separated by SDS polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis. 55. Which of the following components is NOT a component of 30S initiation complex ? (A) GTP (B) Initiation factor-2 (IF-2) (C) N-formylmethionyl-tRNA (D) ATP 56. If the fatty acid is esterified with an alcohol of high molecular weight instead of glycerol, the resulting compound is : (A) Lipositol (B) Plasmalogen (C) Wax (D) Cephalin 57. Calcitriol synthesis involves : (A) Both liver and kidney (B) Intestine (C) Adipose tissue (D) Muscle 58. Consumption of raw eggs can cause deficiency of : (A) Biotin (B) Pantothenic acid (C) Riboflavin (D) Thiamin 59. Kinetics of an allosteric enzyme are explained by : (A) Michaelis-Menten equation (B) Lineweaver-Burk plot (C) Hill plot (D) All of these

M.Sc. (Hons. School)–Biochemistry/BDU-22274-A 9 [Turn over  60. Ciprofloxacin inhibits the synthesis of : (A) DNA (B) mRNA (C) tRNA (D) rRNA 61. Which of the following is a palindromic sequence ? (A) 5' ATGCAG 3' (B) 3' TACGTC 5' (C) 5' CGAAGC 3' (D) 3' GCTTCG 5' 62. Optimum temperature of DNA polymerase of T. aquaticus is : (A) 30°C (B) 37°C (C) 54°C (D) 72°C 63. Aspartate amino transferase uses the following for transamination : (A) Glutamic acid and pyruvic acid (B) Glutamic acid and oxaloacetic acid (C) Aspartic acid and pyruvic acid (D) Aspartic acid and keto adipic acid 64. Na +/K + –ATP ase along with ATP requires : (A) Ca (B) Mn (C) Mg (D) Cl 65. The normal pH of the blood is : (A) 7.0 (B) 7.1 (C) 7.2 (D) 7.4 66. Electrophoresis of histones (pl = 8.5) and myoglobin (pl = 5.5) under non-denaturing conditions (pH = 7.0) results in : (A) Histones migrate to the anode (+); myoglobin migrates to the cathode (–) (B) Histones migrate to the cathode (–); myoglobin migrates to the anode (+) (C) Both proteins migrate to the anode (+) (D) Both proteins migrate to the cathode (–) 67. Oxidative phosphorylation produces the majority of the energy generated in the cell. The combination of glycolysis and the citric acid cycle alone yield only 4 ATP. The majority of the energy is stored in the electron carriers NADH and FADH2. Oxidative phosphorylation can produce how many ATP for each NADH and FADH2 ? (A) 2 & 1 (B) 3 & 2 (C) 2 & 3 (D) 1 & 2 68. Which of the following increases hemoglobin’s oxygen binding ?

(A) A decrease in pH (B) An increase in CO2 level (C) Binding of oxygen at one or more heme sites (D) A decrease in the partial pressure of oxygen

M.Sc. (Hons. School)–Biochemistry/BDU-22274-A 10  69. The two principal contractile proteins found in skeletal muscle are : (A) actin and troponin (B) actin and myosin (C) troponin and tropomyosin (D) actin and tropomyosin 70. Substrate-level phosphorylation differs from oxidative phosphorylation in that : (A) substrate-level phosphorylation involves the transfer of electrons (B) substrate-level phosphorylation only occurs in the cytosol (C) oxidative phosphorylation only occurs in the cytosol (D) oxidative phosphorylation involves the transfer of electrons 71. The enzymes of fatty acid biosynthesis are located in the : (A) mitochondrion (B) Endoplasmic reticulum (C) cytoplasm (D) Golgi appatrus 72. Which is the most specific recombinant DNA library ? (A) genomic (B) protein (C) cDNA (D) chromosomal 73. Shine-Dalgarno sequence is part of : (A) r-RNA (B) m-RNA (C) t-RNA (D) RNAi 74. DNA ligase of E. coli requires which of the following co-factors ? (A) FAD (B) NAD+ (C) NADP+ (D) ATP 75. Which of the following subunits of G-protein activates adenylate cyclase ? (A) -subunit (B) s-subunit (C) -subunit (D) -subunit

M.Sc. (Hons. School)–Biochemistry/BDU-22274-A 11 [Turn over  Rough Work

M.Sc. (Hons. School)–Biochemistry/BDU-22274-A 12 76  CET(PG)-2014 Sr. No. : Question Booklet Series : A Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet. Roll No. In Figures In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No. Signature of the Candidate : Subject : M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Biophysics Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75 DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO INSTRUCTIONS 1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided and nowhere else. 2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet. 4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so. 5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test. 6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question, darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases. 8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the Question Booklet. 9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble. 10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed. 11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used. 12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the candidate only. 13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty. 14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from the examination. 15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent/Observer whose decision shall be final. 16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculator is not allowed. M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Biophysics/A 1. Correct principle energy and half life of 99mTc is : (A) 140 Kev and 6 hours (B) 140 Kev and 4 hours (C) 160 Kev and 4 hours (D) 160 Kev and 6 hours 2. Who used x-ray diffraction to provide images of DNA ? (A) Watson and Crick (B) Crick and Wilkins (C) Franklin (D) Franklin and Crick 3. Respiratory centre in the brain lies in : (A) Cerebrum (B) Cerebellum (C) Medulla oblongata (D) Thalamus 4. Which of the following is not a major advantage of the scanning electron microscope ? (A) High resolution (B) High magnification (C) Ability to polarize light (D) High depth of focus 5. The “fingerprint” IR spectrum can be analyzed using : (A) Polarizing microscope (B) Microspectrophotometer (C) Scanning electron microscope (D) Phase contrast microscope 6. 131I emits : (A) Beta particles (B) Gamma rays (C) Beta and alpha particles (D) Gamma rays and beta particles 7. Which of the following can be used to monitor skeletal muscles ? (A) EEG (B) EMG (C) fMRI (D) CT scan 8. IR spectrum provides information except : (A) Molecular mass (B) Identification of compounds (C) Presence of C-H bonds (D) Presence of O-H bonds 9. Method used to convert signal from time domain to frequency domain : (A) Fourier Transformation (B) Back projection (C) Expectation maximization (D) Michelson interferometer 10. Beta wave activity in the EEG of an awake person implies : (A) Alert or Anxious state (B) Drowsy state (C) Relaxed state (D) Bed ridden patient 11. -helix and -sheet structure are examples of : (A) Primary structure (B) Secondary structure (C) Tertiary structure (D) Quaternary structure

M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Biophysics/BDU-22275-A 3 [Turn over  12. Major player in nerve repolarization is : (A) Na+/K+ pump (B) Ca++/Mg pump (C) Na+ channel (D) K+ channel 13. Abnormality in ECG T-wave may imply : (A) Increase in heart rate (B) Decrease in heart rate (C) Coronary ischemia (D) Increase in blood pressure 14. Which of the following is common to both E.coli and eukaryotic chromosomes ? (A) DNA is circular (B) DNA is package into nucleosomes (C) DNA is contained in the nucleus (D) DNA is negatively supercoiled 15. The action of hydroxyl radical on DNA generates a significant amount of : (A) Pyrimidine dimmers (B) 8-oxyguanine (C) O6-methylguanine (D) 7-hydroxymethylguanine 16. A single neuron can have : (A) Hundreds of synapse (B) A single synaptic cleft (C) A multitude of axons (D) Hundreds of cell bodies 17. X-ray diffraction method can be applied to : (A) Ordered repeating structure macromolecules (B) Gases and vapors (C) Liquids (D) Heterogeneous mixtures 18. Differential centrifugation can be used for : (A) Separation of components of cell (B) Visualization of cytoplasmic organelle (C) Isolation of proteins on the basis of charge (D) Analyzing cell transport 19. Chemical shift is a term used in : (A) ESR (B) Atomic force microscope (C) Confocal microscope (D) NMR 20. Correct sequence of cell cycle : (A) G1, S, G2, M (B) G1, G2, S, M (C) M,S, G1, G2 (D) M, G1, G2, S 21. Cancer originating from epithelial tissues is known as : (A) Sarcoma (B) Lymphoma (C) Carcinoma (D) Myeloma 22. Diamond knives are used to cut : (A) Plastic sections (B) Wax sections (C) Both plastic and wax (D) Rubber sections

M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Biophysics/BDU-22275-A 4  23. Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane was proposed by : (A) Singer and Nicholson (B) Einstein (C) Max Planck (D) Hargobind Khurana 24. Which of the following is a nucleoprotein ? (A) Keratin (B) Histone (C) Chromatin (D) Proteoglycan 25. The vibrational energy transitions of a molecule are within the range of : (A) X-rays (B) Infrared rays (C) Ultraviolet rays (D) Visible spectrum 26. How many H-bonds does a water molecule participate in ordinary ice ? (A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 6 (D) 8 27. Separation technique, Gel filtration is based on the principle of : (A) Molecular weight (B) Charge (C) Colour (D) Optical density 28. Optical density of a homogenous solution is equal to : (A) 2-Log T (B) Log T-Log E (C) Log T-2 (D) Log I-Log E 29. ORD stands for : (A) Optical rotator dispersion (B) Optical revolution dispersion (C) Optical regional dispersion (D) Orderly rotator dispersion 30. The term bradycardia refers to : (A) Decreased heart rate (B) Increased heart rate (C) Atrophy of the purkinje fibres (D) Ischemia of cardiac muscles 31. The three DNA sequences, which define a chromosome, include all of the following except : (A) Centromere (B) Enhancer (C) Origin of DNA replication (D) Telomere 32. Calmodulin activates protein kinases in response to a transient increase in : (A) cAMP (B) Calcium ions (C) DAG (D) NO 33. Which of the following contains oxygenated blood in an adult human ? (A) Right atrium (B) Pulmonary artery (C) Pulmonary vein (D) Right ventricle 34. Which of the following is not a function of the liver ? (A) Bile production (B) Detoxification of drugs (C) Storage of glucose (D) Storage of vitamin C

M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Biophysics/BDU-22275-A 5 [Turn over  35. Physical half life of 125I is : (A) 28 days (B) 60 days (C) 6 hours (D) 120 min

36. H2O2 can be dissociated by : (A) Catalase (B) Amylase (C) Superoxide dismutase (D) GSH 37. Atomic absorption spectrophotometer is based on employing the absorption of optical radiation by atom in : (A) Gaseous state (B) Solid state (C) Liquid state (D) Ionizing state 38. Apha-Tocopherol is attributed to its action as : (A) Provitamin (B) Antioxidant (C) Anticoagulant (D) Carrier in ETC 39. Vision depends on the process of : (A) Depolarization (B) Hyperpolarization (C) Repolarization (D) Polarization 40. The majority of reabsorption occurs in the : (A) Renal capsule (B) Proximal convoluted tubule (C) Collecting duct (D) Ascending limb of the loop of Henle 41. The pair-production requires a photon energy of : (A) At least 1.02 MeV (B) At least 6.02 MeV (C) At least 2.01 eV (D) At least 1.02 eV 42. The diffusion coefficient depends on : (A) Temperature (B) Viscosity (C) Pressure (D) Concentration 43. What is approximate half life of 32-Phosphorus ? (A) 14 days (B) 14 hours (C) 1.4 days (D) 1.4 min 44. Disinfection of water supplies can be achieved by : (A) Filtration (B) Sedimentation (C) Ultraviolet radiation (D) Coagulation 45. Sertoli cells are found in : (A) Ovary (B) Testis (C) Liver (D) Pancreas

M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Biophysics/BDU-22275-A 6  46. Release of acetylcholine results in : (A) Increased heart rate (B) Decreased heart rate (C) No change in heart rate (D) Cardiac Ischemia 47. Quartz cuvettes are essential when source of incident ray is in the : (A) Visible range (B) U.V. range (C) I.R. range (D) Ultrasonic range 48. Adhesive used to stick the microscopic slides : (A) Paraffin wax (B) Egg albumin (C) Xylene (D) DPX 49. MHC stands for : (A) Major histocompatibility complex (B) Minor histocompatibility complex (C) Major hypersensitivity complex (D) Minor hypersensitivity complex 50. Thyroid uptake unit is a modified : (A) Scintillation counter (B) GM counter (C) EEG (D) ECG 51. Proteins are detected at this wavelngth : (A) 280 nm (B) 260 nm (C) 240 nm (D) 340 nm 52. 1 Gray of radioactive material equals : (A) 100 rad (B) 100 rem (C) 100 curie (D) 100 rutherford 53. Humoral immunity involves : (A) Antibodies (B) Antibiotics (C) WBC (D) RBC 54. Chargaff’s rule suggests : (A) C-G (B) C-T (C) A-G (D) A-C 55. Which element has the largest atomic radius ? (A) Fluorine (B) Carbon (C) Tin (D) Iodine 56. MTT assay for cell survival is based on : (A) Colorimetric assay (B) Fluorometric assay (C) Radioactive assay (D) Cytometric assay

M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Biophysics/BDU-22275-A 7 [Turn over  57. Molecular weight of a protein cannot be determined by : (A) SDS-PAGE (B) Gel-filtration chromatography (C) Analytical ultracentrifugation (D) Iso-electric focusing

58. Which of the following molecules functions to transfer information from the nucleus to the cytoplasm ? (A) mRNA (B) DNA (C) Proteins (D) Lipids 59. Organ most sensitive to radiations is : (A) Testis (B) Brain (C) Liver (D) Intestine 60. Specific activity of a radioctive material is : (A) mCi/mMol (B) mg/mMol (C) gm/mMol (D) mMol/litre

61. Device that can convert one form of energy to another : (A) Transformer (B) Transducer (C) Amplifier (D) Condenser 62. Myelin sheath is produced by : (A) Axoplasm (B) Mitochondria (C) Schwann cell (D) Muscle cell 63. The substance that contributes maximally to the osmolality inside the cell is : (A) Protein (B) Phosphate (C) Urea (D) Potassium 64. Indicate which examination is the most accurate in a suspected scaphoid fracture : (A) Static bone scan (B) Dynamic and static bone scan (C) MRI (D) CT 65. Indicate which statement about vitamin B 12 absorption (Schilling) test is corret : (A) The Schilling test with intrinsic factor can be used to discriminate between intestinal malabsorption and lack of intrinsic factor (B) Low vitamin B 12 absorption when administered with intrinsic factor rules out pernicious anemia (C) The test cannot distinguish folic acid deficiency from pernicious anaemia (D) For patients on vitamin B 12 injection treatment, it is necessary to wait at least 4 weeks from last injection before performing the test

M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Biophysics/BDU-22275-A 8  66. Tumor uptake of 18 F-FDG is influenced by all of the following except : (A) Blood glucose level (B) Glut-1 expression (glucose transporter Glut-1) (C) Pgp expression (multidrug resistance p-glycoprotein) (D) Tumour growth rate 67. When using bioelectrical impedance for measuring body composition, why does an electrical current travel faster through muscle than it does through fat ? (A) Muscle contains less water than fat (B) Muscle contains more water than fat (C) Muscle weighs more than fat (D) Muscle weighs less than fat 68. As an ultrasound pulse moves through tissue in a patient’s body it will NOT undergo a change in : (A) Frequency (B) Intensity (C) Amplitude (D) Physical size 69. The electrical charge of a proton is : (A) –1 (B) + 1 (C) –2 (D) 0 70. Which would be best to separate a protein that binds strongly to its substrate ? (A) Fatty acids (B) Amino acids (C) Fats (D) Peptides 71. How many different types of cones code for colour in the fovea of the retina ? (A) Gel filtration (B) Affinity chromatography (C) Cation exchange (D) Anion exchange 72. An ophthalmoscope is : (A) One (B) Three (C) Two (D) Seven 73. Proton NMR spectrum of propane includes : (A) Triplet and Singlet (B) Triplet and Quartet (C) Triplet and Doublet (D) Triplet and Septet 74. Method used for the detection of trace elements : (A) Atomic absorption spectroscopy (B) NMR (C) FT-IR (D) Liquid scintillation counting 75. Telomerase is a : (A) Ribonucleoprotien (B) Deoxyribonucleoprotein (C) Glycoprotein (D) Polysaccharide

M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Biophysics/BDU-22275-A 9  Rough Work

M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Biophysics/BDU-22275-A 10  Rough Work

M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Biophysics/BDU-22275-A 11 24  CET (PG)-2014 Sr. No. : Question Booklet Series : A Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet. Roll No. In Figures In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No. Signature of the Candidate : Subject : M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Chemistry Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75 DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO INSTRUCTIONS 1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided and nowhere else. 2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet. 4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so. 5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test. 6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question, darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases. 8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the Question Booklet. 9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble. 10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed. 11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used. 12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the candidate only. 13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty. 14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from the examination. 15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent/Observer whose decision shall be final. 16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculator is not allowed. M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course) Chemistry/BDU-22283-A 2 × M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Chemistry/A

1. There are two nodes in radial probability distribution curve for an orbital with : (A) n = 3, l = 1 (B) n = 2, l = 0 (C) n = 4, l = 3 (D) n = 3, l = 0

2. The effective nuclear charge for a 3d electron in Sc is : (A) 2.3 (B) 3.9 (C) 3.0 (D) 1.0

+ 3. Structure of IF4 and hybridization of I in this structure are, respectively : (A) Linear, sp3d (B) T-shaped, sp3d2 (C) Irregular tetrahedron, sp3d (D) Octahedral, sp3d2

4. During the change of NO+ to NO, the electron is added in a : (A)  Orbital (B)  Orbital (C) * Orbital (D) * Orbital

5. In the calcium fluoride structure, the coordination number of the cations and the anions are respectively : (A) 6 and 6 (B) 8 and 4 (C) 4 and 4 (D) 4 and 8

6. A gas X is passed through water to form a saturated solution. The aqueous solution on treatment

with AgNO3 gives a white precipitate. The saturated aqueous solution also dissolves Mg ribbon with evolution of a colorless gas Y. X and Y are respectively :

(A) CO2 and Cl2 (B) Cl2 and CO2

(A) Cr2O3 (B) CrO3

(A) K2HgI4 (B) K2HgI4 + KOH

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course) Chemistry/BDU-22283-A 3 [Turn over × 9. [Co(NH3)6] [Cr(NO2)6] is isomeric with [Cr(NH3)6] [Co(NO2)6]. These two coordination isomers can be distinguished by : (A) Electrolysis of an aqueous solution of isomers (B) Conductivity measurement (C) Titration method

(D) Precipitation method with AgNO3

2– 2– 10. Among Ni(CO)4, [Ni(CN)4] and [NiCl4] : 2– 2– (A) Ni(CO)4, [NiCl4] are diamagnetic and [Ni(CN)4] is paramagnetic 2– 2– (B) Ni(CN)4] , [NiCl4] are diamagnetic and Ni(CN)4 is paramagnetic 2– 2– (C) Ni(CO)4, [Ni(CN)4] are diamagnetic and [NiCl4] is paramagnetic 2– 2– (D) Ni(CO)4 is diamagnetic, [NiCl4] and [Ni(CN)4] is paramagnetic 11. Which element is produced by -decay of neptunium-239 ? (A) Th (B) Cm (C) No (D) Pu

12. The separation of lanthanides in ion exchange method is based on : (A) basicity of lanthanides (B) oxidation state of the ion (C) solubility of their nitrates (D) size of the ions

13. Which of the following has the largest pKa value ?

(A) Cl2CHCOOH (B) (CH3)3SiCH2COOH

+1.25 –0.34 T13+ T1+ T1

x (A) +1.59 (B) +1.23 (C) +0.91 (D) –0.91

15. Which of the following compounds does not act as an acid in liquid NH3 ?

(A) (NH2)2SO (B) (NH2)2CO

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course) Chemistry/BDU-22283-A 4 × 16. From the stability constants (hypothetical value) given below, predict which is the strongest ligand :

2+ 2+ 11 (A) Cu + 4NH3 [Cu(NH3)4] K = 4.5 × 10 2+ 2– 27 (B) Cu + 4CN [Cu(CN)4] K = 2 × 10 2+ 2+ 15 (C) Cu + 4en [Cu(en)2] K = 3 × 10 2+ 2+ 8 (D) Cu + 4H2O [Cu(H2O)4] K = 9.5 × 10 17. CFSE for Mn3+ ion in strong field is : (A) –4 Dq (B) +6 Dq (C) –16 Dq + P (D) –16 Dq

18. Which of the following have two bridging CO groups ?

(A) Co2(CO)8 (B) Os2(CO)9

(A) Cr(C6H6) (CO)3 (B) Ni(-C5H5)2

(C) Fe(-C5H5)2 (D) Fe(CO)3(C4H6) 20. When organic polymer is either connected or substituted in continuous polysiloxanes chains, it is called as : (A) Block copolymer (B) Graft copolymer (C) Organopolymer (D) Organic siloxanes

21. Metal ion present in carbonic anhydrase is : (A) Cu (B) Fe (C) Zn (D) Co

22. H+ is : (A) Hard acid (B) Soft acid (C) Hard base (D) Border line acid

23. Number of microstates for d3 system is : (A) 10 (B) 45 (C) 210 (D) 120

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course) Chemistry/BDU-22283-A 5 [Turn over × 24. Transition in d1 system is very weak because it is : (A) spin allowed (B) Laporte allowed (C) spin forbidden (D) spin allowed and Laporte forbidden 25. Which of the following graph represents ferromagnetic substances ?

(A) (B)

M M

T(K) T(K)

T(K) T(K) 26. Which of the following is an electrophile ?

(A) NH3 (B) H2O

(C) CH3OCH3 (D) BF3 27. How many monochloro products are possible in the photochemical chlorination of 2,2-dimethyl butane ? (A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1

28. Optical isomers which are not mirror images are called : (A) Diastereomers (B) Meso compounds (C) Enantiomers (D) Tautomers

29. Hydroboration oxidation of 2-Methyl-2-butene gives : (A) 3-Methyl-2-butanol (B) 2-Methyl-2-butanol (C) 3-Methyl-1-butanol (D) 1-Methyl butane

30. The major product in Friedal-Craft reaction between benzene, isobutyl chloride and aluminum chloride is : (A) iso-Butyl benzene (B) n-Butyl benzene (C) tert.Butyl benzene (D) p-Diethyl benzene

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course) Chemistry/BDU-22283-A 6 × 31. Arrange the following alkyl halide in order of increasing reactivity towards SN1 reaction (least reactive first) :

Cl I. Cl II.

Cl III. IV. Cl

(A) I. < III. < II. < IV. (B) I.< II. < III. < IV. (C) IV. < III. < II. < I. (D) III. < I. < IV. < II.

32. The best reagent for oxidation of primary alcohol to aldehyde is :

+ (A) CrO3/H2SO4 (B) KMnO4/H

33. The product X in the following reaction is : Me Ph Conc. H SO Me ————— Ph ——————2 4  X OH OH Me Me Ph (A) Me ————— Ph (B) Me ————— Ph Ph O O Ph Me Ph

34. Which reactive intermediate is involved in Reimer-Tiemann reaction ?  – (A) CCl2 (B) CCl2  (C) CCl2 (D) :CCl2

35. Which of aldehyde will respond to Cannizzaro reaction ?

(A) Benzaldehyde (B) Acetaldehyde

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course) Chemistry/BDU-22283-A 7 [Turn over × 36. Best reagent for conversion of acid chloride to aldehyde is :

(A) LiAlH4 (B) B2H6

(C) [(CH3)3CO]3AlHLi (D) NaBH4 37. Which of the following is the strongest acid ? (A) -Chlorobutyric acid (B) Butyric acid (C) -Chlorobutyric acid (D) -Chlorobutyric acid

38. Which carboxylic acid derivative is most reactive towards acyl nucleophilic substitution ? (A) Acid anhydrides (B) Acid chlorides (C) Amides (D) Esters

39. In the following reaction the product X is : Ph CH OH/H SO ————————3 2 4  X O Ph Ph (A) (B)

H3CO OH HO OCH3 Ph Ph (C) (D) HO OH

40. Reduction of nitrobenzene under neutral condition (Zn/NH4Cl) results in formation of : (A) Aniline (B) Azobenzene (C) Phenyl hydrazine (D) Phenyl hydroxylamine

41. Cyclic structure of -D-Glucose contains : (A) Hemiacetal (B) Hemiketal (C) Acetal (D) Ketal

42. Which reagent is used for the N-terminal amino acid determination in proteins ? (A) 2, 4-Dinitro phenylhydrazine (B) 1-Fluoro-2, 4-Dinitrobenzene (C) Acetic anhydride (D) Benzoyl chloride

1 43. The H NMR spectrum of alkyl halide with molecular formula C4H9Br gives one signal as a singlet at  1.59. The possible structure of alkyl halide is : (A) n-Butyl bromide (B) sec.Butyl bromide (C) iso-Butyl bromide (D) tert.-Butyl bromide

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course) Chemistry/BDU-22283-A 8 × 44. Which of the following is an example of condensation polymer ? (A) Polyethylene (B) Teflone (C) Nylon-6, 6 (D) Polyvinylchloride

45. In UV spectroscopy shift of absorption maximum toward shorter wavelength called : (A) Bathochromic shift (B) Hypsochromic shift (C) Hyperchromic shift (D) Hypochromic shift

46. In IR spectroscopy absorption frequency -unsaturated ketones is lower than saturated ketones due to : (A) Decrease in bond order (B) Increase in bond order (C) Increase in reduced mass (D) Decrease in reduced mass

47. Base catalyzed condensation of two molecules of esters is known as : (A) Aldol condensation (B) Claisen condensation (C) Knoevenagel condensation (D) Perkin condensation

48. Pyrrole is weaker base as compared to other aliphatic secondary amine due to fact : (A) Lone pair is part of aromatic sextet (B) Lone pair resides in sp2 hybrid orbital (C) Lone pair resides in sp hybrid orbital (D) Lone pair is not part of aromatic sextet

49. Reaction of pyridine with NaNH2 at 100ºC result in formation of : (A) 3-Amino pyridine (B) 4-Amino pyridine (C) 2-Amino pyridine (D) 2, 4-Diamino pyridine

50. Phenylmagnesium bromide react with benzonitrile (C6H5CN) to form an addition product which on hydrolysis gives : (A) Benzophenone (B) Benzaldehyde (C) Triphenyl methanol (D) Diphenyl amine

51. Colloids are : (A) Kinetically labile and thermodynamically stable (B) Kinetically nonlabile and thermodynamically unstable (C) Kinetically nonlabile and thermodynamically stable (D) Kinetically labile and thermodynamically unstable

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course) Chemistry/BDU-22283-A 9 [Turn over × 52. The time-constant of a first order reaction is : (A) Reciprocal of the first order rate constant (B) Equal to the first order rate constant (C) Twice the first order rate constant (D) Half of the first order rate constant

53. A second order rate constant can have units : (A) dm–3 mol s–1 (B) dm6 mol–2s–1 (C) dm–6 mol2s–1 (D) dm3 mol–1s–1

54. A chemical reaction carried out at constant temperature and pressure will necessarily be spontaneous in the forward direction if : (A) H > 0 (B) S > 0 (C) H > TS (D) H < TS

55. According to Maxwell-Boltzmann velocity distribution : (A) Molecules travel faster at higher temperatures. (B) Heavy molecules have a higher average speed than light molecules. (C) The fraction of molecules with speed greater than a given value increases as temperature rises. (D) At higher temperatures, molecules travel faster on average than at lower temperatures, but the range of speeds available is less.

56. At equilibrium, the free energy change for any reaction is : (A) Large and positive (B) Large and negative (C) Small and positive (D) Zero

57. For a system isolated from its surroundings, when a spontaneous change occurs : (A) The entropy cannot decrease (B) The entropy will always decrease (C) The entropy cannot increase (D) The entropy will never change

58. If the standard potentials of the Cu2+/Cu and Cu+/Cu couples are +0.340 V and +0.522 V, respectively, then the standard potential of Cu2+/Cu+ couple is : (A) 0 V (B) +0.158 V (C) +0.059 V (D) +0.118 V

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course) Chemistry/BDU-22283-A 10 × 59. A form of Gibbs-Helmholtz equation is :

 ΔG   ΔG  (A) ΔG  ΔH  1/T  (B) ΔG  ΔH  T   T P  T P

 ΔG  ΔH  ΔG  ΔH (C)    (D)     T  RT2  T  RT

60. At transition temperature, Gibbs free energy : (A) Minimizes at the existing pressure (B) Maximizes at the existing pressure (C) Becomes zero at the existing pressure (D) Becomes infinite at the existing pressure

61. The term -transition (lambda transition) refers to a phase transition when the shape of : (A) Pressure-temperature curve resembles the Greek letter lambda (B) Heat capacity-temperature curve resembles the Greek letter lambda (C) Specific volume-temperature curve resembles the Greek letter lambda (D) Partial volume-temperature curve resembles the Greek letter lambda

62. The Clausius-Clapeyron equation can be expressed in which one of the following ways :

 d ln p   d ln p  (A) ln p  ΔH  1/T  (B) ln p  ΔH  T   dT P  dT P

 d ln p  ΔH  d ln p  ΔH (C)    (D)     dT  RT2  dT  RT

63. The quantity “activity” of a solid in its pure standard state is : (A) Zero (B) One (C) – (D) +

64. The ionic strength of a solution containing 0.1 molal KCl and 0.2 molal BaCl2 is : (A) 0.1 (B) 0.6 (C) 0.5 (D) 0.7 65. The standard electromotive force (EMF) of a cell is the standard reaction : (A) Enthalpy expressed as a potential in volts. (B) Equilibrium constant expressed as a potential in volts. (C) Gibbs energy expressed as a potential in volts. (D) Entropy expressed as a potential in volts.

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course) Chemistry/BDU-22283-A 11 [Turn over × 66. The dimensions of Planck’s constant are : (A) kg m2 s–2 (B) kg m2 s–1 (C) kg m s–2 (D) kg m s–1

67. Intersystem crossing is a non-radiative electronic transition between states of : (A) Same spin multiplicity of any order (B) Different spin multiplicity (C) Same spin multiplicity but of higher orders (D) Same spin multiplicity but of lower orders

68. An electromagnetic radiation of wavelength 1 nano-meter belongs to which region of electromagnetic spectrum ? (A) Radiofrequency region (B) Microwave region (C) X-ray region (D) Gamma-ray region

69. As temperature approaches 0K, the molar heat capacities of all monatomic solids approaches : (A) Infinity (B) Zero (C) 3R, where R is the gas constant in J mol–1 K–1 (D) 1.5R, where R is the gas constant in L atm mol–1 K–1

70. Hamiltonian operator of a system in quantum mechanics represents : (A) Total energy of the system (B) Total momentum of the system (C) Total charge on the system (D) Total spin of the system

71. Time-independent Schrödinger equation in equantum mechanics is a differential equation with respect to : (A) Time coordinates (B) Momentum coordinates (C) Spatial coordinates (D) Mass-weighted time coordinates

72. A pure rotational transition in a diatomic molecule can involve change in the : (A) Rotational quantum number (B) Vibrational quantum number (C) Principal quantum number (D) Electron spin quantum number

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course) Chemistry/BDU-22283-A 12 × 73. The specific selection rule for pure vibrational spectroscopy can be derived using : (A) One-dimensional particle in a box approximation (B) Harmonic oscillator approximation (C) Three-dimensional particle in a box approximation (D) Wave-equation of hydrogen atom

74. Structural motifs in a crystal cannot be : (A) Ions (B) Atoms (C) Molecules (D) Lattice points

75. A crystal system having no essential symmetry is : (A) Triclinic (B) Monoclinic (C) Orthorhombic (D) Cubic

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course) Chemistry/BDU-22283-A 13 [Turn over × ROUGH WORK

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course) Chemistry/BDU-22283-A 14 × ROUGH WORK

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course) Chemistry/BDU-22283-A 15 [Turn over632 × CET(PG)-2014 Sr. No. : Question Booklet Series : A Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet. Roll No. In Figures In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No. Signature of the Candidate : Subject : M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)–Geology Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75 DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO INSTRUCTIONS 1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided and nowhere else. 2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet. 4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so. 5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test. 6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question, darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases. 8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the Question Booklet. 9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble. 10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed. 11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used. 12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the candidate only. 13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty. 14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from the examination. 15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent/Observer whose decision shall be final. 16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculator is not allowed. M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)–Geology/A

1. For a scale, 2 cm to 1 km, the R.F. would be : (A) 1:5000 (B) 1:10,000 (C) 1:20,000 (D) 1:50,000 2. Which of the the following sets of processes are in order in the formation of an unconformity ? (A) Deposition, erosion and compaction (B) Upheaval, erosion and deposition (C) Weathering, erosion and transportation (D) Deposition, transportation and deformation 3. Which of the following features indicate rejuvenation of river ? (A) Braided Valley (B) Flood Plains (C) Ox-Bow Lake (D) River Terrace 4. Which of the following geological agents gives rise to the formation of Cirque ? (A) Wind (B) River (C) Glacier (D) Ocean 5. Orogeny results in the formation of : (A) Fold Mountains (B) Block Mountains (C) Volcanic Cone (D) Highlands 6. Pedestal Rock is a feature produced by the geological work of : (A) Wind (B) Glacier (C) River (D) Ocean 7. Varves are finely layered deposits and are formed in the environment of : (A) Glacial (B) Desert (C) Aeolian (D) Swamp 8. The difference between the polar and equatorial diameter of the earth is about : (A) 21 Km (B) 28 Km (C) 42 Km (D) 56 Km 9. Closely spaced contour lines represent a : (A) Saddle (B) Ridge (C) Steep Slope (D) Gentle Slope 10. A Thrust is a : (A) Gravity Fault (B) Low Angle Reverse Fault (C) Wrench Fault (D) Normal Fault

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)–Geology/BDU-22279-A 3 [Turn over  11. When after erosion only a small portion of thrust sheet is left in the form of an isolated mass, it is designated as : (A) Window (B) Klippe (C) Outlier (D) Scarp 12. A fold in which one of the limbs has been rotated through more than 90° is termed as : (A) Chevron Fold (B) Symmetrical Fold (C) Upright Fold (D) Overturned Fold 13. The plunge of axis and dip of the axial plane of a fold is in the same direction; the fold type is : (A) Asymmetrical Fold (B) Symmetrical Fold (C) Upright Fold (D) Reclined Fold 14. The net slip of a fault is parallel to the strike of the fault. The fault may be designated as : (A) Normal Fault (B) Wrench Fault (C) Reverse Fault (D) Thrust Fault 15. New Crust is generated at : (A) Mid-Oceanic Ridge (B) Subduction Zone (C) Island Arc (D) Plume 16. The Tethys sea existed in the area of : (A) Indo-Gangetic Plains (B) Himalayas (C) Rajasthan (D) Aravallis 17. Graben structure is related to which river of India ? (A) Sutlej (B) Indus (C) Narmada (D) Ghaggar 18. A crescent-shaped dune with horns pointing downwind is : (A) Barchan (B) Monadnock (C) Pedestal Rock (D) Loess 19. Submerged valleys having downcutting below the sea level are designated as : (A) Gorges (B) Antecedent (C) Fjords (D) Braided 20. The time of formation of most planets fall in the range of : (A) 8-9 b.y. (B) 6-7 b.y. (C) 4-5 b.y. (D) 10-11 b.y.

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)–Geology/BDU-22279-A 4  21. The term crystalline form of a mineral denotes that it has : (A) Well developed crystals (B) Aggregate of imperfectly formed crystal grains (C) Traces of crystalline structure (D) No crystalline structure 22. A crystal of holohedral form shows one plane of symmetry, one axis of symmetry and a centre of symmetry. It belongs to which crystal system ? (A) Isometric (B) Triclinic (C) Monoclinic (D) Tetragonal 23. A trapezohedron form of crystal belongs to which crystal system ? (A) Hexagonal (B) Cubic (C) Monoclinic (D) Tetragonal 24. In a diagonal axis of symmetry, a crystal occupies the same position in space : (A) Two times (B) Three times (C) Four times (D) Six times 25. The interfacial angle between the two faces of a crystal is the angle between : (A) Faces of the crystal (B) Perpendicular to the faces (C) Internal angle between the faces (D) External angle between the faces 26. Which of the following minerals shows acicular form ? (A) Natrolite (B) Kyanite (C) Pyrite (D) Wollastonite 27. Which of the following minerals shows resinous lustre ? (A) Satin-spar (B) Diamond (C) Galena (D) Opal 28. Chemically, the difference between feldspars and feldspathoids is that the former contains more of :

(A) Na2O (B) SiO2

(C) K2O (D) Al2O3 29. The mineral allanite belongs to/is a variety of : (A) Sphene (B) Epidote (C) Garnet (D) Corundum 30. Which one of the following is known as Brittle Mica ? (A) Chlorite (B) Lepidolite (C) Asbestos (D) Chloritoid 31. Jasper is a form of silica which is : (A) Crystalline (B) Amorphous (C) Cryptocrystalline (D) Euhedral

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)–Geology/BDU-22279-A 5 [Turn over  32. In India, which is the chief source for the manufacture of sulphuric acid ? (A) Sulphur (B) Pyrite (C) Pyrrhotite (D) Marcasite 33. The source of thorium and rare earth element is : (A) Monazite (B) Ilmenite (C) Zircon (D) Lepidolite 34. The Champion Reef mine is one of the deepest mines in the worth and is worked for : (A) Gold (B) Copper (C) Zinc (D) Lead 35. Manganese ore deposits in India are largely found in : (A) M.P. (B) Rajasthan (C) Bihar (D) Haryana 36. A diapir structure is mainly produced by : (A) Rock Salt (B) Rock Crystal (C) Lava Flow (D) Clay 37. For determining right way up direction of sedimentary rocks which of the following features is most useful ? (A) Current Bedding (B) Suncracks (C) Ripple Marks (D) Graded Bedding 38. A rock containing about 50% pyroscene and 50% olivine may be designated as : (A) Gabbro (B) Peridotite (C) Amphibolite (D) Diorite 39. A light coloured igneous rock containing crystals up to 2 mm may be described as : (A) Leucocratic, phaneric, medium grained (B) Melanosratic, aphenitic, fine grained (C) Leucocratic, phanic, fine grained (D) Melanosratic, phaneric, medium grained 40. The volcanic equivalent of plutonic rock granodionte is : (A) Andesite (B) Rhyolite (C) Trachyte (D) Dacite 41. The increasing grade of metamorphism of shale will give rise to which sequence of metamorphic rock ? (A) Phyllite-schist-slate-gneiss (B) Gneiss-slate-schist-phyllite (C) Slate-schist-phyllite-greiss (D) Slate-phyllite-schist-gneiss 42. Which of the following minerals develops under high pressure and low temperature conditions of metamorphism ? (A) Tremolite (B) Kyanite (C) Hornblende (D) Glaucophane

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)–Geology/BDU-22279-A 6  43. The rocks affected by contact metamorphism are termed as : (A) Hornfels (B) Hornstones (C) Mylonites (D) Migmatites 44. Cross-hatched twinning is shown by : (A) Albite (B) Anorthite (C) Microclive (D) Orthoclase 45. Which one of the following has good porosity and is impermeable ? (A) Sandstone (B) Clay (C) Granite (D) Conglomerate 46. Sedimentary rocks having sand-size bulk material are classified as : (A) Rudaceous (B) Arenaceous (C) Argillaceous (D) Calcareous 47. The material for Plaster of Paris is provided by : (A) Granite (B) Marble (C) Caclite (D) Gypsum 48. Which of the following provides a high grade abrasive material ? (A) Gypsum (B) Feldspar (C) Fluorspar (D) Garnet 49. A saucer shaped and concordant massive intrusive body is called : (A) Batholith (B) Lopolith (C) Ring dyke (D) Laccolith 50. Gabbros consist essentially of augite and one of the following : (A) Orthoclase (B) Quartz (C) Labradorite (D) Microcline 51. The colour of streaks of galena, chromite and hematite are respectively in the following order : (A) Brown, Cherry Red, Black (B) Brown, Black, Cherry Red (C) Black, Brown, Cherry Red (D) Black, Cherry Red, Brown 52. The Caledonian orogeny marks the end of : (A) Cambrian (B) Ordovician (C) Silurian (D) Devonian 53. The dominant micro-organisms of abyssal ocean region are : (A) Diatoms (B) Ostracods (C) Foraminifers (D) Radiolarians

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)–Geology/BDU-22279-A 7 [Turn over  54. Sinistral type of coiling is seen in which of the following gastropods ? (A) Conus (B) Murex (C) Bellerophon (D) Physa 55. The living representative of brachiopod is : (A) Productus (B) Lingula (C) Derbiya (D) Athysis 56. Spirifer, a brachiopod, is characterized by a hinge line which is : (A) Straight and Short (B) Curved and Short (C) Straight and Long (D) Curved and Long 57. In the two fold classification of Gondwana Group, the upper Gondwana is characterized by the Flora : (A) Ptilophyllum (B) Glossopteris (C) Gangmopteris (D) Schizoneura 58. Which of the following series of the Gondwana group is most important from economic point of view ? (A) Karharbari (B) Barakar (C) Barren Measures (D) Raniganj 59. A universal transgression known as Cenomanian transgression occurred during : (A) Cretaceous (B) Cambrian (C) Ordovician (D) Permian 60. The trilobites are the characteristic fossils of the strata belonging to the : (A) Palaeozoics (B) Mesozoics (C) Tertiaries (D) Quaternaries 61. Makrana marbles belong to which stratigraphic unit ? (A) Raialo Series (B) Delhi System (C) Aravalli System (D) Semri Series 62. About how many million years ago the Cambrian period started ? (A) 800 (B) 600 (C) 700 (D) 900 63. The transformation of glass to crystalline material is called : (A) Petrifaction (B) Devitrification (C) Crystallization (D) Fractionation 64. The Subathu Beds of Middle Eocene age occur in : (A) Sind (B) J&K (C) Sub-Himalaya of Simla (D) Central Himalaya

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)–Geology/BDU-22279-A 8  65. Graptolites are limited to the following geological age range : (A) Early Precambrian (B) Lower Palaeozoic (C) Upper Mesozoic (D) Lower Tertiary 66. The classification of Lamellibrachia is based on : (A) Dentition (B) Umbo (C) Adductor impression (D) Pallial Line 67. The living Cephalopoda is : (A) Baculites (B) Ceratites (C) Goniatites (D) Nautilus 68. Echinoid Fossils were most abundant during : (A) Palaeozoic (B) Mesozoic (C) Tertiary (D) Quaternary 69. Laki series belongs to which age ? (A) Miocene (B) Cretaceous (C) Oligocene (D) Eocene 70. Which of the following order of minerals is in the successive higher grade of metamorphism ? (A) Kyanite-Chlorite-Garnet (B) Chlorite-Kyanite-Garnet (C) Garnet-Kyanite-Chlorite (D) Chlorite-Garnet-Kyanite 71. Fossil Fenestella occuring in Po series of Devonian of Spiti is a : (A) Brachiopod (B) Trilobite (C) Bryozoan (D) Pelecypod 72. A seismograph shows the arrival of seismic waves in the order of : (A) P, S, L (B) P, L, S (C) S, L, P (D) S, P, L 73. The bearing of point B from A is 130°. The bearing of A from B will be : (A) S 50°E (B) S 40°W (C) N 40°E (D) N 50°W 74. Sheeting is a structure which may be termed as a type of : (A) Fold (B) Fault (C) Joint (D) Unconformity 75. In Hexagonal crystal system the sum of first three digits in Miller indices (h k i l) is always : (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 0

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)–Geology/BDU-22279-A 9  Rough Work

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)–Geology/BDU-22279-A 10  Rough Work

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)–Geology/BDU-22279-A 11 52  CET (PG)-2014 Sr. No. : Question Booklet Series : A Important :Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet. Roll No. In Figures In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No. Signature of the Candidate : Subject : M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Mathematics Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75 DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO INSTRUCTIONS 1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided and nowhere else. 2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet. 4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so. 5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test. 6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question, darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases. 8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the Question Booklet. 9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble. 10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed. 11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used. 12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the candidate only. 13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty. 14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from the examination. 15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent/Observer whose decision shall be final. 16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculator is not allowed. M.Sc. (Hons. School) Mathematics/BDU-22277-A 2 M.Sc. (Hons. School) Mathematics/A

8 8  1   1  8   h – 8   2 2 1. limit     h0 h

1 (A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) The limit does not exist

2. When the area in square units of an expanding circle is increasing twice as fast as its radius in linear units, then the radius is 1 1 (A) (B) 4π 4 1 (C) (D) 1 π

3. The set of all points (et, t), ‘t’ a real number, is the graph of y = ______(A) e–x (B) e1/x

1/x (C) xe (D) loge x

 1  4. The point on the curve x2 + 2y = 0 that is nearest the point 0, –  occurs where y is  2  1 (A) (B) 0 2 1 (C) – (D) –1 2

5. Let f'(x) and g'(x) exist for all x in |R and f'(x) > g'(x)  x  |R then the graph of y = f(x) and the graph of y = g(x) (A) intersect exactly once (B) can intersect no more than once (C) do not intersect (D) could intersect more than once

 (x  1)k 6. The complete interval of convergence of is  2 k1 k (A) 0 < x < 2 (B) 0  x  2 (C) –2 < x < 0 (D) –2  x  0

M.Sc. (Hons. School) Mathematics/BDU-22277-A 3 [Turn over 7. If f"(x) – f'(x) – 2 f(x) = 0 f'(0) = –2, f(0) = 2 then f(1) is (A) e2 + e–1 (B) 1 (C) 0 (D) 2e–1

8. Of the following choices of , which is the largest that can be used successfully for an arbitrary  in an epsilon-delta proof of lim (1 – 3x)  – 5 x2 (A)  = 3 (B)  =  (C)  = /4 (D)  = /5

9. S = {n  0, n  Z }

1 1 Let  xn dx   (1 – x)n dx then n can be 0 0 (A) any value in S (B) non-zero in S (C) only even number in S (D) only odd number in S

log t 10. A point moves on the x-axis in such a way that its velocity at time t, (t > 0) is given by v  e . t At what value of ‘t’ does ‘v’ attains its maximum ? (A) 1 (B) e1/2 (C) e (D) e3/2

11. Let ai's are real, a1  0, 1  i  5. Then

7 5 3 a1x + a2x + a3x + a4x + a5 = 0 has (A) only one real root (B) at least one real root (C) an odd number of real roots (D) no real root

12. The average value of 3t3 – t2 over the interval –1  t  2 is 11 7 (A) (B) 4 2 33 (C) 8 (D) 4

M.Sc. (Hons. School) Mathematics/BDU-22277-A 4 13. For which value of k, is the equation x2 sin(yk) dx + x3y2 cos (yk) dy = 0 exact ? (A) k = 0 (B) k = 1 (C) k = 2 (D) None of the above values

n d 2 n 14. What can you say about (x – 1) , n > 1 ? dxn (A) It is zero (B) It is a polynomial of degree 2n (C) It is a polynomial of degree n (D) It is a linear polynomial

15. Let x2 + 4xy + 4y2 – 3x – 6 = 0. The axes must be rotated through an angle ‘ ’ so that the missing terms in this equation in the transformed form, are absent. Then ‘’ can be

 1  (A) tan–1 2 (B) tan–1    2  π (C) (D) both (A) and (B) 4

x2 y2 16. The number of tangents that can be drawn from (0, 0) to the hyperbola –  1 is 4 3 (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) infinitely many tangents can be drawn

17. The pole of 3x + 4y – 45 = 0 w.r.t. the circle x2 + y2 – 6x – 8y + 5 = 0 is (A) (3, 4) (B) (6, 8) (C) (4, 3) (D) (8, 6)

18. Which of the following series converge ?

 n  cos nπ I.  II.  n1 n  2 n1 n

 1 III.  n1 n (A) None (B) II (C) I, II (D) III, I

M.Sc. (Hons. School) Mathematics/BDU-22277-A 5 [Turn over b dx 19. lim is finite, then which of these must be true ? b  p 1 x

 1  1 (A) converges (B) diverges  p  p n1 n n1 n

 1  1

 n (–1)kn   k    20. For what integers k > 1, will both  n and  converge n1 n1  4  (A) k = 6 (B) k = 5 (C) k = 4 (D) k = 3

21. The Laplace transform of the function

 1 0  t  1  f (t)    equals  t 1  t 

1  1 2  1 e–s  e–s  –  (A)  2  (B)  s  s s  s s2 1  1 2  1 e–s –  e–s  –   (C)  2  (D) – – s  s s  s s2

1 22. At t = 0, the inverse Laplace Transform of the function F(s)  equals (s  1) (s2 – 1) (A) 0 (B) 1 1 (C) (D) None of these 2

23. The Laplace transform of f(t) = cos at is 1 – a a s (A) (B) (C) (D) s2  a2 s2  a2 s2  a2 s2  a2

6 24. Inverse Laplace Transform of F(s)  is s4 (A) t3 (B) t4 (C) 6t–3 (D) 6t–4 M.Sc. (Hons. School) Mathematics/BDU-22277-A 6 25. What are all values of k, for which the graph of y = x3 – 3x2 + k will have three distinct x-intercepts ? (A) all k > 0 (B) all k < 4 (C) k = 0, 4 (D) 0 < k < 4

2 πx 26. The fundamental period of f(x) = 3 – 2 cos is 3 (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 5 27. A point having position vectors 2î  3ˆj  4kˆ , 3î  4ˆj  2kˆ , 4î  2ˆj  3kˆ are vertices of (A) a right angled triangle (B) an equilateral triangle (C) an isosceles triangle (D) They are collinear       28. a and b are two non-zero and non-collinear vectors then a + b and a – b aree (A) linearly dependent (B) linearly independent (C) collinear (D) None of these

29. If O is origin, C is mid point of A(2, –1), B(–4, 3) then OC is (A) î  ˆj (B) – î  ˆj (C) î – ˆj (D) – î – ˆj

30. Let A(2, 0, 1), B(4, 1, 2), O(0, 0, 0).

Then the area of the parallelogram spanned by OA and OB is (A) 2 5 (B) 3 2 (C) 4 2 (D) 5

31. The direction of the greatest increase for f(x, y) = x3y + 12x2 – 8y at (1, –5) is

(9, – 7) (–9, 7) (9, – 7) (–9, 7) (A) (B) (C) (D) 130 130 130 130

32. The value of the constant ‘a’ such that x2 + 2y2 + az = 5 is symmetrical about XY plane is (A) 1 (B) 0 (C) 5 (D) –2

33. Let f(x) = | x |3 Then (A) f is continuous at x = 0, but not differentiable at x = 0 (B) f is differentiable at x = 0 but f' is not continuous at x = 0 (C) f is differentiable at x = 0 and f' is continuous at x = 0 (D) f" exists at x = 0 but not continuous at x = 0

M.Sc. (Hons. School) Mathematics/BDU-22277-A 7 [Turn over 34. The slope of the tangent to the curve y2 + (xy + 1)3 = 0 at (2, –1) is (A) –3/2 (B) –3/4 (C) 3/4 (D) 3/2

b 35. If f is a linear function and 0 < a < b then  f"(x) dx  a

ab b2 – a2 (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) (D) 2 2

36. The equation of the chord of y2 = 8x, bisected at (2, –3) is (A) 4x + 3y + 2 = 0 (B) 3x + 4y + 2 = 0 (C) 8x + 6y + 2 = 0 (D) 3x + 4y + 1 = 1

37. One end of a diameter of the sphere x2 + y2 + z2 – 6x – 12y – 2z + 20 = 0 is (2, 3, 5). Then the coordinates of the other end is (A) (–2, –3, –5) (B) (4, –9, 3) (C) (–4, 9, 3) (D) (4, 9, –3)

38. The plane 3x – 6y + az = 0 touches the cone 2x2 – 4y2 + 5z2 + 4zx – 2xy = 0. Then the value of ‘a’ is (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 4

39. Which of the following below is an abelian group ? (A) (C| , +) : The set of all complex numbers under the operation ‘addition’ (B) G = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5} under the operation addition modulo 6 (C) (A) only (D) Both (A) and (B)

40. What are all roots of x3 – 3x2 – x + 3 = 0 ? (A) –1, 1 (B) 1, 3 (C) –1, 1, 3 (D) 1, –1, 3

41. Let W1 and W2 be finite dimensional subspaces of a vector space W with dim W1 = 8, dim W2 = 6,

dim (W1 + W2) = 13. Then

(A) W1  W2 need not be a finite dimensional subspace of V

(B) There exists a non zero vector u s.t. L[u] = W1  W2

(D) Dimension (W1  W2) must be between 5 and 7 M.Sc. (Hons. School) Mathematics/BDU-22277-A 8 42. I f S = {1, 2, 3} is an orthonormal set in a real inner product space V then which of the following set of vectors is also an orthonormal set in V ?

(A) S1 = {1 + 2, 2 + 3, 3 + 1} (B) S2 = {1 + 2, 1 – 2, 3 – 1 – 2}  1 1   1  (C) S3   (φ1  φ2), (φ1 – φ2),φ3 (D) S4  φ1, φ2, (φ1  φ2  φ3)  2 2   3 

43. Let (G , ·) be a group of order n. What will be the possible order of the subgroups of G ? n (A) All divisors of n (B) n – 1 (C) (D) All the above 2 44. Let S  {a  b 2 / a, b integers} . Then (A) S is a field (B) S is commutative ring without unity (C) S is commutative ring with unity (D) S is non-commutative ring

2 2 45. If a subspace H of IP3 contains a polynomial p(t) = 3t q(t) = 1 + t – 2t then H must also contain

(A) IP1 (B) IP2 (C) The polynomial 1 + t – t2 (D) The polynomial t – 2t2

Here IPn denotes vector space of polynomials of degree  n with real coefficients.

46. If (H1, ·) and (H2, ·) are two subgroups of the group (G, ·), which of the statements below is true ?

(A) (H1  H2, ·) is a group (B) (H1  H2, ·) is a group (C) Both are true (D) Both are false

 2 0 8   1 – 3 3      47. Let A   1 4 – 4  B   3 – 5 3       1 2 – 3   3 – 3 1  Then (A) neither A nor B is diagonalizable (B) A and B are both diagonalizable (C) A is diagonalizable but B is not (D) B is diagonalizable but A is not

 – 2 – 3 0    48. The characteristic polynomial of the matrix  2 1 – 1  is    0 3 2  (A) (2 + ) (–2 + 3 – 2) (B) (2 + ) (2 + 3 – 6) + 6(2 – ) (C) –3 + 2 – 5 + 2 (D) (2 – ) (2 +  + 4) + 3(2 – ) M.Sc. (Hons. School) Mathematics/BDU-22277-A 9 [Turn over 49. Which of the following is true ? (A) Five vectors on IR6 can span IR6 and six vectors in IR5 can span IR5 (B) Five vectors in IR6 cannot span IR6 but six vectors in IR5 can span IR5 (C) Five vectors in IR6 cannot span IR6 and six vectors in IR5 cannot span IR5 (D) None of the above

50. If A = {1, 2, 3, 4} then which of the following is a function from A to itself ?

(A) f1 = {(x, y) : x – y = 5} (B) f2 = {(x, y) : x – y = 6}

(C) f3 = {(x, y) : x + y = 5} (D) f4 = {(x, y) : x + y > 4} 51. If a sequence oscillates infinitely then it is divergent to (A) infinity () (B) – (C) neither to  nor to – (D) none of these

1 1 1 52. lim   ......  is equal to n n  1 n  2 2n (A) 0 (B) 1

53. A  {(x, y) : y  ex , x  IR}

B  {(x, y) : y  e–x , x  IR } then (A) A  B =  (B) A  B  (C) A  B = IR × IR (D) None of the above 54. g(x) = x3 + 3x2 Then the point of inflection of g(x) is (A) (0, 0) (B) (–2, 4) (C) (–3, 0) (D) (–1, 2) 55. The area bounded by the curves y = | x | – 1 and y = – | x | + 1 is (A) 1 unit of area (B) 2 units of area (C) 2 2 units of area (D) 4 units of area

3/2 56.  [x2] dx is 0

(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 2  2 (D) 2 – 2

M.Sc. (Hons. School) Mathematics/BDU-22277-A 10 57. The surface area of the solid generated by revolving y = 1 about x-axis from x = 0 to 1 is (A)  (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 3 58. The curvature of y = 2x + 3 at the point (0, 3) is (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 0 (D) 1 59. The points on the curve y3 + 3x2 = 12y where the tangent is vertical are

 11   4    (A)  , – 2 (B)  , 1  3   3 

 4  (C) (0, 0) (D)  , 2  3  60. The differential equation x dx  y dy  0, y  0 y (A) is exact differential equation (B) has an integrating factor ‘x’ (C) has an integrating factor ‘x2’ (D) has an integrating factor ‘y’ 61. For a particle executing simple harmonic motion, acceleration (A) is maximum at the centre of oscillation (B) is constant throughout the motion (C) is zero at the extreme positions (D) is maximum at the extreme positions    62. A particle moves in a straight line with an acceleration a  – k ν where k is a constant and ν is  velocity of the particle. | ν |  νo at time, t = 0. Then   (A) | ν |  vo – kt (B) | ν |  vo  kt  –kt  kt (C) | ν |  v e (D) | ν |  v e

63. A particle is thrown vertically upwards from the surface of earth with velocity of magnitude vo. If ‘g’ is the magnitude of acceleration due to gravity of the earth then the maximum height attained by the particle is

2 2vo v (A) (B) o g 2g

2 v vo (C) o (D) g g

M.Sc. (Hons. School) Mathematics/BDU-22277-A 11 [Turn over 64. The acceleration of a particle moving according to the law v2 = 2(x sin x + cos x), where x is the distance moved, is (A) x sin x (B) x cos x (C) x sin x + cos x (D) x sin x – cos x 65.   F1 F3 B A C  F    2 F1, F2, F3 are parallel forces in equilibrium acting at A, B, C respectively as shown. AC = 3 cm,

AB = 2 cm. If F3 = 8 Newton (N) then F2 and F1 are

(A) F2 = 12 N, F1 = 4 N (B) F1 = 3N, F2 = 1 N 3 1 (C) F = 12 N, F = 4 N (D) F  N , F  N 1 2 1 8 2 4 66. The resolved part of a non zero force in a given direction is zero. Then (A) The force is zero (B) The force is parallel to that direction (C) The force is perpendicular to that direction π (D) The force must make an angle with that direction 4 67. A particle is projected with velocity u, at an angle  to the horizontal. The speed at the highest point is (A) zero (B) u cos  (C) u sin  (D) u       68. The resultant of two forces P and Q is R . If the resolved part of R in the direction of P is Q , then   the angle between P and Q is

–1 P –1 P (A) 2 cos (B) sin 2Q Q

–1 P –1 P (C) 2 sin (D) cos 2Q 2Q

dy 1 – x 69. The solution of  represents dx y (A) a family of circles centred at (1, 0) (B) a family of circles centred at (0, 0) (C) a family of circles centred at (–1, 0) (D) a family of straight lines with slope –1

M.Sc. (Hons. School) Mathematics/BDU-22277-A 12 70. The solution of y" + ay' + by = 0 where a, b are constants, approaches zero as x  then (A) a > 0, b > 0 (B) a > 0, b < 0 (C) a < 0, b < 0 (D) a < 0, b > 0 Assume a2 – 4b > 0 71. Consider x3 + 6x2 + 9x + 4 = 0. What is the nature of roots of this equation ? (A) All the roots are equal (B) Exactly two roots are equal (C) All the roots are distinct (D) All roots are zero 72. The continued product of all nth roots of (–1) is (A) zero (B) 1 (C) –1 (D) (–1)n

αiβ 73. If i  α  iβ then α2  β2 

(A) 1 (B) e–(4n1)πβ , n integer

1  π  π (C) log 2  i  (D) log 2 – i 2  2  4 75. Let A be a real skew symmetric matrix such that A2 + I = O then (A) A is an odd order matrix (B) A is an even order matrix (C) A is singular (D) A is symmetric

M.Sc. (Hons. School) Mathematics/BDU-22277-A 13 [Turn over ROUGH WORK

M.Sc. (Hons. School) Mathematics/BDU-22277-A 14 ROUGH WORK

M.Sc. (Hons. School) Mathematics/BDU-22277-A 15 [Turn over ROUGH WORK

M.Sc. (Hons. School) Mathematics/BDU-22277-A 16 354 CET (PG)-2014 Sr. No. : Question Booklet Series : A Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet. Roll No. In Figures In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No. Signature of the Candidate : Subject : M.Sc. (Hons. School)–Microbiology Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75 DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO INSTRUCTIONS 1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided and nowhere else. 2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet. 4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so. 5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test. 6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question, darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases. 8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the Question Booklet. 9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble. 10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed. 11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used. 12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the candidate only. 13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty. 14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from the examination. 15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent/Observer whose decision shall be final. 16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculator is not allowed. M.Sc. (Hons. School)–Microbiology/A

1. Microbiological water testing relies on the detection of which indicator bacteria ? (A) Dinoflagellates (B) Acid fast (C) Coliforms (D) Bacteroids 2. The maximum magnification of a compound microscope is : (A) 100 X (B) 1000 X (C) 2000 X (D) 5000 X 3. Which of the following processes does not generate ATP ? (A) Calvin-Benson cycle (B) Glycolysis (C) Oxidative phosphorylation (D) Substrate level phosphorylation 4. Mycoplasmas are different from other prokaryotes by : (A) Presence of chitin in cell wall (B) Presence of glycoproteins in cell wall (C) Presence of murein in cell wall (D) Absence of cell wall 5. Treatment of municipal water supplies is based upon : (A) Coagulation, filtration, chlorination (B) Chlorination, filtration, coagulation (C) Filtration, coagulation, chlorination (D) Coagulation, chlorination, filtration 6. The magnitude of BOD of wastewater is related to : (A) Oxygen content (B) Bacterial content (C) Organic material content (D) Inorganic material content 7. The 95% ethanol is equivalent to proof : (A) 190 (B) 95 (C) 9.5 (D) 5.0 8. HTST pasteurization is done at : (A) 71.6 C/15 sec (B) 71.6 C/30 min (C) 62.9 C/15 sec (D) 62.9 C/30 min 9. How will you sterilize plastic petri plates ? (A) By autoclaving (B) By chlorine (C) By ethylene oxide (D) By phenol 10. Which is NOT a form of DNA ? (A) B (B) Z (C) A (D) U

M.Sc. (Hons. School)–Microbiology/BDU-22278-A 3 [Turn over  11. Lactose is : (A) Fructose+Glucose (B) Glucose+Galactose (C) Fructose+Galactose (D) Glucose+Glucose 12. The symbiotic bacterium which fixes nitrogen in soil is : (A) Azotobacter (B) Rhizobium (C) Clostridium (D) Bacillus 13. The arrangement of flagella in E. coli is : (A) Peritrichous (B) Lophotrichous (C) Monotrichous (D) Polar 14. The average molecular weight of a base pair is : (A) 66 daltons (B) 660 daltons (C) 6600 daltons (D) 66000 daltons 15. For the detection of coliforms in potable water, the confirmed test employs : (A) MacConkey agar (B) Lactose broth (C) EBM agar (D) Sabourod’s agar 16. Selective media for the isolation of Salmonella from environment Do not contain : (A) Brillian Green (B) Tetrathionate (C) Selenite (D) Benzalkonium chloride 17. Elephantiasis is caused by : (A) Trypanosome brucei (B) Toxoplasma gondii (C) Trypanosoma cruzi (D) Wuchereria bancrofti 18. Rabies virus belongs to the family : (A) Togaviridae (B) Flaviviridae (C) Rhabdoviridae (D) Bunyaviridae 19. The key enzyme in Calvin–Benson cycle in photoautotrophic bacteria is : (A) Transaldolase (B) Transketolase (C) Ribulose diphosphate carboxylase (D) Phosphoglycerate mutase 20. Bioaugmentation for degradation of pollutants/xenobiotics in soils is : (A) Adding useful microbe(s) in soil (B) Adding useful nutrients in soil (C) Using natural soil flora (D) Adding trace elements in soil 21. What is NOT true about leprosy ? (A) It is caused by an acid fast bacteria (B) It causes facial nerve palsy (C) Tuberculoid leprosy occurs in patients with poor cellular immunity (D) More bacilli found in skin of patients with lepromatous leprosy than tuberculoid leprosy

M.Sc. (Hons. School)–Microbiology/BDU-22278-A 4  22. Dental caries is caused by : (A) Bacteroides oralis (B) Streptococcus salivarius (C) Streptococcus mutans (D) Streptococcus epidermidis 23. The indicator organism for pasteurization is : (A) Rickettsia prowazekii (B) Coxiella burnetii (C) Streptocuccus viridans (D) Corynibacterium diphtheriae 24. The first recombinant vaccine to hit the market was : (A) Influenza (B) Hepatitis B (C) Polio (D) Cholera 25. Gram Positive bacteria fall in the division : (A) Gracilicutes (B) Firmicutes (C) Tenericutes (D) Mendosicutes 26. Trickling filters fall in which kind of sewage treatment system ? (A) Primary (B) Secondary (C) Tertiary (D) Quaternary 27. Vodka is made by the fermentation of : (A) Barley (B) Molasses (C) Potatoes (D) Rice 28. Riboflavin is produced in industry by : (A) Ashbya gossypii (B) Propianobacterium shermanii (C) Zymomonas mobilis (D) Lactobacillus plantarum 29. Which of the following bacteria has unsaturated branched fatty alcohols in cell membrane ? (A) Thiobacillus (B) Mycobacterium (C) Pyrococcus (D) Thermus 30. For error prone PCR, the polymerase used is : (A) Taq (B) Pfu (C) Vent (D) Sequenase 31. Production of High Fructose Syrup from corn in industry uses amylase, glucoamylase and : (A) Invertase (B) Glucose oxidase (C) Glucose isomerase (D) Isomylase 32. A bacterial population growing exponentially at a specific growth rate of 1.25/h will have a generation time of : (A) 0.55 h (B) 0.65 h (C) 0.85 h (D) 1.55 h

M.Sc. (Hons. School)–Microbiology/BDU-22278-A 5 [Turn over  33. Thiosulfate citrate bile salt agar is used for the selective cultivation of : (A) Staphylococcus aureus (B) Vibrio cholerae (C) Neisseria gonorrohoeae (D) Corynibacterium diphtheriae 34. Which of the following is NOT a protein database ? (A) TREMBL (B) PIR (C) DDBJ (D) PDB 35. Which of the following periods is called GOLDEN AGE OF MICROBIOLOGY ? (A) 1761-1811 (B) 1800-1860 (C) 1860-1910 (D) 1889-1939 36. The three sugars in TSI test are : (A) Lactose, Sucrose, Mannitol (B) Lactose, Glucose, Mannitol (C) Lactose, Sucrose, Glucose (D) Sucrose, Glucose, Mannitol 37. Which of the following is caused by PRION ? (A) Chagas disease (B) Lyme disease (C) Hansen’s disease (D) Kuru disease 38. How many molecules of carbon dioxide will be given off during ten turns of the Krebs cycle ? (A) 10 (B) 20 (C) 30 (D) 40 39. Which of the following is a non-legume symbiotic nitrogen fixing microbe ? (A) Anabaena (B) Azorhizobium (C) Azotobacter (D) Bradyrhizobium 40. Nitrogenase in Rhizobium is : (A) Iron protein (B) Iron and Cobalt protein (C) Iron and Molybdenum protein (D) Iron and Cobalt protein 41. Which of the following is not a probiotic : (A) Lactobacillus casei (B) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (C) Bifidobacterium (D) Acinetobacter baumannii 42. Commercially cultured mushroom shiitake is ? (A) Agaricus bisporus (B) Lentinula edodes (C) Ganoderma luciderm (D) Trametes versicolor 43. Which of the following is a NOT a class II food preservative in market ? (A) Benzoic acid (B) Na-Sorbate (C) Na-Sulfite (D) Acetic acid 44. Which microbe does not cause food infection ? (A) Campylobacter jejuni (B) Yersinia enterocolitica (C) Giardia lamblia (D) Borrelia burgdorferi

M.Sc. (Hons. School)–Microbiology/BDU-22278-A 6  45. Very high microbial cell densities can be obtained in a fermenter by : (A) Variable volume fed batch culturing (B) Fixed volume fed batch culturing (C) Continuous culturing (D) Batch culturing 46. The commercial drink YAKULT contains the Lactic Acid Bacteria : (A) Lactobacillus casei (B) Lactobacillus plantarum (C) Leuconostoc mesenteroides (D) Streptococcus lactis 47. The largest bacterium is : (A) Thiomargarita namibiensis (B) Epulopiscium fishelsoni (C) Achromatium oxaliferum (D) Lyngbya majuscule 48. Archaebacteria were discovered by : (A) Carl Woese (B) Karl Stetter (C) Thomas Brock (D) Craig Venter 49. In E. coli, K+ is transported across the cell membrane by : (A) Uniport (B) Symport (C) Antiport (D) Passive diffusion 50. Proton motive force in bacteria is NOT utilized for : (A) ATP synthesis (B) Flagellar locomotion (C) Transport of certain nutrients (D) Glucose metabolism 51. A bacterial cell starts growing exponentially with g = 30 min and reaches 106 cfu/ml in 10 h. If 16 cells start growing similarly, how much time will take to reach the same cell density ? (A) 16 h (B) 8 h (C) 160 h (D) 30 h 52. How many oxygen molecules are required in the fermentation of one molecule of glucose to ethanol

and CO2 ? (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 36 53. In Gram Negative bacteria, which ring is not part of the basal body of flagellum ? (A) L (B) P (C) MS (D) O 54. Which group ciprofloxcin antibiotic belongs to : (A) Aminoglycoside (B) Beta-lactam (C) Macrolides (D) Fluoro-4-quinolones

M.Sc. (Hons. School)–Microbiology/BDU-22278-A 7 [Turn over  55. Which is the smallest eubacterial genome ? (A) Mycoplasma genitalium (B) Mycoplasma pneumoniae (C) Deinococcus radiodurans (D) Aquifex aeolicus 56. For which bacterial disease toxoid is NOT used as vaccine ? (A) Anthrax (B) Diphtheria (C) Tetanus (D) Cholera 57. Which reaction is undesirable for wine making ? (A) Sucrose  ethanol (B) Ethanol  acetic acid (C) Malic acid  lactic acid (D) Glucose  pyruvic acid 58. The term 12D treatment refers to which statement ? (A) Heat treatment sufficient to kill 12000 bacteria (B) Use of 12 different heat treatments to preserve food (C) 1012 cells reduction in bacterial population (D) A process that destroys 12 different bacterial species 59. An organism that has superoxide dismutase and peroxidase but not catalase is : (A) Obligate aerobe (B) Obligate anaerobe (C) Microaerophile (D) Aerotolerant anaerobe 60. Bergey’s Manual of Systematic bacteriology differs from Bergey’s Manual of Determinative Bacteriology in that the former : (A) Groups bacteria into species (B) Groups bacteria according to phylogenetic relatedness (C) Groups bacteria according to pathogenesis (D) Groups bacteria according to biochemical properties 61. An example of lysogeny in animals is : (A) Slow viral infection (B) Latent viral infection (C) T-even bacteriophage (D) Infection resulting in cell death 62. Place the following in the order in which they are found in a phage infected host cell : (1) Capsid proteins (2) Infective phage particles (3) Phage nucleic acid (A) 1, 2, 3 (B) 3, 2, 1 (C) 1, 3, 2 (D) 3, 1, 2 63. The emergence of new infectious disease is probably due to all of the following except : (A) The need of bacteria to cause disease (B) The ability of humans to travel by air (C) Changing environments (floods, draughts, pollution) (D) A pathogen crossing the species barrier

M.Sc. (Hons. School)–Microbiology/BDU-22278-A 8  64. Which of the following is NOT a Koch’s postulate ? (A) The same pathogen must be present in every case of a disease (B) The pathogen must be isolated and grown in pure culture from the diseased host (C) The pathogen from pure culture must cause the disease in a healthy, susceptible animal (D) The disease must be transmitted from a disease to healthy, susceptible animal by contact 65. Which of the following is NOT a portal of entry for pathogens ? (A) Mucous membrane of respiratory tract (B) Parenteral route (C) Skin (D) Blood 66. A drug that binds to mannose on human cells would prevent : (A) The entrance of Vibrio enterotoxin (B) The attachment of pathogenic E. coli (C) The action of botulinum toxin (D) The action of diphtheria toxin 67. Which statement is true ? (A) The primary goal of a pathogen is to kill the host (B) Evolution selects for the most virulent pathogens (C) A successful pathogen does not kill its host before it is transmitted (D) A successful pathogen never kills its host 68. Which of the following matches with statement 1 ? (A) Naturally acquired active immunity (B) Naturally acquired passive immunity (C) Artificially acquired active immunity (D) Artificially acquired passive immunity 1. The type of protection provided by diphtheria toxoid injection 69. Which of the following matches with statement 1 ? (A) IgA (B) IgE (C) IgM (D) IgG 1. Antibodies that protect the fetus and newborn 70. Which of the following matches with statement 1 ? (A) Type I hypersensitivity (B) Type II hypersensitivity (C) Type III hypersensitivity (D) Type IV hypersensitivity 1. Localised anaphylaxis 71. The most selective antimicrobial activity would be exhibited by a drug that : (A) Inhibits cell wall synthesis (B) Inhibits protein synthesis (C) Inhibits nucleic acid synthesis (D) Inhibits 70S ribosomal translation

M.Sc. (Hons. School)–Microbiology/BDU-22278-A 9 [Turn over  72. Which of the following is usually transmitted by contaminated water ? (A) Chlamydia (B) Leptospirosis (C) Syphilis (D) Trichomoniasis 73. Which process takes place under aerobic conditions ? (A) Activated sludge (B) Denitrification (C) Nitrogen fixation (D) Methane production 74. Widal test is a serological test to detect : (A) Specific agglutinins against O-Ag of Salmonella typhi (B) Specific precipitins against H-Ag of Salmonella typhi (C) Specific agglutinins against both O-Ag and H-Ag of Salmonella typhi (D) Specific precipitins against both O-Ag and H-Ag of Salmonella typhi 75. Agar is a polymer of : (A) D-galactose and 3, 6-anhydro-L-galactopyranose (B) D-galactose and N-acetylglucosamine (C) D-galactose and galacturonic acid (D) Alginic acid

M.Sc. (Hons. School)–Microbiology/BDU-22278-A 10  ROUGH WORK

M.Sc. (Hons. School)–Microbiology/BDU-22278-A 11 172  CET(PG)-2014 Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D Sr. No. : Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet. Roll No. In Figures In Words In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.

Signature of the Candidate : Subject : M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Computer Science Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75

1. Which computer memory is used for storing programs and data currently being processed by the CPU ? (A) Mass memory (B) Internal memory (C) Non-volatile memory (D) PROM

2. The output quality of a printer is measured by : (A) Dots per inch (B) Dots per sq. inch (C) Dots printed per unit time (D) All of above

3. Instructions and memory address are represented by : (A) Character code (B) Binary codes (C) Binary word (D) Parity bit

4. How many times is a do while loop guaranteed to loop ? (A) 0 (B) Infinitely (C) 1 (D) Variable

5. A word used to describe a storage location is called : (A) A byte (B) A record (C) An address (D) All of above

6. Offline device is : (A) A device which is not connected to CPU (B) A device which is connected to CPU (C) A direct access storage device (D) An I/O device

7. Which of the following registers is used to keep track of address of the memory location where the next instruction is located ? (A) Memory address register (B) Memory data register (C) Instruction register (D) Program counter

M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Computer Science/BDU-22276-A 3 [Turn over 8. The first steps in problem solving process is to : (A) plan the algorithm (B) Analyze the problem (C) Desk-check the algorithm (D) Code the algorithm

9. The difference between x (x without quotes) and ‘x’ (x with quotes) is : (A) The first one refers to a variable whose name is x and the second one refers to the character constant x (B) The first one is a character constant x and second one is the string literal x (C) Both are same (D) The first one is a character constant x and second one is the pointer x

10. Regarding a VDU, which statement is more correct ? (A) It is an output device (B) It is an input device (C) It is a peripheral device (D) It is storage device

11. The directives for the preprocessors begin with : (A) Ampersand symbol (&) (B) Two Slashes (//) (C) Number Sign (#) (D) Less than symbol (<)

12. In case of pass by reference : (A) The value of the variable is passed to the function (B) The location of variable in memory is passed to the function so that it can use the same memory area for its processing (C) The value of the variable cannot be changed within the calling function (D) The calling function cannot return the manipulated value

13. Array passed as an argument to a function is interpreted as : (A) Address of the number of elements of the array (B) Values of the first elements of the array (C) Address of the first element of the array (D) Number of element of the array

M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Computer Science/BDU-22276-A 4 14. What is the output of the following code ? #include void main ( ) { char letter = ‘Z’; printf("\n%c",letter); } (A) Z (B) ‘z’ (C) Error (D) Garbage Value

15. Find out the error in following block of code. If (x = 100) cout << “x is 100”; (A) 100 should be enclosed in quotations (B) There is no semicolon at the end of first line (C) ”Equals to” operator mistake (D) Variable x should not be inside quotation

16. The “return 0;” statement in main function indicates : (A) The program did nothing (B) The program worked as expected without any errors during its execution (C) Not to end the program yet (D) None of above.

17. The difference between memory and storage is that memory is …… and storage is …… (A) Temporary, permanent (B) Permanent, temporary (C) Slow, fast (D) All of above

18. The octal equivalence of 111010 is : (A) 81 (B) 72 (C) 71 (D) 92

M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Computer Science/BDU-22276-A 5 [Turn over 19. An output device that uses words or messages recorded on a magnetic medium to produce audio response is : (A) Magnetic tape (B) Voice response unit (C) Voice recognition unit (D) Voice band

20. Shell is the exclusive feature of : (A) UNIX (B) DOS (C) System software (D) Application software

21. A 32-bit microprocessor has the word length equal to : (A) 4 bytes (B) 12 bytes (C) 32 bytes (D) 2 bytes

22. Interval between the time of submission and completion of the job is called : (A) Waiting time (B) Turnaround time (C) Throughput (D) Response time

23. The scheduling in which CPU is allocated to the process with least CPU-burst time is called : (A) Priority Scheduling (B) Shortest job first Scheduling (C) Round Robin Scheduling (D) Multilevel Queue Scheduling

24. Program ‘preemption’ is : (A) forced deallocation of the CPU from a program which is executing on the CPU. (B) release of CPU by the program after completing its task. (C) forced allotment of CPU by a program to itself. (D) a program terminating itself due to detection of an error.

25. An assembler is : (A) programming language dependent. (B) syntax dependent. (C) machine dependent. (D) data dependent.

26. Which of the following loader is executed when a system is first turned on or restarted : (A) Boot loader (B) Compile and Go loader (C) Bootstrap loader (D) Relating loader

M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Computer Science/BDU-22276-A 6 27. The main reason to encrypt a file is to : (A) Reduce its size (B) Secure it for transmission (C) Prepare it for backup (D) Include it in the start-up sequence

28. Each computer connected to the internet must : (A) be an IBM PC (B) have a unique IP address (C) be internet compatible (D) have a modem connection

29. Internet uses : (A) Packet switching (B) Circuit switching (C) Telephone switching (D) Telex switching

30. By an extranet we mean : (A) an extra fast computer network (B) the intranets of two co-operating organizations interconnected via a secure leased line (C) an extra network used by an organization for higher reliability (D) an extra connection to internet provided to co-operating organization

31. A web page is located using a : (A) Universal Record Linking (B) Uniform Resource Locator (C) Universal Record Locator (D) Uniformly Reachable Links

32. A hashing scheme is used with : (A) Sequential file organization (B) Direct file organization (C) Partitioned file organization (D) Indexed sequential file organization

33. In the relational modes, cardinality is termed as : (A) Number of tuples (B) Number of attributes (C) Number of tables (D) Number of constraints

34. A table joined with itself is called : (A) Join (B) Self Join (C) Outer Join (D) Equi Join

M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Computer Science/BDU-22276-A 7 [Turn over 35. The OS of a computer may periodically collect all the free memory space to form contiguous block of free space. This is called : (A) Concatenation (B) Garbage collection (C) Collision (D) Dynamic Memory Allocation

36. A linear list of elements in which deletion can be done from one end (front) and insertion can take place only at the other end (rear) is known as a : (A) queue (B) stack (C) tree (D) linked list

37. The data structure required to evaluate a postfix expression is : (A) queue (B) stack (C) array (D) linked-list

38. The process of building new classes from existing one is called : (A) Polymorphism (B) Structure (C) Inheritance (D) Cascading

39. A function call mechanism that passes arguments to a function by passing a copy of the values of the arguments is : (A) call by variables (B) call by value (C) call by reference (D) call by value result

40. Use of virtual functions implies : (A) overloading (B) overriding (C) static binding (D) dynamic binding

41. for (; ;) : (A) means the test which is done using some expression is always true (B) is not valid (C) will loop forever (D) should be written as for ( )

M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Computer Science/BDU-22276-A 8 42. Consider the following statements : char *ptr; ptr = “hello”; cout << *ptr; What will be printed ? (A) first letter (B) entire string (C) it is a syntax error (D) last letter

43. Exception handling is targeted at : (A) Run-time error (B) Compiler time error (C) Logical error (D) All of the above.

44. The new operator : (A) returns a pointer to the variable (B) creates a variable named new only (C) obtains memory for a new variable (D) tells how much memory is available

45. A library function exit ( ) causes an exit from : (A) the loop in which it occurs (B) the block in which it occurs (C) the function in which it occurs (D) the program in which it occurs

46. Name the header file to be included for the use of built in function isalnum ( ) (A) string.h (B) process.h (C) ctype.h (D) dos.h 47. Which of the following will produce a value 10 if x = 9.7 ? (A) floor(x) (B) abs(x) (C) log(x) (D) ceil(x)

48. Member functions, when defined within the class specification : (A) are always inline. (B) are not inline. (C) are inline by default, unless they are too big or too complicated. (D) are not inline by default. M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Computer Science/BDU-22276-A 9 [Turn over 49. To provide electronic circuits, first generation computers used : (A) Vacuum Tubes (B) Transistors (C) Integrated circuits (D) Large scale Integrated circuits

50. Who proposed the stored program concept ? (A) T.J. Watson (B) Charles Babbage (C) Von Neumann (D) Bill Gate

51. A combinational logic circuit that is used when it is desired to sent data from two and more sources but through a single transmission line is known as : (A) Decoder (B) Encoder (C) Multiplexer (D) De-multiplexer

52. Break statement can be simulated by using : (A) goto (B) return (C) exit (D) Any of the above features

53. The errors that can be pointed out by the compiler are : (A) Logical errors (B) Internal errors (C) Syntax errors (D) Semantic errors

54. Which of the following are loaded into main memory when the computer is booted ? (A) internal command instructions (B) external command instructions (C) word processing instruction (D) Priority-based 55. Kernel is (A) An operating system (B) A part of operating system (C) A hardware (D) A register

56. Data encryption techniques are particularly useful for : (A) Reducing storage space requirements (B) Improving data integrity (C) Protecting data in data communication system (D) All of the above

M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Computer Science/BDU-22276-A 10 57. The transfer of data from a CPU to peripheral devices of a computer is achieved through : (A) Modems (B) Computer ports (C) Interfaces (D) Buffer memory

58. Demodulation is the process of : (A) Converting digital signals to analog signals (B) Converting analog signals to digital signals (C) Combining many low–speed channels into one high speed channels (D) Dividing the high-speed signals into frequency bands

59. Formatting disk involves : (A) Copying the contents of one disk to another disk (B) Preventing a user from copying the disk (C) Erasing the disk and giving it an empty root directory (D) None of the above

60. Which of the following colour graphics display adapter has the highest resolution ? (A) CGA (B) EGA (C) HGA (D) VGA

61. What is the output after the execution of for loop ? for (i=0; i<10; ++i) printf(“%d”, i & 1); (A) 01 01 01 01 01 (B) 01 01 11 11 11 (C) 11 01 01 01 01 (D) 11 11 11 11 11

62. Packets are related to which layer ? (A) Data link layer (B) Network layer (C) Physical layer (D) Presentation layer

63. Memory of 64*8 bits means : (A) Memory space of 64 Kilobyte (B) Memory space of 64 Bit (C) Memory space of 64 Byte (D) Memory space of 512 Kilobytes

M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Computer Science/BDU-22276-A 11 [Turn over 64. HTTP means : (A) Hypertext transfer protocol (B) Hypertext transmission protocol (C) Hypertension transfer protocol (D) Hypertension transmission protocol

65. Which of the following allows devices on one network to communicate with devices on another network ? (A) Multiplexer (B) Gateway (C) T-switch (D) Modem

66. Which of the following is not a phase in the Software Development Life Cycle ? (A) Analyzing current system (B) Defining the latest technology (C) Designing new system (D) Developing and implementing new system

67. The Fibonacci sequence is : (A) 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11, 13… (B) 0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21… (C) 0, 1, 2, 3, 5, 13, 21… (D) 0, 1, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21, 34…

68. Which is not a linear structure ? (A) Stack (B) Queue (C) Tree (D) Linked List

69. Address line of 8086 microprocessor is : (A) 4 byte (B) 8 byte (C) 5 nibble (D) 20 byte

70. In C++, a function contained within a class is called : (A) A class (B) Member function (C) An operator (D) A method

71. Which is the most powerful type of computers ? (A) Micro computer (B) Mini computer (C) Mainframe computer (D) Super computer

M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Computer Science/BDU-22276-A 12 72. The physical arrangement of equipment in a network is called : (A) topology (B) pairing (C) queuing (D) scheduling

73. The first mechanical computer designed by Charles Babbage was : (A) analytical engine (B) calculator (C) abacus (D) processor

74. Which memory stores the values of variables ? (A) PROM (B) RAM (C) ROM (D) EPROM

75. Low level computer language uses : (A) Mathematical symbols (B) Mnemonic codes (C) English words (D) Pseudo codes

M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Computer Science/BDU-22276-A 13 [Turn over ROUGH WORK

M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Computer Science/BDU-22276-A 14 ROUGH WORK

M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Computer Science/BDU-22276-A 15 [Turn over65 CET(PG)-2014 Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D Sr. No. : Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet. Roll No. In Figures In Words In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.

Signature of the Candidate : Subject : M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course) Botany Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75

DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO INSTRUCTIONS 1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided and nowhere else. 2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet. 4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so. 5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test. 6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question, darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases. 8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the Question Booklet. 9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble. 10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed. 11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used. 12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the candidate only. 13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty. 14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/ noted from this Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so would be expelled from the examination. 15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent / Observer whose decision shall be final. 16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculator is not allowed. M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course) Botany/BDU-22287-A {2} M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course) Botany/A 1. Which of the following is the theme of International Day for Biological Diversity- 2014 ? (A) Marine Biodiversity (B) Island Biodiversity (C) Biodiversity and Water (D) Biodiversity and Climate Change

2. Which of the following is an example of secondary air pollutant ?

(A) NOx (B) Particulate matter

3. Which of the following terms apply to the plants whose perennating buds lie near the ground and remain covered with soil or dead plant parts ? (A) Cryptophytes (B) Hemicryptophytes (C) Chamaephytes (D) Therophytes

4. A type of wetland dominated by non-woody herbaceous plants is known as _____. (A) Marsh (B) Swamp (C) Estuary (D) Lagoon

5. Which of the following terms refer to the transition zone between two ecosystems ? (A) Ecocline (B) Ecotype (C) Ecotone (D) Ecotope

6. Which of the following terms refer to the organisms that actively swim in a water body ? (A) Plankton (B) Neuston (C) Nekton (D) Benthos

7. Who developed the concept of Ecological Pyramid ? (A) Frederic Clements (B) Arthur Tansley (C) Charles Elton (D) Rachel Carson

8. CBD stands for ______. (A) Convention on Biological Diversity (B) Conference on Biological Diversity (C) Convention on Biome Diversity (D) Convention on Biosphere Diversity

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course) Botany/BDU-22287-A {3} [Turn over 9. Grassland with scattered trees is known as ______. (A) Meadow (B) Savanna (C) Pampa (D) Chaparral

10. Which of the following is an example of aquatic fern ? (A) Salvinia molesta (B) Pteridium aquilinum (C) Psilotum nudum (D) Osmunda regalis

11. Which of the following Pteridophytes is known as resurrection plant ? (A) Ophioglossum (B) Lycopodium (C) Selaginella (D) Equisetum

12. Form genus Rhynia is a type of ______fossil. (A) Cast (B) Pseudo (C) Petrified (D) Living

13. Botanical name of nutmeg tree is : (A) Anacardium occidentale (B) Prunus amygdalus (C) Juglans regia (D) Myristica fragrans

14. Which of the following is the botanical name of the medicinal plant Sarpgandh ? (A) Datura alba (B) Rauwolfia serpentina (C) Atropa belladona (D) Digitalis purpurea

15. International Rice Research Institute is located at : (A) Thailand (B) South Korea (C) Philippines (D) Japan

16. Which of the following parts of clove is used as flavouring material ? (A) Dried leaves (B) Dried seeds (C) Floral buds (D) Bark

17. Which of the following is the source of Gum arabic ? (A) Acacia senegal (B) Aegle marmelos (C) Astragalus gummifer (D) Sterculia urens

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course) Botany/BDU-22287-A {4} 18. Vetiver oil is obtained from ______. (A) Vanda alpina (B) Vetiveria zizanioides (C) Vitex negundo (D) Vitis vinifera

19. Which of the following terms refers to the type of fruit of cucurbits ? (A) Hesperidium (B) Pepo (C) Samara (D) Drupe

20. Which of the following is the characteristic feature of Chara ? (A) Absence of sexual reproduction (B) Multicellular and jacketed sex organs (C) Phycoerythrin pigments (D) Hook-shaped antheridium

21. Commercially useful colloidal product—Carrageenin is obtained from : (A) Chondrus crispus (B) Fucus vesiculosus (C) Macrocystis pyrifera (D) Dictyota dichotoma

22. Reindeer moss is a type of : (A) Moss (B) Lichen (C) Spike moss (D) Club moss

23. Which of the following is the causal organism of loose smut of wheat ? (A) Puccinia graminis (B) Ustilago tritici (C) Puccinia recondita (D) Tilletia indica

24. Which of the following lichens have a branched thallus and bushy appearance ? (A) Fruticose (B) Foliose (C) Squamulose (D) Leprose

25. The practice of removing diseased plants from the agricultural fields is known as : (A) Pruning (B) Sanitation (C) Clearing (D) Roguing

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course) Botany/BDU-22287-A {5} [Turn over 26. Which of the following reproductive structure is associated with the fern Marsilea ? (A) Sporocarp (B) Fertile Spike (C) Synangium (D) Sporophyll

27. Pseudoelaters are found in ______. (A) Dryopteris (B) Equisetum (C) Lycopodium (D) Pteridium

28. Which of the following ferns is commonly known as Bird’s nest fern ? (A) Osmunda regalis (B) Asplenium nidus (C) Ophioglossum vulgatum (D) Angiopteris erecta

29. Which of the following is the causal organism of white rust of crucifers ? (A) Colletotrichum falcatum (B) Albugo candida (C) Ustilago tritici (D) Phytophthora infestans

30. Bordeaux mixture used as a fungicide is composed of : (A) Copper sulphate and Lime (B) Copper sulphate and Baking powder (C) Lime and Gypsum (D) Mercuric chloride and Lime

31. In red algae, the reserve food material is ______. (A) Glycogen (B) Protein (C) Floridean Starch (D) Fat droplets

32. Which of the following algal genera has hook-shaped antheridium ? (A) Chara (B) Voucheria (C) Cladophora (D) Volvox

33. In which of the following bryophytes, pyrenoid is present in the chloroplast ? (A) Marchantia (B) Funaria (C) Anthoceros (D) Riccia

34. Bartramia pomiformis is commonly known as : (A) Club moss (B) Peat moss (C) Apple moss (D) Spike moss

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course) Botany/BDU-22287-A {6} 35. Which of the following is a leafy liverwort ? (A) Funaria (B) Riccia (C) Porella (D) Pogonatum

36. Which of the following part attaches sporophyte to gametophyte ? (A) Foot (B) Seta (C) Apophysis (D) Root

37. Which of the following gymnosperms is known as Living Fossil ? (A) Picea smithiana (B) Cedrus deodara (C) Ginkgo biloba (D) Abies pindrow

38. Which of the following species of Pinus is the source of Chilgoza ? (A) Pinus wallichiana (B) Pinus gerardiana (C) Pinus roxburghii (D) Pinus radiata

39. Endosperm in Gymnosperms is ______. (A) Haploid (B) Diploid (C) Triploid (D) Tetraploid

40. Sulphur showers are related to the ______. (A) Sal forests (B) Pine forests (C) Teak forests (D) Eucalyptus plantations

41. Which of the following is known as Age of Cycads ? (A) Cenozoic era (B) Paleozoic era (C) Mesozoic era (D) Proterozoic eon

42. Angiosperms first appeared in ______period. (A) Cretaceous (B) Cambrian (C) Devonian (D) Permian

43. Monoadelphus condition is found in the flower of ______. (A) Murraya exotica (B) Hibiscus rosa-sinensis (C) Delphinium ajacis (D) Brassica campestris

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course) Botany/BDU-22287-A {7} [Turn over 44. Gynostegium is present in the flower of ______. (A) Aster (B) Malvastrum (C) Nerium (D) Calotropis

45. Bicarpellary, syncarpus, unilocular, inferior ovary with basal placentation are the features of family ______. (A) Rutaceae (B) Brassicaceae (C) Lamiaceae (D) Asteraceae

46. Gynobasic style is present in the flowers of ______. (A) Sunflower (B) Basil (C) Candytuft (D) Lily

47. Syconium, a type of inflorescence is characteristic of ______. (A) Fig (B) Mango (C) Guava (D) Orange

48. Cortical vascular bundles are found in the stem of ______. (A) Nyctanthes (B) Boerhavia (C) Bougainvillea (D) Mirabilis

49. In which of the following secondary growth is absent ? (A) Wheat (B) Carrot taproot (C) Potato tuber (D) Tuberous roots of sweet potato

50. In which system of classification of plants, Gymnosperms are placed between dicots and monocots ? (A) Engler and Prandtl (B) Bentham and Hooker (C) Takhtajan (D) Hutchinson

51. Which of the following is false about nyctinasty ? (A) Is circadian rhythmic in nature (B) Is not controlled by Phytochrome (C) Is in response to onset of darkness (D) Anatomically movements are mediated by Pulvini

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course) Botany/BDU-22287-A {8} 52. In which of the following, the main photosynthetic organ is the stem ? (A) Sugarcane (B) Cactus (C) Wheat (D) Potato

53. Which of the following is not true about RuBisCO ? (A) Is the most abundant protein on the earth (B) Consists of two protein subunits (C) Mn2+ ions are required for its activity (D) Is involved in the first major step of carbon fixation

54. Which of the following is not a catabolic biochemical process ? (A) Glycolysis (B) Beta oxidation (C) TCA cycle (D) Gluconeogenesis

55. Which of the following is not true about metabolic pathways ? (A) Are Irreversible (B) Are not regulated (C) Each pathway has a committed step (D) Occur in specific cellular locations in eukaryotic cell

56. Which of the following is the first protein of the electron transport chain ? (A) NADH-coenzyme Q oxidoreductase (B) Succinate-Q oxidoreductase (C) ETF-Q oxidoreductase (D) Q-cytochrome c oxidoreductase

57. Brassinolide, the first brassinosteroid, was discovered from the extracts of pollen of ______. (A) Brassica campestris (B) Brassica napus (C) Brassica rapa (D) Brassica chinensis

58. Isoprenes are the volatile organic compounds containing ______C and ______H. (A) 5, 8 (B) 4, 4 (C) 5, 12 (D) 5, 10

59. Which of the following is an initiation codon for translation ? (A) UAG (B) UGA (C) UAA (D) AUG

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course) Botany/BDU-22287-A {9} [Turn over 60. Sickle cell anemia is caused by : (A) Insertions (B) Missense mutations (C) Nonsense mutations (D) Frameshift mutations

61. Which of the following is untrue about Arabidopsis thaliana ? (A) First plant whose genome was sequenced (B) Flowering plant with smallest genome (C) Belongs to family Brassicaceae (D) Is the model organism in plant biology

62. Which of the following condition represents nullisomic ? (A) 2n + 2 (B) 2n – 2 (C) 2n (D) 2n – 4

63. The disease Citrus canker is caused by ______. (A) Rod-shaped gram positive bacterium (B) Rod-shaped gram negative bacterium (C) Virus (D) Mycoplasma

64. Yellow rust of wheat is caused by ______. (A) Puccinia striiformis (B) Puccinia recondita (C) Puccinia dispersa (D) Puccinia triticina

65. The deficiency of which of the following affects the activity of the enzyme Urease in plants ? (A) Ni (B) B (C) Fe (D) Cu

66. The Glycolysis involves ______enzyme-catalyzed steps. (A) 9 (B) 10 (C) 11 (D) 12

67. In the eukaryotic cell, TCA cycle occurs in the ______. (A) matrix of mitochondrion (B) along outer membrane of mitochondrion (C) inter-membrane space of mitochondrion (D) along plasma membrane

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course) Botany/BDU-22287-A {10} 68. Which is the most abundant organic polymer on the earth ? (A) Cellulose (B) Chitin (C) Starch (D) Glycogen

69. Which of the following is not a reducing sugar ? (A) Glucose (B) Galactose (C) Sucrose (D) Maltose

70. Endoplasmic reticulum is absent in : (A) RBC (B) Muscle cells (C) Nerve cells (D) Mouse egg

71. The parietal placentation is present in the ovary of : (A) Hibiscus (B) Dianthus (C) Brassica (D) Petunia

72. The integument is absent in the ovule of : (A) Santalum (B) Cycas (C) Cedrus (D) Zea mays

73. National Botanical Research Institute is located at : (A) New Delhi (B) Lucknow (C) Tamilnadu (D) Hyderabad

74. Which of the following bacterium converts ammonium into nitrite ? (A) Nitrosomonas (B) Pseudomonas (C) Clostridium (D) Nitrobacter

75. Vessels are not present in which of the following Gymnosperm ? (A) Gnetum (B) Cycas (C) Welwitschia (D) Ephedra

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course) Botany/BDU-22287-A {11} [Turn over ROUGH WORK

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course) Botany/BDU-22287-A {12} 164 CET(PG)-2014 Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D Sr. No. : Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet. Roll No. In Figures In Words In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.

Signature of the Candidate : Subject : M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)—Physics/Medical Physics/Physics & Electronics Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75

DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO INSTRUCTIONS 1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided and nowhere else. 2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet. 4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so. 5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test. 6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question, darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases. 8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the Question Booklet. 9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble. 10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed. 11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used. 12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the candidate only. 13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty. 14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from the examination. 15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent / Observer whose decision shall be final. 16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculator is not allowed. M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)—Physics/ Medical Physics/Physics & Electronics/BDU-22289-A 2 * M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)—Physics/Medical Physics/ Physics & Electronics/A

1. For inelastic collisions, which of the statement is correct ? (A) Momentum and energy are conserved (B) Momentum is conserved but energy is not conserved (C) Momentum is not conserved but energy is conserved (D) Momentum and energy are not conserved

2. The moment of inertia of a rotating plane rigid sheet along x and y axes is given 2 2 by mixi and miyi , respectively. Moment of inertial along z axis will be ?

2 2 2 2 2 (A)  mi xi yi (B)  mi xi yi

2 2 2 2 (C)  mi xi  yi  (D)  mi xi  yi 

3. If the force between two particles is directed along the line joining them, it ensures that the system conserves :

2 (A)  mi | ri | (B)  mi | ri |

4. Foucault’s pendulum is oscillating at a place having latitude , then with respect to the earth : (A) plane of oscillation of the pendulum rotates once in a year (B) plane of oscillation of the pendulum rotates once in a day (C) plane of oscillation of the pendulum rotates once in 1/sin  days (D) plane of oscillation of the pendulum rotates once in 1/cos  days

5. The rotational inertia of a collapsing star changes to half of its initial value. The ratio of the new kinetic energy to the initial rotational kinetic energy is : (A) 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 4 : 1 (D) 1 : 4

6. The position vector of a particle is r = 10i + 4j – 3k; for an observer moving along x-axis with speed 0.8 c, the magnitude of position vector is :

(A) 125 (B) 61

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)—Physics/ Medical Physics/Physics & Electronics/BDU-22289-A 3 [Turn over * 7. The physical quantity invariant under Lorentz transformation is : (A) charge (B) current (C) charge density (D) current density

γ  (1  v2/c2 ) 8. An electron’s rest mass is mo and , the electron is moving along x direction, then expressions for the energy and momentum are :

2 2 (A) E = mov , px = mov (B) E = mc , px = mov 2 2 (C) E = moc , px = mv (D) E = moc , px = mv

9. Suppose that a particle moves under the simultaneous influence of two simple harmonic vibrations of equal frequency, one along the x axis, the other along the perpendicular y axis. The paths traced out by the particle will be a straight line, if harmonic vibrations are : (A) x = a sin (t) and y = b sin (t) (B) x = a sin (t) and y = b sin (t + /4) (C) x = a sin (t) and y = b sin (t + /2) (D) x = a sin (t) and y = b sin (t + 3/4)

10. Which one of the following system will have shortest oscillation period ? (A) Large bridges and buildings (B) A clock pendulum (C) String instruments (D) Molecular vibrations

11. In oscillating electrical circuit, inductance L is the electrical analogue of mechanical : (A) displacement (B) force/spring constant (C) mass (D) frequency

12. The heavy damped (over damped) oscillator will return to its equilibrium position : (A) immediately within no time (B) within one time period (C) in infinite time (D) within half of the time period

–1 13. HCl has characteristic vibrational frequency, vH, is 2990 cm . If hydrogen atom

is replaced by deuterium, the corresponding frequency is vD, then which statement is correct ?

(A) vH > vD (B) vH = vD

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)—Physics/ Medical Physics/Physics & Electronics/BDU-22289-A 4 * 14. A stationary siren has a frequency of 1000 Hz. What frequency does an observer hear if he/she is moving away from that siren at the 170 m/s speed ? [Velocity of sound in air is 340 ms1] (A) 1500 Hz (B) 500 Hz (C) 666.67 Hz (D) 333.33 Hz

15. Poynting vector in optics, irrespective of the medium, gives : (A) the direction of propagation of the wave (B) the direction of the ray (C) the direction of E vector of the wave (D) the direction of H vector of the wave

16. According to Maxwell’s equations, Ex/Hy ? (A) is a dimensionless quantity (B) has the dimensions of velocity (C) has the dimensions of current (D) has the dimensions of impedance

17. The maximum mutual inductance of two coils is 12 H and the difference between their self-inductance is 10 H. The sum of the two self-inductance is : (A) 26 H (B) 32 H (C) 120 H (D) 20 H

18. Two identical thin bar magnets each of length d and pole strength m are placed at right angles to each other with the north pole of one touching south pole of the other. What is the resultant magnetic moment of the system ?

(A) 2 md (B) 2md (C) 4 md (D) 2 md

19. If charges +q are placed at each vertex of an equilateral triangle. The electric field intensity at the centre is : 1 3q

(A) 2 (B) Zero 4o r

1 3q 1 q

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)—Physics/ Medical Physics/Physics & Electronics/BDU-22289-A 5 [Turn over * 20. In the figure, if R1 = 26 , R2 = 12 , R3 = 30  and R4 = 6 , then equivalent resistance between A and B is : A B R4

R 2 R1

R3 (A) 30  (B) 15  (C) 1.5  (D) 6 

– ax 21. The electrical potential in a region is given by  = oe , where o and a are constants. The charge density in this region is :

(A) – 2aox (B) Zero 2 2 (C) – a o (D) 2a o

22. The following three conclusions about magnetic field have been drawn from  · B : (i) magnetic monopole does not exist; (ii) B lines are continuous and smooth; and (iii) normal component of B is continuous at the boundary of two magnetic media. The correct conclusions are : (A) all three (B) only (ii) and (iii) (C) only (i) and (ii) (D) only (i) and (iii)

23. The electric field lines and equipotential lines are always : (A) perpendicular to each other (B) rotational (C) have an acute angle between them (D) parallel to each other

24. If V is the potential difference between the ends of a solid circular wire of length  cm and radius, r cm, and current, I ampere flows through it, the energy per unit time passing in through the surface of the wire is :

2r2 r (A) V I (B) V I 3  2r (C) V I (D)  V I

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)—Physics/ Medical Physics/Physics & Electronics/BDU-22289-A 6 * 25. If an ideal capacitor is charged using a voltage supply of fixed voltage, then : (A) energy stored on the capacitor is equal to the energy supplied (B) energy stored on the capacitor is equal to half of the energy supplied (C) energy stored on the capacitor is zero 1 (D) energy stored on the capacitor is equal to × energy supplied e

26. The change in entropy when one mole of an ideal gas is allowed to expand isothermally to 2-fold volume is : (A) 2R (B) Zero

 1  (C) R ln(2) (D) R l n   2 

27. A 100  register carrying a current of 3 ampere is maintained at constant temperature of 27° C. The rate of entropy change is : (A) 27 JK–1 s–1 (B) 3 JK–1 s–1 (C) 30 JK–1 s–1 (D) 11.11 JK–1 s–1

28. The temperature of a body is increased from –173 C to 357 C. What is the approximate ratio of energies emitted by the body per second in these two cases ? (A) 1 : 1575 (B) 10 : 63 (C) 63 : 10 (D) 446 : 630

29. The entropy of an isolated system during a reversible transformation : (A) decreases (B) increases (C) remains constant (D) initially decreases then increases

30. The change in the internal energy of an ideal gas during a reversible isothermal expansion is : (A) positive (B) zero

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)—Physics/ Medical Physics/Physics & Electronics/BDU-22289-A 7 [Turn over * 31. If the number of degrees of freedom of a gas molecule is n, then the ratio of

CP and Cv of the gas is 1 1 (A) 1 (B) 1 2n n 2n 2 (C) (D) 1 2n 1 n

32. The efficiency, , of Carnot engine, in terms of temperature of cold reservoir

(TC), and temperature of hot reservoir (TH), is :

TH TC (A) 1 (B) 1 TC TH

TC TC (C) 1 (D) 1 TH TH

33. When hydrogen is expanded at constant enthalpy at typical room temperature, its temperature : (A) decreases below 77 K (B) remains constant (C) increases (D) decreases but not below 77 K

34. According to Maxwell distribution of molecular speed, the ratio between root

mean square speed, vrms, and most probable speed, vp i.e. vrms/vp is : 3 2 (A) (B) 2 3

3 2 (C) (D) 2 

35. Two coherent sources of intensity ratio 25 : 4 used in an interference experiment. The ratio of intensities of maxima and minima in the interference pattern is : (A) 29 : 21 (B) 4 : 9 (C) 49 : 9 (D) 7 : 3

36. Temporal coherence of a laser can be determined by the following experiment : (A) Michelson interferometer (B) Young’s double slit interferometer (C) Single slit diffraction (D) Doppler shift experiment

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)—Physics/ Medical Physics/Physics & Electronics/BDU-22289-A 8 * 37. The role of He has in sealed CO2 laser is :

(A) to create population inversion by collision in CO2

(B) to depopulate populate CO2 by collision

38. Suppose a He-Ne laser is used in Michelson interferometer as a light source. Specifications of the laser are as follows : wavelength 632.8 nm, power 10 mW, line-width 1 MHz. How much maximum path difference one can have between the two mirrors of the interferometer so that fringes can be observed ? (A) 63 m (B) 300 m (C) 10 m (D) 30 m

39. Inhomogeneous broadening of spectral lines takes place : (A) in magnetic field (B) in natural broadening (C) in collision broadening (D) in Doppler broadening

40. When laser falls on one face of a transmission diffraction grating, maxima and minima are observed on other side of the grating, without using lens, due to : (A) interference as produced in Lummer-Gehrcke interferometer (B) interference as produced in Fabry-Perot interferometer (C) Fresnel diffraction (D) Fraunhofer diffraction

41. A uniaxial crystal having refractive indices for ordinary and extraordinary rays

as no = 1.4864 and ne = 1.6584, respectively, is placed on a dot. If it is rotated slowly on the dot, then : (A) image of dot formed by the ordinary ray will rotate (B) image of dot formed by the extraordinary ray will rotate (C) image of dot formed by both ray will rotate (D) image of dot formed by both ray will remain stationary

42. A longitudinal mode of light, having wavelength , will oscillate in a cavity of length,  , and width, d, if : (A)  is half integer multiple of  (B)  is 1/4 multiple of  (C) d is half integer multiple of  (D) d is 1/4 multiple of 

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)—Physics/ Medical Physics/Physics & Electronics/BDU-22289-A 9 [Turn over * 43. The Rayleigh criterion for diffraction-limited vision for an iris diameter of 5 mm and a wavelength of 500 nm is : (A) 1.44 × 10–4 rad (B) 2 × 10–4 rad (C) 1.22 × 10–4 rad (D) 1.42 × 10–4 rad

44. Minimum number of lines required in a grating to just resolve sodium D lines in second order are (wavelengths of D lines are 598.0 and 589.6 nm) : (A) 982 (B) 1000 (C) 15000 (D) 491

45. For a diatomic molecule, for which B and J are rotational constant in cm–1 and quantum number, respectively, rotational energy in cm–1 is given by : (A) BJ (B) BJ(J + 1)

 1  (C) BJ2 (D) B J    2 

46. For a diatomic molecule, Raman line is observed at 401.6 nm when excitation wavelength is 400 nm. For the same molecule, Raman line for excitation wavelength of 600 nm will appear nearest to : (A) 603.6 nm (B) 602.8 nm (C) 601.8 nm (D) 601.2 nm

47. Degeneracy between the energy levels of an atom can be experimentally removed by placing the atom in : (A) optical cavity (B) cylindrical glass tube (C) vacuum (D) magnetic field

48. Which type of interaction is responsible for the spin-orbit coupling ? (A) Gravitational (B) Strong nuclear force (C) Magnetic (D) Electrostatic

49. Selection rules for a transition depend on : (A) the energies of upper and lower energy levels involved in the transition (B) the wavefunctions of upper and lower energy levels involved in the transition (C) the energy of upper energy level involved in the transition (D) the wavefunction of lower energy level involved in the transition.

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)—Physics/ Medical Physics/Physics & Electronics/BDU-22289-A 10 * 50. For a system of two equivalent electrons, the total space wavefunction is symmetric. The spin wavefunction of the system is (here  and  denote the up and down spin, respectively) : (A) [(1)(2)] (B) [(1)(2)] 1 1 (C) [(1)(2) + (2)(1)] (D) [(1)(2) – (2)(1)] 2 2

51. If ionization energy hydrogen is 13.6 eV, then energy of further ionization of singly ionized He+ is : (A) 13.6 eV (B) 54.4 eV (C) 27.2 eV (D) 6.8 eV

52. If electronic configuration of excited He is 1s 12p 1, then lowest energy state will be :

1 3 (A) P1 (B) P0 3 3 (C) P1 (D) P2

53. If electronic configuration of excited He is 2p12p 1, then which of the energy state is forbidden :

1 3 (A) P1 (B) P0 3 3 (C) P1 (D) P2

54. Upon ejection, the kinetic energy of the Auger electron corresponds to the : (A) ionization energy for the electron shell from which the Auger electron is ejected (B) energy of the initial electronic transition into the vacancy which is created by energetic particle like X-ray (C) difference between the energy of the initial electronic transition into the vacancy and the ionization energy for the electron shell from which the Auger electron is ejected (D) sum of the energy of the initial electronic transition into the vacancy and the ionization energy for the electron shell from which the Auger electron is ejected.

2 55. The Lendé g factor for S1/2 state of Li is : (A) 2/3 (B) 2 (C) 3/2 (D) 4/3

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)—Physics/ Medical Physics/Physics & Electronics/BDU-22289-A 11 [Turn over * 56. The Hall effect in semiconductors helps in the determination of : (A) resistivity (B) electric dipole moment (C) minority carriers (D) majority carriers

57. Acoustic phonons are the phonon branches that start in Brillouin zone from : (A)  = 1014 Hz at k = 0 (B)  = 0 at k  0 (C)  = 1014 Hz at k  0 (D)  = 0 at k = 0

58. For a diatomic linear chain, the phonon dispersion relation (k) has : (A) four branches (B) two branches (C) one branch (D) three branches

59. If a beam of wavelength  is incident at an angle  to a symmetry axis of a crystal having d atomic spacing in unit cell, the Bragg scattering condition states : (A) n = d sin  (B) n = 2d sin  (C) n = d cos  (D) n = 2d cos 

60. In p type semiconductor, the Fermi level : (A) remains in the middle of energy gap (B) shifts near conduction band (C) shifts near the valance band (D) does not exist as it is an extrinsic semiconductor

61. The energy of the pairing interaction in Cooper pair is of the order of : (A) 10–3 eV (B) 10 eV (C) 103 eV (D) 1 eV

62. Mobility of a charge carrier can be expressed in terms of : (A) m2/Vs (B) V/m2s (C) m2s/V (D) Vs/m2

63. According to shell model, a nucleus with an even number of protons and an even number of neutrons has : (A) zero spin and positive parity (B) non zero spin and positive parity (C) zero spin and negative parity (D) non zero spin and negative parity

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)—Physics/ Medical Physics/Physics & Electronics/BDU-22289-A 12 * 64. The mass per nucleon in deuterium atom is : (A) the same as the mass per nucleon in a nitrogen atom (B) (1/14)th of the mass per nucleon in a nitrogen atom (C) slightly smaller than the mass per nucleon in a nitrogen atom (D) slightly greater than the mass per nucleon in a nitrogen atom

65. A rock when solidified in past contained no Pb206 but did contain some U235 initially. At present the ratio of Pb atoms to U atoms is 15. By assuming half life of U235 as 4.5 × 109 years and half life of other decays in the series much lower, the age of the rock roughly is : (A) 67.5 × 109 years (B) 9.0 × 109 years (C) 18.0 × 109 years (D) 72.0 × 109 years

66. How much minimum energy should a -ray have to produce an electron-positron pair ? (A) 0.511 MeV (B) 1.022 MeV (C) 0.511 keV (D) 1.022 keV

67. Annihilation of a low-energy positron by a low energy electron in free space produces : (A) one -ray photon (B) two or more -ray photons (C) heavy particles (D)  meson

68. Nuclear reaction cross section is measured in terms of : (A) barn (B) m–2 (C) Bohr radius (D) Fermi

69. In power supplies, which diode is used for voltage regulation ? (A) GUNN diode (B) ZENER diode (C) IMPATT diode (D) TUNNEL diode

70. In an N-channel JFET, pinchoff occurs when the gate bias is : (A) slightly positive (B) zero (C) slightly negative (D) very negative

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)—Physics/ Medical Physics/Physics & Electronics/BDU-22289-A 13 [Turn over * 71. The light emitted diodes consist of : (A) Si (B) GaAs (C) Ge (D) Diamond

72. In a full wave rectifier with input frequency of 50 Hz, the frequency of the output is : (A) 25 Hz (B) 50 Hz (C) 100 Hz (D) 150 Hz

73. A carbon resistor has a colour band sequence : yellow, violet, orange and gold. Its value is : (A) 27 k with tolerance of 10% (B) 37 k with tolerance of 5% (C) 45 k with tolerance of 1% (D) 47 k with tolerance of 5%

74. For a bridge rectifier, the output peak load voltage is 40 V. The approximate RMS value of the secondary voltage of transformer is : (A) 0 V (B) 40 V (C) 28.3 V (D) 56.6 V

75. The resistivity of the intrinsic Si semiconductor : (A) decreases with increase in temperature (B) increases with increase in temperature (C) is independent of temperature (D) may increase or decrease with increase in temperature

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)—Physics/ Medical Physics/Physics & Electronics/BDU-22289-A 14 * ROUGH WORK

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)—Physics/ Medical Physics/Physics & Electronics/BDU-22289-A 15 [Turn over * ROUGH WORK

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)—Physics/ Medical Physics/Physics & Electronics/BDU-22289-A 16 581 * CET(PG)-2014 Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D Sr. No. : Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet. Roll No. In Figures In Words In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.

Signature of the Candidate : Subject : M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-Human Genomics Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75

DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO INSTRUCTIONS 1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided and nowhere else. 2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet. 4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so. 5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test. 6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question, darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases. 8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the Question Booklet. 9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble. 10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed. 11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used. 12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the candidate only. 13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty. 14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/ noted from this Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so would be expelled from the examination. 15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent / Observer whose decision shall be final. 16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculator is not allowed. M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-Human Genomics/BDU-22282-A 2 M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-Human Genomics/A 1. Peptide bond is a ______. (A) Covalent bond (B) Hydrogen bond (C) Weak bond (D) Non planar bond 2. A detritus food chain begins with : (A) Carnivores (B) Herbivores (C) Omnivores (D) Decomposers 3. Threonine is an example for : (A) Nonpolar amino acid which tends to be internal (B) Polar charged amino acid which tends to be on protein surface (C) Polar uncharged amino acid which tends to be internal (D) Polar uncharged amino acid which tends to be on protein surface 4. Flow of energy in an ecosystem is always : (A) Multidirectional (B) Bidirectional (C) Unidirectional (D) Random 5. Transition from an ordered to a disordered structure is represented by : (A) Helix-coil transition (B) Coil-helix transition (C) Coil-beta transition (D) Coil-coil transition 6. In a double stranded polynucleotide, a nick represents : (A) Broken peptide bond (B) Broken hydrogen bond (C) Broken phosphodiester bond (D) Broken ionic bond 7. Which of the optical phenomenon is used in cinematography movie projectors ? (A) Accommodation (B) Interference (C) Persistence of vision (D) Short sightedness 8. Ramsden, Huygens and Kellner are types of : (A) Macromolecules (B) 3D structures (C) Graphs (D) Eyepiece 9. Fluorescein and quinacrine represents : (A) Internal fluors (B) Malarial drugs (C) External fluors (D) Tracking dye

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-Human Genomics/BDU-22282-A 3 [Turn over 10. Brightness of an image decreases as : (A) Magnification increases (B) Magnification decreases (C) Refraction increases (D) Reflection increases 11. Arabidopsis thaliana, Caenorhabditis elegans, Mus musculus are : (A) First sequenced organisms (B) Best to study proteins (C) Auxotrophs (D) Genetic models 12. The human eye forms the image of an object at its : (A) Iris (B) Retina (C) Pupil (D) Cornea 13. Pangenesis led to : (A) Inheritance of acquired characters (B) Formation of continents (C) Movements of continents (D) Origin of Physical chemistry 14. Chromosome theory was given by : (A) Mendel (B) Walter Sutton (C) Morgan (D) Reginald Punnett 15. Genes located close together on the same chromosome do not assort independently due to : (A) Recombination (B) Mutation (C) Linkage (D) Crossing over 16. The ratio of 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 represents : (A) Phenotypic ratio of F2 progeny (B) Genotypic ratio of F2 progeny (C) Phenotypic ratio of F3 progeny (D) Genotypic ratio of F1 progeny 17. When a trait exhibits complete dominance, a cross between heterozygotes produces : (A) 1 : 2 : 1 phenotypic ratio (B) 3 : 1 phenotypic ratio (C) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 phenotypic ratio (D) 1 : 1 phenotypic ratio 18. If the probability of being blood type A is 1/8 and the probability of blood type O is ½, what is the probability of being either blood type A or O ? (A) 5/8 (B) 1/8 (C) 1/2 (D) 1/16

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-Human Genomics/BDU-22282-A 4 19. The multiplication rule states : (A) The probability of any one of two or more mutually exclusive events (B) The probability of two or more independent events occurring together (C) The probability of any one of two events (D) The probability of two events occurring independently 20. How did Mendel know that each of his pea plants carried two alleles encoding characteristics ? (A) Because the traits for both alleles appeared in the F2 progeny (B) Because the traits for both alleles appeared in the F1 progeny (C) Because the traits for both alleles appeared in the F3 progeny (D) Because the traits for both alleles appeared in the F2 parents 21. Lyon hypothesis is on : (A) Recombination (B) Dosage incompensation

(C) Heredity (D) Barr body 22. A male with XXXYY chromosomes will have how many barr bodies in each cell ? (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 4 23. Turner syndrome is represented by : (A) XXYY (B) XXX (C) XO (D) YO 24. ZZ-ZW system is used for : (A) Identification of blood group (B) Identification of sex (C) Identification of disease (D) Identification of chromosomal aberration 25. Codominance is : (A) Phenotype of heterozygote includes phenotypes of both homozygotes (B) Phenotype of heterozygote is same as phenotypes of one of the homozygotes (C) Phenotype of heterozygote is intermediate between the phenotypes of two homozygotes (D) Phenotype of heterozygote is completely different from phenotypes of both homozygotes

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-Human Genomics/BDU-22282-A 5 [Turn over 26. Autosomal recessive traits often appear in pedigrees in which there have been consanguineous mating, because these traits : (A) Tend to skip generations (B) Appear only when both parents carry a copy of the gene for trait, which is more likely when the parents are related (C) Usually arise in children born to parents who are unaffected (D) Appear equally in males and females 27. Why are monozygotic twins genetically identical, whereas dizygotic twins have only ½ of their genes in common on average ? (A) Monozygotic twins tend to look more similar (B) Monozygotic twins are always the same sex (C) Dizygotic twins occur more frequently with older mothers (D) Monozygotic twins develop from a single embryo, whereas dizygotics develop from two embryos 28. Which is true of plasmids ? (A) They are composed of RNA (B) They normally exist outside of bacterial cells (C) They possess only single strand of DNA (D) They replicate independently of bacterial chromosome 29. Conjugation between an F+ and F– cell usually results in : (A) Two F+ cells (B) Two F– cells (C) An F+ and an F– cell (D) An Hfr cell and an F+ cell 30. Chromosome duplications often result in abnormal phenotypes because : (A) Development processes depend on the relative amounts of proteins encoded by different genes (B) Extra copies of the genes within the duplicated region do not pair in meiosis (C) Chromosome is more likely to break when it loops in meiosis (D) Extra DNA must be replicated, which slows down cell division

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-Human Genomics/BDU-22282-A 6 31. Avagadro’s number (N) represents : (A) 9.02 × 1023 molecules/mol (B) 5.02 × 1023 molecules/mol (C) 6.02 × 1023 molecules/mol (D) 6.02 × 1022 molecules/mol 32. A triplet codon which indicates stop condon is : (A) UGA (B) AUG (C) UGG (D) UAU 33. Movement of solvent from high concentration to low concentration is : (A) Diffusion (B) Osmosis (C) Reverse osmosis (D) Dialysis 34. An acid is known to : (A) Accept proton (B) Donate proton (C) Neutralise water (D) Donate electron 35. Which among following is purine ? (A) Uracil (B) Cytosine (C) Adenine (D) Alanine 36. Plasmids can take inserts of : (A) 10 kb (B) 100 kb (C) 10 bp (D) 10 Mb 37. Which of the following was not produced by genetic engineering ? (A) Human Insulin (B) Human growth hormone (C) Human dopamine (D) Hepatitis B surface antigen 38. Edman’s reagent is : (A) Phenylthiocarbamyl (B) Phenylisothiocyanate (C) Phenylthiohydantoin (D) Phenylalanine 39. Parkinson’s disease is due to : (A) Malnutrition (B) Neurological disorder (C) Psychiatric disorder (D) Developmental disorder 40. Plasmodium falciparum causes : (A) Pneumonia (B) Cholera (C) Dysentry (D) Malaria

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-Human Genomics/BDU-22282-A 7 [Turn over 41. What is milk sugar ? (A) Sucrose (B) Fructose (C) Maltose (D) Lactose 42. Beriberi is caused by deficiency of : (A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin B1 (C) Vitamin B12 (D) Vitamin D 43. How many ATP are invested and how many recovered from each molecule of glucose in glycolysis reaction ? (A) 2 invested; 2 generated (B) 2 invested; 4 generated (C) 2 invested; 6 generated (D) 1 invested; 3 generated 44. Galactosemia is a genetic disease where individual’s metabolism fails to : (A) Convert glucose to galactose (B) Convert galactose to glucose (C) Convert glucose to fructose (D) Convert fructose to glucose 45. Kwashiorkor is caused by : (A) Dietary deficiency of protein (B) Dietary deficiency of carbohydrates (C) Dietary deficiency of fats (D) Dietary deficiency of vitamins 46. Why herbicides, which inhibit synthesis of aromatic amino acids, do not affect animals ? (A) Because animals have enzymes to digest them (B) Because animals do not come in contact with them (C) Because animals do not have aromatic amino acids (D) Because animals do not have amino acids 47. Leptin is produced by : (A) Erythrocytes (B) Adipocytes (C) Myocytes (D) Neurons 48. Non insulin dependent diabetes is caused by : (A) Absence of insulin (B) Absence of pancreatic beta cells (C) Absence of insulin receptors (D) Accidental injury 49. Appetite is controlled by : (A) Hypothalamus (B) Cerebellum (C) Stomach (D) Liver

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-Human Genomics/BDU-22282-A 8 50. The precursor in gluconeogenesis which releases glucose is : (A) Lipids (B) Amino acids (C) Vitamins (D) Glycogen 51. Maurice Wilkins is known for his role in : (A) Structure of DNA (B) Structure of haemoglobin (C) Structure of vitamin D (D) Structure of tRNA 52. Doxorubicin is used as anticancer drug because : (A) It inhibits eukaryotic type II topoisomerase (B) It inhibits DNA ligase (C) It inhibits DNA gyrase (D) It inhibits eukaryotic polymerase 53. The Meselson and Stahl experiment explains : (A) Conservative model of DNA replication (B) Random model of DNA replication (C) Semi-conservative model of DNA replication (D) Bidirectional replication 54. Which one has the highest risk involvement ? (A) Chronic villi sampling (B) Amniocentesis (C) Fetoscopy (D) In vitro fertilization 55. Arthur Kornberg discovered : (A) DNA pol II (B) DNA pol I (C) DNA pol III (D) DNA ligase 56. DNA polymerase’s 5’–3’ exonuclease activity is for : (A) Proofreading (B) Repair single strand nicks (C) Polymerization (D) Introduce breaks 57. Eukaryotic DNA is replicated from : (A) Single origin (B) Double origin (C) Multiple origin (D) Branch point 58. Pyrimidine dimers are corrected by : (A) Base excision repair (B) Nucleotide excision repair (C) Mismatch repair (D) SOS response

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-Human Genomics/BDU-22282-A 9 [Turn over 59. Transposons are found in : (A) Eukaryotes (B) Prokaryotes (C) Eukaryotes and prokaryotes (D) Genes 60. Base analog 5-bromouracil resembles : (A) Adenine (B) Thymine (C) Cytosine (D) Guanine 61. Which is the most commonly transplanted organ ? (A) Cornea (B) Liver (C) Kidney (D) Skin 62. Complete replacement of an endogenous gene with a DNA sequence of your choice is referred as : (A) Transgenesis (B) Knock out (C) Knock in (D) Site directed mutagenesis 63. Insert size in cosmids can range between : (A) 5–10 kb (B) 130–150 kb (C) 30-44 kb (D) 0.2–2.0 Mb 64. Synaptonemal complex forms during : (A) Metaphase (B) Prophase II (C) Prophase I (D) Anaphase I 65. In a repressible regulation, the gene is regulated by : (A) Repressor binding to an operator (B) Transcription factor binding at promoter (C) Presence of substrate (D) Product of its enzyme pathway 66. The operon model in bacteria was proposed by : (A) Jacob and Monad (B) Sutton and Boveri (C) Meselson and Stahl (D) Rosalind and Wilkins 67. Which of the following has non terminating decimal expansion ? (A) 77/210 (B) 23/8 (C) 17/8 (D) 35/50

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-Human Genomics/BDU-22282-A 10 68. By which optical phenomenon, the splitting of white light into seven constituent colour occurs ? (A) Refraction (B) Reflection (C) Dispersion (D) Interference 69. To study pigmentation the best model is : (A) Horse (B) Zebrafish (C) Starfish (D) Neurospora crassa 70. Which phenomenon is responsible for twinkling of stars ? (A) Atmosphere reflection (B) Atmosphere refraction (C) Reflection (D) Total internal reflection 71. When light passes through a prism, the colour which deviates the least is : (A) Red (B) Blue (C) Violet (D) Green 72. X-ray diffraction is used to study : (A) Amino acid sequence (B) Three dimensional structure (C) Two dimensional structure (D) Linear DNA structure 73. The sum of first five multiples of 3 is : (A) 45 (B) 65 (C) 75 (D) 90 74. Which group consists of all denaturants ? (A) Ethylene glycol, Formaldehyde, Trifluroacetate (B) Formamide, Ethanol, Aspartic acid (C) Glutamine, Phenylalanine, Glumatic acid (D) Formaldehyde, Polyethylene glycol, Methanol 75. By convention, amino acid sequence of a polypeptide is written with : (A) Amino terminus at right (B) Carboxy terminus at right (C) Amino terminus at left (D) Carboxy terminus at left

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-Human Genomics/BDU-22282-A 11 Rough Work

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-Human Genomics/BDU-22282-A 12 172 CET(PG)-2014 Sr. No. : Question Booklet Series : A Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet. Roll No. In Figures In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No. Signature of the Candidate : Subject : M.Sc. (Industrial Chemistry) Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75 DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO INSTRUCTIONS 1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided and nowhere else. 2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet. 4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so. 5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test. 6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question, darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases. 8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the Question Booklet. 9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble. 10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed. 11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used. 12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the candidate only. 13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty. 14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from the examination. 15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent/Observer whose decision shall be final. 16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculator is not allowed. M.Sc.(Industrial Chemistry)/A

1. With increase in temperature, viscosity of a liquid : (A) Increases (B) Decreases (C) Remains constant (D) May increase or decrease; depends on the liquid 2. Reynolds number is the ratio of : (A) Viscous forces to gravity forces (B) Inertial forces to viscous forces (C) Viscous forces to inertial forces (D) Inertial forces to gravity forces

3. The unit of specific heat at constant pressure, Cp, in SI unit is : (A) W/m2 ºC (B) J/kg ºK (C) W/m ºK (D) J/m3 ºK 4. Solvent used for extraction of oil is : (A) Hexane (B) Methyl ethyl ketone (C) Furfural (D) Dichloromethane 5. Fat splitting catalyst is :

(A) CaCO3 (B) ZnO

(C) Al2O3 (D) Fe 6. Molasses is the starting material for the production of : (A) Alcohol (B) Essential oil (C) Fatty acid (D) Massecuite 7. Bleaching of paper pulp is done with : (A) Activated clay (B) Bromine (C) Chlorine or chlorine dioxide (D) Magnesium sulphite 8. Which of the following coal has the highest calorific value ? (A) Lignite (B) Sub-bituminous (C) Anthracite (D) Peat 9. Digestion of wood-base materials (for manufacture of pulp) is done to : (A) Remove lignin (B) Produce long fibers (C) Prevent deterioration on storage (D) To reduce yield 10. Nylon-6 is a : (A) Polyamide (B) Thermosetting resin (C) Polyester (D) Silk

M.Sc. (Industrial Chemistry)/BDU-22359-A 3 [Turn over  11. Oils and fats are converted to soap in a process called : (A) Hydrogenation (B) Esterification (C) Saponification (D) Nitration 12. Baking soda is chemically represented by :

(A) Na2CO3 (B) NaHCO3

(C) Na2CO3-H2O (D) Na2CO3-10H2O 13. The biochemical treatment applied to sewage effluents is a process of : (A) Dehydration (B) Reduction (C) Oxidation (D) Polymerization 14. CaO is called : (A) Quick lime (B) Slaked lime (C) Limestone (D) Calcite 15. Solvay process is used for the manufacture of : (A) Caustic soda (B) Soda ash (C) Caustic potash (D) Soda lime 16. LPG stands for : (A) Liquid petroleum gas (B) Liquefied petrol gas (C) Liquid petrol gas (D) Liquefied petroleum gas 17. Kg of liquid evaporated per hour in an evaporator is defined as its : (A) Capacity (B) Economy (C) Steam load (D) Basis weight 18. Isobaric process means a : (A) Constant temperature process (B) Constant pressure process (C) Constant volume process (D) Constant entropy process 19. Rate of a chemical reaction is independent of the concentration of the reactant for a : (A) Zero order reaction (B) First order reaction (C) Second order reaction (D) Third order reaction 20. Which is the most practical and economical method for removal of suspended solid matter from polluted water ? (A) Sedimentation (B) Skimming off (C) Chlorination (D) Biological oxidation 21. Which of the following expressions represent the criterion of spontaneity ?

(A) (dS)U,V < 0 (B) (dG)T,P < 0

M.Sc. (Industrial Chemistry)/BDU-22359-A 4  22. The Joule Thomson experiment is an example of which of the following processes ? (A) Isothermal process (B) Isochoric process (C) Isentropic process (D) Isenthalpic process 23. If we operate a Carnot's engine between the freezing point and boiling point of water, what will be the efficiency of that engine ? (A) 0 % (B) 100 % (C) 27 % (D) 73 % 24. At 0 K, the cell potential is : (A) Eº (B) 1 (C) 0 (D) ln 2 –4 25. At 25ºC the molar conductances at infinite dilution of CH3COONa, HCl and NaCl are 91.0 × 10 , –4 –4 2 –1 426.16 × 10 and 126.45 × 10 S m mol , respectively. The ºm for CH3COOH is : (A) 390.71 × 10–4 S m2 mol–1 (B) 191.74 × 10–4 S m2 mol–1 (C) 286.45 × 10–4 S m2 mol–1 (D) 109.11 × 10–4 S m2 mol–1 26. In a chemical reaction, a catalyst changes the : (A) Potential energy of the products (B) Potential energy of the reactants (C) Heat of reaction (D) Activation energy 27. The protecting power of lyophilic colloidal sol is expressed in terms of : (A) Critical miscelle concentration (B) Gold number (C) Oxidation number (D) Coagulation value 28. A gas will approach ideal behaviour at : (A) Low temp and low pressure (B) Low temp and high pressure (C) High temp and low pressure (D) High temp and high pressure – – 29. The bond order for N2, O2, N2, O2 : – – – – (A) N2 > N2 > O2 > O2 (B) O2 > O2 > N2 > N2 – – – – (C) N2 > O2 > N2 > O2 (D) O2 > N2 > N2 > O2

30. The structure of XeF4 is : (A) Tetrahedral (B) Square pyramidal (C) Square planar (D) Octahedral + – + 31. The hybridization of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in NO2 , NO3 , NH4 are : (A) sp2, sp and sp3 respectively (B) sp3, sp2 and sp respectively (C) sp2, sp3 and sp respectively (D) sp, sp2 and sp3 respectively

32. BH3.CO is more stable than BF3.CO because :

(A) CO is a soft base and BH3 and BH4 are soft and hard acids, respectively

(B) CO is a hard base and BH3 and BH4 are soft and hard acids, respectively

(D) CO is a soft base and BH3 and BH4 are hard and soft acids, respectively

M.Sc. (Industrial Chemistry)/BDU-22359-A 5 [Turn over  33. The maximum number of hydrogen bonds in HF and H2O are respectively : (A) 2 and 3 (B) 3 and 2 (C) 2 and 4 (D) 4 and 2 34. PAN stands for : (A) Pesticide Annual Note (B) Pesticide Action Network (C) Pesticide Applied Network (D) Pesticide Action Neutral

35. The H-H distance in H2 molecule can be determined by : (A) Infrared Vibrational spectroscopy (B) Microwave Raman spectroscopy (C) Rotational Raman spectroscopy (D) NMR spectroscopy 36. The stereoisomers having the same configuration at one chiral centre but different configuration at the other are known as : (A) Enantiomers (B) Diastereomers (C) Meso compounds (D) Racemic Mixture

37. The function of AlCl3 in the Friedel-Crafts reactions is to : (A) Produce electrophile (B) Produce nucleophile (C) Absorb water (D) Absorb HCl 38. Reimer-Tiemann reaction involves a : (A) Carbocation intermediate (B) Carboanion intermediate (C) Carbene intermediate (D) Mono free radical intermediate 39. DDT molecule has : (A) No tetrahedral carbon, two flat benzene rings (B) Two tetrahedral carbons, two benzene rings (C) Two tetrahedral carbons, two flat benzene rings (D) One tetrahedral carbon, two flat benzene rings 2 40. An SN reaction involves : (A) A two-step process (B) A radical intermediate (C) A carbonium ion intermediate (D) A one-step, synchronous process 41. A resistor has a color band sequence Green, Violet, Orange and Gold. Its value is : (A) 47 K  with tolerance of ± 10% (B) 37 K  with tolerance of ± 5% (C) 45 K  with tolerance of ± 1% (D) 57 K  with tolerance of ± 5% 42. The RMS, Peak and Average voltage values of the household power supply in India are : (A) 220 V, 220 2 , and (2 2 / ) 220 V, respectively

(B) 220 V, (2 2 / ) 220 V, and 220 2 V, respectively

(D) 220/ 2 V, 220 V and ( 2 / ) 220 V, respectively

M.Sc. (Industrial Chemistry)/BDU-22359-A 6  43. The correct order of electromagnetic spectrum with decreasing wavelength is : (A) X-rays, Ultraviolet rays, Infrared rays, Microwaves, Radiowaves (B) Radiowaves, Microwaves, Infrared rays, Ultraviolet rays, X-rays (C) Radiowaves, Infrared rays, Ultraviolet rays, Microwaves, X-rays (D) Radiowaves, Infrared rays, Microwaves, Ultraviolet rays, X-rays 44. A diffraction grating consisting of a large number of parallel slits all of same width a and spaced equal distance d between centers. For the electromagnetic wave of wavelength made incident normal to the surface of grating, the position of nth maxima making angle with the grating surface is given by : (A) d cos  = n (B) 2a sin  = n (C) 2d sin  = n (D) 2d sin  = n (/2) 45. One curie unit of radioactivity is equal to : (A) 1 decay/s (B) 3.7 × 1010 Bq (C) 3 × 108 decays/s (D) 6.023 × 1023 Bq 46. In the helium-neon laser, which of the following is not true ? (A) The laser transition occurs in helium atom (B) The purpose of the helium atom is to help achieve a population inversion in the neon atoms (C) There is stimulated emission as well as spontaneous emission in the Neon atoms (D) The metastable state occur in both the Helium and Neon atoms 47. The thermally generated electrons and holes acquire sufficient energy from the applied potential to produce new carriers by removing valence electrons from their bonds. These new carriers in turn produce additional carriers again through the process of disrupting bonds. The cumulative process is referred to as : (A) Avalanche breakdown (B) Zener breakdown (C) Avalanche multiplication (D) Zener multiplication 48. A superconducting material when placed in a magnetic field will : (A) Repel all the magnetic lines of force passing through it (B) Attract the magnetic field towards its center (C) Not influence the magnetic field (D) Attract the magnetic field but transfer it into a concentrated zone 49. Ultraviolet light of wavelength 350 nm and intensity 1.00 W/m2 is directed at potassium surface with work function of 2.2 eV. The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectron is : (A) 3.5 eV (B) 1.3 eV (C) 2.2 eV (D) 1.2 eV 50. Electron microscope is based on : (A) Negative charge of electron (B) Negative beta decay of radioisotopes (C) Photoelectric effect (D) Wave nature of electrons

M.Sc. (Industrial Chemistry)/BDU-22359-A 7 [Turn over  51. A wire of resistance 100 ohm is bent to form a perfect square. The resistance between two diagonally opposite points is : (A) 20 ohm (B) 50 ohm (C) 25 ohm (D) 12.5 ohm 52. The Boolean relation (A  B) (A  B) is equal to : (A) B (B) AB (C) A (D) A B 53. The light emitted diodes consist of : (A) Si (B) GaAs (C) Ge (D) Diamond 54. The basic Hartley oscillator uses : (A) One inductor and two capacitors (B) Acenter tapped inductor and a capacitor (C) Two capacitors (D) Tickler coil 55. In a full wave rectifier with input frequency of 50 Hz, the frequency of the output is : (A) 50 Hz (B) 100 Hz (C) 150 Hz (D) 200 Hz 56. According to Ohm’s law, the current density J at each point of a conductor (conductivity ) is related to local electric field E as : (A) E = J (B) J = E/2 (C) E.J =  (D) J = E 57. The resistivity of the intrinsic Ge semiconductor at room temperature : (A) Increases with decreases in temperature (B) Increases with increase in temperature (C) Is dependent on temperature (D) May increase or decrease with increase in temperature 58. The function sin t + cos 2t + sin 4t is : (A) Periodic with time period 2/ (B) Periodic with time period / (C) Not periodic (D) Periodic with time period 1/ 59. The sodium line at 5890Aº is observed by us at 5895Aº. This implies that the source is moving at a speed of : (A) 255 km/s towards us (B) 127 km/s away from us (C) 26 km/s away from us (D) 255 km/s away from us 60. A geostationary (geosynchronous communication) satellite moves in a circular orbit : (A) In the equatorial plane at an approximate distance of 42200 km from earth’s surface (B) In the equatorial plane at an approximate distance of 42200 km from earth’s center (C) In the equatorial plane at an approximate distance of 22400 km from earth’s center (D) In the equatorial plane at an approximate distance of 22200 km from earth’s center

M.Sc. (Industrial Chemistry)/BDU-22359-A 8  61. If x is a positive integer in the equation 122x = q, then q must be : (A) A positive even integer (B) A negative even integer (C) A positive odd integer (D) A negative odd integer 62. If x + y = 3 and 3x + y = 7, then 9x + 4y = (A) 21 (B) 22 (C) 17 (D) 10

63. If un + 1 = 0.4un + 10 and u0 = 50, then u2 = (A) 34 (B) 32 (C) 22 (D) 20 64. If f(x) = 2x + 3 and g(x) = x2 – 1, then f(g(2)) = (A) 21 (B) 48 (C) 7 (D) 9 65. A is the point (0, –4) and B is (8, 0). A line perpendicular to AB would have gradient : (A) 2 (B) –1/2 (C) –2 (D) 1 66. If x2 – 6x + 15 is expressed in the form (x + a)2 + b, then ab = (A) –18 (B) 0 (C) 18 (D) 54 67. If f(t) = t3 + 5t2 + 3, then the rate of change of f(t) at 2 is : (A) 31 (B) 22 (C) 11 (D) 3 68. If f(x) = 3 cos x + 4 sin x, then the maximum value of f(x) is : (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 1

1 69. log 16  log 25 = 2 10 10 (A) 1 (B) –1 (C) 2 (D) Not an integer 70. The equation of a parabola which cuts the X-axis at –2 and 4, and the Y-axis at –16 is : (A) 2(x + 2) (x – 4) (B) 2(x – 2) (x + 4) (C) (x + 2) (x – 4) (D) –2(x + 2) (x – 4) 71. If x2 – 3  2x, then : (A) x  3 (B) –1  x  3 (C) x  0 (D) x  2

M.Sc. (Industrial Chemistry)/BDU-22359-A 9 [Turn over  72. 4 sin(/8) cos(/8) cos (–/4) = (A) 1 (B) –1 (C) 2 (D) 0

73. The x-coordinate of the point where the curve y = log2 (x – 2) – 3 cuts the x-axis is : (A) 10 (B) 9 (C) 5 (D) 2 74. The mean of 7 numbers is 10. When another number is added the mean is reduced to 9.5. The new number is : (A) 10 (B) 10/7 (C) 9.5 (D) 6 75. Two dice are thrown and the scores added. What is the most likely total ? (A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 9 (D) 12

M.Sc. (Industrial Chemistry)/BDU-22359-A 10  Rough Work

M.Sc. (Industrial Chemistry)/BDU-22359-A 11 128  CET(PG)-2014 Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D Sr. No. : Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet. Roll No. In Figures In Words In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.

Signature of the Candidate : Subject : M.Sc. (Two Year Course) Microbial Biotechnology Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75

DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO INSTRUCTIONS 1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided and nowhere else. 2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet. 4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so. 5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test. 6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question, darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases. 8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the Question Booklet. 9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble. 10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed. 11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used. 12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the candidate only. 13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty. 14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/ noted from this Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so would be expelled from the examination. 15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent / Observer whose decision shall be final. 16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculator is not allowed. M.Sc. (Two Year Course) Microbial Biotechnology/ BDU-22285-A [ 2 ] M.Sc. (Two Year Course) Microbial Biotechnology/A 1. Laboratory benches are cleaned with : (A) Absolute alcohol (B) 90% alcohol (C) 70% alcohol (D) 50% alcohol

2. The principal effect of tetanus toxin of Clostridium tetani is on : (A) Kidneys (B) Heart (C) Lungs (D) Nervous system

3. The biological indicator to check the efficiency of Moist Heat sterilization is : (A) Bacillus pumilis (B) Bacillus sterlilous (C) Bacillus stearothermophilus (D) Bacillus subtilis

4. The preferred method of sterilization of Laminar Flow Cabinet is : (A) X-rays (B) UV-rays (C) Gamma rays (D) IR rays

5. The preferred method of sterilization of oil is : (A) UV Rays (B) Moist heat (C) Dry heat (D) IR Rays

6. The enzyme, Lysozyme acts on : (A) beta 1, 4-glycosidic bonds (B) alpha 1, 4-glycosidic bonds (C) beta 2, 3-glycosidic bonds (D) alpha 2, 3-glycosidic bonds

7. In Sucrose the glycosidic linkage is between : (A) C-1 of Glucose and C-4 of Fructose (B) C-1 of Glucose and C-2 of Fructose (C) C-2 of Glucose and C-1 of Fructose (D) C-4 of Glucose and C-1of Fructose

8. Which group of organisms are mainly responsible for decomposition of organic matter in nature ? (A) Algae (B) Fungi (C) Bacteria (D) Viruses

9. Who gave the statement that ‘Dust carries germs’ ? (A) R Koch (B) L Pasteur (C) F Kohn (D) J Tyndall

M.Sc. (Two Year Course) Microbial Biotechnology/ BDU-22285-A [ 3 ] [Turn over 10. Who was the first person on whom rabies vaccine was successfully tested ? (A) James Phillips (B) James Meister (C) Joseph Meister (D) Joseph Phillips

11. Disease ‘whooping cough’ is caused by : (A) Bacillus pertusis (B) Bordetella coughy (C) Bacillus coughy (D) Bordetella pertusis

12. A glass tube contains 5 ml of nutrient broth. A facultative anaerobe bacteria will show what type of growth pattern ? (A) Maximal growth at the bottom, minimal at top (B) Maximal growth at the top, minimal at bottom (C) Uniform growth throughout the medium (D) Growth only in the middle portion of the medium

13. Which toxin exists in crystalline form inside the bacteria ? (A) Cholera toxin (B) Crystal toxin (C) Bt toxin (D) Tetanus toxin

14. The Western Blotting technique normally involves : (A) Primary antibodies (IgG), Secondary antibodies (IgE) (B) Conjugated Primary antibodies (IgG), Secondary antibodies (IgE) (C) Primary antibodies (IgG) Conjugated Secondary antibodies (IgG) (D) Primary antibodies (IgG), Conjugated Secondary antibodies (IgE)

15. Fully extended E.coli chromosome is approximately : (A) 1.0u in length (B) 5.0u in length (C) 500u in length (D) 900u in length

16. Which type of RNA has shortest half life in Bacteria ? (A) mRNA (B) rRNA (C) tRNA (D) Satellite RNA

17. An F-prime strain of E.coli contains : (A) A plasmid with a fragment of bacterial RNA. (B) A plasmid with a phage genome inserted. (C) A plasmid with a transposable element inserted. (D) A plasmid with a fragment of bacterial chromosome.

M.Sc. (Two Year Course) Microbial Biotechnology/ BDU-22285-A [ 4 ] 18. The term ‘Father of Microbiology’ is associated with : (A) Antony van Leeuwenhoek (B) Louis Pasteur (C) Joseph Lister (D) Robert Koch

19. The term Biotechnology was coined by : (A) Karl Ereky (B) James D Watson (C) H Khorana (D) Karl Jereky

20. The fermented food ‘Bhatura’ is made from : (A) Milk (B) Rice (C) Whole wheat (D) Maida

21. Who was the first scientist to give technique for getting pure cultures of microbes by serial dilution method ? (A) Louis Pasteur (B) Robert Koch (C) J Lister (D) Edward Jenner

22. Majority of bacteriophages are : (A) DS DNA (B) DS RNA (C) SS DNA (D) SS RNA

23. The AT : GC ratio in E.coli is around : (A) 1.90 (B) 1.80 (C) 1.50 (D) 1.00

24. One Gene – One Enzyme hypothesis of Beadle and Tatum was based on the expts carried out on : (A) E.coli (B) Saccharomyces (C) Neurospora crassa (D) M 13 phage

25. Cech and Altman were awarded Nobel Prize for the discovery of : (A) Restriction Enzyme (B) Ribozyme (C) Prions (D) RNAi

26. Phage M13 will infect those bacteria which have : (A) Flagella (B) Common Pili (C) Sex Pili (D) Capsule

M.Sc. (Two Year Course) Microbial Biotechnology/ BDU-22285-A [ 5 ] [Turn over 27. How much of the biological carbon present on the Earth is accounted for by microbes ? (A) 30% (B) 40% (C) 50% (D) 60%

28. The no. of predicted genes in Saccharomyces cerevisae is around : (A) 6000 (B) 7000 (C) 8000 (D) 9000

29. In E.coli, the percentage of genome encoding proteins is around : (A) 50 (B) 70 (C) 90 (D) 80

30. The symbol assigned to the amino acid Tryptophan is : (A) T (B) R

32. The alcoholic beverage Rum is made from the substrate : (A) Cereals (B) Grapes (C) Molasses (D) Hops

33. Which of the following is not a part of protein secondary structure ? (A) -Helix (B) -Helix (C) -Turns (D) -sheets

34. Which of the following is not a type of BLAST ? (A) BLASTp (B) BLASTz (C) BLASTn (D) BLASTx

35. ClustalW is used for : (A) Secondary structure prediction (B) Tertiary structure prediction (C) Primary protein structure analysis (D) Multiple sequence alignment

36. When [S] = KM, the velocity of an enzyme catalyzed reaction is about :

(A) 0.1Vmax. (B) 0.2Vmax.

M.Sc. (Two Year Course) Microbial Biotechnology/ BDU-22285-A [ 6 ] 37. Enzyme B requires Zn2+ in order to catalyze the conversion of substrate X. Zinc is best identified as a : (A) Coenzyme (B) Cofactor (C) Zinozyme (D) Zifactor

38. An E.coli strain lacking DNA Polymerase I would be deficient in : (A) Repair (B) Splicing (C) Methylation (D) Degradation

39. The ribosome is involved in all the following EXCEPT : (A) Peptide bond formation (B) Aminoacylation of tRNA (C) Binding of protein factors during elongation (D) Binding of aminoacyl tRNA to mRNA

40. Three types of RNA involved in comprising the structural and functional core for protein synthesis, serving as a template for translation, and transporting amino acid, respectively, are : (A) mRNA, tRNA, rRNA (B) rRNA, tRNA, mRNA (C) tRNA, mRNA, rRNA (D) rRNA, mRNA, tRNA

41. Common lesions found in DNA on exposure to UV light are : (A) Pyrimidine dimers (B) Single stranded breaks (C) Base deletions (D) Purine dimers

42. The term Isoschizomer is used for : (A) DNA ligases (B) DNA polymerases (C) DNA helicases (D) Restriction endunucleases

43. Yeast two hybrid system is used to study : (A) DNA-DNA interaction (B) RNA-RNA interaction (C) Protein-protein interaction (D) DNA-RNA interaction

44. Golden rice is created by transforming genes related to : (A) Hormone synthesis (B) Beta-carotene synthesis (C) Protein synthesis (D) Carbohydrate synthesis

45. Which factor is associated with the binding of gp120 of HIV ? (A) CD3 (B) CD4 (C) CD19 (D) CD21

M.Sc. (Two Year Course) Microbial Biotechnology/ BDU-22285-A [ 7 ] [Turn over 46. The MHC class I molecule is a cell surface glycoprotein consisting of : (A) Variable alpha chain and nonvariable beta microglobulin chain (B) Variable alpha chain and variable beta microglobulin chain (C) Nonvariable alpha chain and nonvariable beta microglobulin chain (D) Nonvariable alpha chain and variable beta microglobulin chain

47. The sequence of antigen processing in MHC class I pathway is : (A) Antigenic protein, peptide fragment released into cytosol, proteosome, ER (B) Antigenic protein, proteosome, peptide fragment released into cytosol, ER (C) Antigenic protein, peptide fragment released into cytosol, ER proteosome (D) Antigenic protein, ER, peptide fragment released into cytosol, proteosome, ER

48. The antibiotic streptomycin kills bacteria by inhibiting : (A) Cell wall biosynthesis (B) Disrupting cell membrane permeability (C) Inhibiting DNA replication (D) Inhibiting protein synthesis

49. Which of the following component is not a part of nutrient medium prepared for the growth of Cyanobacteria ? (A) Sodium nitrite (B) Citric acid (C) Glucose (D) EDTA

50. The antimicrobial activity of chlorine gas is due to the generation of (A) Oxidizing agent (B) Reducing agent (C) HCI (D) KCI

51. Pick the odd one out ? (A) Salmonella (B) Streptococcus (C) Rhizopus (D) Micobacterium

52. Which is not a spore forming organism ? (A) Rhizopus (B) Bacillus (C) Clostridium (D) Streptococcus

M.Sc. (Two Year Course) Microbial Biotechnology/ BDU-22285-A [ 8 ] 53. Sterilization of 1000 ml nutrient medium in 5 litre flask by autoclaving requires following conditions : (A) 15 lbs. per square inch, 121ºC, 15 min (B) 10 lbs. per square inch, 121ºC, 15 min (C) 15 lbs. per square inch, 100ºC, 15 min (D) 15 lbs. per square inch, 121ºC, 30 min

54. The bacterium Salmonella typhi is : (A) Gram positive, sporulating, short rods and motile, lactose fermenter (B) Gram negative, short rods and non-motile, non lactose fermenter (C) Gram positive, non-sporulating, long rods and motile, lactose fermenter (D) Gram negative, non-sporulating, short rods and motile, non-lactose fermenter

55. Which of the following interactions are involved in antigen-antibody binding ? (A) Hydrogen Bond (B) Van der Waal’s forces (C) Covalent bond (D) Electrostatic interactions

56. Which of the following is correct ? (A) Protease is an exotoxin (B) LPS is not a pyrogen (C) Peptidoglycan is a monomer of glucosamine (D) Thiamine is a nucleotide

57. According to Watson and Crick Model of DNA, the adjacent nitrogenous bases are separated by : (A) 3.0Aº (B) 3.4Aº (C) 3.8Aº (D) 4.0Aº

58. Which type of RNA is not involved in protein synthesis ? (A) mRNA (B) rRNA (C) tRNA (D) Satellite RNA

59. The consensus sequence of Pribnow box is : (A) TATAAT (B) TAATAT (C) TATTAA (D) TAATTA

M.Sc. (Two Year Course) Microbial Biotechnology/ BDU-22285-A [ 9 ] [Turn over 60. An Hfr strain of E.coli contains : (A) A plasmid vector used to clone genes. (B) A bacterial chromosome with a phage genome inserted. (C) A bacterial chromosome with F factor inserted. (D) A human chromosome with a transposable element inserted.

61. The sequence of taxonomic rank is : (A) Species, Genus, Family, Class, Order, Division, Kingdom (B) Species, Genus, Family, Order, Class, Division, Kingdom (C) Species, Genus, Family, Order, Division, Class, Kingdom (D) Species, Genus, Family, Division, Order, Class, Kingdom

62. The vector pUC18 contains : (A) Amp and Tet resistance markers (B) Amp resistance markers (C) Km and Tet resistance markers (D) Amp, Km and Tet resistance markers

63. The strongest bond present in biochemicals is : (A) Hydrogen bond (B) Covalent bond (C) Ionic bond (D) Van der Waals’ bonds

64. The staining of proteins in SDS gels is routinely done by : (A) Acridine Orange (B) Crystal violet (C) Commassie Blue (D) Neutral Red

65. Which statement is most appropriate for nucleus of a human cell ? (A) Contains DNA only (B) Contains DNA + Proteins only (C) Contains DNA + Proteins + RNA only (D) Contains DNA + Proteins + Sugars

66. Which statement is most appropriate ? (A) Majority of bacteria are sporulating (B) Majority of bacteria are pathogenic (C) Majority of bacteria contain Diaminopimelic acid (D) Human stomach is devoid of bacteria

67. A DNA library is : (A) A general collection of all genes sequenced thus far. (B) A collection of DNA fragments that make up the entire genome of a particular organism. (C) A DNA fragment inserted into a vector. (D) All DNA fragments identified with a probe.

M.Sc. (Two Year Course) Microbial Biotechnology/ BDU-22285-A [ 10 ] 68. Spectrophotometer works on the principle of Beer-Lambert’s law. According to Beer- Lambert’s law intensity of transmitted light is : (A) Directly proportional to length of the tube (B) Inversely proportional to the length of tube (C) Inversely proportional to the square of length of tube (D) Independent to the length of tube

69. The milk sugar Lactose is made up of : (A) Alpha 1,4 linkage between two Glucose molecules (B) Beta 1,4 linkage between two Glucose molecules (C) Alpha 1,4 linkage between Glucose and Galactose (D) Beta 1,4 linkage between two Glucose and Galactose

70. Which phase pf the human cell cycle consumes maximum time : (A) G1 (B) G2 (C) S (D) M

71. Which one is not a fermented product ? (A) Blue cheese (B) Cottage cheese (C) Swiss cheese (D) Camembert cheese

72. The antibiotic bacitracin kills bacteria by inhibiting ? (A) Cell wall biosynthesis (B) Disrupting cell membrane permeability (C) Inhibiting DNA replication (D) Inhibiting protein synthesis

73. In the relationship between two organisms, if only one organism benefits, such association is called : (A) Mutualism (B) Neutralism (C) Commensalism (D) Opportunism

74. The cell membranes of many bacteria contain : (A) Sterols (B) Cholesterols (C) Hopanoids (D) Haponoids

75. Escherichia can be distinguished from Salmonella on the basis of : (A) Motility test (B) Voges-Proskeur test

M.Sc. (Two Year Course) Microbial Biotechnology/ BDU-22285-A [ 11 ] [Turn over ROUGH WORK

M.Sc. (Two Year Course) Microbial Biotechnology/ BDU-22285-A [ 12 ] 61 CET(PG)-2014 Sr. No. : Question Booklet Series : A Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet. Roll No. In Figures In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No. Signature of the Candidate : Subject : M.Sc. (Hons. School / 2 Year Course) - Zoology Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75 DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO INSTRUCTIONS 1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided and nowhere else. 2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet. 4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so. 5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test. 6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question, darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases. 8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the Question Booklet. 9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble. 10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed. 11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used. 12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the candidate only. 13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty. 14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from the examination. 15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent/Observer whose decision shall be final. 16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculator is not allowed. M.Sc. (Hons. School / 2 Year Course) - Zoology /A

1. The disease which is not due to inborn errors of metabolism : (A) Phenylketonuria (B) Leukemia (C) Albinism (D) Alkaptonuria 2. In humans the secretion of hydrochloric acid and pepsinogen is stimulated by hormone : (A) Secretin (B) Gastrin (C) Cholecystokinin (D) Glucagon 3. During the early origin of earth oxygen was absent in environment. Later on the oxygen increased and reached to present level. The main source of oxygen was :

(A) Photosynthesis (B) Released from CaCO3

(C) Escape of CO2 to environment (D) Escape of oxygen from internal sources 4. In signal transduction trimeric G protein with and  is involved. Which subunit will activate adenylate cyclase ? (A) subunit (B) subunit (C) subunit (D)  subunit 5. Kala-Azar is transmitted by : (A) Tse-Tse fly (B) Sand-fly (C) Rat-flea (D) House-fly 6. Which of the following parts of the kidney prevents loss of water through urine ? (A) Bowman's capsule (B) Glomerulus (C) Collecting tubule (D) Henle's loop 7. Crab may transmit (A) Diphyllobothrium latum (B) Clonorchis sinensis (C) Paragonimus westermani (D) Enterobius vermicularis 8. The correct sequence in which water flows into the body of Sycon and comes out of it is : (A) Ostia, apopyles, osculum, prosopyles (B) Ostia, apopyles, prosopyles, osculum (C) Ostia, prosopyles, apopyles, osculum (D) apopyles, Ostia, prosopyles, osculum 9. Assume that an animal generates heat at a rate proportional to its volume and radiates heat at a rate proportional to its body surface. Which of these animals would be best at maintaining its body temperature in a cold climate ? (A) Mouse (B) Rabbit (C) Fox (D) Bear

M.Sc. (Hons. School / 2 Year Course) - Zoology/BDU-22288-A 3 [Turn over  10. Which one of the following statements about morula in humans is correct ? (A) It has more or less equal quantity of cytoplasm and DNA as in uncleaved zygote (B) It has more cytoplasm and more DNA than an uncleaved zygote (C) It has almost equal quantity of cytoplasms as an uncleaved zygote but much more DNA (D) It has far less cytoplasm as well as less DNA than in an uncleaved zygote 11. When two or more non allelic gene pairs affect the same character in the same way, this is called : (A) Polygenic interitence (B) Pleiotropy (C) Multiple alleles (D) Additive expressivity 12. Australian lungfish is called : (A) Lepidosiren (B) Lepidosteus (C) Protopterus (D) Neoceratodus 13. A bacterium adds methyl group to its DNA in order to : (A) Clone its DNA (B) Turn its gene on (C) Transcribe many genes simultaneously (D) Protect its DNA from its own restriction enzyme 14. Pribnow box contains the nucleotide sequence : (A) 5' TATAAT 3' (B) 5' TAA TAT 3' (C) 5' GCC CCG 3' (D) 5' AAT TTA 3' 15. Besides giving out secretory vesicles, the golgi apparatus is also concerned with the formation of : (A) Nucleus (B) Plastids (C) Acrosome (D) Vacuoles 16. Thermogenin, the natural uncoupler in brown fat mitochondria, generates heat based on its ability to : (A) Allow proton to re-enter into the mitochondrial matrix (B) Inhibit electron transport by binding to b-type cytochromes (C) Inhibit ATP production by binding to the ATP synthesis (D) Block electron transport to flavoproteins 17. A bivalent consists of : (A) Two chromatids and one centromere (B) Four chromatids and two centromeres (C) Two chromatids and two centromeres (D) Four chromatids and four centromeres 18. Which of the following characteristics best applies to an allosteric effector ? (A) Competes with substrate for the catalytic site (B) Changes the nature of the product formed (C) Binds to a site on the enzyme molecule distinct from the catalytic site (D) Changes the substrate specificity of the enzyme

M.Sc. (Hons. School / 2 Year Course) - Zoology/BDU-22288-A 4 [Turn over  19. Which of the following interactions will not promote coevolution ? (A) Interspecific competition (B) Commensalism (C) Mutualism (D) Parasitism 20. Testosterone the male sex hormone is synthesized in the : (A) Seminiferous tubules (B) Interstitial cells (C) Vas deferens (D) Prostate gland 21. Which type of DNA modification results in silencing of a region of the genome in such a way that the silencing can be passed on to offspring ? (A) Acetylation (B) Methylation (C) Phosphorylation (D) Ubiquitynation 22. What is an open reading frame (ORF) ? (A) The amino acid sequence of polypeptide. (B) The nucleotides of an mRNA molecule before the introns have been removed. (C) The nucleotides of the gene that make up the codons specifying the amino acids. (D) All of the nucleotides of a gene that are transcribed into mRNA. 23. What is not true about hemoglobin ? (A) Fetal erythrocytes contain a structural variant of hemoglobin. (B) Fetal hemoglobin has less affinity for oxygen as compared to adult hemoglobin. (C) Fetal hemoglobin has less affinity for 2,3-BPG as compared to adult hemoglobin (D) Fetal hemoglobin has two  and two  subunits instead of two  and two subunits 24. A potential danger to a population that has been greatly reduced in number is the : (A) Loss of genetic variability (B) Tendency toward assortative mating (C) Hardy - Weinberg disequilibrium (D) Reduced gene flow 25. Which of the following birds will you find in columbiformes ? (A) Psittacula krameri-the rose ringed parrot (B) Corvus splendens-the House crow (C) Streptopelia decaocto-the ring dove (D) Pavo-cristatus-the peafowl 26. Epitaenia in mollusks is : (A) Another name for gill (B) A ridge like structure dividing the mantle cavity (C) Olfactory organ (D) Siphon for passage of water current 27. Which treatment would provide the greatest therapeutic benefit in patients with acromegaly ? (A) Glucocorticoid (B) Somatostatin (C) Growth hormone (D) Thyroid hormone 28. Which of the following in star fish can turn inside out ? (A) Madreporite (B) Stone canal (C) Tube feet (D) Cardiac stomach

M.Sc. (Hons. School / 2 Year Course) - Zoology/BDU-22288-A 5 [Turn over  29. Which group of vertebrates comprises the highest number of endangered species ? (A) Mammals (B) Birds (C) Reptiles (D) Fishes 30. Estrogen and testosterone are most likely to bind to : (A) Enzyme linked membrane receptor (B) G-protein linked membrane receptor (C) Cytoplasmic receptors (D) Thyroid hormone receptor 31. Larvae of which of the following parasites can be demonstrated in muscle biopsy ? (A) Brugia malayi (B) Wuchereria bancroftia (C) Trichinella spiralis (D) Dracunculus medinensis 32. Remiges and rectrices are types of : (A) Tendons in birds (B) Feathers in birds (C) Bones in all vertebrates (D) Vertebrae 33. Which of the following hormones does not act by a second messenger system ? (A) Glucagon (B) Epinephrine (C) Follicle stimulating hormone (D) Testosterone 34. Inhibin is an ovarian hormone that : (A) Inhibits the secretion of LH and PRL (B) Is produced by granulosa cells and inhibits the secretion of FSH (C) Only has local ovarian effects and no effect on the secretion of FSH (D) Has two forms, A and B, with the same  subunits but distinct subunits 35. Organ of Bojanus are : (A) Respiratory organs of starfish (B) Chemoreceptors of Peripatus (C) Excretory organs of Unio (D) Endocrine organs of Insects 36. Weberian ossicles are found in : (A) Frogs (B) Birds (C) Fishes (D) Snakes 37. In general, independent assortment of chromosomes in a cell with n pairs of chromosomes yields how many different kinds of gametes ? (A) n (B) n2 (C) 2n (D) n+2 38. Concology is the study of : (A) Mollusca (B) Shell of Mollusca (C) Foot of Mollusca (D) Behaviour of Mollusca

M.Sc. (Hons. School / 2 Year Course) - Zoology/BDU-22288-A 6 [Turn over  39. Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation ? (A) Sacred groves (B) National park (C) Wildlife sanctuary (D) Seed bank 40. Which of the following hormones is a modified amino acid ? (A) Prostaglandin (B) Estrogen (C) Epinephrine (D) Progesterone 41. In ruminants, the part of stomach which is the true glandular part is called : (A) reticulum (B) abomasum (C) omasum (D) rumen 42. Which of the following is the largest protozoal parasite inhabiting the large intestine of man ? (A) Entamoeba histolytica (B) Entamoeba coli (C) Balantidium coli (D) Giardia lamblia 43. Negative potential across plasma membrane is maintained by : (A) Active transport (B) Passive transport (C) Ion channels (D) Transporters 44. In eukaryotes shortening of chromosomes from ends is prevented by : (A) DNA Polymerase (B) RNA Polymerase (C) Telomerase (D) Transposase 45. Cerebellum in brain is concerned with : (A) static balance (B) initiation of muscular contraction (C) regulation of body posture and equilibrium (D) co-ordination of muscular movements 46. For an action potential to occur : (A) the stimulus must reach or exceed threshold (B) Na+ influx must exceed K+ efflux (C) the membrane must be out of the relative refractory period (D) both (A) and (B) 47. Aristotle's Lantern of sea urchin is basically a : (A) Sense organ (B) Chewing organ (C) Reproductive organ (D) Bioluminescence organ 48. When mutation converts an amino acid codon into a termination codon, it is called : (A) Nonsense codon (B) Missense codon (C) Silent codon (D) Frameshift mutation

M.Sc. (Hons. School / 2 Year Course) - Zoology/BDU-22288-A 7 [Turn over  49. Identify taxonomically similar protozoan group : (A) Giardia, leishmania, Entamoeba (B) Entamoeba, Trypanosoma, Plasmodium (C) Balantidium, Paramecium, Plasmodium (D) Trypanosoma, leishmania, Leptomonas 50. Paratenic host for Angiostrongylus cantonensis is : (A) man (B) rat (C) frog (D) sheep 51. Posterior to segment 15 in earthworm, the number of septal nephridia in each segment ranges between : (A) 30-50 (B) 55-75 (C) 80-100 (D) 120-140 52. The lysosomes of eukaryotic cells contain : (A) enzymes that function in intracellular digestion (B) chlorophyll molecules for photosynthesis (C) storehouse of ATP molecules (D) the chromosome of the organism 53. Phospho diester bonds present in DNA helix determines the 3;-5' polarity of strands while Hydrogen bonds : (A) stabilize DNA structure (B) destabilize DNA structure (C) makes the strands antiparallel (D) makes the turns of helix 54. Anadromous fishes move from : (A) estuary to sea (B) sea to estuary (C) sea to river (D) river to sea 55. Which one of the following molluscan groups is primarily used in the pearl formation ? (A) Monoplacophorans (B) Cephalopods (C) Gastropods (D) Pelecypods 56. The sporozoites of Plasmodium first attack : (A) RBC (B) Liver cells (C) Muscles (D) Intestine 57. The unit of gap junction is named as : (A) Connexon (B) Axon (C) Glycocalyx (D) Terminal bar

M.Sc. (Hons. School / 2 Year Course) - Zoology/BDU-22288-A 8 [Turn over  58. Cancer cells are more easily damaged by radiation than normal cells because they : (A) are different in structure (B) are non dividing (C) are starved by nutrition (D) undergo rapid division 59. Foetal membrane which keeps the embryo shock proof is : (A) amnion (B) chorion (C) allantois (D) yolk sac 60. The Wildlife Protection Act was passed in : (A) 1972 (B) 1982 (C) 1992 (D) 1962 61. When in a population, the birth and death rate exactly balance each other, it is called : (A) Plateau phase (B) Exponential growth phase (C) Initail growth phase (D) Accleration phase 62. In order to communicate the location of food, the worker bee performs : (A) Tap Dance (B) Round Dance (C) Waggle Dance (D) Break Dance 63. The placenta produces both : (A) estrogen and progesterone (B) progesterone and prolactin (C) prolactin and FSH (D) androgens and estrogens 64. Unpaired airsac in bird is : (A) Thoracic (B) Abdominal (C) Cervical (D) Interclavicular 65. Fatty acids with even number of carbon atoms on oxidation form : (A) Acetic acid (B) Amino acid (C) Lactic acid (D) Pyruic acid 66. The immunity acquired after the introduction of a vaccine is called : (A) Passive immunity (B) Active immunity (C) Acquired immunity (D) Natural immunity 67. Which of the following regions has maximum diversity ? (A) Mangroves (B) Temperate rainforest (C) Taiga (D) Coral reefs

M.Sc. (Hons. School / 2 Year Course) - Zoology/BDU-22288-A 9 [Turn over  68. Biodiversity : (A) increases towards the equator (B) decreases towards the equator (C) remains same throughout the planet (D) has no effect on change in latitude 69. The effect of intraspecific competition on niches is to make them : (A) larger (B) smaller (C) more triangular (D) change location 70. The parasite which resides in reticuloendothelial cells : (A) Entamoeba histolytica (B) Plasmodium (C) Isospora (D) Leishmania 71. Echidna and Ornithorhynchus are the connecting links between : (A) amphibians and aves (B) mammals and amphibians (C) reptiles and mammals (D) reptiles and amphibians 72. One of the following is a very unique feature of the mammalian body : (A) Homeothermy (B) Presence of diaphragm (C) Four chambered heart (D) Rib cage 73. Survival due to geographic isolation is best exemplified by mammalian fauna of the : (A) Oriental region (B) Ethiopian region (C) Palearctic region (D) Australian region 74. A population of organism arising from a single organism through asexual reproduction is termed as : (A) Race (B) deme (C) clone (D) cline 75. Besides reduction in the number of toes in the modern horse, which other evolutionary change was most significant among the following ? (A) Increase in size of eyes (B) Change in dentition from browsing to grazing (C) Straightening of back (D) Increase in size of brain

M.Sc. (Hons. School / 2 Year Course) - Zoology/BDU-22288-A 10 [Turn over  Rough Work

M.Sc. (Hons. School / 2 Year Course) - Zoology/BDU-22288-A 11 141  CET(PG)2014 Sr. No. : Question Booklet Series : A Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet. Roll No. In Figures In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No. Signature of the Candidate : Subject : M.S.c. (Two Year Course)-(Bioinformatics)/(System Biology) Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75 DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO INSTRUCTIONS 1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided and nowhere else. 2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet. 4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so. 5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test. 6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question, darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases. 8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the Question Booklet. 9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble. 10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed. 11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used. 12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the candidate only. 13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty. 14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from the examination. 15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent/Observer whose decision shall be final. 16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculator is not allowed. M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-(Bioinformatics)/(System Biology)/BDU-22280 2 M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-(Bioinformatics)/(System Biology)

1. By default, the length of the query words in BLAST algorithm of the query sequence is : (A) 10 for nucleic acids and 5 for protein sequences (B) 3 for both nucleic acids and protein sequences (C) 11 for both nucleic acids and protein sequences (D) 11 for nucleic acids and 3 for protein sequences 2. In Perl language a statement ends in : (A) Colon (B) Semicolon (C) Numeric characters (D) Symbols 3. Which of the following is not a fibrous protein ? (A) Collagen (B) Keratin (C) Elastin (D) Myoglobin 4. Human genome is constituted by : (A) 3 million base pairs (B) 3 billion base pairs (C) 4 million base pairs (D) 4 billion base pairs 5. Chromosome walking is technique used for : (A) Movement of chromosomes out from the cell (B) Move a fragment of chromosome to another (C) Recombination between chromosomal DNA of two different species (D) A method used to locate a gene using a set of clones from a DNA library 6. Existence of pseudo genes in any genome is possible due to : (A) Gene crossing over (B) Gene Mutations only (C) Gene duplication and mutations (D) Evolutionary pressure 7. The computational methodology that tries to find the best matching between a receptor and a ligand in called : (A) Molecular matching (B) Molecular docking (C) Molecular affinity (D) Molecular fitting 8. Two sequences showing significant similarity are referred to as : (A) Definitely paralogous (B) Definitely orthologous (C) Evolved from a common ancestor (D) Definitely performing same function 9. The order in which Clustal W adds sequences to a multiple alignment is determined by : (A) The organisms they come from (B) The order of entering the sequences (C) The dissimilarity distinguishing one from another (D) The similarity based phylogenetic tree

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-(Bioinformatics)/(System Biology)/BDU-22280 3 [Turn over 10. Determine which of the following statements about non-covalent interactions is not true. (A) Ionic bonds are the result of electrostatic attraction between two inonized functional groups of opposite charges (B) Hydrophobic interactions are important in the formation micelles (C) Hydrogen bonding results between hydrogen covalently bonded to an electronegative atom and lone pair of electrons on a second electronegative atom (D) H+ and OH– interact together by ionic bond to form water 11. What does a probe in molecular biology refer to ? (A) An instrument used to manipulate cells in culture. (B) A vector system. (C) A DNA or RNA molecule used in hybridization reactions. (D) A restriction enzyme for cleavage of a sequence. 12. Which of the following statements is true for isoenzymes ? (A) They catalyze the same chemical reactions. (B) They have the same quaternary structure. (C) They have the same distribution in organs and tissues. (D) They have the different enzyme classification name and numbers. 13. Hemiacetal is an addition product formed due to : (A) Carbonyl group of an aldehyde reacting with hydroxyl group of an alcohol (B) Acetic acid half reacting with hydroxyl group of an alcohol (C) Carbonyl group of a ketone reacting with hydroxyl group of an alcohol (D) Hydroxyl group of an aldehyde reacting with hydroxyl group of an alcohol 14. Which of the following statements is not true for protein synthesis ? (A) Protein synthesis occurs by adding amino acids to the 5’ end of the tRNA. (B) The first amino acid to be incorporated into a protein in prokaryotes is usually N-formylmethionie. (C) Amino acids are activated by aminocayl tRNA synthetase. (D) Peptidyl transferase is a ribozyme. 15. In FASTA format for DNA and protein sequences the header line is distinguished from the Data lines by : (A) Smaller than (<) symbol as its first character (B) Greater than (>) symbol as its first character (C) Equal to (=) symbol as its first character (D) Dollar ($) symbol as its first character 16. Which of the following databases is used to submit the sequence of a newly identified gene ? (A) A Primary database (B) A Secondary database (C) BLAST (D) A genome browser

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-(Bioinformatics)/(System Biology)/BDU-22280 4 17. Which of the following is not true for Flat files ? (A) Fast data retrieval (B) Simple structure (C) Easy to program (D) Easy editing 18. Medline database have Data’s stored in ______format : (A) ASN.1 (B) Word (C) FASTA (D) RDBMS 19. Edman method of proetin sequencing uses which of the following chemicals ? (A) Phenylthiohydantoin (B) Phenylisothiocyanate (C) Phenylhydrochloride (D) Phenylisohydantoin 20. All of the following are primary databases except : (A) Genbank (B) EMBL (C) DDBJ (D) Pubmed 21. The alphabet p in a CpG islands of DNA represents : (A) Phosphodiester bonds connecting 3’ of C to 5’ of G (B) Phosphodiester bonds connecting 5’ of C to 3’ of G (C) C and G sequences are flanked phosphodiester bonds (D) This phosphdiester bond is nicked from C end. 22. During replicaton process the term klenow fragment refers to : (A) DNA polymerase 2 (B) DNA polymerase 1 (C) DNA toposimerase 2 (D) DNA topoisomerase 1 23. Which of the following statement is false for mRNAs ? (A) Many Prokaryotic mRNAs are polycistronic (B) All eukaryotic mRNAs are polycistronic (C) All eukaryotic mRNAs are monocistronic (D) Some viral mRNAs are polycistronic 24. In prokaryotic cells a specific sequence located upstream of initiation codon where 16S rRNA can pair up is called : (A) Shine-Dalgarno sequence (B) Marilyn Kozak sequence (C) Hogness sequence (D) Pribnow sequence 25. Which of the following is used by a hybrid computer to convert digital signals to analog signals ? (A) Modulator (B) Demodulator (C) Modem (D) Decoder 26. Sucrose is a disaccharide of glucose and fructose linked by : (A) (1–>2) glycosidic bond (B) (1–>3) glycosidic bond (C) (1–>4) glycosidic bond (D) (1–>6) glycosidic bond

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-(Bioinformatics)/(System Biology)/BDU-22280 5 [Turn over 27. Which of the following statements is not true for tRNAs ? (A) Removal of an extra segment at 5’ end (B) Replacement of two U residues at 3’ end by CCA (C) Modifications of some residues to dihydrouridine and pseudouridine (D) All tRNAs are synthesized in cytosol 28. In Escherichia coli the DNA is organized as : (A) Double stranded, closed relaxed circle (B) Signal stranded, covalently closed supercoiled circle (C) Double stranded, covalently closed supercoiled circle (D) Single stranded, closed relaxed circle 29. Restriction enzymes are named so because they : (A) Degrade and restrict DNA molecules foreign to the cell (B) Have enzymatic activities restricted by environment of the cell (C) Restrict the activities of other enzymes (D) Restrict the nuclear export within the cell 30. Which of the following data were crucial to Wastson and Crick’s proposed structure of DNA ? (A) Base composition and hydrogen bonding (B) X-ray diffraction and the nucleoside structure (C) X-ray diffraction and base equivalence data (D) The discovery of nucleotide and nucleoside structures 31. RNA differs from DNA in all of the following ways except : (A) Presence of thymine (B) A sugar molecule (C) Functions performed by each of these molecules (D) The 5’ and 3’ orientation of the polynucleotide strand 32. A path by which communication is achieved between a central processor and peripheral devices is referred to as : (A) Bus (B) Channel (C) Router (D) Modem 33. Which of the following statements about cellulose is false ? (A) It is homopolymer of D-glucose units (B) Glucose units are linked by (1–>4) glycosidic bonds (C) Cellulose is stabilized by intramolecular hydrogen bonds (D) The cellulose in animal cell is triple helix

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-(Bioinformatics)/(System Biology)/BDU-22280 6 34. The major buffer system of mammalian blood and other extracellular fluids is : (A) Carbonic acid-bicarbonate conjugate pair (B) Phosphoric acid-phosphate conjugate pair (C) Gluconic acid-gluconate conjugate pair (D) Lactic acid-lactate conjugate pair 35. The genetic code is considered ‘degenerate’ because : (A) The code originated from genomes which are degraded (B) DNA is unstable (C) Because of the name of the person who deciphered the code (D) More than one nucleotide triplet codes for the same amino acid 36. RAM is used as a short memory and it is ______. (A) Volatile (B) Expensive (C) Programmable (D) Inefficient 37. In the disease sickle cell anemia, the  - chain of hemoglobin undergoes which of the following changes ? (A) A charged residue aspartic acid changes to a neutral one, valine (B) A neutral residue valine changes to a charged one, aspartic acid (C) A charged residue glutamic acid changes to a neutral one, valine (D) A neutral residue valine changes to a charged one, glutamic acid 38. A single piece of information in a database is called ______. (A) File (B) Field (C) Record (D) Data set 39. The program TBLASTN compares protein sequence with ______database sequences . (A) Three-frame transcription of a nucleotide sequence database (B) Six-frame transcription of nucleotide sequence database (C) Six-frame translations of a nucleotide sequence database (D) Three-frame translations of a nucleotide sequence database 40. Which of the following features is not characteristic of ribozymes ? (A) Involved in polymerization reactions. (B) Are RNA molecules. (C) Cleavage of RNA. (D) Involved in Post-translational processing 41. Which of the following statements in not true for Vitamin D ? (A) It is fat soluble vitamin (B) Plays important role in vision (C) It is important for regulation of calcium metabolism (D) Active form is synthesized by kidney

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-(Bioinformatics)/(System Biology)/BDU-22280 7 [Turn over 42. Databases CATH and SCOP can provide information regarding : (A) The structural classification family of the protein (B) The gene family of the protein (C) Homologous proteins (D) Analogous proteins 43. The full form for the oldest programming language Acronym FORTRAN is : (A) Formula translation (B) For translation (C) Formula transition (D) For transition 44. All of the following biochemical processes are part of post-translational modification events, except : (A) Amino acid residues modifications (B) Formation of disulfide bonds (C) Proteolytic cleavage (D) Formation of peptide bonds 45. The enzyme phosphoglucomutase catalyzes the isomerization of glucose-6-phosphate to : (A) Glucos-1-phosphate (B) Galctose-1-phosphate (C) Fructose-1-phosphate (D) Fructose-6-phosphate 46. The BLOSUM matrices are used for scoring substitutions in : (A) Amino acid sequences. (B) Deoxyribonucleotide sequences. (C) Both amino acid and nucleotide sequences. (D) Ribonucleotide sequence. 47. Which one of the statements is not true for plasmids ? (A) They are circular DNA molecule. (B) They have antibiotic resistance gene. (C) They have the ability of self-replication. (D) The size of plasmid is as big as that of chromosomal DNA. 48. What is the total yield of ATP in TCA cycle in eukaryotic cells ? (A) 38 ATP (B) 34 ATP (C) 32 ATP (D) 30 ATP 49. Hydropathy plots are helpful in predicting : (A) Beta secondary structures (B) Alpha secondary structures (C) Tertiary structures (D) Transmembrane structures 50. Identify which of the following statements is not true for local alignments . (A) It is a pattern matching technique (B) Identifies pattern for a short probe sequence (C) Gaps outside the local alignments are not penalized (D) The query and the subject sequence has to be of the same length

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-(Bioinformatics)/(System Biology)/BDU-22280 8 51. Which of the following program is used only for local alignment of sequences ? (A) SSEARCH (B) CLUSTAL W (C) T-Coffee (D) EMBOSS 52. In Immunoglobulin there are five types of heavy chains designated as : (A)  (alpha), (delta), (epsilon), (gamma), (mu) (B)  (alpha), (beta), (epsilon), (gamma), (mu) (C)  (alpha), (delta), (epsilon), (gamma), (lambda) (D)  (alpha), (delta), (kappa), (gamma), (lamdba) 53. Which of the following type of posttranslational modifications is found in all types of Antibodies ? (A) Glycosylation (B) Acetylation (C) Phosphorylation (D) Methylation 54. Which is the major antibody found in secretions viz. tears, saliva ? (A) Immunoglobulin A (B) Immunoglobulin D (C) Immunoglobulin E (D) Immunoglobulin M 55. PDB identifier is assigned by : (A) Three character alphanumeric identifier (B) Four character alphanumeric identifier (C) Five character alphanumeric identifier (D) Six character alphanumeric identifier 56. The principle application of the BLAST family of algorithms is ______. (A) Identifying sequences that are similar to a protein or nucleotide sequence in a biological sequence database (B) Determine physical association of DNA and protein interaction in 5’ end of a gene (C) Determine crystal structure of a protein (D) Perform docking structure studies 57. The first protein to be sequenced is : (A) Insulin (B) Myosin (C) Haemoglobin (D) Tannin 58. The whole set of mRNA molecules in a population of cells in a specific environment is known as : (A) Genome (B) Proteome (C) Transcriptome (D) RNAome 59. Motif in a protein structure describes which of the following ? (A) Secondary structure (B) Super secondary structure (C) Tertiary structure (D) Quaternary structure

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-(Bioinformatics)/(System Biology)/BDU-22280 9 [Turn over 60. The biological macromolecules used as potential fuel in humans are proteins, Triacylglycerols and glycogen. What is their preferred order of use ? (A) Proteins > Triacylglycerols > Glycogen (B) Triacylglycerols > Proteins > Glycogen (C) Glycogen > Proteins > Triacylglycerols (D) Glycogen > Triacyglycerols > Proteins 61. Saul Needleman and Christian Wunsch postulated an algorithm which is useful for : (A) Multiple alignment of sequences (B) Global alignment of sequences (C) Local alignment of sequences (D) All of these mentioned in A, B and C 62. Which of the following events is not part of post-transcriptional modification of eukaryotic mRNA ? (A) Capping of the 5' end (B) Glyosylation of the 3' end (C) Addition of poly A to 3' end (D) Methylation of ribose 2' hydroxy 63. The database which is a catalogue of human gene and genetic disorder is : (A) OMIM (B) dbEST (C) dbSNP (D) PubMed 64. The free energy released on the breakdown of glucose to lactate is stored in which form of energy rich molecules ?

(A) NADPH (B) FADH2 (C) ATP (D) GTP 65. The first genome sequence completed and published was from which of the following organisms ? (A) H. inflenzae (B) D. melanogaster (C) S. cerevisiae (D) E. coli 66. Which among the following is not a method of protein modeling ? (A) Protein threading (B) Homology modeling (C) De novo Protein modeling (D) Protein docking 67. For orientating the protein in right conformation, following proteins are required : (A) Chaperonin (B) Gankyrin (C) Actin (D) Amylin 68. Operators in perl programming can appear at which of the following ? (A) Before operands only (B) Between operands only (C) After operands only (D) All the choices mentioned in A, B and C 69. Which memory system is not a mass memory medium ? (A) Magnetic tape (B) Magnetic disc (C) Magnetic keys (D) Magnetic drum

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-(Bioinformatics)/(System Biology)/BDU-22280 10 70. A key difference between DNA alignment and protein alignment is : (A) Amino acids can be scored on similarity as well as identity (B) There are no internal gaps in a protein alignment (C) The DNA alignment is not always reliable that is why protein alignment is done (D) The protein alignment will show locations of introns and exons of DNA 71. Which of the following two are literature databases ? (A) MEDLINE and PubMed (B) MEDLINE and PDB (C) PDB and PubMed (D) SCOPUS and PDB 72. DNA solution injected directly into the cell using micromanipulator devices is called : (A) Microinjection (B) Macroinjection (C) Microconstruction (D) Microinfarction 73. Identify the feature exclusive for monoclonal antibodies : (A) It is non-specific (B) It is selectively specific to few antigenic determinants of a single antigen (C) It is specific to a single antigenic determinant of a single antigen (D) It can be specific or non specific depending on the antigenic determinant 74. ‘Thermal cycler’ finds its application in which of the following techniques ? (A) Polymerase Chain Reaction (B) Radio immunoassay (C) Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assay (D) Blotting technique 75. A bioreactor used for mass culturing of cells/microbes must have : (A) Agitator for mixing of cells and medium (B) Sterile conditions (C) Regulation of temperature (D) All of these

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-(Bioinformatics)/(System Biology)/BDU-22280 11 [Turn over Rough Work

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-(Bioinformatics)/(System Biology)/BDU-22280 12 CET(PG)-2014 Sr. No. : Question Booklet Series : A Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet. Roll No. In Figures In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No. Signature of the Candidate : Subject : M.Tech. (Instrumentation) Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75 DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO INSTRUCTIONS 1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided and nowhere else. 2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet. 4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so. 5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test. 6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question, darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases. 8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the Question Booklet. 9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble. 10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed. 11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used. 12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the candidate only. 13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty. 14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from the examination. 15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent/Observer whose decision shall be final. 16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculator is not allowed. M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A

1. The following type of bonding is strongly directional in solids : (A) Metallic (B) Covalent (C) Ionic (D) Vander Waal’s 2. Auto collimator is used to check : (A) Flatness (B) Rotor balancing (C) Angle (D) Roughness 3. Maxwell’s thermodynamic relations applies to the : (A) Chemical systems in equilibrium (B) Mechanical systems in equilibrium (C) Irreversible thermodynamic processes (D) Reversible thermodynamic processes 4. A solar cell converts the sunlight directly into ______energy. (A) Thermal (B) Electrical (C) Chemical (D) Mechanical 5. If a nuclear reactor produces more fissile nuclear fuel than it consumes, then it is called a ______reactor. (A) Critical (B) Heterogeneous (C) Fertile (D) Breeder 6. Which of the following languages is more suited to a structured program ? (A) PL/1 (B) FORTRAN (C) BASIC (D) PASCAL 7. The brain of any computer system is : (A) ALU (B) Memory (C) CPU (D) Clock 8. The track on a disk which can be accessed without repositioning the R/W heads is : (A) Surface (B) Cylinder (C) Cluster (D) Track 9. Which of the following is the 1’s complement of 10 ? (A) 01 (B) 110 (C) 11 (D) 10 10. The binary system uses powers of : (A) 2 (B) 8 (C) 10 (D) 16

M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/BDU-22258 3 [Turn over  11. Which capacitor stores higher amount of energy ? (A) Air capacitor Paper capacitor (B) Mica capacitor (C) Plastic film capacitor (D) Metal capacitor 12. In paramagnetic materials : (A) Permanent magnetic dipoles exist but the interaction between neighbouring dipoles is negligible (B) Permanent magnetic dipoles do not exist (C) Permanent magnetic dipoles exist and the interaction between neighbouring dipoles is very strong (D) Permanent magnetic dipole moment may or may not exist 13. The minority carrier life time and diffusion constant in a semiconducting material are 100 s and 100 cm2/s respectively. The diffusion length of carriers is : (A) 0.1 cm (B) 0.01 cm (C) 0.0141 cm (D) 1 cm 14. If the diameter of a wire is doubled, its current carrying capacity becomes : (A) One-fourth (B) Half (C) Twice (D) Four times 15. At room temperature the current in an intrinsic semiconductor is due to : (A) Holes (B) Holes and electrons (C) Ions (D) Electrons 16. The most commonly used semiconductor material is : (A) Silicon (B) Germanium (C) Mixture of silicon and germanium (D) Gallium 17. In which of these is reverse recovery time nearly zero ? (A) Zener diode (B) Tunnel diode (C) Schottky diode (D) PIN diode 18. A transistor has a current gain of 0.99 in the CB mode. Its current gain in the CC mode is : (A) 100 (B) 99 (C) 1.01 (D) 0.99 19. In an n channel JFET, the gate is : (A) n-type (B) p-type (C) Either n or p (D) Metal only 20. The amount of photoelectric emission current depends on : (A) Frequency of incident radiation (B) Intensity of incident radiation (C) Both frequency and intensity incident radiation (D) None of the above

M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/BDU-22258 4  21. In the circuit of figure the function of resistor R and diode D are :

+ R v –

LED

(A) To limit the current and to protect LED against over voltage (B) To limit the voltage and to protect LED against over current (C) To limit the current and protect LED against reverse breakdown voltage (D) To convert battery voltage to DC voltage 22. At very high temperatures the extrinsic semiconductors become intrinsic because : (A) Drive in diffusion of dopants and carriers (B) Band to band transition dominants over impurity ionization (C) Impurity ionization dominants over band to band transition (D) Band to band transition is balanced by impurity ionization 23. In an n-p-n transistor, the majority carriers in the base are : (A) Electrons (B) Holes (C) Both holes and electrons (D) Either holes or electrons 24. The resolution of an n bit DAC with a maximum input of 5 V is 5 mV. The value of n is : (A) 8 (B) 9 (C) 10 (D) 11 25. Decimal number 10 is equal to binary number : (A) 1000 (B) 1001 (C) 1010 (D) 1110 26. BCD input 1000 is fed to a 7 segment display through a BCD to 7 segment decoder/driver. The segments which will lit up are : (A) a, b, d (B) a, b, c (C) a. b, g, c, d (D) a, b, c, d, e, f, g 27. The circuit in the given figure is :

(A) Positive logic OR gate (B) Negative logic OR gate (C) Negative logic AND gate (D) Positive logic AND gate M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/BDU-22258 5 [Turn over  28. Decimal 43 in hexadecimal and BCD number system is respectively : (A) B2, 01000100 (B) 2B, 00110100 (C) 2B, 01000011 (D) B2, 01000011 29. Which of the following can be accessed only sequentially ? (A) Floppy disk (B) Hard disk (C) Magnetic tape (D) ROM 30. MICR stands for : (A) Magnetic Ink Chart Receipt (B) Magnetic Ink Character Recognition (C) Magnetic Ink Chart Recognition (D) Magnetic Ink Character Receipt 31. Which of the following is not a valid variable name in C ? (A) 1 a (B) a 1 2 (C) a b 123 (D) a b c 123 32. The size of the cache memory in most microcomputers is about : (A) Few bytes (B) Few kilobytes (C) Few megabytes (D) Few gigabytes 33. Which of the following computer memories is fastest ? (A) Cache (B) Primary (C) Mass storage (D) Off line back up 34. During processing the instructions, data, intermediate results and final results in a computer are held in : (A) CPU (B) ALU (C) Primary memory (D) Secondary memory 35. Typical power requirements of a DRAM in active and stand by modes is about : (A) 350 mW and 5 mW respectively (B) 350 mW each (C) 5 mW each (D) 500 mW and 350 mW respectively 36. The friction experienced by a body, when in motion, is known as : (A) Rolling friction (B) Dynamic friction (C) Limiting friction (D) Static friction 37. On an inclined plane inclined at angle  to the horizontal and weight being pulled up the inclined plane by vertical effort, the velocity ratio in this case is : (A) sin  (B) cos  (C) tan  (D) cosec  38. Unit of angular acceleration is : (A) N-m (B) m/s (C) m/s2 (D) rad/s2

M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/BDU-22258 6  39. To increase Q factor of a coil, the wire should be : (A) Long (B) Thin (C) Thick (D) Long and thin 40. An ammeter of 0-25 A range has a guaranteed accuracy of 1% of full scale reading. The current measured is 5 A. The limiting error is : (A) 2% (B) 2.5% (C) 5% (D) 10% 41. In a CRO which of the following is not a part of electron gun ? (A) Cathode (B) Grid (C) X-Y plates (D) Accelerating anode 42. A piezoelectric force transducer has a charge sensitivity of 20 pC/N. It is connected to a charge amplifier and overall gain of transducer and amplifier is 50 mV/N. The gain of amplifier is : (A) 1 mV/pC (B) 1.5 mV/pC (C) 2.5 mV/pC (D) 4 mV/pC

43. Two resistors R1 = 36 ± 5% and R2 = 75 ± 5% are connected in series. The total resistance is : (A) 111 ± 0  (B) 111 ± 2.778  (C) 111 ± 5.55  (D) 111 ± 7.23  44. In a strain measuring device using a strain gauge, the output quantity is : (A) Voltage (B) Resistance (C) Impedance (D) Light radiation 45. A full wave rectifier type meter is used to measure the voltage of wave shape shown in figure. The voltmeter is calibrated to read rms value of sine wave. The reading of voltmeter in this case will be : V 100 V

–100 V

(A) 100 V (B) 111 V (C) 141.4 V (D) 200 46. Which of the following are needed both for protection and metering ? (A) Wattmeters (B) Instrument transformers (C) Energy meters (D) Power factor meters 47. A digital frequency counter can be converted to DVM by addition of a suitable : (A) Voltage controlled oscillator (B) D/A converter (C) Power amplifier (D) Operational amplifier

M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/BDU-22258 7 [Turn over  48. A voltmeter using thermocouples measures : (A) rms value (B) peak value (C) average value (D) peak to peak value 49. Radiocarbon is produced in the atmosphere as a result of : (A) Collision between fast neutrons and nitrogen nuclei present in the atmosphere (B) Action of ultraviolet light from the sun on atmospheric oxygen (C) Action of solar radiations particularly cosmic rays on carbon dioxide present in the atmosphere (D) Lightning discharge in atmosphere 50. The absorption of ink by blotting paper involves : (A) Viscosity of ink (B) Capillary action phenomenon (C) Diffusion of ink through the blotting (D) Siphon action 51. Large transformers, when used for some time, become very hot and are cooled by circulating oil. The heating of the transformer is due to : (A) The heating effect of current alone (B) Hysteresis loss alone (C) Both the heating effect of current and hysteresis loss (D) Intense sunlight at noon 52. Nuclear sizes are expressed in a unit named : (A) Fermi (B) Newton (C) Tesla (D) Angstrom 53. Light year is a unit of : (A) Time (B) Distance (C) Light (D) Intensity of light 54. Mirage is due to : (A) Magnetic disturbances in the atmosphere (B) Depletion of ozone layer in the atmosphere (C) Equal heating of different parts of the atmosphere (D) Unequal heating of different parts of the atmosphere 55. Light from the Sun reaches us in nearly : (A) 2 minutes (B) 4 minutes (C) 8 minutes (D) Instantly 56. Metals are good conductors of electricity because : (A) They contain free electrons (B) The atoms are lightly packed (C) They have high melting point (D) They have covalent bonds

M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/BDU-22258 8  57. If two bodies of different masses, initially at rest, are acted upon by the same force for the same time, then the both bodies acquire the same : (A) Velocity (B) Momentum (C) Kinetic energy (D) Acceleration 58. Pick out the scalar quantity : (A) Force (B) Pressure (C) Velocity (D) Acceleration 59. If the diameter of the hole is subject to considerable variation, then for locating in jigs and fixtures, the pressure type of locator used is : (A) Conical locator (B) Cylindrical locator (C) Diamond pin locator (D) Vee locator 60. Side rake angle of a single point cutting tool is the angle : (A) By which the face of the tool is inclined towards back (B) By which the face of the tool is inclined sideways (C) Between the surface of the flank immediately below the point and a plane at right angles to the centre line of the point of the tool (D) Between the surface of the flank immediately below the point and a line drawn from the point perpendicular to the base 61. Internal gears can be made by : (A) Hobbing (B) Shaping with pinion cutter (C) Shaping with rack cutter (D) Milling 62. Drilling is an example of : (A) Orthogonal cutting (B) Oblique cutting (C) Simple cutting (D) Uniform cutting 63. The ideal resistance value for a resistor having blue, gray, red and silver bands is : (A) 612 ohms (B) 6,120 ohms (C) 6,800 ohms (D) 6,460 ohms 64. A capacitor and a resistor are connected in series to a sine wave generator. The frequency is set so that the capacitive reactance is equal to the resistance and, thus, an equal amount of voltage appears across each component. If the frequency is increased then :

(A) VR > VC (B) VC > VR

(C) VR = VC (D) VR and VC = 0 65. Capacitor of 0.02 F is larger than : (A) 0.000020 F (B) 200,000 pF (C) 2,000 pF (D) All of the above

M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/BDU-22258 9 [Turn over  66. An electric heater draws 3.5 A from a 110 V source. The resistance of the heating element is approximately : (A) 385 ohms (B) 38.5 ohms (C) 3.1 ohms (D) 31.4 ohms 67. The conductive loop on the rotor of a simple two-pole, single-phase generator rotates at a rate of 400 rps. The frequency of the induced output voltage is : (A) 40 Hz (B) 100 Hz (C) 400 Hz (D) 200 Hz 68. To reduce electrical resistance between the skin and electrode, use of ______between the electrode surface and skin is recommended. (A) Saline soaked felt pads (B) Non inverting electrode terminals (C) Inverting electrode terminals (D) Earth ring 69. EMG is an instrument used for measuring electrical activity of______. (A) Muscles (B) Brain (C) Skin (D) Heart 70. In EEG pre amplifier ionic current from ______is transformed into electrical currents. (A) Surface of cerebrum (B) Cerebral tissue (C) Brain stem (D) Medula oblongata 71. EEG machines have notch filters to eliminate : (A) Noise (B) Un-damped oscillations (C) Frequency interference (D) Muscle artifacts 72. In order to ground the patient more effectively during recording of ECG, an auxiliary amplifier is connected in a ______circuit so that the patient is actively driven to ground potential and drives the to zero common mode voltage. (A) Positive feedback (B) Clipping (C) Differentiator (D) Negative feedback 73. Every 10ºC rise in temperature the reverse saturation current of diode : (A) Doubles (B) Halves (C) Triples (D) No change 74. The forbidden energy gap for silicon is : (A) 0.67 eV (B) 0.97 eV (C) 1.1 eV (D) 1.7 eV 75. Operational amplifier characteristics are which of the following ? (A) Low input impedance (B) Infinite gain (C) Output impedance equal to output impedance (D) Infinite Output impedance

M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/BDU-22258 10  Rough Work

M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/BDU-22258 11  Rough Work

M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/BDU-22258 12 124  CET(PG)-2014 Sr. No. : Question Booklet Series : A Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet. Roll No. In Figures In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No. Signature of the Candidate : Subject : M.Tech. (Nano Science and Nano Tech.) Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75 DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO INSTRUCTIONS 1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided and nowhere else. 2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet. 4. To open the Question Booklet remove the staple (s) gently when asked to do so. 5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 60 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test. 6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question, darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases. 8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the Question Booklet. 9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble. 10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed. 11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used. 12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the candidate only. 13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty. 14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from the examination. 15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent/Observer whose decision shall be final. 16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculator is not allowed. M.Tech. (Nano Science and Nano Tech.)/A 1. Benzene is a ...... (A) Saturated hydrocarbon (B) Unsaturated hydrocarbon (C) Super saturated hydrocarbon (D) All

2. Isomers which can be interconvertible through rotation around a single bond are : (A) Conformers (B) Diastereomers (C) Enantiomers (D) Positional isomers

3. A functional group common to both amines and amides is : (A) -COOH (B) -CHO

(C) -NH2 (D) -OH 4. Which one is not a colligative property of a solution ? (A) Osmotic Pressure (B) Lowering of vapour pressure (C) Molecular weight (D) Depression freezing point

5. Which is mismatched ? (A) Cerebrum–memory (B) Medulla oblongata – temperature regulation (C) Cerebellum – equilibrium (D) Olfactory lobes–smell

6. The fluorescence emission of the following compound is enhanced upon protonation due to :

(A) Cancelation of PET process (B) Modulation of ICT (C) FRET (D) Eximer formation

7. The stoichiometry of inorganic metal complex is generally determined from : (A) Stern–Volmer plot (B) Job plot (C) Benesi–Hilderbrand plot (D) Arrhenius plot

M.Tech. (Nano Science and Nano Tech.)/BDU-22259-A 3  8. Certain crystals produced electric signals on application of pressure; this phenomenon is called : (A) Ferroelectricity (B) Pyroelectricity (C) Piezoelectricity (D) Ferrielectricity

9. The movement of solvent molecules through semi-permeable membrane is called : (A) Electrophoresis (B) Electrolysis (C) Osmosis (D) Cataphorosis

10. Ions involved in the conduction of nerve impulse is : (A) Na+, K+ (B) Na+, Ca2+ (C) Ca2+, Mg2+ (D) K+, Mg2+

11. The chemical properties of an atom are primarily determined by the number of : (A) neutrons it has in its nucleus (B) isotopes it forms (C) protons it has in its nucleus (D) electrons it has in its outermost energy level

12. Global warming is related to energy use because :

(A) fossil fuel burning releases CO2 (B) renewable energy sources causes harmful emission (C) fossil fuel sources are costly (D) renewable sources of energy are not available

13. A black body emits : (A) radiation of all wave lengths (B) no radiations (C) radiations of only one wavelength (D) radiations of selected wavelengths

14. For a process to be spontaneous (A) G must be –ve (B) G should be + ve (C) H must be –ve (D) S must be –ve

15. Ribose sugar is present in : (A) RNA only (B) RNA polymerase and ATP (C) RNA and ATP (D) RNA polymerase, RNA and ATP

16. Stomata of a plant open due to : (A) Influx of potassium ions (B) Efflux of potassium ions (C) Influx of hydrogen ions (D) Influx of calcium ions

M.Tech. (Nano Science and Nano Tech.)/BDU-22259-A 4  17. Which group of vertebrates comprises the highest number of endangered species ? (A) Mammals (B) Fishes (C) Reptiles (D) Birds

18. Vitamin C is also otherwise known as : (A) Citric Acid (B) Ascorbic Acid (C) Formic Acid (D) Acetic Acid

19. Among the following shapes which is having minimum surface area ? (A) Square (B) Circle (C) Triangle (D) Rectangle

20. IPCC means : (A) Indian Penal for Climate Change (B) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (C) International Public and Climate Change (D) Indian People and Climate Change

21. Continuity equation for a steady flow states that : (A) Velocity field is continuous at all points in flow field (B) The velocity is tangential to the streamlines (C) The steam function exists for steady flows (D) The efflux rate of mass through the control surfaces is zero.

22. A bar magnet is equivalent to______. (A) solenoid carrying current (B) circular coil carrying current (C) toroid carrying current (D) straight conductor carrying current

23. A certain current on passing through a galvanometer produces a deflection of 100 divisions. When a shunt of one ohm is connected, the deflection reduces to 1 division. The galvanometer resistance is : (A) 100  (B) 99  (C) 10  (D) 9.9 

24. The Euler equation of motion for the flow for an ideal fluid is derived considering the principle of conversation of : (A) Mass and the fluid as incompressible and viscous (B) Momentum and the fluid as incompressible and viscous (C) Momentum and the fluid as incompressible and inviscid (D) Energy and the fluid as incompressible and inviscid.

M.Tech. (Nano Science and Nano Tech.)/BDU-22259-A 5 [Turn over  25. Which of the following solids is a better conductor of electricity ? (A) Pure NaCl crystals (B) Diamond (C) Graphite (D) Marble pieces

26. Insulin is secreted by : (A) –cells of pancreas (B) –cells of pancreas (C) –cells of pancreas (D) liver cells

27. Nucleic acids are digested in which part of human alimentary canal ? (A) Mouth (B) Stomach (C) Small intestine (D) Large intestine

28. DNA was first discovered as “nuclein” by : (A) Meischer (B) Koch (C) Fleming (D) Watson

29. If the other parameters are same, the range of a projectile is maximum when its angle of projection is : (A) 90° (B) 60° (C) 45° (D) 30°

30. The acceleration due to gravity becomes (g/2), where g = acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth at a height equal to : (A) R/2 (B) 2R (C) R/4 (D) 4R

31. A Carnot engine has efficiency 25%. It operates between reservoirs of constant temperatures with temperature difference of 80°C. What is the temperature of the low-temperature reservoir ? (A) –25°C (B) 25°C (C) –33°C (D) 33°C

32. What is the total number of moles of hydrogen gas contained in 9.03 × 1023 molecules ? (A) 1.5 moles (B) 2.00 moles (C) 0.02 moles (D) 0.03 moles

33. The S.I. unit of Electric charge is : (A) Coulomb (B) Ampere (C) Weber (D) Volt

M.Tech. (Nano Science and Nano Tech.)/BDU-22259-A 6  34. The image formed by concave lens is : (A) Real (B) Virtual (C) Real as well as virtual (D) No image forms

35. The Lenz’s law is in direct consequence of : (A) Conservation of momentum (B) Conservation of charge (C) Conservation of energy (D) Conservation of angular momentum

36. The torgue experienced by magnetic dipole having dipole moment “M” placed in uniform magnetic field (B) is : (A) B × M (B) M × B (C) Zero (D) M.B.

37. Optical fibre works on the principle of : (A) Refraction of light (B) Diffraction of light (C) Polarization of light (D) Total internal Reflection

38. Pinus belongs to the class______. (A) Gentopsida (B) Cycadopsida (C) Coniferopsida (D) Sphenopsida

39. The half-life of a radioactive element is 15.0 h. Time required to decay 80 percent of a sample of this nuclide is : (A) 34.8 h (B) 40 h (C) 15 days (D) 30 h

40. Which date is observed as World Disabled Day ? (A) 30 January (B) 1 May (C) 15 March (D) 14 April

41. Which of the following dates is World Health Day ? (A) 26 January (B) 28 February (C) 1 March (D) 7 April

42. Which date is celebrated internationally as World Red Cross Day ? (A) May 8 (B) April 30 (C) May 15 (D) November 30

M.Tech. (Nano Science and Nano Tech.)/BDU-22259-A 7 [Turn over  43. Satish Dhawan Space Centre is situated in : (A) Mumbai (B) Ahmedabad (C) Sri Hari Kota (D) Baleswar

44. Name of the eminent scientist who was awarded Bharat Ratna in 2014 : (A) C.N.R. Rao (B) Kasturi Rangan (C) A.P. J. Kalam (D) K. Radhakrishnan

45. In the figure below, AD is a diameter of the circle with center O and AO = 5. What is the length of arc BCD ?

O A  D 36°  B C (A) /2 (B)  (C) 3/2 (D) 3

46. If m and p are positive integers and (m + p) × m is even, which of the following must be true ? (A) If m is odd, then p is odd. (B) If m is odd, then p is even. (C) If m is even, then p is odd. (D) None of above

47. De-abbreviate 3G : (A) Three Generations (B) Third Generation (C) Third Gear (D) Three Greates

48. De-abbreviate BC : (A) Before Christ (B) Birth Control (C) Bombay Cinema (D) All of above

49. De-abbreviate ROM : (A) Read only memory (B) Ruins of Memorials (C) Road of Mountains (D) Road of Rome

50. De-abbreviate BPL : (A) British Petroleum Limited (B) Bharat Petroleum Limited (C) Blood Pressure Limit (D) Below Poverty Line

M.Tech. (Nano Science and Nano Tech.)/BDU-22259-A 8  51. The first mechanical calculating machine was made by : (A) William Oughtred (B) Gottfried Leibnitz (C) Blaise Pascal (D) Charles Babbage

52. Which blood group is considered as the universal recipient ? (A) A+ (B) B+ (C) AB+ (D) O+

53. Sodium is usually estimated by which of the following analytical techniques ? (A) Flame Photometry (B) UV-Vis absorbance spectroscopy (C) High pressure liquid chromotography (D) Fluorescence spectrophotometry

54. Maximum Density of water is at : (A) 4°C (B) 0°C (C) 100°C (D) 272°C

55. Which one of the following is the cleanest source of energy ? (A) Hydropower (B) Fossil fuel (C) Nuclear power (D) Wind energy

56. Arsenic problem in India is primarily due to : (A) Overexploitation of arsenopyrite in the hinterland (B) Overexploitation of coal in Bihar and Bengal (C) Overexploitation of ground water in the affected areas (D) Overexploitation of surface water in the affected areas.

57. Acid rain is caused by :

(A) CO and CO2, (B) SO2 and O2

(C) SO2 and NO2 (D) NO2 and O2 58. Bacterial decomposition of biological material under aerobic condition is : (A) Fermentation (B) Fertilization (C) Contamination (D) Composting

59. When you go for shopping, what are you expected to do to save environment ? (A) Shop for products that have as little packaging as possible (B) In any store, use a bag even if it is not needed (C) Do not reduce the frequency of shopping (D) Buy paper towels and napkins

M.Tech. (Nano Science and Nano Tech.)/BDU-22259-A 9 [Turn over  60. Climatic stress is caused by insufficient and/or excessive regime of : (A) Temperature (B) Humidity (C) Solar radiation (D) All the above

61. Organisms that generate energy using light are : (A) oligotrophs (B) chaemorganotrophs (C) chaemolithotrophs (D) photoautotrophs

62. Which one of the following does not contribute to conservation of water ? (A) Waste water treatment (B) Waste land development (C) Water shed protection (D) Rain water harvesting

63. Which of the following languages is more suited to a structured program ? (A) PL/1 (B) FORTRAN (C) BASIC (D) PASCAL

64. The arranging of data in a logical sequence is called : (A) sorting (B) classifying (C) reproducing (D) summarizing

65. A large computer designed to handle complex scientific calculations : (A) may use only a firmed word-length storage approach (B) will likely require a character addressable storage unit (C) must use fixed length words of four characters each (D) will not use numbered address locations

67. Which of following forms the strongest hydrogen bonding with itself ? (A) Water (B) Methane (C) Chloroform (D) Ether

M.Tech. (Nano Science and Nano Tech.)/BDU-22259-A 10  68. Which of following is termed as Blue Vitrol ? (A) Copper (II) nitrate (B) Copper(II) sulfate(hydrate) (C) Zinc(II)sulfate (D) Zinc(II)nitrate

69. Lake test is used for the qualitative test of : (A) Ni(II) (B) Cu(II) (C) Al(III) (D) Hg(II)

70. Nitrous oxide is an : (A) Orange colored gas (B) Highly flammable gas (C) Bitter taste gas (D) Laughing gas

71. EDTA stands for : (A) Ethylene diamine tetra acetic acid (B) Ethanol diamine tetra amide (C) Ethanol diamine tetra acetic acid (D) Ethylene diamide tetra acetic acid

72. “There is a plenty of room at the bottom”. This was stated by : (A) Albert Einstein (B) Richard Feynman (C) Issac Newton (D) Eric Drexler

73. Asymmetrical structure of synthetic membrane was developed by : (A) S.Sourirajan (B) Newton (C) Laplace (D) Fick

74. Distillation is generally carried out at : (A) Atmospheric pressure (B) 1 bar pressure (C) Vaccume (D) 10 bar pressure

75. Dew point is the temperature at which : (A) Vaporisation commences (B) Condensation Starts (C) Mixing takes place (D) Boiling starts

M.Tech. (Nano Science and Nano Tech.)/BDU-22259-A 11  Rough Work

M.Tech. (Nano Science and Nano Tech.)/BDU-22259-A 12 144  CET(PG)-2014 Sr. No. : Question Booklet Series : A Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet. Roll No. In Figures In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No. Signature of the Candidate : Subject : M.Tech. (Polymer) Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75 DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO INSTRUCTIONS 1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided and nowhere else. 2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet. 4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so. 5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test. 6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question, darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases. 8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the Question Booklet. 9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble. 10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed. 11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used. 12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the candidate only. 13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty. 14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from the examination. 15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent/Observer whose decision shall be final. 16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculator is not allowed. M.Tech. (Polymer) / A

1. Which of the following statements is false concerning vulcanization of rubber ? (A) Vulcanization imparts greater strength to rubber. (B) Vulcanization is a process which adds cross-links to the hydrocarbon chains of rubber. (C) Vulcanization involves adding phosphorous to hot rubber. (D) Vulcanization makes rubber more elastic, allowing it to stretch without breaking. 2. Hot water (0.01 m3 / min) enters the tube side of a counter current shell and tube heat exchanger at 80o C and leaves at 50o C. Cold oil (0.05 m3/min) of density 800 kg/m3 and specific heat of 2 kJ/kg.K enters at 20o C. The log mean temperature difference in oC is approximately : (A) 32 (B) 37 (C) 45 (D) 50 3. Which of the following statements is false concerning step-growth polymers ? (A) Step-growth polymers are also known as condensation polymers. (B) Polystyrene is this type of polymer. (C) A small molecule such as water or HCI is given off during polymerization. (D) Each monomer used to make step-growth polymers contains two functional groups. 4. Which of the following reagents may be used to initiate radical polymerization of styrene ? (A) HCI (B) peroxides

(C) hydroxide ion (D) BF3 5. The dimensionless group in mass transfer that is equivalent to Prandtl number in heat transfer is : (A) Nusselt number (B) Sherwood number (C) Schmidt number (D) Stanton number 6. The thermal radiative flux from a surface of emissivity = 0.4 is 22.68 kW/m2. The approximate surface temperature (K) is (Stefan-Boltzman constant = 5.67 × 10-8 W/m2.K4) (A) 1000 (B) 727 (C) 800 (D) 1200 7. In the McCabe-Thiele diagram, if the x-coordinate of the point of intersection of the q-line and the vapor-liquid equilibrium curve is greater than the x-coordinate of the feed point, then the quality of the feed is : (A) super-heated vapor (B) liquid below bubble point (C) saturated vapor (D) saturated liquid 8. In petroleum refining, catalytic reforming is used to convert : (A) Paraffins and naphthenes to aromatics (B) Paraffins to hydrogen and carbon monoxide (C) Gas oil to diesel and gasoline (D) Light olefins to gasoline

M.Tech. (Polymer) / BDU-22261-A 3 [Turn over 9. If the vapour pressure at two temperatures of a solid phase in equilibrium with its liquid phase are known, then the latent heat of fusion can be calculated by the : (A) Maxwell's equation (B) Clayperon-Claussius equation (C) Van Laar equation (D) Nernst Heat Theorem

sat -1 sat 10. The accentric factor of a materical, '' is defined as log10 (Pr )Tr = 0.7, where, Pr = reduced

vapor pressure, Tr = reduced temperature. The value of accentric factor is always : (A) > 2 (B) < 1 (C) > 1 (D) < 3 11. Neoprene is chemically known as : (A) polybutandiene (B) styrene butadiene rubber (SBR) (C) polyurethane (D) poly chloroprene 12. Activity co-efficient is a measure of the : (A) departure from ideal solution behaviour (B) departure of gas phase from ideal gas law (C) vapour pressure of liquid (D) to find out behavior of pure liquids 13. For many substances, the variation with temperature of the molar heat capacity at constant pressure is given by the expression : c C  a  bT  p.m T2 For copper, a = 22.64 J K-1 mol-1, b = 6.28 × 10-3 J K-2 mol-1 with the value of c being negligible. Estimate the change in the molar enthalpy of copper when it is heated from 293 to 323 K. (A) +29.7 kJ mol-1 (B) +1.23 kJ mol-1 (C) +737 J mol-1 (D) +1.13 kJ mol-1 14. Joule-Thomson effect i.e., a throttling process is a constant ______process. (A) entropy (B) temperature (C) internal energy (D) enthalpy 15. In a mixing tank operating at very high Reynolds number (> 1 O), if the diameter of the impeller is doubled (other conditions remaining constant), the power required increases by a factor of : (A) 1/32 (B) 1/4 (C) 4 (D) 32 16. The organic acid monomer in nylon 66 is : (A) sebasic acid (B) terephthalic acid (C) adipic acid (D) benzoic acid

M.Tech. (Polymer) / BDU-22261-A 4 17. Which of the following is the most important rubber compounding ingredient which is used to improve wearing qualities of both natural rubber & SBR by imparting toughness ? (A) Phosphorous (B) Carbon black (C) Pine oil (D) Rosin 18. The starting material used for the manufacture of caprolactum is : (A) ethyl benzene (B) cyclohexane (C) ethylene glycol (D) DMT 19. The catalyst used in the manufacture of sulphuric acid by contact process is : (A) iron (B) aluminium oxide (C) nickel (D) vanadium pentoxide 20. A glass with high refractive index and used in optical instruments is : (A) Pyrex glass (B) Jena glass (C) Flint glass (D) Crookes glass 21. Which one of the following is used to manufacture ammonia synthesis gas from natural gas ? (A) Steam reforming (B) Partial oxidation (C) Electrolysis (D) Thermal pyrolysis 22. Spherical shape of droplets of mercury is due to its : (A) high adhesion (B) low vapour pressure (C) high surface tension (D) high density 23. Water is flowing under laminar conditions in a pipe of length L. If the diameter of the pipe is doubled, for a constant volumetric flow rate, the pressure drop across the pipe : (A) Decreases 2 times (B) Decreases 16 times (C) Increases 2 times (D) Increases 16 times 24. The viscosity of a gas : (A) increases with increase in temperature (B) decreases with increase in temperature (C) remains unaffected with change in temperature (D) is greater than the viscosity of a liquid 25. In a mercury differential manometer used for measuring pressure differences across a venturi meter in a water pipeline if an error of 1 mm has been made in observing a differential head of 20 mm the percentage error in pressure difference is : (A) 4.76 (B) 0.05 (C) 5 (D) 1 26. "Break-even point" is the point of intersection of : (A) fixed cost and total cost (B) total cost and sales revenue (C) fixed cost and sales revenue (D) none of these

M.Tech. (Polymer) / BDU-22261-A 5 [Turn over 27. Flash distillation is suitable for the separation of components : (A) which form maximum boiling azeotrope (B) having very wide boiling points (C) which form minimum boiling azeotrope (D) having very close boiling points 28. A machine has an initial value of Rs. 5,000, service life of 5 years and final salvage value of Rs. 1,000. The annual depreciation cost by straight line method is Rs. : (A) 300 (B) 600 (C) 800 (D) 1000 29. Separation of two or more components of a liquid solution can not be achieved by : (A) liquid extraction (B) absorption (C) fractional crystallisation (D) evaporation 30. Air initially at 101.3 kPa and 40o C and with a relative humidity of 50 %, is cooled at constant pressure to 30o C. The cooled air has a : (A) higher dew point (B) higher wet bulb temperature (C) higher relative humidity (D) higher absolute (specific) humidity 31. In a gas-liquid absorption column, for obtaining the maximum absorption efficiency : (A) gas stream should be distributed uniformly (B) liquid stream should be distributed uniformly (C) both gas as well as liquid streams should be distributed uniformly (D) by passing should be completely avoided 32. ______is the separation technique used for desalination of sea water. (A) Absorption (B) Thermal diffusion (C) Reverse osmosis (D) Adsorption 33. Extended heat transfer surface like fins are used to increase the heat transfer rate. Fin efficiency is defined as the ratio of heat transferred across the fin surface to the theoretical heat transfer across an equal area held at the : (A) surrounding temperature (B) average temperature of the fin (C) temperature of the fin end (D) constant temperature equal to that of the base 34. Which of the following provides maximum contact surface for a liquid-vapour system ? (A) Wetted wall column (B) Seive-plate column (C) Packed tower (D) Bubble-cap plate column 35. The buoyant force on a floating/ submerged body is : (A) a force due to gravity and acts downward (B) equal to the weight of liquid displaced by the body and acts vertically upward (C) the resultant force on a body due to the fluid surrounding it (D) the force necessary to maintain equilibrium of a submerged body

M.Tech. (Polymer) / BDU-22261-A 6 36. Which of the following temperature measuring instruments need not to touch the object whose temperature is being measured ? (A) Radiation/ infrared pyrometer (B) Thermo electric pyrometer (C) Mercury in glass thermometer (D) Filled system thermometer 37. Which of the following controllers has the least maximum deviation ? (A) P-controller (B) P-I-D controller (C) P-I controller (D) P-D controller 38. Steam distillation is used to : (A) reduce the number of plates (B) avoid thermal decomposition of a component (C) increase the efficiency of separation (D) increase the total pressure of distillation 39. The heat transfer co-efficient in film type condensation is ______that for dropwise condensation. (A) greater than (B) lower than (C) is same as (D) half 40. Which has the lowest Prandtl number ? (A) Water (B) Liquid metal (C) Aqueous solution (D) Lube oil 41. N plug flow reactors in series with a total volume V gives the same conversion as a single plug flow reactor of volume V. The above statement is true for : (A) zero-order reactions only (B) first-order reactions only (C) second-order reactions only (D) all reaction orders 42. In a heat exchanger with steam outside the tubes, a liquid gets heated to 45o C, when its flow velocity in the tubes is 2 m/s. If the flow velocity is reduced to 1 m/s, other things remaining the same, the temperature of the exit liquid will be : (A) more than 45o C (B) initially decreases and remains constant thereafter (C) less than 45o C (D) equal to 45o C 43. For turbulent flow in a tube, the heat transfer co-efficient is obtained from the Dittus-Boelter correlation. If the tube diameter is halved and the flow rate is doubled, then the heat transfer co-efficient will change by a factor of : (A) 6.1 (B) 1 (C) 1.74 (D) 1.63 44. Acetic acid will be most economically separated from a dilute solution of acetic acid in water by : (A) solvent extraction (B) continuous distillation (C) evaporation (D) absorption

M.Tech. (Polymer) / BDU-22261-A 7 [Turn over 45. Liquid A decomposes by irreversible first-order kinetics and the half-life period of this reaction is 12 min. The time required for 75 % conversion of A is : (A) 21 min (B) 16 min (C) 24 min (D) 18 min 46. Antioxidants are added to rubber to protect it from the attack of light, heat & atmospheric ozone. Which of the following is an antioxidant used in rubber ? (A) Thiokol (B) Alkylated diphenyl amine (C) Carbon (D) Magnesium 47. In a shell and tube heat exchanger, floating head is used for : (A) high heat transfer co-efficient (B) large temperature differentials (C) less corrosion of tubes (D) low pressure drop 48. Wavelength corresponding to the maximum energy is inversely proportional to the absolute temperature. This is______law. (A) Wien's (B) Stefan's (C) Kirchoff's (D) Dalton's 49. The half-life period of a first-order reaction (t1/2) and the rate constant (k) are related by : (A) t1/2 = k (B) t1/2 = 2.303/k (C) t1/2 = 0.693/k (D) t1/2 = 7.67/k 50. The space-velocity of 2 hr-1 means : (A) that every two hours one reactor volume of feed at specified conditions is being treated by the reactor (B) that two reactor volumes of feed at specified conditions are bring fed into the reactor per hour (C) that the actual reactor volume is double that of the optimum reactor volume (D) that one-half reactor volume of feed at specified conditions are being fed into the reactor. 51. In case of a shell and tube heat exchanger, the minimum and maximum baffle spacing is respectively (where, D = inside diameter of the shell) : (A) D/5 and D (B) D/2 and 2 D (C) D/4 and 2 D (D) D and 2 D 52. Addition of stabiliser during PVC manufacture is done to : (A) improve its impact strength (B) improve its elasticity (C) prevent its thermal degradation (D) reduce the melt viscosity & glass transition temperature 53. Perspex can be used as a substitute of glass. Its monomer is : (A) methyl methacrylate (B) DMT (C) tetrafluroethylene (D) butadiene

M.Tech. (Polymer) / BDU-22261-A 8 54. The half life for the acid-catalysed hydrolysis of sucrose to form glucose and fructose, which is first order overall, is 3.20 h at 25o C. What is the rate constant for the reaction at this temperature ? (A) 6.02 × 10-5 s-1 (B) 8.68 × 10-5 s-1 (C) 0.217 s-1 (D) 2.61 ×10-5 s-1 55. The Net Positive Suction Head (NPSH) of a centrifugal pump is defined as the sum of the velocity head and the pressure head at the : (A) suction (B) suction minus vapor pressure of the liquid at suction temperature (C) discharge minus vapor pressure of the liquid at the discharge temperature (D) discharge 56. Tube side pressure drop in a 1-2 heat exchanger (for turbulent flow of fluids through the tubes) is about_____times, that in a 1-1 heat exchanger having the same size & number of tubes and operated at the same liquid flow rate. (A) 2 (B) 1/2 (C) 4 (D) 8 57. A gas can be liquefied by pressure alone only, when its temperature is ______its critical temperature. (A) equal to or higher than (B) more than (C) less than (D) less than or equal to 58. Spherical shaped pressure vessel is considered to be the most ideal, because it can : (A) withstand higher pressure for a given metallic shell thickness (B) be fabricated very easily (C) be designed without wind load considerations (D) be supported very easily 59. Very fine suspended and colloidal impurities are removed from water by a process called : (A) disinfection (B) sedimentation (C) coagulation (D) softening 60. Raw materials for 'Solvay Process' for manufacture of the soda ash are : (A) salt, limestone and coke or gas (B) ammonia, salt and limestone (C) ammonia, limestone and coke (D) ammonium sulphate and lime 61. Which of the following is a dynamic characteristic of instruments ? (A) Time lag (B) Drift (C) Reproducibility (D) Span

M.Tech. (Polymer) / BDU-22261-A 9 [Turn over 62. In condenser, the cooling water is passed in the tube side in a pass arrangement, because : (A) it reduces heat transfer area (B) more thinner tubes can be used (C) pressure drop is reduced (D) it makes condenser compact

5 63. The equilibrium constant for the reaction CO(g) + H20(g)  CO2(g) +H2(g) is K = 1.03 × 10 at 298.15 K. Calculate the standard reaction Gibbs energy at this temperature. (A) -28.6 kJ mol-1 (B) -12.4 kJ mol-1 (C) -2.40 kJ mol-1 (D) -255 kJ mol-1

64. If your eyes are to mutate and become sensitive to slightly shorter wavelengths than they are now, what portion of the spectrum would become visible ? (A) X-ray (B) Infrared wavelengths (C) Red wavelengths (D) Ultraviolet wavelengths

x  2 65. If f (x)  then f-1(x) = ? 3 (A) 3x-2 (B) 2x-3 (C) 3 / (x + 2) (D) Does not exist

66. Amino acids are the building blocks of ______(A) carbohydrates (B) proteins (C) nucleic acids (D) lipids

67. Which is the most undesirable component in kerosene ? (A) i-paraffins (B) n-paraffins (C) Aromatics (D) Naphthenes

68. Which of the following is a particular solution of the differential equation ?

dy 2  5y3t 2 dt (A) 0.6 t2 - 0.24t + 0.448 (B) 0.6 t2 + 0.24t - 0.448 (C) 0.6 t2 - 0.448 (D) 0.6 t2 + 0.448

69. If log 2 = 0.3010 and log 3 =0.4771, the value of log5 512 is : (A) 3.912 (B) 2.870 (C) 3.876 (D) 2.967

M.Tech. (Polymer) / BDU-22261-A 10 1 70. At t = 0, the inverse Laplace transform of the function (s 1)(s2 1) equals to :

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 1/2 (D) 2 71. The partial differential equation

2z 2z 5  6  xy is classified as : x2 y2 (A) elliptic (B) parabolic (C) hyperbolic (D) linear

dy 2 x 72. Find the value of at the point (-2, 1) for the function which is defined implicitly by x y   6 dx y (A) 2.5 (B) 0.4 (C) 2 (D) 1.5 73. Process of estimating the value of dependent variable at an intermediate value is called______(A) Interpolation (B) Extrapolation (C) Estimation (D) Dependency 74. The solution of the equations 2x + y + 4z = 12, 4x + 11y - z = 33 and 8x -3y + 2z = 20 is : (A) x = -1, y = 2, z = 1 (B) x = 1, y = 2, z = 1 (C) x = 3, y = 2, z = 1 (D) x = -1, y = -2, z = -1 75. Octanes number of gasoline is a measure of its : (A) knocking tendency (B) ignition delay (C) ignition temperature (D) smoke point

M.Tech. (Polymer) / BDU-22261-A 11 [Turn over Rough Work

M.Tech. (Polymer) / BDU-22261-A 12 52 CET(PG)-2014 Sr. No. : Question Booklet Series : A Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet. Roll No. In Figures In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No. Signature of the Candidate : Subject : Masters in Public Health Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75 DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO INSTRUCTIONS 1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided and nowhere else. 2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet. 4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so. 5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test. 6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question, darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases. 8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the Question Booklet. 9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble. 10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed. 11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used. 12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the candidate only. 13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty. 14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from the examination. 15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent/Observer whose decision shall be final. 16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculator is not allowed. Masters in Public Health/A

1. The outermost layer of skin is : (A) Stratum Lucidum (B) Stratum Malpighi (C) Stratum Corneum (D) Stratum granulosum 2. Stoppage of bleeding is called : (A) Hemostasis (B) Vascular Spasm (C) Thrombosis (D) Coagulation 3. Uricotelism is found in : (A) Frogs and Toads (B) Birds, reptiles and insects (C) Mammals and birds (D) Fishes and fresh water protozoans 4. A life-table is composed of : (A) Records of reproductive events in a life time (B) Lists of the current ages of individual in a population (C) A collection of pedigrees from the society (D) Mortality records based on age 5. Exponential growth occur when there is : (A) Asexual reproduction only (B) Sexual reproduction only (C) A fixed carrying capacity (D) No inhibition from crowding 6. Cryogenic storage of germplasm is done at : (A) -10°C (B) -40°C (C) -196°C (D) 4°C 7. Linus Pauling (1940) proposed : (A) Instructive theory for antibody production (B) Constructive theory for antibody production (C) Induced fit theory (D) Selective theory 8. Which of the following are the most abundant types of antibodies ? (A) IgA (B) IgE (C) IgG (D) IgM 9. Who is considered as the father of eugenics ? (A) Aristotle (B) Francois Galton (C) William Harvey (D) Karl Landsteiner 10. Human eye is sensitive only to wavelength ranging from : (A) 20-100 nm (B) 100-280 nm (C) 380-760 nm (D) 780-960 nm

Masters in Public Health/BDU-22256-A 3 [Turn over  11. The basic chemical unit of pectin in the middle lamella is : (A) Galacturonic Acid (B) Glucuronic Acid (C) Mannuronic Acid (D) Pectinic Acid 12. Bone dissolving cells are known as : (A) Osteoclasts (B) Osteoblasts (C) Chondroblasts (D) Chondroclasts 13. Loss of one single chromosome creates a condition called : (A) Trisomy (B) Nullisomy (C) Monosomy (D) Haploid 14. A phosphate bond contains energy : (A) 8.3 k cal (B) 10 k cal (C) 11.7 k cal (D) 7.3 k cal 15. Which one of the following cells secrets testosterone ? (A) Spermatogonian (B) Leydig Cell (C) Sertoli Cells (D) Spermatocyte 16. Venous blood is carried to the lungs for oxygenation by the : (A) Pulmonary Arteries (B) Pulmonary Veins (C) Pulmonary arterio-venous shunt (D) Right Ventricle 17. Quinine the commonly used drug for malaria is obtained from a plant. What part of the plant yields the drug ? (A) Leaves (B) Fruits (C) Root (D) Stem Bark 18. Phenylketonuria is a human disease. A person affected by the disease suffers from : (A) Kidney Failure (B) Liver Failure (C) Mental Idiocy (D) Sexual Infertility 19. Following disease results due to increased pressure within eyeball : (A) Cataract (B) Glaucoma (C) Optism (D) Refractive Error 20. Mumps is caused by : (A) Influenza Virus (B) Rubella Virus (C) Variola Virus (D) Varicella-zoster Virus

Masters in Public Health/BDU-22256-A 4  21. A bird wing and an insect wing is an example of : (A) Co-evolution (B) Analogous Structures (C) Homologous structures (D) Radiation 22. In which phase of mitosis the chromosome move forward the poles ? (A) Prophase (B) Metaphase (C) Telophase (D) Anaphase 23. Glucose-6-Phosphate is also known as : (A) Newberg's Ester (B) Robinson's Ester (C) Harden and Young's Ester (D) RuDP 24. ‘Burning Sole Syndrome’ is seen in deficiency of : (A) Riboflavin (B) Pyridoxine (C) Pantothenic Acid (D) Vitamin B12 25. The pancreatic duct transports secretions from the pancreas to the : (A) Stomach (B) Duodenum (C) Liver (D) Colon 26. National Brain Research Centre is located at : (A) Noida (B) Patiala (C) Gurgaon (D) Shimla 27. Where is the headquarter of UNICEF ? (A) Geneva (B) New York (C) Washington DC (D) California 28. Gini Coefficient is related with : (A) Education Distribution (B) Income Distribution (C) Morbidity Distribution (D) Mortality Distribution 29. Community Health Centre caters a population of : (A) 30,000-35,000 (B) 40,000-50,000 (C) 80,000-1,20,000 (D) > 2,00,000 30. What is Perl rate ? (A) Success rate per hundred women years of exposure (B) Success rate per thousand women years of exposure (C) Failure rate per hundred women years of exposure (D) Failure rate per thousand women years of exposure 31. Fecundity is : (A) Birth Rate (B) Death Rate (C) Physiological capacity of a woman or man to produce a child (D) Number of female children born per thousand population

Masters in Public Health/BDU-22256-A 5 [Turn over  32. Which one is not a target of NRHM ? (A) IMR reduced to 20/1000 live births by 2012 (B) MMR reduced to 100/100000 live births by 2012 (C) TFR reduced to 2.1 by 2012 (D) TB DOTs services-maintain 85% cure through mission period 33. Who are not the beneficiaries of ICDS ? (A) Children below 6 years (B) Pregnant and lactating women (C) Elderly persons (D) Adolescent girls 34. Contamination of mustard oil with argemon oil causes : (A) Albinism (B) Glactosemia (C) Dropsy (D) Lathyrism 35. Black death is associated with : (A) Anthrax (B) Plague (C) HINI (D) TB 36. Mid day meal program provides food grains at the rate of : (A) One Kg minimum per child per month (B) Two Kg minimum per child per month (C) Three Kg minimum per child per month (D) Four Kg minimum per child per month 37. Golden triangle is a measure for : (A) Problem related to malnutrition (B) Problem related to drug abuse (C) Problem related to adolescents (D) Problem related to pregnant women 38. Rorschach test is a : (A) Test for Blood Sugar (B) Test for Hypertension (C) Test for Personality (D) Test for AIDS 39. ‘One Dietary Cycle’ comprises of : (A) 24 hrs (B) 48 hrs (C) 7 days (D) 1 month 40. Which state has maximum number of persons Below Poverty Line (BPL) ? (A) Bihar (B) Orissa (C) U.P. (D) Rajasthan 41. Dr. M.S. Swaminathan Report was submitted on : (A) National Health Policy (B) National Population Policy (C) National Blood Policy (D) National Youth Policy 42. According to census highest population density is in : (A) Bihar (B) Delhi (C) U.P. (D) Rajasthan

Masters in Public Health/BDU-22256-A 6  43. Health manpower is indicated by which of the following ? (A) Doctor 1 per 3500 population (B) ANM 1 per > 1000 population (C) Lab technician 1 per 10000 population (D) Pharmacist 1 per 100000 population 44. Percentage of Health Expenditure to GDP is highest in : (A) India (B) China (C) Sri Lanka (D) USA 45. Rural sanitation programme : (A) Launched in 1934 (B) Launched in 1944 (C) Launched in 1954 (D) Launched in 1964 46. Ombrophobia is the fear of : (A) Forest (B) Darkness (C) Shadow (D) Rain 47. When is the World Diabetes Day observed ? (A) 1st May (B) 14th November (C) 15th June (D) 30th December 48. Confirmatory test for HIV is : (A) Northern Blot (B) Eastern Blot (C) Western Blot (D) Southern Blot 49. At birth immunization required is : (A) BCG and OPV-O (B) DPT-1 (C) DPT-1 and OPV-1 (D) Measles 50. Secular trends are : (A) Short Term Fluctuation (B) Seasonal Fluctuation (C) Cyclic Fluctuation (D) Long Term Fluctuation 51. Besides 3 D's (Diarrhoea, Dermatitis & Dementia) of Niacin deficiency, 4th D indicates : (A) Disability (B) Destruction (C) Debilitation (D) Death 52. According to Biomedical Waste Management Act, 1998 there are : (A) 14 Categories of waste (B) 12 Categories of waste (C) 10 Categories of waste (D) 8 Categories of waste 53. A functionalist theory that outlines the privileges and expectations associated with being legitimately sick in contemporary society is called : (A) Best Role (B) Weak Role (C) Normal Role (D) Sick Role

Masters in Public Health/BDU-22256-A 7 [Turn over  54. The theory that old age is a ‘golden age’ is also called : (A) First age theory (B) Second age theory (C) Third age theory (D) Fourth age theory 55. The gender means : (A) The biological differences between men and women (B) The physical differences between men and women (C) The genetic difference between men and women (D) The social, cultural and psychological differences between men and women 56. The product of those structures, ideology and discourses that privilege and maintain a dominant male view of the world : (A) Realms (B) Phenomenology (C) Patriarchy (D) Social actors 57. The study of how, in principal, we gain knowledge about social world, in case of social research : (A) Empiricism (B) Epistemology (C) Ethnicity (D) Ethnography 58. Kuppuswamay's Scale is used for : (A) Urban Areas (B) Rural Areas (C) For both Urban and Rural areas (D) For both Slum and Rural areas 59. Getting married within the same caste or group is called : (A) Polyandry (B) Polygamy (C) Endogamy (D) Exogamy 60. A cultural contact between two or more cultures is called : (A) Customs (B) Rituals (C) Mores (D) Acculturation 61. The amount of money a consumer is willing to pay for additional units of a good or service is called : (A) Reflected Price (B) Shadow Price (C) Mirror Price (D) Double Price 62. Literacy rate is the percentage of persons above : (A) 5 years who can read and write with understanding any language (B) 7 years who can read and write with understanding any language (C) 9 years who can read and write with understanding any language (D) 11 years who can read and write with understanding any language

Masters in Public Health/BDU-22256-A 8  63. The major source of the pollutant gas, carbon monoxide (CO), in urban areas is : (A) Thermal power sector (B) Transport sector (C) Industrial sector (D) Domestic sector 64. In a fuel cell driven vehicle, the energy is obtained from the combustion of : (A) Methane (B) CNG (C) LPG (D) Hydrogen 65. Eutrophication is : (A) An improved water quality status of lakes (B) The result of accumulation of plant nutrients in water bodies (C) A process in the carbon cycle (D) A water purification technique 66. Richter Scale is used to measure the earthquake's : (A) Amplitude (B) Frequency (C) Intensity (D) Epicenter 67. Bandipur National Park is in : (A) M.P. (B) U.P. (C) Rajasthan (D) Karnataka 68. MPN Multiple Tube Method is done to : (A) Detect the presence of Coliform organisms in a sample of water (B) Detect the presence of Faecal streptococci in a sample of water (C) Detect the prsence of Clostridium Perfringens in a sample of water (D) Do the colony count of bacteria 69. Polythene is industrially prepared by the polymerisation of : (A) Methane (B) Styrene (C) Acetylene (D) Ethylene 70. Earth was formed : (A) 4600 million years ago (B) 3800 million years ago (C) 1200 million years ago (D) 600 million years ago 71. Barium is used for : (A) Checking blood group (B) X-ray of alimentary canal (C) X-ray of Brain (D) X-ray of Heart 72. Which is the oldest pollution related law in India ? (A) Forest Act (B) Indian Penal Code (C) Code of Criminal Procedure (D) Shore (Bombay) Nuisance Act

Masters in Public Health/BDU-22256-A 9 [Turn over  73. Punjab is the only state in India where burning of rice husk is banned. The ban was imposed in : (A) 1985 (B) 1988 (C) 1993 (D) 1995 74. For how long CFCs stay in the atmosphere ? (A) About one year (B) About 20 years (C) About 100 years (D) About 1000 years 75. Soiling index is a measure of : (A) Soil Pollution (B) Water Pollution (C) Noise Pollution (D) Air Pollution

Masters in Public Health/BDU-22256-A 10  Rough Work

Masters in Public Health/BDU-22256-A 11 56  CET(PG)2014 Sr. No. : Question Booklet Series : A Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet. Roll No. In Figures In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No. Signature of the Candidate : Subject : M.B.E. (Master of Business Economics) Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75 DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO INSTRUCTIONS 1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided and nowhere else. 2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet. 4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so. 5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test. 6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question, darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases. 8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the Question Booklet. 9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble. 10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed. 11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used. 12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the candidate only. 13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty. 14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from the examination. 15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent/Observer whose decision shall be final. 16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed. English Version : M.B.E. (Master of Business Economics)

1. Total food grains production in India during 2012-13 was in millions tones : (A) 250 (B) 300 (C) 275 (D) 245 2. The gross fiscal deficit measured as percentage of GDP during 2012-13 was : (A) 7 (B) 2.6 (C) 5.1 (D) 9 3. The population of India during 2010-11 was in millions : (A) 1210 (B) 1310 (C) 1100 (D) 1175 4. Per captia net national income in current prices in rupees during 2012-13 : (A) 68747 (B) 75747 (C) 60747 (D) 55747 5. Non Development expenditure includes one of following : (A) Irrigation (B) Real estate (C) Subsidies (D) Power 6. Feudalistic economy is dominated by : (A) Entrepreneurs (B) Landlords (C) Workers (D) Managers 7. In short run which factor can not be varied ? (A) Labour (B) Capital (C) Raw materials (D) None of above 8. In case of inelastic demand curve the demand curve is : (A) Vertical (B) Horizontal (C) Downward (D) Upward 9. The kinked demand curve explains : (A) Price flexibility (B) Price rigidity (C) Demand rigidity (D) Demand flexibility 10. Price leadership is a form of : (A) Monopolistic competition (B) Collusive oligopoly (C) Non collusive oligopoly (D) Imperfect competition

M.B.E. (Master of Business Economics)/A/BDU-22267 3 [Turn over 11. Full capacity is utilized only when there is : (A) Perfect competion (B) Imperfect competion (C) Monopolistic competion (D) Oilgopoly 12. Isoquants are convex to origin because of : (A) Diminishing MRTS (B) Increasing MRTS (C) Diminishng return to scale (D) Increasing return to scale 13. In India FERA has been replaced by : (A) FEMA (B) FEPA (C) FETA (D) FENA 14. In India agricultural income is calculated through : (A) Output method (B) Income method (C) Expenditure method (D) Commodity flow method 15. Share of tertiary sector in Indian economy is near : (A) 70 percent (B) 35 percent (C) 48 percent (D) 55 percent 16. Greatest part of India income is used for : (A) Private consumption (B) Public consumption (C) Investment (D) Defence expenditure 17. According to Keynes, consumption is function of : (A) Rate of interest (B) Capital (C) Income (D) Saving 18. In India major portion of saving originates from : (A) Government (B) Household (C) Business (D) Public enterprises 19. IS–LM curves were given by : (A) Keynes (B) Hansen (C) Hicks (D) Samuelson 20. The law Supply creates its own demand was given by : (A) Hicks (B) Says (C) Ricardo (D) Marshall 21. Which is the most liquid asset ? (A) Shares (B) Bonds (C) Saving account deposit (D) Fixed account deposit

M.B.E. (Master of Business Economics)/BDU-22267 4 22. Which is risk free investments ? (A) Shares (B) Debentures (C) Treasury bills (D) Bonds 23. Corporate tax is tax on company’s : (A) Profits (B) Revenue (C) Investment (D) Sales 24. Keynes assumes rigidity in : (A) Savings (B) Investments (C) Interest rates (D) National Income 25. Poverty in India is measured in terms of : (A) Calories (B) Housing (C) Clothes (D) Education 26. Vicious circle of poverty was given by : (A) Robinson (B) Nurkse (C) Freidman (D) Meade 27. Who developed theory of unlimited supply of labour ? (A) Keynes (B) Kaldor (C) Lewis (D) Hirchman 28. Concept of disguised unemployment was given by : (A) Kuznets (B) Galbraith (C) Nurkse (D) Kaldor 29. Demonstration effect leads to increase in : (A) Savings (B) Consumption (C) Investment (D) Income 30. Perspective planning refers to : (A) Annual plan (B) Five year plan (C) Rolling plan (D) Long term plan 31. Asian Drama is written by : (A) Galbraith (B) Myrdal (C) Nurkse (D) Sen 32. For economic development Schumpeter gave key role to : (A) Politicians (B) Civil servants (C) Money lenders (D) Innovators

M.B.E. (Master of Business Economics)/BDU-22267 5 [Turn over 33. SLR rate in India as in April 2014 : (A) 36 percent (B) 30 percent (C) 25 percent (D) 15 percent 34. In long run the Phillips curve is : (A) Upward (B) Downward (C) Vertical (D) Horizontal 35. Autarky signifies : (A) Self sufficiency (B) Isolation (C) Maximum exports (D) Maximum imports 36. Which one is promoting free trade across world ? (A) UNDF (B) UNICEF (C) WTO (D) NATO 37. During 1991 who was Finance Minster of India ? (A) Yashwant Singh (B) P.V. Narsimha Rao (C) Manmohan Singh (D) Charan Singh 38. Mercantilism originated in : (A) France (B) Germany (C) Britain (D) USA 39. For bringing equality of income, taxation should be : (A) Regressive (B) Proportional (C) Progressive (D) None of the above 40. Invisible account of foreign trade includes : (A) Transfer payments (B) Defence payments (C) Interest payments (D) Gold payments 41. Which of the following has highest exports during 2010-11 ? (A) Tea (B) Ready made garments (C) Gems and Jewellery (D) Transport equipments 42. Nationalisation of 14 banks took place in : (A) 1965 (B) 1969 (C) 1971 (D) 1985 43. Which budget is passed separately in India ? (A) Defence (B) Railways (C) Research (D) Airways

M.B.E. (Master of Business Economics)/BDU-22267 6 44. Minimum alternative tax is levied on : (A) Income tax (B) Sales Tax (C) Custom duty (D) Corporate tax 45. Green Revolution mainly increased production of : (A) Bajra (B) Maize (C) Wheat (D) Oilseeds 46. MRTP Act was passed in : (A) 1966 (B) 1969 (C) 1972 (D) 1991 47. BIMARU states represents : (A) Poor states (B) Rich states (C) North East states (D) Eastern states 48. Investment in public works is known as : (A) Revenue expenditure (B) Current exprnditure (C) Capital expenditure (D) Working expenditure 49. When firm experiences economies of scale, its cost curve goes : (A) Downwards (B) Upwards (C) Remains same (D) Became vertical 50. The law of demand is : (A) An indicative statement (B) An illustrative statement (C) A selective statement (D) A qualitative statement 51. The national income is estimated by : (A) Planning Commission (B) Finance Commission (C) Reserve Bank of India (D) Central Statistical Organization 52. Which one is a direct tax ? (A) Income tax (B) Custom duty (C) Sales tax (D) Excise duty 53. Trade in invisibles refers to : (A) Unrecorded trade (B) Smuggling (C) Trade in military goods (D) Trade in services 54. The marginal revenue curve can be derived from the : (A) Supply curve (B) Demand curve (C) Cost curve (D) Market curve

M.B.E. (Master of Business Economics)/BDU-22267 7 [Turn over 55. Which unit of valuation in known as “paper gold” ? (A) Petro dollar (B) Euro dollar (C) GDR (D) SDR 56. Which of the following is not a source of public revenue ? (A) Taxes (B) Borrowings (C) Subsidies (D) Earning of Public enterprises 57. Which is not a part of new economic reforms in India ? (A) Globalisation (B) Privatisation (C) Centralisation (D) Liberalisation 58. Amartya Sen was awarded Nobel Prize in area of : (A) Econometrics (B) Welfare economics (C) Development economics (D) Monetary economics 59. Federal Reserve is the central bank of : (A) Britain (B) USA (C) Japan (D) Canada 60. The rate at which banks lend to RBI is known as : (A) Bank rate (B) Repo rate (C) Reverse repo rate (D) Compound interest rate 61. Fiscal deficit is : (A) Total income less government borrowing (B) Total expenditure less toal receipts (C) Total receipts less capital receipts (D) Total expenditure less total receipts excluding borrowing 62. Capital market regulator is : (A) SEBI (B) RBI (C) IRDA (D) BSE 63. In the term BRIC, R stands for : (A) Russia (B) Romania (C) Regulation (D) Region 64. Vimal is brand of which group ? (A) Vardhman (B) Aditya Birla (C) Reliance (D) Raymonds

M.B.E. (Master of Business Economics)/BDU-22267 8 65. Who is Indira Nooyi ? (A) CEO of Coke (B) CEO of Pepsi (C) CEO of HDFC Bank (D) CEO of ICICI Bank 66. Which one is primary source of energy in India ? (A) Coal (B) Hydel power (C) Natural gas (D) Naptha 67. Yuan currency belongs to : (A) China (B) Thailand (C) Indonesia (D) South Korea 68. Airtel is brand name of : (A) Bharti (B) Reliance (C) Tata (D) Birla 69. Poverty rate during 2012 in India is : (A) 40 percent (B) 31 percent (C) 23 percent (D) 15 percent 70. Which was first country to launch micro finance ? (A) India (B) China (C) Bangladesh (D) Russia 71. Bharat Nirman Yojana was started in : (A) 2000 (B) 2005 (C) 2007 (D) 2008 72. Open market operation is part of : (A) Fiscal policy (B) Credit policy (C) Labour policy (D) Industrial policy 73. MCX is the index of which stock exchanges of India ? (A) NSE (B) BSE (C) Delhi Stock Exchange (D) Multi Commodity Stock Exchange 74. Main bearer of burden of indirect taxes is : (A) Manufacturers (B) Traders (C) Consumers (D) Tax payers 75. What does NPA stand for in banking environment ? (A) Net performing assets (B) New potential accounts (C) Non performing assets (D) Net profitable assets

M.B.E. (Master of Business Economics)/BDU-22267 9 [Turn over Rough Work

M.B.E. (Master of Business Economics)/BDU-22267 10 Rough Work

M.B.E. (Master of Business Economics)/BDU-22267 11 ??? CET(PG)-2014 Sr. No. : Question Booklet Series : A Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet. Roll No. In Figures In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No. Signature of the Candidate : Subject : MBACIT Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75 DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO INSTRUCTIONS 1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided and nowhere else. 2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet. 4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so. 5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test. 6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question, darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases. 8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the Question Booklet. 9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble. 10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed. 11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used. 12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the candidate only. 13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty. 14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from the examination. 15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent/Observer whose decision shall be final. 16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculator is not allowed. MBACIT/A

1. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ? (A) F.W. Taylor—Scientific Management (B) Henry Fayol—Human Relations Approach (C) Elton Mayo—Psychological Approach (D) Marry Parker Follet—Universality of Management 2. Need-Hierarchy Theory was propounded by : (A) P.F. Drucker (B) Abraham Maslow (C) Mc-Farland (D) Elton Mayo 3. The euro is the name for : (A) a currency deposited outside its country of origin (B) a bond sold internationally outside of the country in whose currency the bond is denominated (C) the common European currency (D) a type of sandwich 4. EOQ is the order quantity that : (A) minimizes total ordering costs (B) minimizes total carrying costs (C) minimizes total inventory costs (D) the required safety stock 5. Which of the following would be included in a cash budget ? (A) Depreciation charges (B) Dividends (C) Goodwill (D) Patent Amortization 6. The gross profit margin is unchanged, but the net profit margin declined over the same period. This could have happened if : (A) Cost of goods sold increased relative to sales (B) Indirect expenses increased relative to sales (C) The Government increased the tax rate (D) Dividends were decreased 7. A major advantage of the corporate form of organization is : (A) Reduction of double taxation (B) Limited owner liability (C) Legal Restrictions (D) Ease of organization 8. A private company can commence business : (A) As per its wish (B) After obtaining Certificate of Incorporation (C) After obtaining the Certificate of commencement of business (D) None of these

MBACIT/BDU-22271-A 3 [Turn over  9. Doctrine of Constructive Notice means : (A) Notice must be given to every member before entering into any agreement (B) The company must give notice to the ROC (C) The person dealing with the comapny is assumed to have notice of the documents registered with the ROC (D) None of these 10. An entry to record 2 or more transactions of a similar nature occuring on the same day is known as : (A) Journal Entry (B) Special Entry (C) Main Entry (D) Compound Journal Entry 11. The famous case of Salomon V. Salomon deals with : (A) The perpetual succession (B) Common seal (C) Separate Legal Entity (D) Rights of Shareholders 12. Auditor of public company is appointed by : (A) Company Secretary (B) Shareholders in general meeting (C) Board of Directors (D) Securities and Exchange Board of India 13. Max Weber is associated with : (A) Theory of Scientific Management (B) Theory of Bureaucracy (C) Theory of Motivation (D) Principles of Management 14. The decisions taken at the middle and lower levels of management within the framework of policies and procedures for actual execution of the work are known as : (A) Strategic Decisions (B) Operative Decisions (C) Group Decisions (D) Organizational Decisions 15. The word communication has been derived from the word Communis of ______Origin. (A) Latin (B) Greek (C) Roman (D) French 16. An increase in the money supply causes : (A) Interest rates to fall, investment spending to rise, and aggregate demand to rise (B) Interest rates to rise, investment spending to rise, and aggregate demand to rise (C) Interest rates to rise, investment spending to fall, and aggregate demand to fall (D) Interest rates to fall, investment spending to fall, and aggregate demand to fall

MBACIT/BDU-22271-A 4  17. Which of the following would cause the demand curve for automobiles to shift to the left ? (A) an increase in the price of the automobiles (B) an increase in the interest rate paid to borrow money to pay for the automobile (C) an increase in buyer's incomes (D) an increase in the cost of production of automobiles 18. A type of unemployment in which workers are in-between jobs or are searching for new and better jobs is called______unemployment. (A) Frictional (B) Cyclical (C) Structural (D) Turnover 19. The period of the business cycle in which real GDP is increasing is called the : (A) Expansion (B) Peak (C) Recession (D) Trough 20. The Phillips curve describes the relationship between : (A) The government budget deficit and the trade deficit (B) Savings and Investment (C) The unemployment rate and the inflation rate (D) Mariginal tax rates and tax revenues 21. High levels of both inflation and unemployment is known as : (A) Stagflation (B) Inflation (C) Saturation (D) Depression 22. The frequency at which one unit of currency is used to purchase domestically-produced goods and services within a given time period is known as : (A) Velocity of money (B) Frequency of money (C) Speed of money (D) Buoyancy of money 23. The acronym SDR stands for : (A) Special Drawing Right (B) Social Drawing Right (C) Special Discount Rate (D) Social Disclosure Rate 24. The central banking functions in India are performed by the : (A) Central Bank of India (B) Reserve Bank of India (C) State Bank of India (D) Punjab National Bank 25. Gilt-edged market means : (A) Bullion Market (B) Market of government securities (C) Market of guns (D) Market of pure metals

MBACIT/BDU-22271-A 5 [Turn over  26. Devaluation of a currency means : (A) Official reduction in the value of a currency vis-a-vis major internationally traded currencies (B) Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market (C) Fixing the value of the currency in conjunction with the movement in the value of a basket of pre-determined currencies (D) Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultation with the IMF, the World Bank and major trading partners 27. In the second nationalization of commercial banks,______banks were nationalized. (A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 5 28. If the Cash Reserve Ratio is lowered by the RBI, its impact on credit creation will be to : (A) Increase it (B) Decrease it (C) No impact (D) None of the above 29. Excise duty is a tax levied on the : (A) Import of goods (B) Export of goods (C) Production of goods (D) Sale of goods 30. Revenue of the state government is raised from the following sources, except : (A) Entertainment Tax (B) Expenditure Tax (C) Agricultural Income Tax (D) Land Revenue 31. The brain of any computer system is : (A) ALU (B) Memory (C) CPU (D) Control Unit 32. Which of the following computer languages is used for artificial intelligence ? (A) FORTRAN (B) PROLOG (C) C (D) COBOL 33. An optical input device that interprets pencil marks on paper media is : (A) O.M.R. (B) Punch Card Reader (C) Optical Scanners (D) Magnetic Tape 34. Which printer uses a combination of laser-beam & electro photographic techniques ? (A) Laser Printers (B) Dot-Matrix (C) Line Printer (D) Daisy Wheel 35. The arranging of data in a logical sequence is called : (A) Sorting (B) Classifying (C) Reproducing (D) Summarising

MBACIT/BDU-22271-A 6  36. A file containing relatively permanent data is : (A) Random File (B) Transaction File (C) Master File (D) Sequential File 37. Communication that involves computers, establishing a link through the telephone system is called : (A) Telecommunication (B) Teleprocessing (C) Tele reporting (D) Micro processing 38. Which kind of devices allow the user to add components and capabilities to a computer system ? (A) Expansion slots (B) System board (C) Input board (D) Storage device 39. Group of instructions that direct a computer is called : (A) Programme (B) Storage (C) Memory (D) Logic 40. When the time to establish link is large and the size of data is small, the preferred mode of data transfer is : (A) Circuit Switching (B) Packet Switching (C) Electronic Switching (D) Random Switching 41. Which of the following is a part of the Central Processing Unit ? (A) Mouse (B) Printer (C) Arithmetic Logic Unit (D) Keyboard 42. A device or system not directly connected to the CPU is : (A) Mouse (B) Online (C) Offline (D) Memory 43. A step-by-step procedure used to solve a problem is called : (A) Operating System (B) Algorithm (C) Application Programme (D) Application Route 44. A technique for processing jobs on a first-come, first-served basis is known as : (A) FIFO (B) GIGO Cable (C) FAX (D) FOFI 45. A device mounted on a communication satellite which receives, amplifies and re-transmits signals from earth station is : (A) Transistor (B) Transponder (C) Track (D) Terminal 46. Look at this series : 7, 10, 8, 11, 9, 12,...... What number should come next ? (A) 7 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 13

MBACIT/BDU-22271-A 7 [Turn over  47. Look at this series : 36, 34, 30, 28, 24,...... What number should come next ? (A) 20 (B) 22 (C) 23 (D) 26 48. Odometer is to mileage as compass is to : (A) Speed (B) Direction (C) Hiking (D) Needle 49. Marathon is to race as hibernation is to : (A) Winter (B) Bear (C) Dream (D) Sleep 50. Eileen is planning a special birthday dinner for her husband's 25th birthday. She wants the evening to be memorable, but her husband is a simple man who would rather be in jeans at a baseball game than in a suit at a fancy restaurant. Which restaurant below should Eileen choose ? (A) Alfredo's offers fine Italian cuisine and an elegant Tuscan decor. Patrons will feel as though they've spent the evening in a luxurious Italian villa. (B) Pancho's Mexican Buffet is an all-you-can-eat family style smorgasbord with the best tacos in town. (C) The Parisian Bistro is a four-star French restaurant where guests are treated like royalty. Chef Dilbert Olay is famous for his beef bourguignon. (D) Marty's serves delicious, hearty meals in a charming setting reminiscent of a baseball clubhouse in honor of the owner, Marty Lester, a former major league baseball all-star. 51. The school principal has received complaints from parents about bullying in the school yard during recess. He wants to investigate and end this situation as soon as possible, so he has asked the recess aides to watch closely. Which situation should the recess aides report to the principal ? (A) A girl is sitting glumly on a bench reading a book and not interacting with her peers. (B) Four girls are surrounding another girl and seem to have possession of her backpack. (C) Two boys are playing a one-on-one game of basketball and are arguing over the last basket scored. (D) Three boys are huddled over a handheld video game, which isn't supposed to be on school grounds. 52. Statements : (I) The prices of petrol and diesel in the domestic market have remained unchanged for the past few months. (II) The crude oil prices in the international market have gone up substantially in the last few months. (A) Statement I is the cause and Statement II is its effect (B) Statement II is the cause and Statement I is its effect (C) Both the Statements I and II are independent causes (D) Both the Statements I and II are effects of independent causes.

MBACIT/BDU-22271-A 8  53. Statemensts: (I) The government has recently fixed the fees for professional courses offered by the unaided institutions which are much lower than the fees charged last year. (II) The parents of the aspiring students launched a severe agitation last year protesting against the high fees charged by the unaided institutions. (A) Statement I is the cause and Statement II is its effect (B) Statement II is the cause and Statement I is its effect (C) Both the Statements I and II are independent causes (D) Both the Statements I and II are effects of independent causes. 54. Vincent has a paper route. Each morning, he delivers 37 newspapers to customers in his neighbourhood. It takes Vincent 50 minutes to deliver all the papers. If Vincent is sick or has other plans, his friend Thomas, who lives on the same street, will sometimes deliver the papers for him. (A) Vincent and Thomas live in the same neighbourhood. (B) It takes Thomas more than 50 minutes to deliver the papers. (C) It is dark outside when Vincent begins his deliveries. (D) Thomas would like to have his own paper route. 55. The Pacific Yew is an evergreen tree that grows in the Pacific Northwest. The Pacific Yew has a fleshy, poisonous fruit. Recently, taxol, a substance found in the bark of the Pacific Yew, was discovered to be a promising new anticancer drug. (A) Taxol is poisonous when taken by healthy people. (B) Taxol has cured people from various diseases. (C) People should not eat the fruit of the Pacific Yew. (D) The Pacific Yew was considered worthless until taxol was discovered. 56. Tim's commute never bothered him because there were always seats available on the train and he was able to spend his 40 minutes comfortably reading the newspaper or catching up on paperwork. Ever since the train schedule changed, the train has been extremely crowded, and by the time the doors open at his station, there isn't a seat to be found. (A) Tim would be better off taking the bus to work. (B) Tim's commute is less comfortable since the train schedule changed. (C) Many commuters will complain about the new train schedule. (D) Tim will likely look for a new job closer to home. 57. Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of BRIEF. (A) Limited (B) Small (C) Little (D) Short

MBACIT/BDU-22271-A 9 [Turn over  58. Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of AUGUST. (A) Dignified (B) Ridiculous (C) Petty (D) Common 59. Choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of ARTIFICIAL. (A) Natural (B) Red (C) Truthful (D) Solid 60. Choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of EXODUS. (A) Influx (B) Home coming (C) Return (D) Restoration 61. The height of the “Mount Everest” is : (A) 8848 meters (B) 8811 meters (C) 8884 meters (D) 8586 meters 62. The most populated State of India is : (A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Madhya Pradesh (C) Orissa (D) Maharashtra 63. The capital of Argentina is : (A) Kingstown (B) Buenos Aires (C) Basseterre (D) Castries 64. The national currency of Iran is : (A) Iranian Rial (B) Iranian Rupia (C) Iranian Dinar (D) Iranian Franc 65. Financial Emergency can be declared by the President of India under Article : (A) 352 of the Constitution (B) 360 of the Constitution (C) 356 of the Constitution (D) 362 of the Constitution 66. Who was the first man in space ? (A) Cosmonaut Yuri Gagarin (B) Cosmonaut Alan N. Bean (C) Cosmonaut Alan Shepherd (D) Cosmonaut Edwin Aldrin 67. The next Kumbh Mela will be held at : (A) Nasik on the bank of river Godavari in 2015 (B) Ujjain on the bank of river Shipra in 2015 (C) Hardwar on the bank of river Ganga in 2015 (D) Allahabad on the confluence of rivers Ganga and Yamuna 68. Maharana Pratap's two brothers were : (A) Shakti Singh and Vijay Singh (B) Raj Singh and Sagar Singh (C) Shakti Singh and Mehar Singh (D) Shakti Singh and Sagar Singh

MBACIT/BDU-22271-A 10  69. Jag Mandir is a palace built on an island : (A) in the Lake Pichola in Udaipur (B) in the Lake Pichola in Ujjain (C) in the Lake Bichhoula in Udaipur (D) in the Lake Bichhoula in Ujjain 70. The captain of Pakistan cricket team in Asia Cup 2014 was : (A) Sahid Afridi (B) Mohammad Hafiz (C) Sinawari Khan (D) Misbah-ul-Haq Khan 71. The confluence of the Chandra River and Bhaga River in Himachal Pradesh is at : (A) Tandi Village (B) Mandi Village (C) Sandi Village (D) Kandi Village 72. The source of Bhaga River rising in Himalayas is : (A) Suraj Tal (B) Chandra Tal (C) Mangal Tal (D) Budha Tal 73. The term of office of a member of Lok Sabha is : (A) 5 years (B) 6 years (C) 4 years (D) 3 years 74. Black Pagoda is another name of : (A) Konark Sun Temple (B) Ujjain Moon Temple (C) Konark Venus Temple (D) Ujjain Sun Temple 75. Godavari Express, one of the most prestigious trains of South Central Railway and runs between (A) Visakhapatnam and Hyderabad (B) Visakhapatnam and Bangalore (C) Hyderabad and Bangalore (D) Hyderabad and Aurangabad

MBACIT/BDU-22271-A 11  Rough Work

MBACIT/BDU-22271-A 12 100  CET(PG)2014 Sr. No. : Question Booklet Series Code : A Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet. Roll No. In Figures In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No. Signature of the Candidate : Subject : M.E. (Chemical) Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75 DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO INSTRUCTIONS 1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided and nowhere else. 2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet. 4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so. 5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test. 6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question, darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases. 8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the Question Booklet. 9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble. 10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed. 11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used. 12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the candidate only. 13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty. 14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from the examination. 15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent/Observer whose decision shall be final. 16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed. English Version : M.E. (Chemical) 1. The weather bureau reports a dry bulb temperature of ambient air as 29°C and relative humidity of 80%. The barometr read 750 mm hg. The perecentage humidity of ambient air is (Vapor pressure of water at 29°C = 30 mm Hg). (A) 80% (B) 79.34% (C) 64.46% (D) None of these

3 2. Assming thta CO2 obeys perfect gas law, the density of CO2 (in kg/m ), at 0°C and 2 atm is : (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 3. A furnace shell has to be cooled from 90 °C to 55 °C. The mass of the furnace shell is 2 tonnes, the specific heat of furnace shell is 0.2 kCall/kg °C. Water is available at 29 °C. The maximum allowed increase in water temerature is 5 °C. Calculate the quantity of water required to cool the furnace. Neglect heat loss. (A) 1400 kg (B) 4200 kg (C) 2800 kg (D) None of these 4. Plunger pumps are used for : (A) Higher pressure (B) Slurries (C) Viscous mass (D) None of these 5. Propellers are : (A) Axial flow mixers (B) Low speed impeller (C) Used for mixing liquids of high viscosity (D) Radial flow mixers 6. Check valve are used : (A) At high pressure (B) In bends (C) For controlling water flow (D) For unidirectional flow 7. The pH value of a solution is 5.9. If the hydrogen ion concentration is decreased hundred times, the solution will be : (A) Basic (B) More acidic (C) Neutral (D) Of the same acidity 8. By increasing the air/fuel ratio, the adiabatic flame temperature : (A) Increases (B) Decreases (C) Remains unchanged (D) Change is unpredictable

M.E. (Chemical)/BDU-22260 3 [Turn over 9. A multiple effect evaporator has a capacity to process 4000 kg of soild caustic soda per day which it is concentrating from 10% to 25% solids. The water evaporatedin kilograms per day is : (A) 8000 (B) 24000 (C) 60000 (D) 48000 10. Air at 293 K and 750 mm of Hg pressure has a relative humidity of 80%. What is its percent humidity ? The vapour pressure of water at 293 K is 17.5 mm of Hg. (A) 80.38 (B) 80 (C) 79.62 (D) 78.51 11. A mixutre fo oxygen and sulfur dioxide is at 200kPa. The average molecular weight of mixture is 44.8. The partial pressure of the oxygen in the mixture is : (A) 89.6 kPa (B) 120 kPa (C) 101.3 kPa (D) 80 kPa 12. A gaseous reaction A2BC takes place isothermally in a constant pressure reactor. Starting with a gaeous mixture containing 50% A (rest inerts), the ration of final of initial : (A) 60 (B) 30 (C) 50 (D) 74 13. The figure below is representing :

(A) Proportional control (B) Feedback control (C) Domain control (D) Feed forward control

14. If a system consists of two immiscible liquids (such as CCL4 and CH3OH), how many phases are there : (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 15. Throat of the pipe diameter is constant in : (A) Orifice-meter (B) Venturi-meter (C) Pitot-tube (D) All of the above 16. For a given separation which of the following is correct : (A) Number of plates increases with in reflux ratio (B) At total reflux, the reflux ratio is infinity (C) At minimum reflux ratio the number of plates are zero (D) None of the above M.E. (Chemical)/BDU-22260 4 17. LMTD in case of counter current is : (A) > LMTD in case of co-current (B) = LMTD in case of co-current (C) < LMTD in case of co-current (D) None of these 18. Ethanol-water mixture : (A) Forms a minimum boiling azeotropes (B) Forms a maximum boiling azeotropes (C) Shows negative deviation from ideality (D) Both ii and iii 19. Heat is liberated during phase change in : (A) Boiler (B) Evaporator (C) Condenser (D) Both (A) and (B) 20. If the moisture content of the soild on dry basis is X, then the same on wet basis is : (A) X/(1–X) (B) (1+X)/X (C) X/(X+1) (D) (1–X)/X 21. For a counter-current heat exchanger the clean overall heat transfer coefficient is 500 W/m2. K and the overall fouling factor is 0.00035 m2 K/W. What will be the value of the design overall heat transer coefficient : (A) 485.6 W/m2.K (B) 425.5 W/m2.K (C) 392.8 W/m2.K (D) None of the above 22. Dead Weight Tester is used for the calibration of : (A) Mass (B) Weight (C) Temperature (D) Pressure 23. Pick out the wrong statement. (A) Different soilds have different equilibrium moisture curves. (B) Total condenser or reboiler is considered considered equivalent to one theoretical plate in McCabe-Thiele method of theroretical plate calculation for distillation column. (C) Heat removal load on cooler remains constant, even with increase of the reflux ratio in a distillation column. (D) Even a forced draft cooling tower can not cool water below the wet bulb temperature. 24. ______column is the most suitable for achieving the best performance for mass transfer operation involving liquid wit dispersed soilds. (A) Wetted wall (B) Packed (C) Plate (D) Spray 25. A rotameter, through which air at room temperature and atmospheric pressure is flowing, gives a certain reading for a flow rate of 100 cc/s. If helium (Molecular weight 4) is used and the rotameter shows the same reading, the flow rate is : (A) 26 cc/s (B) 42 cc/s (C) 269 cc/s (D) 325 cc/s

M.E. (Chemical)/BDU-22260 5 [Turn over 26. Dilute sulfuric acid is handled in vessels made of : (A) Lead (B) Brass (C) Stainless steel (D) Cast iron 27. Air is best heated with steam in a heat exchanger of : (A) Plate type. (B) Double pipe type with fin on steam side. (C) Double pipe type with fin on air side. (D) Shell and tube type. 28. The dimensionless group in mass transfer that is equivalent to Prandtl number in heat trnasfer is : (A) Nusselet number. (B) Sherwood number. (C) Schmidt number. (D) Stanton number. 29. It is not preferable to use superheated steam in evaporators, because of its very : (A) High temperature (B) Low film co-efficient (C) High pressure (D) None of these 30. Urea is a ______fertilizer. (A) Nitrogenous (B) Potassic (C) Phosphatic (D) All of these 31. 5-1-5 fertilizer mean that they contain :

(A) 5, 10, 5% repectively of N2,P2O5 and K2O (B) Only 5 to 10% active fertilizer constituents (C) 5 to 10% filler and carrier of soil conditioners (D) None of these 32. Swenson-walker crystallizer is a ______unit : (A) Continuous (B) Batch (C) Semi-batch (D) Cooling (adiabatic)-cum-evaporation 33. The value of Lewis number for air-water vapour system is around : (A) 600 (B) 0.24 (C) 3.97 (D) 1 34. In natural convection heat transfer the correlating parameter is : (A) Graetz number (B) Eckert number (C) Grashoff number (D) Bond number 35. Filter aid is used to : (A) Increase the rate of filtration (B) Increase the porosity of the cake (C) Decrease the pressure drop (D) Act as a support base of the septum 36. Which is the most suitable conveyour for trnasportatin of sticky material : (A) Apron (B) Belt (C) Screw (D) Pneumatic

M.E. (Chemical)/BDU-22260 6 37. Highly viscous liquids and pastes are agitated by : (A) Properllers (B) Turbine agitators (C) Multiple blade paddles (D) None of these 38. Wet sieving is employed, when the product contains ______materials : (A) Abrasive (B) Large quantity of very fine (C) Coarse (D) Non-sticky 39. Pressure drop in fluidized bed reactor si ______that in a similar packed bed reactor : (A) Less than (B) More than (C) Same as (D) None of these 40. With increase in temperature the vapour pressure of liquids : (A) Increases (B) Increases linearly (C) Decreases (D) Remains constant 41. Mercury is an ideal parametric fluid due to its : (A) High density (B) Low compressibility (C) Low capillary action (D) Very low vapour pressure 42. At equilibrium the concentration of water in vapour phase (C*) in kg/m3 of air space and the amount of water (m) adsorbed per kg of dry silica gel are related by, C* = 0.0667 m. To maintain dry conditions in a room of air space 100 m3 containing 2.2 kg of water vapour initially, 10 kg of dry silica gel is kept in the room. The fraction of initial water remining in the air space after a long time (during which the temperature is maintained constant) is : (A) 0.0 (B) 0.2 (C) 0.4 (D) 1.0 43. Find the ultimate gain and frequency for a proportional controller in the case of a process having the transfer functin G(s) = 1/(4s + 1) (2s + 1) (s + 1). (A) w 1/ 14,Kc  45/ 7 14 (B) w  7/ 6,Kc  46/3 (C) w 1,Kc 13 (D) w  7/8,Kc  45/ 4 44. A proportional controller with a gain of Kc is used to control a first order process. The offset will increase, if : (A) Kc is reduced. (B) Kc is increased. (C) Integral control action is introduced. (D) Derivative control action is introduced. 45. For a feed bac control system to be stable, the : (A) Roots of the characteristic equation should be real. (B) Poles of the closed loop transfer function should lie in the left half of the complex plane. (C) Bode plots of the corresponding open loop trnasfer function should monotoni-cally decrease. (D) Poles of the closed loop transfer function should lie in the right half of the complex plane.

M.E. (Chemical)/BDU-22260 7 [Turn over 46. Routh test : (A) Criterion provides information about the actual location of roots. (B) Cannot detemine as to how many roots of the characteristics equation have positive real roots. (C) Criterion is not applicable to system with polynomial characteristic equation. (D) Cannot be used to test the stability of a control system containing transportation lag. 47. Pick out the wrong statement. (A) Gross revenue is that total amount of capital reveived as a result of the sale of goods or service. (B) Net revenue is the total profit remaining after deducting all costs excluding taxes. (C) The ratio of immediately available cash to the total current liabilites in known as the cas ratio. (D) Consolidated income statement based on a given time period indicates surplus capital and shows the relationship among total income, costs and profit over the time interval. 48. A reactor having a salvage value of Rs. 10000 is estimated to have a service life of 10 years. The annual interest rate is 10%. The original cost of the reactor was Rs. 80000. The book value of the reactor after 5 years using sinking fund depreciation method will be Rs. (A) 40096 (B) 43196 (C) 53196 (D) 60196 49. Pressure drop in 2-4 heat exchanger is ...... compared with 1-2 heat exchanger : (A) More (B) Less (C) Same (D) None of these 50. Boiling point of a given solute is ...... function of boiling point of the water at the same pressure : (A) Linear (B) Non linear (C) Parabolic (D) None of these 51. Grashof number is defined as the ratio of : (A) Interial to viscous forces (B) Buoyancy to viscous forces (C) Kinametic viscocity to thermal difussivity (D) None of these 52. An insulated cable (k = 0.2 W/mK) is exposed to an environment with h = 5 W/m2 K. The optimum thickness of insulation is : (A) 0.4 m (B) 4 m (C) 0.04 m (D) 0.02 m 53. Working principle of radiation pyrometer is based on the : (A) Wein’s law (B) Kirchoffs law (C) Stefan-boltzman law (D) Seebeck effect

54. Work required to form a particle of size Dp from very large feed is proportional to the square root of surface to the volume ratio of the product is known as : (A) Kick’s law (B) Bond’s law (C) Rittinger’s law (D) Work index M.E. (Chemical)/BDU-22260 8 55. Drag coefficient for motion of spherical particles in a stationary fluid in the stoke’s law range is :

(A) 16/NRe (B) 24/NRe

(C) 32/NRe (D) 64/NRe 56. Mesh of a screen indicates : (A) Holes per linear inch (B) Holes per square inch (C) Holes per linear foot (D) Holes per square foot 57. Rubber Latex is an example of : (A) Newtonian fluid (B) Bingham plastic (C) Pseudoplastic (D) Dilatants 58. Heat flux through a 5 cm thick slab, it a temperature drop across the slab is 5°C and its thermal conductivity is 0.1 Watts/m °C, is ...... (A) 0.01 W/m2 (B) 0.10 W/m2 (C) 10 W/m2 (D) None of these 59. Corresponding to Scmidt number in mass transfer, the dimensionless number in case of heat trnasfer is : (A) Prandtl number (B) Nusselt number (C) Lewis number (D) Mach number 60. Penetratin theory relates the average mass transfer co-efficient (K) with diffusivity (D) as : (A) K  D (B) K  D0.5 (C) K  D1.5 (D) K  D 61. For the same feed, feed quality and separation (in a distillation column), with the increase of total pressure, the number of ideal plates will : (A) Increase (B) Decrease (C) Remain same (D) Data insufficient, can’t be predicted 62. Which of the following forced convection heat transfer equation accounts for the liquid viscosity effect for viscous liquids ? (A) Dittus-Boeltier equation (B) Sieder-Tata equation (C) Nusselt equation (D) None of these 63. The E-curve for a non-ideal reactor defines the fraction of fluid having age between time t abd t + dt : (A) At the inlet (B) At the outlet (C) In the reactor (D) Averaged over the inlet and outlet 64. For an isothermal second order aquous phase reaction A –  B, the ratio of the time required for 90% conversion the time required for 45% conversion is : (A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 11 (D) 22

M.E. (Chemical)/BDU-22260 9 [Turn over 65. The equilibrium constant ,k, for a chemical ration depends on : (A) Temperature only (B) Pressure only (C) Temperature and Pressure (D) Ratio of reactants 66. Im3 of an ideal gas at 500 K and 1000 kPa expands reversibly to 5 times its initial volume in an insulated container. If the specific heat capacity (at constant pressure) of the gas is 21 J/mol K, final temperature will be : (A) 35 K (B) 174 K (C) 274 K (D) 154 K 67. A saturated liquid at 1500 kPa and 500 K, with an enthalpy of 750 kJ/kg, is throttled to a liquid-vapor mixture at 150 kPa and 300 K. At the exit conditions, the enthalpy of the saturated liquid is 500 kJ/kg and the enthalpy of the saturated vapor is 2500 kJ/kg. The percent of the original liquid, which vaporizes, is : (A) 87.5% (B) 67% (C) 50% (D) 12.5% 68. For turbulent flow past a flat plate, when no form drag is present, the friction factor ‘f’ and the

Chilton-colburn factor ‘jD’ are related as :

(A) f and jD cannot be related (B) f = jD

(C) f > jD (D) f < jD 69. Which of the following controller will give maximum offset ? (A) Proportional (B) Proportional integral (C) Proportional integral derivative (D) None of these 70. In is desired to concentrate a 20% salt soultion (20 kg of salt in 100 kg of solution) of a 30% salt solution in an evaporator. Consider a feed of 300 kg/min at 30°C. The boiling point of the solution is 110°C, the latent heat of vaporisation is 2100 kJ/kg and the specific heat of the solution is 4 kJ/kg.K. The rate at which the heat has to be supplied in (kJ/min) to the evaporator is : (A) 3.06×105 (B) 6.12×105 (C) 7.24×105 (D) 9.08×105 71. Fourier’s law applies to heat transfer by : (A) Conduction (B) Convection (C) Radiation (D) Both (A) and (B) 72. Match the following : (P) Zigler Nichols (1) Process reaction curve (Q) Under Damped response (2) Decay ratio (R) Feed forward control (3) Frequency response (4) Distribution measurement (A) P-3, Q-2, R-4 (B) P-1, Q-2, R-3 (C) P-3, Q-1, R-2 (D) P-2, Q-3, R-2

M.E. (Chemical)/BDU-22260 10 73. A 25 cm × 25 cm ×1 cm flat sheet weighing 1.2 kg initially was dried from both sides under constant drying rate conditions. It took 1500 seconds for the weight of the wieght of the sheet to reduce to 1.05 kg. Another 1 m × 1 m × 1 cm flat sheet of same material is to be dried from one side only. Under the same constant drying rate conditions, the time required for drying (in seconds) from the initial weight of 19.2 kg to 17.6 kg is : (A) 1000 (B) 1500 (C) 1800 (D) 2000 74. Molecularity of an elementary reaction P + Q  R + S is : (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 75. In a double pipe heat exchanger the ID and OD of inner pipe are 4 cm and 5 cm respectively. The ID of the outer pipe is 10 cm with a wall thickness of 1 cm. Then the equivalent diameter (in cm) of the annulus for the heat trnasfer and pressure drop respectively are : (A) 21,6 (B) 15,5 (C) 6,19 (D) 15,21

M.E. (Chemical)/BDU-22260 11 [Turn over ROUGH WORK

M.E. (Chemical)/BDU-22260 12 [Turn over ROUGH WORK

M.E. (Chemical)/BDU-22260 13 ?? CET(PG)-2014 Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D Sr. No. : Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet. Roll No. In Figures In Words In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.

Signature of the Candidate : Subject : M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-Nuclear Medicine Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75

1. The ideal gamma ray energy for nuclear medicine imaging is between : (A) 100-300 Mev (B) 10-100Kev (C) 10-100 Mev (D) 100-300 Kev 2. Most of the thyroid hormone in circulation is : (A) T3 (B) T4 (C) TSH (D) TRF 3. Which of the following is required for the production of erythrocytes ? (A) Vitamin C (B) Vitamin E (C) Vitamin K (D) Vitamin B12 4. The value of SI unit of exposure in uC/Kg in air is : (A) 258 (B) 2.58 (C) 25.8 (D) 0.258 5. Cross section-a measure of the probability that a nuclear reaction shall occur is measured in : (A) ev (B) ergs (C) angstrom (D) barn 6. Which of the following requires an injection of radionuclide for diagnosis ? (A) CT (B) MRI (C) Ultrasound (D) PET 7. Fission occurs in a : (A) Cyclotron (B) Radioisotope generator (C) Nuclear Reactor (D) Particle Accelerator 8. 80 micro Ci is equivalent to : (A) 0.296 MBq (B) 2.96 MBq (C) 29.6 MBq (D) 296 MBq

9. The LD50/30 dose for humans is approximately equal to : (A) 0.4 Gray (B) 4 Gray (C) 40 Gray (D) 400 Gray

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-Nuclear Medicine/BDU-22284-A 3 [Turn over 10. 113m In is a : (A) Gamma emitter (B) Beta emitter (C) Alpha emitter (D) Both alpha and beta emitter 11. The isoelectric point of a protein is : (A) pH where its net charge is Zero (B) pH where its net charge is +1 (C) pH where its net charge is -1 (D) pH where its net charge is +2 12. The radius of an atom is approximately : (A) 10-6m (B) 10-8m (C) 10-10m (D) 10-12m 13. An example of stochastic effect is: (A) Skin erythema (B) Cataract (C) GI syndrome (D) Cancer 14. All the following are gastrointestinal tract hormones except : (A) Secretin (B) Gastrin (C) Erythropoietin (D) Cholecystokinin 15. Energy of thermal neutrons is : (A) 0.025 ev (B) 0.25 ev (C) 2.5 ev (D) 25 ev 16. Which one of the following is used in a gamma ray spectrometer ? (A) Na (B) Nal

(C) Nal(Tl) (D) CaF2 17. The material used for absorbing excess neutrons in a nuclear reactor is : (A) Cadmium (B) Lithium (C) Vanadium (D) Indium 18. Which of the following has highest linear energy transfer ? (A) Neutrons (B) Beta rays (C) Gamma Rays (D) X-rays+

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-Nuclear Medicine/BDU-22284-A 4 19. Gamma- rays are : (A) Deflected by electric field (B) Deflected by magnetic field (C) Slightly deflected by electric and magnetic field (D) Not deflected by magnetic and electric field 20. 1 amu is equal to : (A) 1.66×10-24 Kg (B) 1.66×10-25 Kg (C) 1.66×10-26 Kg (D) 1.66×10-27 Kg 21. SI unit of radiation exposure corresponds to how many roentgen ? (A) 3676 (B) 3776 (C) 3876 (D) 3976 22. The SI unit of radioactivity Becquerel is equal to : (A) 1.7×10-10 Ci (B) 2.7×10-10 Ci (C) 1.7×10-11 Ci (D) 2.7×10-11 Ci 23. The SI unit of absorbed dose Gray is equal to : (A) 0.1 Joule/Kg (B) 1.0 Joule/Kg (C) 10 Joule/Kg (D) 100 Joule/Kg 24. Which is not a beta emitter ? (A) 32P (B) 14C (C) 99m Tc (D) 3H 25. The first step in translation involves binding of mRNA to : (A) Larger unit of ribosome (B) Smaller unit of ribosome (C) Polysomal core (D) t RNA 26. The average molecular weight of an amino acid in Da is : (A) 90 (B) 100 (C) 110 (D) 120 27. D-Alanine and L-Alanine are technically known as : (A) Anomers (B) Enantiomers (C) Epimers (D) Polymer

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-Nuclear Medicine/BDU-22284-A 5 [Turn over 28. A particle accelerator can increase the kinetic energy of : (A) An alpha particle and a beta particle (B) A neutron and gamma ray (C) A gamma ray and beta particle (D) An alpha ray and neutron particle 29. Which sample will decay least over a period of 15 days ? (A) 18F (B) 131l (C) 99mTc (D) 222Rn 30. The most common lesion produced in chromosomal DNA by an exposure to ionizing radiation is : (A) A break on one DNA strand (B) Well separated breaks on both DNA strands (C) Breaks on the both the DNA strands which are opposite to each other or separated by only a few bases (D) Multiple breaks on the same DNA strand 31. Characteristic X rays are produced by the : (A) Outermost shell of an atom (B) Innermost shell of an atom (C) By the nuclear capture of electron (D) Deceleration of bombarding electrons due to nucleus 32. Which of the following laws states that the amount of gas dissolved in a liquid is proportional to its partial pressure ? (A) Dalton's Law (B) Pascal's Law (C) Boltzmann's Law (D) Henry's Law 33. By plotting a cell survival curve one can depict the relation between : (A) Radiation dose and the number of cells that have gone through mitosis after irradiation (B) Radiation dose and the proportion of cells that remain clonogenic (C) Radiation dose and the number of cells that have not suffered the loss of specific function (D) Radiation dose and the proportion of cells that can produce D

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-Nuclear Medicine/BDU-22284-A 6 34. In a typical antibody- antigen reaction, higher affinity for the antibody, is characterized by : (A) High Kd values (B) Low Kd values (C) Low binding energy (D) Higher binding energy 35. Which type of ionizing radiation will have the least biological effect ? (A) Alpha particles (B) Fast neutrons (C) Diagnostic x-rays (D) Thermal neutrons 36. Which type of cell is most sensitive to irradiation ? (A) Spermatogonia (B) Hepatocytes (C) Muscle cells (D) Neurons 37. Which phase of the cell cycle is more radioresistant ? (A) M (B) G2 (C) S (D) Both M and G2 38. Positron and negatron differ on the basis of : (A) Origin (B) Mass (C) Charge (D) Ionization 39. Stage of the cell division where chromosomes start moving towards poles of the cell : (A) Anaphase (B) Telophase (C) Metaphase (D) Interphase 40. Fourier transformation technology is used in : (A) SPECT imaging (B) Rectilinear Scanning (C) G.M. Counter (D) Scintillation Counter 41. The probability of photoelectric interaction of gamma ray is inversely proportional to which power of gamma ray energy ? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 42. Effective dose equivalent is expressed in : (A) Roentgen (B) Rad (C) Sievert (D) RBE 43. TRH is produced from : (A) Thyroid (B) Pituitary (C) Hypothalamus (D) Parathyroid

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-Nuclear Medicine/BDU-22284-A 7 [Turn over 44. Which element is useful for blood clotting ? (A) Zinc (B) Sodium (C) Potassium (D) Calcium 45. Which of the enzyme plays a crucial role for the synthesis of thyroxine? (A) Catalase (B) ATPase (C) Kinase (D) Peroxidase 46. Which of the radiations are used for the treatment of Graves' disease ? (A) Alpha radiations (B) Beta radiations (C) Gamma rays (D) Positrons

47. CO2 laser has a wavelength in which region of the spectrum ? (A) Infrared (B) Visible (C) UV (D) X-Ray 48. An average binding energy of nucleons fall in which of the following range ? (A) 5-8 GeV (B) 5-8 MeV (C) 5-8 KeV (D) 5-8 eV 49. Which of the following techniques indicates confirmation of proteins ? (A) Affinity chromatography (B) Paper electrophoresis (C) TLC (D) CD 50. Which of the following organelles is found in plant cells and not in animal cells ? (A) Chloroplasts (B) Mitochondria (C) Lysosomes (D) Ribosomes 51. Which of the following enzymes is involved in DNA supercoiling ? (A) RNA polymerase (B) Histone deacetylase (C) Topoisomerase (D) DNA polymerase 52. Polyploidy refers to : (A) Multiple ribosomes present on a single mRNA (B) Micronuclei (C) Cells with more than two paired sets of chromosomes (D) Extra copies of a gene on a chromosome

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-Nuclear Medicine/BDU-22284-A 8 53. Which method refers to identification of 3D structure of protein on the basis of query sequence ? (A) Docking (B) Phylogeny (C) Multiple sequence modelling (D) Homology modelling 54. In nucleic acids which carbon of the sugar holds the hydroxyl group ? (A) 2' (B) 3' (C) 4' (D) 5' 55. What is the half life of 113mIn in minutes ? (A) 90 (B) 100 (C) 110 (D) 120 56. What is the principal gamma ray energy of 125I ? (A) 1.35 KeV (B) 13.5 KeV (C) 35 KeV (D) 1.35 MeV 57. 3H decays by which process ? (A) Electron capture (B) Isomeric transition (C) Positron decay (D) Beta negative decay 58. The frequency of ultrasound waves used in medical imaging is : (A) 1-10 MHz (B) 10-20 MHz (C) 20-30 MHz (D) 30-40 MHz 59. Vibrational energy associated with a molecule falls within which region of EM spectrum ? (A) Radio wave (B) Infra red (C) Visible (D) UV 60. The resolution of sequencing gel electrophoresis is how many bases ? (A) 1 (B) 10 (C) 20 (D) 30 61. The percentage of human genome that does not encode protein sequences : (A) 68 (B) 78 (C) 88 (D) 98 62. When does a chromosome exhibit maximum coiling ? (A) During pachytene of meiosis (B) During metaphase of mitosis (C) During anaphase of meiosis I (D) During telophase of meiosis II

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-Nuclear Medicine/BDU-22284-A 9 [Turn over 63. The linear energy transfer is minimum in case of : (A) 50 Ke V X-rays (B) 50 Ke V electrons (C) 50 Ke V protons (D) 50 Ke V positrons 64. The phosphorescence decay time of Nal-Tl detector in microseconds is : (A) 0.025 (B) 0.25 (C) 2.5 (D) 25 65. Late effects of radiations are called : (A) Random effects (B) Critical effects (C) Stochastic effects (D) Non stochastic effects 66. K escape peak is observed at what energy in KeV below the photopeak of a gamma ray : (A) 8 (B) 18 (C) 28 (D) 38 67. In which of the following radionuclides, summation of energies occur upon interaction with detector ? (A) 131I (B) 99mTc (C) 18F (D) 111In 68. The probability of photoelectric interaction of gamma ray is directly proportional to which power of the atomic number of the interacting element : (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 69. A region that binds RNA polymerase and helps initiate transcription is called : (A) Operator (B) Promoter (C) Origin (D) Enhancer 70. The cells which express more in hypersensitivity reactions, are (A) Reticulocytes (B) Platelets (C) Lymphocytes (D) Eosinophils 71. K-40 in human body emits how much radiation dose in mSv/Yr ? (A) 0.02 (B) 0.2 (C) 2 (D) 20 72. Liquid scintillation counter is used to measure radioactivity from which of the following radioisotopes ? (A) 125I (B) 131I (C) 3H (D) 65Zn

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-(Nuclear Medicine)/BDU-22284-A 10 73. The potential due to an electric dipole varies : (A) Directly as the distance (B) Inversely as the distance (C) Directly as the square of distance (D) Inversely as the square of distance 74. Summation of energies occur when two gamma rays interact with detector within what time interval ? (A) 0.025 sec (B) 0.25 sec (C) 0.025 usec (D) 0.25 usec 75. For the identification of a molecule, Mass spectrometry measures : (A) Charge (B) Mass (C) Mass to charge ratio (D) Charge to mass ratio

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-(Nuclear Medicine)/BDU-22284-A 11 Rough Work

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-Nuclear Medicine/BDU-22284-A 12 128