India Open Simulator Test 0 - Solutions | Forumias
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Page 1 of 47 PTS 2020| All India Open Simulator Test 0 - Solutions | ForumIAS Q.1) Ans) a Exp) Statement 1 is correct. Section 11 of Representation of People’s Act 1951 provides Election commission the power to remove or reduce disqualification mentioned under Section 8A of RPA 1951. Statement 2 is incorrect. RPA Act does not provide the Election Commission the power to deregister political parties. Statement 3 is incorrect. Both National and regional political parties can be registered through Election Commission of India and not State Election Commission. Section 29A of RPA 1951 provides for registration of political parties. KB: Representation of People’s Act 1950 and 1951 legsilated by Parliament to give effect to various Articles of the Constitution. RPA Act 1951 provides grounds for disqualification of members of Parliament. It provides the Election Commission the power to register political parties. It provides for resolution of election disputes. Q.2) Ans) c Exp) Statement 1 is incorrect. According to the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), three hotspots of threatening locust activity are: Horn of Africa, both sides of the Red Sea and Southwest Asia. Statement 2 is correct. Both locusts and grasshoppers belong to the Acrididae family. Locusts develop gregarious characteristics in suitable environmental conditions forming an organized group. Statement 3 is incorrect. Currently available satellites cannot directly detect individual locusts or locust swarms. Some highly sophisticated satellites used by the military and forthcoming civilian satellites could potentially detect locust swarms but these images are not yet available. ForumIAS Guidance Center 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19, Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi – 110005 | [email protected]|011- 49878625 Page 2 of 47 PTS 2020| All India Open Simulator Test 0 - Solutions | ForumIAS Q.3) Ans) b Exp) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Agriculture Census in India is conducted at five yearly intervals to collect data on structural aspects of operational holdings in the country. The Agriculture Census programme is carried out in three phases at five yearly intervals with cooperation of States/UTs. The first Agricultural Census in the country was conducted with reference year 1970-71. The latest was the 10th Agriculture Census 2015-16. Statement 2 is correct. This report is based on data collected on the number and area of operational holdings for different size classes/social groups and gender during Phase-I of Agriculture Census 2015-16. The total number of operational holdings in the country has increased from 138.35 million in 2010-11 to 146.45 million in 2015-16 showing an increase of 5.86%. The total operated area in the country has decreased from 159.59 million ha. in 2010- 11 to 157.82 million ha. in 2015-16 showing a decrease of 1.11%. Statement 3 is correct. The percentage share of female operational holders has increased from 12.79% in 2010-11 to 13.96% in 2015-16 with the corresponding figures of 10.36% and 11.72% in the operated area. This shows that more and more females are participating in the management and operation of agricultural lands. KB) The small and marginal holdings taken together (0.00-2.00 ha.) constituted 86.08% of the total holdings in 2015- 16 against 85.01% in 2010-11 while their share in the operated area stood at 46.94% in the current census as against 44.58% in 2010-11. The Semi-medium and Medium operational holdings (2.00-10.00 ha.) in 2015-16 were only 13.35% with 43.99% operated area. The corresponding figures for 2010-11 census were 14.29% and 44.82%. The large holdings (10.00 ha. & above) were merely 0.57% of total number of holdings in 2015-16 and had a share of 9.07% in the operated area as against 0.70% and 10.59% respectively for 2010-11 census. Source) http://agcensus.nic.in/document/introagcen.htm Subject) Economics Topic) Agriculture Survey Nature) Factual Q.4) Ans) c Exp) Statement 1 is correct. SAFAR envisages a research-based management system where strategies of air pollution mitigation go hand in hand with the nation's economic development. The Air Quality Index is a tool for effective communication of air quality status to people by simplifying the complex data into a single number, nomenclature and colour. Statement 2 is correct. SAFAR denotes the City Air Quality- Over all city pollution and Location specific Air Quality. AQI denotes the relative contribution of different pollutants in the environment by categorizing them into 6 categories. KB) The System of Air Quality and Weather Forecasting And Research (SAFAR) is an initiative of the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES). It was developed indigenously by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology, Pune and operationalized by India Meteorological Department (IMD). The National Air Quality Index (NAQI) is an initiative of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. NAQI data is maintained by the Central Pollution Control Board. ForumIAS Guidance Center 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19, Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi – 110005 | [email protected]|011- 49878625 Page 3 of 47 PTS 2020| All India Open Simulator Test 0 - Solutions | ForumIAS Q.5) Ans) d Exp) Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 130 of Constitution provides the Supreme Court shall sit in Delhi or in such other place or places, as the Chief Justice of India may, with the approval of the President, from time to time, appoint. Hence, approval is needed from the President not from Parliament. Statement 2 is incorrect. Original Jurisdiction implies any citizen or entity can approach supreme court directly without approaching high court or any other subordinate courts. Supreme court has original jurisdiction with respect to: 1. Federal disputes 2. Violation of fundamental rights of any citizen. Article 131 of the Constitution provides the Supreme court the power to resolve federal disputes. Federal disputes comprises state - state disputes, centre-state disputes etc. Article 32 of the Constitution provides citizens the right to seek constitutional remedies. Citizens can approach the apex court in violation of any of its fundamental rights. Q.6) Ans) a Exp) Option a is correct. An amalgamation is a combination of two or more companies into a new entity. Amalgamation is distinct from a merger because neither company involved survives as a legal entity. Instead, a completely new entity is formed to house the combined assets and liabilities of both companies. Option b is incorrect. After amalgamation the amalgamated entity gets a new name. Option c is incorrect. Amalgamation takes place when two or more companies engaged in the same lines/areas of business combined with their activities. Option d is incorrect. KB) The terms of amalgamation are finalized by the board of directors of each company. The plan is prepared and submitted for approval. For instance, the High Court and Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) will approve the shareholders of the new company when a plan is submitted. The new company officially becomes an entity and issues shares to shareholders of the transferor company. The transferor company is liquidated, and all assets and liabilities are taken over by the transferee company. Source) https://www.investopedia.com/terms/a/amalgamation.asp Subject) Economic Topic) Bank Merger and Amalgamation Nature) Factual Q.7) Ans) d Exp) Statement 1 is incorrect. NPT is an international treaty which aims to prevent the spread of nuclear weapons and technology. It also promotes peaceful use of nuclear energy. The treaty is binding in nature. The treaty defines Nuclear weapon states as those that have tested nuclear devices before 1 January 1967. ( US, Russia, UK, France and China are Nuclear weapon states.) ForumIAS Guidance Center 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19, Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi – 110005 | [email protected]|011- 49878625 Page 4 of 47 PTS 2020| All India Open Simulator Test 0 - Solutions | ForumIAS India, Pakistan and North Korea have declared to have tested nuclear weapons. While Israel’s position as a nuclear state is not yet confirmed. Statement 2 is Incorrect. Iran is still a party to NPT. North Korea became a party to the NPT in 1985 as a non- nuclear weapon state. It withdrew from the treaty in 2003 citing hostile US policy towards North Korea. Q.8) Ans) d Exp) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Gross Tax Revenue (GTR) percentage of GDP in 2014-15 it was 10 percent, in 2015-16 it was 10.6 percent, 2016-17 it was 11.2%, 2017-18 it was 11.2%, 2018-19 PA it was 10.9 and 2019-20 it was 11.7%. GTR was increased in 2015-16 and constant in 2016-17 and 2017-18 and also decreased in 2018-19. Statement 2 is incorrect. The fiscal deficit percentage of GDP in 2014-15 it was 5.11per cent 2015-16 it was 5.33per cent, 2016-17 it was 5.36, 2017-18 it was 5.91, 2018-19 PA it was 6.49 and 2019-20BE it was 7.04. KB) Gross tax revenue means total income before claiming any deductions. Tax Revenue forms part of the Receipt Budget, which in turn is a part of the Annual Financial Statement of the Union Budget. It gives a detailed report on revenue collected from different items like corporation tax, income tax, wealth tax, customs, union excise, service, taxes on Union Territories like land revenue, stamp registration etc. Fiscal Deficit = Total expenditure – (Revenue receipts + Non-debt creating capital receipts). It is an indication of the total borrowings needed by the government. While calculating the total revenue, borrowings are not included. Source) Table 1: Chapter 2: Volume 2 Economic Survey 2019 – 20 Subject) Economics Topic) Fiscal Development Nature) Factual Q.9) Ans) b Exp) Statement 1 is correct.