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Mock Test Paper WBCS, Main 2019

 Paper-I  Paper-II  Paper-III  Paper-IV  Paper-V  Paper-VI

Conducted by SI Classes

SI Classes for WBCS: An initiative of SINY CAREER CONSULTANCY (OPC) PVT LTD Whatsapp: 9051419808 SI Classes www.siclasses.com

Test Code: M1917 MOCK TEST: WBCS, MAIN-2019 BENGALI LETTER WRITING, DRAFTING OF REPORT, PRECIS WRITING, COMPOSITION AND TRANSLATION TIME ALLOWED: 3 HOURS FULL MARKS: 200

If the questions attempted are in excess of the prescribed number, only the questions attempted first up to the prescribed number shall be valued and the remaining once ignored.

1. নিজের পনরচয় নিিৃত িা কজর নিম্ননিনিত নিষজয় আপিার অনিমত ককাি িাাংিা দৈনিক পত্রিকার সাম্পাৈককর কাজে অিনিক ১৫০ টি শজে পিাকাকর নিিৃত ক쇁িঃ- 40 “নশ� মজির নিকার - হানরজয় যাজে শশশি ”।

2. সম্প্রনত রাজেে নচনকৎসকজের িম মঘি নিজয় একটি সম্পাৈকীয় প্রনিকেৈকি নিিুি । (২০০ শজের মজিে নিনিজত হজি ) 40

3. নিম্ননিনিি অংকের সারমম নিিুি। ম 40

আমরা একটি পরিাসী । কেজশ েন্মাজিই আপি হয় িা । যতক্ষণ কেশজক িা োনি , যতক্ষণ তাজক নিজের শক্তিজত েয় িা কনর , ততক্ষণ কস কেশ আপিার িয় । আমার এই কেশজক আনম েয় কনরনি । কেজশ অজিক ে薼 পোর্ আজে ম , আমরা তাজেরই প্রনতজিশী ; কেশ কযমি এই সি িস্তুনপজের িয় , কেশ কতমনি আমাজেরও িয় । এরই িাম ে薼ত্ব - এজকই িজি কমাহ । কয কমাহানিিু ত কসই কতা নচর-প্রিাসী। কস োজি িা কস ককার্ায় আজে । কস োজি িা তার সতে স কার সজে । িানহজরর সহায়তার দ্বারা নিজের সতে িস্তু কিিই পাওয়া যায় িা । আমার কেশ আর ককউ আমাজক নেজত পাজর িা । নিজের সম িি-েি প্রাণ নিজয় কেশজক যিিই আপি িজি োিজত পারি তিিই কেশ আমার স্বজেশ হজি । পরিাসী স্বজেজশ কয নিরনে তার িক্ষণ এই কয , কেজশর প্রাণজক নিজের প্রাণ োনি । পাজশ প্রতেহ মরজে কেজশর কিাক করাজে ও উপিাজস , আর আনম পজরর উপর সম কোষ চানপজয় মজের উপর কেশত্বজিাজির িােনিার করনে । এত ি薼 অিাি অপোর্ মতা আর নকেুই হজত পাজর িা ।

4. অিুকেৈটি পাঠ ককর িার নিনিকি নিম্ননিনিি প্রশ্ন巁নির উির নৈি। 40

েেৎ ও েীিজির রহসে পরমতম সতে । আিোক্তিক উয়ি ও নিশ্বসটৃ ির মূিীিূত শক্তির সাজি মািুষ ঈশ্বজরর শরণাপ িয় । সটৃ ির আনেম ক্ষণ কর্জক মািুষ এক অনতজিৌনকক শক্তিজক ঈশ্বজরর ময মাোয় উীত কজরজে । এই শক্তিজক নিশ্বনিয়ন্তা ও অনিিাশী শক্তি িিা হজয়জে । মািুষ মজি কজর কয নতনিই নিশ্বস্রিা । নতনি স্বয়ূ; নতনি িাকে, মি, ও চক্ষুর অজোচর । মািুষ তাই ঈশ্বরজক িুցজে কি薼ায় কেিািজয় অর্ মাৎ মক্তির, মসক্তেে, নেেমা প্রিৃ নত াজি । মািুষ িাজি কয ঐ সম াজিই ঈশ্বজরর িসিাস ।

নকন্তু িাি িুক্তি নেজয় নিচার করজি কেিা যায় কয, েীজির মজিেই ঈশ্বজরর িাস । ঈশ্বর কক কপজত মক্তির, মসক্তেজে যািার প্রজয়ােি কিই, েীিজক আন্তনরকতার সজে কসিা করজিই প্রকৃতিাজি ঈশ্বজরর কসিা করা হয় । তর্ানপ নকেু মািুষ আজে যারা আিুষ্ঠানিক িম মাচরণ, পূো মন্ত্র, আরািিা ইতোনের মািেজম ঈশ্বর িাজি তৎপর হয় । নকন্তু েীিজক অিজ্ঞা কজর, মািুজষর িারায়ণজক উজপক্ষা কজর কিজিাই ঈশ্বজরর অিুসাি সার্ মক হজত পাজর িা । যুজে যুজে িহু মিীষী েীিজসিাজকই ঈশ্বর প্রানির চরম উপায় িজি নিজেমশ কজর নেজয়জেি । আজতমর কসিা, অসহাজয়র উিার, পীন薼জতর �শ্রূষা, সজি মাপনর

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োনত-িম- মিণ নিনি ম মজশজষ েীজির প্রনত প্রীনত প্রেশ মি করাই ঈশ্বর িাজির কশ্রষ্ঠ উপায় । েীজির মিে নেজয় ঈশ্বজরর প্রকাশ । অতএি েীিজসিাজতই ঈশ্বর পরিস্ফু ট হয় ।

প্রনতটি মািুজষর উনচত অপরজক িাজিািাসা, অপরজক কসিা করা । কসিাই হি ঈশ্বর সািিার প্রিাি পর্ । কযনেি মািুষ েীিজসিাজকই ঈশ্বর কসিার প্রিাি পর্ নহসাজি কিজে কিজি কসনেি মািুষ প্রকৃত ঈশ্বজরর সাি পাজি ।

নিম্ননিনিি প্রশ্ন巁নির উির নৈি। 4X10 ক। মািুজষর কাজে ঈশ্বজরর স্ব쇁প নক? ি। মািুষ ঈশ্বরজক ককার্ায় কিাցজে এিাং ককি? ে। “েীজির মিে নেজয় ঈশ্বজরর প্রকাশ”- িাকেটির মম মার্ম নক? ঘ। প্রকৃত অজর্ ম ঈশ্বজরর সাি নকিাজি পাওয়া যাজি?

5. নিম্ননিনিি অিুকেৈটির েঙ্গািুোৈ ক쇁ি। 40

Basil Hallward turned pale and caught his hand. “Dorian! Dorian !” he cried, "don’t talk like that. I have never had such a friend as you and I shall never have such another. You are not jealous of material things, are you?” —“I am jealous of everything whose beauty does not die. I am jealous of the portrait you have painted of me. Why should it keep what I must lost? Every moment that passes take's something from me and gives something to it. Oh. if it were only the other way ! If the picture could change, and I could be always what I am now! Why did you paint it? It will mock me someday ___ mock me horribly! ”

SI Classes for WBCS : An unit of SINY CAREER CONSULTANCY(OPC) PRIVATE LIMITED Mob:- 9051419808

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Test Code: M1918 MOCK TEST: WBCS, MAIN-2019

ENGLISH LETTER WRITING, DRAFTING OF REPORT, PRECIS WRITING, COMPOSITION AND TRANSLATION TIME ALLOWED: 3 HOURS FULL MARKS: 200

If the questions attempted are in excess of the prescribed number, only the questions attempted first up to the prescribed number shall be valued and the remaining once ignored.

1. Write a letter (within 150 words) to the Editor of a Newspaper on how “Increasing number of Mob lynching in India leads to a dystopian society ” 40 (Write X,Y,Z instead of your name and address)

2. Draft a report (within 200 words) on “Cut Money Cry echoes across the state”. 40

3. Write a Comprehension on the following topic:- 40 “Emerging Digital Markets: Issues & Challenges”.

4. Make a précis of the following passage and add a suitable title. 40 The Renaissance in India was not like the Renaissance in Europe. It was not a return to India of the past. It was essentially a matter of spirit which produced striking changes in the realm of religion, society and culture along with a demand for natural regeneration. There arose a new self-consciousness among the people of India. The soul of India began to unfold itself and break the shackles of the past. It is maintained that the Renaissance in India stirred the Indian soul to its very depths and Modern India owes everything to the Renaissance which was followed by reformation movements all over India. It also paved the way to national regeneration. The spirit of Renaissance and the subsequent reform movements affected almost all the aspects of national life. There were new developments in religious, social and political life. There were new trends in the fields of education, literature, fine arts and science. The view of Sir Jadunath Sarkar is that the Indian Renaissance was at first an intellectual awakening which profoundly affected our literature, education thought Sand art. In the next succeeding generation, it became a moral force and reformed the Indian society and religion. In the third generation it brought about the economic modernisation of India and ultimately political emancipation. In his book entitled, “The Renaissance in India". Sri Aurobindo has attempted an analysis of the Renaissance in India. He points out that the eighteenth and early go nineteenth centuries in India were periods of political decline, defeat and anarchy

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which practically killed the creative spirit in religion and art. India began to imitate Europe and forgot her own achievements in the past. However, the life-breath of the nation moved as a subordinate undercurrent in the religious movement of Bengal and Punjab, in the political aspirations of Maharashtra and the literary activity of Bengal. Aurobindo believed that the spiritual and intellectual advance of India was bound to come. To quote him, “The Renaissance in India is as inevitable as the rising of tomorrow's Sun and the Renaissance of a great nation of three hundred million with so peculiar a temperament, such unique traditions and ideas of life, so powerful an intelligence and so great a mass of potential energies cannot but be one of the most formidable phenomena of the modern world." (385 words)

5. Translate the following passage into English. 40 হঠাৎ গ ারার মুখ রক্তবর্ণ হইয়া তাহার কপালের শিরা巁ো ফুশেয়া উ膿ে - গে দুই হাত মুঠা কশরয়া এক জুশি াশির শপছলে ছু綿লত োশ ে এবং বজ্র জণলে েমস্ত রাস্তার গোকলক চশকত কশরয়া শচৎকার কশরে , ' থামাও াশি!' একটা বশেষ্ঠ বাঙােী ফুেবাবু াশি হাাঁকাইলতশছে, গে একবার শপছে শফশরয়া গদশখয়া দুই গতজস্বী গ ািালক চাবুক কষাইয়া মুহূলতণর মলযে অদিৃ ে হইয়া গ ে । এক জে বৃদ্ধ মুেেমাে মাথায় এক- ঝাাঁকা ফে েবশজ আন্ডা 쇁綿 মাখে প্রভৃ শত আহার্ণ োমগ্রী েইয়া গকালো ইংলরজ প্রভুর পাকিাোর অশভমুলখ চশেলতশছে । ফু েবাবু綿 তাহালক াশির েম্মুখ হইলত েশরয়া র্াইবার জেে হাাঁশকয়াশছে, বৃদ্ধ শুশেলত ো পাওয়ালত াশি প্রায় তাহার ালির উপর আশেয়া পলি । গকালোমলত তাহার প্রার্ বাাঁশচে শকন্তু ঝাাঁকােলমত শজশেে 巁লো রাস্তায় িা শি গ ে এবং ক্রু দ্ধবাবু গকাচবাক্স হইলত শফশরয়া তাহালক '藍োম শুয়ার ' বশেয়া াশে শদয়া তাহার মুলখর উপর েপাং কশরয়া চাবুক বোইয়া শদলত তাহার কপালে রলক্তর গরখা গদখা শদে। বৃদ্ধ 'আল্লা' বশেয়া শেশ্বাে গফশেয়া গর্ শজশেে 巁লো েষ্ট হয়োই তাহাই বাশছয়া ঝাাঁকায় তু শেলত প্রবৃত্ত হইে। গ ারা শফশরয়া আশেয়া শবকীর্ণ শজশেে巁লো শেলজ 嗁িাইয়া তাহার ঝাাঁকায় উঠাইলত োশ ে ।

SI Classes for WBCS : An unit of SINY CAREER CONSULTANCY(OPC) PRIVATE LIMITED Mob:- 9051419808

Test Code : M1919 SI Classes www.siclasses.com

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTILL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET Test Booklet Series PAPER - III Time allo w ed : 3 hours A Full marks : 2 00

Answer all the questions. Questions are of equal value.

Registration No :

Signature of the Candidate :

INSTRUCTIONS

Candidates should read the following instructions carefully before answering the questions:

1. This booklet consists of 10 pages including this front page, containing 200 Questions. Verify the page Nos. and Test Booklets Series on each page and bring at once to the invigilator’s notice any discrepancy. 2. Answers will have to be given in the special Answer-Sheet supplied for the purpose. 3. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer-Sheet in Response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer-Sheet as per instructions sent to you in the Admit Card. Do not fold the Answer-Sheet as this will result in error in your marks. 4. All questions are of multiple-choice answer-type. You will four probable answers (A), (B), (C) and (D) against each question. Find out which of the four answers appears to be correct or the best. Now darken the oval corresponding to the letter of the selected answer in the Answer- Sheet with Black Ball Point Pen as per instructions printed on the reverse of the admit Card and in the Answer-Sheet. 5. If more than one oval is encoded for a particular answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer. 1 6. There will be negative marking for wrong answers. / 3 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. 7. There are blank pages at the backside of each pages of this booklet for Rough Work. 8. The Special Answer-Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination Hall. You are permitted to take away the used Test Booklet after completion of the examination.

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Test Booklet Series WBCS (Exe) Examination (Mains), 2019 A MOCK TEST Full Marks : 200 Test Code : M1919 Time : 3 hours Answer all questions. Each question carries 1 mark. 1/3 rd mark will be deducted for each wrong attempt.

1. Which of the following Chinese pilgrim gives 10. Which of the following areas was not conquered account of the First Gupta Ruler? by Akbar ? a) Fa Hien b) Hiuen Tsang a) Kashmir b) Kandahar c) Itsing d) None of the above c) Orissa d) Bidar 2. Which of the following terms is not associated 11. Which Mughal emperor enrolled Guru Govind with a tool tradition of ancient India / World? Singh into Mughal service ? a) Mousterian b) Acheulean a) Bahadur Shah I b) Jahandar Shah c) Oldowan d) Grotian c) Farukh Siyyar d) Mohammed Shah 3. Which of the following is a correct statement 12. Among the following historical events, which one about Indus Valley Civilization? is chronological the first one ? a] Both Harappa and Mohejodero are is located a) Cripps Mission comes to India on the banks of Indus River b) Home Rule League b] Both Chanhudaro and Kalibangan were c) Khilafat Movement located within the boundaries of present day d) Gandhi-Irwin Pact Rajasthan. 13. Headless image of Kanishka, the Kushana c) Both Surkotada and Dholavira are located in emperor with long coat and tight trousers was Kutchch of Gujarat recovered from d) Lothal site was located on bank of Narmada river a) Peshwar b) Varanasi 4. Which of the following is not an event in ancient c) Sakala d) Mathura Indian history in BC era? 14. Consider the following events : a) Foundation of the Indo-Greek empire 1. Annexation of Udaipur b) Beginning of Vikram samvat 2. Annexation of Jhansi c) Fourth Buddhist Council 3. Annexation of Punjab d) Hathigumpha inscription by Kharvela 4. Annexation of Oudh 5. Who assumed the title of ‘Ksitipasatapatih’ (Lord The correct chronological sequence of these event is: of hundred Kings)? a) 3-4-2-1 b) 2-1-3-4 a) Samudragupta b) Chandragupta - I c) 2-4-3-1 d) 3-1-2-4 c) Skandagupta d) Ashoka 15. The Indus Valley people knew the use of 6. Which one of the following dynasties ruled as the a) Gold, tin, bronze but not copper ‘Delhi Sultanate’ for a longer period of time ? b) Gold, silver, copper, bronze but not iron a) Sayyid b) Tughlaq c) Copper, iron, gold but not bronze c) Khilji d) Lodhi d) Silver, lead, iron but not gold 7. Among the following historical events, which one 16. Who was the Guru of legendary musician Tansen ? is chronological logically the first one ? a) Baiju Bawra b) Haridasa Thakur a) Duplex becomes French Governor of c) Haridas Giri d) Swami Haridas Pondicherry 17. Which one of the following historical events is the b) First Fleet of Dutch reaching India first to take place ? c) Alfonso de Albuquerque becomes first a) Indigo Revolt b) Home Rule League Governor of Goa c) Bengal Partition d) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre d) Constitution of English East India Company 18. Who was the founder of Ajeevika sect ? 8. Which one of the following Mahajanpadas is now a) Makkali Gosala b) Mahavira not a part of India ? c) Vasudeva Krishna d) Suddhodana a) Panchal b) Matsya 19. Squinch system in architecture for supporting the c) Sursena d) Gandhar dome was used for the first time in ? 9. The book ‘Vaipulyasutra’ deals with which branch a) Iltutmish’s tomb of Buddhism ? b) Alai Darwaza a) Hinayana b) Mahayana c) Ghiyasudding Tughlaq’s tomb c) Vajrayana d) Jantrism d) Humayun’s tomb

SI CLASSES : An Initiative of SINY CARE ER CONSULTANCY (OPC) PRIVATE LIMITED WhatsApp. 9051419808 PAGE  2 A SI Classes | www.sic la sses.com 20. Who led the salt March in Madras Presidency ? b) Casteless Society a) K. Kamraj b) C Rajagopalachari c) Worship of gods and goddess c) Vallabhbhai Patel d) Rajendra Prasad d) Worship of stupa 21. Which of the following Vedic God/Goddess 34. Who was bestowed with the title of Sahib-i-Alam depicts an association with the sun ? Bahadur ? a) Ashwini Kumars b) Pusan a) Azimullah Khan b) Sherbaz Khan c) Indra d) Arnayani c) Subedar Bakht Khan d) Zabita Khan 22. Who was the first British Viceroy to begin the 35. Who captured Kanpur from Nana Sahib ? practice of shifting the entire government to Shimla a) Charles James Napier from Calcutta during the summer season ? b) Colin Campbell a) Charles Canning b) Edward Law c) Henry Havelock c) George Barlow d) John Lawrence d) Henry Montgomery Lawrence 23. Who invaded Ahmednagar ? 36. A lot of details regarding the village administration a) Achyutta Raya b) Bukka Raya under the Cholas is provided by the insciption s at c) Krishnadeva Raya d) Rama Raya a) Thanjavur b) Uraiyur 24. The journal ‘Bharat Sramjibi’ was founded in – c) Kanchipuram d) Uttaramerur a) 1871 b) 1872 37. What was the period of Chandra Gupta Maurya ? c) 1874 d) 1875 a) 314-287 BC b) 310-299 BC 25. Where did the Mahasamghika school arise ? c) 320-289 BC d) 321-297 BC a) Bodhgaya b) Rajagriha 38. What does Baudhayan theorem (Baudhayan c) Sravasti d) Vaishali Sulva Sutra) relate ? 26. When did Chola empire come to an end ? a) Length of sides of a right-angled triangle a) 1044 AD b) 1152 AD b) Calculation of the value pi c) 1263 AD d) 1311 AD c) Logarithmic calculations 27. Which of the following statements regarding Indus d) Normal distribution curve Valley Civilization is incorrect ? 39. Arrange the following Mahajanpadas moving a) There was a great communal bath in from west to east in the correct order : Mohenjodaro. 1. Avanti 2. Magadha b) Excavations at Lothal proved that the civilization 3. Matsya 4. Kosala was confined to Harappa and Mohenjadaro only. a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 1, 3, 4, 2 c) The supreme god was the pipal God. c) 1, 3, 2, 4 d) 1, 4, 3, 2 d) People had great artistic sense. 40. The first political organisation established in India 28. Who among the following was a mathematician in 1838 was known as – of Rajput age ? a) British India Society a) Vagbhata b) Vachaspati b) Bengal British India Society c) Haradatta d) Bhaskaracharya c) Settlers Association 29. Who became the king of Delhi in 1414 AD ? d) Zamindari Association a) Bahlul Khan Lodhi b) Khizir Khan 41. Who among the following is NOT associated with c) Sikandar Lodhi d) Ibrahim Lodhi medicine in ancient India ? 30. Who was the founder of the autonomous a) Dhanvantri b) Bhaskaracharya kingdom of Awadh or Oudh ? c) Charaka d) Susruta a) Safdar Jang b) Saadat Khan 42. The foundation of modern education system in In- c) Shuja-ud-daula d) Asaf-ud-daula dia was laid by – 31. Which Mughal Emperor’s court poet was Mirza a) The Charter Act of 1813 Ghalib? b) Macaulay’s Minutes of 1835 a) Akbar b) Bahadur Shah Zafar c) The Hunter Commission of 1882 c) Mirza Mughal d) Aurangzeb d) Wood’s Despatch of 1854 32. Who were the first teacher of Buddha, after his great 43. Who among the following was King of Magadha, at renunciation ? the time of Mahaparinirvana of Gautam Buddha ? a) Alara and Udduka b) Alara and Kalam a) Bimbisara b) Udayi c) Ananda and Asvaghosa c) Ajatshatru d) Chandragupta Maurya d) Suriputan and Mogallana 44. After 1880, Railways were built during British rule 33. Which one of the following is the most in India through – fundamental difference between Mahayana a) Indian merchants or money-lenders Buddhism and Hinayana Buddhism ? b) Private enterprise a) Emphasis on Ahimsa c) State Agency d) A and B both

SI CLASSES : An Initiative of SINY CARE ER CONSULTANCY (OPC) PRIVATE LIMITED WhatsApp. 9051419808 PAGE  3 A SI Classes | www.sic la sses.com 45. Who founded the Indian National Social is not correctly matched ? Congress in 1887 ? a) Kamuthi - Tamil Nadu a) B.G. Tilak b) M.G. Ranade b) Pavagala – Gujarat c) G.K.Gokhale d) Ram Prasad Bismil c) Bhadla – Rajasthan 46. Who was responsible for the introduction of English d) Welspun – Madhya Pradesh as the official language in India ? 57. Western ghats extends from a) Lord William Bentick a) South of Mahi to Nilgiris b) Allan Octavian Hume b) South of Mahi to Kanyakumari c) Marquess of Dalhousie c) South of Tapi to Nilgiris d) Sir Charles Wood d) South of Tapi to Kanyakumari 47. Nagarjuna is known as the Einstein of India 58. The lacustrine deposits of Kashmir called because: ‘Karewas’ are known for a) Like Einstein he had a rare insight into the nature a) saffron cultivation b) terrace cultivation of the universe c) apple orchards d) jhum cultivation b) He was one of the greatest physicists of all time 59. Which of the following statements is correct in c) He propounded the theory of Shunyavada simi- respect of India, geographical position ? lar to Einstein’s theory of relativity a) Lies between the lattitudes of 8 0 and 37 0 N d) He was a great dialectician b) Lies between the longitudes of 68 0 and 92 0 E 48. Who patronised Mathura Art and built a stupa at c) Lies in the North of Equator Purushpur ? d) All of the above a) Kujula Kadphises b) Rudradaman 60. Nanda Devi peak forms a part of c) Wima Kadphises d) Moga a) Asom Himalayas b) Kumaon Himalayas 49. Consider the following about Bhakti movement: c) Nepal Himalayas d) Punjab Himalayas 1. The movement emerged in response to the chal- 61. Which among the following are the Southernmost lenges posed by Hinduism. Hills ? 2. It developed under two different schools of a) Cardamom Hills b) Javadi Hills thought- Nirgunabhakti and Saguna Bhakti. c) Nallamalai Hills d) Nilgiri Hills 3. Kabir, Gurunanak and Ramanuja belong to the 62. The Dul Hasti Power Station is based on which Nirgunabhakti. one of the following rivers ? a) Only 1 and 3 b) Only 2 and 3 a) Beas b) Chenab c) Only 1 and 2 d) All of the above c) Ravi d) Sutlej 50. Prem Vatika, poems on the life of Krishna, were 63. Lake Sambhar is nearest to which one of the composed by following cities of Rajasthan ? a) Bihari b) Surdas a) Bharatpur b) Jaipur c) Raskhan d) Kabir c) Jodhpur d) Udaipur 51. Which one of the following is the longest in terms 64. Which one of the following is the correct of length ? sequence of the given Indian cities in the a) Krishna b) Narmada decreasing order of their normal annual rainfall ? c) Godavari d) Cauvery a) Kochi – Kolkata – Delhi – Patna 52. The zonal soil type of peninsular India belongs to b) Kolkata – Kochi – Patna – Delhi a) red soils b) yellow soils c) Kochi – Kolkata – Patna – Delhi c) black soils d) older alluvium d) Kolkata – Kochi – Delhi – Patna 53. Terra Rossa typically develops in terrains 65. When the Cauvery river drops as soon as it enters composed of Tamil Nadu, what waterfalls does it create ? a) limestone b) basalt a) Jog Falls b) Five Falls c) granite d) red sandstone c) Hoggenakkal falls d) Sivasamudram Falls 54. Kathiawar Peninsula is an example of 66. In wildlife conservation, which one among the a) Emerged shoreline b) Submerged shoreline following best defines an ‘Endemic’ Species ? c) Ria shoreline d) Dalmatian shoreline a) When the critical number of a species declines 55. The Palghat Gap serves inland communications in a forest due to parasitic attack from b) A species, which is cosmopolitan and can be a) Madurai to Thiruvananthapuram commonly found in a biosphere b) Chennai to Kochi c) An endangered species which is found in a few c) Pune to Mumbai restricted areas on the Earth d) Bengaluru to Mangalore d) A species confined to a particular regions and 56. Which one of the following Solar Power Projects not found anywhere else

SI CLASSES : An Initiative of SINY CARE ER CONSULTANCY (OPC) PRIVATE LIMITED WhatsApp. 9051419808 PAGE  4 A SI Classes | www.sic la sses.com 67. Which type of climate prevail in the long corridor 1. It is located in the State of Himachal Pradesh. (leewards side) of the Western Ghats Nilgiri Hills? 2. Sutlej river enters India through this pass. a) Tropical wet and dry climate 3. It is an offshoot of the ancient Silk Road. b) Tropical wet and dry with winter rain 4. It is a border post for trade with China. c) Tropical semi and steppe Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? d) Sub-tropical monsoon rainforest a) Lipulekh pass b) Nathula pass 68. Which is the first country that has made c) Shipki La pass d) Jelep La pass constitutional provisions for protection and 80. The course of Damodar river occupies a improvement of the environment ? a) Rift valley b) Synclinal valley a) Japan b) Canada c) Eroded valley d) Depositional valley c) India d) USA 81. Mudumalai Sanctuary is famous for : 69. Which one of the following is an important crop a) tigers b) elephants of the Barak Valley ? c) lions d) bisons a) Jute b) Tea 82. The Arabian Sea branch of the monsoon is much c) Sugarcane d) Cotton more powerful than the Bay of Bengal branch 70. The Kishenganga Power Project is situated in because a) Jammu & Kashmir b) Uttar Pradesh a) Arabian Sea is larger than the Bay of Bengal. c) Himachal Pradesh d) Rajasthan b) Entire Arabian Sea current advances towards In- 71. Which state is famous for step-wells ? dia, whereas only a part of the Bay of Bengal cur- a) Maharashtra b) Gujarat rent enters India. c) Odisha d) Manipur c) Both (a) and (b) 72. On which one of the following rivers is located d) None is correct because the Bay of Bengal branch Indo-Pak Baglihar Project ? is more powerful a) Sutlej b) Jhelum 83. Which of the following factors are responsible for c) Beas d) Chenab India’s failure to fully exploit the inland fisheries 73. Which of the following is a bio-diesel plant ? during the last five decades? a) Jatropha b) Rose 1. Silting and pollution of the inland water bodies c) Pepper d) Noni 2. Deforestation in the catchment areas of the riv- 74. Which of the following is the leading oilseed in ers. India ? 3. Lack of marketing facilities a) Mustard b) Sunflower Choose the correct option. c) Groundnut d) Soyabean a) Only 1 and 2 b) Only 1 and 3 75. Kanha National Park belongs to which one c) Only 2 and 3 d) All of the above among the following biogeographical areas in the 84. Anantapur district in Andhra Pradesh is famous world ? for a) Tropical Sub-humid Forests a) Copper b) Zinc b) Tropical Humid Forests c) Mica d) Gold c) Tropical Dry Forests 85. Shimsha, Hemavati, Arkavati are the tributaries of d) Tropical Moist Forests which one of the following rivers ? 76. Tree cover is maximum in a) Tapti b) Tungabhadra a) East Deccan b) Northern Plains c) Cauvery d) Krishna c) West Coast d) East Coast 86. Silent Valley of Kerala 77. Which of the following states has the distinction of a) is the only evergreen forest in India giving highest yield of sugarcane per hectare ? b) contains costly timber trees a) Maharashtra b) Tamil Nadu c) is a good picnic spot c) Karnataka d) Uttar Pradesh d) contains rare species of plants and animals 78. Which of the following statements is not correctly 87. Which of the following states is the largest matched? producer of silver in India ? UNESCO Heritage Site State a) Karnataka b) Andhra Pradesh a) Rock shelters of Madhya pradesh c) Jharkhand d) Goa Bhimbetka 88. In India, the main limiting factor for cultivation is b) Airavatesvara temple Tamil Nadu a) length of growing season c) Jantar Mantar Rajasthan b) infertile soil d) Pattadakal temples Andhra Pradesh c) inadequacy of water supply 79. Identify the mountain pass using the following d) small size of farms information. SI CLASSES : An Initiative of SINY CARE ER CONSULTANCY (OPC) PRIVATE LIMITED WhatsApp. 9051419808 PAGE  5 A SI Classes | www.sic la sses.com 89. Which of the following states is the largest 101.Who granted the permission to establish the producer of Rock Phosphate in India ? French factory at Masulipatnam ? a) Himachal Pradesh b) Chhattisgarh a) Abdulla Kutub Shah b) Nasir Jung c) Madhya Pradesh d) Rajasthan c) Muzaffar Jung d) Salabat Jung 90. Which of the following cities is not located on the 102. Why did Dutch East India Company fail to bank of river Ganga ? maintain its influence in India ? a) Fatehpur b) Bhagalpur a) Portuguese did not allow them to trade in India c) Uttarkashi d) Kanpur b) There was a growing interference of Dutch 91. For which one of the following, is Satara well known ? Government in the Company’s internal affairs a) Thermal Power Plant c) Dutch indulged in forcible religious conversion b) Wind Energy Plant of the people and thus were expelled by local c) Hydro-electric Plant kings d) Nuclear Power Plant d) The English forces made them to leave India 92. In which of the following places is the Shompen 103. In 1775, who referred to the Nawab of Bengal as tribe found ? “a Phantom, a man of straw” ? a) Nilgiri Hills b) Nicobar Islands a) Warren Hastings c) Spiti Valley d) Lakshadweep Islands b) A member of Court of Directors 93. Amarkantak peak is the source region of three c) A Judge of Supreme Court of Calcutta important rivers – the Narmada, the Mahanadi d) Robert Clive and the 104. Cornwallis’ code of 1793 separated a) Son b) Tapti a) revenue collection for administration of civil c) Wardha d) Ken justice 94. Which of the follwing is not known for copper b) civil administration from judicial administration production in India ? c) the Bengal administration from the Central a) Balaghat b) Jhunjhunu administration c) Singhum d) Katni d) the civil administration from millitary 95. Major part of Chhattisgarh is characterised by administration a) Black soils b) Laterite soils 105. After Bengal, the English seemed the right of c) Peat soils d) Red soils duty-free trade in the domination of 96. Which one of the following places is located at the a) Raja of Benaras confluence of Alakananda and Bhagirathi ? b) Nawab of Awadh a) Vishnuprayag b) Devprayag c) The Nizam of Hyderabad c) Rudraprayag d) Kamaprayag d) The Jats of Bharatpur 97. Pie-diagram is the best example of representation 106. Who remarked in 1834 that “The bones of the of cotton weavers are bleaching the plains of India”? a) Land use a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy b) Dadabhai Naoroji b) Distribution of population c) R.C.Dutt d) William Bentinck c) Spot heights 107. The birth place of Maharani Laxmibai, the d) Crop production heroine of the 1857 freedom struggle is 98. Location of sugar industry in India is shifting from a) Agra b) Jhansi North to South because of c) Varanasi d) Vrindavan a) Cheap labour 108. During the time of which Mughal Emperor did the b) Expanding regional market English East India Company establish its first c) Cheap and abundant supply of power factory in India ? d) High yield and high sugar content in sugarcane a) Akbar b) Jahangir 99. The typical area of ‘Sal’ forests in the Indian c) Shahjahan d) Aurangzeb Peninsula occurs 109. With reference to the entry of European powers a) On the Western Ghats into India, which one of the following statements b) Between the Tapti and the Narmada is not correct ? c) To the North-East of Godavari a) The Portuguese captured Goa in 1499 d) On the Malwa Plateau b) The English opened their first factory in South 100. Where are the BHEL plants located ? India at Masulipatnam a) Hardwar, Bhopal, Hyderabad and Tiruchirapalli c) In Eastern India, the English Company opened b) Pinjour, Bengaluru, Hyderabad ad Kalamassery its first factory in Orissa in 1633 c) Hardwar, Tiruchirapalli, Bhopal and Pune d) Under the leadership of Dupleix, the French d) Bhopal, Jhansi, Haridwar and Tiruchirapally occupied Madras in 1746 SI CLASSES : An Initiative of SINY CARE ER CONSULTANCY (OPC) PRIVATE LIMITED WhatsApp. 9051419808 PAGE  6 A SI Classes | www.sic la sses.com 110. Who is the author of the book ‘The Last Mughal 120. Which Sikh Guru assumed the title ‘Sachcha : The fall of a Delhi Dynasty in 1857’ ? Badshah’ ? a) John Kirkland b) William Dalrymple a) Guru Nanak b) Guru Teg Bahadur c) Thomas Wilson d) Simon Digby c) Guru Hargovind d) Guru Gobind Singh 111. Arranged the following treaties in chronologies 121. Who is the founding member of ‘Mazdoor order : Mahajan’ ? 1. Treaty of Faizabad a) B.P.Wadia b) M.K.Gandhi 2. Treaty of Benaras c) J.L.Nehru d) N.M.Lokhande 3. Treaty of Allahabad 122. The rebellion started in 1816 and continued till 4. Treaty of Bassein 1832 was Select the correct answer from the codes given a) Santhal uprisings b) Kol uprisings below. c) Kutch uprisings d) None of the above a) 3, 2, 1, 4 b) 3, 1, 2, 4 123. Where was the first All India Kisan Sabha formed? c) 2, 3, 1, 4 d) 3, 4, 1, 2 a) Calcutta b) Madras 112. Through whose initiative was the Dhaka c) Lucknow d) Patna Anushilan Samiti formed in October 1906 ? 124. Lord Macaulay is associated with a) Barindra Kumar Ghosh a) Reforms in Army b) Hemchandra Kanungo b) Abolition of Sati system c) Pulin Behari Das c) English Education d) Aurobindo Ghosh d) Permanent Settlement 113. Who was popularly known as Nana Saheb ? 125. The Iqtadaras during the Sultanate period were a) Baji Rao I b) Balaji Baji Rao also known as c) Balaji Biswanath d) Sawai Madhav Rao a) maliks b) muqtis 114. In which State of India Ataranjikheda is situated ? c) mamlatdars d) munhias a) Bihar b) Madhya Pradesh 126. Who among the following was greatly influenced c) U.P. d) Gujarat by Islam ? 115. With reference to the colonial rule of India, which a) Namadeva b) Chaitanya one of the following was not the feature of c) Ramananda d) Ramanuja Subsidiary Alliance System ? 127. Which Bahamani ruler shifted the capital from a) A subsidiary British army was to be maintained Gulbarga to Bidar ? in the Indian State a) Ala-ud-din II b) Ahmad Shah Wali b) The determination of expenses incurred on the c) Muhammad Shah I d) Muhammad III subsidiary British army was the duty of Indian State 128. Which one among the following wars was ended c) The Indian state had to keep a British resident by the Treaty of Madras ? in her capital a) First Carnatic war b) Second Carnatic war d) Indian soldiers could be used by the company c) First Mysore war d) Second Mysore war commanders 129. The first Indian rulers to issue gold coins on the 116. Which dynasty described itself as the ‘Brahma- Roman pattern were Kshatriya’ ? a) Sungas b) Kushanas a) Senas b) Palas c) Indo-Greeks d) Vakatakas c) Rashtrakutas d) Pratiharas 130. Dadabhai Naoroji organised ‘East India 117. King “Chandra” of Mehrauli Iron Pillar inscription Association’ to serve which one of the following has been identified with purposes ? a) Chandragupta Maurya a) To promote nationlism among the peasants of b) Chandragupta I (Gupta) India c) Chandrasen b) To discuss the Indian questions and influence d) Chandragupta II (Gupta) British public to promote Indian welfare 118. ‘Kiratas’ was an old kingdom of the c) To unite all nationalist leader under one a) Northern India b) Southern India organisation c) Western India d) Eastern India d) To start an independent organisation apart 119. Consider the following dynasties from congress 1. Saluva 2. Sangama 131. Which of the following was not one of the titles 3. Tuluva 4. Aravidu assumed by the Chola king Rajendra ? Find the correct chronological sequence a) Tyagasamudra b) Gangaikonda a) 2, 1, 3, 4 b) 4, 3, 2, 1 c) Mudikonda d) Pandita Chola c) 1, 2, 3, 4 d) 3, 4, 1, 2 SI CLASSES : An Initiative of SINY CARE ER CONSULTANCY (OPC) PRIVATE LIMITED WhatsApp. 9051419808 PAGE  7 A SI Classes | www.sic la sses.com 132. What was the reason for the British Empire to a) Narsimhavarman II b) Parmesvarvarman I annex Sambalpur in 1850 ? c) Mahendra Varman I d) Narsimhavarman a) Lack of proper governance 142. Who of the following was the inventor of b) Death of its ruler without an heir Chanhudro, a harappan site, in 1931 ? c) Subsidiary Alliance a) Rakhaldas Bandopadhyay d) Its involvement in a conspiracy against British b) Dayaram Sahani Rule c) S. R. Rao 133. The main programme of the red shirts (Khudai d) Nanigopal Majumdar Khidmatgars or Servants of God) organised by 143. Which Sufi Saint adopted Yogic breathing Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan in support of the Civil exercises and was called Sidh or perfect ? Disobedience Movement was a) Nizamuddin Auliya b) Farid a) to proceed on the lines of terrorist and c) Salim Chisti d) Muhammed Jilani revolutionary activities 144. Arrange the following events in correct b) to propagate the Congress programmes chronological order and answer the questions on c) to resist the military operations of the the basis of the codes given below government in the North-Western forntier province 1. Ilbert Bill Controversy d) to set up a para-military organisation 2. The First Delhi Darbar 134. At the time of Aurangzeb’s death, the Maratha 3. The Queen’ Proclamation leadership was in the hands of 4. First Factory Act a) Shambhuji b) Rajaram Codes : c) Jija Bai d) Tara Bai a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 2, 1, 3, 4 135. During the age of Mahajanapadas who were c) 3, 4, 1, 2 d) 3, 2, 4, 1 papanikas ? 145. Which Sikh Guru helped the rebel prince Khusro a) Shopkeepers b) Wood cutter with money and blessings ? c) Priests of tribal origins d) Gatekeepers a) Guru Hargovind b) Guru Govind Singh 136. The Indian legal and judicial systems were c) Guru Arjun Dev d) Guru Tegh Bahadur founded in 146. The historical book in Mughal period ‘Tabaqat-e- a) Later Vedic Period b) Pre Maryan Age Akbari’ was written by – c) Mauryan Age d) Gupta Age a) Hamid b) Khaja Nijamuddin Ahmed 137. Which among the following was the First Trade c) Kafi Khan d) Badauni Union Organisation of India in modern times ? 147. Where was the famous Virupaksha temple a) Printers Union of Kolkata located ? b) Textile Labour Union a) Bhadrachalam b) Simachalam c) Bombay Postal Union c) Hampi d) Trikalahasti d) All India Trade Union Congress 148. The decimal system was first known in India at 138. How did the Mughal Emperor Jahandar Shah’s the begining of reign come to an early end ? a) 2nd century AD b) 3rd century AD a) He was deposed by his wazir c) 4h century AD d) 5th century AD b) He died due to a slip while climbing down steps 149. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched? c) He was defeated by his nephew in a battle a) Diwan-i-Bandagani – Feroz Shah Tughlaq d) He died of sickness due to too much consumption b) Diwan-i-Mustakhraj – Balban of wine c) Diwan-i-Kohi – Alauddin Khilji 139. Which portfolio was held by Dr. Rajendra Prasad d) Diwan-i-Arz – Mohammad Tughlaq in the Interim Government formed in the year 150. The successor of Maharaja Ranjit Singh was 1946 ? a) Kharak Singh b) Harihar Singh Nalwa a) Defence c) Sher Singh d) Naunihal Singh b) External affairs and common wealth 151. The habitat of the Toda Tribe is c) Food and Agriculture a) Aravalli range b) Siwalik range d) Education c) Kaimur range d) Nilgiri range 140. Which of the following Indians was appointed as 152. Hindalco, an aluminium factory located at Deputy Diwan of Bihar by Rober Clive ? Renukut owes its site basically to a) Omi Chand b) Manik Chand a) Proximity of raw materials c) Rai Durlabh d) Raja Shitab Rai b) Abundant supply of power 141. The Pallava ruler who built the famous Kailash c) Efficient transport of network temple at Kanchi and the Shore temple at d) Proximity to the market Mahabalipuram was SI CLASSES : An Initiative of SINY CARE ER CONSULTANCY (OPC) PRIVATE LIMITED WhatsApp. 9051419808 PAGE  8 A SI Classes | www.sic la sses.com 153. Modern industrial development of India is largely 163. The upliftment of the Himalayas was first initiated due to during the period of a) Rationalisation of raw material a) Middle pliocene b) Middle Oligocene b) Availiability of skilled manpower c) Middle Eocene d) Middle Miocene c) Liberalisation of government policies 164. Peaty soil is found in d) Increase in market demand a) Kerala b) Assam 154. The map in which distribution of different objects c) Manipur d) Gujarat are shown by letter symbols are called 165. Ecosystems has two components a) Choroschematic maps a) Plants and animals b) Weeds and trees b) Chorochromatic maps c) Biotic and abiotic d) Frogs and man c) Choropleth maps 166. Belpahari and Gidhni area of West Bengal had d) All of the above deposits of which mineral ? 155. Wular lake of Kashmir is a) Manganese b) Copper a) Ox-bow lake c) Barytes d) Kyanite b) Lake formed by tectonic activity 167. Lowest Rainfall of West Bengal is found in which c) Lake formed by terminal morainic dam district ? d) Lake formed by continuous deposition of silt a) Purulia b) Bankura 156. The highest peak of the Himalayas in India is in c) Birbhum d) Jhargram a) Uttar Pradesh b) Kashmir 168.What is Buxa ? c) Sikkim d) Himachal Pradesh a) A river in Eastern mountain region 157. The Amarkantak Hill is the source of two River b) An important city near Kalimpong flowing in two different directions (West and c) A pass joining India and Bhutan East). They are d) A mountain peak of Sinchula range a) Narmada and Tapti 169. The soil of Bankura district in West Bengal is b) Narmada and Mahanadi a) Podzolic b) Alluvial c) Tapti and Betwa c) Laterite d) Silty d) Tapti and Son 170. Kalindi, Balason and Tangon are the tributaries of 158. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly which river ? matched? a) Damodar river b) Mahananda river a) Kosi : Consequent River c) Teesta river d) Torsa river b) Narmada : Rift Valley River 171. Which of the following water sources is situated in c) Sutlej : Antecedent River the border of Bengal and Sikkim ? d) Ghagghar : River with interior drainage a) Whistle Khola waterfall 159. The Indus and Brahmaputra Rivers are examples b) Talboria lake of c) Changey waterfall a) Subsequent Drainage d) Bhangzang lake b) Superimposed Drainage 172. Sundari and dhundal trees are found in which c) Consequent Drainage among the following types of forests ? d) Antecedent Drainage a) Moist deciduous forests 160. Formation of potholes in river beds is an example b) Littoral and swamp forests of : c) Tropical dry deciduous forests a) Hydration b) Corrosion d) Montane wet temperate forests c) Erosion d) Attrition 173. Which among the following types of forests is 161. Structurally, the Great Himalaya is found in an altitude between 1650-3000 m in a) An autochthonous zone West Bengal ? b) A par-autochthonous zone a) Montane wet temperate forests c) An allochthonous zone b) Tropical dry deciduous forests d) A suture zone c) Sub-alpine forests 162. Reserved Forest is a forest d) Sub-tropical semi-evergreen forests a) Totally under Government control 174. The Mayurjharna Elephant Reserve is combinely b) Meant mainly for tribal people located in which two districts of West Bengal ? c) Earmarked for commercial exploitation with a) Bankura and Purulia restricted grazing b) West and East Midnapore d) With wild life protection c) Bankura and West Midnapore d) Hooghly and West Midnapore

SI CLASSES : An Initiative of SINY CARE ER CONSULTANCY (OPC) PRIVATE LIMITED WhatsApp. 9051419808 PAGE  9 A SI Classes | www.sic la sses.com 175. Which among the following scheme provides 188. Which is the best quality coffee that India financial and other support to young produces mainly for export purpose ? enterpreneurs who have unique business ideas ? a) Liberica b) Arabica a) Shilpa Sathi b) Egiye Bangla c) Robusta d) Minarica c) Shilpa Bandhu 189. Which of the following multipurpose project and d) Cluster Development program the rivers on which they are situated is not 176. Interior of the Deccan Plateau receives an annual correctly matched ? rainfall of less than 60 cm, mainly because a) Salal – Sutlej b) Nagarjuna – Krishna a) It is a rain shadow region c) Ukai – Tapti d) Hirakund – Mahanadi b) It is located parallel to wind direction 190. Chittora is one of the hydro electric station in c) It is away from the coast a) Uttar Pradesh b) Madhya Pradesh d) Rain-bearing clouds are absent c) Andhra Pradesh d) Maharashtra 177. Heavy rainfall during the months of October and 191. The Central Plantation Crops Research Institute November is received by – (CPCRI) is situated in – a) Garo, Khasi and Jaintia hills a) Balehonnur, Karnataka b) Chhota Nagpur Plateau b) Guntur, Andhra Pradesh c) Malwa Plateau c) Kasaragod, Kerala d) Coromondal Coast d) Kozhikode, Kerala 178. Korba coal field is located in which state ? 192. Which of the following is not a plantation crop ? a) Jharkhand b) Madhya Pradesh a) rubber b) tobacco c) Andhra Pradesh d) Orissa c) banana d) sugarcane 179. Which of the leading wheat producer state in 193. Sampad Sagar Canal is connected with which India ? river ? a) Punjab b) Uttar Pradesh a) Krishna b) Musi c) Haryana d) Madhya Pradesh c) Godavari d) Narmada 180. Rainbow revolution is related with -- 194. Rudrasagar Lake is situated in which state ? a) Green revolution b) White revolution a) Assam b) Rajasthan c) Blue revolution d) All of the above c) Tripura d) Andhra Pradesh 181. In India, Regur soil is found in 195. The Umiam Hydel-Project dam is located a few a) Deccan Plateau b) Indo-Gangetic plain kilometers north of : c) Himalayan region d) Coastal plains a) Kohima b) Imphal 182. Tangrup Pass is a mountain corridor connecting c) Guwahati d) Shillong India with 196. Alluvial soils cover about ___% parts of the total a) Afghanistan b) China geographical area of India. c) Myanmar d) Pakistan a) 35 b) 45 183. The state of Sikkim is surrounded by – c) 53 d) 28 a) China, Nepal, Bhutan and West Bengal 197. The Cherry blossom cyclone is seen in b) Bhutan, Nepal, West Bengal and Assam a) Tamil Nadu & Kerala c) China, Nepal, West Bengal and Assam b) Kerala & Karnataka d) China, Bhutan, West Bengal and Assam c) Karnataka & Telengana 184. How many islands are there in Lakshadweep ? d) Andhra Pradesh & Tamil Nadu a) 17 b) 27 198. Kolleru lake in Andhra Pradesh is a type of c) 36 d) 47 a) Tectonic lake b) Wind-made lake 185. Which one among the following creeks is not c) Deltaic lake d) Lagoon associated with the state of Gujarat ? 199. Ramganga is a tributary of Ganga river. It joins a) Kori creek b) Godai creek Ganga near which city ? c) Kajhar creek d) Sir creek a) Ghazipur b) Danapur 186. The factory of Chemical fertilizer at Ramagundam c) Saharanpur d) Kannauj is situated in which state ? 200. The atomic power station Narora is situated in a) Andhra Pradesh b) Karnataka which district of Uttar Pradesh ? c) Telengana d) Tamil Nadu a) Aligarh b) Gorakhpur 187. Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research c) Bulandshahar d) Meerut (IGCAR) is situated at – –––––– a) Trombay b) Hyderabad c) Kalpakkam d) Thumba

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TEST BOOKLET Test Booklet Series PAPER - IV Time allo w ed : 3 hours A Full marks : 2 00

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1. This booklet consists of 9 pages including this front page, containing 200 Questions. Verify the page Nos. and Test Booklets Series on each page and bring at once to the invigilator’s notice any discrepancy. 2. Answers will have to be given in the special Answer-Sheet supplied for the purpose. 3. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer-Sheet in Response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer-Sheet as per instructions sent to you in the Admit Card. Do not fold the Answer-Sheet as this will result in error in your marks. 4. All questions are of multiple-choice answer-type. You will four probable answers (A), (B), (C) and (D) against each question. Find out which of the four answers appears to be correct or the best. Now darken the oval corresponding to the letter of the selected answer in the Answer- Sheet with Black Ball Point Pen as per instructions printed on the reverse of the admit Card and in the Answer-Sheet. 5. If more than one oval is encoded for a particular answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer. 1 6. There will be negative marking for wrong answers. / 3 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. 7. There are blank pages at the backside of each pages of this booklet for Rough Work. 8. The Special Answer-Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination Hall. You are permitted to take away the used Test Booklet after completion of the examination.

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Test Booklet Series WBCS (Exe) Examination (Mains), 2019 A MOCK TEST Full Marks : 200 Test Code : M1920 Time : 3 hours Answer all questions. Each question carries 1 mark. 1/3 rd mark will be deducted for each wrong attempt.

1. The ratio of the masses of two body P and Q is 1:8 10. In an elastic collision, and the ratio of the kinetic energy is 2:1,then the a) momentum is conserved but energy is not ratio of their momentum is b) both momentum and energy are conserved a) 2: 1 b) 3: 1 c) energy is conserved but momentum is not c) 4:1 d) 3 : 2 d) neither momentum nor energy is conserved 2. Maxwell is the unit of 11. Why do two ice blocks join to form one block when a) permeability b) magnetic flux pressed together ? c) magnetic susceptibility a) Melting point of ice is lowered with increase in d) intensity of magnetization pressure 3. One light year is approximately equal to b) Melting point of ice increases with increase in a) 10 11 km b) 10 15 m pressure c) 10 16 m d) 10 16 km c) Melting point of ice remains unchanged with 4. An object is undergoing a non-accelerated motion. increase in pressure Its rate of change in momentum is d) Melting point of ice 0 0 C a) a non-zer constant b) zero 12. An object is placed in front of two plane mirrors c) not a constant d) None of the above which are perpendicular to each other. The number 5. A motor vehicle is moving on a circle with a uniform of images that can be seen by an observer is speed. The net acceleration of the vehicle is a) one b) two a) zero c) zero d) Infinite b) towards the centre of the circle 13. Bernoilli’s theorem is applicable to c) away from the centre along the radius of the circle a) surface tension b) viscosity d) perpendicular to the radius and along the velocity c) flow of liquids d) static fluid pressure 6. If a light body and a heavy body have equal 14. The modulus of rigidity of a liquid is momentum, then a) zero b) infinite a) the lighter body has greater kinetic energy than c) 1 d) None of these the heavier body 15. Which one of the following has highest frequency? b) the lighter body has lesser kinetic energy than a) Cosmic rays b) X-rays the heavier body c) Radiowaves d) Microwaves c) the kinetic energy of the lighter body is equal to 16. Epoxy resins are used as the kinetic energy of the heavier body a) detergents b) insecticides d) the kinetic energy of both the bodies are c) adhesives d) moth repellents independent of momentum 17. Which of the following physical quantities have the 7. A bomb dropped from an airplane explodes in mid- same dimensions ? air a) Angular momentum and work a) its Kinetic energy increases b) Kinetic energy and velocity b) its total energy increases c) Work and torque c) its total energy decreases d) Potential energy and linear momentum d) None of the above 18. The major ingredient of leather is 8. The most suitable unit of expressing nuclear radius a) collagen b) carbohydrate is c) polymer d) nucleic acid a) micron b) nanometer 19. Longitudinal strain is defined when c) fermi d) angstrom a) under a large force change in length is smaller 9. Angle of friction and angle of repose are b) under a weak force change in length be smaller a) equal to each other c) Under a large force, change in length is larger b) not equal to each other d) None of these c) proportional to each other 20. Ultrasonic waves are produced by d) None of the above a) Peltier’s effect b) Piezoelectric effect c) Doppler’s effect d) Coulomb’s law SI CLASSES : An Initiative of SINY CARE ER CONSULTANCY (OPC) PRIVATE LIMITED WhatsApp. 9051419808 PAGE  2 A SI Classes | www.sic la sses.com 21. India won its first Olympic hockey gold in 34. Most common disease of poultry in India is a) 1918 b) 1928 c) 1936 d) 1932 a) fowl pox b) tick fever 22. Black heart of potato is due to c) ranikhet d) coryza a) deficiency of copper 35. Ptyalin is an enzyme produced in the b) deficiency of boron a) salivary glands b) pituitary glands c) deficiency of oxygen c) thyroid glands d) pancreas d) deficiency of potassium 36. Transverse waves can propagate 23. Red colour of red sea is due to a) in a gas but not in a metal a) Moss b) Bacteria b) both in a gas and in a metal c) Fungi d) Algae c) not in a gas but in a metal 24. Which one of the following reflects back more d) neither in a gas nor in a metal sunlight as compared to other three? 37. C-peptide of human insulin is: A) Sand desert B) Paddy crop Ian a) A part of mature insulin molecule C) Land covered with fresh snow b) Responsible for formation of disulphide bridges D) Prairie land c) Removed during maturation of pro-insulin to 25. The study of the microscopic structure of tissues, is insulin called d) Responsible for its biological activity. A) Orology B) Osteology 38. The Redox indicator used in volumetric titration of C) Histology D) Seromology a) Bromophynol Blue 26. Bakelite is the product of b) Methyl Orange a) addition polymerization c) Barium diphenyl amine sulphonate b) condensation polymerization d) Solochrome black-T c) co-polymerization 39. Which element has the greatest ductility property ? d) None of the above a) Copper b) Silver 27. Deep blue colour is imparted to glass by the c) Gold d) Platinum presence of 40. The wavelength of X-rays is of the order of a) cupric oxide b) nickel oxide a) 1 mm b) 1 cm c) cobalt oxide d) iron oxide c) 1 micron d) 1 angstrom 28. The isotope used for cancer therapy 41. In ecosystem, which one shows one way passage ? a) I 80 b) Co 60 a) Free energy b) Nitrogen c) C 14 d) Ra 223 c) Carbon d) Potassium 29. Chemical formula of Grignard reagent is 42. Which one of the following clay has the highest a) R-Mg-X b) R-Ca-X cation exchange capacity (CEC) ? c) R-Sr-X d) None of the above a) Bentonite b) Halloysite 30. Choose the correct sequence of substance which is c) Ball clay d) China clay ordered in an increasing order of forces of attraction 43. What Frank Whittle invented? between the particles a) Radar b) Ethyl gasoline a) Water, Sugar, Oxygen, c) Sonar d) Jet propulsion b) Oxygen, Water, Sugar 44. Who synthesized the first wholly artificial gene? c) Sugar, Oxygen, Water a) Hargobind Khorana b) James Watson d) Oxygen, Sugar, Water c) Benjamin Franklin d) Edward Beneden 31. Plants are killed in winter by frost 45. The temperature of a body is an indicator of a) because of desiccation and mechanical damage a) the total energy of the molecules of the body to the tissues b) the average energy of the molecules of the body b) because no photosynthesis takes place at such c) the total velocity of the molecules of the body low temperature d) the average kinetic energy of the molecules of c) because respiration ceases at such low the body temperature 46. Which one of the following is the correct definition d) because there is no transpiration of “Agenda 21” ? 32. Number of chromosomes in Down's syndrome is a) It is an action plan of U.N.O. for protecting hu- a) 46 b) 47 man rights. c) 48 d) 49 b) It is a book of 21 chapters on nuclear disar- 33. Most abundant tissues of our body are mament. a) muscular b) Skeletal Muscle c) It is an action plan for the sustainable development. c) epithelial d) nervous d) It is an agenda for the election of the president in the next meeting of SAARC. SI CLASSES : An Initiative of SINY CARE ER CONSULTANCY (OPC) PRIVATE LIMITED WhatsApp. 9051419808 PAGE  3 A SI Classes | www.sic la sses.com 47. Relation between the colour and temperature of a 62. Pollen grains in plants are produced in star is given by a) roots b) leaves a) Wien’s displacement law b) Hubble’s law c) flower d) stem c) Planck’s law d) Hippacus rule 63. Detergents used for cleaning clothes and utensils 48. One fathom is equal to — contain? a) 6 metres b) 6 feet a) bicarbonates b) bismuthates c) 60 feet d) 60 cms c) sulphonates d) nitrates 49. In case of a parasitic food chain, the shape of the 64. Glass is made of the mixture of pyramid of number is always : a) quartz and mica b) sand and silicates a) Upright b) Linear c) salt and quartz d) sand and salt c) Inverted d) Not certain 65. Radish is a 50. Rate of diffusion is a) bulb b) conn a) faster in gases than in liquids and solids c) modified root d) tuber b) equal in solids, liquids and gases 66. Outer covering of virus made up of protein is c) faster in solids than in liquids and gases a) capsid b) coat d) faster in liquids than in solids c) virion d) viriod 51. In case of prism, the angel of deviation is greater for 67. Our major foods, fibres, spices, fruits and beverage a) Blue b) Yellow crops are c) Red d) Violet a) flowering plants b) gymnosperms plants 52. Optic fibres are mainly used for which of the c) pteridophytes d) bryophytes following? 68. Organic Substances which, in very small amounts, a) Musical instruments b) Food industry control growth and development called c) Weaving d) Communication a) vitamins b) hormones 53. The best conductor of heat among the following is c) enzymes d) all of the above a) alcohol b) mercury 69. Radioactivity is a phenomenon of the spontaneous c) ether d) water emission of 54. When red glass is heated in dark room it will seem? a) protons (alpha particles) a) Green b) Purple b) electrons (beta particles) c) Black d) Yellow c) gamma rays (short wave electromagnetic waves) 55. Which fuel has the maximum calorific value ? d) All of the above a) Charcoal b) Kerosene 70. When a person uses a convex lens as a simple c) Wood d) LPG magnifying glass, the object must be placed at a 56. A computer cannot boot if it does not have the distance a) compiler b) loader a) behind the focal length c) operating system d) assembler b) behind 2f 57. Modern communication systems are based on c) less than the focal length a) Analog circuits b) digital circuits d) no specific distance c) combination of A analog and digital circuits 71. The short upper part of the human intestine next d) None of the above to the stomach is called : 58. The sweetest sugar is : a) Caecum b) Duodenum a) sucrose b) glucose c) Lieum d) Jejunum c) fructose d) lactose 72. The improper function of which of the following 59. Plants that grow under average temperature and results in condition Myxedema' in human beings? moisture are called a) Adrenal gland b) Pancreas a) halophytes b) hydrophytes c) Liver d) Thyroid gland c) mesophytes d) xerophytes 73. Alpha-keratin is a protein present in : 60. 540 gm of ice at 0°C mixed with 540 gm of water a) blood b) skin at 80°C. The final temperature of the mixture is c) wool d) eggs a) 20 0 C b) 40°C 74. The comers of the cells of collenchyma tissue in c) 0 0 C d) 56 0 C plants are thickened due to the deposition of : 61. What are the soaps? a) Lignin and Suberin b) Suberin and Cutin a) Salts of silicates c) Cellulose and Pectin d) Chitin and Lignin b) Mixture of glycerol and alcohols 75. Which of the following is commonly called a c) Sodium or potassium salts of heavier fatty acids "polyamide"? d) Esters of heavy fatty acids a) Terylene b) Nylon c) Rayon d) Orlon SI CLASSES : An Initiative of SINY CARE ER CONSULTANCY (OPC) PRIVATE LIMITED WhatsApp. 9051419808 PAGE  4 A SI Classes | www.sic la sses.com 76. In which organ of the human body are the c) pulse code modulation lymphocyte cells formed? d) time division multiplexing a) Liver b) Long bone 89. Which one of the following is the most common c) Pancreas d) Spleen picking device of the graphic application ? 77. The hormone insulin is a : a) Graphic tablet b) Joystick a) Glycolipid b) Fatty acid c) Mouse d) Light Pen c) Peptide d) Sterol 90. What is the most commonly used substance in 78. The characteristic odour of garlic is due to : fluorescent tubes ? a) a chloro compound b) a sulphur compound a) Sodium oxide and argon c) a fluorine compound d) acetic acid b) Sodium vapour and neon 79. Consumption of fish is considered to be healthy c) Mercury vapour and argon when compared to flesh of other animals because d) Mercury oxide and neon fish contains : 91. WIMAX is related to which one of the following ? a) polyunsaturated fatty acids a) Biotechnology b) Space Technology b) saturated fatty acids c) Missile Technology c) essential vitamins d) Communication Technology d) more carbohydrates and proteins 92. Which one of the following discs is used to cold 80. Gypsum is added to cement clinker to boot a computer ? a) increase the tensile strength of cement a) Set up disc b) Program disc b) decrease the rate of setting of cement c) Diagonostic disc d) System disc c) facilitate the formation of colloidal gel 93. Pick up the correct food chain d) bind the particles of calcium silicate a) grass – Chamelion – insect – bird 81. Among the following food items, which one has the b) grass – fox – rabbit – bird highest amount of carbohydrates? c) phytoplankton – zooplankton – fish a) Apple b) Banana d) fallen leaves – bacteria – insect larvae.

c) Cabbage d) Pea 94. Relative contributions of CO 2 , CH, CFCs and N 2 O 82. Desert plants would be characterised by : towards global warming are : a) vivipary b) aerenchyma a) 50%, 30%, 10% and 10% respectively c) aerial roots d) sunken stomata b) 60%, 20%, 14% and 6% respectively 83. The vast resources of unutilised natural gas can be c) 40%, 30%, 20% and 10% respectively used in the production of d) None of the above a) graphite b) Synthetic petroleum 95. The Ministry of Environment and Forest declared c) fertilisers d) carbide India’s first marine eco-sensitive zone in - 84. Which one of the following sets is correctly matched? a) Gulf of Kutch b) Palk Strait a) Diphtheria, Pneumonia and Leprosy : Hereditary c) Gulf of Khambat d) Gulf of Mannar b) AIDS, Syphilis and Gonorrhoea : Bacterial 96. Energy _____ in an Ecosystem. c) Colour blindness, Haemophilia and Sickle cell a) is released b) is absorbed anaemia : Sex linked c) flows d) None of the above d) Polio, Japanese B ancephalitis and Plague : Viral 97. Who is the current CEO of Infosys? 85. Upper part of sea/aquatic ecosystem contains a) Salil Parekh b) Abidali Neemuchwala a) plankton b) nekton c) Rajesh Gopinathan d) Francisco D'Souza c) plankton and nekton d) benthos 98. Which city will host 10th National Science Film 86. Which type of fire extinguisher is used for Festival of India (NSFFl) in 2020? petroleum fire? a) Pune b) Chandigarh a) Powder type b) Liquid type c) Agartala d) Bhubaneswar c) Soda acid type d) Foam type 99. Puerto Williams, which has become the world’s 87. Mutation is southernmost city, is located in which of the a) a factor responsible for plant growth following countries? b) a change which affects the offspring of F2 a) Argentina b) New Zealand generation only c) Chile d) Australia c) a change that is inherited 100. Nitrogen is fixed in ecosystems in ways stated d) a change which affects the parents below. Which one of the statements below is false? 88. The technique used to transmit audio signal in a) By cyanobacteria television broadcasting is b) By electrical discharges in the atmosphere a) amplitude modulation c) By industrially synthesised fertilizer b) frequency modulation d) By denitrification SI CLASSES : An Initiative of SINY CARE ER CONSULTANCY (OPC) PRIVATE LIMITED WhatsApp. 9051419808 PAGE  5 A SI Classes | www.sic la sses.com 113. For television broadcasting the frequency employed 101. First artificial satellite of the moon is normally a) Luna 2 b) Luna 8 a) 30 - 300 kHz b) 30 - 300 GHz c) Luna 9 d) Luna 10 c) 30 - 300 Hz d) 30 - 300 MHz 102. The level of sound during normal conversation is 114. The core of a transformer is laminated so that a) 20 db b) 40 db a) ratio of the voltages across the secondary and c) 60 db d) 80 db primary is doubled 103. Acids in the rain react with the calcium compounds b) the weight of the transformer can be kept low in the stones to create c) the rusting of the core is prevented a) Gypsum b) Calcium carbonate d) energy loss due to eddy currents is minimised c) Calcium hydroxide d) None of the above 115. Who had invented the mechanical television which 104. UNFCCC stands for is the pioneer of modern television? a) United Nations Framework Convention on a) Philo T Farnsworth b) V. K. Zworykin Climate Change c) Karl Braun d) Charles F. Jenkins b) United Nations Federation Convention on 116. Nepal-India Franchise Investment Expo scheduled Climate Change in Kathmandu on May, 2019 is for ______c) United Nations Framework Council on Climate development. Change a) entrepreneurship b) education d) United Nations Federation Council on Climate c) engineering d) employment Change 117. India and Chile signs MoU's on three fields 105. Which of the following is correct about Indian a) medicine, culture and empowerment of persons Defence’s Aircrafts and Helicopter? with disabilities 1. Tejas is a multi-role combat aircraft. b) mining, education and empowerment of persons 2. SARAS is India’s first indigenous civilian aircraft. with disabilities 3. Lakshya is a pilotless target Aircraft. c) mining, culture and empowerment of persons Select the correct option/options given below: with disabilities a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only d) mining, culture and education of persons with c) 2 and 3 only d) All of the above disabilities 106. Which is the banned Punjabi Poem which is to be 118. Which one of the following is not made of soft iron? published in English after 99 years a) Core of dynamo b) Core of transformer a) Khooni Vaisakhi c) Electromagnet d) Magnet of loudspeaker b) Ghum Charakhria Ghum 119. Rs. 2348 crore bank fraud case was filed by CBI on c) Keso Guni a) Raigarh Power & Steel d) Amin Khayal b) Raipur Power & Steel 107. Which is the robot that was declared dead after 15 c) Jindal Power & Steel years of service in red planet by NASA? d) Bhushan Power & Steel a) Reconnaissance Orbiter 120. The world's first nationwide 5G mobile networks b) Mars Rover was launched by c) Odyssey a) China b) South Korea d) MAVEN c) India d) US 108. To which field BARC belongs to 121.CBDT stands for a) Food b) Atomic energy a) Central Board Of Direct Taxes c) Television d) Export b) Central Board Of Digital Taxes 109. Who has taken charge as the new Election c) Central Board Of Distict Taxes Commisioner of India? d) Central Board Of Definite Taxes a) Sunil Arora b) Sushil Chandra 122. Which social networking site has launched its first c) Navin Chawla d) V. Sampath interactive game show ‘Confetti’ in India? 110. First space station a) Twitter b) Snapchat a) Apollo 1 b) Sputnik 1 c) Facebook d) Instagram c) Salyut 1 d) None of the above 123. ______is elected as World Bank President. 111. The set of ecosystems is called a a) David Malpass b) Robert B. Zoellick a) Biome b) Climate c) Jim Yong Kim d) Lewis Preston c) Subsystem d) Structure 124. Which Football team stood first in the end-of-the- 112. Which one of the following is an ‘air-to-air’ missile? year FIFA global rankings 2018? a) Akash b) Astra a) Belgium b) France c) Prithvi d) Dhruva c) Switzerland d) Germany SI CLASSES : An Initiative of SINY CARE ER CONSULTANCY (OPC) PRIVATE LIMITED WhatsApp. 9051419808 PAGE  6 A SI Classes | www.sic la sses.com 125. Sir Garfield Sobers Trophy for ICC Cricketer of the 139. What is the maximum character length allowed by Year2018 is awarded to Twitter ? a) David Warner b) Aaron Finch a) 140 b) 200 c) 280 d) Unlimited c) Kane Williamson d) Virat Kohli 140. The absorption of radio waves by the atmosphere 126. Khelo India Youth games 2019 was held at depends on a) Pune b) West Bengal a) their frequency c) Delhi d Amristar b) the polarisation of the wave 127. Aber is the digital currency of c) their distance from the transmitter a) Saudi Arabia b) Malasia d) the polarisation of the atmosphere c) China d) Indonasia 141. The term 'chukker' is used in 128. Which app was launched recently to assist a) Rifle shooting b) Horse racing engineering students on practical aspects? c) Wrestling d) Polo a) WiproEQ b) CTSTQ 142. Companion cells are unique to c) InfyTQ d) SiemensEQ a) Bryophytes b) Pteridophytes 129. The first ever Robot Spacecraft to probe planet c) Angiosperms d) Gymnosperms Venus was named 143. How many oxygen atoms lined up in a row would a) Challenger b) Newton fit in a one nanometer space? c) Magellan d) Gallileo a) 'None; an oxygen atom is bigger than 1 nm 130. Rayon is chemically b) two c) four d) seven a) cellulose b) pectin 144. What is graphene? c) glucose d) amylase a) A new material made from carbon nanotubes 131. Biosphere reserves differ from national parks and b) A one-atom thick sheet of carbon wildlife sanctuaries because in the former c) Thin film made from fullerenes a) human beings are not allowed to enter d) A software tool to measure and graphically b) people are an integral part of the system represent nanoparticles c) plants are paid greater attention than the animals 145. The transgenic animals are those which have d) living organisms are brought from all over the a) foreign DNA in some of their cells world and preserved for posterity b) foreign DNA in all of their cells 132.Which state of India ranks first in the production c) foreign RNA in all of their cells wind energy ? d) Both (a) and (c) a) Kerala b) Tamil Nadu 146. Who has become the Youngest Parliamentarian in c) Gujarat d) Andhra Pradesh the General election, 2019? 133. Which of the following scientist is not associated a) Ramya Haridas b) Sumalatha Kapoor with 'nanotechnology' ? c) Chandrani Murmu d) Priya Singh a) Heinrich Rohrer b) James P. Allison 147. Which state government of India has won the 2019 c) Norio Taniguchi d) Richard Feynman WHO award for tobacco control? 134. Which of the following is famous for Siberian crane, a) Rajasthan b) Haryana cormorant, storks spoon bills ? c) Tamil Nadu d) Gujarat a) Sariska b) Ranathambhore 148. National Biodiversity Authority is located at c) Loktak Lake d) Keoladeo National Park a) Shimla b) Hyderabad 135. Which of the following is used for removing air c) Chennai d) Kolkata bubbles from glass during its manufacture? 149. Who has been sworn-in as new Prime Minister of a) Arsenous oxide b) Potassium carbonate Australia? c) Soda ash d) Feldspar a) Malcolm Turnbill b) Peter Williamson 136. Butter is colloid formed when c) Scott Morrison d) David Smith a) Proteins are dispersed in water 150. Which state government has decided to set up b) Water is dispersed in fat India’s first 'Blockchain District'? c) Fat globules are dispersed in water a) Punjab b) Karnataka d) Carbohydrates are dissolved in water c) Telengana d) Maharashtra 137. Which one is found only in RNA? 151. Identify the non Green House gas from the following a) Cytosine b) Adenine a) Methane b) Nitrous oxide c) Uracil d) Guanine c) Sulphur hexafluoride d) Carbon monoxide 138. The World Biodiversity Day is celebrated annually on 152. On June 1, 2019 which football team has won the a) 5th June b) 29th December 2019 Champions League trophy? c) 22nd May d) 16th September a) FC Barcelona b) Real Madrid c) Liverpool FC d) Tottenham Hotspur SI CLASSES : An Initiative of SINY CARE ER CONSULTANCY (OPC) PRIVATE LIMITED WhatsApp. 9051419808 PAGE  7 A SI Classes | www.sic la sses.com 153. NGTS-4b, which is in news recently, is associated 166. Where is the ‘Mauna Kea’ a dormant volcano to which of the following planets? located ? a) Neptune b) Jupiter a) Sumatra Island b) Hawaii Island c) Uranus d) Mars c) Gapapagas Island d) Cape Verde 154. The 2nd edition of World Bicycle Day (WBD-2019) 167. Buddha Nullah has been the main source of is observed on which date? Pollution of which among the following rivers ? a) June 1 b) June 3 a) Chambal b) Sutlej c) June 9 d) June 11 c) Yamuna d) Gandak 155. Exercise ‘Kharga Prahar-2019’ has recently carried 168. Ammonia is converted into urea in out by the Indian Army in which of the following a) liver b) stomach states? c) pancreas d) intestine a) Haryana b) Uttarakhand 169. Where is Roop Singh Stadium located ? c) Punjab d) Rajasthan a) Gwalior b) Indore 156. Biofertilizers convert nitrogen to ______. c) Bhopal d) Jabalpur a) nitrates b) ammonia 170. Which of the following is an indigenously built light c) nitrogenase d) amino acids combat aircraft of India ? 157. In Global Peace Index 2018, India ranked _____ a) Akash b) Vikrant among 163 countries. c) Tejas d) Arjun a) 121st b) 126th 171. In which of the following summits green climate fund c) 129th d) 136th was finalised ? 158. In which year did the Euro, the currency of the a) Copenhegen b) Cancun European Union, come into existence ? c) Durban d) Bali a) 1999 b) 2000 172. Transgenic plants are developed by c) 2003 d) 2005 a) Introducing foreign genes 159. Sentinelese Tribe, which is in news recently, is located b) Introducing gene mutations in which of the following islands? c) Deleting certain chromosomes parts a) North Sentinel Island d) Stopping spindle formation b) South Sentinel Island 173. Integral Coach Factory is located in – c) Kondul Island a) Varanasi b) Chittaranjan d) Bompuka Island c) Gorakhpur d) Perambur 160. The study of ‘end things’ is known as 174. “Swati” developed by DRDO is – a) Eschatology b) Endology a) Weapon Locating Radar c) Entomology d) Morphology b) Anti tank mine 161. Silver gets corroded due to presence of ______c) Rocket Launcher in air. d) Smart airfield bomb a) Oxygen b) Hydrogen Sulphide 175. Who among the following is the Persian c) Carbon dioxide d) Nitrogen mathematician and poet composer of the world 162. Theodolite is an instrument is used by — famous Rubbayat? a) Pilots b) Navigators a) Omar Khayyam b) Muhammad Iqbal c) Cartograhers d) Surveyors c) Sultan Bahu d) Mirza Ghalib 163. The the me of 9th National Voters Day observed on 176. Which is related to genetic engineering? a) Plastid b) Plasmid 25 January 2019 was c) Heterosis d) Mutation a) Go to booth early 177. Every kilogram of seawater has approximately how b) Caste your vote Peacefully much dissolved salts? c) No voter to be left behind a) 1 gm b) 0.35 gms d) Caste your vote properly c) 3.5 gms d) 35 gms 164. The ‘Kyoto Protocol’ is related to 178. Which among the following country administers a) reduction of green house gas emissions “Coco Islands” located in Andaman sea? b) non-proliferation of nuclear weapons a) Thailand b) Myanmar c) conservation of forests and wildlife c) Sri Lanka d) Indonesia d) prevention of slavery and forced labour 179. The word “El Niño” comes from which among the 165. Nag is a – following languages? a) Surface to surface missile a) Arabic b) French b) Surface to air missile c) Spanish d) Portuguese c) Ballistic missile d) Anti tank missile

SI CLASSES : An Initiative of SINY CARE ER CONSULTANCY (OPC) PRIVATE LIMITED WhatsApp. 9051419808 PAGE  8 A SI Classes | www.sic la sses.com 180. Which among the following is measured by an 190. In April, 2019 Asian Athletics Championship was Odometer? held in which country ? a) Pressure b) Height a) UAE b) Qatar c) Distance d) Velocity c) Japan d) Iran 181. Which of the following caused radioactive pollution 191. The highest per capita emitter of Carbon dioxide in along the coast of Kerala? the world is a) Plutonium b) Polonium a) US b) China c) Thorium d) Radium c) Japan d) Qatar 182. Which among the following cities is called “Zero 192. Bishnoi tribe are found in – Mile Center” because of its location on India’s a) Central Madhya Pradesh Geographic center? b) Eastern Himachal Pradesh a) Bhopal b) Nagpur c) Western Rajasthan c) Jabalpur d) Indore d) Southern Tamil Nadu 183. In which country is located ‘ Al ‘Aziziyah, the hottest 193. Tirupati temple is in which of the following biosphere place on earth? reserves ? a) Libya b) Sudan a) Nilgiris b) Amarkantak c) Egypt d) Nigeria c) Simachalam hills d) Seshachalam hills 184. Who is appointed as the chairman and Managing 194. Which state has maximum number of tigers in india? Director of ITC Ltd. ? a) West Bengal b) Madhya Pradesh a) Sanjib Mehta b) Subir Goyel c) Karnataka d) Uttarakhand c) Aloke Sharma d) Sanjib Puri 195. In many countries, Boxing Day is celebrated on 185. The biogas used for cooking is a mixture of which which of the following days? of the following ? a) A day after Christmas Day a) Carbon dioxide & oxygen b) A Day before Christmas Day b) Isobutane & propane c) Last Day of a Year c) methane & carbon monoxide d) First Day of a Year d) Methane & carbon dioxide 196.Who among the following is the first Indian to score 186. Famous folk singer Amar Pal passed away on 19th a century in Indian Premier League (IPL)? May, 2019. He sung a popular song of which film a) Gautam Gambhir b) Manish Pandey of Satyajit Ray ? c) Suresh Raina d) Sanju Samson a) Sonar Kella 197. WL-711, DWL-5023 are varieties of – b) Gupi Gayen Bagha Bayen a) Wheat b) Rice c) Hirak Rajar Deshe c) Maize d) Bajra d) Joybaba Felunath 198. Which of the following three R’s are regarded as 187. As per financial year 2018-19 Reliance Industries environment friendly ? achieved top position according to Yearly turnover a) Reduce, Reuse, Recycle and profit margin. Now which company ranked 2nd b) Read, Register, Recall position ? c) Random, Reduce, Recall a) Indian Oil Corporation d) Reduce, Rebuild, Restrict b) Steel Authority of India 199. IMBEX 2018-19 – a joint military exercise was c) Oil and Natural Gas Commission conducted in January 2019 by India and d) Infosys a) Philipines b) Indonesia 188. The supercyclone ‘Phani’ struck orissa coast on 3rd c) Japan d) Myanmar May, 2019. This name was given by which country? 200. Shaphee Lanphee, a traditional textile fabric, is a a) Sri Lanka b) India GI product from which of the following states? c) Bangladesh d) Myanmar a) Assam b) Manipur 189. Recently a famous sports person P. Kannan passed c) Jammu & Kashmir d) Andhra Pradesh away. He was associated with which sports ? a) Hockey b) Lawn Tennis –––––––– c) Football d) Table Tennis

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TEST BOOKLET Test Booklet Series PAPER - V Time allo w ed : 3 hours A Full marks : 2 00

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1. This booklet consists of 9 pages including this front page, containing 200 Questions. Verify the page Nos. and Test Booklets Series on each page and bring at once to the invigilator’s notice any discrepancy. 2. Answers will have to be given in the special Answer-Sheet supplied for the purpose. 3. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer-Sheet in Response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer-Sheet as per instructions sent to you in the Admit Card. Do not fold the Answer-Sheet as this will result in error in your marks. 4. All questions are of multiple-choice answer-type. You will four probable answers (A), (B), (C) and (D) against each question. Find out which of the four answers appears to be correct or the best. Now darken the oval corresponding to the letter of the selected answer in the Answer- Sheet with Black Ball Point Pen as per instructions printed on the reverse of the admit Card and in the Answer-Sheet. 5. If more than one oval is encoded for a particular answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer. 1 6. There will be negative marking for wrong answers. / 3 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. 7. There are blank pages at the backside of each pages of this booklet for Rough Work. 8. The Special Answer-Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination Hall. You are permitted to take away the used Test Booklet after completion of the examination.

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Test Booklet Series WBCS (Exe) Examination (Mains), 2019 A MOCK TEST Full Marks : 200 Test Code : M1921 Time : 3 hours Answer all questions. Each question carries 1 mark. 1/3 rd mark will be deducted for each wrong attempt.

1. Fiscal Deficit is 8. Which state has maximum branches of public a) Total Expenditures – Total receipts sector commercial banks ? b) Revenue expenditures – Revenue receipts a) UP b) Maharashtra c) Capital expenditures – Capital receipts – c) Karnataka d) Gujarat Borrowings 9. The average annual growth rate of agriculture & d) Sum of Budget deficit and Government’s market allied sector in the Eleventh Five Year Plan has borrowings and liabilities been achieved at 2. The banks are required to maintain a certain ratio a) – 0.3% b) 5.7% between their cash in the hand and totals assets. c) 3.1% d) 3.6% This is called 10. Fiscal Policy refers to a) Statutory Bank Ratio (SBR) a) Agricultural Fertilizer Policy b) Statutory Liquid Ratio (SLR) b) Rural Credit Policy c) Central Bank Reserve (CBR) c) Interest Policy d) Central Liquid Reserve (CLR) d) Revenue and Expenditure Policy 3. Devaluation of currency will be more beneficial 11. Which is the first Export Processing zone declared if as Free Trade Zone in India? a) prices of domestic goods remain constant a) Santacruz b) Kandla b) prices of exports remain constant c) Falta d) Noida c) prices of imports remains constant 12. ‘Backwash Effect' was firstly introduced by d) prices of exports rise proportionately a) Gunnar Myrdal b) Peter suderland 4. The annual yield from which of the following c) Arthur Dunkel d) Kindelberger Union Government taxes is the highest? 13. Meera Seth Committee was related to a) Custom duties a) Development of all handlooms b) Corporation tax and income tax b) Sex-differentiation in employment c) Inheritance tax, wealth tax, interest tax and gift c) Abolition of child Labour tax d) Welfare of working women d) Excise duties 14. Finance Commissions appointed by the President 5. In India, inflation measured by the under Article a) Wholesale Price Index number a) 256 b) 280 b) Consumers Price Index for urban non-manual c) 293 d) 356 workers 15. SAPTA' is related to c) Consumers Price Index for agricultural workers a) Education b) Trade d) National Income Deflation c) Security d) Environment 6. National Agricultural Insurance Scheme replacing 16. As per Rangarajan Committee (2014) the Comprehensive Crop Insurance Scheme was minimum calorie required for an adult rural introduced in the year person is – a) 1997 b) 1998 a) 1800 cal b) 2000 cal c) 1999 d) 2000 c) 2400 cal d) 3000 cal 7. Subsidies mean 17. ‘White Collar Workers’ are included in which sector? a) payment by government for purchase of goods a) Secondar sector b) Tertiary sector and services c) Quarternary sector d) Quinary sector b) payment made by business enterprises to 18. Which state in India has introduced Spice bond? factors of production a) UttaraKhand b) Assam c) payment made by companies to shareholders c) Gujarat d) Kerala d) payment made by the government to business 19. Which of the following countries have Dualistic enterprises, without buying any goods and Economy ? servic es a) India b) Japan c) Germany d) Brazil

SI CLASSES : An Initiative of SINY CARE ER CONSULTANCY (OPC) PRIVATE LIMITED WhatsApp. 9051419808 PAGE  2 A SI Classes | www.sic la sses.com 20. As per recent report of World Bank _____ million c) Finance Minister of India people of India are below poverty line. d) Vice President of India a) 250 b) 270 31. Which one of the following plans is also known c) 300 d) 320 as ‘Gadgil Yojana’ ? 21. During which decade did the population record a) Second FYP b) Fourth FYP a negative growth rate in India ? c) Third FYP d) Sixth FYP a) 1921-1931 b) 1911-1921 32. Whi ch one of the following plan years is the year c) 1941-1951 d) 1931-1941 for the Twelfth Five Year Plan of Indian Economy? 22. Which one of the following institutions prepares a) Fourth FYP b) Sixth FYP the National Income Estimates in India ? c) Eight FYP d) Tenth FYP a) Planning Commission 33. Which one of the following agencies assigns the b) Reserve Bank of India Agricultural Income Tax to states in India ? c) Central Statistical Organisation a) Inter-state Council d) Indian Statistics Institute b) National Development Council 23. Which one of the following states has the highest c) Agricultural Finance Corporation percentage of poverty according to the Suresh d) Finance Commission Tendulkar Commission in India ? 34. Which one of the following agencies of Indian a) Bihar b) West Bengal Government implements the Price Support c) Odisha d) Chhattisgarh Scheme (PSS) ? 24. In which of the following types of the economy a) FCI b) NAFED are the factors of production owned individually? c) Agricultural Pricing Agency of India a) Socialist b) Capitalist d) None of the above c) Mixed d) Both a) and (b) 35. In which one of the following Five Year Plans, the 25. Which one of the following is correct about the National Horticulture Mission (NHM) was Laffer Curve ? launched in India ? a) It is the relationship between the a) Eighth FYP b) Ninth FYP unemployment and growth rate of GDP of a c) Tenth FYP d) Eleventh FYP country 36. When did the Kisan Credit Card Schemes for the b) It is the relationship between the inflation and farmers started in India ? the trend of changes in labour pattern a) 1995-1996 b) 1998-1999 c) It is the relationship between government c) 2005-2006 d) 2007-2008 revenue raised by taxation and all possible rates 37. Which one of the following states is the first state of taxation to impose Agriculture Income Tax in India ? d) None of the above a) Madhya Pradesh b) Uttar Pradesh 26. Who presented the first Union Budget of c) Paschim Banga d) Bihar Independent India ? 38. National Seed Policy, 2002 is based on the a) Morarji Desai b) John Mathai recommendation of c) R.K.S. Chetty d) C.D.Deshmukh a) Kelkar Committee 27. Who was the Chairman of the Sixth Pay b) MV Rao Committee Commission established by Indian Government? c) Y V Reddy Committee a) C. Bangar b) B.N.Srikrishna d) Abhijit Sen Committee c) C. Rangarajan d) None of these 39. Which one of the following is the best source of 28. What is the position of India in the term of generating electricity in india from the view point proven coal reserves in the world ? of sustainable development? a) First b) Second a) Coal b) Mineral oil and gas c) Third d) Fourth c) Hydro-electricity d) Atomic energy 29. During which Five Year Plan was the emergency 40. The basic aim of Lead Bank Scheme is that clamped, new election took place and Janata a) big banks should try to open offices in each Party was elected ? district a) Third Plan b) Fourth Plan b) there should be stiff competition among the c) Fifth Plan d) Sixth Plan various nationalized banks 30. Who presides over the National Development c) individual banks should adopt particular Council of India ? districts for intensive development a) Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission d) all the banks should make intensive efforts to of India mobilize deposits b) Prime Minister of India SI CLASSES : An Initiative of SINY CARE ER CONSULTANCY (OPC) PRIVATE LIMITED WhatsApp. 9051419808 PAGE  3 A SI Classes | www.sic la sses.com 41. Swaroop Committee is associated with d) on the basis of present economic status a) financial products marketing 52. The term of the Lok Sabha b) sugar marketing a) cannot be extended under any circumstances c) banking d) capital marketing b) can be extended by six months at a time 42. Which one of the following Industrial sector does c) can be extended by one-year at a time during not belong to the Sunrise Industries of Indian the proclamation of emergency. Economy ? d) can be extended by two-year at a time during a) Telecommunication b) Biotechnology the proclamation of emergency. c) Micro-electronics d) Non-ferous metal 53. The Speaker of Lok Sabha can be removed from 43. World Investment Report is published by which his office before the expiry of his term of the following ? a) by the President on the recommendation of Prime a) WEF b) WTO Minister c) GATT d) UNCTAD b) if the Lok Sabha passes a resolution to this effect 44. Who coined the term ‘Stagflation’ in the c) if the Lok Sabha and Prime Minister decides so economy? d) if the both the Houses of Parliament pass a a) Lain Macleod b) Milton Friedman resolution to this effect c) J M Keynes d) William Philips 54. What will follow, if a Money Bill is substantially 45. Which law stated that the size of a firm and its amended by the Rajya Sabha ? growth rate are independent ? a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the bill, a) Gibrat’s law b) Goodhart’s law accepting or not accepting the recommendations c) Hubbert’s law d) None of these of the Rajya Sabha 46. Which one among the following is an appropriate b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the bill further description of deflation ? c) The Lok Sabha may send the bill to the Rajya a) It is a sudden fall in the value of a currency Sabha for reconsideration against other currencies d) The President may call a joint sitting for passing b) It is a persistent recession in the economy. the bill c) It is a persistent fall in the general price level 55. Reservation of seats for SC and ST was started in of goods and services the year d) It is fall in the rate of inflation over a period a) 1950 b) 1951 of time c) 1952 d) 1960 47. Which one of the following has been the main 56. How can a first class Judicial Magistrate be measure of the rate of inflation in India ? recruited? a) Consumer Price Index a) By the Governor after consultation with State b) Consumer Price Index - Industrial Worker Public Service Commission c) Consumer Price Index - Agriculture Labour b) By the Government after consultation with the d) Wholesale Price Index High Court 48. Which state in India imposed the General Sales c) By the Governor after consultation with the Public Tax for the first time ? Service Commission and the High Court a) Madras b) Bombay d) By the Governor alone c) Calcutta d) Poona 57. Which one among the following writs literally means 49. In India, deficit financing is used for raising ‘you may have the body’ ? resources for a) Certiorari b) Habeas corpus a) Economic development c) Mandamus d) Quo warranto b) Redemption of public debt 58. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer c) Adjusting the balance of payments by using the codes given below the lists. d) Reducing the foreign debt List I List II 50. Which Committee's recommendations are being A. Article-156 1. Executive Authority of Governor followed for estimating Poverty Line in India? B. Article-154 2. Tenure of Governor a) Dutt Committee C. Article-153 3. Appointment of Governor b) Chelliah Committee D. Article-155 4. Office of Governor c) Chakravorty Committee Codes d) Lakdawala Committee A B C D A B C D 51. In the Rajya Sabha, the States have been given seats a) 1 2 3 4 c) 2 1 4 3 a) in accordance with their population b) 3 2 4 1 d) 3 4 1 2 b) equally c) on the basis of population and economic position SI CLASSES : An Initiative of SINY CARE ER CONSULTANCY (OPC) PRIVATE LIMITED WhatsApp. 9051419808 PAGE  4 A SI Classes | www.sic la sses.com 59. Out of 543 Lok Sabha constituencies, how many order ? Lok Sabha constituencies are from the States ? a) Article 137 b) Article 138 a) 525 b) 528 c) Article 139 d) Article 141 c) 530 d) 532 69. With reference to the conduct of government 60. According to the Article-82 of the Constitution of business in the Parliament of India, the term India, the allocation of seats in Lok Sabha to the ‘Closure’ refers to States is on the basis of the ______census. a) suspension of debate at the termination of a a) 1961 b) 1971 day is sitting of the Parliament c) 1981 d) 1991 b) a rule of legislative procedure under which 61. Consider the following statements about the further debate on a motion can be hailed jurisdiction of Supreme Court of India. Which of c) the termination of a Parliamentary session the following is correctly matched ? d) refusal on the part of the Government to have a) Original jurisdiction settles disputes between the opposition look at important documents union and states and among states 70. Town Area Committee is constituted and b) Appellate jurisdiction tries appeals from lower governed by courts in civil criminal and constitutional cases a) Governor b) Municipal Council c) Advisory jurisdictions advises the President on c) State Legislature d) District Board matters of public importance and law 71. Which of the following statements is not correct d) All are correctly matched regarding the Scheduled Areas ? 62. How many types of writs can be issued by the a) The President is empowered to declare an area Supreme Court ? to be a Scheduled Area a) 2 b) 3 b) The executive powers of a state extends to the c) 5 d) 6 Scheduled Areas. 63. The Constitution of India does not contain any c) Each State having Scheduled Areas has to provision for the removal of establish a Tribal Advisory Council to advise on a) The President the welfare of the STs b) The Vice-President of India d) The Tribal Advisory Council shall consist of 30 c) The Chief Justice of India members, three-fourth of whom should be from d) The Governor of a State STs. 64. The Panchayat Raj is based on the principle of 72. The 79th Amendment of the Constitution related a) de centralisation b) devolution to : c) democratic de-concentration a) Centre-State Relations d) democratic descentralisation b) Establishment of two political parties 65. Which of the following is not a recommendation c) Delhi became National Capital Region of the Ashok Mehta Committee on Panchayati d) reservation of SCs and STs in the Lok Sabha Raj ? and State Assemblies a) Open participation of political parties in 73. The strength of the UPSC is determined by Panchayati Raj affairs a) the President from time to time b) Creation of a three-tier system b) the Parliament c) Reservation of seats for scheduled castes and c) the Presidential Ordinance in 1952 scheduled tribes d) It is fixed by the Constitution d) compulsory powers of taxation to Panchayati 74. "T he Constitution should give India Domination Raj institution. Status ", was a proposal in ? 66. Which one of the following is the largest (area- a) Cabinet Mission Plan wise) Lok Sabha Constituency ? b) Cripps Mission a) Kangra b) Ladakh c) The Mountbatten Plan c) Kachchh d) Unnao d) Simon Commision 67. The Committee of Parliament on Official 75. Which of the following statements is not correct? Language comprises the members a) Business in Parliament shall be transacted in a) 20 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha Hindi or English b) 10 from Lok Sabha and 20 from Rajya Sabha b) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha or Speaker c) 10 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha may ; allow any person to express himself in his d) 20 from Lok Sabha and 20 from Rajya Sabha mother tongues. 68. Which article of the Constitution permits the c) Language of the Parliament is provided in Supreme Court to review its own judgement or Article-119 of the Constitution d) All of the above SI CLASSES : An Initiative of SINY CARE ER CONSULTANCY (OPC) PRIVATE LIMITED WhatsApp. 9051419808 PAGE  5 A SI Classes | www.sic la sses.com 76. Which of the following Chief Justices of India with recommending to the President about acted as the President of India also ? a) the principle governing Grant-in-aid to be a) Justice M Hidayatullah given to the States b) Justice P.N.Bhagwati b) distributing the net proceeds of the taxes c) Justice Mehar Chand Mahajan between the Centre and the States d) Justice B.K. Mukherjee c) Both a) and (b) 77. Which one of the following committee is not d) Neither a) nor b) associated with Panchayati Raj in India ? 84. Which one of the following is NOT mentioned in a) Sadia Ali Committee the Preamble to the Constitution? b) L.M.Singhvi Committee a) Dignity of the individual c) Dinesh Goswami Committee b) Dignity of the Constitution d) P. K. Thungan Committee c) Fraternity 78. The Ordinance of the Governor d) Unity and integrity of the Nation a) is much narrower than a law made by the 85. Lame-duck session of Parliament means State Legislature a) The first session of Parliament after the b) is more extensive than the law made by the elections to the Lok Sabha State Legislature b) The last session of Parliament before the c) has the same force as the law made by the dissolution of the Lok Sabha State Legislature c) The session of Parliament in which the no- d) has little value than the law made by State confidence motion is discussed Legislature d) A session of Parliament, which fails to pass any 79. The Constitution (98th Amendment) Act is Bill. related to 86. Which one of the following motions has a) empowering the centre to levy and appropriate contextual relationship with the Union Budget ? service tax a) Censure motion b) Call Attention motion b) the Constitution of the National Judicial c) Cut motion d) Adjournment motion Commission 87. Which Constitutional Article defines ‘Constitution c) readjustment of electoral constituencies on the of Municipalities’ ? basis of the population Census 2001 a) Article- 243M b) Article - 243 I d) the demarcation of new boundaries between c) Article - 243 L d) Article - 243 Q states 88. Which one of the following expenditures is not 80. Members of Rajya Sabha are not associated with charged on the Consolidated Fund of India ? 1. Public Accounts Committee a) Salary and allowances of the President of India 2. Estimates Committee b) Salaray and allowances of the Vice-President 3. Committee on Public Undertakings of India Choose the right answer from the options given c) Salary and allowances of the Justice of the below : Supreme Court of India a) 1 and 2 b) Only 1 d) Salary and allowances of the Speaker of the c) Only 2 d) 1 and 3 Lok Sabha 81. The Supreme Court of India enjoys 89. If a no-confidence motion is passed against a a) Original jurisdiction Minister b) Advisory jurisdiction a) The concerned Minister has to resign c) Appellate and Advisory Jurisdiction b) The whole council of Ministers has to resign d) Original, Appellate and Advisory Jurisdiction c) The Lok Sabha has to be dissolved . 82. The total strength of the Legislative Council is d) The Prime Minister and the concerned Minister a) one-third of the total membership of have to resign Legislative Assembly but it should not be less 90. Which Article of the Constitution defines the than 40 duties of Chief Minister ? b) equal to the strength of the State Legislative a) Article 162 b) Article 164 Assembly c) Article 165 d) Article 167 c) half the strength of the total membership of the 91. The first joint sitting of both the Houses of the State Legislative Assembly Indian Parliament was held in connection with d) one-third of the total membership of the a) Dowry abolition Bill Legislative Assembly but it should not be less b) Hindu Code Bill than 100 c) Bank Nationalisation Bill 83. The Finance Commission is primarily concerned d) Gold Control Bill

SI CLASSES : An Initiative of SINY CARE ER CONSULTANCY (OPC) PRIVATE LIMITED WhatsApp. 9051419808 PAGE  6 A SI Classes | www.sic la sses.com 92. Which of the following is not correctly matched? b) The barber shops a) Cut motion : demand to reduce allocation of c) The gasoline stations funds d) Wheat farmers b) Guillotine : bring the debate to an end 102. ‘Soft Loan Window’ of the World Bank is an c) Division : mode of arriving at a decision institution, that is – d) Point of order : put an end to the business of a) IDA b) IFC the day c) IBRD d) None of these 93. Which of the following are the types of authority 103. Operation Blackboard aims at attributed to the President of India? a) promoting adult literacy a) Real and popular b) providing education to urban slum dwellers b) Titular and de-jure c) opening of new schools specially for female chil- c) Political and nominal dren d) Constitutional and nominal d) providing primary education in an education- 94. In 2013 three North-East states got their own ally backward area High Court. They are 104. Depreciation means a) Nagaland, Tripura & Arunachal Pradesh a) closure of a plant due to lock out b) Nagaland, Mizoram, Manipur b) closure of a plant due to labour trouble c) Nagaland, Meghalaya & Tripura c) loss of equipment over time due to wear and d) Meghalaya, Manipur & Tripura tear 95. In which year the calcutta high court was d) destruction of a plant in a fire accident established ? 105. Indirect tax means : a) 1858 b) 1862 a) there is not direct relationship between the tax c) 1865 d) 1872 payer and the government 96. To whom does the Public Accounts Committee b) direct relationship between tax payer and the submit its report ? government a) Chairman of Rajya Sabha c) tax base is income b) Speaker of Lok Sabha d) the incidence and impact are on the same per- c) President of India son on whom tax is imposed d) Union Finance Minister 106. The EXIM Bank of India was established in : 97. The original constitution had a) 1964 b) 1976 a) 12 parts 6 Schedules 309 articles c) 1982 d) 1986 b) 20 parts 8 schedules 395 articles 107. Investment is equal to : c) 22 parts 5 schedules 295 articles a) g ross total of all types of physical capital assets d) 22 parts 8 schedules 395 articles b) gross total of all capital assets minus wear and 98. Which among the following is true for the tear Supreme Court of India? c) stock of plants, machines and equipments a) Federal Court d) None of the above b) Court of Appeal 108. Under which 5-year plan did the Government c) Guardian of the Constitution introduce an agricultural strategy which gave rise d) All of these to Green Revolution ? 99. Which parliamentary committee in India is a) Sixth Plan b) Second Plan normally chaired by a prominent member of the c) Fourth Plan d) Third Plan opposition ? 109. Which one of the following is NOT an example of a) Committee on Government Assurances indirect tax ? b) Estimates Committee a) Sales tax b) Excise duty c) Privileges Committee c) Customs duty d) Expenditure tax d) Public Accounts Committee 110. The major aim of devaluation is to : 100. The President can dismiss a member of the a) encourage imports Council of Ministers b) encourage exports a) with the consent of the Speaker c) encourage both exports and imports b) only under emergency conditions d) discourage both exports and imports c) on the recommendation of the Prime Minister 111. Structural unemployment arises due to : d) on his own a) deflationary conditions 101. W hich of the following most closely b) heavy industry bias approximates our definition of oligopoly ? c) shortage of raw materials a) The cigarette industry d) inadequate productive capacity SI CLASSES : An Initiative of SINY CARE ER CONSULTANCY (OPC) PRIVATE LIMITED WhatsApp. 9051419808 PAGE  7 A SI Classes | www.sic la sses.com 112. Under which Act/Policy was the BIFR established ? c) step up the rate of savings a) Industrial Policy of 1980 d) increase the rate of invest ment and reduce the b) Companies Act capital output ratio c) Sick Industrial Companies Act 122. Average Revenue means d) MRTP Act a) the revenue per unit of commodity sold 113. Say’s Law of Market holds that b) the revenue from all commodities sold a) supply is not equal to demand c) the profit realised from the marginal unit sold b) supply creates its own demand d) the profit realised by sale of all commodities c) demand creates its own supply 123. The deciding authority of States share in central d) supply is greater than demand taxes is the 114. What is USP in marketing field ? a) Finance Commission a) Uninterrupted power supply b) Planning Commission b) Universal standards of production c) Election Commission c) US Programme based d) Finance Minister d) Exclusive marketing features 124. Who has provided the Savings Bank facility to the 115. What does a L easing Company provide ? largest number of account holders in India? a) Machinery and capital equipment on hire a) State Bank of India b) Legal guidance in establishing an enterprise b) Punjab National Bank c) Office accommodation on hire c) Allahabad Bank d) Technical consultancy and experts for a fee d) Post Office 116. ‘Marginal efficiency of capital’ is 125. What is the extent of change of the literacy rate a) expected rate of return on new investment envisaged by the end of the 10th Five Year Plan? b) expected rate of return of existing investment a) From 65% to 75% b) From 60% to 70% c) difference between rate of profit and rate of in- c) From 50% to 55% d) From 45% to 50% terest 126. Special Drawings Rights (SDRs) relate to d) value of output per unit of capital investment a) The World Bank 117. Which of the following is not a role assigned to b) The Reserve Bank of India Science and Technology Entrepreneurship Parks ? c) The World Trade Organization a) Training d) The International Monetary Fund b) Testing and Calibration 127. National income ignores c) Technology development a) Sales of a firm b)Salary of employees d) R aising funds for entrepreneurs c) Exports of the IT sector 118. World Bank helps countries with loans for the d) Sale of land purpose of 128. Wh ich one among the following is not true for a) reconstruction and development Special Economic Z ones ? b) stimulating private investment a) No licence is required for import c) tackling foreign exchange crisis b) M anufacturing and service activities are allowed d) meeting deficits in government budget c) No permission for subcontracting 119. A Scheduled Bank is one which is included in the d) No rou tine examination of cargo for export/im- a) II Schedule of Banking Regulation Act port by customs authorities b) II Schedule of Constitu tion 129. Who was the first Indian to be a Fellow of the c) II Schedule of Reserve Bank of Indian Act Royal Society of London ? d) None of these a) Srinivas Ramanujan b) A.C. Wadia 120. National income refers to c) C.V. Raman d) P.C. Mahalanobis a) money value of goods and services produced 130. A economy is in equillibrium when in a country during a year a) planned consumption exceeds planned saving b) money value of stocks and shares of a coun- b) planned consumption exceeds planned try during a year investment c) money value of capital goods produced by a c) intended investment equals intended investment country during a year d) intended investment exceeds intended savings d) money value of consumer goods produced 131. Reserve Bank of India keeps some securities by a country during a year against notes. These securities are always less in 121. To achieve high rates of growth of national comparison to output, the economy has to a) Gold and foreign bonds b) Gold a) reduce the rate of growth of population c) Government bonds b) borrow foreign capital d) G old, foreign bonds and Government bo nds SI CLASSES : An Initiative of SINY CARE ER CONSULTANCY (OPC) PRIVATE LIMITED WhatsApp. 9051419808 PAGE  8 A SI Classes | www.sic la sses.com 132. The system of issuing and monitoring of money c) parallel to the quantity axis in the market is known as: d) parallel to the price axis a) Proportional reserve ratio 142. Which one of the following items is not included b) Fixed reserve ratio in th e current account of India’s Balanc e of c) Minimum reserve ratio Payments ? d) Floating reserve ratio a) Short-term commercial borrowing 133. Marginal workers are people with b) Non-monetary gold movements a) Less than 183 days of work in a year c) Investment income b) More than 183 days of work in a year d) Transfer payments c) Only 183 days of work in a year 143. Cheap money means d) None of these a) Low rates of interest 134. Devaluation of money means : b) Low level of savings a) decrease in the internal value of money c) Low level of income b) decrease in the external value of money d) L ow level of standard of living c) decrease in both internal and external value 144. The difference between visible exports and visible of money imports is defined as d) the government takes back currency notes of a) Balance of trade any denominations b) Balance of payment 135. Demand of commodity mainly depends upon c) Balanced terms of trade a) Purchasing will b) Purchasing power d) Gains from trade c) Tax policy d) Advertisement 145. Who among the following can join the National 136. What are the main components of basic social Pension System (NPS) ? infrastructure of an economy ? a) Resident Indian citizens only a) Education, Industry and Agriculture b) Persons of age from 21 to 55 only b) Education, Health and Civil amenities c) All State Government employees joining the ser- c) Transport, Health and Banks vices after the date of notification by the respective d) Industry, Trade and Transport State Governments 137. T he type of note issue system followed in India is d) All Central Government employees including a) Maximum fiduciary system those of Armed Forces joining the services on or b) Minimum reserve system after 1st April, 2004 c) Proportional fiduciary system 146. Which of the following brings out the ‘Consumer d) Fixed fiduciary system Price Index Number for Industrial Workers’ ? 138. The present Indian monetary system is based on a) The Reserve Bank of India a) Gold Reserve System b) The Department of Economic Affairs b) Proportional Reserve System c) The Labour Bureau c) Convertible Currency System d) The Department of Personnel and Training d) Minimum Reserve System 147. Which one of the following issues the ‘Global 139. For which one of the following purposes, the Economic Prospects’ report periodically ? Government has launched the Rajiv Awas a) The Asian Development Bank Yojana? b) European Bank for Reconstruction and a) To provide affordable houses to people living Development BPL c) The US Federal Reserve Bank b) To provide affordable houses to rural poor d) The World Bank c) To provide affordable houses to minorities 148. Which one of the following is the correct sequence d) To provide affordable houses to slum dwellers in the decreasing order of contribution of different and the urban poor sectors to the Gross Do mestic Product of India ? 140. In Ind ia, the concepts of "minimum heeds" and a) Services-Industry-Agriculture "directed anti-poverty programmes" were the b) Services-Agriculture-Industry innovations of : c) Industry-Services-Agriculture a) Fourth Five-year Plan d) Industry-Agriculture-Services b) Fifth Five-year Plan 149. The Nehru-Mahalanobis strategy of development c) Sixth Five-year Plan guided the planning practice in India from the d) Seventh Five-year Plan a) First FYP to the Sixth FYP 141. The demand curve for a Giffen good is b) Fourth FYP to the Eighth FYP a) upward rising c) Second FYP to the Seventh FYP b) downward falling d) First FYP to the Eighth FYP SI CLASSES : An Initiative of SINY CARE ER CONSULTANCY (OPC) PRIVATE LIMITED WhatsApp. 9051419808 PAGE  9 A SI Classes | www.sic la sses.com 150. Devaluation of currency will be more beneficial if 160. India is a secular state because— a) prices of domestic goods remain constant a) it is a socialist country b) prices of exports remain constant b) it treats all religions alike c) prices of imports remains constant c) there is no religion of the people d) prices of exports rise proportionately d) religious beliefs and practices are discouraged 151. Procedure for creation of Legislative Council in 161. Who appoints the Governor of Jammu and States has been described in which Articles of the Kashmir ? Constitution ? a) the Chief Minister of Jammu and Kashmir a) Article 159 b) Article 169 b) the Chief Justice of High Court of Jammu and c) Article 179 d) Article 189 Kashmir 152. Who was the chairman of credential committee ? c) the Prime Minister of India a) N. Krupalani b) R. Mukherjee d) the President of India c) K. Munshi d) A.K.S. Ayyar 162. Sikkim became a new state in the union by the 153. A federal structure of India was first put forward ...... Amendment Act in ...... by the a) 32nd ; 1974 b) 35th ; 1975 a) Act of 1909 b) Act of 1919 c) 36th ; 1975 d) 37th ; 1975 c) Act of 1935 d) Act of 1947 163. The Electronic Voting Machines (EVM) were used 154. Who among the following is/ are not appointed for the first time in India in – by the President of India ? a) 1995 b) 1992 a) Governors of the States c) 1998 d) 1996 b) Chief Justice and Judges of the High Courts 164. Which is the smallest Lok Sabha Constituency in c) Vice-President General Elections by area ? d) Chief Justice and Judges of the Supreme Court a) Delhi Sadar 155. Match List I (Finance Commission) with List II b) Mumbai South (Chairman) and select the correct answer using c) Kolkata North West the codes given below : d) Chandni Chowk, Delhi List I List II 165. The main difference between the pardoning A. 9th 1. NPK Salve power of the President and Governor is B. 10th 2. C. Rangarajan 1. Unlike President, Governor has no power to C. 11th 3. K.C.Pant grant any relief in death sentences. D. 12th 4. A.M.Khuso 2. Governor cannot pardon in matters enlisted in Codes the Union List. A B C D A B C D 3. Governor cannot pardon in cases of Court Martial. a) 1 3 4 2 c) 1 2 4 3 Codes b) 2 3 4 1 d) 1 2 3 4 a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3 156. Who was the chairman of Second Administrative c) 2 and 3 d) All of the above Reforms Commission ? 166. Consider the following statements a) Bimal Jalan b) Karan Singh (i) 110th Amendment Bill seeks to amendment of c) M Veerappa Moily d) Ahmed Patel Article-243D 157. Who among the following is not a member of the (ii) 110th Amendment Bill is as out providing National Development Council? reservation to women one-half of the total seats a) The Prime Minister in Panchayats b) The member of NITI Aayog Which of the following statement(s) are correct c) The Chief Ministers of States a) (i) only b) (ii) only d) The President of India c) Both (i) and (ii) d) Neither (i) nor (ii) 158. How many judges of the Supreme Court have 167. Sovereignty of Indian Parliament is restricted by been removed from office through impeachment a) Powers of the President of India so far ? b) Judicial review a) None b) One c) Leader of the opposition c) Two d) Three d) Powers of the Prime Minister of India 159. In the Indian Constitution, cultural and educa- 168. The numb er of subjects enumerated in the tional rights have been dealt with under Articles— concurrent list for purpose of Legislation is a) 30 and 31 b) 29 and 30 a) 40 b) 47 c) 42nd Amendment d) 24th Amendment c) 50 d) 57

SI CLASSES : An Initiative of SINY CARE ER CONSULTANCY (OPC) PRIVATE LIMITED WhatsApp. 9051419808 PAGE  10 A SI Classes | www.sic la sses.com 169. In which year was passed the Congress resolution c) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha on Fundamental Rights and National Economic d) The Chief Justice of Supreme Court Policy ? 178. The sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India a) 1940 b) 1931 contains provisions for c) 1921 d) 1935 a) Administration of tribal areas in the States of 170. According to the Constitution of India, which of Assam, Meghalaya and Mizoram the following are fundamental for the government b) Administration and control of Scheduled areas of the country ? of many states a) Fundamental Rights c) Power and subjects to be looked after by the b) Fundamental Duties Union and States c) Directive Principles of State Policy d) Disqualification of member on grounds of de- d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties fection 171. Which of the following are the discretionary 179. Indian Constitution can be amended under powers given to the Governor of a State ? which Article ? 1. Sending a report to the President of India for a) Article 362 b) Article 368 imposing the President’s rule c) Article 372 d) Article 379 2. Appointing the Ministers 180. In what ways does the Indian Parliament exercise 3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legis- control over the administration ? lature for consideration of the President of India a) Through Parliamentary Committees 4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the b) Through Consultative Committees of various State Goverment. ministers Select the correct answer using the code given be- c) By making the administrations send periodic low. reports a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only d) By compelling the executive to issue writs c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 181. The Judges of the High Court can be removed 172. The power of the Supreme Court of India to from their office during their tenure decide disputes between the Centre and the a) by the Governor, if the State Legislature passes States falls under its a resolution to this effect by two-third majority a) Advisory jurisdiction b) appellate jurisdiction b) by the Chief Justice on the recommendation c) original jurisdiction d) writ jurisdiction of the Parliament 173. The members of the Legislative Council are c) by the President on the basis of a resolution appointed through passed by the Parliament by two-third majority 1. direct elections d) by the Chief Justice on the advice of the 2. indirect elections President 3. nomination 182. Which Article of the Constitution of India gives a Codes working definition of the Indian State ? a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 a) Article 10 b) Article 11 c) 1, 2 and 3 d) 1 and 3 c) Article 12 d) Article 13 174. The establishment of a Gram Sabha becomes 183. Which one of the following is NOT a feature of mandatory by the Government of India Act of 1935 ? a) The 71st Amendment of the Constitution a) Diarchy at the Centre as well as in the provinces b) The 72nd Amendment of the Constitution b) A bicameral legislature c) The 73rd Amendment of the Constitution c) Provincial autonomy d) The 74th Amendment of the Constitution d) An All-India Federation 175. The present ceiling on the election expenditure 184. Which principle among the following was added for the Lok Sabha is – to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the a) 25 lakhs b) 40 lakhs 42nd Amendment to the Constitution ? c) 60 lakhs d) 70 lakhs a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and 176. The National Green Tribunal was established in women India in b) Participation of workers in the management of a) 2009 b ) 2010 industries c) 2011 d) 2012 c) Right to work, education and public assistance 177. The Union Ministers hold office during the d) Securing living wage and human conditions of pleasure of ______. work to workers a) The President b) The Prime Minister SI CLASSES : An Initiative of SINY CARE ER CONSULTANCY (OPC) PRIVATE LIMITED WhatsApp. 9051419808 PAGE  11 A SI Classes | www.sic la sses.com 185. Under which law it is prescribed that all 192. The most important feature of the Indian proceedings in the Supreme Court of India shall Parliament is that be in English language ? a) it is the Union Legislature in India a) The Supreme Court Rules, 1966 b) it also comprises of the President b) A Legislation made by the Parliament c) it is bicameral in nature c) Article 145 of the Constitution of India d) the Upper House of the Parliament is never d) Article 348 of the Constitution of India dissolved 186. In the context of India, which one of the 193. Who said, “Parliamentary system provides a following is the correct relationship between daily as well as a periodic assessment of the Rights and Duties ? Government” ? a) Rights are correlative with Duties a) B.R. Ambedkar b) B.N.Rau b) Rights are personal and hence independent of c) Jawahar Lal Nehru d) Rajendra Prasad society and Duties. 194. Assertion a) : In India, every State has a High c) Rights, not Duties, are important for the advance- Court in its territory. ment of the personality of the citizen. Reason (R) : The Constitution of India provides d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability a High Court in each state. of the state. a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 187. Article 24 of the Indian Constitution prohibits explanation of A employment of children in any factory below the b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct age of explanation of A a) 14 years b) 12 years c) A is true, but R is false c) 7 years d) 16 years d) A is false but R is true. 188. Under which article of the Constitution, the 195. At present the Supreme Court of India consists of Government has awarded Bharat Ratna and the Chief Justice and Padmasri Awards? a) 31 judges b) 25 judges a) Article 15 b) Article 19 c) 20 judges d) 18 judges c) Article 18 d) Article 14 196. When the first Law Commission was set up? 189. The Parliament has power to legislate with a) 1954 b) 1955 respect to a matter in the State List provided it c) 1957 d) 1959 is the 197. Which among the following Union Territories has a) National Interest a Judicial Commissioner ? b) Interest of the concerned state a) Puducherry b) Daman and Diu c) Interest of the under priviledged c) Andaman & Nicobar d) Lakshadweep d) Interest of the minority 198. In which session of Parliament, Railway and 190. To which one of the following funds are salary General Budgets are presented ? and allowances of the Judges of High Court of a) Monsoon session b) First session a State charged ? c) Winter session d) None of the above a) Consolidated Fund of India 199. Setting a supreme court in Calcutta is a part of ? b) Consolidated Fund of the State a) Reg ulating Act of 1773 c) Contingency Fund of India b) Pitts India Act of 1784 d) Contingency Fund of the State c) Charter Act of 1793 191. At a joint sitting of Parliament a bill has to be d) Charter Act of 1893 passed 200. Before the independence of India, Dadra and a) by a simple majority of the total number of nagar haveli were under the administrative members of both houses control of – b) by a two-third majority of the total number of a) English b) French members of both houses c) Portuguese d) Dutch c) by a simple majority of the total number of members of both houses present and voting ––––––– d) by a two-third majority of the total number of members of both houses present and voting

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TEST BOOKLET Test Booklet Series PAPER - VI

Time allo w ed : 3 hour s Full marks : 2 00 A

Answer all the questions. Questions are of equal value.

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INSTRUCTIONS

Candidates should read the following instructions carefully before answering the questions:

1. This booklet consists of 11 pages including this front page, containing 200 Questions. Verify the page Nos. and Test Booklets Series on each page and bring at once to the invigilator’s notice any discrepancy. 2. Answers will have to be given in the special Answer-Sheet supplied for the purpose. 3. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer-Sheet in Response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer-Sheet as per instructions sent to you in the Admit Card. Do not fold the Answer-Sheet as this will result in error in your marks. 4. All questions are of multiple-choice answer-type. You will four probable answers (A), (B), (C) and (D) against each question. Find out which of the four answers appears to be correct or the best. Now darken the oval corresponding to the letter of the selected answer in the Answer- Sheet with Black Ball Point Pen as per instructions printed on the reverse of the admit Card and in the Answer-Sheet. 5. If more than one oval is encoded for a particular answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer. 1 6. There will be negative marking for wrong answers. / 3 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. 7. There are blank pages at the backside of each pages of this booklet for Rough Work. 8. The Special Answer-Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination Hall. You are permitted to take away the used Test Booklet after completion of the examination.

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Test Booklet Series WBCS (Exe) Examination (Mains), 2019 A MOCK TEST Full Marks : 200 Test Code : M1922 Time : 3 hours Answer all questions. Each question carries 1 mark. 1/3 rd mark will be deducted for each wrong attempt.

1. Which of the following will be a rational number 12. A man buys postage stamps of denominations 25 paise and 50 paise for Rs. 10. He buys 28 between and . 5 7 stamps in all. Find the number of 25 paise a) 2.1 b) 2.2 stamps bought by him. c) 2.5 d) 2.7 a) 12 b) 14 2 c) 15 d) 16 2.  5  3  = ? 13. The simple interest on a sum of money for 2 a) 8 – 2 15 b) 6 – 2 15 years at 4% per annum is Rs. 340. Find the sum c) 2 – 2 15 d) 8 + 2 15 of money. 3. What will be the greatest number of the following? a) Rs. 4050 b) Rs. 4150 c) Rs. 4250 d) Rs. 4450 a) b) 3 2 2 3 14. 3 men and 4 boys can do a piece of work in 14 c) 15 d) 4 days, while 4 men and 6 boys can do it in 10 4. If x =2y+6 then the value of x 3 – 8 y 3 –36 x y–216 =? days. How long would it take 1 boy to finish the a) 0 b) 5 work ? c) 10 d) 25 a) 125 days b) 132 days 5. (102) 2 – (98) 2 = ? c) 140 days d) 145 days a) 500 b) 600 15. A boat goes 30 km upstream and 44 km c) 900 d) 800 downstream in 10 hours. In 13 hours it goes 40 6. Which of the following is a factor of km upstream and 55 downstream. Determine x 3 + 3 x 2 +3 x –7 ? the speed of the stream. a) ( x +1) b) ( x +2) a) 2 kmph b) 2.5 kmph c) ( x –1) d) (2 x –1) c) 3 kmph d) 3.5 kmph 7. Solve : 83 x –67y = 383 ; 67 x –83y=367. 16. Find the amount of the compound interest on Rs. a) x =1, y=2 b) x =–3, y=2 15000 for 2 years at 8% per annum. c) x =3, y= –2 d) x =–1, y=2 a) Rs. 17316 b) Rs. 17436 c) Rs. 17496 d) Rs. 17846 2  5 2  5 8. If a = and b= , then the value 17. The ratio of two numbers is 2/3. If 2 is 2  5 2  5 subtracted from the first and 8 from the second, of (a+b) 2 is the ratio becomes the reciprocal of the original a) 289 b) 324 ratio. Find the numbers. c) 256 d) 484 a) 4 and 6 b) 6 and 9 1 c) 8 and 12 d) 10 and 15 9. If a = 2+ 3 , then find the value of a – . a 18. The ratio of incomes of two persons is 9:7 and the ratio of their expenditure is 4:3. If each of a) 5 3 b) 4 3 them manages to save Rs. 2000 per months, find c) 3 3 d) 2 3 their monthly incomes. a) Rs. 13,500 and Rs. 10,500 10. 10  15 = ? b) Rs. 18,000 and Rs. 14,000 a) 6 5 b) 5 6 c) Rs. 11,700 and Rs. 9,100 d) Rs. 16,200 and Rs. 13,800 c) 25 d) 10 5 11. Four years ago Manjula devi was three times old 19. A man has certain notes of denominations Rs. as her daughter. Six years from now the mother 20 and Rs. 5 which amount to Rs. 380. If the will be twice as old as her daughter. Find their number of notes of each kind is interchanged, present age of Manjula devi. they amount to Rs. 60 less as before. Find the a) 34 years b) 38 years number of Rs. 20 note. c) 40 years d) 42 years a) 12 b) 14 c) 15 d) 16

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20. At a certain time in a deer park, the number of 30. The sum of four consecutive integers is 1290. heads and the number of legs of deer and The greatest of them is ? human visitors were counted and it was found a) 314 b) 324 c) 318 d) 328 that there were 41 heads and 136 legs. Find the 31. The ratio of an interior angle to an exterior angle number of deer and human visitors in the park. of a regular polygon is 7:2. The number of sides a) 27 and 14 b) 25 and 16 of the polygon is c) 29 and 12 d) 23 and 18 a) 6 b) 8 21. A chemist has one solution which is 50% acid c) 9 d) 10 and a second which is 25% acid. How much of 32. 280 oranges are divided among some boys and each should be mixed to make 10 litres of a 40% girls whose total number is 50 so that each boy acid solution ? gets 5 oranges and each girl get 7 oranges. The a) 6 litres and 4 litres respectively number of girls is b) 4 litres and 6 litres respectively a) 30 b) 35 c) 8 litres and 6 litres respectively c) 15 d) 20 d) 6 litres and 8 litres respectively 33. A number is multiplied by its one-third to get 22. On selling a tea set at 5% loss and a lemon set 192. Find the number. at 15% gain, a shopkeeper gains Rs. 70. If he a) 16 b) 22 sells the tea set at 5% gain and lemon set at 10% c) 24 d) 28 gain, he gains Rs. 130. Find the cost price of the 34. When Ragini divided surface area of a sphere by lemon set. the sphere’s volume, she got the answer as 1/18 a) Rs. 700 b) Rs. 750 cm. What is the radius of the sphere? c) Rs. 800 d) Rs. 900 a) 24 cm b) 36 cm log x   2 23. If 10 , then find the value of x . c) 48 cm d) 54 cm a) 0.01 b) 0.1 35. In a regiment, the ratio of number of officers to c) 0.001 d) 1.01 the number o f soldiers was 3:31 before a battle. 24. If triangle  PQR is right angled at Q, then In the battle 6 officers and 22 soldiers were killed. a) PR = PQ b) PR < PQ The ratio between the number of officers and the c) PR < QR d) PR > PQ number of soldiers now is 1:13. Find the number 25. Find the median of the following data : of officers in the regim ent before the battle. 5, 3, 12, 0, 7, 11, 4, 3, 8 a) 17 b) 21 c) 26 d) 31 2 2 a) 5 b) 6 36. If (2 x –5y ) : x y = 1 : 3, find the ratio x :y. c) 7 d) 8 a) 3 : 2 b) 5 : 2 26. If sin 54 0 cosec (90 0 –  )=1, find the value of  , c) 5 : 3 d) 4 : 3 0<  <90 0 . 37. A boy was asked to multiply a number by 12. a) 45 0 b) 136 0 But he multiplied by 21 and got his answer 63 c) 36 0 d) 54 0 more than the correct answer. The number to be multiplied was 27. Walking 6 / 7 th of his usual speed, a man is 12 minutes too late. The usual time taken by thim a) 7 b) 9 c) 8 d) 12 to cover that distance is 38. The sum of digits of a two digit number is 12. If a) 1 hour b) 1 hour 12 minutes the number is decreased by 18, its digit get c) 1 hour 15 minutes d) 1 hour 20 minutes reversed. The number is 28. A sum invested at 5% simple interest per annum a) 48 b) 84 c) 57 d) 75 grows to Rs. 504 in 4 years. The same amount 39. The mean weight of 8 students is 45.5 kg. Two at 10% simple interest per annum in 2.5 years more students having weights 41.7 kg and 53.3 will grow to kg joined the group. What is the new mean a) Rs. 420 b) Rs. 450 weight? c) Rs. 525 d) Rs. 550 a) 45.6 kg b) 45.9 kg 29. The king, queen and jack of clubs removed from c) 45.3 kg d) 45. 5 kg a deck of 52 playing cards and then well- 15 40. If tan  = and  +  = 90 0 , find the value of shuffled. Now one card is drawn at random from 17 the remaining cards. Determine the probability cot  . that the card is a heart. 15 17 17 7 11 13 11 17 a) b) c) d) a) b) c) d) 17 15 90 32 39 49 49 49

SI CLASSES : An Initiative of SINY CAREER CONSULTANCY (OPC) PRIVATE LIMITED WhatsApp. 9051419808 PAGE  3 A SI Classes | www.sic la sses.com 41. A and B together can do a piece of work in 15 53. Find the missing character : 1 days. If A’s one day work is 1 / 2 times the one AJM, HOT, MVY, TAF, YHK, ? day’s work of B, find in how many days A can a) DXY b) OAM do the work. c) UGC d) FMR a) 20 days b) 22 days 54. Find the odd number from the given alternatives : c) 25 days d) 28 days a) 5720 b) 6710 0 42. In  ABC, AB=AC and  B=50 , then  C is c) 2640 d) 4270 equal to Direction (55-57) : Which one set of letters when 0 0 0 0 a) 40 b) 50 c) 80 d) 130 sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter 43. A solid rectangular block of metal 49 cm by 44 series shall complete it? cm by 18 cm is melted and formed into a solid 55. a _ _bbc _ _aab _ _cca _ _bbcc sphere. Calculate the radius of the sphere. a) bacb b) acba a) 21 cm b) 24 cm c) caba d) abba c) 17 cm d) 19 cm 56. __ ab __ b __ aba _ _ abab 44. A bag contains Rs. 155 in the form of 1-rupee, a) abbaa b) bbaab 50-paise and 10-paise coins in the ratio of c) abaab d) aaaba 3:5:7. Find the total number of coins. 57. __ab__a__bba__bb_a_b a) 325 b) 350 c) 375 d) 405 a) abbbab b) babbba 45. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. The c) bbaabb d) abaaab probability of obtaining a total score of 5, is 58. How many 8's are present in the following 1 1 1 1 sequence of numbers which are exactly divisible a) b) c) d) 6 36 9 18 by both its preceding and following numbers ? 46. The hypotenuse of a right angle triangle is 6 m 3 8 6 8 8 7 6 8 3 4 8 2 5 6 2 8 2 4 more than twice the shortest side. If the third side 8 6 3 7 4 8 4 5 8 4 is 2 m less than the hypotenuse, find the greatest a) 5 b) 6 c) 2 d) 3 side of the triangle. 59. If TIER is written as 7163 and BRAIN is written a) 17 m b) 25 m c) 26 m d) 28 m as 23415, how is RENT coded ? 47. The labeled price of a table is Rs. 7,500. The a) 7536 b) 7653 shopkeeper sold it by giving 5% discount on the c) 3657 d) 3765 labeled price and earned a profit of 15%. What 60. Arrange the following in a logical order: approximately is the cost price of the table? 1. Birth 2. College a) Rs. 5758 b) Rs. 6195 3. Marriage 4. School 5. Employment c) Rs. 6425 d) Rs. 7200 a) 1, 3, 5, 4, 2 b) 1, 4, 2, 5, 3 48. If a side of a rhombus is 10 cm and one of the c) 2, 5, 3, 1, 4 d) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3 diagonals is 16 cm, then the length of the other 61. If “&” implies “Add”, “@” implies “multiply”, diagonal is “#” implies “subtract”, “$” implies “division”, a) 6 cm b) 12 cm c) 20 cm d) 8 cm 12 & 3 @ 2 # 32 $ 4 = ? 49. Find the compound interest on Rs. 10000 in 2 a) 12 b) 14 c) 10 d) 13 years at 4% per annum, the interest being 62. Pointing to Pooja in the photograph, Gita said, compounded half yearly. “Her daughter's father is son-in-law of my a) Rs. 876 b) Rs. 546.89 mother.” How is Gita related to Pooja ? c) Rs. 824.32 d) Rs. 657.78 a) Mother b) Aunt 8 x  13 y 9 c) Daughter in law d) Sister 50. If  , find x : y . 63. Of the six cities, Delhi is bigger than Bangalore. 8 x  13 y 7 Kolkata is bigger than Hyderabad. Mumbai is not a) 13 : 2 b) 17 : 1 as big as Kolkata but is bigger than Bangalore. c) 17 : 2 d) 13 : 1 Bangalore is smaller than Hyderabad but bigger 51. What is the reflex angle between the hour and than Pune. Find the smallest city. the minute hand of a clock at 11:15 ? a) Bangalore b) Hyderabad a) 112.5 0 b) 112 0 c) 110 0 d) 110.5 0 c) Pune d) Mumbai 64. If 'Pink' is called 'Orange', 'Orange' is called 'Blue', 'Blue' is called 'Red', 'Red' is called 'Green', 'Green' 52. Find the missing character : is called 'Black' and 'Black' is called 'white', what would be the color of human blood ? a) Blue b) Black a) N b) P c) X d) D c) Red d) Green SI CLASSES : An Initiative of SINY CAREER CONSULTANCY (OPC) PRIVATE LIMITED WhatsApp. 9051419808 PAGE  4 A SI Classes | www.sic la sses.com 65. In the following sequence of alphabets, which 76. A man, while facing east, turns twice in succession letter would be at the middle of the fourth and to his right, then turns thrice in succession to his sixteenth letters from the right ? left, finally he turns twice in succession to his right. A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P The direction he is facing now is : Q R S T U V W X Y Z a) East b) West c) North d) South a) T b) M c) N d) Q 77. In a certain language D EMOGRAPHY is coded 66. A is the brother of B. B is the brother of C. D is as ABJLDOXMEV . How is ECONOMICS the father of A. Based on these three statements, coded in that language ? which of the following statements cannot be a) BANONLGAU b) BZLKLJFZP definitely true? c) DOMNRJIPE d) FOKMGHERP a) B is the brother of A 78. Six books A, B, C, D, E and F are placed side b) B is the son of D by side B, C and E have blue cover and the other c) A is the brother of C books have red cover. Only D and F are new books and the rest are old. A, C and D are law d) C is the brother of A reports and others are Gazetteers. What book is (Direction 67-68) : Find the wrong number of the a new law report with a red cover? given series. a) A b) B c) C d) D 67. 12, 23, 43, 85, 166, 327, 648 79. How many numbers from 1 to 100 are there a) 23 b) 43 c) 85 d) 166 each of which is not only divisible by 4 but also 68. 2, 5, 10, 18, 26, 37, 50 has 4 as a digit ? a) 2 b) 5 c) 37 d) 18 a) 5 b) 7 c) 9 d) 10 69. I f in a certain code DIVERT is written as 80. Arun is three times as old as Bikash. Chandan SCQHDU, how is CONFER written in that code? was twice as old as Arun four years ago. In four a) QBDNEO b) QDBNEM years’ time, Arun will be 31. What are the c) QBDNEM d) QBDENM present age of Bikash and Chandan ? 70. Rata n earns more than Ra jani but not as much as a) 9, 46 b) 9, 50 Asif. Kiran earns less than Asif but not as less as c) 10, 46 d) 10, 50 Arup. Rajani earns more than Arup but not as 81. Find the missing term : much as Ratan. Who amongst them will be in the AZY, EXW, IVU, ? middle if they are ranked based on their earnings? a) MTS b) MQR c) NRQ d) LST a) Data madequate b) Ratan 82. Select the missing numbers from the given options c) Rajani d) Kiran 71. How many pairs of letters are there in the word EX CL USIVE which have as many letters between them as in the alphabet ? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 0 72. Diya started to move in the North and moved 15 a) 9 b) 16 c) 25 d) 36 m. Then she turned to her right and moved 25 m. (Direction 83-84) :Study the diagram given below After this she turned to her right and moved 35 m. and answer each of the following questions. Now how far is she from her starting position ? a) 25 m b) 20 m c) 35 m d) 32 m 73. Kiran was born 3rd March 1980. Sanjeev was born 4 days before Kiran. The Republic Day of that year fall on Saturady. Which day was Sanjeev’s birthday? a) Monday b) Tuesday   Persons who takes tea c) Thursday d) Wednesday 74. At what angle the hands of the clock is 20   Persons who takes coffee minutes past 12 i.e. 12.20.  Persons who takes wine a) 110 o b) 120 o c) 100 o d) 115 o 83. How many persons who take tea and wine but 75. If 4C3D8A10B5 = 18, where A,B,C,D stand not coffee ? for four fundamental arithmetical operations of a) 20 b) 17 c) 25 d) 15 addition, subtraction, multiplication and division, 84. How many persons are there who take both tea but not necessarily in this order, then the value and coffee but not wine ? of 3C4A2D6B3 is a) 22 b) 17 c) 7 d) 20 a) 3 b) 9 c) 10 d) 12 SI CLASSES : An Initiative of SINY CAREER CONSULTANCY (OPC) PRIVATE LIMITED WhatsApp. 9051419808 PAGE  5 A SI Classes | www.sic la sses.com 85. In a certain code language, “ORANGE” is Direction (96-99): Read the following statements written as “NTETOO”. How would “BLACK” be and answer the four questions that follow : written in that language ? Five cities P, Q, R, S and T are connected by a) ANEIS b) ANEJT different modes of transport as follows – c) AMEIS d) ANFIS P and Q are connected by boat as well as rail. 86. Assume the given statements are true, even if S and R are connected by bus and boat. they seem to be at variance from commonly Q and T are connected by air only. known facts, then decide which of the given P and R are connected by boat only. conclusion/s logically follows. T and R are connected by rail and bus. Statements : 96. Which mode of transport would help one to I. Some cars can fly II. Rama is a car. reach R starting from Q, but without changing Conclusion : the mode of transport ? I. Rama can fly a) Boat b) Rail II. Rama cannot fly c) Bus d) Air III. Rama can dance 97. If a person visits each of the places starting from IV. Rama can swim P and gets back to P, which of the following a) Only I follows b) Either I or II follows places must be visit twice ? c) Only III follows d) All I, II, III, IV follow a) Q b) R c) S d) T 87. Find the odd-one out : 98. Which one of the following pairs of cities is con- a) Flamingo b) Curlew nected by any of the routes directly without go- c) Duck d) Starling ing to any other city ? 88. In the following sequence of alphabets, if the a) P and T b) T and S second half is reversed, which letter would be the c) Q and R d) None of these fifth to the right of the letter which is twelveth 99. Between which two cities among the pairs of from the left ? cities given below are there maximum travel A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z options available ? a) J b) G c) W d) V a) Q and S b) P and R 89. In a row at a bus stop, A is 7th from the left and c) P and T d) Q and R B is 9th from the right. Both of them interchange 100. Find terminal letter in the given series below : their positions and then A becomes 11th from the AABABCABCDABCDEABCDE__ left. How many people are there in that row ? a) E b) G c) H d) F a) 18 b) 19 c) 20 d) 21 101. A person invests Rs. 10,000 for two years at a 90. Soham with her face pointing to the South-East certain rate of interest, compounded annually. At direction. He walks 15 metres and then turns the end of one year this sum amounts to Rs.11200. northwards and walks another 12 metres. How Calculate the rate of interest per annum . far is he from the starting point? a) 10% b) 11% a) 3 mt. b) 27 mt. c) 11.5% d) 12% c) 9 mt. d) None of these 102. If a=3 and b=–2, find the value of a a +b b . 91. In a code language “He gives flower” is written 1 1 as “nop lui na” , “Bunty gets flower” is written a) 27 b) 27 as “dus lap na” and “He gets nothing” is written 4 2 as “nop lap ugli”. How would “Bunty gets 1 1 nothing” be written in that code ? c) 28 d) 28 4 2 a) dus lap nop b) dus lap nop c) lui lap ugli d) dus lap ugli 1 103. Find the value of x , if 4 2 x = (Direction 92-95) : Find the missing terms of the 32 given series’. 7 5 5 7 92. Q2F, S10E, U30D, W68C, ? a)  b)  c)  d)  a) Y130B b) Y125C 2 2 4 4 c) Y120C d) X130C 104. A contra ctor employed 100 labours, both male and 93. 2, 0, 5, 3, 10, 8, ? female. Each female labourer receives Rs. 144 as a) 8 b) 12 c) 21 d) 17 daily wages while each male labourer receives Rs. 94. 1, 4, 11, 34, 101, 304, ? 96 as daily wages. If the contractor distributes Rs. a) 812 b) 911 c) 917 d) 811 12,480 daily as wages, how many more female 95. 0, 1, 2, 5, 20, 25, ? labourers did he employ than male labourers ? a) 51 b) 101 c) 125 d) 150 a) 20 b) 25 c) 30 d) 35 SI CLASSES : An Initiative of SINY CAREER CONSULTANCY (OPC) PRIVATE LIMITED WhatsApp. 9051419808 PAGE  6 A SI Classes | www.sic la sses.com

105. 8  18 = ? 117. Paper charge is Rs. 60 per kg. How much expenditure would be there to cover a cube of a) 26 b) 2  2  3  edge 10 m with a paper, if one kg of paper covers 20 sq.m. area? c) 5 d) 6 2 2 a) Rs. 1500 b) Rs. 1800 106.Rakesh appeared for a competitive examination c) Rs. 2000 d) Rs. 2400 wherein 4 marks are awarded for every correct 118. A c opper wire when bent in the form of a square answer and 1 mark is deducted for every wrong encloses an area of 121 cm 2 . If the same wire is bent answer. Rakesh attempted all the 60 questions into the form of a circle, find the area of the circle. and secured 130 marks. What would have been a) 132 cm 2 b) 144 cm 2 his score if there was no negative marking ? c) 154 cm 2 d) 176 cm 2 a) 140 b) 152 c) 160 d) 168 119. Two trains are running at 40 km/h and 20 km/h 107. The square of a number is 48 more than 22 respectively in the same direction Fast train com- times of itself. Find the number. pletely passes a man sitting in the slower train in a) 25 b) 22 c) 24 d) 28 5 seconds. What is the length of the fast train ? 108. If a man runs 6 kmph from his house, he misses 2 the train at the station by 8 minutes. If he runs a) 23 m b) 23 m at 10 kmph, he reaches the station 7 minutes 9 7 earlier than the departure of the train. What is c) 27 m d) 27 m the distance of the station from his house ? 9 a) 4.25 km b) 3.25 km 120. In a factory, the production of motorbikes rose c) 4.75 km d) 3.75 km to 23328 from 20000 in 2 years. Find the rate 109. If a+b=10 and a 2 +b 2 =58, find the value of of growth of the production of motorbikes. a 3 +b 3 . a) 6% b) 7% a) 290 b) 320 c) 8% d) 9% c) 370 d) 390 121. A cylinder having radius 1 m and height 5 m, is 110. If the perimeter of a rectangular plot is 68 m and completely filled with wine. In how many conical length of its diagonal is 26 m, find its area. flasks can this wine be filled into if the flask a) 180 m 2 b) 216 m 2 radius and height is 50 cm each? c) 240 m 2 d) 256 m 2 a) 80 b) 96 111. If the number 97251*6 is completely divisible by c) 110 d) 120 11, then the smallest whole number in place of 122. Two houses are in front of each other. Both have * will be – chimneys on their top. The line joining the a) 1 b) 2 chimneys makes an angle of 45° with the ground. c) 5 d) 6 How far are the houses from each other if one 112. 77+7.7+7.07+7.007 – 7.707 = ? house is 25m and other is 10m in height? a) 91.77 b) 91.007 a) 10 m b) 12 m c) 91.07 d) 91.707 c) 15 m d) 18 m 1 123. From a point P on a level ground, the angle of 113. The value of 2 is — elevation of the top tower is 30º. If the tower is 3  1 200 m high, the distance of point P from the foot 2  2 of the tower is: a) 346 m b) 400 m 5 19 4 5 c) 312 m d) 298 m a) b) c) d) 19 5 5 4 124. The angle of elevation of a ladder leaning 114. Find the number of different permutation of the against a wall is 60º and the foot of the ladder letters of the word BANANA is — is 12.4 m away from the wall. The length of the a) 80 b) 120 c) 720 d) 60 ladder is: 115. The area of a circular ring enclosed between two a) 14.8 m b) 16.2 m concentric circles is 286 cm 2 . Find the radii of c) 28.4 m d) 24.8 m the greater circle, given that the difference of 125. How many square tiles of side 20 cm will be their radii is 7 cm. needed to pave a footpath which is 2 metres a) 5 cm b) 8 cm wide and surrounds a rectangular plot 40 m long c) 10 cm d) 12 cm and 22 m wide ? 116. Determine (8 x ) x if 9 x +2 = 240+9 x a) 6000 b) 6600 a) 1 b) 2 c) 4 d) 8 c) 7200 d) 7500 SI CLASSES : An Initiative of SINY CAREER CONSULTANCY (OPC) PRIVATE LIMITED WhatsApp. 9051419808 PAGE  7 A SI Classes | www.sic la sses.com

2 137. Due to sun, a 6ft man casts a shadow of 4ft,  1  3 1 whereas a pole next to the man casts a shadow 126. If  x   =3, find x  .  x  x 3 of 36ft. What is the height of the pole? a) 0 b) 1 a) 38 ft b) 44 ft c) 48 ft d) 54 ft c) 5 d) 8 138. On ro lling a dice 2 times, the sum of 2 numbers 127. A right circular cone is 3.6 cm high and radius that appear on the uppermost face is 8. What is of its base is 1.6 cm. It is melted and racasted the probability that the first throw of dice yields 4? into a right circular cone with radius of its base a) 1/36 b) 2/36 as 1.2 cm. Find its height. c) 1/6 d) 1/5 a) 5.8 cm b) 6.4 cm 139. Find the sum of the geometric series : c) 7.2 cm d) 7.4 cm 2 +6+18+54 + ...... +4374 128. A solid spherical ball of iron with radius 6 cm is a) 5650 b) 5850 melted and recast into three solid shperical balls. c) 6250 d) 6560 The radii of the two of the balls are 3 cm and 4 140. Two adjacent sides of a parallelogram are 24 cm cm respectively, determine the diameter of the and 18 cm. If the distance between the longer third ball. sides is 12 cm, find the distance between shorter a) 8 cm b) 8.5 cm sides. c) 9 cm d) 10 cm a) 12 cm b) 14 cm 129. The length of rectangle is increased by 40% and c) 16 cm d) 18 cm its breadth decreased by 20%. The change in the 141. A trader bought a number of articles for Rs. area of the rectangle is — 1200. Ten were damaged and he sold each of the a) 10% increase b) 10% decrease rest at Rs. 2 more than what he paid for it, thus c) 12% decrease d) 12% increase clearing a profit of Rs. 60 on the whole 8.73  8.73  8.73  4.27  4.27  4.27 transaction. Find the number of articles. 130. = ? 8.73  8.73  8.73  4.27  4.27  4.27 a) 75 b) 80 c) 90 d) 100 a) 11 b) 13 c) 15 d) 12 142. In an auditorium, the number of rows was equal to the number of seats in each row. If the number 131. Today, Ram is 30 years younger to his uncle. 5 of rows is doubled and the number of seats in years ago Ram’s age was ¼ th the age of his uncle. What will be the age of Ram’s uncle 5 years each row is reduced by 5, then the total number from today. of seats is increased by 375. How many rows a) 60 years b) 45 years were there ? c) 50 years d) 35 years a) 20 b) 22 c) 25 d) 30 143. In a 20 litre mixture 20% is alcohol and the rest 1 1 water. If 5 litres of water is added, then what will 132. If x  = 5, then the value of x 2  is x x 2 be the percentage of alcohol in the new mixture ? a) 16 b) 15 c) 18 d) 21 a) 527 b) 227 0.16 0.04 0.2 c) 427 d) 327 144. (16) (16) (2) = ? 133. If x : y = 2 : 3 then 3 x +2y : 2 x +5y = ? a) 1 b) 16 c) 4 d) 2 a) 11 : 19 b) 12 : 19 145. Which of the following ratio is greatest ? c) 11 : 17 d) 13 : 19 a) 8 : 13 b) 5 : 9 134. If ( x –2) is a factor of 2 x 3 – x 2 –p x –2 then find the c) 11 : 16 d) 21 : 29 value of p. 146. The area of a rectangular prayer hall is 300 m 2 . a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 If the length of the hall (in metres) is one more 135. In the 3rd term of a G.P. is 4, find the product of than twice its breadth, then find the length of the its first five terms. prayer hall. a) 876 b) 924 a) 21 m b) 23 m c) 1024 d) 1056 c) 25 m d) 28 m 136. The length and the breadth of a rectangle are 12 147. Anupam spent 18% of his monthly salary on cm and 9 cm respectively. Find the height of a buying electronic goods and 32% of the monthly triangle whose base is 9 cm and whose area is salary on repair work in his house. Out of one-third that of rectangle. remaining amount he invested 42% in fixed a) 6 cm b) 8 cm deposit. If he was left with Rs. 12,325, how c) 10 cm d) None of the above much is his annual salary ? a) Rs. 5,18,000 b) Rs. 5,15,600 c) Rs. 5,10,000 d) Rs. 5,12,000 SI CLASSES : An Initiative of SINY CAREER CONSULTANCY (OPC) PRIVATE LIMITED WhatsApp. 9051419808 PAGE  8 A SI Classes | www.sic la sses.com

which cannot be formed using the letters of the  3   3   3   3  148.  1    1    1   ....  1    ? given word :  4   7   10   61  ORGANISATION a) 10 b) 14 a) GRANT b) NATION c) 16 d) 20 c) GIANTS d) ORANGE Direction (157 -1 61 ) : Read the following information 5  1  7  5 2 1    carefully and answer the questions given below :          149.     = ? Seven players L, M, N, P, Q, R and S from seven 2  3  3  6 3 3      different countries – Russia, India, Srilanka, South Africa, a) 0 b) 1 China, Japan and UK – participate in the Olympic games c) –1 d) 2 but not necessarily in the same order. All of them 150. Rs. 480 is divided equally among some children. participate seven different games viz Badminton, If the number of children were 20 more, then Swimming, Boxing, Hockey, Football, Basketball and each would have got Rs. 12 less. Find the Tennis but not necessarily in the same order. number of children. The one who participate in boxing does not a) 20 b) 22 belong to South Africa. P is from China and he does c) 27 d) 30 not participates in Hockey. The one who is from 151. Assume that there are three statements followed Srilanka participates in Badminton. The one who is by several conclusions. You have to take the from India does not participate in hockey or given statements to be true, even if they seem to basketball. L is from Japan, S is not from either India be at variance from commonly-known facts and or South Africa and participates in Football. N then decide which of the given conclusion/s participate in Tennis but he is neither from UK nor logically follows. from South Africa. M participates in Swimming and Statements : I. All Pens are Tables Q participates in boxing. II. Some tables are rulers. 157. P participates which of the following games ? III. Some rulers are chalk. a) Boxing b) Swimming Conclusion : a) Some tables are chalk. c) Football d) Basketball b) Some pens are chalk. 158. Who among the following participates in c) Some rulers are pens. Hockey? d) Some chalk are rulers a) P b) L 152. Arrange the given words in the sequence in c) Q d) M which they occur in the dictionary and choose 159. R is from which of the following countries ? the correct sequence. a) Russia b) China 1. Economic 2. Earlier c) Srilanka d) Japan 3. Each 4. Edition 160. The one who is from India participates in which 5. Eager of the following games ? a) 3, 4, 1, 5, 2 b) 2, 1, 3, 5, 4 a) Hockey b) Football c) 3, 2, 4, 1, 5 d) 3, 5, 2, 1, 4 c) Tennis d) None of these 153. Find the missing number : 161. Which of the following combination is correct ? a) M – South Africa – Swimming b) Q – China – Boxing c) P – China – Hockey d) All of these Directions (162-164) : In the questions given below a) 50 b) 51 c) 48 d) 53 have two statements followed by two conclusions 154. From the given alternative words, select the word numbered I and II. Read all the conclusions and which can be formed using the letters of the then decide which of the given conclusion logically given word EDUCATIONIST. follows from the given statement. a) DUKE b) DRESS (a) If only conclusion I follows c) CAUTION d) NAUGHTY (b) If only conclusion II follows 155. Find out the wrong number in the sequence (c) If either conclusion I or II follows 102, 101, 98, 93, 86, 74, 66, 53 (d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows a) 101 b) 66 162. Statements : No mango is apple. c) 74 d) 93 No apple is guava. 156. From the given alternative words, select the word Conclusions : I. No mango is guava. II. No apple is mango. SI CLASSES : An Initiative of SINY CAREER CONSULTANCY (OPC) PRIVATE LIMITED WhatsApp. 9051419808 PAGE  9 A SI Classes | www.sic la sses.com 163. Statements : All books are paper. following is correct ? Some papers are white. a) 11–6  4+2=64 b) 15+3  4  3=12 Conclusions : I. Some books are white. c) 12+4  2–7=8 d) 10 – 5  6  2=54 II. All books are white. 174. Excluding stoppages, the speed of a bus is 54 164. Statements : No Cricketer is footballer. kmph and including stoppages, it is 45 kmph. For Some footballer are boxer. how many minutes does the bus stop per hour? Conclusions : I. Some boxer are not cricketer. a) 9 b) 10 II. Some cricketer are not boxer. c) 12 d) 16 175. If in a code language “ORGANISATION” is 165. Statements : Some trees are plants. written as “CBDWLQJWYQCL” and Some plants are creepers. “OPERATION” is written as “CXFBWYQCL”, Conclusions : I. Some trees are creepers. how is “SEPARATION” coded? II. Some trees are not creepers. a) EJXEBEYQCL b) JFQYWBCXQL 166. Unscramble the given jumbled word to a c) JFXWBWYQCL d) QCLYWBFXJE meaningful word and then indentify the last letter 176. Find the same relationship as of that word. Ecstasy : Gloom : : ? NEWITIVER a) Congratulations : Occasion a) W b) R c) V d) N b) Diligent : Successful 167. If 3  5  7  2=24, 2  4  6  8=22 then 4  4  8  9=? c) Measure : Scale a) 25 b) 33 d) Humiliation : Exaltation c) 45 d) 152 177. From the given alternative words, select the word 168. A cube is coloured red on all faces. It is cut into which can be formed using the letters of the 64 smaller cubes of equal size. Now how many given word. cubes are there which have only one face REPUTATION coloured ? a) PONDER b) REQUIRE a) 8 b) 12 c) RETIRE d) TUTOR c) 16 d) 24 178. Find the missing term : 169. Arrange the following words as per order in the Pound : Yen : : Polo : ? dictionary. a) Hockey b) Horse 1. Euphrasy 2. Eupepsy 3. Euphonic c) Ride d) Stick 4. Eugenic 5. Euphony 179. If Reena says, “Anjali's father Raman is the only a) 4, 3, 2, 1, 5 b) 3, 4, 1, 2, 5 son of my father-in-law Ramanand”, then how c) 4, 2, 3, 5, 1 d) 3, 5, 2, 4, 1 is Piyu, who is the sister of Anjali, related to 170. How many 7's are present in the following Ramanand ? sequence of numbers which are both preceded a) Wife b) Sister and followed by perfect square numbers ? c) Grand-daughter d) Daughter 8 6 3 7 9 7 4 3 6 9 7 2 1 7 4 9 5 2 180. A clock is set right at 5 a.m. The clock loses 16 5 4 7 9 5 2 9 7 1 4 7 1 minutes in 24 hours. What will be the true time a) 4 b) 2 when the clock indicates 10 p.m. on 4th day ? c) 5 d) 3 a) 10 p.m b) 10.30 p.m. 171. If “GREEN” is given number code as 49, what c) 11 p.m. d) 11.30 p.m. is the difference between the number codes of 181. In a row of 15 children, when Raju was shifted “VIOLET” and “PINK” ? three places towards right, he became 8th from a) 55 b) 45 the right end. What was his earlier position from c) 33 d) 60 the left end of the row? 172. Which one of the given responses would be a a) 14 b) 12 meaningful order of the following words in c) 6 d) 5 ascending order ? 182. In a group of persons, 11 persons speak 1. Plastering 2. Painting Kannada, 20 persons speak Tamil and 11 3. Foundation 4. Walls persons speak Telugu. In that group, if two 5. Ceiling persons speak two languages then how many a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 b) 3, 4, 1, 2, 5 persons are there in the group ? c) 3, 4, 5, 1, 2 d) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1 a) 4 0 b) 41 173. If  stands for +,  stands for –, + stands for  c) 42 d) 43 and – stands for  then which one of the

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Direction (183-185) : Four boys M,N,O,P and four 193. Four pair of words are given. Find the odd one girls Q,R,S and T are seated at a rectangular out. table which can seat three each along the long a) Angle : Angular b) Poverty : Poor sides and one each on the narrow sides. None c) Richness : Rich d) Adversity : Prosperity of the boy s or the girls are seated together. All the 194. If Surgeon : Scalpel, then which pair means boyes are seated at the longer sides of the table. same relationship. Neither R nor S are at the narrow side of the a) Musician : Instrument b) Carpenter : Wood table. O is to the immediate right of the Q. S is c) Sculptor : Chisel d) Baker : Oven exactly between N and P. R is exactly between M 195. If 5: 100, 4: 64 :: 4: 80, 3: ? and O. P is on the imm ediate left of Q. a) 26 b) 48 183. Which pair of persons are seated at the narrow c) 60 d) 64 sides of the table ? 196. If PST = 10, then NPR = ? a) RS b) QT a) 6 b) 9 c) OP d) MT c) 12 d) 18 184. Who among the following is to the immediate left 197. S * M @ K % 9 + A L $ R 3 U 5 H & of T ? # Z V 2  W 7 Q X 6 t F G  a) M b) N If all th e symbols are dropped from the arrange- c) O d) P ment, then which will be 12th element from the 185. Who sits opposite to M ? right end of the given arrangement ? a) P b) Q a) Z b) R c) N d) S c) L d) H 186. If ‘PRINT’ is coded as ‘79952’ then ‘FAULT’ is 198. How many triangles are there in the following coded as – figure ? a) 61332 b) 61442 c) 51332 d) 61554 187. E is the daughter of P who is the husband of only daughter-in-law of K. How is E related to K ? a) Daughter b) Granddaughter a) 24 b) 32 c) Grandmother d) Mother c) 28 d) 20 188. If CALENDAR = AYJCLBYP, Then STABLE=? 199. The letters of the word UNDERTAKING are a) RQYZCJ b) QRYZJC arranged in alphabetic order. Which letter will be c) QRYCZJ d) RQCYZJ in the middle position ? 189. If ‘god is great’ = ‘cp an bo’, ‘great help done’ a) N b) K = ‘er cp fs’ and ‘he is great’ = ‘bo cp dq’, then c) I d) G what represents ‘he is god’ ? 200. Which one of the given responses would be a a) cp er bo b) an bo cp meaningful order of the following? c) dq bo cp d) an bo dq 1. Fruit 2. Flower 3. Seed (Direction 190-192) : In each of the following 4. Pollination 5. Bud questions a series is given with one term missing. a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 b) 4, 2, 5, 3, 1 Choose the correct alternative from the given c) 5, 2, 4, 3, 1 d) 5, 2, 4, 1, 3 ones that will complete the series. 190. DIB, HMF, LQJ, ? ––––––––– a) OTM b) QVO c) PVO d) PUN 191. WYV, ?, IKH, BDA a) OPR b) ROP c) PRO d) OQN 192. 3, 15, ?, 63, 99, 143 a) 27 b) 45 c) 35 d) 56

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