Biologyitempool.Pdf

Tips for Using the Science Formative Item Pools

The Formative Item Pool is an integral part of QualityCore®. Each course has its own pool of 225 multiple-choice items and 25 constructed response items, each aligned to QualityCore course objectives. The items are intended to help teachers measure student progress and determine whether a student or group of students needs additional instruction on particular skills or concepts.

The items are presented as a PDF to maintain the visual consistency of graphics, special characters, and symbols. Each item is on its own page and is “bookmarked” for easy navigation through the PDF. This allows the teacher to easily find and arrange items into a formative assessment, homework, or classroom assignment, without having to reformat any text.

The multiple-choice items are grouped by QualityCore Instructional Units. (See the QualityCore Instructional Unit Plans or the Course Outline to see how various objectives are covered in each of the units.) Each set of items is introduced by a cover sheet displaying the item Identification Number (ID), the correct answer (Key), the cognitive level, and the alphanumeric code for each course objective covered by that item. For Chemistry a Reference Sheet of Formulas and Constants similar to the one students use on the QualityCore End-of-Course Assessment, and the Periodic Table are provided. For Physics, a Reference Sheet identical to the one students use on the QualityCore End-of- Course Assessment is provided.

Each constructed-response item has a coversheet describing the item, the cognitive level, the alphanumeric code for the course objective(s) covered by the item, and the cognitive task type. The items are matched to the relevant unit in the QualityCore Course Outline. The scoring criteria and a scoring rubric follow each constructed-response item in the pool. Three items are designed to emulate the items on the End-of-Course constructed- response assessment. Taken together, these three items provide students with a practice End-of-Course Assessment.

QualityCore™ Formative Item Pool Biology I – Unit 1

The following pages contain items that can be used for formative assessments. The items provided in this document are intended to aid the teacher in measuring student progress. The items correspond to specific objectives for this unit. Each page has one item and the Identification (ID) number for that item. Each item is on a separate page to allow the teacher to easily choose independent items for a formative assessment. The following table gives the ID number for each item, the correct answer (Key), the cognitive level, and the alphanumeric code for each objective measured by the item. The objective referenced by each code is found in the set of course objectives. The items are listed in order first by Objective and second by Cognitive Level, but may be presented to the students in any order. The items are in the PDF in the order presented in this table.

Unit 1

Cognitive ID Key Level Objective 01029 D L2 A.1.c 01115 B L1 A.1.f 00017 C L1 A.2.a 00333 D L1 A.2.a 00345 A L2 A.2.c 00001 A L1 A.3.a 00391 C L2 A.3.a 00349 D L3 A.4.a 00347 C L1 A.4.d 01126-04 A L2 A.4.d

01029

Biology students carried out an experiment to determine if a certain fertilizer increased growth (height) in plants. The students selected 4 different types of plants and planted 10 seeds of each type: 5 treated with fertilizer and 5 not treated with fertilizer. All other conditions were identical. The students recorded the collected data in this table.

Which type of plant exhibited the greatest increase in height when treated with fertilizer? A. Castor bean B. Okra C. Radish D. Tomato

01115

Which laboratory safety procedure is most important for a student working with bacterial cultures? A. Storing nutrient agar in a beaker B. Wearing rubber gloves and a lab coat C. Using warm water to clean glassware D. Recording data neatly in a notebook

00017

Chan wants to determine how much the mass of fungus growing on a nutrient agar plate changes over an 8 hr period. What is the most appropriate unit of measure for him to use? A. Kilogram B. Kilometer C. Milligram D. Millimeter

00333

A homeowner needs to find the surface area of her pond in order to apply the correct amount of aquatic herbicide. What unit of measurement would be correct and the most efficient to use? A. Cubic milliliters B. Cubic meters C. Square milliliters D. Square meters

00345

Hurricanes are rated on a scale of 1−5 by wind speed as summarized in the table below. Wind speed Category (mph) 1 74−95 2 96−110 3 111−130 4 131−155 5 156+

One source on hurricanes provides the following information about the intensity and occurrence of hurricanes in Texas and Mexico from 1900−2004. Number of Category hurricanes 1 65 2 41 3 50 4 16 5 2

Based only on the information in the tables, for the majority of the hurricanes that will strike the coast near Texas and Mexico, what is the most likely wind speed range, in mph ? A. 074−95 B. 096−110 C. 111−130 D. 131−155

00001

What is the best definition of a scientific theory? A. An explanation of how and why a natural phenomenon behaves the way it does B. A description of an invariable relationship that exists in nature C. A speculation or guess about how nature works D. An unproven fact

00391

Dr. Graham has written a paper on the internal temperature of nests of alligator eggs. His data show that temperature determines the sex of the hatchlings. What is the best method of validating the reliability of Dr. Graham’s experiment? A. Dr. Graham should clearly document the experimental process. B. Dr. Graham should repeat the experiment at another time of year. C. Several scientists should repeat the experiment using Dr. Graham’s design. D. Several scientists should observe Dr. Graham as he repeats the experiment.

00349

After learning about viruses in Biology class, Sam decides to have his cat vaccinated against feline leukemia virus. According to cell theory, are viruses, such as feline leukemia, considered living things? A. Yes, because they can reproduce. B. Yes, because they are composed of cells. C. No, because they cannot adapt to their environment. D. No, because they are not composed of cells.

00347

A microbiologist has a bacterial culture with 100,000 cells per mL of nutrient broth, but needs to dilute the culture with sterile nutrient broth to 1,000 cells/mL. To accomplish this, the microbiologist should dilute 1 mL of the culture to what total volume, in mL ? A. 0,010 B. 0,090 C. 0,100 D. 1,000

01126-04

In an experiment to study the digestion of casein (a protein found in milk), students prepared 5 test tubes containing a casein suspension. The students recorded the contents and treatment of each test tube in this table. Pancreatin contains a mixture of enzymes in aqueous suspension. Each tube appeared clear during the entire process until calcium chloride (CaCl2) was added, at which time some tubes became cloudy.

What units should the students use when recording the amount of casein in the suspension? A. g/mL B. mL/g C. mL/min D. min/mL

QualityCore™ Formative Item Pool Biology I – Unit 2

Unit 2

Cognitive ID Key Level Objective 00352 B L2 A.1.b 00979 D L2 A.1.b 00424 B L3 A.1.b 00343 D L2 A.1.d 00328 B L1 A.1.f 00353 D L2 A.1.f 00336 C L1 A.3.g 00326 D L3 A.3.h

00352

Which experimental design would provide scientists with the best data for investigating which type of feed yields the greatest gain in lean muscle mass in cattle? A. Test 5 different types of cows with the same feed mixture and measure their weight gain at the end of a 6-week trial. B. Test 5 similar groups of cows with 5 different feed mixtures and measure their weight gain at the end of a 6-week trial. C. Test 5 similar groups of cows with the same feed mixture, give each group varying amounts of feed, and measure their weight gain at the end of a 6-week trial. D. Test 5 different types of cows with 5 different feed mixtures, give each group varying amounts of feed, and measure their weight gain at the end of a 6-week trial.

00979

Ebola virus is a potentially deadly virus in the blood which causes Ebola fever. Ebola virus is often spread by monkeys. Scientists used 2 groups of monkey kidney cells in an experiment to confirm the first human case of Ebola fever. The scientists inoculated cells in Group 1 with samples of the Ebola virus taken from a human with Ebola fever. They did not inoculate the cells in Group 2. What was the control group in the experiment? A. The Ebola virus B. All of the monkey kidney cells C. Monkey kidney cells in Group 1 D. Monkey kidney cells in Group 2

00424

Edison studies the effects of temperature on starch digestion in a test tube. He adds 2 g of starch and 1 mL of enzyme suspension to a test tube and incubates it at 25°C for 20 min. To accurately test the effects of temperature, Edison should begin a second test with 2 g of starch in a test tube and continue with which set of conditions? A. 1 mL of enzyme suspension incubated at 25°C for 10 min B. 1 mL of enzyme suspension incubated at 37°C for 20 min C. 2 mL of enzyme suspension incubated at 25°C for 20 min D. 2 mL of enzyme suspension incubated at 37°C for 10 min

00343

A student doing research on pill bugs hypothesized that pill bugs would be found in moist habitats, but not in dry habitats. The student found 2 pill bugs at 1 site: 1 under a log in moist conditions and another underneath some dry leaves. This finding did not support the student’s original hypothesis. What should the student do next to determine if the original hypothesis is valid? A. Change the focus of the research from moisture to light sensitivity. B. Assume these findings are representative of all pill bugs and accept the null hypothesis. C. Find other organisms at the site to test for changes in moisture level. D. Look for more pill bugs at the site to generate a larger sample size.

00328

The students used correct lab practice when handling samples of pond water. Which practice is NOT an example of correct lab practice? A. Wearing disposable gloves B. Discarding samples down the drain C. Disinfecting the lab countertop before and after each lab session D. Washing hands before and after each lab session

00353

To enhance laboratory safety, how should students begin a new laboratory activity? A. Wait until other students begin and then follow their lead. B. Gather supplies immediately and read the directions as needed. C. Begin immediately and gather supplies as needed. D. Read the laboratory exercise and gather supplies before beginning.

00336

What is the goal of basic scientific research in biology? A. Finding cures that will prolong human life through the study of disease B. Providing a better understanding of the origin of life in the universe C. Developing a more complete understanding of the interactions within and surrounding living organisms D. Creating a comprehensive set of laws that allow us to predict how matter behaves and interacts

00326

Many insects produce pheromones (chemical signals) to facilitate mating and reproduction. Scientists have discovered that pheromones, if given at a certain time in an insect’s life cycle, can confuse male insects and disrupt the mating process. Crop growers want to use this knowledge to help control insect pests. Which step would be LEAST likely to change this scientific information into a usable technology? A. Determining which pheromones most disrupt the mating of common insect pests B. Determining when, during an insect pest’s life cycle, the application of pheromones would most disrupt mating C. Developing a practical means of dispersing the pheromones D. Developing stronger insecticides to kill insects not affected by the pheromones

QualityCore™ Formative Item Pool Biology I – Unit 3

Unit 3

Cognitive ID Key Level Objective 00322 D L1 A.1.a 00329-02 A L2 A.1.b 00329-01 B L3 A.1.b 00529 D L2 A.1.c 00337 D L2 A.1.d 00334 A L1 A.3.c 00325 D L2 A.3.c 01126-01 A L3 A.4.c 01126-02 D L3 A.4.c 01126-03 C L3 A.4.c

00322

Aisha wants to conduct an experiment to determine whether sun and shade varieties of the same plant species prefer the same wavelengths of light. She plans to measure rates of photosynthesis. Which design would be best for her experiment? A. 1 plant of the sun variety tested under blue light only, and 1 plant of the shade variety tested under blue light only B. 4 plants of the sun variety: 1 tested under blue light, 1 under green, 1 under red, and 1 under yellow light, and 4 plants of the shade variety: 1 tested under blue light, 1 under green, 1 under red, and 1 under yellow light C. 10 plants of the sun variety tested under blue light only; and 10 plants of the shade variety tested under blue light only D. 40 plants of the sun variety: 10 tested under blue light, 10 under green, 10 under red, and 10 under yellow light, and 40 plants of the shade variety: 10 tested under blue light, 10 under green, 10 under red, and 10 under yellow light

00329-02

Mrs. Lewis set up a lab for her biology students using a culture of the small crustacean Daphnia, obtained from a pond that was 20°C. The students are to investigate the effect temperature has on Daphnia. The students will observe the crustacean’s heartbeat under the microscope, at different temperatures, and count the number of heartbeats per sec.

What is the independent variable in this experiment? A. Temperature of the samples B. Number of heartbeats/sec C. Number of Daphnia in the cultures D. Type of microscope used

00329-01

If the experiment is designed correctly, what will the students choose for the experimental treatment? A. Placing 5 identical cultures of Daphnia at 20°C B. Placing each of 5 identical cultures of Daphnia at a different temperature C. Placing 5 cultures, each with a different type of crustacean, at 20°C D. Placing 5 cultures, each with a different type of crustacean, at a different temperature

00529

Scientists collected data on the height and weight of individuals in a population. They recorded their results in this scatterplot.

What is the most accurate conclusion regarding the relationship between height and weight? A. Tall individuals are always heavier than short individuals. B. There is no relationship between height and weight. C. There is a negative relationship between height and weight. D. There is a positive relationship between height and weight.

00337

A scientist found that the results of an experiment did not support her hypothesis. If she is following proper scientific procedure, what should she do next? A. Discard those results and repeat the experiment. B. Accept the hypothesis and exclude data that does not fit. C. Reject the hypothesis and assume it is incorrect. D. Create a new hypothesis and a new experiment to test it.

00334

A scientific theory is based on experimental results that satisfy which criterion? A. They can be replicated by others. B. Their significance is supported by experts. C. They are absolute and cannot be challenged. D. They are inconsistent with personal experience.

00325

After questions were raised about his research, Dr. H., a university scientist, admitted he fabricated much of the data in a paper. Which procedure was probably LEAST effective in discovering and documenting this case of scientific dishonesty? A. Peer review of Dr. H.’s paper before its publication B. Comparison of Dr. H.’s research results with related research results of other scientists C. Inability of other scientists to replicate Dr. H.’s results D. Complaints of Dr. H.’s secrecy regarding his research techniques

01126-01

To determine the effect of temperature on the rate of protein digestion, which tubes should the students compare? A. Tubes 1 and 2 B. Tubes 1 and 3 C. Tubes 2 and 3 D. Tubes 2 and 4

01126-02

How should the students modify their procedure to make Tube 4 the best control for Tube 1 ? A. By incubating Tube 4 at 37°C instead of 20°C B. By incubating Tube 4 for 2 minutes instead of 10 minutes C. By adding 1.0 mL of pancreatin to Tube 4 for a total voume of 2.0 mL D. By adding 1.0 mL of distilled water to Tube 4 for a total volume of 2.0 mL

01126-03

Which question can the students answer by comparing the results of Tubes 2 and 3 ? A. What effect does incubation temperature have on the rate of protein digestion? B. What effect do incubation temperature and time have on the total quantity of protein digested? C. How does incubation time influence the relative amount of protein digested? D. How does the addition of an enzyme influence the rate of protein digestion?

QualityCore™ Formative Item Pool Biology I – Unit 4

Unit 4

Cognitive ID Key Level Objective 00363-01 C L2 A.1.b 00332 C L2 A.1.c 00403 B L2 A.1.f 01075 D L2 A.3.f 00048 B L1 A.5.a 00056 B L1 A.5.a 00398 A L2 A.5.b 00049 D L1 A.5.c 00144 A L2 A.5.c 00400 C L3 A.5.c 00138 A L2 A.5.f 00129 B L3 A.5.f 00393 D L3 A.5.f

00363-01

Shown below is a growth curve for Paramecium grown in a 1.0 L flask containing pond water at 20°C. The pond water is continually filtered to remove waste products, and nutrients are added at a constant rate.

How could the experiment be modified to determine whether temperature influences the population size of Paramecium ? A. Repeat the procedures described using 1 flask, and increase the temperature to 25°C for Days 10–15. B. Repeat the procedures described using 1 flask, and vary the temperature randomly during the entire incubation time. C. Repeat the procedures described using 2 flasks; incubate 1 flask at 15°C and the other at 25°C. D. Repeat the procedures described using 2 flasks; incubate both flasks at 20°C.

00332

A microbiologist wants to determine whether a certain chemical affects the growth rate of bacteria. Which method would be most efficient and reliable for tracking the bacteria population’s growth rate each hr for 24 hrs? A. Counting individual bacterial cells B. Determining the mass of the tube containing the bacteria C. Measuring the light absorbance of the populations in the tubes using a spectrophotometer D. Calculating the size of the population using the average doubling time of the bacteria in the absence of the chemical

00403

When Jim used a compound light microscope to study plant cells, he cracked the glass specimen slide. Which microscope technique most likely caused him to crack the slide? A. Using coarse focus with the low power lens B. Using coarse focus with the high power lens C. Using fine focus with the low power lens D. Using fine focus with the high power lens

01075

Mark saw a documentary on the harmful effects of cigarette smoke and wants to learn more. He consults many types of resources, but knows that not all contain sound scientific information. Which resource likely contains the LEAST reliable information? A. Scientific journal B. Peer-reviewed online magazine C. Library reference D. Internet discussion group

00048

Carbon-14 is a radioactive isotope used to determine the age of ancient objects composed of organic matter. Carbon-12 and carbon-13 are other isotopes of carbon. The number of what subatomic particles varies among these carbon isotopes? A. Electrons B. Neutrons C. Photons D. Protons

00056

Lead (Pb-208) is the heaviest stable isotope known. It has an atomic number of 82. How many neutrons does Pb-208 have? A. 82 B. 126 C. 164 D. 208

00398

When a small neutral molecule becomes an ion, in which way is it better able to function? A. Dissolving in blood plasma B. Sharing electrons with other ions C. Combining with ions of similar charges D. Passing through a cell’s plasma membrane

00049

What is the maximum number of covalent bonds that can form between a single carbon atom and 1 or more hydrogen atoms? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

00144

Breaking which type of bond would require the most energy? A. Covalent B. Electrostatic C. Hydrogen D. Intermolecular

00400

What is the primary factor that determines the polarity of a bond between atoms? A. The total number of electrons involved in the bond B. The total number of protons and neutrons in both atoms C. The difference in the relative attraction of electrons to each atom D. The difference in the relative attraction of protons to each atom

00138

Which solution has the greatest concentration of hydroxide ions (OH–) ? A. Urine (pH 6.0) B. Rainwater (pH 5.5) C. Tomato juice (pH 4.0) D. Gastric juice (pH 2.0)

00129

As part of an experiment, a student adds 10 mL of 5% hydrochloric acid solution to 100 mL of a non- buffered, colorless solution of sugar. What is the most likely result? A. The concentration of hydroxide ions (OH–) will increase. B. The concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) will increase. C. The pH will not change. D. The pH will increase.

00393

When the pH in a stomach increases from 2 to 4, how does the hydrogen ion concentration change? A. It increases by a factor of 2. B. It increases by a factor of 100. C. It decreases by a factor of 2. D. It decreases by a factor of 100.

QualityCore™ Formative Item Pool Biology I – Unit 5

Unit 5

Cognitive ID Key Level Objective 00362 B L1 A.1.a 00545 D L2 A.1.d 00401 D L2 A.5.d 00128 B L1 A.5.e 00947 A L1 A.5.e 00143 C L2 A.5.e 00396 D L3 A.5.e 00197 A L2 A.5.g 00402 B L2 A.5.g 00045 D L2 A.5.h 00141 C L2 A.5.h 01006 A L2 A.5.h 00208 A L3 A.5.h 00399 C L3 A.5.h 00392 C L3 A.5.i 00397 C L3 A.5.i 00951 A L1 A.5.j 01007 D L3 A.5.j

00362

An ecologist measured the change in biomass of decomposing plant material by determining the mass of dead leaves in a compost bin once a week for 10 weeks. Which SI unit would be most appropriate for reporting the change in mass? A. Day B. Kilogram C. Liter D. Pound

00545

Paul and Simon want to determine who is more fit. They decide to run in place for 5 minutes and then measure their blood pressures to see whose returns to normal most quickly. They record the data in this table.

Paul told Simon that the heart pumps more blood during exercise than at rest. How do the experiment’s results support Paul’s statement? A. Exercise increases only the pulse. B. Exercise increases only the systolic pressure. C. Exercise increases both the systolic and diastolic pressure. D. Exercise increases both the pulse and the systolic pressure.

00401

In aerobic respiration, glucose (C6H12O6) combines with oxygen (O2) to yield carbon dioxide (CO2) and water (H2O). What is the balanced chemical equation for this reaction?

A. C6H12O6 → CO2 + H2O

B. C6H12O6 + 6 O2 → 6 H2O

C. C6H12O6 + O2 → 6 CO2 + 6 H2O

D. C6H12O6 + 6 O2 → 6 CO2 + 6 H2O

00128

Which formula represents an organic molecule?

A. CuSO4•H2O

B. C12H22O11

C. AgNO3

D. H2O

00947

What key factor distinguishes organic compounds from inorganic compounds? A. Organic compounds contain carbon. B. Organic compounds contain hydrogen. C. Organic compounds provide energy for cells. D. Organic compounds are the building blocks of cells.

00143

Which is the LEAST likely trait of an organic molecule? A. The molecules may exist as isomers. B. The backbone is linear, cyclic, or branched. C. Ionic bonds are present between the atoms. D. Functional groups, such as alcohols, are present.

00396

Why are organic molecules so diverse? A. They form mirror images of each other. B. They contain oxygen, which has 6 valence electrons. C. They form when any naturally occurring elements combine. D. They have carbon skeletons that vary greatly in arrangement.

00197

Cosmetics often contain glycerol (C3H8O3), which has three identical functional groups. Which type of bond holds these functional groups together? A. Covalent B. Hydrogen C. Intermolecular D. Ionic

00402

Which functional group found in amino acids is absent from monosaccharides, polysaccharides, fatty acids, and glycerol? A. −COOH

B. −NH2 C. −OH

D. −PO4

00045

Jenna’s favorite breakfast food, papaya, contains significant amounts of the enzyme papain (a protease). What substances does papain help digest? A. Carbohydrates B. Fatty acids C. Nucleic acids D. Proteins

00141

Which statement most accurately describes the induced fit model of enzyme function? A. Substrate binding is not dependent upon the shape of the active site. B. Competitive inhibitors block the substrate from the active site. C. Substrate binding slightly changes the shape of the enzyme. D. An enzyme creates a permanent bond with the substrate.

01006

How do enzymes speed up chemical reactions? A. By reducing activation energy B. By reducing energy produced by the reaction C. By increasing activation energy D. By increasing energy produced by the reaction

00208

In this series of metabolic reactions, Reactant R is converted into Product A, and Enzyme X then catalyzes the conversion of Product A into Products B and D. Product B is converted to Product C.

Assume that Product C inhibits Enzyme X and that Product C is not consumed in a subsequent reaction. The rate of production of which product is LEAST likely to decrease? A. A B. B C. C D. D

00399

Pepsin is a protein-digesting enzyme in the human stomach. Antacids cause the pH of the stomach to increase and protein digestion becomes less efficient. What occurs to reduce the efficiency of protein digestion? A. Antacids break the covalent bonds within pepsin. B. Pepsin dissolves antacids in the gastric juice. C. The active site of pepsin changes shape. D. The concentration of pepsin increases.

00392

Honey is composed mostly of glucose and fructose. What property of water explains why honey dissolves easily in water? A. Water exhibits strong cohesion. B. Water has a high specific heat. C. Water is a polar molecule. D. Water is easily ionized.

00397

Methane (CH4), oxygen (O2), and nitrogen (N2) are gases at room temperature. Water (H2O) has a similar molecular weight to these molecules. Why is H2O a liquid at room temperature?

A. H2O has a high viscosity.

B. H2O has a high boiling point.

C. Adjacent H2O molecules form hydrogen bonds.

D. Nonpolar covalent bonds hold H2O molecules together.

00951

The hydrolysis of which molecule provides energy for muscle contraction? A. ATP B. Glucose C. Lactic acid D. Oxygen

01007

What trait of an ATP molecule enables it to store energy for use by cells? A. Its small size B. Its solubility in water C. Its ability to form hydrogen bonds D. Its phosphate-phosphate bond

QualityCore™ Formative Item Pool Biology I – Unit 6

Unit 6

Cognitive ID Key Level Objective 00356 C L2 A.1.b 00380 A L3 A.1.c 00014 D L1 A.4.b 00272 B L1 A.4.b 00354 B L1 A.4.b 00351 B L2 A.4.b 00379 D L2 A.4.b 00368 D L1 F.1.a 00373 B L1 F.1.a 00382 B L1 F.1.a 00381 D L2 F.1.a 00375 A L2 F.1.b 00383 C L3 F.1.c 00387 D L1 F.1.k 00388 C L2 F.1.k

00356

Bryce is planning to plant tomatoes in his garden. He wants to determine if tomato seeds will germinate (sprout) faster in soil with sugar added than in soil with no sugar added. He plants one seed in 100 grams of soil in each of 20 pots. Which experiment will give him the most useful results? A. Placing 5 grams of sugar in all 20 pots; then giving 10 pots 40 mL of water daily and the other 10 pots 80 mL of water daily B. Placing 5 grams of sugar in 10 pots, and 10 grams of sugar in the other 10 pots; then giving all 20 pots 40 mL of water daily C. Placing 5 grams of sugar in 10 pots, and no sugar in the other 10 pots; then giving all pots 40 mL of water daily D. Placing 5 grams of sugar in 10 pots, and no sugar in the other 10 pots; then giving the 10 pots with sugar 40 mL of water daily and the 10 pots without sugar 80 mL of water daily

00380

The graph provides information about the size of 1 rabbit population over 30 generations.

What most likely happened shortly after the 10th generation to cause the change in population between Points A and B ? A. A fatal disease infected the rabbits. B. Area farmers set traps for coyotes. C. The average temperature decreased by 0.5°. D. The average monthly rainfall increased by 0.25 in.

00014

Which level of biological organization includes nonliving factors? A. Organism B. Population C. Community D. Ecosystem

00272

A scientist studies the effects that barnyard grass, a weed, has on the growth of rice, other weeds, and insects. The barnyard grass and other weeds, rice, and insects make up which level of biological organization? A. population B. community C. ecosystem D. biome

00354

What is the correct order of organization of all living things from simplest to most complex? A. Atom, cell, organ, organelle, organ system, organism, molecule, tissue B. Atom, molecule, organelle, cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism C. Atom, molecule, cell, tissue, organelle, organ, organism, organ system D. Organelle, atom, molecule, cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism

00351

Which is the best example of a population? A. All the insects in North America B. All the white-tailed deer on an island C. All the bacteria in a person’s digestive tract D. All the single-celled creatures in a sample of pond water

00379

Which sequence is in order from the simplest level of organization to the most complex? A. Muscle, erythrocyte, lipid, mitochondrion, carbon B. Carbon, lipid, erythrocyte, mitochondrion, muscle C. Muscle, mitochondrion, lipid, erythrocyte, carbon D. Carbon, lipid, mitochondrion, erythrocyte, muscle

00368

During Lauren’s summer vacation, she went scuba diving near a coral reef. She reported these observations to her biology class: • The reef is in the tropics. • The coral branches protect the reef’s many diverse organisms. • Reef organisms depend on efficient recycling of nutrients in the water. Which levels of organization does Lauren’s description of the reef encompass? A. Ecosystem, community, population B. Biosphere, community, population C. Biosphere, biome, ecosystem D. Biome, ecosystem, community

00373

What level of organization best describes a group of living organisms and their abiotic environment? A. Community B. Ecosystem C. Niche D. Population

00382

What is the most likely niche for most insects with wings? A. Digesting wood B. Pollinating flowers C. Eating animal waste D. Sucking blood from mammals

00381

As Juaquin travels by train up a mountain, he observes that the terrain changes from coniferous trees to small shrubs. Which level of organization has most likely remained constant? A. Population B. Ecosystem C. Community D. Biosphere

00375

In North America, prairies and deciduous forests have growing seasons of similar length and temperature. Which major factor determines whether a region develops into a prairie or a deciduous forest? A. Amount of rain B. Amount of sunlight C. Nutrient content of the soil D. Type of animal populations

00383

A hospital patient had a serious bacterial infection that required treatment with strong antibiotics. The patient recovered from the infection, but experienced side effects, including oral fungal infections and digestive problems. What is the most probable reason for the side effects? A. The patient experienced an allergic reaction to the antibiotics. B. The patient had not fully recovered from the infection. C. The antibiotics killed both harmful and beneficial bacteria. D. The antibiotics encouraged an overgrowth of beneficial bacteria.

00387

If a football field in the taiga is abandoned, which group of organisms will most likely be part of the resulting climax community? A. Apple tree, deer, and wolf B. Cactus, snake, and hawk C. Grass, mouse, and coyote D. Pine tree, moose, and bear

00388

When a new volcanic island forms, the pioneer species is the first species to successfully inhabit the island. Which organism is the most likely candidate for a pioneer species? A. A seagull hatched from an egg laid on the island B. A palm tree grown from a coconut that washed onto shore C. Algae spores deposited on rocks by the wind D. Insect larvae carried on a piece of driftwood

QualityCore™ Formative Item Pool Biology I – Unit 7

Unit 7

Cognitive ID Key Level Objective 00355 D L2 A.1.b 00439 C L3 A.1.d 01012 A L2 A.2.c 00348 D L3 A.4.c 00374 B L2 F.1.d 01078 D L3 F.1.d 00369 D L3 F.1.f 00384 C L2 F.1.g 00385 A L2 F.1.g 00370 C L2 F.1.h 00386 B L3 F.1.h 00366 A L2 F.1.i 00390 A L2 F.1.i 00389 D L1 F.1.j 00372 A L2 F.1.j 00371 B L3 F.1.j 00367 A L3 F.1.l

00355

Two students conducted studies to determine the amount of bacteria in hamburgers cooked to different internal temperatures. The students cooked 3 hamburgers: 1 rare, 1 medium, and 1 well-done. The students then took a core from the center of each hamburger and placed each core in a separate petri dish with nutrient agar. Each dish was incubated until colonies formed. The students hypothesized that the rare hamburger core would generate the most bacteria colonies. Eight hundred colonies grew in the dish containing the rare hamburger core, 400 colonies grew in the dish containing the medium hamburger core, and 0 colonies grew in the dish containing the well-done hamburger core. What is the most appropriate next step for the students to take in this study? A. Accept the results; one trial is all that is necessary to test a hypothesis. B. Accept the results; the results of this experiment support their hypothesis. C. Perform more trials using a different type of meat, under the same conditions as the first experiment. D. Perform more trials using the same type of meat, under the same conditions as the first experiment.

00439

Sunee and Jamila grow 2 distinct strains of E. coli bacteria following appropriate lab procedures. In Experiment 1, they use a new culture of Strain X and a 30-day old culture of Strain Y. In Experiment 2, they use a new culture of Strain Y and a 30-day old culture of Strain X. Sunee and Jamila measure the number of bacterial colonies and record the data in these graphs.

What is the most accurate conclusion about the growth rate of the bacteria? A. Strain X grows faster than Strain Y regardless of the culture’s age. B. Strain Y grows faster than Strain X regardless of the culture’s age. C. The 30-day old culture grows faster regardless of the strain. D. The new culture grows faster regardless of the strain.

01012

The graph represents the average fastest speed of 5 animals recorded in one study.

Based on the graph, which species is approximately 1 as fast as the cheetah? 3 A. Elephant B. Kangaroo C. Lion D. Snake

00348

A student wants to determine whether temperature affects the rate at which mold grows on bread. The student puts one piece of bread inside a Petri dish, closes the lid, and places the Petri dish in the refrigerator. Which treatment would be the best comparison for this experiment? A. Placing another piece of bread in an open Petri dish in the same refrigerator B. Placing another piece of bread in a closed Petri dish in the same refrigerator C. Placing another piece of bread in an open Petri dish on the countertop D. Placing another piece of bread in a closed Petri dish on the countertop

00374

Which path best illustrates one way energy travels through a forest ecosystem consisting of mouse, owl, plant, snake, and sun? A. Sun → plant → owl → snake → mouse B. Sun → plant → mouse → snake → owl C. Plant → sun → snake → owl → mouse D. Mouse → owl → snake → plant → sun

01078

Approximately 10% of the energy absorbed by one trophic level is transferred to the next successive level. The same number of calories are available at the primary producer level of each of these food chains. Food Chain 1: phytoplankton → zooplankton → smelt → trout → humans Food Chain 2: phytoplankton → smelt → humans How much energy is available to humans in Food Chain 2 as compared to the energy available to humans in Food Chain 1 ? A. 10 times less energy B. 100 times less energy C. 10 times more energy D. 100 times more energy

00369

Zooxanthellae are protists that live inside reef-building coral polyps and provide the corals nutrients. Corals protect zooxanthellae and give them access to light for photosynthesis. When most of the zooxanthellae inside corals die, the corals also die. Zooxanthellae living in closely related coral species may not be closely related, while zooxanthellae living in distantly related corals may be more closely related. Which description of the relationship between zooxanthellae and corals is accurate? A. It is a chance relationship that occurs frequently only if both types of organisms exist close together. B. It is a chance relationship that occurs frequently because zooxanthellae are common on coral reefs. C. It is a symbiotic relationship that most likely evolved on coral reefs in 1 geographic location. D. It is a symbiotic relationship that most likely evolved on coral reefs in a number of geographic locations.

00384

Which energy pyramid accurately represents the amount of energy in a desert food chain including cactus, hawk, insect, and snake?

00385

In this food web, which is a correct sequence for the flow of energy in a food chain containing leopard seal?

A. Phytoplankton → krill → penguin → leopard seal B. Smaller toothed whales → leopard seal → fish → krill C. Other birds → leopard seal → other seals → baleen whale D. Carnivorous zooplankton → other seals → leopard seal → smaller toothed whales

00370

An oxpecker is a bird that usually feeds on parasites on a rhinoceros’s back. It occasionally picks scabs off the rhinoceros’s back and drinks blood from the wounds. Describe the relationship(s) between the oxpecker and the rhinoceros. A. Mutualism only B. Mutualism and predation C. Mutualism and parasitism D. Mutualism and commensalism

00386

A flagellated protozoan lives within the intestines of a termite and helps it digest wood. What type of relationship most likely exists between the protozoan and the termite? A. Competitive B. Mutualistic C. Parasitic D. Predatory

00366

Which statement best describes a population at, or near, its carrying capacity? A. The birth and death rates of the population are approximately the same. B. The birthrate of the population is declining significantly. C. The overall population is increasing exponentially. D. The overall population is increasing logistically.

00390

Using the graph, determine which statement most likely describes the relationship between the population of organisms and the resources available to the population.

A. There are adequate resources to support this stable population. B. There are adequate resources to support this unstable population. C. There are inadequate resources to support this stable population. D. There are inadequate resources to support this unstable population.

00389

Louise places 1 bacterium in a Petri dish at time 0. The population increases exponentially, doubling every hour, and there are no limiting factors. How many bacteria will be in the Petri dish after 6 hrs ? A. 6 B. 16 C. 32 D. 64

00372

For years, runoff from a nearby industrial plant has entered a certain lake. Environmental scientists observe that this runoff causes seasonal blooms of algae in the lake. Which graph illustrates the most likely algae growth pattern from the beginning to the end of the spring seasonal bloom?

A. C.

B. D.

00371

In a classic study of population growth, G.F. Gause obtained data on growth rates of 2 species of Paramecium, a common ciliate protozoan. The 2 species grew in separate cultures. The graph shows his results.

According to these data, which is the most accurate comparison of the 2 species’ growth rates? A. Both show exponential growth, but P. caudatum has a higher rate of increase. B. Both show logistic growth, but P. caudatum has a higher rate of increase. C. P. caudatum shows exponential growth, but P. bursaria shows logistic growth. D. P. bursaria shows exponential growth, but P. caudatum shows logistic growth.

00367

Assume burning 1 kg of organic plant material (biomass) as fuel releases the same amount of carbon dioxide (CO2) as burning 1 kg of fossil fuels. Why would burning biomass instead of fossil fuel keep the amount of CO2 in the atmosphere relatively stable?

A. Plants capture CO2 during photosynthesis and release it when they are burned as biomass.

B. CO2 released by burning biomass is from a natural source and does not affect the atmosphere. C. Sunlight breaks down the gases released by burning biomass before they reach the atmosphere. D. Gases released by burning biomass contain more environmental pollutants than the gases released by burning fossil fuels.

QualityCore™ Formative Item Pool Biology I – Unit 8

Unit 8

Cognitive ID Key Level Objective 00331-02 A L2 A.1.a 00378 C L3 A.1.c 00344 C L3 A.1.d 00446 B L3 A.1.d 00440 C L2 A.1.f 00962 B L2 A.2.c 00331-01 B L3 A.3.a 00335 A L2 A.4.c 01019 B L2 B.1.a 00415 D L1 B.1.b 00416 D L2 B.1.c 00422 A L2 B.1.c 00222 B L3 B.1.d 01013 A L2 B.1.e 01102 B L2 B.1.e 00448 C L3 B.1.e 00425 A L2 B.1.f 00406 B L2 B.1.g 00407 A L2 B.1.g 00986 A L1 B.1.j 00408 A L2 B.1.j 00426 A L2 B.1.j

00331-02

Lydia works in a flower shop after school. She notices that the hydrangeas in Container 1 have pink blossoms, while the hydrangeas in Container 2 have blue blossoms. She makes sure they all receive the same amount of light and water. Her boss tells her that the flowers were all grown from the same seed variety. Lydia discovers, after testing the soil, that although the same type of soil was used, the soil in Container 1 has a pH of 6.0, and the soil in Container 2 has a pH of 5.0.

Lydia most likely conducted her investigation to answer what question about hydrangeas? A. How does the chemistry of the soil affect the color of hydrangea blossoms? B. What role do genetic factors play in hydrangea color? C. Do varying degrees of light affect hydrangea color? D. What type of soil will produce a hydrangea with both pink and blue blossoms?

00378

The number and type of macroinvertebrates are good indicators of the amount of pollution in a stream because they tolerate varying levels of pollution. A biology textbook provides this table of tolerance levels.

Biology students gather samples from a local stream and conclude that it is extremely polluted. Which table most likely reflects the data gathered by the students? A. C.

B. D.

00344

Several students in a biology lab tested mealworms’ preference for damp or dry conditions. The students placed 50 mealworms one-by-one in the middle of a layer of paper towels with a damp area and a dry area. The mealworms were allowed to move freely over the paper towels for 10 min. After 10 min the students noted the location of each mealworm. The data is summarized below.

In a second experiment the same 50 mealworms were exposed to each of 4 different arrangements of paper towels with food sources in different locations. Food sources just off the paper towels can be sensed by the mealworms, but are out of their reach. The diagram below shows the location of the worms after 10 min.

Which conclusion best supports the data collected in both experiments? A. Mealworms prefer damp conditions over dry conditions. B. Mealworms prefer dry conditions over damp conditions. C. Mealworms are more strongly influenced by food than by damp or dry conditions. D. Mealworms are more strongly influenced by damp or dry conditions than by food.

00446

Lupe performed an experiment to test the ability of different heavy metals to inhibit normal enzyme activity in the liver. Lupe placed 5 g of freshly ground chicken liver in each of 5 test tubes. In 4 of the test tubes, she also placed equal amounts of a heavy metal. She then added 6 mL of hydrogen peroxide to all 5 test tubes. She used the resulting bubbles as a visual indicator of enzyme activity in the liver and recorded the data in this table.

Using Lupe’s data, what is the most accurate conclusion regarding heavy metals’ inhibition of enzyme activity? A. All heavy metals inhibit enzyme activity in the liver. B. Some heavy metals inhibit enzyme activity in the liver. C. Of the metals Lupe tested, Zn is the most effective inhibitor of enzyme activity in the liver. D. Of the metals Lupe tested, Pb is the least effective inhibitor of enzyme activity.

00440

Keiko transfers samples of bacteria from a culture tube to several Petri dishes. Which technique should she use to minimize contamination of the culture? A. Setting the Petri dish lid on the lab table B. Holding the culture tube upright when the lid is off C. Disinfecting the lab table before and after the transfer D. Sliding the transfer pipette along the side of the culture tube

00962

Biologists studying the effects of pH level on tadpole development gathered data and recorded it in this graph.

In the graph, between which 2 consecutive pH levels is there the greatest difference in the number of tadpoles? A. 5.5 and 6.0 B. 6.0 and 6.5 C. 6.5 and 7.0 D. 7.5 and 8.0

00331-01

As described in the scenario above which fundamental assumption of science did Lydia put into practice while working at the flower shop? A. We arrive at knowledge mainly by using our sense of intuition. B. We learn how the natural world works by observing it and by conducting experiments. C. We can develop a theory based on a few consistent experimental results. D. We can manipulate several variables at a time in a controlled experiment.

00335

Ming is having trouble sleeping and decides to participate in a study to determine whether a certain medication helps people sleep. There are 30 volunteers, each of whom is assigned to 1 of 2 groups. Volunteers in group 1 are given the medication, and volunteers in group 2 are given a placebo (a pill with no medication). Which step is important in order to ensure scientifically valid results? A. Assigning the subjects to groups at random B. Assigning all of the subjects with sleeping problems to the placebo group C. Telling subjects if they are receiving the medicine or the placebo D. Ensuring that the researchers can determine which subjects are getting the medicine

01019

The presence of which structure indicates that cells are NOT photosynthetic bacteria? A. Cell wall B. Chloroplast C. DNA D. Ribosome

00415

Megan examines a liver cell and observes an organelle with many smooth-sided channels. Which activity would identify this organelle as the Golgi apparatus? A. Digestion of macromolecules and old organelles B. Detoxification of poisonous molecules within the cell C. Harvesting of energy from organic molecules to make ATP D. Processing and packaging of cellular materials prior to export

00416

Naomi adds cycloheximide to cells grown in a test tube. Within minutes, she identifies short incomplete segments of proteins in the cells. On which organelle does cycloheximide act? A. Endoplasmic reticulum B. Golgi apparatus C. Nucleus D. Ribosome

00422

After Harrison adds a chemical to cells growing in a test tube, proteins accumulate in the cells’ endoplasmic reticula. The chemical prevents movement of proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum to which organelle? A. Golgi apparatus B. Lysosome C. Mitochondrion D. Ribosome

00222

A scientist adds an antibody specific to the actin protein to a prepared culture of macrophages. The macrophages exhibit active movement before, but not after, treatment. What is the most accurate conclusion about the function of actin? A. Actin depolymerizes microtubular arrays. B. Actin plays a role in the function of pseudopodia. C. Actin disrupts cellular activities in the cytoskeleton. D. Actin guides the movement of chromosomes in macrophages.

01013

By what process does a sodium ion exit a cell through the plasma membrane? A. Active transport B. Exocytosis C. Facilitated diffusion D. Osmosis

01102

A scientist places a cell in a solution, and over time the cell gains mass and swells. What is the most likely explanation for the cell’s gain in mass? A. The solution is hypertonic to the cell. B. The solution is hypotonic to the cell. C. The solution and the cell have equal concentrations of solutes. D. The solution and the cell have equal concentrations of water.

00448

Biochemists have created an artificial cell membrane that they hope to insert into artificial red blood cells for future dehydration and transportation into outer space. When scientists stain natural cell membranes with a heavy metal, they can view the membranes with an electron microscope. The heavy metal stains the polar hydrophilic heads of phospholipid membranes. If the artificial membranes resemble natural membranes, what area(s), when viewed under a microscope, would appear stained? (Note: Shading represents stains.)

00425

A Paramecium lives in an environment that is hypotonic to its cytoplasm. How does the Paramecium maintain homeostasis under these conditions? A. It expels excess water using contractile vacuoles. B. It expels excess sodium using the sodium- potassium pump. C. It absorbs additional water through osmosis. D. It absorbs additional sodium through facilitated diffusion.

00406

Red blood cells have a salt content of 0.9%. When a microbiologist places red blood cells in pure water, osmosis occurs. What net movement of a substance occurs in this instance of osmosis? A. Water molecules move out of the cells. B. Water molecules move into the cells. C. Salt ions move out of the cells. D. Salt ions move into the cells.

00407

The diagram shows a cell membrane composed of a phospholipid bilayer with a channel protein. Each x represents the same type of molecule inside or outside the cell. Facilitated diffusion moves these molecules across the cell membrane.

In what direction do these molecules move and through which structure? A. Into the cell through the channel protein B. Into the cell through the phospholipid bilayer C. Out of the cell through the channel protein D. Out of the cell through the phospholipid bilayer

00986

During which phase of mitosis do spindle fibers separate sister chromatids? A. Anaphase B. Metaphase C. Prophase D. Telophase

00408

These diagrams represent different stages of animal cell division.

From start to finish, what is the correct order of the stages? A. 2, 4, 3, 1 B. 2, 3, 4, 1 C. 3, 2, 1, 4 D. 3, 1, 2, 4

00426

What is the purpose of mitosis? A. To produce 2 cells, each with 1 complete set of chromosomes B. To produce 2 cells, each with half the normal number of chromosomes C. To produce 4 cells, each with 1 complete set of chromosomes D. To produce 4 cells, each with half the normal number of chromosomes

QualityCore™ Formative Item Pool Biology I – Unit 9

Unit 9

Cognitive ID Key Level Objective 00442 A L1 B.1.h 00421 C L2 B.1.h 00443 C L2 B.1.h 00234 C L3 B.1.h 00235 B L3 B.1.i

00442

Which process generates most of the ATP produced during cellular respiration? A. Electron transport chain B. Fermentation C. Glycolysis D. Krebs cycle

00421

The aerobic and anaerobic pathways of cellular respiration require which products of glycolysis? A. NADH and ATP B. Pyruvate and ATP C. Pyruvate and NADH D. ATP, pyruvate, and NADH

00443

While investigating yeast respiration, a researcher detects ethanol in the yeast culture. Which molecules does the yeast culture also contain? A. Lactic acid and ATP B. Oxygen and lactic acid C. Carbon dioxide and ATP D. Oxygen and carbon dioxide

00234

During aerobic cellular respiration, where do ATP molecules form? A. Cytoplasm only B. Mitochondrial matrix only C. Mitochondrial matrix and mitochondrial membrane only D. Cytoplasm, mitochondrial matrix, and mitochondrial membrane only

00235

A science teacher performs an experiment to measure the CO2 uptake of the green algae Chlorella under light conditions. He prepares a suspension of Chlorella and places it in a growth chamber near a lamp. A student disrupts the experiment by turning off the lamp, creating dark conditions. Why is there a negative uptake of CO2 under dark conditions?

A. CO2 production requires light. B. Cellular respiration is taking place. C. Chlorella is actively photosynthesizing. D. Glucose production in the dark requires less CO2 .

QualityCore™ Formative Item Pool Biology I – Unit 10

Unit 10

Cognitive ID Key Level Objective 00531 C L2 A.1.a 00324 A L3 A.1.d 00323 C L1 A.2.a 00346 A L2 A.3.a 00561 B L2 A.3.c 00327 D L2 A.4.c 00444 A L2 E.2.a 01085 D L2 E.2.a 00405 D L1 E.2.b 00418 B L2 E.2.b 00419 D L2 E.2.c 00447 D L2 E.2.d 00404 A L3 E.2.d 00420 D L3 E.2.e

00531

Scientific experimentation can most likely answer which question regarding a bird population? A. How does a baby bird learn to recognize the type of food it can eat? B. How does the type of food a bird eats affect the number of offspring it produces? C. What is the relationship between beak size and the number of offspring a bird produces? D. Why does a bird with a very short beak produce more offspring than a bird with a very long beak?

00324

Aden wanted to determine the effects of stress on heart rate. As his stress factor, he asked subjects to complete math problems. He randomly divided his biology class of 24 students into 2 groups. He gave 1 group a timed test of difficult algebra problems; he gave the other group a timed test of simple arithmetic problems. Aden measured heart rates both before and immediately after the test. He hypothesized that the group given the difficult problems would show a higher mean heart rate (that is, a higher stress level) than those given simple problems. Results are shown below.

Because the results were so similar, Aden decided to do a second test in which he collected additional types of information. Which changes in experimental design would best help him accept or reject his initial hypothesis? A. Heart rates of the 2 groups taken during the test B. Average math grades of the 2 groups C. Before and after heart rates when both groups are given a more difficult test D. Before and after heart rates when a single group is given the same test

00323

Omid is spending the semester in England, where the road signs are in km. If he drives from his school into a town 6 mi away, how many km will he drive? A. 3.73 B. 4.00 C. 9.66 D. 11.00

00346

Ella told her sister the sun would set at 6:30 p.m. and there would be a full moon on Thursday night. Under which basic assumption of science is she operating? A. Nature is orderly. B. Knowledge is superior to ignorance. C. Nothing is self-evident. D. All phenomena have natural causes.

00561

In an experiment, 6,000 people with a common cold who drank orange juice daily had symptoms that lasted an average of 4 days. Another 6,000 people with a common cold who did not drink orange juice daily had symptoms that lasted an average of 7 days. Scientists repeated the experiment 3 times with the same results. They concluded that orange juice reduces the length of the common cold. Was this conclusion valid, and why? A. Yes, because vitamin C is a known common cold cure. B. Yes, because scientists repeated the experiment. C. No, because the sample size was too small. D. No, because some of the people who drank orange juice did not feel better.

00327

A teacher challenged her students to design an experiment to study the importance of eyesight in the ability of crayfish to avoid land predators such as raccoons. The experiment was to be set up in a laboratory, using live crayfish, but simulated predators. Students set up control groups in which crayfish could see normally and experimental groups that restricted their ability to see. However, the students used different methods of restricting the crayfish’s eyesight. Given the rules of experimental design and the requirements of the challenge, which method would be the most appropriate treatment for the experimental group? A. Keeping the crayfish in the dark B. Cutting off the crayfish’s eyestalks C. Separating the crayfish from the simulated predator using different colored filters D. Covering the crayfish’s eyestalks with a black plastic hood to restrict sight

00444

Adam visits Redwood National Park and learns that redwood trees grow to heights of more than 100 m. How do trees get water and nutrients from the soil to their tops? A. Transpiration from the leaves pulls water upward. B. Gravity continually pulls water and nutrients upward. C. Xylem contract and push water and nutrients upward. D. Trees use energy from ATP to push water and nutrients upward.

01085

Lamila wants to determine the rate at which a plant uses water. She fills a beaker with 80 mL of water and places a leafy flower stem into the beaker through a small opening in the beaker’s cap. Lamila then places the beaker near a sunny window. One week later, 47 mL of water remains in the beaker. What plant process best explains the loss of water in the beaker? A. Germination B. Photosynthesis C. Respiration D. Transpiration

00405

Hummingbirds transfer pollen from one flower to another while feeding. What plant structure contains the pollen? A. Carpel B. Petal C. Sepal D. Stamen

00418

Plant cells contain both a cell wall and a cell membrane. What is the composition of the cell wall, and where is it located in relation to the cell membrane? A. Cellulose, inside the cell membrane B. Cellulose, outside the cell membrane C. Glucose, inside the cell membrane D. Glucose, outside the cell membrane

00419

While performing an experiment using green spinach leaves, Jamie identifies chlorophyll and pigments of several other colors. What is the most accurate conclusion Jamie can make about the pigments in spinach leaves? A. Chlorophyll decomposes to reveal other pigments. B. Chlorophyll absorbs light while other pigments reflect light. C. Chlorophyll passes light energy to other pigments in the leaves. D. Chlorophyll appears in higher concentrations than other pigments.

00447

What is the correct sequence of events during photosynthesis? A. Light absorption, photolysis, electron transport chain, Calvin cycle, chemiosmosis B. Photolysis, light absorption, chemiosmosis, Calvin cycle, electron transport chain C. Chemiosmosis, light absorption, electron transport chain, Calvin cycle, photolysis D. Light absorption, electron transport chain, photolysis, chemiosmosis, Calvin cycle

00404

Thylakoid membranes within chloroplasts contain chlorophyll. The Calvin cycle occurs in the stroma of the chloroplasts. How are the processes occurring within the Calvin cycle and the thylakoid membrane connected? A. The Calvin cycle uses high-energy molecules formed within the thylakoid membrane to convert CO2 into sugar molecules. B. The Calvin cycle uses sugar molecules formed within the thylakoid membrane to generate high-energy molecules. C. The processes in the thylakoid membrane use high-energy molecules formed during the Calvin cycle to convert CO2 into sugar molecules. D. The processes in the thylakoid membrane use sugar molecules formed during the Calvin cycle to generate high-energy molecules.

00420

Renaldo grew algae in the presence of a poison that stops the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis. As a result, which molecules will the light-dependent reactions stop producing? A. ADP and NADP+ B. ADP and NADPH C. ATP and NADP+ D. ATP and NADPH

QualityCore™ Formative Item Pool Biology I – Unit 11

Unit 11

Cognitive ID Key Level Objective 00441 A L3 A.3.b 01073 B L1 A.3.f 00409 D L1 C.1.a 00417 A L1 C.1.a 00427 A L2 C.1.a 00414 A L2 C.1.b 00450 C L2 C.1.b 00456-01 D L2 C.1.c 00989 A L2 C.1.d 00456-02 C L2 C.1.d 00430 B L2 C.1.e 00436 C L1 C.1.m 00412 B L2 C.1.m

00441

The DNA of a genetically modified (GM) plant contains genes from other species. Some environmentalists claim that GM plants may pose environmental problems. Which occurrence involving a GM plant will most likely cause an environmental problem? A. Herbicide-resistant genes transfer to weeds when weeds hybridize with a GM plant. B. An insect-resistant GM plant produces 20% more grain than the same non-GM variety of the plant. C. A disease-resistant GM plant that cannot reproduce is transported into surrounding fields. D. A GM plant is resistant to its most threatening pest, but is not resistant to less threatening pests.

01073

Jaime plans to use a variety of sources in writing his term paper on global warming. Which source would likely contain the most unbiased scientific information? A. A website sponsored by an environmental organization B. A research paper in the peer-reviewed journal Climatology C. A Scientific American article written by a journalist D. A telephone interview with an energy company representative

00409

What combines with sugar and a phosphate group to form a nucleotide? A. Amino acid B. Deoxyribose C. Glycerol D. Nitrogenous base

00417

DNA and RNA have many structural similarities. Which structure in DNA and RNA is similar? A. Purine bases B. Pyrimidine bases C. Type of sugar D. Attached proteins

00427

This molecule is an example of which substance?

A. Amino acid B. Carbohydrate C. Fatty acid D. Nucleotide

00414

Bacteriophages infect bacterial cells causing them to produce more bacteriophages. The Hershey-Chase experiments used radioactively labeled bacteriophages as shown in the table.

What was the conclusion of the Hershey-Chase experiments? A. DNA from the bacteriophage entered the bacteria. B. DNA from the bacteriophage became bacterial DNA. C. Protein from the bacteriophage entered the bacteria. D. Protein from the bacteriophage became bacterial DNA.

00450

Despite the diversity of nature, most organisms contain the same 4 DNA bases. This table shows the DNA composition of 3 organisms as reported in a classic 1950s experiment.

Based on this study, what did scientists conclude about the DNA composition of all organisms? A. A, G, T, and C occur in equal percentages. B. A and G occur in equal percentages, and T and C occur in equal percentages. C. A and T occur in equal percentages, and G and C occur in equal percentages. D. A and C occur in equal percentages, and T and G occur in equal percentages.

00456-01

This chart shows the RNA sequences that code for various amino acids.

What is the RNA sequence for a section of protein composed of Val-Glu-Ser ? A. GUA-GCC-AGU B. GUA-GGG-AGC C. GUG-GAC-GGU D. GUG-GAG-AGC

00989

Persons A and B have similar mRNA sequences with the exception of 1 nucleotide. Person A: AUGGUUACUAAGGGCUGA Person B: AUGGUUACUGAGGGCUGA Use the genetic code chart to determine how this difference affects the sequence of amino acids in the resulting protein.

A. Lys in Person A is replaced with Glu in Person B. B. Phe in Person A is replaced with Leu in Person B. C. Persons A and B have identical amino acid sequences. D. A stop codon is generated in Person B and not in Person A.

00456-02

This chart shows the RNA sequences that code for various amino acids.

The mRNA sequence ACU codes for the amino acid Thr. A mutation occurs, and the resulting mRNA sequence is AUU. What amino acid will replace Thr ? A. Val B. Met C. Ile D. Ala

00430

How does the regulation of gene expression lead to cell specialization? A. Enzymes degrade unnecessary DNA. B. Methylation of some regions of DNA prevents transcription. C. Mutations change certain RNA sequences. D. Removal of exons from RNA prevents translation into protein.

00436

A trisomy of chromosome 21 causes what condition? A. Albinism B. Dwarfism C. Down syndrome D. Color blindness

00412

Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disease in which excess mucus accumulates in the lungs and digestive system of affected individuals. Males and females must inherit 2 alleles with this mutation to have the disease. What is the mode of inheritance of cystic fibrosis? A. Autosomal dominant B. Autosomal recessive C. Sex-linked dominant D. Sex-linked recessive

QualityCore™ Formative Item Pool Biology I – Unit 12

Unit 12

Cognitive ID Key Level Objective 00530 C L2 A.1.c 00974 A L1 A.2.c 00339 B L2 A.3.c 00563 D L3 A.3.e 00431 C L1 C.1.f 00449 B L2 C.1.f 01015 C L2 C.1.g 00455-02 D L3 C.1.g 00432 B L3 C.1.h 00410 D L2 C.1.i 00963 C L2 C.1.i 00455-01 A L2 C.1.i 01032 C L3 C.1.i 00977 A L2 C.1.j 00434 B L3 C.1.k 00451 D L1 C.1.l 00411 B L2 C.1.l 00991 C L2 C.1.l 00433 D L2 C.1.l 00435 C L3 C.1.l 00519 A L1 D.1.a 00437 A L2 D.1.a 00520 D L2 D.1.a 00438 D L3 D.1.a

00530

These graphs represent Earth’s estimated carbon dioxide (CO2) levels and temperature over the past 400,000 years.

Using the data in the graphs, determine the relationship between Earth’s CO2 levels and temperature.

A. The temperature falls as the CO2 level rises.

B. The CO2 level and the temperature are equal.

C. There is a positive correlation between CO2 levels and temperature.

D. There is a negative correlation between CO2 levels and temperature.

00974

This graph illustrates 4 different chemical reactions.

Which reaction has the fastest initial reaction rate? A. Reaction I B. Reaction II C. Reaction III D. Reaction IV

00339

If a researcher makes an experimental observation that is contrary to well-established scientific understanding, what should the next step be? A. Ignoring the results of the experiment if they support the hypothesis B. Re-evaluating the procedure and replicating the experiment C. Publishing the research in a well-known journal D. Manipulating the data so it conforms to current understanding

00563

Before Gregor Mendel’s experiments with pea plants, many scientists believed that offspring inherited a blend of parental traits. Mendel’s results contradicted this theory. What aspect of the nature and philosophy of science does this change in thinking exemplify? A. Prior knowledge affects scientific observation. B. Scientific knowledge is more often wrong than right. C. Scientists guess when formulating scientific theories. D. Scientific knowledge changes as new data becomes available.

00431

What occurs during metaphase I of meiosis? A. Centromeres of replicated chromosomes line up along the cell’s equator. B. Centromeres divide as sister chromatids move toward opposite poles of the cell. C. Homologous chromosome pairs line up along the cell’s equator. D. Homologous chromosomes move toward opposite poles of the cell.

00449

During what phase of meiosis does nondisjunction occur? A. Metaphase I B. Anaphase I C. Prophase II D. Metaphase II

01015

Which example best illustrates Mendel’s law of independent assortment? A. Two short-haired cats produce a litter of 4 kittens including 1 long-haired and 3 short- haired. B. A color-blind man and a woman with normal vision produce a son with normal vision and a color-blind daughter. C. A tall purple-flowered pea plant and a short white-flowered pea plant are crossed, producing offspring including tall white-flowered pea plants. D. A red-flowered snapdragon and a white- flowered snapdragon are crossed, producing offspring with pink flowers.

00455-02

Patch, a short-haired cat, has black and orange spots. Two distinct autosomal gene loci produce this pattern. One gene locus produces spots as a recessive trait (ss). Another gene locus determines the color of the spots. Homozygous BB cats have black spots, while homozygous GG cats have orange spots. Heterozygous cats have black and orange spots.

According to the law of independent assortment, Patch would most likely produce gametes in what proportion? A. All ss B. All BGss C. Half BS and half GS D. Half Bs and half Gs

00432

Which event of meiosis reveals the mechanism for understanding Mendel’s laws of segregation and independent assortment? A. Chromosome number is reduced during telophase I so gametes have half the standard number of chromosomes. B. The arrangement of homologous chromosomes during metaphase I varies from cell to cell. C. Centromeres break apart during anaphase II so that sister chromatids can move to opposite poles of the cell. D. DNA is replicated during interphase before chromosomes condense and become attached to kinetochores.

00410

In humans, pigmented skin is dominant to non- pigmented skin (albinism). What is the genotype of an individual with albinism? A. Carrier B. Heterozygous C. Homozygous dominant D. Homozygous recessive

00963

Jeanine inherited 2 alleles for round eye shape and has round eye shape. Her brother inherited 1 allele for round eye shape and 1 allele for almond eye shape and has almond eye shape. What type of trait is round eye shape? A. Co-dominant B. Dominant C. Recessive D. Sex-linked

00455-01

The color of Patch’s spots demonstrates which genetic principle? A. Codominance B. Incomplete dominance C. Multiple alleles D. Sex-linked traits

01032

Horses born to 2 palomino (golden-coated) horses have a 25% chance of having a white coat, a 25% chance of having a chestnut (brown) coat, and a 50% chance of having a palomino coat. Which description of inheritance best explains the coat- color trait in these horses? A. Palomino coat color is a recessive trait. B. Palomino coat color is a dominant trait. C. Coat color is an incompletely dominant trait. D. Coat color is a sex-linked trait.

00977

In humans, red-green color blindness is a recessive, sex-linked trait. The chromosomes and alleles associated with color blindness are represented in this chart.

Which child could NOT be born to these parents: a female (XBXb) and a male (XBY) ? A. Color-blind daughter B. Color-blind son C. Daughter with normal color vision D. Son with normal color vision

00434

The genotype for F1 individuals from a dihybrid cross is AaBb x AaBB. What is the expected ratio of AaBb individuals in the F2 generation?

A. 8 16 B. 4 16 C. 2 16 D. 1 16

00451

Keisha passes a local dairy farm that has many brown cows, but only a few white cows. A dominant allele produces brown hair in cows and a recessive allele produces white hair. Which characteristic of any brown cow can Keisha identify? A. The genotype of both of the cow’s parents B. The genotype of the cow’s hair color C. The phenotype of both of the cow’s parents D. The phenotype of the cow’s hair color

00411

Adrenoleukodystrophy (ALD) is a sex-linked recessive trait that affects the nervous system. In one family, the father, mother, daughter, and elder son do not have ALD, while the younger son has ALD. Who must be a carrier of the ALD allele? A. Father B. Mother C. Daughter D. Elder son

00991

This pedigree shows 3 generations of a family and the family’s incidences of color blindness, a sex- linked, recessive trait.

Which pair of females must have the same genotype? A. 3 and 5 B. 7 and 11 C. 8 and 13 D. 10 and 14

00433

Two black guinea pigs bred and produced 3 black offspring and 2 albino offspring. Assuming no mutations, which guinea pigs must be heterozygous? A. All 3 black offspring B. Exactly 2 of the black offspring C. Both albino offspring D. Both parents

00435

Alkaptonuria is a genetic disorder of protein metabolism. The disorder is determined by 2 alleles at 1 locus.

What is the genotype for Individual 1 in the diagram? A. AA or Aa B. AA C. Aa D. aa

00519

Who helped disprove the idea of spontaneous generation by demonstrating that maggots come from fly eggs and NOT from meat? A. Francesco Redi B. John Needham C. Lazzaro Spallanzani D. Louis Pasteur

00437

Lazzaro Spallanzani and Louis Pasteur both performed experiments hoping to disprove spontaneous generation. What conditions existed in Pasteur’s experiment that did not exist in Spallanzani’s? A. Air could enter the flasks, but no microorganisms could enter. B. No air could enter the flasks, but microorganisms could enter. C. Neither air nor microorganisms could enter the flasks. D. Both air and microorganisms could enter the flasks.

00520

In an experiment, a scientist filled 2 open flasks, as shown in the figures, with broth and boiled the broth until it became clear. He then left the flasks open for several days.

Which results showed that spontaneous generation did NOT occur? A. The broth in both Flasks A and B remained clear. B. The broth in both Flasks A and B became cloudy. C. The broth in Flask A remained clear, and the broth in Flask B became cloudy. D. The broth in Flask A became cloudy, and the broth in Flask B remained clear.

00438

John Needham performed an experiment testing spontaneous generation. He boiled chicken broth, placed it in a sterile flask, and then sealed the flask. After a few days, Needham observed microorganisms in the flask. Based on current understanding, how was his experiment flawed? A. Boiling activated dormant microorganisms present in the broth. B. Boiling the broth did not kill all microorganisms present. C. Microorganisms entered the broth from the flask itself after the flask was sealed. D. After Needham boiled the broth, microorganisms entered from the air.

QualityCore™ Formative Item Pool Biology I – Unit 13

Unit 13

Cognitive ID Key Level Objective 00528 A L2 A.1.b 00338 B L1 A.1.f 00968 C L1 A.2.b 00274 B L2 A.2.b 00573 A L2 A.2.b 00013 B L2 A.4.d 00532 C L1 D.1.b 00534 C L1 D.1.d 00521 B L2 D.1.d 00538 A L3 D.1.d 00523 B L3 D.1.e 00535 B L2 D.1.h 00964 B L1 D.1.j 00524 D L2 D.1.j 00542 B L2 D.1.j

00528

Dr. Hansen performs an experiment testing the effectiveness of different cough syrups. Identify the independent variable in the experiment. A. Type of cough syrup B. Flavor of the cough syrup C. Number of people taking each cough syrup D. Number of days people take each cough syrup

00338

Which technique is NOT a proper procedure for a classroom lab activity? A. Using a compound microscope, first focusing on the specimen using a low power, then switching to a higher power B. Turning on the gas of a Bunsen burner to adjust the gas flow, then striking a match to test it C. Determining the odor of a burning substance by fanning, with your hand, the scent from a test tube towards your nose D. Cleaning up liquid that spilled onto the floor immediately

00968

As part of an experiment, a student measured the height of 5 pea plants and recorded the data in this table.

Plant Plant height (cm) Plant 1 9 Plant 2 10 Plant 3 14 Plant 4 10 Plant 5 12

What is the mean height, in centimeters, of the 5 pea plants? A. 9.0 B. 10.0 C. 11.0 D. 14.0

00274

A researcher counted the number of eggs a single fruit fly laid in 24 hrs for 5 days and recorded the findings in this table.

What is the average number of eggs laid per day over the 5 days? A. 5 B. 10 C. 25 D. 50

00573

As part of the necessary procedures in a laboratory investigation, scientists determined the mass of 6 mice and recorded the data in this table.

Mass of mice Mouse Mass (g) mouse 1 52 mouse 2 48 mouse 3 57 mouse 4 47 mouse 5 53 mouse 6 43

What is the mean mass of the mice, in grams? A. 50 B. 57 C. 60 D. 300

00013

While doing an experiment, students burned 100 g of rice until only 5 g of inorganic material remained. Determine the percent of inorganic material in this rice sample. A. 0.05% B. 5% C. 20% D. 90%

00532

Which type of change exemplifies biological evolution? A. Size of individuals B. Size of a population C. Gene pool of a population D. Outward appearance of individuals

00534

Which criterion is NOT necessarily true of a trait that has evolved through natural selection? A. It is heritable. B. It varies among individuals. C. It increases individuals’ life spans. D. It influences individuals’ reproductive success.

00521

Which example best illustrates the process of natural selection? A. Giraffe necks varied in length, and all offspring had an equal chance of survival. B. Giraffe necks varied in length, and the shorter- necked giraffes were at a disadvantage. C. Giraffes with short necks migrated to locations best suited for their neck lengths. D. Giraffes stretched their necks to reach for food, and resulting offspring had longer necks.

00538

Maria wanted to rid her home of cockroaches. She applied pesticide and after 1 day she found many dead cockroaches. Days later, she observed a few live cockroaches. She reapplied the pesticide, but she continued to see some live cockroaches. What best explains the continuing presence of live cockroaches? A. A few cockroaches exhibited pesticide resistance due to natural variability within the population. B. A few cockroaches developed pesticide resistance through contact with other resistant insects. C. A few cockroaches developed pesticide resistance after contact with it. D. A few cockroaches detected the pesticide and avoided sprayed areas.

00523

Charles Lyell’s Principles of Geology contains information about the formation of sedimentary rock. Lyell’s information supported which of Darwin’s ideas regarding natural selection? A. Organisms compete for resources. B. Tropical biodiversity takes a great deal of time. C. Habitat variation makes biodiversity in the tropics possible. D. Reproductive success depends on the fitness of a species.

00535

As part of a simulation of evolutionary process, a teacher drops 500 red and 500 green jelly beans on green grass. The red and green jelly beans represent individuals of the same species. Students represent predators and pick up as many jelly beans as possible in 30 seconds. Which prediction is most accurate? A. Red individuals are more likely to survive and reproduce. B. Green individuals are more likely to survive and reproduce. C. Predators are more likely to capture green individuals. D. Predators are equally likely to capture red and green individuals.

00964

What process of natural selection favors the extreme phenotypes of a trait and eliminates intermediate phenotypes? A. Directional selection B. Disruptive selection C. Random selection D. Stabilizing selection

00524

In coho salmon, hooknose males are large and jack males are small. Average-sized males exist, but are rare. What statement best explains disruptive selection in male coho salmon? A. Average-sized males reach the spawning ground first. B. The scent of average-sized males makes them most attractive to females. C. Hooknose males produce stronger sperm than jack males or average-sized males. D. The relative size of hooknose males and jack males is an advantage during mating.

00542

Most male crickets produce a mating song by rubbing together their curved wings. In a certain geographic area, parasitic flies detected male crickets singing and deposited their larvae into them, which killed the crickets. Eighteen generations later the number of males with flat wings has increased to 90%. The flat-winged crickets do not sing, but are still able to mate with females, and parasitic flies cannot detect them. Which type of selection is occurring in this cricket population? A. Artificial B. Directional C. Disruptive D. Stabilizing

QualityCore™ Formative Item Pool Biology I – Unit 14

Unit 14

Cognitive ID Key Level Objective 00522 C L1 D.1.c 00533 C L2 D.1.c 00539 C L2 D.1.g 00536 A L1 D.1.i 00978 C L3 D.1.i 00525 D L2 D.1.k 00526 A L2 D.1.k 00537 C L3 D.1.k 00527 A L3 D.1.m 00541 D L2 D.1.n 00540 B L3 D.1.n

00522

Stanley Miller and Harold Urey’s experiment recreated Earth’s hypothetical early atmosphere. What was their conclusion? A. Spontaneous generation could not occur. B. Earth’s early atmosphere contained oxygen gas. C. Organic molecules could form from inorganic substances. D. Many simple organisms could form from Earth’s early atmosphere.

00533

What characteristic of early autotrophs gave them an advantage over early heterotrophs? A. They ate heterotrophs. B. They produced spores. C. They made their own food. D. They reproduced asexually.

00539

Behaviors are either innate (inherited) or learned. Learned behaviors modify innate behaviors. Which is an example of an innate behavior? A. Young coyotes avoiding porcupines after the porcupines stick them with their quills B. Chimpanzees stacking boxes to reach bananas hanging from the ceiling C. Different species of male crickets producing distinctive songs to attract mates D. Monkeys washing sweet potatoes in a stream before eating them

00536

When comparing 2 populations of animals, which statement most likely indicates that they are the same species? A. They produce fertile offspring. B. They inhabit the same general area. C. Their outward appearance is similar. D. They consume the same type of diet.

00978

Dr. Romero is raising 3 types of damselfishes in separate aquariums: 2 from the Atlantic Ocean and 1 from the Pacific Ocean. This table summarizes the information she gathered through observations and breeding experiments.

Based on the most commonly accepted definition of a species, how many different species of damselfishes is Dr. Romero raising, and which fish are they? A. 1 species: Fish A, B, and C are all members of a single species. B. 2 species: Fish A and B are a single species; Fish C is a separate species. C. 2 species: Fish A and C are a single species; Fish B is a separate species. D. 3 species: Fish A, B, and C are all members of separate species.

00525

Horse skeleton fossils indicate that the size of horses increased over time. Which statement best explains this fossil record? A. Smaller horses bred with larger horses, creating hybrids. B. Smaller horses were infected by a fatal virus early in their history. C. Larger horses consumed the food supply of the smaller horses. D. Larger horses produced a slightly greater number of surviving offspring.

00526

Cytochrome C is a protein used in the electron transport chain. This table shows short sections of Cytochrome C’s amino acid sequences in 5 organisms, using single letter abbreviations.

Amino acid Organism sequence Organism 1 …QAGYSTDK… Organism 2 …MAQFSTDK… Organism 3 …QAYPSTDK… Organism 4 …QAPFTTDK… Human …QAPYSTAK…

Use this data to determine which organism most likely shares the most recent common ancestor with humans. A. Organism 1 B. Organism 2 C. Organism 3 D. Organism 4

00537

According to fossil evidence, whales evolved from 4-legged ancestors. The modern baleen whale has forelimbs, but inspection of its skeleton reveals only tiny vestigial hind limbs. What is the best explanation for this loss of hind limbs in the baleen whale? A. The hind limbs adapted into flippers to help the whale swim faster. B. Random chance and genetic drift led to the reduction in size of hind limbs. C. Whales with shorter hind limbs swam faster than those with longer hind limbs. D. Some whales lost longer hind limbs to predators and passed that trait to their offspring.

00527

What accounts for genetic biodiversity existing in modern multicellular organisms? A. Mutations in gametes are passed to offspring. B. Protein mutations cause DNA changes, creating new species. C. Genetic mutations form when similar species mate and reproduce. D. Somatic cell DNA mutations create new phenotypes in the population.

00541

Dinosaur species dominated Earth for over 100 million years. During this time, most mammals were small mouse-sized nocturnal organisms. Following the mass extinction of the dinosaurs, the small mammals rapidly diversified to fill available habitats and niches. What pattern of evolution best explains the diversification of mammals? A. Catastrophism B. Convergent evolution C. Gradualism D. Punctuated equilibrium

00540

Dinosaur extinction coincided with a massive asteroid’s collision with Earth. The extreme heat of the impact killed many organisms. The resulting dust cloud prevented photosynthesis for a long period of time, killing many other organisms. Which scenario most likely explains how life survived on Earth after the asteroid impact? A. The large number of dead organisms supplied an abundant food source for surviving carnivores. B. Some organisms survived the initial impact and adapted to new food sources and habitats. C. Microscopic organisms survived and evolved into modern forms of terrestrial and aquatic life. D. The dust cloud affected terrestrial organisms, but did not affect aquatic organisms.

QualityCore™ Formative Item Pool Biology I – Unit 15

Unit 15

Cognitive ID Key Level Objective 01117 A L2 A.2.c 00566 C L2 E.3.a 00549 B L3 E.3.a 00557 B L1 E.3.b 00562 D L1 E.3.b 00552 C L2 E.3.b 00567 A L2 E.3.c 00999 B L2 E.3.c 00550 B L2 E.3.d 00357 D L1 E.3.e 00358 C L2 E.3.e 00359 C L2 E.3.e 00360 C L2 E.3.e 00361 A L2 E.3.e 00551 A L2 E.3.e 00564 B L1 E.3.f 01096 C L2 E.3.f 00558 C L3 E.3.f 00553 A L2 E.3.g 00559 A L2 E.3.g 00560 D L3 E.3.g

01117

A population of bacteria undergoes a period of exponential growth, doubling in size with each generation. If the population started with N individuals, which equation determines the population size 3 generations later? A. N × 23 B. N × 32 C. 3N D. N2

00566

Based on their taxonomic classification, which 2 organisms share the most recent common ancestor? A. Squid and octopus (same class) B. Lobster and eel (same kingdom) C. Chimpanzee and gorilla (same family) D. Iguana and mouse (same phylum)

00549

These animals are all placed in the vertebrate class Amphibia and the order Anura. • wood frog, Rana sylvatica • bullfrog, Rana catesbeiana • western toad, Bufo boreas • spadefoot toad, Scaphiopus hammondi What is the most likely conclusion about the evolutionary relationship between or among these organisms? A. The wood frog and bullfrog are better jumpers than the western toad and the spadefoot toad. B. The wood frog and bullfrog share a more recent common ancestor than do the western toad and the spadefoot toad. C. The western toad and the spadefoot toad share a more recent common ancestor than do the wood frog and the bullfrog. D. The western toad and the spadefoot toad both evolved in western North America, while the wood frog and the bullfrog evolved in the tropics.

00557

Lions and tigers both belong to genus Panthera. Cheetahs belong to the genus Acinonyx. Scientists group these 3 types of cats together at the next taxonomic level. What is the most specific taxonomic level that lions, cheetahs, and tigers share? A. Class B. Family C. Kingdom D. Order

00562

What level of biological taxa includes Chordata, Molluska, Echinodermata, Arthropoda, and Cnidaria? A. Family B. Genus C. Kingdom D. Phylum

00552

The organisms of what kingdom possess these traits? Eukaryotic cells Photosynthetic Cellulose cell walls A. Eubacteria B. Fungi C. Plantae D. Monera

00567

Based on their scientific names, what is the most accurate conclusion about the relationship of the organisms Homo erectus and Homo neanderthalus ? A. They are genetically similar. B. They are the same species. C. They are in different genera. D. They are in different kingdoms.

00999

An entomologist identified a new species of beetle in a South American rain forest. The beetle has all the features of the darkling beetle family Tenebrionidae and closely resembles other darkling beetles of the genus Tenebrio. What should the entomologist do next? A. Give the beetle new genus and family names. B. Give the beetle a new species name not used in the genus Tenebrio. C. Name the beetle after the species it is most similar to. D. Discard the beetle because it is not found in existing taxonomy.

00550

An animal has these characteristics: • Many more than 8 jointed legs on a segmented body • 2 pairs of legs attached to each body segment • Lacks biting jaws Use the key to determine what animal this is. A. Dragonfly B. Millipede C. Sea star D. Slug

00357

All members of which biological group require a host cell to reproduce? A. Fungi B. Bacteria C. Protists D. Viruses

00358

Which statement best explains how penicillin, a common antibiotic, stops the growth of certain bacteria? A. It inhibits production of the protein coat. B. It inhibits replication of DNA. C. It inhibits synthesis of bacterial walls. D. It inhibits formation of spores.

00359

Cell organelles, like mitochondria, experience changes in structure and function over time. Modern forms of mitochondria seem to have arisen from interactions between 2 organisms. Which organisms gave rise to the modern mitochondria? A. A virus entering a eukaryotic cell B. A virus entering a prokaryotic cell C. A prokaryote entering a eukaryotic cell D. A prokaryote entering a viral cell

00360

Which group(s) contain organisms that can be classified as primary producers? A. Monerans only B. Protists only C. Monerans and protists D. Viruses and monerans

00361

A Gram stain can be used to distinguish between which type(s) of organisms? A. Different groups of bacteria B. Different groups of protists C. Bacteria and protists D. Bacteria and viruses

00551

Alec studied an unknown microscopic organism and recorded this information: It contains DNA. It has a cell wall, but no nucleus. What is Alec most likely studying? A. Bacterium B. Fungus C. Protist D. Virus

00564

The presence of what cellular structure distinguishes a plant cell from an animal cell? A. Cell membrane B. Chloroplast C. Mitochondrion D. Nucleus

01096

In what kingdom would scientists classify a multicellular, nonmotile, autotrophic organism? A. Animalia B. Fungi C. Plantae D. Protista

00558

Several species of fungi, particularly mold, are pathogenic (disease causing). Which characteristic of fungi would LEAST likely contribute to a mold species’ ability to be pathogenic? A. Fungal spores that have adapted for dispersion and are able to exist in unfavorable conditions B. Fungal hyphae, a branching network, that digests the surface that they grow on C. Fungal cell wall composed of polysaccharides, such as chitin D. Fungal production of myotoxins (toxic chemicals)

00553

Which groups of organisms show the closest relationship based upon skeleton, body symmetry, and body segmentation? A. Centipedes, crustaceans, and insects B. Echinoderms, cnidarians, and sponges C. Vertebrates, crustaceans, and flatworms D. Cnidarians, flatworms, and annelid worms

00559

Which characteristic do organisms in class Mammalia (mammals) and class Aves (birds) share? A. 4-chambered heart B. Lightweight hollow bones C. Specialized teeth adapted to a specific diet D. Diaphragm separating the thoracic and abdominal cavities

00560

Scientists discover a new invertebrate in the rainforests of Argentina. This small creature has: • exoskeleton • 2 body segments • 8 legs • 8 eyes • chelicerae (pair of appendages near the mouth) • jointed appendages To what known animal would this new invertebrate be most closely related? A. Mosquito (Insecta) B. Lobster (Crustacean) C. Millipede (Myriapoda) D. Scorpion (Arachnida)

QualityCore™ Formative Item Pool Biology I – Unit 16

Unit 16

Cognitive ID Key Level Objective 00546 C L1 E.1.a 00565 D L1 E.1.a 00547 C L2 E.1.a 00555 D L1 E.1.b 00568 A L1 E.1.b 00572 A L1 E.1.b 00548 B L2 E.1.b 00554 A L2 E.1.b 00556 A L2 E.1.b

00546

What is the function of most epithelial tissue? A. Contracting under voluntary control B. Holding bones and muscles together C. Lining internal or external surfaces of the body D. Conducting electrochemical signals between body parts

00565

Which figure represents bone tissue?

A. C.

B. D.

00547

These figures represent what type of tissue?

A. Adipose B. Epithelial C. Muscle D. Nervous

00555

What is the path of deoxygenated blood as it enters a 4-chambered heart? A. Pulmonary vein → left atrium → left ventricle → aorta B. Pulmonary vein → right atrium → left atrium → aorta C. Vena cavae → right atrium → left atrium → pulmonary artery D. Vena cavae → right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary artery

00568

The pancreas produces which hormones? A. Insulin and glucagon B. Oxytocin and prolactin C. Estrogen and progesterone D. Epinephrine and norepinephrine

00572

What physiological system includes the hypothalamus, the thyroid gland, and the adrenal gland? A. Endocrine B. Nervous C. Reproductive D. Respiratory

00548

In addition to the reproductive system, which body system is most directly essential to the production of gametes and offspring? A. Circulatory B. Endocrine C. Immune D. Nervous

00554

Arrange the steps of a nerve’s synaptic activity in order from first to last. 1. Action potential arrives at the end of the axon. 2. Receptors of dendrites receive neurotransmitter. 3. Neurotransmitter releases into synapse. 4. Vesicles of neurotransmitter fuse with membrane of axon. A. 1, 4, 3, 2 B. 4, 1, 3, 2 C. 2, 3, 4, 1 D. 2, 3, 1, 4

00556

As the result of an accident, a railroad worker received damage to the frontal lobe of his left brain. What effect would this type of injury most likely have on brain function? A. A change in demeanor from well-balanced to impatient and obstinate B. An inability to understand expressive or receptive language C. An inability to see a whole picture, only seeing minute details D. An extreme loss of both balance and memory

Unit 1, Living Organisms

To assist teachers with selecting items for classroom use, this item has been matched to the relevant unit in the Biology Course Outline based on the content assessed in the item. This table is provided to articulate specific information about the item, including the objectives and the cognitive skills assessed in the item.

Unit Cognitive Objectives Cognitive Practice EOC Level Skill Item Unit 1 L3 A-4-a Apply no

The constructed-response formative item pool allows teachers to choose items for use in the classroom to help assess what their students should know and are able to do at the end of a rigorous Biology course. The formative item pool also allows students to learn about the types of responses they will be expected to provide on the EOC exam. When the formative item pool is used in both of these ways, it becomes a powerful teaching tool for students and teachers alike.

The formative item pool consists of 25 items, including at least 1 constructed-response item for each of the 16 units identified in the Biology Course Outline. Items in the formative pool are very similar in format and difficulty. Included in the pool are 3 items designed to emulate the items on the EOC exam. Taken together, these 3 items provide students and teachers with a practice end-of-course exam.

All items are designed to assess Level 3 strategic thinking skills according to Webb’s depth of knowledge (DOK) levels, which require students to perform tasks such as: Identify research questions and design investigations for a scientific problem Solve nonroutine problems using multiple concepts Develop a scientific model for a complex situation Form conclusions from experimental data or observations Interpret information from complex graphs Cite evidence and develop logical arguments Explain phenomena in terms of concepts

Scoring Criteria:

A 4-point response will include, but is not limited to, the following points:

A response may include any combination of 4 of the 8 characteristics listed below. One example of each characteristic is given, but the list is not exhaustive, so each example must be judged on an individual basis.

Note: This is a list of commonly taught characteristics of life. Teachers may have to adjust this list to accommodate the characteristics of life taught in their individual classroom.

Reproduction: Organisms must be able to produce other organisms like themselves (not necessarily identical, but of the same type or species). Example: Fish lay eggs that hatch and produce new fish.

Growth and development: Organisms must be able to grow, develop, increase in size, and change in shape or structure. Example: Frogs lay eggs. The eggs hatch and tadpoles emerge. The tadpoles then develop into adult frogs.

Energy use: Organisms must be able to obtain energy from a source and use that energy to fuel growth, development, and/or reproduction. Example: Plants trap energy from the sun, which they use during photosynthesis to create sugars for themselves.

Response to the environment: Organisms must be able to respond to their environment as a way of increasing likelihood of survival and reproduction. Example: Planarians move from light areas to dark areas using their eyespots to detect light.

Homeostasis: Organisms must be able to regulate their internal environment to sustain life functions, such as temperature and salinity. Example: Humans maintain a body temperature within a narrow range, and one way they adjust this temperature is through sweating.

Evolution (adaptation): Populations of organisms must be able to change and adapt over time to environmental conditions and other biotic factors. Example: Fish have gills that make them suited to a life underwater.

Organization: Organisms have an organization such as organelles within cells, tissues within organs, and so forth. Example: Groups of cells that work together in the human body form tissues. Groups of tissues that work together form organs. Groups of organs that work together form organ systems.

Universal genetic code: Organisms must possess a genetic code that directs the transmission of inherited traits from one generation to the next. Example: All organisms, multicellular or unicellular, contain DNA. Rubric:

4 A response at this level provides evidence of thorough knowledge and understanding of the subject matter. • The content of the response is correct and thorough, with no significant errors. • The response contains elaboration and/or detail that demonstrates insight into scientific concepts and principles, and contains no misconceptions. • The explanation in the response is clear and is enhanced by correct use of appropriate scientific terminology to communicate understanding.

3 A response at this level provides evidence of competent knowledge and understanding of the subject matter. • The content of the response is generally correct and complete. • The response contains some elaboration and/or detail that demonstrates sufficient understanding of scientific concepts and principles, and it may contain a few minor misconceptions. • The explanation in the response is mostly clear and is supported by some correct use of appropriate scientific terminology to communicate understanding.

2 A response at this level provides evidence of basic knowledge and understanding of the subject matter. • The content of the response is partially correct, and it may be incomplete. • The response contains a little elaboration and/or detail to demonstrate some understanding of scientific concepts and principles, but it may contain some significant misconceptions. • The explanation in the response is sometimes clear and sometimes demonstrates correct use of appropriate scientific terminology to communicate understanding.

1 A response at this level provides evidence of minimal knowledge and understanding of the subject matter. • The content of the response is mostly incorrect, and it is incomplete. • The response contains little or no elaboration or detail to demonstrate understanding of scientific concepts and principles, and it contains evidence of significant misconceptions. • The explanation in the response is mostly unclear and demonstrates little or no correct use of appropriate scientific terminology to communicate understanding.

0 A response at this level is not scorable. The response is off-topic, blank, hostile, or otherwise not scorable. Unit 2, Basic and Applied Science

Unit Cognitive Objectives Cognitive Practice EOC Level Skill Item Unit 2 L3 A-3-g Analyze no

Each constructed-response formative item in the pool includes: The prompt and task (what the student sees) The scoring criteria—a tool used to score a student response. The scoring criteria provides the teacher with the specific content that students should address at the highest score point. The holistic rubric used to score all student responses to all items. The holistic rubric is used to ultimately decide on the score that each student response receives. Used in conjunction with the scoring criteria, the holistic rubric allows the teacher to consider conceptual understanding and communication, in addition to item-specific content. Pavel’s doctor suspects that he has a thyroid disorder and refers him to specialists at the department of nuclear medicine. The specialists use a small dose of a radioactive iodine isotope to image Pavel’s thyroid gland and to determine if his thyroid gland produces the appropriate levels of thyroid hormones. The specialists confirm that he has hyperthyroidism and recommend treating him with a large dose of the radioactive iodine isotope to destroy the malfunctioning thyroid gland. Pavel will then take thyroid hormone supplements to replace the missing natural thyroid hormones. ______Using your understanding of basic and applied science, analyze this scenario. As part of your answer, be sure to: • Define basic science and applied science, and explain how each type of science directly or indirectly contributes to the development of materials that benefit society. • Compare the roles of basic science and applied science in developing the radioactive isotopes used in the imaging and treatment of thyroid disorders. Scoring Criteria:

A 4-point response will include, but is not limited to, the following points:

• Definition of basic science and applied science and the beneficial contribution of each to society: Basic science seeks to advance knowledge in a particular area of science and is driven by curiosity about a particular scientific question. It provides the basis for applied science, but its goal does not include inventing products for commercial use. Basic science indirectly contributes to the development of materials that benefit society.

Applied science is driven by the application of scientific knowledge to solve practical problems. It applies the knowledge obtained from basic science for the purpose of inventing products for commercial use. Applied science directly contributes to the development of materials that benefit society.

• Comparison of roles of basic science and applied science in developing the use of radioactive isotopes: Through basic science, humans developed the knowledge of radioactive isotopes, and how, in low amounts, they can be used to image objects, but how, in high doses, they destroy living tissues.

Through applied science, humans use basic science to develop the specific technology by which radioactive iodine isotopes are used to image the thyroid, to determine the level of thyroid hormone production, and to specifically destroy only the thyroid cells. Rubric:

0 A response at this level is not scorable. The response is off-topic, blank, hostile, or otherwise not scorable. Unit 2, Experimental Design

Unit Cognitive Objectives Cognitive Practice EOC Level Skill Item Unit 2 L3 A-1-d Analyze no

Each constructed-response formative item in the pool includes: The prompt and task (what the student sees) The scoring criteria—a tool used to score a student response. The scoring criteria provides the teacher with the specific content that students should address at the highest score point. The holistic rubric used to score all student responses to all items. The holistic rubric is used to ultimately decide on the score that each student response receives. Used in conjunction with the scoring criteria, the holistic rubric allows the teacher to consider conceptual understanding and communication, in addition to item-specific content. Hepatica is a plant that grows in deciduous forests. The color of hepatica flowers may be white, pale pink, dark pink, or pale purple. In a forest on Hillside 1, the hepatica flowers are white or pale pink. On nearby Hillside 2, the hepatica flowers are dark pink or pale purple. A researcher collected seeds from several white-flowered hepatica plants growing on Hillside 1. She planted the seeds in soil collected from Hillside 2 and grew them in a greenhouse. The resulting plants had white flowers. ______Using your understanding of experimental design and interpretation of results, analyze this results obtained by this experiment. As part of your answer, be sure to: • State whether the resulting flower color supports the hypothesis that heredity determines flower color, or the hypothesis that soil type determines flower color. • Explain why your choice of hypothesis is correct, using evidence from the description to support your explanation. • Describe an additional experiment that would test your choice of hypothesis, including the potential results from your proposed experiment. Scoring Criteria:

A 4-point response will include, but is not limited to, the following points:

• Statement of hypothesis choice: The results suggest that heredity determines the flower color.

• Explanation of why choice of hypothesis is correct, using evidence from the description to support explanation: If heredity is the primary determinant of flower color, then white-flowered plants would be expected to produce offspring that also have white flowers, regardless of the type of soil in which they are planted. If soil type is the primary determinant of flower color, then a change of soil (from Hillside 1 soil to Hillside 2 soil) would lead to a change in flower color from white to pink or purple. Heredity is the correct choice because the resulting plants produced white flowers.

• Description of additional experiment, including potential results, that tests the heredity hypothesis: One possible additional experiment would be to plant seeds from Hillside 2 in soil from Hillside 1. Collect seeds from pale purple-flowered plants growing on Hillside 2, and plant them in soil collected from Hillside 1 (where white-flowered plants grew). Growing the seeds in a greenhouse will allow the plants to develop in a controlled environment. However, since heredity, not soil type, determines flower color, the resulting flowers should be pale purple.

An alternate experiment would be to plant the seeds in the forest itself. Collect seeds from white-flowered plants growing on Hillside 1 and from pale purple-flowered plants growing on Hillside 2. Plant some of each type of seed on Hillside 1 and Hillside 2. Regardless of where the seeds are planted, all seeds collected from white-flowered plants growing on Hillside 1 should produce white-flowered plants, and all seeds collected from pale purple-flowered plants growing on Hillside 2 should produce pale purple-flowered plants. Rubric:

0 A response at this level is not scorable. The response is off-topic, blank, hostile, or otherwise not scorable. Unit 3, Experimental Design

Unit Cognitive Objectives Cognitive Practice EOC Level Skill Item Unit 3 L3 A-4-c Evaluate no

Each constructed-response formative item in the pool includes: The prompt and task (what the student sees) The scoring criteria—a tool used to score a student response. The scoring criteria provides the teacher with the specific content that students should address at the highest score point. The holistic rubric used to score all student responses to all items. The holistic rubric is used to ultimately decide on the score that each student response receives. Used in conjunction with the scoring criteria, the holistic rubric allows the teacher to consider conceptual understanding and communication, in addition to item-specific content. For a biology experiment, students measured the effect of caffeine on the pulse (heartbeat/min) of healthy adult women, age 18 or older. They randomly selected 40 women to attend a 2 hr lecture and asked each participant to avoid caffeinated foods and beverages in the 24 hr before the lecture. On the day of the lecture, the women met at the same time in a conference room. The women listened to the first hour of the lecture. During a 15 min break, the students measured and recorded each woman’s pulse, and then they randomly selected 20 women to drink one 12 oz cup of caffeinated soda. The remaining 20 women drank one 12 oz cup of caffeine-free soda. At the end of the second hour of the lecture, the students measured and recorded the pulse of each woman again. The student’s results are presented in this table.

______Using your understanding of experimental design, evaluate the students’ experiment. As part of your answer, be sure to: • Describe the criteria the students used to select the participants for their study. • Compare the control group and the experimental group, including the sampling size of each. • Describe the methods the students used to limit variability in this experiment. • Identify the dependent and independent variables in this experiment. Scoring Criteria:

A 4-point response will include, but is not limited to, the following points:

• Evaluation of criteria used to select participants: Only females, 18 or older, were chosen as participants. The participants were chosen randomly, meaning they were from different ethnic or racial groups, ages, body types, etc.

• Comparison of control and experimental groups: The control group consisted of the 20 women randomly selected to drink caffeine-free soda. Their pulse was recorded before and after consumption of the drinks, but they did not drink the experimental treatment (caffeinated soda). The experimental group consisted of the 20 women randomly selected to drink caffeinated soda. Their pulse was recorded before and after consumption of the drinks, and they did drink the experimental treatment (caffeinated soda).

• Description of methods used to limit variability: Each participant was asked not to consume foods or beverages containing caffeine in the 24 hr before the testing session. All participants met in the same conference room at the same time. The initial pulse was measured after each participant listened to the first hour of a 2 hr lecture. Each member of the both groups drank the same amount of soda: one 12 oz cup. Each participant’s pulse was measured 1 hr after drinking their designated drink.

• Identification of dependent and independent variables: In this experiment, the independent variable is the treatment such as caffeine-free soda or caffeinated soda, the amount of caffeine consumed, or the presence or absence of caffeine. (The independent variable is the variable that is being manipulated.)

Note: Just stating “caffeine” is not sufficient.

In this experiment, the dependent variable is the pulse or the number of heartbeats per min. (The dependent variable is the variable that is being measured after the independent variable has been manipulated.) Rubric:

0 A response at this level is not scorable. The response is off-topic, blank, hostile, or otherwise not scorable. Unit 4, Chemical Elements

Unit Cognitive Objectives Cognitive Practice EOC Level Skill Item Unit 4 L3 A-5-b Apply no

A 4-point response will include, but is not limited to, the following points:

• Description of the difference between atoms and ions: The key difference between atoms and ions is that an atom is electrically neutral whereas an ion is either positively or negatively charged.

• Description of how an atom becomes an ion: An atom or group of atoms either loses one or more electrons to become a positively charged ion or gains one or more electrons to become a negatively charged ion.

• Identification of biological process to which ions are essential: Transmission of nerve impulses.

Note: Examinees may mention one of the many other biological processes to which ions are important, including energy metabolism, muscle contraction, transmission of nerve impulses, and so forth.

Explanation of the role of ions in this biological process: The difference in concentration of sodium ions (Na+) and potassium ions (K+) across the cell membrane of a neuron is established and maintained by the sodium-potassium pump. The neuron will have a slight negative charge when it is not transmitting an impulse. When an impulse is transmitted, sodium ions rush into the neuron, causing it to depolarize (become positively charged). As a result of the positive charge inside the neuron, the positively charged potassium ions begin to leak out, returning the neuron to a slightly negative charge compared to the environment.

Note: Examinees may give examples of other ions, such as Ca2+, Cl¯, H+, OH¯, in place of Na+ and K+. Examinees may also mention that compared to a neutral atom, a charged ion is likely to be more soluble in water. Ions sometimes form when a molecule, but not an atom, loses or gains a proton. One example is when + + ammonia (NH3) gains a proton (H ) to form the ammonium ion (NH4 ). Rubric:

0 A response at this level is not scorable. The response is off-topic, blank, hostile, or otherwise not scorable. Unit 5, Cellular Energy Processes

Unit Cognitive Objectives Cognitive Practice EOC Level Skill Item Unit 5 L3 A-5-j Analyze no

Each constructed-response formative item in the pool includes: The prompt and task (what the student sees) The scoring criteria—a tool used to score a student response. The scoring criteria provides the teacher with the specific content that students should address at the highest score point. The holistic rubric used to score all student responses to all items. The holistic rubric is used to ultimately decide on the score that each student response receives. Used in conjunction with the scoring criteria, the holistic rubric allows the teacher to consider conceptual understanding and communication, in addition to item-specific content. Cells require energy to sustain all metabolic processes, such as powering chemical reactions, contracting muscles, or lighting the abdomens of fireflies. Within cells, the molecules ATP and ADP are in a state of constant transition as they release and store energy. Cells typically maintain ATP concentrations at a level 1000 times greater than that of ADP. ______Using your understanding of cellular energy processes, compare ATP and ADP. As part of your answer, be sure to: • Describe the molecular structures of ATP and ADP. • Explain how cells release and store cellular energy using ATP and ADP. • Describe the changes in the amounts of ATP and ADP, if at all, in an actively metabolizing cell that is deprived of organic nutrients, such as sugars and fats. Explain your reasoning. Scoring Criteria:

A 4-point response will include, but is not limited to, the following points:

• Description of ATP and ADP molecular structures: ATP consists of adenosine (adenine and ribose) and 3 phosphate groups. ADP consists of adenosine (adenine and ribose) and 2 phosphate groups.

• Explanation of how cells release and store energy using ATP and ADP: The bonds that join the phosphates in ATP are high-energy bonds that temporarily store the cell’s energy. (The response may include that the third [outermost] bond contains the most energy.) Energy is released when the bond between the second and third (outermost) phosphate group of ATP is broken, resulting in the formation of ADP. Energy is stored when a new bond attaches a third (outermost) phosphate group to ADP, resulting in the formation of ATP.

• Description of changes in amounts of ATP and ADP in an actively metabolizing cell deprived of organic nutrients: The amount of ATP should decrease, and the amount of ADP should increase.

Explanation of reasoning: Actively metabolizing cells convert ATP to ADP, which releases the energy necessary to sustain cellular activity. However, cells need energy from an outside source such as sugars and fats to convert ADP to ATP. A cell deprived of organic nutrients converts ADP to ATP at a reduced rate. Thus, the cell’s ATP concentration will be less than 1000 times its concentration of ADP, and the cell will be unable to maintain a high level of metabolism. Rubric:

0 A response at this level is not scorable. The response is off-topic, blank, hostile, or otherwise not scorable. Unit 6, Nutrient Recycling

Unit Cognitive Objectives Cognitive Practice EOC Level Skill Item Unit 6 L3 F-1-c Apply no

A 4-point response will include, but is not limited to, the following points:

• Description of how the maple leaves decompose: Bacteria or fungi decompose the maple leaves with enzymes that break down the cellulose of the leaves, releasing the inorganic nutrients and recycling the organic nutrients within the leaves. Also, as the leaves dry and become brittle, abiotic or biotic factors, such as wind or animal activity, may break them into smaller pieces and accelerate the rate at which bacteria or fungi decompose the leaves.

Note: The student may also state that decomposition happens slowly during cold weather and more quickly during warm weather.

• Explanation of why this process is beneficial to the forest ecosystem: Decomposition breaks down the leaves’ original structure and releases any nutrients they contain. Released nutrients from decomposing leaves provide energy for living organisms, including the trees from which the leaves originated, to carry out metabolic activities, such as growth, reproduction, etc. Rubric:

0 A response at this level is not scorable. The response is off-topic, blank, hostile, or otherwise not scorable. Unit 7, Ecological Pyramids

Unit Cognitive Objectives Cognitive Practice EOC Level Skill Item Unit 7 L3 F-1-g Apply no

Each constructed-response formative item in the pool includes: The prompt and task (what the student sees) The scoring criteria—a tool used to score a student response. The scoring criteria provides the teacher with the specific content that students should address at the highest score point. The holistic rubric used to score all student responses to all items. The holistic rubric is used to ultimately decide on the score that each student response receives. Used in conjunction with the scoring criteria, the holistic rubric allows the teacher to consider conceptual understanding and communication, in addition to item-specific content. Inuits are Native American people who inhabit the arctic region of the western hemisphere. Food Chain 1 and Food Chain 2 depict the flow of energy in 2 different Inuit populations, Inuit 1 and Inuit 2. Inuit 1 consumes only whales, and Inuit 2 consumes only fish. Food Chain 1: algae → zooplankton → fish → seals → whales → Inuit 1 Food Chain 2: algae → zooplankton → fish → Inuit 2 Ecologists estimate that 10% of the energy absorbed by one trophic level transfers to the next successive level. Assume the algae in both food chains contain 140,000 calories of energy. ______Using your understanding of ecological pyramids, determine the amount of energy available to each Inuit population. As part of your answer, be sure to: • Draw 1 ecological pyramid for each food chain to illustrate the food chain’s flow of energy, and indicate the total number of calories at each trophic level for each pyramid. • Explain what happens to the 90% of the energy at one trophic level that does not transfer to the next successive level. • Compare the amount of energy available to Inuit 1 to the amount of energy available to Inuit 2. • Explain how the amount of energy available most likely affects the resulting density of each Inuit population. Scoring Criteria:

A 4-point response will include, but is not limited to, the following points:

• Drawings of ecological pyramids and indication of the total number of calories at each trophic level of each food chain:

Food Chain 1 ecological pyramid:

Food Chain 2 ecological pyramid:

• Explanation of what happens to the 90% of the energy that does not transfer to the next trophic level: Much of the energy that does not transfer to the next trophic level is used by the organisms to maintain metabolic activities. Organisms require energy to respire, move, grow, develop, reproduce, respond to the environment, maintain homeostasis, etc. Another portion of the energy that does not transfer to the next level is lost to the environment as heat.

• Comparison of the amount of energy available to each Inuit population: Inuit 1 in Food Chain 1 has 1/100th as many calories available as does Inuit 2 in Food Chain 2. (1.4 calories/140 calories = 1/100)

Inuit 2 in Food Chain 2 has 100 times as many calories available as does Inuit 1 in Food Chain 1. (140 calories/1.4 calories = 100)

• Explanation of how the amount of available energy affects population density: Inuit 2 in Food Chain 2 has more energy available to it. Thus, they will be expected to be healthier, live longer, and have more children. They have the potential to have a greater population density than Inuit 1 in Food Chain 1. Rubric:

0 A response at this level is not scorable. The response is off-topic, blank, hostile, or otherwise not scorable. Unit 7, Population Growth

Unit Cognitive Objectives Cognitive Practice EOC Level Skill Item Unit 7 L3 F-1-j, F-1-i, Analyze no A-2-c, A-1-c

______Using your understanding of population growth characteristics, compare the growth of the bacterial cultures. As part of your answer, be sure to: • Graph Jillian’s data, including accurately labeling each axis, providing a title, and identifying which culture exhibits a logistic growth pattern and which culture exhibits an exponential growth pattern. • Define the concept of carrying capacity, and explain how carrying capacity relates to both of Jillian’s bacterial cultures. • Describe a potential experiment Jillian might use to demonstrate how the carrying capacity of an environment influences the size of a bacterial population. A 4-point response will include, but is not limited to, the following points:

• Graph of Jillian’s data, including accurately labeled axes, title, and identification of which culture exhibits logistic growth and which culture exhibits exponential growth:

Culture 1 exhibits an exponential growth pattern.

Culture 2 exhibits a logistic growth pattern.

• Definition of carrying capacity: Carrying capacity refers to the maximum number of organisms of a particular species that can be maintained in a specific environment over time.

Explanation of how carrying capacity relates to Jillian’s cultures: The bacterial population exhibiting exponential growth has not reached the carrying capacity of the culture media because its growth has not been limited in any way. The bacterial population exhibiting logistic growth has reached the carrying capacity of the culture media because its growth has been limited during the final 3 hr. Limitations in the bacteria’s environment such as limited space, limited nutrients, or the accumulation of waste causes the reproduction rate of the bacteria to approximately equal the death rate of the bacteria.

• Description of experiment to determine the influence of carrying capacity on the size of a bacterial population: Jillian might grow a certain species of bacteria in two 1000 mL flasks, one containing half the quantity of nutrients of the other. After Jillian inoculates each flask with the same species and approximately the same number of bacteria and incubates each flask at 37°C, she should sample the bacterial cultures each hour to determine the size of each bacterial population.

Note: A variety of experiments are possible, but to be considered an experiment rather than merely an observation, the student must clearly define conditions that can be compared. The key to a good, simple experiment is that the conditions for only 1 variable can be compared. Such variables could be the concentration of nutrients, the size of the vessel, the amount of waste at the outset, and so forth. It is not appropriate to only vary the size of the initial inoculation for the purpose of studying carrying capacity. This change would influence how quickly the population reaches its carrying capacity, but not the total carrying capacity of the environment. Rubric:

0 A response at this level is not scorable. The response is off-topic, blank, hostile, or otherwise not scorable. Unit 8, Cells, Practice EOC Item

Unit Cognitive Objectives Cognitive Practice EOC Level Skill Item Unit 8 L3 B-1-a Apply yes

______Using your understanding of cells, examine this diagram and describe the cell type in each group. As part of your answer, be sure to: • Identify the cell type represented in Drawing A and the cell type represented in Drawing B, and explain your reasoning. • Describe how genetic material is stored in the cells of each type. • Describe one other structural difference between the 2 cell types. Scoring Criteria:

A 4-point response will include, but is not limited to, the following points:

• Identification of cell type in each drawing: Drawing A cells are prokaryotic cells (prokaryotes). The Drawing B cell is a eukaryotic cell (eukaryote).

Explanation of reasoning: Drawing A cells are prokaryotic because they are very small and simple compared to the cells in Drawing B. No internal cellular structures are visible. The Drawing B cell is eukaryotic because it is much larger and more complex compared to the cells in Drawing A. Internal cellular structures are visible.

• Description of how the genetic material is stored in each cell type: Prokaryotic cells do not have a membrane-bound nucleus. The genetic material exists as a coiled loop of DNA. Eukaryotic cells have a membrane-bound nucleus. The genetic material exists as chromosomes within the nucleus. The chromosomes are composed of DNA wrapped around proteins.

• Description of another structural difference between the 2 cell types: Prokaryotic cells do not contain any membrane-bound organelles; however, eukaryotic cells contain numerous types of membrane-bound organelles.

Note: Some students may include that, in general, prokaryotic cells have cell walls. Some eukaryotes have cell walls; however, the chemical makeup of the cell wall is different in each eukaryotic kingdom. Rubric:

0 A response at this level is not scorable. The response is off-topic, blank, hostile, or otherwise not scorable. Unit 8, Cellular Division

Unit Cognitive Objectives Cognitive Practice EOC Level Skill Item Unit 8 L3 B-1-j Analyze no

______Using your understanding of cell division, analyze the information provided and the information in this table. As part of your answer, be sure to: • Determine which phase of the cell cycle each stage in the table represents, and explain your answer. Include information from the description and from the table to support your explanation. • Determine the stage in the table during which Jamila would most likely observe chromosomes aligned on the equator of the cell. Explain your reasoning. Scoring Criteria:

A 4-point response will include, but is not limited to, the following points:

• Determination of which phase of the cell cycle each stage represents: Stage A: Early interphase Stage B: Prophase or metaphase Stage C: Anaphase or early telophase Stage D: Interphase

Explanation of which phase of the cell cycle each stage represents: Stage A: The chromosomes are not condensed. The DNA content is only half that of Stages B and C, meaning that DNA replication, which occurs during the S phase of interphase, has not yet begun. The cell is small, with only half the volume of the cells in Stages B and C, which means that the growth phases of interphase have not yet begun.

Stage B: The chromosomes are condensed, meaning the cell must be in mitosis, not interphase. The chromosome number is the same as during Stage A, meaning that sister chromatids have not yet separated. The DNA content has doubled compared to the cell in Stage A, meaning that DNA replication, which occurs during the S phase of interphase, is complete. The cell has twice the volume of the cell in Stage A, which means that the growth phases of interphase are complete.

Stage C: The chromosomes are condensed, meaning the cell must still be in mitosis. The chromosome number has doubled compared to Stage B, meaning that sister chromatids have separated. This separation occurs during anaphase. (Early telophase is also acceptable as the chromosomes would still be condensed.) The DNA content and the cell volume are twice that of the cell in Stage A, which means that the cell contains the replicated DNA and has not yet divided.

Stage D: The cell has half the chromosomes, half the DNA, and half the volume of the cell in Stage C, which means that mitosis is complete. The stages are sequential, so interphase must follow the end of mitosis.

• Determination of stage during which Jamila would observe aligned chromosomes: Stage B

Explanation of stage during which Jamila would observe aligned chromosomes: The chromosomes are condensed, as stated in the description. The cell contains replicated chromosomes, since it has 20 pg of DNA, and the cell is twice the size of the cell in Stage A. These descriptions mean the cell is not in interphase, but instead must be in mitosis. Because the cell in Stage B has the same number of chromosomes as the cell in Stage A, it must be in either prophase or metaphase. Chromosomes align on the equator during metaphase. Rubric:

0 A response at this level is not scorable. The response is off-topic, blank, hostile, or otherwise not scorable. Unit 9, Cellular Respiration

Unit Cognitive Objectives Cognitive Practice EOC Level Skill Item Unit 9 L3 B-1-h Analyze no

______Using your understanding of cellular respiration, analyze the information in the table. As part of your answer, be sure to: • Identify the electron-carrying molecules in the mitochondria, and explain how the addition of CO inhibits the recycling of these electron-carrying molecules. • Compare the expected number of ATPs produced by cells receiving 50 ppm CO to that produced by cells receiving 500 ppm CO.

• Explain how preventing the transfer of electrons to O2 ultimately affects ATP production. • Explain how cells exposed to CO must adjust in order to produce a sufficient amount of ATP. Scoring Criteria:

A 4-point response will include, but is not limited to, the following points:

• Identification of electron-carrying molecules in the mitochondria: NADH and FADH2

Explanation of how CO inhibits the recycling of electron-carrying molecules: NADH and FADH2 donate electrons to the early steps of the electron transport chain and are converted to NAD+ and FAD in the process. The electron transport chain transfers these electrons along the chain, ultimately transferring the electrons to O2 at the end of the chain. The addition of CO prevents this transfer of electrons to O2. This slows down the electron transport chain, resulting in a build-up of NADH and FADH2 molecules within the mitochondria.

• Comparison of the expected number of ATPs produced by cells exposed to 50 ppm CO to that produced by cells exposed to 500 ppm CO: Cells receiving 50 ppm CO should produce approximately 29–30 ATP molecules per glucose molecule (80% of 36 or 38). Cells receiving 500 ppm CO should produce approximately 16–17 ATP molecules per glucose molecule (45% of 36 or 38).

Note: The number of ATPs produced for this response will depend upon whether the teacher and/or text book states the number of ATPs produced per glucose molecule is 36 or 38.

• Explanation of how preventing the transfer of electrons to O2 affects ATP production: The transfer of electrons down the electron transport chain forces hydrogen ions to increase in concentration on one side of the inner membrane of the mitochondria (specifically in the intermembrane space). These hydrogen ions then move down their concentration gradient across the membrane through ATP synthase, which results in the production of ATP. Since CO prevents the transfer of electrons to O2, the movement of electrons along the electron transport chain is inhibited. This, in turn, inhibits the movement of hydrogen ions (H+) across the inner membrane of the mitochondria and the subsequent production of ATP.

• Explanation of how cells exposed to CO must adjust to produce sufficient amounts of ATP: There are 2 ways in which cells exposed to CO can adjust. (Only one description is necessary to answer the question.)

1) Cells exposed to CO may begin carrying out fermentation processes. This usually occurs when cells do not have adequate amounts of O2. The addition of CO would cause the same result as not having enough O2.

2) Cells exposed to CO may increase the rate of all cellular respiration processes (glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and the electron transport chain). This could increase the quantity of NADH and FADH2 molecules adding electrons to the electron transport chain, and the amount of O2 in the cell, thereby overcoming the inhibition on Complex IV activity. Rubric:

0 A response at this level is not scorable. The response is off-topic, blank, hostile, or otherwise not scorable. Unit 10, Photosynthesis A

Unit Cognitive Objectives Cognitive Practice EOC Level Skill Item Unit 10 L3 E-2-e Analyze no

12 H2S + 6 CO2 → 12 S + C6H12O6 + 6 H2O She recognizes that the photosynthetic reaction carried out by plants is very similar to the reaction carried out by C. tepidum. This equation represents the photosynthetic reaction carried out by all plants.

12 H2O + 6 CO2 → 6 O2 + C6H12O6 + 6 H2O Dr. Chang compares the photosynthetic reaction of C. tepidum to that of plants. She performs 2 experiments to determine the origin of the oxygen atoms in the products of photosynthesis by a plant. In each experiment, she substitutes a heavy isotope of oxygen, 18O, for the common isotope, 16O.

18 • In Experiment 1, she uses H2O containing O. 18 • In Experiment 2, she uses CO2 containing O. ______Using your understanding of photosynthesis and the photosynthetic reaction of C. tepidum, analyze these experiments. As part of your answer, be sure to: • Use information from the photosynthetic reaction of C. tepidum to identify the product(s) in which Dr. Chang will expect to detect 18O at the conclusion of Experiment 1, and explain your reasoning. • Use information from the photosynthetic reaction of C. tepidum to identify the product(s) in which Dr. Chang will expect to detect 18O at the conclusion of Experiment 2, and explain your reasoning. Scoring Criteria:

A 4-point response will include, but is not limited to, the following points:

• Identification of product(s) containing 18O at the conclusion of Experiment 1: O2 molecules

Explanation of reasoning: Since C. tepidum and plants undergo similar photosynthetic reactions, the molecules in the C. tepidum photosynthetic reaction correspond to the molecules in the photosynthetic reaction of plants. The bacterium does not utilize H2O, but instead utilizes H2S to produce S. H2S must fill the same role for the bacteria as H2O does for the plant: that of electron and + H donor. The photosynthetic reaction of C. tepidum shows that H2S breaks down and that the bacterium produces 12 S atoms. If Dr. Chang uses H2O that contains 18O, then it follows that she should expect all of the 18O to be present in the 6 O2 molecules (which contain 12 O atoms).

• Identification of product(s) containing 18O at the conclusion of Experiment 2: C6H12O6 and H2O molecules

Explanation of reasoning: Since C. tepidum and plants undergo similar photosynthetic reactions, the molecules in the C. tepidum photosynthetic reaction correspond to the molecules in the photosynthetic reaction of plants. The only source of oxygen for the bacterium is CO2, and all of the oxygen atoms from CO2 end up in the 1 C6H12O6 molecule and the 6 H2O molecules. If Dr. Chang uses 18 18 CO2 that contains O, then it follows that she should expect all of the O to be present in the 1 C6H12O6 molecule and the 6 H2O molecules. Rubric:

0 A response at this level is not scorable. The response is off-topic, blank, hostile, or otherwise not scorable. Unit 10, Photosynthesis B

Unit Cognitive Objectives Cognitive Practice EOC Level Skill Item Unit 10 L3 E-2-f Analyze no

______Using your understanding of photosynthesis, analyze this experiment. As part of your answer, be sure to: • Explain why counting the number of oxygen bubbles produced per minute is an acceptable method to determine the rate of photosynthesis. • Explain why white and green light colors cause different rates of photosynthesis. • Predict the results of Trevor’s experiment if he moves the light source 100 cm away from the plant. Explain your reasoning. Scoring Criteria:

A 4-point response will include, but is not limited to, the following points:

• Explanation of why counting the number of oxygen bubbles produced per minute is an acceptable method to determine the rate of photosynthesis: Oxygen and sugar are products of photosynthesis. The amount of oxygen produced will be comparable to the amount of sugar produced by the plant. More bubbles produced indicates a greater rate of sugar production, which indicates a greater rate of photosynthesis. Therefore, this method is an acceptable way to determine the rate of photosynthesis.

• Explanation of why white and green light colors cause different rates of photosynthesis: Photosynthesis requires plants to absorb energy from light. White light contains all colors (wavelengths) of light and plants absorb the most energy from white light. Therefore, the number of oxygen bubbles is greatest under white light. Plants do not absorb much energy from green light because the chlorophyll reflects green light, so the rate of photosynthesis is very low.

• Prediction of Trevor’s results if he moves the light source 100 cm from the plant: Moving the light source farther away would result in lowered rates of photosynthesis for all 4 colors of light.

Explanation of reasoning: Since the plants are farther from the light source, they will absorb less light. (Technically, the plants will receive fewer photons of light because more of it will be dispersed over the greater distance.) Therefore, the rate of photosynthesis (light-dependent reactions) will decrease, and the plants will generate less oxygen. Rubric:

0 A response at this level is not scorable. The response is off-topic, blank, hostile, or otherwise not scorable. Unit 11, Genetic Code

Unit Cognitive Objectives Cognitive Practice EOC Level Skill Item Unit 11 L3 C-1-d, C-1-c, Analyze no C-1-a

______Using your understanding of mutations and the genetic code, analyze these nucleotide sequences. As part of your answer, be sure to: • Determine the DNA sequence that complements Sequence 1. • Determine the mRNA sequence that complements Sequence 1. • Use the mRNA Codon Chart to translate the mRNA sequence in the previous bullet, reading left to right, into an amino acid chain. • Identify the type of mutation in Sequence 2, describe how this mutation specifically affects the amino acid sequence of the protein, and describe how this change results in a protein that does not function correctly. • Briefly describe the role of the ribosome and tRNA in translating the mRNA sequence into an amino acid chain. Scoring Criteria:

• Determination of DNA sequence: A T G T A T G A T C C A G C T C C G T A G

• Determination of mRNA sequence: A U G U A U G A U C C A G C U C C G U A G

• Translation of mRNA sequence into amino acid chain: Met–Tyr–Asp–Pro–Ala–Pro

• Identification of type of mutation that occurred in Sequence 2: The mutation can be called either an insertion mutation, or a frameshift mutation.

Description of how the mutation in Sequence 2 affects the amino acid sequence of the protein: By inserting a guanine-containing nucleotide as the 6th nucleotide, the remainder of the sequence is not read in its correct codon sequence. This changes the third codon to UGA, a stop codon. Therefore, the amino acid sequence will stop after Tyr.

NOTE: Examinees must indicate that the stop codon ends the production of the amino acid chain. If they write the amino acid chain, they must NOT show additional amino acids following the stop codon.

Description of how this change results in a protein that does not function correctly: The stop codon ends the production of the amino acid chain. An amino acid chain with only 2 amino acids does not have the same function as an amino acid chain with 6 amino acids.

• Description of role of the ribosome and tRNA in translating the mRNA sequence: Ribosome: The ribosome is the cellular structure that assembles amino acid chains. It attaches to the mRNA molecule and bonds amino acids together as they are brought to the ribosome by tRNA.

tRNA: The tRNA molecules transfer specific amino acids to the ribosome. They have an anticodon sequence that complements the codon sequence of mRNA, and these complementary sequences regulate which amino acid is added to the chain. Rubric:

0 A response at this level is not scorable. The response is off-topic, blank, hostile, or otherwise not scorable. Unit 12, Genetics A

Unit Cognitive Objectives Cognitive Practice EOC Level Skill Item Unit 12 L3 C-1-j Analyze no

A 4-point response will include, but is not limited to, the following points:

• Description of difference between sex chromosomes and autosomal chromosomes: Sex chromosomes are the pair of chromosomes that determine the gender of an individual. Autosomal chromosomes are the remaining 22 pairs of chromosomes that are not directly involved in determining the gender of an individual.

• Explanation of why females are less likely to inherit hemophilia than males: In order for hemophilia to be expressed, a female, who carries two X chromosomes (one from each parent), must inherit a hemophilia allele from both parents. Females who receive only one hemophilia allele from either parent are carriers of the trait, but do not have hemophilia. Since males only have one X chromosome (inherited from his mother), males who receive a normal allele from the mother will not have hemophilia, but males who receive the hemophilia allele will have hemophilia.

Note: Examinees may use an example as an alternative explanation. If a female carrying the hemophilia trait mates with a male who has hemophilia, there is a 50% chance for both their male and their female offspring to have hemophilia. However, if a female carrying the hemophilia trait mates with a male who does not have hemophilia, there is a 50% chance for their male offspring to have hemophilia, but a 0% chance for their female offspring to have hemophilia. Thus, females are less likely to inherit hemophilia.

• Explanation of why males and females are equally likely to inherit PKU: The PKU allele is located on an autosomal chromosome. Males and females each have 2 versions of each of their autosomal chromosomes. As such, each gender is equally likely to receive either a normal allele or the PKU allele. Therefore, each gender is also equally likely to receive 2 copies of the PKU allele, which will result in the person having PKU. Rubric:

0 A response at this level is not scorable. The response is off-topic, blank, hostile, or otherwise not scorable. Unit 12, Genetics B

Unit Cognitive Objectives Cognitive Practice EOC Level Skill Item Unit 12 L3 C-1-k, C-1-L, Analyze no C-1-j

Each constructed-response formative item in the pool includes: The prompt and task (what the student sees) The scoring criteria—a tool used to score a student response. The scoring criteria provides the teacher with the specific content that students should address at the highest score point. The holistic rubric used to score all student responses to all items. The holistic rubric is used to ultimately decide on the score that each student response receives. Used in conjunction with the scoring criteria, the holistic rubric allows the teacher to consider conceptual understanding and communication, in addition to item-specific content. Color blindness is an X-linked recessive trait. Sue is not color-blind, but Ruth (Sue’s mother) and Luke (Sue’s brother) are color-blind. Stan (Sue’s father) and Tom (Sue’s husband) are not color-blind, and neither is Mark (Sue and Tom’s son). Sue and Tom are expecting their second child. ______Using your understanding of genetics, analyze this description. As part of your answer, be sure to: • Assign specific allele designations and genotype labels for each phenotype. • Diagram the pedigree for this family, indicating each named individual’s genotype and phenotype for color blindness. Use a circle to indicate each female, and use a square to indicate each male. Fill in the circle or square to indicate color-blind individuals. • Determine the probability of Sue and Tom’s second child being color-blind if that child is a boy. Draw a Punnett square and use it to determine this probability. Explain your answer. • Determine the probability of Sue and Tom’s second child being color-blind if that child is a girl. Draw a Punnett square and use it to determine this probability. Explain your answer. Scoring Criteria:

A 4-point response will include, but is not limited to, the following points:

• Allele designations and genotype labels: XB = noncolor-blind allele Xb = color-blind allele Y = male sex chromosome

XBXB and XBXb = noncolor-blind female XbXb = color-blind female

XBY = noncolor-blind male XbY = color-blind male

Note: The examinee may use alternate, clearly labeled designations. They must indicate that females are XX and males are XY and that the allele is carried only on the X chromosome.

• Diagram of family pedigree indicating each named individual’s genotype and phenotype for color blindness: The response must include an accurately diagrammed pedigree. Each named individual’s genotype must be noted, and circles and squares for color-blind individuals must be filled in accordingly to reflect phenotype.

• Determination of the probability of Sue and Tom’s second child being color-blind if that child is a boy: 50%

Punnett Square and explanation: Since Sue is not color-blind, but has a color-blind mother, her genotype must be XBXb. Tom is also not color-blind, so he must have the genotype XBY. The probability that any son born to Sue and Tom will be color-blind is 50%. Sons will either have the genotype XBY and not be color-blind, or have the genotype XbY and be color-blind.

• Determination of the probability of Sue and Tom’s second child being color-blind if that child is a girl: 0%

Punnett Square and explanation: Since Sue is not color-blind, but has a color-blind mother, her genotype must be XBXb. Tom is also not color-blind, so he must have the genotype XBY. The probability that any daughter born to Sue and Tom will be color-blind is 0%. Daughters will have the genotype XBXB or XBXb and not be color-blind in either case.

Note: Examinees may use the same Punnett square as explanation for both bullets. Rubric:

0 A response at this level is not scorable. The response is off-topic, blank, hostile, or otherwise not scorable. Unit 12, Genetics C, EOC Practice Item

Unit Cognitive Objectives Cognitive Practice EOC Level Skill Item Unit 12 L3 C-1-L, C-1-k Analyze yes

Each constructed-response formative item in the pool includes: The prompt and task (what the student sees) The scoring criteria—a tool used to score a student response. The scoring criteria provides the teacher with the specific content that students should address at the highest score point. The holistic rubric used to score all student responses to all items. The holistic rubric is used to ultimately decide on the score that each student response receives. Used in conjunction with the scoring criteria, the holistic rubric allows the teacher to consider conceptual understanding and communication, in addition to item-specific content. Tylosis is an autosomal dominant disorder that causes thickening of skin on the hands and the feet. Erin and Kate (Erin’s mother) do not have tylosis, but Bryce (Erin’s brother), Liam (Erin’s husband), and Kyle (Erin and Liam’s son) all have tylosis. Jana (Erin and Liam’s daughter) does not have tylosis. Erin and Liam are expecting their third child. ______Using your understanding of genetics, analyze this description. As part of your answer, be sure to: • Assign specific allele designations and genotype labels for each phenotype. • Determine Ryan’s (Erin’s father) genotype and whether he has tylosis. Explain your answer, using a Punnett square if helpful. • Diagram the pedigree for this family, including Ryan, indicating each individual’s genotype and phenotype for tylosis. Use a circle to indicate each female, and use a square to indicate each male. Fill in the circle or square to indicate individuals with tylosis. • Determine the probability that Erin and Liam’s third child will have tylosis. Use a Punnett square to determine this probability, and explain your answer. Scoring Criteria:

A 4-point response will include, but is not limited to, the following points:

• Allele designations and genotype labels: T = allele for exhibiting tylosis t = allele for not exhibiting tylosis

TT or Tt = individuals exhibiting tylosis tt = individuals not exhibing tylosis

Note: The examinee may use alternate, clearly labeled designations.

• Determination of Ryan’s genotype and whether he has tylosis: Ryan’s genotype is Tt and he has tylosis.

Explanation of the answer: Kate (Ryan’s wife) does not have tylosis, but Bryce (Ryan and Kate’s son) has tylosis. Kate does not have a T allele because she does not have tylosis, so Bryce must have received a T allele from Ryan. Therefore, Ryan must have tylosis. Since Erin does not have tylosis, she must have received a t allele from both Ryan and Kate. Therefore, Ryan’s genotype is Tt.

Optional Punnett square: Kate (tt) x Ryan (Tt)

• Diagram of the pedigree for this family indicating each individual’s genotype and phenotype for tylosis: The response must include an accurately diagrammed pedigree. Each named individual’s genotype must be noted, and circles and squares for individuals exhibiting tylosis must be filled in accordingly to reflect phenotype.

• Determination of the probability that Erin and Liam’s third child will have tylosis: 50%

Explanation: Since Erin does not have tylosis, she must have the genotype tt. Since Liam has tylosis, he must have the genotype TT or Tt. Liam must have the genotype Tt because his son, Kyle, has tylosis, but his daughter, Jana, does not. Liam must carry only one copy of the dominant gene, otherwise all of his children would have tylosis. The Punnett square show that there is 50% chance for any of Erin and Liam’s children to have the genotype Tt and have tylosis.

Punnett Square: Erin (tt) x Liam (Tt)

Rubric:

0 A response at this level is not scorable. The response is off-topic, blank, hostile, or otherwise not scorable. Unit 13, Natural Selection

Unit Cognitive Objectives Cognitive Practice EOC Level Skill Item Unit 13 L3 D-1-j, D-1-d Evaluate no

______Using your understanding of natural selection, analyze these experimental results. As part of your answer, be sure to: • Identify whether this experiment is an example of disruptive selection, directional selection, or stabilizing selection. Explain your reasoning. • Describe how the researchers likely carried out this experiment. Take into account that determining the oil content of a corn kernel destroys that kernel and that it cannot be planted. • Based on the trend shown, predict the results if the researchers continued this experiment for an additional 20 generations. Explain your reasoning. Scoring Criteria:

A 4-point response will include, but is not limited to, the following points:

• Identification of whether this experiment is an example of disruptive selection, directional selection, or stabilizing selection: Directional selection

Explanation of reasoning: Directional selection results in the shift of the phenotype in one direction. In this example, the corn’s oil content consistently increases.

• Description of how researchers likely carried out this experiment: The researchers likely measured the oil content of some corn kernels from a large number of ears of corn, or from a large number of individual plants. They selected to plant corn kernels from the ears (or plants) that showed the highest oil levels. (In addition, selecting corn kernels from ears that showed the least variation in oil levels would have increased the likelihood that the kernels selected to plant also contained high oil levels.) After growing the plants and collecting the ears of corn, they measured the oil content of some kernels from each ear. Each generation, the researchers continued to plant kernels coming from ears of corn with the highest oil levels.

• Prediction of results if experiment continued for an additional 20 generations: Increased oil content in corn

Explanation of reasoning: The trend of increasing oil content of corn does not appear to be slowing down. Therefore, it is likely that 20 more generations of selection will result in a continued increase of the corn’s oil content. Rubric:

0 A response at this level is not scorable. The response is off-topic, blank, hostile, or otherwise not scorable. Unit 14, Evolution

Unit Cognitive Objectives Cognitive Practice EOC Level Skill Item Unit 14 L3 D-1-f Analyze no

Each constructed-response formative item in the pool includes: The prompt and task (what the student sees) The scoring criteria—a tool used to score a student response. The scoring criteria provides the teacher with the specific content that students should address at the highest score point. The holistic rubric used to score all student responses to all items. The holistic rubric is used to ultimately decide on the score that each student response receives. Used in conjunction with the scoring criteria, the holistic rubric allows the teacher to consider conceptual understanding and communication, in addition to item-specific content. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck and Charles Darwin agreed that organisms have changed over time, and that organisms are adapted to their environments. However, they disagreed about how these changes occurred and how organisms adapted to their environments. On Darwin’s visit to the Galápagos Islands in the 1830s, he observed marine iguanas that swim in the ocean and consume algae from underwater rocks. Most other iguana species are herbivores and live on land, though many swim in freshwater lakes and streams. ______Using your understanding of evolution, contrast Lamarck’s and Darwin’s theories. As part of your answer, be sure to: • Describe Lamarck’s and Darwin’s theories about how organisms change over time. • Contrast how Lamarck and Darwin would most likely explain the evolution of the marine iguana on the Galápagos Islands. Scoring Criteria:

A 4-point response will include, but is not limited to, the following points:

• Description of Lamarck’s and Darwin’s theories about how organisms change over time: Lamarck’s theory of inheritance of acquired traits states that traits an individual organism acquires during its lifetime, whether through use or disuse, can be passed on to its offspring.

Darwin’s theory of evolution by natural selection includes these concepts: • Organisms within a population vary. • There are more potential offspring than can survive. • Competition exists within members of a population. • Those individuals that survive and reproduce pass their inherited traits to their offspring. • Over time, the population becomes better adapted to its environment.

• Contrast how Lamarck and Darwin would most likely explain the evolution of the marine iguana: Lamarck would most likely state that local land iguanas began swimming in the ocean. Simply by swimming in the ocean and feeding on the algae underwater, they developed traits that allowed them to survive in the cold salt water environment and then to pass those traits to their offspring. Their offspring inherited these traits and possibly added new traits by the continued use of the ocean environment. Over many generations of swimming in the ocean and consuming algae, the iguana population adapted to the marine environment.

Darwin would most likely state that a limited number of local land iguanas possessed traits that allowed them to survive by swimming in the ocean and consuming algae. These iguanas survived and reproduced in greater numbers than did iguanas that did not (or could not) swim in the ocean and consume algae. Those iguanas that survived the longest and reproduced the most passed more of those inherited traits to their offspring. The offspring inherited these traits, and, over many generations of this selection, the iguana population adapted to the marine environment. Rubric:

0 A response at this level is not scorable. The response is off-topic, blank, hostile, or otherwise not scorable. Unit 14, Evolutionary Relationships, Practice EOC Item

Unit Cognitive Objectives Cognitive Practice EOC Level Skill Item Unit 14 L3 D-1-L Apply yes

A type of snake has radial embryonic cell division, vertebrae, a bony skeleton, and produces eggs with amniotic fluid, but it does not have 4 limbs, a 4-chambered heart, or hair. Student A and Student B discuss which listed organism is most closely related to this type of snake. Student A thinks the snake is most closely related to and should be grouped with the trout because snakes and trout both have vertebrae and a bony skeleton, but neither have 4 limbs. Student B thinks the snake is most closely related to and should be grouped with the turtle because snakes and turtles both lay eggs with amniotic fluid, but neither have 4-chambered hearts. ______Using your understanding of evolutionary relationships, evaluate the groupings proposed by the students. As part of your answer, be sure to: • Briefly describe how biologists use comparative anatomy to indicate shared evolutionary relationships. • Identify which organisms in the cladogram have a bony skeleton, and explain how the information in the cladogram supports your answer. • State whether Student A or Student B is more correct, based on the information provided and the cladogram. Explain your reasoning. • Describe how biochemical evidence would be used to support your decision. Scoring Criteria:

A 4-point response will include, but is not limited to, the following points:

• Description of how biologists use comparative anatomy to indicate shared evolutionary relationships: Organisms that are more closely related—those who share a more recent common ancestor—have homologous structures. These bones are usually of the same embryological origin, and the same bones are organized in the same manner in related organisms, though significant differences may be present.

• Identification of organisms with bony skeleton: Trout, salamander, turtle, eagle, rabbit

Explanation of how the information in the cladogram supports the answer: In this cladogram, all organisms to the right (or above) a specific labeled horizontal line possess all of the traits to the left (or below) the line. The line representing bony skeleton is between the shark and the trout. Therefore, the starfish and the shark do not have bony skeletons, but the trout, salamander, turtle, eagle, and rabbit do have bony skeletons.

• Statement of which student is more correct: Student B

Explanation of reasoning: The snake has radial embryonic cell division, vertebrae, a bony skeleton, and it produces eggs with amniotic fluid. These are all traits also shared by the turtle. The snake does not have hair or a four-chambered heart. These traits are shared only by the eagle and the rabbit. The snake does not have limbs. However, the snake must be placed in the highest grouping in which it shares a characteristic, so the presence of the amniotic egg requires it to be grouped with the turtle.

• Description of how biochemical evidence would be used to support the decision: Organisms that are more closely related—those who share a more recent common ancestor—share more similar genetic sequences (DNA or RNA) or more similar amino acid sequences in their proteins than do less closely related organisms. Therefore, the snake will have DNA, RNA, and amino acid sequences more similar to those of the turtle than any other animal listed in this cladogram. Rubric:

0 A response at this level is not scorable. The response is off-topic, blank, hostile, or otherwise not scorable. Unit 14, Natural Selection

Unit Cognitive Objectives Cognitive Practice EOC Level Skill Item Unit 14 L3 D-1-k Apply no

Based on molecular evidence, some scientists classify the elephants, manatees, and hyraxes in the same group of mammals, distinct from other mammal groups. ______Using your understanding of natural selection, compare and contrast these 3 mammal groups. As part of your answer, be sure to: • Explain how scientists used molecular evidence to classify these 3 mammals in the same group. • Explain how these 3 mammals can be classified in the same group although they have evolved very different physiological and anatomical traits. Scoring Criteria:

A 4-point response will include, but is not limited to, the following points:

• Explanation of how scientists used molecular evidence to classify these mammals in the same group: When scientists compare molecular evidence such as nucleotide sequences of DNA or amino acid sequences of proteins, they identify organisms that have similar sequences. The scientists found that these 3 mammals have the same genetic (molecular) similarities and hypothesized that this is because they shared a common ancestor millions of years ago that was genetically different from other groups of mammals. All descendants from this common ancestor share the same genetic similarities and are genetically different from other groups. Thus, elephants, manatees, and hyraxes are classified in the same group, distinct from other mammal groups.

• Explanation of how these mammals can be classified in the same group although they have evolved very different physiological and anatomical traits: These mammals are grouped together because they share a common ancestor. They evolved different physiological and anatomical traits over time as the descendants of the common ancestor diversified into different habitats and niches. Rubric:

0 A response at this level is not scorable. The response is off-topic, blank, hostile, or otherwise not scorable. Unit 15, Animal Diversity

Unit Cognitive Objectives Cognitive Practice EOC Level Skill Item Unit 15 L3 E-3-g Analyze no

______Using your understanding of animal diversity and this data table, compare characteristics of the major animal phyla. As part of your answer, be sure to: • Describe the difference in structure between organisms that show radial symmetry and organisms that show bilateral symmetry. • Compare the end result of the blastopore during embryological development of the protostomes and the deuterostomes. • Identify the phylum that is most closely related to Chordata, and using information in the data table, explain your reasoning. • Identify the 2 phyla that, based on these characteristics only, show no differences. Describe additional characteristics that biologists use to separate these organisms into 2 separate phyla. Scoring Criteria:

A 4-point response will include, but is not limited to, the following points:

• Description of difference in structure between organisms that show radial symmetry and organisms that show bilateral symmetry: Organisms that show radial symmetry can have any number of lines drawn (or cuts made) through their center to result in 2 equal but opposite halves. These organisms are organized around a central axis. Organisms that show bilateral symmetry can have only 1 line drawn (or cut made) through their center to result in 2 equal but opposite halves. Bilaterally symmetric organisms have a right side and a left side, an anterior end and a posterior end, and a dorsal side and a ventral side.

• Comparison of the end result of the blastopore during embryological development of the protostomes and the deuterostomes: The blastopore is the site where the blastula folds in on itself. In organisms that have the protostome type of embryological development, the blastopore forms the mouth. In organisms that have the deuterostome type of embryological development, the blastopore forms the anus.

• Identification of phylum most closely related to Chordata: Echinodermata

Explanation of reasoning, using information from the table: Echinodermata is the only phylum that also has the deuterostome type of embryological development, which is the most important of the listed characteristics for determining close relationships.

Optional: Other phyla share other characteristics, such as being bilaterally symmetric, having 3 cell layers, having a coelom, and having segmentation, but echinodermata and chordata share being deuterostomes.

• Identification of 2 phyla that show no differences in these characteristics: Annelida and Arthropoda

Description of additional characteristics used to separate these 2 phyla: The Annelida do not have jointed appendages, and instead use a hydrostatic skeleton for movement. They have nephridia for excreting nitrogenous waste, and a clitellum, which is used for reproduction. The Arthropoda have a tough exoskeleton (made of chitin) and jointed appendages for movement. They experience periods of molting, when their exoskeleton is shed and replaced by a larger one.

Note: Additional characteristics may also be described and each characteristic must be evaluated separately. Rubric:

0 A response at this level is not scorable. The response is off-topic, blank, hostile, or otherwise not scorable. Unit 16, Human Body

Unit Cognitive Objectives Cognitive Practice EOC Level Skill Item Unit 16 L3 E-1-b, E-1-a Evaluate no

Each constructed-response formative item in the pool includes: The prompt and task (what the student sees) The scoring criteria—a tool used to score a student response. The scoring criteria provides the teacher with the specific content that students should address at the highest score point. The holistic rubric used to score all student responses to all items. The holistic rubric is used to ultimately decide on the score that each student response receives. Used in conjunction with the scoring criteria, the holistic rubric allows the teacher to consider conceptual understanding and communication, in addition to item-specific content. Humans are complex multicellular organisms consisting of trillions of cells that work together to sustain the activities of the body. These cells are grouped into various levels of biological organization. A student states that the heart is composed of muscle and nervous tissue, because the heart contracts and it receives signals from the nervous system to contract. The student states that the heart is a component of the circulatory system because it forces the movement of blood throughout the body. Finally, the student states that the heart is also a component of the respiratory system because the blood it pumps passes through the lungs. ______Using your understanding of the organization of the human body, evaluate the correctness and completeness of the student’s statement. As part of your answer, be sure to: • Correct any errors or incompleteness in the student’s statement regarding the types of tissues within the heart. • Correct any errors or incompleteness in the student’s statement regarding the organ systems to which the heart belongs. Scoring Criteria:

A 4-point response will include, but is not limited to, the following points:

• Correction of errors or incompleteness in the student’s statement regarding the types of tissues within the heart: The student’s statement is correct, but incomplete. The heart does contain muscle and nervous tissue for the reasons stated. However, the heart also contains epithelial and connective tissue. Epithelial tissue lines the inside of the heart and separates the muscle layer from the inside, blood-filled compartment. Epithelial tissue is also a component of the pericardium that surrounds the heart as a protective sac. Connective tissue is a component of the lining on the inside of the heart and is a component of the pericardium. Connective tissue also forms the valves within the heart.

Optional: Connective tissue also forms the collagen-filled fibrous internal skeleton of the heart.

• Correction of errors or incompleteness in the student’s statement regarding the organ systems to which the heart belongs: The student’s statement is incorrect (but not incomplete). The heart is a component of the circulatory system, but is not a component of the respiratory system. The heart forces the movement of the blood through the body. The blood does pass through the lungs, but that does not make the heart a component of the respiratory system. The heart is not directly involved in the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood.

Note: By this student’s logic, the heart could be a component of all organ systems because the heart delivers blood to all organs. Rubric:

0 A response at this level is not scorable. The response is off-topic, blank, hostile, or otherwise not scorable. Unit 16, Human Physiology Systems

Unit Cognitive Objectives Cognitive Practice EOC Level Skill Item Unit 16 L3 E-1-b Analyze no

Each constructed-response formative item in the pool includes: The prompt and task (what the student sees) The scoring criteria—a tool used to score a student response. The scoring criteria provides the teacher with the specific content that students should address at the highest score point. The holistic rubric used to score all student responses to all items. The holistic rubric is used to ultimately decide on the score that each student response receives. Used in conjunction with the scoring criteria, the holistic rubric allows the teacher to consider conceptual understanding and communication, in addition to item-specific content. At lunch, Laura drinks a glass of milk and eats a salad, a grilled cheese sandwich, and an apple. Digestion begins as she chews her food and continues until her body absorbs the food’s nutrients. The digestive, circulatory, and urinary systems work together to break down food into usable fuel and remove waste from the body. ______Using your understanding of human physiological systems, analyze how the digestive, circulatory, and urinary systems work together in Laura’s body following a meal. As part of your answer, be sure to: • Identify the major components of the digestive, circulatory, and urinary systems. • Describe how these 3 organ systems function as they work together to break down food into usable fuel and remove waste from the body. Include in your response a description of: 1. The path food nutrients take, and how they are transported 2. The absorption of nutrients into the body 3. The production and elimination of waste-containing urine Scoring Criteria:

A 4-point response will include, but is not limited to, the following points:

• Identification of the major components of these organ systems:

Digestive system: Mouth, throat (pharynx), esophagus, stomach, liver, pancreas, small intestine, large intestine (colon), (gall bladder)

Circulatory system: Heart, blood vessels (arteries, veins, capillaries), blood, and lymph nodes and vessels

Urinary system: Kidneys, urinary bladder, ureters, and urethra

• Description of how the 3 organ systems function as they work together to digest food and remove wastes:

Digestive system: Chewing action and enzymes in the mouth begin the digestion of food. Then, food travels through the esophagus into the stomach, where gastric juices begin to break down the food into smaller molecules, such as sugars and amino acids. Next, the food molecules pass into the small intestine, which contains digestive enzymes from the pancreas and where digestion continues and most absorption of nutrients into the bloodstream occurs. When the food molecules reach the liver via the bloodstream, the liver converts extra sugar to glycogen for storage. When energy is needed, the liver breaks down stored glycogen. The liver also modifies amino acids and stores fat-soluble vitamins and iron. In addition, the liver converts ammonia to nitrogen waste (urea). Water is reabsorbed by the large intestine, prior to the elimination of solid waste material.

Circulatory system: The circulatory system transports the digested food molecules to other parts of the digestive system and the rest of the body. Amino acids and sugars are absorbed into the lining of the small intestine, which is covered with villi. Amino acids and sugars enter the capillaries in the villi and are carried by the bloodstream to the liver for further metabolism. Fatty acids and glycerol enter lymphatic vessels in the small intestine villi, and then enter the bloodstream as well. The bloodstream carries urea from the liver to the kidneys.

Urinary system: The kidneys filter urea, toxins, water, and mineral salts out of the blood. Useful molecules return to the bloodstream through capillaries, and the ureters carry urine (waste) from the kidneys to the urinary bladder. The urine leaves the body through the urethra. Rubric:

0 A response at this level is not scorable. The response is off-topic, blank, hostile, or otherwise not scorable.